Professional Documents
Culture Documents
3. A thin, weakened section of the wall of a blood vessel that is prone to rupture is termed
A. atherosclerosis
B. arteriosclerosis
C. aneurysm
D. arterial stenosis
7. The part of the aorta that passes through the diaphragm is the
A. ascending aorta
B. descending aorta
C. arch of the aorta
D. abdominal aorta
10. Which of the following vessels bring blood to the inferior vena cava?
A. radial and brachial veins
B. coronary sinus and subclavian veins
C. renal and common iliac veins
D. external jugular and carotid artery
11. Which of the following statements is true?
A. From the popliteal artery, blood flows into the femoral artery
B. From the femoral artery, blood flows into the popliteal artery
On the left, the brachiocephalic artery continues into the shoulder as the subclavian
C.
artery, but on the right the subclavian artery arises directly from the aorta
D. The left gastric, splenic, and renal arteries all arise from the celiac trunk
12. Blood reaches the cells that make up large blood vessels by way of tiny capillaries called the
_____ in the outer layer of the vessel
A. vasa vasorum
B. chordae tendineae
C. arterial syncytium
D. tunica adventitia
14. Which type of blood vessel holds the smallest volume of blood?
A. capillaries
B. systemic veins and venules
C. systemic arteries and arterioles
D. pulmonary vessels
17. Elastic arteries can withstand the pressure of blood at ventricular systole because
A. they are lined by a thick endothelium that absorbs the pressure
B. arteries have a larger lumen than veins, thus peripheral resistance is lower in arteries
elastic fibers allow the artery to expand with the pressure, then return to original size
C.
and shape
D. blood volume is very low in arteries, so the pressure at systole is minimal
18. Pressure against the walls of capillaries due to water in the blood is called
A. blood hydrostatic pressure
B. blood osmotic pressure
C. interstitial fluid hydrostatic pressure
D. interstitial fluid osmotic pressure
21. The exchange of nutrients and waste products takes place only through the walls of
A. arteries
B. capillaries
C. arterioles
D. venules
22. Capillaries in which the basement membrane is incomplete or absent and have large spaces
between the endothelial cells are called
A. continuous capillaries
B. fenestrated capillaries
C. thorough channels
D. sinusoids
25. If your total blood volume is 5 liters, the volume in your veins and venules is
A. 3 liters
B. 2 liters
C. 1 liter
D. 1 liter
26. At the venous end of capillaries, fluid moves from the interstitial spaces into the capillaries
because
A. hydrostatic pressure exceeds osmotic pressure
B. blood pressure in the veins is high
C. the net filtration pressure is usually about -9 mm Hg
D. the net filtration pressure at the venous end is higher than at the arterial end
29. If cardiac output (CO) rises due to an increase in stroke volume or heart rate, but resistance stays
the same
A. blood pressure will increase
B. venous pressure will decrease
C. blood colloid pressure will increase
D. blood flow will decrease
30. If a tube is decreased to 1/2 its diameter, it will increase its resistance to fluid flow
A. 2 times
B. 4 times
C. 8 times
D. 16 times
31. Contraction of skeletal muscles in the leg cause blood to be pumped toward the heart because
A. proximal valves in the vein close and distal valves open
B. both proximal and distal valves open
C. proximal valves open and distal valves close
D. both proximal and distal valves close
32. Which type of blood vessel exerts the major control of systemic vascular resistance on a
moment-to-moment basis?
A. arteries
B. arterioles
C. capillaries
D. veins
33. The most immediate result of increased muscle contraction and increased respiration would be
A. increased venous return to the heart
B. increased cardiac output
C. decreased systemic vascular resistance
D. increased mean arterial pressure
36. Information on blood pressure travels from the baroreceptors in the arch of the aorta to the
cardiovascular center through the
A. glossopharyngeal nerve
B. cardioaccelerator nerves
C. vagus nerve
D. vasomotor nerves
37. Because of the presence of beta adrenergic receptors on the smooth muscles of arterioles going
to skeletal muscles and the heart, sympathetic stimulation causes
A. vasoconstriction and a reduction in blood flow to these tissues
B. vasodilation and increase in blood flow to these tissues
C. increase in blood pressure
D. decrease in heart rate
39. The principle stimulus for autoregulation of blood flow into the capillaries is
A. oxygen
B. carbon dioxide
C. epinephrine
D. acetylcholine
40. A sign of shock is
A. dry, flushed skin
B. slow pulse
C. increased urine formation
D. hypotension
41. Shock becomes steadily worse and compensatory mechanisms are no longer adequate when the
blood volume drops more than
A. 1-2 percent
B. 5-10 percent
C. 10-20 percent
D. 30-35 percent
42. If the blood pressure reading on a patient is 142/95, the pulse pressure is
A. 142 mm Hg
B. 95 mm Hg
C. 47 mm Hg
D. 74 mm Hg
43. The most proximal portion (closest to the heart) of the aorta is the
A. ascending aorta
B. arch of the aorta
C. thoracic aorta
D. abdominal aorta
46. The blood that flows to the left arm passes through the
A. left vertebral artery
B. brachiocephalic trunk
C. left common carotid artery
D. left subclavian artery
