What Criminologist Knows by CJPR PDF

CSC-Antipolo City Pride/What Criminologist Knows?
/2016
1 | P a g e COMPREHENSIVE WHAT CRIMINOLOGISTS KNOWS QUESTIONARES/Charlemagne James P. Ramos R.C.,

J.D./2016
CSC-Antipolo City Pride/What Criminologist Knows?/2016
PREFACE
This Opuscule was conceptualized as a sort of guidance for criminology students and
candidates of criminology board exam. For the techniques of easy understanding, application,
memorizing and recollection of every topics covered by each subjects, the author has
endeavoured to sub-classify the sub-topics in every subject area of the criminologist licensure
examination. Previous board questions are reproduced and included herein to acquaint the
candidates with the question asked in the past. The questions that call for controversial answers
are incorporated and the notes or suggested answers given can be adopted. The book What
Criminologist Knows? A Comprehensive Reviewer for Criminologist Licensure Examination is
only a piecemeal that could not stand and needed to be amplified. As time goes by the author
hope that this opus would not be an end of the studying process and will continue though in
scripted. May this work be a humble piece in enlightening minds of the criminology students and
candidates of criminology board exam, more importantly this work may never be done without
the help of ALMIGHTY MAKER. Mabuhay Criminology Pilipinas!!!
CJPR

J.D./2016
DEDICATION
This work is dedicated to all Criminology students, Professors and to the Authors Alma Mater
Sumulong College of Arts and Sciences, College of Criminal Justice Education.
To all the Teams that Id set my heart and who filled my soul, Team LAPAY, Team AIDA, and
Team ALPHA. To my Mentor Dr. Rommel K. Manwong I will be forever indebted for you of
what I am now.
TO GOD BE ALL THE GLORY...

J.D./2016
About the Author

Charlemagne James P. Ramos obtained his Bachelor of Science in
Criminology from Sumulong College of Arts and Sciences College of
Criminal Justice Education in 2013 and subsequently passed the
October 2013 Criminologist Licensure Examination with the rating of
88.05. At the young age he became a professor at the same school and
a national lecturer to various review centers in the Philippines. He is
currently completing his degree in Juris Doctor at the Polytechnic
University of the Philippines College of Law. His experience for
being an Assistant Director to Dr. Rommel K. Manwong Criminology
Solutions at Baguio City makes him specialized in training candidates
of the Criminology Licensure Examination evidence are the
Registered Criminologist of various schools he had produced in the
first row of years in the practice as a Criminologist.

J.D./2016
What Criminologist Knows?

600 ITEMS QUESTIONARES FOR
CRIMINAL LAW AND JURISPRUDENCE
Charlemagne James P. Ramos R.C., J.D.
CRIMINAL LAW 1 (BOOK 1, RPC)
CRIMINAL LAW 2 (BOOW 2, RPC) WITH SPECIAL

PENAL LAWS
RULES ON CRIMINAL PROCEDURE

(RULE 110-127)
RULES ON EVIDENCE
(RULE 128-134)
PRACTICE COURT (COURT TESTIMONY)
YOU MAY BE GOOD BUT IT COULD NOT STAND STILL, DO NOT GIVE LIMITS AND MAKE A
DIFFERENCE.
-Charlemagne James P. Ramos
1 | P a g e QUESTIONARES for CRIMINAL LAW AND JURISPRUDENCE/Charlemagne James P. Ramos R.C.,

J.D./2016
CRIMINAL LAW BOOK 1 (RPC)
INSTRUCTION: Read the questions very carefully befose you answer.

Avoid erasure. Write legibly. Write your answers to the ANSWER SHEET
provided. Pick only the letter corresponding to the correct answer.
1. It is the forfeiture or loss of the right of the state to prosecute

the offender or file criminal action after the lapse of a certain
period of time.
A. Prescription of penalty C. Combination A & B
B. Prescription of crime D. None of the above
2. Is the loss or forfeiture of the state to execute the sentence

following his conviction after the lapse of certain period of time
A. Prescription of crime C. Combination of A & B
B. Prescription of penalty D. None of the above
3. The penalties of death and reclusion perpetua prescribe in ;

A. 10 yrs C. 20 yrs
B. 15 yrs D. 30 yrs
4. Light penalties shall prescribe in;

A. 6 months C. 2 years
B. 1 year D. 5 years
5. A,B & C raped W in that when A was having sex with W,B & C were
holding the legs and arms of W. When it was B's turn, A & C were the
ones holding W's legs and arms. When C was the one having sex with W,
the ones holding W arms and legs were A & B. Later, A succeeded in
courting W and later A contracted marriage with W. Is the criminal
liability for rape committed by A B & C extinguished ?
A. There is no extinction of penalty liability because marriage
of the offended party with the offender does not apply to multiple
rapes.
B. Yes, the marriage of the offender with the offended party
shall extinguish the criminal action or remit the penalty already
imposed
C. When a single act constitutes two or more grave felonies or
less grave felonies known as compound crime
D. When an offense is a necessary means of committing the other
is the complex crime is proper
6. There is complex crime when ;

A. When a single act constitutes two or more grave felonies
known as compound crime ;
B. When an offense is a necessary means of committing the other
is the complex crime proper ;
C. Compound crime because the single act of shooting resulted to
or more grave felonies ;
D. A & B only
7. A with a revolver shot B, missing him but the bullet hit X who is
A's father. A committed the crime of attempted homicide with parricide.
What kind of a complex crime is committed ?
A. Compound crime because the single act of shooting resulted to
two or more grave felonies
B. Complex crime proper
C. Complex crime
D. A & B only
8. Is a kind of executive clemency whereby the execution of penalty is

suspended ?
A. Penalty C. Amnesty
B. Reprieve D. Civil interdiction

J.D./2016
9. The penalty imposed by the court upon an offender is reduced to a

lighter one.
A. Com mutation of sentence C. Amnesty
B. Reprieve D. Penalty
10. It is an accessory penalty provided by law when the principal

penalty imposed upon the offender for the commission of a crime is
more than twelve years imprisonment.
A. Amnesty C. Civil interdiction
B. Capital offense D. All of the above
11. It is one, which, under the law existing at the time of its
commission and at the time of the application to be ad mitted to bail
may be punished by death, although a lower penalty than death may be i
mposed after conviction.
A. Complex crime C. Complex crime
B. Civil interdiction D. Continuos offense
12. Is a kind of a crime which is committed by a person who performs

an act which would be an offense against person or property , were it
not for the inherent impossibility of its accomplishments or on
account of the employment of inadequate or ineffectual means.
A. Complex crime C. Prescription of
crime
B. Impossible crime D. Prescription of
penalty
13. It may be defined as a disposition under which a dependant after

conviction and sentence is release subject to the conditions imposed
by the court and the provision of a probation officer
A. Indemnification C. Amnesty
B. Reparation D. Probation
14. A person lends Juan the bolo, which was used in the murder of
another person, is liable as of the crime ?
A. Principal C. Accomplice
B. Accessory D. Conspirator
15. Person who aid the felons to hide away evidences or profit from
the fruits of the crimes are said to be .
B. Accessories D. Conspirator
16. A kidnapped a boy and demanded a ransom of P100,000,00 from the

boy's parents. In time, the ransom was paid and the victim was
released. When X (A's adopted sister) learned that A was being hunted
by the police for kidnapping, she (X) took (A) into her house and
concealed him . A was able to elude the police. What is the criminal
liability of X, if any?
A. No criminal liability as she was within the degree from
criminal liability
B. Principal
C. Accessory
D. Accomplice
17. A proposed to B that they rob a certain store, to which B agreed,

later, however, B undertook the robbery alone and made off with
P20.000.00 cash . The following day, after making some shallow
explanation, B apologized to A and gave the latter P2.000.00 which A
some what grudgingly accepted. What is A's liability . If any ?
B. Accessory D. Conspirators
18. To be appreciated as mitigating, it must be made to person in

authority or his agent; it may be present if made after the issuance
of a warrant of arrest, but before actual arrest is made

J.D./2016
A. Voluntary surrender C. Habitually reiteration

B. Recidivism D. Treachery
19. This kind of aggravating circumstance is present when a person

commits any of crimes against person, employing such means, methods or
forms in the execution, without risk to himself arising from the
defense which the offended party might make
A. Accomplishes C. Treachery
B. Principal D. Accessories
20. In its juridical sphere, it means the suffering undergone, because

of the action of society . By one who commits a crime hence. It can
only be imposed after conviction in a criminal action
A. Amnesty C. Recidivism
B. Pardon D. Penalty
21. It is one for which the law impose a single punishment for various
offenses. It is committed in either of two ways; when a single act
constitutes two or more grave or less grave offenses; or when an
offense is a necessary means for committing another
A. Continuous crime C. Capital offense
B. Complex crime D. Impossible crime
22. It means the mercy extended by the chief executive to a person

sentenced for an offense whereby the personal effects of the penalty
are suspended subject to the conditions, if accepted by the person
sentenced, the effect of freeing him from imprisonment if he is
deprived of liberty; or from preventing him from changing his
residence as he pleases, if he is sentenced to exile.
A. Conditional pardon C. Deduction for loyalty
B. Good conduct allowance D. Indemnification
23. This allowance is deducted from the period of a prisoner's

sentence: 5 days for each month of good behavior for two years
imprisonment: during the 3rd year confinement, 8 days for each month
of good behavior; following years until the 10th year, 10 days for
each month of good behavior; during the 11th year and successive yrs
of his imprisonment, 15 days for each month of good behavior
A. Deduction of loyalty C. Good conduct allowance
B. Amnesty D. Conditional pardon
24. It is the deduction of one-fifth (1/5) of the period of the

sentence of a prisoner if he, having evaded the service of sentence
because of calamity or any disorder under art. 158 gives himself up to
the authorities within 48 hours following the issuance of a
proclamation regarding the passing away of the calamity
A . Amnesty C. Conditional pardon
B. Good conduct allowance D. Special time allowance for loyalty
25. It is a sovereign act of oblivion for past acts, granted by the

government to a certain class of person charged or guilty of crime
usually political offenses and often conditioned upon their return to
obedience and duty within a prescribed time
A. Amnesty C. Prejudicial question
B. Indemnification D. Treason
26. X, Y & Z conspired to kill A. They went to the house of A. Upon

arrival, Z only acted as look-out in the yard of A, Y accompanied X to
the room where A was sleeping; it was X who shot A to death what
is the participation of X.Y & Z to the crime of murder?
A. X, Y & Z are principals by direct participation
B. X & Y are principals by direct participation
C. Z as accomplice
D. Y as accomplice

J.D./2016
27. Person who received and used property from another, knowing it was
stolen
A. Principal C. Accessory
B. Accomplice D. Principal by direct participation
28. Placing a weapon in the hand of the dead who was killed to plant
evidence, or buying the deceased who was killed by the principal
B. Accessory D. Direct participation
29. An accessory is exempt from criminal liability when the principal

is his:
A. Spouse, ascendants, descendants, brothers and sister
B. Nephew, uncle, niece and aunt
C. Brother-in-law & sister-in-law
D. Half-brother or sisters
30. X is chief of police in town A his son committed murder whom he

helped in escaping by providing him money and motorcycle. Is liable?
A. Accessory because his public functions
B. Accessory but exempted from criminal liability by virtue of
relationship
C. Accomplice he abuses his public functions
D. Accomplice but exempted from criminal liability by virtue
of relationship
31.X is the mother of C who has just stolen jewelries worth

P300,000.00. X sold the jewelries and gave the proceeds to her
daughter C in order to elude arrest and prosecution. Is X liable?
A. Accessory before the fact
B. Accessory but exempted because the principal is he daughter
C. Accessory but not exempted even if she is related to C (mother and
daughter) as she assisted C to profit by the effects of the crime
D. A & B only
32. It is a law which: a makes criminal an act done before the passage
of the law or which aggravates a crime or make it greater than it was,
when committed
A. Ex post facto law C. Amnesty
B. Bill of attainder D. Treason
33. A legislative act which inflicts punishment without trial.

A. Ex post facto law C.treason
B. Bill of attainder D. Amnesty
34. Pardon by the offended party, as general rule, does not extinguish
the criminal liability to the offender, except
A. Private offense and before the institution of the criminal action
B. Public crime or crimes against the state
C. Private crime or crimes against the state
D. B & C only
35. In adultery and concubinage, pardon by the offended party will bar
criminal prosecution if:
A. Express or implied pardon given to the wife or husband.g as the
case may be and before the institution of the criminal action
B. Express or implied pardon given to the both offenders and before
the institution of the criminal action
C. Both offenders are express before the institution of the criminal
action
D. A & B
36. In cases of seduction, abduction and acts of lasciviousness,

pardon by the offended by the offended party or by parents or
grandparents or guardian will bar prosecution provided the pardon is
given before the institution of criminal action, except:

J.D./2016
A. Marriage between the offender and the offended party even after the
filing of the case and conviction of the offended party
B. Remit the penalty already imposed against the offender, his co-
principals, accomplices and accessories
C. The penalty is ready to imposed against the offended party
D. A & B only
37. A fine of from P200.00 to P6,000.00 imposed by the court after due
hearing is
A. Afflictive C. Light
B. Correctional D. Heavy
38. Destierro is principal, divisible and correctional penalty imposed
by the judge after due trial in cases of:
A. Serious physical injuries or death under exceptional circumstances
B. Of concubine in concubinage
C. Of paramour in adultery case
D. A & B
39. In the execution of destierro, the convict shall not be permitted

to enter the place designated in the sentence nor within the radius
specified
A. Not be more than 250 and not less than 25kms form the place
designated
B. Not be more than 350 and not less than 50kms
C. Not be more than 300 and not less than 30kms
D. Not be more than 325 and not less than 40kms
40. Those who directly forces another to commit a crime are also
categorized as:
A. Principal by the direct
B. Principal by inducement
C. Principal by indispensable cooperation
D. Principal by indirect cooperation
41 A & B agreed to rape C they proceeded to the room of C whereupon A

with a knife pointed to the neck of C ordered C to lie down and when A
was having sex with C, B was holding both arms of C. What is the
liability of B?
A. Principal by direct participation
B. Principal by inducement
C. Principal by indispensable cooperation
D. Principal by indirect cooperation
42. A & B are charged with kidnapping. A contacted X who, has not
participated in the actual kidnapping to contact the parents of the
victim to negotiate the delivery of ransom. X having successfully done
so, receives a share from the same. He is also a:
A. Accomplice C. Principal
B. Accessory D. Conspirator
43. Suppose X being a co-conspirator in the theft or robbery, sold

some of the property stolen, he should be punished as a:
A. Accessory C. Principal
B. Accomplice D. Conspirator
44. A rapes a woman and in his escape he was assisted by public

officer. The public officer is liable as:
A. Accessory C. Principal
B. Accomplice D. Co-conspirator
45. Suppose in the same problem, A was assisted by a private

individual. Is the private person liable as an accessory ?
A. No, crime committed was not treason, murder , parricide ,
act.
B. Yes, because he assisted in the escape of a person who
committed a serious crime

J.D./2016
C. Yes, crime committed was treason , murder , parricide, etc.

D. No, because he assisted in the escape of a person who not
committed a serious crime
46. A is charged for attempted homicide and the trial is still going
on for more than 6 yrs and he has been detained from the beginning on
the trial on failure to post a bail band. What should the court do ?
A. He shall order the immediate release of A
B. The trial should proceed until terminated
C. He shall not in order the immediate release of A
D. A % B only
47.light offenses prescribed in:

A. 2 months C. 6 months
B. 3 months D. 4 months
48. The period of prescription shall commence to run from the day of
discovery of the crime by the offended party , the authorities ofr
their agents. Suppose A witnessed the killing of X by B, and since A
not being related to X, he did not report the crime to the authorities.
Will the crime of murder prescribe?
A. Yes, after the lapse of 20 yrs C. No, after the
lapse of 15 yrs
B. No, the crime will never prescribe D. Yes, the crime
never prescribe
49. Suppose in the same problem above, A reported to the police

authorities what he she witnessed, but no complaint is filed in the
court. Will the crime of murder prescribe?
A. Yes, after 20 yrs and 1 day from the discovery of the
crime.
B. No, the crime will never prescribe because the one who
discovered the crime is not the offended party, the authority or its
agent
C. No, after 15 yrs and 2 days from the discovery of the
crime
D. Yes, the crime will not never prescribe because the one
who discovered the crime is the offended party.
50. Every person criminally liable for a felony also civil liable.
Thus, if A committed murder, he is obliged to pay the offended party
the civil liability which includes:
A. Restitution C. Indemnification for consequential
damages
B. Reparation of damage caused D. All of the above
51.The classes or different classifications or circumstances

affecting criminal liability are the following, except:
A. Justifying C. Aggravating
B. Probable cause D. alternative
52. A person who acts by virtue of a ___________ circumstances is

deemed not to have transgressed the law, and is free from both
criminal and civil liability.
A. Justifying C. Aggravating
B. Exempting D. alternative
53.One who acts by virtue of an _____________ circumstance commits a

crime but does not incur any criminal liability because of the
complete absence of the condition which make the act voluntary.
A. Aggravating C. Justifying
B. Alternative D. Exempting
54. A shots B hitting but not mortally . So B grappled for the

possession on the gun until B succeeded in wresting it from A.

J.D./2016
immediately thereafter, B shot A whom he killed. Prosecuted for

homicide, B interposed self-defense. Decide.
A. B can invoke self-defense because the provocation made by A in
shooting and wounding B is sufficient to prevent further harm to him
B. There was no self-defense since A was already disarmed hence
there was no more aggression to stop or repel as B shot A when he was
unarmed and defenseless.
C. There was self-defense since A already disarmed hence there
was no more aggression to stop or repel as B shot A when he was
already unarmed and defenseless
55. Is the accidental killing of by-stander, while X was acting in

self-defense , that is, in stopping or repelling the actual aggression
by Y against him.
A. Yes, for reckless imprudence resulting to homicide
B. Yes, X is liable for any crimes as he was not committing a
felony when he acted in self-defense although the wrongful act done be
different from what the intended to do
C. No, for reckless imprudence resulting to homicide
D. No, X is not liable for any crimes as he was not committing a
felony when he acted in self-defense although the wrongful act done be
different from what he intended to do
56. X was indebted to B when B tried to collect the indebtedness, X

insulted him, struck him with the fist and when B moved backward X
continued boxing him and so B drew his bolo and struck A to death.
Prosecuted for homicide , B pleaded self-defense decide.
A. B in acted self- defense to prevent or repel the unlawful
aggression of X
B, No, because the use of bolo by B may not be considered as a
reasonable means to repel X attack who used only his fist
C. Yes, because the use of bolo by B may be considered as a
reasonable means to repel X attack who used only his fist.
57. when a saw B rushing towards him holding a bolo and poised to
strike him, he immediately picked up a pointed iron bar and believing
that his life was in danger as B was close enough he made a trust on B
hitting him on the stomach which cause d the death of B. note that
the truth of a matter, however, is that B was merely trying to play
joke on C. Is A criminally liable
A. No, because he acted in self-defense due to mistake of fact
which was committed without fault or carelessness and he had no more
time to verify whether B was only playing a joke or not.
B. Liable because he had still time to move backward in order
check whether B had really the intention of hitting him with a bolo or
he was just playing a joke on him
C. Not liable because he had still time to move backward in order
check whether B really the intention of hitting him with the bolo or
he was just playing joke on him
58. Suppose, in the middle of the night and full moon at tha , X heard
the footsteps of an intruder inside their house . X picked up his
riffle and upon seeing a man armed with a pistol in his right hand
ransacking X personal effects, X shot and killed the man. Is X
criminally liable?
A. Yes, because defense of property requires that it will be
coupled with aggression against persons.
B. Yes, because he was acting in defense of property right the
means employed was reasonable considering that the intruder was armed
with a pistol
C. No, because he was acting in defense of property right and that
means employed reasonable considering that the intruder was armed with
a pistol.

J.D./2016
59. Suppose in the above question, X shot to death the man while he
was running away from X house carrying with him X television set, is X
criminally liable?
A. Yes, for murder qualified by treachery as the man was running
away from X house holding the television set hence he could not defend
himself
B. No, because he acted in defense of his property rights from an
intruder who robbed him of his TV set.
C. No, for murder qualified by treachery as the man was running
away from X house holding the television set hence he could not defend
himself
60. X has been working in hongkong. Feeling homesick after a long

absence , without notice, came home from hongkong upon arrival in
their residence at about 9:00pm,he immediately proceeded to their
bedroom where he saw his compadre on the top of his wife, both naked.
X immediately drew his gun but was beaten to a draw by his compadre
who shot and killed him. When prosecuted, X compadre put up the
defense that the killed X in self-defense.decide
A. X act in drawing his gun does not constitutes unlawful
aggression because such act of deceived and an offended husband
because the compadre was having an illicit relations with X wife and
so X justified in defending himself from an actual aggression by his
compadre
B. Although the compadre is performing an unlawful act for having
an illicit relationship with X wife , still he is justified in killing
X as his life is an actual danger
C. Although the compadre is not performing an unlawful act for
having an illicit relationship with X wife , still he is justified in
killing X as his life is an actual danger
61. X and Y tear down C house to stop the fire which break out in the
midst of many houses because if they do not demolish the said house
the fire would spread and burn other houses there by causing more
damage . are X and Y criminally liable?
A. Yes, because the practical thing for them to do is contact
firemen to prevent the spread of the fire
B. No, because they demolished C house in order to avoid an evil
or greater injury or preventing the fire spreading many houses
pursuant to article 11, par, 4
C. Yes, because they demolished C house in order to avoid an evil

or greater injury or not preventing the fire spreading many houses
pursuant to article 11, par, 4
62. The doctor who had kill the a foetus to save the mother where both
could not be saved, and he running out of time ,is not criminally
liable he can invoke.
A. state of necessity
B. Avoidance or greater evil as the death of the mother is
greater than sacrificing the life of the unborn child
C. he is exempted from criminal liability
D. all of the above
63. X hit Y with his fist inside a running passenger jeep because Y
was snatching his X watch, and as a consequence Y feel the jeep, his
head hitting the hard pavement causing his death. X acted in:
A. lawful exercise of right and therefore he is exempted from
criminal liability
B. lawful exercise of an office and is exempted from criminal
liability
C. lawful exercise of an office and is not exempted from
criminal liability.

J.D./2016
64. the executioner of convicts sentence to die, who would make the
lethal injunction on the day and time scheduled by the court does so
in the lawful
A. Exercise of an office, thus exempted from criminal liability
B. . Exercise of a right , thus exempted from criminal
liability
C . . Exercise of a right , thus not exempted from criminal
liability
65. One night C, married young woman, was sound sleep in her bedroom
when he felt a man on top of her. Thinking it was her husband who came
home early from his business trip; C let him have sex with her. After
the act the man said, I hope you enjoyed it as much as I did
realizing that he was not her husband, he got furious and so she took
her husband gun and shot the man. Change with homicide, C invoke
defense of honor. Decide.
A. Yes, C is justified in killing C who through deceit and bad
faith was able to sex with her
B. No, C is criminally liable because the unlawful aggression
against in honor had already ceased
C. No, C is justified in killing C who through deceit and bad
faith was able to sex with her
66. In mercy killing is the attending physician criminally liable for

deliberately turning off the life support system consequently costing
the life of the patient decide.
A. Yes, because euthanasia is neither a justifying nor
exempting circumstance
B. No, because he has no intention to kill his patient but only
to relive here from further sufferings
C. Yes, because he has no intention to kill his patient but
only to relive here from further sufferings
67. in justifying circumstance, the act committed is lawful hence

there is no was a crime committed and there is no ______ offense
A. crime C. Criminal
B. Criminality D. crimes
68. in exempting circumstance there was a crime committed there was a

crime committed , there is criminal but for reason of ___________ no
penal liability shall be imposed on the offender
A. Criminal C. public
policy
B.. crime D. public
crime
69.dreaming while sleeping; in a state of somnambulism or sleep

walking high fever due to malignant malarias and epilepsy are
circumstances analogous to insanity or imbecility falling under
A. justifying circumstance C. alternative
circumstance
B. exempting circumstance D. Aggravating
circumstance
70. A kleptomaniac was prosecuted for the chief of jewels committed in

a jewelry store while she was attacked by her said sickness is she
criminally liable?
A. no, being a kleptomaniac is analogous to insanity or
imbecility since at the time of stealing there is complete deprivation
of reason of freedom of the will at the time of its commission of the
crime
B. Yes because she knows what is right and what is wrong and
that she even knows that steal is wrong
C. No, because she knows what is right and what is wrong and
that she even knows that steal is wrong
10 | P a g e QUESTIONARES for CRIMINAL LAW AND JURISPRUDENCE/Charlemagne James P. Ramos

R.C., J.D./2016
71. A man while sleeping dreamed that he was attacked by his enemies .
suddenly he got up , took his bolo and killed his wife and wounded his
father . is he criminally liable? Decide.
A. the man is liable even if he did not intent to kill his
wife and wounding of his father which is analogous to mistake of
identity
B. no because he acted under circumstances which are analogous
to imbecile or insanity. As a result his hallucination he was
completely deprived of consciousness of his act
C. the man is not liable even if did not intent to kill his
wife and wounding his father which is analogous to mistake of identity
72. A person who was compelled to bury the body of one who was
murdered by the killers, striking him with the butts of their guns,
threatening to kill him too if he continuous resisting the order , was
compelled to do so , is not criminally liable because;
A. he acted under the compulsion of an irresistible force
B. he acted under the impulse of an uncontrollable fear of an
equal or greater injury
C. he acted under the compulsion of a resistible force.
73. A with a revolver in his hand threw a knife at B , and ordered him
to kill C a person sleeping nearby otherwise he will shot B to death
and being terrorized B killed C is B criminally liable for murder?
A. no, because he acted under the impulse of an
uncontrollable fear of an equal or injury
B. no because, acted under the compulsion of an irresistible
force
C. yes because, he acted under the impulse of an
uncontrollable fear of an equal or injury
D. yes because he acted under the compulsion of an
irresistible force
74. absolutory causes are causes provided for under the RPC which
exempts a person from criminal liability. They are:
A. he was acting in the performance of a duty
B. he was performing a lawful act with due care when he causes an
injury without the intention of causing it
C. due to accident
D. B % C only
76. A paramour who was surprised in the act of having sex with a
legally woman cannot invoke self-defense if he killed the offended and
deceived husband who was attack or assault by the offended husband
was;
A. lawful as he deceived by both the paramour and his wife and so
he has to defend his honor and rights.
B. the paramour knew that he was performing an unlawful and
criminal act thereby exposing himself to the vengeance of the offended
spouse
C. all the above
77. the person defending himself must have been attacked with actual
physical force or with actual use of weapon. Thus insulting words, a
light push on the head with the hand, a mere push without physical
assault do not constitute unlawful aggression. But a slap on the face
constitute unlawful aggression because;
A. the face represent a person and is dignity and is serious
physical attack
B. it is disregard of an individual personality
C. all of the above
78. the person criminally liable for felonies are;

A.Principals C.Accesories

R.C., J.D./2016
B. accomplices D. all of the above
79. for light offenses, the person criminally liable are;

A. princ C. accessories
B. accomplices D. A % B only
80.there are three kinds of principals, namely;

A. principal by induction/inducement
B. principal by indispensible cooperation
C. principal by direct participation
D. all of the above
81. those who participating in the criminal resolution proceeded to
the crime scene and personally execute what they agreed upon or
executing said acts, which directly tend to the same end or purpose
they are called;
A. principal by direct participation
B. principal by indispensible cooperate
C. principal by inducement
D. all of the above
82. those directly induce other to commit the crime and those the
crime and those who directly forces another to perpetrate the offense
are called?
A. principal by direct participation
B. principal by inducement
C. principal by indispensible cooperation
D. all of the above
83. those who cooperate in the commission of the offense by another

act without which it would not have been accomplished;
A. principal by inducement
B. principal by direct participation
C. principal by indispensible cooperation
D. all of the above
84. one who, not having participated as principal, cooperates in the

execution of the offense by previous or simultaneous act he is
sometimes referred to as accessories
A. accessory C. principal
B. accomplice D. all of the above
85. the accessories or accessories after the fact are those who,
having knowledge of the commission of the crime and without having
participated as principals or accomplices, takes part subsequent to
its commission in any of the following manner;
A. profiting themselves or assisting the offender to profit by the
effects of the crime or by concealing or destroying the body of the
crime or the effects or instruments thereof to prevent its discovery;
B. by harboring, concealing or assisting in the escaape of the
author of the crime with abuse of public functions
C. whenever a private individual assist in the escape of the
offender who committed treason, murder, parricide, and attempt to kill
the president.
D. all of the above
86. X, Y, % Z fired their guns almost simultaneously at the principal

victim , resulting in his death and his driver. Is there conspiracy
among the accused in the commission of the crime? Decide
A. there is conspiracy among the accused X, Y, % Z
B. simultaneous firing indicate unity of action, intention and
execution of the act as in conspiracy proof of previous agreement is
not necessary;
C. individual liability only of the accus
D. no conspiracy

R.C., J.D./2016
87. X is driving his car with a duly issued drivers licensed X is in

the proper lane and within the limits prescribed by law, who hits a
boy who suddenly darted into the street. X is not liable because of
exempting circumstance due to;
A. Accident C. Prevented to perform by lawful
cause
B. Absolutory cause D. Habitual or reiteration
88. A kidnapped a boy and demanded a ransom of P100,000,00 from the

boy s parents in the time, the ransom was paid and the victim was
released. When X (As adopted brother ) learned that was being hunted
by the police for kidnapping he (X) took (A) into his house and
concealed him A was able to elude the police. What is criminal
liability of A. if any?
A. no criminal liability as she was within the degree exempt from
criminal liability
B. principal
C. accessory
D. accomplice
89. A proposed to B that they rob a certain store, to which B agreed.

Later, however , B undertook the robbery alone and made off with
P20,000.00 the following day, after making some shallow explanation, B
apologized to A and give the latter P2,000.00, which A somewhat
grudgingly accepted. What is As liability, if any?
A. principal C. Accomplice
B. accessory D. A % B only
90. to be appreciated as mitigating it must be made to person in

authority or his agents it may be present if made after the issuance
of a warrant of arrest, but before actual arrest is made.
A. voluntary surrender C. habituality or reiteration
B. recidivism D. Treachery
91. it is one which under the law existing at the time of its
commission and at the time of the application to be admitted to bail
may be punished by death, although a lower penalty than death may be
imposed after conviction.
A. complex crime C. capital offense
B. civil interdiction D. continuous offense
92. is a kind of crime which is committed by a person who performs an

act which would be an offense against person or property, were it not
for the inherent impossibility of its accomplishment or on account of
the employment of inadequate or ineffectual means.
A. complex crime C. Prescription
of crime
B. impossible crime D. prescription
of penalty
93. this means at least two convictions are enough the crimes are not
specified it is enough that they be embraced under the same title of
the RPC.
A. recidivism C. habitual or reiteration
B. treachery D. principles
94. this kind of aggravating circumstances at least 3 conviction are

required there are time limit of not more than 10 yrs between every
conviction the crimes are limited to less serious physical injuries,
robbery, theft, estafa, or swindling and falsification
A. treachery C. recidivism
B. habitual delinquency D. principles
95. this kind of aggravating circumstances is present when person

commits any of the crimes against person , employing such means method

R.C., J.D./2016
of form in the execution thereof which tend directly and specially to

insure its execution without risk to himself arising from the defense
which the offended party might make.
A. treachery C. accessories
B. principal D. accomplishes
96. it is one for which the law impose a single punishment for various
offenses it is committed in either of two ways when a single act
constitutes two or more grave or less grave offenses; or when an
offense is a necessary means for committing another.
A. continuous offense C. capital offense
B. complex crime D. impossible crime
97. X rapes a woman, and Y public officer with abuse of authority

assisted X in his escape Y is liable as
A. accomplice C. accessory
B.principal D. all of the above
98. where A knowing that B & C had killed X buried the corpse of X to
prevent the discovery of the killing A is liable as;
A. accomplice
C. principal by direct cooperation
B. accessory for destroying the body of the crime
D. all of the above
99. A, with a revolver, shot B missing him but the bullet hit and
killed As father A committed the crime of attempted homicide with
parricide. What type of crime was committed?
A. complex crime C. special crime
B. compound crime D. all of the above
100. X, a municipal treasurer, received P10,000.00 from a taxpayer.

Placed in the duplicate original of the receipt he issued the amount
of P1,000.00 only and then misappropriated the difference of P9,000.00
X is guilty of malversation through falsification of public document.
What type of the crime was committed?
A. complex crime proper C. compound crime
B. special crime D. all of the above
***END***

R.C., J.D./2016
CRIMINAL LAW BOOK 2 (RPC) SET ONE
1. This felony is a branch of allegiance, which is the

obligation of fidelity and obedience a citizen, owes to the
government or sovereign in return for the protection he enjoys
and receives.
A. Aid and comfort C. misprision of treason
B. Treason D. adherence to the enemy
2. A citizen who intellectually or emotionally favors the enemy

and harbors sympathies or connections disloyal to his countrys
interest or policy is guilty of:
A.treason
B. Aid and comfort
C. Adherence to the enemy
D. misprision of treason
3. This is committed by any person who. Without authority

therefore enters a warship. Fort, or a naval or military
establishment or reservation, to obtain any information , plans ,
photographs or other data of a confidential nature relative to
the defense of the Philippines etc.
A. warcrime
B. sedition
C. Rebellion
D. espionage
4. The two-witness rule imports the degree of proof necessary to

convict an accused of the crime of:
A.levyingwar
B.treason
C.sedition
D. rebellion
5. When a public officer deprives a person of his liberty

without any legal ground, such officer may be held answerable
for:
A.illegaldetention
B.Expulsion
C. arbitrary detention
D. trespass to dwelling
6. A public officer or employee who, not being authorized by

judicial order, enters any dwelling against the will of the
owner thereof, shall research the premises without the previous
consent of the owner or having surreptitiously entered the
dwelling and when asked to leave refuses to do so, is liable for
the crime of:
A.expulsion
B.violation of domicile
C. probable causes
D. trespass to dwelling
7. In this crime, there is public and tumultuous uprising in

order to attain by force, intimidation, or any other mean, like
the prevention of the execution of laws or the holding of an
election.
A.directassault
B.Treason
C.Rebellion
R.C., J.D./2016
D.sedition
8. When a person attack, employs force, seriously intimidates or

seriously resists a person in authority or his agent while
engaged in the performance of official duties or on the occasion
of said performance, he can be charged with.
A.resistance
B. indirect assault
C. direct assault
D. sedition
9.The act of diminishing, by ingenious mean, the metal content

in the coin may give birth to an accusation called:
A.forgery
B. mutilation of coin
C. falsified
D. false or counterfeit coin
10. Person directly vested with jurisdiction: whether as

individuals or as members of some court or government
corporations, board or commission, are denominated:
A.persons in authority persons in authority
B. pubic officers
c. agents of persons in authority
11. This is the willful and corrupt assertion of falsehood under

oath of affirmation, administered by authority of law on a
material matter:
A.fraud
B.persons in authority
C. perjury
D. story-telling
12. For the act to be punishable in this act of falsification of

document, there must be a showing that some prejudice or damage
to a third party had been caused or intended. To be caused.
A. falsification of commercial document
B. falsification of private document
C. falsification of public document
D. falsification of official document
13. This is the act of a person who knowingly offers in evidence

a false witness or testimony in any judicial or official
proceeding.
A. perjury
B. subordination of perjury
C. false testimony
D. indirect bribery
14. A public officer who agrees to commit a criminal offense in

connection with the exercise of the powers of his office in
consideration of a price, reward , promise or gift is indictable
for:
A. Estafa
B. Moonlighting
C. direct bribery
D. indirect bribery

R.C., J.D./2016
15. This is the felony wherein a public officer does not account
for what he collects as a government employee and instead
misappropriates the fees collected.
A. malversation
B. illegal exaction
C. estafa
D. Corruption of public official
16. In this crime, a public officer who has under his custody or
charge a prisoner-serving sentence by final judgment or
detention prisoner and such officer connives with or consents to
the escapes of such prisoner.
A. jailbreak
B. evasion of service of sentence
C. infidelity in the custody of prisoner
D. dereliction of duty
17. A convict who escapes while serving his sentence by final

judgment is committing another crime called:
A. infidelity in the custody of prisoner
B. Jailbreak
C. evasion of service of sentence
D. Discarte
18.A father who intentionally kills his son who is only less
than three (3) days old is guilty of the crime of:
A.murder
B.Parricide
C. infanticide
D. homicide
19. A Moro, with four wives who are all living , who kills by
poison the third wife married by him is answerable for:
A. Parricide
B. Murder
C.Homicide
D.Death under exceptional circumstances
20. A grandson who kills his illegitimate grandfather is guilty

of:
A.Homicide
B.Parricide
C. Murder
D.Euthanasia
21.In seduction and qualified seduction, excepting when the

victim is either the daughter or sister of the offender, the
woman seduced must be:
A. Over 10 but less than sixteen year of age
B.Over thirteen but fewer than 19 years of age
C. Over 12 but less than 18 years of age
D.Over 15 but less than 20 years of age
22. The taking of personal property against the will of its

owner and attended by violence against or intimidation of person
or force over things is :
R.C., J.D./2016
A. Theft
B. Estafa
C.Robbery
D. Coercion
23.In this crime, the offender employs ingenuity or cunning in

order to deprive the victim of his money or property
A. Robbery
B.Land grabbing
C.Theft
D. Estafa or swindling
24. This felony is characterized by a public and malicious

imputation of a crime, or of a vice or defect real or imaginary,
or any act, omission, condition, status or circumstance tending
to cause the dishonor, discredit, or contempt of a natural or
judicial person, or to blacken the memory of one who is dead.
A. Innuendo
B. violation of piracy
C.Libel
D.Black mail
25. Planting evidence by a police officer on a innocent person

arrested by the former constitutes:
A.Intriguing against honor
B. Blackmail
C. Incriminatory machination
D.Extortion
26.It is qualified theft when the coconuts stolen are taken from
the:
A. marketplace
B. premises of the coconut plantation
C.Residence
D.Illegal exaction
27. When a municipal treasurer collects payment of taxes from a

citizen issuing receipt therefore, such treasurer is liable for:
A. Malversation
B. Estafa
C. Theft
D. Illegal exaction
28. A concubine once proven guilty is punishable by:

A.Two (2) years imprisonment
B. Estafa
C.Destierro
D. fine of P3,000.00
29.Removing, concealing or destroying any court record is:

A. Malicious Mischief
B.Theft

R.C., J.D./2016
C. Estafa or swindling
D.Falsification
30. A legitimate grandmother killing her granddaughter who is

three (3) days old is guilty of:
A.Infanticide
B.Murder
C.Parricide
D.Homicide
31. Those directly vested with the jurisdiction to govern and
execute the laws whether as individuals or as members of some
court or government corporation board or commission.
A.Public officer
B.Persons in authority
C. false testimony
D.None of the above
32.Three man broke into a national authority (Government

Entity )forcibly destroyed the lock of the warehouse and
lamented sufferings of the people within the area. Thus, they
called on the people to help them eating all they could and then
to empty the warehouse of all the goods stored therein. The 3
men did not even help themselves to a single grain or any good.
What crime was committed?
A.Direct assault
B.Indirect assault
C.Sedition
D.All of the foregoing
33. X is division superintendent of school of the bureau of

public schools. While he was working in his office, Y gave him a
fist blow on the left temple. He suffered an injury. The assault
was due to a standing grudge of Y for Xs blocking his promotion
A) If the injury is slight physical injury, what crime was
committed?
A.Direct assault
B.Indirect assault
C.Slight physical injuries
D. All of the above
B) If the injury was serious physical injury, what crime was
committed?
A.Direct assault w/physical injuries
C.Maltreatment
B.Serious physical injuries
D.None of the above
34. Women who, for money or profit, habitually indulge in sexual
intercourse or lascivious conduct are deemed to be?
A. Vagrant
B.Prostitutes
C.None of the above
D.All of the above

R.C., J.D./2016
35. A) A is convicted for homicide and was sentenced to suffer

an imprisonment from 14 years and 1 day to 17 years. While
serving his sentence he was allowed to escape from his cell:
a) If the offender is the custodian of the convicted prisoner
what crime was committed?
A.Infidelity in the custody of prisoners
B.Evasion of service
C.Delivering prisoners from jail
D.All of the above
b) If the offender is not the custodian at the time of the
escape of said prisoner, what crime was committed?
A.Evasion of service
B.Delivering prisoners fromjail
C.No criminal liability
D.All of the above
c)What is the liability of the convicted prisoner serving his
sentence?
B.Delivering prisoners from jail
C. None of the above
D.All of the above
36. Any person who, by direct provision of the law, election or
appointment by competent authority, shall take part in the
performance of public function in the government or in any of
its branches public duties shall be deemed to be a..
A.Private individual
B.Public officer
C.None of the above
D.All of the above
37.It is committed by a public officer in charge of the
collection of the taxes, licenses, fees and etc. by demanding an
amount different or larger than that due the government: failing
to issue a receipt as provided by receiving payment objects
different from that provided by law.
A.Illegal exaction
B.Estafa
C.Maturation
D.None of the above
38.A, who is the private complainant in a murder case pending

before a regional trial court, gave to the presiding judge a
Christmas gift. Consisting of big basket of assorted goods and
fruits as well as expensive imported wines worth P20.000.00.the
judge accepted the gift knowing it came from A. what crime or
crimes committed?
A.Direct bribery
B.Indirect bribery
C.Qualified bribery
D.None of the above

R.C., J.D./2016
39.An unlicensed firearm was confiscated by a policeman. Instead

of turning over the firearm to the property custodian for the
prosecution of the offender, the policeman said the firearm.
A.Malversation
B.Qualified theft
C.Anti-fencing law
D. all of the above
40. A government cashier did not brother to put the public fund
in the public vault but just left in the drawer of his table,
which has no lock. The next morning when he came back, the money
was already gone .what crime was committed?
A.Technical Malversation
B.Malversation
C.No criminal liability
D.All of the above
41. A party to a case approached the courts stenographer and

proposed the idea of altering the transcript of stenographic
notes. The court stenographer agreed and he demanded P3,000.00
even before the stenographer could alter his notes. What crime
was committed?
A.Direct bribery
B.Qualified bribery
C.Indirect bribery
D.All of the above
42. While manning the traffic lights at theintersection of

espana and Washington st. patrolman X ordered Y To stop his
taxi, threatened to arrest him and confiscate his driver license
for allegedly over speeding and reckless driving. Familiar with
the dirty ways of some traffic policeman, Y pulled out his
wallet, picked up his drivers license with the hidden P200.00
inside the same and handed it to patrolman X thereafter, the
patrolman returned to Y His license and allows him to go. What
crime did Patrolman X commit?
A.Indirect bribery
B.Direct bribery
C. Robbery extortion
D. Corruption of public officer
.Under art.156 (delivering prisoners from jail, it is possible

that three persons are involved. They are the stranger,the
custodian of the prisoner is the prisoner. In the case, there
are three crimes committed.
44) if the offender is the custodian, the crime committed is

______ ?
A.Infidelity in the custody of the prisoners
B.No criminal liability
C.Evasion of service
D. None of the above
45) if the offender is a stranger even if he is a public

officer , the crime committed is ?

R.C., J.D./2016
C. All of the above
46) If the prisoner who escapes is a convict, the crime

committed is _____ ?
A.No criminal liability
C. Evasion of service
D.None of the above
47) However, if the prisoner is not a convict but a detention

prisoner he is not criminal liable.
48) But the detention prisonerconspires with the one letting his
escapes said is liable for _____ as principal by indispensable
cooperation.
A.Delivering prisoners from jail
B.Infidelity in the custody of the prisoner
C.Evasion of service
D.None of the above
49.An armed group. Avowed to overthrow the duty constituted

authorities, captured five officers and members of the armed
forces and held them in their hideout for 50 days then voluntary
released them in consideration of the promise of medical
treatment to be given to her comrades who were under detention
by the authorities . What crime was committed?
A.Rebellion
B.Sedition
C.coup detat
D.All of the above
50. In the early morning of June 1, 2005, the troops of soldiers

and officers of the AFP headed by colonel X stationed at camp
Aguinaldo. Q.C. withdrew firearms and bullets and attacked, in
separate teams, the offices of their chief of staff, the deputy
chief of staff for operations and intelligence and other offices,
held hostage of some of their senior officers, killed some pro-
government soldiers, inverted the Philippine flag, barricaded
all entrances and exits of the Philippine Army.Because of the
superiority of pro-government forces. Colonel X and his troops
surrendered at 1:00 in the morning of that day. What crimes were
committed?
A.Rebellion
B. coup detat
C.Conspiring to commit rebellion
D. Sedition
51.A group of soldier and policeman tried to serve a warrant of

arrest to a group of persons wanted for several crimes committed.
Instead surrendering and submitting themselves to the
authorities, they resisted the service of the warrant by force
but later on they were repelled or overpowered. What crime was
committed?
A. Rebellion
B. Sedition
R.C., J.D./2016
C.Conspiracy to commit sedition

D.All of the above
52. X disobeying a court order, was punished by the judge for

contemp. He waited for the judge to go out his office. Upon
seeing the judge, X hurriedly approached him, and without saying
a word struck him his fist causing a slight injury on the face
of the judge, what crime was committed?
A.Direct assault upon a person in authority
B.Physical injuries
C.Slight physical injuries
D.All of the above
53.X was charged with slight physical injuries. He listened

attentively as the judge read the sentence. When the judge
reached the dispositive portion and pronounced X guilty, X
became angry, got hold of an astray , and threw it at the judge
hitting him in the eye which is tantamount to laying hands on
the judge who is a person in authority. What crime was committed?
A.Qualified direct assault with serious physical injuries
B.Direct assault
C.Serious physical injuries
D.All of the above
54. This crime is committed by a public officer, whenever there

is pending before him matter in which woman is interested or
with respect thereto. He is required to submit a report to or
consult with a superior,and he solicits or makes an indecent or
immoral advances upon said woman.
A .Acts of lasciviousness
B.Abuses against chastity
C.Coercion
D. Unjust vexation
55. It is the act of a person of marrying for the second time,
before the former marriage has been legally dissolved or before
the absent spouse has been judicially declared presumptively
dead.
A.Polygamy
B.Bigamy
C.Immorality
D.All of the above
56.It is one containing matters which would, under the law, be

considered defamatory and therefore actionable but for the
occasion and circumstances under which they are made.
A.Libel
B.Slander
C.Blackmail
D.Privileged communication
57. These acts of punishable by law are either intended to
directly impute to an innocent person the commission of crime,
or which are calculated to blemish the honor or reputation of a
person by means of intrigue.
A. Incriminatory machinations

R.C., J.D./2016
B.Slander or oral defamation

C.Blackmail
D.All of the above
58. A police officer surreptitiously placed a marijuana

cigarette in the pocket of the polo shirt of a student and then
arrested the student for illegal possession of marijuana
cigarette. What crime did the police officer commit?
A.Incriminatory machination w/unlawful arrest]
B.Illegal detention: arbitrary detention
C.Illegal arrest
D.All of the above
59. A woman who has given birth to a child abandons the child in
a certain place to free herself of the obligation and duty of
rearing and caring for the child. What crime did the woman
commit?
A.Simulation
B.Abandoning a minor
C.All of the above
D.None of the above
60. Suppose that the purpose of the woman in abandoning the

child is to preserve the inheritance of her child by a former
marriage, what then is the crime committed?
A.Simulation of birth: substitution of one child for another:
B.Concealing or abandoning any legitimate child with intent to
cause such child to lose its civil status
C.All of the above
D.None of the above
61. Is or may be defined as the speaking of defamatory words or
the performance of acts, actuated by malice, which tend to cause
dishonor, discredit or contempt of natural or judicial person to
the latters reputation: office: business , or trade.
A.Incriminatory machination
B.Blackmail
C.Privileged communication
D.Slander or oral defamation
62.It is a public and malicious imputations of a crime, or of a

vice or defect, real or imaginary, or any act omission,
condition, status, or circumstances tending to cause the
dishonor, discredit, or contempt of a natural or judicial person,
or to blacken the memory of one who is dead.
A. Blackmail
B.Violation of piracy
C.Innuendo
D.Libel
63.in an article published in a newspaper, the writers called X

a bastard, a leper , a coward, a criminal , a rapist and a drug
addict. What crime is committed?
A.Slander
B.Libel
C.Defamation
D. All of the above

R.C., J.D./2016
64. Kissing a girl in public and touching her breast without

lewd designs committed by a rejected suitor to cast dishonor on
the girl, what crime was committed?
A.Slander
B.Slander by deed
C.Oral defamation
D.All of the above
65. Calling a person a gangster. What crime is committed?

