Professional Documents
Culture Documents
214. All of the following drugs are used as prophylaxis in motion sickness EXCEPT:
a. Cyclizine.
b. Dramamine.
c. Diphenhydramine.
d. Famotidine.
e. Cetrizine.
217. Side effects that may be expected to occur from the administration of oral Contraceptives include all of the following
EXCEPT:
a. Fluid retention.
b. Headache.
c. Hypertension.
d. Constipation.*
e. Depression.
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PEBC Therapeutics Preparation Questions
208. When there is absolute refractory period, if you apply another stimulus, what will be the effect on muscle?
a. Contraction.
b. Relaxation.
c. Remains in existing state.*
i. (a) Only.
ii. (c) Only.*
iii. (a), (b) Only.
iv. (b), (c) Only.
v. (a), (b), and (c).
210. Tachycardia means fast heart rate usually faster than 100. It is caused by:
a. Increased temperature.*
b. Stimulation of heart by autonomous nerves.*
c. Toxic condition.*
i. (a) Only.
ii. (c) Only.
iii. (a), (b) Only.
iv. (b), (c) Only.
v. (a), (b), and (c).*
211. Bradycardia means slow heart rate, usually less than 60 beats per minute caused by:
a. Vagal nerve stimulation.*
b. Vagal nerve suppression.
c. Exercise.
i. (a) Only.*
ii. (c) Only.
iii. (a), (b) Only.
iv. (b), (c) Only.
v. (a), (b), and (c).
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PEBC Therapeutics Preparation Questions
201. Concentration of a drug in breast milk exceeds that in plasma, if the drug:
a. Is basic.*
b. Is protein pound.
c. Is acidic but not protein bound.
d. Has a small volume of distribution.
e. Has a large volume of distribution.
202. A patient purchasing sublingual nitroglycerin tablets should be told to store the medication:
a. In the refrigerator.
b. In a plastic vial with a childproof cap.
c. With the original cotton.
d. In an amber glass bottle with a metal cap.*
e. In a warm, dry place.
206. What type of Arrhythmia a person will have with high fever?
a. Paroxysmal tachycardia.*
b. Bradycardia.
c. S-A Arrhythmia.
d. Ventricular Arrhythmia.
e. Flutter.
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PEBC Therapeutics Preparation Questions
196. Metronidazole spectrum of indication may include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Anti protozoal agent.
b. Anti microbial agent.
c. Anti fungal agent.*
d. Antibiotic.
e. Antibacterial.
198. Which of the following is true about chronic use of mineral oils:
a. They decrease absorption of fat soluble vitamins (D.E.K.A.).
b. They cause Pruritusani.
c. Induce Hepatotoxicity.
d. Docusate increases their systemic absorption.
e. All of the above.*
199. Auxiliary labels which should be used on cotrimoxazole suspension include which of the following?
a. Shake well before use.*
b. Take with plenty of water.*
c. Exposure to sunlight may cause adverse reactions.*
i. (a) Only.
ii. (c) Only.
iii. (a), (b) Only.
iv. (b), (c) Only.
v. (a), (b), and (c).*
Page 27 of 30
PEBC Therapeutics Preparation Questions
Page 26 of 30
PEBC Therapeutics Preparation Questions
178. The shock and airway edema of anaphylaxis are best treated with:
a. Salbutamol.
b. Diphenhydramine.
c. Adrenaline.*
d. Acetazolamide.
e. Aminophylline.
179. If the total body clearance of a drug is 200 ml/min in a normal healthy adult and the renal clearance is 10 ml/min then one
may assume that:
a. The drug is extensively metabolized.*
b. Greater than normal drug concentration would occur in patients with moderate renal failure.
c. Entero-hepatic recycling is significant.
d. The drug is not bound to plasma proteins.
e. The drug is concentrated in adipose tissue.
180. Aspirin is believed to inhibit clotting by its action on which of the following endogenous substances?
a. Endorphin A.
b. Xanthine Oxidase.
c. Cyclo oxygenase.*
d. Dopa Decarboxylase.
e. None of the above.
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PEBC Therapeutics Preparation Questions
171. Factor(s) that may increase the risk of renal failure is/are:
a. Hemorrhage.
b. Heart disease.
c. Oliguria.
d. Pulmonary edema.
e. All of the above.*
173. In hypertension of renal origin (moderate) and in presence of CHF, which antihypertensive is used?
a. Clonidine.
b. Hydralazine.
c. Captopril.*
d. Hydrochlorothiazide.
e. Telmisartan.