47. The right radial and ulnar arteries are branches of the
A. right vertebral artery
B. right subclavian artery
C. right axillary artery
D. right brachial artery
49. The splenic artery supplies blood to the spleen and one of its branches supplies blood to the
A. pancreas
B. liver
C. gallbladder
D. esophagus
50. The unpaired visceral branches of the abdominal aorta are the
A. celiac, superior mesenteric and inferior mesenteric arteries
B. suprarenal, renal, and gonadal arteries
C. inferior phrenic and lumbar arteries
D. sacral and common iliac arteries
51. The _____ arteries pass posterior to the inguinal ligament as they enter the thigh
A. femoral
B. external iliac
C. common iliac
D. posterior tibial
52. The descending colon, sigmoid colon, and rectum are supplied with blood through the
A. celiac artery
B. superior mesenteric artery
C. inferior mesenteric artery
D. common iliac artery
53. The abdominal aorta divides into the common iliac arteries at about the level of the
A. bottom of the kidneys
B. fourth lumbar vertebra
C. top of the sacrum
D. pubic bone
54. The transverse processes of the cervical vertebrae have foramina that allow passage of the
A. vertebral veins
B. external jugular veins
C. internal jugular veins
D. subclavian veins
55. The basilic and brachial veins merge in the arm to form the
A. axillary vein
B. subclavian vein
C. cephalic vein
D. median cubital vein
57. When the axillary vein leaves the arm and enters the shoulder region it is renamed the
A. brachiocephalic vein
B. common carotid vein
C. subclavian vein
D. radial vein
58. The inferior vena cava is formed by the union of the two
A. femoral veins
B. great saphenous veins
C. external iliac veins
D. common iliac veins
59. Most of the tissues and organs in the thorax are drained by the
A. brachiocephalic veins
B. azygos system of veins
C. anterior vena cava
D. coronary veins
60. The hepatic portal veins bring blood from the gastrointestinal tract to the _________________
A. kidneys
B. liver
C. brain
D. adrenal glands
61. At the back of the knee, the anterior and posterior tibial and small saphenous veins drain blood
into the
A. femoral vein
B. popliteal vein
C. peroneal vein
D. common iliac vein
62. Which vein of the hepatic portal system drains the small intestine, portions of the large intestine,
stomach and pancreas?
A. inferior vena cava
B. common iliac vein
C. superior mesenteric vein
D. inferior mesenteric vein
63. Because the pulmonary arteries have larger diameter, thinner walls, and less elastic tissue than
systemic arteries
A. the resistance to blood flow is very low
B. the amount of blood flowing through the lungs is low
C. the blood pressure varies considerably during ventricular systole
D. blood gases diffuse readily across them
64. After the baby is born, the umbilical vein that passes through the liver constricts and becomes
the
A. ligamentum arteriosum
B. ligamentum teres (round ligament)
C. umbilical ligaments
D. fossa ovalis
65. By age 80, blood flow through the kidneys is _____ less than in the same person at the age of 30
A. 10 percent
B. 15 percent
C. 30 percent
D. 50 percent
4. Which of the following does NOT function to increase vasodilation and permeability of blood
vessels?
A. defensins
B. histamine
C. prostaglandins
D. kinins
5. A tissue transplant in which one's own tissue is grafted to another part of the body is called
A. an autograft
B. an isograft
C. an allograft
D. a xenograft
10. After recovering from certain diseases, one may have developed _____ immunity to the
diseases.
A. naturally acquired active
B. artificially acquired active
C. naturally acquired passive
D. artificially acquired passive
13. An immunoglobulin is
A. an antigen
B. an antibody
C. a nucleoprotein
D. found in platelets
19. The two collecting ducts that drain the lymphatic trunks are the
A. thoracic duct and right lymphatic duct
B. thoracic duct and left lymphatic duct
C. subclavian duct and bronchomediastinal duct
D. cisterna chyli and thoracic duct
20. Lymph nodes of the axillary region receive lymph primarily from the
A. scalp and face
B. arm and mammary gland
C. thoracic viscera
D. abdominal viscera
26. Interleukin - 1
A. is toxic only to the target cells
B. promotes phagocytic activity
C. initiates chemotaxis
D. is a fever-causing cytokine
27. B lymphocytes
A. migrate from the thymus to other lymphatic organs
B. are responsible for antibody-mediated immunity
C. secrete lymphokines
D. are phagocytic
28. Complement
A. is produced by eosinophils and neutrophils
B. is chemotactic and attracts phagocytic cells
C. contains enzymes which reduce the inflammatory response
D. lyses B-cells, thus releasing antibodies
30. Antigen recognition by a T-cell receptor with CD4 or CD8 proteins is the
____________________ in the activation of a T-cell.
A. first signal
B. second signal
C. third signal
D. fourth signal
31. Lack of reactivity of T cells and B cells to fragments of one's own proteins is known as
A. self-tolerance
B. self-recognition
C. positive selection
D. negative selection
32. Lymph from the cisterna chyli empties into the
A. liver
B. thoracic duct
C. left brachiocephalic vein
D. heart
33. The largest single mass of lymphatic tissue in the adult human body is the
A. liver
B. spleen
C. thymus
D. pancreas
35. After phagocytosis, which intracellular chemicals kill the microbe by a process called an
oxidative burst?
