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Question 1
b. peptide folding.
c. the assembly of multimeric proteins.
d. the export of protein that cannot be folded into the cytoplasm for destruction.
A protein that is normally localized in the cytoplasm has been engineered so that it will be secreted from the cell
instead. Which of the following represents the most likely pathway for the protein after it has been completely
synthesized?
Question 3
b. transiently inhibits translation and polypeptide elongation by binding to and inhibiting the
elongation factors
c. accompanies the nascent polypeptide all the way into the ER lumen.
d. binds GTP.
e. is permanently attached to the cytosolic face of the ER membrane, thus bringing the ribosomes
into close proximity of the translocon.
Question 4
The following diagram depicts the topology of a multipass transmembrane protein in the endoplasmic reticulum
(ER) membrane. Which set of helices act as stop-transfer signals in this protein?
Answers: a. 1, 2, 3
b. 4, 5, 6
c. 1, 3, 5
d. 2, 4, 6
e. 1, 6
Lecture 8B Quiz
Question 1
Question 2
Misfolded proteins in the ER may actively undergo any of the following EXCEPT ...
The oligosaccharide chain that is added to secretory proteins after they enter the ER lumen goes through a
number of modifications after its attachment. What is the first modification that occurs?
b. addition of glucose
Which of the following is LEAST likely an ER signal sequence recognized by the signal-recognition particle?
All sequences are written with their N-terminus on the left.
Answers: a. Met-Lys-Leu-Ser-Leu-Val-Ala-Ala-Met-Leu-Leu-Leu-Leu-Ser-Ala-Ala-Arg-Ala
b. Met-Glu-Met-Phe-Gln-Gly-Leu-Leu-Leu-Leu-Leu-Leu-Leu-Leu-Ser-Met-Gly-Gly-Thr-Trp-Ala
c. Met-Lys-Ala-Lys-Leu-Leu-Val-Leu-Leu-Tyr-Ala-Phe-Val-Ala-Gly-Asn
d. Met-Met-Ala-Ala-Gly-Pro-Arg-Thr-Ser-Leu-Leu-Leu-Ala-Phe-Ala-Leu-Leu-Cys-Leu-Pro-Trp-
Thr-Gln-Val-Val
e. Met-Leu-Ser-Leu-Arg-Gln-Ser-Ile-Arg-Phe-Phe-Lys-Pro-Ala-Thr-Arg-Thr-Leu-Ser-Ser-Arg-
Tyr-Leu
Question 6
Indicate whether the C-terminus (C) or the N-terminus (N) of each of the following proteins is expected to be
located in the cytosol upon ER membrane integration of the protein.
A single-pass transmembrane protein that has one N-terminal signal sequence and one internal stop-
transfer signal
A single-pass transmembrane protein that has one internal signal sequence that is preceded by a patch of
positively charged residues
An ER tail-anchored protein
Answers: a. CNN
b. CCN
c. NCN
d. NNC
e. CNC
Lecture 8C Quiz
Question 1
True or False: Synthesis of sphingomyelin occurs on the cytosolic side of the ER membrane:
Answers: True
False
Question 2
Comparing cells synthesizing secretory proteins and cells secreting steroid hormones, the cells synthesizing the
steroid hormones have
Question 3
b. During synthesis, the translocon inner lining orients the nascent polypeptide so the more positive
end faces the cytosol.
c. During synthesis, the translocon inner lining orients the nascent polypeptide so the more negative
end faces the cytosol.
d. During synthesis, the translocon inner lining orients the nascent polypeptide so the more positive
end faces the mitochondrial intermembrane space.
E .After synthesis, the translocon inner lining orients the nascent polypeptide so the more positive
end faces the cytosol.
Question 4
The drugs that lower LDL concentration in the blood function by ________.
Question 5
Phospholipids are made by integral ER membrane enzymes whose active sites face the cytosol and they are
inserted into the outer (cytoplasmic. leaflet of the ER membrane). How then do lipids destined for the luminal
leaflet of the ER membrane get there?
b. There are enzymes called flippases that flip these lipids later into the opposite leaflet.
c. They are disassembled on the cytoplasmic side and reassembled on the luminal side.
e. There are enzymes called translocases that flip these lipids later into the opposite leaflet.
Lecture 9A Quiz
Question 1
What enzymes are responsible for determining the sequence of sugars added to growing oligosaccharide chains
of membrane proteins or secretory proteins as they travel through the Golgi complex?
