Ans Cs Pharma Final 2017.s.f.a

Credits: M1439, M1445, M1447, M1449
mistakes can be found
1 D 51 C 101 C
2 D 52 C 102 E
3 D 53 C 103 E
4 E 54 B 104 D
5 A 55 D 105 E
6 B 56 D 106 D
7 B 57 A 107 C
8 B 58 B 108 B
9 C 59 B 109 D
10 D 60 C 110 D
11 A 61 C 111 A
12 D 62 C 112 D
13 E 63 C 113 D
14 B 64 B 114 B
15 D 65 C 115 C
16 D 66 B 116 D
17 C 67 C 117 E
18 D 68 C 118 E
19 C 69 A 119 B
20 B 70 B 120 B
21 C 71 A 121 D
22 C 72 C 122 D
23 C 73 C 123 B
24 C 74 D 124 D
25 E 75 C 125 B
26 B 76 B 126 B
27 D 77 C 127 D
28 B 78 B 128 B
29 D 79 D 129 D
30 A 80 A 130 D
31 D 81 A 131 C
32 C 82 A 132 D
33 C 83 A 133 C
34 C 84 D 134 A
35 D 85 C 135 B
36 E 86 A 136 B
37 A 87 D 137 B
38 B 88 A 138 A
39 D 89 D 139 B
40 A 90 D 140 A
41 B 91 B 141 C
42 B 92 C 142 A
43 A 93 E 143 C
44 D 94 A 144 E
45 A 95 D 145 B
46 D 96 C 146 C
47 D 97 B 147 B
48 A 98 C 148 A
49 C 99 A 149 D
50 B 100 A 150 E
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151 C 201 D 251 B

152 C 202 B 252 C
153 C 203 E 253 A
154 C 204 D 254 C
155 D 205 B 255 A
156 D 206 B 256 A
157 C 207 E 257 B
158 C 208 B 258 A
159 D 209 A 259 D
160 A 210 D 260 B
161 C 211 B 261 B
162 A 212 C 262 C
163 B 213 B 263 C!
164 B 214 E 264 A
165 C 215 C 265 A
166 B 216 A 266 A
167 B 217 A 267 B
168 C 218 A 268 A
169 C 219 B 269 C
170 C 220 D 270 A
171 B 221 A 271 B
172 C 222 C 272 C
173 C 223 B 273 D!
174 C 224 C 274 B
175 C 225 D 275 B
176 A 226 C 276 E
177 E 227 E 277 B
178 E 228 E 278 A
179 E 229 C 279 B
180 D 230 A 280 C
181 C 231 B 281 D
182 D 232 C 282 B
183 B 233 D 283 D
184 C 234 C 284 E
185 D 235 E 285 B
186 A 236 E 286 D
187 B 237 A 287 E
188 B 238 C 288 A
189 B 239 B 289 C
190 D 240 C 290 B!
191 C 241 B 291 B
192 A 242 B 292 E
193 D 243 E 293 C
194 A 244 A 294 A!
195 E 245 C 295 A
196 A 246 C 296 D
197 D 247 A 297 B
198 B 248 B 298 B
199 D 249 E 299 B
200 E 250 A 300 E
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301 E 351 C 401 C

302 C 352 D 402 C
303 C 353 C 403 B
304 B 354 B 404 A
305 E 355 B 405 B
306 B 356 C 406 B
307 C 357 D (C D E if CM) 407 C
308 A 358 A 408 E
309 A 359 A 409 B
310 A 360 B 410 C
311 D 361 B 411 D
312 D 362 D 412 D
313 D 363 E 413 A
314 C 364 B 414 A
315 C 365 C 415 B
316 A 366 A 416 C
317 C 367 C 417 B
318 E 368 A 418 B
319 C 369 D 419 B
320 B 370 C 420 C
321 B 371 B 421 D
322 B 372 B 422 C
323 C 373 C 423 A
324 D 374 E 424 D
325 D 375 E 425 D
326 B 376 A 426 B
327 B 377 C 427 B!
328 C 378 B 428 B
329 E 379 C 429 C!
330 D 380 A ( A B if CM) 430 C
331 B 381 A 431 B
332 B 382 D 432 C
333 C 383 C 433 C
334 A 384 D 434 A
335 C 385 B 435 A
336 B 386 A 436 C
337 D 387 D 437 B
338 B 388 C 438 C
339 C 389 C 439 A
340 A 390 A 440 C
341 D 391 B 441 A
342 C 392 D 442 B
343 D 393 C 443 C
344 D 394 B 444 D
345 B 395 C 445 A
346 A 396 E 446 C!
347 D 397 E 447 C
348 B 398 D 448 D
349 B 399 C 449 A!
350 D 400 D 450 B
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451 C
452 A
453 D !
454 C
455 C
456 C
457 A
458 B!
459 A!
460 A
461 E
462 B
463 A
464 B!
465 C!
466 C
467 B
468 B
469 D
470 D
471 C
472 A
473 B
474 B
475 B!
476 A
477 D
478 E
479 C
480 D
481 B
482 E
483 E
484 D
485 A
486 D
487 A
488 D
489 A
490 C
491 D
492 A
493 C
494 E
495 A
496 B
497 A
498 C
499 C
500 D
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Question 501 Question 710 part 1

501.Triphasic contraceptive is:
a) nonoxynol
b) tricvilar
c) regulon
d) divina
e) marvelone
Which of the following is most useful in the treatment of hyperprolactemia?

a) Bromocriptine
b) Cimetidine
c) Ergotamine
d) Ondansetron
e) Sumatriptan
A hormone that acts to stimulate absorption of calcium and phosphate from the intestine:
a) Calcium
b) Calcitonin
c) Sodium etidronate
d) Vitamin D
e) Fluoride
Name the drug that has the strongest action in water retention in the body:
a) aldosteron
b) progesterone
c) estradyol
d) cortocosteron
e) testosteron
Glucocorticoids are contraindicated in:

a) Bronchial asthma
b) Status astmaticus
c) Allergic rhinitis
d) Collagenoses
e) Diabetus mellitus
Prednisone is contraindicated in:

a) crisis of the bronchial asthma
b) status asthmaticus
c) allergic rhinitis
d) collagenosis
e) duodenal ulcer
Name the indication for estrogens in oncological practice:

a) Leukemia
b) Cancer of prostate
c) Endometrial cancer
d) Brain tumors
e) Cancer of thyroid gland
Hormone androgen preparations have following indications but one:

a) Insufficient renal anemia treatment
b) inoperable breast cancer in woman during postmenopause
c) hypogonadism
d) lactic suppression
e) breast cancer in men
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The rate of secretion of thyrotropin is controlled by:
a) The amount of iodine in the thyroid gland
b) The amount of thyroid hormones in the thyroid gland
c) The concentration of thyroid hormones in blood
d) The concentration of catecholamines in blood
e) The concentration of cortisol in blood
Which of the following drugs may be used in diabetes insipidus?

a) Ergometrine
b) Oxytocin
c) Vasopressin
d) Methylergometrine
e) Quinine
What drug might be useful for triggering and obtaining labor term?
a) Ergometrine
b) Oxytocine
c) Dinoprost
e) Quinine
Indicate the mechanism of contraception being based on preparations, which contains estrogen and gestagen:
a) Spermatocidal action
b) Annihilation of spermatozoic activities.
c) Development inhibition of the follicle and implantation disturbances of the fertilized ovary.
d) Cervical liquefaction
e) Contribution to the proliferation of uterine mucosa
Hormones are:
a) Products of endocrine gland secretion
b) Mediators of inflammatory process
c) By-products of tissue metabolism
d) Products of exocrine gland secretion
e) Products of arachydonic acid cascade
Give the definition of hormone analogues:

a) Naturally occurring substances but slightly different from hormones
b) Naturally occurring substances but less efficacious than hormones
c) Naturally occurring substances having the same structure but different pharmacological properties than hormones
d) Synthetic compounds, which resemble the naturally occurring hormones
e) Naturally occurring substances
Name hormones produced by the hypothalamic gland:

a) Growth hormone-releasing hormone (GHRH)
b) Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
c) Aldosterone
d) Estradiol
e) Prednesolone
Name the hormonal preparation of hypothalamus:

a) Thyreotoxin
b) Somatostatine
c) Hydrocortisone
d) Glucagon
e) Insulin
Which of the following hormone is not synthesized in the hypothalamus?

a) Vasopressin
b) Thyrotropin-realizing hormone
c) Oxytocin
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d) Luteinizing hormone
e) Corticotropin- releasing hormone
Name hormones produced by the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland:

a) Thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH)
b) Corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH)
c) Growth hormone (somatotropin, GH)
d) Growth hormone-releasing hormone (GHRH)
e) Aldosterone
How does oxytocin change the sensitivity of the myometrium during the period of pregnancy?
a) decreasing
b) nonessential decreasing
c) no changes
d) nonessential increasing
e) increasing
Choose the indication for anabolic steroids:

a) Obesity
b) Formation of bony callus
c) Myxedema
d) Arterial hypertension
e) Hyperglycemia
Vasopressin possesses the following:

a) Antidiuretic property
b) Vasodilatation property
c) Release of a thyroid hormone into the plasma
d) Diuretic property
e) Release of a adrenal hormone into the plasma
Which of the following drugs may be used in diabetes insipidus?

a) Ergometrine
b) Oxytocin
c) Vasopressin
e) quinine
Excessive doses of thyroid hormone may cause each of the following EXCEPT:
a) angina pectoris
b) cardiac decompensation
c) adrenal insufficiency
d) psychotic behavior
e) constipation
Concerning testosterone, all of the following are true EXCEPT:

a) it is a major male hormone
b) it is highly effective by the oral route
c) it is reduced to dihydrotestosterone in the body
d) it is produced by the testes, ovaries, and adrenal cortices
e) about 99% of testosterone in plasma is bound to protein
Thyrotropin stimulates the following processes:

a) Concentration of iodine by thyroid follicles
b) Iodination of thyroglobulin
c) Release of thyroxine and triidothyronine
d) De-iodination of thyroid hormones
e) Release of calcitonine
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Thyroid hormones produce various pharmacological effects. Indicate the wrong statement:
a) Decrease of the basal metabolic rate in the body
b) Increase in the rate and force of contraction of the heart
c) Increase in the blood level of cholestrol
d) Increase in the heat production
e) Decrease body mass
Insulin is a polypeptide hence:

a) It is resistant to destruction by gastric juice
b) It is destroyed by gastric juice
c) It is not a polypeptide
d) It is metabolized immediately by cellular enzymes
e) It is used in diabetes mellitus
Witch drug is indicated in diabetes insipitus?

a) oxytocin
b) vasopresin
c) angiotensin
d) ephedrine
e) prazosin
Which drug is preferentially indicated in diabetes mellitus, type II?

a) tolbutamine
b) vasopresin
c) glucagon
d) insulin
e) gonadotropine
Which of the following is true for glucagon?

a) Stimulates gluconeogenesis in the liver
b) Stimulates the secretion of insulin by beta cells
c) Inhibits glucose utilization by skeletal muscle
d) Inhibits uptake of aminoacids by cells
e) Stimulates the secretion of calcitonine by beta cells
Alpha-glucosidase inhibitors act by:

a) Diminishing insulin resistance by increasing glucose uptake and metabolism in muscle and adipose tissues
b) Competitive inhibiting of intestinal alpha-glucosidases and modulating the postprandial digestion and absorption of
starch and disaccharides
c) Reducing the absorption of carbohydrate from the gut
d) Stimulating the beta islet cells of pancreas to produce insulin
e) Replacement therapy
Insulin cannot be administered by:

a) Oral route
b) Intravenous route
c) Subcutaneous route
d) Intramuscular route
e) Artificially pancreas
Choose the pair of hormones that have agonistic effects on blood sugar levels:
a) Calcitonin and PTH
b) Adrenalin and Glucagon
c) Glucagon and Glucose
d) ADH and Aldosterone
e) Insulin and Glucagon
Glucocorticosteroids are contraindicated in which of the below listed diseases?

