UTTARAKHAND PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION

GURUKUL KANGRI, HARIDWAR

Advertisement No. A-1/E-1/2010
Date of Advertisement : 29 May, 2010
COMBINED LOWER SUBORDINATE SERVICES EXAMINATION, 2010
Last date for the receipt of OMR application Form : 30th June, 2010
The detailed advertisement is also available on the website of Uttarakhand Public Service
Commission : www.gov.ua.nic.in/ukpsc

The Uttarakhand Public Service Commission will hold a written examination at various centers
mentioned in Appendix- I of this advertisement for the selection of Suitable Candidates to the state
Government through Combined Lower Subordinate Services Examination, 2010. The centers of
Preliminary and Main Examination and Date of Examination decided by the Commission, will be
intimated to the candidates later by means of their Admission Card. The Commission may at their
discretion allot/change the examination centre and date of examination when circumstances so
warrant. The candidates should note that no request of change of examination centre will be granted.
In this examination O.M.R. Applications System is applicable and the candidates may obtain O.M.R.
application forms from any of the designated Post Offices, mentioned under Sl.No.-16 of this
advertisement by paying the requisite fee to the post office as mentioned in Sl.No.-14 (1) and 16 of
this advertisement.
The plan of Examination and syllabus for the Preliminary (Screening) Examination and Main
Examination are given in Appendix-2 of this advertisement.
2- Detail of Vacancies: Approximate No. of vacancies is 337. The number of vacancies may
be increased or decreased. The detail of vacant posts is given below -
S. Name of Deptt Pay Scale No. of Category wise detail of Vacancies
Name of Post
N. (unrevised) Vacancy Unreserved SC ST OBC
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
1- Naib Tehsildar Revenue Deptt. 5500-9000 30 - - - -
Food & Civil
2- Area Rationing Officer 5500-9000 01 01 - - -
Supplies Deptt.
3- Passengers Tax Superintendent Transport Deptt. 5000-8000 24 16 04 01 03
Labour &
4- Labour Enforcement Officer 5000-8000 09 05 02 - 02
Employment Deptt.
Women
Child Development Project Empowerment &
5- 5000-8000 27 19 05 01 02
Officer Children
Development Deptt.
Food & Civil
6- Supply Inspector 4500-7000 62 39 13 02 08
Supplies Deptt.
Food & Civil
7- Marketing Inspector 4500-7000 74 46 15 03 10
Supplies Deptt.
 Entertainment Tax Inspector Finance Deptt.
8- 4500-7000 15 10 03 - 02
Grade- 2
9- Deputy Jailor Home Deptt. 5000-8000 08 05 02 - 01
Urban Development
10- Executive Officer 5000-8000 02 01 01 - -
Deptt.
Executive Officer Urban Development
11- 4500-7000 04 03 01 - -
Deptt.
Executive Officer Urban Development
12- 3200-4900 06 - 02 - 04
Deptt.
Accountant Urban Development
13- 4500-7000 12 08 02 - 02
Deptt.
14- Excise Inspector Excise Deptt. 5000-8000 22 16 02 02 02
Senior Cane Development Co-operative Cane &
15- 5000-8000 05 03 01 - 01
Inspector Sugar Deptt.
Cane Development Inspector Co-operative Cane &
16- 4500-7000 36 22 08 01 05
Sugar Deptt.
Total 337