Answers: a. glycosaminocosidases
b. peptidyltransferases
c. glycosyltransferase
d. amylases
e. Rubisco
Question 2
Pancreatic acinar cells produce and store hydrolytic enzymes in zymogen granules until hormones signal the cell
to release the enzymes in a process known as
b. regulated secretion.
c. constitutive secretion.
d. intracellular secretion.
e. consistent secretion.
Question 3
Indicate whether each of the following descriptions better applies to N-linked (N) or O-linked (O) glycosylation
of proteins transported from the ER to the Golgi.
It is abundant in proteoglycans.
It involves the attachment of a preassembled block of oligosaccharide onto a protein.
It is attached to a serine or threonine residue in the protein.
It involves heavily sulfated sugars.
Answers: a. NNON
b. ONOO
c. OONN
d. NONO
e. OONO
Question 4
What kind(s) of modifications are made in proteins as they move through the Golgi complex?
Answers: a. The protein's carbohydrates are modified by a series of stepwise enzymatic reactions.
c. Amino acids in the proteins may be chemically altered into nucleic acids.
d. Small segments of amino acids can be added into the center of an existing protein.
e. glycogen
Lecture 9B Quiz
Question 1
Answers: a. Sodium
b. Potassium
c. Protons
d. Calcium
e. Phosphate
Question 2
What are the recognition signals for lysosomal enzymes that allow them to be localized correctly in lysosomes?
Answers: a. Lysosomal enzymes possess sulfated mannose residues on N-linked carbohydrate chains.
Question 3
Answers: a. the vacuolar domain of the endosome is shed, whereas the tubular domain is retained.
b. the endosome migrates along actin filaments away from the cell interior.
Question 4
In a lysosomal storage disease, newly synthesized lysosome hydrolases are secreted from the cells rather than
being delivered to the lysosomes. What is one possible mechanism for this result?
e. All the hydrolase genes are mutated, resulting in synthesis by ribosomes free in the cytoplasm
rather than on the endoplasmic reticulum membrane.
Lecture 9C Quiz
Question 1
Indicate whether each of the following transport processes occurs via the mechanisms described as
transmembrane transport (T), or vesicular transport (V).
c. VTV
d. TTT
e. TVT
Question 2
Which of the following is NOT correct regarding M6P receptors and KDEL receptors?
Answers: a. They both shuttle back and forth between different membrane-enclosed compartments.
How does the affinity of M6P receptor proteins for the mannose 6-phosphate marker change between the TGN
and early endosome? Which coat protein is mainly responsible for their transport from the TGN to the
endosome?
Question 4
Consider two N-linked oligosaccharide chains on the same protein. The first chain contains three mannose
residues and three negatively charged sialic acid residues, as well as other residues. The second chain contains
only two N-acetylglucosamine and eight mannose residues. Which chain seems to have been added to the
protein such that it is NOT fully accessible to the processing enzymes in the Golgi apparatus? Which chain is
Endo H-sensitive?
Question 5
When a membrane protein is radioactively labeled during synthesis and followed through the various organelles
in the secretory pathway, all the radioactivity is concentrated in the cis-Golgi apparatus six hours after the
protein synthesis. This suggests that the protein
c. has a membrane-spanning domain length equal to the thickness of the cis-Golgi membrane.
Indicate true (T) and false (F) statements below regarding the nucleus and nuclear protein transport.
The inner and outer nuclear membranes are continuous with each other, yet maintain distinct protein
compositions.
The outer nuclear membrane is studded with ribosomes engaged in protein synthesis.
The endoplasmic reticulum lumen is continuous with the nuclear interior.
Answers: a. TTF
b. FFT
c. TFT
d. FTF
e. TTT
Question 3
Which of the following statements regarding post-translational protein trafficking of fully synthesized proteins
is false?
b. Secretory vesicles carry proteins from the Golgi to the plasma membrane
Which of the following scenarios does NOT normally occur on a nuclear pore complex?
Answers: a.A protein complex is imported into the nucleus, with ONLY one of its subunits containing a
nuclear localization signal (NLS).
b.In a single pore, an NLS-containing protein is imported, while at the same time a nuclear export
signal (NES)-containing protein is exported.
c. A nuclear import receptor is exported from the nucleus through the pore.
d. A protein is imported on its own through the pore, without the need for a separate import
receptor.
e. All of the above are possible scenarios and occur naturally.