a) herpetic keratitis
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Credits: M1439, M1445, M1447, M1449
b) status asthmaticus
c) lymphoma maligna
d) rheumatoid arthritis
e) chronic hepatitis
Effects of the glucocorticoids do not include:

a) Reduction in circulating lymphocytes
b) Inhibition of leukotriene synthesis
c) Increased skin protein synthesis
d) Increased blood glucose
e) Altered fat deposition
Choose following indications for antithyroid preparations:

a) cretinism
b) diabetes mellitus
c) impotence
d) thyrotoxicosis
e) myxedema
Mineralocorticoid drug cause:

a) Increased catabolism
b) Increased Na+ retension and + excretion
c) Increased gluconeogenesis
d) Deposition of fat on shoulders, face and abdomen
e) Increased +retension and Na+ excretion
Prednisone can determine every side effect listed below but one:
a) Arterial Hypertension
b) Gastroduodenal ulcer
c) Retention of sodium and water
d) Hyperpotassemia
e) Central nervous excitation
Immunosupressive effect of glucocorticoids is caused by:

a) Reducing concentration of lymphocytes (T and B cells)
b) Suppression of cyclooxygenase II expression
c) Activation of phospholipase A2
d) Activation of cyclooxygenase II expression
e) All of the answers
Which of the following glucocorticoids is a long-acting drug?

a) Prednisolon
b) Dexamethasone
c) Triamcinolone
d) Cortisone
Serious side effects of glucocorticoids include the following, EXCEPT:
a) Acute peptic ulcers
b) Iatrogenic Cushing's syndrome (rounding, puffiness, fat deposition, moon faces)
c) Salicylism (vomiting, tinnitus, decreased hearing, and vertigo)
d) Hypomania or acute psychosis
e) High arterial pressure
Serious side effects of glucocorticoids include the following:

a) Adrenal suppression
b) Insomnia, behavioral changes (primarily hypomania)
c) Rounding, puffiness, fat deposition and plethora alter the appearance of the face - moon faces
d) Diabetus mellitus type II
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Indicate the mechanism of contraception based on preparations, which contains estrogen and gestagen:
a) Spermicide action
b) Annihilation of spermatozoic activities
c) Development inhibition of the follicle and implantation disturbances of the fertilized ovary.
d) Cervical liquefaction
e) Contribution to the proliferation of uterine mucosa
Glucocorticosteroids are contraindicated in which of the below listed diseases?

a) Rheumatoid arthritis
b) Status asthmaticus
c) Lymphoma maligna
d) Herpetic keratits
e) Chronic hepatits
Glucocorticoids are hormonal steroids:

a) Having an important effect on intermediary metabolism, cardiovascular function, growth, and immunity
b) Having principally salt-retaining activity
c) Having androgenic or estrogenic activity
d) Having thyroid stimulating activity
Which of the following glucocorticoids is an intermediate-acting drug?

a) Cortisone
b) Triamcinolone
c) Betamethasone
d) Dexamethasone
Which of the following glucocorticoids is a short- to medium-acting drug?

a) Prednisolon
b) Dexamethasone
c) Hydrocortisone
d) Cortisone
Which of the following substances has the most intense salt and water retention?
a) estradiol
b) progesterone
c) aldosterone
d) corticosterone
e) testosterone
Note the mechanism of antiplatelet action of acetylsalicylic acid:

a) inhibs irreversibly platelet cyclooxygenase
b) stimulates platelet biosynthesis of TxA2
c) inhibits prostacycline PgI2 biosynthesis
d) inhibits PgI1 biosynthesis
e) inhibits PgE2 biosynthesis
Indicate the effect of protamine sulphate:

a) antifybrinolytic
b) antidot of heparine
c) thrombolytic
d) local hemostatic
e) nonspecific hemostatic
Note the mechanism of action of cumarins:

a) are active in vivo and in vitro
b) blocks synthesis of factors II, VII, IX, X by inhibition of epoxi-reductase
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c) are vitamine C antimetabolits
d) often cause thromboses
e) administered only intramusculary
Which stage of arterial thrombosis is inhibited by acetylsalicylic acid:

a) adderation of platelets to colagen
b) arahydonic acid release
c) formation of thromboxan A2
d) activation of thromboxan A2 receptors
e) inhibition of adenilatcyclase-AMPc system
Indicate the antithrombotic drug with fibrinolytic action:

a) alteplaze
b) sulphinpirazon
c) warfarin
d) heparin
e) dypiridamole
Which antitrombotic drug activates AT III:

a) streptokinaze
b) sulphinpirazone
c) warfarin
d) heparin
e) acetylsalicylic acid
Indicate the antidote of oral anticoagulants:

a) etamsilat
b) carbazocrome
c) aprotinine
d) vitamine K iv and blood transfuzion
e) fibrinogen
Name the reason of acetylsalicylic acid long duration:

a) high half-life
b) concentration in thombocytes
c) inactivates ireversibilly platelet cyclooxigenase
d) lysis of fibrin
e) slow absorption
Which drug is better for long-term prophylaxis of venous thrombosis?

a) acenocumarol
b) heparin intravenuosly
c) streptokinase
d) acetylsalycilic acid
e) dypiridamole
Which drug is from Coumarin derivates?

a) sulphinpirazone
b) acenocumarol
c) acetylsalycilic acid in low dose
d) carbazocrom
e) dypiridamole
Name the drug which can't be used as local hemostatic:

a) epinephrine
b) tromboplastin
c) trombin
d) fibrin
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e) fitomenadione
Indicate heparine antagonist:

a) trombin
b) acenocumarol
c) menadion
d) protamine sulphate
e) fibrinogen
All preparations listed below might be used for local homeostasis but one exception:
a) fibrin
b) phytomenadion
c) thrombin
d) epinephrine
e) thromboplastin
Indicate the mechanism of action of indirect anticoagulants:

a) inhibits thromboplastine activity
b) fixes calcium ions in blood
c) inhibts gama-carboxilation of protrombin and proconvertin in liver
d) activates antithrombin III
e) activates factors IX,X,XI,XII and calicrein
What is specific for iron drugs, prescribed intravenously:

a) can increase sideremia les then oral drugs
b) iron from this drugs is fixt initially by reticulo-endotelial system
c) restore landfills weaker than oral preparations
d) they require an acid medium
e) side effects more rare and less pronounced then oral drugs
Indicate the topical drug used to stop hemorrhage from little vessels:
a) fitomenadion
b) calcium chloride
c) acetylsalycilic acid
d) trombin
e) fibrinogen
Indicate the pharmacologic feature of iron drugs:

a) it is absorbed mostly in the stomach
b) daily recquest in healthy - 1 mg and 1,4 mg in women
c) food and stomach antacids increase bioavailability for absorption
d) absorption is not higher in patients with iron deficiency anemia than in healthy people, because it's transported stably by
specific proteins
e) after iron absorption is carried by the plasma erythrocytes
Indicate the antagonist of indirect anticoagulants:

a) fitomenadion
b) calcium chloride
c) protamine sulphate
d) aprotinin
e) epinephrine
Tick the mechanism of action of sodium citrate:

a) fixes calcium ions
b) inhibits trombin activation
c) decreases tromboplastine synthesis
d) inhibs protrombine and proconvertin synthesis in liver
e) increases platelet aggregation
Aminocapronic acid is a drug of choice for treatment of:

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a) Acute myocardial infarction
b) Bleeding after fibrinolytic therapy
c) Heart failure
d) Multiple pulmonary emboli
e) Myocardial infarction
Indicate the pharmacologic feature of heparin:

a) heparin is obtained from human tissue
b) heparin is badlly absorbed from digestive tub
c) speed of elimination of heparin is not dose-dependent
d) effect of heparin can be antagonized by nadroparin
e) heparin does not pass into the breast milk
Indicate heparin antagonist:

a) naloxone
b) naltrexon
c) flumazenil
d) protamine sulphate
e) disulfiram
Choose the mechanism of action of heparin:

a) activates prothrombin and other factors of coagulation.
b) binds to and activates endogenous antithrombin III. (ATIII).
c) activates physiologic fibrinolytic system,that degradate fibrin into fragments
d) inhibits COX and decreases synthesis of tromboxan, that has aggregant effect.
e) interferes with the normal posttranslational modification of clotting factors in the liver, a process that depends on vitamin
K.
Which of the following antiaggregans inhibits prostaglandin synthesis?

a) dextran 40
b) dypiridamole
c) prostacyclin
d) acetylsalycilic acid
e) ticlopidin
Indicate low-molecular-weight heparin:

a) acenocumarol
b) heparin
c) sodium citrate
d) nadroparine
e) warfarin
Indicate the drug that stop bleeding by vassoconstrictive action:

a) epinephrine
b) menadion
c) menadiol
d) fibrinogen
e) fitomenadion
Note the mechanism of antiplatelet action of acetylsalicylic acid:

a) inhibits the activity of tromboplastine and impairs the passage of prothrombin in thrombin
b) fixes calcium ions in blood
c) inhibits thromboxan synthesis
d) activates antithrombin III
e) activates factors IX, X, XI, XII and calicrein
A 26-year-old woman comes to the outpatient clinic with a complain of rapid heart rate and easy fatigability.
Laboratory work up reveals low hemoglobin and microcytic red cell size. The most suitable therapy will be:
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a) ferrous sulfate
b) folic acid
c) iron
d) pyridoxine
e) cyanocobalamin
What is the onset of furosemide at intravenous administration:

a) after 25 minutes and lasts for 4 ore
b) after 3-4 minutes and lasts for 1-2 ore
c) after 10 minutes and lasts for 6 ore
d) after 60 minutes and lasts for 24 ore
e) after 25 minutes and lasts for 4-8 ore
Which kind of action will be in furosemide administration in pulmonary edema?

a) dehydration
b) antidiuretic action
c) anti-foam action
d) antihypertensive action
e) sedative action
Name diuretic drug with antiepileptic properties:

a) Furosemide
b) Acetazolamide
c) Etacrinic acid
d) Spironolactone
e) Triamterene
The drug inhibits the carbonic anhydrase enzyme:

a) Acetazolamide
b) Furosemide
c) Hydrochlorothiazide
d) Spironolactone
e) Amiloride
Which one of the following statements about spironolactone is TRUE?

a) Spironolactone reverses many of the manifestations of aldosteronism
b) Spironolactone is also an androgen antagonist and as such is used in the treatment of hirsutism in women
c) Spironolactone is useful as a diuretic
d) All the answers
e) No one answer
All of the following statements regarding diuretics are true, EXCEPT:

a) Carbonic anhydrase inhibition leads to increased reabsorption of NaHCO3
b) Loop diuretics decrease Na+ reabsorption at the loop of Henle by competing for the Cl- site on the
Na+/K+/2Clcotransporter
c) In general, the potency of a diuretic is determined by where it acts in the renal tubule
d) Hydrochlorothiazide decreases urinary calcium excretion
e) Diuretics decrease edema in the body
The drug acts by competitively blocking NaCl cotransporters in the distal tubule:
a) Acetazolamide
b) Furosemide
d) Spironolactone
e) Triamteren
The drug acts by competing with aldosterone for its cytosolic receptors:
a) Acetazolamide
b) Furosemide
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d) Spironolactone
e) Ethacrinic acid
The drug is a potassium-sparing diuretic that blocks Na+ channels in the collecting tubules:
a) Acetazolamide
b) Amiloride
c) Furosemide
d) Hydrochlorothiazide
e) Indapamid
The drug inhibits the enzyme carbonic anhydrase:
a) Sulthiame
b) Furosemide
d) Spironolactone
e) Triamteren
Name carboanhydrase inhibitor diuretics:

a) hydrochlorothiazide
b) spironolactone
c) furosemide
d) triamterene
e) acetazolamine
Which kind of diuretic is more active in treatment of glaucoma?

