Biology 11 Practice Final Exam

Instructions circle the letter that corresponds to the BEST answer.

1.) A light microscope's usefulness in studying viruses is restricted by

a.) the size of the oculars. c.) its image.
b.) the size of the objective. d.) its limit of resolution.
2.) the lens at the top of the microscope tube is called the
a.) diaphragm. c.) objective
b.) ocular. d.) course adjustment.

3. In the diagram below the arrow is pointing at what structure?

A) the Stage C) the Diaphragm

B) the Base D) the Revolving Nose Piece

4. If a microscope is set up so that the total power of magnification is 400 X, and the ocular lens has a

power of 10X, what must the power of the objective lens be?

A) 4000 X C) 500 X

B) 40 X D) 4 X

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 5. If the specimen in the image below is being viewed under high power and the field of view is 450 um

(micrometers) what is the approximate width of the specimen?

1.

2.

A) 1000 um C) 630 um

B) 1650 um D) 110 um

6. All organisms must

a.) take in food. c.) use energy.
b.) reproduce. d.) maintain a steady temperature.
7. The line between life and nonlife becomes blurred in trying to describe
a.) bacteria. c.) snowballs.
b.) viruses. d.) trees (wood).

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8. Which scientist helped disprove the "Theory of Spontaneous Generation" by proving that rotten meat

could not transform into maggots?

A) Redi C) Needham

B) Spallanzani D) Pasteur

9. What is another name for the "Theory of Spontaneous Generation"?

A) Abiogenesis C) Cell Theory

B) Biogenesis D) Homeostatic Evolution

10. All organisms that consist of a single cell are

a.) multicellular. c.) plants.
b.) unicellular. d.) animals.

11.Two cells from different individuals unite to produce the first cells of a new organism by

a.) rapid growth. c.) asexual reproduction.

b.) slow development. d.) sexual reproduction.

12. Plants, unlike animals, carry on

a.) digestion. c.) catabolism.
b.) photosynthesis. d.) anabolism.
13. An organism's ability to maintain STABLE conditions necessary for life is called
a.) metabolism. c.) growth spurt.
b.) synthesis. d.) homeostasis.
14. Which of the following played the biggest role in explaining basic genetics?
a.) Darwin c.) Pasteur
b.) Lamark d.) Mendel

15. Which of the following is NOT a major driving force of Evolution?

a.) Mutation c.) Natural Selection

b.) Genetic Equilibrium d.) Genetic Drift

16. Normal genetic DNA is found in which part of a cell?

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A) #1 C) #3
B) #2 D) #4

17 A DNA Nucleotide consists of each of the following basic parts except a

a.) 5-carbon sugar. c.) phosphate group.

b.) 6-carbon starch. d.) nitrogenous base.

18.) After DNA replication, the two DNA molecules that are made

a.) are complimentary. c.) are identical

b.) consist of RNA instead d.) cannot replicate again.

19.) Bacteriophages are

a.) tiny bacteria. c.) coils of ribonucleic acid.

b.) bacteria of the same type. d.) viruses that attack bacteria

20.) Amino acids are used to produce

a.) Proteins c.) Vitamins

b.) Carbohydrates d.) Fats

21.) The two strands of a DNA within a single DNA molecule are

a.) purines. c.) complementary.

b.) pyrimidines. d.) identical.

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22.) Which of the following statements is NOT part of the "Cell Theory"?

a.) A cell is the smallest unit of life

b.) Cells can only come from pre-existing cells

c.) All life forms consist of one or more cells

d.) All types of cells have the ability to undergo meiosis

23.) Which is the best example of CONVERGENT Evolution?

a.) A Shark and a Dolphin

b.) A Crow and a Raven

c) A Cactus and a Moss

d) A Horse and Donkey

24.) When a specific molecule of DNA is analyzed, it is found that 20% of the bases are Adenine,
therefore, which statement below must be true.

a.) 30% of the bases must be Cytosine

b) 30 % of the bases must be Thymine

c) 20 % of the bases must be Guanine

d) none of the above statements is accurate

25.) Before a cell divides, it must duplicate its DNA in a process known as

a.) translation. b.) replication. c.) transformation. d.) transcription.

