Professional Documents
Culture Documents
Paper-II
5. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I (carcinoma) List-II (characteristic)
A. Seminoma testis 1. Hormone dependent
B. Carcinoma prostrate 2. Does not spread by lymphatics
C. Basal cell carcinoma 3. Prognosis depends on thickness
D. Malignant melanoma 4. Highly radiosensitive
Code:
A B C D
(a) 4 1 2 3
(b) 4 2 1 3
(c) 3 1 2 4
(d) 3 2 1 4
6. Tumours of anterior mediasternum include the following except:
(a) Thymoma
(b) Lymphoma
(c) Germ cell tumour
(d) Schwannoma
9. A patient has recurrent abdominal pain and jaundice. The blood investigations
reveal reticulocytosis and hyperbilirubinemia. What is the clinical diagnosis?
(a) Hereditary spherocytosis
(b) Mirizzis syndrome
(c) Choledochal cyst
(d) Sclerosing cholangitis
11. The following conditions are associated with high incidence of pigment
gallstones except:
(a) Cirrhosis
(b) Ileal disease
(c) Thalassemia
(d) Prosthetic heart valve
12. The most common route of spread in a case of pyogenic liver abscess is:
(a) Haematogenous through portal vein
(b) Ascending infection through biliary duct
(c) Hepatic artery
(d) Local spread
14. The commonest major surgical complication following whipple procedure is:
(a) Disruption of pancreatic anastomosis
(b) Biliary peritonitis
(c) Disruption of gastric anastomosis
(d) GI bleeding
15. A 60 year old male presents with bleeding p/r. Proctoscopy reveals 2nd degree
haemorrhoids. The treatment of choice is:
(a) Cryotherapy
(b) Sclerotherapy
(c) Banding
(d) Surgery
19. The prognosis in reduced or unreduced fractures involving epiphyseal plate is very
poor if the fracture line:
(a) Runs along the epiphyseal plate
(b) Extends into epiphysis
(c) Crushes the epiphyseal plate
(d) Crosses the epiphyseal plate
20. A 30 year old man met with an accident and presented with multiple fractures of
ribs and paradoxical movement with severe respiratory distress. X-ray shows
pulmonary contusion on right side without pneumothorax or haemothorax. Which
one of the following is the initial choice of treatment?
(a) Immediate internal fixation
(b) Endotracheal intubation and mechanical ventilation
(c) Thoracic epidural analgesia and O2 therapy
(d) Stabilization with towel clips
29. The most common site for nosocomial (hospital acquired) infection is:
(a) Respiratory tract
(b) Urinary tract
(c) Surgical site
(d) Blood stream
30. A patient has carcinoid tumour of appendix of size more than 2.5 cm. The
management of choice is:
(a) Appendecectomy
(b) Appendecectomy and 24 hour urinary HIAA
(c) Appendecectomy and abdominal CT scan
(d) Right hemicolectomy
32. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I (drug) List-II (complications)
A. Cisplatinum 1. Haemorrhagic cystitis
B. Adriamycin 2. Pulmonary fibrosis
C. Bleomycin 3. Cardiomyopathy
D. Cyclophosphamide 4. Tubular necrosis
Code:
A B C D
(a) 3 4 2 1
(b) 4 3 1 2
(c) 3 4 1 2
(d) 4 3 2 1
(a) 2 and 3
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 2 only
(d) 3 only
34. A 30 year old lady sustained chest injury in an accident and presented with
massive haemothorax on right side. Tube thoracostomy drained 1800 ml of blood.
What is the most appropriate treatment?
(a) Correction of hypovolemic shock
(b) Put one more chest tube
(c) Clamp the chest tube to cause the tamponade
(d) Resuscitation and prepare for urgent thoracotomy
36. Regarding haemorrhagic shock, which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) Clinically manifested when > 10% of loss of total blood volume occurs
(b) Tachycardia presents in 100% of hypovolemic patients
(c) Loss of 40% of circulating volume is life threatening
(d) In acute stage of shock, systemic vasodilation becomes evident
38. Which one of the following structures is not removed during a classical radical
neck dissection?
(a) Trapezius
(b) Sternocleidomastoid
(c) Internal jugular vein
(d) Accessory nerve
39. Mousseau-Barbin Tube (M.B.Tube) is used for:
(a) Advance cancer stomach
(b) Advance cancer oesophagus
(c) Advance cancer oropharynx
(d) All of these
40. Which one of the following is the investigation of choice in a patient with
haematemesis?
