Professional Documents
Culture Documents
December 5, 2008
Prepared by : Namyr Martnez, Elvin Soto, and Carlos Pagn
1. Which of the following two compounds are the primary products of the pentose
phosphate pathway?
a. NAD+ and ribose
b. NADH and ribose
c. NADP+ and ribose
d. NADPH and ribose
e. NAD+ and glucose
f. NADH and glucose
g. NADP+ and glucose
h. NADPH and glucose
2. Deficiency of which of the following enzymes would impair the bodys ability to
maintain blood glucose concentration during the first 24 hours of prolonged fast?
a. Glycogen synthase
b. Phosphorylase
c. Debranching enzyme
d. PEP carboxykinase
e. Fructose 1,6-biphosphatase
3. Which of the following best explains why fructose is often used as a carbohydrate
substitute in special foods for patients with diabetes mellitus?
a. Fructose is a better substrate for hexokinase
b. Fructose stimulates residual insulin release
c. Fructose has a specific kinase in liver that allows bypass of
phosphofructokinase
d. Fructose is phosphorylated and cleaved to triose phosphates, which cannot
be used for gluconeogenesis.
e. Hexokinase phosphorylates fructose in extrahepatic tissues, and its activity
will not be affected by high glucose concentrations in diabetes
11. The functions of many enzymes, membrane transporters, and other proteins can
be quickly activated or deactivated by phosphorylation of specific amino acid
residues catalyzed by enzymes called what?
a. Cyclases
b. Kinases
c. Phosphatases
d. Proteases
e. Zymogens
13. In the study of enzymes, a sigmoidal plot of substrate concentration ([S]) versus
reaction velocity (V) may indicate which of the following?
a. Michaelis-Menten kinetics
b. Competitive inhibition
c. Noncompetitive inhibition
d. Cooperative binding
e. None of the above
14. Digestive enzymes such as pepsin, trypsin, and chymotrypsin are synthesized as
inactive precursors. What are the preproteins of the active enzymes termed?
a. Kinases
b. Inducers
c. Isozymes
d. Phosphatases
e. Zymogen
A. B.
17. Which of the following statements is not true considering the above graphics.
a. The inhibitor in graphic B have a similar structure to the substrate of the
enzyme
b. The inhibitor in graphic B forms covalent bonding
c. In graphic A inhibition can be overcome increasing the substrate
d. The inhibitor in graphic A is not similar to the substrate of the enzyme
19. The relationship between an enzyme and a reactant molecule can best be
described as:
a. An association stabilized by a covalent bond
b. A permanent mutual alteration of structure
c. One in which the enzyme is changed permanently
d. A temporary association
e. Noncomplementary binding
21. An emergency room physician sees several patients with a wide range of
morbidities. Which of the following ailments is most likely caused by enzyme
denaturation?
a. An 18-year old boy presenting with a sore throat and fever of 101 F; he
has small minimally tender anterior cervical lymph nodes and a red
pharynx.
b. 58-year old man with chest pain and shortness of breath with increased
activity.
c. A 48-year old female complaining of knee pain after twisting her leg
playing tennis
d. An 18-month old male with a 4 day history of symptoms of an upper
respiratory infection presenting with fever, irritability, and pulling at his
left ear for the past 24 hours.
e. A 34-year old man diagnosed with a gastrinoma (acid-secretion
stimulating tumor) complaining of diarrhea for 2 weeks.
22. If the standard free energy for an uncatalyzed reaction is 2500 kJ/mol, then what
can you say about the standard free energy for the enzyme-catalyzed reaction?
a. It is unchanged
b. It will be decreased
c. It will be increased
d. It will changed if there is an allosteric enzyme
Rufus Cox led a stressful life and he didnt exercise. He ate irregularly, and he smoked
and drank heavily. His physician suspected that a heart problem was imminent and had
tests performed to determine the problem.
23. Blood analysis gave an immediate indication of a problem. What component was
most likely markedly elevated?
a. LDL receptors
b. Cholesterol
c. HDL
d. Chylomicrons
e. Lipoprotein lipase
26. The mother of 3 y/o male comes to your clinic for follow-up of a preexisting Type
I diabetes. This condition causes all of the following except:
a. Hyperclicemia
b. Ketoacidosis
c. Polyurea
d. Obesity
e. Hipertriacilglicemia
27. Which of the following monosaccharides induces the formation of the
glucokinase regulatory protein complex (GKRP-GK complex), thereby
inactivating it:
a. glucose 6 P
b. fructose 6 P
c. fructose 2,6 Biphosphate
d. glyceraldehydes 3P
e. fructose 1,6 biphosphate
29. A patient is admitted into the hospital suffering from weakness, fatigue, and
shortness of breath. His lab results show anemia (hemoglobin 6.4, normal is >
13.5 for a man his ag. Upon taking his history you discover he has experienced
drastic decreases in hemoglobin levels, usually following viral infections. You
also learned that he is capable of enhanced exercise levels and his red blood cells
contain a higher than normal level of 2,3-bisphosphoglycerate. Which of the
following enzymes is most likely defective in this patient?