26.) In DNA - Cytosine and Guanine

a.) are joined by two weak hydrogen bonds. c.) are joined by ionic bonds.

b.) alternately bond with a sugar. d.) are joined by three weak hydrogen bonds

27.) If one strand of DNA has the nitrogenous base sequence ATCGT, the sequence of bases on the
other complementary strand is:

a.) ATCGT. b.) TAGCA. c.) AUCGU. d.) UAGCA.

28.) The part of a microscope that helps regulate/adjust how much light comes through the slide:

a.) Stage b.) Arm c.) Diaphragm d.) Base

29.) The double ringed nitrogenous bases found in DNA are called

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 a.) Purines c.) Pyrimidines

b.) Riboses d.) Deoxyriboses

30.) Which best describes the shape of DNA?

A) An alpha helix C) A double helix

B) A triple helix D) A spindle

31.) If an organism has 24 chromosomes in each diploid body cell, its haploid (1N) cells will contain

a.) 6. b.) 12. c.) 24. d.) 48.

32.) To maintain the chromosome number of an organism, the gametes must

a.) become diploid. c.) be produced by mitosis.

b.) become recessive. d.) be produced by meiosis

33.) When it comes to number of chromosomes, which term is least closely related to the others?

a.) gamete. b.) zygote. c.) egg. d.) sperm.

34.) The long, slow process of change in a species over time is

a.) fitness. c.) punctuated equilibrium

c.) adaptation. d.) evolution.

35.) A Punnett square is used to determine the

A) probable outcome of a cross C) chances of natural selection occuring

B) the chance of a mutation forming D) results of a mutation

36. Which of the following DOES NOT provide evidence that supports the theory of evolution?
A) Vestigial Organs C) Biogeographical Evidence

B) Fossil Record D) Homologous Structures

E) All of the above provide support

37. Another name for Darwin's Theory of Natural Selection is

A) Survival of the Fittest C) Spontaneous Generation

B) Inheritance of Acquired Characteristics D) Cell Theory

38.) the preserved remains of ancient organisms are called

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 a.) imprints. c.) fossils.

b.) impressions. d.) petrified structures.

39.) The long necks and legs of a giraffe are examples of

a.) homologies. c.) diversities.

b.) adaptations. d.) environmental changes.

40.) An example of a group of homologous structures is

a.) arms, paws, tails. c.) arms, bird wings, and seal flippers.

b.) butterfly wings and bird wings d.) flippers, hoofs, beaks.

41. The human appendix is an example of a(n)

a.) homologous structure. c.) vestigial organ.

b.) essential organ. d.) embryonic structure.

42.) Which of the following is NOT a structural adaptation?

A) needles on a cactus C) a turtle's shell

B) toxins produced by a venomous snake D) webbed feet of a duck

43.) The fossil record indicates that several times in the past, huge numbers of species have
disappeared suddenly in a phenomenon known as

a.) speciation. c.) convergent evolution.

b.) divergent evolution. d.) mass extinction.

44.) Evolution does not occur unless something upsets a population's

a.) genotype. c.) genetic equilibrium.

b.) phenotype. d.) camouflage.

45.) Divergent evolution is most closely related to..

a.) adaptive radiation. c.) genetic recombination.

b.) genetic equilibrium d.) survival of the fittest.

46. The graph below, represents

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 A) Stabilizing Selection C) Directional Selection
B) Disruptive Selection D) None of responses are correct

47.) The controversial theory proposed to explain gaps in the fossil record as illustrated below is known
as

a.) gradualism. c.) natural selection.

b.) punctuated equilibrium d.) inheritance of acquired traits.

48.) The success of an organism in passing on its genes is a definition of

a.) fitness. c.) adaptation.

b.) speciation. d.) radiation.

49.) The combination of an organism's habitat and its role in that habitat is called a

a.) population. c.) gene pool

b.) fitness. d) niche.

50.) The evolution of one-hump and two-hump camels is probably the result of

a.) convergent evolution. c.) divergent evolution.

c.) genetic drift. d.) adaptation.

51.) The evolution giving rise to the diversity of Darwin's finches is an example of

a.) genetic equilibrium. c.) convergent evolution

b.) artificial selection. d.) adaptive radiation

52. The diagram illustrates what is known as

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 A) Evolutionary Dichotomous Key C) Disruptive Divergent Tree
B) Gradualism Niche Key D) Phylogenetic Tree

53. Allow "T" to represent the dominant allele for "tall pea plant height" and "t" to represent the
recessive allele for "short pea plant height". What will best describe the result when a
heterozygous tall pea plant crosses with a short pea plant?

