Holistic Exam

Adigrat University
Department of Electrical
& Computer Engineering
Question Pool (Model Holistic Exam)
September, 2014
_____________________________________________________________________________________
Adigrat University
College of Engineering & Technology
Department of Electrical & Computer

Engineering
PART I: FUNDAMENTAL OF ELECTRICAL

ENGINEERING HOLISTIC EXAM
September 14/2014 G.C
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2
Multiple Choice Questions: Fundamental of Electrical Engineering
1. A two-terminal variable resistor is known as a
A. potentiometer B. thermistor
C. rheostat D. wiper
2. The colored bands for a 4,700 ohm resistor with a ten percent tolerance are
A. yellow, violet, red, gold
B. yellow, violet, orange, gold
C. yellow, violet, red, silver
D. orange, violet, red, silver
3. A circuit breaker is a
A. fuse
B. switch
C. resettable protective device
D. resistor
A red, red, orange, gold resistor has a nominal value of

4.
A. 22,000
B. 2,200
C. 22
D. 2.2
3
The current in a given circuit is not to exceed 24 A. Which value of fuse is best?
5.
A. a fuse is not necessary
B. 10 A
C. 24 A
D. 20 A
Which of the following is not a type of energy source?

6.
A. generator
B. rheostat
C. solar cell
D. battery
The number of kilowatts in 135 milliwatts is

7.
A. 1.35 104 kW
B. 135 103 kW
C. 0.0135 kW
D. 0.00135 kW
8.The number of millivolts in 0.06 kilovolts is
A. 600 V
B. 6,000 mV
C. 60,000 mV
D. 600,000 mV
4
A 470 resistor and a 0.2 F capacitor are in parallel across a 2.5 kHz ac source. The
9. admittance, Y, in rectangular form, is
A. 212
B. 2.12 mS + j3.14 mS
C. 3.14 mS + j2.12 mS
D. 318.3
10. A positive angle of 30 is equivalent to a negative angle of
A. 30 B. 330
C. 60 D. 180
11. In a series RC circuit, 12 V(rms) is measured across the resistor and 15 V(rms) is measured
across the capacitor. The rms source voltage is
A. 3V
B. 27 V
C. 19.2 V
D. 1.9 V
12. A 6 kHz sinusoidal voltage is applied to a series RC circuit. The frequency of the voltage
across the resistor is
A. 0 Hz
B. 12 kHz
C. 6 kHz
D. 18 kHz
13. When the frequency of the source voltage decreases, the impedance of a parallel RCcircuit
A. increases
B. decreases
5
C. does not change
D. decreases to zero
14. A 47 resistor and a capacitor with a capacitive reactance of 120 are in series across an
ac source. What is the circuit impedance, Z?
A. 129
B. 12.9
C. 167
D. 73
16. In a series RC circuit, when the frequency and the resistance are halved, the impedance
A. doubles
B. is halved
C. is reduced to one-fourth
D. cannot be determined without values
17. A 2 k resistor is in series with a 0.015 F capacitor across a 15 kHz ac source. What is the
magnitude of the total impedance and the phase angle?
A. 73.4 and = 19.5
B. 707 and = 19.5
C. 2121 and = 19.5
D. 734 and = 38.9
18. The complex number 40 55 is equivalent to
A. 55 + j55
B. 40 + j40
C. 45.88 + j65.52
6
D. 22.94 + j32.76
When the frequency of the voltage applied to a series RC circuit is decreased, the impedance
19.
A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains the same
D. doubles
A 1.5 k resistor and a coil with a 2.2 k inductive reactance are in series across an 18 V ac
20. source. The power factor is
A. 564 B. 0.564
C. 6.76 D. 55.7
In a series RL circuit, 12 V rms is measured across the resistor, and 14 V rms is measured across
21. the inductor. The peak value of the source voltage is
A. 18.4 V
B. 26.0 V
C. 2V
D. 20 V
A 1.2 k resistor is in series with a 15 mH coil across a 10 kHz ac source. The magnitude of the
22. total impedance is
A. 152.6
B. 1,526
C. 1,200
D. 942
When the frequency is decreased, the impedance of a parallel RL circuit

23.
A. increases
7
B. decreases
C. remains constant
D. is not a factor
A 12 k resistor is in series with a 90 mH coil across an 8 kHz ac source. Current flow in the
24. circuit, expressed in polar form, is I = 0.3 0 mA. The source voltage, expressed in polar form,
is
A. 3.84 20.6 V
B. 12.8 20.6 V
C. 0.3 20.6 V
D. 13.84 69.4 V
25. Find the node voltage VA.
A. 6V
B. 12 V
C. 4.25 V
D. 3V
8
What is the current through R2?
26.
A. 3.19 A
B. 319 mA
C. 1.73 A
D. 173 mA
27.
What is the voltage drop across R2?
A. 3.5 V
B. 4.18 V
C. 1.5 V
D. 145 mV
28. In assigning the direction of branch currents,
9
A. the directions are critical
B. the directions are not critical
C. they must point into a node
D. they must point out of a node
29. In a three-phase system, the voltages are separated by
A. 45 B. 90
C. 120 D. 180
In a three-phase system, when the loads are perfectly balanced, the neutral current is
30.
A. zero
B. one-third of maximum
C. two-thirds of maximum
D. at maximum
In a -connected source driving a -connected load, the

31.
A. load voltage and line voltage are one-third the source voltage for a given phase
B. load voltage and line voltage are two-thirds the source voltage for a given phase
C. load voltage and line voltage cancel for a given phase
D. load voltage, line voltage, and source phase voltage are all equal for a given phase
In a certain three-wire Y-connected generator, the phase voltages are 2 kV. The magnitudes of the
32. line voltages are
A. 2,000 V
B. 6,000 V
10
C. 666 V
D. 3,464 V
5.
33. In a -connected source feeding a Y-connected load,
A. each phase voltage equals the difference of the corresponding load voltages
B. each phase voltage equals the corresponding load voltage
C. each phase voltage is one-third the corresponding load voltage
D. each phase voltage is 60 out of phase with the corresponding load voltage
The branch current method uses

34.
A. Kirchhoff's voltage and current laws
B. Thevenin's theorem and Ohm's law
C. Kirchhoff's current law and Ohm's law
D. the superposition theorem and Thevenin's theorem
35. A three-phase generator is connected to three 90 load resistors. Each coil generates 120 V ac.
A common neutral line exists. How much current flows through the common neutral line?
A. 0A
B. 1.33 A
C. 3.99 A
D. 2.66 A
36. Polyphase generators produce simultaneous multiple sinusoidal voltages that are separated by
A. certain constant phase angles
11
B. certain constant frequencies
C. certain constant voltages
D. certain constant currents
37. In a balanced three-phase load, each phase has
A. an equal amount of power
B. one-third of total power
C. two-thirds of total power
D. a power consumption equal to IL
In a Y-Y source/load configuration, the

38.
A. phase current, the line current, and the load current are all equal in each phase
B. phase current, the line current, and the load current are 120 out of phase
phase current and the line current are in phase, and both are 120 out of phase with the
C.
load current
line current and the load current are in phase, and both are out of phase with the phase
D.
current
39. In a Y-connected circuit, the magnitude of each line current is
A. one-third the phase current
B. three times the corresponding phase current
C. equal to the corresponding phase current
D. zero
40. A constant load power means a uniform conversion of
12
A. mechanical to electrical energy
B. electrical to mechanical energy
C. current to voltage
D. voltage to current
41. A two-phase generator is connected to two 90 load resistors. Each coil generates 120 V ac. A
common neutral line exists. How much current flows through the common neutral line?
A. 1.33 A
B. 1.88 A
C. 2.66 A
D. 1.77 A
42. A 33 half-watt resistor and a 330 half-watt resistor are connected across a 12 V source.
Which one(s) will overheat?
A. 33
B. 330
C. both resistors
D. neither resistor
43. When the pointer of an analog ohmmeter reads close to zero, the resistor being measured is
A. overheated B. shorted
C. open D. reversed
44. A three-phase -connected generator is driving a balanced load such that each phase
current is 12 A in magnitude. When I a = 12 30 A, what are the polar expressions for the
other phase currents?
13
A. I b = 12 150 A, I c = 12 90 A
B. I b = 12 120 A, I c = 12 30 A
C. I b = 12 30 A, I c = 12 120 A
D. I b = 12 90 A, I c = 12 90 A
45. In a Y-connected source feeding a -connected load,
A. each phase of the load has one-third of the full line voltage across it
B. each phase of the load has two-thirds of the full line voltage across it
C. each phase of the load has the full line voltage across it
D. each phase of the load has a voltage across it equal to
46. In a -connected generator, all of the phase voltages are
A. zero
B. equal in magnitude
C. one-third of total
D. one-sixth of total
47. A certain appliance uses 350 W. If it is allowed to run continuously for 24 days, how many
kilowatt-hours of energy does it consume?
A. 20.16 kWh
B. 201.6 kWh
C. 2.01 kWh
D. 8.4 kWh
14
48. A 120 resistor must carry a maximum current of 25 mA. Its rating should be at least
A. 4.8 W
B. 150 mW
C. 15 mW
D. 480 mW
49. A 6 V battery is connected to a 300 load. Under these conditions, it is rated at 40 Ah. How
long can it supply current to the load?
A. 1h
B. 200 h
C. 2,000 h
D. 10 h
50. Find the Thevenin equivalent (VTH and RTH) between terminals A and B of the circuit given below.
A. 4.16 V, 120
B. 41.6 V, 120
C. 4.16 V, 70
15
D. 41.67 V, 70
51. Find the total current through R3 in the given circuit.
A. 7.3 mA
B. 5.5 mA
C. 12.8 mA
D. 1.8 mA
52. A 680 load resistor, RL, is connected across a constant current source of 1.2 A. The internal
source resistance, RS, is 12 k . The load current, RL, is
A. 0A
B. 1.2 A
C. 114 mA
16
D. 1.14 A
53. Find the current through R2 of the given circuit.
A. 30.7 mA
B. 104 mA
C. 74 mA
D. 134 mA
54. Determine IN for the circuit consisting of VS, R1, R2, and R3 shown in the given circuit.
A. 676 mA
B. 245 mA
C. 431 mA
17
D. 75 mA
55. A 12 V source has an internal resistance of 90 . If a load resistance of 20 is connected to the