174. In case of severe hypertension with history of heart disease, the patient can use:
a. Propranolol.*
b. Methyl dopa.
c. Reserpine.
d. Hydrochlorothiazide.
e. Labetolol.
175. Thiazide diuretics are used in treating all of the following cases EXCEPT:
a. Hypertension.
b. Gout.*
c. Congestive Heart Failure.
d. Pulmonary edema.
e. Hypernatremia.
176. Which of the following drug is Angiotensin Converting Enzyme Inhibitor (ACE)?
a. Misoprostol.
b. Timolol.
c. Ramipril.*
d. Telmisartan.
e. Losartan.
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PEBC Therapeutics Preparation Questions
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PEBC Therapeutics Preparation Questions
156. The side effects of prolonged use of Sulphonylureas include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Hypoglycemic reactions.
b. GI disturbances.
c. Bradycardia.*
d. Cholestatic jaundice.
e. Skin rash.
157. For how long is an Insulin preparation be used after taking it out of refrigerator?
a. A week.
b. 10 days.*
c. 20 days.
d. 30 days.
e. Should be discarded.
161. Correct statement(s) regarding "Juvenile onset" diabetes type I may include:
a. Patient is advised to eat several times but only eat low calories food.*
b. Insulin dependent diabetes Mellitus.
c. Prone to ketosis.*
i. (a) Only.
ii. (c) Only.
iii. (a), (b) Only.
iv. (b), (c) Only.
v. (a), (b), and (c).*
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PEBC Therapeutics Preparation Questions
148. The dose of 6-mercaptopurine should be adjusted with which of the following agents?
a. Elase.
b. Dipyridamol.
c. Allopurinol.*
d. Trimethoprim.
e. Amoxicillin.
149. Mercapturic acid derivatives in phase II metabolism can result from reaction of:
a. Glutathione conjugates.*
b. Glucuronide conjugates.
c. Glycine conjugates.
d. Glutamate conjugates.
e. Sulfate conjugates.
152. Ketone bodies (Acetone -Hydroxy Butyric Acid) caused by all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Diabetes.
b. Hyperglycemia.
c. Hypoglycemia.*
d. Starvation.
e. Bacterial infections
Page 21 of 30
PEBC Therapeutics Preparation Questions
141. All of the following statements are correct regarding piroxicam (Feldene)R EXCEPT:
a. Is classified as non steroidal anti-inflammatory drug.
b. Inhibits prostaglandin synthesis
c. Taken once daily.
d. Causes frontal headache.*
e. Increase patient compliance.
142. All of the following statements are correct about indomethacin (Indocid)R EXCEPT:
a. Analgesic antipyretic.
b. Anti-inflammatory.
c. Inhibits prostaglandin synthesis.
d. Can be used in the treatment of gout.
e. Has the least side effect on the GIT*
144. All of the following are drugs that used in cancer chemotherapy. They act as antimetabolite EXCEPT:
a. -Mercaptopurine.
b. Methotrexate.
c. Thiouracil.
d. Sulfasalazine
e. Methyl dopa.*
147. Which of the following enhances the activity of Azathioprine (Immurane) by inhibiting enzymatic oxidation?
a. Allopurinol.*
b. Elase.
c. Dipyridamol.
d. Trimethoprim.
e. Pyridoxine.
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PEBC Therapeutics Preparation Questions
132. While administering IM injection, we usually tend to use the side of lateral part because of:
a. Fear to injure sciatic nerve.*
b. Fear to injure femoral artery.
c. Large surface area of drug absorption.
d. Fear to injure femoral vein.
e. Rich blood supply.
133. In case of congestive heart failure (CHF), or left ventricular failure, accumulation of blood occurs in:
a. Liver.
b. Lungs.*
c. Aorta.
d. Superior vena cava.
e. Inferior vena cava.
135. During inspiration, in which vessel the least blood pressure found?
a. The vena cava.*
b. Arterioles.
c. Coronary arteries.
d. Venules.
e. Capillaries.
136. Barbiturates, Anti-depressants, Anti-coagulants, contraceptives are all increase liver microsomal enzyme (liver
biotransformation), which one of the following also does so?
a. Metronidazole.
b. Rifampicin.*
c. Isoniazide.
d. Ampicillin.
e. Amoxicillin.