A. lethal oxidants
B. lysozyme
C. defensins
D. complement
39. When stimulated, T cells that display the CD8 molecule develop into
A. plasma cells
B. cytotoxic T cells
C. memory cells
D. helper T cells
1. Chemoreceptors in the brain are activated primarily by the presence of _______ in the
cerebrospinal fluid.
A. hydrogen ions
B. oxygen ions
C. carbonic acid
D. bicarbonate ions
3. Mucous membranes of the nasal passages, nasopharynx and trachea are lined with what type of
epithelium?
A. stratified columnar
B. simple squamous
C. simple columnar
D. pseudostratified ciliated columnar
6. If the air we breathe contains 10 percent of Gas X, the partial pressure of Gas X is
A. 760 mm Hg
B. 76 mm Hg
C. 7.6 mm Hg
D. 0.76 mm Hg
10. When oxygen combines with the heme of hemoglobin, what is formed?
A. oxyhemoglobin
B. hemoglobin
C. carbaminohemoglobin
D. carbonic acid
15. The amount of oxygen that can combine with heme is determined mainly by the
A. systolic blood pressure
B. partial pressure of oxygen
C. concentration of hydrogen ions
D. concentration of carbonic anhydrase
18. The amount of oxygen released by the hemoglobin molecules in the blood to the tissues
A. decreases as pCO2 increases
B. increases as blood pH decreases (acidity increases)
C. decreases as temperature increases
D. increases as pCO2 decreases
19. Most carbon dioxide is carried in the blood
A. as part of a bicarbonate ion
B. as carbonic anhydrase
C. as dissolved carbon dioxide gas
D. bound to hemoglobin
26. Lung compliance is affected mainly by the amount of elastic tissue in the lungs and the
A. thickness of cartilage in the trachea
B. partial pressure of oxygen in inhaled air
C. diameter of the nasal cavity
D. amount of surfactant
28. Epithelial cells of the respiratory tract are ciliated. The function of these cilia is to
A. moisten the inhaled air
B. secrete mucus
C. move mucus toward the pharynx
D. respond to olfactory stimuli
29. During internal and external respiration, gases move by
A. osmosis
B. active transport
C. endocytosis
D. diffusion
32. Functionally, the bronchi are considered to be part of the _____ portion of the respiratory
system.
A. upper
B. lower
C. conducting
D. respiratory
33. We hold our breath when lifting a heavy object by closing off the opening of the larynx using the
A. ventricular folds (false vocal cords)
B. vocal folds (true vocal cords)
C. epiglottis
D. soft palate
34. An increase in pulmonary capillary permeability or an increase in pulmonary capillary pressure
leads to
A. pulmonary embolism
B. respiratory stress syndrome
C. asthma
D. pulmonary edema
35. The most sensitive region of the respiratory tract for triggering the cough reflex is the
A. larynx
B. epiglottis
C. carina
D. bronchioles
36. The smallest and last tube the air flows through before it reaches the alveoli is the
A. tertiary bronchiole
B. terminal bronchiole
C. respiratory bronchiole
D. alveolar duct
38. _____________ Law states that each gas in a mixture of gases exerts its own pressure as if all