a. Pyruvate Kinase
b. Pyruvate carboxylase
c. Phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase
d. Fructokinase
e. Fructose 1,6-bisphosphatase
30. Which of the following statements about low density lipoproteins (LDLs) is
correct?
a. LDLs are synthesized by the intestinal mucosal cells.
b. LDLs have apo B-100 as their only apoprotein.
c. LDLs are scavengers of cholesterol from tissues.
d. LDLs transport dietary triacylglycerols (TAG).
e. LDLs are the largest of the lipoprotein particles.
35. Which of the following pathways is incorrectly paired with one of its regulated
enzymes?
a. Fatty acid synthesis: acetyl-CoA carboxylase
b. -oxidation: carnitine acyl transferase I (CAT I)
c. Cholesterol synthesis: HMG-CoA dehydrogenase
d. Bile salt synthesis: cholesterol 7--hydroxylase
e. -oxidation : -ketothiolase
37. The reciprocal regulation that ensures glycolysis and gluconeogenesis do not
happen concurrently within the same cell is centered around fructose 2,6-
bisphosphate. Which of the following correctly describes fructose 2,6-
bisphosphate?
a. Glucagon increases its levels by activating a kinase
b. It negatively regulates phosphofructokinase 1
c. It stimulates the conversion of fructose 6-phosphate to fructose 1,6-
bisphosphate
d. Its levels will increase during times of starvation
e. It can directly activate fructose 1,6-bisphosphatase 1
38. A 2-month-old girl is brought to the emergency room because her mother had
difficulty awakening her from an overnight sleep. The baby is found to be
extremely lethargic. Physical examination revealed a markedly enlarged liver and
non-palpable spleen. Laboratory workup reveals a very low blood glucose level
and elevated lactate with a large anion gap. Hyperlipidemia was also evident.
Glucagon administration produced a large increase in lactate without
hyperglycemia. The patient is most likely deficient in what enzyme:
a. Glucokinase
b. Glucose 6-phosphatase
c. Hexokinase
d. Glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase
e. Fructose 1,6-bisphosphatase
39. After pulling an all-nighter with your friend, during which he had not eaten a
thing and only drank water, you decide to go to the zoo to blow off some steam.
Because of his sleep deprivation, your friend accidently falls into a pit with a
very hungry looking lioness. If you could isolate some muscles cells from your
friend at that moment, which of the following would you NOT expect to find?
a. Phosphorylated glycogen synthase
b. High intracellular levels of cAMP
c. Phosphorylated glycogen phosphorylase
d. Active phosphorylase phosphatase
e. Active adenylate cyclase
40. A person comes into the clinic with a rare disease in which his fasting glucose
levels are 3 mmol/L (normal fasting [glucose] = 5 mmol/L). If you assume that
the patients disease is not due to any defects in hexokinase or glucokinase,
which of the following would best describe the activity of these two enzymes in
this patient following a 48 hour fast (Km for glucose are hexokinase = 0.1
mmol/L and glucokinase = 10 mmol/L)?
Hexokinase Glucokinase
a. At Vmax At Vmax
b. At Vmax Below Vmax
c. Below Vmax Below Vmax
d. Below Vmax At Vmax
41. The pentose phosphate pathway has clinical relevance for all of the following
reasons EXCEPT:
a. The produced NADPH is required for oxidative phosphorylation
b. The NADPH is required for the function of cytochrome p450s
c. It plays a role in Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome
d. Helps maintain red blood cell membrane integrity during oxidative stress
e. Is involved in the phagocytosis and destruction of bacteria
42. Following a 3 day fast (i.e you are completely devoid of glycogen stores) which
of the following lists the components that are required for making glycogen
following a carbohydrate rich meal?
a. Glycogen phosphorylase, glycogenin, and glycogen synthase
b. Glycogen synthase, UDP-Glucose pyrophosphoryalse, and glucokinase
c. Glycogenin, glycogen phosphorylase, and debranching enzyme
d. Debranching enzyme, glycogen synthase, and glycogenin
e. Branching enzyme, UDP-Glucose pyrophosphorylase, and glycogen
phosphorylase.