137. ASA should not be given to a child due to the high chances of the child having:
a. Grays disease.
b. Goiter disease.
c. Reyes disease.*
d. Acromegaly disease.
e. Mongolism.
138. Grey baby syndrome in infants is caused by which of the following antibiotics?
a. Aminoglycosides. Grey baby syndrome is a circulatory collapse due to tissue
b. Chloramphenicol.* accumulation of unchanged Chloramphenicol resulting from
c. Tetracycline. deficiency of Glucoronyl transferase enzyme in infants, which is
d. Cephalosporins. responsible for Chloramphenicol metabolism, through either
reduction or conjugation.
e. Macrolides.
139. Cefalothen is excreted at a rate of 500 ml/min, this information indicates that the drug is:
a. Mostly metabolized.
b. Not protein bound.
c. Actively excreted in kidney.*
i. (a) Only.
ii. (c) Only.*
iii. (a), (b) only.
iv. (b), (c) only.
v. (a), (b), and (c).
Page 19 of 30
PEBC Therapeutics Preparation Questions
125. Which one of the following drugs is eliminated through tubular excretion?
a. Chloramphenicol.
b. Penicillin.*
c. Aminoglycosides.
d. Doxycycline.
e. Tetracycline.
127. The following vitamin is responsible for regulation of calcium level in the blood through tubular reabsorption:
a. Vitamin D3.
b. Calciferol.
c. Calcitonin.*
d. Vitamin B.
e. Vitamin K,
130. All of the following are Adrenergic anti-histamines except: (block receptor cite on which histamine acts "H1", histamine
stimulates gastric secretions, capillary dilatation)
a. Diphenhydramine.
b. Promethazine.
c. Antazoline.
d. Cyproheptadine (PeriactinR).
e. Propranolol.*
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PEBC Therapeutics Preparation Questions
118. Which of the following you give to a patient who is tolerant to morphine?
a. Heroin.
b. Methadone.*
c. Meperidine.
d. Codeine.
e. Oxycodone.
119. Which of the following anti-cholesterol drugs can be prescribed for pregnant woman?
a. Clofibrate.
b. Mevacor. (X Mevacor pregnancy risk category)
c. Cholestyramine.*
d. Mycostatin.
e. Simvastatin.
120. Clomifen:
a. Increases secretion of GRH, LH, and FSH.*
b. Block estrogen receptor in hypothalamus
c. Decreases secretion of GRH, LH, and FSH.
d. Stimulate estrogen receptor in hypothalamus
e. Stimulate progestin production.
121. During ovulation peak plasma concentration of which of the following hormones will be reached?
a. Leutinizing Hormone (LH).*
b. Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH).*
c. Progesterone.
i. (a) Only.
ii. (c) Only.
iii. (a), (b) only.*
iv. (b), (c) only.
v. (a), (b), and (c).
122. Of the following, which one is not the side effect of Anti-Cholinergic?
a. Constipation.
b. Blurred vision.
c. Diarrhea.*
d. Dizziness.
e. Constipation.
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PEBC Therapeutics Preparation Questions
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PEBC Therapeutics Preparation Questions
107. In the moderate exercise, the Blood Pressure is normally higher than normal due to:
a. Release of Acetylcholine.
b. Increase in Angiotensin Renin activity and/or (Increased venous return)*
c. Dopamine release.
d. Adrenaline release.
e. Serotonin release.
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PEBC Therapeutics Preparation Questions
93. Ticarcillin (Extended Spectrum Penicillin) is preferred than Carbenicillin in CHF patients because:
a. It is usually given in smaller dose.*
b. It is less allergenic.
c. Have more efficacies.
d. Covers more bacterial spectrum.
e. Not expensive.
94. Trivalent Ferric is converted to Divalent ferrous (Ferrous conversion) takes place through:
a. Sulphuric Acid.
b. Ascorbic Acid.
c. Gastric Acid.*
d. Antacid.
e. Gastrin.
95. The most obvious sign and symptom of Tardive Dyskinesia is:
a. Akinesia (absence of movement).
b. Dyskinesia (impairment of voluntary movement).
c. Coughing
d. Oro-Buccal symptoms.*
e. Vermicularis.