the other gases were not present
A. Dalton's
B. Charles'
C. Henry's
D. Boyle's
39. The sum of the residual volume, tidal volume and expiratory reserve volume is the
A. vital capacity
B. inspiratory capacity
C. functional residual capacity
D. total lung capacity
40. During normal quiet breathing, the diaphragm descends and the alveolar pressure decreases
about
A. 0.5 mm Hg
B. 2 mm Hg
C. 10 mm Hg
D. 100 mm Hg
42. A modified respiratory pattern involves a series of convulsive inspirations followed by a single
prolonged expiration. This pattern is characteristic of
A. sneezing
B. sobbing
C. laughing
D. sighing
43. After you inhale in a quiet inhalation, which lung volume does not contain any air?
A. residual volume
B. expiratory reserve volume
C. tidal volume
D. inspiratory reserve volume
44. Although air contains about 79 percent nitrogen, very little of it dissolves in blood plasma
because of its low solubility coefficient. This is an example of
A. Boyle's law
B. Dalton's law
C. Henry's law
D. the Bohr effect
46. At a partial pressure of 105 mm Hg in the alveoli, the percent saturation of hemoglobin with
oxygen in the pulmonary capillaries will be
A. almost 100 percent
B. about 90 percent, depending on the rate of blood flow
C. 80 percent or more, depending on how hard we breathe
D. 75 percent, because the solubility of oxygen in water is low
50. The most common infectious cause of death in the United States is
A. pneumonia
B. influenza
C. tuberculosis
D. coryza
1. The wavelike, rhythmic contractions that move food through the digestive tract are called
A. deglutition
B. peristalsis
C. mucosal contractions
D. absorption
5. Which of the following are part of the digestive system, but are not part of the alimentary canal?
A. duodenum, jejunum, ileum
B. stomach, esophagus, pharynx
C. liver, pancreas, gallbladder
D. mouth, pharynx, rectum
7. Gastric glands increase their secretory activity in response to a hormone released from the
A. duodenum
B. stomach
C. pancreas
D. liver
8. The space between the parietal and visceral peritoneum is the _____ cavity.
A. antiperitoneal
B. mediastinal
C. retroperitoneal
D. peritoneal
10. The intrinsic factor is produced by _____ cells of the gastric glands.
A. goblet
B. parietal
C. G
D. chief
13. Taste buds are found in elevations on the dorsal surface of the tongue called
A. papillae
B. emetics
C. Peyer's patches
D. plicae circularis
14. What are the names of the three sections of the small intestine?
A. cecum, pylorus, fundus
B. duodenum, jejeunum, ileum
C. pylorus, ileum, colon
D. jejeunum, cardia, duodenum
17. The myenteric plexus is located in which layer of the alimentary canal?
A. mucosa
B. serosa
C. lamina propria
D. muscularis
18. Which hormone stimulates secretion of pancreatic juice that is rich in digestive enzymes and
contraction of the wall of the gallbladder to release bile?
A. cholecystokinin
B. gastrin
C. enterokinase
D. secretin
20. The nerve plexus that controls secretions by the gastrointestinal tract is located in the
A. mucosa
B. submucosa
C. muscularis
D. serosa
21. The inner surface of each lip is attached to the gum by a midline fold of mucous membrane
called the
A. labia
B. fauces
C. vermilion
D. labial frenulum
22. Mumps is a viral infection, inflammation, and enlargement of the
A. lingual tonsils
B. parotid salivary glands
C. tongue and throat
D. uvula and soft palate of the mouth
23. The duct of the parotid gland enters the mouth cavity near the
A. second maxillary molar
B. lingual frenulum
C. base of the tongue
D. floor of the mouth
25. The deciduous molars (baby teeth molars) are replaced in the adult by the
A. incisors
B. premolars (bicuspids)
C. cuspids
D. molars
29. The passage of a bolus of solid food from the mouth to the stomach takes about
A. 1/2 second
B. 4-8 seconds
C. 30 seconds
D. 1 minute
32. The thought or smell of food initiates the _____ phase of stomach secretion and motility.
A. cephalic
B. buccal
C. gastric
D. intestinal
35. The ducts of the pancreas and liver connect to the digestive tract at the
A. pylorus of the stomach
B. duodenum
C. jejunum
D. ileum
36. Trypsin and chymotrypsin are enzymes of the pancreatic juice that act on
A. proteins
B. fats
C. carbohydrates
D. DNA and RNA
39. The hormone that causes secretion of pancreatic juice rich in bicarbonate ions is
A. secretin
B. cholecystokinin
C. gastrin
D. enterokinase
43. There are no lipase enzymes secreted by the gland cells of the
A. mouth
B. stomach
C. pancreas
D. small intestine
44. All lipids are absorbed through the brush border of the small intestine by the process of
A. facilitated diffusion
B. simple diffusion
C. active transport
D. pinocytosis
45. Although over 9 liters of water enter the small intestine, the amount lost in the feces is only
about
A. 0.1 liter
B. 1 liter
C. 2 liters
D. 3 liters
46. Which digestive gland produces bile?
A. salivary glands
B. liver
C. pancreas
D. gallbladder
48. Tubular glands formed by simple columnar epithelium and goblet cells that extend the full
thickness of the mucosa are found in the
A. esophagus
B. stomach
C. liver
D. large intestine
50. In the embryo, the inner lining of most of the digestive tract is formed from
A. ectoderm
B. mesoderm
C. endoderm
D. mesenchyme
51. Dentists recommend that plaque be removed from the teeth at least every
A. 24 hours
B. week
C. month
D. 6 months
52. The second leading cause of cancer deaths in males, after deaths from lung cancer, is
A. pancreatic cancer
B. colorectal cancer
C. cancer of the mouth and tongue
D. stomach cancer
54. The branch of dentistry that is concerned with the prevention and correction of abnormally
aligned teeth is
A. endodontics
B. orthodontics
C. peridontics
D. paradontics
1. Within a living cell, the oxidation of one molecule is always coupled with the simultaneous _____
of another molecule.