voltage source, the load power, PL, is
A. 2.38 mW
B. 2.38 W
C. 238 mW
D. 23.8 W
56. In a two-source circuit, one source acting alone produces 12 mA through a given branch. The
other source acting alone produces 10 mA in the opposite direction through the same branch. The
actual current through the branch is
A. 22 mA
B. 12 mA
C. 10 mA
D. 2 mA
57. Find the current through R1 in the given circuit.
A. 0.16 A
B. 0.24 A
18
C. 0.2 A
D. 0.04 A
58. What is the Thevenin equivalent (VTH and RTH) for the circuit given?
54.
A. 6.4 V, 422
B. 6.4 V, 560
C. 6.4 V, 680
D. 30 V, 422
59. Referring to the given circuit, the voltage and current for the load resistor, RL, is
A. 450 mV, 4.5 mA
B. 4.50 V, 45 mA
19
C. 4.50 V, 4.5 mA
D. 450 mV, 45 mA
60. Find the current in R2 of the given circuit, using the superposition theorem.
A. 16.7 mA
B. 33.3 mA
C. 50 mA
D. 16.6 mA
61. Find the Norton circuit, that is, IIN and RN, for the circuit given below.
A. 478 mA, 12.8
B. 750 mA, 12.8
C. 478 mA, 6.8
D. 750 mA, 6.8
20
62. Referring to circuit given, if R1 is changed to a 68 resistor, what will be the current
through it?
A. 0.16 A
B. 0.24 A
C. 0.2 A
D. 0.04 A
63. Referring to the given circuit, determine VTH and RTH if a 68 resistor is connected in parallel
across R2 and R3.
A. 3.3 V, 148
B. 330 mV, 148
C. 3.3 V, 68
D. 330 mV, 68
21
64. A 470 RL is connected across a voltage source, VS, of 120 V. The source's internal
resistance, RS, is 12 . What is the output voltage across the load?
A. 120 V
B. 0V
C. 117 V
D. 12 V
65. A 2 RL is connected across a voltage source, VS, of 110 V. The source's internal resistance is
24 . What is the output voltage across the load?
A. 8.5 V
B. 85 V
C. 0V
D. 110 V
66. Two equal resistors R connected in series across a voltage source V dissipate power P. What would be
the power dissipated in the same resistors when they are connected in parallel across the same voltage
source ?
A. 4P
B. P
C. 2P
D. 16P
22
67. Two identical resistors are first connected in parallel then in series. The ratio of resultant resistance of
the first combination to the second will be
A. 4
B. 0.25
C. 2
D. 0.4
68. The ratio of the resistance of a 200W, 230V lamp to that of a 100W, 115 V lamp will be
A. 0.5
B. 2
C. 4
D. 0.2
69. Two 1 k 1 W resistors are connected in series. Their combine resistance and wattage will be
A. 2 k, 0.5 W
B. 1 k, 1 W
C. 0.5 k, 2 W
D. 2 k, 1 W
70. Three 3 resistors are connected to form a triangle. What is the resistance between any two of the
corners?
A. 9
B. 6
23
C. 3
D. 2 .
71. A 10 resistor is stretched to increase its length double. Its resistance will now be
A. 40
B. 20
C. 10
D. 5
72. A wire of resistance R has it length and cross section both doubled. Its resistance will become
A. 0.5R
B. R
C. 2R
D. 4R
The output of a certain voltage divider is 12 V with no load. When a load is connected, the output
73. voltage
[A].
decreases
[B]. increases
[C]. remains the same
[D]. becomes zero
74. A certain voltage divider consists of two 12 k resistors in series. Which of the following load
resistors will have the most effect on the output voltage?
A. 1M
24
B. 24 k
C. 18 k
D. 12 k
75. A certain Wheatstone bridge has the following resistor values: R1 = 10 k , R2 = 720 ,
and R4 = 2.4 k . The unknown resistance is
A. 24
B. 2.4
C. 300
D. 3,000
76. A voltage divider consists of two 100 k resistors and a 12 V source. What will the output
voltage be if a load resistor of 1 M is connected to the output?
A. 0.57 V
B. 6V
C. 12 V
D. 5.7 V
77. Determine VTH when R1 is 180 and XL is 90 .
25
A. 135 63.4 V
B. 13.5 63.4 V
C. 12.2 0 V
D. 122 0 V
78. For the given circuit, find VTH for the circuit external to RL.
A. 4.69 51.3 V
B. 4.69 38.7 V
C. 469 38.7 mV
D. 6 0 V
26
79. Referring to the given circuit, find ZTH if R is 15 k and RL is 38 k .
A. 89.82 51.3 k
B. 19.2 38.3 k
C. 9.38 51.3 k
D. 180 38.3 k
80. For the circuit shown, determine ZTH for the portion of the circuit external to RL.
A. 66.7 33.7 k
B. 6.67 333.7 k
27
C. 14.4 56.3 k
D. 1.44 33.7 k
81. Referring to the given circuit, what is ZTH if R1 is changed to 220 ?
A. 225 12.1
B. 225 77.9
C. 46 77.9
D. 46 12.1
82. The two basic components of a Thevenin equivalent ac circuit are
A. the equivalent voltage source and the equivalent series impedance
B. the equivalent voltage source and the equivalent series resistance
C. the equivalent voltage source and the equivalent parallel impedance
D. the equivalent voltage source and the equivalent parallel resistance
83. Referring to the given circuit, find ZTH if VS is 18<0 V.
28
A. 9.82 51.3 k
B. 9.3851.3 k
C. 180 38.3 k
D. 19.2 38.3 k
84. In applying the superposition theorem,
A. the sources are considered one at a time with all others replaced by their internal impedance
B. all sources are considered independently
C. all sources are considered simultaneously
D. the sources are considered one at a time with all others replaced by their internal resistance
85. If two currents are in the same direction at any instant of time in a given branch of a circuit, the net
current at that instant
A. is zero
B. is the sum of the two currents
C. is the difference between the two currents
29
D. cannot be determined
86. The Thevenin equivalent voltage is
A. equal to the source voltage
B. the same as the load voltage
C. the open circuit voltage
D. none of the above
87. In order to get maximum power transfer from a capacitive source, the load must
A. have a capacitive reactance equal to circuit resistance
B. have an impedance that is the complex conjugate of the source impedance
C. be as capacitive as it is inductive
88. Referring to the given circuit, how much power, in watts, is delivered to the speaker at the determined
frequency if Vs = 4.5 VRMS?
30
A. 226 mW
B. 2.26 mW
C. 4.24 mW
D. 424 mW
89. The Norton equivalent current is
A. the current through the load
B. the open-current from the source
31
C. the short circuit current

90. Determine the frequency at which the maximum power is transferred from the amplifier to the
speaker in the given figure.
A. 1,027 Hz
B. 10,270 Hz
C. 6,330 Hz
D. 63,330 Hz
91. Norton's theorem gives
32
A. an equivalent current source in parallel with an equivalent impedance
B. an equivalent current source in series with an equivalent impedance
C. an equivalent voltage source in parallel with an equivalent impedance
D. an equivalent voltage source in series with an equivalent impedance
92. An electric heater draws 3.5 A from a 110 V source. The resistance of the heating element is
approximately
A. 385
B. 38.5
C. 3.1
D. 31
93. If 750 A is flowing through 11 k of resistance, what is the voltage drop across the resistor?
A. 8.25 V
B. 82.5 V
C. 14.6 V
D. 146 V
94. The formula to find I when the values of V and R are known is
A. I = VR
B. I = R/V
C. V = IR
33
D. I = V/R
95. A resistor is connected across a 50 V source. What is the current in the resistor if the color code is red,
orange, orange, silver?
A. 2 mA
B. 2.2 mA
C. 214 mA
D. 21.4 mA
96. You are measuring the current in a circuit that is operated on an 18 V battery. The ammeter reads 40
mA. Later you notice the current has dropped to 20 mA. How much has the voltage changed?
A. 9V
B. 900 mV
C. 0V
D. 18 V
97. If you wish to increase the amount of current in a resistor from 120 mA to 160 mA by changing the 24 V
source, what should the new voltage setting be?
A. 8V
B. 320 V
C. 3.2 V
D. 32 V
34
98. A 120 V lamp-dimming circuit is controlled by a rheostat and protected from excessive current by a 3 A
fuse. To what minimum resistance value can the rheostat be set without blowing the fuse? Assume a lamp
resistance of 20 ohms.
A. 40
B. 4
C. 2
D. 20
35
____________________________________________________________________________________
Adigrat University

