IIT-JEE - 2002

Prelims

Mathematics

1.
Let = -(1/2) + i(3/2), Then the value of the determinant is

1) 3
2) 3 ( - 1)

m
3) 3 2
4) 3 (1 - )

. c o
2. For all complex numbers Z 1, Z 2 satisfying | Z 1 | = 12 and | Z 2 - 3 - 4i | = 5, the minimum
value of | Z 1 - Z 2 | is
1) 0 2) 2 3) 7
e rs 4) 17

in e
3. If a1, a2,....., an are positive real numbers whose product is a fixed number c, then the

1) n (2c)1/n

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minimum value of a1 + a2 + . + an-1 + 2an is

2) (n + 1) c1/n
3) 2nc1/n

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4) (n + 1)(2c)1/n

D
a a4. Suppose a, b, c are in A.P and a2, b2, c2 are in G.P. If a < b < c and a + b + c = 3/2, then
the value of a is

F 1) 1/22
2) 1/23
3) (1/2) - (1/3)
4) (1/2) - (1/2)

5. The number of arrangements of the letters of the word BANANA in which the two N's do
not appear adjacently is
1) 40 2) 60 3) 80 4) 100

6.
The sum if p < q is maximum when m is

1) 5 2) 10 3) 15 4) 20

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 7. The number of values of k for which the system of equations
(k + 1) x + 8y = 4k
kx + (k + 3)y = 3k - 1
has infinitely many solutions is
1) 0 2) 1 3) 2 4) infinite

8. The set of all real numbers x for which x2 - |x + 2| + x > 0, is

1) (-, -2) (2, )
2) (-, -2) (2, )
3) (-, -1) (1, )
4) (2, )

9. The length of a longest interval in which the function 3 sin x - 4 sin3 x is increasing, is
1) /3 2) /2 3) 3/2 4)

o m
. c
rs
10. Which of the following pieces of data does NOT uniquely determine an acute-angled tri
angle ABC (R being the radius of the circumcircle) ?
1) a, sin A, sin B
2) a, b, c
e e
3) a, sin B, R
4) a sin A, R

g in
E n
11. The number of integral values of k for which the equation 7 cos x + 5 sin x = 2k + 1 has a
solution is
1) 4

o O 2) 8 3) 10 4) 12

a D
12. Let O < < /2 be a fixed angle.
If P = (cos , sin ) and Q = ( cos ( - ), sin ( - ) then Q is obtained from P by

Fa 1) clockwise rotation around origin through and angle

2) anti-clockwise rotation around origin through an angle
3) reflection in the line through origin with slope tan
4) reflection in the line through origin with slope tan /2

13. Let P = (-1, 0), Q = (0, 0) and R = (3, 33) be three points. Then the equation of the
bisector of the angle PQR is
1) (3/2) x + y = 0
2) x + 3y = 0
3) 3x + y = 0
4) x + (3/2)y = 0

14. A straight line through the origin O meets the parallel lines 4x + 2y = 9 and 2x + y + 6 = 0
points P and Q respectively. Then the point O divides the segment PQ in the ratio
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 1) 1 : 2
2) 3 : 4
3) 2 : 1
4) 4 : 3

15. If the tangent at the point P on the circle x2 + y2 + 6x + 6y = 2 meets the straight line 5x -
2y + 6 = 0 at a point Q on the y-axis, then the length of PQ is
1) 4 2) 2 5 3) 5 4) 3 5

16. If a > 2b > O then the positive value of m for which y = mx - b (1 + m 2) is a common
tangent to x2 + y2 = b2 and (x - a)2 + y2 = b2 is
1) 2b/(a2 4b2)
2) (a2 4b2)/2b
3) 2b/(a 2b)

o m
c
4) b/(a 2b)

rs .
17. The locus of the mid-point of the line segment joining the focus to a moving point on the
parabola y2 = 4ax is another parabola with directrix
1) x = -a

e e
in
2) x = -(a/2)
3) x = 0
4) x = a/2

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1) 1 E
18. The area bounded by the curves y = |x| -1 and y = -|x| + 1 is

O
2) 2 3) 22 4) 4

D o
19. Suppose f (x) = (x + 1)2 for -1. If g (x) is the function whose graph is the reflection of the

a agraph of f(x) with respect to the line y = x, then g(x) equals

1) - (x) - 1, x 0

F 2) 1/(x + 1)2, x > -1

3) (x + 1), x -1
4) (x - 1), x 0

20. Let function f : R R be defined by f(x) = 2x + sin x for x R. Then f is

1) one - to - one and onto
2) one - to - one but NOT onto
3) onto but NOT one - to - one
4) neither one - to - one nor onto

21. The domain of the derivative of the function

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 1) R - {0}
2) R - {1}
3) R - {-1}
4) R - {-1, 1}

22. The integer n for which

is a finite non - zero number is

1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4

23. Let f : R R be such that f(1) = 3 and f'(1) = 6.

Then equals
o m
. c
rs
1) 1
2) e1/2
3) e2

e e
in
4) e3

g
24. The point(s) on the curve y3 + 3x2 = 12y where the tangent is vertical, is (are)

n
E
1) ( (4/3), -2)
2) ( (11/3), 1)
3) (0, 0)

o
4) ( (4/3), 2) O
a D
25. The equation of the common tangent to the curves y2 = 8 x and x y = -1 is

Fa 1) 3y = 9x + 2
2) y = 2x + 1
3) 2y = x + 8
4) y = x + 2

26.
Let f (x) = dt. Then the real roots of the equation x2 - f ' (x) = 0 are

1) 1
2) (1/2)
3) (1/2)
4) 0 and 1

27. Let T > O be a fixed real number. Suppose f is a continuous function such that for all x R
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27. Let T > O be a fixed real number. Suppose f is a continuous function such that for all x R

f(x + T) = f (x). If I = dx then the value of

1) (3/2) I
2) 2 I
3) 3 I
4) 6 I

28.
The integral dx equals

1) -(1/2)
2) 0
3) 1
4) 2 In (1/2)
o m
. c
rs
29. If and are two unit vectors such that + 2 and 5 - 4 are perpendicular to each other
then the angle between and is

1) 45

e e
in
2) 60
3) cos-1 (1/3)
4) cos-1 (2/7)

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30. L e t
scalar triple product
O E is
is a unit vector, then the maximum value of the

1) -1

D o
a
2) 10 + 6

Fa 3) 59
4) 60

Physics

31. A particle of mass m and charge q moves with a constant velocity v along the positive x
direction. It enters a region containing a uniform magnetic field B directed along the nega
tive z direction, extending from x = a to x = b. The minimum value of v required so that the
particle can just enter the region x > b is
1) qb B/m
2) q (b - a) B/m
3) qa B/m
4) q (b + a) B/2m

32. Two equal point charges are fixed at x = -a and x = +a on the x-axis. Another point charge

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 Q is placed at the origin. The change in the electrical potential energy of Q, when it is
displaced by a small distance x along the x-axis, is approximately proportional to
1) x
2) x2
3) x3
4) 1/x

33. A long straight wire along the z-axis carries a current I in the negative z direction. The
magnetic vector field at a point having coordinates (x, y) in the z = 0 plane is

1) (oI/2) (y x )/(x2 + y2)

2) (oI/2) (x + y )/(x2 + y2)

3) (oI/2) (x - y )/(x2 + y2)

4) (oI/2) (x y )/(x2 + y2)

o m
. c
34. A 100 W bulb B1, and two 60 W bulbs B2 and B3, are connected to a 250V source, as

rs
shown in the figure. Now W1, W2 and W3 are the output powers of the bulbs B1, B2 and B3
respectively. Then

e e
g in
1) W1 > W2 = W3
E n
o
2) W1 > W2 > W3
O
D
3) W1 < W2 = W3

a a 4) W1 < W2 < W3

F
35. As shown in the figure, P and Q are two coaxial conducting loops separated by some
distance. When the switch S is closed, a clockwise current Ip flows in P (as seen by E) and
an induced current IQ1 flows in Q. The switch remains closed for a long time. When S is
opened, a current IQ2 flows in Q. Then the directions of IQ1 and IQ2 (as seen by E) are :

1) respectively clockwise and anti-clockwise

2) both clockwise
3) both anti-clockwise
4) respectively anti-clockwise and clockwise

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36. A short - circuited coil is placed in a time - varying magnetic field. Electrical power is dis
sipated due to the current induced in the coil. If the number of turns were to be quadrupled
and the wire radius halved, the electrical power dissipated would be
1) halved
2) the same
3) doubled
4) quadrupled

37. Two identical capacitors, have the same capacitance C. One of them is charged to poten
tial V1 and the other to V2. The negative ends of the capacitors are connected together.
When the positive ends are also connected, the decrease in energy of the combined
system is
1) (1/4)C(V21 - V22)
2) (1/4)C(V21 + V22)

o m
3) (1/4)C(V1 - V2)2

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4) (1/4)C(V1 + V2)2

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38. The magnetic field lines due to a bar magnet are correctly shown in

in
1)

2)
n g
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3)

D o
a a
F 4)

39. An ideal gas is taken through the cycle A B C A, as shown in the figure. If the net
heat supplied to the gas in the cycle is 5 J, the work done by the gas in the process C A
is

1) -5 J
2) -10 J
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 3) -15 J
4) -20 J

40. Which of the following graphs correctly represents the variation of = - (dV/d P) / V with P
for an ideal gas at constant temperature ?
1)

2)

3)

o m
. c
e rs
4)

in e
n g
O E
41. A hydrogen atom and Li++ ion are both in the second excited state. If lH and lLi are their re
spective electronic angular momenta, and EH and ELi their respective energies, then

o
1) lH > lLi and | EH | > | ELi |

D
a a 2) lH = lLi and | EH | < | ELi |
3) lH = lLi and | EH | > | ELi |

F 4) lH < lLi and | EH | < | ELi |

42. An ideal black - body at room temperature is thrown into a furnace. It is observed that
1) initially it is the darkest body and at later times the brightest
2) it is the darkest body at all times
3) it cannot be distinguished at all times
4) initially it is the darkest body and at later times it cannot be distinguished

43. The potential difference applied to an X- ray tube is 5 kV and the current through it is 3.2
mA. Then the number of electrons striking the target per second is
1) 2 x 1016
2) 5 x 1016

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 3) 1 x 1017
4) 4 x 1015

44. Which of the following processes represents a gamma - decay ?

1) AXZ + AXZ-1 + a + b
2) AXZ + 1no A-3XZ-2 + c
3) AXZ AXZ + f

4) AXZ + e-1 AXZ-1 + g

45. The half - life of 215At is 100 s. The time taken for the radioactivity of a sample of 215At
to decay to 1/16th of its initial value is
1) 400 s
2) 6.3 s

o m
c
3) 40 s
4) 300 s

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e
46. An observer can see through a pin-hole the top end of a thin rod of height h, placed as

e
shown in the figure. The beaker height is 3h and its radius h. When the beaker is-filled with
a liquid up to a height 2h, he can see the lower end of the rod. Then the refractive index of
the liquid is

g in
E n
o O
a
1) 5/2
D
Fa 2) (5/2)
3) (3/2)
4) 3/2

47. Which one of the following spherical lenses does not exhibit dispersion? The radii of cur
vature of the surfaces of the lenses are as given in the diagrams
1)

2)

3)

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 4)

48. In the ideal double- slit experiment, when a glass-plate (refractive index 1.5) of thickness t
is introduced in the path of one of the interfering beams (wave-length ), the intensity at
the position where the central maximum occurred previously remains unchanged. The
minimum thickness of the glass-plate is
1) 2 2) 2/3 3) /3 4)

49. Two plane mirrors is A and B are aligned parallel to each other, as shown in the figure. A
light ray is incident at an angle of 30 at a point just inside one end of A. The plane of
incidence coincides with the plane of the figure. The maximum number of times the ray un
dergoes reflections (including the first one) before it emerges out is

o m
. c
1) 28 2) 30 3) 32
e rs 4) 34

in e
50. A wooden block, with a coin placed on its top, floats in water as shown in figure. The

g
distances l and h are shown there. After some time the coin falls into the water. Then

n
O E
D o
a a
F 1) l decreases and h increases
2) l increases and h decreases
3) both l and h increase
4) both l and h decrease

51. A simple pendulum is oscillating without damping. When the displacement of the bob is
less then maximum, its acceleration vector is correctly shown in :
1)

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 2)

3)

4)

o
52. A cylinder rolls up an inclined plane, reaches some height, and then rolls down (without m
der are:
. c
slipping throughout these motions). The directions of the frictional force acting on the cylin

e
2) Up the incline while ascending as well as descending
rs
1) Up the incline while ascending and down the incline while descending

in e
3) down the incline while ascending and up the incline while descending
4) down the incline while ascending as well as descending

n g
53. A circular platform is free to rotate in a horizontal plane about a vertical axis passing
through its center. A tortoise is sitting at the edge of the platform. Now, the platform is

O E
given an angular velocity o. When the tortoise moves along a chord of the platform with
a constant velocity (with respect to the platform), the angular velocity of the platform (t)

o
will vary with time t as
1)

a D
Fa
2)

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 3)

4)

o m
. c
54. A particle, which is constrained to move along the x-axis, is subjected to a force in the
same direction which varies with the distance x of the particle from the origin as F (x) = -kx

energy U(x) of the particle is

e rs
+ ax3. Here k and a are positive constants. For x 0, the functional form of the potential

1)

in e
n g
2)

O E
D o
a a 3)

F
4)

55. Two blocks of masses 10 kg and 4 kg are connected by a spring of negligible mass and
placed on a frictionless horizontal surface. An impulse gives a velocity of 14 m/s to the
heavier block in the direction of the lighter block. The velocity of the center of mass is

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 1) 30 m/s
2) 20 m/s
3) 10 m/s
4) 5 m/s

56. A siren placed at a railway platform is emitting sound of frequency 5 kHz. A passenger
sitting in a moving train A records a frequency of 5.5 kHz while the train approaches the
siren. During his return journey in a different train B he records a frequency of 6.0 kHz
while approaching the same siren. The ratio of the velocity of train B to that of train A is
1) 242/252 2) 2 3) 5/6 4) 11/6

57. A sonometer wire resonates with a given tuning fork forming standing waves with five an
tinodes between the two bridges when a mass of 9 kg is suspended from the wire. When
this mass is replaced by a mass M, the wire resonates with the same tuning fork forming
three antinodes for the same positions of the bridges. The value of M is
1) 25 kg
o m
2) 5 kg

. c
rs
3) 12.5 kg
4) 1/25 kg

e e
58. An ideal spring with spring-constant k is hung from the ceiling and a block of mass M is

the maximum extension in the spring is

g in
attached to its lower end. The mass is released with the spring initially unstretched. Then

n
1) 4 Mg/k
2) 2 Mg/k
3) Mg/k
4) Mg/2k
O E
D o
59. A geo-stationary satellite orbits around the earth in a circular orbit of radius 36000 km.

a aThen, the time period of a spy satellite orbiting a few hundred kilometers above the earth's
surface ( REarth = 6400 km) will approximately be

F 1) 1/2 hr
2) 1 hr
3) 2 hr
4) 4 hr

60. The effective resistance between points P and Q of the electrical circuit shown in the figure
is

1) 2Rr/ (R + r)

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 2) 8R (R + r)/ (3R + r)
3) 2r + 4R
4) 5R/ 2 + 2r

Chemistry
Useful data
Mass of electron = 9.108 x 10-31 k g
Gas constant R = 0.082 L atm K-1 mo1-1
Avogadro number = 6.023 x 1023
Atomic number : Li = 3, Be = 4, B = 5, C = 6
61. How many moles of electron weighs one kilogram?
1) 6.023 x 1023
2) (1/9.108) x 1031
3) (6.023/9.108) x 1054

o m
c
4) (1/9.108 x 6.023) x 108

rs .
62. Which of the following volume (V) - temperature (T) plots represents the behaviour of one

e
mole of an ideal gas at one atmospheric pressure?
1)

in e
n g
2)

O E
D o
a a 3)

F 4)

63. A substance AX BY crystallizes in a face centered cubic (FCC) lattice in which atoms 'A'
occupy each corner of the cube and atoms 'B' occupy the centers of each face of the
cube. Identify the correct composition of the substance AX BY
1) AB3

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 2) A4B3
3) A3B
4) Composition cannot be specified

64. When the temperature is increased, surface tension of water

1) increase
2) decreases
3) remains constant
4) shows irregular behaviour

65. Rutherford's experiment, which established the nuclear model of the atom, used a beam
of
1) - particles, which impinged on a metal foil and got absorbed
2) - rays, which impinged on a metal foil and ejected electrons
3) helium atoms, which impinged on a metal foil and got scattered
o m
4) helium nuclei, which impinged on a metal foil and got scattered

. c
e rs
66. If the Nitrogen atom had electronic configuration Is7, it would have energy lower than that
of the normal ground state configuration 1s2 2s2 2p3, because the electrons would be

1) Heisenberg uncertainty principle

in e
closer to the nucleus. Yet, Is7 is not observed because it violates

2) Hund's rule
3) Pauli exclusion principle
n g
E
4) Bohr postulate of stationary orbits

O
o
67. Specify the coordination geometry around and hybridization of N and B atoms in a 1 : 1
complex of BF 3 and NH3

D
a a 1) N : tetrahedral, sp3 ; B : tetrahedral, sp3
2) N : pyramidal, sp3 ; B : pyramidal, sp3

F 3) N : pyramidal, sp3 ; B : planar, sp2

4) N : pyramidal, sp3 ; B : tetrahedral, sp3

68. One mole of a non-ideal gas undergoes a change of state (2.0 atm, 3.0 L, 95 K) (4.0
atm, 5.0 L, 245 K) with a change in internal energy,
U = 30.0 L atm. The change in
enthalpy ( H) of the process in L atm is
1) 40.0
2) 42.3
3) 44.0
4) not defined, because pressure is not constant

69. Consider the following equilibrium in a closed container:

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 N2O4 (g) 2NO2 (g)
At a fixed temperature, the volume of the reaction container is halved. For this change,
which of the following statements holds true regarding the equilibrium constant (Kp) and
degree of dissociation () ?
1) neither Kp nor changes
2) both Kp and change
3) Kp changes, but does not change
4) Kp does not change, but changes

70. Standard electrode potential data are useful for understanding the suitability of an oxidant
in a redox titration. Some half cell reactions and their standard potentials are given below:
(aq.) + 8H+ (aq.) + 5e-
Mn2+ (aq.) + 4H2O (l) E = 1.51V
(aq.) + 14H+ (aq.) + 6e-

o m
2Cr3+ (aq.) + 7H2O (l) E = 1.38V
Fe3+ (aq.) + e- Fe2+ (aq.) E = 0.77 V
. c
Cl2 (g) + 2e- 2Cl- (aq.) E = 1.40 V

e rs
Identify the only incorrect statement regarding the quantitative estimation of aq. Fe (NO3)2
1)
2)
can be used in aqueous HCl
can be used in aqueous HCl

in e
3)
4)
n g
can be used in aqueous H2SO4
can be used in aqueous H2SO4

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71. Consider the chemical reaction, N2 (g) + 3H2 (g) 2NH3 (g). The rate of this reaction can

D o
be expressed in terms of time derivative of concentration of N2 (g). H2 (g) or NH3 (g).
Identify the correct relationship amongst the rate expressions

a a 1) Rate = - d [ N2 ]/dt = - 1/3 d [ H2 ] /dt = 1/2 d [ NH3 ]/dt

2) Rate = - d [ N2 ]\dt = - 3 d [ H2 ]/dt = 2 d [ NH3 ]/dt

F 3) Rate = d [ N2 ]/dt = 1/3 d [ H2 ]/dt = 1/2 d [ NH3 ]/dt

4) Rate = - d [ N2 ]/dt = - d [ H2 ]/dt = d [ NH3 ]/dt

72. Anhydrous ferric chloride is prepared by

1) heating hydrated ferric chloride at a high temperature in a stream of air
2) heating metallic iron in a stream of dry chlorine gas
3) reaction of ferric oxide with hydrochloric acid
4) reaction of metallic iron with hydrochloric acid

73. Identify the correct order of solubility of Na2S, CuS and ZnS in aqueous medium
1) CuS > ZnS > Na2S
2) ZnS > Na2S > CuS
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 3) Na2S > CuS > ZuS
4) Na2S > ZnS > CuS

74. Which of the following processes is used in the extractive metallurgy of magnesium ?
1) fused salt electrolysis
2) self reduction
3) aqueous solution electrolysis
4) thermite reduction

75. An aqueous solution of a substance gives a white precipitate on treatment with dilute hy
drochloric acid, which dissolves on heating. When hydrogen sulfide is passed through the
hot acidic solution, a black precipitate is obtained. The substance is a
1) Hg22+ salt

2) Cu2+ salt

o m
c
3) Ag+ salt
4) Pb2+ salt

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76. A gas 'X' is passed through water to form a saturated solution. The aqueous solution on
treatment with silver nitrate gives a white precipitate. The saturated aqueous solution also

in
dissolves magnesium ribbon with evolution of a colourless gas 'Y'. Identify 'X' and 'Y'
1) X = CO2, Y = Cl2
2) X = Cl2, Y = CO2
3) X = Cl2, Y = H2
n g
4) X = H2, Y = Cl2

O E
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77. Polyphosphates are used as water softening agents because they
1) form soluble complexes with anionic species

a a 2) precipitate anionic species

F
3) form soluble complexes with cationic species
4) precipitate cationic species

78. Identify the correct order of acidic strengths of CO2, CuO, CaO, H2O
1) CaO < CuO < H2O < CO2
2) H2O < CuO < CaO < CO2
3) CaO < H2O < CuO < CO2
4) H2O < CO2 < CaO < CuO

79. Identify the least stable ion amongst the following :

1) Li-
2) Be

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 3) B-
4) C-

80. Which of the following molecular species has unpaired electron (s) ?
1) N2
2) F 2
3) O-2

4) O2-2

81. The nodal plane in the - bond of ethene is located in

1) the molecular plane
2) a plane parallel to the molecular plane
3) a plane perpendicular to the molecular plane which bisects the carbon - carbon
bond at right angle
-

o m
. c
4) a plane perpendicular to the molecular plane which contains the carbon - carbon -

rs
bond

1) 2 - methylbutene - 1
e e
82. Which of the following compounds exhibits stereoisomerism?

2) 3 - methylbutyne - 1
3) 3 - methylbutanoic acid

g in
4) 2 - methylbutanoic acid

E n
83. Which of the following acids has the smallest dissociation constant ?
1) CH3C H F COOH

o
2) F C H2 C H2 COOH
O
a D
3) BrCH2 C H2 COOH

Fa 4) C H3 CHBr COOH

84. Consider the following reaction :

H3C - CH - CH - CH3 + Br 'X' + HBr
| |
D CH3
Identify the structure of the major product 'X'
1) H3C - CH - CH - CH2
| |
D CH3
2) H3C - CH - CH - CH3
| |
D CH3
3) H3C - CH - CH - CH3

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 | |
D CH3
4) H3C - C - CH - CH3
|
CH3

85. Identify a reagent from the following list which can easily distinguish between 1-butyne and
2-butyne
1) bromine, CCI4
2) H2, lindlar catalyst
3) dilute H2SO4, HgSO4
4) ammoniacal Cu2Cl2 solution

86. Identify the correct order of boiling points of the following compounds:
1. CH3CH2CH2CH2OH
o m
2. CH3CH2CH2CHO

. c
rs
3. CH3CH2CH2COOH
1) 1 > 2 > 3
2) 3 > 1 > 2

e e
in
3) 1 > 3 > 2
4) 3 > 2 > 1

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87. Identify the set of reagents/ reaction conditions 'X' and 'Y' in the following set of trans
formations
CH3 CH2 CH2Br

O EProduct
Product

D oCH3 CH CH3
|
Br

a a 1) X = dilute aqueous NaOH, 20 C;

F
Y = HBr/acetic acid, 20 C
2) X = concentrated alcoholic NaOH, 80 C,
Y = HBr/ acetic acid, 20 C
3) X = dilute aqueous NaOH, 20 C,
Y = Br2\CHCl3 / 0 C
4) X = concentrated alcoholic NaOH, 80 C;
Y = Br2 / CHCl3, 0 C

88. Identify the correct order of reactivity in electrophilic substitution reactions of the following
compounds:

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 1) 1 > 2 > 3 > 4
2) 4 > 3 > 2 > 1
3) 2 > 1 > 3 > 4
4) 2 > 3 > 1 > 4

89. Compound 'A' (molecular formula C3H8O) is treated with acidified potassium dichromate
to form a product 'B' (molecular formula C3H6O) 'B' forms a shining silver mirror on
warming with ammoniacal silver nitrate. 'B' when treated with an aqueous solution of
H2NCONHNH2 HCI and sodium acetate gives a product 'C'
1) CH3CH2CH = NNHCONH2
2) CH3 - C = NNHCONH2
|
CH3
3) CH3 - C = NCONHNH2
|
o m
CH3

. c
rs
4) CH3CH2CH = NCONHNH2

1)
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90. Which of the following hydrocarbons has the lowest dipole moment ?

g in
2) CH3C CCH3
3) CH3CH2C CH
E n
4) CH2 = CH-C CH

o O
a D
Fa

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 Answer Key

1) 2 2) 2 3) 1 4) 4 5) 1 6) 3 7) 2 8) 2 9) 1 10) 4
11) 2 12) 4 13) 3 14) 2 15) 3 16) 1 17) 3 18) 2 19) 4 20) 1
21) 4 22) 3 23) 3 24) 4 25) 4 26) 1 27) 3 28) 1 29) 2 30) 3
31) 2 32) 2 33) 1 34) 4 35) 4 36) 2 37) 3 38) 1 39) 1 40) 1
41) 2 42) 1 43) 1 44) 3 45) 1 46) 2 47) 3 48) 1 49) 2 50) 4
51) 3 52) 2 53) 2 54) 4 55) 3 56) 2 57) 1 58) 2 59) 3 60) 1
61) 4 62) 3 63) 1 64) 2 65) 4 66) 3 67) 1 68) 2 69) 4 70) 1
71) 1 72) 2 73) 4 74) 1 75) 4 76) 3 77) 3 78) 1 79) 2 80) 4
81) 1 82) 4 83) 3 84) 2 85) 4 86) 2 87) 2 88) 3 89) 2 90) 2

o m
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e rs
in e
n g
O E
D o
a a
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