A. phosphorylation
B. dehydrogenation
C. chemiosmosis
D. reduction
5. A nutrient
A. is used for growth, maintenance and repair
B. rearranges atoms within a molecule
C. transports electrons along the transport chain
D. serves as a carrier molecule within the Krebs cycle
13. Convection is
A. the transfer of heat between two substances or objects in contact with each other
B. the transfer of heat from a warmer object to a coller object without physical contact
C. the transfer of heat by a liquid or gas between areas of different temperatures
D. the conversion of a liquid to a vapor
14. The areas of the brain that regulate food intake are located in the
A. hypothalamus
B. cerebral cortex
C. medulla oblongata
D. cerebellum
18. Too high a core body temperature can be fatal because it causes
A. the blood to coagulate
B. denaturation of proteins
C. cardiac arrythmias
D. nerve impulses from the brain to cease
19. An increase in core body temperature of one degree C (Celsius) will increase the rate of
biochemical reactions by about
A. 1 percent
B. 5 percent
C. 10 percent
D. 25 percent
20. In the negative feedback mechanism of body temperature heat regulation, in response to a
decrease of body temperature, the hypothalamus
A. releases epinephrine and thyroxine
B. sends parasympathetic impulses to the arterioles of the skin
C. releases thyrotropin-releasing hormone
D. sends sympathetic impulses to the blood vessels of the digestive tract
21. When you touch a cool object, you are losing heat by
A. radiation
B. conduction
C. convection
D. evaporation
22. When, as a result of pyrogens, the body thermostat is set to a higher temperature, you will
experience
A. a chill
B. hot flashes
C. hypothermia
D. sweating
23. A coupled chemical reaction that directly transfers a high energy phosphate group from a
substrate to ADP, producing ATP is
A. substrate-level phosphorylation
B. oxidative phosphorylation
C. an electron transport chain reaction
D. photophosphorylation
25. Which of these four processes produces ATP from NADH and FADH2?
A. glycolysis
B. formation of Acetyl coenzyme A
C. Krebs cycle
D. electron transport chain
28. Which of the following reactions does NOT occur in the Krebs cycle?
A. production of reduced coenzymes
B. production of carbon dioxide
C. generation of GTP, which is used to produce ATP
D. formation of lactic acid in the absence of oxygen
29. For every glucose molecule metabolized, how many carbon dioxide molecules are produced?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
30. NADH dehydrogenase complex, cytochrome b-c1 complex, and cytochrome oxidase complex
are all
A. proton pumps in the mitochondrial membrane
B. enzymes of the Krebs cycle
C. kinases in the glycolysis reactions
D. molecules that transport pyruvic acid into the mitochondrion
32. How many oxygen molecules are used during the complete oxidation of one glucose molecule?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
33. The majority of fat in the body is stored in fat cells located
A. subcutaneously
B. around the heart
C. in the abdomen
D. around the kidneys
36. Before amino acids can enter the Krebs cycle, they must undergo
A. lipolysis
B. beta oxidation
C. deamination
D. glycolysis
38. Which molecule will undergo different reactions, depending on whether oxygen is plentiful, or
in short supply?
A. acetyl CoA
B. citric acid
C. glucose 6-phosphate
D. pyruvic acid
39. The main hormone that is active during the absorptive state is
A. insulin
B. glucagon
C. thyroid hormone
D. cortisol
40. During the absorptive state, glucose is
A. deaminated and used as an energy source
B. stored by the liver for later use
C. oxidized for ATP production
D. used for gluconeogensis
41. During the postabsorptive state, when we exercise, the anaerobically produced lactic acid is
A. oxidized in the skeletal muscles when oxygen becomes available
B. carried to the liver where it can be converted into glucose and put back into the blood
C. carried to the kidney where it is excreted
D. converted to ketone bodies, which are used by all cells of the body
42. Experts in good nutrition recommend that we get about _____ of our calories from complex
carbohydrates.
A. 15 percent
B. 30 percent
C. 50 - 60 percent
D. 10 percent
44. Which of the following minerals serves as an antioxidant, prevents chromosome damage, and
may play a role in preventing certain birth defects?
A. zinc
B. magnesium
C. chromium
D. selenium
45. Which vitamin is essential for the formation of photopigments and, if deficient, leads to night
blindness?
A. A
B. D
C. E
D. K
46. The only B vitamin not found in vegetables, the only vitamin requiring intrinsic factor for proper
absorption, and the vitamin necessary for red blood cell formation is vitamin
A. B1 (thiamine)
B. B2 (riboflavin)
C. B6 (pyridoxine)
D. B12 (cyanocobalamin)
47. Obesity is defined as a body weight more than _____ above a desirable standard due to
excessive accumulation of adipose tissue.
A. 10 percent
B. 20 percent
C. 30 percent
D. 40 percent
48. Which of these four series of reactions uses oxygen in the last reaction of the series?
A. glycolysis
B. formation of Acetyl coenzyme A
C. Krebs cycle
D. electron transport chain
4. Urine contains
A. waste products of digestion
B. waste products of metabolism
C. only water
D. only water and proteins
7. Sodium is moved out of the cells of the proximal convoluted tubule and into the interstitial fluid
by the process of
A. diffusion
B. facilitated diffusion
C. active transport
D. osmosis
8. The outer layer of the three layers of tissue that surround the kidney is the
A. renal fascia
B. adipose capsule
C. renal capsule
D. peritoneum
13. Which of the following molecules cannot pass the filtration membranes in the kidneys?
A. sodium ions
B. glucose
C. amino acids
D. large proteins
14. The innermost layer of the three layers of tissue that protect the kidney is the
A. renal fascia
B. adipose capsule
C. renal capsule
D. peritoneum
15. The renal papillae contain papillary ducts which empty into the
A. minor calyces
B. ureters
C. renal pelvis
D. urethra
16. Reabsorption is the movement of molecules from the _____ into the _____ .
A. glomerulus, renal tubule
B. tissues, distal convoluted tubule
C. renal tubules, peritubular capillaries
D. proximal convoluted tubule, distal convoluted tubule
18. Sodium ions move through the apical membranes of principal cells of the collecting duct by
A. secondary active transport
B. osmosis
C. sodium pumps
D. diffusion
22. Which of the following accurately represents the pathway of fluid through a juxtamedullary
nephron?