Page 14 of 30
PEBC Therapeutics Preparation Questions
86. Which of the following drugs is contraindicated in a CHF patients with B blocker?
a. Verelan.*
b. Catapres. Verapamil has a high negative inotropic and A.V. node
suppression properties. This restricts its use in patients with
c. Vasotec. CHF or in patients that are currently on any b blocker.
d. Diuril.
e. Nitrostat.
87. Mrs. X has been taking Verelan for the past 3 years. Which of the following drug(s) would be the choice for Verelan
induced side effects?
a. Pericolace.*
The common adverse effect associated with use of Verelan
b. Maalox ext Strength. is constipation. Peri-Colace is drug of choice for treatment
c. AlternaGEL. of above side effect.
i. (a) Only.*
ii. (c) Only.
iii. (a), (b) only.
iv. (a), (c) only.
v. (a), (b), and (c).
89. Which of the following new devices is marketed for control of Coumadin therapy?
a. Nicocheck.
b. Chemstrip bG. Coagucheck is a new device for controlled of Coumadin
c. Coagucheck.* therapy. It helps to measure prothrombin time.
d. Acucheck.
e. Glucometer elite.
90. All of the following are true about Allegra EXCEPT: Allegra (Fexofenadine) is an active metabolite
a. Its active ingredient is principle metabolite of Terfenadine. of Seldane (Terfenadine). Liver metabolism of
b. It is anti-allergic drug with non-sedative properties. Allegra is negligible compared to Seldane. It is
c. Liver metabolism is very negligible. antihistamine agent with low sedation
properties. It is a H1 receptor antagonist useful
d. Onset of action is within 60 minutes. for treatment of allergy problem.
e. It is a H2 receptor antagonist.*
Page 13 of 30
PEBC Therapeutics Preparation Questions
80. Which of the following drugs is the first line choice for treatment of hypertension?
a. Monopril.
b. Diltiazem. Beta blocker and diuretic are first line agents for treatment
of hypertension. Ca-channel blocker and Ace inhibitor are
c. Betaxolol.* indicated when b blocker and diuretic therapy dont
d. Quinidine. produce any satisfactory results.
e. Nitroglycerine.
81. Mr. X has taken Inderal 10 mg by mouth two times daily for the last 3 years. Suddenly he suffers from cold and flu-like
symptoms. For 4 days he does not take Inderal. For treatment of flu, he took Sudafed. After 1 week he feels a terrible
tension in his head. Upon measuring his B.P., it was near 215/110. The possibility of this high B.P. is because of
a. Not taking Inderal for a week.*
b. Because of withdrawal symptoms of Inderal.*
c. Because of Sudafed.*
The elevation of blood pressure may be due to any of the following reason.
i. (a) Only. Patient was not taking Inderal for last couple of days, which contributed to
ii. (c) Only. an elevation of his blood pressure due to withdrawal symptoms of drug.
iii. (a), (b) only. Patient was taking Sudafed (Pseudo-ephedrine) for treatment of his cold.
iv. (c), (c) only. Sudafed has a Alpha-1 stimulating properties that might contribute to an
elevation of patientss blood pressure.
v. (a), (b), and (c).*
82. Mr. X has a past history of depression. Now he is suffering from hypertension. Which of the following antihypertensive
agents should be avoided because of his past history of depression?
a. Cordarone.
b. Catapres.* Catapres (Clonidine) has a high tendency to extravagate the depression. Patients
c. Diuril. has past history of depression, therefore he needs to avoid Clonidine as a
antihypertensive agent. Aldomet (Methyldopa) and Reserpine may also contribute
d. Lasix. in worsening the depression. The use of these agents in patients with past or
e. Inderal. current history of depression may require careful monitoring in the patients.
83. All of the following symptoms indicate that patients has a S.L.E. EXCEPT:
a. Fatigue.
b. Malaise. Fatigue, malaise, low grade fever and joint ache are
c. Dryness of mouth.* common symptoms of S.L.E. Dryness of mouth is an
adverse effect of anti-cholinergic drugs.
d. Low grade fever.
e. Joint ache.
Page 12 of 30
PEBC Therapeutics Preparation Questions
75. Which of the following Methicillin resistant organisms should be treated by nasal Bactroban ointment ?
a. H. Influenza.
b. S. Pneumonia. Bactroban (Mupirocin 2%) ointment is indicated for treatment
c. S. Aureus.* of impetigo caused by staphylococcus aureus, B hemolytic
d. K. Pneumonia. streptococcus, and streptococcus pyrogen.
e. N. Gonorrhea.