(a) Flexible upper gastrointestinal endoscopy
(b) Barium meal for stomach and duodenum
(c) Contrast enhanced CT scan
(d) Selective left gastric angiography
41. The two important values necessary for describing the variation in a series of
observations are:
(a) Mean and standard deviation
(b) Mean and range
(c) Median and range
(d) Median and standard deviation
42. The time period between entry of infective agent in a host and maximal
infectivity of that host is:
(a) Incubation period
(b) Serial interval
(c) Generation time
(d) Period of communicability
Code:
A B C D
(a) 4 3 1 2
(b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 3 4 1 2
(d) 3 4 2 1
52. The most sensitive indicator of the health status of a community is the:
(a) Crude death rate
(b) Maternal mortality rate
(c) Infant mortality rate
(d) Child mortality rate
54. A rapid mass screening method that can be employed by a paramedical worker for
detecting malnutrition in pre-school (age: 1 to 5 years) children is:
(a) Weight for age
(b) Height for age
(c) Mid-arm circumference
(d) Body Mass Index
56. The immunoglobulins that can be transported across the placenta include:
(a) IgG only
(b) IgA only
(c) Both IgG and IgA
(d) Neither IgG nor IgA
57. Consider the following statements:
1. The duration of immunity is longer when live vaccine is administered as
compared to the administration of killed vaccine.
2. In the case of killed vaccine, single dose is sufficient whereas multiple doses
are always required in the case of live vaccines.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
58. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given
below the lists:
Code:
A B C D
(a) 3 4 1 2
(b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 4 3 1 2
(d) 3 4 2 1
59. Throat swab positive and Schick test negative indicate that the person is:
(a) Suffering from diphtheria
(b) Susceptible to diphtheria
(c) Hypersensitive to diphtheria
(d) Immune to diphtheria
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 2, 3 and 4
62. With reference to the Revised National Tuberculosis Control Programme, consider the
following statements:
1. Active case finding is pursued under this Programme.
2. Microscopy centres are established in the districts for every one lakh
population and in hilly and tribal areas for every 50,000 population.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
63. Districts are classified into different categories regarding neonatal tetanus risk.
Which one of the following correctly describes Neonatal Tetanus Elimination
status?
(a) Incidence rate more than 2/1000 births, two doses of TT vaccine
coverage less than 70%, attended deliveries between 60% and 70%
(b) Incidence rate between 1 to 2/1000 births, three doses of TT vaccine
coverage 70%, attended deliveries more than 75%
(c) Incidence rate 0.5 to 1/1000 births, three doses of TT vaccine coverage
between 70% and 80%, attended deliveries between 65% and 70%
(d) Incidence rate less than 0.1/1000 births, two doses of TT vaccine
coverage more than 90%, attended deliveries more than 75%
64. Influenza vaccine is recommended for:
1. Elderly
2. Persons with underlying chronic diseases
3. HIV infected
4. General population
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
69. For adolescents, what is the weekly iron and folic acid supplementation dose?
(a) 60 mg elemental iron and 400 microgram folic acid
(b) 100 mg elemental iron and 500 microgram folic acid
(c) 120 mg elemental iron and 400 microgram folic acid
(d) 150 mg elemental iron and 500 microgram folic acid
70. Which of the following statements is/are true about proportional case rate of
malaria?
1. This indicator is used since morbidity rate is difficult to determine
2. This is defined as the number of cases of malaria for every 100
patients seen in hospital OPDs
3. It is a crude index since cases are not related to their time and space
distribution
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
73. Which of the following statements is true about direct age standardization?
(a) Standardized mortality ratio is used
(b) A standard population is used
(c) Age specific death rates are not known
(d) Number of people in each age group is not known
74. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given
below the lists:
A B C D
(a) 2 1 3 4
(b) 2 1 4 3
(c) 1 2 4 3
(d) 1 2 3 4
75. With reference to International Certificate of Vaccination for Yellow Fever, the
validity of the certificate begins how many days after the vaccination?
(a) 5 days
(b) 10 days
(c) 14 days
(d) 20 days
81. A 35 year old nulliparous woman complains of menorrhagia and mass per abdomen.
On examination, the positive findings are: she is anaemic, has a pelvic mass of 16-18
weeks size, firm in consistency which moves with the movement of cervix. What is the
most likely clinical diagnosis?
(a) Leiomyoma
(b) Adenomyosis
(c) Endometrial carcinoma
(d) Ovarian tumour
86. Active management of 3rd stage of labour includes the following except:
(a) Injection oxytocin 10 IU intramuscularly
(b) Controlled cord traction
(c) Uterine massage
(d) Injection oxytocin 10 IU intravenously
87. Regarding hypertensive disorders of pregnancy, the following are true except:
(a) Significant proteinuria is more than/equal to 0.3 g/24hr
(b) Eclampsia may present in the absence of hypertension
(c) A protein:creatinine ratio more than 30 mg/mmol is considered significant
(d) Urinary dipstick result of +1 is equivalent to urinary protein concentration of
300 mg/dl
88. Which of the following is not a characteristic of Mayer Rokitansky Kuster Hauser
syndrome?
(a) Cardiac anomalies
(b) Mullerian duct aplasia
(c) Renal abnormalities
(d) Skeletal abnormalities
89. Which one of the following is not a contraindication for prescribing combined oral
contraceptive pills?