A.Simple slander
B.Slander by deed
C.Libel
D.All of the above
66. X goes to a sauna parlor and finds a descendant of 22 yrs

old, and despite that,X had sexual intercourse with her. What
crime committed?
A.Qualified seduction
B.Seduction
C.Consented seduction
D.No crime was committed
67.X is the head of a family. Living with them in the house is a

cousin of his wife, a virgin under 18 years old but over 12
years. X had sexual intercourse with the cousin of her wife.
A. Seduction
B. Qualified seduction
C.Seduction w/consent
D.All of the above
68 X went to the house of his fiance of 17 yrs old, her parents

beingabsent, and waiting of that opportunity, with a renewal of
his promise to marry her, he succeeded in having sexual
intercourse with her. What crime was committed?
A.Seduction
B.Qualified seduction
C.None of the above
D.All of the above
69. A,B,C grabbed a girl of 16 years old then dragged her to a

nearby town. There she was raped by A,B & C, what crime was
committed?
A.Kidnapping with rape
B.Forcible abduction with rape
C.Coercion w/rape
D.All of the above
70. A girl, 16 yrsold, went to the house of his boyfriend. When

the man woke up, he was surprised to find her beside him on the
bed. As they were in love with each other, they has sexual
intercourse without the man promising anything to the girl. What
crime was committed?
A.Abduction
B.Seduction
C.Consented abduction
D.No crime was committed

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71.When a woman is kidnapped with lewd or unchaste designs, the

crime committed is:
A .Forcible abduction
B. Kidnapping
C. Illegal detention
D. Coercion
72.When the kidnapping is without lewd designs, the crime

committed is:
A. Illegal detention
B. Coercion
C. Forcible abduction
D. All of the above
73. But where the offended party was forcibly taken to the house
by the offender to force her to marry him, the crime committed
is :
A. Coercion
B. Illegal detention
C. Forcible abduction
74. If a girl, below 12 years old:Agreed to the elopement, what

A. Forcible abduction
B. Kidnapping
D. Coercion
75. After the voluntary elopement with the girl below 12 years
old, she and the man has sexual intercourse, what crime was
committed?
A. Forcible abduction with rape
B. Rape
C. Kidnapping with rape
76. X, by means of promises of marriage, induces a minor of 19

years old leave her house and then had sexual intercourse with
her and immediately thereafter she returns to her dwelling, what
A. Consented abduction
B. Seduction
C. Rape
D. No crime committed
77. A 15 years old girl was induced to leave her home and later
forcibly raped by the inducers. What crime was committed?
A. Consented abduction with rape
B. Rape
C. Forcible abduction with rape
D. All of the above
78. A issued in favor of B for a debt he has incurred a month or

so ago. When the check was presented for payment, it was
dishonored. What crime is committed?
A. Estafa
B. Violation of bouncing check law
C. Theft
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D. All of the above
79. Supposing,A approach his friend B and told B to deliver to

him p10, 000.00 and A would issue in his favor a check in the
sum of P11, 000,00 as it was a Sunday and A needed the cash
urgently. B gave P 10,000.00 to A having in mind the profit of
P1, 000.00 When he encashesthe check the following Monday.
However, when the check was presented for payment the check
bounced or dishonored. What crime was committed?
A. Estafa and violation of bouncing check law
B. No criminal liability
C. Theft
D. All of the above
80. This crime is committed in time of peace by rising publicly

with arms against the government for the purpose of removing
from the allegiance to said government or its laws, the
territory of the Philippines or any part thereof, of any body of
land, naval or other armed forces, or depriving the chief
executive or the legislative, wholly or partially, of any their
powers or prerogatives.
A. Treason
B. Rebellion
C. Direct assault
D. Indirect assault
81. There is a public and tumultuous uprising in order to attain

by force, intimidation, or any other means, like the prevention
of or executive of laws or the holding of a popular election.
A. Sedition
B. Rebellion
C. Direct assault
D. Indirect assault
82. This crime is committed by attacking, employing force,

seriously intimidating or seriously resisting any person in
authority or his agent, while engaged in the performance of
official duties or on the occasion of said performance
A. Direct assault
B. Rebellion
C. Indirect assault
D. Resistance
83. This crime committed upon a private person who comes to the
aid of an agent of a person in authority on direct assault
committed against the latter.
A. Indirect assault
B. Direct assault
C. Resistance
D. All of the above
84.Under art. 122, revised penal code, the crime of piracy is

committed by:
A. Non-member of the complement of the vessel & Non-passenger
of the vessel
B. Crew members of the vessel
C. All of the above

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85. Under R.A 7659, PD 532 and Art. 122, PRC, the crime of
piracy shall be committed by:
A. Member of the crew
B. Non-member of the vessel
C. Passenger of the vessel
D. B & C only
86. Piracy is committed by attacking the vessel on ____ or

seizing it while a vessel, its cargo, equipment or personal
belongings of its complement or passenger.
A. High seas
B.In Philippine water
C. A only
D. A & B
87. The essence of piracy is robbery in a vessel or using with

force upon things or with violence or intimidation against
persons or robbery:
A. Robbery
B. Piracy
C. Theft
D. A & C only
88. Whenever the pirates have abandoned or seized a vessel by

firing upon it or whenever the crime is accompanied with murder,
homicide, physical injuries or rape the crime committed is:
A. Qualified theft
B. Piracy
C. Qualified piracy
D. A & B only
89. Republic Act (RA) 6235 is otherwise known as:

A. Piracy
B. Anti-Hi-Jacking Law
C. Qualified Piracy
D. A & C Only
90. A PAL aircraft is bound for Cebu Pacific. While the pilot
and co-pilot are taking their snacks at the airport canteen,
some armed men were also there who followed the pilots in going
to the aircraft. As soon the pilot entered the cockpit, they
pulled their firearms, and compelled the pilots to fly the
aircraft to zamboanga and ordered the exteriors doors of PAL be
closed and so all exterior doors were closed. But in a short
while the offender were apprehended. The crime committed is:
A. Violation of the Anti-Hi-Jacking Law because the aircraft is
in flight already as the exterior doors were closed:
B.The Anti-Hi-Jacking Law does not apply because the aircraft is
not yet in flight hence, the crime committed is grave threats or
grave coercion
C. Piracy
D. Qualified Piracy
91. After all the passengers of Cebu Pacific aircraft have

boarded already and the exterior doors were already closed: a
passenger was shot or killed in the course of Hi-Jacking the
airplane. What crime was committed?
A. Violation of Anti-Hi-Jacking Law
B. Murder as the Anti-Hi-Jacking Law does not apply
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C. Piracy
D. Qualified Piracy
92. The offenders threatened to explode a bomb inside the

airplane after its passenger have already boarded and the
exterior doors were all closed if the pilots refused to start
the engine and to fly it in communist china. The crime committed
is:
A. Anti-Hi-Jacking Law since airplane is already in flight
B. Grave threat and coercion were committed because the Anti-Hi-
Jacking does not apply
C. All of the above
93. The pilots of the Cathay Pacific aircraft were approached by

2-armed men and told to proceed to the aircraft to fly it to
foreign destination. The armed men and the pilots went together
on board the aircraft and while exterior doors were able to
disarm said armed men before they could do something. What crime
is committed?
A. Hi-jacking is committed in violation of Anti-Hi-Jacking Law
because the aircraft is of foreign registry:
B. Hi-jacking is not committed because the plane is not yet in
flight
C. The crime committed is grave threat or grave coercion
94. The meanings of absence of legal grounds in arresting and

detecting a person by a public officer who is vested with
authority to arrest and detain a person:
A. No crime was committed by the detained person.
B. There is no violent insanity of the detained person
C. The detained person has no ailment requiring compulsory
confinement in a hospital:
D. All of the above
95. A public officer shall commit illegal detention and not

arbitrary when:
A. When his duty or function does not include the power to
arrest and detain a person.
B. Acting in a private capacity or beyond the scope of his
official duty
C. He becomes an accomplice or accessory to the crime committed
by a private person.
D. All of the above
96. A janitor, a public employee at Pasay city hall was assigned

to clean toilets in the office of the treasurer. One day, he
noticed a fellow urinating carelessly, partly at the bowl and on
the floor. The janitor got angry and so he locked the toilet
while the man was still urinating. The man was freed from the
toilet after several hours. The janitor is liable for:
A. Arbitrary detention
C. Unlawful arrest
D. A & C Only
97. When a person is arrested without a warrant, it means that

there is no case filed in court yet. If the arrest is by virtue
of a warrant, it means that there is already a case. While
delivery of the arrested person to the proper authorities does

R.C., J.D./2016
not mean physical delivery of the arrested person to the court

but simply means:
A. Putting arrested person under the jurisdiction of the court
B. By filling the compliant or information against the person
arrested in court within 12, 18 or 36 hours, as the case be,
depending on whether the crime is punished by light,
correctional penalty or their equivalent:
C. All of the above
98. B arrested C without legal grounds and for the purpose of

delivering him to the proper authorities. If the arrest is made
without a warrant and under circumstances not allowing a warrant
less arrest just so to charge him for a crime he did not commit,
the crime committed is:
A. Illegal arrest
C. Unlawful arrest
D. All of the above
99. If the person arrested is not delivered to the authorities,

the private individual making the arrest incurs criminal
liability for:
A. Unlawful arrest
C. Arbitrary detention
D. All of the above
100. If the offender is a public officer is vested with power to

arrest and detain and he detained a person without legal grounds,
A. Unlawful detention
B. Arbitrary detention
D. All of the above
***END***

R.C., J.D./2016
CRIMINAL LAW BOOK 2 (RPC) SET TWO
1. This felony is committed by any Filipino citizen or alien

residing in the Philippines who levies war against the
Philippines or adheres to her enemies giving them aid or comfort
in the Philippines or elsewhere.
a. Treason c. Flight to enemy country
b. Rebellion d. Sedition
2. What crime is committed by one who on the high seas or in

Philippine waters shall attack or seize a vessel or, not being a
member of its complement or passengers, shall seize the whole or
part of the cargo of said vessel, its equipments or personal
belongings.
a. Robbery
b. Terrorism
c. Piracy on the high seas or Philippine water
d. Mutiny
3. This felony is committed by any public officer or employee, who

without legal ground such as violent insanity or the commission
of a crime, shall detain another.
a. Arbitrary detention c. Illegal arrest
b. Kidnapping d. Grave coercion
4. This felony is committed by a public officer or employee, who not

being authorized by judicial order, shall enter the dwelling of
another against the will of its owner.
a. Trespass to dwelling c. Abuse of authority
b. Violation of domicile d. Police brutality
5. The crime is committed by rising publicity and taking arms

against the Government for the purpose of removing from the
allegiance to said government the territory of the RP or any part
thereof, or deprive the Chief executive or Congress any of their
powers or prerogatives.
a. Coup dtat c. Murder
b. Sedition d. Rebellion
6. What felony is committed by person or persons who belong to the

military or police organizations or those who hold public office
or employment who shall make a swift attack directed against duly
constituted authorities, or any military camp or installation,
communications network or public facilities for the purpose of
seizing state power.
a. Rebellion c. Insurrection
b. Coup dtat d. People power
7. What crime is committed by a public officer or employee who shall

arrest or search any member of Congress while Congress is in
regular or special session, except when such member has committed
a crime punishable under the RPC by a penalty higher than prison
mayor.
a. Unlawful arrest
b. Illegal detention
c. Arbitrary detention

R.C., J.D./2016
d. Violation of parliamentary immunity
8. The felony of ________ by any founder, director, and presidents

of association organized for the purpose of committing any of the
crimes punishable under the RPC or for some purpose contrary to
public morals.
a. Illegal assemblies
b. Illegal associations
c. Terrorism
d. None of the above
9. This is committed by any person who shall attack, employ force,

or seriously intimidate or resist any person in authority or his
agents while engaged in the performance of his duties or on the
occasion of such performance.
a. Direct assault
b. Indirect assault
c. Attempted murder
d. Disrespect of rank
10. Any person directly vested with jurisdiction, whether as an

individual or as a member of some court or governmental
corporation, board or commission, shall be deemed to be
__________.
a. Agent of person in authority
b. Public officer
c. Public employee
d. Person in authority
11. A person who by direct provision of law or by election or

by appointment by competent authority, is charged with the
maintenance of public order and the protection and security of
life and property such as policemen and any person who comes to
the aid of persons in authority shall be deemed to be
____________.
a. Person in authority
b. Public officer
c. Agent of a person in authority
d. None of them
12. This is committed by any person who shall remove from any
penal establishment any person confined therein or shall help the
escape of such person by means of violence intimidation or
bribery.
a. Infidelity in the custody of prisoners
b. Delivering prisoners from jail
c. Conniving to evasion
d. Evasion of service of sentence
13. This felony is committed by any convict who shall evade the
service of his sentence by escaping during the term of his
imprisonment by reason of final judgment.
a. Infidelity in the custody of prisoners
b. Delivering prisoners from jail
c. Consenting to evasion
d. Evasion of service of sentence

R.C., J.D./2016
14. When a convict evades the service of his sentence by reason

of or on the occasion of disorders, earthquakes or other
calamities he should return to the penal institution within forty
eight (48) hours following the issuance of a proclamation by the
Chief Executive announcing the passing way of such calamity, if
he does not do this he shall suffer an additional penalty of how
much?
a. One year
b. 1/5
c. 1/5 of the time remaining under the original sentence
d. 3 day
15. A form of repetition wherein a person shall commit a felony

after having been convicted by final judgment, before beginning
to serve such sentence or while serving the same. If this happens
the person will be punished the maximum period of the penalty
prescribed by the law for the new felony.
a. Recidivism
b. Quasi recidivism
c. Habitual delinquency
d. Reiteration
16. This is committed either by: a. by giving to a treasury or

bank note or any instrument payable to bearer or to order. The
appearance of a true and genuine document; or b. by erasing,
substituting, counterfeiting, or altering by any means the
figures, letters, words or signs contained therein.
a. Falsification
b. Alteration
c. Estafa
d. Forgery
17. what felony is committed by any person who shall knowingly

and falsely represent himself to be an officer, agent or
representative of any department or agency of the Philippines or
any foreign government, or who under pretense of official
position shall perform any act pertaining to any person in
authority or public officer of the Philippine or foreign
government, or agency thereof, without, being lawfully entitled
to do so.
a. Estafa
b. Falsification
c. Usurpation of authority or official functions
d. Illegal use of uniform
18. This is committed by any person who shall publicly and

improperly make use of insignia, uniform or dress pertaining to
an office not held by such person or to a class of person of
which he is not a member.
a. Illegal use of uniform or insignia
b. Usurpation of authority
c. Usurpation of official functions
d. Using fictitious name

R.C., J.D./2016
19. This felony is committed by any person who shall offend

against decency or good customs by any highly scandalous conduct
not expressly falling within any other article of the RPC.
a. Indecency
b. Public display of attention
c. Grave scandal
d. Exhibitions/ Lady Godiva Syndrome
20. He is any person who having no apparent means of

subsistence, who has the physical ability to work and neglects to
apply himself to some lawful calling.
a. Vagrant
b. Prostitute
c. Pal
d. Tam bay
e. Bystander
21. ____________ is any women who, for money or profit,

habitually indulge in sexual intercourse or lascivious conduct.
a. Hostess
b. G.R.O
c. Japayuki
d. Brunaiyuki
e. Pokpok
f. Prostitute
22. He is any person who by direct provision of law popular

election or appointment by competent authority, shall take part
in the performance of public functions in the government, or
shall perform in said government duties as an employee agent or
subordinate official of any rank or class.
a. Public officer
b. Public employee
c. Person in authority
d. Agent in authority
23. This one is committed by public officers or employees who

in dereliction of the duties at his office, shall maliciously
refrain from instituting prosecution for the punishment of
violators of law, or shall tolerate the commission of offenses.
a. Direct bribery
b. Indirect bribery
c. Prevarication or negligence or tolerance in prosecution of
offenses
d. Qualified bribery
24. What crime is committed by any public officer or employee

who shall agree to perform an act constituting a crime, in
connection with the performance of his official duties, in
consideration of any other promise gift or present received y
such officer, personally or through the mediation of another.
a. Direct bribery
b. Indirect bribery
c. Prevacacion or negligence or tolerance in prosecution
d. Qualified bribery

R.C., J.D./2016
25. What crime is committed by a public officer entrusted with

the collection of taxes and other imposts who shall commit any of
the following?
I. Directly or indirectly demanding the payment of sums
different from or larger than authorized by law.
II. Voluntarily failing to issue a receipt, as provided by law
sums of money collected.
III. Collecting or receiving by way of payment things or objects
different from that provided by law.
a. Bribery
b. Qualified bribery
c. Estafa
d. Frauds against the public treasury
26. This is committed by an accountable public officer who

shall appropriate or shall misappropriate or shall consent, or
through abandonment or negligence shall permit another person to
take public funds or properly.
a. Direct bribery
b. Technical malversation
c. Malversation of public funds
27. This is committed by a public officer who shall consent to

the escape of a prisoner in his custody.
a. Evasion of service of sentence
b. Evasion through negligence
c. Conniving with or consenting to evasion
d. Other cases of evasion
28. This is committed by any public officer or employee who

shall overdo himself in the correction or handling of a prisoner
or detention prisoner under his charge by the imposition of
punishment not authorize by the regulations or inflicting
punishment in a cruel or humiliating manner.
a. Police brutality
b. Sadism
c. Maltreatment of prisoners
d. Physical injuries
29. This is committed by any public officer who shall solicit

or make immoral advances to a woman under his custody or to other
women like the wife, daughter, sister or relative within the same
degree by affinity of any person in the custody of a warden or
officer.
a. Sexual harassment
b. Abuses against chastity
c. Acts if lasciviousness
d. Sexual shakedown
30. This felony is committed by any person who shall

intentionally mutilate another by depriving him, of same
essential organ for reproduction.
a. Castration
b. Cutting of happiness
c. Mutilation

R.C., J.D./2016
d. Bobbitised punishment
31. Who is the present Chief Justice of the Philippine Supreme

Court?
a. Reynato Puno
b. Arturo Panganiban
c. Hillarie David
d. Emma Bunton-Gapit
32. What law is titled An Act to Secure the State and Protect
Our People from Terrorism? it is also known as the Anti-
terrorism Law or Human Security Act of 2007.
a. RA 9372
b. RA 9346
c. RA 9262
d. RA 9439
33. Cain and Abel are brothers. One day while Abel was in the
fields. Cain stabbed his brother Abel from behind. Abel died.
What crime was committed by Cain?
a. Murder
b. Homicide
c. Infanticide
d. Parricide
34. Any of the following circumstances will qualify the felony

of piracy EXCEPT:
a. Whenever the pirates have seized a vessel by boarding or firing
upon the same
b. Whenever the pirates have abandoned their victims without means
of saving themselves;
c. Whenever the crime is accompanied by murder, homicide, physical
injuries or rape
d. Whenever the pirates commit animism in front of the lady
passengers.
35. Whenever an officer has lawfully arrested a person without

a warrant, he must make sure that he delivers that person
arrested within certain prescribed periods to the proper
authorities, otherwise he might be held liable for delay in the
delivery of detained persons to proper judicial authorities.
Which of the following periods prescribed is NOT CORRECT:
a. 12 hours for crimes or offenses punishable by light penalties.
b. 18 hours for crimes or offenses punishable by correctional
penalties.
c. 24 hours for crimes or offenses punishable by accessory
penalties.
d. 36 hours for crimes or offenses punishable by afflictive or
capital penalties.
36. The felonies of arbitrary detention, violation of domicile,

expulsion and others are contained in TITLE TWO (2) Book TWO (2)
of the Revised Penal Code. They are all under the title Crimes
against the fundamental law of the state. Why are they so
called?

R.C., J.D./2016
a. Because they violate certain provisions of the bill of right in

the constitution.
b. Because that is what the authors of the RPC wanted their title to
be.
c. Because they are the most heinous crimes in the RPC
d. Because I do not know the answer
37. There are three ways of committing violation of domicile

which among the following is NOT a way of committing it?
a. Entering the dwelling of another against the will of the owner
b. Entering the dwelling of another to avoid greater evil
c. Searching papers and effect in the dwelling without the consent
of the owner
d. Refusing to leave the dwelling after being required to do so, the
offender having surreptitiously entered the same.
38. All of the following are the preferred witnesses in cases

of a lawful search of anothers premises. Which among the
following is not qualified to act as a witness or perhaps the
least preferred among them?
a. Members of media
b. Owner of the property being searched
c. In the absence of owner any family member
d. Two witnesses residing in the same locality
39. May the crime of coup dtat be possibly committed by a

single person?
a. No
b. Yes
c. Impossible
d. Yes but it is an impossible crime
40. Which among the following is NOT a way of committing alarms

and scandals?
a. Any person who within any town or public place shall discharge
any firearm, rocket, firecracker or explosives calculated to
cause alarm or danger.
b. Any person who shall instigate or take an active part in any
charivari or disorderly meeting offensive to another or
prejudicial to public tranquility.
c. Any person while wandering about at night or while engaged in
nocturnal amusement shall disturb the public peace.
d. Any person who habitually associate himself with prostitutes and
profit by it.
41. What crime is committed by anyone who shall bury with pomp
the body of a person who has been legally executed?
a. Alarms and scandals
b. Contempt of court
c. Tumults and other disturbances of public order
d. Charivari
42. What is that defense in a criminal case for rape wherein

the accused says that he and the supposed rape victim are
sweethearts and therefore sexual intercourse was consensual
between the two of them?

R.C., J.D./2016
a. Sweetheart defense or theory

b. Alibi
c. Admission
d. Justifying circumstance
43. X is a detention prisoner. One night while his jail guard

was not looking, he was able to surreptitiously slip away from
the provincial jail and managed to escape. What crime did he
commit?
a. Delivering prisoners from jail

b. Evasion of service of sentence
c. Violation of pardon
d. No crime
44. In the above case what crime was committed by the jail
officer concerned?
a. Delivering prisoners from jail
b. Evasion of service of sentence
c. Conniving with or consenting to evasion
d. Evasion through negligence
45. X told Y that he will use the latter as a false witness in

a crime in which X was a party. Y agreed and the two together
with Xs lawyer invented a story wherein it was made to appear
that Y was a witness to a certain transaction. If X would
introduce the testimony of Y in the court, Y would be liable for
the crime of Offering false testimony in evidence. This crime
is also known as:
a. Deceit
b. False testimony favorable to the defendant
c. Subordination of perjury
d. Estafa
46. X a woman was caught in flagrante delicto in the act of

having sexual intercourse with Y a man, investigation revealed
that X had sex with Y in consideration of fifty pesos only.
Assume that it was proven that X committed the act of having sex
for a fee for the first and that precise time only, may X be
legally considered a prostitute?
a. Yes
b. No
c. Yes if Y testifies that X is already as expert even it was her
first time
d. No, because the fifty pesos consideration is so cheap
47. What crime is committed by anyone (adult) who shall kill a

child three years old?
a. Murder
b. Homicide
c. Abortion
d. Infanticide
48. What time of physical injury is committed by one who shall

wound, beat, assault another causing the offended party to be

R.C., J.D./2016
incapacitated for labor for ten days or more (but should not
exceed 30 days)?
a. Serious physical injuries
b. Slight physical injuries
c. Less serious physical injuries
d. Maltreatment
49. When any person (man or woman) by means force threat or

intimidation and others means specified in article 266-A, inserts
his penis into another persons mouth or anal orifice, or any
instrument or object, into the genital or anal orifice of another
person the technical term for the crime is?
a. Simple rape
b. Qualified rape
c. Rape by sexual intercourse
d. Rape
e. Statutory rape
f. Rape by sexual assault
50. X is the boyfriend of Y. one night against Ys will X

forcefully had sex with Y, X now is facing charges for rape.
Assuming that Y agrees to the proposal of marriage by X, what
will happen for Xs criminal liability if marriage takes place?
a. Criminal liability is partially extinguished
b. Criminal liability is totally extinguished
c. It has no effect because rape now is a private crime where the
state can prosecute the case alone
d. Actually the marriage has no bearing because the two are
sweethearts and therefore it is the perfect right of X to rape Y.
51. X is accused of robbery of a certain house in Muntinlupa

City. Upon being arrested X interposed the defense that he was in
Cavite City at the supposed time that the robbery was committed.
X is interposing the defense of ________ which is a plea that he
accused was at another place when the crime was committed.
Incidentally this defense is known as the weakest defense in a
criminal case.
a. Alibi
b. Absence
c. Physical impossibility
d. Justifying circumstances
52. X was staging a bank robbery alone. The responding police

arrived and surrounded the bank where X and the male bank manager
were physically trapped at the time. X used the bank manager as a
hostage. After a few minutes of negotiations X finally was
convinced to surrender. With respect to the hostage incident
(never mind the attempt bank robbery) what possible crime could
be charged against X?
a. Kidnapping and serious illegal detention
b. Slight illegal detention
c. Grave coercion
d. Arbitrary detention

R.C., J.D./2016
53. It is defined as any human conduct which, although not

productive of some material or physical harm would however,
unjustify annoy or vex an innocent person.
a. Unjust vexation
b. Light coercion
c. Provocation
d. Unlawful aggression
54. A, B, C and D is a group of male teenager (but not below

fifteen) who are trying hard to attract attention (KSP). Every
night they always engaged themselves in unruly beer sessions
together with all the unpleasant sounds that it creates with the
use of improvised, cheap and dilapidated musical instruments such
as cauldrons, tin cans etc. let us assume that aside from making
papansin they are also doing it to annoy their sleeping
neighbors. The crime of alarms and scandals may be charged
against them because they involved themselves in charivari
punishable under paragraph 2 of article 155. What is charivari?
a. It is a medley of discordant voices, a mock serenade of
discordant voices made on kettles, tin horns etc. designed to
insult or annoy
b. It sounds like a gay word or lingo so I will ask its meaning to
my gay friend
c. It is simply the act of any person who although not productive of
material harm would annoy another person
d. It is the act of people who are in need of attention from others
especially from the girls
55. According to RA 4136 the Land Transportation and Traffic

Code, when two (2) motor vehicles approach an intersection at
approximately the same time, the motor vehicle on the left should
yield to the motor vehicle on the right because the latter motor
vehicle has:
a. Right of way
b. More money
c. More speed
d. Emergency rule
56. Crimes Against Religious Worship is a section to be found

in title two of the Revised Penal Code which is Crimes Against
Fundamental Laws of the State. Which of the following crimes fall
under crimes against religious worship?
a. Interruption of religious worship
b. Offending the religious feelings
c. Prohibition of peaceful meetings
d. Illegal associations
57. Who among the following is NOT an agent of a person in

authority?
a. Policemen
b. Municipal treasurer
c. Postmaster
d. Sheriff
e. BIR agents
f. Malacanang agent
g. All of them are agents of person in authority

R.C., J.D./2016
58. Who among the following is a person in authority?

a. Policemen
b. Chief of police
c. Teacher
d. Baranggay captain
e. Baranggay tanod
f. Letters b, c and d
59. Which among the following is a qualifying circumstance of

murder?
a. Treachery
b. Habitual delinquency
c. Relationship
d. Intoxication
60. X was able to pocket one pack of detergent soap while

inside SM Supermarket. He was about to leave the premises of SM
when he was accosted by an undercover SM agent and was
immediately brought to the police precinct. What crime was
committed by X?
a. Consummated theft
b. Frustrated theft
c. Attempted theft
d. Qualified theft
61. X uttered the following remarks to a certain family of

lawyers, Kayong mga Atty. Merrera mga magnanakaw, mga walanghiya
mga bastos. What crime was committed by X?
a. One count of libel
b. As many counts of libel as there are Merrera lawyers
c. One count of grave oral defamation (slander)
d. As many counts of grave oral defamation (slander) as there are
Merrera lawyers
62. X is a teller of Banco Filipino Espanol. He received a

deposit of P5000 from a depositor, which he pocketed instead of
crediting it to the account of the depositor. The transaction was
evidenced by an official receipt. What crime was committed by X?
a. Theft
b. Estafa
c. Qualified theft
d. Malversation of public property
63. X a jail guard while escorting a prisoner en route to the

Regional Trial Court allowed the latter to answer the call of
nature without taking precaution to prevent his escape as indeed
the prisoner escaped through the windows of the comfort room.
What is the liability of the jail guard?
a. No liability as it is not required that X would even go to the
extent of escorting the prisoner inside the comfort room,
otherwise the job of a jail guard would be unbearable
b. No liability because he was not in conspiracy with the prisoner
c. Evasion of service of sentence
d. Evasion through negligence

R.C., J.D./2016
64. X (a man) forcibly grabbed Y (a woman) by the waist and

dragged her to a place hidden from the public view about 20
meters from the place where the latter was standing. Due to Ys
constant screaming X became afraid and immediately run away
leaving Y alone. What crime was committed by X?
a. Illegal detention
b. Acts of lasciviousness
c. Attempted rape
d. Grave coercion
65. What crime is committed by a man who would forcibly enter

another persons house without the knowledge of the owner but
once inside, immediately and peacefully left the house the moment
he was discovered by the owner of the house?
a. Attempted robbery
b. Frustrated robbery
c. Trespass to dwelling
d. Qualified trespass to dwelling
66. X became enraged with Y. X was so mad he wanted to get even

with Y. At the spur of the moment Y took the clothes of Y from
the drawer and burned them to ashes. What crime was committed by
X?
a. Theft
b. Robbery
c. Malicious mischief
d. Arson
67. X threatened Y that he would kill the latter if Y would not

give five hundred pesos (500). What crime was committed by X?
a. Grave Coercion
b. Grave threats
c. Attempted murder
d. Attempted homicide
68. Which among the following is considered as slight physical

injuries only?
a. Maltreatment
b. Loss of ones tooth/eye
c. Loss of ones reproductive organ
d. Burning the skin of another
69. Vegeta slapped the face of Sangoku in front of a lot

people. What crime did Vegeta commit?
a. Unjust vexation
b. Slander by deed
c. Libel
d. Rape
e. Slight physical injury
70. While walking along Capsule Corporation, Inc., Vegeta saw a

beautiful lady by the name of Bulma. Vegeta suddenly kissed Bulma
and gently touched Bulmas breasts. Nobody saw the incident as
Vegeta and Bulma are the only people around. Without a word.
Vegeta left leaving Bulma stultified and shocked. What crime was
committed by Vegeta?

R.C., J.D./2016
a. Unjust vexation
b. Slander by deed
c. Acts of lasciviousness
d. Attempted rape
71. X was driving his car when he bumped run over a pedestrian
crossing the street. The pedestrian died. What crime was
committed by X?
a. Reckless imprudence
b. Homicide
c. Reckless imprudence resulting in homicide
d. Homicide thru reckless imprudence
72. Insp. Mills arrested X on suspicious of a crime. He

interrogated X in the police precinct and when he failed to
illicit any information from X, he caused the torture of the
hapless X. what crimes was committed by Insp. Mills?
a. Physical injuries
b. Illegal detention
c. Grave coercion
d. Arbitrary detention
73. A is the son of B. B incurred debt to Don Pedro. Since B

did not have the money to pay Don Pedro. Don Pedro required A to
work for him for the purpose of paying off the indebtedness of B.
this scheme is against the will of A but he cannot do anything as
he is being forced by Don Pedro. What crime was committed by Don
Pedro?
a. Introducing a minor to abandon home
b. Child abuse
c. Exploitation of child labor
d. Exploitation of minor
74. What crime is committed by a notary public who would issue

a copy of a deed of sale purporting that A sold his house and lot
to B where in fact no such transaction ever existed?
a. Estafa
b. Falsification
c. Forgery
d. Falsification by a private individual
75. X wanted to become a writer of graphic and explicit sex

related stories in a local newspaper. Let us assume that his sex
stories do not have any artistic, cultural, educational or
scientific values whatsoever. One night he went to bed and placed
his articles/writings inside his drawer. These unpublished
articles were stolen by his roommate and was sent to Bombahan,
a cheap daily tabloid known for its depiction of sexually
explicit materials. When he woke up one morning he was surprised
that the NBI is looking for him as he is being charged for
violation of article 201 of the RPC that is Immoral doctrines.
Obscene publications and exhibitions and indecent shows. X would
be:
a. Convicted for violating article 201
b. Convicted for violating article 200 of the RPC instead which is
Grave Scandal

R.C., J.D./2016
c. Not liable because the articles were not published with his
consent
d. Liable as mere creation of obscene material is punishable but his
liability is mitigated because the articles were stolen.
76. There is treasury warrant that is payable to X. Y

unlawfully took possession of that warrant, wrote the name of X,
endorsed it by signing Xs name and thereafter he was able to
encash it. What crime was committed by Y?
a. Forgery
b. Falsification
c. Theft
d. Estafa
77. X is less than 3 days old. X was killed by his own father
because the father is afraid that his real wife would discover
that he had sired X with Y their kumara. What crime was
committed by the father?
a. No crime
b. Infanticide
c. Parricide
d. Murder
78. X (man) married Y (woman) in the Philippines. Later X went

to the USA and married Z. when Y learned this, he filed case
against X. what crime was committed by X?
a. Adultery
b. Concubinage
c. Bigamy
d. Immorality
79. In the above case supposing that, X and Z took a vacation

in the Philippines. They rented a condominium unit and were
always seen caressing each other in public places. Are they
liable for any crime?
a. Yes for bigamy
b. Yes for adultery
c. Yes for concubinage
d. No because they are not caught having sex
80. Let us suppose that while in the Philippines a serious

misunderstanding took place between X and Z. x therefore killed
Z. what crime was committed by X?
a. Murder or homicide
b. Parricide
c. Infanticide
d. Rape
81. What acts are made punishable by law committed by 1.

Imputing to an innocent person the commission of a crime or 2.
Imputing to him things calculated to blemish the honor or
reputation of a person by means of intrigue.
a. Libel
b. Slander
c. Incriminatory machinations
d. Incriminating innocent persons

R.C., J.D./2016
82. A and B were having a heated altercation over some trivial

traffic misunderstanding. The Barangay Captain who happened to
pass by saw the two while they were involved in exchanging
unpleasantries. The Barangay Captain tried to pacified A and B
but A resented this intervention and punched the Brgy. Captain
causing the latter to break his jaw requiring more than thirty
days hospitalization and incapacity. What crime was committed by
A?
a. Serious physical injuries
b. Assault upon a person in authority
c. Serious physical injuries with assault upon a person in authority
d. Assault upon a person in authority resulting to serious physical
injuries
83. X was arrested by Insp. Mills because the former parked his
motor vehicle in a parking area. What felony was committed by
Insp. Mills?
a. Illegal arrest
b. Arbitrary detention
c. Delay in the delivery of detained person
d. Unlawful arrest
84. X and Y are next door neighbors. X became irritated by the

constant barking of Ys dog. So one night he shot the dog causing
the dog to die. What crime was committed by X?
a. Homicide
b. Murder
c. Malicious mischief
d. Physical injuries
85. Supposing after killing the dog. X realized that he missed

dinner that night abd that he was so hungry so he took the dogs
carcass and cooked it and thereafter ate it. What crime was
committed by X?
a. Theft
b. Malicious mischief
c. Complex crime
d. Cruelty to animals
86. Supposing X realized after killing the dog that he could be

held criminally liable for his act. So he decided to do away with
the evidence of the crime. He hid the gun which he used to kill
the dog inside the drawer of Z another next door neighbor so as
to make it appear that the gun belonged to Z. what crime was
committed by X with respect to his latest act?
a. Intriguing against honor
b. Libel
c. Incriminating innocent person
d. Slander by deed
87. X is a taxi driver, saw a bag left by one of his passengers

which when he opened contained valuables amounting to thousand of
pesos. Assume that he deliberately fail to restore the bag and
its contents to the passenger would X be held liable and for what
crime?

R.C., J.D./2016
a. Yes, for theft

b. Yes, for qualified theft
c. No crime he did not take the money by force
d. No crime he did not have criminal intent
88. Assume that X is an honest taxi driver so he is now asking

you as a criminology/criminal justice graduate as to whom shall
he return the bag considering that he did not know who its owner
was?
a. I advise him to return the bag to Mike Enriquez
b. I advise him to return the bag to the nearest police station
c. I advise him to give the bag to me and I will give the bag back
to the owner
d. I advise him to give the bag to the mayor of the city or
municipality
89. Assume that X returned the bag to a local radio station for
its safekeeping and eventual return to the owner instead of
handling it over to the proper authorities. Question is X guilty
of any crime?
a. Yes because the law specifically enumerate the proper person to
return lost property and he failed to do this.
b. Yes if the local radio station failed to return the bag X is
guilty as an accomplice in the crime.
c. Yes because by returning the lost property to the media, Xs real
purpose is only to gain media exposure and not really of his
desire to return the bag
d. No, because there is absence of criminal intent which is an
element of felonies in general.
90. X wanted to kill Y. one night he saw Y deep in his sleep in

his room. X went out of the house bought gasoline pour it on Ys
house and set it on fire. As a result of the fire Y died. What
crime was committed by X?
a. Arson
b. Arson with homicide
c. Murder
d. Qualified arson
91. Assume that X did not know that Y was inside the house. He
poured gas to Ys house and set it on fire. His only intention
was to burn the house. But again, as earlier stated Y was inside
the burning house (which is unknown to X) which caused his death.
What crime was committed by X?
a. Arson
b. Murder
c. Arson with homicide (qualified arson)
d. Technical arson
92. Assume that X entered Ys room and while the latter was
sleeping, stabbed him to death. X in order to hide any traces of
the crime decided to burn the house. What crime was committed by
X?
a. Complex crime of murder with arson
b. Plain murder
c. Heinous crime

R.C., J.D./2016
d. Murder and arson
93. What law is entitled Act Prohibiting the Detention of

Patients in Hospitals and Medical Clinics on Grounds of Non
Payment of Bills. It is also known as the Anti Hospital
Detention Law.
a. RA 9439
b. RA 9262
c. RA 9346
d. RA 9344
94. What crime is committed by say more than ten (10) unarmed
persons who gather together in a meeting for the purpose of
committing theft?
a. Conspiracy
b. No crime
c. Illegal assemblies
d. Illegal associations
e. Attempted theft
95. What crime is committed by ten persons about half of them

being armed, and their purpose in their meeting was to commit the
crime of robbery?
a. Conspiracy
b. Illegal assemblies
c. Illegal associations
d. No crime
96. X stabbed Y (a woman). At the threshold of death, that is

while Y was about to die, X suddenly developed the idea of raping
Y. what crime was committed by X?
a. Rape
b. Murder
c. Rape with murder
d. Murder (rape as aggravating)
97. X shot Y with a revealer (the wound was mortal). Y fell to

the ground but amazingly got up went to his house, and knowing
that he would die anyway cut his throat to expedite his death. Y
died. What crime was committed by X?
a. Homicide
b. Infanticide
c. Physical injuries
d. No crime
98. H and W is husband and wife respectively they have been

married before a judge about 1 year ago. H works as a security
guard in midnight shift whereas W stays home nursing their
children. One eventful night H suspicious of W having an affair
with their Kumpare, decided to go home early, true to his
hunch, he saw W on top of kumpare, the two being completely naked
and in the act of sexual intercourse (copulation). In a fit of
anger H killed both W and kumpare. What crime was committed by H
if any?
a. Parricide with respect to W. murder with respect to kumpare
b. Murder

R.C., J.D./2016
c. Death inflicted under exceptional circumstances

d. No crime as H is exempted
99. In the above case assume that H merely witnessed W and

kumpare in the act o kissing and caressing each other only.
Thereafter he lost his senses and proceeded to hacked to death W
and kumpare. What crime was committed by H if any?
a. Parricide with respect to W, and homicide with respect to kumpare
b. Murder
d. No crime as H is exempted
100. Assume that H surprised W and kumpare having carnal

knowledge (sexual intercourse), immediately thereafter he
inflicted say, serious or less serious physical injuries upon W
or kumpare or both of them, what crime was committed by X if any?
a. Physical injuries
b. Attempted murder
d. No crime as X is exempted
***END***

R.C., J.D./2016
CRIMINAL PROCEDURE (RULE 110-127)
1. ____ is the examination before a competent court or tribunal,

according to the laws of the land, of the facts in issue for the
purpose of determining such issue.
a. Pre Trial b. Arraignment c. Trial d.
New Trial
2. One of the following is not included as a reason for the

postponement of trial.
a. That the witness is really material to which the courts
agrees
b. That no similar evidence could be obtained without
negligence on the party applying for postponement
c. That the court docket is full
3. When a court is satisfied, upon proof or oath, that a material

witness will not testify when required, it may upon motion of
either party order the witness to:
a. To be excused c. To post
bail
b. To be included I the information d. A and B
4. In this jurisdiction, when two or more accused are jointly

charged with any offense, they shall be tried jointly. Separate
trial is:
a. Within sound discretion of the court c. statutory
requirement
b. Mandatory d. Constitutional
requirement
5. To be state witness, one of the accused must voluntarily execute

a sworn statement in support of his discharge. If the court
denies the motion to discharge said accused filed before the
prosecution rest its case, his sworn statement shall be:
a. Admissible in evidence
b. Inadmissible evidence
c. Conditionally admitted as material evidence
d. Conditionally admitted
6. The number of days the accused has to prepare for trial after a
plea of guilty is entered.
a. Within 30 days c. Within 20 days
b. At least 15 days d. Within 60 days
7. The time of trial shall commence:

a. Within 30 days from receipt of the pre-trial order
b. Within 45 days from receipt of the pre-trial order
c. Within 20 days from receipt of the pre-trial order
d. Within 15 days from receipt of the pre-trial order
8. The status of an essential witness whenever his whereabouts are

unknown or his whereabouts cannot be determined by due diligence:
a. Unavailable b. Absent c. Hostile d.
Adverse
9. One reason for the re-opening of trial of a case.

a. Newly discovered evidence
b. The appearance of an essential witness
c. To avoid miscarriage of justice upon motion and with
hearing
d. None of the Above

R.C., J.D./2016
10. After the prosecution has rested its case, the accused file
a motion to dismiss, with or without leave of court; this rule is
known as:
a. Bill of particular c. Demurrer to
evidence
b. Summary proceeding d. Trial
11. The entire trial period should not exceed ______ from the
first day of trial, except if authorized by special law or by the
SC circulars.
a. 120 days c. 150 days
b. 180 days d. 60 days
12. As a general rule, the silent of the accused should not

prejudice him, except:
a. If the prosecution has already established a prima facie
case
b. If the defense of the accused is an alibi
c. All of the above
13. After the prosecution rested its case, the accused filed a
demurrer to evidence. Would double jeopardy be a valid defense if
he charged again with the same offense against?
a. No, because the dismissal is with his consent or upon his
own motion
b. Yes, because the dismissal is tantamount to acquittal
c. The case was not terminated on its merits hence double
jeopardy does not apply
d. The case was terminated on its merits hence double
jeopardy does not apply
14. ______ is the adjudication by the court that the accused is

guilty or not guilty of the offense charged, and the imposition
of the proper penalty and civil liability provided for by law on
the accused.
a. Sentence c. Acquittal
b. Interlocutory d. Judgment
15. In a judgment of acquittal, the court has:

a. Authority to reprimand
b. No authority to reprimand the accused
c. Authority to call a conference the counsels of the
prosecution and defense
d. All of the above
16. In case of acquittal, the judgment shall make a finding on

the civil liability of the accused in favor of the offended
party, except when:
a. The guilty party die before judgment
b. There is a clear showing that the act from which the civil
liability might arise did not exist
c. All of the above
d. A & B
17. The court may modify its judgment of conviction only:

a. Before the decision becomes final
b. On motion of the accused and on motion of the prosecution
c. Motu propio the Court with the consent of the accused
d. All of the above
18. The effect of failure of the accused to quash a duplicitous

information, the court may
a. Acquit him as this is a violation of the rules on duplicity
of offenses

R.C., J.D./2016
b. Convict the accused of as many offenses as are charged and

proved there being a waiver therein
c. Impose on him the penalty of each offense, setting out
separately the findings of fact and law in each offense.
d. B & C
19. An accused can be convicted of an offense only when it is

both charge and proved, except where there is a variance of the
offense charged, and that proved and the offense charged
necessarily includes in or is necessarily in the offense proved
the rule is that the accused can be convicted only of:
a. Of the graver offense whether it is the one charged or
proved
b. Of the lesser offense whether the lesser offense is the one
charged or proved
c. Two offenses with the corresponding penalty
d. All of the above
20. X was charged with murder but during the trial the offense
proved was homicide. What would be the decision of the judge?
a. The court will convict the accused only for homicide
b. Dismiss the case there being a variance of offense charged
and proved
c. All of the above
d. None of the Above
21. Suppose the charge is homicide, but during the trial the
offense proved is murder. What would be the decision of the
court?
a. Dismiss the case there being variance of the offense
charged and the offense proved
b. Convict the accused only of homicide because homicide is
necessarily included in the offense proved
c. All of the above
d. A & B
22. Is a verbal judgment valid?

a. Yes, because it is promulgated in open court and in the
presence of the accused
b. No, because it was incomplete, not signed by the judge and
does not contain findings of fact and law.
c. All of the above
23. Which of the following does not constitute civil liability

arising from crime committed:
a. Atty. Fees c. Actual damages
b. Exemplary damages d. Moral damages and Loss
of earning capacity
24. An offense charged necessarily includes an offense proved

when:
a. Some of the essential elements or ingredients of the
offense charged constitute the offense proved
b. When the essential ingredients of the offense charged
constitute or form part of the elements constituting the
offense proved
c. All of the above
d. A & B
25. An offense charged is necessarily included in the offense

proved when:
a. Some of the essential elements or ingredients of the
offense charged constitute the offense proved

R.C., J.D./2016
b. When the essential ingredients of the offense charged

constituted or form part of the elements constituting the
offense proved
c. All of the above
d. A & B
26. X was charged with rape. What was proved was qualified
seduction. Can X be convicted of qualified seduction?
a. No, although qualified seduction is a lesser offense than
rape, the elements of the two offenses are different
b. Yes, X can be convicted of qualified seduction because it
is a lesser offense than rape
c. All of the above
27. The judgment is promulgated:

a. By reading it in its entirely in the presence of the
accused
b. By any judge of the court in which it was rendered
c. By the courts sheriff
d. A & B only
28. A judgment may be validly promulgated in absentia

a. If the conviction is for a light offense
b. If the accused fails to attend the promulgation despite
notice
c. If he jumped bail or escape from prison
d. All of the above
29. A judgment of a conviction mat be modified by the court

that rendered it:
a. Upon motion of the accused
b. Before judgment has become final
c. After the lapse of perfecting an appeal
d. A & B only
30. A judgment of acquittal becomes final

a. After 15 days from promulgation
b. After entry in the criminal docket
c. Immediately upon promulgation
d. A & B only
31. A judgment of conviction shall become final:

a. After the lapse of the period for perfecting an appeal and
When the sentence has been partially or totally
satisfied/served
b. When accused has waived in writing his right to appeal
c. When the accused has applied for probation
d. All of the above
32. Which of one is not requisite of the first jeopardy?

a. There is a valid information
b. Information filed in a court of competent jurisdiction
c. There is a valid arraignment and plea
d. The case was dismissed upon motion or with the express
consent of the accused
33. A crime was committed in Makati. The case was filed in

Pasay City. When the prosecution realized that the complainant
should have been filed in Makati, he filed the case in Makati.
Can the accused invoke double jeopardy? No, on the ground that:
a. The court in Pasay had no jurisdiction
b. The accused was in no danger of being placed in jeopardy

R.C., J.D./2016
c. The accused in Pasay City was dismissed without his express

consent
d. A & B only
34. Which statement is not correct or wrong?

a. A complaint or information is valid, if it can support a
judgment f conviction
b. If the information is valid, if it can support an acquittal
c. If the information is not valid, the right of the accused
to be informed of the nature and cause of the accusation
against him
d. If the information is not valid, the conviction of the
accused is null and void and there can be no first
jeopardy.
35. X was charged with Estafa. Later, the case was dismissed
provisionally with the consent of the accused. Can another estafa
case be filed against X before the temporary dismissal becomes
permanent without placing him in double jeopardy? Yes, because:
a. There was a previous provisional dismissal;
b. There was no conviction or acquittal or unconditional
dismissal of the case
c. A provisional dismissal such as the above case does not
validly terminate the first jeopardy
d. B & C only
36. As a general rule, a dismissal upon motion of the accused

or his counsel negates or denies the application of double
jeopardy. However, a dismissal even with the express consent of
the accused but such dismissal is equivalent to acquittal which
would entitle the accused to invoke double jeopardy in the
following:
a. Dismissal due to insufficiency of evidence
b. Dismissal due to unreasonable delay which constitutes a
violation of the right of the accused to speedy trial
c. Dismissal based on demurrer to evidence
d. All of the above
37. The conviction of the accused of an offense shall not be a

bar to another prosecution for an offense which necessarily
includes the offense charged in the former information under any
of the following circumstances:
a. The graver offense developed due to supervening fact
arising from the same act or omission constituting the
former charge;
b. The facts constituting the grave offense became known or
were discovered only after a plea was entered in the former
information
c. The plea of guilty to a lesser offense was made without the
consent of the prosecutor and the offended party, except if
the offender party fails to appear at the arraignment;
d. All of the above
38. X is charge with frustrated homicide. After arraignment and

a plea of guilty were entered, the victim dies. Can X be charged
with homicide? Answer: Yes:
a. If the death of the victim can be traced to the acts of X,
and the victim did not contribute of his death with his
negligence; X can be charged with homicide;
b. If the act of X was not the proximate cause of death, X can
still be charged with homicide;
c. All of the above