Engineering
APPLIED ELECTRONICS QUESTION POOLS
BY MEHARI GIDENA (M.Sc. in Microelectronics Engineering)
____________________________________________________________________________________
36
Holistic Exam: Applied Electronics I & II (multiple choices)
1. You are given a voltage divider transistor biasing with two DC power supply as shown below
with a specification = 100, VBE = 0.7 (silicon NPN transistor) then the IC and VCE of the
transistor are respectively. (Hint: in the network below K stands for kilo Ohm)
A. 6.6 mA and 39.465 V C. 6.6 mA and -39.465 V
B. 6.6 A and 39.465 mV D. -6.6 mA and 39.465 V
2. Consider the common collector amplifier in figure below, theoverall voltage gain (Av) and
overall current gain (Ai)are respectively.(if necessary =85, assume rois extremely large and
neglect the source resistance 20 in your analysis and base emitter resistance is much
smaller than (B+1)RE )
A) 2 and 9 C. 8.769 and 2
B) 1 and 8.769 D. 8.769 and 1
37
3. For the class A power amplifier shown below the input DC power (Pi (DC)) and the output ac
power (Po (ac)) are respectively. (Consider maximum limiting conditions and = 100, VBE
=0.7 and K stands for kilo Ohm)
A. 42.9 mW and 10 mWC. 42.9 W and 10 W
B. 10 mW and 42.9 mW D. 10 W and 42.9 W
4. The Bi-stable multivibrator shown below has a square wave output signal which varies b/n
Vp=20v and Vp= -20 V and the input signal is Vin = Am sin100t where Am is adjustable
peak value. The width of dual stable state region is (Assume R1=R2)
A. 20 C. 40
B. -20 D. 10
5. For the following CMOS logic circuit the logic function and size of each transistor (width to
length ratio) in the NMOS part are respectively.. (Assume symmetrical switching times are
desired and the switching times should correspond to the basic CMOS inverter.)
A. (ABC) and 3 C. ABC and 3
B. (A+B+C) and 2 D. (A+B+C) and 2
38
6. A bipolar junction transistor is a three terminal semiconductor device in which its operation
depends on the interaction of both electrons and holes. If the BJT is required to work properly
and sufficient amount of electrons or holes are to be injected from the emitter region for NPN
or PNP transistors the doping level of the collector must be
A. Smaller than the emitter C. the same as the emitter
B. Larger than the emitter D. smaller than the base
7. A study of transistor characteristic shows that the transistor operation is most linear when the
operation is restricted to the
A. Active region C. Cutoff region
B. Saturation region A. break down region
8. A PNP bipolar junction transistor has different types of charge carries in its emitter, base and
collector region. The type of charge carries in the emitter region are
A. Electrons C. ions
B. Holes D. Electron hole pairs
9. In an NPN or PNP bipolar junction transistors the Emitter current is the sum of Base current
and Collector current ,i.e. IE= IB +IC and the Base current is very small when it is compared
with the Collector and Emitter currents. Why?
A. Because of Base is highly doped than Emitter
B. Because of Base is highly doped than collector
C. Because of Base is lightly doped than Emitter and collector
D. Because of Base is moderately doped
10. NPN bipolar junction transistor has different types of charge carries in its emitter, base and
collector region. The type of charge carries in the Base region are
C. Electrons C. ions
39
D. Holes D. Electron hole pairs
11. One of the following is a three terminal device
A. MOSFET C. BJT
B. FET D. All
12. A transistor used to design high gain and stable amplifier is
A. FET C. Zener Diode
B. BJT D. Thyristor
13. A special diode used for voltage regulation purpose is
A. LED diode C. Varactor diode
B. Photo diode D. Zener diode
14. One of the following diodes is used for light detection purpose
A. LED diode C. Zener diode
B. Photo diode D. Normal diode
15. A Zener diode operates in in one of the following regions
A. Above reverse break down region C. Below reverse break down region
B. In the forward region D. A &B
16. If you need a DC voltage i.e. rectified and filtered from an AC voltage the sequence of the
rectifier and filter are respectively
A. Filter and rectifier C. Filter ,Mixer and Rectifier
B. Rectifier and Filter D. None
17. The potential barrier between the P and N regions of a diode is due to
A. Depletion region C. Valence band
B. Conduction band D. A & B
18. The highest energy level at which excited electrons are found is
A. Valence band C. Forbidden band
B. Conduction band D. None
19. A voltage given as input for a particular ckt provides an output of 0.7 Volt during the
positive half cycle of the input and a full input voltage during the negative half cycle of the
input. This type of electronic ckt is
A. Clamper C. Clipper
B. Rectifier D. Regulator
20. An electronic circuit which produces an offset on to the input voltage is Known as
A. Rectifier C. Clamper
B. Clipper D. Regulator
21. On a semiconductor material an N- type impurity is doped. The majority carriers in this
material are
A. Electrons C. Electrons and holes
B. Holes D. None
22. The bond formed by electron sharing b/n the neighboring silicon atoms and dopants is
A. Ionic bond C. Covalent bond
40
B. Semi ionic bond D. None
23. At high temperature silicon is more stable than Germanium because
A. Silicon has high energy band gap
B. Germaniums outer most shell electrons are found one step above silicon
C. Germanium is less temperature sensitive
D. A & B
24. One of the following is an Extrinsic semiconductor
A. Pure silicon C. boron doped silicon
B. Pure Arsenic D. single crystal silicon
25. It is not a semiconductor property
A. As temperature increases conductivity increases
B. As temperature increases conductivity decreases
C. As doping level increases conductivity decreases
D. As temperature increases number of free electrons decreases
26. One of the following plays a crucial role in solid state electronics for IC manufacturing
A. Semiconductors C. Conductors
B. Insulators D. None
27. FET operates due to the field generated b/n the opposite particles in the channel or
substrate and gate regions. What type of field is generated link the gate to the channel
A. Magnetic field C. Electric charge
B. Electric field D. Magnetic strength
28. The problem occurred on the output signal when you operate a BJT transistor near the cutoff
region is
A. Signal will be clipped in the negative half cycle
B. Signal will be clipped in the positive half cycle
C. Signal will be clipped in the negative & positive half cycles
D. None
29. What is the transistor biasing applied for the following scheme
A. Fixed base current biasing
B. Voltage divider biasing
C. Constant current biasing
D. Emitter stabilized biasing
41
30. For a common emitter configuration if the base emitter junction is forward biased and
collector base junction is reverse biased then the transistor is operating in
A. Active region C. Breakdown region
B. Saturation region D. Cutoff region
31. A robust amplifier property is
A. Large bandwidth C. small input impedance
B. Large input impedance D. all
32. Junction field effect transistor is a three-terminal device with one terminal capable of controlling the
current between the other two i.e. the drain current ID and the output characteristic curve of the
JFET is plotted as ID versus VDSfor different values of VGS. So FET is
A. Voltage controlled voltage source C. Current controlled current source
B. Voltage controlled current source D. Current controlled voltage source
33. A particular n- channel JFET transistor has the following output characteristics curve. For linear
amplification purpose the transistor should operate
A. Above VP and below VDSmaxC. For VGSless than VThn
B. Below VpD. A & C
34. For the n-channel E-MOSFET shown below the induced channel can be formed due to
A. Positive applied voltage VGS C. Electric field between gate and channel
B. Negative applied voltage VGS D. A & C
42
35. FET is a voltage controlled three terminal device which operates due to the electric field
produced between the gate terminal and the channel. From the voltage transfer
characteristics of the depleted MOSFET shown below as the input voltage decreases the
Drain current
A. Increases C. Constant
B. Decreases D. None
36. The JFET biasing configuration shown below is

A. Voltage divider biasing C. Self biasing
B. Fixed bias configuration D. None
37. The input resistance for the JFET amplifier shown below is
A. R1||R2 C. RS||R1||R2
B. R1||R2||r D. RS||RD||R2
43
38. The input to the circuit shown in Figure below is V in=0.20V. The current iL is
A. 0.75 mA C. - 7.5mA
B. -0.75 A D. 75mA
39. Design an inverting op-amp circuit with a closed-loop voltage gain of Av=v O/v I
=12.Thecurrentineachresistoristobenolargerthan20Awhentheoutputvoltageis4.0V.
A. R1=16.667K and R2 =200K C. R1=20K and R2 =16.667K

B. R1=200K and R2 =16.667K D. R1=200K and R2 =1.667K
40. Consider an ideal inverting op-amp with R2=100k and R1=10k .The ideal voltage gain
and input resistance Ri are respectively
A. -10 and 10 K C. -1 and 10 K
B. 10 and 10 K D. -10 and 100 K
41. The condition that allows enough current to pass through the pn junction of a diode is
A. Forward bias C. Constant bias
B. Reverse bias D. stabilized current biasing
44
42. The depletion region width during reverse bias condition of a diode is
A. Narrow C. larger than the p-region
B. Wide D. larger than the n-region
43. To increase the level of conductivity in intrinsic semiconductor, pentavalent impurity atoms are
added. This process produces
A. Additional free electrons C. Equal free electrons and holes
B. Additional free holes D. None
44. The energy band gap for conductors is smaller than semiconductors. Why?
A. Because the ionization energy needed for conductors is smaller than semiconductors.
B. Because the ionization energy needed for semiconductors is larger than semiconductors.
C. The number of electrons at the outer most shell for conductors are small
D. A & C
45. The biasing scheme show below is
A. Reverse bias C. Fixed bias
B. Forward bias D. stabilized current biasing
46. The two types of field effect transistors are

A. JFET & BJT C. PNP BJT & JFET
B. JFET & MOSFET D. EMOSFET & NPN BJT
47. The following type of multivibrator is
A. A stable multivibrator C. Bistable multivibrator
B. Mono stable Multivibrator D. None
45
48. The oscillation frequency of the following multivibrator is
A. 4.545 KHZ C. 45.45 KHZ
B. 0.4545 KHZ D. 454.5HZ
49. The output characteristics shown below

A. N-channel JFET o/p characteristics
B. P-channel JFET o/p characteristics
C. P-channel EMOSFET o/p characteristics
D. P-channel DMOSFET o/p characteristics
46
50. The type of channel that will be induced in the following structural MOSFET layout after the
biasing potential is applied
A. P-channel C. No channel
B. N-channel D. None
51. The output of the center taped full wave rectifier during the positive half cycle is
A. Vp C. Vp/2
B. 2Vp D. 4Vp
52. For the negative half cycle of the input the output in the diode circuit below is (Assume Rlim is
zero or negligible )
A. Vp C. 2Vp
B. Vp D. -2Vp
53. The output during the positive and negative half cycle of the input for the following diode
circuit is
A. 2Vp-0.7 and -0.7 V C. 0.7 V and 2Vp
B. Vp-0.7 and -0.7 V D. 2Vp and 0.7 V
47
54. Using ideal diode model the output in terms peak voltage for the following diode circuit is
A. 10V C. 30 V
B. -30 V D. -10 V
55. The minimum load resistance for which the zener diode in fig. below will maintain regulation
is (Assume VZ=15 V, IZmin=1.75 mA and Izmax =60 mA and RL is variable resistor)
A. 474.9 C. 400
B. 450 D. 8.57 K
R
450
+ +
RL
Vin 30 V D2 Vo
- -
56. The output of the following voltage summer op-amp is