(a) Thromboembolic disease
(b) Viral hepatitis
(c) Rheumatic heart disease
(d) Pelvic inflammatory disease
90. The following are used in the staging of carcinoma of the cervix except:
(a) Pelvic lymph node involvement
(b) Vaginal involvement
(c) Hydroureter
(d) Parametrial involvement
92. A 58 year old woman, post menopausal for last 8 years comes with history of spotting
per vaginum. What is the most likely cause?
(a) Endometrial hyperplasia
(b) Endometrial carcinoma
(c) Atrophic endometritis
(d) Estrogen replacement therapy
96. Which of the following suture materials has the least tissue reaction?
(a) Cotton / Linen
(b) Stainless steel
(c) Chromic catgut
(d) Silk
98. Which one of the following conditions simulates the menstrual pattern of pain?
(a) Intramural fibroid
(b) Adenomyosis
(c) Haematometra
(d) Granulosa cell tumour of ovary
99. Which of the undermentioned conditions does not cause postmenopausal vaginal
bleeding?
(a) Benign cystic teratoma of ovary
(b) Senile vaginitis
(c) Carcinoma of cervix
(d) Prolapse of uterus with decubitus ulcer
100. Defective fusion of the Mullerian ducts may give rise to which of the following?
(a) Uterus bicornis unicollis
(b) Imperforate anus
(c) Imperforate hymen
(d) Absence of the ovaries
101. For a woman who has had unprotected intercourse two days ago, which one of the
following emergency contraceptive methods cannot be suggested?
(a) LNG IUD (LNg IUD)
(b) Ulipristal acetate
(c) Levonorgestrel 150 mg
(d) Yuzpe regimen
102. Deep transverse arrest of head in labour occurs in:
(a) Android pelvis
(b) Anthropoid pelvis
(c) Platypelloid pelvis
(d) Gynaecoid pelvis
105. Which one of the following is not a suitable condition for outlet forceps application?
(a) Cervix fully dilated
(b) Membranes absent
(c) Vertex presentation
(d) Head is above ischial spine level
107. Which of the following is the type of antepartum haemorrhage where blood loss is
foetal?
(a) Abruptio placenta
(b) Placenta previa
(c) Vasa previa
(d) Cirumvallate placenta
108. Which one of the following conditions is not associated with oligohydramnios during
pregnancy?
(a) Post term pregnancy
(b) Ruptured membrane
(c) Intra uterine growth restriction
(d) Oesophageal atresia
109. A 23 year old presents with recurrent abortions at 16 weeks gestation. She should
be investigated for:
(a) TORCH infection
(b) Hepatitis B infection
(c) Incompetent cervix
(d) Balanced paternal translocation
110. Which of the following is the most common cause of abortion during first trimester?
(a) Cervical incompetence
(b) Progesterone deficiency
(c) Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome
(d) Chromosomal anomalies of foetus
112. Umbilical cord blood stem cells are used to treat all the following diseases except :
(a) Parkinsonism
(b) Leukemia
(c) Diabetes
(d) Osteoporosis
113. A patient of ectopic pregnancy had beta-hCG less than 6000 IU/ml. Medical
management was done by single dose methotrexate. Beta-hCG repeated after 48 hours was
found 7000 IU/ml. What will you do further?
(a) Repeat the injection of methotrexate
(b) Operate the patient
(c) Follow up with Beta-hCG after one week
(d) Follow up with Beta-hCG after 72 hours
114. A 35 year old married woman with no risk factors for cervical cancer is having Pap
smear showing atypical squamous cells of undermined significance (ASCUS) for the first
time. What is the further step in the management?
(a) Repeat Pap immediately
(b) Cryotherapy
(c) Large loop excision of the transformation zone
(d) To follow up with Pap test at 6 months
115. For a primary amenorrhoea individual having an XY karyotype, normal infantile
female external and internal genitalia fibrous bands in place of gonad, lack of
development of secondary sexual characters, what is the most probable diagnosis?
(a) Testicular ferminization syndrome
(b) Mixed gonadal dysgenesis
(c) Swyer syndrome
(d) Defective antimullerian harmone
116. A lady who is using oral contraceptive pills comes with a complaint of vaginal
discharge and pruritus vulvae. On local examination, there is curdy white discharge from
the vagina. What is the most likely clinical diagnosis?
(a) Trichomonal vaginitis
(b) Monilial vaginitis
(c) Gardnerella vaginalis
(d) Atrophic vaginitis
118. For a woman who has been operated for chocolate cyst with normal menstrual cycle,
any of the following may be prescribed except:
(a) Injection leuprolide
(b) Tranexamic acid
(c) Tablet dienogest
(d) Oral progestogens
119. For a 40 year old hypertensive woman, which one of the following is not
recommended for contraception?
(a) NuvaRing
(b) Minipill
(c) IUCD
(d) LNG IUD (LNg IUD)
120. A 30 year old female has severe dysmenorrhoea and dyspareunia. On examination,
uterus is 8 weeks size, uniformly enlarged and there is tenderness in posterior fornix. What
is the most probable diagnosis?
(a) Fibroid uterus
(b) Dysfunctional uterine bleeding
(c) Adenomyosis
(d) Endometrial carcinoma