In the Ran/importin pathway ________ provides the energy for transport of proteins into the nucleus.
c. GDP phosphorylation
d. ATP hydrolysis
Question 2
Another feature of the transport of proteins across the nuclear envelope is that the
Answers: a. nuclear pore complex acts as the receptor for the NLS, there is no specific receptor.
b. receptors for the NLS are cytoplasmic rather than membrane bound.
c. receptors for the NLS are found on both inner and outer nuclear membranes.
d. receptors for the NLS also cleave the NLS during translocation of the protein.
e. receptors for the NLS unfold the protein to be translocated before it passes through the nuclear
pore complex.
Question 3
The formation of a stable ternary complex involving Ran GTPase, a nuclear transport receptor, and a cargo
protein occurs in ...
Question 4
Answers: a. There is only one type of mitochondrial translocase that transports proteins to different locations
in the mitochondrion.
b. ATP hydrolysis is required for protein translocation.
e. The chaperone hsp70 is required both on the cytosolic side of the mitochondrion and the
mitochondrial matrix.
Question 5
Transport of a protein (cargo) from the cytoplasm into the nucleus occurs through the translocation of a complex
of proteins including the cargo bound to importin proteins ( and ). What mechanism ensures that this complex
does not exit the nuclear pore complex (NPC) once it has passed through the nuclear pore and into the nucleus?
Answers: a. No specific mechanism is required because transport of proteins is always unidirectional through
the NPC.
b. The shape of the NPC is such that the basket region on the inner surface of the nuclear membrane
allows passage of this protein complex in one direction into the nucleus but not out.
c. Export from the nucleus requires distinct NPCs and distinct proteins called exportins.
d. Ran-GTP is enriched in the nucleus and binds the complex, causing the disassociation of cargo
and importins and trapping the cargo in the nucleus.
e. Ran-GTP is enriched in the nucleus and hydrolyzes GTP to GDP to phosphorylate the importins,
causing the disassociation of cargo and importins and trapping the cargo in the nucleus.
True or False: Mitochondrial proteins are synthesized in the cytosol and then sorted and folded before entering
the mitochondria.
Answers: True
False
Question 2
What kind of molecule has been implicated in preparing polypeptides for mitochondrial uptake, including those
that specifically direct mitochondrial proteins to the cytosolic surface of the outer mitochondrial membrane?
Answers: a. proteases
b. aggregases
c. molecular chaperones
d. carbohydratase
e. pronases
Question 3
The presence of a transit sequence directs a protein from the ________ to the ________.
Which of the following proteins or protein complexes is directly required for the targeting of mitochondrial
inner membrane multipass proteins, such as metabolite transporters, whose signal sequence is normally not
cleaved after import?
Answers: a. TIM22
b. TIM23
c. OXA
d. Mia40
e. SAM
Question 5
Which list below names the compartments into which chloroplast proteins must be imported?
Answers: a. inner and outer chloroplast membranes, the intermembrane space, the stroma, thylakoid
membranes, thylakoid lumen
b. inner and outer chloroplast membranes, the intercristal space, the stroma, thylakoid membranes,
thylakoid lumen
c. inner and outer chloroplast membranes, the intermembrane space, the cytoplasm, thylakoid
membranes, thylakoid lumen
d. inner and medial chloroplast membranes, the intermembrane space, the stroma, thylakoid
membranes, thylakoid lumen
e. inner and outer chloroplast membranes, the intermembrane space, the stroma, cristae membranes,
thylakoid lumen
Proteins that are destined to be translocated into the stroma must have a transit peptide including _______.
c. a transit peptidase
d. a stroma-targeting domain
e. a matrix-targeting domain
Question 2
What removes the stroma-targeting domain and where does the removal occur?
Question 3
Which of the following is NOT directly involved in driving protein import into the mitochondrial matrix space?
I. ATP hydrolysis inside mitochondria
II. ATP hydrolysis outside mitochondria
III. Membrane potential across the inner membrane
IV. Membrane potential across the outer membrane
Answers: a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV
e. II and IV
Question 4
Which one of the following is the most accurate depiction of the mitochondrial protein import
mechanism?