A. (1+R2/R1){[R3/(R3+R4)]V2 + [R4/(R3+R4)]V1}
57. It is not a property of ideal Op-amp

A. It has Large bandwidth C. It has small output resistance
B. It has large input resistance D. None
58. Op-amps are used
A. for voltage summation,
48
B. for Voltage scaling, and as electronic integrators and differentiators.
C. As electronic integrators
D. as electronic differentiators E. all
59. Assume you need to have an Oscillator with oscillation frequency of fo= RC in which
oscillation starts at R2/R1>2. What type oscillator you will use to demonstrate the above
fact.
A. Wien bridge Oscillator C. RC phase shift Oscillator
B. Hartley Oscillator D .Colipits Oscillator
60. A low pass filter is connected in series to an Amplifier. The amplifier amplifies a signal
received by an antenna and the filter will
A. Remove the low frequency component of the signal
B. Remove the high frequency component of the noise
C. Add a low frequency signal
D. Add a high frequency noise
61. The variable resistor setting in the potential divider circuit shown below is
A. 13.182 K C. 5K
B. 131.82 K D. 10 K
62. The emitter ,base and collector terminals of the NPN transistor shown below are respectively
A. A, B and C C. B, C and A
B. C, B and A D. B, A and C
49
63. Consider the following fixed current biasing with Vcc = 4.5V, Ic = 25mA and R1 = 39 k,
then the base current Ib and the current gain AI are respectively. (Assume VBE negligible)
A. 0.115 mA and 216.667 C. 0.0115 mA and 2166.67
B. 1.15 mA and 21.667 D. None
64. For the following BJT circuitwithIb = 20A , Ic = 2mA, VCE =2 V and Vcc = 9V the value of
R1 and R2 are respectively (Assume VBE negligible)
A. 450 K and 3.5 K C. 450 K and 35 K
B. 45K and 3.5 K D. 4.5 K and 3.5 K
65. The output of the following op-amp amplifier is

A. Vout = -(0.1V1 + 0.2V2 + 0.4V3 + 0.8V4) C. Vout = -(0.1V1 + 2V2 + 0.4V3 + 0.8V4)
B. Vout = -(1V1 + 0.2V2 + 4V3 + 0.8V4) D. Vout = -(0.1V1 + 0.2V2 + 0.4V3 + 0.8V4)
50
Rf = 8k
R1 = 80k
R2 = 40k
66. The output Z of the following logic gate circuit for an input of A=1 and B=0 is
A. 1 C. Dont care
B. 0 D. A & C
67. For the logic gate circuit shown below with an input of A=1 and B=1 the output P and Q are
respectively
A. 1 and 1 C. 0 and 1
B. 1 and 0 D. 0 and 0
68. The Boolean expression for the output of the logic circuit shown below is
A. (A + B) C. (A * B)
B. (A + B) D. A & C
51
69. The internal resistance of an ammeter should be very low in order to have
A. high accuracy C. maximum voltage drop
B. high sensitivity D. minimum effect across the meter current in the circuit
70. The minimum number of NAND gates required to implement the Boolean function Y= ADC
+(CDE +AB)is equal to
A. 3 B. 2 C. 4 D. 1
71. The early effect in a bipolar junction transistor is caused by
A. Fast turn on B. fast turn off
B. Large collector base reverse bias D. large emitter base forward bias
72. The Op-amp ckt shown below is
A. Electronic integrator C. Voltage subtractor
B. Electronic differentiator D. Voltage summer
73. The output impedance of the following common emitter amplifier is

A. RC ||ro C.RC||RB
B. RB||re D. ro
52
74. The voltage gain for the BJT amplifier configuration shown below is AV = -(RC||ro)/re. The
phase angle relation between the input and output voltage is
A. 1800 out of phase C. 2700 out of phase
B. 900 out of phase D. None
75. The fixed-bias configuration of the JFET shown below has an operating point defined by
VGSQ=-2 V and IDQ = 5.625 mA, with IDSS = 10 mA and VP =- 8 V. The value of the
transferred trans-conductance gmis
A. 18.8mS B. 1.88 mS C. 2.5 mS D. 25 mS
Figure A
76. The input impedance of the JFET common source configuration shown above in fig. A is
A. 0.5M B. 1M C. 2K D. None
77. The output impedance of the JFET common source configuration shown above in fig. A is
A. 0.5M B. 1M C. 2K D. None
53
78. Consider a particular common emitter amplifier has a low frequency response f1=10 HZ and
f2 = 113 HZ due to its coupling capacitors C1 and C2 at its input and output ports.
The low cutoff frequency of this amplifier is
A. 10 HZ B. 113 HZ C. 123 HZ D. 61.5 HZ
79. Consider a particular common emitter amplifier has a high frequency response fA=100 HZ
and fB = 1.5 KHZ due to its shunt capacitors CA and CB at its input and output ports.
The low cutoff frequency of this amplifier is
B. 100 HZ B. 1.5 KHZ C. 1.6 KHZ D. 800HZ
80. Consider the signal in fig A is an input signal to a certain electronic device and the output is in
fig B. What is this electronic device?
A. Clipper C. Clamper
B. Amplifier D. Full wave rectifier
81. Consider the ideal inverting op-amp circuit shown in Figure X below. What
isthevoltagegain Av =v O/v I forR2=200k, R1=20k
Fig X. inverting amplifier

A. 10 C. 220
B. -220 D. -10
82. Designaninvertingamplifiertoprovideanominalclosed-loopvoltagegain
ofAv=30.Themaximuminputvoltagesignalis25Mv withasource resistanceintherangeof
1kR S 2k.Thevariablesourceresistance should introduce no more than a 5 percent
difference in the gain factor. What is the range in output voltage? (Assume the percentage
difference in the gain factor is 4%)
54
A. -0.72 V up to -0.735 V C. 0.72V up to 0.75V
B. -0.72V up to- 0.75V D. 0.72 V up to 0.735 V
83. The output of the following difference operational amplifier in terms all resistors and inputs is.
A. [(R4/(R4+R3))(1+(R2/R4)]V2+(R2/R1)V1
B. [(R4/(R4+R3))(1+(R2/R4)]V1+(R2/R1)V2
C. [(R4/(R4+R3))(1+(R2/R1)]V2 - (R2/R1)V1
D. - [(R4/(R4+R3))(1+(R2/R4)]V2 + (R2/R1)V1
84. Consider the Wien-bridge Oscillator shown below with R2 = 220 K, R1 = 25K,
C=0.01F and R = 10 K. What is the oscillators oscillation frequency and feedback ratio
respectively? (assume biasing is +9 and -9)
A. 1592.4 KHZ and 0.333 volt C. 1.5924 KHZ and 1/3
B. 1.5924 MHz and 1/3 D. 1.5924 and 1/3
85. The number of FET transistors in the PMOS part of the static CMOS logic ckt that implements
the logic function Y= (ABC +DE) and the size of transistor A and B in the PMOS (width to
length ratio) is respectively. (Assume symmetrical switching times are desired and the
switching times should correspond to the basic CMOS inverter.)
A. 5 and 4, 4 C. 5 and 6, 4
B. 5 and 2, 2 D. 5 and 6, 6
86. The logic function for the following CMOS logic ckt is
55
A. AB + AB C. (A + B)(A +B)
B. AB + AB D. B & C
87. For the differential amplifier circuit shown below the differential amplifier input common
mode signal is 1mV, the desired input signal V1=2mV, the collector resistance RC = 2M and
RE =1M. The differential gain (Av) and common mode gain (Ac) of the amplifier are
respectively
A. 461.894 and 1.5 C. 230.947 and 461.894
B. 461.894 and 1 D. 1 and 461.894
56
88. What is the role of differential amplifier in communication systems?
A. To amplify common mode signals C. To distort desired signals
B. To suppress desired signals D. To amplify desired signals
89. For the JFET common source amplifier shown below (M and K stands for kilo ohm and Mega
ohm) the Overall voltage gain is
A. 14.4 C. 15 mv
B. 8.4 D. 9.5 A
90. Electrical Resistance of conductors and semiconductors with respect to temperature change
can be expressed as R=Ro +T, R=Ro -T respectively; where is temperature
coefficient of resistivity and Ro is initial resistance at room temperature. From this you can
conclude that as temperature increases more and more the resistance of conductors and
semiconductors respectively
A. Increases C. increases and decreases
B. Decreases D. decreases and increases
91. Why silicon is used commonly in the manufacturing process of solid state electronic devices?
A. It has high energy band gap C. Due to modern IC processing Technology
B. It is abundant on the earth D. All
92. The process of adding impurities to a single silicon crystal to increase the conductivity of the
semiconductors is called
A. Polishing C. Doping
B. Etching D. Photolightograpy
93. In the energy band diagram of semiconductors the energy level between conduction band
and valence band is known as
A. Energy gap C. Electron free band
57
B. Forbidden band D. All
94. For the JFET fixed bias configuration shown below the VGSQ and VG are respectively
A. - 4 V and 4V C. - 4 V and -4V
B. 4 V and -4V D. 4 V and Vi
95. A negative feedback amplifier as compared to the basic amplifier could be characterized
by
A. Large gain sensitivity C. Large bandwidth
B. Large nonlinear distortion D. High noise sensitivity
96. The feedback gain of the non-inverting op-amp shown below is (Hint =R1/(R1+RF) )
A. A/(A + ) C. 1/(A + A)
B. A/(A +A ) D. A/(1+AB)
97. One of the following is a Uni-polar semiconductor device

A. NPN transistor C. N channel JFET
B. PNP transistor D. All
98. A BJT transistor operates due to
A. Hole electron interaction C. Diffusion of electrons in to valence band
B. Electricity D. Diffusion of holes in to electrons
58
99. In the BJT output characteristics curve the point in which the DC load line crosses the output
characteristics curve at the center of the active region is called
A. Quiescent point C. saturation point
B. Operating point D. A & B
100. The configuration type shown below is
A. Common Emitter C. Common Base
B. Common Collector D. None
101. The input and output resistance of the common emitter amplifier below are respectively
(consider ro is the collector emitter resistance and re is effective emitter resistance)
A. R1 ||R2||re and RC||ro C. R1||R2||reand RC || RE
B. R1||R2||reand RC||ro D. R1||R2||reand RC||RL
59
Adigrat University

Engineering
ELECTRICAL MATERIALS AND TECHNOLOGY

QUESTIONS POOL
BY HAILAY BERIHU (M.Sc in Microelectronics Engineering)
60
Instruction: Choose the best answer from the given alternatives
1. What is the energy of the photon that could cause an electronic transition from the n = 4 state to
the n = 5 state of hydrogen?
A. B. C. D.
2. A photon is emitted from a hydrogen atom that undergoes an electronic transition from
the state n = 3 to the state n = 2. Calculate and the frequency of the emitted photon.
A.
3. A hydrogen atom initially in its ground state (n = 1) absorbs a photon and ends up in the state for
which n = 3. What is the energy of the absorbed photon?
A. 12.09eV B. C. D.
4. Which one of the following describes the mechanism by which dipoles are induced and/or
oriented by the action of an applied electric field in electronic polarization?
A. The electric field causes a net displacement of the center of the negatively charged electron
cloud relative to the positive nucleus.
B. The cations and anions are displaced in opposite directions as a result of the application of an
electric field.
C. It is found in substances that possess permanent dipole moments; these dipole moments
become aligned in the direction of the electric field.
D. All of the above
5. What must be done to an intrinsic semiconductor to turn it into a P-type semiconductor?
A. A pentavalent dopant must be added to it, to create donor electrons.
B. A trivalent dopant must be added to it, to create acceptor holes.
C. Both pentavalent and trivalent can be added.
D. No need of adding dopant atoms.
6. What effect does doping concentration have on the electrical conductivity of an extrinsic
semiconductor?
A. The lesser concentrated the doping, the greater the conductivity of the material.
B. The more concentrated the doping, the lesser the conductivity of the material.
C. The more concentrated the doping, the greater the conductivity of the material.
D. None of the above
7. At room temperature, the current in an intrinsic semiconductor is due to:
A. holes B.electronsC.ionsD.holes and electrons
8. In integrated circuits, npn construction is preferred to pnp construction because
A. npn construction is cheaper B. to reduce diffusion constant, n-type collector is preferred
C. npn construction permits higher packing of elements D. p-type base is preferred
9. In an n-type semiconductor, as temperature T increases, the Fermi level EF
A. does not vary B. may or may not shift depending upon the concentration of donor atoms
61
C. moves towards middle of forbidden energy gapD. moves towards conduction band
10. An intrinsic semiconductor at the absolute zero temperature
A. behaves like a metallic conductor B. behaves like an insulator
C. has a large number of holes D. has a large number of electrons
11. Which of the following doping will produce a p-type semiconductor
A. Germanium with phosphorus B.Silicon with Germanium
C. Germanium with Antimony D.Silicon with Indium
12. The majority charge carriers in the emitter of an NPN transistor are
A. pentavalent atoms B. trivalent atoms C. electrons D. holes
13. Photo-electric emission current is proportional to
A. frequency of the incident light B.incident light flux
C. work function of photo-cathode D.angle of incidence of radiation
14. What is the hole concentration in an N-type semiconductor with 1015cm3 of donors? (Take
)
3
5
A. 10 cm B. 1020 cm 3 C. 1015 cm 3 D. 1035 cm 3
15. If a semiconductor is transparent to light with a wavelength longer than 0.87m, what is its
band-gap energy?
A. 1.24 eV B. 1.42 eV C. 1.42 J D. 1.99 eV
16. The electron concentration of n-type GaAs at 300k varies linearly from
over a distance of 0.10cm. What is the diffusion current if the diffusion
coefficient .
A. B. C. D.
17. A sample of silicon with is doped with Arsenic, a group V
atom. What are the concentrations of electrons and holes, respectively?
A. and B. and
C. and D. and
18. The polarization Pof a dielectric material positioned within a parallel-plate capacitor is to
be . What must be the dielectric constant if an electric field of 105V/m is applied?
A. B. C. D.
19. In question # 18, what will be the dielectric displacement D in ?
A. B. C. D.
20. Some metal alloy is known to have electrical conductivity and electron mobility values of
and , respectively. Through a specimen of this alloy that
is 35 mm thick is passed a current of 40 A. What magnetic field would need to be imposed to
yield a Hall voltage of ?
A. B. C. D.
21. The magnetization within a bar of some metal alloy is at an H field of 200 A/m.
What type of magnetism would you suggest as being displayed by this material?
62
A. Paramagnetic B. Diamagnetic C. Ferromagnetic D. All
22. The magnetic flux density within a bar of some material is 0.630 Tesla at an H field of
. Compute the magnetic permeability.
A. B. C. D.
23. For the material in question # 22, what type of magnetism would you suggest is being displayed
by this material?
A. Paramagnetic B. Diamagnetic C. Ferromagnetic D. All
24. Which one of the following describes typical values of Energy band gap size for insulators?
A. 1-2 eV B. 2-3eV C. 3-4eV D. >4eV
25. Fermi energy level for intrinsic semiconductors lies
A. At middle of the band gap B. Close to conduction band C. Close to valence band D.
None
26. High dielectric constant material is must for __________.
A. Insulation of wires B. Generators C. Switch bases D. Motors
27. What is the value of dielectric constant for a material?
A. Equal to 1 B. Greater than 1 C. Less than 1 D. Zero
28. Fermi level for extrinsic semiconductor depends on
A. Donor element B. Impurity concentration C. Temperature D. All
29. Which one of the following is not a super conductive metallic element?
A. Fe B. Al C. Sn D. W
30. One of the following is true for intrinsic semiconductors;
A. Both holes & electrons have Equal mobility
B. Mobility of holes is greater than that of electrons
C. Mobility of holes is less than that of electrons
D. Cannot be defined
31. Fermi energy level for n-type extrinsic semiconductors lies
A. At middle of the band gap B. Close to conduction band C. Close to valence band D. None
32. What is the basic source of magnetism?
A. Charged particles alone B. Movement of charged particles
C. Magnetic dipoles D. Magnetic domains

33. Superconductivity is a material property associated with:
A. cooling a substance without a phase change B. frictionless liquid flow
C. a loss of thermal resistance D. a loss of electrical resistance
34. Materials which can store electrical energy are called
A. magnetic materials B. semi conductors C. dielectric materials D. super conductors
35. The covers of electrical machines are made of
A. soft magnetic materials B. hard magnetic materials
C. super conductors D. semiconductors
36. Gold and silver are
A. dielectric materials B. low resistivity conducting materials
63
C. magnetic materials D. insulating materials
37. The critical temperature above which the ferromagnetic materials lose their magnetic property is
known as
A. Hysteresis B. Curie point C. transition temperature D. standard temperature
38. Hall-effect may be used for which of the following?
A. Determining whether the semiconductor is p or n type
B. Determining the carrier concentration
C. Calculating the mobility
D. All of the above
39. A pure semiconductor under ordinary conditions behaves like
A. a conductor B.an insulator C.a magnetic material D.aferro-electric material
40. Resistivity of conductors is most affected by
A. composition B.temperature C. pressure D.current
41. P-N junction is
A. a rectifier B. an amplifier C. an Oscillator D. a Coupler
42. The conductivity of an extrinsic semiconductor
A. decreases with temperature B. decreases and then increases with temperature
C. remains constant with temperature D. increases with temperature
43. When a semiconductor is doped with a P-type impurity, each impurity atom will
A. acquire negative charge B.acquire positive charge.
C. remain electrically neutral D.give away one electron
44. Ferroelectric materials are characterised by
A. Very high degree of polarisation
B. A sharp dependence of polarisation on temperature
C. Non-linear dependence of the charge Q on the applied voltage
D. All of the above
45. Addition of trivalent impurity to a semiconductor creates many
A. holes B. free electrons C. valance electrons D. bound electrons.
46. Electrical current through conductor is a measure of what?
A. The work done moving charge carriers
B. The drop in potential that charge carries experience per unit time
C. The quantity of charge moving through a given cross section per unit time
D. The drift velocity of the charge carriers
47. To maintain a current through an electrical conductor, which one of the following statements
must be true?
A. The conductor must be a metal
B. There must be a drop in resistance across the conductor
C. The conductor must have a net free charge
D. There must be a potential difference between the ends of the conductor
64
48. A dielectric material such as paper is placed between the plates of a capacitor holding a fixed
charge. What happens to the electric field between the plates?
A. becomes weaker B. reduces to zero C. no change D. becomes stronger
49. Which of the following best characterizes electrical insulators?
A. charges on the surface don't move B. good heat conductors
C. high tensile strength C. electric charges move freely
50. Which of the following is not a hard magnetic material?
A. iron B. cobalt C. nickel D. both b and c
65
Answers for questions on Electrical Materials and Technology
1. A 37. B
2. C 38. D
3. C 39. B
4. A 40. B
5. B 41. A
6. C 42. D
7. D 43. A
8. B 44. A
9. D 45. B
10. B 46. C
11. D 47. D
12. C 48. A
13. A 49. A
14. A 50. A
15. B
16. C
17. B
18. B
19. A
20. C
21. C
22. A
23. A
24. D
25. A
26. A
27. B
28. D
29. A
30. C
31. B
32. B
33. D
34. C
35. A
36. B
66
Adigrat University

Engineering
INTRODUCTION TO COMPUTING &

OBJECT_ORIENTED PROGRAMMING
QUESTIONS POOL
BY DANIEL KIROS (M.Sc in Microelectronics Engineering)
67
1. Variable that can be accessed and altered only within the function in which they are
defined are called:
A. user defined variables B. static variables C. local variables D. global variables

2. The modulus operator "%" is used in division to return the
A. dividend B. quotient C. divisor D. remainder

3. Passing argument be means of making a copy of the variable's content is known as
passing by:
A. reference B. name C. value D. inheritance

4. Which of the following is the proper declaration of a pointer?
A. int x; B. int *x; C. ptr x; D. int&x;

5. What is the index number of the last element of an array with 29 elements?
A. 29 B. 30 C. 28 D. Programmer-defined
6. What purpose do classes serve?
A. data encapsulation
B. providing a convenient way of modeling real-world objects
C. simplifying code reuse
D. all of the above

7. Consider the following function named by yearfour:
voidyearfour(int&x, int y)
x+=5;
y++;
y = y-x;
Assuming, int g = 6, h = 10;what are the values of g and h after yearfour(g, h) is called?
A. g==6 h==10
68
B. g==11 h==10
C. g==6 h== 0
D. g==6 h==6
E. g==11 h==0
8. Consider the following code segment.
int x=3, y=1;
int *p=&x;
(*p)--;
p=&y;
y+=2;
What is the value of *p after the code executes?
A. 2 B. 1 C. 3 D. 4
9. What is the output from each code segment below?
int x = 1;
int y = 0;
if (x > 0 && y < 0)
{
x = y = 23;
}
cout<< x << ", " << y <<endl; // the values of x and y are respectively given as one of the
following
A. 23,23 B. 0,1 C. 1, 23 D.1,0
10. Given the following code segment what is the output to be displayed?
int k = 0 ;
while (k < 5)
{
k++;
cout<< k << ", " ;
}
A. 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5,
B. 1, 2, 3, 4,
C. 0, 1, 2, 3, 4,
69
D. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5,
11. int table [3][3] = {{1, 8}, {2, 4, 6}, {5}};
The value of table [1][2] is
A. 2 B. 8 C. 1 D. 4
12. The most commonly used inheritance access specifier is ___________ .
A. private B. public C. protected D. promoted