77. Which of the following brand(s) is/are useful in treatment of Athletes foot infections?
a. Tinactin.*
b. Desenex Extra strength.*
c. Alphagan.
Tinactin (Tolnafate) and Desenex extrastrength (Tolnafate)
i. (a) Only. are antifungal agents useful in treatment of athletes foot
ii. (c) Only. infection. Alphagan is an ophthalmic drop indicated for
iii. (a), (b) only* ocular hypertension.
iv. (b), (c) only
v. (a), (b), and (c).
Page 11 of 30
PEBC Therapeutics Preparation Questions
65. All of the following drugs will increase the heart rate directly or by reflex when injected intravenously into a young
healthy adult, EXCEPT:
a. Isoproterenol.
b. Histamine.
c. Phentolamine.
d. Phenylephrine.*
e. Atropine.
66. Which of the following can cause extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) like Parkinsonism?
a. Haloperidol.
b. Chlorpromazine.*
c. Triazolam.
d. Diazepam.
e. Clonazepam.
70. Adrenaline is used along with injection for the following reasons:
a. To cause vasoconstriction.*
b. To decrease absorption.*
c. To prolong the effect of the drug.*
i. (a) Only.
ii. (c) Only.
iii. (a), (b) only.
iv. (b), (c) only
v. (a), (b), and (c).*
Page 10 of 30
PEBC Therapeutics Preparation Questions
59. Disulfuram like syndrome manifestations include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Face flushing.
b. Headache.
c. Respiratory difficulty.
d. Cold extremities.*
e. Vomiting.
64. Drug induced Parkinsonism (Neuroleptic induced Parkinsonism) in 70 80% of patients; neuroleptics cause
extrapyramidal signs which mimic Parkinson's disease. It has the following sings and symptoms:
a. Stiffness.*
b. Short steps & akinesia.*
c. Ramped handwriting & tremor.*
i. (a) Only.
ii. (c) Only.
iii. (a), (b) only.
iv. (b), (c) only
v. (a), (b), and (c).*
Page 9 of 30
PEBC Therapeutics Preparation Questions
51. Which of the following will reverse the progression of the inflammatory stimulus?
a. Steroids.
b. Prostaglandins.
c. Anti-Pyretics.
d. Cold water.*
e. Heating.
Page 8 of 30
PEBC Therapeutics Preparation Questions
48. Cross sensitivity to PABA has been reported with all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Benzocain.
b. Tetracain.
c. Sulphonyl urea.
d. Chlorothiazide.
e. Griseofulvin.*
Page 7 of 30
PEBC Therapeutics Preparation Questions
36. Which of the following can be used in open angle glaucoma but not in closed angle glaucoma?
a. Atropine.
b. Timolol.
c. Acetazolamide.
d. Epinephrine.*
e. Homatropine.
40. Which of the following represent(s) the side effect(s) of MAO inhibitors?
a. Insomnia.*
b. Orthostatic Hypotension & dizziness.*
c. Dry mouth & irritability.*
i. (a) Only.
ii. (c) Only.
iii. (a), (b) only.
iv. (b), (c) only
v. (a), (b), and (c).*
42. The purpose of giving a vasoconstrictor one hour before introducing anesthesia may include:
a. Decrease blood supply and enhance long action of anesthesia.*
b. Decrease side effects.*
c. Give smoother and good induction of anesthesia.*
i. (a) Only.
ii. (c) Only.
iii. (a), (b) only.
iv. (b), (c) only
v. (a), (b), and (c).*
Page 6 of 30
PEBC Therapeutics Preparation Questions
35. Heavy mineral oils should not be taken for long time because
a. Decrease the level of cholesterol.
b. Over dose will lead to toxic substances in the body.
c. They can dissolve fats and cause high level of cholesterol.*
i. (a) Only.
ii. (c) Only.*
iii. (a), (b) only.
iv. (b), (c) only
v. (a), (b), and (c).
Page 5 of 30
PEBC Therapeutics Preparation Questions
22. Which anti-hypertensive can be used by a diabetic and/or cardiac failure patient?
a. Prazocin.*
b. Captopril.*
c. Atenolol.
i. (a) Only.
ii. (c) Only.
iii. (a), (b) only.*
iv. (b), (c) only
v. (a), (b), and (c).
28. All of the following statements about lithium therapy are true EXCEPT:
a. Used for all types of depression.*
b. Used for Manic (severe) depressive psychosis, Bi-Polar effective disorders.
c. Stays weeks before the effect takes place.
d. Not used in treating mild biogenic disorders.
e. Contraindicated with diuretics due to retention of it occurs.
Page 4 of 30
PEBC Therapeutics Preparation Questions
18. The most common cause of diabetic ketoacidosis and coma in the diagnosed and treated diabetic is:
a. Insulin overdose.
b. Failure of the patient to utilize insulin properly.*
c. Electrolytes depletion.
d. Use of the wrong type of insulin.
e. Excessive physical activity.
19. Deficiency in which of the following vitamins are dangerous in alcoholic patient?
a. Folic acid.*
b. Thiamine*
c. Ascorbic acid.
i. (a) Only.
ii. (c) Only.
iii. (a), (b) only.*
iv. (b), (c) only
v. (a), (b), and (c).
Page 3 of 30
PEBC Therapeutics Preparation Questions
10. A patient with CHF is stabilized on 0.25 mg digoxin daily, Hydrochlorothiazide 50 mg daily and low sodium high
potassium diet. The patient developed a disease which requires corticosteroid therapy. Which of the following would be
more appropriate?
a. Hydrocortisone.
Dexamethasone is the least to cause water and sodium
b. Cortisone. retention.
c. Prednisolone.
d. Prednisone.
e. Dexamethasone.*
11. A patient with CHF who has been stabilized for three months on Digoxin, Hydrochlorothiazide and potassium chloride is
gradually placed on the following additional medicines, which of the following may cause a problem?
a. Quinidine.*
b. Temazepam. Quinidine causes drug-drug interaction with other
c. Captopril. medications and cause toxicity.
d. Aspirin.
e. Nitroglycerin.
12. An elderly patient using insulin was about to be put on a beta blocker for his hypertension. Which of the following would
be most appropriate?
a. Propranolol. Atenolol has not show any hyperglycemic effect.
b. Pindolol.
c. Timolol.
d. Nadolol.
e. Atenolol.*
13. One of the following should be considered as part of the initial drug therapy of most hypertensive patients:
a. Reserpine.
b. Methyldopa.
c. A Thiazide diuretic.*
d. Hydralazine.
e. Guanithidine.
14. A 50 years old patient makes bowel movement 3 times per week. What would you give him?
a. Stimulant laxative.
b. Advice to exercise.
c. Take more fiber diet.
d. Give stool softener.*
e. Drink warm water tid.
Page 2 of 30
PEBC Therapeutics Preparation Questions
THERAPEUTICS
The following questions are not intended to be the evaluating exam ones. They are represented here to give the
student a clue to the examination format, so that they will have a better understanding of the way the exam questions
will look.
4. A diabetic patient tells you that he is planning a four-week trip and will not have a refrigerator in the place where he is
going to store his insulin. What information will you give him?
a. Store insulin in a small Styrofoam box and keep it cool with ice cubes.
b. Be sure that insulin is available where ever you are going and purchase it fresh.
c. The insulin will remain stable at room temperature during the time period in which a single vial will be used.*
d. Increase your insulin dose by 10% to account for any deterioration.
e. See your doctor to prescribe a mixture of insulin that will be more stable.
5. The only suitable method of measuring a 25-unit dose of U-100 insulin is to:
a. Use insulin-diluting fluid to make a stock solution (or suspension) of insulin having a concentration of 25-
U/ml.
b. Use a standard U-100 syringe that is pre-filled with 0.75 ml of insulin-diluting fluid.*
c. Use a special U-100 syringe that has a maximum capacity of 50 units.
d. Use a U-40 insulin syringe.
e. Use a standard U-100 syringe, but make sure that there are no bubbles in the liquid after it has been drawn into
the syringe.
6. A mixture of regular insulin and PZI in a ratio of less than 1:1 would be expected to have about the same duration of
action as:
a. The individual components of the mixture because there is no interaction.
b. NBH insulin because some free regular insulin will be present.
c. PZI alone because the excess protamine in PZI will bind essentially all of the regular insulin thereby
converting it to PZI.*
d. Lente insulin because lente insulin is made from these components in this specific ratio.
e. PZI alone if neutral regular insulin is used.
Page 1 of 30