proximal convoluted tubule, distal convoluted tubule, descending loop of Henle,
A.
ascending loop of Henle
proximal convoluted tubule, descending loop of Henle, ascending loop of Henle, distal
B.
convoluted tubule
distal convoluted tubule, descending loop of Henle, ascending loop of Henle, proximal
C.
convoluted tubule
distal convoluted tubule, ascending loop of Henle, descending loop of Henle, proximal
D.
convoluted tubule
25. The visceral layer of Bowman's capsule is covered with specialized cells called
A. podocytes
B. fenestrations
C. pedicels
D. slits
26. Increased sodium and chloride ion concentrations in the interstitial fluid of the renal medulla is
the result of
A. renin secretion
B. tubular secretion
C. reabsorption of glucose
D. countercurrent mechanism
27. Externally, the kidney is protected and supported by connective tissue and
A. mesentery
B. adipose tissue
C. serous fluid
D. cartilage
28. Renal blood pressure remains fairly constant due to the function of the
A. loop of Henle
B. Bowman's capsule
C. fenestra
D. juxtaglomerular apparatus
30. A patient has symptoms that include painful, frequent urination, and low back pain. Further
examination reveals inflammation of the mucosa and submucosa of the urinary bladder. The
patient has
A. polycystic disease
B. cystitis
C. bilirubinuria
D. gall stones
31. Potassium ions are actively secreted into the tubular fluid of the
A. distal convoluted tubule
B. loop of Henle
C. peritubular capillaries
D. ascending limb
32. A patient is brought to the emergency room. Blood evaluation reveals high levels of creatinine,
urea, uric acid, and potassium. Family members report failure to urinate, even though the patient
consumed a fairly large quantity of water during the day. The patient is experiencing
A. pyelitis
B. urinary tract infection
C. renal failure
D. horseshoe kidney
34. The process by which water is reabsorbed by following solutes when they are reabsorbed is
called
A. facultative water reabsorption
B. obligatory water reabsorption
C. rennin-angiotensin water reabsorption
D. osmotic water reabsorption
35. Which layer of the endothelial-capsular membrane prevents red blood cells from leaving the
blood, but allows all components of the blood plasma to pass through?
A. fenestrated endothelial cells
B. basal lamina
C. fatty acids
D. slit membranes of podocytes
39. In the process of renal autoregulation, when the juxtaglomerular apparatus secretes less
vasoconstrictor substance,
A. the afferent arterioles dilate, increasing glomerular filtration rate
B. the efferent arterioles dilate, allowing blood to flow through the kidney faster
C. the loop of Henle reabsorbs more sodium and chloride ions
D. the collecting tubule reabsorbs less water
40. Which of the following chemicals is an enzyme secreted by the juxtaglomerular apparatus?
A. aldosterone
B. antidiuretic hormone
C. atrial naturetic peptide
D. renin
41. Glucose enters the proximal convoluted tubule cells by _____ and leaves the cell into the
interstitial fluid by _____.
A. simple diffusion, active transport
B. facilitated diffusion, simple diffusion
C. sodium ion-glucose symporters, facilitated diffusion
D. primary active transport, sodium ion-glucose symporters
42. The main region of the kidney tubule that is impermeable to water is the
A. collecting duct
B. thin descending limb of the loop of Henle
C. proximal convoluted tubule
D. thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle
45. Which of the following occurs by the action of Na+ symporters in the apical membranes of
tubule cells?
A. reabsorption of hydrogen ions by proximal convoluted tubule cells
B. reabsorption of amino acids by proximal convoluted tubule cells
C. secretion of hydrogen ions by intercalated cells
both reabsorption of glucose by proximal convoluted tubule cells and reabsorption of
D.
amino acids by proximal convoluted tubule cells
46. Ions, but not water, are reabsorbed from the tubular fluid in the ascending loop of Henle.
Therefore, the osmolarity of the fluid entering the distal convoluted tubule is
A. less than pure water
B. greater than blood
C. greater than the glomerular filtrate
D. less than blood
47. The most important solutes that contribute to the high osmolarity of the interstitial fluid in the
renal medulla are
A. potassium ions, hydrogen ions, and water
B. sodium ions, chloride ions, and urea
C. glucose, proteins, and calcium ions
D. renin, aldosterone, and angiotensin
50. Creatinine is produced by the breakdown of creatine phosphate in the skeletal muscles. It is
useful for determining glomerular filtration rate (GFR) because it is
A. filtered but not reabsorbed or secreted
B. filtered and extensively secreted but not reabsorbed
C. filtered and secreted to a very small extent
D. secreted but not filtered or reabsorbed
53. The normal kidneys are only about _____ as effective at the age of 70 as they are at the age of
40.