R.C., J.D./2016
39. Before the finality of the judgment of conviction, the

accused can avail himself of any of the following remedy:
a. Motion for New Trial and Motion for reconsideration
b. Annul the judgment
c. Appeal the judgment
d. All of the above
40. Which of the following is not a ground for New Trial?

a. Errors of fact in the judgment
b. Errors of law committed during the trial
c. Irregularities prejudicial to the substantial rights of
accused committed during the trial
d. Newly discovered evidence
41. Which one of the following is not ground for

Reconsideration?
a. Errors of law committed during the trial
b. Errors of law in the judgment, which requires no further
proceedings
c. Errors of fact in the judgment, which requires no further
proceedings
d. Errors of fact and law in the judgment, which requires no
further proceedings
42. The effect of granting a new trial or reconsideration:

a. The original judgment shall be set aside or vacated
b. A new judgment shall be rendered
c. The original judgment shall be modified only
d. A & B only
43. ______ is a proceeding for review by which the whole case

is transferred to a higher court for a final determination.
a. Motion for Reconsideration c. Appeal
b. New Trial d. Arraignment
44. ______ one which dispose of the whole subject matter or

terminates a particular proceeding or action leaving nothing to
be done but to enforce by execution of what has been determined.
a. Final judgment
b. Final Order
c. Interlocutory Order
d. A & C only
45. A motion for new trial should be filed at any time within
15 days from the promulgation of a judgment of conviction
a. Before the final entry of a judgment of conviction
b. Before the appeal is perfected
c. After the final entry of a judgment of conviction
d. Before the final entry of a judgment of conviction
46. The right to appeal a case decided by a lower court is:

a. Statutory right c. Element due
process
b. Inherent right d. Constitutional
right
47. Appeal by either party as used in the law has been

interpreted to mean:
a. Only the government and the accused
b. Other persons who may be affected by the judgment rendered
in the criminal proceedings
c. All of the above
48. The party appealing the case is known as:

R.C., J.D./2016
a. Appellee c. Prosecution
b. Appellant d. All of the above
49. ______ is an order in writing issued in the name of the

People of the Philippines, signed by a judge and directed to a
peace officer commanding him to search for personal property
described therein and bring it before the court
a. Search Warrant c. Sequestration
Order
b. Warrant of Arrest d. Search Order
50. Persons protected by the provisions against unreasonable

search and seizure:
a. Filipino Citizen only
b. All persons whether citizens or aliens within the
jurisdiction of the State
c. All persons accused of acts and omission punishable by the
RPC
51. Of the 4 requisites for issuing search warrant, one of the

following is not included.
a. The warrant issued must particularly described the person
who committed the crime
b. Must be issued upon probable cause
c. The probable cause must be determined by the judge himself
and not by the applicant or any other person
d. In the determination of probable cause, the judge must
examine under oath or affirmation the complainant and such
witness as the latter may produce
52. Are outlawed because they place the sanctity of the

domicile and the privacy of communication and correspondence at
the mercy of the whims, caprice or passion of peace officers.
a. Unreasonable search and seizure c. Illegally sized
documents
b. General Search Warrant d. All of the above
53. Under the law, a search warrant shall be valid for how many
days?
a. 15 days from its date c. 10 days after its
date
b. 10 days from its date d. 5 days after its
date
54. In what instance may search and seizure be made without

warrant?
a. When it is with the consent of the accused
b. When search is incidental to arrest
c. When it is made for dangerous weapon or anything which may
be used as proof of the commission of an offense
d. All of the above
55. The requirements for the issuance of a search warrant are

more stringent than the requirements for the issuance of warrant
of arrest because:
a. In a warrant of arrest, the person to be arrested can
always post bail to prevent deprivation of his liberty
b. The right against search and seizure is implicit in the
natural right to life, liberty and property
c. The violation of the right to privacy produces a
humiliating effect which cannot be rectified anymore

R.C., J.D./2016
d. All of the above
56. The following are instances of permissible warrantless

arrests:
a. Arrest in flagrante delicto c. Arrest of escape
prisoners
b. Arrest effect in hot pursuit d. All of the above
57. One is not a requisite for the plain-view doctrine to

apply.
a. There must have been a prior valid intrusion based on the
warrantless arrest in which the police are legally present
in the pursuit of their official duties;
b. The evidence was accidentally or unintentionally discovered
by the police who had a right to be where they are and the
evidence must be immediately seen or viewed
c. There was no need for further search
d. All of the above
58. Stop and frisk search known as Terry Search is the right of
the police to:
a. Stop a suspicious looking person wandering at midnight in a
place where crimes have been reported prevalent.
b. The right of the police to pat or frisk for concealed
weapons
c. It is a limited protective search of outer clothing
d. All of the above
59. A scatter shot warrant is a warrant of search and seizure

or arrest that is issued:
a. For more than one offense
b. It is void because the law requires that a warrant can be
issued only for one specific offense
c. It is valid for two specific offense only
d. A & B only
60. Police Officers applied for a warrant to search Door No. 1

of an apartment. The court issued the warrant; hence they
proceeded but when they arrived at the place they realized that
what they thought as Door No. 1 was actually Door No. 5. Can they
search Door No. 5?
a. No, because what is controlling is what is stated I the
warrant
b. This is to prevent abused in the service of the search
warrant
c. Yes, because the error is merely clerical and unintentional
d. A & B only
61. A buy bust operation is a method or procedure employed by

police authorities to male factors:
a. In the act of committing the crime of drug vending
b. It is form of entrapment, a procedure not prohibited by the
RPC or law
c. It is a form of instigation which is prohibited by law
d. A & B only
62. What is the effect if the arrest is illegal, and an

unlicensed firearm was confiscated in the process? Can the
unlicensed gun be used in evidence?
a. Yes because the person arrested can be charged with Illegal
Possession of a gun
b. No because the person was illegally obtained
c. The gun is the fruit of the poisonous tree
d. B & C only

R.C., J.D./2016
63. What is the importance of a person arrested of signing of a

police booking sheet ad arrest report?
a. It is tantamount to extra-judicial confession without the
assistance of a counsel
b. Signing said booking sheet and arrest report is not an
admission of the commission of the offense
c. It is merely a statement of the accused being booked and
the date of the fact of his arrest
d. B & C
64. What is the effect if the person arrested signed the

receipt of the property seized without the aid of a counsel?
a. It is admissible in evidence as it is a declaration against
interest
b. It is a tacit admission of the crime charged
c. It is inadmissible as an evidence as it is tantamount to an
uncounselled extra-judicial confession
d. C & D only
65. Mayor X was arrested 4 days after the commission of alleged

murder against Y. He was arrested without warrant of arrest. Was
the arrest legal?
a. No because the police were not present during the killing
b. The police had no person knowledge of the criminal act
committed by Mayor X
c. He was arrested after 40 days after the commission of the
crime
d. All of the above
66. X was arrested. Then he was subjected to paraffin test. After

trial, he was convicted. On appeal he contended that when the
paraffin test on him was taken, his constitutional right to
counsel and self-incrimination were violated. Was his contention
legal?
a. Legal because this is tantamount to uncounselled extra-
judicial confession
b. It is not violation of his right to counsel as he is not
yet under custodial investigation
c. Not also a violation of his right against self-
incrimination as this extends only too testimonial evidence
and not when his body is proposed to be examined
d. B & C only
67. A police officer cannot seize anything not mentioned/included

in the search warrant, except if it is:
a. Mala prohibita
b. The seizure can be justified under the plain view doctrine
c. All of the above
d. A & B
68. As a rule, evidence illegally seized is:

a. Inadmissible in evidence c. Voidable evidence
b. Admissible in evidence d. All of the
above
69. ______ means the existence of such facts and circumstances,

which would lead a reasonable discreet and prudent man to believe
that an offense has been committed and that the objects sought in
connection with the offense are in the place to be searched.
a. Prima facie evidence c. Substantial
evidence
b. Preponderance evidence d. Probable cause

R.C., J.D./2016
70. What is the area of a coverage of an officers search being an

incident of a lawful arrest? Is it limited to the person of the
accused?
a. It may extent beyond the person of the one arrested
b. To include the premises or surroundings under his immediate
control
c. The search must be contemporaneous or simultaneously, more
or less, with the arrest, both in time and place, without
delay
d. All of the foregoing
71. As used in Rule 120, it means the adjudication by the court

that the accused is guilty or is not guilty of the offense
charged, and the imposition of the proper penalty and civil
liability provided for by law on the accused.
a. Judgment c. Acquittal
b. Interlocutory d. Sentence
72. From the provision of Section 1, Rule 120 it would seem that in
a judgment of acquittal, the court has
a. Authority to impose a reprimand
b. No authority to impose a reprimand
c. Authority to call a conference with both prosecutor and
defense counsel
d. All of the forgoing
73. In case of acquittal, the judgment shall make a finding on the

civil liability of the accused in favor of the offender party,
except when
a. There is a clear showing that the act from which the civil
liability might arise did not exist
b. There is a prejudicial question
c. The offender is pardon by the offended party
d. The guilty party dies before judgment
74. The indemnity which a person is sentenced to pay, forms an

integral part of the penalty, it being expressly provided by
Article 100 of the Revised Penal Code, that every person
criminally liable is.
a. Civil liable c. Presumed to be
innocent
b. Not civil liable d. All of them
75. It is said to exist when the complainant or information sets

out an offense but the evidence establishes another crime.
a. Complex crimes c. Continuing offense
b. Variance d. False accusation
76. In case of variance between information and proof, the accused

can only be convicted of the
a. Graver offense which is included in the order
b. Lesser crime which is included in the other offense
c. Mitigating circumstances
d. Aggravating circumstances
77. Where the offense charged does not include the offense proved,
it matters not how conclusive and convincing the evidence of
guilt may be, an accused person cannot be convicted in any court
of any offense unless
a. The accused is charged of a complex crimes
b. It is charged in the information on which he is tried or
necessarily included therein
c. The accused is recidivist
d. All of them

R.C., J.D./2016
78. Takes place when the Clerk of Court enters final judgment in
accordance with the order of the court and when judgment is thus
entered, it is legally promulgated.
a. Rendering of the judgment c. Legal promulgation
of the judgment
b. Pronouncing of the judgment d. Entry of judgment
79. Under Section 6 of the Rule 120 of the Rules of Court, a

judgment of acquittal is validly promulgated after the Clerk of
Court has entered it in the criminal docket and the defendant
served with copy thereof. The presence of the defendant is not
necessary where the judgment is one of.
a. Conviction of grave offense c. Conviction of a
light offense
b. Acquittal d. All of them
80. A judgment becomes final after the lapse of period for

a. Perfecting an appeal
b. Presentation of evidence by the prosecution
c. Presentation of evidence by the defense counsel
d. All of them
81. It portrays a proceeding whereby errors of law or

irregularities are expunged from the record, or new evidence is
introduced, or both steps are taken, in a new trial, by the
nature of its purpose and what is to be done, both parties have
to intervene.
a. New Trial c. Trial
b. Motion for Reconsideration d. All of them
82. It contemplates no new hearing or proceeding of any kind to
seek a change in judgment is accomplished but only o the basis of
what is already in the record.
a. New Trial c. Trial
b. Motion for Reconsideration d. Appeal
83. A motion for new trial should be filed at any time within
fifteen days from the promulgation of a judgment of conviction
that is
a. Before the final entry of a judgment of conviction
b. Before the appeal id perfected
c. After the final entry of a judgment of conviction
d. After the appeal is perfected, the trial court
84. Where the appeal has been perfected, the motion for new trial
should be presented to the appellate court, because once an
appeal is perfected, the trial court
a. Still retains its power to set aside the judgment rendered
by it or to grant a new trial
b. Loses its power to set aside the judgment rendered by it or
to grant a new trial
c. All of the above
d. None of them
85. The prosecution cannot appeal from a judgment of conviction to

increase the penalty because:
a. The accused would be placed in double jeopardy
b. The prosecution can ask that the judgment be set aside
c. The prosecution can ask for reopening of the case
d. All of them
86. Appeal by either party as used in the law has been

interpreted to mean
a. Only the government and the accused
b. Other persons who may be affected by the judgment rendered
in the criminal proceedings

R.C., J.D./2016
c. B only
d. A & B
87. The period for appeal from final orders, resolutions, awards
judgments or decisions of any court in all cases shall be made:
a. 15 days counted from the notice of the final order,
resolution, award, judgment or decision appealed from;
b. Within in 15 days from receipt of the notice of the final
order, resolution, award, judgment or decision appealed
from;
c. 15 days after the notice of the final order, resolution,
award, judgment or decision appealed from;
d. 15 days before the notice of the final order, resolution,
award, judgment or decision appealed from
88. Corollary to the item above mentioned, when will the period for
perfecting an appeal be interrupted?
a. After the time a motion for a new trial or reconsideration
is filed until notice of the order overruling the motion
shall have served upon the accused or his counsel;
b. After the time a motion for new trial or reconsideration is
filed until notice of the order overruling the motion shall
have served upon the accused or his counsel;
c. Before the time a motion for a new trial or reconsideration
is filed until notice of the order overruling the motion
shall have been served upon the accused or his counsel;
d. None of them
89. Supposing the judge rendered an oral decision. It may be either

be for conviction, acquittal or dismissal. The oral decision will
never become final because:
a. It was not in writing;
b. It is not signed by the judge;
c. It can still can be changed or modify by the judge;
d. All of the above
90. Judgment is valid and binding when:

a. Duly signed by a judge;
b. Filed with the Clerk of Court
c. Promulgated during the incumbency of the judge who signed
it;
d. All of the above
91. X was charged with frustrated homicide. During the arraignment,

he pleaded not guilty. Immediately after he gave his plea of not
guilty, the victim died. So X was charged again, this time, with
homicide. When arraigned for homicide, X moved to quash the
homicide case on the ground of double jeopardy. Is X contention
correct? No because:
a. The second offense did not yet exist at the time of the
first prosecution for frustrated homicide;
b. No possibility for him to convicted for non-existing crime,
which supervened after being charged for frustrated
homicide;
c. B only
d. A & B
92. X was charged with murder but during the trial, the offense
proved was homicide only. What would be the decision of the
judge?
a. Murder because this is the offense charged
b. Homicide for being lesser offense, which is included in the
offense, charged;
c. No decision

R.C., J.D./2016
d. All of the above
93. Supposing, the charge is for homicide but he offense proved is

murder. The decision of the judge would be:
a. Convicted for murder because it is the offense proved;
b. Homicide for a person cannot be convicted of a greater
offense than that charged;
c. All of the above
94. Exclusion and separation of witnesses on any trial or hearing ,

the judge may exclude from the court any witness not at the time
under examination, except:
a. Party in action and One who is party in-interest
b. Against expert witness
c. Rebuttal witness and
d. All of the above
95. The court shall consider no evidence, which has not been
formally offered. The purpose for which the evidence is offered
must be specified. When shall offer of evidence be made? As
regards the testimony of witness, the offer must be made at the
time (a) ; as to documentary and object evidence,
the offer shall be made: (b) .
a. The witness is called to testify;
b. After the presentation of all the partys testimonial
evidence;
c. During the presentation of the parties evidence
d. A & B
96. Promulgation of judgment in the RTC and inferior courts shall

be made as follows:
a. The Clerk of Court rendering the judgment shall give notice
to the accused;
b. Reading of the judgment in the presence of the accused and
any judge of the court in which it was rendered;
c. Service of the decision by mail;
d. A & B only
97. Promulgation of the subject in the Supreme Court and Court of

Appeal shall be made:
a. By filling the judgment with the Clerk of Court of the
appellate court;
b. Presence of the accused is required;
c. The Clerk of Court shall make certified true copies of the
judgment to be served upon the parties y registered mail;
d. A & C only
98. The rule is, the Constitution bars State instructions to a

persons body, personal effects or residence except if conducted
by virtue of a valid search issued. However, warrantless searches
and seizures is legally allowed in:
a. Search of moving vehicle and Customs searches;
b. Seizure in pain view and Waiver or consent searches
c. Stop and frisk situation and Search incidental to a lawful
arrest
d. All of the above
99. It is a doctrine usually applied where a police officer is not

searching for evidence against the accused, but nonetheless
inadvertently comes across incriminating objects.
a. Waiver or consented search; c. In flagrante
delicto
b. Stop and frisk situation; d. Plain view

R.C., J.D./2016
100. In determining the probable cause, it is required that:

a. The judge must examine the complainant and his witnesses
personally;
b. The examination must under oath;
c. The examination must be in writing in the form of searching
questions and answers;
d. All of the above
e. A & B only
f. C only
101. Every search conducted in a house, room, or premises must be

made only in the presence of:
a. The lawful occupant thereof or any member of his family;
b. In their absence, in the presence of two witnesses of
sufficient age and discretion residing in the same
locality;
c. All of the above
d. A only
102. A search warrant has a lifetime of ten (10) days. When the
search under a warrant on one day was interrupted, it may be
continued under the same warrant the following day:
a. If it is still within the ten-day period;
b. Even after ten days from its date;
c. A only
103. A warrantless arrest is considered legitimate or valid and it

includes a warrantless search and seizure in:
a. Arrest in flagrante delicto; c. Arrest of
escape prisoner;
b. Arrest effected in hot pursuit d. All of the
above
104. The police saw 2 suspicious looking persons at dawn; hence,

they stopped them. They were carrying bags. When they were
stopped, they ran and when apprehended, an unlicensed revolver
was found in the bag. Is the search without warrant valid or
void?
a. Valid as this is stop and frisk situation;
b. Probable cause is present when they acted suspiciously and
attempted to run when order to stop; that they are
concealing something illegal;
c. All of the above
d. B only
105. The Constitution proscribes/prohibits unreasonable searches and

seizures of whatever nature. Without a judicial warrant, or
warrantless search is not allowed except:
a. A search incident to a lawful arrest and Consented search;
b. Seizure of evidence in plain view and Stop and frisk
situations;
c. Search of a moving vehicle and Customs search
d. All of the above
106. It is an order in writing issued in the name of the People of

the Philippines, signed by a judge and directed to a peace
officer, commanding him to search for personal property described
therein and bring it before the court.
a. Subpoena duces tecum;
b. Search warrants
c. All of the above
d. A & B

R.C., J.D./2016
107. A search warrant is in the nature of an interlocutory order

because there are other things to be done, like:
a. The filling of the corresponding information; c. A
only
b. Determination of the guilt of the accused; d. All of
the above
108. A search warrant is issued purposely to search and seize

personal property, which is:
a. Subject of the offense
b. Stolen or embezzled and other proceeds, or fruits of the
offense;
c. Used or intended to be used as the means of committing an
offense;
d. All of the above
109. The rights against warrantless arrest and search and seizure is
not absolute. Under the Rules of Criminal Procedure, an arrest
without a warrant may be lawfully made by a peace officer or a
private person if:
a. When, in his presence, the person to be arrested has
committed, is actually committing, or is attempting to
commit an offense;
b. When an offense has just been committed and he has probable
cause to believe based on personal knowledge of facts and
circumstances that the person to be arrested has probably
committed the offense;
c. Escaped prisoner from place of confinement/detention;
d. All of the above
110. It is a method employed by police authorities to malefactors in

the act of committing the crime of drug vending. It is a
procedure not prohibited by the RPC.
a. Buy bus operation c. All of the above
b. It is a form of entrapment d. A only
111. Mayor Sanchez was arrested 46 days after the commission of the
alleged rape of Sarmenta and the killing of Gomez and Sarmenta.
He was arrested without warrant of arrest. Was the arrest legal?
a. It is illegal because this is not arrest in flagrante
delicto;
b. Mayor Sanchez is not an escaped prisoner;
c. It is not in hot pursuit
d. All of the above
112. X threw a bag from a truck and marijuana leaves spilled out of
the bag. He was arrested and search without warrant. Was that
search valid?
a. It is legal c. All of the above
b. There was no search-conducted d. It is a plain view
doctrine search
113. Persons protected by the provisions against unreasonable search

and seizure.
a. Citizens of the Philippines only within the jurisdiction of
the Philippines
b. To all persons whether citizens or aliens within the
jurisdiction of the State
c. To all persons accused of acts and omissions punishable
under the Revised Penal Code
d. All of them
114. A search warrant and seizure of personal property, ownership

over it is
a. Not necessary as possession and control is required

R.C., J.D./2016
b. Necessary
c. Indispensable
d. B & C only
115. It simply means that sufficient facts must be presented to the

judge or magistrate issuing the warrant, to convince him, not
that the particular person has committed the crime, but that
there is a cause for believing that the person whose arrest is
sought might have committed the crime charged and that the object
sought to be seized is in the place to be searched.
a. Order for search warrant and seizure c. Writ of
execution
b. Probable cause d. Writ of
confiscation
116. Of the four requisites for issuing search warrant, one of the
following is not included
a. The warrant issued must particularly described the person
who committed the crime;
b. It must be issued upon probable cause
c. The probable cause must be determined by the judge himself
and not by the applicant or any other person;
d. In the determination of probable cause the judge must
examine under oath affirmation, the complainant and such
witness as the latter may produce;
117. Fill the blanks. Is outlawed because they place the

sanctity of the domicile and the privacy of communication and
correspondence at the mercy of the whims, caprice or passion of
peace officers.
a. Unreasonable search and seizure c. Illegally seized
documents
b. General search warrant d. All of them
118. The warrant must direct that it be served in the daytime,

unless
a. The affidavit asserts that the property is on the person
or in the place ordered to be searched, in which case a
direction may be inserted that it be served at any time of
the day or night.
b. The affidavit asserts that the property to be searched is
worth an amount within the jurisdiction of the Regional
Trial Court
c. The place to be searched is the subject of embezzlement
d. All of the above
119. Under Section 9 of Rule 126, a search warrant shall be valid

for how many days?
a. 15 days from its date c. 12 days after its
date
b. 10 days from its date d. 15 days after its
date
(Note: A warrant of arrest is valid until the accused is

arrested or until it is lifted; hence, there is no limitation of
period.)
120. To whom does the officer seizing property under warrant must
give a detailed receipt for the same?
a. To lawful occupant of the premises in whose presence the
search and seizure were made
b. In the absence of such occupant and the search was made in
the presence of at least two witnesses of sufficient age
and discretion residing in the same locality, leave a
receipt in the place in which he found the seized property

R.C., J.D./2016
c. To the judge who issued it

d. A & B only
121. Refers to a territorial unit where the power of the court is to

be exercised.
a. Venue c. Jurisprudence
b. Jurisdiction d. Trial Courts
122. Order of trial is:

a. Prosecution, rebuttal, defense, submission for decision
b. Defense, prosecution, rebuttal, submission for decision
c. Prosecution, defense, rebuttal, sur-rebuttal submission for
decision
d. Defense, rebuttal, prosecution, submission of the case for
decision
123. The procedure in the examination of witnesses is:

a. Direct, cross, re-direct, re-cross examination
b. Direct, re-direct, cross, re-cross examination
c. Cross, direct, re-direct, re-cross examination
d. Cross, direct, re-cross, re-direct examination
124. Arraignment is the stage in a criminal prosecution which

consists of:
a. Reading to the accused in open court of the information
charging him for an offense
b. Delivering to the accused a copy of the information
c. Asking him whether the accused pleads guilty or not guilty
as charged
d. All of the above
***END***

R.C., J.D./2016
RULES ON EVIDENCE (RULE 128-134)
1. Under the rule of examination of a child witness, testimony

of a child is _______ to support a finding of fact,
conclusion or judgement subject to standard proof required
in criminal and non-criminal cases.
a. sufficient
b. credible
c. corroboration is not required
d. all of the above
2. Mr. X was shot with .45 pistol after 2 hours. He was

visited by Mr. Y at the hospital where he was immediately
brought before treatment of the gunshot wound. Mr. X told
Mr. Y that it was Mr. Z who shot him. Forwith, Mr. Y who is
a law graduate took the initiative of taking down in long
hand the statement of Mr. X who narrated the events
surrounding ad the categorically stated that it was Mr. Z
who shot him. Ten days after Mr. X died as the consequence
of the gunshot wound. The statement of Mr. Y may be
received evidence as?
a. part of res gestae
b. dying declaration
c. A and B is correct
d. none of the above
3. the rules on electronic evidence applies to

a. quasi-judicial proceedings
b. civil ations and proceeding
c. administrative cases
d. all of the above
4. in criminal cases, the factum probandum for the prosecution

of the crime of theft that the prosecution must prove
beyond reasonable doubt constitutes:
a. that there be personal property belonging to another
b. that there is unlawful taking of that property
c. that the taking is with intent to gain
d. all of the above
5. This defense is viewed with disfavour as it can be

concocted an commonly used as defense in most prosecution
arising from the violations of dangerous drugs act
a. defense of frame up
b. defense of alibi
c. self-defense
d. denial
6. The presentation of the informant in illegal drug cases is

not indispensible for a successful prosecution.
a. partially true
b. partially false

R.C., J.D./2016
c. true
d. false
7. Under this doctrine of admissibility, it allows a party to

introduce otherwise inadmissible evidence to answer the
opposing partys previous introduction of inadmissibility
evidence. If it would remove any unfair prejudiced caused
by the admission of the earlier inadmissible evidence.
a. curative evidence
b. conditional evidence
c. multiple admissibility
d. rules on admissibility
8. Under this doctrine, foreign laws must be alleged and

proved. In the absence of proof, the forein law will
presumed to the same as the laws of the jurisdiction.
a. processual presumption
b. French rule
c. presumption of innocence
d. due process of law
9. The testimony of X that he saw Y hack A with a bolo and the

testimony of Z that he indeed saw Y strike the victim with
the bladed weapon. The testimony of X and Z is what kind of
evidence?
a. cumulative evidence
b. positive evidence
c. testimonial evidence
d. all of the above
10. Evidence obtained in violation of Anti-wiretapping law
(RA 4200) shall not be admissible in evidence in what
proceedings?
a. judicial and quasi-judicial
b. legislative
c. administrative hearing or investigation
d. all of the above
11. According to the laws of the land, of the fact in

issue in a cause, for the purposes of determining such
issue
a. indictment
b. judgment
c. arraignment
d. trial
12. The ultimate fact sought to be established may be

ascertained in:
a. pleading submitted by the parties
b. pre-trial order
c. issued are tried with the express or implied consent
of the parties
d. all of the above
R.C., J.D./2016
13. Evidence when not required except

a. question of law
b. question of fact
c. judicial notice
d. judicial admission
14. This is not absolute rule of law and is not strictly
applied in our jurisdiction. This doctrine means that if
the testimony of a witness on a material issue is wilfully
false and given with intention to deceive, the jury may
disregard all witness testimony.
a. the fruit of poisonous tree
b. false in one thing , false in everything
c. doctrine of processual presumption
d. due process of law
15. Delayed reporting by witness of what they know about a

crime renders their testimony false or incredible.
a. true
b. false
c. partially false
d. partially true
16. Negative testimony normalenjoys more weight than

apositive testimony
a. true
b. false
c. partially true
d. partially false
17. P claims to have been injured by the negligence of D

who denies having been negligent, the negligence of D and
the casual connection between such negligence and the
injuries of P taken as a whole of the suit constitutes
a. factum probans
b. factum probandum
c. and b is correct
18. Unless the witness is incapacitated to speak, the

answer of the witness shall be given
a. by affidavit
b. in open court
c. orally
d. in writing
19. In court proceedings, examination of witness means:

a. to be examined by a physician in court
b. to interrogate a person in the witness stand
c. to determine his capacity to speak
d. to be given a test before hearing

R.C., J.D./2016
20. A misleading question is one which:

a. is wrong in grammar
b. assumes a fact not yet testified to by the witness
c. is impertinent to the issue
d. suggest the answer which the examining party desires
21. Extrajudicial confession made by the accused is

a. sufficient of corroborated by corpus delicti
b. not sufficient ground for conviction
c. sufficient ground for conviction
d. all of the above
22. For the purpose of their presentation in evidence,

documents are either
a. public or private
b. affidavit or sworn statement
c. handwritten or type written
d. all of the above
23. Unless a different period is allowed by the court, an

offer of evidence in writing shall be objected within
a. evidence in writing
b. evidence offered orally
c. as soon as the grounds become apparent
d. objections must be specified
24. It refers to worthiness of belief, that quality which

renders a witness worthy of belief
a. credibility
b. admissibility
c. competency
d. relevancy
25. It exists when the drug is under the domination and

control of the accused or when he has the right to exercise
domination and control over the place where it is found.
a. actual possession
b. constructive possession
c. illegal possession
d. all of the above
26. Under sec 7 of the human security act, the provision

of R A 4200 notwithstanding, a ___________ may listen to,
intercept and record, any communication, message,
conversation, discussion, or written or spoken words
between the following members of judicially declared
outlawed terrorist organization, or group of person or of
any person charged with or suspected of the crime of
terrorism or conspiracy to commit terrorism.
a. police officers
b. law enforcements officials
c. and b is correct
R.C., J.D./2016
27. Waiver of the rules of evidence, under the civil code

of the Philippines (art 6) rights may be waived, unless the
waiver is contrary to
a. law and public order
b. public policy and morals
c. good customs or prejudicial to a third person with a
right recognized by law
d. all of the above
28. This term connotes an absence of a direct connection

between the evidence and the matter in dispute: it is a
parallel or diverging line merely additional or auxiliary
a. corroborative
b. negative
c. cumulative
d. collateral
29. A party may make judicial admission in:

a. the pleadings
b. during the trial, either by verbal or written
manifestation or stipulations
c. in other stages of the judicial proceedings
d. all of the above
30. A mistake that is clear to the mind or plain to see,

it is mistake that is readily perceived by the senses or
the mind that would relieve a party from the effects of his
admission.
a. culpable
b. palpable
c. believable
d. inevitable
31. Offer of compromise is not admissible EXCEPT

a. in civil cases
b. in criminal cases, except those involving quasi-
offenses or those allowed by law to be compromised
c. a plea of guilty later withdrawn, or an unaccepted
offer of plea of guilty to a lesser offense
d. an offer to pay or the payment of medical, hospital or
other expenses occasioned by an injury
32. Is an act, declaration or omission of a party to a

relevant fact, it is a voluntary acknowledgement made by a
party of the existence of the truth of certain facts which
are inconsistent with his claim in an action.
a. confession
b. admission
c. declaration against interests
d. all of the above
R.C., J.D./2016
33. Mr. A in his Counter-affidavit declares that he

performed an act like shooting the victim but denies that
he did so with criminal intent because the shooting was
done in self-defense, the declaration of Mr. A is
a. confession
b. admission
c. declaration against interest
d. all of the above
34. This admission occurs when a person manifest his

assent to the statement of other person.
a. adoptive admission
b. extra-judicial confession
c. judicial confession
d. offer of compromise
35.-37
The mutilated cadaver of a woman was discovered near the

creek, due to witnesses attesting that he saw the last person
seen with the woman when she still alive was Carlito, Carlito
was arrested within 5 hours after the discovery of the
cadaver and brought to the police station. The crime
laboratory determined that the woman had been raped. While in
police custody, Carlito broke down in the presence of his
assisting counsel and orally confessed to the investigator
that he had raped and killed the woman, detailing the acts he
had performed up to his dumping the body near the creek. He
was genuinely remorseful. During the trial, the state
presented the investigator to testify on the oral confession
of Carlito.
35. Oral confession of Carlito is?

a. admissible evidence of guilt
b. inadmissible evidence of guilt
c. sufficient to support conviction
d. insufficient to support conviction
36. The oral confession of Carlito while in the police

custody is
a. judicial admission
b. judicial confession
c. extra-judicial confession
d. all of the above
37. The witness attested that he saw the last person seen
with the woman when she was still alive was Carlito is?
a. direct evidence
b. prima facie evidence
c. demonstrative evidence
d. circumstantial evidence
R.C., J.D./2016
38. The silence of a person under investigation for the

commission of crime is
a. admission by silence
b. not an admission by silence because of the
constitutional mandates
c. extra-judicial confession
d. confession
39. It literally means that things done between strangers

ought not to injure those who are not parties to them.
a. falsus in umo, falsus in omnibus
b. res inter alios acta nocre non debet
c. acyus me invito factus non est meus actus
d. actus non facit reum nesi mens sit rea
40. Person who are partakers or have an interest in any

action or thing, or any relation to another
a. privies
b. conspirator
c. co-partner
d. agent
41. Evidence that tends to show what a person has done a

similar act at another time is probative of the contention
that he has done a similar act at another time.
a. propensity evidence
b. demonstrative evidence
c. character evidence
d. demeanor evidence
42. The act, declaration or omission of a party as to

relevant fact may be given in evidence against the offeror.
a. admission of a party
b. admission by the third party
c. confession
d. offer of compromise
43. An act or declaration made in the presence of and

within the hearing or observation of a party who does or
says nothing when the act or declaration in such as
naturally to call for action or comment if not true, and
when the act proper and possible for him to do so, may be
given in evidence against him.
a. admission by silent
b. admission by privies
c. admission by conspirator
d. admission by co partner or agent
44. An offer in writing to pay a particular sum of money

or to deliver a written instrument or specific personal
property is, if rejected without valid cause, equivalent to
R.C., J.D./2016
the actual production and tender of the money, instrument

or property.
a. unaccepted offer
b. offer of compromise in civil cases
c. offer of compromise in criminal cases
d. offer to pay the payment of medical, hospital or other
expenses on occasioned by injury
45. Physical evidence ranks high in our hierarchy of

trustworthy evidence but where the physical evidence runs
counter to the testimonial what should prevail?
a. physical evidence
b. testimonial evidence
c. a and b is correct
46. Under which categories of object evidence thus a

calibre .45 pistol used in killing the victim falls?
a. unique objects
b. object just made unique
c. non-unique evidence
47. Its purpose in establishing it is to guaranty that the

integrity of the physical evidence and to prevent the
introduction of evidence which is not authentic.
a. chain of custody
b. custodial investigation
c. marking of evidence
d. all of the above
48. These are forms of communication refer to telephone

conversations, text messages, chatroom sessions, streaming
audio, and other form of electronic communication, the
evidence of which is not recorded or retained.
a. epheral electronic communications
b. recordings
c. motion pictures
d. electronic evidence
49. It refers to evidence other than the original

instrument or documents itself.
a. secondary evidence
b. best evidence
c. original evidence
d. primary evidence
50. When carbon sheets are inserted between two or more

sheets of paper with the writing and the signature on the
first sheet being reproduced in the sheets beneath by the
same stroke of the pen or writing medium, all of the sheets
are deemed?
R.C., J.D./2016
a. original documents
b. secondary evidence
c. carbon copy
d. mimeograph
51. Original documents is one which:

a. the contents are the subject of inquiry
b. when the subject is in two or more copies are executed
at or about the same time, with identical contents
c. when an entry is repeated in the regular course of
business, one being copied from another at or near the
time of the transaction.
d. all of the above
52. Among various evidentiary rules, it is rule that has

direct application to the law on contracts
a. extrinsic evidence rule
b. evidence aluinde rule
c. parol evidence rule
d. all of the above
53. Under the evidence of written agreements a party may

present evidence to modify, explain, or add to the terms of
written agreement if he did not puts in issue in his
pleadings:
a. an intrinsic ambiguity, mistake or imperfection in the
written agreement
b. the failure of the written agreement to express the
true intent and agreement of the parties
c. the validity of the written agreement or the existence
of the other terms agreed to by the parties of their
successor in interest after the execution of the
written agreement
54. These types of demonstrative evidence are presented to

indicate the relative locations or positions of objects
persons.
a. diagrams
b. model sketch
c. maps
d. all of the above
55. Also refer as skiagraphs or radiographs

a. motion picture
b. recordings
c. epheral electronic communication
d. x-ray pictures
56. This embraces any notable fact in the life of a member

of the family and includes relationship family genealogy

R.C., J.D./2016
birth, marriage, death, the dates when and the places where
these facts occurred and the names of relatives.
a. culture
b. heritage
c. inheritance
d. pedigree
57. That degree of proof which produces conviction in an

unprejudiced mind.
a. clear and convincing evidence
b. preponderance of evidence
c. substantial evidence
d. proof beyond reasonable doubt
58. Demonstrative evidence is applicable to the

presentation of
a. best evidence
b. document
c. testimonial
d. object
59. To which of the following types of evidence may the

best evidence apply
a. testimonial
b. hearsay
c. object
d. documentary
60. Which of the following types of evidence cannot stand

on its own and must always be accompanied by the
testimonial evidence?
a. hearsay
b. documentary
c. secondary
d. object
61. Which of the following need not proved in a case?

a. judicial notice
b. judicial admission
c. presumption of law
d. all of the above
62. Demonstrative matters, government matters and

notoriety of facts are categories of subject of?
a. judicial admission
b. judicial cognizance
c. judicial mandatory
d. judicial discretion
63. When the terms of agreement had been reduced to

writing, it is considered as containing all the terms
agreed upon and there can be, as between the parties, no
R.C., J.D./2016
evidence of such terms other that the contents of the

agreement.
a. extrinsic evidence
b. evidence aluinde
c. parol evidence
d. all of the above
64. Which if the following requisites must be present in

order that the admission of a conspirator may be given in
evidence against his co-conspirator?
a. that there is conspiracy be first proved by the other
evidence
b. that there is two or more person coming to an
agreement regarding the commission of a crime
c. that admission relates to the common object
d. that the admission was made while engaged in the
conspiracy
65. Proof beyond reasonable doubt as a basis for

conviction in criminal cases requires
a. absolute certainty
b. clear and convincing evidence
c. corpus delicti
d. moral certainty of guilt
66. Extra judicial admission and confession made by the

person orally and in the absence of his counsel during
custodial investigation is?
a. admissible
b. inadmissible
c. declaration against interest
d. all of the above
67. It is the examination in chief of a witness by the

party presenting hi m on the facts relevant to the issue.
a. cross examination
b. direct examination
c. custodial examination
d. custodial interrogation
68. It is where one assumes as true a fact not yet

testified to by the witness, or contrary to that which he
has previously started?
a. leading question
b. misleading question
c. direct examination
d. cross examination
69. When an instrument in partly printed forms, which of

them shall prevail if they are inconsistent with each
other?
a. the latter
R.C., J.D./2016
b. the former
c. either of them
d. none of them
70. Evidence which is standing alone unexplained or un

contradicted, is sufficient to maintain its proposition
affirmed?
a. expert
b. prima facie
c. best evidence
d. conclusive
71. How do you classify photographs, maps , x rays,

charts and the like evidence
a. object evidence
b. demonstrative evidence
c. physical evidence
d. all of the above
72. A is an accused of killing B. AA who is the father of

A tried to settle the case with the family of B for his son
A. that the act of AA is settling the case is?
a. an offer of compromise and an implied admission of
guilt
b. an offer of compromise and not an implied admission of
guilt
c. not an offer of compromise and not an implied
admission of guilt
d. not an offer of compromise and an implied admission of
guilt
73. Ms. Jinaleen is a virgin, sexy and beautiful woman who

is 18 years old and Mr. Milgin who is 59 years old. Both of
them boarded a luxury cruise on the way to Singapore to
celebrate their monthsarry when the cruise ship
encountered a heavy downpour of water with strong winds
that eventually capsized the vessel. Now, both of them
could no longer be found. Who among the two shall be deemed
to have survived the other?
a. Ms. Jinaleen
b. Mr. Milgin
c. Ms. Jeanalyn dulay the chef
d. Mr. Melgean Hernandez the Captain
74. One is not purpose of cross examination

a. to discredit the witness
b. to ask him misleading question
c. to discredit the testimony of the witness
d. to elicit admission from witness
75. Documents written in unofficial language shall not be

admitted as evidence except:
R.C., J.D./2016
a. when accompanied with a translation in the dialect

understood by the witness
b. when translated in Filipino or English by counsels
before the trial
c. when translated in the dialect understood by the
accused
d. to elicit admission from witness
76. Which of the following is the exemption to the hearsay

rule made under the consciousness of an impending death?
a. parol evidence
b. ante mortem statement
c. suicide note
d. dead man statue
77. Documentary and object evidence shall be offer

a. after the witness is called to testify
b. after the presentation of a partys testimonial
evidence
c. immediately after the offer was mute
d. all of the above
78. Where the evidence is relevant and competent for two

or more purposes
a. conditional admissibility
b. multiple admissibility
c. curative admissibility
d. all of the above
79. The presiding judge for homicide orders the defense to

file affidavits of its witnesses which will serve as direct
examination, is the order of the judge correct?
a. yes because the purpose of the judge is to expedite
trial without delay
b. no because testifying orally of a witness in court
will enable the judge to observe the manner and
department of the witness whether he is an elusive or
rehearsed witness
c. maybe we dont know what the judge think
80. In case of doubt, that is, the inculpatory facts and

circumstances are capable of two or more interpretation,
one which is inconsistent with guilt and the other is
inconsistent with the innocence of the accused, then the
evidence is
a. fulfils the test of moral certainty and therefore
warrants conviction
b. does not fulfils the test of moral certainty hence,
not enough to produce conviction
c. depend on the consistencies even there are two
impression
R.C., J.D./2016
81. The probative effect of evidence

a. burden of proof
b. proof
c. evidence
d. burden of evidence
82. Based on the express representation of statements or

upon positive acts or conducts. A party cannot, in the
course of litigation in pais, be permitted to repudiate his
representation or occupy inconsistent position.
a. estoppel by deed
b. estoppel by pais
c. estoppel against tenant
d. estoppel by record of judgement
83. The order of examination of individual witness

a. cross examination, direct examination, re-cross
examination, re-direct examination
b. direct examination, cross examination, re-direct
examination, re-cross examination
c. direct examination, cross examination, re-cross
examination, re-direct examination
d. cross examination, direct examination, re-direct
examination, re-cross examination
84. Evidence that consist of writing or any material

containing letters, words, numbers, figures, symbols, or
other modes of written expression offered for the evidence
as part of their contents.
a. object evidence
b. document evidence
c. testimonial evidence
d. all of the above
85. Which of the following need not be proved in case in

court except
a. presumption of law
b. question of fact
c. judicial admission
d. judicial notice
86. Which of the following is a concept of the multiple

admissibility of evidence?
a. evidence proffered is admissible for one purpose only
b. evidence is inadmissible for one purpose but
admissible for another or vice versa
c. evidence is admissible in one party only
d. all of the above

R.C., J.D./2016
87. In ______ cases, an offer of compromise is not an

admission of liability and is not admissible against the
offeror.
a. administrative
b. civil
c. criminal
d. labor
88. The court shall consider no evidence which is has not

yet formally offered, as regards to the testimony of the
witness the offer of evidence should be made
_______________________
a. at the time the witness called to testify
b. after the presentation of testimonial evidence
c. as soon as ground become reasonably apparent
d. immediately after the offer is made
89. Evidence which denies the existence of the fact in

issue
a. rebutting
b. negative
c. disputable
d. conclusive
90. Leading questions are allowed in except

a. cross examination
b. direct examination
c. preliminary matters
d. of an willing or hostile witness
91. It is the ultimate facts or proposition to be

established.
a. factum probans
b. factum probandum
c. positive evidence
d. negative evidence
92. Facts existing during the commission of the crime

(i.e. opportunity, presence of the accused at the scene of
the crime, etc)
a. subsequent
b. concominant
c. antecedent
d. collateral matters
93. Based on procedural rules and may be overcome by

evidence to the contrary
a. conclusive presumption
b. disputable presumption
c. processual presumption
d. all of the above

R.C., J.D./2016
94. Secondary evidence may prove it contents except

a. recital of its contents in some authentic document
b. by the handwriting of the person
c. by the testimony of the witness
d. by a copy
95. X witness a man being slashed at the throat, because

of the trauma caused by the accidental witnessing of the
crime. He lost his sanity today. Is X qualified to testify
as a witness.
a. no because he became insane
b. yes provided that at the time that X would testify, he
must have regained hi normal condition
c. no because he cannot testify because of the trauma of
witnessing the slashing of the throat
d. yes because at the time of the witnessing of the crime
he was sane and his insanity is thereafter immaterial
96. A stole chicken under the house of B. after realizing

that what he did was a wrong. A returned the chicken to the
place under the house of B. Is A still criminally liable
even if he desisted?
a. A is no longer criminally liable because he desisted
b. A still criminally liable even if he desisted because
the desistance should be made before acts of execution
performed
c. A still criminally liable because the act of the theft
was already committed and the return of the chicken
does not relieve him from criminal liability
d. B and C
97. An act which is to be understood as unjust or improper

conduct capable of exciting, inciting or irritating anyone.
a. provocation
b. insinuation
c. aggression
d. irresistible force
98. Which of the following is place of worship

a. chapel
b. mosque
c. church
d. all of the above
99. Circumstance which pertains to a moral order, which

adds disgrace and obloquy to the natural effects of the
crime.
a. cruelty
b. alevosia
c. ignominy
d. treachery

R.C., J.D./2016
100. Evidence directed to prove a fact in issue as

determined by the rules of substantive law and pleading-
A. Relevant Evidence
B. Material Evidence
C. Direct Evidence
D. Circumstantial Evidence
***END***

R.C., J.D./2016
PRACTICE COURT
1.It is rule of conduct or right.It is a rule of action prescribed by the state for the governing of human
action.
a.Law c.Practice of law
b.Practice d.Trial
2.It is the application of an art or science.It is the actual performance or application of aquired
knowledge.It shows the lawyer how to get there.
a.Trial c.Practice
b.Practice of law d.Theory
3.It is the analysis of a set of facts in their ideal relation to one another.It tells or guides the lawyer
where to go.
a.Theory c.Practice
b.Law d.Practice of law
4.It is the doing or performing services in a court of jurtice,It includes legals advice,preparation of legal
instruments and contracts by which legal rights are secured,although such matters may not be pending
in court.
a.Trial c.Practice
b.Theory d.Practice of law
5.It means the proceedings in open court or while court is in session after the pleadings have been filed
and the case is otherwise ready for hearing up to and including the rendition of judgement.
a.Trial c.Practice
b.Pre-trial d.Law
6.Who may practice law in philippine Courts?Any person who?:

a.Has passed the Bar Exams and of good moral character
b.He graduated from College of Law of U.P with a degree of Bachelor of Laws only but of good
moral character
c.He graduated with a degree of Bachelor of Laws only but of good moral character
7.Requisites for a valid exercises of criminal jurisdiction are the following:

a.Jurisdiction over the person,the territory and the subject matter
b.Jurisdiction over the person and the subject matter only
c.Jurisdiction over the person and territory
8.Jurisdiction is determined by the law at:

a.The time of the commission of the offense
b.At the time when the action was filed
c.All of the above
9.The private prosecutor duly appointed and approved by the chief prosecutor and the presiding judge
of the court will enter his appearance after greeting the judge:
a.Appearing as private prosecutor in collaboration with the public prosecutor,ready your honor
b.Private prosecutor representing the offended party,ready your honor
c.Respectfully appearing as private prosecutor under the direct control and supervision of the
public prosecutor,then state his name his contact number,ready your honor.
d.Appearing as private prosecutor under the direct control and supervision of the public
prosecutor.
10.Public prosecutor wil enter his appearance:

a.In collaboration with the counsel of choice of accused ready.
b.For the accused, your honor,ready
c.For the witness,your honor,ready
d.For the people,your honor,ready
11.As the PAO lawyer he will enter his appearance:

R.C., J.D./2016
a.In collaboration with the counsel of choice of accused ready

b.For the accused,your honor,ready
c.For the witness,your honor,ready
d.For the people,your honor,ready
12.As to counsel of choice of accuse after greeting the judge.

a.For the accused,your honor,ready
b.Respectfully appearing as counsel of the accused,my name is Atty.X,my office address is XXX
and my contact no.is XXXXXXXX,ready your honor.
c.Respectfully appearing as counsel of the defendants,my name is Atty.X,my office address is XXX
and my contact no.is XXXXXXXX,ready your honor
13.A requirement,which is considered as one of the safeguards,set down by law to secure and protect
the right of the defendant.It is made before the court where the complaint or informatindn has been
filed or assigned for trial.
a.Trial c.Prosecution
b.Arraignment d.Judgement
14.Arraignment in absentia is not allowed because:

a.It is a must that the accused is present so that will informed of the nature and cause of the
accusation against him.
b.He must personally enter his plea
c.He must personally enter his information
15.The requirement of the rules on arraignment is mandatory and failure to observe them is ground
for....
a.Dismissal of the case
b.Reversal of the judgement and the remanding of the case for new trial.
c.Appeal of the case.
16.If the accused refuses to plead,or make a conditional plea of guilty,what shall the court do?
a.The arraignment must be postponed
b.A pleas of not guilty for the record shall be entered for him.
c.A pleas of guilty for the record shall be entered for him
17.An accused may enter a conditional plea of guilty,in the sense that he admits his guilt on condition
that a certain penalty shall be imposed upon him.Such kind of plea must be deemed a plea of...
a.Guilty c.waiver of arraignment
b.Not guilty d.All of them
18.In localities where no such members of the bar are available during the arraignment,who shall be
appointed by the court as counsel de Oficio of the accused?
a.The local Chief of police b.The Vice Mayor of the locality
c.Any person,resident of the province and good repute for probity and ability to defend the accused.
19.How much time for counsel de Oficio to prepare for arraignment?

a.Two hours before proceeding the arraignment.
b.Reasonable time to consult with the accused as to his plea before proceeding with the
arraignment
c.Seventy two(72) hours before proceeding with the arraignment.
20.When arraignment be held?

a.Within 30 days from the date of our court acquires jurisdiction over the person of the
accused,unless a shorter period is provided by special law or Supreme Court Circular.
b.Not later than 30 days from the date court acquires jurisdiction over the person of the
accused,unless a shorter period is provided by special law or Supreme Court Circular.
c.30 days after the date the court acquires jurisdiction over the person of the accused.unless
provided by special law or Supreme Court Circular.
21.The requirements of a trial absentia?