3- Nature of the post :- 1- The Posts of Child Development Project Officer & Area Rationing
Officer are Gazetted & all the remaining posts are Non-Gazetted (Group- ‘C’).
4- Scale of Pay & Pension:- Postwise scale of pay (unrevised) is given in the above table.
Contributory Pension Scheme will be applicable.
5- Essential Academic Qualification:-
(1) Naib Tehsildar
Academic Qualification- A candidate for direct recruitment in the service must have Graduation
Degree from any university established by law in India or any other equivalent academic qualification
recognized by Government.
Preferential Qualification: - A candidate who has –
(i) Served in the Territorial Army for a minimum period of two years, or
(ii) Obtained a ‘B’ certificate of National Cadet Corps, shall other things being equal, be given
preference in the matter of direct recruitment.
(2) Area Rationing Officer
Academic Qualification- 1- Graduation Degree from any University established by law in India.
2- Working Knowledge of Hindi writing in Devnagri Script.
Preferential Qualification: - A candidate who has –
(i) Served in the Territorial Army for a minimum period of two years, or
(ii) Obtained a ‘B’ certificate of National Cadet Corps, shall other things being equal, be given
preference in the matter of direct recruitment.
(3) Passengers Tax Superintendent
Academic Qualification- A candidate for direct recruitment in the service must have Graduation
Degree from any recognized university. Perfect knowledge of Hindi writing in Devnagri Script is
essential.
Preferential Qualification: - A candidate who has –
(i) Served in the Territorial Army for a minimum period of two years, or
(ii) Obtained a ‘B’ certificate of National Cadet Corps, shall other things being equal, be given
preference in the matter of direct recruitment.
(4) Labour Enforcement Officer
Academic Qualification- Graduation Degree from any university established by law in India or
any other equivalent academic qualification recognized by Government.
Preferential Qualification: - A candidate who has –
(i) Graduation Degree in Home Science from any university established by law in India
(ii) Diploma or Degree in Labour Training or Social Service from any institute recognized by
Government.
(iii) Served in the Territorial Army for a minimum period of two years, or
(iv) Obtained a ‘B’ certificate of National Cadet Corps, shall other things being equal, be given
preference in the matter of direct recruitment.
(5) Child Development Project Officer
Academic Qualification- Graduation Degree in Social Work or Sociology or Home Science
from any university established by law in India or any other equivalent academic qualification
recognized by Government.
Preferential Qualification: - A candidate who has –
(i) Gained practical experience of welfare work among women and children of rural areas.
(ii) Served in the Territorial Army for a minimum period of two years, or
(iii) Obtained a ‘B’ certificate of National Cadet Corps, shall other things being equal, be given
preference in the matter of direct recruitment.
(6) Supply Inspector
Academic Qualification- A candidate for direct recruitment in the service must have Graduation
Degree from any recognized university or any other equivalent academic qualification recognized by
Government & he must have good knowledge of Hindi in Devnagri Script
Preferential Qualification: - A candidate who has –
(i) Served in the Territorial Army for a minimum period of two years, or
(ii) Obtained a ‘B’ certificate of National Cadet Corps, shall other things being equal, be given
preference in the matter of direct recruitment.
(7) Marketing Inspector
Academic Qualification- A candidate for direct recruitment in the service must have Graduation
Degree from any recognized university & he must have good knowledge of Hindi in Devnagri Script
Preferential Qualification: - A candidate who has –
(i) Served in the Territorial Army for a minimum period of two years, or
(ii) Obtained a ‘B’ certificate of National Cadet Corps, shall other things being equal, be given
preference in the matter of direct recruitment.
(8) Entertainment Inspector Grade - 2
Academic Qualification- A candidate for direct recruitment in the service must have Graduation
Degree from any university established by law in India or any other equivalent academic qualification
recognized by Governor.
Preferential Qualification: - A candidate who has –
(i) Served in the Territorial Army for a minimum period of two years, or
(ii) Obtained a ‘B’ certificate of National Cadet Corps, shall other things being equal, be given
preference in the matter of direct recruitment.
(9) Deputy Jailor
Academic Qualification- 1- Graduation Degree from any recognized university.
2- Working knowledge of Hindi in Devnagri Script
Preferential Qualification: - A candidate who has –
(i) Served in the Territorial Army for a minimum period of two years, or
(ii) Obtained a ‘B’ certificate of National Cadet Corps, shall other things being equal, be given
preference in the matter of direct recruitment.
(10) Executive Officer (Pay Scale 5000-8000)
Academic Qualification- Essential:-Degree from any university.
Desirable:- Degree or Diploma in Local Self Government or Public Administration.
Preferential Qualification: - A candidate who has –
(i) Served in the Territorial Army for a minimum period of two years, or
(ii) Obtained a ‘B’ certificate of National Cadet Corps, shall other things being equal, be given
preference in the matter of direct recruitment.
(11) Executive Officer (Pay Scale 4500-7000)
Academic Qualification- Essential:-Degree from any university.
Desirable:- Degree or Diploma in Local Self Government or Public Administration.
Preferential Qualification: - A candidate who has –
(i) Served in the Territorial Army for a minimum period of two years, or
(ii) Obtained a ‘B’ certificate of National Cadet Corps, shall other things being equal, be given
preference in the matter of direct recruitment.
(12) Executive Officer (Pay Scale 3200-4900)
Academic Qualification- Essential:-Degree from any university.
Desirable:- Degree or Diploma in Local Self Government or Public Administration.
Preferential Qualification: - A candidate who has –
(i) Served in the Territorial Army for a minimum period of two years, or
(ii) Obtained a ‘B’ certificate of National Cadet Corps, shall other things being equal, be given
preference in the matter of direct recruitment.
(13) Accountant (Pay Scale 4500-7000)
Academic Qualification- B. Com Degree from any recognized university.
Preferential Qualification: - A candidate who has –
(i) Served in the Territorial Army for a minimum period of two years, or
(ii) Obtained a ‘B’ certificate of National Cadet Corps, shall other things being equal, be given
preference in the matter of direct recruitment.
(14) Excise Inspector
Academic Qualification- Graduation Degree from any university established by law in India or
any other equivalent degree recognized by Government.
Preferential Qualification: - A candidate who has –
(i) Served in the Territorial Army for a minimum period of two years, or
(ii) Obtained a ‘B’ certificate of National Cadet Corps, shall other things being equal, be given
preference in the matter of direct recruitment.
(15) Senior Cane Development Inspector
Academic Qualification- 1- Candidate for direct recruitment in the service must possess a
Bachelors Degree in Agriculture.
2- A candidate who possesses Masters Degree in Agriculture Science shall, other things being equal,
be given preference in the matter of direct recruitment in the service
Preferential Qualification: - A candidate who has –
(i) Served in the Territorial Army for a minimum period of two years, or
(ii) Obtained a ‘B’ certificate of National Cadet Corps, shall other things being equal, be given
preference in the matter of direct recruitment.
(16) Cane Development Inspector
Academic Qualification- 1- Candidate for direct recruitment in the service must possess a
Bachelors Degree in Agriculture.
2- A candidate who possesses Masters Degree in Agriculture Science shall, other things being equal,
be given preference in the matter of direct recruitment in the service
Preferential Qualification: - A candidate who has –
(i) Served in the Territorial Army for a minimum period of two years, or
(ii) Obtained a ‘B’ certificate of National Cadet Corps, shall other things being equal, be given
preference in the matter of direct recruitment
6- Physical Measurement-
a- Deputy Jailor- A candidate for direct recruitment to the post of Deputy Jailor must have the
following physical measurement -
1- Height must not be less than 168 cm, provided that height of candidates of Kumaun & Garhwal
Division must not be less than 163cm.
2- Chest measurement not less than 81.3 cm unexpanded and 86.3 cm expanded.
3- Sight- 6/6.
b- Excise Inspector- No person shall be recruited directly to the services.
1- Whose chest measurement is less than 81.2 cm. unexpanded and 86.2 cm. expanded.
2- Whose height is less than 167 cm. provided that
3- Candidates belonging to Kumaun Division & Dehradun, Chamoli, Tehri Garhwal, Pauri Garhwal &
Uttarakashi Districts height must not be less than 162 cm.
 Provided that physical requirements in the cases of female candidate will be the same as
prescribed for the female Police Sub-Inspectors. (For the SC, ST & Hill cadre woman, height must not
be less than 147 cm. & for other woman height must not be less than 152 cm.)
Note – Only those candidates shall give preference at the time of interview to be selected as
Deputy Jailor & Excise Inspector who have physical standard according to the point No.- 06 of
this advertisement, otherwise their final selection will be cancelled if they don’t have such
physical standard.
7- Nationality: A candidate for direct recruitment to a post in the Service must be :
(a) a citizen of India; or
(b) a Tibetan refugee who came over to India before the 1st January, 1962 with the intention of
permanently settling in India; or
(c) a person of Indian origin who has migrated from Pakistan, Burma, Sri Lanka or any of the East
African countries of Kenya, Uganda and the United Republic of Tanzania (formerly Tanganyika and
Zanzibar) with the intention of permanently settling in India:
Provided that a candidate belonging to category (b) or (c) above must be a person in whose
favor a certificate of eligibility has been issued by the State Government:
Provided further that a candidate belonging to category (b) will also be required to obtain a
certificate of eligibility granted by the Deputy Inspector General of Police, Intelligence Branch,
Uttarakhand.
Provided also that if a candidate belongs to category (c) above, no certificate of eligibility has
been issued for a period more than one year and the retention of such a candidate in service beyond the
period of one year, shall be subject to his acquiring Indian citizenship.
Note:- A candidate in whose case a certificate of eligibility is necessary but the same has neither
been issued nor refused, may be admitted to an examination or interview and he may also be
provisionally appointed subject to the necessary certificate being obtained by him or issued in his
favor.
8- Character :-
The character of a candidate for direct recruitment to a post in the service must be such as to
render him suitable in all respects for employment in Government Service. The appointing authority
shall satisfy itself on this point.
Note:- Persons dismissed by the Union Government or a State Government or a Local Authority or
by a Corporation or Body owned or controlled by the Union Government or a State Government shall
be ineligible for appointment to any post in the Service. Persons convicted of offence involving moral
turpitude shall also be ineligible.