a) acetazolamide
b) hydrochlorthiazide
c) ethacrinic acid
d) furosemide
e) triamteren
Sustained use of this drug results in increased plasma urate concentrations:

a) Furosemide
b) Acetazolamide
c) Both of the above
d) Neither of the above
e) Their associated administration
Chronic use of this drug can lead to metabolic acidosis:

a) Acetazolamide
b) Amiloride
c) Furosemide
e) Triamteren
The drug acts at the proximal tubule:

a) Acetazolamide
b) Furosemide
d) Spironolactone
e) Triamteren
The drug can be used to treat glaucoma:

a) Furosemide
b) Acetazolamide
e) Their association
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The drug has a steroid-like structure which is responsible for its anti-androgenic effect:
a) Amiloride
b) Furosemide
d) Spironolactone
e) Indapamid
The drug decreases calcium excretion in urine:

a) Hydrochlorothiazide
b) Amiloride
c) Furosemide
d) Acetazolamide
e) Manitol
The drug can cause ototoxicity:

a) Furosemide
b) Acetazolamide
e) just their associated administration
Which of the following diuretics may cause deafness (ototoxicity) in case of an overdose?
a) hydrochlorothiazide
b) furosemide
c) acetazolamide
d) spironolactone
e) triamterene
Diuretics with action in thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle (TAL):
a) chlortalidon + clopamide
b) mannitol, urea
c) spironolactone + amiloride + triamterene
d) furosemide + ethacrine acid + bumetamide
e) cyclopentazide + polythiazide
The drug is sometimes part of fixed-dose combinations used to treat essential hypertension:
b) Amiloride
Choose short-acting drug:

a) Furosemide
b) Acetazolamide
c) Spironolactone
d) Acetazolamide
e) Polythiaside
The drug needs aldosterone present in order to be effective:

b) Amiloride
The drug acts only in loop Henle, ascending part:

a) Furosemide
b) Acetazolamide
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Which of the following diuretic groups act above the collecting tube?
a) thiazides
b) loop diuretics
c) carbonic anhydrase inhibitor
d) antialdosteronics
e) osmotic diuretics
The drug can be used to treat nephrogenic diabetes insipidus:

b) Acetazolamide
c) Spironolactone
d) Mannitol
e) Amilorid
The drug should never be administered to patients taking potassium supplements:

b) Amilorid
c) Furosemide (Lasix)
The drug acts by competitively blocking the Na+/K+/2Cl- cotransporter:

a) Loop diuretics
b) Thiazide diuretics
c) Potassium-sparing diuretics
d) Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
e) Osmotic diuretics
The drug acts at the proximal tubule:

a) Loop diuretics
The drug acts in the distal convoluted tubule:

a) Loop diuretics
The drug is the most potent diuretic:

a) Loop diuretics
e) Cardiac glycosides
Which kind of diuretic is more active in acute renal failure ?

a) triamteren
b) furosemide
c) indapamide
d) hydrochlorthiazide
e) acetazolamide
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Name agent - aldosterone antagonist:
a) Furosemide
b) Spironolactone
c) Dichlothiazide
d) Captopril
e) Bumetamide
The drug acts by competitively blocking the NaCl cotransporter:

a) Loop diuretics
The drug is one of the most potent diuretics:

a) Acetazolamide
b) Furosemide
d) Amiloride
e) Indapamid
The drug inhibits sodium and chloride transport in the early distal tubule:
a) Acetazolamide
b) Furosemide
d) Amiloride
e) Manitol
The drug acts in the collecting tubules:

a) Loop diuretics
The drug blocks the sodium/potassium/chloride cotransporter in the thick ascending loop of Henle:
a) Acetazolamide
b) Furosemide
d) Amiloride
e) Manitol
Choose antagonist of aldosterone:

a) aminoglutethimide
b) mitotan
c) spironolactone
d) ketoconazole
e) miphepristone
The drug can cause ototoxicity:

a) Acetazolamide
b) Furosemide
d) Amiloride
e) Manitol
Drug used in night enuresis:

a) Osmotic diuretics
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b) Loop diuretics
c) Thiazide diuretics
d) Potassium-sparing diuretics
e) Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
These agents must be given parenterally because they are not absorbed when given orally:
b) Loop diuretics
e) Thiazide like diuretics
Amiloride acts at this nephron site:

a) Proximal convoluted tubule
b) Ascending thick limb of the loop of Henle
c) Distal convoluted tubule
d) Collecting duct
e) All nephron
These drug may be used in the treatment of recurrent calcium nephrolithiasis:

a) Mannitol
b) Ethacrinic acid
c) Hydrochlorthiazide
d) Spironolactone
e) Acetazolamide
Furosemide acts at this nephron site:

d) Collecting duct
e) Glomerules
The drug is the least (less) potent diuretic:

a) Mannitol
b) Furosemide
c) Indapamid
d) Spironolactone
e) Hydrochorthiazide
Acetazolamide acts at this nephron site:

d) Collecting duct
e) All nephron

d) Collecting duct
e) All nephron
The drug inhibiting the cotransport of sodium, potassium, and chloride in Loop Henle:
a) Torasemid
15
b) Acetazolamide
c) Triamterene
d) Manitol
e) Indapamid
Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor is:

a) Furosemide
b) Acetazolamide
c) Triamterene
d) Manitol
e) Indapamid
Mechanism of action of osmotic diuretics includes:

a) They inhibit sodium chloride transport in the early segment of the distal convoluted tubule
b) This drugs inhibit the cotransport of sodium, potassium, and chloride
c) They increase osmotic pressure of plasma, increase minute-volume of blood and increase also the renal circulation and
filtration
d) Inhibition of carbonic anhydrase in the brush border and intracellular carbonic anhydrase in the PCT cell
e) They are antagonist (competitive or noncompetitive) of aldosterone in the collecting tubules
The drug acts by competitively blocking NaCl cotransporters in the distal tubule:
a) Ethacrinic acid
b) Furosemide
c) Polythiazide
d) Spironolactone
e) Triamterene
The drug acts by competing with aldosterone for its cytosolic receptors:
a) Acetazolamide
b) Furosemide
d) Spironolactone
e) Triamterene
Choose non-competitive antagonist of spironolactone:

a) Acetazolamide
b) Amiloride
c) Furosemide
e) Spironolactone
The drug that inhibit carbonic anhydrase:

a) Acetazolamide
b) Furosemide
d) Spironolactone
e) Mannitol
The drug has a steroid-like structure which is responsible for its anti-androgenic effect:
a) Amiloride
b) Furosemide
d) Spironolactone
e) Triamterene
The drug decreases calcium excretion in urine:

b) Amiloride
c) Furosemide
d) Acetazolamide
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e) Spironolactone
The drug can promote sodium loss in patients with low (e.g., 40 ml/min) glomerular filtration rates:
a) Furosemide
b) Acetazolamide
d) Spironolactone
e) Amiloride
The drug needs aldosterone present in order to be effective:

a) Furosemide
b) Acetazolamide
d) Spironolactone
e) Amiloride
The drug can be used to treat nephrogenic diabetes insipidus:

b) Amiloride
c) Acetazolamide
e) Spironolactone
The drug is the most potent diuretic:

a) Loop diuretics
e) Aldosteron's antagonists
The drug acts by competitively blocking the NaCl cotransporter:

a) Loop diuretics
e) Aldosteron's antagonists
The drug is one of the most potent diuretics:

a) Acetazolamide
b) Ethacrinic acid
d) Amiloride
e) Spironolactone
The drug inhibits sodium and chloride transport in the early distal tubule:
a) Acetazolamide
b) Furosemide
d) Amiloride
e) Spironolactone
The drug acts in the collecting tubules:

a) Loop diuretics
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The drug blocks the sodium/potassium/chloride cotransporter in the thick ascending loop of Henle:
a) Acetazolamide
b) Furosemide
d) Amiloride
e) Spironolactone
The drug is usually given in combination with a thiazide diuretic:

a) Acetazolamide
b) Furosemide
d) Amiloride
e) Bumetanide
What diuretic is contraindicated in cardiac insufficiency?

a) furosemide
b) hydroclorothiazide
c) acetazolamide
d) spironolactone
e) mannitol
Diuretic that acts in loop Henle is:

a) Indapamide
b) Furosemide
c) Mannitol
d) Spironolactone
e) Acetazolamide
An important therapeutic effect of loop diuretics is:

a) Decreased blood volume
b) Decreased heart rate
c) Increased serum sodium
d) Increased total body potassium
e) Metabolic acidosis
Spironolactone acts at this nephron site:

d) Collecting duct
e) Glomerulus
These drugs may be used in the treatment of recurrent calcium nephrolithiasis:

b) Loop diuretics
e) Furosemide
Furosemide acts at this nephron site:

d) Collecting duct
e) Glomerulus
The drug is the least potent diuretic:

b) Loop diuretics
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e) Thiazide-like diuretics
Acetazolamide acts at this nephron site:

a) Collecting duct
d) Proximal convoluted tubule
e) Glomerulus

d) Collecting duct
e) Glomerulus
The drug competitively blocks chloride channels and prevents movement of sodium, potassium, and chloride into
the renal tubular cells:
a) Furosemide
b) Acetazolamide
c) Triamterene
d) Mannitol
e) Spironolactone
Choose anti gout drug:

a) salbutamol
b) propranolol
c) allopurinol
d) carvedilol
e) atenolol
Has been used in the treatment of gout:

a) Loperamide
b) Probenecid
c) Both
d) Neither
Effective in the treatment of gout by inhibition of the movement of leukocytes into the inflamed joint:
a) Sodium salicylate
b) Acetylcysteine
c) Colchicine
d) Acetaminophen
e) Sulfinpyrazone
Electrolytes are responsible for:

a) Acid-base balance
b) Blood sugar levels
c) Hemoglobin levels
d) Hormone levels
e) Enzymes level
What vitamin is inactivated by pyrazinamide?

a) Vitamin B6
b) Vitamin B1
c) Vitamin A
d) Vitamin C
e) Vitaimin K
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List typical characteristics of acid folic:
a) Inhibits central nervous system
b) acts on coagulation of blood.
c) occurs as a formation of purine and pyrimidine nucleotides.
d) Stimulates central nervous system.
e) act directly on plasminogen.
Which vitaminic preparation is being used in scurvy?

a) thiamine
b) cyanocobalamin
c) pyridoxine
d) ascorbic acid
e) biotin
Name the indications for Vitamin K preparations:

a) Keratits
b) Rheumatoid arthritis
c) Angina Pectoris
d) Parenchymal hemorrhage
e) Muscle pain
Vitamins are:
a) Inorganic nutrients needed in small quantities in the body
b) Organic substances needed in very large quantities in the body
c) An organic compound and a vital nutrient that an organism requires in limited amounts.
d) Products of endocrine gland secretion
e) Any of numerous proteins or conjugated proteins produced by living organisms and functioning as specialized
Antienzymes are:
a) a substance that inhibits or counteracts the action of an enzyme
b) substances that prevent vitamins from exerting their typical metabolic effects
c) any of numerous proteins or conjugated proteins produced by living organisms and functioning as specialized atalysts for
biochemical reactions
d) nonprotein organic substances that usually contain a vitamin or mineral
e) products of endocrine gland secretion
Select the fat-soluble vitamin:

a) Ascorbic acid
b) Tocopherol
c) Thiamine
d) Riboflavin
e) Piridoxin
Beri-beri is caused by the deficiency of:

a) Riboflavin
b) Ascorbic acid
c) Nicotinic acid
d) Thiamine
e) Riboflavin
Select a water-soluble vitamin:

a) Vitamin A
b) Vitamin E
c) Vitamin D
d) Vitamin B1
e) Vitamin K
Which of the following vitamins is responsible for increasing intestinal absorption of calcium,:
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a) Vitamin
b) Vitamin A
c) Vitamin D
d) Vitamin E
e) Vitamin B1
Which of the following vitamins can be also synthesized from a dietary precursor?
a) Vitamin
b) Vitamin A
c) Vitamin B1
d) Vitamin B6
e) Vitamin P
Vitamin C is required for the production and maintenance of:

a) Collagen
b) Hormone
c) Ascorbic Acid
d) Red Blood Cells
e) Vitamin P
Vitamin C deficiency is called:

a) Rickets
b) Scurvy
c) Cancer
d) Cold
e) Beri-beri
Which of the following statements concerning pyridoxine (vitamin B6) functions is true:
a) Active functional form is pyridoxal phosphate, which is an essential coenzyme for transamination and decarboxylation
of amino acids
b) Active group of the coenzymes nicotinamide-adenine dinucleotide (NAD) and nicotinamide-adenine phosphate (NADP)
c) Essential constituent of flavoproteins, flavin mononucleotide (FMN) and flavin adenine dinucleotide (FAD)
d) An extremely important antioxidant, which protects cell membrane lipids from peroxidation by breaking the chain
reaction of free radical formation to which polyunsaturated fatty acids are particularly vulnerable
e) Active functional form is dihydroergocalciferol
Name the main function of Vitamin A in the body:

a) Immune defenses, maintenance of body linings and skin
b) Vision,
c) Normal cell development and reproduction
d) Bone and body growth
e) All of the above
Vitamin B12 deficiency caused by lack of intrinsic factor is called:

a) Rickets
b) Pernicious anemia
c) Scurvy
d) Poor circulation of the red blood cells
e) Beri-beri
The vitamin Folate works together with ______________to produce new red blood cells
a) Vitamin D
b) Vitamin B12
c) Vitamin A
d) Vitamin B6
e) None of the above
Which of the following vitamins is also known as an antisterility factor?