R.C., J.D./2016
a.The accused has been arraigned,he has been notified of the scheduled trial and his failure to
appear is unjistified.
b.Even without arraignment provided has been notified of the schedule trial and he failed to
attend the scheduled trial without valid reason.
c.The accused has not be arraigned and not be notified of the scheduled trial.
22.Of the following,one is the duty of the court when the accused pleads guilty to a capital offense.
a.The court shall conduct a searching inquiry into the voluntaries and full comprehension of the
consequences of his plea and require the prosecution to prove his guilt and the precise degree of
culpability.
b.To order the investigating officer to conduct air tight investigation of the case.
c.To redirect the fiscal to personally investigate the case.
d.To sentence the accused in accordance with his plea of guilty to the capital offense charged
with note address to the Supreme Court that the case should be reviewed.
23.The right to counsel is a personal one and therefore may be waived.It is waived when the
defendant. . .
a.Voluntarily submits himself to the jurisdiction of the court and proceeds with his defense.
b.Refuses to voluntarily submits himself to the jurisdiction of the court.
c.Refuses to hire his counsel.
24.After plea of not guilty,the accused is entitled to such number of days to prepare for trial unless the
court for good cause grants him further time.
a.Fifteen days c.One day
b.Four days d.Three days
25.If the accused appears to be suffering from an unsound mental condition that effectively render him
unable to fully understand the charge against him and to plead intelligently..
a.The arraignment shall be suspended
b.The criminal charged shall be dismissed
c.The trial shall be suspended
d.All of them
26.It is a plea of guilty by the accused without any condition or reservation.

a.Unconditioal plea c.Improvident plea
cReverted plea d. Acquittal
27.In case of acquittal,the judgement shall make a finding on the civil liability of the accused in favor of
the offended party,except when...
a.There is a clear showing that the act from which the civil liability might arise did not exist.
b.There is prejudicial question
c.The offender is pardon by the offended party
d.The guilty party dies before judgement
28.It is said to exist when the complaint or information sets out an offense but the evidence establishes
another crime.
a.Complex crimes c.Continuing offense
b.Variance d.false accusation
29.In case of variance between information and proof,the accused can only be convicted of the....
a.Graver offense which is included in the other
b.Lesser crime which is included in the other
c.Mitigating circumstances
d.Aggravating circumstances
30.Where the offense charged does not include the offense proved,It matters not how conclusive and
convincing the evidence or guilt may be,an accused person cannot be convicted by the court of any
offense unless. . .. .
a.The accused is charged of a complex crimes
b.It is charged in the information on which he is tried or necessarily included therein

R.C., J.D./2016
c.The accused is recidivist
31.X charged with homicide.He pleads but tells the judge,"Hindi ko sisanadya"The plea is not valid
because it is.:
a.Conditional plea c.Reverted plea
b.Negative indirect plea d.All of the above
32.The different kinds of plea are:

a.Conditional plea and unconditional plea
b.Negative indirect plea and improvident plea
c.Reverted plea
d.All of the above
33.X was charged with murder.After the prosecution presented its evidence,X filed a motion to dismiss
on the ground the prosecution failed to prove that the crime was committed within the territorial
jurisdiction of the court.The prosecution appealed,hence,X invoked double jeopardy.Decide
a.This is a dismissal on the merits of the case
b.There is no double jeopardy because the dismissal was upon his own motion or with his
express consent.
c.Accused waived his right to present his evidence
d.Accused can still present his evidence
34.X installed a jumper cable,which allowed him to reduce his electricity bill.He was prosecuted and
convicted for violating a municipal ordinance punishing unauthorized installation of such device.Can he
still be prosecuted for theft?
a.Yes,because it is an offense under the RPC

b.No,because when an act is punished by a law and an ordinance conviction or acquittal under
either will be a bar to prosecution of the same act on the ground of double jeopardy(second type of
double jeopardy);
c.All of the above
35.The following are constitutional rights of the accused during the trial of his case except:
a.To presumed innocent until the contrary is proved;
b.To be informed of the nature and cause of the accusation against him,to be present and defend
in person and by counsel at every stage of the proceedings,from arraignment to promulgation of the
judgement;
c.Right to appeal
36.When the court is satisfied,upon proof of oath that a material witness will not testify when
required,it may upon the motion of either party order the witness to .. .
a.To be discharged
b.To be implicated in the complaint or information
c.To post bail in such sum as may be deemed proper
37.The general rule is that a case shall not be provissionally dismissed.However.one of the following is
an exeption to the general rule,and that is. . .
a.When the accused dies before the final judgement of the case
b.When the accussed is expressly pardoned by the offended party
c.With the express consent of the accused and with notice to the offended party
38.The prosecution is required to present evidence and the sworn statement of each proposed state
witness at the hearing in support of the discharge is admissible in evidence,Thus the motion to discharge
the accused to be state witness must be filed.
a.Before the prosecution rests its case
b.Before the presentation of evidence
c.For the first time on appeal
d.Before arraignment

R.C., J.D./2016
39. The legal effect if there is a provisional dismissal of offenses punishable by imprisonment not
exceeding 6 years or a fine of any amount,or both.
a.Without the consent of the offender,the provisional dismissal of such offense will be void ab
initio.
b.Such dismissal shall be valid,either with or without the express consent of the accused.
c.Such dismissal shall become permanent 1 year after issuance of the order without the case
having been revived.
40.The legal effect if and when all agreements,made or entered during the pre-trial conference,which
are reduced in writing,are not signed by the accused and his counsel.
a.It is considered as admission of guilt
b.Cannot be used against the accused
c.The court shall order for another pre-trial conference of the case
41.The authority of the court when satisfied,upon proof or oath,that a material witness will not testify
when required,upon motion of either party.
a.May proceed to the trial of the case
b.May order the witness to post bail In such sum as may be deemed proper
c.Shall commit him to prison until he complies or is legally discharged after his testimony has
been taken.
42.The authority of the court upon refusal of the material witness to post bond.
a.May proceed to the trial of the case
b.May order the material witness be put in jail for obstruction of justice
c.Shall commit him to prison until he complies or is legally discharged after his testimoy has
been taken.
43.The period of prescription with respect to criminal offenses commences to run from the day on
which the crime is discovered by the:
a.Offended parties
b.The authorities or their agents
c.All of the above
44.What is the remedy of the accused if the court denies his motion to quash?
a.He should plead and proceed to trial
b.He should appeal
c.He should plead
45.What is the rule on double jeopardy?It means that when a person is regularly charged with a crime
and the case is terminated either by acquittal or conviction or in any other manner without the consent
of the accused,the latter:
a.Cannot be charged with the same offense or identical offense
b.Can still be charged with the same offense proven but not charged during the trial.
c.Cannot be charged with the same offense proven but not charged during the trial.
46.The following are the requisites for the first jeopardy to attach:
a.Valid indictment(complaint or information)filed in a court of competent jurisdiction
b.Valid arraignment and valid plea
c.The accused was acquitted,convicted or the case was dismissed without his express consent
d.All of the above
47.As a rule there is no double jeopardy if the dismissal of the case was with the express consent of the
accused except:
a.When there is insufficiency of evidence to support the charge against him and when there is
delay in violation of the accuser's right to speedy trial.
b.Due to insufficiency of the information
c.Due to lack of information
48.Pre-trial shall be mandatory in all criminal cases cognizable by the:

a.Sandiganbayan

R.C., J.D./2016
b.MTC,MTCC and MCTC and RTC

c.Court of Appeal
d.A and B only
49.That the agreement on the plea of the accused should be a lesser offense is limited only to the:
a.Offense necessarily included in the offense charged
b.Even to an offense not included or necessarily included in the offense charged
c.The case will be dismissed
50.The court may punish any such counsel,attorney or prosecutor as follows:

a.A counsel privately retained a fine not exceeding 20.000.00 and Counsel de Officio,public
prosecutor,PAO,a fine not exceeding 5.000.00
b.The prosecution is declared in default
c.The case will be dismissed
51.Supreme Court Circular No.38-39 promulgate for the purpose of implementing the provisions of:
a.R.A 8493 Known ar the Speedy Trial Act of 1998
b.SC AM 05-8-26
c.Revised Penal Code
d.Rules of Court
52.When bail shall be automatically cancelled:

a.Upon acquittal of the accused and dismissal of the case
b.Upon execution of the judge of conviction
c.Upon death of the accused
d.A and B only
53.The system of criminal procedure:

a.Inquisitorial c.Mixed
b.Accusatorial d.All of the above
54.The rules of criminal procedure shall be liberally construed in favor of the accused and strictly agains
the?
a.Offended party c. Accused
b.Complainant d. State
55. The requisites for a valid exercise of criminal jurisdiction:

a. Jurisdiction over the person
b.Jurisdiction over the territory
c. Jurisdiction over the subject matter
d.All of the above
56.Municipal Trial Courts(Municipal Trial Court:Municipal Trial Court in Cities;Municipal Circuit Trial
Court,Metropolitan Trial Court)exercise exclusive jurisdiction except:
a.Over all violations of city or municipal ordinances committed within their respective territorial
jurisdiction;
b.Over all offenses punishable with imprisonment not exceeding 6 years regardless of the fine
and other accessory penalties;
c.Where the only penalty provided by law is fine not exceeding P4,000.00;
d.Laws on written defamation or libel
57.Regional Trial Courts(RTCs)exercise exclusive jurisdiction,except,:

a.In all criminal cases not within the exclusive jurisdiction of any court tribunal or body except
those falling under the exclusive jurisdiction of Sandiganbayan;
b.All criminal cases where penalty is higher than 6 yrs,imprisonment.

c.All cases involving failure to register or failure to vote which are election offense
d.None of the Above

R.C., J.D./2016
58.As general rule,the offended party cannot go directly to court to file a criminal action;except:
a.Where the accused is under detention;
b.Where a person has been deprived of personal liberty calling for habeas corpus proceedings;
c.Where actions are coupled with provisional remedies and where the action may be barred by
the statute of limitations;
d.All of them
59.The civil action deemed instituted with the criminal action:

a.Only civil actions for the recovery of civil liability arising from the offense under Art.100 of RPC
b.Independent civil actions under Art 32,33,34 and Art 2176 of the Civil Code
c.All of the above
d.None of the above
60.The general rule is that the civil action is not necessarily extinguished by the acquittal of the
accused.Even if the accused is acquitted,the court can still award civil liability when:
a.The acquittal is based on reasonable doubt;
b.There is a declaration in the decision that the liability of the accused is only civil;
c.When the civil liability is not based on the act of which the accused is acquitted;
d.All of the above
61.The independent civil actions are those provide in Articles 32,33,34 and 2176 of the Civil Code.They
may proceed independently of the criminal action and they shall require.....of evidence.
a.Independently c.Substantial evidence
b.Preponderance d.All of the above
62.The civil action is not deemed instituted when:

a.The offended party has waived the civil action;
b.The offended party has instituted the civil action prior to the institution of the criminal action;
c.The offended party has reserved the right to institute the civil action seperately(Note:The
reservation should be made for the prosecution presents its evidence);
d.All of the above
63.Civil liability includes or constitutes:

a.Restitution
b.Reparation
c.Indemnity for consequential damages
d.All of the above
64.When is the seperate dependent civil action suspended?

a.After the criminal action has been commenced,the dependent civil action arising therefrom
cannot be instituted until final judgement has been entered in the criminal action;
b.When the criminal action is filed after the civil action was instituted,the civil action shall be
suspended in whatever stage it may be found until the final judgemdnt is rendered in the criminal action;
c.A and B
d.None of the above
(Note:The only exception to A and B above is when there exists a prejudicial question arising
in a previously filed civil action which should be resolved first)
65.The rule allowing the parents,grandparents,and guardians to file a complaint on behalf of the minor-
victim applies only to private crimes,except:
a.Seduction c.Acts of lesciviousness
b.Abduction d.Adultery and concubinage
66.A complaint of adultery or concubinage may be filed only by:

a.Investigating police c.offended spouse
b.Prosecutor d.All of the above
67.X was charged with estafa,but the recital of facts in the information actually alleges theft.Can X be
convicted of theft?No,because:
a.The recital of facts and not the designation of the offense is controlling;

R.C., J.D./2016
b.The two crimes have elemens different from each other;

c.To convict X for theft would violate his right to be informed of the nature and cause of the
accusation against him;
d.All of the above
68.In which offenses is the particular place where the offense was committed indispensable?
a.Violation of domicile
b.Trespass to dwelling
c.Violation of election law(prohibiting the carrying of a deadly weapon within a 30-meter radius
of polling places);
d.All of the above
69.For which offenses is the time of the commission of the offense essential?
a.Infanticide c.Abortion
b.Violation of Sunday Law d.All of the above
70.In what cases is the name of the offended party indispensable?

a.Slander
b.Libel
c.Roberry with violence and intimidation
d.All of the above
71.A complaint or information must be charged only one offense except when the law provide only one
punishment for various offenses:
a.Compound crimes c.Special complex crime
b.Complex crimes d.All of the above
72.What is the effect of the failure of the accused to be object to duplicious charges in the information?
a.The right to object is deemed waived
b.He may be convicted of as many offense as charged;
c.All of the above
d.None of the above
73.X fired his gun but the bullet two persons What crime he commit?
a.Complex crime c.Special complex crime
b.Compound crime d.All of the above.
74.X was charged with both robbery and estafa in one information.Can he be convicted of both
offfenses?
a.If the objects to the duplicitous information,he cannot be convicted under the information;
b.If he fails to object before arraignment,he can be convicted of both offenses;
c.All of the above
d.None of the above
75.X was speeding on a highway when his car collided with another car.The other car was totally
wrecked and the driver thereof suffered serious physical injuries.How many information should be filed
and for what offense or offenses will he be charged?
a.One information for serious physical injuries and damage to property through rekless
imprudence as there is only one negligent act resulting to two offenses;
b.Two seperate cases of physical injuries and another damage to property;
c.One seperate cases of physical injuries and another for damage to property;
d.All of the above
76.Before plea,a complaint or information can be amended as to form or substance without leave of
court,except:
a.If amendment will downgrade the offense;
b.If information drops an accused from the said information
c.All of the above
d.None of the Above

R.C., J.D./2016
77.The information against an accused is amended by adding additional allegation of habitual

delinquency and recidivism.This is:
a.Formal amendment c.All of the above
b.Substantial amendment d.None of the above
78.The amendment of an information from frustrated homicide to consumated homicide is

a.Formal amendment and accused need not be re-arraigned;
b.Substantial amendment of the accused to be re-arraigned;
c.None of the above
d.A and B
79.The additional allegation of conspiracy is what kind of amendment?

a.Substantial c.All of the above
b.formal d.None of the above
80.The change in the nature of the offense due to supervening event is......amendment:
a.Substantial c.All of the above
b.Formal d.None of the above
81.Preliminary investigation is an inquiry or proceeding to determine whether:

a.There is sufficient ground to engender a well grounded belief that a crime has been
committed and the respondent is probably guilty thereof;
b.The respondent should be held for trial;
c.A and B
d.None of the above
82.Before a complaint or information is filed,preliminary investigation is required for all offenses

punishable by imprisonment of at least 4yrs,2mos,and 1day,regardless of the fine,except:
a.If the accused was arrested by virtue of lawful arrest without warrant;
b.The information may be filed after the conduct of an inquest;
c.All of the above
d.A and B
(Note:That in this case,the accused can ask for preliminary investigation but he should waive his rights
under Art.125 of the RPC.(Arbitrary detention)
83.The purpose of preliminary investigation:

a.To determine whether a crime has been committed and the respondent is probably guilty
thereof,and should be held for trial;
b.To protect the innocent against hasty,malicious and oppresive prosecution;to protect him
from public accusation of a crime;from the trouble,expenses and anxiety of a public trial;
c.To protect the state from having conduct useless and expensive trials;
d.A,B and C
84.Preliminary investigation is:

a.Statutory right and not a constitutional right;
b.Not an element of due process;
c.It may be waived
d.All of the above
85.Can the accused demand the right to confront and cross-examine the witnesses during the
preliminary investigation?No,because:
a.It is not part of the trial;
b.It is summary and inquisitorial in nature;
c.Its function is to determine the existence of probable cause and not the guilt of the accused;
daAll of the above
86The following may conduct preliminary investigation,except

a.Ombudsman with respect to Sadiganbayan offenses
b.National and Sate prosecutor;
c.Comelec with respect to election cases

R.C., J.D./2016
d.RTC Judge
87.How does the investigating prosecutor resolve the findings after preliminary investigation:
a.If he finds probable cause to hold the respondent for trial,he shall prepare the information
against him:
b.If the investigating prosecutor finds no probable cause he shall recommend the dismissal of
the complaint;
c.A and B
d.None of the above
(Note:No complaint or information may be filed or dismissed by an investigating prosecutor without the
prior approval of the provincial or city prosecutor)
89.Preliminary investigation is an inquiry or proceeding to determine whether:

a.There is sufficient ground to engender a well-grounded belief that a crime has been
committed and the respondent is probably guilty theof;
b.The respondent should be held for trial
c.A and B
d.None of the above
90.Before a complaint or information is filed,preliminary investigation is required for all offenses

punishable by imprisonment of at least 4yrs,2mos,and 1day,regardless of the fine,except:
a.If the accused was arrested by virtue of lawful arrest without warrant;
b.The information may be filed after the conduct of an inquest;
c.All of the above
d.None of the above
(Note:Than in this case,the accused can ask for preliminary investigation but he should waive his rights
under Art.125 of the RPC.(Arbitrary detention)
91.The purposed of preliminary investigation:

a.To determine whether a crime has been committed and the respondent is probably guilty
thereof.and should be held for trial;
b.To protect the innocent against hasty,malicious and oppresive prndsecution;to protect him
from public accusation of a crime;from the trouble,expenses and anxiety of a public trial;
c.To protect the state from having to conduct useless and expensive trials;
d.All of the above
92.Can the accused demand the right to confront and cross-examine the witnesses during the
preliminary investigation?No,because;
a.It is not part of the trial;
b.It is summary and iquisitorial in nature;
c.Its function is to determine the existence of probable cause and not the guilt of the accused;
d.All of the above
93.A preliminary examination is a proceeding conducted by judges for the purpose of determining
probable cause for the:
a.Issuance of warrant of arrest;
b.To determine fact of commission of a crime;
c.To determine the probability that the person sought to be arrested committed the crime;
d.To determine the guilt of the accused
e.To conduct of PTI
f.A and E only
g.A,B and C only
94.The rules of procedure shall be construed:

a.Strictly against the state
b.Jurisdiction over the person subject matter
c.Jurisdiction over the person of the accuse
d.All of the above

R.C., J.D./2016
95.For valid exercise of criminal jurisdiction,the requisites are:

a.Jurisdiction over the person of the accused
b.Jurisdiction over the subject matter
c.Jurisdiction over the territoriality where the crime was committed
d.All of the above
96.Which of the following cases are within the jurisdiction of MTC in criminal cases?
a.All violations of city or municipal ordinances committed within their territorities
b.All of offenses punishable with imprisonment not exceeding six years.
c.Cases where the penalty provided by law is fine only not exceeding P4,000.00
d.All of the above
97.Whic of the following cases are within the jurisdiction of RTC?

a.All cases where penalty is higher than 6 yrs.
b.Laws on libel
c.Appellate jurisdiction over cases decided by the MTC
d.All of the above
98.Jurisdiction over the person of the accused is aquired upon:

a.His arrest
b.His voluntary appearance to the court
c.A and B
d.None of the above
99.Criminal actions be instituted:

a.For the offenses where a preliminary investigation ir required,by filing the complaint with
proper officer for the purpose of conducting the preliminary investigation;
b.For all other offenses,by filing the complaint or information directly with the MTC or the
complaint with the office of the prosecutor
c.All of the above
100.When such an authority to prosecute criminal actions cease?

a.Upon actual intervention of the prosecutor or upon elevation of the case to the Regional
Trial Court
b.Upon actual intervention of private prosecutor or upon elevation of the case to the Court of
Appeals
c.When the offense charged is one where death penalty is imposed or upon elevation of the
case to the Supreme Court
d.All of the above
101. A mandatory requirement that a complaint or information shall be in writing,against all person
who appear to be responsible for the offense involved:
a.In the name of the People of the Philippines
b.Instituted in the name of the aggrieved party
c.Criminal action
d.Civil action
102.One of the requirement of a valid complaint is that must be under oath,except.when:

a.The complaint is filed before the Chief of Police
b.The complaint is filed before the Fiscal Office
c.The complaint is filed by offended party before the court
d.All of the above
103. It is defined as an accusation in writing charging a person with an offense subscribed by the
fiscal and filed with the court:
a.Action c.Information
b.Complaint d.Police Blotter

R.C., J.D./2016

R.C., J.D./2016
LAW BOOK 1 29. A 59. A 89. B
30. B 60. A 90. A
1. B 31. C 61. B 91. C
2. B 32. A 62. D 92. B
3. C 33. B 63. A 93. A
4. B 34. A 64. A 94. B
5. A 35. B 65. B 95. A
6. A 36. D 66. A 96. B
7. A 37. B 67. C 97. C
8. B 38. D 68. C 98. B
9. A 39. A 69. B 99. B
10. C 40. B 70. A 100. A
11. A 41. C 71. B
12. B 42. B 72. B
13. D 43. C 73. B
14. C 44. A 74. D
15. B 45. A 75. D
16. A 46. D 76. C
17. B 47. A 77. C
18. A 48. B 78. D
19. C 49. A 79. D
20. D 50. D 80. D
21. B 51. B 81. A
22. A
52. A 82. B
23. C 53. D 83. C
24. D 54. B 84. B
25. A
55. D 85. D
26. A 56. B 86. A
27. C 57. B 87. A
28. B 58. C 88. A
BOOK 2 SET 36. B 74. A
37. A 75. A
1 38. B 76. D
39. A 77. A
1. B
40. B 78. B
2. C
41. A 79. A
3. D
42. B 80. B
4. B
43. 81. A
5. C
44. A 82. A
6. B
45. B 83. A
7. D
46. C 84. A
8. C
47. 85. D
9. B
48. B 86. D
10. A
49. A 87. B
11. C
50. B 88. C
12. B
51. B 89. B
13. C
52. A 90. B
14. C
53. A 91. A
15. A
54. B 92. A
16. C
55. B 93. A
17. C
56. D 94. D
18. C
57. A 95. D
19. B
58. A 96. B
20. A
59. B 97. C
21. C
60. B 98. C
22. C
61. D 99. B
23. D
62. D 100. B
24. C
63. B
25. C
64. B
26. B
65. A
27. D
66. A
28. C
67. B
29. C
68. A
30. C
69. B
31. B
70. D
32. A
71. A
33. B OR A
72. A
34. B
73. A
35. A
BOOK 2 SET 2 38. A 76. C
39. A 77. B
1. A
40. D 78. C
2. C
41. C 79. C
3. A
42. A 80. A
4. B
43. D 81. C
5. D
44. D 82. C
6. B
45. B 83. B
7. D
46. B 84. C
8. B
47. A 85. A
9. A
48. C 86. C
10. D
49. F 87. A
11. C
50. B,C 88. B
12. B
51. A 89. D
13. D
52. C 90. C
14. C
53. A 91. A,C
15. B
54. A 92. A,D
16. D
55. A 93. A
17. C
56. B,A 94. B
18. A
57. G 95. B
19. C
58. F 96. D
20. A
59. A 97. C
21. F
60. A 98. C
22. A
61. C 99. A,D
23. B,C
62. C 100. D
24. A
63. D
25. D
64. B
26. C
65. C
27. C
66. D
28. C
67. B
29. B
68. A
30. C
69. B
31. .
70. C
32. A
71. C
33. A
72. C
34. D
73. C
35. C
74. A,B
36. A
75. C
37. B
CRIMINAL 39. D 81. A
40. A 82. B
PROCEDURE 41. A 83. A
1. C 42. D 84. B
2. C 43. C 85. A
3. C 44. B 86. B
4. A 45. B 87. B
5. B 46. A 88. A
6. B 47. B 89. D
7. A 48. A 90. D
8. B 49. A 91. D
9. C 50. B 92. B
10. C 51. A 93. B
11. B 52. B 94. D
12. C 53. B 95. D
13. B 54. D 96. C
14. D 55. D 97. C
15. B 56. D 98. D
16. B 57. D 99. D
17. D 58. D 100. D
18. D 59. D 101. C
19. B 60. D 102. C
20. A 61. D 103. D
21. B 62. D 104. C
22. B 63. D 105. D
23. A 64. D 106. B
24. C 65. D 107. D
25. C 66. D 108. D
26. A 67. C 109. D
27. D 68. A 110. C
28. D 69. D 111. D
29. D 70. D 112. D
30. C 71. A 113. B
31. D 72. B 114. A
32. D 73. A 115. B
33. D 74. A 116. A
34. B 75. B 117. B
35. D 76. A 118. A
36. D 77. B 119. B
37. D 78. D 120. D
38. A 79. C 121. A
80. A 122. C
123. A
124. D
Evidence 41. C 83. B
42. D 84. B
1. D 43. A 85. B
2. D 44. A 86. B
3. D
45. A 87. B
4. D 46. A 88. B
5. A 47. A 89. B
6. C 48. A 90. B
7. A 49. A 91. B
8. A 50. A 92. B
9. D 51. D 93. B
10. D 52. D 94. B
11. D 53. D 95. B
12. D 54. D 96. B
13. D 55. D 97. B
14. B 56. D 98. D
15. B 57. D 99. C
16. B 58. D 100. A
17. B 59. D
18. B 60. D
19. B
61. D
20. B 62. D
21. A 63. D
22. A 64. D
23. C 65. D
24. A 66. B
25. B
67. B
26. C 68. B
27. D 69. B
28. D 70. B
29. D 71. D
30. b 72. D
31. 73. B
32. C 74. B
33. B 75. B
34. A 76. B
35. B 77. B
36. C 78. B
37. D 79. B
38. B 80. B
39. B 81. B
40. A 82. B
COURT TESTIMONY 41. B 83. D
42. C 84. D
1. A 43. C 85. D
2. C 44. A 86. D
3. A
45. A 87. C
4. D 46. D 88. C
5. A 47. A 89. C
6. A 48. D 90. C
7. A 49. A 91. A
8. B 50. A 92. D
9. C 51. A 93. N/A
10. A 52. A 94. A
11. B 53. D 95. D
12. B 54. D 96. D
13. B 55. D 97. D
14. A 56. C 98. C
15. B 57. C 99. C
16. B 58. D 100. A
17. C 59. C 101. A
18. C 60. D 102. B
19. B
61. B 103. C
20. A 62. D
21. A 63. D
22. A 64. C
23. A 65. D
24. A 66. C
25. A
67. D
26. A 68. D
27. A 69. D
28. B 70. D
29. B 71. D
30. B 72. C
31. D 73. B
32. D 74. C
33. B 75. A
34. B 76. C
35. C 77. A
36. C 78. A
37. C 79. B
38. A 80. B
39. C 81. C
40. B 82. C

QUESTIONARES FOR
LAW ENFORCEMENT
ADMINISTRATION
POLICE ORGANIZATION AND

ADMINISTRATION WITH POLICE
PLANNING
INDUSTRIAL SECURITY MANAGEMENT
POLICE PATROL OPERATION WITH

POLICE COMMUNICATION SYSTEM
POLICE INTELLIGENCE
POLICE PERSONNEL AND RECORDS

MANAGEMENT
COMPARATIVE POLICE SYSTEM
1 | P a g e QUESTIONARES for LAW ENFORCEMENT ADMINISTRATION/Charlemagne

James P. Ramos R.C., J.D./2016
CRIMINOLOGISTS Licensure Examination

Charlemagne James P. Ramos R.C., J.D./Review Files/Alpha House 2015
LAW ENFORCEMENT ADMINISTRATION SET A
INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following

questions. Mark only the answer for each item by shading the box
corresponding to the letter of your choice on the answer sheet
provided. STRICTLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED.
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Mr. Tibon passed the criminologist licensures examination last

October 2015 at the age of 29 years old. he apply as police
officer 1 on the said year of December. On June 24, 2016 Mr.
Tibon celebrate his 30th birthday, a lucky birthday gift for Mr.
Tibon because on June 30, 2016 the time that Mr. Tibon take oath
as police officer to the office of the PNP; with regard to his
age, is Mr. Tibon still qualified?
a. Yes, Mr. Tibons bday wish granted
b. Yes, under the law not less than 21 but not more than 30 yrs
old
c. No, Mr. Tibon is too old
d. No, under the law; say, less than 30 yrs old, meaning 29 yrs
old below
2. The graduates of the PNPA shall be automatically appointed to the

initial rank of ______.
a. Not less than SPO4 but not more than inspector
b. Inspector
c. Senior inspector
d. Defending upon from your merits/awards
3. The three types of surveillance according to intensity and

sensitivity are; discreet, close and loose. Question what is
loose?
a. Subject person to be watch is unaware that he is under
observation
b. Subject is aware that he is under observation varied on each
occasions
c. Applied frequently or infrequently, period of observation
varied on each occasion
d. Remaining outdoors and posing who would normally conduct his
business in such an area, i.e., laborer, carpenter street
vendor, etc.
4. Headed by a director with the rank of chief superintendent, the

__________ shall perform all police functions over the Philippine
territorial waters and river?
a. Communications unit
b. Aviation security unit
c. Maritime police unit
d. Civil relations unit

R.C., J.D./2016
5. It is the more economical alternative patrol system, which has an
objective approach against criminality as much s practicable. It
addresses crime at its very root before it is able to develop
into felonious act?
a. Reactive patrol
b. Proactive patrol
c. Police omnipresence
d. Participative law enforcement
6. Relief and drainage system, vegetation, surface material, man-

made features. There are military aspects of __________ which
includes cover and concealment, obstacle, critical key terrain
features, observation and field of fire, and avenues of approach?
a. People
b. Enemy
c. Terrain
d. Weather
7. Is a form of clandestine investigation, which consist of keeping

persons, place or other targets under physical observation in
order to obtain evidence or information pertinent to an
investigation?
a. Tailing or shadowing
b. Surveillance
c. Casing or reconnaissance
d. Roping
8. General Assembly means;

a. Compose of delegates appointed by the government of member
countries. As interpols supreme governing body, it meets once
year and takes all the major decisions affecting general
policy. The resources needed for international cooperation,
working methods, finances and program of activities.
b. The executive committee is interpols select deliberate organ
which meets three times a year, usually in march, July and
immediately before the general assembly.
c. Is a package of transnational flows of people, production,
investment, information, ideas, and authority and is growing
inter-penetration of states, markets, communications and
ideas. It is one of the leading characteristics of the
contemporary world.
d. The worlds largest international police organization, with
188 member countries, created in 1923, it facilitates cross
border police co-operation, and supports and assists all
organizations, authorities and services whose mission is to
prevent or combat international crime
9. A fixed point or location to which an officer is assigned for

duty, such as a designated desk or office or an intersection or
cross walk from traffic duty. It is spot location for general
guard duty?
a. Post
b. Unit
c. Section
R.C., J.D./2016
d. Division
10. Length of streets designated for patrol purposes. It is

also called LINE BEAT
a. Bureau
b. Beat
c. Patrol
d. Route
11. Is the maximum number of subordinates at a given position

that superior can supervise effectively?
a. Span of control
b. Scalar principle
c. Unity of command
d. Command responsibility
12. Shows the vertical hierarchy of the organization which

defines an unbroken chain of units from top to button describing
explicitly the flow of authority?
a. Span of control
b. Scalar principle
c. Unity of command
d. Command responsibility
13. A-2;
a. Completely reliable; truth cannot be judged
b. Unreliable; doubtfully true
c. Not usually reliable; confirmed by others
d. Completely reliable; probably true
14. This is observation of place usually book stall, a gambling

joint, a residence where illegal activities are going on fixed
position.
a. Observation
b. Technical
c. Moving
d. Stationary
15. POSDCORB is an acronym developed by early management

theorist Luther Gulick, this acronym supposed to define all
duties of an administration or manager and this stand for?
a. Planning, organizing, staffing, directing, coordinating,
reporting and balancing
b. Planning, organizing, staffing, directing, cooperating,
reporting and budgeting
c. Planning, organizing, supervision, directing, cooperating,
d. Planning, organizing, staffing, directing, coordinating,
16. Unity of command means?

a. Command should come from one superior only
b. Conferring of an amount of authority by a superior position by
a subordinate
R.C., J.D./2016
c. Shows the vertical hierarchy of the organization
d. Organization is effective if it enables the individual
17. All original appointment of commissioned officers in the

PNP shall commence with the rank of inspector; except,
a. Engineers
b. Optometrists
c. Forensic sciences
d. Chaplains
18. Refers to any physical structure whether natural or man-

made capable or restricting, deterring, delaying or preventing
illegal and unauthorized access to an installation?
a. Fences
b. Personnel
c. Barriers
d. Walls
19. No person shall be licensed s security officer unless he

has the following qualification; except,
I. Filipino citizen
II. High school graduate
III. Physically and mentally fit
IV. Has graduated from security officers training course or
its equivalent
V. Holder of baccalaureate degree
a. 1,2,3,4
b. 1,2,3,5
c. 1,3,4,5
d. 2,3,4,5
20. In the Philippines national police, the heart of the

organization is investigation, while the nervous?
a. Operation
b. Administration
c. Record
d. Communication
21. A plan established the as required according to type of

personnel, and the general and specific instructions of
surveillance?
a. Surveillance plan
b. Pre-surveillance conference
c. Undercover man
d. Liaison program
22. Headed by a director with the rank of chief superintendent,

__________ shall function as a mobile strike force or reaction
unit to augment regional, provincial municipal and city police
forces for civil disturbance control, counterinsurgency, hostage-
taking rescue operations and other special action.
a. Operation
b. Administration
R.C., J.D./2016
c. SWAT
d. SAF
23. Is the conferring of an amount of authority by a superior

onto a lower-level position? The person to whom authority is
delegated becomes responsible to the superior for doing the
assigned job. However, the delegators remain accountable for
accomplishment of the job within the guidelines and quality
standards of the agency?
a. Delegation of authority
b. Unity of command
c. Ranking officer
d. Superior strength
24. Is the crime repression activity of the police which is

accomplished by making their presence known in such a way that
even if they are longer present in a certain location, would be
criminals would still have the impression that they are still
around and would therefore refrain from committing an offense?
a. Crime prevention
b. Crime suppression
c. Police omnipresence
d. Police visibility
25. Any person is a convenient, secure and unsuspecting place

where police undercover men meet for debriefing or reporting
purposes.
a. Lost
b. Drop
c. Convoy
d. Contact
26. Surveillance follows the subject from the place to place to

maintain continuous watch of his activities?
a. Technical
b. Moving
c. Stationary
d. Rabbit
27. This is surveillance by the use of communications and

electronic hardwares, gudgets, system and equipments?
a. Technical
b. Moving
c. Stationary
d. Rabbit
28. The following are the basic preparations in surveillance;

I. Study the subject
II. Knowledge of the area and terrain
III. Subversive organization
IV. Prepared utilities
V. Cover study
a. 1,2,3,4
b. 1,2,3,5
R.C., J.D./2016
c. 1,3,4,5
d. 2,3,4,5
29. It includes bodies of water, mountains, marshes, ravines,

deserts or other terrain that re difficult to traverse?
a. Natural barriers
b. Inherent barriers
c. Nature barriers
d. Given barriers
30. DILG in the Philippines is equivalent in NPA in Japan which

means?
a. national police agency
b. national policing commission agency
c. national police commission agency
d. national policing agency
31. What is the minimum rank in Japan?

a. Keishie
b. Junsa
c. Patroller
d. Constable
32. Implies that system of varied functions arrange into a

workable pattern?
a. Functional type
b. Functional principle
c. Line and staff
d. Functional arrangement
33. Reliability cannot be judge; truth cannot be judge.

a. C-2
b. F-6
c. B-2
d. A-3
34. All that goes of budgeting in the form of fiscal planning,

accounting and control?
a. Allowances
b. Saving
c. Financial
d. Budgeting
35. Is keeping those to whom the executive is responsible

informed as to what is going on, which thus includes keeping
himself and his subordinates informed through records research
and inspection?
a. Recording
b. Reporting
c. Response
d. Receive
36. All important duty of interrelating the various parts of

the work?
R.C., J.D./2016
a. Cooperation
b. Coordinating
c. Unity
d. Division of work
37. Task of making decisions and embodying them in specific and

instructions and serving as the leader of the enterprise?
a. Directing
b. Boss
c. Leader
d. Management
38. Personnel function of bringing in and out training the

staff the favorable conditions of work filing the organization
with the right people and right position.
a. Efficiency
b. Effectiveness
c. Discipline
d. Staffing
39. Establishment of the formal structure of authority through

which work subdivisions are arranged, defined and coordinated for
the define objective.
a. Organizing
b. Division of work
c. Coordinating
d. Efficiency
40. Working out in broad outline the things that need to be

done and methods for doing them to accomplish the purpose set for
the enterprise.
a. Objective
b. Mission
c. Planning
d. Task
41. Responsible for the direct accomplishment of the

objectives.
a. Law enforcement
b. Line
c. Staff
d. Investigator
42. Responsible for support, advisory, or facilitative

capacity?
a. Law enforcement
b. Staff
c. Logistic
d. Line
43. An area containing two or more beats, routes or posts?

a. Beat
b. Route
c. Post
R.C., J.D./2016
d. Sector
44. A geographical subdivision of a city for patrol purposes,

usually with its own station?
a. Venue
b. Territorial
c. Location
d. District
45. A section or territorial division of a large city each

comprised of designated districts?
a. Sector
b. Territorial
c. District
d. Area
46. Refer to the regular tour made by a guard in a place in

order to protect it or to maintain order
a. Security
b. Patrol
c. Tour guard
d. Law enforcement
47. It is an intelligence data that are not of an immediate

value. It is usually descriptive in nature, accumulation of
physical description of personalities, modus operandi. It does
not have immediate operational value but rather long that may
become relevant to future police operations?
a. Strategic intelligence
b. Line intelligence
c. Counter intelligence
d. Intelligence
48. Mr. Zapanta was born on June 6, 1985 and wants to enter the
police service before the end of 2010. Considering his age, can
he be appointed as police officer 1?
a. No, he is too young to be a police officer
b. No, his age exceeded the age requirements
c. Yes, he will file an age waiver
d. Yes, his age is within the age requirements
49. The oversight body of the prefectural police in Japan is

__________?
a. National police agency
b. National police bureau
c. National police safety commission
d. National police commission
50. Reliability rating of intelligence is A to F. if A is very

completely reliable, B stand for?
a. Unreliable
b. Fairly reliable
c. Not usually reliable
d. Usually reliable
R.C., J.D./2016
51. The blue army that is being referred to?

a. SWAT personnel of the PNP
b. Boys scouts of the Philippines
c. Government security guards
d. Private security guards
52. A surveillant becomes __________ when he/she discards

his/her identity, changes his/her name and/or his/her appearance
and get into contact with his subject.
a. Undercover agent
b. Asset
c. Rabbit
d. Secret agent
53. The fitness and potential of n applicant to the PNP to

determine by whom?
a. Recruitment and appointment system
b. Personnel management system
c. Appointment and performance system
d. Recruitment and selection system
54. Perimeter barriers, protective lighting and guarding system

are classified as __________.
a. Protection security
b. Assets protection
c. Personnel security
d. Physical security
55. A clear zone of _____ ft. or more should exist between the
perimeter barrier and exterior structure, parking areas and
natural or man-made barriers.
a. 40
b. 30
c. 20
d. 50
56. The __________ does not get paid for the information he
gives to the police intelligence officer.
a. Informer
b. Aide
c. asset
d. informant
57. The localization of the recruitment of the policemen shall

ensure that they are familiar with the ____________ of the patrol
beats.
a. Projects
b. PWET
c. Casing
d. Terrain
58. Provides the fastest response to the police assistance?

a. Helicopter patrol
R.C., J.D./2016
b. Sub-marine patrol
c. Mobile patrol
d. T.V patrol
59. The 2003 memorandum of understanding between the government

of Australia and the Philippines provides for cooperating in the
prevention and investigation of transnational crimes, including
the following; except
a. Trafficking in persons and human smuggling
b. Inciting to rebellion
c. Terrorism in all its forms
d. Piracy in the high seas
60. The greatest advantage of the foot patrol over motorized

patrol is __________.
a. The greater police authority in job performance
b. The quicker response time
c. The increased police citizen interaction
d. The more resources utilized in the job
61. SPO Ricardo Tulito is the patrol supervisor for the morning
shift. He was few men to cover all the patrol beats. Which of the
following is best recommended for him to implement?
a. Assign all patrol officers to roving mobile patrols
b. Assign foot patrol in busy and congested areas and roving
patrol to cover the other beats
c. Maintain all patrol officers at the station and just wait for
calls for police assistance
d. Assign mobile patrol in busy areas and leave the rest of the
patrol officers at the station.
62. The most important factors in formulating an effective

patrol strategy?
a. Adequacy of resources of the police station
b. Training of patrol officers and members
c. Salary rates of patrol officers
d. Rank of patrol supervisor
63. Pertains to the utilization of available resources in an

organization?
a. Administration
b. Organization
c. Management
d. Utilization
64. What year is known as the birth year of INTERPOL?

a. 1923
b. 1847
c. 1987
d. 1932
65. INTERPOL stand for;

a. International criminal police organization
b. International police
R.C., J.D./2016
c. Inter-police organizational network
d. International policing system
66. ASEANPOL stand for;

a. Sian police organization
b. Association of national police forces of the Asean region
c. Asean chief of national police
d. Association of national police force
67. In Cambodia, military police are also known as?

a. Constable patrol
b. Police officer
c. Gendarmerie
d. Private
68. The headquarters of the police forces in Cambodia is

located in_________?
a. Jakarta
b. Myanmar
c. Phnom penh
d. Cali
69. In the Philippines, we have Philippine national police

(PNP), while in Colombia they have ________?
a. Police department of Colombia
b. Metropolitan police department of Colombia
c. Royal police department of Colombia
d. Colombia national police
70. 10-33 stand for;

a. Need backup
b. Emergency/urgent
c. Over speed
d. Hot pursuit
71. a.k.a 1-24/7. It serves the police of member countries of

the INTERPOL via secure communication.
A. Secure global police communication services
B. Operational data services and databases for police
C. Operational police support services
D. Police training and development
72. At the INTERPOL, which one of these gives developmentequipping

activities for member countries in fighting transnational crimes?
A.Secure global police communication services
B.Operational data services and databases for police
C.Operational police support services
D.Police training and development
73. While covering his beat, PO1 Juan chased upon a pickpocket. What
will be his first action?
A. Arrest the pickpocket
B. Call for a criminal investigation
C. Bring the pickpocket to the police department
R.C., J.D./2016
D. Just continue his beat
74. At the INTERPOL, the Secretary General is appointed by the General

Assembly for the term of office of __.
A. 3 years
B. 4 years
C. 5 years
D. 6 years
75. The final modification of the INTERPOL flag was made in __.
A. 1923
B. 1973
C. 1953
D. 1983
76. The principal responsibility for maintaining an appropriate level

of discipline in a unit rests with the:
A. Immediate line supervisor
B. First line senior police officers (sergeants)
C. Middle-level supervisor
D. Chief of Police
77. Before a PNP member can join the Internal Affairs Service, one
must have a five(5) year law enforcement experience and no derogatory
records. Application for appointment is _____.
A. Voluntary C. Optional
B. Mandatory D. Compulsory
78. Who should be dispatched be dispatched by the police to the crime

scene to search for physical evidence?
A. evidence technician C. legal officer
B. criminal investigator D. foot patrol
79. Which of the following is inseparable from the principle of

delegation?
A. Training C. Role Modeling
B. Development Of Subordinate D. Order Giving
80. The coordination of the efforts of patrol officers on several

beats on the same shift is called ___
A. Coordination of the platoon
B. Coordination of geographical units
C. Coordination of functional units
D. Coordination of the force
81. In Intelligence work, an information is evaluated to determine

its___
A. Reliability C. Feasibility
B. Effectiveness D. Efficiency
82. The cadetship program for the police, fire and jail service is
conducted at:
A. Napolcom
B. PNP Directorate for Human Resources and doctrine Development
C. Philippine National Police Academy
D. PNP Training Command
83. Which of the following is NOT a patrol function?

A. Suppression of criminal activity
B. Prevention of crime
R.C., J.D./2016
C. Apprehension of criminals
D. Fingerprint identification
84. What shall private security personnel with the strikers in their
establishment?
A. Assist management in smuggling scabs
B. Avoid direct contact
C. Prevent strikers from conducting peaceful pickets
D. Confront the strikers directly
85. The detection, prevention and neutralization of any activity

inimical to the best interest of the organization.
A. Intelligence C. Line Intelligence
B. Counter-Intelligence D. Subversive Intelligence
86. The following statements are on employee morale. Which one is the
most correct?
I. Praising an employee for my job done is important
II. Morale depends on personal relationships and working conditions
III. A fair and impartial supervisor is a positive impetus toward
high morale
A. Statements I and II C. Statements II and III
B. Statements I and III D. All statements
87. Which of the following is the least considered in determining

patrol deployment?
A. Arrests made C. Crimes committed
B. Fund support D. Complaints logged
88. A patrol officer must employ what technique in order to recall

events which happened while he was patrolling his beat.
A. He communicate events to his buddy
B. He memorizes and mentally records events
C. He records events in his notebook
D. He telephones events to dispatcher
89. While searching for a suspect in a house during the night, how
should your flashlight be held?
A. Close to the weapon as possible
B. Close to the body as possible
C. Away from your body and preferably with your weak hand
D. Away from your body and preferably with your strong hand
90. The Blue Army that is being referred to are the ___.
A. SWAT personnel of the PNP
B. Boys Scouts of the Philippines
C. Government security guards
D. Private security guards
91. After recognizing the need to plan, a police officer must identify
and formulate the _______.
A. financial requirement of the plan
B. objectives of the plan
C. manpower requirements of the plan
D. linkages and coordinating units
92. Which of the following ensures that patrol officers are on their
beats?
A. Have an effective patrol supervision
B. Have greater police authority
R.C., J.D./2016
C. Deploy 50% more patrol officers
D. Require them to present a report after duty
93. When the subject identifies or obtains knowledge that the

investigator is conducting a surveillance on him, the latter is:
A. get out C. sold out
B. burnt out D. cut out
94. Withholding of privileges, suspension or forfeiture of salary or

any combination of these maybe imposed by the Peoples Law Enforcement
Board (PLEB) on a PNP member guilty of less grave offense for a
minimum period of:
A. 16 to 30 days C. 40 to 60 days
B. 45 to 60 days D. 31 to 45 days
95. A surveillant becomes an ___ when he/she discards his/her

identity, changes his/her name and/or his/her appearance and gets into
contact with his subject.
A. Undercover agent C. Informant
B. Informer D. Asset
96. To what rank are graduates of the Philippine National Police

Academy appointed to
A. Inspector C. Superintendent
B. Senior Inspector D. Senior Superintendent
97. The fitness and potential of an applicant to the PNP is determined

by:
A. Recruitment and appointment system
B. Personnel management system
C. Appointment and performance system
D. Recruitment and selection system
98. Which of the following is NOT a staff function?

A. planning C. criminal investigation
B. personnel management D. inspection
99. Mr. Pedro de mesa was born on June 6, 1985 and wants to enter the
police service before the end of 2010. Considering his age, can he be
appointed as police officer I?
A. No, he is too young to be a police officer
B. No, his age exceeded the age requirement
C. Yes, he will file an age waiver
D. Yes, his age is within the age requirement
100. The ___ of the plan must be considered thus the need to look into
the personal competence, morale, interest and enthusiasm; leadership
quality and style; availability of resources.
A. responsiveness C. effectiveness
B. cost-efficiency D. functionality

R.C., J.D./2016
PREFACE
This Opuscule was conceptualized as a sort of review and guidance, thus putting everything needed to the
readers hands. The Authors purpose was to endeavour and encourage the readers to enhance and
persevere in studying Criminology, to have a broad understanding of what criminology really is. Law
Enforcement Administration Review Questions is only a Piecemeal that could not stand and needed to be
amplified. As time goes by the authors hope that this opus would not be an end of the studying process
and will continue though in scripted. Remember That Anything Pays To Enrich, Learn To Maintain
Patience And Always Keep A Step Backward. May this work be a humble piece in enlightening minds.
More importantly this work may never be done without the help of ALMIGHTY MAKER. MABUHAY
CRIMINOLOGY PILIPINAS!!!
DISCLAIMER
The Questions and Answers imputed are mere review guide. Previous Board exam Questions are
added in this review material is intended for the enlightenment and guidance. The readers are
strongly advised to seek other information.
__________________________________
October 8, 2015
Answer Key
Law Enforcement Administration 2015
SET A
1. B 26. B 51. D 76. A

2. B 27. A 52. A 77. A
3. C 28. B 53. D 78. B
4. C 29. A 54. D 79. D
5. B 30. A 55. C 80. C
6. C 31. B 56. D 81. A
7. B 32. C 57. D 82. C
8. A 33. B 58. C 83. D
9. A 34. D 59. B 84. B
10. C 35. B 60. C 85. B
11. A 36. B 61. B 86. C
12. B 37. A 62. B 87. B
13. D 38. D 63. C 88. C
14. D 39. A 64. A 89. C
15. D 40. C 65. A 90. D
16. A 41. B 66. C 91. B
17. D 42. B 67. C 92. A
18. C 43. D 68. C 93. B
19. C 44. D 69. B 94. D
20. D 45. D 70. B 95. A
21. A 46. B 71. A 96. A
22. D 47. A 72. D 97. D
23. A 48. D 73. A 98. C
24. C 49. A 74. C 99. D

R.C., J.D./2016
25. B 50. D 75. B 100. C

R.C., J.D./2016

Charlemagne James P. Ramos R.C., J.D./Review Files/Alpha House 2015
LAW ENFORCEMENT ADMINISTRATION SET B

MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Motorcycle patrol has a lot of benefits that could contribute to

crime prevention and suppression most especially in public conveyance.
the following are some of the advantages that can be noted in a
motorcycle complement. Except.
A. It has considerable speed and greater maneuver in small alleys
streets and in heavy traffic situation.
B. It could be used in rugged terrains while conducting
reconnaissance or patrol duty.
C. Considerably expensive to maintain and to operate
D. Motorcycle patrol could manage regardless of the road
condition.
2. Under this type, the responding patrol car is required to observe

strictly the traffic laws and regulations without the necessity of
using its siren and flashing lights while responding to the call of
the public.
A. Routine call
B. Urgent call
C. Emergency call
D. Back-up call
3. A classification of a barrier which refers to a line of protection

surroundings but somewhat removed from a protected area
A. Inside perimeter
B. Outside perimeter
C. Solid fence
D. Bodies of water
4. Under the Law enforcement in Japan, National Police Agency is

headed by a person with the rank of?
A. Deputy Commissioner General
B. Director General
C. Commissioner General
D. Inspector
5. Law enforcement in British Columbia during 2005 was supplied mainly

by _______ either an independent police department or the Royal
Canadian mounted police.
A. People Forces
B. Public Forces
C. Bystander Forces
D. Municipal Forces
6. A single uninterrupted line of authority often represented by boxes

lines of organizational chart should run in order by rank from top
command to the level of the organization.
A. Organization control
B. Scalar chain
C. Chain of Command
D. Span of Control

J.D./2016
7. The guard in permitting the prisoner who later escaped, to go to
the nursery to gather gabi considering that the place was grassy and
tall talahib was growing then. What crime did the guard committed?
A. Evasion through negligence
B. Dereliction of duty
C. Malfeasance
D. Misfeasance
8. Which can be done by providing simple organizational plan clearly

understood by all concerned yet detailed enough to clear lines of
authority and responsibility.
A. Organizing by function
B. Simplicity
C. Chain of Command
D. Span of Control
9. Emphasis the grouping of similar tasks job assignments performance

of functions together and placing them under a single supervision of
command officer.
B. Simplicity
C. Chain of command
D. Span of control
10. From the first level supervisor to the chief of police must be
given an opportunity to deal with those incidents for which he or she
is responsible.
B. Simplicity
C. Chain of command
D. Span of control
11. It is based on the assumption that there is limit to the number of

individuals that one person can effectively surprise.
A. Organizing by Function
B. Simplicity
C. Chain of command
D. Span of Control
12. Among the qualifications of private security guards which is not

belong to them?
A. Filipino Citizen
B. Baccauraete Degree
C. physically and mentally fit
D. Not less than 18 years of agmd nor more than 50 years
old
13. It is an aural or visual signal given by tie annunciator to

security when intruder actuates device in an protected area. An
annunciator is a visual or audible signaling device which initiates
cnnditions of assisted circuit.
A. Floodlights
B. Lock
C. Alarm
D. Alert
14. The word patrol originates from the German term patrolla which
means to ______ with a define target or objective
A. Run
B. talk
C. Walk
D. Jump

J.D./2016
15. This system consist of ringing up a visual or audible alarm near
the object to be protected when an intruder tries to pry a window the
alarm threat goes off.
A. Central station system
B. propriety system
C. Auxiliary Alarm
D. Local Alarm
16. It is kind of Alarms that will assist the security in detecting

impeding or deterring potential security threat in the installation.
A. Protective Alarm
B. Sensitivity Alarm
C. Outdoor Alarm
D. Indoor Alarm
17. Basic parts of Alarm system consist of the following which is not
the part of Alarm system:
A. Sensor or trigger device
B. Transmission line
C. Enunciator
D. Initiator
18. A type of alarm where the control station is located outside the
plant side or installation
A. Propriety system
B. Local Alarm
C. Central Station System
D. Auxiliary alarm
19. refers to any physical structure whether natural or man-made

capable of restricting,deterring,delaying or preventing illegal and
unauthorized access to an installation
A. Barriers
B. Lack
C. Hindrance
D. Security
20. Animals are used in partially providing a guarding System Among

them which is usually utilized to serve as guard.
A. Goose
B. Turkeys
C. Cat
D. Dogs
21 what law govern and its implementing rules and regulations

prescribed the minimum requirements for guards to be able to secure a
license to exercise profession as a security guard, private detective,
security officers and security consultant.
A. P.D 5487
B. R. A 5487
C. R.A. 8551
D.R.A 6975
22. Intelligence information to be determined in line Intelligence

are. Except:
I. People
II. Animal
III. Enemy
IV Terrain
A. I, II, III
B. II,III,IV
C.I, III, IV
D. I, II, IV

J.D./2016
23. In Hacienda Luicita there are different barriers or defense
before the intruder could enter the hacienda, Now if the intruder had
been finished the first defense such as perimeter barrier. the second
defend refers to?
A. Door, window, Hours
B. Steel Cabinets, safes
C. Perimeter fences
D. Animal
24. Royal Malaysian Police is a part of the security forces structure

in Malaysia. The forces are centralized organization with
responsibilities from traffic control to intelligence gathering, their
headquarters is located at:
A. Bukit Aman and Kuala Lumpur
B. Malayan and Indonsan
C. Belong and canlon
D. Noneli and proneli
25. A while walking the street he saw a group of bystander playing

Cara y Cruz and went of them was ix Possession of dangerous drug A
went to the nearest sari-sari store and call the police through the
telephone and in order his identity will not discovered. A is what
kind of informant?
A. Special Informant
B. Voluntary Informant
C. Confidential Informant
D. Anonymous Informant
26. In solid fence there are advantages and disadvantages in

installation of fences which is not advantages of solid fence.
I. Denis visual access of the installation to the
intruder
II. Denies the intruder the opportunity to become
familiar with the personnel activities and time scheduled of the
movement of the guards on the installation.
III. it prevents the installation guards from observing
the are around installation
IV. A solid force creates shadows which may be used by
the intruder for cover and concealment.
A. I, II only
B. II, III only
C. I, III only
D. III, IV only
27. This system is set to dial a predetermined a number or numbers

when the alarm activate.
A. Dial alarm system
B. Central Station System
C. Propriety System
D. legal System
28. Juan was applying for Security Officer in Security agency, he is

Filipino citizen, holder of baccalaureate degree. and physical and
mentally fit. but he is not a graduate from Security officers Training
Course or its equivalent. Is Juan was qualified for being security
officer?
A. Yes
B. No
C. Maybe
D. Partially yes
29. Before the Security Guards become effective and efficient he must
possess the qualities of security guards. which is not belong to the
group.

J.D./2016
A. Alertness
B. Judgment
C. Confidence
D. Silent
30. A temporary license is issued by the PNP thru Civil Security Group
directorate after the applicant/licensee should have complied with all
the requirements if has less than guards?
A. 200
B. 300
C. 100
D. 400
31. A regular license to operate is issued to PSA once it is qualified

of having adequate guards or more license security guard in its employ
duly posted. Regular license is renewable every year?
A. 1 year
B. 2 years
C. 3 years
D. 4 years
32.Pedro is a Security Guard in SM Masinag he worked at almost 2 years

and 2 mos after a few days he notice that his license is already
expired can he still exercise his profession?
A. Yes
B. No
C. Partially yes
D. Partially no
33. Pedro and Juan are security guard in Sumulong College of Arts and
Sciences. Pedro was already have an issued firearm Juan was insecure
to Pedro he also requested to issue a firearm .is it allowed?
A. No
B. Yes
C. Partially yes
D. Partially no
34. It is a visual or audible signing device which initials conditions

of associated circuit.
A. Annunciator
B. Coded Lock
C. Automated records
D. Electric lock
35. It is a portable and detachable look having a pivoted or sliding

hasp which passes through a staple ring which is made fast or secured.
A. Master key
B. Mission keying
C. Lock
D. Padlock
36. Company-owned alarm system with a unit in the nearest police

station so that in case of need, direct call is possible.
A. Local alarm
B. Auxiliary alarm
C. Local alarm by chance system
D. Dial alarm system
37. This is local alarm system in which a bell or siren is sounded

with no predictable response. These systems are used in residence or
small retail establishment which affords a respond system.
A. Local alarm by chance
B. Dial alarm system
C. Auxiliary alarm
D. Local alarm

J.D./2016
38. Generally a barrier is use for the following purpose: one is not
included.
A. Outline tie physical limits of an area
B. Created a physical and psychological deterrent to
unauthorized entry
C. Assist in more efficient and economical employment of
guards
D. its allow visual access to the installation its
personnel its guards, and its activities
39. During the papal visit in the Philippines many police are send to
Manila to control the crowded place and to guard the Pope John Paul.
What kind of barrier is being described.
A. Natural barrier
B. Structural barrier
C. Human barrier
D Energy barrier
40.This a kind of perimeter barrier that could be used as a temporary

road block or impediment during strikes and crowd control.
A. Solid fence
B. Chain link
C. barbed wire
D. Concertina
41. This is normally provided at main-perimeter entrance to secure

areas located out of doors, and manned by guards on full time basis.
A. Top guard
B. Guard control system
C. Tower guard
D. Barrier Maintenance
42. Among the perimeter barrier opening these provides access to area
within the perimeter barrier and should be locked and guarded.
A. Gate and Doors
B. Side walk elevators
C. Utilities Opening
D. Clear zone
43. Centralized monitor of the proprietary alarm system is located in

the industrial firm itself with a duty operator. in case of alarm, the
duty operator calls whatever is the primary need firefighters, police
an ambulance or a bomb disposal unit.
A. Central Station system
B. Proprietary system
C. Local alarm
D. Auxiliary alarm
44. it will detect any sound caused by attempted force entry A

supersonic microphone speaker sensor is installed in walls, ceilings
and floors of the protected area.
A. Vibration Detection Device
B. Metallic foil or wire
C. Audio Detection Device
D. Photoelectric or electric eye device
45. It is visible or invisible beam is emitted and when this is

disturbed or when an intruder breaks contact with the beam, it will
activate the alarm
A. Photoelectric or electric eye device
B. Microwave motion detection device
C. Auto detection device
D. Vibration detection device

J.D./2016
46. Juan and Pedro plan to rob the bank in Makati they execute their
plan in 12:00 noon, while in the course of the robbery, Jane the
teller of the bank was able to activate the alarm by placing the front
of her foot to engage the activation bar. What alarm is being
described?
A. Foot rail activator
B. knee or thigh buttons
C. kick alarm
D. Emergency alarm
47. These alarm are installed inside the desk or teller station which
can be activated by knee or thigh pressure, they commonly perform
their duties from stated position.
A. Foot rail activator
B. Knee or thigh buttons
C. risk alarm
D. Emergency alarm
48. It is one among them list of good security guard that ability to
deal with others successfully without offending in short, he can be
firm and pleasant.
A. Self-control
B. Interest loyalty
C. Tactfulness
D. physical fitness
49. All firearms of the security agency should be covered with

firearms license issued by PNP through its firearms explosive Division
under Civil Security Group. Firearms of security officer are renewable
within?
A. 1 year
B. 2 years
C 3 yeas
D. 4 years
50. John Doe is a 17 years old man he was applying for Security Guard
in Agency of security in Manila, is john was qualified as security
guard?
A. Yes
B. No
C. Partially yes
D. Partially no
51. A type of patrol is characterized by case and speed of moving

around it has the ability to maneuver through traffic and access areas
not accessible by patrol cars.
A. Bicycle patrol
B. Mobile patrol
C. Motorcycle patrol
D. Horse patrol
52. it is one of the oldest patrol next to walking, since that it is

already being utilized even before the invention of other patrol.
A. Bicycle patrol
B. Mobile patrol
C. Motorcycle patrol
D. Horse patrol
53. Automobile patrol has an advantages and disadvantages. one of them

is not included among advantages while conducting automobile patrol.
A. High mobility allowing coverage of greater size
B. Quicker response time to telephone complaints greater
efficiency in responding to emergency calls and other called for
services
C. Move economical as compared to foot patrol

J.D./2016
D. Marked police vehicle hampers (inhibits) apprehension
and surveillance operations
54. a type of informant who give information freely and willfully as a

witness to a certain act.
A. Criminal informant
B. Confidential informant
C. Voluntary informant
D. Special informant
55. Those who gives information concerning specialized cases only and
it is regarded a special treatment by the operatives.
A. Criminal informant
B. Confidential informant
C. Voluntary informant
56. Is the controlled group of people who worked through the direction
of the agent handler such as informants, principal or cutouts supply
the agent handler directly or indirectly with Intel information?
A. Informant net
B. Informants
C. Informant
D. Informer
57. Is similar to the criminal informant but he gives information

violate of the law includes crimes and criminals
A. Informant net
B. Informants
C. Confidential informant
D. Informer
58, A person who casually imports information to an officer with no

intention of providing subsequent information
A. Informant net
B. Informants
C. Confidential informant
D. Informer
59. A person who is selected cultivated and developed into continuous

sources of info.
A. Anonymous informant
B. Recruited informant
C. Incidental informant
60. Surveillance of a person is what we called?

A. Tailing or shadowing
B. Casing or Shadowing
C. Roping
D. Backing
61. Surveillance of other things, events, and activities is called?

A. Tailing or shadowing
B. Casing or reconnaissance
C. Roping
D. Backing
62. Informants who by the nature of their work or portion in society

have a certain legal, moral or ethical responsibilities to report info
to the police.
A. Ordinary informant
B. Incidental informant
C. Recruited informant
D. Spontaneous informant or Automatic informant

J.D./2016
63. A person who conducts surveillance which include only observation.

A. Investigator
B. Surveillant
C. Surveiller
D. Observer
64. It is a type of surveillance when the subject person to watch is

unaware that he is under observation.
A. Discreet
B. Close
C. Loose
D. Stationary
65. A type of surveillance when the subject person is aware that he is

under observation varied on each occasions.
A. Discreet
B. Close
C. Loose
D. Stationary
66. Before conducting surveillance you must make preparation which of

the following is not among them.
I. Study the subject
II.Knowledge of the area and terrain
III. Subversive organization
IV. Study witnesses
A. I only
B. II, III only
C. III, IV only
D. IV only
67. This one of the method of casing refer to the most effective
method and will produced the most info service you know just what
you're looking for.
A. Map reconnaissance
B. Research
C. Personal reconnaissance
D. Hearsay
68. It may not sufficient but it can produce a certain amount of

usable information.
B. Reconnaissance
C. Personal reconnaissance
D. Hearsay
69. Your unit and of the unit will have file report that they may
provide you with info.
B. Research
C. Prior information
D. Hearsay
70. Info usually gains by the person operating in the area and
performing casing job.
B. Research
C. Prior information
D. Hearsay
71. the conduct of operation is coupled with counter intelligence

measures such as window shopping, use of convoys and decoys.

J.D./2016
A. Counter surveillance
B. Counter insurgency
C. Counter casing
D. Counter operation
72. An information that is fairly reliable source-information

confirmed from other sources" is evaluated as?
A. A-1
B. A-2
C. B-1
D. C.1
73. what is the evaluation of an information which is" completely

reliable source-probably true?
A. A-5
B. A-1
C. A-2
D. A-4
74. Psychologist estimate that approximate % our knowledge is

gathered through senses of sight.
A. 86
B. 92
C. 85
D. 82
75. Is the system of interaction among the countries of the world in

order to develop the global economy, It is involves technological,
economic, political, and cultural exchanges made possible largely by
advances in communication.
A. System
B. Industry
C. Globalization
D. Culture
76. An example of a natural barrier is _____

A. River
B. Building
C. Dam
D. Fence
77. It comprises all documents, reports and all recorded

information that pertains to a single personality or subject.
Contained in a folder for storage convenience
A. Document
B. File
C. Information
D. Dossier
78. The concern of the security guards regarding the directives

given by most companies to its security personnel is
A. To impose disciplinary action to company employees who violate
regulations
B. To ignore and impose rules of their own
C. To report all known violations to their supervisor
D. To make recommendation for better security control
79. A safe that weighs less than 750 pounds (lbs) should be
____
A. Resistant to fire
B. Anchored to building fixed structure

R.C.,
J.D./2016
C. Guarded at all times
D. Used only for small cash/valuables
80. How much is the longevity pay of PNP uniformed personnel?

A. 10 % of the basic monthly salary for every 3 years of service
B. 10 % of the basic monthly salary for every 5 years of service
C. 5 % of the basic monthly salary for every 5 years of service
D. 5 % of the basic monthly salary for every 3 years of service
81. The Hongkong police has the Commissioner of police while

the Philippine National Police has the _____
A. Police Director
B. Director General
C. Deputy Director General
D. Commission Vice Chairman
82. The first-line patrol supervisor is the key to the success

of the patrol function. This statement is generally _____
A. False, since he/she is no better than subordinates
B. False, since he/she cannot be in all places to supervise
C. True, since the public air their complaints to him/her
D. True, since he/she ensures that patrol is performed properly
83. When casing a suspect , it is an improper technique to:

A. Undertake necessary precautions
B. Familiarize himself with the area
C. Resort to extreme facial disguises
D. Avoid being detected
84. The covert observation of an area, a building or stationary

object in order to gain information is called:
A. Surveillance
B. Undercover works
C. Penetration
D. Casing
85. The coordination of the units of police manpower is called:

A. Coordination of platoons
B. Coordination of functional units
C. Coordination of geographic units
D. Coordination of the force
86. An effective patrol strategy hinges on the following,

except _____
A. Adequacy of the resources of police station
B. Training of patrol officers
C. Commitment of patrol officers
D. Qualifications of the patrol supervisor
87. What is referred to as the number of officers on actual

duty at a given time?
A. Authorize strength
B. Mandatory strength
C. Actual strength
D. Effective strength
88. What is the other term for scalar principle?

R.C.,
J.D./2016
A. Line of authority
B. Chain of command
C. Unity of command
D. Unity of direction
89. Mr. Rodmar Dolendo wants to apply for a licensee to become

a security guard. Where will he file his application for license?
A. Philippine national Police
B. National police commission
C. Department of Interior and Local government
D. Professional regulation commission
90. The National Police Commission (NAPOLCOM) is ______ the

department of the interior and Local Government (DILG) for policy
and program coordination
A. Attached to
B. Under
C. Connected to
D. Equal to
91. In counter intelligence, the operational file that contains

the list of persons who are known to be friendly with the
intelligence forces is known as
A. Tactical list
B. Black list
C. White list
D. CI list
92. It is a house-like structure above the perimeter barrier.

A. Tower
B. Top guard
C. Protective house
D. Guard control station
93. What is the mechanical device strategically located in an

installation or street where a fire hose is connected so that
water with pressure will be available to extinguish fire.
A. Fire alarm
B. Fire pump
C. Fire extinguisher
D. Fire hydrants
94. One method of organizing a complex organization is to

subdivide the work into small units, with each staff specializing
in one phase of the operation. Which of the following is a likely
disadvantage of this subdivision of work?
A. More difficult coordination of work
B. More costly operation
C. More training requirements
D. Poorer quality of work
95. A criticism against mobile patrol is that police officers

ride by streets and have become strangers to the public. Which of
the following can effectively resolve the problem?
A. Convince the public that the mobile patrol covers a wider and
response faster
B. Eliminate mobile patrol and undertake foot patrol
R.C.,
J.D./2016
C. Expand police community relation program
D. Mobile patrol officers park their car and walk their seat from
time to time
96. From what rank can the Chief of the PNP be selected?
A. Deputy Director General only
B. Chief inspector and above
C. Chief superintendent and above
D. Secretary general and above
97. Under which type of leadership would morals, Discipline,

efficiency and productivity begin to deteriorate?
A. Laisses-faire leader
B. Autocratic leader
C. Hands-on leader
D. Democratic leader
98. When may the president extend the tour of duty of the chief
of the PNP?
A. If the present Chief PNP is not yet 56 years old
B. If in times of police reorganization approved by Congress
C. If the incumbent PNP chief is performing very satisfactorily
D. In times of war or other national emergency
99. What is the process of searching for people who fill vacant
positions in an organization?
A. Recruitment
B. Appointment
C. Promotion
D. Designation
100. Fidel Calla is a licensed physician and applied through the

lateral entry of the PNP. If she is found to be qualified what
would be her rank?
A. P/Senior Inspector
B. P/Superintendent
C. P/Inspector
D. P/Chief Inspector

R.C.,
J.D./2016
PREFACE
DISCLAIMER
____________________________________
October 8, 2015
Answer Key
Law Enforcement Administration 2015
SET B
1. C 26. D 51. C 76. A

2. A 27. A 52. D 77. D
3. B 28. B 53. D 78. C
4. C 29. D 54. C 79. B
5. D 30. A 55. D 80. B
6. B 31. B 56. C 81. B
7. A 32. B 57. C 82. D
8. B 33. A 58. B 83. C
9. A 34. A 59. B 84. D
10. C 35. D 60. A 85. D
11. D 36. B 61. C 86. D
12. B 37. D 62. D 87. C
13. C 38. A 63. B 88. B
14. C 39. C 64. A 89. A
15. D 40. D 65. B 90. A
16. A 41. B 66. D 91. D
17. D 42. B 67. C 92. A
18. C 43. B 68. A 93. D
19. A 44. C 69. C 94. A
20. D 45. A 70. D 95. C
21. B 46. A 71. A 96. C
22. C 47. B 72. D 97. A
23. A 48. C 73. C 98. D
24. A 49. B 74. C 99. A
25. D 50. C 75. C 100. A

R.C.,
J.D./2016

QUESTIONARES FOR
CRIMINALISTICS
PERSONAL IDENTIFICATION
FORENSIC PHOTOGRAPHY
FORENSIC BALLISTICS
QUESTIONED DOCUMENT
POLYGRAPHY
LEGAL MEDICINE
FORENSIC CHEMISTRY AND TOXICOLOGY
1 | P a g e QUESTIONARES for CRIMINALISTICS/Charlemagne James P. Ramos R.C.,

J.D./2016
CRIMINALISTICS SET A

MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. In the so called total take in crime scene photography, it means

you have to photograph all the angles possible in order to reflect the
A. truth
B. exact area where the victim fell
C. physical evidence
D. entire area
2. What do you call a situation of one where there are abnormal

reaction patterns that are seriously incapacitating but there is no
loss of contact with reality?
A. associative reaction C. neuroses
B. hysteric reaction D. psychoses
3. In questioned document study, when one retouches, or goes back over

a defective portion, it is called:
A. retracing C. correcting
B. shading D. patching
4. In our law, euthanasia is the willful, deliberate and painless

acceleration of death of what?
A. tissue C. none of these
B. person D. organ
5. Considered one of the most infallible means of personal

identification which is formed when still inside mothers womb and
remain unchanged throughout life until decomposition is what kind of
ridges?
A. auxillary C. friction
B. papillary D. poroscopic
6. In case spectrographic or color analysis or comparison microscopes

are not available, which of the following photography would you use?
A. infra-red C. cosmic
B. gamma D. ultra-violet
7. In taking photographs, the lights must be regulated that upon

reaching the sensitized material or film, all other lights must be?
A. deducted C. controlled
B. exposed D. excluded
8. Cadaveric lividity may determine how long the person has been:
A. in comatose C. in the area
B. dead D. strangulated
9. In firearms study, considered as the most powerful of the propellant

is?
A. double action powder C. robotic powder
B. smokeless powder D. c-5 mixture
10. In taking photographs of a suicide by shooting case, you must

illustrate in court which is the entrance and what wound?
A. secondary C. exit
B. first D. fatal
1 | P a g e QUESTIONARES for CRIMINALISTICS/Charlemagne James P. Ramos R.C., J.D./2016

11. Who was the one who said Let no one despise the ridges on account
of their smallness, for they are in some respect, the most important of
all anthropological data?
A. Francis Galton C. Ridge Cook
B. Cesare Lombroso D. John Howard
12. As a procedure, the suspected firearm should be properly wrapped

and placed in a container for endorsement to the crime laboratory to?
A. preserve it C. prevent loss and tampering
B. sanitary SOP D. mark it
13. Fingerprint is one of the most infallible means of personal

identification because the ridges and other characteristics never?
A. change throughout life
B. appear dissimilar
C. add ridges when closely examined
D. be substituted
14. A document examination that uses invisible radiation beyond the red
portion of the visible spectrum (rainbow) is called?
A. infra-red examination
B. radiation
C. ultr-violet examination
D. hazy sunlight examination
15. What method of scientific analysis can be used in examining

cigarette butts with lipsticks?
A. Ultra-violet C. cosmic rays
B. fluorescence D. infra-red
16. Is humidity a factor in the presence or absence of gunpowder?

A. never C. it depends
B. yes D. no
17. In the Philippines which is generally a warm country, rigor mortis

starts to occur how many hours after death?
A. 48 C. 24
B. 12 D. 36
18. The process of dissolution of tissues by the digestive action of

the enzymes and bacteria resulting to liquefaction of tissues and
liberation of foul-smelling gases is called?
A. decomposition C. decay
B. detixification D. putrefaction
19. In polygraph testing, to determine the author of the crime,

relevant questions posed on subject are designed to determine the
subjects?
A. denial C. response
B. answers D. involvement
20. Hemmorhage or loss of blood maybe fatal. Which can stand more loss
of blood,the male or the female?
A. female C. it depends
B. male has no known advantage D. male
21. The ridge that divides itself into two (2) ridges and which
resembles a fork-like structure is called?
A. island C. bifurcation
B. enclosure D. convergence
22. In questioned document examination, good open control is a sign of

forgery in guided?
A. markings C. missile
B. forgery D. hand signature
23. A bullet that contain a charge of high explosive is?

A. double action bullet C. e-4 bullet
B. high volatile bullet D. explosive bullet
24. Can there be a conclusive and legally valid findings in a

questioned document case if no original copy was produced for
comparison?
A. yes C. it depends
B. no D. oftentimes
25. In the so called total take in crime scene photography, you have
to take pictures of all angles possible in order to reflect what?
A. entire area C. area where the victim fell
B. truth D. physical evidence
26. It is in windows, tables and doors that we can usually find them.
In dactyloscopy it is called?
A. latent prints C. tool marker
B. shoe prints D. birth marks
27. What is this condition in which the supply of oxygen in the body
ceases and as a result thereof the person dies?
A. valvular disease C. thrombosis
B. rupture of the aortic D. asphyxia
28. In ballistics examination, what do you call those materials which

detonate or explode when subjected to shock or heat?
A. stimulant C. blasting cap
B. explosive D. propellant
29. In questioned document examination, the other term of burned

document is?
A. blackened document C. charred document
B. none of these D. poisoned document
30. In writing controversy, it refers to the obscuring of writing by

superimposing ink, pencil or other writing material. It is called what
kind of writing?
A. Obliterated C. Slanted
B. Indented D. Illegible
31. In fingerprint identification, what is a single ridge which divide

into two or more ridge?
A. Island ending C. None of these
B. Bifurcation D. Anular ridge
32. What is this natural phenomenon that even expert document examiners
cannot give an opinion or conduct examination as regards a questioned
document case without it?
A. Light C. Eclipse
B. Acquired knowledge D. Natural talent
33. In all modern airports now, what equipment helps detect suspected
contraband like drugs, bombs, firearms and etc.?
A. ultra-violet rays C. gamma rays
B. k-9 D. x-ray
34. In fingerprint patterns, what is the symbol of accidental?

A. A C. R
B. W D. X
35. Which of the following are objects of an autopsy if legally ordered

or requested?
A. Victim of suspended animation
B. fire victims cadaver
C. victims in coma
D. victims cadaver who died not of natural cause

36. What is this means of identification which occurs when the original
tissues have been injured or destroyed noticeable marks?
A. deformities C. scars
B. bitten marks D. tattoos
37. What is this part of a camera which is usually an enclosure devoid

of light?
A. film house C. body
B. tripod D. viewfinder
38. In introducing photographs as evidence, the only thing required of

you is to testify that the photograph is the accurate representation of
what?
A. situation C. victim
B. environments D. crime scene
39. It is the oldest ink material known and used by ancient Egyptians.
It is called?
A. Migrosine C. Carbon
B. Phosphorus D. Indulin ink
40. As a possible future expert in questioned document, you must know

the acknowledged Father of Questioned document and he is?
A. John Hansbury C. Albert Osborn
B. John Adams D. Dr. Hans Gross
41. In firearms lessons, it si said that No two (2) barrels are

microscopically alike or identical as the internal surface of the bore
or barrels all possess individual and characteristic markings of their
own, is that correct?
A. correct C. not correct
B. sometimes D. it depends
42. No attempt should ever be made to develop fingerprints on any wet

surface or to use dusting techniques during rain because it will what?
A. result to nothing but wastage;
B. serve as maturity in the profession;
C. show ones desire to solve a case;
D. be highly commendable if successful;
43. In polygraph examination, it is the emotional response of the body

towards stimulus or questions asked. It is called?
A. reaction C. stimuli
B. internal factors D. deception
44. The dates of the standard specimen should be how many years before
and after the questioned document?
A. two C. five
B. three D. seven
45. With a very clear machine copy (powder) of a questioned document

and as good as original and with several (more than 20) standards, as a
document examiner, can you have a definitive and legally accepted
opinion?
A. yes C. seldom
B. sometimes D. no
46. The assumption is, no two writers write exactly alike. Every
person has his/her own way/manner of holding pen, so the resultant
effect is to produce an entirely different?
A. replica of writing C. modes of quantity
B. observations D. strokes or writing
47. In murder case, the photograph should include the close-up shots
of:
A. ingress and egress C. goods stolen
B. cohorts of the suspects D. assailants escape car
48. In police photography, the entire electromagnetic spectrum refers

to both visible and invisible radiations?
A. it depends C. yes
B. no D. seldom
49. In ballistics, it refers to the probe and identification of

firearms by means of ammunitions fired through them and used in courts
in the administration of justice. It is what kind of ballistics?
A. internal C. exterior
B. terminal D. forensic
50. The principle of individuality in dactyloscopy is based on

statistical probability that it would be impossible for any two persons
to have similar what?
A. structures C. signature
B. style D. fingerprints
51. Impressions which are taken at the same time on the fingerprint
card is known as what kind of impressions?
A. plain C. visible
B. rolled D. direct
52. Medico-legal officers can immensely contribute in the

administration of justice by noting in his report even minor injuries
and other noticeable physical appearance in the:
A. patients diagnostic report
B. victims body
C. suspects record
D. gangs modus operandi
53. In fingerprints study, it refers to the canal-like impression found

between the ridges. It is called?
A. furrows C. ridges
B. dust D. arch
54. Considered to be the most expensive but reliable and acceptable

means preserving evidence and in the identification of persons is by
means of what?
A. DNA fingerprinting C. photography
B. sketching D. illustration
55. In dactyloscopy, the reproduction of some smooth surfaces of the

pattern or design formed by the ridges on the inside of the joint of
the finger or thumb is called?
A. blueprint C. patented print
B. none of these D. fingerprint
56. In questioned document inquiry, when we speak of insertion or

interlineation in a document, it refers to the addition of?
A. paper marks C. forgery
B. standards D. writing
57. What is this natural phenomenon that even expert document examiners
cannot give an opinion as regards a questioned document case without
it?
A. Natural talent C. Eclipse
B. Light D. Acquired knowledge
58. Can fingerprint identification be resorted to by probers in order

to establish the identity of headless victims or persons who are
already in the advance state of decomposition?
A. no C. yes
B. never D. probably no

59. Normally, how many how many hours after meal for the stomach to
digest the food taken?
A. 1 to 2 C. 5 to 6
B. 3 to 4 D. 6 to 8
60. In photography, comparable to the pupil of an eye is what?

A. lens C. single film
B. circular photostatic D. variable shutter
61. What is the color of the ultra-violet powder in money bills when
subjected to UV lamp examination?
A. purple to blue C. orange to brown
B. brownish D. brilliant yellow
62. In the study of fingerprint patterns, the symbol of plain whorl is?
A. T C. P
B. W D. PW
63. In questioned document probe, examine the questioned documents

under stereoscopic microscope, direct light, oblique light and
transmitted light, and if necessary under ultra-violet light and infra-
red light to ensure what?
A. timeless of the report
B. adequacy of equipment
C. dependability
D. definitive and correct conclusion
64. Although you are an expert witness, the court is:

A. answerable to the public
B. welcoming other witnesses
C. not bound to believe your testimony
D. duty bound to believe you
65. This part of the polygraph machine records the subjects
respiratory movement and the changes and variation of the graph. It is
called the?
A. Sphygmograph c.cardiograph section
B. Diastolic section d. pneumograph section
66. In picking up cocked revolver, what is the reason why a piece of

carton/paper be inserted infront of the hammer?
a. For court exhibit
b. for tactical reason
c. for safety reason
d. proper storage
67. A sign of forgery in guided hands signature is:

a. Bad shading c. good pen control
b. Irregular alignment d. discounted stroke
68. An instrument used in determining the bore diameter of firearms is

what?
a. Odometric c. good pen control
b. Stereoscope microscope d. taper gauge
69. In firearms study, the other term of land and grove marks are?
a. Skid c. Laser
b. Bore d. rifling
70. In photographing sexual crime victims especially rape, you must

first secure a written permission from the?
a. Court c. doctor or priest or parents
b. Officer on case d. victim
71. In polygraph testing, relevant question are those that are related
to or has something to do with the case. It is in these questions
that the examiner detect what?
a. Motive c. composure
b. Deception d. fear
72. The area surrounded by typeline is called?

a. Type area c. baselines
b. Typelines d. pattern area
73. Who declared with scientific proof that the human skeleton is
unchangeable after the 20th year?
a. Alphonse c. Bertillon
b. Thoms d. Gumma
74. Is trauma or the destruction of the blood vessel wall and the
resulting hemorrhage can only be caused by external force?
a. Sometimes c. yes
b. It depends d. no
75. Are all bullets or slug metallic?

a. Sometimes c. yes
b. It depends d. no
76. Autoptic photography refers to the taking of photographs of:

a. Scenic views c. cadvers
b. Film making d. sexy dancers
77. The branch of ballistics that has something to do with the

application of the ballistic to law is what kind of ballistics?
a. External c. forensic
b. Internal d. legal
78. In lie detection probe, the force that arouses the organism or any
of its parts to activity is called:
a. Detection c. reception
b. Control reaction d. stimulus
79. Two of the pioneers in polygraph?

a. Cesar Lombroso and John Larson
b. None of these
c. Goddard and Welts
d. Churchill William and Tony Tubb
80. In polygraph tests, before the pre-test interview, the examiner

shall coordinate with the investigator for purposes of acquiring
vital information concerning the?
a. Victim c. case
b. Modus operandi d. witnesses
81. Which of the following can provide a system or technique in making

visible those things that cannot be seen by the naked eye?
a. Gamma rays c. photography
b. Photographer d. x-rays
82. Another method fo determining the cessation of respiration is

placing a fine feather and the like infront of the lips and
nostrils. The person is still breathing when there what?
a. Blackening of the feather c. movement of the feather
b. No moving of the feather d. reddening of the feather
83. The loops with slanting ridges that slope towards the little
finges are what kind of loops?
a. Ulnar c. radial
b. Slanted d. sloping
84. In dactyloscopy, after so many years of studies and the

researches, it was confirmed that No two person have exactly the
same:
a. Size and color
b. Origin and traits
c. Loops and details
d. Fingerprint patterns and characteristics
85. In dactyloscopy, plaster of paris ismainly used in?

a. Moulgae c. casting test
b. Developing alkaline d. house construction
86. In polygraph practice, the question that is to be asked from the

subject is called?
a. Mitiatious c. regulators
b. Deceptors d. stimulus
87. In firearms study, the rate of the speed of the bullet per
minuteof time is called?
a. Trajectory c. velocity
b. Gravity d. penetration
88. What kind of firearm was used if the entrance wound is irregular
with mere destruction of the tissues on account of the expanded
gases?
a. Revolver c. machine gun
b. Automatic weapon d. shot gun
89. In taking photographs of suspected suicide by shooting case, you

must illustrate in court which is the entrance and the:
a. Secondary wound c. fatal wound
b. First wound d. exit wound
90. Example of rifled bore firearms are rifles, pistols and?

a. Muskets c. revolvers
b. Machine guns d. shotguns
91. In forgery, using simulating method, the best equipment to use in

detecting it is the?
a. Low powered microscope c. large magnifying glass
b. Graphic camera d. high-powered microscope
92. Although the focus is accurate in taking a shot/photograph, there

will be a blurred image if it is what?
a. Bad use of lens c. error in distance
b. Lacking in light d. camera movement
93. In question document inquiry, it is a kind of movement wherein the

writer uses his/her entire arm in writing without rest and is
usually employed in large writing. What kind of writing is it?
a. Muscular c. finger
b. Forearm d. whole arm
94. In its narrowest sense, it refers to the science of firearms

identification. It is called?
a. Forensic ballistics c. ballistician
b. Dactyloscopy d. ballistics
95. Firearms examiners can help the police prober in determining the
make, model and kind of weapon used by the assailant in the
commission what?
a. Thievery c. carnapping
b. crime d. false alarms
96. In questioned signature cases, there are two forging methods and
these are tracing and?
a. Shading c. simulating
b. Copying d. imitating

97. In homicide or murder, the cause of death and existence of the
Victim is a MUST. In Questioned document examination, which of
the following is indispensable?
a. Officially prepared document
b. Computer printout
c. Newly discovered documents
d. Standard documents
98. In ballistics, the depth to which the bullet has entered its
target is called?
a. Labia menora c. penetration
b. Consummation d. bulleye
99. The science of fingerprints identification is called?

a. Dactyloscopy c. dactylography
b. Dactylomany d. dactylosophy
100. Deflection of the bullet from its normal path after striking a
resistant surface is?
a. Repeater c. hangfire
b. Ricochet d. recoil

PREFACE
readers hands. The Authors purpose was to endeavour and encourage the readers to enhance and persevere
in studying Criminology, to have a broad understanding of what criminology really is. Law Enforcement
Administration Review Questions is only a Piecemeal that could not stand and needed to be amplified. As
time goes by the authors hope that this opus would not be an end of the studying process and will continue
though in scripted. Remember That Anything Pays To Enrich, Learn To Maintain Patience And Always
Keep A Step Backward. May this work be a humble piece in enlightening minds. More importantly this
work may never be done without the help of ALMIGHTY MAKER. MABUHAY CRIMINOLOGY
PILIPINAS!!!
DISCLAIMER
____________________________________
CRIMINALISTICS
SET A
1. D 26. A 51. B 76. C

2. C 27. D 52. B 77. C
3. D 28. C 53. A 78. D
4. B 29. C 54. A 79. A
5. C 30. A 55. D 80. C
6. D 31. B 56. D 81. D
7. D 32. A 57. B 82. C
8. C 33. D 58. C 83. A
9. B 34. D 59. B 84. D
10. C 35. D 60. A 85. A
11. A 36. C 61. A 86. C
12. A 37. A 62. B 87. C
13. A 38. D 63. D 88. D
14. A 39. C 64. C 89. D
15. A 40. C 65. D 90. C
16. B 41. A 66. C 91. C
17. B 42. A 67. C 92. D
18. D 43. A 68. D 93. D
19. C 44. C 69. D 94. D
20. D 45. A 70. A 95. B
21. C 46. D 71. B 96. C
22. D 47. B 72. D 97. D
23. D 48. C 73. C 98. C
24. B 49. D 74. D 99. A
25. A 50. D 75. C 100. B

CRIMINALISTICS SET B

1. In gunshot wounds, when there is evident burning of tissues and blackening

of the skin, it maybe ascertained that it is at near contact fire meaning
that the distance of the body to the gun is approximately,
a. 6 inches
b. 12 inches
c. 18 inches
d. 24 inches
2. When there is a choice between several deltas and one of which is a

bifurcation, the one to be selected should be the ________.
a. Arch
b. Core
c. Bifurcation
d. Eyelet
3. Can all physicians allowed to conduct Autopsy?

a. Yes
b. no
c. never
d. False
4. The test used in textile fibers.

a. photography
b. lie detection
c. burning and solubility test
d. comparison microscope
5. Brach of Metallurgy that involves the microstructures of metals and

alloys.
a. Metallography
b. alloygraphy
c. macro etching
d. micro etching
6. Three (3) types of poisons.

a. Organic, Inorganic, Biological
b. Hypnotic, Sedatives, Laxatives
c. Emetics, Biological, Inorganic
d. Organic, Sedatives, Biological

7. Antidote for Arsenic Poisoning.
a. Thiamine
b. Pyridoxine
c. Succimer
d. Fabahistine
8. Did you ever steal anything? is what kind of questions.

a. Relevant
b. Irrelevant
c. Control
d. General question
9. Breaking down of complex proteins into simpler components associated with

foul smelling gasses and accompanied by chance in color of the body.
a. Putrefaction
b. Maceration
c. Mummification
d. Marbolization
10. Two (2) persons who tried to destroy there fingerprints

a. John Dillenger and Robert James Pitt
b. Tom Dillenger and Brad Pitt
c. John Denver and Robert James Pitt
d. John Denver and Brad Pitt
11. How many fingerprint classification are used internationally?

a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
12. The Three (3) fingerprint classifications are; Arch, Loops, and ________.
a. Tented Arch
b. Accidental Whorl
c. Whorls
d. Ulnar Loop
13. In criminal investigation, when we say bullet, does it includes

pellets?
a. Yes
b. No
c. Never
d. Maybe
14. Muzzle velocity of Military firearms.

a. 1,850 fps
b. 1,925 fps
c. 2,500 fps
d. 3,500 4,00 fps
15. It refers to the actual curve path of projectile from the moment it
leaves the gun barrel until it hits the target. (2x question)
a. Trajectory
b. Velocity
c. Stability
d. Ricochet
16. If smokeless powder was made from gelatinize nitrocellulose mixed with
ether and alcohol, does Black powder contains charcoal and sulfur?
a. Yes
b. No
c. Never
d. Maybe
17. These are guns designed to fire only one shot for every loading. (2x
question)
a. Single-shot firearm
b. Bolt action type
c. Repeating firearms
d. Slide action type
18. In gunshot wounds, which is always greater in appearance?

a. Entrance
b. Exit
c. Contact
d. Close
19. In photography, when we say tripod, how many stands are there?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
20. Can rigor mortis determine the time of death?

a. Yes
b. No
c. Never
d. Maybe
21. In robbery case. Which is the focus of close up photography?

a. valuable materials
b. forcible entry
c. disarray furnitures
d. broken glass

22. In post-mortem lividity, the blood cannot be transferred even if the body
has been moved to another position when the blood is defused in the
____________.
a. tissues
b. plasma
c. Outer skin
d. Veins
23. Most common form of asphyxia.

a. Strangulation
b. hanging
c. lynching
d. Garroting
24. A condition in which the supply of oxygen to the blood has been reduced
below working levels.
a. Asphyxia
b. homicide
c.syncope
d. Coma
25. Involuntary divergence of the pen line from the natural direction in
the formation of letters.
a. Tremor
b. Hiatus
c. Shading
d. loose writing
26. First police surgeon or forensic pathologist who performed the autopsy of
Julius Caesar.
a. Paul Zacchias
b. Antistius
c. Landsteiner
d. Hipocrates
27. How many percent of alcohol is needed to be considered that a person is

intoxicated?
a.0.05%
b. 0.15%
c. 0.15%
d. 1.05%
28. Used to see stains on clothes that are invisible to a normal light.
a. X-ray
b. Infrared light
c. UV light
d. visible lights

29. A little bit better than idiots.
a. Imbecile
b. Moron
c. Moral defficiency
d. Special Child
30. What is the purpose of getting the plain impression of the subject?
a. For classification purposes
b. For verification purposes
c. To check the order of the rolled impression
d. For comparison purposes
31. The poisonous gas that smells like a rotten egg.

a. Hydrogen sulfide
b. Sulfur dioxide
c. Hydrogen dioxide
d. Hydrochloride
32. A violent volatile poison producing an almond odor in vomits of the

victim.
a. Plasma
b. Cyanide
c. Sulfur
d. Lead
33. Another term for Ultra-violet light.

a. White light
b. Red light
c. Black light
d. Roentgen
34. It is an adjustable mechanism that regulates the amount of light reaching

the film by varying the length of time, and it is consider as the door of the
camera.
a. Lens
b. focusing Ring
c. Shutter
d. Aperture
35. Sequence of sensitivity of the Three (3) emulsion layers of color film.
a. Blue-Green-Red
b. Red- Green-Blue
c. Green-Red-Blue
d. Blue-Red-Green
36. An instrument used to measure the bore diameter of a shotgun.

a. Taper gauge
b. Helixometer
c. Microscope
d. Onoscope
37. Covers the surface of the dermis with blunt peg-like formation.
a. Epidermis
b. Sweat pores
c. Dermal papillae
d. Sweat gland
38. An instrument used to detect alcohol in human body.

a. Alcotest
b. Drunkometer
c. Breath analyzers
d. Intoximeter
39. The morphological constituents of human hair.

a. Medulla, Cortex, Cuticle
b. Root, Shaft, Tip
c. Anagen, Catagen, Telogen
d. Refracting index, Birefringence, Density
40. The depression between the ridges which maybe compared with the low areas
in a tire tread.
a. Core
b. Delta
c. Furrorws
d. Sweat pores
41. It is the access to another computer network sites to steal data or

sensitive information.
a. Hacking
b. Cyber spies
c. Morphing
d. Password sniffers
42. It is a sensitized material that has the primary function of recording

the image that is focused upon it by the lens of the camera.(2x question)
a. Photographic paper
b. Film
c. Filter
d. Camera
43. A component of a polygraph machine which is used to record the

perspiration and breathing of a subject with the aid of a convoluted rubber
tube.
a. Plethysmograph
b. Pneumograph
c. Galvanograph
d. Kymograph
44. The most typical camera used for police photography.

a. Polaroid still camera
b. Single lens reflex camera
c. Digital camera
d. View camera
45. They are considered as the focal points in fingerprint identification.

a. Appendage and Upthrust
b. Core and Delta
c. Recurving ridge and Coverging ridge
d. Pattern area and Typelines
46. Black powder as discovered by Chinese Alchemist is consists of a mixture

of:
a. Gelatinized nitrocellulose with ether and alcohol
b. Sulfur, Gelatinized nitrocellulose with ether
c. Salt, sulfur and alcohol
d. Sulfur, Charcoal and saltpeter
47. How many days after infliction does a black-eye can be observed to be
turning Purple?
a.1-4 days
b.4-5 days
c. 6-7 days
d. 8-9 days
48. A principle in fingerprint which states that the ridge patterns on the
digits never change during the life of an individual.
a. Principle of Permanency
b. Principle of Individuality
c. Principle of Infallibility
d. Principle of Lividity
49. Is your mothers name Madalena? is what kind of question?

a. Relevant
b. Irrelevant
c. Control
d. General question
50. All fingers are rolled AWAY from the subjects body except?
a. Both Index fingers
b. Both Little fingers
c. Both Middle fingers
d. Both Thumbs

51. Branch of ballistics which involves the study of projectiles behavior
from the time it leaves the gun until it ends its flight.
a. Interior Ballistics
b. Terminal Ballistics
c. Exterior Ballistics
d. Transitional Ballistics
52. Regarded as a special form of pen lift disguise in which a perceptible

group appears in the writing.
a. Diacritic
b. Hiatus
c. Hesitation
d. Tremor
53. These are firearms that propel projectiles with diameter of more than one
(1) inch.
a. Artillery
b. Musket
c. Assault rifle
d. Cannon
54. There are always two deltas in what fingerprint pattern?

a. Ach
b. Loop
c. Whorls
d. Accidental whorl
55. The two types of glass fractures are?

a. Radial and Ulnar fractures
b. Radial and Concentric fractures
c Concentric and emetic fractures
d. Plain and one-way fractures
56. A fingerprint characteristics which is free from any obstruction.

a. Sufficient recurve/ Recurving ridge
b. Insufficient recurve
c. Insipient ridge
d. diverging ridge
57. In terminal ballistics, it is the depth of bullet penetrating the target.

a. Terminal Accuracy
b. Terminal Velocity
c. Terminal Energy
d. Terminal Penetration
58. Firearms are like people that have general and specific characteristics.
What firearm characteristics refers to those that can be determined only
after a gun is already manufactured?
a. Caliber and Model
b. Class Characteristics
c. Rifling Characteristics
d. Individual Characteristics
59. A typewriter defect that can be corrected by cleaning the machine or

replacing the ribbon.
a. Transitory defect
b. Typeface defect
c. Alignment defect
d. Permanent defect
60. It is the ridge count of the first loop pattern appearing on the
fingerprint card except the two little fingers.
a. Primary classification
b. Secondary classification
c. Final Classification
d. Key classification
61. It refers to the last stage of toxological examination.

a. Quantification
b. Microscopic examonation
c. Biological
d. None of the following
62. Individual characteristics of firearms can be determined even before a

gun is manufactured. This statement is-
a. True
b. False
c. Doubtful
d. Maybe
63. These are marks found at the extracting groove of the spent shell caused
by its withdrawal from the chamber.
a. Ejector marks
b. Shearing marks
c. Extractor marks
d. Firing pin marks
64. Human hair has medullary index of less than ________, and animal hair has
a medullary index of greater than _________.
a. 0.1, 0.2
b. 0.2, 0.3
c. 0.3, 0.5
d. 0.5, 0.7
65. This will serve as authority of polygraph examiner to examine the subject
as evidence that subject voluntary submits to undergo the test.
a. Willingness of the subject to undergo Pre-test in interview
b. Willingness of the subject to take the test to prove his innocence
c. Willingness of the subject to give his personal data during the pre-
test interview
d. None of the foregoing
66. When a shot is fired on an automatic pistol by a criminal.

a. The empty shells remain within the chamber
b. The shell is rarely found at the crime scene
c. The shell in most cases will be found at the scene of firing
d. The shell is usually disposed by the perpetrator
67. When bullet travels through the body it produces a shock wave which
damages the tissue around its path, this is known as
a. Contact
b. Close discharge
c. Distance charge
d. Tissue quake
68. In tented arches, the ridges _________

a. Make a complete circuit
b. Makes an obstruction
c. Run from one side to another with rise at the center
d. Make a backward turn
69. In taking fingerprints, __________ are rolled towards the body of the
subject.
a. All fingers
b. Both thumbs
c. Little fingers
d. All fingers except thumb
70. If the same digits of both hands are missing, the impressions are held to
be __________.
a. Dependent on the classification of the print of the other finger
b. Dependent on the ridge tracing
c. Loops
d. Plain whorl, Meeting
71. In the investigation of a rape case, use of ultra violent light is a

useful method because-
a. Only to establish whether certain stains, after they have been located
by some other method.
b. To locate stains, but not to establish whether they are semen stains
c. Both to locate stains and to establish whether they are semen stains
d. Neither for finding nor for determining their nature

72. If a subject has more than ten (10) fingers, the extra finger is printed
on the_______ of the fingerprint chart with notation to the effect that same
is an extra finger.
a. Face
b. Other side
c. Face, upper corner
d. Face, lower corner
73. Discharge shells are initialed at

a. Inside or outside of the case near open end
b. On any part of the shell
c. Where firing pin strikes
d. At the base
74. The retouching of a defective portion of a written stroke is known in

questions document examination as
a. Feathering
b. Shading
c. Retracing
d. Patching
75. In case of minor injury affecting only the layer of the friction skin,
the injury will not permanently deface the ridge formation provided that the
______ is not affected.
a. Dermis
b. Epidermis
c. Bone of the finger
d. Ulna bone
76. A drop of blood which falls from the moving object or person is elongated
and the splashes are found to be concentrated around one end of the stain. As
a general rule, the splashes and the extension of the drop of blood indicates
a. Fresh blood
b. Dried stain
c. Direction of movement
d. Dead person
77. The identity of two impressions is established primarily through _______.

a. Dimensions of pattern
b. Similarity of traces
c. Unexplained similarity of patterns
d. Ridge characteristics and the relative position of these ridge
characteristics
78. When inking fingers for the purpose of taking rolled impressions, the
fingers must be inked from ______ to base of the joint.
a. Base
b. Tip
c. Second joint
d. Third joint
79. Is a kind of fingerprint pattern in which one or more ridges enter on

either side of the impression by a recurve, pass out or terminate on the same
side as the ridges enter.
a. Loop
b. Ulnar loop
c. Radial loop
d. Tented arch
80. A characteristic of post-mortem symptom of carbon monoxide poisoning is a
a. Vary texture and appearance of the skin

b. Contorted position of the body
c. Pinkish lividity of all part of the body
d. Marked protuberance of the eyeballs
81. The English person who coined the term Photography in English language.
a. William Abney
b. William Talbot
c. Louis Daguerre
d. John F. Herschel
82. In taking mug shots of a suspect who is standing, the camera should be
positioned
a. At neck level
b. At chest level
c. At hips level
d. Slightly above the head level
83. This condition mimics rigor mortis when the dead body is exposed to very
low temperature.
a. Cold stiffening
b. Heat stiffening
c. Cadaveric spasm
d. Instantaneous rigor
84. Evidence which change quickly such as skid marks, the wounds and bruises
will heal and disappear before the case comes to trial. Such evidence can be
preserved by
a. Pickling method and introduced in court as evidence
b. Photographed introduced in court as evidence
c. Casting and mould and introduced in court as evidence

85. The type of special kind of death is done by making convict face a firing
squad and is put to death by a volley of fire.
a. Musketry
b. Euthanasia
c. Judicial death
d. Hanging
86. To be able to make a positive identification of a person, document

examiner must be able to observe the
a. Characteristics of his handwriting
b. Writing position of the writer
c. Manner on how the writer moves the pain
d. Distinguishing individual features of his handwriting
87. Writing characterized by too much freedom of movement and lack of

regulation which is usually tall letters.
a. Loss writing
b. Restrained writing
c. Genuine writing
d. Regulated writing
88. Upon beginning the test, how many seconds should the examiner wait before
asking the first question?
a. 10-15
b. 15-20
c. 5-10
d. 20-25
89. A form of sexual perversion where a male individual derives pleasure from
wearing the female apparels.
a. Homosexuality
b. Transexualism
c. Tranvestism
d. Intersexuality
90. Portrait parle is correctly defined by which of the following?

a. The verbal, accurate, and picturesque description of the person
identified
b. It is the file of pictures of missing or wanted persons
c. The use of anthropometrical measurement of human body as the basis for
identification
d. It is the used of several evidences to eliminate or include in choice
for identification
91. One of the following is considered the cardinal rule in chart

interpretation.
a. Chart makings is the keynote to accurate chart interpretation
b. Specific response must form a deviation from norm
c. Any change from normal response requires an explanation
d. Chart probing shall be done after each chart
92. Maybe defined as the scientific examination of firearms, shell, bullets

allegedly used in the commission of a crime.
a. Forensic ballistics
b. Interior ballistics
c. Exterior ballistics
93. DNA is a chemical substance found in all cells and individuals has a
unique DNA and only ________ share the same DNA pattern.
a. Mother and child
b. Father and child
c. Mother and father
d. Identical twins
94. The restoration of tampered serial numbers can be done by the use of
a. Benzidine solution
b. Saline solution
c. Etching solution
d. Sulfuric acid
95. In ridge tracing, 3 or more ridges above the right delta is considered
whorl type of pattern with
a. Inner tracing
b. Outer tracing
c. Meeting Tracing
d. IMO tracing
96. Period of time wherein human bones will not exhibit changes.
a. 10 years
b. 20 years
c. 30 years
d. 40 years
97. The tumbling of the bullet in its flight and hitting the target sideways
as a result of not spinning on its axis.
a. Gyroscopic action
b. Key hole shot
c. Spinning
d. Recoil
98. A wound produced by blunt object/instrument such as log and stone.

a. Punctured
b. Incised
c. Lacerated
d. Stab wound
99. A physical injury which is found at the site and also the opposite site
of application of force.
a. Extensive injury
b. Coup injury
c. Contre coup injury
d. Coup and contre coup injury
100. The light from the pinhole camera will form

a. A halo effect
b. A photographic emulsion
c. An inverted image
d. An emergency ray

PREFACE
DISCLAIMER
____________________________________
CRIMINALISTICS SET B
1.A 26.B 51.C 76.C

2.C 27.A 52.C 77.D
3.B 28.B 53.A 78.C
4.C 29.A 54.C 79.A
5.A 30.C 55.B 80.C
6.A 31.A 56.A 81.D
7.C 32.B 57.D 82.B
8.C 33.C 58.D 83.A
9.A 34.C 59.A 84.B
10.A 35.B 60.D 85.A
11.B 36.A 61.A 86.D
12.C 37.C 62.B 87.A
13.A 38.C 63.C 88.B
14.C 39.B 64.D 89.C
15.A 40.C 65.B 90.A
16.A 41.A 66.C 91.C
17.A 42.B 67.D 92.A
18.B 43.B 68.C 93.D
19.B 44.B 69.B 94.C

20.A 45.B 70.D 95.B
21.B 46.D 71.B 96.B
22.A 47.A 72.B 97.B
23.A 48.A 73.A 98.C
24.A 49.B 74.D 99.D
25.D 50.D 75.B 100.C


QUESTIONARES FOR
CRIME DETECTION AND
INVESTIGATION
FUNDAMENTALS OF CRIMINAL
INVESTIGATION
SPECIAL CRIME INVESTIGATION
ORGANIZE CRIME INVESTIGATION
DRUG EDUCATION AND VICE CONTROL
TRAFFIC MANAGEMENT AND ACCIDENT

INVESTIGATION
FIRE TECHNOLOGY AND ARSON

INVESTIGATION
1 | P a g e QUESTIONARES for CRIME DETECTION AND INVESTIGATION/Charlemagne

Second Day Afternoon Session
======================================================================
REVIEW QUESTIONS IN
CRIME DETECTION AND INVESTIGATION SET A
----------------------------------------------------------------------
questions. Mark only one answer for each item by marking the box
provided. STRICT NO ERASURES ALLOWED. Use Pencil No. 1 only.
1. It is defined as an art which deals with the identity and location

of the offender and provides evidence of his guilt through criminal
proceedings.
a. Criminal investigation
b. Interview and interrogation
c. Confession and admission
d. Criminal action
2. In sending out letters and relevant papers, the documents should be

arranged in a certain manner. What do you call the act of arranging
the document?
a. Special mail handling
b. Filing
c. Assembling
d. Documentation
3. This provides a record of incidents requiring police response and

includes criminal offenses, arrest and general information.
a. Report
b. Narrative
c. Narration
d. Police Report
4. Several persons were injured as a result of a bus skidding on a wet

pavement. In preparing an accident report, the term Apparently in
good condition should not be used in reference to
a. The Muffler
b. The Brakes
c. The As injured persons
d. The operator
5. In testing a suspected intoxicated driver, which one of the ff.

tests should be given last?
a. Hand writing
b. Pupils of eyes
c. Balance
d. Walking and turning
6. Where 2 or more emergency vehicles, operating as such approach

the same intersection from different directions, creating a
probability conflict, an officer directing traffic at the intersection
must give preference to one and cause the others to yield the right of
way. Of the following, the type of vehicle which should generally be
given preferences over any of the vehicle is the-
a. Ambulance
b. Police car
c. Fire truck
d. Wrecker
7. One of the qualities of a good investigation report states that it

must short but concise, meaning, the report must be -
1 | P a g e QUESTIONARES for CRIME DETECTION AND INVESTIGATION/Charlemagne James P. Ramos
R.C., J.D./2016
a. Fair
b. Brief
C. Clear
D. Impartial
8. This is classification of the investigative report which is used as

a way of determining if the officer is working on his case or not.
A. Spot report
B. Progress report
C. Basic report
D. Final report
9. What factors are taken into consideration in the determination of

the liability of the person found guilty of arson?
A. the kind of building or property that was burned.
B. the location of the building
C. whether the building is inhabited or not
D. all of the above
10. It is the transfer of heat which requires physical contact between

the bodies or portions of bodies exchanging heat.
a. Conduction
b. Convection
c. Radiation
d. Heat transfer
11. The primary purpose of statutory requirements for fire protection

is-
A. to see to it that the buildings are insured
B. to safeguard life
C. to see to it that the buildings are fire hazard free.
D. to generate income for the government.
12. Physical evidence is generally given weight the courts because -

A. it speaks for its self
B. it cannot lie
C. not affected by emotion
D. all of the forgoing
13. This is the tying up of all loose ends pertinent to the

investigation so as to form a clear and composite picture of the
crime committed, to the mind of the reader, for prosecutorial and
judicial action.
A. spot report
B. progress report
C. basic report
D. final report
14. The effectiveness of a traffic law enforcement program is best

measured by-
A. a reduction of a traffic accidents and delays.
B. an increase in traffic enforcement actions
C. a decrease in the ration of conviction to enforcement actions.
D. None of the Above
15. Physical or personal appearance is important when testifying in

court because -
A. it will determine the quality of your testimony
B. it will determine the quantity of your testimony.
C. it will affect the weight given to your testimony by the court
D. it will reduce the chances of the defense attacking your testimony.
16. In the conduct of custodial investigation, one of the rights

provided for by the law is protection against self-incrimination and
right is found on the grounds of-
R.C., J.D./2016
A. public policy and morality
B. public policy and humanity
C. humanity kindness
D. humanity and conscience
17. This method or technique of criminal identification is more

convenient than other methods or techniques since the element of
suggestion is avoided in the identification process.
A. cartography
B. rogues gallery
C. police-line up
D. fingerprint
18. His methods made popular the logic of employing a thief to catch a
thief
A. Henry Fielding
B. Jonathan Wild
C. John Fielding
D. Robert Peel
19.It is considered as a patient, step by step inquiry or observation,

a careful examination, a recording of evidence or legal inquiry
A. recording
B. investigation
C. collection
D. examination
20. It is the art of suspects surveillance, and this was pioneered by

Allan Pinkerton.
A. role
B. shadowing
C. modus operandi
D. casing
21. Being an investigator able to solve cases, he must posses the

ability to be patient to obtain accurate and complete information,
specially with uncooperative subjects is-
A. integrity
B. perseverance
C. alertness
D. logical mind
22. The fact that no physical evidence was found at the scene of the
crime will most likely mean that-
A. the victim cleaned up before the police arrived.
B. the suspect was professional
C. the suspect was juvenile
D. the police probably did not conduct a complete search for evidence.
23.The term describes the transfer of heat through a gas or vacuum in

a similar way to light is-
A. conduction
B. convection
C. radiation
D. fire
24. There are 2 types of standards to be obtained in the

investigation of a questioned documents: 1 is collected and the
other is -
A. photographed
B. replicated
C. dictated
D. all of the foregoing

R.C., J.D./2016
25. The purpose of this is to provide a brief, informative summary of
the nature and important event in the case.
A. synopsis
B. details of the report
C. recommendation
D. conclusion
26. During an interview, planning is important and must follow the

order of time ad bring out facts orderly as they happened, this
technique is called-
A. chronological questioning
B. physical questioning
C. psychological questioning
D. None of these
27. A case decided in USA in the year 1920 that established the
Doctrine of the Fruit of the Poisonous Tree.
A. MAPP vs. USA
B. MAPP vs. Ohio
C. USA vs. Ohio
D. Silverthorne Lumber Co. vs. US
28. An English man who wrote a novel entitled Tom Jones, was
appointed as Magistrate for the areas of Westminster and Middlesex in
London.
A. Patrick Colquhoun
B. Charles Dickens
C. Henry Fielding
D. Robert Peel
29. This report is one which is routinary act it is submitted daily by

any duty inspector.
A. spot report
B. special report
C. beat inspection report
D. after patrol report
30. Police report which requires deals with ordinary, miscellaneous,

day-to-day memorandum, letter or form accomplished by any member of a
unit.
A. basic report
B. formal report
C. spot report
D. special report
31. The first responsibility of a police officer assigned to

investigate a reported homicide is-
A. arrest the offender
B. administer first aid to the victim
C. promptly responds to the assignment with reasonable and safe speed.
D. protects the crime scene.
32. The first female detective hired by the North-Western Police

Agency.
A. Jane Doe
B. Kate Wayne
C. June Downey
D. Demi Moore
33. What Special Law punishes the crime of Arson which amends the
provision of the Revised Penal Code.
a. Presidential Decree 603
b. Presidential Decree 968
c. Presidential Decree 1612
d. Presidential Decree 1613
R.C., J.D./2016
34. Known as the simplest and the most effective way of showing actual
measurement and of identifying significant items of evidence in their
location at the scene is-
A. photograph
B. sketch
C. graphing
D. all of the above
35.Illegal acts committed by business and professional people while

earning their living are classified as-
A. Blue-collar crimes
B. crime mala in se
C. white-collar crimes
D. crime mala prohibita
36. It is best to interrogate a suspect in a foreign Territory such

as the investigator room at the police station because the place
a. Is comfortable to the suspect
b. Is familiar to the suspect
c. Provides food and cigarette to the investigator
d. Intimidates the suspect
37. The collection of photographs of criminals taken by the police for

identification purposes is technically called?
a. Cartographic files
b. Identification kit
c. Mug File
d. Criminal Record
38. Julia Roberts gives information to the police without waiting for
reward or payment because she considered herself as
a. Ex-convict
b. Informant
c. Defendant
d. Accused
39. In essence, it is a chemical reaction in which the substance

combines with oxygen, heat is released and the form of substance is
destroyed.
a. Fire
b. Fuel
c. Ignition
d. Oxygen
40. It is, in most cases, the initial step for obtaining information
to determine the origin and cause of fire.
a. Interviewing witness/es
b. Surveillance
c. Undercover work assignment
d. To investigate the insurance company and the owner of the
insurance company
41. This is the lifeblood of investigation and hence to be considered

seriously and also to be followed up. Once it dries you have nowhere
to go.
a. Information
b. Intelligence
c. Interview
d. Instrumentation
42. These are attached and distributed in the ceiling of rooms,

activated by the increase of temperature and water is delivered right
where it is needed.
a. Fire pump
R.C., J.D./2016
b. Fire hydrant
c. Automatic sprinklers
d. Fire extinguisher
43. Fernando Jose is testifying in court to disprove the criminal

charge filed against him. Thus, he is the
a. Suspect
b. Accused
c. Criminal
d. Respondent
44. When a police officer finds a tool at the crime scene, he should
first of all
a. Pick it up for a closer examination, taking care not to jar
b. Wait until the crime scene has been sketched or photographed and
measurements taken before he collects the evidence
c. Immediately collect it and always send it to the Crime Laboratory
for specific examination
d. Compare the following edge of the tool with impression to
determine if this was the tool used in crime.
45. Edralin is an alleged thief. He is being accused of stealing

personal property but he is not yet under the custody of the police.
Therefore, he is legally addressed as
a. Suspect
b. Accused
c. Accomplice
d. Accessory
46. This inquiry begins with a general reexamination of all facts,

leads and other types of information secured during the initial
investigation.
a. Preliminary investigation
b. In Depth investigation
c. Follow-up investigation
d. In Depth investigation or Follow-up investigation
47. If proof is the outcome of evidence, what is evidence?

a. Measurement of guilt
b. Means of social control
c. Instrument of proof
48. He became the first detective in Chicago Police Department in

1849.
a. Henry Fielding
b. Allan Pinkerton
c. Jonathan Wild
d. Robert Peel
49. A burned body found was subjected to autopsy, however, examination

of lungs and blood showed no abnormal quantity of carbon monoxide or
dioxide. What will be your interpretation under this circumstances?
a. The person is died because of burning
b. The person is died due to asphyxia
c. The person was killed before he was burned
d. The person died not of fire bur because of suffocation
50. This may be applicable to a crime scene which approximately

circular or oval. The searchers gather at the center and proceed
outward along a radii or spokes.
a. Wheel method
b. Zone method
c. Spiral method
d. Strip method
R.C., J.D./2016
51. This signifies the ways and means device by a peace officer to
apprehend a person who has committed a crime; with or without the said
device or means, the crime has already been committed
a. Entrapment
b. Treachery
c. Instigation
52. All of the following are generally accepted rules of behavior that
should be followed by police officer first arriving at the crime scene
of a murder committed indoors, EXCEPT
a. Try to keep the witnesses separated
b. Record the time of discovery of the crime
c. Discuss the crime with persons who witness the incident
d. Notify the superior officer as quickly as possible but do not
leave the scene unguarded while doing so
53. The known case on personal identification that caused the total
damaged of Anthropometry is
a. Best case
b. Dellinger case
c. USA vs. Jennings
d. West case
54. The whom, where, or which information are derived and

developed refers to the
a. Traces of information
b. Testimony
c. Evidence
d. Sources of information
55. The primary reason for conducting a search in the crime scene is
to
a. Obtain obvious physical evidence
b. Ascertain the reasons for the crime
c. Undercover hidden evidence
d. Determine the criminals method of operation
56. Marking of evidence, as far as practicable, should be made on the

item itself upon collection, in a place least likely to affect the
appearance of its
a. Monetary value
b. Monetary and evidentiary
c. Evidentiary value
d. Integrity and identity
57. A powerful operated traffic control device by which traffic is

warned of directed to take some specific action is called ?
a. Object markings
b. Club markings
c. Reflectorized markings
d. Traffic light signal
58. Generally this drugs produces a relaxing state without impairment

of high facilities or the inducement of sleep is known as
a. Stimulants
b. Narcotics
c. Tranquilizers
d. Barbiturates
59. In pursuing a criminal and when it appears that the pursuit is not
possible, what should you not do?
a. Better use your time and efforts to alert another unit
b. Forego the pursuit and continue what you are previously doing
R.C., J.D./2016
c. Inform the dispatcher of the unit
d. Use radio for possible active pursuit in coordination with other
police units
60. What do you think is the significant data for an arson

investigator to gather from the fire scene?
a. Odor
b. Rapidity of fire
c. Color of smokes and flames
61. It is the intentional deprivation of any body organ necessary for

reproduction.
a. Abortion
b. Castration
c. Physical injuries
62. This crime is committed whenever a public officer does not account
for what he collects and he misappropriates the fees collected.
a. Estafa
b. Malversation
c. Corruption of public official
d. Bribery
63. This situation takes place when a police officer induce a person
to commit a crime and arrest him after the commission of the crime.
a. Instigation
b. Recidivism
c. Voluntary surrender
d. Entrapment
64. This refer to the immediate apprehension or cognition-quick and

ready insight without the conscious use of reasoning.
a. Imagination
b. Intuition
c. Curiosity
d. Opinion
65. It was the first natural stimulant that was discovered.

a. Nicotine
b. Epinedrine
c. Caffeine
d. Ephedrine
66. Criminal investigation is not a science, it is not governed by

rigid rules, or laws, but most often, it is governed by
a. Intuition
b. To a minor extent by chance or luck
c. Felicity or inspiration
67. This is defined as a transition which occurs in the development of

fire when, for example, most of all the combustible surfaces within a
room are heated above their ignition temperature at the same time.
a. Ignition
b. Starter
c. Flash-over
d. Intensity
68. Whether it be solid, liquid, or gas, is the minimum temperature

that the substance must be heated in order to sustain combustion.
a. Temperature
b. Flash point
c. Ignition temperature
R.C., J.D./2016
d. Burning point
69. Which of the following types of accidents is most decreased by the

installation of traffic lights?
a. Accidents of confusion
b. Cross traffic accidents
c. Accidents of decisions of right of way
d. Misunderstanding between motorists
70. It is the accomplishment of the act, and which must be proved

where it is an element of the offense charged.
a. Motive
b. Intent
c. Modus operandi
d. Background interview
71. In 1877, even without his field police experience, he become the
head of the Scotland Yard organized investigators known as the
Criminal Investigation Department.
a. Charles Dickens
b. Edward Rucker
c. Howard Vincent
d. Francis Turkey
72. The word investigate was derived from the Latin word ______
meaning to track or trace, a derivation easily related to police
investigation.
a. Investigare
b. Vestigare
c. Tracer
d. Tracker
73. A certain intersection, for several reasons, has more traffic

accidents than any other in the area. The police unit assigned to the
area should:
a. Park near the intersection, in plain view, and wait for violators
b. Cruise all the assigned area but give extra attention to the
intersection
c. Park near the intersection, more or less hidden from view
d. Park your motorcycle at the center of intersection to caution
motorists
74. It is a term used as anything used to enhance the quality of fire.

a. Accelerants
b. Arson
c. Trailers
d. Plants
75. The investigator who collects physical evidence should take it to

the laboratory by himself whenever this is possible, otherwise, he
should obtain a receipt from each person to whom he gives or receives
evidence. This statement is applicable to
a. Chain of custody of evidence
b. Cardinal rules in investigation
c. Three tools in investigation
d. To established the guilt of the accused.
76. Can a child below 15 years old be employed?

a. Yes, provided that the employer shall ensure the protection,
health safety and morals of the child
b. Yes, provided that the employer shall secure the child a working
permit from DOLE
c. No, he is a minor
d. A and B only

R.C., J.D./2016
77. It is the duty of the officer who first arrive at the crime scene.
a. Locate and apprehend the accused
b. Protection of the crime scene
c. Collect evidence
d. Present evidence of guilt
78. The most likely place to look for fingerprints of the thief in an
automobile which has been stolen and abandoned is on
a. Door handles
b. Steering wheel
c. Rear view mirror
d. Dashboard
79. It is defined as maybe a self-incriminatory statement by the

subject falling short of an acknowledgement of guilt.
a. Confession
b. Admission
c. Deposition
d. Information
80. Articles and materials found in connection with investigation and

which aides in establishing the identity of the perpetrator or
circumstances under which the crime was committed or which in general,
assist in the prosecution of the criminal.
a. Corpus delicti
b. Fruits of the crime
c. Physical evidence
d. Chain of custody of evidence
81. The most effective way to reduce the number of traffic accidents
is to
a. Arrest and prosecute traffic violators
b. Increase the premium of insurance and decrease the car insurance
liability to a minimum
c. Frequent checks on all cars for mechanical defects
82. The basic principle behind the selective enforcement in the

traffic control is
a. Selection of traffic areas for strict enforcement
b. Concentration of enforcement activities as peak traffic hours
c. A warning rather that a citation will act as preventive for
future violation
d. Direction of enforcement activities to those points of greatest
traffic danger
83. A former convict who became a Paris investigator and founder of

the Brigade De la Surete and the forerunner of our credit card system.
a. Henry Fielding
b. Jonathan Wild
c. Eugene Vidocq
d. Sir Robert Peel
84. In police stations, It is the record

of all crimes and complaints.
a. Police Blotter
b. Police Arrest
c. Booking Report
85. It is the conveying of persons, goods, and things from one place
to another.
a. Traffic
b. Transportation
c. Movement
R.C., J.D./2016
d. Shipping
86. Excellent way of filling accidents report for urban areas is

a. Street designation
b. Numerical route
c. Road safety
87. If the accident has resulted to serious physical injury, the most
important thing for the investigator to do in regard to the injured
person if no doctor at hand is
a. Move him to a place where he may be comfortable
b. Bring him to the hospital as quickly as possible
c. Give him first aid as necessary and call for an ambulance
d. Ignore him, because medical care is not part of the work of the
investigator
88. It is the correct or proper choice of words to convey a meaning.

a. Vocabulary
b. Diction
c. Words
89. It is a customary little marks that determines whether the

sentence is clear or has a doubtful meaning.
a. Words
b. Phrase
c. Punctuation marks
d. Numbers
90. If the fire is caused by flammable or combustible liquids, such as

kerosene, gasoline, benzene, alcohol etc., It is said to be classified
as
a. Class A fire
b. Class B fire
c. Class C fire
d. Class D fire
91. These are personalities that do not exist in reality because they
are only creations of writers who focus inventing detectives stories
that may help entertain and/or educate readers.
a. Private detectives
b. Government Investigators
c. Fictitious Investigators
92. For competent investigator, it is the key to freedom from bondage

of ignorance.
a. Training
b. Tools
c. Technique
d. Principle
93. In conducting an interview to a subject, the interviewer always

ask the subject with a question answerable by yes or no, this
statement is
a. Absolutely True
b. Absolutely False
c. Partly True
d. Partly false
94. This involves the process of allowing a witness to select the

primary suspect from a group of chosen persons ( suspects and innocent
persons).
a. Cartography
R.C., J.D./2016
b. Portrait Parle
c. Rogues Gallery
d. Police line-up
95. An approach in reconstructing the crime which requires the process

of collecting information first, analyze and evaluate it before a
theory is developed.
a. Deductive Approach
b. Inductive Approach
c. Analytical Approach
96. What is known as an unimpeachable witness because it is not

clouded by faulty memory, prejudice, poor eyesight and desire?
a. Ordinary witness
b. Expert witness
c. Physical evidence
d. Testimonial evidence
97. A kind of crime scene sketch which picture the immediate scene
only.
a. Sketch of locality
b. Sketch of ground
c. Sketch of Details
d. Cross projection sketch
98. In the Philippine setting, the SOCO is composed of how many

members?
a. 6
b. 7
c. 8
d. 10
99. It is the tendency to increase the dose of the drugs to produce

the same effect as to that of the original effect.
a. Tolerance
b. Addiction
c. Physical dependence
d. Withdrawal syndrome
100. ________ is the skillful questioning of a person who is reluctant

to divulge information concerning the offense under investigation.
a. Instrumentation
b. Information
c. Interview
d. Interrogation
101. An evidence which links the suspects to the crime scene or

offense.
a. Corpus Delicti
b. Associative evidence
c. Tracing evidence
d. Documentary evidence
102. As the first officer to arrive at the crime scene, you must
retain and identify for interview the person who first notify the
police, because you can gather investigative?
a. Investigation
b. Leads
c. Breakthrough
d. Modus operandi
103. Under the new drug law, the best defense for drug abuse is?
a. Comrades
b. Colleagues
R.C., J.D./2016
c. Family
d. Gangs
104. The first to arrive at the crime scene and has the authority to
preserve the crime scene is the?
a. Beat patrol
b. SOCO
c. NBI
d. Chief PNP
105. Instead of using proceed and utilize, use the word/s?

a. Proceed and go
b. Go and use
c. Go and exploit
d. Proceed and use
106. The most advance in sending a report.

a. Fax
b. Courier
c. Text
d. Air mail
107. The penalty of ____________ shall be imposed upon any person who
possesses 10 grams of Shabu.
a. 20 years and 1 day to 40 years
b. 12 years and 1 day to 20 years
c. 6 years and 1 day to 12 years
d. Life imprisonment
108. These are articles which assist the investigator in locating the
suspect.
a. Tracing evidence
b. Associative evidence
c. Documentary evidence
d. Testimonial evidence
109. Instead of using dead body on your report, use the word/s?
a. Cadaver
b. Deceased
c. Departed
d. Corpse
110. In the year 2005, the Philippines was tagged by the USA as the
number one producer of?
a. Marijuana
b. Cocaine
c. Shabu
d. Opium
111. When was the Anti-drug summit which was attended by President
Gloria M. Arroyo?
a. November 17, 2002
b. November 27, 2002
c. November 17, 2005
d. November 27, 2005
112. Is a phrase considered as a complete sentence?

a. Yes
b. No
c. Sometimes
d. Maybe
113. It is a sign of showing the point of origin of fire.

a. Alligator pattern
b. Charring
R.C., J.D./2016
c. Product of incombustible materials
114. In dental examination, location of teeth, position and ______ are

the main consideration.
a. Site
b. Spot
c. Direction
d. Place
115. A method of safe breaking by battering of the top, bottom or

sides of a safe with a chisel or other metal cutter.
a. Burning
b. Bursting
c. Ripping
d. Carrying away
116. This is the removing or transferring of people, livestock or

property from fire scene or those that are already directly affected
by fire.
a. Evacuation
b. Rescue
c. Confinement
d. Ventilation
117. _______ smoke indicates that humid materials are burning, such as
hay, vegetable fibers, etc..
a. Biting smoke
b. Black smoke
c. White smoke
d. Reddish-brown smoke
118. The worlds oldest cultivated plant as a source of prohibited

drugs.
a. Marijuana
b. Coca plant
c. Opium poppy plant
d. Caffeine
119. The process of giving training and practice in the actual

application of traffic safety knowledge is called ___________.
a. Traffic Engineering
b. Traffic Education
c. Traffic Enforcement
d. Traffic Economy
120. It is the derivative of Morphine.

a. Cocaine
b. Heroin
c. Codeine
d. Caffeine
121. The most important reason for requiring that detectives work
during normal business hours insofar as this is possible is that
a. persons involved in the investigation are more likely to be mentally
alert during day hours,
b. check of performance and attendance to assignments are more
effectively maintained
c. during those hours it is easiest to get in touch with victims,
witnesses and others
d. the percentage of crimes that occur after midnight and require
continued investigation are relatively few
e. Mobility of suspects is greatest during day hours.

R.C., J.D./2016
122. Suspecting foul play, the detective arranged to have the
package under the hellometer to see if any bombs were contained
therein. His suspicions not being verified, he then arranged to
have the hydroscopic test applied to the box hoping thus to detect
my latent fingerprints on it. It was only after this that he had
the document contained in the box removed and examined with ultra-
violet radiation to see if there had been any alterations in it.
The arrangements made by the detective would not have helped him
discover what the wanted.
a. only insofar as the contents of the box were concerned
b. except in testing for latent fingerprints
c. in examining the document
d. in examining the box for the contents and for latent fingerprints
e. in that the use of the ultra-violet radiation would have seriously
affected any material contained in the package.
123. The best time for conducting a raid on premises occupied as

living quarters by criminals is
a. midnight, because the raiding party can approach unobserved
b. around three A.M, because the occupants will probably be asleep
c. mid-afternoon, because the elements of surprise will be greatest
d. at dawn, because the approach can be made under cover of darkness
and the occupants will be least alert.
124. In this investigation of __________ crime a member of the Force

shall prevent __________persons from entering upon the scene of the
crime until the arrival of a member of the Detective Division
a. suspicious
b. accidental
c. alleged
d. disputed
e. curious
f. interested
g. unauthorized
h. unofficial
125. When a burglary might have been prevented by a patrolman on post,

the patrol sergeant assigned to investigate must investigate to
determine in __________ or if __________
a. he tried all the doors on post
b. there was neglect on the part of the patrolman
c. the storekeepers had left their stores in totals darkness
d. the Patrolman was on leave of absence at the time
e. the Patrolman had been properly relieved
f. the patrolman was too well known in the neighborhood
g. he could have discovered the crime
h. the patrolman was too intimate with storekeepers.
126. It is sometimes advisable to use the siven when responding to an

emergency call, when the dispatcher advises you tat a crime is
assumed to be
a. burglary
b. hold-up
c. assault
d. any of the foregoing
127. All of the following are generally accepted and as of behavior

that should be followed by a Policeman first Arriving at the scene
of a murder committed indoors except
a. try to keep the witnesses separated
b. discuss the crime with person who witnessed the crime
c. record the time of discovery of the crime
d. notify your superior officer as quickly as possible but do not leave
the scene unguarded while doing so

R.C., J.D./2016
128. A citizen who operates a motel reports en 89-10-48 that a Graflex
camera, serial number XY2107 was stolen form his living quarters on
8-8-48 at 9:00 pm. He can furnish no clues as to who the thief
might be and states that the camera was insured against theft.
There is no evidence of forced enforced entry. Of the following,
which would be the first action for the officers investigating the
case?
a. Report the loss to the insurance company
b. Check the guest register of the motel for 8-8-48
c. Report the loss with social number to the manufacturer of the camera
d. Question the citizens story
e. Check the records of local pawnshops
129. A policewoman answered a call to a cheap hotel on the complaint

of a resident that a whining noise appeared to come from a certain
room during most of the day. A baby was discovered lying on a
filthy blanket in the closet. The child appeared to be about two
months old and malnourished. Investigation disclosed that a Mrs. X
had rented the room the previous week. The first thing for the
policewoman to do would be to
a. take the child to the station pending placement in a foster home
b. wait until the woman returns before taking any action
c. bather and feed the child then question residents and employees of
the hotel to learn as much as possible about the circumstances
d. swear out a warrant for the arrest of the woman for child neglect
e. take the child to General Hospital pending further investigation of
the case
130. A prisoner charged with assault and robbery was taken to a

precinct station house and searched. Among the articles removed
from his possession was an expensive watch. The most probable
reasons for removal of the watch was that it
a. might be stolen from him
b. was required for evidence
c. was very valuable
d. could be used for bail purposes
131. among the following which has the right of way when they meet on
in an intersection
A. ambulance
B. police car
C. fire truck
D. presidents car
132. which road should be always be free from obstruction

A. fire hydrant
B. fire station
C. church
D. intersection
133. jemaah islamiya means

A. Islamic congregation
B. The base
C. The sword bearer
D. All of the above
134. Al Qaeda means

B. The base
C. The sword bearer
D. All of the above
135. Abu Sayaf means-

B. The base
R.C., J.D./2016
C. The sword bearer
D. All of the above
*** E N D ***
WARNING: Failure to submit your Test Questionnaires (Complete) set will

cause the cancellation of your Test-Results for the subject.
PREFACE
DISCLAIMER
____________________________________
Answer Key
CDI SET A
1. A 26. A 51. A 76. D

2. B 27. D 52. C 77. B
3. D 28. C 53. D 78. A
4. B 29. C 54. D 79. B
5. A 30. B 55. A 80. C
6. C 31. C 56. C 81. A
7. B 32. B 57. D 82. D
8. B 33. D 58. C 83. C
9. D 34. B 59. B 84. A
10. A 35. C 60. D 85. B
11. C 36. D 61. B 86. A
12. D 37. C 62. B 87. C
R.C., J.D./2016
13. D 38. B 63. A 88. B
14. A 39. C 64. B 89. C
15. A 40. A 65. C 90. B
16. B 41. A 66. D 91. C
17. D 42. C 67. C 92. A
18. B 43. D 68. B 93. B
19. B 44. B 69. D 94. D
20. B 45. A 70. A 95. B
21. B 46. D 71. A 96. C
22. D 47. D 72. B 97. C
23. C 48. B 73. B 98. B
24. B 49. C 74. D 99. A
25. A 50. A 75. A 100. D
101. B 126. C
102. B 127. B
103. C 128. D
104. A 129. E
105. B 130. B
106. A 131. A
107. D 132. D
108. A 133. A
109. B 134. B
110. C 135. C
111. A
112. B
113. A
114. C
115. C
116. B
117. C
118. A
119. B
120. B
121. C
122. D
123. D
124. C,G
125. G

R.C., J.D./2016
CRIME DETECTION AND INVESTIGATION SET B

1. Speaking of the organized syndicate this group of criminals that

grew to the height of their power in the USA between 1950 to 1960s
was the MAFIA. Its leader was not convicted of violent/serious
crimes (though they often resorted to killings) but of crime of tax
evasion. The MAFIAs known leader is ?
A. James cooper C. Al Capone
B. Edgar Hoover D. Al Pacino
2. Is the unauthorized copying, downloading of protected/ copyrighted

materials or works, making them available to the public punishable
under R.A 8792 or the ELECTRONICS COMMERCE ACT OF 2000 ?
A. Sometimes C. Yes
B. It depends D. No
3. Is the crime of arson consummated even if the fire had just started
and only a very small or insignificant portion of the house was
damaged?
A. Yes C. No
B. Possible D. It depends
4. In traffic accident probe, the physical evidence found at the scene

and also in vehicle involved, or upon the injured persons, may serve
to identify the make, model, color of the hit and run vehicle that
may then lead to the identification of what?
A. Driver C. Victim
B. Passenger D. Bystander
5. In fire query, the burning of a low-grade heavy oils or resinous on

tarry materials with reasonable air forms as soot is called:
A. Manganese C. permanganete
B. Lampblack D. carbon lock
6. As arson prober, what would you file in court if the suspect himself
owns the property that was burned but exposed to danger only the
life of another?
A. None C. civil case
B. Malicious mischief D. arson
7. What government agency is tapped to assist PDEA in conducting anti-

drug operations in jails, detention centers and similar facilities?
A. DILG C. Bureau of Immigration
B. BJMP D. BUCOR
8. The US and European Union tagged the Philippines CPP-NPA as

terrorist. The main reason why our said local insurgents was labeled
as such as because they are engaged in killing what sectors of our
society?
A. Civilian C. religious
R.C., J.D./2016
B. Political D. gay
9. Mr. X a notorious arsonist by means of prayers a favorite client of

Chinese businessmen in Binondo, was, one day approached by Mr. Y
whose business was bankrupt but heavily insured. For P1 million fee,
Mr. X agreed to burn Mr. Ys business premises. So in connection
thereto Mr. X summoned all his prayer warriors numbering more than
seven hundred and simultaneously prayed so hard and that while
collectively praying near Mr. Ys premises a lightning struck the
structure of Mr. Y and as a result, it was totally burned. What
charge, if any would you file against Mr. X and Mr. Y?
A. None
B. Arson
C. Malicious mischief
D. As of now there is no law that punishes. It so I will hold in
abeyance the filling
10. Which of the following can effectively assist the law enforcement
agencies in combating organized crime and terrorism?
A. War veterans
B. Old soldiers because they merely fades but never die
C. Police Dossier
D. Community
11. Which of the following is the MOST deterrent factor in drug

abuse?
A. Social outcast
B. Severe criminal penalties
C. Rehabilitation
D. Poverty
12. The main and common symptoms of coma not only in crime incident
is:
A. Paleness of the lips
B. Unconsciousness
C. Intermittent pulse rates
D. Blackening of the eyelids
13. Which of the following is the most common means of the death by
asphyxia?
A. Strangulation C. Pneumonia
B. Shock D. Convulsion
14. If responding to a fire, you as an arson prober arrived there

with the fire still in progress, what would you do FIRST?
A. Help putt- off the fire
B. Cordon the area
C. Start interviewing witnesses
D. Observe the kind of smoke
15. What is the document issued by the Land Transportation Office

which is perpetrator for the issuance of Drivers license?
A. Students drivers license
B. Temporary drivers permit
C. Student drivers permit
D. Provisionary permit

R.C., J.D./2016
16. A terrorist who operates across national borders whose actions

and political goals may affect citizen of more than one country is
called what kind of terrorism?
A. Syndicate C. internal
B. transnational D. borderlines
17. Supposing in your investigation as arson prober you were able to

establish that the property that was burned was actually owned by
him/suspect but the fire exposed to danger your neighbors property.
Will it be arson?
A. No C. sometimes
B. It depends D. yes
18. A bar topnotcher and a veteran private practitioner with a big

law firm but connected in the BIR as consultant assisted the suspect
during the custodial investigation. Said lawyers is not qualified
because he is considered not:
A. Competent C. An independent lawyer
B. A relative of the suspect D. A government lawyer defense
19. Of the recent past, June 4, 1989, it is in this country where the
pro-democracy protesters composed of youths and students in China
were killed in the public plaza upon the order of its leader, Deng
Xiaoping. It is now internationally and famously called what?
A. Tibet occupation
B. Tiannamen massacre
C. Vietnam invasion
D. Ho chi Minh City massacre
20. What is the purpose of photographing or sketching the crime

scene?
A. For comparison purposes C. To document it
B. For future reference D. To have a guide
21. It is also the a policy of the state to provide effective

measures to assist drug dependents through sustainable program of
treatment and:
A. Education C. Drug remuneration
B. Prevention D. Rehabilitation
22. The individual packaging and sealing of physical evidence is to

avoid what ?
A. Destruction C. Contamination
B. Switching D. Difficult analysis
23. There are cases where, in the killing no witness is available but
as a prober, strive hard to gather physical evidence like latent
prints, foot prints, weapons, etc. that where possibly left at the
crime scene by whom?
A. Victim C. Suspects
B. Neighbors D. Strangers
24. In 5Ws and 1H in basis question in conducting investigation, the

H or how established the perpetrators what?
A. Alibi C. Suspects

R.C., J.D./2016
B. Modus operandi D. Strangers
25. While crossing a busy street in Pasig City, a pedestrian who

resides in Manila was killed by reason of the hard impact of the car
on the victim who works in Quezon City. If warranted, where do you
file the criminal case against the erring driver?
A. Place where the car is registered
B. In Pasig City
C. Place where the registered owner resides
D. In Manila
26. In particular, chain of custody refers to the marking, labels,

and records made on the specimen, from the crime scene to the
forensic laboratory and to ?
A. Courts personnel C. Evidence custodian
B. Investigation D. Prosecutors office
27. What is the reason why in collecting samples for DNA testing,
everything must be properly documented?
A. Easy follow-up C. chain of custody
B. For security D. evidence integrity
28. If you cannot prosecute a drunken driver because for example, the
level intoxication does not exceed 10% what is your recourse as a
respected traffic prober?
A. Compel to attend seminar
B. Recommended license revocation
C. Prohibit to take liquor
D. Confiscated
29. What do you call to a situation where a person willfully and

maliciously placed any dangerous drug in his person or effect to
implicate him in a drug related crime?
A. Fabrication C. prodding
B. Planting evidence D. implicating session
30. Under existing drugs law (RA 9165), the other term of ecstasy is
what?
A. Methyl barbital
B. Methylenedioxy methamphetamine
C. Methamphetamine peroxide
D. Methydioxy menthamphetamine
31. Altering computer input in an authorized way is termed as what

kind of fraud?
A. Cyberspace C. Coded
B. Technical D. internet
32. A short in the electrical wiring will almost always burn itself
out without setting the fire to the other parts of the vehicle, is
it a CORRECT observation ?
A. It depends C. sometimes
B. Yes D. no

R.C., J.D./2016
33. The law defining the rights of the person arrested, detained or
under custodial investigation as well as the duties of the law
enforcers is what republic act ?
A. RA 1866 C. RA 7438
B. RA 9165 D. Proc. 1081
34. What is the MOST common of vehicular accident in the Philippines?

A. Hard-headedness of the pedestrians
B. Under the influence of liquor/drugs
C. Disregard traffic rules
D. Defective brakes
35. In collecting small glass fragments in a vehicular accident, the

fragments should be placed in a paper packet, then in pill boxes or
film cans which then be marked and collectively :
A. Examined C. stored
B. Collected D. sealed
36. Even up to now, the US is one of the most powerful nations on

earth. The September 11, 2001 tragedies however is a testament that
there was on the said countrys part an intelligence?
A. Targets C. failures
B. Experts D. analyst
37. Even though the death appears to be suicidal or accidental, you

should keep an open mind and treat it is a ?
A. Suicidal case C. non-liability case
B. Witness in the crime D. homicide case
38. Confessions obtained through palpable mistake is admissible in

evidence because it connotes that the subject was not:
A. Insane C. alone in confessing
B. Coerced D. subject to torture
39. If the PART is made of a metallic material which can be found in

the vehicles involved in a traffic accident, the best and popular
approach to use is what kind of analysis?
A. Spectrographic C. Asymptopic
B. Macrographic D. Risographic
40. What are government agencies tasks to conduct anti-drug

operations nationwide in support of/in support of/in coordination
with PDEA?
A. DDB and Narcom
B. PNP and NBI
C. None of these
D. Philippine Drug Agency and DDB
41. Improper packing of the specimen, failure to identify the

specimen questionable preservation and transmission of the specimen
are factors that affect the :
A. Efficacy of the specimen
B. Integrity of the evidence
C. Evidentiary value
D. Dependability

R.C., J.D./2016
42. In carnapping cases, the best evidence to pin down the suspect is
the recovery of what ?
A. Registration papers C. driver as witness
B. Stolen car D. car key
43. Which of the following is one of the so called 3 Is of

investigation?
A. Inquiry C. interrogation
B. Intelligence D. inspection
44. The penalty of bringing into the country of illegal drugs using
diplomatic channel or passport is:
A. Life imprisonment
B. Life imprisonment to death
C. 30 years
D. 10 years
45. If upon arrival at the crime scene it appears that there are
actually multiple crime scenes, as the first police officer to
arrive thereat, what is your first action to protect the said
places?
A. Request for additional personnel
B. Send a general alarm
C. Call in the paramedics
D. Call the barangay
46. In all crime investigations, the examination of any issue should

be at least double or if necessary thrice in order to insure a
correct?
A. Impression C. findings
B. Solution D. Prognosis
47. In e-crimes, any access in order to corrupt, alter, steal or

destroy information and communication system using a computer or
other similar information and communication devices, without the
knowledge and consent of the owner of the computer/system including
the introduction of computer viruses and the like, resulting in the
destruction, alteration, theft or loss of electronic data
message/documents is considered as ?
A. Hacking C. Accessing
B. System loss D. altering
48. Marijuana is the MOST abused drug in the Philippines. It has

several kinds of products and these are: plants, seedlings, seeds,
dried leaves, hashish, slides, brownies, resins, teabags, and
stalks. Which of the said MJ products is the most popularly is the
MOST popularly used by Filipinos per PDEA 2005 report ?
A. Sticks C. teabags
B. Dried leaves D. plants
49. A red notice by the INTERPOL refers to the National Arrest

warrants which seeks to arrest and extradition of ?
A. Subjects C. convict targets
B. Suspects D. People

R.C., J.D./2016
50. In the crime scene, if there is a possibility that the victim is
still alive, call an ambulance and while waiting, apply:
A. Moral support C. sobriety
B. Mutt and Jeff method D. First-aid procedure
51. All nations including the USA are vulnerable to terrorists

attack. So far, the MOST successful terrorists offensive that hit
the most powerful nation on earth was the one that occurred in New
York City smashing the twin towers in less than a couple of hours.
When did it happen ?
A. September 21, 2000 C. October 21, 2001
B. October 11, 2001 D. September 11, 2001
52. If while on duty as a Desk officer you received a call that a

crime took place and that the victim of stabbing is still alive,
what is your immediate move? Order a fellow law enforcer to :
A. Bring victim to the hospital
B. Get witnesses
C. Arrest the suspect
D. Cordon the area
53. Photographing suspicious persons at the fire scene may help the
prober to identify a pyromaniac especially if in two (2) separate
fire incidents he was:
A. Seen there C. laughing
B. With somebody D. uneasy
54. In the investigation of traffic accidents, which will determine

the presence or absence of the application of brakes?
A. Brake threads C. paint smears
B. Tire skid marks D. tire markings
55. Can the testimony of a ballistic expert who did not demonstrate
in court the comparison he made, claiming that he had no time to
make an enlarged photographs of the compared bullets, entitled to
credence?
A. Yes C. sometimes
B. It depends D. no
56. According to Al-Quedas leader himself, Osama Bin Laden, when

interviewed by the Al-Jazzera in Afghanistan on October 2001, the
said groups name (Al-Queda-base), is derived from the name of what
kind of camp ?
A. Training C. Safe Haven
B. Supply D. Recreation
57. In hit and run cases, how do you compare paint chips
mechanically? By what ?
A. Chemical analysis
B. Piecing together or matching
C. Cross analysis
D. Spectrographic analysis
58. The Sicilian Mafia in Europe is also called Cosa Nostra and is
considered the most organized crime group in the world. Nostra
literally means what ?

R.C., J.D./2016
A. Mother C. Family
B. Father D. Affairs
59. The MOST essential component of fighting drug abuse is:

A. Schooling C. social integration
B. Drug prevention D. rehabilitation
60. In glass fractures inquiry, when one speaks of secondary or

concentric fracture, it means the radiating rod is being connected
to one another and has a :
A. Radiance C. wheel
B. Cob-web appearance D. rainbow
61. Miss USA brought in the Philippines her 2007-model BMW and used
it in touring the country. She arrived in Cebu on December 1, 2006
and up to now she is still here without registering it with the LTO.
Is she already violating Philippine Traffic Law?
A. Never C. no
B. Yes D. it depends
62. Is it punishable if the offender burned his own building with the
purpose of defrauding another?
A. No C. it depends
B. Yes D. sometimes
63. In the absence of camera in photographing the crime scene, what

is its highly recommended substitute?
A. Depicting C. interviewing
B. Smudging D. sketching
64. In our anti-drug efforts, what agency conducts supply reduction

drive by implementing prevention and control measures from the known
sources/origin of illegal drugs?
A. NBI and DOJ C. PDEA
B. CHED D. DDB
65. Fingerprints and shoe impressions are examples of what kind of

evidence?
A. Real C. associative
B. Tracing D. demonstrative
66. Is administering a dangerous drug to another a prohibited act

under existing Philippine Law?
A. It depends C. seldom
B. No D. Yes
67. To achieve maximum use of a physical evidence that will link to

the suspect as the author of the crime, the SOCO team must also know
how to properly handle and care for the:
A. Witness interviewed C. Informants summoned
B. Evidence collected D. Evidence on storage
68. As arson prober, what is your primary duty?

A. Probe conflagration and be an instrument of justice
B. Assist the victim
C. Save life and property

R.C., J.D./2016
D. Enforce the law
69. Supposing in your findings as an arson prober, the suspect set on

fire his neighbors car so that he can get it expensive starter,
will it aggravate the case ?
A. It depends C. no
B. Sometimes D. yes
70. Which of the following are considered origins of fire?

A. Intentional C. accidental
B. All of these D. Providential
71. Is the number of suspects in the case of arson material in

determining the penalty?
B. Yes D. no
72. What is the reason why you should Not flush toilets, use any
facility at the crime scene even telephone, unless extremely
necessary? To preserve its:
A. Usefulness C. reliability
B. Condition D. integrity
73. Under existing laws on traffic, vehicles should not be parked at

?
A. Private driveway
B. Intersection, crosswalk
C. All of these
D. Pedestrian lanes, fire hydrant
74. A short in the electrical wiring will almost always burn itself
out without setting fire to the other parts of the vehicle, is it
CORRECT observation ?
A. It depends C. no
B. Sometimes D. yes
75. If the bullet hit and destroyed a bone, the surface facing the
entrance of the wound is oval with :
A. Irregular edges C. distinctive edges
B. Inverted Edges D. sharp edges
76. In the ordinary crime investigations, the proper chain of

custody of the collected biological samples for DNA testings shall
be established by the:
A. Courts and victims C. none of these
B. Source of samples D. prosecution witnesses
77. In the initial stage of the interview of the suspect, do not

immediately ask him about his involvement in the crime. The best
thing to get first is his/her what?
A. Reasons why he is a suspect
B. Possible conspirators
C. Composure and trust
D. Educational attainment

R.C., J.D./2016
78. The correct procedure in lifting hairs or fibers in the crime
scene is by the use of what ?
A. Gloves C. Fingers
B. Scissors D. Forceps
79. To what agency should all law enforcement agencies coordinate

when conducting anti-drug operations?
A. Dangerous Drug Board C.DILG
B. PDEA D. Narcotics Command
80. If a policeman, without justifiable reason, failed to appear in

court to testify in a drug case, he can be penalized with an
imprisonment of not less than how many years?
A. 10 to 18 C. 5 to 10
B. 8 to 16 D. 12 to 20
81. Generally, it is an act of terrorism committed through the use of

cyberspace or computer resources. It is called?
A. Cyber resources C. cyberterrorism
B. E-aided acts D. internet access
82. Organized crime groups are usually successful on its illegal

operations because most of the time they have deeper connections
with ?
A. Underground operatives C. Private entrepreneurs
B. Government officials D. other crime groups
83. Which of the following is the MOST important equipment in traffic

accident investigation?
A. Pad of paper C. chalk / ruler
B. Camera D. Steel tape
84. A and B are both policeman who are also in the business of
trading electronic gadgets. One day, through text message, A
ordered to B seven (7) units of cellular phone batteries. After
accepting the delivery of the said batteries, A refused to pay
reasoning that there was no valid contract between them as there was
no document which both of them signed. Is A liable under the E-
Commerce Act of 2000.
A. No C. sometimes
B. It depends D. yes
85. Why is it that n collecting hair strands for DNA testing,

especially with blood the collecting officer should use clean
forceps?
A. For easy examination C. to avoid contamination
B. Ensure protection D. for reliable results
86. A gave money to B to set on fire the house of C but in doing so B

died as he was hit by a falling wall while escaping. Is there
bearing or importance in citing in the case to be filed the death of
B?
A. Sometimes C. it depends
B. Yes D. No

R.C., J.D./2016
87. If less than five grams of shabu, heroine, morphine, etc. or even
one of them is found in the offenders possession, the impossible
penalty is what ?
A. 12-20 years imprisonment C.30 years
B. Death D. life imprisonment
88. It s a kind of surveillance which involves checking on persons by

listening through the use of electronic gadgets to pick-up
conversations of persons and their associates, it is called?
A. Audio surveillance C. Audio-visual spy
B. Discreet surveillance D. E-surveillance
89. In arson probe, if it was proven that the original parts and
equipment of the vehicle were replaced with inferior quality, it
indicates possible what ?
A. Accident C. thievery
B. Arson D. electrical problems
90. If while at the crime scene, circumstances indicate that

immediate interrogation of the suspect is necessary, what should you
do FIRST?
A. Know his/her cohorts
B. Advice the suspect of the Miranda Culinary
C. Locate the physical evidence
D. Determine the motive
91. If volatile liquids were found in the fire scene, get a small
amount of the substance and place it in a clean glass vial and seal
it tightly for it not to what?
A. Liquify C. solidify
B. Multiply D. evaporate
92. What agency is tasked to assist PDEA by providing alternative

development livelihood for marijuana plantation workers, drug
pushers through its self-employment assistance program and other
similar programs?
A. DSWD C. NYC
B. None of these D. DILG
93. In taking hidden prints in vehicle, is it advisable to use

dusting technique when the surface is wet or when it is drizzling?
B. No D. yes
94. Under the new Anti-Terrorism Bill now the so-called Human
Security Act of 2007, how many days can a suspect be held or
detained for investigation?
A. 10 C. 5
B. 3 D. 7
95. The waiver by a person arrested or under custodial investigation

shall be in waiting and signed by such person in the presence of his
counsel, otherwise such waiver shall be considered:
A. Provide with witnesses
B. As valid and effective provided with signature
C. Inutile on some aspect

R.C., J.D./2016
D. Ipso facto legally ineffective
96. Miss USA brought in the Philippines her 2007-model BMW and used
it in touring the country. She arrived in Cebu on December 1, 2006
and up to now she is still here without registering it with the LTO.
Is she already violating Philippine Traffic Law?
A. Never C. it depends
B. Yes D. No.
97. To achieve maximum use of a physical evidence that will link to

the suspect as the author of the crime, the SOCO team must also know
how to properly handle and care for the:
A. Evidence collected C. evidence on storage
B. Informants summoned D. witnesses interviewed
98. While crossing a busy street in Pasig City, a pedestrian who

resides in Manila was killed by reason of the hard impact of the car
on the victim who works in Quezon City. If Warranted, where do you
file the criminal case against the erring driver?
A. Place where the car is registered
B. In Pasig City
C. Place where the registered owner resides
D. In Manila
99. The Sicilian Manila in Europe is also called Cosa Nostra and is
Considered the most organized crime group in the world. Nostra
literally means what ?
A. Mother C. Father
B. Affairs D. Family
100. A terrorist who operates across national boarders, whose actions

and political goals may affect citizen of more than one country is
called what kind of terrorist?
A. Borderless C. Transnational
B. Internal D. Syndicated

R.C., J.D./2016
PREFACE
DISCLAIMER
____________________________________
Answer Key
CRIME DETECTION AND INVESTIGATION SET B
1. C 26. D 51. D 76. C

2. D 27. D 52. A 77. C
3. A 28. D 53. C 78. D
4. C 29. B 54. B 79. B
5. B 30. B 55. D 80. D
6. D 31. B 56. A 81. C
7. C 32. D 57. A 82. B
8. B 33. C 58. D 83. B
9. A 34. B 59. B 84. D
10. C 35. D 60. A 85. C
11. A 36. C 61. B 86. B
12. B 37. D 62. B 87. A
13. A 38. B 63. A 88. A
14. A 39. B 64. C 89. B
15. B 40. A 65. C 90. A
16. D 41. B 66. D 91. D
17. D 42. B 67. B 92. B
18. C 43. C 68. C 93. B
19. B 44. B 69. D 94. B
20. B 45. A 70. B 95. D
21. D 46. C 71. D 96. B
22. C 47. A 72. D 97. A
23. C 48. B 73. C 98. B
24. B 49. B 74. C 99. B
25. B 50. D 75. C 100. C

R.C., J.D./2016

QUESTIONARES FOR
SOCIOLOGY OF CRIMES AND
ETHICS
INTRODUCTION TO CRIMINOLOGY
CRIMINAL JUSTICE SYSTEM
HUMAN BEHAVIOR AND CRISIS

MANAGEMENT
ETHICS AND VALUES
JUVENILE DELINQUENCY
CRIMINOLOGICAL RESEARCH
1 | P a g e QUESTIONARES for SOCIOLOGY OF CRIMES AND ETHICS/Charlemagne

CRIMINAL SOCIOLOGY SET A

MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. A research technique wherein a group who share some common

characteristics is observed over a period of time.
A. Observation C. Experimental
B. Survey D. Cohort
2. Every policeman must do is job well, leaving nothing undone

through carelessness in order to maintain public _____.
A. Resentment C. Alienation
B. Support D. pride
3. Which of the following is added as the fifth pillar of the

criminal justice system?
A. Courts C. Prosecution
B. Community D. law enforcement
4. When the parents of the juvenile refuse to cooperate with the

juvenile officer, the juvenile officer should
A. Refer the case to the probation office
B. Refer the case to the juvenile court
C. Release the juvenile and dismiss the case
D. Consult his superior
5. The greatest importance to a growing child is:

A. Condition of the family and what goes on in family life
B. Condition of community and playmates
C. Condition of reading materials and media programs
D. Condition of the school where he enrolls
6. Auditory sensation is related to hearing while olfactory stimulus

has something to do with
A. Sight C. smell
B. Skin D. hearing
7. In criminological research and statistics, the facts and

observations that researchers by their own measurements for the
purpose of a particular study is called:
A. Substitute data C. Primary data
B. Secondary data D. tertiary data
8. Acts are prohibited by statute but not necessarily inherently

wrong are referred to as:
A. Actus reus C. mens rea
B. Mala prohibita D. mala inse
9. The criminal justice practitioner who must have the evidence to
show that the required elements of a criminal act are present,
that the suspect has committed the act, and that, she or he has
formulated some intent to commit the act.
A. Judge C. parole officer
1 | P a g e QUESTIONARES for CRIMINAL SOCIOLOGY/Charlemagne James P. Ramos R.C., J.D./2016
B. Policeman D. prosecutor
10. Police authority to use force in serving compliance with

the law is basic role of maintaining public order. This activity
carries with it a responsibility to use only ____ physical force
necessary on any particular occasion to achieve a lawful
objective.
A. Enough C. adequate
B. Full D. reasonable
11. The problem on illegal gambling, particularly jueteng is

unabated. Who has the control and supervision powers over anti
gambling operations?
A. Local government executives
B. DILG local government officer
C. PNP regional director
D. Chief of Police
12. When questioning a juvenile suspect, the police officer

should
A. Ask specific questions answerable by yes or no
B. Ask negative questions
C. Immediately point out discrepancies in the story
D. Allow the juvenile to tell his story in his own words
13. What is the process wherein the suspect is brought to the

police station to be fingerprinted, photographed and to have
personal information recorded?
A. Hearing C. trial
B. booking D. custody
14. What is the authority to make decisions without reference

to specific rules or facts, using instead ones own judgment?
A. Negotiation C. Arraignment
B. Discretion D. Plea bargaining
15. This theory suggests that when people find they cannot
achieve valued goals through legitimate means they experience
stress and frustration, which in turn may lead to rule-violating
behavior.
A. Strain theory C. cultural deviance theory
B. Sociological theory D. amor propio
16. All PNP members must have the moral courage to sacrifice
self-interest in keeping with the time-honored principle of
_____.
A. Pakikisama C. balikatan
B. Delikadeza D. amor propio
17. Which of the following actions shall you do when a hostage

taker demands an aircraft?
A. Inform higher authorities
B. Talk to him to delay action
C. Give consent
D. Start firing and assault

18. Aggressive acts are usually modeled after the following
source, EXCEPT:
A. Environmental experiences
B. Mass media
C. Biological explanations
D. Family interactions
19. Human beings possess two instinctual drives whose

interrelationship controls behavior. This is the life instinct
called eros and the death instinct called _____.
A. Delicti C. Stigma
B. Thanatos D. Corpus
20. It is the law which provides for the care and treatment of
youth offenders from the time of apprehension up to the
termination of the case.
A. PD 1184 C. PD 603
B. RA 4864 D. PD 448
21. This is one of the features of criminal law and it means

that it includes only those rules created and enforced by
authorized agents of the state.
A. Specificity C. Politicality
B. Uniformity D. Penal Sanction
22. Murder cases numbered 180 in 2010 and 220 in 2011 what was
the percent increase?
A. +20.2% C. +22.2%
B. +22.0% D. +20.1%
23. One of the most vital factors in developing employee morale

within any relatively large organization is:
A. The relationship existing between the employee and their
immediate supervisors.
B. The specific type of work the organization is engaged in
C. The relationship existing between the employee and head of
organization
D. The policy of allowing employee great discretion on the
quality of work
24. Research findings indicate that age is _____ to

criminality.
A. Geometrically C. Proportionally
B. Inversely D. Directly
25. There are three (3) categories of theories of crime that

rest in sociological interpretation. Which of the following is
NOT a category?
A. Crime is a function of association and social contact.
B. Crime and delinquency are a product of environment.
C. Crime is a consequence of the presence or absence of
certain types of internal restraint.
D. Crime and delinquency is a product of abnormal brain or
nervous system.

26. PO III Pedro Alas met P/Chief Supt. Sandro Sanchez in the
hallway of the police station. He renders a ____ which is the
usual greeting given by uniformed members upon recognizing a
person entitled to it.
A. Handshake C. verbal greeting
B. Salute D. smile
27. Family ____ implies the loss of family and the breaking
down of family relations.
A. Disintegration C. disruption
B. Disorganization D. disorientation
28. Research findings show that people commit less crime as

they mature and this is referred to as ____ phenomenon.
A. Growing out C. Declining criminality
B. Aging out phenomenon D.
29. The sum total of the dealing of the police with the people
it serves and whose goodwill and cooperation it must maintain to
maintain police effectiveness and efficiency.
A. Public relations
B. Police-community relations
C. Police-public relations
D. Community relations
30. Which of the following is NOT a deviant behavior?

A. Exhibitionism C. vandalism
B. Drunkenness D. Child Labor
31. The ____ theory of criminality attributes delinquent and

criminal behavior to a conscience that is either too overbearing
that it arouses feeling of guilt or so weak that it cannot
control the individuals impulse and the need for immediate
gratification.
A. Psychoanalytic C. biological
B. Psychological D. classical
32. Which of the following statement is NOT true?

A. A hostage may develop positive feelings towards hostage
takers on a prolonged passage of time.
B. It is necessary to evacuate all civilians in hostage
situation.
C. Deal with all the hostage-takers during the negotiation.
D. Hostage-takers expectation is reduced as time is prolonged.
33. It is a money bond, the amount of which is set by judicial

authority and is intended to ensure the presence of suspect at
trial while allowing the freedom of a person charged until trial
is over.
A. Appropriation C. fee
B. Budget D. bail
34. The basic difference between liberal positivist and

conservative classical criminologists concerns the issue of ____
versus determination.
A. Social structure C. punishment
B. Free will D. social environment
35. What is the prison term for a national prisoner?

A. Three (3) years and above
B. Six (6) months but less than three (3) years
C. Less than six (6) months
D. Six (6) months to three (3) years
36. This theory locates the basic causes of delinquent behavior

in youths relationships with the major socializing institutions.
A. Differential association theory
B. Social bond theory
C. Anomie theory
D. Containment theory
37. It is an irresistible impulse to perform certain acts that

are repetitive and ritualistic.
A. Delusion C. regression
B. Compulsion D. phobia
38. The desire to implement an effective in-service training

program must come from
A. Private sector C. the police force itself
B. Local Chief executives D. PR firms
39. Crime has two basic elements: the guilty act (actus reus)
and the ____ (mens rea)
A. Guilty reason C. guilty conscience
B. Guilty offender D. Guilty mind
40. Your subordinates tell that, in your absence, your superior

gave them orders which differed from those you have given them.
In this case, you should:
A. Tell your subordinates to follow your orders
B. Discuss the matter with your subordinates to determine
which orders are correct
C. Discus the matter with your superior
D. Tell your subordinates to follow your superiors order
41. This type of theory asserts that delinquency and crime

represent conformity but conformity to definitions that are
deviant when viewed from the standpoint of dominant culture.
A. Social structure theory
B. Cultural deviance theory
C. Differential association theory
D. Social process theory
42. The ____ of the police organization is affected when police

officers are seen with gambling lords, drug lords and drunkards
in the community
A. Prestige C. image
B. Authority D. power
43. What is a law that is applied retroactively to punish acts

that were not crimes before its passage?
A. Common law C. Criminal law
B. Contemporary Law D. Ex Post Facto Law
44. What emotion occurs when a person is blocked in the

satisfaction of his needs?
A. Frustration C. Guilt
B. Happiness D. tolerance
45. Who claimed that some persons are born criminals and can be
identified by certain stigmata or anomalies?
A. Lombroso C. Darwin
B. Gibbons D. Goring
46. There are instances when a complainant against an erring

policeman files a complaint with two (2) or more disciplinary
bodies such as the Peoples Law Enforcement Board (PLEB), the
Mayor or the PNP itself. This practice is called-
A. Comprehensive filing C. double filing
B. Concurrent filing D. Forum Filling
47. The preliminary investigation of offenses within the

jurisdiction of the Sandiganbayan shall be undertaken by the:
A. National Prosecution Office
B. Department of Justice
C. Integrated Bar of the Philippines
D. Ombudsman
48. Which of the following criminological theories provides

that pain and pleasure motivate a person to commit criminal act?
A. Physiological theory C. positivist theory
B. Biological theory D. Classical Theory
49. Alma is a five (5) year old orphan girl whose basic needs
are deliberately unattended or inadequately attended by her
guardians. Under what category does she fall?
A. Abandoned child C. separated child
B. Neglected child D. orphaned child
50. Community policing includes the following, EXCEPT-

A. Providing, by citizens, information in area-wide crime
investigations
B. Reducing the number of policemen in an area
C. Citizens helping police reach out to troubled youths
D. Sharing of power among the police, local groups and
individual citizens
51. According to this theory, social actions are or repeated

(or not repeated) as a consequence of their association in the
actors in the mind with punishing or rewarding experiences.
A. Containment
B. Differential association
C. Operant conditioning
D. Differential identification
52. In crisis management, there is a need for an _____ to plot

essential aspects and the flow of events as well as provide
graphic overview or crisis events aids in projecting potential
future events.
A. Adversary analysis C. incident analysis
B. Function checklist D. incident diagram
53. Personal frustration, emotional tension and many other

forms of inner conflicts tend to ____ the person and may lead to
psychopathic and other forms of personality conditions overt
antisocial behavior.
A. Integrate C. organize
B. Disorganize D. disintegrate
54. A personal behavior which refer to voluntary control

direction of ones actions toward moral or spiritual development
A. Conduct C. ethics
B. Morals D. morality
55. This approach to the study of criminality links criminal

behavior to mental states, especially mental disease, mental
disorders, pathologies and emotional problems.
A. Demographic C. physiological
B. Psychogenic D. cultural
56. The City/Municipal mayor chooses the Chief of Police from

list of _____ recommended by the PNP Provincial Director.
A. Four (4) eligibles C. six (6) eligibles
B. Three (3) eligibles D. five (5) eligibles
57. Experts who adopt the ____ view links substance abuse
impaired cognitive functioning, personality, disturbance, and
emotional problems.
A. Subculture C. rational
B. Genetic D. psychological
58. These are bodies of belief, norms, customs and usages

handed down from generation with the effect of unwritten law.
A. Ceremonies C. customs
B. Graces D. traditions
59. The purpose of the ____ is to allow the accused to be

released while awaiting trial of his case.
A. Recognizance C. bail
B. Arrest D. probation
60. A form of extrasensory perceptions which influence physical

events through mental operations.
A. Recognization or prophecy
B. Psychokinesis
C. Telepathy
D. Clairvoyance
61. This delinquent subculture is dominated by gang fighting

and acts of violence and usually arises in areas with weak social
controls and without institutionalized channels to success goals,
either legitimate or illegitimate, and predominance of personal
failure.
A. Violence subculture C. Conflict subculture
B. Criminal subculture D. Retreatist subculture
62. Fr. CELSO GOYO is applying for lateral entry in the PNP
chaplain service. To what rank shall he be appointed if he
qualifies?
A. Inspector C. Superintendent
B. Senior inspector D. Chief Inspector
63. If the youthful offender is ____ while inside the training

institution or administration office, he is brought to court for
the pronouncement of his sentence.
A. Incorrigible C. Physical disable
B. Disobedient D. helpful
64. Rape cases numbered 500 in 2011 as against 700 in 2012.

What is the percent increase?
A. 10% C. 25%
B. 40% D. 20%
65. Human beings possess two opposing instinctual drives whose

interrelationship controls behavior. This is life instinct called
_____ and the death instinct called thanatos.
A. Stigma C. delicti
B. Eros D. corpus
66. Motivation is classified under 28 needs. The need to

influence or control others is
A. need dominance C. need achievement
B. need order D. need exhibition
67. The involvement of PNP members and their families in

religious, social and civic activities enhances ____ which will
work well for the image of the organization.
A. Responsiveness C. effectiveness
B. Social awareness D. camaraderie
68. This program is intended to alleviate the sexual and

familial deprivations of incarceration.
A. Therapeutic services C. religious services
B. Conjugal visits D. recreational program
69. Human physiognomy is the study of facial features in

relation to-
A. Human behavior C. Environment
B. Physical characteristics D. free will
70. Crimes committed by public officer and public employees

including those employed in government-owned or controlled
corporations, embraced in Title VII of the Revised Penal Code,
whether simple or complex with other crimes, are under the
jurisdiction of:
A. Metropolitan Trial Courts
B. Commission on Human Rights
C. Sandiganbayan
D. Regional Trial Courts
71. Any behavior which members of a social group define as

violating their norms is called:
A. Deviance C. conflict
B. Strain D. anomie
72. When police officers are taught how to deal with people in
a warm and friendly manner, they are trained in ____.
A. Public information C. international relations
B. Media relations D. human relations
73. Edwin Sutherland expounded the theory of _____ which

contended that criminal conduct is learned behavior, the learning
is incurred by communication with others, the information learned
is about criminality thus, one tends to become a criminal.
A. Containment C. psychoanalysis
B. Differential association D. mobility
74. A policeman must give careful attention to his personal

appearance. As such, he must comply with the following, EXCEPT
A. He shall be properly attired with his complete uniform
B. He must maintain good posture and grooming
C. He shall carry his gun, tucked in his waist, for the public
to see
D. He must see to it that his uniform is clean and properly
pressed
75. In order to maintain and develop the goodwill and

confidence of the community, PO II Lope Abino must be
A. Courteous, fair and quick to respond to citizen calls
B. Properly dressed in uniform
C. Highly intellectual and scholarly looks
D. Willing to perform his police duties
76. The theory of ____ contends that criminal conduct is

learned behavior, the learning is incurred by communication with
others and that the information learned is about criminality
thus, one tends to become a criminal.
A. Strain C. differential association
B. Containment D. psychoanalysis
77. One of the following is not a terroristic act.

A. Hostage taking C. robbery
B. Bombing D. assassination
78. Deriving sexual pleasure from exposing the genitals to

surprise or shock a stranger is _____
A. Voyeurism C. Exhibitionism
B. Masochism D. pedophilia
79. It is mens response to the interpretation of the stimulus

from within or from his environment.
A. Human behavior C. character
B. Human experience D. Personality

80. ALL EXCEPT one of the following factors should be looked
into if one has to study the problem of juvenile delinquency.
A. To promote the good working relationship between the police
and the youth
B. To consider the basic social problems
C. To note the changing attitudes towards the problem of
delinquent and deviant behavior
D. To take into consideration the societys disruptive forces
and process as contrasted with the process of integration
81. The attainment pleasure and the avoidance of pain are

sometimes cited as the primary motivators of human behavior
called:
A. Effectors C. neutrality
B. Objectivity D. hedonism
82. The relation of criminality to the physical constitution of

man is known as _____.
A. Criminal sociology
B. Habitual Delinquency
C. Criminal physical anthropology
D. Criminal psychology
83. An accused is ____ when he is brought before the trial

judge, formal charges against him/her are read, his/her rights
are informed to him/her, a plea is entered, bail is considered,
and trial date is set.
A. Booked C. confined
B. Sentenced D. arraigned
84. The implementation of procedures, policies and plans

formulated by the crisis management team (CMT) is called ____
A. Current event C. event
B. Pre-event D. de facto event
85. Personal control is one factor in the causation of juvenile

delinquency personal control means:
A. Ability of an individual to set standard for himself and
his family
B. Ability of an individual to internalize values and good
habits
C. Ability of the social groups or institutions to make norms
and rules effective
D. Ability of the individual refrain from meeting needs in
ways which conflict with the norms and rules of the
community
86. This theory was developed by psychiatrist Sigmud Freud in

the human personality is controlled by unconscious mental
processes developed in early childhood involving the interaction
of id, ego, and superego.
A. Social Structure theory C. theory of anomie
B. Psychoanalytic theory D. social learning theory
87. The most important attribute of behavior is _____.

A. Sensuality C. quality
B. Flexibility D. variability
88. These sources does not measure crime incidents

A. Police crime reports C. Victimization survey
B. Self-report survey D. Press release
89. It is said that delinquency is the result of a multiplicity

of associated factors. This means that:
A. If a community has a poor housing and poverty exists, then
everybody in the community become delinquent.
B. There are fixed factors contributory to becoming a
delinquent
C. There is only a single factor which makes Juan a delinquent
D. There are various variables to consider to understand why
Juan is a delinquent
90. Gina is sick and is seated at the corner of the room when
she started shouting that she saw the sun danced clockwise. She
attested to this fact and insisted that she saw the phenomena
with her two eyes. She is having _____.
A. Fears C. Memory lapses
B. Hallucination D. anxiety
91. What happens to the case of a youthful offender who has

shown good conduct while under custody of DSWD?
A. His case is for reinvestigation by the police
B. His case is dismissed and he is finally discharge
C. His case is opened for review
D. His case is remanded to the Fiscals office
92. The Miranda Warning includes the following, EXCEPT

A. He has the right to remain silent.
B. He can be coerced into making a confession
C. The state will assign an attorney if defendant cannot
afford to hire one.
D. He has the right to consult an attorney and to have the
attorney present during the interrogation.
93. Modern criminal law, both substantive and procedural is

derived from four (4) basic sources. These are the constitution,
statutes, court decisions and _____.
A. Administrative regulations
B. Conventional views
C. Judicial sanctions
D. Social theory
94. It is false belief firmly held despite incontrovertible

proof to the contrary.
A. Delusion C. compulsion
B. Phobia D. regression
95. What changes must concur given an effective police-

community relations program?
A. Political and social changes in policemen
B. Attitudinal and mental changes in policemen
C. Social and economic changes in policemen
D. Attitudinal and behavioral changes in policemen
96. A youthful offender shall be brought under the custody of

and rehabilitation by:
A. Philippine National Police
B. Department of Social Welfare and Development
C. Bureau of Jail Management
D. National Bureau of Investigation
97. The following are deviant behavior EXCEPT:

A. Vandalism C. Exhibitionism
B. Child labor D. drunkenness
98. Which of the following is an index crime?

A. Malicious Mischief C. Robbery
B. Acts of Lasciviousness D. Damage to Property
99. What is expected of the police in cases of eviction or

demolition of squatters dwellings?
A. Exercise of maximum tolerance while giving security
assistance
B. Exercise maximum force in dealing with squatters
C. Participation in actual demolition
D. Exercise of limited force
100. Such feelings as inadequacy, frustration, rebelliousness

and need for immediate gratification can be ____.
A. External containment toward delinquency
B. External pressures and pulls toward delinquency
C. Internal pushes toward delinquency
D. Inner containment in delinquent behavior

PREFACE
DISCLAIMER
____________________________________
ANSWER KEY
CRIMINAL SOCIOLOGY
SET A
1.D 26.B 51.C* 76.C

2.B 27.A 52.C 77.C
3.B 28.B 53.B* 78.C
4.B 29.B 54.A* 79.A
5.A 30.D 55.B 80.A*
6.C 31.B 56.D 81.D
7.C 32.C 57.D* 82.C
8.B 33.D 58.D 83.D
9.D 34.B 59.C 84.C
10.D 35.A 60.C 85.D
11.A 36.B 61.C* 86.B
12.D 37.B 62.B 87.B*
13.B 38.A 63.A 88.D*
14.B 39.D 64.B 89.D
15.A 40.C 65.B 90.B
16.B 41.B 66.A 91.B
17.B 42.C 67.B* 92.B
18.C 43.D 68.B 93.A
19.B 44.A 69.B 94.A
20.C 45.A 70.C 95.D
21.A 46.D 71.A 96.B
22.C 47.D 72.D 97.B
23.A 48.D 73.B 98.C
24.C 49.B 74.C 99.A
25.D 50.B 75.D* 100.C

CRIMINAL SOCIOLOGY SET B

MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. The Criminologist who argued that only minimum amount of

punishment was needed to control crime if criminals could be
convinced that the law violations were certain to be discovered
and swiftly punished is:
A. Enrico Ferri C. Cesare Beccaria
B. Cesare Lombroso D. Henry Maudsley
2. In diversion program, the following socio-cultural and

psychological responses and service for the child are included
EXCEPT:
A. Participation in education, vocation and life skill
programs
B. Identification of damages
C. Counseling for the child and victims
D. Reparation of damage
3. A manifestation or expression of consideration and respect for

others is known in police ethics as:
A. Order C. Tolerance
B. Courtesy D. Manifestation
4. The theory that intelligence is largely determined genetically

such that low intelligence is linked to criminal behavior is
known as the ____ Theory.
A. Ordinary C. intelligence
B. Nature D. relevant
5. Offenders who commit acts of violence when they temporarily lose

control and later express over their actions are known as
situationally _____ offenders.
A. Quiet C. Violent
B. Ordinary D. relevant
6. In whose protective custody is the child who was abused turned-

over? Department of __________.
A. Justice
B. Labor
C. Interior and local government
D. Social welfare and development
7. Lying in courts or leaving out certain pertinent places of

information to fix a criminal prosecution. Is a type of police
deviance called:
A. Perjury C. Brutality
B. Criminality D. Profanity

8. A finding that the accused is not guilty of the crime charged is

one that is a judgment of:
A. Consideration C. discretion
B. Conviction D. acquittal
9. In matters pertaining to assignment, awards training and

promotion. PNP members should refrain from soliciting political
patronage. This statement reflects the PNPs stand on the issue
of:
A. Delicadeza C. Political Patronage
B. Setting example D. integrity
10. The police tradition whereby the PNP members manifest their
love of country a pledge of allegiance to the flag and a vow to
defend the constitution is known as:
A. Humility C. honesty
B. Courtesy D. patriotism
11. The type research that tracks the development of a group of

subjects who all bear at least one similar as they mature over
the life course is called:
A. Assimilation
B. Longitudinal cohort study
C. Observation
D. Collation
12. The agencies and institutions whose primary responsibility

is dealing with juvenile offenders and those juveniles in need of
supervision comprises the ______.
A. Justice system C. Juvenile Justice System
B. Juvenile D. Minor Judicial System
13. A procedure by which the length of the sentence is

shortened by specific periods if the prisoner performs in
accordance with the expectations of prison authorities is:
A. Minimum sentencing
B. Good conduct time allowance
C. Subtraction
D. Discretion
14. Being trustworthy and speaking the truth at all times as

required by the profession reflect the officers belief in the
wisdom of ______.
A. Love C. hope
B. Courage D. truthfulness
15. The practice of housing convicted juvenile in a separate

prison facility for younger offenders is called:
A. Division
B. Segregated incarceration
C. Incarceration
D. Reinforcement

16. A means to describe and compare different forms of criminal

behavior is called:
A. Psychology C. anthropology
B. Typology D. psychiatry
17. The conduct of the police officer of letting prostitutes or

sexual workers go or be released if they perform sexual acts is
known in police ethics as:
A. Reciprocity C. Sexual Shakedowns
B. Mendicancy D. vagrancy
18. Once a decision is made, PNP members shall take legitimate

means to achieve the goal even in the face of internal or
external difficulties. This statement expresses the ethical
standard of:
A. Orderliness C. perseverance
B. Humility D. respect
19. An appeal in a criminal case is initiated by the losing

side, which becomes known as the _____; the opposing side is
referred to as the ______.
A. Petitioner, respondent C. movant, respondent
B. Appellant, appellee D. appellee, movant
20. Socially injurious acts committed by companies to further

their business interests are otherwise known as _____ crimes.
A. Blue-collar C. corporate
B. Group D. mass
21. An act of cruelty, domination or excessive use of authority

is known in police ethics as:
A. Depression C. oppression
B. Order D. discretion
22. People act aggressively because as children, they modeled

their behavior after the violent acts of adults. Their anti-
social behaviors are later influence by peers and acquaintances.
This view is advanced by the _____ theory.
A. Social learning C. antisocial
B. Model D. psychological
23. The theory of punishment that holds that potential

offenders will refrain from committing crimes for fear of
punishment is called:
A. Deterrence C. prevention
B. Prohibition D. stoppage
24. The study of the physical aspects of psychological

disorders is known as:
A. Physiology C. psychology
B. Biocriminology D. visual study

25. People commit crime if they believe it will provide

immediate benefit without the threat of long term risks. This
statement reflects the _____ theory of crime causation.
A. Choice C. opportunity
B. Gain D. reward
26. When a person reacts to a stimulus with abnormal intensity

or inappropriate conduct, there existed ______
A. Insanity C. conduct
B. Reaction formation D. stimulation
27. A group of people who have something in common with each

other that links them and distinguishes them from others who are
not part of community is known as:
A. Community C. milling
B. Anarchy D. binding
28. The system of law enforcement, adjudication, and correction

that is directly involved in the apprehension, prosecution and
control of those charged with criminal offenses is called:
A. Criminal justice C. correction
B. Socialization D. interactions
29. The targeting of high-risk, repeat offenders for rigorous

prosecution and incarceration is termed as:
A. Choice criminal
B. Selective incapacitation
C. Selective penalty
D. Option
30. According to Lombroso, born criminals inherited physical

problems that impelled them into a life of crime. This view
stimulated interest in criminal ______.
A. Psychology C. sociology
B. Anthropology D. zoology
31. Playing or operating any game of chance that involves money

or property of any value that is prohibited by law is illegal:
A. Operation C. play
B. Fortune D. gambling
32. Persons who serve as self-appointed watchdogs to maintain

moral standards are known in criminology parlance as:
A. Altruists C. moral entrepreneurs
B. Activist D. hedonist
33. A compromise or agreement by which the prosecutor and the

offended party agree that the accused plead guilty to a charge
lower than that to which he was accused of is a process called:
A. Compromise C. trial
B. Concession D. plea bargaining
34. The following are trial segments of the criminal justice

process EXCEPT:

A. Initial contact C. pre-trial

B. Post-trial D. trial
35. When the hostage-takers can no longer maintain their high

level of resistance to stress, they are said to have reached the
_____ stage.
A. Exhaustion C. stress
B. Fatigue D. depressing
36. The science of crime detection using classical scientific

methodology is known as:
A. Typology C. criminalistics
B. Criminal profiling D. anthropology
37. After conviction of the accused, which agencies of justice

take custody of offenders and are entrusted with their treatment
and control?
A. Half-way houses C. lying-ins
B. Prisons D. corrections
38. The latitude enjoyed by the police in using their

discretion in deciding whether or not to invoke their arrest
powers is called police:
A. Discretion C. management
B. Authority D. power
39. Performance of duty with dedication, thoroughness,

efficiency, enthusiasm, determination and concern for public
welfare indicates the PNPs professional conduct of _____
A. Love C. attention
B. Devotion to duty D. care
40. What do you call a court order requiring any party to

appear at a certain time and place to give testimony?
A. Order C. directive
B. Writ D. subpoena
41. The structure of the human personality which is guided by

the reality principle is the:
A. Super-ego C. id
B. Ego D. conscious mind
42. The type of criminology which focuses on the conflict among

three socio economic classes is known as:
A. Conflict C. positivist
B. Marxist D. classical
43. Under R.A. 9344, a child who is exactly 15 years old at the
time of the commission of an offense is _____ from criminal
liability.
A. Exempted C. aggravated
B. Not exempted D. mitigated

44. Lawyer retained by an individual accused of committing a

crime or assigned by the court if the individual is unable to pay
is the:
A. Defense attorney C. clerk of court
B. Bailiff D. prosecutor
45. Social inequality causes crime, which is a natural reaction

to the poor conditions of life. This statement reflects the _____
model.
A. Consensus
B. Conflict
C. Differential association
D. Culture
46. Since criminology includes diverse fields such as

sociology, criminal justice, political science, psychology,
economics and the natural sciences, it is sad to be essentially
_____ science.
A. An interdisciplinary C. a diverse
B. Multiple D. an inexact
47. When the appellate court agrees with the decision of the
court a quo, the decision of the trial court is:
A. Affirmed C. modified
B. Reversed D. set aside
48. Which police tradition requires that PNP members stand by

and commit to their word?
A. Loyalty C. word of honor
B. Duty D. camaraderie
49. Women who commit crimes have biological and psychological

traits similar to those of men. This view is expressed by the
_____.
A. Learning theory C. biological theory
B. Masculinity hypothesis D. choice theory
50. The condition that characteristics severe disintegration of

personality, in appropriate giggling and smiling and use of weird
language is:
A. Laughing trip C. phobia
B. Hebephrenia D. amnesia
51. Behavior that departs from social norms is otherwise known

as _____ behavior
A. Juvenile C. irrational
B. Deviant D. truant
52. The manifest lack of adequate ability and fitness for the
satisfactory performance of police duties is called:
A. Mobility C. unavailability
B. Incompetence D. neglect of duty

53. Offences which involve either the theft or destruction of

property are called _____ crimes.
A. Choice C. malicious
B. Property D. ordinary
54. When norms of two cultures meet head on, there is what is
called _____ conflict.
A. Situational C. Primary
B. Common D. ordinary
55. Unless on official duty, PNP members should not patronize

houses of ill-repute, illegal gambling dens or other places
devoted to vices, this PNP ethical standard refers to:
A. Integrity C. morality
B. Loyalty D. duty
56. What term refers to the actions of a police officer who

shoots and kills a suspect who is either fleeing from arrest,
assaulting another or attacking an officer?
A. Reasonable force C. deadly force
B. Punishment D. sanction
57. Scholars may disagree about the form and extent of female
criminality but they agree that crimes women commit are:
A. Caused by feminist government
B. Committed by other sex
C. More violent that previously thought
D. Closely associated with womens socioeconomic position in
society
58. Mediation and conflict resolution programs are some of the

results of the _____ perspective in controlling crime.
A. Restorative justice C. rehabilitation
B. Justice D. due process
59. The term being referred in corrections about the voluntary

transformation of an individual lacking in social vocational
skills into a productive, well-socialized citizen is:
A. Metamorphosis C. reformation
B. Change D. attitude
60. The manner of adapting to prison community which emphasizes

in finding ones place in the system rather than fighting for
ones individual rights sis called _____.
A. Niche C. retreatism
B. Innovation D. coping
61. A person who is found to be incapable of taking care of

himself fully because of a physical or mental disability or
condition or of protecting himself from abuse is considered under
the law as:
A. A psychotic C. anti-social
B. An adult D. a child

62. Criminal behavior can be controlled by convincing criminals

that punishment is sure, swift and certain. This principle is
referred to as _____ deterrence.
A. Special C. specific
B. General D. punitive
63. Obeying lawful orders and extending courtesy to superior

officers and other appropriate authorities within the chain of
command is a professional conduct of the PNP members called:
A. Following distractions C. obedience to superiors
B. Understanding D. loyalty
64. Following logical procedures in accomplishing assigned

tasks to minimize waste in the use of time, money and effort is
ethical standard expected of a PNP member known as:
A. Orderliness C. perseverance
B. Respect D. truth
65. When children fashion their behavior after that of others,

_____ modeling occurs.
A. Social C. behavioral
B. Parental D. basic
66. When crime is committed by a respectable individual of high

social standing, there is what is called _____ crime.
A. A white collar C. a repeated
B. An organizational D. a clandestine
67. The theory of _____ holds that criminal sanctions should be

so powerful that known criminals will never repeat their criminal
acts.
A. Specific deterrence
B. Incapacitation
C. General deterrence
D. Situational crime prevention
68. The philosophy of justice stating eye for an eye now

known as just deserts, refers to:
A. Deprivation C. restoration
B. Deterrence D. retribution
69. Leaking information to friends, relatives, the public, the

press or in some cases, directly to the criminal suspects or
members of their gang is a police deviance referred to as:
A. Voyeurism
B. Squealing
C. Misuse of confidential information
D. Revelation
70. The following are virtues expected of a PNP member to

posses EXCEPT:
A. Integrity C. pride
B. Honor D. humility

71. When a plea of guilty or not guilty is entered in the case,

the stage called _____ in the formal criminal process has taken
place.
A. Sentencing C. arraignment
B. Promulgation D. mediation
72. The following categories heighten the level of stress that

the police experiences EXCEPT _____ stressors.
A. External C. organizational
B. Corporate D. duty
73. The following are types of police deviance EXCEPT:

A. Brutality C. gratuity
B. Profanity D. community
74. Crime can be controlled by the efficient applications of

criminal justice in that people will not commit crime and
delinquency if they perceive that the risks outweighs the
benefits. This is the major premise of the _____ theory.
A. Special deterrence C. general deterrence
B. Rational choice D. incapacitation
75. When the police takes a person in to custody, the phase of

criminal justice process called _____ has taken place.
A. Trial C. custody
B. Arrest D. investigation
76. The view that people are not actually born with the ability
to act violently but that they learn to be aggressive through
their life experiences is advanced by the _____ theory.
A. Adaptation C. imitation
B. Social learning D. environmental
77. PNP members should perform their duties without arrogance

and recognize their inadequacies, inabilities and limitations as
individuals. This PNP ethical standard refers to:
A. Orderliness C. integrity
B. Humility D. perseverance
78. A finding that the accused is guilty of the crime charged

is one that is a judgment of:
A. Discretion C. consideration
B. Conviction D. acquittal
79. The process by which deviant values are both admired and
passed down from one generation to the next is called:
A. Cultural transmission C. heredity
B. Social disorganization D. subculture
80. Behavior directed towards the child that is likely to cause

or intend to cause pain, injury or death is known as _____
A. Exploitation C. trafficking
B. Traumatic abuse D. physical abuse

81. The actual physical part of the crime is referred to as:

A. Mens rea C. intent
B. Act D. Actus reus
82. Guarding the confidentiality of classified information

against unauthorized disclosure reflects the PNPs professional
conduct on ______.
A. Mission C. secrecy discipline
B. Truth D. discretion
83. People learn to be criminals in the same way they learn to

do anything. This statement echoes the _____ theory.
A. Social learning C. subculture
B. Ability D. differential association
84. In the study of corrections, inmate activity that involves

obtaining goods and services that are unavailable through
legitimate channels is termed as:
A. Busting C. hustling
B. Buy and sell D. clandestine work
85. Threat of punishment intended to induce the general public

not to engage in criminal acts is:
A. Sanctions C. corrections
B. General deterrence D. threats
86. Which model/perspective of criminal justice advances the

idea that severe punishment control dangerous offenders and
protect the society.
A. Conflict C. sentence
B. Punishment D. crime control
87. People compensate for feelings of inferiority with a drive

for superiority such as controlling others help reduce personal
inadequacies are classified in human behavior as having:
A. Identity crisis C. neurosis
B. Inferiority complex D. rebellious behavior
88. Police officers shall make certain of his responsibilities

in their particular fields of enforcement, seeking the aid of
their superiors in matters which are technical or in principle
are not clear to them. This canon of police ethics is known as:
A. Knowledge of the law and other responsibilities
B. Proper conduct and behavior
C. Use of proper means to obtain proper ends
D. Limitation of police authority
89. Behavior that violates significant societal norms is called

_____.
A. Deviance C. ordinary
B. Repetition D. common

90. Individuals having abnormal sexual urges towards the

opposite sex with physical pain as the source of sexual stimulus
are called:
A. Trippers C. algolagnic
B. Pedophiles D. criminals
91. The view that it is futile to rehabilitate criminal through

correctional treatment efforts is espoused by the _____
perspective.
A. Control C. corrections
B. Justice D. interventionist
92. Deterring criminal behavior and incapacitating serious

criminal offenders is the focus of the _____ perspective.
A. Due process C. crime control
B. Rehabilitation D. non-intervention
93. Persons who believed that external cranial characteristics

dictate which areas of the brain control physical activity which
are the:
A. Physiognomist c. Biologist
B. Positivist D. cardiologist
94. The illegal use of force against innocent people to achieve

a political objective is otherwise known as:
A. Activism C. violent offenders
B. Terrorism D. crime
95. A type of fraud in which the writer presents the ideas or

work of someone else as his or her own is known as:
A. Editing C. plagiarism
B. Reference D. idea
96. Police officers are required to be trustworthy and to

uphold the truth at all times. This PNP core value is referred to
as:
A. Trustworthiness C. nobility
B. Integrity D. honesty
97. Reducing the opportunities people have to commit particular

crimes is a practice known as _____ crime prevention.
A. Strategic C. rational
B. Target D. situational
98. Correction and control of known criminal offenders are the

thrusts of the sub-area of criminology called _____
A. Criminal sociology C. penology
B. Criminal etiology D. crime control
99. Criminal manifest distinct physiques that makes them

susceptible to particular types of delinquent behavior. This view
attempting to explain crime causation, known as somatotype, was
advanced by:
A. Cesare Lombroso C. Enrico Ferri

B. Henry Maudsley D. William sheldon
100. The requirement that police officers are to inform

individuals under arrest of their constitutional rights to remain
silent and to know that their statements can later be used
against them in court; that they can have an attorney present to
help them; and that the state will provide an attorney if they
cannot afford to hire one is called the:
A. Miranda warning C. constitutional rights
B. Appraisal of rights D. doctrine

PREFACE
DISCLAIMER
____________________________________
CRIMINAL SOCIOLOGY SET B
26. B* 51. B 76. B

1. C 27. D 52. B 77. B
2. D 28. A 53. B 78. B
3. B 29. B 54. B 79. C*
4. C 30. B 55. C 80. A
5. C 31. D 56. A 81. D
6. D 32. B* 57. D 82. C
7. A 33. D 58. A 83. A
8. D 34. B* 59. C 84. C
9. C 35. D 60. D* 85. B
10. D 36. C 61. D 86. D
11. B* 37. D 62. C 87. D
12. C 38. A* 63. C 88. A
13. B 39. B 64. A* 89. A
14. D 40. D 65. A 90. C
15. B 41. B 66. A 91. A
16. A 42. A 67. B 92. C
17. C 43. A 68. D 93. A
18. C 44. A 69. C 94. B
19. B 45. B 70. C 95. C
20. C 46. A 71. C 96. A
21. C 47. A 72. B 97. A
22. A 48. C 73. D 98. C
23. A 49. B* 74. B 99. D
24. B 50. B 75. B 100. A
25. C


QUESTIONS FOR
CORRECTIONAL
ADMINISTRATION
INSTITUTIONAL CORRECTIONS
NON-INSTITUTIONAL CORRECTIONS
(COMMUNITY-BASED CORRECTION)
1 | P a g e QUESTIONARES for CORRECTIONAL ADMINISTRATION/Charlemagne James

P. Ramos R.C., J.D./2016
Third Day Afternoon Session
======================================================================
REVIEW QUESTIONS IN
CORRECTIONAL ADMINISTRATION SET A
----------------------------------------------------------------------
----------------------------------------------------------------------
1. A probationer is allowed to do the following EXCEPT,

a. Stay away from bad associates
b. Work regularly to support his family
c. Make periodic report
d. Go and play in a gambling den
2. Who among the following may have his penalty suspended under PD
603?
a. Pedro who is 19 years old
b. Juan who is 20 years old
c. Martin who is 10 years old
d. 25 years old Pablo
3. A judicial action or legal disposition that allows the offender to

remain in the community subject to the conditions imposed by the
court.
a. Reprieve
b. Commutation
c. Probation
d. Good Conduct Time Allowance
4. Which agency performs the evaluation of prisoners fitness and

qualifications for the grant of Pardon or parole?
a. Board of Pardon and Parole
b. National Police Commission
c. Department of Social Welfare and Development
d. National Bureau of Investigation
5. What is the movement in 1790 which held that offenders were out of
touch with God thus, they were given Bibles and placed in isolations?
a. Quaker reform movement
b. Reformatory movement
c. Church Reform movement
d. Crime prevention movement
6. What is the legal process that results in the removal of conviction

from the official records?
a. Mitigation
b. Expungement
c. Exoneration
d. Restriction
7. The judges bases of the grant of probation relies on the report

of,
a. Prosecutor
b. Police officer
c. Probation officer
d. Social worker
1 | P a g e QUESTIONARES for CORRECTIONAL ADMINISTRATION/Charlemagne James P. Ramos R.C.,

J.D./2016
8. Which model emphasize the assumption that criminal behavior is
caused by biological or psychological conditions that require
treatment?
a. Medical model
b. Reform model
c. Rehabilitation model
d. Community model
9. What document is issued to a parolee when the maximum period of his

prison term has expired?
a. Certificate of final discharge
b. Certificate of final release and discharge
c. Certificate of prison term completion
d. Certificate of final release
10. Billy the kid was 17 years old when he was convicted for the crime
of theft. Can he apply for probation under the Adult Probation System?
a. No, because his crime is theft
b. No, because he is only 17 years old
c. No, because he is entitled for parole
d. No, because he is convicted of a crime
11. An _________ program employs prisoners in various product or good-

producing tasks.
a. Agricultural
b. Industrial
c. Operational
d. Administrative
12. What is referred to as hustling inside the prison?

a. Reporting illegal activities
b. Doing prison assignment
c. Using prohibited drugs
d. Selling illegal commodities
13. What institution conducts training program for uniformed personnel

of the Bureau of Jail Management and Penology?
a. PNP training center
b. Fire service training institute
c. Jail management training institute
d. PNP academy
14. Maria Clara was required to provide financial remuneration for the
losses incurred by the victim. What is this type of sentence?
a. Fine
b. Payment
c. Retribution
d. Restitution
15. Which of the following organizations donated the Half-way House

inside the compound of the Bureau of Corrections?
a. Office of the President
b. Philippine Charity Sweepstakes Office
c. United Nations Security Council
d. Asia Crime Foundation
16. Robin Padilla served his sentence at the New Bilibid Prison in
Muntinlupa. Why was he photographed at the Reception and Diagnostic
Center?
a. It is a rare opportunity to have his photograph
b. He is an actor and photogenic
c. Photographing the inmate is part of the reception procedure
d. To have a souvenir photo of the actor
J.D./2016
17. Detention prisoners who are awaiting judgment or trial of their

case are under the supervision and control of,
a. Bureau of Corrections
b. Provincial jails
c. Davao penal colony
d. Bureau of Jail Management and Penology
18. A minimum and maximum amount of time to be served in prison is

referred to as ________.
a. A determinate sentence
b. A corporal punishment
c. A Indeterminate sentence
d. A capital punishment
19. Who advocated the principle that the basis of all social actions
must be the utilitarian conception of the greatest happiness for the
greatest number?
a. John Howard
b. Jeremy Bentham
c. Cesare Becaria
d. George Vold
20. Prison work assignments are usually given to prisoners,

a. After recreational activities
b. At early morning hours
c. Before sleeping hours
d. During middle hours of the day
21. An arrangement where prisoner goes out of the institution to

attend educational classes.
a. Study release
b. Work furlough
c. Guidance counseling
d. Vocational program
22. Who said that criminal acts are signs of distress, signals of
failures, the spasm of struggles and convulsions of a sub marginal
human being trying to make it in the complex society with inadequate
equipment and preparation
a. John Howard
b. James Wilson
c. Jeremy Bentham
d. Karl Menninger
23. The parole and probation administration administers a

_____________ corrections program.
a. Integrated
b. Community-based
c. Traditional
d. Institutional
24. Changing criminals through non-punitive means is referred to as,

a. Restitution
b. Retribution
c. Reformation
d. Institutional
25. Jose Matalo was sentenced to imprisonment on Sept. 30, 2003. On

Oct. 20, 2003 the judge who promulgated the decision died. What is the
effect of the judges death to the service of Joses sentence?
a. His sentence will not be binding anymore
b. He will have to serve his sentence
J.D./2016
c. His sentence will be suspended
d. His sentenced will be reduced
26. Who among the following prisoners is a national prisoner?

1. One who is sentenced to maximum term of imprisonment of more
than 3 years or a fine of more than 5,000.
2. One sentenced to serve 2 or more prison sentences in the
aggregate exceeding the period of 3 years.
3. Regardless of the length of sentence, one sentenced for
violation of Custom Law or other laws within the jurisdiction of the
Bureau of Customs
4. Regardless of the length of sentence, one sentenced for
violation of Immigration Laws and Election Laws.
a. 1, 2, and 3
b. 2, 3, and 4
c. 1, 3, and 4
d. All of the listed
27. This theory in criminology states that criminals are totally

responsible for their behaviors and the stress is more on the effect
of their felonious act than upon the criminal himself.
a. Biological theory
b. Positivist theory
c. Classical theory
28. What is the action of the court in case a probationer violated his
probation conditions?
a. Court directs probationer to re apply for probation
b. Court orders the continuation of the probation
c. Court releases the probationer to the community
d. Court revokes probation and probationer goes back to prison
29. How do inmates know that they have letters?

a. A list of mails for inmates is posted
b. A jail guard delivers the letter personally
c. An inmate trustees delivers the letters to the addressee
d. Inmate with letters are called to the Jail Wardens Office
30. Who introduced the Silent System in 1831 at the Auburn Prison?
a. John Howard
b. Jeremy Bentham
c. Elam Lynds
d. James Wilson
31. Forced is used only by correctional institutions to,

a. Exact respect
b. Enforce discipline
c. Show physical strength and power
d. Perform assignments
32. The Supreme Court automatically reviews the cases of criminals

convicted and meted out the penalty of,
a. 12 years 6 months and 1 day
b. Life imprisonment
c. Death
d. 6 years, 1 month and 1 day
33. Presidential Decree No. 968 established the ________ system.

a. Adult probation
b. Juvenile Justice
c. Family Welfare
d. Civilian Police
J.D./2016
34. What correctional institution houses accused awaiting trial?

a. Prison
b. Half-way house
c. Jail
d. Rehabilitation center
35. Which of the following is an open correctional institution known

to be the best and prison without walls?
a. Davao penal colony
b. Sablayan penal colony
c. Iwahig penal colony
d. San Ramon prison and penal farm
36. The first workhouse in England in 1557 to 1576.

a. Singsing prison
b. Bridewell
c. Alcatraz
d. Walnut Street Jail
37. A prison system which includes confinement of prisoners in single

cells at night and congregate work in shops during the day.
a. Pennsylvania system
b. Auburn system
c. Elmira reformatory
d. Irish system
38. He introduced the worldwide progressive mark system in prison.

a. Manuel Montesimos
b. Walter Crofton
c. Alexander Macanochie
d. Zebulon Brockway
39. He has the supervisory powers over all provincial and city jails
but his powers are limited in the sense that they are advisory and
recommendatory only.
a. Secretary of Justice
b. Warden
c. Chief Justice
d. Director of prison
40. The period of 1870 to 1880 was called the __________of penology.
a. Age of Reason
b. Age of Reform
c. Age of Enlightenment
d. Golden Age
41. Granted by the Chief Executive without any conditions attached

which serves to wipe away the guilt of pardonee and makes him innocent
as if he has not committed a crime.
a. Pardon
b. Absolute Pardon
c. Conditional Pardon
d. Parole
42. It is also known as the Industrial Good Time Law.

a. Republic Act No. 2489
b. Republic Act No.6425
c. Act No. 2489
d. Act No. 3815
43. Firs Juvenile Delinquency Law in the Philippines.

a. Commonwealth Act No. 3203
J.D./2016
b. Republic Act No. 7610
c. Presidential Decree No. 603
d. Republic Act No. 9344
44. When was the establishment of the Correctional Institution for

Women.
a. November 01, 1929
b. November 12, 1929
c. November 27, 1929
d. November 17, 1929
45. It is an order issued by the court to a correctional facility

indicating the basis for the confinement of a prisoner.
a. Mittimus
b. Carpeta
c. Commitment Order
d. Arrest Report
46. Preliminary form filed up by the petitioner within 72 hours after

the release of his probation order.
a. Arrest and Booking Report
b. Release form
c. Work Sheet
47. A chemical that is injected to an offender that puts him into deep
sleep in lethal injection.
a. Potassium Chloride
b. Hydrogen Peroxide
c. Sodium Thiopenthotal
d. Sodium Chloride
48. In the exercise of religious beliefs of prisoners, a prison

official trying to covert a prisoner to change his religion.
a. Proselytizing
b. Restitution
c. Reparation
d. Compensation
49. How many minutes is the allowable time for an inmate to use the
telephone/
a. 5 Minutes
b. 10 Minutes
c. 15 Minutes
d. 20 Minutes
50. An act which creates a Board of Claims under DOJ for claims for
compensation of victims of violent crimes.
a. Republic Act No. 7903
b. Republic Act No. 7309
c. Republic Act No. 3709
d. Republic Act No. 3079
51. After receiving the PSIR, how many days must a judge decide
whether to grant or deny probation?
a. 15 days
b. 30 days
c. 60 days
d. 90 days
52. If two (2) inmates are arguing each other of some lost of their
items in cell, refer them to the ____________________.
a. Warden
J.D./2016
b. Investigation and disciplinary board
c. Classification board
d. Never mind them
53. Mandated as the age of reason.

a. 17th century
b. 18th century
c. 19th century
d. 20th century
54. A system that teaches inmates to value himself and his dealing
with others.
a. Auburn system
b. Pennsylvania system
c. Millien system
d. Congrete system
55. When was the Bilibid prison established?

a.1845
b. 1846
c.1847
d. 1848
56. It is extended to a group/class of persons generally exercised by

the Chief Executive with the concurrence of Congress.
a. Pardon
b. Commutation of sentence
c. Parole
d. Amnesty
57. An executive clemency given for the temporary stay of the

execution of sentence.
a. Amnesty
b. Reprieve
c. Commutation of sentence
d. Pardon
58. An executive clemency intended to reduce the degree of penalty

inflicted upon the convict, or by decreasing the length of his
imprisonment.
a. Amnesty
b. Reprieve
d. Pardon
59. A privilege granted to a prisoner that shall entitle him to a

deduction of his term of imprisonment for his good behavior.
a. Amnesty
b. Reprieve
d. Good Conduct Time Allowance
60. A school of criminology which maintain the doctrine of

psychological hedonism or freewill.
a. Classical School
b. Neo-classical school
c. Positivist school
d. None of these
61. Also known as the Juvenile and Youth Welfare Code.

a. BP 603
b. RA 9344
c. PD 603
J.D./2016
d. RA 603
62. Before taking out the prisoner to jail, he will be pre-release to

_________________.
a. Diagnostic and Reception Center
b. Reception
c. Classification board
d. Disciplinary board
63. When you are once on probation, are you still allowed to apply for
the second time?
a. Yes
b. No
c. True
d. False
64. Under our laws, when should a probationer report to his designated
probation officer?
a. Within 72 hours after probation order has been granted
b. Upon court order
c. Upon initial interview
d. Upon completion of the PSIR
65. Having a pornographic materials inside jail is a?

a. Minor offense
b. Grave Offense
c. Less grave offense
d. Major offense
66. It is the national record of a prisoner at New Bilibid Prison.

a. Mittimus
b. Carpeta
c. Commitment order
d. Arrest record
67. It is considered as the best reform institution for young

offenders.
a. Elmira reformatory
b. Auburn prison system
c. Borstal institution
d. Bridewell penitentiary
68. Among the colonies established in the Philippines, what penal

colony was established in Zamboanga?
a. Iwahig Penal Colony
b. Sablayan PenalColony
c. Camp Sampaguita
d. San Ramon Penal Colony
69. Who is the Father of Probation in England?

a. Calvin Coolidge
b. Teodulo Natividad
c. Mathew Davenport Hill
d. John Howard
70. What is the age requirement for drug user for admission for
probation under RA 6425?
a. Less than 21
b. 25 years old and above
c. 21 years old and above
d. 25 years old and below

J.D./2016
71. The head of Bureau of Corrections is the Director of prisons who
is appointed by the _____________ with the conformation of the
Commission on Appointments.
a. Chief Executive
b. DOJ Secretary
c. DILG Secretary
72. It refers to the money paid to the relatives of a murdered person

as compensation and to prevent blood feud.
a. Wergild
b. Restitution
c. Compensation
d. Reprimand
73. Theory which states that criminal behavior is learned in

interaction with other persons in the process of communication. (2x
question)
a. Differential Association Theory
b. Strain Theory
c. Classical Theory
d. Positivist Theory
74. A justification of punishment which state that Severity of the

punishment must fit the crime.
a. Expiation
b. Atonement
c. Retribution
d. Deterrence
75. Probation order will take effect-

a. Before its issuance
b. Upon order by the court
c. Upon its issuance
d. When the offender will be found guilty
76. Provincial prisoners are prisoners with imprisonment ranging from?

a. 1 day to 3 years
b. 6 months,1 day to 5 years
c. 3 years to life
d. Not more than 6 months
77. How many hectares do the San Ramon Penal Colony has?
a. 1,414 hectares
b. 2,414 hectares
c. 3,414 hectares
d. 4,141 hectares
78. It has been regarded as the forerunner of modern penology due to

its extensive use of parole, social casework and training school type
of institution.
a. Pennsylvania System
b. Auburn System
c. Elmira Reformatory
d. All of these
79. San Ramon Penal Colony is an institution intended to detain or

house?
a. Convicted offenders
b. Political offenders
c. Private offenders
d. None of these

J.D./2016
80. PO1 Duling was convicted to serve a penalty of 6 years of
imprisonment for usurpation of a person in authority due to his
frequent introduction of himself as NBI agent, what would be his
classification under PD 29?
a. Detention prisoner
b. Provincial prisoner
c. Municipal Prisoner
d. National Prisoner
81. A method undertaken to allow prisoners to have the opportunity for

normal sexlife.
a. Visitation
b. Sodomy
c. Conjugal visit
d. All of these
82. It serves as the basis in granting probation for qualified

petitioners.
a. Pre sentence investigation report
b. Post sentence investigation report
c. Admission summary
d. behavior report
83. It refers to the continuing relationship between the probationer

and the probation officer.
a. Orientation
b. Post sentence investigation
c. Supervision
84. Before the travel of probationer outside the jurisdiction of the

City/Provincial probation office, application for court should be
filed within how many days?
a. 45 days
b. 30 days
c. 15 days
d. 5 days
85. The probation officer is required by law to submit the PSIR within
how many days?
a. 90 days
b. 60 days
c. 120 days
d. 30 days
86. Provincial jail is under what government agency?

a. Provincial government
b. Department of Justice
c. Bureau of Correction
d. None of these
87. Those sentenced to suffer a term of imprisonment from One (1) day
to six (6) months are classified as:
a. Provincial prisoners
b. City prisoners
c. Insular prisoners
d. Municipal prisoners
88. It is one of the earliest device for softening brutal severity of

punishment through a compromise with the church.
a. Benefit of clergy
b. Rehabilitation
c. Retribution
J.D./2016
89. An operation conducted by BJMP officers where a prisoner maybe

checked at anytime for possession of contrabands inside prison cell.
a. Man-haunt operation
b. Operation greyhound
c. Operation Bravo
d. Thunderbolt Operation
90. Designated rank of a warden in city jails.

a. Inspector
b. Chief inspector
c. Superintendent
d. Director
91. Differentiate National prisoners from that of City prisoners.

A. National prisoners are those sentenced to suffer a term of
imprisonment from One (1) day to six (6) months, while City prisoners
are those sentenced to suffer a term of imprisonment of Three (3)
years and One (1) day to Life imprisonment.
B. National prisoners are those sentenced to suffer a term of
imprisonment from One (1) day to (3) years or a fine of not more than
1,000 pesos or both, City prisoners are those sentenced to suffer a
term of imprisonment from One (1) day to six (6) months
C. National prisoners are those sentenced to suffer a term of
1,000 pesos or both, while City prisoners are those sentenced to
suffer a term of imprisonment of Three (3) years and One (1) day to
Life imprisonment.
D. National prisoners are those sentenced to suffer a term of
imprisonment of Three (3) years and One (1) day to Life imprisonment,
while City prisoners are those sentenced to suffer a term of
1,000 pesos or both.
92. A special group of prisoners composed of incorrigible,

intractable, and highly dangerous persons who are the source of
constant disturbances even in a maximum security prison and wear
orange color of uniform.
a. Medium Security Prisoners
b. Maximum Security Prisoners
c. Super Maximum Security Prisoners
d. Minimum Security Prisoners
93. The ________ exercises supervision and control over all districts,
cities and municipal jails throughout the country.
a. Bureau of Jail Management and Penology
b. Department of the Interior and Local Government
c. Department of Justice
d. Bureau of Corrections
94. Under the rules, methods and procedures of probation, the

reglamentary period for which the convicted offender may apply for
probation after conviction is within-
a. 10 days
b. 15 days
c. 20days
d. 30 days
95. Which branch of the Administrative Group takes charge of the

preparation of the daily menu, prepares and cook the food and serve it
to inmates.
a. Property and supply branch
J.D./2016
b. Budget and finance branch
c. Mess service branch
d. General service branch
96. ___________ is a security facility, common to police stations used

for temporary confinement of individual held for investigation.
a. Ordinary jails
b. Lock-up jails
c. Workhouse, jail farms or camp
d. None of these
97. It is a justification of punishment which claims that punishment

gives lesson to the offender by showing to others what would happen to
them if they violate the law.
a. Retribution
b. Expiation
c. Incapacitation
d. Detterence
98. Rooms or cells where prisoners are held, especially underground,

are called-
A. Gaols
B. Dungeons
C. Fox holes
D. Hulks
99. Under the law, a prisoner who surrenders from escaping because of
calamity, immediately with in 48 hours after pronouncement of the
passing away of calamity, is granted-
A. 1/5 reduction of sentence
B. reduction of sentence
C. 2/5 reduction of sentence
D. 2/6 reduction of sentence
100. What branch of the government has the sole authority to exercise
the pardoning power?
A. Executive Branch
B. Judicial Branch
C. Legislative Branch
D. All of the above
***END***

J.D./2016
PREFACE
DISCLAIMER
____________________________________
ANSWER KEY- CORRECTIONAL ADMININSTRATION

SET A
1. D 26. D 51. A 76. B
2. C 27. C 52. B 77. A
3. C 28. D 53. B 78. C
4. A 29. A 54. C 79. B
5. B 30. B 55. C 80. D
6. B 31. B 56. D 81. C
7. C 32. C 57. B 82. B
8. A 33. A 58. C 83. C
9. A 34. C 59. D 84. B
10. B 35. C 60. A 85. C
11. B 36. B 61. C 86. A
12. D 37. A 62. A 87. D
13. C 38. C 63. B 88. A

J.D./2016
14. A 39. D 64. A 89. B
15. B 40. D 65. A 90. C
16. C 41. B 66. B 91. D
17. D 42. C 67. C 92. C
18. C 43. A 68. D 93. A
19. B 44. C 69. C 94. B
20. A 45. A 70. A 95. C
21. D 46. C 71. A 96. B
22. A 47. C 72. A 97. D
23. B 48. A 73. A 98. B
24. C 49. A 74. C 99. A
25. B 50. B 75. C 100. A

J.D./2016
REVIEW QUESTIONS IN
CORRECTIONAL ADMINISTRATION SET B
----------------------------------------------------------------------
----------------------------------------------------------------------
1. The Post-Sentence Investigation report shall be approved by

the
A. Head, Probation Office C. Chief of Police
B. Social Worker D. Judge
2. What is the action of the court in case a probationer

violated his/her probation conditions?
A. Court release the probationer to the community
B. Court revokes probation and probationer goes to prison
C. Court orders the continuation of probation
D. Court directs probationer to re-apply for probation
3. In maintaining health, safety and sanitation inside jail

premises, jail officers are responsible for the following,
EXCEPT _____.
A. Scrub all floors, walls and ceilings
B. Supervise hygiene habits of inmates
C. Ensure proper handling and labeling of hazardous
materials
D. Prepare a cleaning schedule
4. Which of the following is a manifest function of parole?

A. To protect the public
B. To integrate parolees into society
C. To ease prison and jail overcrowding
D. To remedy sentencing disparities
5. What document is issued to a parolee when the maximum

period of his prison term has expired?

J.D./2016
A. Certificate of Prison Term Completion
B. Certificate of Final Release
C. Certificate of Final Discharge
D. Certificate of Final Release and Discharge
6. This approach to the explanation of crime traces behavior

as a deviation to the regression of basic drives.
A. Physiological approach
B. Psycho-analytical approach
C. Biological approach
D. Psychological approach
7. A convicted offender may avail of probation as a/an

A. Choice C. privilege
B. Right D. option
8. Sociologists look at corrections as

A. The intervention which documents the attitudinal
response of offenders and staff to the processes of
punishment.
B. The medium through which prisoners change their
behavior and attitudes.
C. A total institution in which the basic physiological
needs of prisoners were to be met away from the
outside world.
D. The consolidation of interactions between correctional
officers and the prisoners.
9. The BukangLiwayway Camp of the New Bilibid Prison houses

the:
A. Mentally Deranged Prisoners
B. Minimum Security Inmates
C. Minimum Security Inmates
D. Maximum Security Inmates
10. The probation law which was enacted on July 24, 1976
is oftentimes referred to as:
A. Presidential Decree No. 126
J.D./2016
B. Presidential Decree No. 28
C. Presidential Decree No. 807
D. Presidential Decree No. 968
11. What does the classical theory provide?

A. Criminal behavior is learned in interaction with other
persons in a process of communication
B. Crime and delinquency are symptoms of social and
penalty disorders
C. The basis for criminal liability is human freewill and
the purpose of penalty is retribution
D. Criminal behavior is inherited and therefore could be
controlled by regulating the reproduction of families
12. The study of criminality in relation to population is

called ___.
A. Criminal psychology C. Criminal Psychiatry
B. Criminal demography D. Criminal ecology
13. Which of the following should not be done by a

probationer?
A. Pursue his rehabilitation program
B. Engage in illegal activities
C. Abstain from drinking intoxicating liquors
D. Reside at premises approved by the trial court
14. How is one who is sentenced to prison term of

three(3)years and one (1) day to death reffered to?
A. National prisoner C. municipal prisoner
B. Provincial prisoner D. city prisoner
15. Which of the following is NOT a guaranteed right of an

inmate?
A. To receive authorized visitors at designated time and
place
B. To be confined in a private hospital if sick
C. To send and receive correspondence
D. To practice his faith or religion
J.D./2016
16. Presidential Decree No. 968 as amended grants

probation to qualified adult offenders while Presidential
Decree No. 603 grants probation to _____ offenders.
A. Sexual C. criminal
B. Blue-collar D. youthful
17. How is accuracy in counting prisoners ensured?

A. Mere presence of shoes under the bed is taken as
presence of a prisoner.
B. Bastonero takes charge of checking presence of co-
inmates.
C. A list is passed around and the name of offender is
checked.
D. Physical counting, with the person standing and the
jailguards looking from head to foot.
18. What is a warrant issued by the court bearing its seal

and the signature of the judge directing the jail or prison
authorities to receive the convicted offender for the
service of sentence imposed therein?
A. Warrant C. Order of acceptance
B. Nolle D. Mittimus
19. Juan was charge with an offense with a penalty of not

more than six (6) months and/or a fine of 2,000, or both.
His realease to a responsible person in a community instead
of filing a bail bond as ordered by the court is called
____.
A. Release on probation C. release on parole
B. Release on recognizance D. release due to pardon
20. Who may be granted conditional pardon?

A. An old prisoner provided he was not yet 60 when he/she
was put to prison.
B. A prisoner who was the bastonero
C. A prisoner who is a female.
D. A probationer who broke his probation conditions.
J.D./2016
21. What is the action of the court in case a probationer

violated his/her probation conditions?
A. Court directs probationer to re-apply for probation
B. Court releases the probationer to the community
C. Court revokes probationer and probationers goes to
prison
D. Court orders the continuation of probation
22. Where shall those who are sentenced to a prison term

of more than three (3) years sent to?
A. Jails under provincial government
B. Correctional facilities of the Bureau of Corrections
C. Jails of the Bureau of Jail Management and Penology
D. Detention cells of the police
23. In the United States, home confinement or house arrest

may be imposed by the courts and the offenders are confined
in their own residences but are placed under _____
A. Probation supervision
B. Electronic monitoring
C. Intensive probation supervision
D. Parole supervision
24. #What is that portion of the criminal justice system

that carries out the courts orders?
A. Law enforcement C. community
B. Corrections D. prosecution
25. When shall an inmates request to view the remains of

a deceased relative be filed with the jail warden?
A. At least one (1) day before the privilege sought is
enjoyed
B. At least one (1) week before the privilege sought is
enjoyed
C. At least five (5) days before the privilege sought is
enjoyed

J.D./2016
D. At least three (3) days before the privilege sought is
enjoyed
26. Which of the following is a sub-colony of the Davao

Penal Colony where released prisoners who no longer wish to
return to their homes stay and work?
A. Panabo Sub-colony C. Inagawan Sub-colony
B. Kapalong Sub-colony D. Tanglaw Settlement
27. The ____ theory assumes that people are law-abiding

but under great pressure they will resort to crime and that
disparity between goals and means provided that pressure
A. Psychoanalytic C. Social learning
B. Strain D. differential association
28. A term which denotes a new trial as when an appellate

court sends a case back to a lower court for re-trial
A. Trial by jury C. trial de Novo
B. Trial by default D. trial by publicity
29. Juanito is 17 years old when he was convicted for the

crime of theft. Can he apply for probation under the Adult
Probation System?
A. No, because his crime is theft
B. No, because he is entitled for parole
C. No, because he is only 17 years old
D. No, because he is convicted crime
30. The Post-Sentence Investigation Report is submitted to

court within the
A. 60-day period C. 15-day period
B. 45-day period D. 30-day period
31. Why do all members of the custodial force proceed or

directed to go to their critical posts armed with their
issued firearms when there is mass jailbreak?
A. To shoot any of the escapees
B. To protect other inmates
J.D./2016
C. To plug off the escape routes
D. To make warning shot
32. There is a _______ in the maximum sentence of an

offender when he is granted good conduct-time allowance.
A. Modification C. reduction
B. Increase D. nullification
33. ____ conditions are designed to increase the

painfulness of probation such as imposition of fines and
community service.
A. Standard C. treatment
B. Punitive D. rehabilitation
34. Punishment is associated with the ____ model while

treatment is associated to medical model.
A. Reintegrative C. Justice
B. Retributive D. restorative
35. How are the inmates called when they are given special
privileges such as work assignments which are not done at
the regular times?
A. Correctional officers C. officers
B. Trustees D. guardians
36. Disciplinary power cannot be exercised by a prisoner

over his co-prisoners. However, technically skilled
prisoners may
A. Supervise prison labor
B. Be requested to assist other prisoners
C. Provide direction to livelihood program
D. Run the whole show for livelihood program
37. Julio Camacho is an inmate suffering from asthma. He

has serious attacks lately and has difficulty in breathing.
Can he be brought to the hospital?
A. Yes, if hospitalization is necessary
B. No, left the prison nurse give the medication
J.D./2016
C. No, it is against prison rule
D. Yes, but a court order has to be secured first
38. What is the practice of beating, torturing, maiming or

any form of causing pain to a prisoner called?
A. Corporal punishment
B. Capital punishment
C. Medical model of punishment
D. Indeterminate punishment
39. The Sablayan Penal Colony of the Bureau of Corrections

is located in:
A. Davao C. Zamboanga
B. Palawan D. Occidental Mindoro
40. What is meant by hustling inside the prison?

A. Staying incommunicado for a period of time
B. Selling illegal commodities such as drugs, alcohol
weapons
C. Heating a prisoner for bad behavior
D. Staying at work in a congregate shop
41. What facility was built recently within the Bureau of

Correctios site for the purpose of housing prisoners who
are about to be released?
A. Recreation Area
B. Half Way House
C. Congregation Shop
D. Reception Diagnostic Center
42. Which of the following terms is most closely

associated to the day-to-day operations of the various
units within the organization?
A. Control C. management
B. Administration D. supervision
43. Which office evaluates the fitness and qualifications

of prisoners for the grant of pardon and parole?
J.D./2016
A. Board of Pardon and Parole
B. Department of Social welfare and Development
C. Parole and Probation Administration
D. Department of Justice
44. Which if the following is considered in the grant of

conditional pardon?
A. Old age provided that he was not yet 60 years old at
the time of his commitment to prison
B. Discipline of the prisoner
C. Good conduct shown
D. Length of time spent in prison
45. Probationers are given the opportunity to engage in

productive and income generating projects through the
A. Vocational training program
B. Rehabilitation program
C. Medical assistance program
D. Livelihood program
46. Citizen involvement in corrections is anchored on the

fact that
A. Society is fearful of the effects of crime and it must
abate such fear for the unknown
B. Society is collectively responsible for the conditions
that breed injustice and crime thus, it must have an
equal responsibility for collective remedial action
C. There is profit in being involved in correctional
programs
D. There is personal gratification in helping criminals
47. The post-Sentence Investigation Report shall be

approved by the
A. Head, probation Office C. Judge
B. Social Worker D. Chief of Police
48. Is a person convicted of treason qualified for

probation?
J.D./2016
A. Yes, as long as he is first-time offender.
B. No, his crime is against the security of the state
C. Yes, everyone is qualified for probation
D. Yes, as long as he is a Filipino
49. The probation supervision period maybe terminated on

any of the following grounds, EXCEPT _____.
A. Order of the Secretary of Justice
B. Death of the probationer
C. Successful completion of program
D. Probation revocation for cause
50. What is the newly legislated method of implementation

death penalty?
A. Firing squad C. lethal injection
B. Hanging D. electrocution
51. Prevention is associated to reintegration model and

control is associated to ____ model.
A. Restorative C. custodial
B. Medical D. justice
52. What is the primary purpose of the presentence

investigation?
A. To help the judge in selecting the appropriate
sentence of the offender
B. To exonerate the offender
C. To assist the judge in dismissing the case
D. To give the offender an opportunity to defend himself
53. What is temporary stay of execution of sentence

exercised by the President when the sentence has become
final?
A. Reprieve C. Conditional pardon
B. Absolute pardon D. Probation
54. Retribution, deterrence, incapacitation and

rehabilitation are the acknowledge goals of ______.
J.D./2016
A. Criminal Action C. criminal Sanction
B. Criminal mind D. criminal intent
55. When is a probationer required to report to probation

officer?
A. Within 24 hours from receipt of probation order
B. Within 96 hours from receipt of probation order
C. Within 72 hours from receipt of probation order
D. Within 48 hours from receipt of probation order
56. What is the most common form of sexual perversion in

prison and jail facilities?
A. Sodomy C. homosexuality
B. Masturbation D. Pseudo marriages
57. What is being referred to when the warden is directly

responsible for any act or omission of his subordinates in
relation to the performance of their duties?
A. Delegation of authority C. supervision
B. Command responsibility D. flow of communication
58. # Who shall endorse to the Board of Pardons and Parole

a petition for the grant of absolute or conditional pardon
if the crime committed by the petitioner is violation of
laws, rules and regulations?
A. National Police Commission
B. Civil Service Commission
C. Commission on Elections
D. Commission on Human Rights
59. To what institution are convicted women offenders

committed?
A. Iwahig Penal Colony
B. Davao Penal Colony
C. San Ramon Penal Farm
D. Correctional Institution for Women

J.D./2016
60. A convicted offender whose age is ____ can apply for
probation.
A. 21 years old or above C. 12 years old or above
B. 18 years old or above D. 16 years old or above
61. Which of the following information are included in the

prisoners carpeta?
1. Commitment order
2. Prosecutors information
3. Decision of trial and appellate courts
4. Personal circumstances
A. 2, 3 and 4 C. 1, 2 and 3
B. 4, 1 and 2 D. 3, 4 and 1
62. What prison/jail unit is responsible for the

investigation of inmates who violate prison/jail rules and
regulations?
A. Action Boards C. Appellate Board
B. Disciplinary D. Board of investigator
63. Which two (2) of the following offenses of prisoners

are considered less grave?
1. Acting boisterously during religious, social and other
group functions.
2. Loitering or being in an unauthorized place.
3. Keeping in his possession money, jewelry or other
contrabands.
4. Assaulting any officer or member of a custodial force.
A. 3 and 4 B. 2 and 3
B. 4 and 1 D. 1 and 2
64. The stigma of conviction is removed as the criminal

records are expunged through
A. Absolute pardon C. confidential pardon
B. Parole D. reprieve
65. Which of the following refers to prison

classification?
J.D./2016
A. A process by which inmates are assigned to types of
custody and treatment appropriate to their own
individual needs
B. A process by which inmates are grouped for purposes of
sentence determination
C. A process by which inmates are registered and assigned
their prison cells
D. A process by which inmates are assigned to prison
guards for
66. In 1869 the Spanish authorities established the

separate prison in Zamboanga for the confinement of ______
A. Maximum security prisoners
B. Convicted offenders
C. Political prisoners
D. Female prisoners
67. Republic Act No. 6127 provides for the period of _____
of offenders.
A. Pre-trial C. imprisonment
B. Diversion D. preventive detention
68. An advantage result in the integration of correctional

agencies is:
A. More prisoner to supervise
B. Efficiency in the utilization of resources
C. Divided resources such as manpower and finances
D. More physical facilities to maintain
69. This theory assumes that people are law-abiding but

under great pressure they will resort to crime and that
disparity between goals and means provides that pressure.
A. Psychoanalytic theory
B. Social learning theory
C. Strain theory
D. Differential association theory
70. What happens if a prisoner is granted absolute pardon?

J.D./2016
A. His criminal liability is conditionally extinguished
B. His criminal liability is partially extinguished
C. His criminal liability continues to exist
D. His criminal liability is totally extinguished
71. Who among the following maybe excused from hard prison
work?
A. Detention prisoners
B. Juvenile offenders
C. Women prisoners
D. Prisoners over 60 years old
72. In prison, what is the mechanism for treating the

underlying emotional or psychological problems that led
inmates to criminality?
A. Physical therapy c. psychotherapy
B. Behavior therapy D. social therapy
73. Peter was sentenced to serve a prison term of six (6)

years. He did not qualify for probation. He was brought to
the Bureau of Corrections in Muntinlupa. To which place
should he be brought for processing and classification?
A. Testing center
B. Reception diagnostic center
C. Processing center
D. Evaluation center
74. # This group regarded deviant behavior as a symptom of

some underlying personality disturbance.
A. Political scientist C. social advocates
B. Behaviorists D. mental health advocates
75. How is an offender called if he is convicted by the

court to a prison term of more than three (3) years and one
(1) day?
A. City/municipal prisoner C. district prisoner
B. Provincial prisoner D. national prisoner

J.D./2016
76. The early practice in England that humanized criminal
justice served as the forerunners of probation. These are
1. Benefit of the clergy
2. Judicial reprieve
3. Recognizance
4. Commutation
A. 4, 1 and 2 c. 1, 2 and 3
B. 3, 4 and 1 D. 2, 3 and 4
77. Which of the following provides, among others, that

for criminal offenses imposable with an imprisonment of
thirty (30) days or less, the parties thereto must first
try to settle the case amicably at the barangay level, and
only when no settlement can be reached, will a complainant
be entertained in court?
A. Presidential Decree No. 603
B. Presidential Decree No. 1508
C. Presidential Decree No. 765
D. Presidential Decree No. 421
78. A petition for probation is filed by the defendant

with the ____
A. Judge of the Regional Trial Court
B. Justice of the Appellate Court
C. Municipal Trial Court
D. Trial Judge who tried and convicted
79. Who was the first probation officer in the whole

correctional enterprise?
A. Jeremy Bentham C. John Augustus
B. Peter Thatcher D. CesareBeccaria
80. Presidential Decree No. 968 as amended grants

probation to qualified adult offenders while Presidential
Decree No. 603 grants probation to ____ offenders.
A. Youthful C. blue-collar
B. Criminal D. sexual

J.D./2016
81. The church maintained its own ecclesiastical
punishments during the middle ages. While the church
zealously punished those who violated the law, it also gave
refuge to those who are literate. This was called
A. Just deserts model
B. Ecclesiastical pardon
C. Action of inquisition
D. Benefit of the clergy
82. # To whom does the prison warden report to?

A. Secretary, Department Justice
B. Undersecretary, Department of Justice
C. Local Chief Executive
D. Director, Bureau of Corrections
83. To whom shall a petition for executive clemency be

addressed?
A. The President of the Philippines
B. The Chairman, Board of Pardons and Parole
C. Secretary of Justice
D. Secretary of National Defense
84. If maiming is a corporal punishment, how is

electrocution classified?
A. Conventional punishment C. physical punishment
B. Capital punishment D. Ordinary punishment
85. Which of the following should a probationer NOT do?

A. Stay away from bad associates
B. Make periodic office report
C. Go and play in a gambling den
D. Work regularly to support his family
86. A drug user may be placed under probation by virtue of

A. R.A. No. 6425 C. R.A. No. 7192
B. R.A. No. 4864 D. R.A. No. 6963

J.D./2016
87. With respects to parole supervision, under whose
supervision is a parolee placed?
A. A Parole Officer
B. A Probation Officer
C. A Jail Warden
D. A Parole and Probation Officer
88. What is the Security Classification of an inmate whose

sentence is under review by the Supreme Court?
A. Medium security C. Optimum security
B. Minimum security D. maximum security
89. What theory in criminology states that criminals are

totally responsible for their behaviors. The stress is more
in the effect of their felonious act than upon the criminal
himself.
A. Physiological theory C. positivist theory
B. Biological theory D. classical theory
90. A convicted defendant who files an application for

probation is called _____.
A. Probationer C. Respondent
B. Petitioner D. applicant
91. The Correctional Institution for Women (CIW) is the

only penal institution for women offenders. This is under
the
A. Bureau of Woman Welfare
B. Bureau of Jail Management and Penology
C. National Bureau of Investigation
D. Bureau of Corrections
92. A drug user who is placed under probation may be made

to serve his sentence by the court if he
A. Becomes unruly and undisciplined
B. Commits another offense
C. Violates any of the conditions of his probation
D. Is 21 years old
J.D./2016
93. What is referred to as the withdrawal of the privilege

of probation or parole resulting in the incarceration of
the offender?
A. Revocation C. Suspension
B. Retaliation D. Commutation
94. The following are authorized to commit a person to

jail, EXCEPT
A. Court of Appeals
B. Philippine National Police
C. Board of Pardon and Parole
D. Regional Trial Court
95. The post-Sentence Investigation Report Prepared by the

Investigating Probation Officer is approved by _____
A. The Probation Administrator
B. The Chief Probation and Parole Officer
C. The Judge
D. The Probation Regional Director
96. Who among the following can apply for release on

recognizance?
A. One who is charged with an offense whose penalty is a
fine of P 3, 000
B. One who is charged with an offense whose penalty is a
fine of P 5,000
C. One who is charged with an offense whose penalty is a
fine of P 2,000
D. One who is charged with an offense whose penalty is a
fine of P 4,000
97. What theory assumes that people are law-abiding but

they will resort to crime under great pressure and that
disparity between goals and means provides that pressure?
A. Psychoanalytic theory
B. Strain theory
C. Differential Association theory
J.D./2016
D. Social learning theory
98. #Which of the following is NOT a justification that

group treatment of inmates is more advantageous?
A. Much of criminal behavior is reinforced by group norms
B. It is in a group that inmates learn to define
themselves and interpret their experiences
C. Most of inmates behavior occur in groups
D. Everybody must know the inmates story
99. How is one who is sentenced to a prison term of one

(1) day to six (6) months referred to?
A. Insular prisoner C. Provincial prisoner
B. Municipal Prisoner D. City prisoner
100. Pending the submission of the Post Sentence

Investigation Report (PSIR) and the resolution of the
application for probation, may the applicant be allowed
temporary liberty?
A. Yes, but he executes an affidavit to return
B. Yes, the judge gives a temporary pass
C. Yes, under the bail filed in the criminal case
D. Yes, his release is automatic

J.D./2016
PREFACE
DISCLAIMER
____________________________________
CORRECTIONAL ADMINISTRATION
SET B
1.A 26.D 51.C 76.C

2.B 27.B 52.A 77.B
3.A 28.C 53.A 78.D
4.B 29.C 54.C 79.C
5.D 30.A 55.C 80.A
6.B 31.C 56.B 81.D
7.C 32.C 57.B 82.D
8.C 33.B 58.D 83.B
9.B 34.B 59.D 84.B
10D 35.B 60.B 85.C
11.C 36.B 61.C 86.A
12.B 37.A 62.B 87.A
13.B 38.A 63.D 88.D
14.A 39.D 64.A 89.D
15.C 40.B 65.A 90.B
16.D 41.B 66.C 91.D
17.D 42.C 67.D 92.C
J.D./2016
18.D 43.A 68.B 93.A
19.B 44.A 69.C 94.C
20.A 45.D 70.D 95.A
21.C 46.B 71.D 96.C
22.B 47.A 72.C 97.B
23.C 48.B 73.B 98.D
24.A 49.A 74.B 99.B
25.D 50.C 75.D 100.C

J.D./2016

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CSC-Antipolo City Pride/What Criminologist Knows?

1 | P a g e COMPREHENSIVE WHAT CRIMINOLOGISTS KNOWS QUESTIONARES/Charlemagne James P. Ramos R.C.,

2 | P a g e COMPREHENSIVE WHAT CRIMINOLOGISTS KNOWS QUESTIONARES/Charlemagne James P. Ramos R.C.,

TO GOD BE ALL THE GLORY...

3 | P a g e COMPREHENSIVE WHAT CRIMINOLOGISTS KNOWS QUESTIONARES/Charlemagne James P. Ramos R.C.,

About the Author

4 | P a g e COMPREHENSIVE WHAT CRIMINOLOGISTS KNOWS QUESTIONARES/Charlemagne James P. Ramos R.C.,

What Criminologist Knows?

CRIMINAL LAW 1 (BOOK 1, RPC)

CRIMINAL LAW 2 (BOOW 2, RPC) WITH SPECIAL

RULES ON CRIMINAL PROCEDURE

PRACTICE COURT (COURT TESTIMONY)

-Charlemagne James P. Ramos

1 | P a g e QUESTIONARES for CRIMINAL LAW AND JURISPRUDENCE/Charlemagne James P. Ramos R.C.,

CRIMINAL LAW BOOK 1 (RPC)

INSTRUCTION: Read the questions very carefully befose you answer.

1. It is the forfeiture or loss of the right of the state to prosecute

2. Is the loss or forfeiture of the state to execute the sentence

3. The penalties of death and reclusion perpetua prescribe in ;

4. Light penalties shall prescribe in;

6. There is complex crime when ;

8. Is a kind of executive clemency whereby the execution of penalty is

2 | P a g e QUESTIONARES for CRIMINAL LAW AND JURISPRUDENCE/Charlemagne James P. Ramos R.C.,

9. The penalty imposed by the court upon an offender is reduced to a

10. It is an accessory penalty provided by law when the principal

12. Is a kind of a crime which is committed by a person who performs

13. It may be defined as a disposition under which a dependant after

16. A kidnapped a boy and demanded a ransom of P100,000,00 from the

17. A proposed to B that they rob a certain store, to which B agreed,

18. To be appreciated as mitigating, it must be made to person in

3 | P a g e QUESTIONARES for CRIMINAL LAW AND JURISPRUDENCE/Charlemagne James P. Ramos R.C.,

A. Voluntary surrender C. Habitually reiteration

19. This kind of aggravating circumstance is present when a person

20. In its juridical sphere, it means the suffering undergone, because

22. It means the mercy extended by the chief executive to a person

23. This allowance is deducted from the period of a prisoner's

24. It is the deduction of one-fifth (1/5) of the period of the

25. It is a sovereign act of oblivion for past acts, granted by the

26. X, Y & Z conspired to kill A. They went to the house of A. Upon

4 | P a g e QUESTIONARES for CRIMINAL LAW AND JURISPRUDENCE/Charlemagne James P. Ramos R.C.,

29. An accessory is exempt from criminal liability when the principal

30. X is chief of police in town A his son committed murder whom he

31.X is the mother of C who has just stolen jewelries worth

33. A legislative act which inflicts punishment without trial.

36. In cases of seduction, abduction and acts of lasciviousness,

5 | P a g e QUESTIONARES for CRIMINAL LAW AND JURISPRUDENCE/Charlemagne James P. Ramos R.C.,

39. In the execution of destierro, the convict shall not be permitted

41 A & B agreed to rape C they proceeded to the room of C whereupon A

43. Suppose X being a co-conspirator in the theft or robbery, sold

44. A rapes a woman and in his escape he was assisted by public

45. Suppose in the same problem, A was assisted by a private

6 | P a g e QUESTIONARES for CRIMINAL LAW AND JURISPRUDENCE/Charlemagne James P. Ramos R.C.,

C. Yes, crime committed was treason , murder , parricide, etc.

47.light offenses prescribed in:

49. Suppose in the same problem above, A reported to the police

51.The classes or different classifications or circumstances

52. A person who acts by virtue of a ___________ circumstances is

53.One who acts by virtue of an _____________ circumstance commits a

54. A shots B hitting but not mortally . So B grappled for the

7 | P a g e QUESTIONARES for CRIMINAL LAW AND JURISPRUDENCE/Charlemagne James P. Ramos R.C.,

immediately thereafter, B shot A whom he killed. Prosecuted for

55. Is the accidental killing of by-stander, while X was acting in

56. X was indebted to B when B tried to collect the indebtedness, X