Answers: a. Proteins are synthesized in the cytosol, unfolded by hsp70, and carried across by
a soluble transport receptor that then recycles to the cytosol.
b. Proteinsare synthesized in the cytosol, captured by hsp70, and are carried across
by a translocation channel that spans both membranes; once in the mitochondrial
matrix, the signal sequence is cleaved.
c. Proteinsare escorted through the mitochondrial membrane by a soluble transport
receptor that only recognizes fully functional, properly folded proteins.
d. Proteins
bind to SRP, and the protein-SRP complex binds to the SRP receptor,
which transfers the protein to the translocation channel.
e. Proteins
bind to hsp70 in the cytosol, are carried across in a properly folded
shape and the signal sequence is cleaved.
Question 5
Which of the following descriptions (1-5) applies only to protein import into mitochondria?
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
e. 5
True or false? Mitochondria are large enough to be seen with modern light microscopy, and
can occupy as much as 20% of cytoplasmic volume.
Answers: a. True
b. False
Question 2
b. They greatly increase the surface area for aerobic respiration machinery.
In addition to their respiratory function, mitochondria have other important roles in cellular metabolism. Which
of the following processes is NOT carried out mainly by mitochondria?
d. Biosynthesis of heme
Question 4
When fission of mitochondria becomes more frequent than fusion, the mitochondria tend to
become __________.
b. more interconnected
c. more numerous
d. more distinct
Question 5
Answers: a. Oxygen is the final electron acceptor in the respiratory chain and O2/H2O has the lowest redox
potential.
b. Oxygen is the final electron acceptor in the respiratory chain and O2/H2O has the highest redox
potential.
c. Oxygen accepts electron directly from NADH in the first step of the electron transport chain and
O2/H2O has the lowest redox potential.
d. Oxygen donates electrons to NAD+ and O2/H2O has the lowest redox potential has the lowest
redox potential.
e. Oxygen is released when electrons are donated to water.
Question 2
Oxidative phosphorylation is the mechanism of electron transport linked to ATP synthesis by coupling electron
transport to proton pumping, _____.
Answers: a. and using the H+ and electrons to react with ADP to make ATP
b. which creates a H+ gradient across the inner membrane and when the H+ flows back across the
membrane it drives the ATP synthase to synthesis ATP from ADP
c. which creates a H+ gradient across the inner membrane that drives ATP into the mitochondria
matrix via active transport
d. which creates a H+ gradient across the inner membrane and the low pH causes ADP to react with
Pi to make ATP
Question 3
NADH dehydrogenase and cytochrome oxidase are the first and last protein complexes respectively, in the
mitochondrial electron transport chain. What properties do these protein complexes have in common in the
ETC?
Answers: a. They are both capable of donating electrons to oxygen.
The synthetic toxin 2,4-dinitrophenol can uncouple ATP synthesis from mitochondrial respiration by changing
the permeability of the inner membrane to protons. What would be the effect of dinitrophenol treatment on the
amount of ATP produced by mitochondria, and on the rate of ATP transport across the inner membrane,
respectively?
b. Positive; negative
c. Negative; positive
d. Negative; negative
Answers: a. thylakoid
b. cytoplasm
c. cristae
d. stroma
e. lumen
Question 2
Question 3
The cytochrome b6-f complex that transfers electrons between the two photosystems in photosynthesis is
structurally and functionally similar to which of the complexes in the mitochondrial electron-transport chain?
b. Succinate dehydrogenase
c. Cytochrome c reductase
d. Cytochrome c oxidase
e. ATP synthase
Question 4
c. CO2 is the most highly oxidized and least energetic form in which carbon can occur.
d. CO2 is the most highly oxidized and most energetic form in which carbon can occur.
e. CO2 is highly unstable and only moderately energetic which makes the process more expensive
energetically.
Question 5
The production of ATP in chloroplasts and mitochondria differs in which of the following ways?
Answers: a. The protons move into the stroma in chloroplasts and out of the mitochondria.
Sort the following events as they occur during the peroxisomal protein import cycle, starting with the release of
cargo from Pex5. Your answer would be a five-letter string composed of numbers (1 5)
(1) Pex5 deubiquitylation
(2) Pex5 ubiquitylation
(3) Docking and translocation of the cargo protein along with Pex5
(4) Pex5 export from the peroxisome with the help of ATPases Pex1 and Pex6
(5) Pex5 binding to a cargo protein containing a C-terminal peroxisomal targeting sequence
Answers: a. 1,4,2,5,3
b. 2,4,1,5,3
c. 1,5,2,4,3
d. 3,1,2,5,4
e. 2,5,1,4,3
Question 4
Which reason below correctly explains why many peroxisomal disorders result in neurological disease?
