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Homework 6 Solutions
Fall 2014
Since
1 + n34
lim = 1,
n 1 + 1 4 + 3
n n 4
it follows that
an+1
lim = +
n an
1
P 1
Moreover, we know from Theorem 15.1 from Ross that the series n=2 n
diverges and hence, by the comparison test, the series 1
P
n=2 log(n) diverges
as well.
and hence limn an+1 = 0. Thus, the series converges by the ratio test.
an
[n + (1)n ]2 (n 1)2
and hence
1 1
2
[n + (1)n ] (n 1)2
for all n N. Since the series
P 1
P 1
n=2 (n1)2 = n=1 n2 converges by Theorem
P 1
15.1 of Ross, it follows that the series n=2 [n+(1)n ]2 converges as well by the
comparison test.
P
14.6(a) Prove
P that if n=1 |an | converges and (bn )n=1 is a bounded sequence, then
n=1 an bn converges.
Solution: Let > 0 be given. Since (bn ) is a bounded sequence, there exists an
M > 0 such that |bn | M for all n N. Since
P
n=1 |a n | converges, it follows
that the series satisfies the Cauchy criterion and hence there exists an N1 N
such that n
X
|ak |
k=m
M
for all n > m > N . It follows then that for all n > m > N we have by the
triangle inequality
Xn X n n
X
ak b k |ak | |bk | M |ak | M = .
M
k=m k=m k=m
P
Since > 0 was arbitrary, it follows that the series n=1 an bn satisfies the
Cauchy criterion, and hence converges.
2
that if
P
14.7 ProveP n=1 an is a convergent series of nonnegative numbers and p > 1,
then a
n=1 n
p
converges as well.
Solution: By Corollary 14.5 of Ross, we know that since
P
n=1 an converges,
we must have limn an = 0. Thus, there exists an N N such that 0 an < 1
for all n N , and hence we must have
0 apn < an
P
for all n N since p > 1. Thus, the series n=N +1 apn converges by the
comparison test, and hence the series
X N
X
X
apn = apn + apn
n=1 n=1 n=N +1
converges as well.
15.1 Determine which of the following series converge.
P (1)n
(a) n=1 n
.
n (1)n
Solution: Since (1) = 1
, it follows that the sequence n is non-
n
nn
increasing and limn (1) = 0. Thus, the series converges by the
n
alternating series test.
P (1)n n!
(b) n=1 2n
.
n n!
Solution: Let an = (1) 2n
and notice that for all n N
an+1 n+1
an = n lim
2
and hence limn an+1 = +. It follows that limn |an | = + by
an
exercise 9.12 of Ross, and hence the series must diverge by Corollary 14.5.
15.4 Determine which of the following series converge.
P
(a) 1
n=2 n log(n) .
Solution: Notice that given any n N we have
Z n Z log(n) u/2
dx e du
= .
2 x log(x) log(2) u
u/2
Since ex/2 x2 for all x R, it follows that the function e u does
R not con-
verge to zero as u +, and hence the improper integral 2 x dx log(x)
can
P not converge. It follows by the integral test then that the series
1
n=2 n log(n) must also diverge.
3
P log(n)
(d) n=2 n2
.
Solution: As before, notice that for any n N we have
Z n Z log(n)
log(x) dx
= ueu du
2 x2 log(2)
log(n)
= (1 + u)eu u=log(2)
1 + log(2) 1 + log(n)
= .
2 n
R n log(x) dx
Since limn log(n)
n
= 0, it follows that the improper integral 2 x2
P log(n)
converges, and hence the series n=2 n2 converges by the integral test.
diverges.
A. P
Suppose (an ) is a sequence of non-negative
P realannumbers such that the series
n=1 an diverges. Prove that the series n=1 1+an must also diverge.
Solution: Let L = lim sup an and consider first the case where L 6= 0. Then
there exists a subsequence ank such that ank L > 0, and hence
ank L
lim = 6= 0.
k 1 + ank 1+L
an
In particular, it P
follows that the sequence 1+a n
does not converge to zero and
an
hence the series n=1 1+an must diverge by Corollary 14.5 of Ross. Now, sup-
pose that L = 0. Then since (an ) is a sequence of nonnegative real numbers it
4
follows that an 0 and hence there exists an N N such that 0 an < 1 for
all n N . This implies that
X an 1X
> an
n=N
1 + an 2 n=N
P an
and hence the series n=N 1+an
must diverge by the comparison test. Therefore,
it follows that the series
N 1
X an X an X an
= +
n=1
1 + an n=1
1 + an n=N 1 + an
is divergent as claimed.
and hence limn an+1 = 0. Thus, the series 1
P
n=1 n! must converge by
an
the ratio test.
(b) Let sk = kn=0 n!1 be the k th partial sum. Prove that
P
1
0 < e sn <
n! n
for all n N.
Solution: For all n N and k N, k 2, we have
5
Hence, for all n N we have
X 1 1 1 1
e sn = = + + +
k=n+1
k! (n + 1)! (n + 2)! (n + 3)!
1 1 1 1
< 1+ + + +
(n + 1)! n + 1 (n + 1)2 (n + 1)3
!
1 1
= 1
(n + 1)! 1 (n+1)
1 n+1
=
(n + 1)! n
1
=
n!n
As claimed.
(c) Use part (b) from above to prove that the number e is irrational.
Solution: Assume, on the contrary, that e Q. Then there exists n, m
n
Z with m 6= 0 such that e = m . In particular, we may assume with out
loss of generality that m and n are relatively prime, and hence are both
positive integers. Then by part (b) of exercise B above, we have
1
0 < m! (e sm ) < . (1)
m
n
By assumption then, the number m!e = m! m = (m 1)!n is an integer,
and similarly the number
m
X 1 1 1 1
m!sm = m! = m! 1 + 1 + + + . . . +
k=0
k! 2 6 m!