21
a) Vitamin E
b) Vitamin B6
c) Vitamin B1
d) Vitamin C
e) Vitamin D
Characterictic of Vitamin B12:

a) Is present in large amounts in green, leafy vegetables
b) Prevents goiter
c) Prevents scurvy
d) Requires intrinsic factor secreted in the stomach to aid its absorption
e) Prevents Beri-beri disease
.Whch of the following is a function of Vitamin B12
a) Red blood cell formation
b) Normal cell development and reproduction
c) Immune defenses, maintenance of body linings and skin
d) Just anti-oxidant action
e) Vision, bone and body growth
Indicate the influence of ergocalciferol upon metabolic processes:

a) stimulates nucleic acid synthesis
b) depresses nucleic acid synthesis
c) increases the permeability of the intestinal epithelium for calcium and phosphor.
d) stimulates alpha-keto acid decarboxylation
e) inhibits alpha-keto acid decarboxylation
Which of the following vitamins is also known as an anti-sterility factor?

a) tocopherol
b) piridoxine
c) thiamine
d) fitomenadione
e) ascorbic acid
Which of the following vitamins is also known as a haemostatic agents?

a) tocopherol
b) piridoxine
c) thiamine
d) fitomenadione
e) ascorbic acid
Dermatitis, diarrhea and dementia are characteristics of:

a) Dry beri-beri
b) Pyridoxine deficiency
c) Scurvy
d) Pellagra
e) Cholesterol deficiency
Scurvy is:
a) A disease caused by deficiency of vitamin C and characterized by spongy bleeding gums, bleeding under the skin, and
weakness
b) Extreme dryness of the conjunctiva resulting from a disease localized in the eye or from systemic deficiency of vitamin
A
c) A disease caused by deficiency of niacin in the diet
d) All of the answers
e) A disease caused by deficiency of vitamin K
Pellagra is:
a) A disease caused by a deficiency of niacin (vit. PP) in the diet and characterized by skin eruptions, digestive and nervous
system disturbances, and eventual mental deterioration
b) Inflammation of several nerves at one time caused by a deficiency of thiamin, marked by paralysis, pain, and muscle
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wasting.
c) A severe form of anemia most often affecting elderly adults caused by a failure of the stomach to absorb vitamin B12
d) All of the answers
e) A severe form of anemia most often affecting children
Characterize vitamins:
a) are all synthesized in the body
b) provide energy
c) are necessary for proper growth and development
d) all are hormons
e) needed in large amounts
Which of the following vitamins is given along with isoniazide in treatment of tuberculosis?
a) Nicotinic acid
b) Riboflavin
c) Pyridoxine
d) Ascorbic acid
e) Vitamin A
Which of the following vitamins is used in megaloblast anemia?

a) Vitamin B12
b) Vitamin BC
c) Vitamin PP
d) Vitamin D
e) Vitamin A
Which of the following enzymes is used in cancer therapy?

a) Pepsin
b) Urokinase
c) L-asparaginase
d) Lydaze
e) Aprotinine
Loosening of teeth, gingivitis and hemorrhage occur in the deficiency of:

a) Vitamin
b) Vitamin 1
c) Vitamin B6
d) Vitamin C
e) Vitamin A
A 30-year-old woman who was suffering from untreatable gastric carcinoma underwent a gastrectomy. A deficiency
of which one of the following vitamins will develop as a result of this procedure and must be treated with?
a) Vitamin B6
b) Vitamin B12
c) Vitamin C
d) Vitamin D
e) Vitamin E
Name vitamin obtained from sunlight:

a) Vitamin A
b) Vitamin D
c) Vitamin K
d) Vitamin E
e) Vitamin C
Name vitamin synthesized from bacteria in the intestines:

a) Vitamin A
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b) Vitamin D
c) Vitamin K
d) Vitamin E
e) Vitamin C
Name easily destroyed vitamin:

a) Vitamin A
b) Vitamin D
c) Vitamin K
d) Vitamin E
e) Vitamin C
Clinical uses of vitamin D do not include:

a) Osteoporosis
b) Nutritional rickets
c) Intestinal osteodystrophy
d) Hyperparathyroidism
e) Chronic renal failure
Vitamin A deficiency causes:

a) Beri-beri
b) Night blindness
c) Scurvy
d) Megaloblastic anemia
e) Pellagra
Name ion that helps muscles to contract and relax, thereby helping to regulate heartbeat:
a) Iron
b) Calcium
c) Cobalt
d) Iodide
e) Sulfur
Along with potassium, plays a role in fluid balance:

a) Iron
b) Sodium
c) Cobalt
d) Iodide
e) Sulfur
Charactericitc of fat-soluble vitamins:

a) Are more stable than water-soluble vitamins
b) Are found in all foods
c) Must be supplied daily
d)Cannot be stored in the body
e) Non of the above
If a person has vitamin K deficiency, which of the following is likely to occur?

a) Acne
b) Formation of blood clots A
c) Excessive bleeding
d) Acidosis
e) Non of the above
Which of the following antienzymes is a trypsin inhibitor?

a) Aprotinine
b) Sulbactam
c) Aminocaproic acid
d) Disulfiram
e) Cylastatine
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Which of the following antienzymes is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor:
a) Physostigmine
b) Selegiline
d) Acetazolamide
e) Disulfiram
Which of the following antienzymes is a fibrinolysis inhibitor?

a) Clavulanic acid
b) Sulbactam
d) Disulfiram
e) Selegiline
Which of the following antienzymes is a cholinesterase inhibitor?

a) Physostigmine
b) Selegiline
d) Disulfiram
e) Sulbactam
Which of the following enzymes improves GIT functions (replacement therapy):

a) Pepsin
b) Urokinase
c) L-asparaginase
d) Lydaze
e) 5-LOX
Which of the following antienzymes is a monoamine oxidase (MAO) inhibitor:

a) Physostigmine
b) Selegiline
c) Acetazolamide
d) Disulfiram
e) Sulbactam
Which of the following antienzymes is an aldehyde dehydrogenase inhibitor?

a) Tazobactam
b) Sulbactam
d) Disulfiram
e) Physostigmine
Which of the following antienzymes is a xantine oxidase inhibitor?

a) Physostigmine
b) Allopurinol
d) Acetazolamide
e) Disulfiram
Which of the following enzymes has fibrinolytic activity?

a) Pepsin
b) Urokinase
c) L-asparaginase
d) Lydaze
e) COX-1
Which of the following antienzymes is an aromatase inhibitor used in cancer therapy?

25
a) Physostigmine
b) Allopurinol
d) Aminoglutethimide
e) Acetazolamide
710.Name enzymes with antimicrobial properties:

a) hyaluronidase
b) asparaginase
c) bactisubtil
d) panzynorm
e) urokinase
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Question 711 Question 941 part 2
711) What's the definition of "antibiotics"?

a) non-organic or synthetic substances that selectively inhibit growth of other microorganisms
b) *substance produced by some microorganisms or their synthetic analogs that selectively kills or inhibits the growth of
other microorganisms
c) substances produced by certain microorganisms or their synthetic analogs inhibit the growth of body cells
d) synthetic analogues of natural substances that kill protozoa and helminthes
e) non of the above
712) What is the minimum duration of antibacterial treatment?:

a) not less than one day
b) *not less than 5 days
c) not less than 10-14 days
d) not less than three weeks
e) not less than 1 month
713) The mechanism of bacterial resistance to penicilins can be described as:

a) *Inactivation of drug by beta-lactamases
b) Overproduction of PBPs
c) Overproduction of peptidoglycans
d) Breakdown of penicillins by the immune system
e) Rapid biotransformation
714) Antibiotics are chemicals produced by?

a) Cancer cells
b) Viruses
c) Bacteria
d) Protozoa
e) *Microorganisms
715) What antibiotic should be used for the treatment of fever with unknown origin?
a) *Antibiotics should not be used
b) Cephalosporins
c) Macrolides
d) Aminoglycosides
e) Penicillins
716) Bactericidal effect is:

a) Inhibition of bacterial cell division
b) Inhibition of young bacterial cell growth
c) *Destroying of bacterial cells
d) Formation of bacterial L-form
e) Stimulation of bacterial cell division
717) Bacteristatic effect is:

a) *Inhibition of bacterial cell division
b) Bacteria killing
c) Destroying of bacterial cells
d) Formation of bacterial L-form
e) Stimulation of bacterial cell division
718) Name bactericidal drug?

a) *Cephalosporins
b) Trimethoprim
c) Macrolides
d) Lincosamides
27
e) Choramphenicol
719) A(n) ____ drug will halt bacterial growth but not deplete it, while a(n) ____ drug will kill bacteria:
a) Bactericidal; Antibiotic
b) Antibiotic; Bacteriostatic
c) Bactericidal; Bacteriostatic
d) *Bacteriostatic; Bactericidal
e) Antibiotic; Bactericidal
720) When treating meningitis, one of the steps to achieve the MIC (minimum inhibitory concentration) is by
injecting antibiotic where?
a) Epidural space
b) Subdural space
c) *Subarachnoid space
d) Subpial space
e) Corneal space
721) Penicillin is a ____ drug and tetracycline is a ____ drug:

a) *Bactericidal; Bacteriostatic
b) Bacteriostatic; Bactericidal
c) Bactericidal; Bactericidal
d) Bacteriostatic; Bacteriostatic
e) Fungicidal; Bactericidal
722) Penicillin was first discovered when colonies of staphylococci lysed when contaminated with what?
a) Penicillium bacteria
b) Penicillium virus
c) *Penicillium fungi
d) Penicillium parasite
e) Penicillium protozoa
723) Penicillin G is ____ to penicillinase and methicillin is ____ to penicillinase. Both are considered ____ spectrum
antibiotics:
a) Resistant; Sensitive; Narrow
b) Resistant; Sensitive; Broad
c) *Sensitive; Resistant; Narrow
d) Sensitive; Resistant; Broad
e) Resistant; Resistant; Broad
724) What enzyme is the main target for penicillin?

a) Transglucosylases
b) *Transpeptidases
c) D-alanine carboxykinases
d) Glucoronuyltransferase
e) Dihidropteroat synthetase
725) Which antibiotic is considered extended-spectrum as it can fight pseudomonal aeroginosa, enterobacter species,
proteus, bacteroids fragilis, and many klebsiella?
a) Oxacillin
b) Ampicillin
c) Amoxicillin
d) Penicillin G
e) *Carbencillin
726) Which next antibiotic would be used to treat Neisseria gonorrhoeae if the patient was allergic to penicillins?
a) Ticarcillin
b) Carbencillin
c) *Ceftriaxone
d) Penicillin G (Benzylpenicillin)
e) Penicillin V
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727) Clavulanate is added to amoxicillin (Augmentin) to protect the drug molecule. This results in a ____
bioavailability and a change from dosage three times a day to ____ times a day. However, this produces a high incidence of
diarrhea:
a) Increase; Four
b) *Increase; Two
c) Decrease; Four
d) Decrease; Two
728) Clavulanic acid and sulbactam ____ antibiotics, and are added to give better ____ properties and effects:
a) Are; Antibacterial
b) Are; Pharmacokinetic
c) Are not; Antibacterial
d) *Are not; Pharmacokinetic
729) Name antibiotic considered the least toxic?

a) Ticarcillin
b) Oxacillin
c) Ampicillin
d) *Penicillin G (Benzylpenicillin)
e) Chloramphenicol
730) Imipenem/Cilastatin is an example of a:

a) Antibiotic + inhibitor of penicillinase
b) Combination from 2 antibiotics to increase spectrum of action
c) *Antibiotic + inhibitor of renal enzyme dehydropeptidase
d) Antibiotic + inhibitor of beta lactamase
e) 2 antibiotics to decrease side effects
731) Several families of drugs such as penicillins and cephalosporins act to ____ the bacterial ____ and thereby
promoting lysis. The mechanism is through prevention of murein (peptidoglycan) synthesis:
a) Weaken; Cell membrane
b) *Weaken; Cell wall
c) Strengthen; Cell membrane
d) Strengthen; Cell wall
e) Inhibit protein synthesis
732) What is the most frequent side effect, which occurs after administrating of benzyl penicillin?
a) Agranulocytosis
b) Anemia
c) Renal insufficiency
d) *Allergy
e) Dysbacteriosis
733) Severe allergic reactions are more common with what family of drugs?
a) Tetracyclines
b) Macrolides
c) Cephalosporins
d) *Penicillins
e) Sulfonamides
734) Tick the drug belonging to antibiotics-monobactams:

a) Ampicillin
b) Bicillin-5
c) *Aztreonam
d) Imipinem
e) Tienam
29
735) Antibiotic inhibiting bacterial RNA synthesis is:
a) Erythromycin
b) *Rifampicine
c) Chloramphenicol
d) Imipinem
e) Cycloserine
736) Which antimicrobial remedy is excreted in bile in active concentrations?:

a) *ampicillin
b) kanamycin
c) griseofulvin
d) sulfizoxazolul
e) nalidixic acid
737) Mechanism of penicillins' antibacterial effect is:

a) *Inhibition of transpeptidation in the bacterial cell wall
b) Inhibition of beta-lactamase in the bacterial cell
c) Activation of endogenous proteases, that destroy bacterial cell wall
d) Activation of endogenous phospholipases, which leads to alteration of cell membrane permeability
e) Activation of beta-lactamase in the bacterial cell
738) Name the main indication for benzylpenicillin:

a) salmonelosis
b) typhoid fever
c) *subacute endocarditis
d) syphilis
e) tuberculosis
739) Which from penicillins is an aminopenicillin?