Answers: a. Catalase and urate oxidase leak out of the peroxisomes and destroy nerve cells.
b. Plasmalogens produced by dysfunctional peroxisomes contain extra ether linkages causing them
to myelinate liver cells.
c. Cholesterol builds up in nerve cells preventing normal cellular function.
e. Very long chain fatty acids build up in the brain and destroy myelin sheaths of nerve cells.
Which of the following cytoskeletal filaments are abundant in an animal cell nucleus?
Answers: a. Microfilaments
b. Microtubules
c. Septins
d. Intermediate filaments
e. Spectrin filaments
Question 2
Under normal physiological conditions during elongation, the barbed end of an actin filament
b. is capped by actin-ATP.
Answers: a. Simultaneous loss of actin monomers from one end and addition of monomers to the other end of
an actin filament, without changing the overall length of the filament.
b. Simultaneous loss of monomers from both ends of the actin filament.
c. Simultaneous growth on one actin filament and shrinkage of another filament in the same cell, so
the overall amount of actin filament in the cell does not change.
d. Myosin motor proteins moving bidirectionally along the actin filament.
e. Capping of the barbed end of the actin filament to prevent further growth.
Question 4
Answers: a. CEDAB
b. BCEDA
c. ADBEC
d. DAEBC
e. ECDAB
Question 5
In vitro and under steady state conditions, the critical concentration (Cc) of the barbed end of a filament is 0.1
um, and the Cc of the pointed end of this filament is 0.6 um. If the concentration of actin-ATP monomers is 0.3
um, what would happen to this actin filament?
Answers: a. The barbed end would grow by adding monomers and the pointed end would shrink by losing
monomers.
b. The barbed end would shrink by losing monomers and the pointed end would grow by adding
monomers.
c. Both ends would grow by the addition of monomers, but at different rates
d. Only A and B are mechanisms of generating cell movement by the actin cytoskeleton.
Indicate whether each of the following descriptions matches Cdc42 (C), Rac (R), or Rho (H) from the Rho
family of monomeric GTPases. Your answer would be a three-letter string composed of letters C, R, and H only,
e.g. HRR.
- It activates formin.
- It inhibits myosin II activity.
- When constitutively active, it induces the formation of many prominent stress fibers.
Answers: a. CRH
b. RCC
c. HCH
d. HRC
e. CCR
Question 3
The actin-nucleating protein formin has flexible whiskers containing binding sites that help recruit actin
subunits in order to enhance polymerization by this protein. What protein would you expect to bind to these
sites?
Answers: a. Thymosin
b. Profilin
c. Cofilin
d. Gelsolin
e. Tropomodulin
Question 4
Consider an actin subunit that has just been incorporated into an actin filament at the leading edge of a
lamellipodium. Before its ATP is hydrolyzed, how does its distance from the leading front edge of the plasma
membrane change over time? How does its distance from the F-actin minus end change over time?
d. Increases; decreases
e. Increases; remains constant
Question 5
Actin filaments that are held together by the cross-linking protein fimbrin are not contractile. This is probably
because
Answers: a. the very weak cross-linking by this protein cannot convert myosin II activity into a coherent
contraction.
b. fimbrin arranges the actin filaments in parallel bundles in which all the plus ends point to the
same direction.
c. the very tight packing of actin filaments by this small protein excludes myosin II filaments and
other large proteins.
d. fimbrin arranges the actin filaments into gel-like networks in which myosin II activity does not
produce contraction.
e. fimbrin is a large protein that binds to several actin filaments and resists contraction.
b. The centrosome
c. The cell cortex
Question 2
Centrosomes
b. contain tubulin rings that act as nucleating sites at the minus end of microtubules.
c. attach microtubules to the plasma membrane.
Which of the following best describes the concept of dynamic instability as it applies to the microtubules?
d. Simultaneous addition of GTP-bound tubulin subunits to the plus end of a microtubule and
cleavage of GTP to GDP by tubulin subunits contained within microtubules
e. Simultaneous addition and loss of tubulin dimers on the (+) and (-) ends of microtubules,
respectively
Question 5
d. formin
e. contractile ring
Answers: True
False
Question 2
Which of the following proteins do you expect to be enriched near the plus end of microtubules?