A. 10 percent
B. 25 percent
C. 50 percent
D. 75 percent
1. The largest volume of body fluid is located
A. in plasma
B. in lymph
C. within cells
D. between cells
2. Bone, DNA, RNA, ATP, and cell membranes all have one thing in common. They all contain
_____ .
A. sulfur
B. calcium
C. phosphate
D. magnesium
4. Parathyroid hormone
A. is released when blood calcium level rises
B. stimulates osteoblasts and inhibits osteoclasts
C. causes the cells of the nephron to reabsorb phosphate
D. causes renal tubule cells to reabsorb calcium
7. Electrolytes
A. dissociate into anions and cations
B. generally have covalent bonds
C. include glucose, urea, and creatine
D. are usually organic compounds
9. Reabsorption of sodium from the tubules of the nephron establishes an osmotic gradient that
causes _____ to move back into the blood.
A. salt
B. water
C. magnesium,
D. calcium
13. A patient whose blood pH is 7.5, whose concentration of HCO3- in arterial blood is 25
mEq/liter, and whose partial pressure of CO2 is 32 mm Hg in arterial blood is experiencing
________alkalosis?
A. uncompensated metabolic
B. compensated metabolic
C. uncompensated respiratory
D. compensated respiratory
14. Hyperventilation (breathing in and out more air than normal) during a panic attack causes an
increase in blood ________.
A. pH
B. H+
C. partial pressure of CO2
D. partial pressure of CO2 and H+
15. The most abundant buffer system inside body cells and in plasma is the
A. carbonic acid buffer system
B. phosphate buffer system
C. sodium bicarbonate buffer system
D. protein buffer system
16. The only way the body can get rid of the huge acid load produced by metabolic reactions is to
A. increase the concentration of bicarbonate ions
B. breathe faster and more deeply
C. excrete hydrogen ions in the urine
D. increase the concentration of proteins in the plasma
2. Which of the following functions in both urinary and reproductive systems in the male?
A. prostate
B. Bowman's capsule
C. Sertoli cells
D. urethra
9. The portion of the ovary that contains the ovarian follicles is the
A. mesovarium
B. germinal epithelium
C. cortex
D. tunica albuginea
10. Which female reproductive structure is located between the urinary bladder and the rectum?
A. ovary
B. uterus
C. vagina
D. prostate
12. The cells in the testis responsible for producing testosterone are the
A. spermatogenic cells
B. spermatogonia
C. Sertoli cells
D. Leydig cells
13. The testes are covered by a dense white fibrous capsule called the
A. scrotum
B. tunica vaginalis
C. tunica albuginea
D. visceral peritoneum
14. Which of the following cells lies next to the basement membrane of the seminiferous tubules?
A. spermatogonia
B. primary spermatocytes
C. secondary spermatocytes
D. spermatids
19. Which of the hormones produced in the male directly stimulates testosterone secretion?
A. FSH
B. LH
C. inhibin
D. GnRH
20. In the male, the protein hormone inhibin is produced by the _____ and inhibits secretion of
_____.
A. hypothalamus; LH
B. anterior pituitary gland; testosterone
C. Sertoli cells; FSH
D. Leydig cells; GnRH
21. The longest duct of the male reproductive tract, passing from the scrotum into the pelvic cavity,
is the
A. ductus deferens
B. epididymis
C. ejaculatory duct
D. urethra
22. The ejaculatory duct attaches to the urethra in a region surrounded by the
A. seminal vesicles
B. prostate gland
C. urogenital diaphragm
D. urinary bladder
23. The epididymis and ductus (vas) deferens develop from the embryonic
A. genital tubercle
B. labioscrotal swelling
C. paramesonephric duct
D. mesonephric duct
24. A male is likely to be infertile if his sperm count is below _____ per mL of semen.
A. one thousand
B. ten thousand
C. one million
D. twenty million
26. At birth, hundreds of thousands of oogonia are present in each ovary at birth, but only about
_____ of these will mature and ovulate.
A. fifty
B. four hundred
C. four thousand
D. half
30. The uterus is attached to both sides of the pelvic cavity by the
A. round ligaments
B. broad ligaments
C. oviducts
D. cardinal ligaments
32. The normal flexure of the uterus, projecting it anteriorly and superiorly over the vagina, is called
A. uterine prolapse
B. dorsiflexion
C. anteflexion
D. retroflexion
36. The small folds that are lateral to the vaginal opening are the
A. hymen
B. clitoris
C. labia minora
D. mons pubis
38. The last tubes through which milk flows before it reaches the outside through the nipple are the
A. lactiferous ducts
B. lactiferous sinuses
C. mammary ducts
D. secondary tubules
39. The American Cancer Society recommends that a woman should have a baseline mammogram
taken, to serve as a comparison, between the ages of
A. 20 and 24
B. 25 and 29
C. 30 and 34
D. 35 and 39
40. Which of the following hormones have the greatest direct control over the changes in the uterus?
A. GnRH
B. FSH and LH
C. estrogens and progesterone
D. inhibin and relaxin
42. Which hormone has effects on general metabolism to increase protein production and reduce
cholesterol production as well as controlling the reproductive cycle in the female?
A. estrogens
B. progesterone
C. FSH
D. LH
43. __________ increases the flexibility of the pubic symphysis at the end of pregnancy.
A. estrogen
B. progesterone
C. relaxin
D. inhibin
44. The mature (Graafian) follicle continues to enlarge and increase its estrogen production during
the
A. menstrual phase
B. preovulatory phase
C. ovulation phase
D. postovulatory phase
45. The hormone responsible for stimulating the development of the secondary follicles in the ovary
is
A. progesterone
B. FSH
C. LH
D. GnRH
46. An over-the-counter test is now available for purchase that indicates ovulation. This test
measures the levels of
A. estrogens
B. FSH
C. GnRH
D. LH
49. The birth control method that is based on knowledge of certain physiological changes that occur
during the menstrual cycle is
A. coitus interruptus
B. sympto-thermal
C. the intrauterine device
D. the cervical cap
50. Menarche is
A. the same as menopause
B. the permanent cessation of menses
C. the first menses
D. when oogenesis begins
2. After implantation
A. the morula becomes the blastocyst
B. the trophoblast develops into two layers
C. the embryoblast forms the cytotrophoblast
D. the syncytiotrophoblast is replaced by the blastocoele
5. After implantation, the only tissue of the developing embryo to come in direct contact with
maternal tissue is the
A. zona pellucida
B. embryoblast
C. blastocoele
D. trophoblast
6. If a man with hemophilia marries a woman who does not carry the hemophilia gene, which of the
following concerning their children is probable?
A. All of the sons will be carriers
B. All of the sons will have hemophilia
C. All of the daughters will be carriers
D. One half of the sons will have hemophilia and one half will be carriers
7. In Down's syndrome
A. females are lacking one X chromosome
B. males have an extra X chromosome
C. there are three copies of at least part of chromosome 21
D. sickle cell disease results from an extra chromosome
9. Functional changes that sperm undergo in the female reproductive tract which allow them to
fertilize a secondary oocyte are termed
A. syngamy
B. fertilization
C. capacitation
D. implantation
10. A mother with blood type B and a father with blood type A have four children. One child is type
AB, one is A, one is B, and one is type O. Which of the following represents the genotypes of
the parents?
A. IA i x IB i
B. IA IA x IB i
C. IA i x IB IB
D. IA IA x IB i
12. Fertilization in a laboratory dish and transfer of the developing embryo into the uterus is called
A. in vitro fertilization
B. embryo transfer
C. gamete intrafallopian transfer (GIFT)
D. ectopic pregnancy
20. The testes have descended into the scrotal sac of a male fetus that is
A. in the second month of development
B. in the third month of development
C. in the fifth month of development
D. full-term
21. Early pregnancy tests depend on the detection of _____ in the urine.
A. estrogen
B. human chorionic gonadotropin
C. chorionic progesterone
D. follicle stimulating hormone
22. At the end of a full-term of pregnancy, the top of the uterus reaches
A. the top of the pelvic rim
B. the level of the umbilicus (navel)
C. the lower surface of the stomach
D. nearly to the xyphoid process of the sternum
23. Chorionic villi sampling (CVS),although riskier, has an advantage over amniocentesis because
CVS
A. involves removal of fluid only
B. never has any negative side effects
C. yields test results in a few days
D. can be performed during the second week of pregnancy
24. Which of the following is NOT a change that occurs after birth, as a fetus becomes a newborn
baby?
A. the lungs fill with air for the first time
B. the umbilical arteries fill with connective tissue
C. the ductus arteriosus provides a connection to the inferior vena cava
D. foramen ovale closes and becomes the fossa ovalis
25. If pregnancy continues for two weeks beyond the due date, there is a chance of brain damage to
the fetus because of
A. breakdown of fetal red blood cells
B. an aging placenta
C. overstretching of the uterus
D. disintegration of the umbilical cord
26. A hormone called _____, released from the anterior pituitary gland stimulates the production of
milk by the mammary glands.
A. relaxin
B. oxytocin
C. prolactin
D. luteinizing hormone
28. If a couple are both heterozygous for the gene that causes phenylketonuria, the probability that
their first child will have PKU is
A. 25 percent
B. 50 percent
C. 75 percent
D. 100 percent
30. How many alleles are present in humans that produce the phenotypes of the four blood types of
the ABO blood groups?
A. one
B. two
C. three
D. four
32. The gene for red-green colorblindness is represented by the symbol 'c'. The normal allele is
represented by 'C'. An individual with the genotype XC Xc would be a
A. color-blind female
B. normal carrier female
C. normal male
D. color-blind male