9- Marital Status:-
A male candidate who has more than one wife living or a female candidate who has married a
man already having a wife living shall not be eligible for appointment to a post in the Service.
Provided that the Government may, if satisfied that there exist special grounds for doing so,
exempt any person from the operation of this rule.
10- Physical Fitness:-
No candidate shall be appointed to a post in the service unless he be in good mental and bodily
health and free from any physical defect likely to interfere with the efficient performance of his duties.
Before a candidate is finally approved for direct appointment he shall be required to pass a medical
test according to the service Rules of the post.
11- Age:-
A candidate for direct recruitment must have attained the age of twenty one years and must not
have attained the age of more than thirty five years on the first day of year of recruitment in which
vacancies for direct recruitment are advertised by the commission, as such the candidates must have
attained the age of 21 years and must not have crossed the age of 35 years on July, 01, 2010 i.e. they
must not have been born earlier than July 02, 1975 and later than July 01, 1989. “Year of
Recruitment” means a period of twelve month commencing from the first day of July of a Calendar
Year.
Provided that the upper age limit in the case of candidates belonging to the Scheduled Castes,
Scheduled Tribes and such other categories as may be notified by the State Government from time to
time shall be greater by such number of years as may be specified.
12- Relaxation in Upper Age Limit:-
(a) The upper age limit shall be greater by 05 years for candidates belonging to Scheduled
Castes/ Scheduled Tribes/Other Backward Classes of Uttarakhand (G.O.No-1399/XXX(2)/2005,
Dated 21 May, 2005).
(b) The upper age limit shall be greater by 05 years for candidates belonging to Dependents
of Freedom Fighters of the Uttarakhand. The upper age limit shall be greater by 10 years for the
candidates of physically handicapped of Uttarakhand for Group ‘C’ (Non-Gazetted) posts & shall be
greater by 05 years for Group ‘B’ post & Gazetted Subordinate posts. (G.O.No-1244/XXX(2)/2005,
Dated 21 May, 2005).
(c) The upper age limit shall be greater by 05 years for Emergency Commissioned
Officers/Short Service Commission Officers/Ex-Service Personnel of Uttarakhand who have rendered
at least 05 years service in the Army/Navy/ Air force.
This age relaxation will also be applicable for such defense service personnel/officers who
shall be discharged within 06 months from the last date of submission of the applicants form. This age
relaxation will not be admissible to ex-defense service personnel/officer, if
(i) He has been dismissed due to misconduct or inefficiency.
(ii) He has been discharged due to physical disability or weakness as is considered for Defense
Services.
Ex-Service men will be allowed to subtract their service period in armed forces from their
actual age for appointment to the reserved vacancies in group ‘C’ posts and after this if their age is not
greater more than 03 years to the maximum age limit of such posts/service for which they desire,
means that they fulfill the condition of maximum age limit.
(N.N. 6/1/72-Karmic, Dated 25 April, 1977 and G.O.No-17/2/1981-Karmik-2, Dated 28 February,
1985).
(d) The upper age limit shall be greater by 05 years for candidate belonging to Skilled Players of
classified games of National and International level (G.O.No-22/21/ 1983-Karmik-2, Dated
28-11-1985).
(e) The upper age limit shall be maximum 50 years for candidates belonging to Uttarakhand Rajya
Andolankaries, who have spent less than 07 days in prison (G.O.No-1270/30-2/2004, Dated 11
August, 2004 and G.O.No-776/XX(4)26/UK. Ando./2006-08 (Griha Anubagh-4), Dated 22 October,
2008).
(f) Upper age limit for Executive Officer (5000-8000), Executive Officer (4500-7000), Executive
Officer (3200-4900) & Accountant (4500-7000) of Municipal Centralized Services must be calculated
as “for such persons who have served one or more years services in Municipal or any Centralized
Services Upper age limit must be relaxed to such continuous period of service or 07 years, whichever
is shorter.”