43. Under which of the following conditions would you find the pyruvate
dehydrogenase complex active?
a. It is unphosphorylated and the cell has low acetyl CoA concentrations
b. It is phosphorylated and there are high systemic glucagon levels
c. It is unphosphorylated and there are high systemic glucagon levels
d. It is phosphorylated and the cell has high NADH concentrations
e. It is unphosphorylated and the cell has low pyruvate concentration
44. You want to engineer some cells that, starting with glucose 6-phosphate, will
just produce ribose 5-phosphate without producing any NADPH. Which of the
following enzymes are required for your engineered system?
a. Transketolase, transaldolase, and pyruvate kinase
b. Glucose 6-P dehydrogenase, transketolase, and transaldolase
c. Phosphoglucose isomerase, transaldolase, and transketolase
d. Phosphoglucose isomerase, glucose 6-P dehydrogenase, and
transaldolase
e. Transaldolase, pyruvate kinase, and 6-phosphogluconate
dehydrogenase
45. Which of the following CORRECTLY describes a step in the TCA cycle?
a. Increased concentration of FADH2 will activate the succinate
dehydrogenase enzyme
b. The reaction catalyzed by succinate thiokinase produces one mole
of GTP
c. Citrate synthase is positively regulated by ATP
d. Only two steps produce NADH
e. Malate dehydrogenase is positively regulated by a high NADH/NAD+
ratio
46. In a red blood cell which of the following enzymes are required to produce
NADPH and energy from glucose 6-phosphate?
a. glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase, transketolase and glucokinase
b. transaldolase, glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase, and hexokinase
c. glucokinase, transaldolase, and phosphoglucose isomerase
d. glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase, transaldolase and
phosphofructokinase
e. transaldolase, transketolase and glucokinase
48. In the presence of high glucagon levels, what is the status of glycogen
phosphorylase?
a. Is phosphorylated, active, and sensitive to glucose 6-phosphate levels
b. Is unphosphorylated, active, and sensitive to glucose 6-phosphate
levels
c. Is phosphorylated, inactive, and sensitive to glucose 6-phosphate
d. Is phosphorylated, active, and sensitive to glucose levels
e. Is unphosphorylated, inactive, and sensitive to glucose levels
50. Antimycin A blocks electron transfer between cytochromes b and c1. If intact
mitochondria were incubated with antimycin A, excess NADH, and an
adequate supply of O2, which of the following would be found in the oxidized
state?
a) Coenzyme Q
b) Cytochrome a3
c) Cytochrome b
d) Cytochrome e
e) Cytochrome f
52. Which of the following statements about the chemiosmotic theory is correct?
a) Electron transfer in mitochondria is accompanied by an
asymmetric release of protons on one side of the inner
mitochondrial membrane.
b) It predicts that oxidative phosphorylation can occur even in the
absence of an intact inner mitochondrial membrance.
c) The effect of uncoupling reagents is a consequence of their ability to
carry electrons through membranes.
d) The membrane ATP synthase has no significant role in the
chemiosmotic theory.
e) All of the above are correct.
57. When the DG' of the ATP synthesis reaction is measured on the surface of
the ATP synthase enzyme, it is found to be close to zero. This is thought to be
due to:
a) a very low energy of activation.
b) enzyme-induced oxygen exchange.
c) stabilization of ADP relative to ATP by enzyme binding.
d) stabilization of ATP relative to ADP by enzyme binding.
e) none of the above.
58. During oxidative phosphorylation, the proton motive force that is generated
by electron transport is used to:
a) create a pore in the inner mitochondrial membrane.
b) generate the substrates (ADP and Pi) for the ATP synthase.
c) induce a conformational change in the ATP synthase.
+
d) oxidize NADH to NAD .
e) reduce O2 to H2O.
59. An enzyme that catalyzes the reaction shown below is called a/an
OH O
| //
CH3CHCH2COOH + NAD+ <==> CH3CCH2COOH + NADH + H+
a. isomerase.
b. dehydrogenase.
c. transferase.
d. mutase
e. dehydrase
62. Refer to the graph when answering. "X" represents the native enzyme
and "Y" the enzyme plus a fixed concentration of a modifier. The modifier
a. increases the Vmax of the enzyme.
b. increases the Km.
c. is a non-competitive inhibitor.
d. is a competitive inhibitor.
e. is an allosteric activator.
63. The reaction progress curves for the same reaction (1)
uncatalyzed reaction and catalyzed reaction (2) are shown below.
Which of the following statements is TRUE?
a. Both reactions release the same amount of free energy.
b. The rate at which A-->D exceeds the rate at which E-->J.
c. Both have the same reaction pathway.
d. The rate at which I-->J exceeds the rate at which I-->E.
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. E