a) Methicillin
b) *Ampicillin
c) Penicillin G
d) Penicillin V
e) Carbencillin
740) Which of the penicillins produces a higher incidence of diarrhea?

a) Cloxacillin
b) Ampicillin
c) Amoxicillin
d) *Augmentin
e) Penicilin G
741) IV rd Generation Cephalosporins have a ____ spectrum of antimicrobial activity and are considered ____:
a) *Broad; Bactericidal
b) Broad; Bacteristatic
c) Narrow; Bactericidal
d) Narrow; Bacteristatic
e) Narrow; Fungistatic
742) Cephalosporin from I-st generation for parenteral administration is:

a) *cefazolin
b) cefamandole
c) cephachlor
d) cefipime
e) cefadroxil
743) Which of the bacteria would not be affected by a second-generation cephalosporin, but would be affected by
ceftazidime?
a) Staphylococcus
b) Streptococcus
c) Listeria
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d) Enterococcus
e) *Pseudomonas
744) Which of cephalosporin generation should be given for gram-negative bacterial meningitis?
a) First-generation cephalosporin
b) Second-generation cephalosporin
c) *Third-generation cephalosporin
d) First-generation cephalosporin, just parenteral drug
e) Cephalosporin should not be given
745) Describes ceftazidime and cefepime:

a) First-generation cephalosporins
b) Second-generation with Haemophilus influenzae activity
c) Second-generation with Bacteroids fragilis activity
d) Third-generation cephalosporins
e) *Third-generaion with Pseudomonas aeruginosa activity
746) Describes cefazolin and cephalexin:

a) *First-generation cephalosporins
e) Third-generaion with Pseudomonas aeruginosa activity
747) Describes cefmetazole, cefotetan, and cefoxitin:

c) *Second-generation with Bacteroids fragilis activity
748) Describes cefaclor and cefuroxime:
b) *Second-generation with Haemophilus influenzae activity
749) Describes cefoperazone and ceftriaxon:

d) *Third-generation cephalosporins
750) Which of the microorganisms would be treated with a first-generation cephalosporin?

a) E. Coli
b) Klebsiella
c) Proteus
d) *Staphylococcus
e) Enterobacter
751) A 2-mo-old male neonate presents with a thick eye discharge. The mother admits to having sexual partners and
complains of a vaginal discharge. Exams of both eyes of infant reveals a thick purulent discharge and conjunctival
congestion and edema. Corneal ulcerations was also noted. Conjunctival swabs on gram staining revealed presence of
gram-negative diplococci and many polymorphonuclear cells. What organism, which can be treated with penicillin G or a
third-generation cephalosporin, is the most likely cause?
a) C. trachomatis
b) T. pallidum
31
c) *N. gonorrhea
d) H. ducreyi
e) H. influenza
752) Macrolids are ____ ribosomal subunit inhibitors that are ____ at low concentrations and ____ at high
concentrations:
a) 30s; Bactericidal; Bacteriostatic
b) 30s; Bacteriostatic; Bactericidal
c) 50s; Bactericidal; Bacteriostatic
d) *50s; Bacteriostatic; Bactericidal
753) Although erythromycin is not normally effective with gram-negative bacteria, cell wall deficient forms of E.
coli and Proteus mirabilis (L-forms) are exceptions. These are seen in recurrent:
a) Pneumonia
b) Upper respiratory tract infections
c) *Urinary tract infections
d) Gastroenteritis
e) Endocarditis
754) Name bactericidal antibiotic - the drug of choice for pneumonia caused by H. influenzae?
a) Erythromycin
b) Clarithromycin
c) *Azithromycin
d) Dirithromycin
e) Telithromycin
755) A patient presents with mild symptoms of fever, chills, headache, and coughing. However, they show little sign
of bacterial infection. Lab blood results show infection is present and the physician chooses to use a macrolide antibiotic.
What agent was most likely the cause of the patient's symptoms?
a) Streptococcus pyogenes
b) Streptococcus agalactiae
c) *Mycoplasma pneumoniae
d) Listeria monocytogenes
e) Streptococcus pneumoniae
756) Which of the organs is the main organ for biotransformation of macrolides such as erythromycin (90%) and
clarithromycin?
a) Spleen
b) Kidneys
c) Brain
d) GI tract
e) *Liver
757) An 8-yr-old child presents with pharyngitis and fever of 3 days duration. Microbiology lab confirms translucent
beta-hemolytic colonies. Past history includes a severe allergic reaction to amoxicillin when used for ear infection. Which
one of the ntimicrobial agents as an oral drug is most likely appropriate in terms of both effectiveness and safety?
a) Penicillin G (Benzylpenicillin)
b) Cefaclor
c) Doxycycline
d) Vancomycin
e) *Azithromycin
758) Aminoglycosides are effective only against which of the microbs and are a good choice for septicemia (a serious
toxicity)?
a) Gram-positive aerobic bacteria
b) Gram-positive anaerobic bacteria
c) *Gram-negative aerobic bacteria
d) Gram-negative anaerobic bacteria
e) Just Streptococcus pneumoniae
32
Credits: M1439, M1445, M1447, M1449
759) Aminoglycosides inhibit bacterial protein synthesis through binding to ____ bacterial ribosome subunits. They
cause leakage of intracellular contents and thus are ____:
a) *30s; Bactericidal
b) 30s; Bacteriostatic
c) 50s; Bactericidal
d) 50s; Bacteriostatic
760) Describes the mechanism of aminoglycosides at low dosages:

a) Partial inhibition of protein causing ribosome to translate incorrectly
b) Amino acid deletions during protein synthesis leading to nonfunctional proteins
c) *Misreading of mRNA during elongation leading to synthesis of proteins containing incorrect amino acids.
d) Nonsense insertion in mRNA during elongation leading to a stop codon
e) No effect on protein synthesis
761) Describes the mechanism of aminoglycosides at high dosages:

a) Misreading of mRNA during elongation leading to synthesis of proteins containing incorrect amino acids.
b) Nonsense insertion in mRNA during elongation leading to a stop codon
c) Complete inhibition of protein causing ribosomes to become trapped at the AUG strand condons of mRNA
d) *Partial inhibition of protein causing ribosome to translate incorrectly
e) Amino acid deletions during protein synthesis leading to nonfunctional proteins
762) Following administration of aminoglycosides, where would concentrations be the lowest?

a) Prostate
b) *Brain
c) Vitreous fluid
d) CSF
e) Intracellular
763) Accumulation of aminoglycosides is most common in what location?

a) Liver capsule
b) *Renal medulla
c) Nephrons
d) Renal cortex
e) Spleen
764) Which of the following drugs can be mixed with aminoglycosides, such as for use against Staphylococcus
aureus?
a) Diuretics
b) NSAIDs
c) Cisplatin
d) Amphotericin B
e) *Penicillin G (Benzylpenicillin)
765) Which of the antimicrobial drugs is combined with isoniazid to treat tuberculosis?
a) Neomycin
b) *Streptomycin
c) Amikacin
d) Kanamycin
e) Gentamicin
766) AE is a 75-yr-old man with sepsis resulting from a urinary tract infection. He has allergies to beta-lactam
antibiotics and erythromycim. The result of blood cultures are positive for P. aeroginosa; the urine culture is positive for P.
aeroginosa and E. coli. From aminoglycoside class, which one would you choose?
a) Neomycin
b) Streptomycin
c) Netilmicin
d) Kanamycin
e) *Gentamicin
33
767) The most active aminoglycoside against Mycobacterium tuberculosis is:
a) Kanamycin
b) Tobramycin
c) *Streptomycin
d) Amikacin
e) Neomycin
768) Cephalosporines are drugs of choice for treatment of:

a) Gram-negative microorganism infections
b) Gram-positive microorganism infections
c) *Gram-negative and gram-positive microorganism infections, if penicillins have no effect
d) Only bacteroide infections
e) Gram-negative and gram-positive microorganism infections, if vancomicin have no effect
769) Carbapenems are effective against:

a) Only Gram-positive microorganisms
b) Only Gram-negative microorganisms
c) Only bacteroide infections
d) *Broad-spectum
e) Very Narrow spectrum
770) Benzylpenicillin acts on the level of:

a) cytoplasmatic membrane
b) *Bacterial wall
c) Cytoplasm of a bacterial cell
d) Proteine synthesis
e) Ribosome of a bacterial cel
771) Which of the antimicrobial drugs would be used to treat methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)?
a) Nafcillin
b) *Vancomycin
c) Gentamycin
d) Erythromycin
e) Clindamycin
772) Penicillin is used in combination with what drug to enhance antibacterial action in the treatment of enterococcal
endocarditis?
a) Sulfonamides
b) Cephalosporins
c) Macrolides
d) *Aminoglycosides
e) Fluoroquinolones
773) Prophylactic penicillin is indicated in patients with rheumatic carditis. If the patient is allergic to penicillin,
which drug should be used?
a) *Sulfonamides
b) Cephalosporins
c) Macrolides
d) Aminoglycosides
e) Fluoroquinolones
774) At what level penicillin work?

a) cytoplasmic membrane
b) *cellular wall
c) cell bacterial ribosome
d) bacterial cell nucleus
e) bacterial cell cytoplasm
775) Specify the antibacterial mechanism of action of benzyl penicillin:

34
Credits: M1439, M1445, M1447, M1449
a) *disturbance of synthesis of the components of microbial walls
b) change of the permeability of cytoplasmatic membranes of microorganisms
c) Competitive antagonism with folic acid in bacterial cell
d) inhibits coenzyme A activity
e) membrane permeability distarbances
776) Specify the action spectrum for biosynthetic penicillins:

a) *Gram-positive and Gram-negative cocci, Corynebacterium diphtheria, spirokets, Clostridium
b) Corynebacterium diphtheria, mycobacteria
c) Gram positive cocci, viruses
d) gram-negative cocci, Rickettsia, fungal
e) mycobacteria, viruses, Corynebacterium diphtheria
777) Antibacterial mechanism of penicillin is:

a) *inhibiting the synthesis of the peptidoglycan layer of bacterial cell walls.
b) inhibition of bacterial beta-lactamases
c) activation of endogenous protease that destroys the cell wall
d) phospholypase endogenous activation, with subsequent alteration of membrane permeability
e) inhibition of nucleic acids
778) Cephalosporins are the first choice in treatment:

a) Gram-positive
b) Gram-negative
c) *Gram-negative and gram-positive, if penicillins are not effective
d) only infections with bacteroides
e) only for infections caused by protozoa
779) Classified generally as a third generation cephalosporin:

a) Cefazolin
b) Cefachlor
c) Cephalexin
d) *Cefotaxime sodium
e) Cefamandol
780) Available as tables for oral administration:

a) thienam
b) *cephalexin
c) benzatin-benzylpenicillin
d) procaine benzyl penicillin
e) cefazolin
781) Action spectrum for carbapenems is:

a) just gram-positive
b) just gram-negative
c) only infections with bacteroides
d) *broad-spectrum
e) only for infections caused by mycobacteria.
782) Name aminoglycoside antibiotic:

a) erythromycin
b) *gentamicin
c) vancomycin
d) polymyxin
e) lincomycin
783) Drug from imipenems:

a) methicillin
b) isoniazid
35
c) tazocine
d) atropine
e) *tienam
784) Name side effect characteristic for aminoglycosides:

a) hepatotoxicity
b) SNC toxicity
c) *ototoxicity
d) cardiotoxicity
e) mielotoxicity
785) The main side efects of aminoglycosides are EXCEPT:

a) Ototoxicity
b) Nephrotoxicity
c) *Extrapyramidal disorders
d) Neuromuscular blockade
e) Nause and vomiting
786) Aminoglycosides have the following spectrum of action:

a) gram positive microorganisms, anaerobic, spirochete
b) The broad spectrum, exception - Pseudomonas aeruginosa
c) gram-negative microorganisms, anaerobic
d) *The broad spectrum, exception - anaerobes and viruses
e) gram-negative cocci, Rickettsia, fungal
787) Which one of the following drugs is most likely to cause loss of equilibrium and ototoxicity?
a) *Canamycin
b) Ethambutol
c) Isoniazid
d) Para-aminosalicylic acid
e) Rifabutin
788) Has the capacity to cause ototoxicity, nephrotoxicity, and neuromuscular blockade:
a) vancomycine
b) augmenthine
c) cefachlor
d) erythromycin
e) *gentamicin
789) Named one of the major indications of aminoglycosides:

a) typhus
b) streptococcal angina
c) meningitis
d) typhoid
e) *coli bacillary pyelonephritis
790) Name the adverse effects of aminoglycosides:

a) pancytopenia
b) hepatotoxicity
c) *ototoxicity, nephrotoxicity
d) mucosal gastroinitestinale irritation
e) agranulocytosis
791) Macrolides include of from the following drugs EXCEPT:

a) clarithromycin
b) olethetrin
c) *kanamycin
d) roxythromycin
e) oleandomycin
36
Credits: M1439, M1445, M1447, M1449
792) What are the characteristics for lincosamides?
a) broad-spectrum; bactericidal effect.
b) influence predominantly anaerobes, gram negative cocci.
c) broad-spectru; bacteriostatic effect
d) *influence predominantly anaerobes, gram positive cocci
e) gram-negative cocci, gram-positive cocci and gram-negative bacilli.
793) What is the adverse reaction for lincosamides?