Answers: a. Dynein
b. XMAP215
c. -Tubulin
d. Katanin
e. All of the above
Question 3
What are the common features of the motor proteins kinesin and dynein?
I. Both types of motor proteins bind microtubules.
II. Both types of motor proteins bind and hydrolyze ATP
III. Both types of motor proteins undergo conformational changes when the motor travels.
IV. Both types of motor proteins step from one tubulin to another
b. I, III and IV
c. II, III and IV
d. I, II and IV
Question 4
Which of the following is the best description of the action of the MAP (microtubule associated protein) tau on
microtubules in neurons?
Answers: a. Tau binds the (+) end of the microtubules and promotes tubulin addition.
b. Tau binds the (-) end of the microtubules and inhibits tubulin loss.
c. Tau binds alongside the microtubules, binding several tubulin dimers at a time and preventing
dynamic instability.
d. Tau binds GTP at the (+) end of the microtubule and prevents hydrolysis.
e. Tau binds alongside the microtubules and prevents katanin from severing microtubules.
Question 5
In the presence of ATP in a flagellum, an axonemal dynein that is interacting through its tail with the A
microtubule of a peripheral doublet can push this doublet toward the ...(1) of the flagellum, but due to the
presence of linking proteins such as ...(2), this force is converted into a bending motion.
True or False: The number of human cells in our body is greater than the number of bacterial, fungal, and
protozoan cells of our normal flora.
Answers: True
False
Question 2
Question 3
Indicate whether each of the following examples better applies to commensalism (C), mutualism (M), or
parasitism (P) in the interaction between a host and a microbe. Your answer would be a four-letter string
composed of letters C, M, and P only, e.g. CCPP.
Due to poor public sanitation, a child catches cholera.
A mouse is infected with a virus but shows no noticeable health defect whatsoever.
Biotin and other vitamins produced by intestinal microbiota are regularly absorbed in the human intestine.
Bacteria on the skin of cattle produce antifungal compounds.
Answers: a. PCMM
b. PMMC
c. PCCM
d. PP
Question 4
In the following simplified diagram, three mechanisms for the horizontal transfer of virulence genes to an
avirulent bacterium are depicted. Indicate which mechanism (A to C) corresponds to conjugation, transduction,
and transformation, respectively. Your answer would be a three-letter string composed of letters A to C only,
e.g. CAB. .
Answers: a. BCA
b. ABC
c. CAB
d. BAC
e. CBA
Question 5
In Gram staining, crystal violet (a violet dye) is used to specifically stain Gram-positive bacteria. After
performing Gram staining on a bacterial sample taken from an infected animal tissue, you observe the results
with a microscope. You find two major types of bacteria in the sample, as shown in the schematic drawing
below. According to these results, indicate whether each of the following statements is correct (C) or incorrect
(I). Your answer would be a three-letter string composed of letters C and I only, e.g. CCC.
Answers: a. CCC
b. ICI
c. CIC
d. IIC
e. CCI
Answers: a. By transformation
b. By transduction
c. By conjugation
d. By vertical gene transfer
Question 2
b. is used to inject effector proteins directly into the cytoplasm of host cells.
b. secrete toxins that enter the cell in endosomes and eventually enter the cytosol after reaching the
endoplasmic reticulum.
c. raise cyclic AMP levels in the cytosol of their target cells.
Question 4
A researcher is trying to characterize a novel prokaryotic organism that has been found in the Indian Ocean.
When Gram stained, the cells are a light pink color under the microscope. When exposed to antibiotics
commonly used in the lab, the bacteria are able to enter the log growth phase in a manner similar to E.
coli grown in media lacking ampicillin. A reasonable explanation is that:
Answers: a. this is a Gram-positive bacterium with an additional lipopolysaccharide layer that increases their
resistance to antibiotics.
b. this is a Gram-positive bacterium with a cell membrane outside its peptidoglycan layer that
increases their resistance to antibiotics.
c. this is a Gram-negative bacterium with an additional lipopolysaccharide layer that increases their
resistance to antibiotics.
d. this is a Gram-negative bacterium with a peptidoglycan layer outside the cell membrane that
increases their resistance to antibiotics.
Question 5
You infect human epithelial cells in culture with either nonpathogenic bacteria or Vibrio cholerae, each without any
further treatment, in the presence of MDC (an inhibitor of clathrin-dependent endocytosis) or in the presence of
filipin (an inhibitor of a clathrin-independent endocytic pathway). You then measure the intracellular concentration
of cyclic AMP (in picomoles per milligram of total cell protein) and summarize the results in the following table.
Which row (1 or 2) do you think corresponds to infection with V. cholerae? From these results, does cholera toxin
enter the cell in clathrin-coated vesicles?
b. Row 1; no
c. Row 2; yes
d. Row 2; no
True or False: Some intracellular pathogens escape transport to the lysosome by living and replicating in white
blood cells.
Answers: True
False
Question 2
Which of the following is not a characteristic of the intracellular pathogen Listeria monocytogenes?
b. It can collide with the plasma membrane and create long, thin protrusions from the cell that can
then be engulfed by a neighboring cell.
c. Its movement is powered by ATP hydrolysis by kinesin and dynein motors.
Question 3
An intracellular pathogen uses one of three major strategies to survive and replicate once inside the host cell, as
shown in the schematic drawing below. Indicate which strategy (1, 2, or 3) each of the following pathogens
employs for this purpose. Your answer would be a three-digit number composed of digits 1 to 3 only, e.g. 332.
Listeria monocytogenes
Legionella pneumophila
Shigella flexneri
Answers: a. 112
b. 212
c. 121
d. 221
Question 4
After gaining entry into the host cell by the zipper mechanism, the bacterium Listeria
monocytogenes escapes phagosomes by secreting listeriolysin O. This protein
To enter the host cell, intracellular bacterial pathogens can induce phagocytosis in cells that are normally
nonphagocytic. This is done by two major mechanisms depicted in the following schematic diagrams (1 and 2).
Indicate whether each of the following descriptions better applies to mechanism 1 or 2. Your answer would be a
four-letter string composed of numbers, 1 and 2 only.
It is called the zipper mechanism.
It depends on invasin proteins on the surface of the bacterium that bind to their receptors on
the surface of the host cell.
It depends on the injection of effector proteins into the host cell by a bacterial secretion
system.
It resembles the process of macropinocytosis.
Answers: a. 1221
b. 1112
c. 2211
d. 2112
e. 2221
Which of the following is the correct sequence of the human-phase of the Plasmodium life cycle?
Question 2
Indicate whether each of the following descriptions better applies to enveloped (E) or nonenveloped (N) viruses.
Your answer would be a four-letter string composed of letters E and N only, e.g. NNNN.
They include retroviruses.
They include adenoviruses.
To leave the cell, they normally lyse it.
They are more sensitive to treatment with detergents, heat, or drying.
Answers: a. ENEN
b. NNEE
c. ENEE
d. EENE
e. ENNE
Question 3
HIV belongs to a unique category of viruses termed retroviruses. Which of the following enzymes would be
unique to retroviruses?
b. RNA polymerase
c. reverse transcriptase
d. helicase
Question 4
Indicate true (T) and false (F) statements below regarding viral cell entry. Your answer would be a four-letter
string composed of letters T and F only, e.g. FFTF.
Endocytosis inhibitors can block HIV entry but not influenza virus entry.
Adenovirus infection is blocked by membrane-fusion inhibitors.
Individuals with a defective CCR5 gene are more susceptible to HIV infection.
Most viruses enter the host cell by phagocytosis.
Answers: a. TTFT
b. FTFF
c. TTTT
d. FFTF
e. FFFF
Question 5
Cyanide (an inhibitor of the electron transport chain) is added to a culture of virus-infected mammalian cells.
The virus has none of the components of electron transport nor any other proteins that are inhibited by cyanide.
Which one of the following best describes the effect of cyanide?
Answers: a. The mammalian cells will die, and all viruses will be destroyed as well, regardless of their stage
of development.
b. Mammalian cells are killed, and viral replication halted, but the culture remains infectious.
Do () strand RNA viruses use host enzymes to catalyze RNA production in transcription or in replication of the
genome?
c. Both
d. Neither
Question 2
Sort the following events to reflect the order in which they typically occur in viral replication after a virus enters
a cell. Your answer would be a four-digit string composed of numbers.
(1) Replication of the viral genome and transcription of viral genes
(2) Virus particle assembly
(3) Progeny virion release
(4) Virus particle disassembly
Answers: a. 2134
b. 4123
c. 1324
d. 3412
e. 3241
Question 3
In which of the following groups of viruses is an RNA-dependent RNA polymerase packaged as a structural
protein in each newly made viral particle?
d. Retroviruses
Which of the following conditions is NOT expected to provide protection against HIV-1 infection of helper T
cells?
Drugs such as AZT and ddI are nucleoside analogs used in HIV-infected patients. Both are chemically modified
versions of the nucleotides that make up DNA and RNA. These modified nucleosides interfere with normal
replication and transcription. The MOST important goal of these drugs would be:
Answers: a. to prevent the replication of host cell DNA so that the host cell cannot function
b. to prevent the transcription of host cell RNA so that no proteins can be expressed
c. to prevent the viral nucleic acid from entering the host cells
True or False: The classical pathway of complement activation is triggered by binding of a secreted PRR to
mannose-containing glycoproteins or glycolipids on the surface of pathogens.
Answers: True
False
Question 2
Which of the following are recognized by pattern recognition receptors as pathogen-associated molecular
patterns?
b. Formylmethionine-containing proteins
c. Unmethylated CpG motifs
Question 3
Answers: a. Macrophage
b. Monocyte
c. Neutrophil
d. Lymphocyte
e. Dendritic cell
Question 4
Fill in the blank in the following paragraph regarding the innate and adaptive immune systems.
As key components of the innate immune response, ______ cells provide the link between the innate and
adaptive immune responses. Upon exposure to pathogens in tissues, they engulf the microbe, become activated,
and travel to nearby lymphoid organs where they present the processed antigens to the lymphocytes of the
adaptive immune system.
b. Mast cells
c. T cells
d. Dendritic cells
e. Skin cells
Question 5
Indicate whether each of the following descriptions better applies to an Adaptive or Innate immune response.
o
Question Correct Match
It employs natural killer (NK) cells to induce apoptosis in infected a. Adaptive Immune
host cells. Response
o
Answers: a. I only
b. II only
c. I and II
d. I and III
Question 2
Indicate whether each of the following statements is true or false regarding all the cell-surface immunoglobulin
molecules produced by a single, mature, nave B cell.
o
Question Correct Match
Indicate whether each of the following descriptions better applies to B cells or T cells of the adaptive immune
system.
o
Correct
Question
Match
Their receptors recognize protein fragments that have been processed in antigen- a. T cells
presenting cells.
o
o
Question 4
Answers: a. T-cell receptors must interact with antigen uniquely presented by other cells but not with free
antigen.
b. T-cell receptors bind various cytokines.
c. T-cell receptors bind complement proteins to lyse cells.
Which one of the following best describes the mechanism by which production of specific antibody is achieved
in response to antigen exposure?
Answers: a. Immature B cell clones expressing several different antibody genes select for one gene and turn
off expression of the others.
b. Antigen stimulates proliferation of a specific B cell clone expressing a single antibody protein
that recognizes that antigen.
c. The variable regions of antibody proteins on an immature B cell clone form a pocket around the
antigen, and the antibody genes are recombined to fit the bound antigen.
d. Antibody light and heavy chains are mixed on each B cells surface in different combinations to
produce different antigen recognition.
Normally, nave cytotoxic and helper T cells interact for the first time with foreign antigens presented by
dendritic cells in
b. the bloodstream.
e. inflamed tissues.
Question 2
In antigen presentation to helper T cells (TH cells), both the TCR and co-receptor proteins
Which of the following better describes cross-presentation of protein antigens by professional antigen-
presenting cells to nave TC cells?
Question 4
Sort the following events to reflect the order in which they occur in the presentation of viral peptides to
cytotoxic T cells by a virus-infected cell. Your answer would be a four-letter string composed of letters A to D
only, e.g. BDCA.
(A) Peptide transport into the ER lumen
(B) Partial proteasomal degradation of the viral protein into peptide fragments
(C) Peptide binding to class I MHC protein in the ER lumen
(D) The appearance of viral protein in the cytosol
Answers: a. BDCA
b. CDBA
c. ACBD
d. DBAC
e. DACB
Question 5
How are natural killer (NK) cells different from cytotoxic T (T C) cells?
Answers: a. NK cells induce apoptosis in their target cells, whereas TC cells are professional phagocytes.
c. NK cells kill cells with a high level of class I MHC protein expression, whereas killing by
TC cells requires low expression levels.
d. NK cells respond quickly to a virus infection, whereas the activation of TC cells to become
cytotoxic is a slow process.
e. NK cells are normally abundant in the tissue even before infection, whereas TC cells are mostly in
the bloodstream.