13. To indicate that class X is a child of class Y, and that inheritance is public, the class definition is
___________ .
A. class X :: public class Y
B. class X : public Y
C. class Y :: public class X
D. class Y : public X
14. A ___________ is called automatically each time an object is created.
A. compiler B. builder C. constructor D. destructor

15. If a class C is derived from class B, which is derived from class A, all through public
inheritance, then a class C member function can access
A.protected and public data only in C and B
B.protected and public data only in C
C.private data in A and B
D.protected data in A and B
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PART ONE: Introduction to computing and Object Oriented Programming
1. Writing instructions that enable a computer to carry out a task or group of tasks is
known as ___________ .
a. processing c. programming
b. editing d. compiling
2. The physical components of a computer system are called ___________ .
a. software c. firmware
b. hardware d. programs
3. Another term for programs is ___________ .
a. input c. software
b. floppy disks d. hardware

4. The rules of any programming language are its ___________ .
a. customs c. logic
b. interpretation d. syntax
5. A translator that notes whether you have used a language correctly or not is
called a ___________ .
a. linker c. compiler
b. coder d. decoder
6. Using a correctly written statement at the wrong time creates a(n) ___________ error.
a. language c. object-oriented
b. syntax d. logical
7. When a programmer determines the exact sequence in which events will take place, the
program is said to be ___________ .
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a. compiled c. object oriented
b. interpreted d. procedural
8. Which type of statement does not occur in computer programs?
a. sequence c. loop
b. denial d. selection
9. Paying attention to the important properties while ignoring unessential details is known
as ___________ .
a. abstraction c. selectiveness
b. polymorphism d. summarizing
10. Object-oriented programmers primarily focus on ___________ .
a. procedures to be performed
b. the step-by-step statements needed to solve a problem
c. objects and the tasks that must be performed with those objects
d. the physical orientation of objects within a program

11. An object is ___________ .
a. a category of classes
b. a name given to a class
c. an instance of a class
d. the same as a class

12. The feature that allows the same operations to be carried out differently depending on
the context is ___________ .
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a. polymorphism c. inheritance
b. encapsulation d. multitasking
13. Which English-language example best represents polymorphism?
a. taking a nap as opposed to taking a bribe
b. killing time as opposed to killing a bug
c. ordering a pizza as opposed to ordering a soldier
d. all of the above

14. The symbol used with the cout object << is called the ___________ operator.
a. insertion c. modification
b. extraction d. dot
15. When you create a data structure or class object, you access the objects fields using the
___________ operator.
a. insertion c. modification
b. extraction d. dot
16. Arithmetic operations, such as addition (+), subtraction (), multiplication (*), division
(/), and modulus (%) that take two arguments use ___________ operators.
a. unary c. binary
b. summary d. Boolean
17. Addition, subtraction, multiplication, division, or modulus of any two integers
___________ .
a. always results in an integer
b. usually results in an integer
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c. can result in an integer or floating-point value depending on the arithmetic value of the
result
d. can result in an integer or floating-point value depending on the data type of the result
18. In C++, what is the result of 5 + 4 * 3 + 2?
a. 14 c. 29
b. 19 d. 54
19. intfreq[3][3] = {{1, 2, 3}, {4, 5, 6}, {7, 8, 9}};
The value of freq[2][1] is
a. 7 b. 6 c. 8 d.9
20. In C++, what is the result of 19 % 2?
a. 0 c. 9
b. 1 d. 19
21. If a and b are integers, and a = 10 and b = 30, if you use the statement a += b, what is the
resulting value of a?
a. 10 c. 30
b. 20 d. 40
22. If c is an integer, and c = 34, what is the value of ++c?
a. 0 c. 34
b. 1 d. 35
23. If c and d are integers, and d = 34, what is the value of c = d++?
a. 0 c. 34
b. 1 d. 35
24. If e and f are integers, and d = 16 and e = 17, then what is the value of d = = e?
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a. 0 c. 16
b. 1 d. 17
25. An expression that evaluates as true or false is known as a(n) ___________ expression.
a. unary c. Boolean
b. binary d. ternary
26. In C++, all false relational expressions are evaluated as ___________ .
a. 0 c. negative
b. 1 d. positive
27. Multiplication, division, and modulus are said to have ___________ than addition and
subtraction.
a. lower arithmetic precedence
b. higher arithmetic precedence
c. lower associativity
d. higher associativity
28. Which of the following does not have the same result as myValue = myValue + 1?
a. myValue = 1;
b. myValue += 1;
c. ++myValue;
d. myValue++;
29. In C++, the & operator in front of a variable represents ___________ .
a. addition
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b. assignment and addition
c. the address of the variable
d. a negative value
30. Single-alternative selection is one in which an action takes place ___________.
a. only when the result of the decision is true
b. only when the result of the decision is false
c. when the result of the decision is either true or false
d. when the result of the decision is both true and false

31. What is the output after executing the following segment of code?
intnum = 10;
if (num> 10)
cout<< "Yes" <<endl;
else
cout<< "No" <<endl;
a. Yes c. Yes and No
b. No d. nothing
intnum = 5;
if (num> 10)
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cout<< "No" <<endl;
b. No d. nothing
intnum = 0;
if(num> 1)
cout<< "No" <<endl;
b. No d. nothing
intnum = 5;
if(num< 4)
cout<< "Red" <<endl;
else
if(num< 10)
cout<< "Yellow" <<endl;
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else
cout<< "Green" <<endl;
a. Red c. Green
b. Yellow d. two of the above

intnum = 15;
if(num> 20)
cout<< "Red" <<endl;
else
if(num> 18)
cout<< "Yellow" <<endl;
else
cout<< "Green" <<endl;
a. Red c. Green
b. Yellow d. two of the above

36. What is the output of this code segment?
int age = 30;
if(age = 40)
cout<< "Boy that is old!";
else
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cout<< "Some day you will be old too";
a. Boy that is old!
b. Some day you will be old too
c. nothingsyntax error
d. prints somethingbut not choice a or b

37. What is the output by the following code segment?
int value = 12;
value< 0? cout<< "Yes" <<endl : cout<< "No" <<endl;
b. No d. nothing
38. You use a ___________ to create a compound Boolean expression in which two
conditions
must be true for the entire expression to evaluate as true.
a. logical AND operator
b. logical OR operator
c. switch statement
d. any of the above

39. You use a ___________ to create a compound Boolean expression in which only one of
two
conditions needs to be true for the entire expression to evaluate as true.
a. logical AND operator
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b. logical OR operator
c. switch statement
d. any of the above

40. What is the output of the following code segment?
int x = 3;
int y = 6;
if(x < 0 && y = 2)
x = 40;
cout<< x << " " << y <<endl;
a. 3 6 c. 3 2
b. 40 6 d. 40 2
int x = 5;
int y = 10;
if(x < 0 || y < 0)
x = 20;
y = 35;
cout<< x << " " << y <<endl;
a. 5 10 c. 5 35
b. 20 10 d. 20 35
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int x = 20;
int y = 1;
if(x < 0 || x > y && y != 9 )
--x;
--y;
cout<< x << " " << y <<endl;
a. 20 1 c. 19 0
b. 19 1 d. 20 0
43. What is the output produced by the following code?
int x = 0;
while(x < 7);
cout<< x << " ";
++x;
cout<<endl;
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a. 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 c. 0 0 0 0 0 . . .
b. 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 d. nothing
int x = 0;
while(x > 7)
cout<< x << " ";
++x;
cout<<endl;
a. 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 c. 0 0 0 0 0 . . .
b. 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 d. nothing
int total = 0;
int a = 4;
while(a < 6)
total += a;
++a;
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cout<< total <<endl;
a. 4 c. 9
b. 5 d. 15
46. If you know you need to execute a loop exactly 100 times, then it is a(n) ___________
loop.
a. certain c. specific
b. definite d. explicit
47. Within its parentheses, the for loop contains ___________ parts that are separated by
semicolons.
a. three c. five
b. four d. an unknown number of

48. Which of these statements is true?
a. Any for loop statement can be rewritten as a while loop statement.
b. Any while loop statement can be rewritten as a for loop statement.
c. Both a and b are true.
d. Both a and b are false.

int x = 0;
for(x = 3; x < 8; ++x)
cout<< x << " ";
cout<<endl;
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a. 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 c. 4 5 6 7
b. 3 4 5 6 7 d. 4 5 6 7 8
int x = 0;
for(x = 5; x < 8; ++x);
cout<< x << " ";
cout<<endl;
a. 5 6 7 c. 6 7
b. 5 d. 8
51. Which of the following is a posttest loop?
a. a while loop c. a do-while loop
b. a for loop d. all of the above

52. In which type of loop might the loop body never execute?
a. a while loop c. a do-while loop
b. a for loop d. a and b, but not c

53. When a loop is contained within another, the loops are ___________ .
a. nested c. shelled
b. switched d. cased
54. Which is true?
a. An inner loop always repeats more times than an outer loop.
b. An outer loop always repeats more times than an inner loop.
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c. Both a and b are true.
d. Both a and b are false.

55. What is the output of this program segment?
for(int a = 0; a < 5; ++a)
for(int b = 3; b < 6; b = b + 2)
cout<< a << " " << b << " ";
cout<<endl;
a. 0 3 0 5 1 3 1 5 2 3 2 5 3 3 3 5 4 3 4 5
b. 0 3 0 4 0 5 1 3 1 4 1 5 2 3 2 4 2 5 3 3 3 4 3 5 4 3 4 4 4 5
c. 1 3 1 5 2 3 2 5 3 3 3 5 4 3 4 5
d. 1 5 2 5 3 5 4 5 5 5
56. How many times does the loop body in the following code execute?
for(int a = 0; a < 4; ++a)
for(int b = 0; b < 4; ++b)
cout<< a << " " << b << " ";
cout<<endl;
a. 0 c. 16
b. 4 d. 25
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57. How many times does the cout statement in the following code execute?
int a = 2;
int b = 6;
while(a < 10)
for(int b = 0; b < 4; ++b)
cout<< a << " " << b << " ";
++a;
cout<<endl;
a. 8 c. 12
b. 10 d. infinitely
58. C++ uses the ___________ as the address operator.
a. ampersand c. asterisk
b. dot d. percent sign

59. If you declare a variable as intvar = 5;and the compiler stores var at memory
address 3000, then the value of &var is ___________ .
a. 5 c. 0
b. 3000 d. unknown
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60. A list of individual items that are stored in adjacent memory locations and all have the
same type is called a(n) ___________ .
a. class c. array
b. structure d. constant
61. You use a subscript to ___________ .
a. indicate a position within an array
b. identify empty classes
c. define classes
d. locate a variable at a specific, desired memory address

62. If you declare an array as intnumbers[10];, then numbers[1] represents ___________ .
a. the first element in the array
b. the second element in the array
c. the address of the array
d. a new array with one element

63. If you declare an array as double money[4];, then &money[2] represents ___________ .
a. the second element in the array
b. the third element in the array
c. the address of the array
d. the address of the third element in the array

64. If you declare an array as int scores[100];, then the highest subscript you should
use is ___________ .
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a. 0 c. 100
b. 99 d. 101
65. If integers take four bytes of storage, then int days[31]; reserves ___________ bytes
of memory.
a. 30 c. 120
b. 31 d. 124
66. If you want to store an integer array named list at memory location 2000, you make
the statement ___________ .
a. int list[] = 2000;
b. &list[] = 2000;
c. 2000 = &intlist[0];
d. You cannot locate an array at a specific address like 2000.

67. If you declare an array as double prices[10];, then the expression &prices[2]
has the same meaning as the expression ___________ .
a. prices + 2
b. double prices[2];
c. prices[2]
d. &prices + &prices
68. If you declare an array as intbaskets[10] = {2,4,6};, then the value of baskets[0] is
___________ .
a. 0 c. 4
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b. 2 d. unknown
69. If you create a character array using the statement char name[ ] = "Paulette";then
the created string ends with a(n) __________ .
a. null character c. blank character
b. period d. exclamation point

70. If you declare an integer pointer as int* pt; and you declare an integer variable as
intnum;, then which of the following is legal?
a. num = &pt; c. *num = *pt;
b. pt = &num; d. &num = pt;

71. In different programming languages, program modules are known as all of the following
except ___________ .
a. functions c. methods
b. procedures d. variables
72. In a C++ program, all function names are always followed by a pair of ___________ .
a. parentheses c. angle brackets
b. square brackets d. curly braces

73. When you use the name of a function where you want it to execute within a program,
you are ___________ the function.
a. prototyping c. iterating
b. calling d. defining
74. You can define a function by ___________ .
a. writing it within the function that uses it
b. including the functions filename at the top of the file that uses it
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c. inserting a comment that describes the functions purpose
d. any of the above

75. The process of extracting the relevant attributes of an object is called ___________ .
a. codification c. structuring
b. object orienting d. abstraction

76. A variable that is known to all functions within a file is said to be ___________ .
a. static c. global
b. worldly d. local
77. Both a function header and its prototype contain ___________ .
a. the return type
b. a coded description of what the function does
c. actual parameters
d. square brackets
78. Which of the following is a valid prototype for a function that accepts an integer
argument and returns a double value?
a. intfunction(double); c. double function (int);
b. intfunction(double) d. double function(int)

79. You should use an inline function when ___________ .
a. it is large
b. it takes no arguments
c. it is called infrequently
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d. it requires parameters that are addresses
80. Using the same function name with different parameter lists is called ___________
functions.
a. overriding c. overcompensating
b. overloading d. overreacting
81. C++ programmers refer to a type you define as an ADT, or an ___________ .
a. abstract data type
b. alternative data theory
c. adaptable data type
d. anonymous default test

82. You have defined a class named Invoice that contains two non-static private fields,
invoiceNumber and amount. When you write a main()function and declare one Invoice
object named anInvoice, you can display the objects amount field with the statement
___________ .
a. cout<<anInvoice(amount);
b. cout<<Invoice.amount;
c. cout<<anInvoice.amount;
d. None of the above

83. When you encapsulate class components, you ___________ them.
a. destroy c. display
b. hide d. format
84. The operator you use in a function header that ties a function name to a class is the
___________ operator.
a. pointer-to-member c. scope resolution
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b. this d. binary
85. A technique that programmers use to provide object encapsulation is to usually make
objects data ___________ .
a. private c. accessible
b. polymorphic d. static
86. The most common arrangement for a class is that ___________ .
a. data members are static and functions are not
b. data members are not static and functions are
c. data members are public and functions are not
d. data members are not public and functions are

87. You control how data is stored in classes by using ___________ .
a. polymorphism
b. well-written public functions
c. anonymous classes
d. private methods that clients cannot access

88. Which is true?
a. All functions in classes are private.
b. Most functions in classes are private.
c. Most functions in classes are public.
d. Most classes contain no functions.

89. The pointer that is automatically supplied when you call a non-static class member
function is the ___________ pointer.
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a. public c. implicit
b. this d. reference
90. When you call a public static function from outside its class, you ___________ .
a. can use an object
b. must use an object
c. must not use an object
d. Static functions cannot be called from outside the class.

91. The feature in object-oriented programs that allows the same operation to be carried out
differently, depending on the object, is ___________ .
a. encapsulation c. pointer creation
b. inheritance d. polymorphism
92. A ___________ is called automatically each time an object is created.
a. compiler c. constructor
b. builder d. destructor
93. Which of the following is a legal constructor definition for a class named Table?
a. Table();
b. void Table();
c. TableConstructor();
d. All of the above are legal constructor definitions.

94. A constructor that requires no arguments is an example of a ___________ constructor.
a. no fault c. faultless
b. default d. static
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95. Whenever a class contains two constructors, the constructors are ___________ .
a. default constructors c. overloaded
b. destructors d. static
96. When an object goes out of scope, a(n) ___________ is called automatically.
a. destructor
b. constructor
c. overloaded function
d. operating system error message

97. Which is a legal destructor for the Game class?
a. Game();
b. ~Game();
c. void ~Game();
d. Two of the above are legal destructors for the Game class.
98. Which of the following statements is true?
a. A friend function can declare itself to be a friend of a class.
b. A friend function can declare itself to be a friend of another function.
c. Both of the above are true.
d. None of the above is true.

99. A function that has been declared to be a friend of a class has access to the ___________
data
in the class.
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a. public
b. private
c. both of the above
d. none of the above

100. Applying operators to your own abstract data types is called ___________ overloading.
a. abstract c. data
b. parametric d. operator
101. Which of the following operators can be overloaded to be binary?
a. > c. ++
b. -> d.!
102. ___________ refers to the order in which actions within an expression are carried out.
a. Overloading c. Communicativity
b. Associativity d. Operating
103. Which of the following operators can be overloaded?
a. . c. ::
b. & d. ?:
104. The principle that knowledge of a general category can be applied to more specific
objects is ___________ .
a. inheritance c. object-oriented
b. polymorphism d. overriding
105. A derived class also can be called a ___________ class.
a. super c. child
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b. base d. parent
106. Parent class is to child class as ___________ .
a. subclass is to superclass
b. base class is to derived class
c. derived class is to driven class
d. child class is to superclass

107. Which of the following is not an advantage of inheritance?
a. You save time because much of the code needed for your class is already written.
b. You save time because the existing code has already been tested.
c. You save time because you already understand how the base class works.
d. You save time because parent classes always provide more detail than child classes.
108. The most commonly used inheritance access specifier is ___________ .
a. private c. public
b. protected d. promoted
109. To indicate that class X is a child of class Y, and that inheritance is public, the class
definition is ___________ .
a. class X :: public class Y
b. class X : public Y
c. class Y :: public class X
d. class Y : public X
110. If a member of a base class named Base is protected, then it can be used by functions
that are ___________ .
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a. members of Base c. both of the above
b. members of children of Base d. none of the above

111. Class A serves as a base class to class B, and B is a parent to class C. When you
instantiate a class B object, the first constructor called belongs to class ___________ .
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. none of the above
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Adigrat University

Engineering
INTRODUCTION TO ELECTRICAL MACHINES

QUESTIONS POOL
BY TSIGIE ASEFA (M.Sc in Electrical Power Engineering)
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Multiple Choice Questions: Introduction to Electrical Machines
1. Find the field intensity of 40-turn and10-cm-long coil, with 3 A flowing in it. If the same coil
is stretched to 20cm, with the wire length and current remaining the same, what is the new value
of field intensity also?
A. 1200At/m and 600At/m respectively.
B. 600At/m and 1200At/m respectively.
C. B. 60At/m and 120At/m respectively.
D. None
2. On a magnetization curve (BH curve) the larger the area enclosed by the hysteresis loop
indicates:
A. The greater the hysteresis loss.
B. decreasing the hysteresis loss.
C. No loss should occur.
D. A & C
3. The flux of an electromagnet is 6Wb. The flux increases uniformly to 12Wb in a period of
2s. Calculate the voltage induced in a coil that has 10 turns if the coil is stationary in the
magnetic field.
A.60V B. 20V C. 15V D. 30V.
4. The effective area of a pole face is circular in cross-section which is 0.1961 m2 with radios of
the pole face 0.250m and the maximum working flux density of a lifting electromagnet is 1.8 T.
Determine the total magnetic flux produced?
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A. 53mWb B. 253mWb C. 153mWb.D. 353mWb
5. A section throgh a magnetic circuit of uniform cross sectional area 2 cm 2 is give. The cast
steel core has a mean length of 25cm. the air gap is 1mm. wide and the coil has 5000 turns. From
the B/H crve the cast steel has B=0.80 T when H= 750A/m. determine the current in the coin to
produce a flux density of 0.80 T in the air gap, assuming that all the flux passes throgh both parts
of the magnetic circuit.
A. 0.165A. B. 1.65A C. 0.25A D. 0.89A
6. A single-phase, 50Hz transformer has 25 primary turns and 300 secondary turns. The cross-
sectional area of the core is 300cm2.when the primary winding is connected to a 250v supply;
determine the maximum value of the flux density in the core and the voltage induced in the
secondary winding.
A. 1.5 T & 3KV B. 5T & 2KV C. 0.5T &5KV D. None
7. When a transformer is stepping down voltage, its current will be:
A. Increase B. decrease C. equal D. decrease by half.
8. For a transformer to be an ideal one, one of the assumptions are correct:
A. Winding resistances are negligible.
B. All the flux set up by the primary links the secondary windings.
C. The core losses (hysteresis and eddy current losses) are negligible.
D. The core has constant permeability.
E. All
9. We can transfer the parameters of a transformer from one winding to the other so, which one
is not correct about constant K ?
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A. When transferring resistance or reactance from primary to secondary,multiply it by K2.
B. When transferring resistance or reactance from secondary to primary,divide it by K2.
C.When transferring voltage or current from one winding to the other, only
K2 is used.
D. None
10. The two tests on a transformer help to determine:
A. The parameters of the equivalent circuit
B. The voltage regulation and
C. Efficiency
D. All
11. The main losses in a transformer, are
A. Core loss and ohmic loss
B.windage and rotational loss
C.friction loss
D.none
12. The most commonly used type of three-phase transformers connection in a distribution
system is :-
A. Star-Delta B. Delta-Star
C. Delta-Delta D. Star-Star
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13. A 5KVA single phase transformer has a turns ratio of 10:1 and is fed from a 2.5KV supply.
Neglecting losses, determine the full load secondary current:
A. 25 A. B. 10 A C. 5A D.20A
14. A 400KVA transformer has a primary winding resistance of 0.5 and a secondary winding
resistance of 0.001 . The iron loss is 2.5KW and the primary and secondary voltages are 5KV
and 320V respectively. If the power factor of the load is 0.85, determine the total copper loss of
the transformer.
A.4521 W. B.6985W C. 4762.5W D. 4200 W
15.Part of a dc motor which converts ac voltage to a direct voltage/generator/ is:-
A. Rectifier B. commutator C. CarbonbrushD.exiter
16. A type of dc generator whose field current is supplied by anexternal
voltage source is:-
A. Self excited generators
B. Separately excited generators
C. A and B
D. All
17.The major waysto control the voltage of a shunt dc generatorare:
A.Change the shaft speed mof the generator.
B. Change the field resistor of the generator
C.changing the field current
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D.All
18. The reasons for paralleling dc generator are to increase:-
A. Reliability
B. Continuity of service
C. Efficiency
D. Added capacity
E.All.
19. The possible ways in which the speed of a shunt dc machine can be controlled are:
A. Adjusting the field resistance RF and thus the field flux.
B. Adjusting the terminal voltage applied to the armature.
C. Inserting a resistor in series with the armature circuit.
D. All
20. What are the terminal characteristics of dc generators and motors respectively?
A. voltage and load current. B. torque and speed. C. voltage, load current, torque and speed D.
torque and speed.
21. A series D.C. motor has an armature resistance of 0.2 and a series field resistance of 0.3 .
It is connected to a 240 V supply and at a particular load runs at 24 rev/s when drawing 15A
from the supply. Determine the generated e.m.f at this load.
22. Why every DC motor has to be started with starting rheostat?
A. to increase current B. to decrease starting current C. to neutralize the high voltage
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D. to decrease the starting torque.
23.The distortion of the flux in a machine as the load is increased is called:
A. Armature reaction.
B. field reaction
C. Stator reaction
D. All
24.One of the following is the main failure to start any DC machine:
A. ground fault B. open or short-circuit fault C. wrong connections D. too low supply voltage E.
All.
A. 232.5V. B. 200.5V C. 325 V D. 502V.
25. A D.C. shunt-generator running at constant speed generates a voltage of 150V at certain
value of field current. Determine the change in the generated voltage when the field current is
reduced by 20%, assuming the flux is proportional to the field current.
A. 120V B. 250V C. 400V D. 60V
26. A four-pole 60 Hz squirrel-cage motor has a full-load speed of 1754 rpm. What is the
percent slip at full load?
A. 3.5% B. 2.6% C. 4% D. 1.5%
27.Speed Control mechanism of Induction Motor:
A. by Pole Changing
B. by Changing the Line Frequency
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C. Speed Control by Changing the Line Voltage
D. by Changing the Rotor Resistance.
E. ALL
28. One of the following is not the advantage of conventional dc motors
A.controllability over a wide range of speeds
B. capability of rapid acceleration and deceleration.
C. convenient control of shaft speed
D .none
29. One of the following is not the characteristics of synchronous motor
A. it can operate under a wide range of power factor.
B. on no load the motor draws very little current from the supply.
C. it is not inherently self starting.
D. none
30.The major and basic tests that can be done on an induction motors are :
A. No-load test
B. DC test
C. Locked Rotor test or Blocked Rotor test
D. all
31.Which of the following are the basic steps during the Locked-Rotor test
105
A. The rotor is locked.
B. AC voltage is applied across the stator terminals and current flow is adjusted to full load
Condition.
C. Measure voltage, current and power flow.
D. all
32.One of the following is not the starting method of induction motor.
A. Direct-on-line starting.
B. Stator resistance starting
C. Autotransformer starting
D. Star-delta starting
E. None
33. When the rotor of an induction motor is at standstill or stationary:
A. Slip (s = 1),
B. the frequency of rotor current is the same as that of supply frequency (f' = sf = 1 f = f).
C. The slip s and rotor current frequency decreases.
D. A & B
34. The speed of wound rotor motors is changed by changing the motor slip. Thiscan be achieved
by;
A. varying the stator line voltage
B. varying the resistance of the rotor circuit
106
C. inserting and varying a foreign voltage in the rotor circuit
D. All.
35. If the slip of an induction motor is 0.125, then its approximate efficiency is:
A. 87.5%. B. 80.5%. C. 78.5%. D. 75%.
36. Which one is true about the equivalent circuit of an induction motor:
A. At no-load, the slip is practically zero and the load R'L is infinite.
B. At standstill, the slip is unity and the load R'L is zero.
C. When the motor is running under load, the value of R'L will depend upon
the value of the slip s.
D. The equivalent electrical resistance R'L related to mechanical load is slip or
speed dependent.
E. All
37. Synchronous generator has an armature winding and a field winding Like a d.c.. But there is
one important difference between the two i.e.
A. In a d.c. generator, the armature winding is placed on the stator.
B. In Synchronous generator, the armature winding is placed on the stator.
C. In Synchronous generator field winding is place on the rotor.
D. In a d.c. generator field winding is place on the rotor.
107
38. A 4-pole, 3-phase, 50Hz, slip-ring induction motor rotates at 1440r.p.m. with slip-ring
terminals short-circuited.the per phase rotor resistance and standstill reactance are 0.1 and 0.6
respectively. If an extra resistance of 0.1/phase is added to the rotor circuit, what will be the
new full-load speed? Assume that the load on the motor and the full-load torque are unchanged.
A. 1480 r.p.m B. 1380 r.p.m 1500 r.p.m D. 1780 r.p.m
39. Three physically identical synchronous generators are operating in parallel. They are all
rated for a full load of 3 MW at 0.8 PF lagging. The no-load frequency of generator A is 61 Hz,
and its speed droop is 3.4 percent. The no-load frequency of generator B is 61.5 Hz, and its
speed droop is 3 percent. The no-load frequency of generator C is 60.5 Hz, and its speed droop
is 2.6 percent. If a total load consisting of 7 MW is being supplied by this power system, what
will the system frequency be?
A. 59.61 HZ B. 60.5 HZ C. 58.5 HZ D. 57.5 HZ.
40. To operate generators in parallel the required conditions are:
A. the generator must have the same voltage as the power supply.
B. the phase sequence of the oncoming generator must be the same as the power system
C. frequency of the oncoming is slightly higher than the system frequency
D. All E. None
108

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Adigrat University

Question Pool (Model Holistic Exam)

College of Engineering & Technology

Department of Electrical & Computer

PART I: FUNDAMENTAL OF ELECTRICAL

September 14/2014 G.C

1. A two-terminal variable resistor is known as a

A. yellow, violet, red, gold

B. yellow, violet, orange, gold

C. yellow, violet, red, silver

D. orange, violet, red, silver

C. resettable protective device

A red, red, orange, gold resistor has a nominal value of

A. a fuse is not necessary

Which of the following is not a type of energy source?

The number of kilowatts in 135 milliwatts is

8.The number of millivolts in 0.06 kilovolts is

10. A positive angle of 30 is equivalent to a negative angle of

D. cannot be determined without values

A. 73.4 and = 19.5

B. 707 and = 19.5

C. 2121 and = 19.5

D. 734 and = 38.9

18. The complex number 40 55 is equivalent to

C. remains the same

When the frequency is decreased, the impedance of a parallel RL circuit

25. Find the node voltage VA.

28. In assigning the direction of branch currents,

B. the directions are not critical

C. they must point into a node

D. they must point out of a node

29. In a three-phase system, the voltages are separated by

In a -connected source driving a -connected load, the

C. load voltage and line voltage cancel for a given phase

33. In a -connected source feeding a Y-connected load,

B. each phase voltage equals the corresponding load voltage

C. each phase voltage is one-third the corresponding load voltage

The branch current method uses

B. Thevenin's theorem and Ohm's law

C. Kirchhoff's current law and Ohm's law

D. the superposition theorem and Thevenin's theorem

A. certain constant phase angles

C. certain constant voltages

D. certain constant currents

37. In a balanced three-phase load, each phase has

A. an equal amount of power

B. one-third of total power

C. two-thirds of total power

D. a power consumption equal to IL

In a Y-Y source/load configuration, the

39. In a Y-connected circuit, the magnitude of each line current is

A. one-third the phase current

B. three times the corresponding phase current

C. equal to the corresponding phase current

40. A constant load power means a uniform conversion of

B. electrical to mechanical energy

45. In a Y-connected source feeding a -connected load,

D. each phase of the load has a voltage across it equal to

46. In a -connected generator, all of the phase voltages are

51. Find the total current through R3 in the given circuit.

53. Find the current through R2 of the given circuit.

55. A 12 V source has an internal resistance of 90 . If a load resistance of 20 is connected to the

57. Find the current through R1 in the given circuit.

A. 450 mV, 4.5 mA