a) nephrotoxicity
b) carcinogenic effect
c) *pseudomembranous colitis
d) respiratory irritation
e) ototoxicity and neurotoxicitae.
794) Chloramphenicol mechanism of action is:

a) Changes the shape of 30 rRNA to cause mRNA to be read incorrectly
b) *Binds to 50s rRNA and inhibits formation of peptide bond
c) Binds to 50s rRNA and prevents movement along mRNA
d) Interferes with the tRNA anticodon reading of mRNA codon
e) Inhibits folic acid metabolism
795) Which antibiotic most easily penetrate into the CNS:

a) benzylpenicillin
b) streptomycin
c) *chloramphenicol
d) tetracycline
e) erythromycin
796) A bacteremic patient is being treated with an antibiotic. Following one week of therapy, this patients develops
severe bone marrow depression resulting in pancytopenia. Which antibiotic is the most likely cause of this patient's toxic
reaction?
a) Doxycycline
b) *Chloramphenicol
c) Azithromycin
d) Gentamycin
e) Ciprofloxacin
797) A one-yr-old baby who has been diagnosed with brain abscess is undergoing an antibiotic treatment. The baby
develops abdominal distention, emesis, and irregular respiration. Name antibiotic that is the most likely cause of this baby's
toxic reaction?
a) Oxytetracycline
b) Amikacin
c) Clarithromycin
d) Sparfloxacin
e) *Chloramphenicol
798) Tetracyclines, such as doxycycline, are effective against rare infections. Which of the epidemic infections that
can be treated with doxycycline is associated with voluminous rice-water diarrhea and may be seen as an epidemic in third
world countries?
a) Chancroid (Haemophilus ducreyi)
b) Rabid fever (Francisella tularensis)
c) Black plague (Yersinia pestis)
d) Brucellosis (Brucella species)
e) *Cholera (Vibrio choler)
799) Among the side effects of tetracycline that may be seen in children taking the drug for long or short periods is:
a) *depression of bone growth
b) ototoxicity
37
c) nefrotoxicity
d) gastrointestinal irritation
e) allergy
800) Which drug from tetracyclines should be used for spirochetes Borellia burgdorferi.?
a) Demeclocycline
b) *Doxycycline
c) Tetracycline
d) Oxytetracycline
e) Minocycline
801) What kind of side effect is more frequent in tetracycline administration?

a) Agranulocytoses
b) Anemia
c) Renal disturbances
d) Allergic reaction
e) *Bones destruction and teeth coloration
802) Which of the types of drugs binds to teeth and can cause discoloration?
a) *Tetracyclines
b) Macrolides
c) Cephalosporins
d) Penicillins
e) Sulfonamides
803) What is the most common adverse reaction for tetracyclines?

a) Prolonged bleeding
b) Aplastic anemia
c) Bloody diarrhea
d) Seizures
e) *Tooth enamel dysplasia
804) Patients on tetracycline should due which of the following to prevent toxicity?
a) Brush their teeth
b) Exercise regularly
c) *Limit exposure to sunlight
d) Rest at least six hours each night
e) Eat a complete diet including meat and dairy
805) A patient presents with pain in their right side. After physical exam and testing, a fatty liver is found. History is
negative for excessive alcohol use. Name classe of antibiotics that could have caused this:
a) *Tetracyclines
b) Aminoglycosides
c) Cephalosporins
d) Fluoroquinolones
e) Sulfonamides
806) Name drug associated with gray baby syndrome?

a) Demeclocycline
b) Doxycycline
c) Tetracycline
d) Oxytetracycline
e) *Chloramphenicol
807) Which drug would be given to a patient with rickettsia who is allergic to doxycycline?
a) Demeclocycline
b) Tetracycline
c) *0Chloramphenicol
d) Minocycline
e) Oxytetracycline
38
Credits: M1439, M1445, M1447, M1449
808) What antibiotic has strong bactericidal effect?
a) tetracycline
b) macrolide
c) *penicillins
d) chloramphenicol
e) aminoglycoside
809) What remedy is from macrolides group?

a) neomycin
b) doxycycline
c) *erythromycin
d) cefotaxime
e) imipenem
810) What kind of side effect is more frequent in penicillin's administration?

a) agranulocytoses
b) anemia
c) renal disturbances
d) *allergic reaction
e) disbacteriosis
811) Erythromycin works by which of the mechanisms?

a) *Disruption of protein synthesis via ribosomes
b) Inhibition of DNA gyrase
c) Inhibition of reverse transcriptase
d) Inhibition of fungal membrane
e) Inhibition of cell wall synthesis
812) What are the specific adverse effects of erythromycin:

a) agranulocytosis
b) *acoustic-vestibular disorders
c) nausea , vomiting and gastrointestinal irritation
d) apnea with neuromuscular
e) polyneuritis
813) What remedy is from carbapenem group?

a) aztreonam
b) amoxicillin
c) *imipinem
d) clarithromycin
e) doxycycline
814) What remedy-is from tetracycline group?

a) *doxycycline
b) streptomycin
c) clarithromycin
d) amoxicillin
e) penicillin
815) Name antibiotic from lincosamides:

a) gentamicin
b) streptomycin
c) *clindamycin
d) neomycin
e) kanamycin
816) Name antibiotic that inhibits RNA synthesis:

39
a) erythromycin
b) *rifampicin
c) chloramphenicol
d) imipinem
e) azithromycin
817) Aminoglycosides are effective against:

a) Gram positive microorganisms, anaerobic microorganisms, spirochetes
b) Broad-spectum, except Pseudomonas aeruginosa
c) Gram negative microorganisms, anaerobic microorganisms
d) *Broad-spectum, except anaerobic microorganisms and viruses
e) Only anaerobic microorganisms
818) Which of the antimicrobial drug would affect gram-negative aerobes (versus gram-positive cocci/bacilli)?
a) Nafcillin
b) Vancomycin
c) *Gentamycin
d) Erythromycin
e) Clindamycin
819) Choose the characteristics of chloramphenicol:

a) *Broad-spectum. not active against chlamydia.
b) Influences only the Gram-positive microorganisms.
c) Influences only the Gram-negative microorganisms.
d) Broad-spectum. Active also against chlamydia.
e) Narrow-spectrum. Demonstrates a bactericidal effect.
820) May be fatal to neonates owing to an inability to conjugate the drug with glucuronic acid:
a) *Chloramphenicol
b) Polymyxin B
c) Erythromycin
d) Kanamycin
e) Neomycin
821) Which of the following antibiotics penetrate the easiest in cephalorachidian liquid?
a) benzathine benzyl penicillin
b) streptomycin
c) chloramphenicol
d) *tetracycline
e) erythromycin
822) The drug chloramphenicol is risky for which categories of patients?

a) *Neonates
b) Congestive heart failure patients
c) Obese patients
d) Adult males
e) Geriatric patients
823) Name drug that can cause irreversible bone marrow depression, leading to aplastic anemia:
a) Oxytetracyclin
b) Minocycline
c) *Chloramphenicol
d) Tetracycline
e) Demeclocycline
824) Chloramphenicol has the following unwanted effects:

a) Nephrotoxicity
b) *Pancytopenia
c) Hepatotoxicity
d) Ototoxicity
40
Credits: M1439, M1445, M1447, M1449
e) Hypertension
825) Erythromycin may produce following side effects:

a) Agranulocytosis
b) *Vestibular disorders
c) Hepatoxic effects
d) Apnea caused by neuromuscular blocker
e) Polineuritis
826) Name following antibiotic, which is used for abdominal typhus treatment:
a) benzathine benzylpenicillin
b) benzylpenicillin potassium
c) *tetracycline
d) cloramphenicol
e) kanamycin
827) Pick out substance that inhibits the human enzyme dehydropeptidase:
a) *Cilastatin
b) Sulbactam
c) Sultiam
d) Aztreonam
e) Tazobactam
828) Cilastatin can therefore be combined intravenously with ______________ in order to protect it from renal
dehydropeptidase:
a) *imipenem
b) meropenem
c) carbepenem
d) aztreonam
e) Tazobactam
829) Choose the characteristics of lincozamides:

a) Broad-spectum. Demonstrates a bactericidal effect.
b) Influence mainly the anaerobic organisms, Gram negative cocci.
c) Broad-spectum. Demonstrates a bacteristatic effect.
d) Influence mainly the anaerobic organisms, Gram positive cocci
e) *Influence mainly the aerobic organisms, Gram positive cocci
830) What kind of remedy will color tears in red-orange color?

a) cloramphenicol
b) *rifampicine
c) metronidazol
d) carbenicilline
e) neomycine
831) Lincozamides have the following unwanted effect:

a) Nephrotoxicity
b) Cancerogenity
c) *Pseudomembranous collitis
d) Irritation of respiratory organs
e) Nonspecific ulcerative colitis
832) Which of the following drugs is used for systemic and deep mycotic infections treatment:
a) Co-trimoxazol
b) Griseofulvin
c) *Amphotericin B
d) Nitrofungin
e) Vancomicin
41
833) Mechanism of Amphotericin B action is:
a) Inhibition of cell wall synthesis
b) Inhibition of fungal protein synthesis
c) Inhibition of DNA synthesis
d) *Alteration of cell membrane permeability
e) Inhibition of RNA synthesis
834) Witch drug is from quinolones?

a) nitroxoline
b) *nalidixic acid
c) furazolidon
d) co-trimoxazole
e) furasolidone
835) Mechanism of sulfonamides' antibacterial effect is:

a) Inhibition of dihydropteroate reductase
b) *Inhibition of dihydropteroate synthase
c) Inhibition of cyclooxygenase
d) Activation of DNA gyrase
e) Inhibition of dihydropteroate oxydase
836) Mechanism of action of sulphonamides is:

a) To inhibit alaninaminotransferase.
b) *To inhibit dihydropteroatsynthetase
c) To inhibit H K ATPase
d) To inhibit the enzyme transpeptidase
e) To inhibit monoaminoxidase
837) Name sulfonamides, which act only in the intestinal area:

a) Sulfocarbamides
b) *Ftalilsulfatiazol
c) Sulfacetamide
d) Sulfa Ethiodol
e) Sulfadimidine
838) Sulphonamides with gastrointestinal action:

a) streptocide, sulphacarbamide, sulphadimidine
b) lidaprim, sulphaton, co-trimoxazole
c) sulphacethamide, sulphadiazine
d) *sulphaguanide, sulphasalazine, salazodine.
839) What kind of side effects may Sulfonamides produce?