Note :- Candidates must indicate their categories in corresponding columns of the ‘OMR’ application
form, otherwise no relaxation in age shall be allowed.
13- Reservation:-
(i) Vertical Reservation:-
The reservation for Scheduled Castes of Uttarakhand, Scheduled Tribes of Uttarakhand and
Other Backward Classes of Uttarakhand shall be in accordance with the orders of the State
Government in force at the time of the recruitment (G.O. No-1144/ Karmik-2-2001-53(1)/2001, Dated
18 July, 2001 and G.O.No-254/Karmik-2/2002, Dated 10 October, 2002).
(ii) Horizontal Reservation:-
(a) The horizontal reservation for Physically Handicapped of Uttarakhand, Dependents of
Freedom fighters of Uttarakhand and Ex-servicemen of Uttarakhand will be admissible according to
the amended provisions of Uttarakhand [Uttar Pradesh Public Service (Reservation for Physically
Handicapped, Dependents of Freedom Fighters and Ex-servicemen) Act, 1993] (As amended)-N.NO:
133/XXXVI(3)/2009/14(1)/2009, Dated 16 March, 2009 and Govt. Orders issued by the State Government
from time to time. The reservation for Physically Handicapped of Uttarakhand will only be applicable,
if the concerned post was identified by the State Government within any category of the Physically
Handicapped categories.
(b) The horizontal reservation for Skilled Players of Uttarakhand will be admissible according to
the provisions of G.O.No-2461/XXX(2)/2006, Dated 06 October, 2006 and G.O.No-
136/XXX(2)/2009, Dated 27 February, 2009.
(c) The horizontal reservation for women of Uttarakhand will be admissible according to the
provision of G.O.No-1144/Karmik-2-2001-53(1), Dated 18 July, 2001, G.O.No-589/Karmik-2/2002,
Dated 21 July, 2002 and G.O. No-1966/XXX(2)/2006, Dated 24 July, 2006
(d) The horizontal reservation for Uttarakhand Rajya Andolankari, who have spent less than 07
days in prison and for eligible dependent of Uttarakhand Rajya Andolankari who have spent more than
07 days in prison or injured in the movement will be admissible according to the provisions of
G.O.No-1270/Thirty-2 /2004, Dated 11 August, 2004 G.O.No-4020/XX(4)-7/UK. Ando./2006, Dated
08 November, 2006 and G.O.No-776/XX(4)/26/ UK. Ando./2006-08 (Griha Anubagh-4), Dated 22
October, 2008. This reservation facility is available only up to 10 August, 2011.
Note:- (1) According to the latest provisions of relevant State Government Orders the vertical
reservations will be 19% of the total cadre posts for Schedule Castes of Uttarakhand, 04% of the total
cadre posts for Scheduled Tribes of Uttarakhand and 14% of the total cadre posts for Other Backward
Classes of Uttarakhand.
(2) According to the latest provision of relevant State Government Orders the horizontal
reservation will be 30% for Uttarakhand women, 05% for Uttarakhand Ex-servicemen, 02% for
Dependent of Uttarakhand Freedom Fighter, 03% for Uttarakhand Physically Handicapped, 04% for
Uttarakhand Skilled Players and 10% for Uttarakhand Rajya Andolankari/their eligible dependents.
(3) The Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, Other Backward Classes, Dependent of Freedom
Fighters, Ex-service personnel, Physically Handicapped, Skilled Players, Uttarakhand Rajya
Andolankari and their eligible dependents and women candidates, who are not the domicile of
Uttarakhand State, shall not be given the benefit of reservation. Such candidates shall be treated as the
candidates of the Un-Reserved (General) Category.
(4) All reserved candidates of Uttarakhand must mention their category in corresponding
column of the O.M.R. application form, otherwise they shall not be given the benefit of reservation.
(5) The candidates claiming reservation in more than one category will be entitled to only one
concession, whichever is more beneficial to them.
(6) The candidates claiming the benefit of reservation must obtain, in support of their category
a certificate issued by the competent authority on the prescribed proforma and shall submit the same to
the Commission with the Application Form of Main written Examination which will be sent to the
eligible candidates later on by the Commission. Some prescribed proforma are mentioned in
Appendix-3 of this advertisement. If any affidavit is also required, the same be submitted duly
certified by the Magistrate or Notary.
14- Fee:-
(i) For Preliminary Examination: - The fee shall be taken from every candidate with the cost of the
O.M.R. application. The details are printed on the OMR envelopes. The fee for unreserved
candidates/Other Backward Class candidates of Uttarakhand and all candidates of other States is Rs.
220/- (Rs. 150/- Examination Fee + Rs. 40/- Postal Charges + Rs. 30/- Postal Stamp for Admit-Card
Charges) and the fee for Scheduled Caste/Scheduled Tribe/Physically Handicapped candidates of
Uttarakhand is Rs 130/- (Rs. 60/- Examination Fee + Rs. 40/- Postal Charges + Rs. 30/- Postal Stamp
for Admit-Card Charges). The fee for Ex-servicemen/Dependent of Freedom Fighters/Skilled
Players/Women/Uttarakhand Rajya Andolankari and their eligible dependents of Uttarakhand
domicile will be charged as prescribed for their respective main categories viz Unreserved or
Scheduled Caste or Scheduled Tribe or Other Backward Class category.
Note:- No fee has to be paid by the candidate through Treasury Challan or Bank Draft etc.
(ii) Fee for Main written Examination:- The successful candidates in preliminary (Screening)
examination (for main written examination) will be required to pay the additional fees for main
examination also. The fee for unreserved candidates and all candidates of other states will be Rs. 250/-
, OBC candidates Rs. 150/-, DFF Candidates Rs. 150/- (for DFF of unreserved & OBC Category) and
for Scheduled caste/Scheduled Tribe/Physically Handicapped candidates of Uttarakhand will be Rs.
100/-. Candidates under horizontal reservation will pay their fees according to their main category.
The fees shall be paid with the application of Main Examination. The fee for main written examination
shall be paid by the candidates through account payee Demand Bank Draft/Postal Order payable to
“Secretary, Uttarakhand Public Service Commission” Gurukul Kangri, Haridwar and payable at
Haridwar.
15- Nature of Application Form:-
Applications at this stage are being invited for the preliminary (Screening) Examination only.
Candidates declared successful for admission to the main examination, will have to apply again in the
detailed application form, which will be supplied to them by the commission in due course.
16- How to apply:-
OMR application form with instructions can be purchased for Rs. 220/- for “P.G.” series
(Applicable for unreserved candidates and OBC candidates of Uttarakhand and all candidates of other
States) and Rs. 130/- for “P.R.” series (Applicable for SC/ST/PH candidates of Uttarakhand) in cash
through the post offices, located at the following places, till last date for receipt of application.
Candidates under horizontal reservation for Dependents of Freedom Fighters/Ex-Service
Personnel/Skilled Players/Women/Uttarakhand Rajya Andolankaries and their eligible dependents of
Uttarakhand domicile shall purchase application form according to their main category. Candidates
must read instructions given along with OMR application form in order to fill it up.
LIST OF POST OFFICES:-
(1) District Almora: Almora (H .O.), Ranikhet (H.O.), Bhikiyasen, Dwarahat, Masi.
(2) District Bageshwar:- Bageshwar (H.O.), Baijnath, Kapkot, Kanda.
(3) District Chamoli:- Gopeshwar (H.O.), Joshimath, Chamoli, Karnprayag.
(4) District Champawat:- Champawat (H.O.), Lohaghat, Devidhura, Tanakpur.
(5) District Dehradun:- Dehradun (G.P.O.), Mussoorie, Rishikesh, Vikasnagar, Premnagar,
Rajpur, Doiwala, Chakrata.
(6) District Haridwar:- Haridwar (H.O.), Roorkee (H.O.), Laksar, B.H.E.L.
(7) District Nainital:- Nainital (H.O.), Ramnagar, Haldwani (H.O.), Okhalkanda.
(8) District Garhwal:- Pauri (H.O.), Kotdwar (H.O.), Lansdown (H.O.), Srinagar, Dhoomakot.
(9) District Pithoragarh:- Pithoragarh (H.O.), Gangolihat, Berinag, Didihat, Dharchula, Thal,
Munsyari.
(10) District Rudraprayag:- Rudraprayag (H.O.), Ukhimath.
(11) District Tehri Garhwal:- New Tehri (H.O.), Narendranagar, Ghansali.
(12) District Udham Singh Nagar:- Rudrapur (H.O.), Pantnagar, Kashipur, Khatima.
(13) District Uttarkashi:- Uttarkashi (H.O.), Barkot, Purola.
17- SOME INSTRUCTIONS FOR FILLING THE OMR APPLICATION FORM:-
(i) Candidates must go through the advertisement thoroughly and they should apply only after
they are satisfied that they fulfill all the conditions of eligibility. (ii) The Application Form must be
filled in by the candidates in their own handwriting. Since the OMR application form will be
processed on computerized machines, candidates should exercise due care in handling and filling up
the Application Form. They should use black or blue bal point pen only to fill up the boxes & darken
the circles. (iii) Candidates desirous of getting the benefit of one or more reservation must mention
their category (or categories) in the relevant column of OMR application form and blacken completely
the circle by black or blue bal point pen, otherwise they shall be deemed to be Unreserved (General)
candidates and they shall not be given the benefit of reservation. (iv) Candidates should read
instructions contained in instruction booklet available with the form set and accordingly fill the OMR
form. (v) Candidates must fill all the columns of OMR application form in words and figures as and
where required and darken the circles by black or blue bal point pen. (vi) Candidates must write the
words “Combined State Lower Subordinate Service Exam-2010” in column- 4 of OMR application
form and darken the circle provided for “Lower Sub.” category. Note:-(1) Candidates must possess
essential qualification, mentioned in S.N.-5 of this advertisement for various posts, up to the last date
fixed for the receipt of the OMR application form, otherwise the application form of the candidate
shall be rejected.