A) 50 % of the offspring will be short while the other 50% will be tall
B) 25% of the offspring will be tall while the other 75% will be short
C) 67% of the offspring will be short while the other 33 % will be tall
D) 75% of the offspring will be tall while the other 25% will be short

54. What best represents the "GENOTYPE" of a heterozygous tall pea plant?
A) TALL C) "tt"
B) "Tt" D) "TT"

55) The scientific name for humans is most properly written as..

a.) Homo Sapiens. c.) Homo sapiens.

b.) homo Sapiens. d.) Homo Sapiens.

56.) The smallest (most specific) taxon is

a.) kingdom. c.) order.

b.) phylum. d.) species.

57) Unlike a plant, a plant-like protist

a.) is unicellular. c.) uses mitochondria.

b.) has a prokaryotic cell d.) contains chloroplasts

58.) A multicellular eukaryotic organism that lacks a cell wall is.

a.) a plant. b.) an animal. c.) a fungus. d.) a protist.

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 59.) The double-naming system introduced by Linnaeus is

a.) based solely on Greek names. c.) known as binomial nomenclature.

b.) not used for microorganisms. d.) used only for eukaryotes.

60.) Within a phylum, the next level (first) of taxonomic category is known as

a.) a kingdom b.) an order c.) a class. d.) a family.

61.) Solely from its name, you know that Rhizopus niqricans must be

a.) a plant c.) in the species niqricans.

b.) an animal. d.) in the family Rhizopus.

62.) If a one-celled autotrophic organism contains membrane-enclosed organelles, it must be a(n)

a.) protist b.) plant-like protist c.) animal-like protist. d.) fungus-like protist.

63.) From fossil evidence, scientists believe that the earliest life forms on Earth were

a.) eukaryotes. b.) prokaryotes. c.) animals. d.) plants.

64) An organism that lacks both a mitochondria and a nucleus, and primarily uses binary fission for
reproduction must belong to KINGDOM

a.) MONERA b.) FUNGI c.) ANIMALIA. d.) PLANTAE

65. Which of the following is caused by a VIRUS?

A) Red Tide C) Whooping Cough

B) Elephantiasis D) Influenza

66. The genetic information in a RETROVIRUS is copied from what to what after it enters a host cell?

A) DNA RNA C) DNA DNA

B) RNA DNA D) RNA RNA

67. The table below is commonly used by biologist in species identification, what is this type of
Identification Table called?

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 A) A Binomial Nomenclature Table C) A Resolving ID Table
B) A Phylogenetic Tree D) A Dichotomous Key

68. What best describes the composition of the specimen below?

A) It consist of a nucleic acid with a protein capsid

B) It consists of a fatty cholesterol membrane and DNA
C) It consists of a cuticle and a nucleic acid.
D) It is a prokaryotic cell

69. A "prophage" can exist in a host cell for a period of time in what phase?

A) Binary fision C) A lytic cycle

B) A lysogenic cycle D) An endospore

70. The virus below has what shape?

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 A) Complex C) Helical
B) Polyhedral D) Spirilla

71. The diagram below illustrates what is known as.

A) The lysogenic cycle C) A lytic cycle

B) A temperate phage D) Binary fission

72 An injection of a weakened (deactivated) virus into a host animal/human in an effort to stimulate the
immune system to build up immunity to the virus or bacteria is an example of

A) An antibiotic C) Interferon

B) A antibody D) A vaccine

73. A structure that forms when a bacterium produces a thick internal wall that encloses its DNA and part
of its cytoplasm is called a (an)..

A) Capsid C) Endospore

B) Proglottid D) Prophage

74. The diagram below represents

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 A) A Prokaryotic Cell C) A Eukaryotic Cell
B) A Virus D) A Protist

75. The shape of the organism above is best described as

A) coccal C) oblongi

B) spirillum D) bacilus

76. Cells that can only carry out energy producing reactions in the ABSENCE of oxygen are known as..

A) Obligate Anaerobes C) Facultative Anaerobes

B) Obligate Aerobes D) Facultative Aerobes

77. A unique characteristic of Cyanobacteria is that

A) they are pathogenic C) they are heterotrophic

B) they are parasitic D) they are autotrophic

78 Substances/medications that can be taken into the body to kill bacteria

A) Vaccines C) Pathogenics

B) Antibiotics D) Disinfectants

79. The most ancient of bacteria that live in oxygen-free, extremely harsh environments such as very salty,
very acidic, extremely hot environments are termed

A) Eubacteria C) Cyanobacteria

B) Archaebacteria D) Prochlorobacteria

80. The proper classification for bacteria that can use sunlight for energy and to build organic compounds
for nutrition is

A) Phototrophic autotrophs C) Phototrophic heterotrophs

B) Chemotrophic autotrophs D) Chemotrophic heterotrophs

81. The bacteria shown in the image below would best be described as

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 A) Staphylococcal C) Streptobacillus
B) Staphylobacillus D) Streptococcal

82. An ecological benefit associated with many bacteria, is their ability to convert nitrogen in the
atmosphere into a useable form for plants. This process is called

A) Nitrogen Fixation C) Denitrification

B) Autotrophic Nitration D) Nitrification

83. Any bacteria that exhibit the following characteristics:

- Thin cell wall - Absorb Safranine Stain during Gram staining - Appear pink after Gram Staining

A) Gram Positive Bacteria C) Methanogenic Bacteria

B) Gram Negative Bacteria D) Gram Neutral Bacteria

84. The diagram below illustrate a process best described as.

A) Asexual reproduction in bacteria called conjugation

B) Sexual reproduction in bacteria called binary fission
C) Sexual reproduction in bacteria called conjugation
D) Asexual reproduction in bacteria called binary fission

85. What best describes KINGDOM PROTISTA members?

A) Multicellular eukaryotic heterotrophs that lack a cell wall

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B) Unicellular eukaryotic heterotrophs

C) Multicellular prokaryotes

D) Unicellular eukaryotes

86. Which of the following is a phylum of heterotrophic Protists?

A) Euglenophyta C) Porifera

B) Pyrrophyta D) Sarcodina

Use the diagram below to answer the next three questions:

87. The organism above is a heterotrophic Protist. Which phylum does it belong to?

A) Ciliophora C) Sarcodina

B) Euglenophyta D) Zoomastigina

88. The structure that arrow #1 is pointing to, is called

A) a contractile vacuole C) a macronucleus

B) the oral groove D) a pellicle

89. The structure that arrow #2 is pointing to, is called..

A) the trichocyst C) the pellicle

B) the endoplasm D) the oral groove

90. Which of the following phyla would contain Fungus-Like Protists?

A) Chrysophyta C) Sporozoa

B) Myxomycota D) Bryophyta

91. Which best describes the "Endosymbiont Hypothesis"?

A) Prokaryotes once lived within eukaryotes as endosymbionts

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B) Prokaryotes once lived within another moneran as endosymbionts

C) Eukaryotes once lived within prokaryotes as endosymbionts

D) Eukaryotes once lived within another moneran as endosymbionts

92.The phylum where all non-mobile animal-like protists belong?

A) Sarcodina C) Zoomastigina

B) Sporozoa D) Ciliophora

Use the diagram below to answer the next two questions:

93. The animal-like protist above belongs to which phylum?

A) Ciliophora C) Zoomastigina

B) Myxomycota D) Sarcodina

94. The arrow is pointing at a cellular extension termed

A) a pellicle C) a pseudopod

B) a parapodium D) a phagocytic vacuole

95. Which response below best describes an animal-like protist called Plasmodium vivax?

A) It is a Zoomastiginan that causes Beaver Fever

B) It is a Sporozoite carried by the anopheles mosquito that causes malaria

C) It is a Pyrrophyte that is responsible for Red Tide

D) It is a Sarcodinan that causes Amoebic Dysentery

96. Members of phylum Pyrrophyta will include

A) Dinoflaggellates C) Diatoms

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B) Sporozoites D) Red Algae

97. The phylum Acrasiomycetes includes the

A) Dinoflagellates C) Cellular Slime Molds

B) Diatoms D) Acellular Slime Molds

98.Waste material leaves the body of a paramecium through the

A) Anal Pore C) Contractile Vacuole

B) Oral Groove D) Pellicle

Use the diagram below to answer the next two questions:

99. What best describes the organism above?

A) Giardia belonging to Zoomastigina

B) A dinoflagellate belonging to Sarcodina

C) A euglena belonging to Euglenophyta

D) Plasmodium vivax belonging to Acrasiomycota

100. In the absence of sunlight, the organism above can live as a (an)..

A) heterotroph C) parasite

B) autotroph D) virus

101. Which is NOT a characteristic of "African Sleeping Sickness"?

A) It attacks the muscular and nervous systems of the victim

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B) It is causes by a trypanosome
C) It is carried by the Anopholes mosquito
D) Its symptoms include chills, fever, skin rash and lethargy (lack of energy)
102. The term that is LEAST closely related to the other terms?
A) Cilia C) Plasmodium
B) Flagella D) Pseudopod
103. The wide range of colours in algae depends upon the presence of
A) Chlorophyll A and B C) Chlorophyll A and D
B) Chlorophyll A and C D) Accessory Pigments
104. As blue wavelengths of light are transmitted into water deeper than other colours of
the visible spectrum, algae from which phyla contain the pigments that can best absorb
blue light. These algae are therefore found in the deepest depths of the ocean.
A) Rhodophyta C) Chlorophyta
B) Phaeophyta D) Cyanophyta
105. Based off of the main types of pigments they possess as well as the primary way they
store their products of photosynthesis as starch, all simple and more advanced terrestrial
plants are most closely related to which algal phylum?
A) Rhodophyta C) Chlorophyta
B) Phaeophyta D) Chrysophyta

106. What alga is shown below and what morphology (form) does it represent?

A) Chlamydomonas with colonial morphology

B) Macroscopic Ulva with multicellular morphology
C) Chlamydomonas with unicellular morphology
D) Spirogyra with multicellular filamentous morphology
E) Volvox with colonial morphology
Use the diagram below to answer the next two questions:

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107. The picture above represents which of the following?
A) An alga called Spirogyra belonging to Chlorophyta
B) An alga called Fucus belonging to Phaeophyta
C) An alga called Volvox belonging to Chlorophyta
D) An alga called Chlamydomonas belonging to Phaeophyta
108. The dark circular structures that the two arrows are pointing at are
A) Nuclei that store the DNA
B) Zygospores that remain dormant until more favourable conditions arise.
C) Conjugation sori
D) Pyrenoids that store starch
109. Which of the following statements is NOT true of Asexual Reproduction?
A) It enables organisms to make identical copies (clones) of itself
B) It requires only one individual
C) It usually happens fairly quickly
D) It increases genetic diversity
110. The structures of Bryophytes which penetrate the ground for anchorage and
absorption of water are referred to as
A) Rhizoids C) Rhizomes
B) True Roots D) Protonema
111. In the alternation of generations seen in Moss, the dominant (most abundant) stage of
the plant is called the..
A) Haploid Gametophyte generation
B) Haploid Sporophyte generation
C) Diploid Gametophyte generation
D) Diploid Sporophyte generation
Use the diagram below to answer the next two questions:

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 X

112. In the above diagram the structure that produces and houses the "egg" is called the
A) Antheridium C) Archegonium
B) Pistil D) Sporangium
113. Inside the "capsule" (see structure "X"), what type of cell division is occurring to help
produce the haploid spores?
A) Fertilization C) Binary Fission
B) Mitosis D) Meiosis
114. Which of the following is NOT found in Mosses?
A) Flagellated sperm C) Diploid sporophyte
B) Waxy cuticle D) Chlorophyll A and B
115. What taxonomic descriptions below best describes FERNS?
A) Vascular Bryophytes C) Tracheophytes belonging to subphylum
Spermopsida
B) Non-vascular Tracheophytes D) Tracheophytes belonging to subphylum
Pteridophyta
116. Which of the following is an advancement that Ferns have over Moss?
A) a waxy cuticle on the sporophyte C) non-flagellated sperm
B) a dominant gametophyte generation D) production of a seed

Use the following diagram to answer the next two questions:

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 F
117. In the above diagram structure "B" represents .
A) a protonema C) a pistil
B) a prothallium D) a stamen
118. Which letter in the above diagram would represent a "Fiddle Head"?

A) A C) E
B) C D) F
119. Which of the following vascular tissues is responsible for shipping around water with
dissolved minerals throughout the plant?
A) Phloem C) Guard Cells
B) Xylem D) Cuticle
120. Which of the following is NOT a GYMNOSPERM?
A) Cycads C) Ginkos
B) Conifers D) Monocots
121. The lengthening of a shoot or root is known as
A) Primary growth C) Tertiary growth
B) Secondary growth D) Cambium growth
122. Which best describes "Double Fertilization" that gives rise to a SEED?
A) A haploid sperm unites with a haploid polar cell to form a diploid endosperm, while
another haploid sperm unites with a diploid egg to form a triploid zygote
B) A diploid sperm unites with a haploid polar cell to form a triploid endosperm, while
another haploid sperm unites with a haploid egg to form a diploid zygote
C) A haploid sperm unites with a haploid polar cell to form a diploid endosperm, while
another diploid sperm unites with a haploid egg to form a triploid zygote
D) A haploid sperm unites with a diploid polar cell to form a triploid endosperm, while
another haploid sperm unites with a haploid egg to form a diploid zygote
123. In the diagrams below, what type of CONIFER is being represented?

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 A) A spruce tree C) a cedar tree
B) A pine tree D) a fir tree
124. Approximately how old is the tree below?

1.

2.

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 A) 20 years old C) 10 years old
B) 5 years old D) rings cannot be used to determine the age of a
tree
125. Unlike a "monocot", a dicot
A) has two cotyledons C) produces flowers
B) produces seeds D) has parallel veins in its leaves
126. Which of the following is NOT part of a typical LEAF?
A) Cotyledons C) Spongy Mesophyll
B) Cuticle D) Palisade Mesophyll
E) All of the above are parts of a leaf
127. Which cells primarily function to regulate the movement of water and gases out of a
leaf.
A) Guard Cells C) Apical Meristem
B) Spongy mesophyll D) Phloem cells

Use the diagram below to answer the next three questions:

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 A E

B F

G
C
H

I
D
J

128. Which structure represents the STIGMA?

A) A C) C
B) B D) D
E) E
129. Where is POLLEN produced and then dispersed from?
A) D C) I
B) B D) F
130. Structure "J" is .
A) an anther C) a sepal
B) a stigma D) a pistil
E) a petal
131. The flower shown above normally has a total of 5 Petals, what description below best
describes this type of flower?
A) It is a complete flower belonging to a dicot
B) It is a complete flower belonging to a monocot
C) It is an incomplete flower belonging to a dicot
D) It is an incomplete flower belonging to a monocot.
132. Roots carry out each of the following functions except
A) taking in carbon dioxide C) anchoring the plant
B) absorbing water from the soil D) absorbing dissolved minerals

133. The diagram below, best illustrates what?

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 A) The arrangement of vascular tissues in the root of a monocot
B) The arrangement of vascular tissues in the root of a dicot
C) The arrangement of vascular tissues in the stem of a monocot
D) The arrangement of vascular tissues in the stem of a dicot
134. The diagram below represents what?

A) The arrangement of vascular tissues in the root of a monocot

B) The arrangement of vascular tissues in the root of a dicot
C) The arrangement of vascular tissues in the stem of a monocot
D) The arrangement of vascular tissues in the stem of a dicot
135. Which of the following would not be called a fruit by a scientist?
A) Pumpkin C) Bean
B) Tomato D) Carrot
136. The "Naked Seed Plants" are the
A) Monocots C) Pteridophytes
B) Dicots D) Angiosperms
E) Gymnosperms

137. Water rises from the roots to the top of a tree primarily due to
A) Root Pressure C) Guard cell pumps
B) Transpiration and the cohesion of water D) Osmosis

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138. When a seed sprouts, the proper term for this process is
A) Pollination C) Dormancy
B) Fertilization D) Germination
139. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic common to members belonging to
Kingdom Animalia?
A) Prokaryotic Cells C) Heterotrophic
B) Multicellular D) Cells that lack a cell wall
140. Which of the organisms below exhibits CEPHALIZATION?
A) Sea Sponge C) Planaria
B) Sea Anemone D) Hydra
141. Which of the following organisms exhibits SEGMENTATION?
A) a Planarian C) a Jelly Fish
B) a Marine Worm D) an Ascarid
Use the diagram below to answer the next two questions:

B
C
D
E

142. Which letter above represents the OSCULUM?

A) A C) D
B) C D) E
143. What is the correct scientific name for the cell that the letter "B" is pointing to?
A) Cnidocyte C) Choanocyte
B) Porocyte D) Pinacocyte
144. Which of the following is NOT a CNIDARIAN?
A) Obelia C) Coral
B) Planaria D) Sea Anemone

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145. The organism below is best described as having

A) a polypoid body form with radial symmetry C) a polypoid body form with
bilateral symmetry
B) a medusoid body form with bilateral symmetry D) a medusoid body form with radial
symmetry
146. Which phylum below is the FIRST phylum to exhibit a complete gut?
A) Cnidaria C) Nematoda
B) Porifera D) Platyhelminthes
147. Which term is NOT associated with a Jelly Fish?
A) Mesoderm C) Gastroderm
B) Ectoderm D) Mesoglea
148. The picture below illustrates

A) A Proglottid C) A Clitellum
B) A Parapodium D) A Scolex

Use the diagram below to answer the next two questions:

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149. Which advancement below is NOT credited to the organism above?
A) First to exhibit cephalization C) First to exhibit bilateral symmetry
B) First to exhibit true tissues D) First to exhibit mesoderm
150. Which statement below accurately describes the organism above?
A) a parasitic flatworm belonging to class Cestoda
B) a free-living flatworm belonging to class Turbellaria
C) a free-living flatworm with a complete gut
D) a parasitic roundworm with ocelli
151. A true body cavity (coelom) that is completely lined with mesoderm, first shows up
in
A) Platyhelminthes C) Platyhelminthes
B) Annelida D) Cnidaria
152. The structures used by an EARTHWORM to help the organism get rid of cellular
(metabolic) wastes.
A) Nephridia C) Malpighian Tubules
B) Clitellum D) Green Glands
153. Which best describes the structures that food would encounter on its way through the
digestive tract of an Earthworm?
A) Mouth Esophagus Pharynx Crop Gizzard Intestine
B) Mouth Pharynx Esophagus Gizzard Crop Intestine
C) Mouth Esophagus Pharynx Gizzard Crop Intestine
D) Mouth Pharynx Esophagus Crop Gizzard Intestine
154. Which of the following structures would be part of an Earthworm's circulatory system?
A) Aortic Arches C) Clitellum
B) Nephridia D) Setae

Use the diagram below to answer the next question:

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155. In the diagram above, the arrow is pointing to triangular bulges extending laterally off
the side of the head, these structures are known as
A) Ocelli C) Nephridia
B) Ganglia D) Auricles
156. Animals that form the mouth first and the anus last when undergoing a process called
gastrulation are classified as
A) Hermaphroditic
B) Protostomes
C) Deuterostomes
D) Triploblastic
E) Coelomates
157. The members of ASCHELMINTHES possess.
A) a coelom
B) no coelom
C) an incomplete gut
D) a pseudocoelom
158. Match the description below:
A worm which encysts itself in muscle tissue causing pain, muscle weakness. It is usually
transmitted from pigs to humans, when pork is improperly cooked.
A) Ascaris worm
B) Liver fluke
C) Trichina worm
D) Guinea worm

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 159. The removal of metabolic (cellular) waste products is accomplished in a CRAYFISH
via
A) nephridia C) uropods
B) the ganglia D) mandibles
E) green glands
160. Often a parasite will use more than one host to complete its life cycle. What name is
given to the host in which the parasite larvae clone themselves, but in which they will NOT
reach sexual maturity?
A) Primary Host C) Intermediate Host
B) Secondary Host D) Virulent Host
161. Which statement is a true statement accurate in regards to the Asacaris worm that
was dissected?
A) Males are much larger than females
B) Females possess a hook-shaped posterior end
C) Ascarids exhibit both cephalization and segmentation
D) The only prominent internal structures that were identifiable were sex organs and an
intestine

162. In the picture above, the arrow is pointing at what structure?

A) The gastric mill
B) A nephridium
C) The ventral nerve cord
D) The brain
E) The clitellum

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163. In the diagram below, which LETTER represents the anatomical direction termed
"ANTERIOR"?

A C

B
A) A C) C
B) B D) D

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