a) Colestasis
b) *Chrystalluria
c) Pseudomembranous Colitis
d) Neuromuscular Block
e) Balance Disturbances
840) Sulfonamides and nalidixic acid can cause hemolysis in patients that are deficient in what enzyme?
a) Phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase
b) Fructose 1,6-bisphosphatase
c) *Glucose 6-phosphate
d) Glucokinase
e) Fructokinase
841) The enzyme that sulfonamides inhibit (para-aminobenzoic acid, PABis needed for bacterial production of which
of the substrat which is required for synthesis of DNA, RNA, and protein?
a) Murein
b) Niacin
42
Credits: M1439, M1445, M1447, M1449
c) *Folic acid
d) Arachidonic acid
e) Phosphodiesterase
842) Bactrim is an effective and cheap medication containing a sulphonamide and trimethoprim. Which enzyme is
targeted by trimethoprim?
a) Monohydropteroate synthase
b) Monohydrofolate reductase
c) Dihydropteroate synthase
d) *Dihydrofolate reductase
e) Phosphodiesterase
843) Combination of sulfonamides with trimethoprim:

a) Decreases the unwanted effects of sulfonamides
b) *Increases the antimicrobial activity
c) Decreases the antimicrobial activity
d) Increases the elimination ofsulfonamides
e) Decreases the elimination ofsulfonamides
844) Name sulphonamide drug:

a) streptomycin
b) penicillin
c) *co-trimoxazole
d) chloramphenicol
e) clarithromycin
845) Mechanism of action of sulfonamides?

a) Changes the shape of 30 rRNA to cause mRNA to be read incorrectly
b) Binds to 50s rRNA and inhibits formation of peptide bond
c) Binds to 50s rRNA and prevents movement along mRNA
d) Interferes with the tRNA anticodon reading of mRNA codon
e) *Inhibits folic acid metabolism
846) Show mechanism of action of sulphonamides:

a) Inhibition of RNA-polymerase
b) *Have the competitive antagonism with paraaminobenzoic acid
c) Inhibition of acetylcholinesterase
d) Activation of dihydropholatreductase
e) Inhibition of cell wall
847) Sulfonamides have been considered the agents of choice in the treatment of :
a) *pneumonia
b) allergy
c) cellulites
d) inflammation
e) acute pain
848) Which enzyme is targeted by sulfonamide?

a) Monohydropteroate synthase
b) Monohydrofolate reductase
c) *Dihydropteroate synthase
d) Dihydrofolate reductase
e) Tetrahydrofolate reductase
849) Name sulfonamide would be used to treat ulcerative colitis?

a) Sulfacetamide
b) Trimethoprim
c) Co-trimazole
43
d) Sulfamethoxazole
e) *Sulfasalazine
850) Co-trimazole is used in patient who develop P. carinii pneumonia. This type of pneumonia is seen in what type
of patient?
a) Neonates
b) Elderly
c) *Immune compromised
d) Patients taking warfarin
e) Patients with glucose-6-phosphate deficiency
851) Name sulfonamide used topically for ocular infections?

a) *Sulfacetamide
b) Trimethoprim
c) Co-trimazole
d) Sulfamethoxazole
e) Sulfasalazine
852) Which drug is used in bacterial infections of the eyes?

a) sulphaguanide
b) sulphadimethoxine
c) *sulfacetamide
d) sulphadiazine
e) sulphaton
853) Mechanism of Trimethoprim' action is:

a) Inhibition of cyclooxygenase
b) *Inhibition of dihydrofolate reductase
c) Inhibition of dihydropteroate synthase
d) Inhibition of DNA gyrase
e) Inhibition of aldoreductase
854) Which of the effetcs was accomplished with second-generation fluoroquinolones?

a) Decreased potency (toxicity)
b) Increased potency (effectiveness)
c) Decreased protein binding (less drug-drug interaction)
d) Added activity against anaerobes
e) *Improved gram-positive antibiotic activity
855) Fluoroquinolones inhibit which topoisomerase in gram-positive bacteria?

a) I
b) II
c) III
d) *IV
e) non of the above
856) Which group of drugs can cause CNS symptoms and have a tendancy to damage cartiledge, thus should never
be given to children under the age of 18?
a) Penicillins
b) Cephalosporins
c) Macrolides
d) Aminoglycosides
e) *Fluoroquinolones
857) Name the antibacterial drug - a nitrofurane derivative:

a) *Nitrofurantoin
b) Trimethoprim
c) Ciprofloxacin
d) Nystatin
e) Metronidazole
44
Credits: M1439, M1445, M1447, M1449
858) Name the antibacterial drug - a nitroimidazole derivative:
a) Clavulanic acid
b) *Metronidazole
c) Nitrofurantoin
d) Doxycycline
e) Nystatin
859) Witch drug is from 8-oxyquinolinics?

a) *nitroxoline
b) nalidixic acid
c) furazolidon
d) co-trimoxazole
e) tetracycline
860) Name the antibacterial drug - a quinolone derivative:

a) Nitrofurantoin
b) *Nalidixic acid
c) Streptomycin
d) Metronidazole
e) Nystatin
861) Name the antibacterial drug - a fluoroquinolone derivative:

a) Chloramphenicol
b) Nitrofurantoin
c) Nalidixic acid
d) *Ciprofloxacin
e) Metronidazole
862) Name the main indications for nitrofuranes:

a) Infections of respiratory tract
b) *Infections of urinary and gastro-intestinal tracts
c) Syphilis
d) Tuberculosis
e) As a disinfectant
863) Name the indications for metronidazole:

a) *Intra-abdominal infections, vaginitis, enterocolitis
b) Pneumonia
c) As a disinfectant
d) Influenza
e) Tuberculosis
864) Mechanism of action of metronidazol:

a) Inhibits protein synthesis by blocking ribosomal movement along messenger RNA
b) *The drug undergoes a reductive bioactivation of its nitro group by ferredoxin (prezent in anacrobie parasites) to form
reactive cytotoxic products
c) The drug blocks glucose uptakc, which leads to decreased formation of ATP
d) It may act by uncoupling oxidative phosphorylation or by activating ATP-ases
e) Inhibits synthesis of cell wall of microbes
865) The mechanism of fluoroquinolones' action is:

a) Inhibition of phospholipase C
b) *Inhibition of DNA gyrase
c) Inhibition of bacterial cell synthesis
d) Alteration of cell membrane permeability
e) Inhibition of pyridoxalphosphate synthesis
45
866) Fluoroquinolones are active against:
a) Gram negative microorganisms only
b) Mycoplasmas and Chlamidiae only
c) Gram positive microorganisms only
d) *Variety of Gram-negative and positive microorganisms, including Mycoplasma and Chlamidiae
e) Only protozoa and anaerobes
867) Fluoroquinolones works by which mechanisms?

a) Disruption of protein synthesis via ribosomes
b) *Inhibition of DNA gyrase
c) Inhibition of reverse transcriptase
d) Inhibition of fungal membrane
868) The drug of choice for syphilis treatment is:

a) Gentamycin
b) *Penicillin
c) Chloramphenicol
d) Doxycycline
e) Tetracycline
869) The main drugs used in lues?

a) tetracycline
b) *benzylpenicillins
c) erythromycin
d) co-trimoxazole
e) Chloramphenicol
870) Mechanism of Cycloserine's action is:

a) Inhibition of mycolic acids synthesis
b) Inhibition of RNA synthesis
c) *Inhibition of cell wall synthesis
d) Inhibition of pyridoxalphosphate synthesis
e) Inhibition of DNA synthesis
871) Mechanism of Streptomycin action is:

b) *Inhibition of protein synthesis
c) Inhibition of DNA synthesis
d) Inhibition of cell membranes permeability
e) Inhibition of RNA synthesis
872) Which chemotherapies may produce reactions from the disulfiram type?
a) cloramfenicol
b) gentamicin
c) *metronidazol
d) clotrimazol
e) ofloxacin
873) Antifungal polyene macrolide that preferentially binds to fungal ergosterol which alters cellular permeability:
a) ketoconazole
b) *amphotericin B
c) flucytosine
d) grisefulvin
e) clotrimazole
874) Amphotericin and nystatin are what type of antifungal drugs?

a) *Polyenes
b) Azoles
46
Credits: M1439, M1445, M1447, M1449
c) Pyrimidines
d) Imidasoles
e) Bis- quaternary ammoniac salts
875) An azole most commonly used for topical treatment of candidiasis:

a) amphotericin B
b) *clotrimazole
c) griseofulvin
d) flucytosine
e) none of the answers
876) Antifungal agent useful in treatment of candidiasis:

a) Amphotericin B
b) Nystatin
c) *Both
d) Neither
877) Polyene used topically; active against most Candida species--most commonly used for suppression of local
candidal infection:
a) miconazole
b) terbinafine
c) nystatin
d) fluconazole
e) *flucytosine
878) Inhibition of fungal squalene epoxidase is this antifungal drug's mechanism of action:
a) ketoconazole
b) fluconazole
c) *terbinafine
d) nystatin
e) flucytosine
879) Given by i.v. administration, the drug of choice for nearly all life-threatening mycotic infections--usually used
as the initial induction regiment:
a) ketoconazole
b) itraconazole
c) flucytosine
d) *amphotericin B
e) nystatin
880) First available reverse transcriptase drug for treatment of HIV-1; a deoxythymidine analogue:
a) foscarnet
b) *zidovudine
c) amantidine
d) indinavir
e) remantadine
881) Saquinavir and ritonavir are what type of drugs?
a) Fusion inhibitors
b) Ion channel blockers
c) Polymerase inhibitors
d) *Protease inhibitors
e) Neuraminidase inhibitors
882) Amantadine and rimantadine are what type of drugs?

b) *Ion channel blockers
d) Protease inhibitors
47
e) Neuraminidase inhibitors
883) Zanamivir and oseltamivir are what type of drugs?

b) Ion channel blockers
d) Protease inhibitors
e) *Neuraminidase inhibitors
884) HIV protease inhibitor:

a) rimantadine
b) ribavirin
c) *saquinavir
d) stavudine
e) remantadine
885) These drug is prophylactic against influenza A virus infection with 80% efficacy:
a) zidovudine
b) saquinavir
c) ribavarine
d) acyclovir
e) *amantadine
886) Effective antiviral agent, which is also approved for use in the treatment of Parkinson disease:
a) Idoxuridine
b) *Amantadine
c) Vidarabine
d) Cytarabine
e) Trifluridine
887) Name standard therapy for CMV infections?

a) Idoxuridine
b) Cytarabine
c) *Ganciclovir
d) Vidarabine
e) Zidovudine
888) Therapy for viral infections is aimed at which of the following?

a) Enhancing CD4 counts
b) Enveloping viral infected cells
c) Lysing viral infected cells
d) Destroying viruses directly
e) *Preventing or delaying viral replication
889) Protease inhibitors (PIs) block which of the following steps in the viral life cycle?
a) Binding
b) Reverse transcription
c) Integration
d) Transcription
e) *Assembly
890) AZT (Retrovir), also called zidovudine, is used in the treatment of HIV by inhibiting which step in the viral life
cycle?
a) Binding
b) *Reverse transcription
c) Integration
d) Transcription
e) Translation
48
Credits: M1439, M1445, M1447, M1449
891) Acyclovir is phosphorylated by viral kinsases at which step?
a) *First (mono-phosphate)
b) Second (di-phosphate)
c) Third (tri-phosphate)
d) Transcription
e) Translation
892) AZT (Zidovudinhas) what mechanism of action?

a) Blocks viral absorption
b) Blocks uncoating stage
c) Blocks early protein synthesis
d) *Blocks reverse transcriptase
e) Blocks packaging and assembly
893) Mechanism of action of zidovudine:

a) It induce the formation of enzymes, that phosphorylates a factor witch blocks peptide chain initiation, a
phosphodiesterase that degrades terminal nucleotides of t RNA and enzymes that activate kinase
b) They inhibit the first steps in replication of the influenza A and rubella viruses
c) *inhibits reverse transcriptase of HIV-1 and HIV-2 and causes chain termination in viral DNA
d) it is active against herpes simplex virus and varicella- zoster virus, by inhibition of DNA- polymerase
e) inhibit protein formation in viruses
894) Name the drug used for HIV infection treatment, a derivative of nucleosides:
a) Acyclovir
b) *Zidovudine
c) Gancyclovir
d) Trifluridine
e) Amantadine
895) Name the drug from antivirale group with wide spectrum of action:
a) Saquinavir
b) *Interferon alfa
c) Didanozine
d) Acyclovir
e) Zidovudine
896) Most likely to cause additive myelosuppresion in an HIV patient also receiving ganciclovir for CMV retinitis:
a) didanosine
b) *zidovudine
c) zalcitabine
d) saquinavir
e) amantadine
897) Used to treat HSV (herpes):

a) zidovudine
b) *acyclovir
c) interferon
d) ribavirin
e) amantadine
898) Monophosphorylation of this antiviral drug is catalyzed by virus-specified protein kinase phosphotransferase in
CMV-infected cells and by viral thymidine kinase in HSV-infected (herpes) cells:
a) ganciclovir
b) foscarnet
c) cidofovir
d) valacyclovir
e) amantadine
49
899) Mechanism of paraaminosalicylic acid action is:
b) *Inhibition of folate synthesis
c) Inhibition of DNA dependent RNA polymerase
d) Inhibition of DNA gyrase
900) Indication for isoniazid:

a) Meningococcal meningitis
b) Typhoid fever
c) Subacute endocarditis
d) Lues
e) *Tuberculosis
901) Which of the following pairs of substances is matched?