(2) Candidates must retain a photocopy of their OMR application form and in all
communication to the commission; they must mention the OMR application form number.

18- ENCLOSURES:-

(i) Candidates must paste one self attested passport size photograph on the OMR application form at
the space provided for the purpose and should sign in the space provided below the photograph
otherwise their applications shall be rejected. Candidates must keep with them a copy of the self
attested photograph, identical to the photograph pasted on the OMR application form and it will be
used for application form for main examination, admit card and attendance sheet etc. later on. If the
photograph affixed on the OMR application form and the photograph used for Application Form for
main examination, Admit Card and Attendance Sheet do not resemble the candidature of the candidate
shall be cancelled.

(ii) Candidates must enclose the window envelope (without stamp) provided with the OMR
application form and duly stamped self addressed Post Card with the OMR application form.

Note:- No certificate has to be enclosed with the OMR application form in support of the
information/claims filled by the candidates in various columns of application form.
19- LAST DATE FOR RECEIPT OF APPLICATION FORMS:-
Application forms completed in all respects must reach the “Secretary, Uttarakhand Public
Service Commission, Gurukul Kangri, Haridwar-249404” at the commission office either by
th
registered post/speed post or personally (by hand) up to 06-00 P.M. on or before 30 June, 2010.
Application forms through any other means shall not be accepted. Applications received in the
commission’s office after the closing date will not be considered.
20- SOME INFORMATIONS ABOUT MAIN EXAMINATION AND
INTERVIEW:-
(i) Only such candidates will be admitted to the main (written) examination who are declared
successful in the preliminary examination. Marks obtained in preliminary examination shall not be
added with the marks obtained in Main written examination and Interview. (ii) Candidates should
carefully note that they will appear for the main examination against the same Roll Number as allotted
for the preliminary examination. (iii) The examination centre and dates for the examination shall be
fixed by the commission later on. (iv) Only such candidates will be called for interview who are
declared successful on the basis of the main (written) examination. (v) Candidates declared eligible for
main written examination will be communicated along with format of application for Main
Examination by the commission in due course. (vi) The candidates must enclose all required self
attested certificates etc. in support of their claims rendered in the application form for main
examination. If they do not enclose the certificates etc. in support of their claims their candidature
shall be cancelled. (vii) Candidates will have to fill up the prescribed form (To be supplied at the time
of interview) before the interview (Viva-Voce test). (viii) All certificates shall be verified with original
certificates at the time of interview. Candidates will also be required to furnish 02 passport size
photographs, attested by their Head of the Department or Head of the Institution where they received
last education or by a Gazetted Officer at the time of interview. (ix) Candidates serving under the
Central or State Government/Undertaking will have to produce “No Objection Certificate” in original
from their employer before or at the time of interview. (x) It is essential for the candidates to appear in
interview who qualify on the basis of main examination under the provisions laid down in Service
Rules for service of recruitment where written examination and interview are indicated.
21- IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS FOR CANDIDATES:
(i) The candidates applying for the examination should ensure that they fulfill all eligibility
conditions for admission to the examination. Their admission at all the stages of the examination will
be purely provisional subject to satisfying the prescribed eligibility conditions. Mere issue of
admission cards to the candidates will not imply that his/her candidature has been finally cleared by
the commission. If it is found at any stage that applicant was not eligible or that his/her application
should have been rejected or was not entertainable initially, his/her candidature will be rejected and if
the candidate is selected, the recommendation of the commission shall be withdrawn.
(ii) The candidates must fill all relevant columns of the application forms (related with their
candidature) clearly and must not leave any column of the application unfilled. On being illegible,
ambiguous and misleading, the application form shall be rejected.
(iii) The applications shall be rejected if it’s not submitted on prescribed format.
(iv) No change in the entry, made in original O.M.R. application form, will be allowed under any
circumstances.
(v) Candidates should ensure that the signatures appended by them in all the places viz. in their
application form, attendance list etc. and in all the correspondence with the commission should be
identical and there should be no variation of any kind. If any variation is found in the signatures
appended by him/her at different places, his/her candidature will be liable to be cancelled by the
commission.
(vi) The candidates will have to enclose self attested photo copies of Mark sheets, Certificates
and Degrees etc. in support of their claims of their Educational Qualifications. If they do not enclose
certificates/documents in support of their claims, the applications shall be rejected.
(vii) In condition of being more than one application form in one envelope, or being application
forms of more than one advertisement in one envelope, all application forms shall be deemed to be
rejected. If any candidate submits more than one application forms in his/her name for this
examination, all of his/her application forms shall be rejected and his/her candidature shall be
cancelled.
(viii) Application received after the last date will not be entertained in any case. Incomplete,
erroneous applications and applications not signed by the candidates, even if received within time, will
summarily be rejected. The Commission will not be responsible for any delay on the part of postal
department and others.
(ix) The date of birth of the candidates shall be admissible as entered in High School Certificate.
The candidates will have to attach his/her High School or equivalent examination certificate with the
application form of main examination. No other certificates shall be acceptable for Date of Birth and if
it is not attached with the application it shall be rejected.
(x) The candidature of such candidates who are subsequently found ineligible according to the
terms laid down in the advertisement will be cancelled and their claim for appearing in the
examinations will not be entertained. The decision of the Commission with regards to eligibility or
otherwise of the candidate shall be final.
(xi) The cost of OMR application form shall not be refunded whether the application is used or
not.
(xii) Candidates must write the answers in their own hand. Under no circumstances, they will be
allowed the help of a scribe to write the answers for them. However, blind candidates will be allowed
to write the answers with the help of a scribe. The educational qualification of a scribe should not be
more than intermediate. An extra time of twenty minutes shall be permitted for blind candidates.
(xiii) The candidates will be allowed the use of non-programmable type calculators at the
conventional type examination, if it is permissible as per instructions given in the particular question
paper. It is also important to note that candidates are not permitted to use calculators for answering
objective type question papers.
(xiv) PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS: There will be penalty (Negative Marking) for
wrong answers marked by a candidate in the Objective Type Question Papers.
(a) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a
wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one fourth (0.25) of the marks assigned to that
question will be deducted as penalty.
(b) If a candidate gives more than one answer for a question, it will be treated as a wrong answer
even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above for that
question.
(c) If a question is left blank i.e. no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for
that question.
(xv) After the completion of the examination, the answer keys of all objective type question
papers will be available on the website of the commission and the candidates may represent their
objections about the questions and their correct answer options within 15 day’s of the publication of
the answer keys. Representations received in the commission’s office after the closing date will not be
considered.
(xvi) Mobile phones, pagers or any other communication devices are not allowed inside the
premises where the examination is being conducted. Any infringement of these instructions shall entail
disciplinary action including debar from future examinations. Candidates are advised in their own
interest not to bring any of the banned items including mobile phones/pagers to the venue of the
examination, as arrangements for safe custody cannot be assured.
(xvii) UNFAIR MEANS STRICTLY PROHIBITED: Neither candidates shall copy from the
papers of any other candidate nor permit his/her papers to be copied, nor give nor attempt to give, nor
obtain nor attempt to obtain unfair assistance of any nature.
(xviii) CONDUCT IN EXAMINATION HALL: No candidate shall misbehave in any manner or
create disorderly scene in the Examination Hall or harass the staff employed by the commission for the
conduct of the examination. Any such misconduct will be severely penalized.
(xix) ACTION AGAINST CANDIDATES FOUND GUILTY OF MISCONDUCT:
Candidates are warned that they should not furnish any particulars that are false or suppress
any material information in filling up the application form. Candidates are also warned that they
should in no case correct or alter or otherwise tamper with any entry in a document or its
attested/certified copy submitted by them nor should they submit a tampered/fabricated document. If
there is any inaccuracy or any discrepancy between two or more such documents or their
attested/certified copies, an explanation regarding this discrepancy should be submitted.
A candidate will be declared guilty by the Commission due to the following reasons:
(A) If, he/she obtains support of his/her candidature by any means, or (B) writes examination with
changed name or roll number, or (C) Impersonation, or (D) submits fabricated documents or
documents which have been tampered with, or (E) makes statements which are incorrect or false or
suppressing material information, or (F) resorts to any other unfair or improper means in connection
with his/her candidature for the selection, or (G) uses unfair means during the test, or (H) writes
irrelevant matter including use of obscene or indecent language, or (I) misbehaves in the examination
hall including tearing of the scripts, runs away with answer book or question paper from the
examination hall, provoking fellow examinees to boycott examination, creating disorderly scene and
the like, or (J) harasses or does bodily harm to the staff employed by the Commission for the conduct
of their test, or (K) bringing mobile phone/communication device in the examination hall/interview
room or using them during the examination, or (L) attempting to commit or, as the case may be,
abetting the commission of all or any of the acts specified in the foregoing clauses; may in addition to
rendering himself/herself liable to criminal prosecution, be liable:
(a) to be disqualified by the Commission from selection for which he/she is a candidate, and/or
(b) to be debarred either permanently or for a specified period :-
(i) by the commission from any examination or selection held by them.
(ii) by the State Government from any employment under them, and
(c) If he/she is already in service under Government/ Govt. undertaking, initiation of disciplinary
action under the appropriate rules.
(xx) Candidate should use only International form of Indian numerals (i.e. 1,2,3,4 etc.) while
answering question papers.
(xx) In all communication to the commission, the candidate must mention the name of the
examination, advertisement number, date of birth of candidate, father’s or husband’s name, OMR
form number and also the Roll Number, if communicated.
(xxi) Any change in the address of the candidate must promptly be communicated to the
commission by Registered Post.
 Appendix-1

Details of examination centers for Preliminary (Screening) Examination. :

Center Center
SN City (District) SN City (District)
Code Code
1 Almora (Almora) 01 11 Kotdwar (Garhwal) 11
2 Ranikhet (Almora) 02 12 Shrinagar (Garhwal) 12
3 Pithoragarh (Pithoragarh) 03 13 Gopeshwar (Chamoli) 13
4 Nainital (Nainital) 04 14 New Tehri (Tehri Garhwal) 14
5 Haldwani (Nainital) 05 15 Rudraprayag (Rudraprayag) 15
6 Rudrapur (Udhamsingh Nagar) 06 16 Uttarkashi (Uttarkashi) 16
7 Pantnagar (Udhamsingh Nagar) 07 17 Dehradun (Dehradun) 17
8 Bageshwar (Bageshwar) 08 18 Rishikesh (Dehradun) 18
9 Champawat (Champawat) 09 19 Haridwar (Haridwar) 19
10 Pauri Garhwal (Pauri) 10 20 Roorkee (Haridwar) 20

Note: If a candidate does not fill up his/her examination centre in its O.M.R. application form, the
Commission will allot him/her a centre of its own choice.
 Appendix-2

Plan of Examination – There will be following tiers of the examinations –

1- Preliminary Examination- Only one paper of General Study & General Aptitude Test (Objective
Type)
2- Main Examination-
A- Written Examination (Descriptive Type)
B- Personality Test (Interview)

1- Preliminary Examination- (Objective Type)

Subject Maximum Time No. of
Marks (Hours) Questions
General Study & General Aptitude Test 150 02 150
Note– Marks obtained in Preliminary examination shall not be added with the marks obtained in
Main written examination for determining the merit.

2- Main Examination – (A) Written Examination (Subjective Type)-

Paper Subject Maximum Time No. of
Marks (Hours) Questions
Paper –I General Study 200 03 20
Paper- II Essay & Drafting 200 03 05
Note- It is essential to obtain minimum 35% marks in Essay & Drafting Paper.

(B) Personality Test (Interview) Maximum Marks – 50

 Lower Subordinate Service Examination, 2010 Syllabus
Preliminary Examination
General Studies and General Aptitude Test (Objective Type)
Time – 02 Hours M.M. 150
Paper-1 General Studies
Maximum Marks- 100 Total Questions- 100

1- General Science- Questions on general science will cover general understanding and
application of science, including matter of day to day observation and experiences as
may be expected from an educated person who has not made a special study of any
scientific discipline.

2- History of India- Questions on history of India will be based on broad understanding of

ancient, medieval and modern India’s political, social, economic, and cultural aspects.

3- Indian National Movement- Questions on Indian National Movement will be based on

India’s freedom movement, growth of nationalism and attainment of independence.

4- Indian Polity and Economy- Questions on Indian Polity and economy will be based on
Indian polity, constitution, panchayati raj and community development, broad features of
Indian economy and planning.

5- Geography and Demography of India- Questions will be based on a broad

understanding of geographical, ecological and socio-economic aspects of demography
of India.

6- Current Events- Questions will be based on national and international important

current events including sports and games.

7- General Awareness about Uttarakhand- Questions will be based on broad aspects of

geography, history and heritage, civilization and culture including folk culture
(comprising folk literature and dialects, art and crafts, fairs and festivals, costumes and
ornaments, dances, songs and instruments, means of livelihood of and food habits),
polity, role of Uttarakhand in freedom movement of India, movement for formation of
Uttarakhand State, agriculture, environment, education, natural resources and current
events, Eminent persons of Uttarakhand (past and present).

8- Knowledge of Computer- Questions will be based on basic knowledge of computer

operations.
 Paper-2 General Aptitude Test

Maximum Marks- 50 Total Questions- 50

General Intelligence- The questions on general intelligence will cover both verbal types and

non verbal types including questions on analogies, similarities, differences, space

visualization, problem solving, analysis, judgment, decision making, visual memory,

discrimination, observation, relationship concepts, arithmetical reasoning, verbal and figure

classification and arithmetical number series, This test will also include questions designed to

test the candidate’s abilities to deal with abstract ideas, symbols and their relationships,

arithmetical computations and other analytical functions.

 Main Examination (Descriptive Type)
Paper-1 General Studies
Maximum Marks- 200 Time- 3 Hours
Note- This paper carries 20 questions. Each question carries 10 marks. All questions are
compulsory. The word limit for each question is 100 words.

1- Current events of International, National and State Importance- It will cover the
events of national importance like coalition government system, economic
liberalization, economic recession, regional extremism and separatist movements –
Naxalism; Maoism and Salwa judum; national security, internal security, communal
harmony, and international perspectives like- nuclear policy – issues and conflicts;
impact of globalization on the socio-economic conditions of developing countries and
global food crisis.
2- Sports and Games- Questions based on important sports, games and tournaments,
awards and personalities of world, India and Uttarakhand will be asked.
3- History of India- History of India will cover a broad understanding of ancient,
medieval and modern India’s political, socio-economic and cultural aspects; Indian
freedom movement, growth of nationalism and attainment of independence.
4- Elementary Knowledge of Indian Constitution- Questions will be on Indian
Constitution as may be expected from an educated person who has not made a
special study of the constitution. RTI, right to education, intellectual property right and
consumer protection rights. Different welfare programmes and acts passed for the
weaker and minority sections of society and different National and State Commissions
for their upliftment.
5- Indian polity and Economy- The questions will cover Indian polity, panchayati raj
and community development, broad features of Indian economy and planning.
6- Geography of India and Demography- It will include questions on broad
understanding of geographical, ecological, socio-economic and demographical
aspects of India.
7- General Science and Environment- Questions on General science and environment
will cover general understanding and application of science, including matters of day
to day observation and experience, as may be expected from and educated person
who has not made a special study of any particular scientific discipline, global
environmental problems and solution, nutritional requirements for human growth,
application of genetic engineering in human welfare; diseases of cattles, birds, plants
and their prevention.
8- Indian Agriculture- Questions will cover the general awareness of candidate in
respect of crops, white, yellow and green revolutions, agricultural production and its
contribution to rural economy, SEZ, use of Nano and bio-technologies in the field of
agriculture, problems of Indian farmers and land reforms.
9- Science and Technology- Questions will be based on candidate’s awareness of the
development in the field of science and technology, information technology, space
technology, electronic media, basic knowledge of computer and cyber crimes.
10- Geography of Uttarakhand- There will be questions related to the geographical
aspects of Uttarakhand; specific features of Uttarakhand Himalaya; mountains, rivers,
climate, flora and fauna, horticultural activities, cropping patterns in different agro-
climatic zones; natural and man-made calamities, disaster management, water crisis
and watershed management in plains and hilly areas, problems of remote areas and
their development; environmental movements and environmental preservation.
11- History and Culture of Uttarakhand – Questions will be based on the topics related
to historical background of the State; important dynasties and their contribution, role of
Uttarakhand in freedom movement of India and related personalities, major historical
and tourist places, tribes; habitat and culture, including folk culture (comprising folk
literature and dialects, art and crafts, fairs and festivals, costumes and ornaments,
dances, songs and instruments, means of livelihood and food habits ), steps taken by
Uttarakhand Government for the development of culture, different social reforms
movements in the state.
12- Uttarakhand State Formation Movement and Important personalities- Questions
will be based on movement for the formation of Uttarakhand State, contribution of
people of Uttarakhand in national and international fields, especially in Armed Forces
and administrative system of the State.
13- Natural Resources of Uttarakhand and their Development – Forest wealth and
wild life, minerals, water resources – development of irrigation and irrigation projects,
hydro electricity, conventional and non-conventional sources of energy, agriculture
and green revolution, livestock, tourism, development of herbs and Ayurved. Human
resource (population- density, sex ratio, and literacy, urban and rural population),
rural/remote out migration, poverty and unemployment problems and measures
initiated for their eradication and education system in Uttarakhand.
14- Statistical analysis, graphs and diagrams- The questions will be based on
candidate’s ability to draw conclusions from information presented in statistical,
graphical and diagrammatical form and to interpret them.
 iz”u i=&
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c& lkekftd {ks= (Social Sphere)
l& jktuhfrd {ks= (Political Sphere)
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5- vaxzt
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Personality Test (Interview) – 50 Marks

 Appendix-3
:ii
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lkekU;r;k jgrk gSA
LFkku % gLrk{kj ------------------------------------
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ftyk lekt dY;k.k vf/kdkjhA
 fodykaxksa ds fy, izek.k&i=

OFFICE OF THE CHIEF MEDICAL OFFICER ..........................................

No......................................
Dated ................................
HANDICAP CERTIFICATE IN ACCORDANCE WITH THE G.O. No. 7/4/1971 KARMIK-2 (U.P.) DATED
MAY 20,1978
We Examined Sri/Smt./Km. ........................................................... aged about ......................... year ..................
on of/ Daughter of/Wife of ...........................................resident of ........................................ whose Signature/
L.T.I./R.T.I., is given below and certify that he/she is a case of ................................................................ We
certify that he/she is permanently physically handicapped person.

Signature of Candidate Orthopaedic

Surgeon (Member)
Eye Specialist (Member)
Chief Medical Officer (President)

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izek.k&i=

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---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------jkT; ljdkj dh lsokvksa ij
fu;qfDr ds fy;s dq”ky f[kykfM+;ksa ds fy, izek.k&i=A
izekf.kr fd;k tkrk gS fd Jh@Jherh@dqekjh ----------------------------------------------------------------------------
vkRet@iRuh@vkRet Jh------------------------------------------------------------------------------- fuoklh ------------------------------------------------¼iwjk irk½ --------
------------------------------------------------------------------- us fnukad----------------------------ls fnukad -----------------------------rd -----------------------------------------------------
--------------------------------------esa ¼dzhM+k@[ksydwn dk uke½ dh izfr;ksfxrk ¼VwuZkesUV dk LFkku½ ----------------------------------------------------------------
vk;ksftr jk’Vªh; ----------------------------------------------------------esa ¼dzhM+k@[ksydwn dk uke½ dh izfr;ksfxrk@VwuZkesUV esa izn”s k dh vksj
ls Hkkx fy;kA
muds Vhe ds }kjk mDr izfr;ksfxrk@VwukesUV esa ------------------------------------------------------- LFkku izkIr fd;k x;kA ;g
izek.k&i= ---------------------------------------------------------------------------------- ¼izn”s kh; la?k dk uke½ esa miyC/k fjdkMZ ds vk/kkj ij fn;k
x;k gSA
LFkku % gLrk{kj ------------------------------------
fnukad % in ---------------------------------------------
laLFkk dk uke ------------------------
eqgj -------------------------------------------
ukVs %& ;g izek.k&i= izns”kh; [ksydwn la?k ds lfpo }kjk O;fDrxr :i ls fd;s x;s gLrk{kj gksus ij gh ekU;
gksxkA
 QkeZ&3
¼ekU;rk izkIr ØhM+k@[ksy esa vius fo”ofo|ky; dh vksj ls vUrfoZ”ofo|ky; izfr;ksfxrk esa Hkkx ysus okys f[kykM+h
ds fy;s½
fo”ofo|ky; dk uke----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
uke----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------jkT;
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------jkT; Lrj dh lsokvks@ a inksa ij fu;qfDr ds dq”ky
f[kykfM+;ksa ds fy;s izek.k&i=A
izekf.kr fd;k tkrk gS fd Jh@Jherh@dqekjh-------------------------------------------------------------------------------vkRet@iRuh@
vkRetk Jh---------------------------------------------------------fuoklh ¼iwjk irk½-----------------------------------------------fo”ofo|ky; dh d{kk ---------------
¼LFkku dk uke½ esa vk;ksftr vUrfoZ”ofo|ky; --------------------------------------¼ØhM+k@[ksydwn dk uke½ izfr;ksfxrk@VwukZeUs V esa
fo”ofo|ky; dh vksj ls Hkkx fy;kA muds Vhe ds }kjk mDr izfr;ksfxrk@VwukZeUs V esa -------------------------------------------LFkku
izkIr fd;k x;kA ;g izek.k i= Mhu vkWQ LiksV~Zl vFkok bapktZ [ksy s dwn -----------------------------------------------------------------
fo”ofo|ky; esa miyC/k fjdkMZ ds vk/kkj ij fn;k x;kA
LFkku------------------------------------------ gLrk{kj-------------------------------------------------------------
fnukad ------------------------------------- uke--------------------------------------------------------------------
in uke -----------------------------------------------------------
laLFkk dk uke-------------------------------------------------
eqgj -----------------------------------------------------------------
uksV %& ;g izek.k&i= fo”ofo|ky; ds Mhu vkQ LiksV~Zl ;k bapktZ [ksydwn }kjk O;fDrxr :i ls gLrk{kj gksus ij
gh ekU; gksxkA

QkeZ&4
¼ekU;rk izizkIr ØhM+k@[ksy esa vius Ldwy dh vksj ls jk’Vªh; [ksydwn esa Hkkx ysus okys f[kykM+h ds fy;s½ MkbjsDVªVs
vkWQ ifCyd bULVªD”ku@funs”kd] f”k{kk mRrjk[k.M ----------------------------------------------------jkT;
----------------------------------------------------jkT; Lrj dh lsokvksa ij fu;qfDr ds
fy;s dq”ky f[kykfM+ f[kykfM+;ksa ds fy;s izek.k i=A
izekf.kr fd;k tkrk gS fd Jh@Jherh@dqekjh ------------------------------------------------------------------------vkRet@iRuh@vkRetk
Jh -----------------------------------------------------------------fuoklh ¼iwjk irk½---------------------------------------------esa -----------------------------------------------------------------------
-----------------Ldwy esa d{kk----------------------------------------¼LFkku dk uke½ esa vk;ksftr Ldwyksa ds us”kuy xsEl dh ------------------------------------
-------------¼ØhM+k@[ksydwn dk uke½ izfr;ksfxrk@VwukZeUs V esa ------------------------------------------------------------------------------Ldwy dh vksj ls
Hkkx fy;kA
muds Vhe ds }kjk mDr izfr;ksfxrk@VwukZeUs V eas ------------------------------------------LFkku izkIr fd;kA ;g izek.k i= MkbjsDVªVs
vkWQ ifCyd bULVªD”ku@f”k{kk esa miyC/k fjdkMZ ds vk/kkj ij fn;k x;k gSA

LFkku------------------------------------------ gLrk{kj-------------------------------------------------------------
fnukad ------------------------------------- uke--------------------------------------------------------------------
in uke -----------------------------------------------------------
laLFkk dk uke-------------------------------------------------
eqgj -----------------------------------------------------------------
uksV%& ;g izek.k i= funs”kd@;k vfrfjDr@la;qDr ;k mi funs”kd MkbZjsDVªVs vkWQ ifCyd bULVªD”ku@f”k{kk }kjk
O;fDrxr :i ls gLrk{kj gksus ij ekU; gksxkA

(Kunwar Singh)
Secretary