a) *Ceruloplasmin - copper
b) Deferoxamine - iron
c) Isoniazid - pyridoxine
d) Vitamin B12 - zinc.
902) The most important drug for treatment of all types of tuberculosis is:
a) Augmentine
b) *Isoniazid
c) Aminosalicylic acid
d) Ampicylline
e) Clarithromycin
903) Which one of the following side effects is more characteristic for ethambutol:
a) proteinuria
b) *decreased visual acuity
c) nongouty polyarthralgia
d) hemolysis
e) methemoglobinemia
904) The important drugs for treatment of tuberculosis are:

a) penicillin, cloramphenicol, gentamicin
b) *isoniazid, riphampicin, ethambutol
c) aminosalicylic acid, nitroxoline, furazidine
d) norepinephrine, ephedrine, epineprine
e) atropine, neostigmine, aceclidine
905) The most common reaction to isoniazid therapy, if pyridoxine is not given concurrently, is:
a) *peripheral neuritis
b) hypersensitivity
c) optic neuritis
d) dryness of mouth
e) convulsions
906) Name drug used specifically only in M. leprae:

a) *Dapsone
b) Isoniazid
c) Rifampin
d) Pyrazinamide
e) Streptomycin
50
Credits: M1439, M1445, M1447, M1449
907) Name drug that can cause reversible optic neuritis:
a) *Ethambutol
b) Isoniazid
c) Rifampin
d) Pyrazinamide
e) Streptomycin
908) A 34-year-old man under treatment for pulmonary TB has acute-onset right big toe pains, swelling, and low-
grade fever. His physical exam is consistent with gouty arthritis, and he is found to have high serum uric acid levels. Name
anti-TB drug that is the most likely cause of this patient's UA levels?
a) Isoniazid
b) *Pyrazinamide
c) Cycloserine
d) Rifampin
e) Ethionamide
909) Isoniazid inhibits mycolid acid synthesis, disrupting bacterial walls and is associated with hepatotoxicity,
peripheral and central neuropathy, and optic neuritis. What vitamin should be given as a supplement with isoniazid to help
prevents these effects?
a) Vitamin A
b) Vitamin K
c) *Vitamin B6
d) Vitamin B12
e) Vitamin E
910) Name aminoglycoside only used for tuberculosis:

a) Ethambutol
b) Isoniazid
c) Rifampin
d) Pyrazinamide
e) *Streptomycin
911) A patient returns complaining of a reddish-orange color in their urine, saliva, sweat, and tears. Which drug from
anti TBC drugs was the patient likely taking?
a) Dapsone
b) Isoniazid
c) *Rifampicin
Pyrazinamide
d) Streptomycin
912) Name a pro-drug that is activated by tuberculosis and can cause hyperuricemia?
a) Ethambutol
b) Isoniazid
c) Rifampin
d) *Pyrazinamide
e) Streptomycin
913) Which of the following is considered a second-line antitubercular agent?

a) *Para-aminosalicyclic acid
b) Isoniazid
c) Rifampin
d) Pyrazinamide
e) Streptomycin
51
914) Name the antimycobacterial drug belonging to first-line (I group) agents:
a) para-aminosalicylic acid
b) *Isoniazid
c) Kanamycin
d) Pyrazinamide
e) Prothyonamide
915) Name the antimycobacterial drug, belonging to antibiotics:

a) Isoniazid
b) PAS
c) Ethambutol
d) *Rifampin
e) Pyrazinamide
916) Mechanism of Izoniazid action is:

a) Inhibition of protein synthesis
b) *Inhibition of mycolic acids synthesis
c) Inhibition of RNA synthesis
d) Inhibition of ADP synthesis
e) Inhibition of DNA dependent RNA polymerase
917) Mechanism of Rifampin action is:

b) *Inhibition of DNA dependent RNA polymerase
c) Inhibition of topoisomerase II
d) Inhibition of cAMP synthesis
e) Inhibition of protein synthesis
918) Mechanism of Streptomycin action is:

b) *Inhibition of protein synthesis
c) Inhibition of RNA and DNA synthesis
d) Inhibition of cell membranes permeability
e) Inhibition of pyridoxalphosphate synthesis
919) Name unwanted effect of ethambutol:

a) Cardiotoxicity
b) Immunotoxicity
c) *Retrobulbar neuritis with red-green color blindness
d) Hepatotoxicity
e) Ototoxicity, nephrotoxicity
920) Name unwanted effect of streptomycin:

a) Cardiotoxicity
b) Hepatotoxicity
c) Retrobulbar neuritis with red-green color blindness
d) *Ototoxicity, nephrotoxicity, neuromuscular blockage
e) Immunotoxicity
921) Name the antimalarial drug having a gametocidal effect:

a) Mefloquine
b) *Primaquine
c) Doxycycline
d) Sulfonamides
e) Quinidine
922) Name the drug used for malaria chemoprophylaxis and treatment:
a) *Chloroquine
b) Quinidine
52
Credits: M1439, M1445, M1447, M1449
c) Quinine
d) Sulfonamides
e) Metronidazole
923) Name the group of antibiotics having an antimalarial effect:

a) Aminoglycosides
b) *Tetracyclins
c) Sulfonamides
d) Penicillins
e) Carbapenems
924) What antimalarial preparation has an anti inflammmatory action?

a) *Chloroquine
b) Quinine
c) Primetamin
d) Primaquine
e) Emetine
925) Name the drug used for trichomoniasis treatment:

a) *Metronidazole
b) Suramin
c) Pyrimethamine
d) Tetracycline
e) Quinidine
926) Name the drug used for balantidiasis treatment:

a) Azitromycin
b) *Tetracycline
c) Quinine
d) Trimethoprim
e) Quinidine
927) Name the drug, blocking acetylcholine transmission at the myoneural junction of helminthes:
a) Levamisole
b) Mebendazole
c) *Piperazine
d) Niclosamide
e) Suramin
928) Describe niclosamide mechanism of action:

a) Increasing cell membrane permeability for calcium, resulting in paralysis, and death of helminthes
b) Blocking acetylcholine transmission at the myoneural junction and paralysis of helminthes
c) *Inhibiting microtubule synthesis in helminthes and irreversible impairment of glucose uptake
d) Inhibiting oxidative phosphorylation in some species of helminthes
e) Inhibiting microtubule synthesis in helminthes
929) Describe praziquantel mechanism of action:

a) Blocking acetylcholine transmission at the myoneural junction and paralysis of helminthes
b) Inhibiting microtubule synthesis in helminthes and irreversible impairment of glucose uptake
c) *Increasing cell membrane permeability for calcium, resulting in paralysis, dislodgement and death of helminthes
d) Inhibiting oxidative phosphorylation in some species of helminthes
e) Increasing cell membrane permeability for calcium
930) Describe piperazine mechanism of action:

a) Inhibiting microtubule synthesis in helminthes and irreversible impairment of glucose uptake
53
b) *Blocking acetylcholine transmission at the myoneural junction and paralysis of helminthes
c) Inhibiting oxidative phosphorylation in some species of helminthes
d) Increasing cell membrane permeability for calcium, resulting in paralysis, dislodgement and death of helminthes
e) Inhibiting microtubule synthesis in helminthes
931) Describe mebendazole mechanism of action:

a) Inhibiting oxidative phosphorylation in some species of helminthes
b) Increasing cell membrane permeability for calcium, resulting in paralysis, dislodgement and death of helminthes
c) *Inhibiting microtubule synthesis in helminthes and irreversible impairment of glucose uptake
d) Blocking acetylcholine transmission at the myoneural junction and paralysis of helminthes
e) Increasing cell membrane permeability for sodium
932) Name the drug, inhibiting oxidative phosphorylation in some species of helminthes:
a) *Niclosamide
b) Piperazine
c) Praziquantel
d) Metronidazole
e) Mebendazole
933) Name the drug for nematodosis (roundworm invasion) treatment:

a) Niclosamide
b) Praziquantel
c) *Pyrantel
d) Metronidazole
e) Bithionol
934) Name the drug for cestodosis (tapeworm invasion) treatment:

a) Piperazine
b) *Praziquantel
c) Pyrantel
d) Ivermectin
e) Metronidazole
935) Name the drug for echinococcosis treatment:

a) Suramin
b) *Mebendazole or Albendazole
c) Piperazine
d) Iodoquinol
e) Metronidazole
936) Adverse drug interactions may occur due to alteration of:

a) pharmacodynamics
b) distribution
c) excretion
d) absorption
e) *all of them
937) Universal antagonist is:

a) *unitiol
b) protamine sulfate
c) naloxone
d) atropine
e) flumazenil
938) Antagonist of heparin:

a) unitiol
54
Credits: M1439, M1445, M1447, M1449
b) *protamine sulfate
c) naloxone
d) atropine
e) flumazenil
939) Antagonis of pilocarpine:

a) unitiol
c) naloxone
d) *atropine
e) flumazenil
940) Antagonis of diazepam:

a) unitiol
c) naloxone
d) atropine
e) *flumazenil
941) Antagonis of opioids:

a) unitiol
c) *naloxone
d) atropine
e) flumazenil
55

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Question 501 Question 710 part 1

Which of the following is most useful in the treatment of hyperprolactemia?

Glucocorticoids are contraindicated in:

Prednisone is contraindicated in:

Name the indication for estrogens in oncological practice:

Hormone androgen preparations have following indications but one:

Which of the following drugs may be used in diabetes insipidus?

Give the definition of hormone analogues:

Name hormones produced by the hypothalamic gland:

Name the hormonal preparation of hypothalamus:

Which of the following hormone is not synthesized in the hypothalamus?

Name hormones produced by the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland:

Choose the indication for anabolic steroids:

Vasopressin possesses the following:

Which of the following drugs may be used in diabetes insipidus?

Concerning testosterone, all of the following are true EXCEPT:

Thyrotropin stimulates the following processes:

Insulin is a polypeptide hence:

Witch drug is indicated in diabetes insipitus?

Which drug is preferentially indicated in diabetes mellitus, type II?

Which of the following is true for glucagon?

Alpha-glucosidase inhibitors act by:

Insulin cannot be administered by:

Glucocorticosteroids are contraindicated in which of the below listed diseases?

Effects of the glucocorticoids do not include:

Choose following indications for antithyroid preparations:

Mineralocorticoid drug cause:

Immunosupressive effect of glucocorticoids is caused by:

Which of the following glucocorticoids is a long-acting drug?

Serious side effects of glucocorticoids include the following:

Glucocorticosteroids are contraindicated in which of the below listed diseases?

Glucocorticoids are hormonal steroids:

Which of the following glucocorticoids is an intermediate-acting drug?

Which of the following glucocorticoids is a short- to medium-acting drug?

Note the mechanism of antiplatelet action of acetylsalicylic acid:

Indicate the effect of protamine sulphate:

Note the mechanism of action of cumarins:

Which stage of arterial thrombosis is inhibited by acetylsalicylic acid:

Indicate the antithrombotic drug with fibrinolytic action:

Which antitrombotic drug activates AT III:

Indicate the antidote of oral anticoagulants:

Name the reason of acetylsalicylic acid long duration:

Which drug is better for long-term prophylaxis of venous thrombosis?

Which drug is from Coumarin derivates?

Name the drug which can't be used as local hemostatic:

Indicate heparine antagonist:

Indicate the mechanism of action of indirect anticoagulants:

What is specific for iron drugs, prescribed intravenously:

Indicate the pharmacologic feature of iron drugs:

Indicate the antagonist of indirect anticoagulants:

Tick the mechanism of action of sodium citrate:

Aminocapronic acid is a drug of choice for treatment of:

Indicate the pharmacologic feature of heparin:

Indicate heparin antagonist:

Choose the mechanism of action of heparin:

Which of the following antiaggregans inhibits prostaglandin synthesis?

Indicate low-molecular-weight heparin:

Indicate the drug that stop bleeding by vassoconstrictive action:

Note the mechanism of antiplatelet action of acetylsalicylic acid: