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(STUDY MATERIAL FOR PROMOTION EXAMINATIONS)

PREPARED BY
TEAM SBLC, MASULIPATNAM

STATE BANK LEARNING CENTRE


MASULIPATNAM-521002
ANDHRA PRADESH
,

STATE BANK LEARNING CENTRE
MASULIPATNAM 521 002
KRISHNA DIST. ANDHRA PRADESH
Phone: 08672-250078 (AGM) 08672- 251548 (Office) FAX: 08672-251546
IP: 903191 Emai: stc.mptm@sbi.co.in

Date : 30th April, 2017

Dear colleagues,

THE WINGS-2017
A STUDY MATERIAL FOR ALL PROMOTION EXAMINATIONS

We are very happy to bring forth THE WINGS-2017, a compilation of study material
which could be of use for promotion examinations in the coming months.

2. Over the last couple of years, THE WINGS & SADHANA SERIES have become very
popular among all the career oriented employees/officials of our Bank. The Wings-2016
& Sadhana Series -2015 evoked tremendous response from the various users. The
happiest and relishing thing is that the appreciations have poured in not only from
various parts of the country but also from some of the colleagues working abroad. With
lots and lots of new users being added, there is a great demand for the release of THE
WINGS-2017.

3. A word of caution to the users of the book. While we have taken every care and
precaution in compiling the material error-free, a few mistakes might have crept in
inadvertently. Neither the Bank nor the SBLC owns up any responsibility for
controversies, if any, arising out of this compilation.

4. All the faculty members presently working at the SBLC have contributed to this effort.
The Team SBLC, Masulipatnam wishes all the users the best of luck in their endeavours
to gain more knowledge and elevation in service.

Asst General Manager


STATE BANK LEARNING CENTRE
MASULIPATNAM - 521002
KRISHNA DISTRICT - ANDHRA PRADESH

TEAM SBLC MASULIPATNAM

S.NO. NAME CELL NO. EMAIL ID @sbi.co.in

Shri. R. Krishna Murthy


1. Assistant General Manager 9866502240 k.rachapudy

Ms. Arun Jyothi


2. Chief Manager (Trg.) 8008801273 jyothi.s

Shri. A.S.R.K.K. Sarma


3. Manager (Trg.) 9989211097 akella.sarma

Shri K.Giridhar Reddy


4. Manager (Trg) 9000169123 Giridhar.kasireddy

Shri. P. Adityudu
5. Manager (Trg.) 7330778818 adityudu.p

Shri. B. Chalamaji
6. Manager (Trg) 7330778808 chalamaji_b

Shri.K. S. Prakash Rao


7. Manager (Trg) 7330778820 ks.prao

Shri. K. Bala Subramanyam


8. Administrative Officer 9704944424 k.balasubramanyam

Shri K.Rajesh Kumar karri.kumar


9. Assistant 8142717999

Ms. Y. Radhika
10. Assistant 9966615313 y.radhik

Office Phone Nos.

AGM : 08672-250078
Office : 08672-251548
Fax : 08672-251564
IP : 903191
EMAIL : stc.mptm@sbi.co.in
SBLC MASULIPATNAM THE WINGS 2017

Sitting L to R: Shri. A S R K K Sarma, Mgr (Trng), Shri. R. Krishna Murthy, AGM, Ms. Arun Jyothi, Chief Mgr (Trng)
Standing L to R: Shri. B. Chalamaj, Mgr (Trng), Shri. K S. Prakash Rao, Mgr (Trng),Shri. P. Adityudu, Mgr (Trng), Shri K. Giridhar Reddy, Mgr (Trng)

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SBLC MASULIPATNAM THE WINGS 2017

HOME LOANS

Prepared by B.Chalamaji, Manager(Training)

01. What is the minimum age to avail Home Loan SBI Home Loan Scheme?
a. 18 years b. 21 years
c. 35 years d. 40 years
02. What is the maximum age limit under SBI Home Loan Scheme?
a. 60 years b. 65 years
c. 70 years d. 75 years
03. How many co borrowers can be allowed under SBI Home Loan scheme?
a. 2 b. 3
c. 4 d. 5
04. Who can join as Co borrowers under SBI Home Loan Scheme?
a. Parents b. Spouse
c. Children d. Siblings e. All the above
05. What is maximum period for repayment of SBI Home Loan Scheme?
a. 30 years b. 30 years or 70 years whichever
is earlier
c. 35 years d. None of the above
06. What is CRE Home Loan?
a. Loan Sanctioned for b. 3rd Home Loan for purchase of
acquiring 3rd house/Plot House/Flat/Plot
c. Both a & b d. None of the above
07. How much of expected rental income can be considered for computing
maximum loan under SBI Home Loan Scheme?
a. Equivalent to NMI/NAI b. Half of the NMI/NAI
c. Not to be considered d. None of the above
08. What is the Loan to Value (LTV) ratio for Home Loan amount up to Rs.30.00
Lakhs?
a. 75% b. 80%
c. 85% d. 90%
09. What is the Loan to Value (LTV) ratio for Home Loan amount above Rs.30.00
Lakhs and upto Rs.75 Lakhs?
a. 75% b. 80%
c. 85% d. 90%
10. What is the Loan to Value (LTV) ratio for Home Loan amount above Rs.75.00
Lakhs?
a. 75% b. 80%
c. 85% d. 90%
11. Stamp Duty, Registration Charges and Documentation Charges can be
considered for calculation LTV Ratio up to Home Loan amount of Rs._____?
a. Rs. 5.00 Lakhs b. Rs.10.00 Lakhs
c. Rs.15.00 Lakhs d. Rs.20.00 Lakhs
12. What is the Maximum amount sanctioned under SBI Home Loan Scheme?
a. Permissible EMI/NMI ratio b. Maximum permissible LTV
ratio
c. Applied Loan amount d. Lower of a,b,c
e.

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SBLC MASULIPATNAM THE WINGS 2017

13. What is maximum loan amount allowed for repairs/renovation?


a. Rs. 5.00 Lakhs b. Rs.10.00 Lakhs
c. Rs.15.00 Lakhs d. Rs.20.00 Lakhs
14. Home loan may be sanctioned for reimbursement of investment made by the
borrower in house constructed/purchased during the preceding _______
months?
a. 6 months b. 12 months
c. 18 months d. 24 months
15. What is the maximum amount permitted for furnishings/interior work to the
cost of house/flat?
a. 10% of the cost of b. Rs.25 Lakhs
house/flat
c. Lower of a and b d. Not permitted
16 What is the amount to be recovered from borrower towards CERSAI
registration charges?
a. Rs.50+ST up to Home b. Rs.100+ST Home Loans
Loans Rs.5.00 Lakhs above Rs.5 Lakhs
c. Both are correct d. No charges recovered
17. What is the Risk weight on Housing loan of Rs.75 lacs where LTV ratio is 75%
a. 50% b. 75%
b. 100% c. 125%
18 What is the Risk weight on Housing loan of Rs.75 lacs where LTV ratio is 75%
under CRE Home Loans
a. 50% b. 75%
c. 100% d. 125%
19. Can execution of documents by power attorney be permitted in Home Loans?
a. Permitted to all borrowers b. Permitted for borrowers
employed in Defense
services, Paramilitary Forces
and NRIs.
c. Both are correct d. None of the above
20. TIR (Title Investigation Report) in respect of Power of Attorney (POA) Sales/
Gift Deed to be vetted by law officer. This has been recently relaxed and
opinion can be obtained from ___________ if the loan amount is up to Rs._
a. Two Bank's empanelled b. Two Bank's empanelled advocates ;
advocates ; Rs.30.00 lacs Rs.50.00 lacs
c. Two Bank's empanelled d. Two Bank's empanelled advocates ;
advocates ; Rs.75.00 lacs Rs.1.00 Crore
21. What is the validity period of Home Loan Sanctioned?
a. 3 months from date of b. 4 months from date of sanction
sanction
c. 6 months from date of d. 9 months from date of sanction
sanction
22. What is the maximum moratorium period allowed in home loans?
a. 18 months b. 24 months
c. 36 months d. 48 months
23. What is the maximum moratorium period allowed in home loans up to 7 floors?
a. 18 months b. 24 months
c. 36 months d. 48 months

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24. What is the maximum moratorium period allowed in home loans above 7 floors
but to up 14 floors?
a. 18 months b. 24 months
c. 36 months d. 48 months
25. What is the maximum moratorium period allowed in home loans above 14
floors but to up to 21 floors?
a. 18 months b. 24 months
c. 30 months d. 36 months
26. What is the maximum moratorium period allowed in home loans above
21 floors?
a. 18 months b. 24 months
c. 36 months d. 48 months
27. Which of the following is true with regard to CRE Home Loans?
a. Maximum loan tenor will be b. Exposure for the third house
25 years. onwards will be classified as a
CRE Home Loan
c. Both are correct d. Both are in correct
28. Pre-closure penalty is levied if the home loan account is pre-closed within how
many years?
a. 2 years b. 3 years
c. 5 years d. No penalty for pre closure
29. Housing loan up to _____amount is classified under priority sector advances
in Metro centres with population above 10 lakhs
a. Rs.15 Lakhs b. Rs.20 Lakhs
c. Rs.25 Lakhs d. Rs.28 Lakhs
30. Housing loan up to _____amount is classified under priority sector advances
in other centres
a. Rs.15 Lakhs b. Rs.20 Lakhs
c. Rs.25 Lakhs d. Rs.28 Lakhs
31. Recovery of interest during the moratorium period may be deferred at the
request of the borrower only if moratorium period does not exceed ____
months
a. 18 months b. 24 months
c. 36 months d. 48 months
32. No penal interest is chargeable for a Housing loan up to Rs _______
a. Rs.25000/- b. Rs.50000/-
c. Rs.100000/- d. No penal interest charged
33. What is the Penal interest charged for Home Loan irregularity exceeds EMI or
installment exceeds one month ?
a. 1.00% b. 1.50%
c. 2.00% d. 2.50%
34. What is the Risk weight on a housing loan of Rs 30 lacs where LTV ratio is
75%
a. 35% b. 50%
c. 75% d. 100%
35. How much Provisioning to be made for Home Loans categorized under
standard assets?
a. 0.40% b. 0.50%
c. 0.75% d. 1.00%

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SBLC MASULIPATNAM THE WINGS 2017

36. Under CRE home loans Provision on standard assets to be made at


a. 0.40% b. 0.50%
c. 0.75% d. 1.00%
37. The periodicity stipulated for Inspection of NPA Home loan accounts is
a. Monthly b. Quarterly
c. Half yearly d. Weekly
38. What is the permissible EMI/NMI ratio for an annual income of more than Rs
10 lacs ?
a. 50% b. 60%
c. 65% d. 70%
39. What is remuneration paid to the Home Loan Counsellors (HLCs)/Home Loan
Advisors (HLAs) limits upto Rs.25 lacs
a. 0.25% of the loan amount b. 0.30% of the loan amount
c. Rs.5000/- d. 0.15% of the loan amount , max
Rs.10000/- per proposal
40. Credit Information Report (CIR) from the following two CICs (Credit
Information Companies) for Home Loan limits above Rs 10 lacs should be
obtained.
a. Credit Information Bureau b. CRIF High Mark Credit
Limited (CIBIL) Information Services Pvt Ltd
c. Equifax Credit Information d. Experian Credit Information
Services Pvt Ltd ( ECISPL) Company of India
e. a & b
41. Panel of Valuers for valuation of Immovable Assets for fixation of Reserve
Price for enforcement of the Banks rights under the SARFAESI Act, 2002, is
approved by
a. Regional Business Office b. Local Head Office (LHO)
(RBO)
c. Administrative Office (AO) d. Executive Committee of Central
Board (ECCB)
42. Updating Security Interest over the property created is done in Central
Electronic Registry under ____________ Act.
a. B R Act b. Contract Act
c. SARFAESI Act d. SBI Act
43 Adding back of depreciation to compute Net Annual Income of the borrower
under Home Loan scheme will be ascertained on the basis of last three years
Audited Balance Sheet of business/ activity and the latest audited balance
(whichever is lower) sheet should not be older that_________
a. 3 months b. 6 months
c. 9 months d. 12 months
44. Maximum Home Loan for Repairs of a dwelling unit per family at Metro
centers with population above 10 Lacs that comes under priority sector is
a. Rs.5.00 lakhs b. Rs. 3.00 lakhs
c. Rs.8.00 lakhs d. Rs.10.00 lakhs
45. Maximum Home Loan for Repairs to damaged dwelling units per family
at Rural & Semi-urban areas that comes under priority sector is
a. Rs.3.00 lakhs b. Rs. 2.00 lakhs
c. Rs.5.00 lakhs d. Rs.6.00 lakhs
46. If an individual owns two singly or jointly, then the exposure for the third house

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SBLC MASULIPATNAM THE WINGS 2017

onwards or purchase of flat/residential plot will be treated under


a. CRE Home Loan b. SME Home Loan
c. C&I Home Loan d. Business Home Loan
47. The total number of houses/flats/residential plots under Personal Segment
Home Loans Scheme should not be more than
a. 3 b. 4
c. 5 d. No such restriction
48. While processing high value Home Loan proposals i.e. Home Loans
of , two Valuation Reports from different empanelled Valuers of
the Bank should be obtained.
a. Rs.100.00 lakhs & above b. Rs.50.00 Lakhs & above
c. Rs.75.00 lakhs & above d. Rs.25.00 lakhs & above
49. While calculating Home Loan Eligibility, Regular income from all sources
including Variable pay, performance/Production Linked Incentives,
Bonus, Overtime etc. can be considered, in whole or in part, on the
basis of the average of the last ,to arrive at the eligible loan amount.
a. One Year b. Two Years
c. Three years d. None of the above
50. In case of non-obtention of PAN, The default value suggested for CERSAI is
a. BBBBB9999A b. AAAAA9999A
c. AAAAA9999B d. BBBBB9999B
51. The interest concession for Women borrowers under Her Ghar scheme is
a. 5 bps b. 10 bps
c. 15 bps d. 20 bps
52. The best grade under Credit Scoring Model for home loan is
a. Grade 1 b. Grade10
c. Grade A d. Grade A+
53. What the minimum age for availing NRI Home Loan?
a. 18 years b. 21 years
c. 25 years d. 35 years
54. What is minimum work experience in India/ abroad to avail NRI Home Loan?
a. 1 year b. 2 years
c. 3 years d. 5 years
55. What is the minimum amount under NRI Home Loan?
a. Rs.2.00 Lakhs b. Rs.3.00 Lakhs
c. Rs.5.00 Lakhs d. None of the above
56. What is the maximum period allowed to repay NRI Home Loan?
a. 25 years or age of 60 years b. 30 years or age of 60 years
whichever is earlier whichever is earlier
c. 25 years or age of 70 years d. 30 years or age of 70 years
whichever is earlier whichever is earlier
57. SBI Realty is sanctioned for the purpose of .
a. Purchase of Residential plot b. Purchase of Plots located
located within the municipal/ outside municipal/corporation
corporation area of area will be permitted only in
Urban/Metro centres with cases where the plots are
population of 1 lakh and allotted/developed by
above for construction of Government Bodies/
house. Development Authorities such

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SBLC MASULIPATNAM THE WINGS 2017

as DDA, HUDA, BDA, LDA, etc


c. For construction of house d. Both a and b
58. What is minimum loan amount sanctioned under SBI Realty loan?
a. Rs.1.00 lakh b. Rs.5.00 Lakhs
c. Rs.10.00 lakhs d. Rs.15.00 lakhs
59. What is maximum loan amount sanctioned under SBI Realty loan?
a. Rs.5.00 Crs b. Rs.10.00 Crs
c. Rs.15.00 Crs d. Rs.20.00 Crs
60. What is maximum time stipulated for construction of house under SBI Realty
Scheme?
a. 2 years b. 3 years
c. 4 years d. 5 years
61 What is the maximum repayment period allowed under SBI Realty Scheme?
a. 5 years b. 10 years
c. 20 years d. 30 years
62. What is the Loan to Value (LTV) ratio for Realty Loan amount up to Rs.75.00
Lakhs?
a. 70% b. 80%
c. 85% d. 90%
63. What is the Loan to Value (LTV) ratio for Realty Loan amount above Rs.75.00
Lakhs?
a. 70% b. 60%
c. 80% d. 90%
64. Under SBI Realty loan, two Valuation Reports from different empanelled
Valuers of the Bank should be obtained for loan amount of Rs.
a. Rs.100.00 lakhs & above b. Rs.50.00 Lakhs & above
c. Rs.75.00 lakhs & above d. Rs.25.00 lakhs & above
65. Two title search reports, one before the loan is sanctioned and another before
disbursement of the loan should be obtained under which loan?
a. SBI Privilege b. SBI Hamara Ghar
c. SBI Realty d. None of the these
66. What is the minimum amount allowed for SBI Realty under Take over?
a. Rs. 5.00 Lakhs b. Rs.10.00 lakhs
c. Rs.20.00 lakhs d. Not permitted
67. Which facility of loan is made available under SBI Realty Loan?
a. Term Loan b. Overdraft
c. Both a & b d. Either a or b
68. How much moratorium period is allowed under SBI Realty Loan?
a. 6 months b. 12 months
c. 18 months d. No moratorium period allowed
69. To encourage the Home Loan counselors (HLCs)/Marketing Consultants
(MCs)/Marketing Associates (MAs)/Home Loan Advisors (HLAs)/SSL etc Bank
has offered additional incentive to promote RiNn Raksha product to Home
Loan customers? How much the additional payout payable?
a. Rs.1000/- b. Rs.1500/-
c. Rs.2000/- d. Rs.2500/-
70. While sourcing the Home Loan applications the sales team/sourcing personnel
are required to certify on Photo copies of KYC documents after verifying the
original documents, to strengthen mitigation process who further will also

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SBLC MASULIPATNAM THE WINGS 2017

certify on the photo copies of KYC papers at the time of execution of loan
documents?
a. Processing Official b. Documentation official
c. Controlling Official d. Any of the above officials
71 What is the name of Product in Home Loans that facilitates the borrower to
avail Home Loan in the form of Overdraft facility (reduced balancing method)?
a. SBI More gain b. SBI Maxgain
c. SBI Home gain d. SBI Flexi Home pay
72. What is the minimum balance to be maintained in SB/CA to avail SBI Maxgain
Loan? It is not applicable to customers whose salaries are regularly credited to
the account and repayments are made from the account.
a. Rs.2000/- b. Rs.3000/-
c. Rs.5000/- d. Rs.10000/-
73. What is the minimum loan under SBI Maxgain scheme?
a. Rs.5.00 Lakhs b. Rs.10.00 Lakhs
c. Rs.20.00 Lakhs d. Rs.25.00 Lakhs
74. What is the Maximum loan under SBI Maxgain scheme?
a. Rs.50.00 Lakhs b. Rs.75.00 Lakhs
c. Rs.2.00 Crores d. No upper limit
75. What are the facilities offered to the SBI Maxgain Home Loan customers after
full disbursement?
a. ATM b. ATM & INB
c. Cheque Book d. INB & Cheque book
76. Does any option available to the existing home loan borrower to convert their
existing home loans to SBI Maxgain account?
a. No b. Yes
c. Yes, but the outstanding d. None of the above
should be above Rs.20.00
lacs & A/c should be
standard
77. What is the Conversion fee for conversion of Home Loan (Term Loan) to
Maxgain facility?
a. Rs.1000/- + ST b. Rs.2000/- + ST
c. Rs.2500/- + ST d. Rs.5000/- + ST
78. Obtention of Revival Letters and Balance Confirmation Letters may
be dispensed with in case of.which are being serviced regularly
and are classified as Standard Assets.
a. Term Loan A/c in the P b. Maxgain Home Loans
Segment
c. Both a & b d. None of the above.
79. SBI home equity scheme renamed as
a. SBI Home Plus b. SBI Home Top-up
c. SBI Home Saral d. SBI Home pay
80. Name the personal loan offered to the existing Home Loan borrowers against
the security of housing unit already mortgaged?
a. SBI Home equity b. SBI Home pay
c. SBI Home Top-up d. SBI LAP
81. What is the minimum Net Annual Income to avail Home Top-up Loan?
a. Rs.2.00 Lakhs b. Rs.3.00 Lakhs

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c. Rs.5.00 Laksh d. Not required, the borrower


should satisfy EMI/NMI ratio
82. What is the minimum loan available under SBI Top-Up Loans?
a. Rs.1.00 Lacs b. Rs.5.00 Lacs
c. Rs.2.00 Lacs d. Rs.3.00 Lacs
83. What is the maximum loan under SBI Top-up loan for category -2 customers?
a. Rs.2.00 Crores b. Rs.3.00 Crores
c. Rs.4.00 Crores d. Rs.5.00 Crores
84. What is the LTV ratio in Home Top-up loans up to Rs.75 Lacs?
a. 60% b. Rs.70%
c. 75% d. Rs.80%
85. What is the LTV ratio in Home Top-up loans up to Rs.75 Lacs?
a. 60% b. Rs.70%
c. 75% d. Rs.80%
86. What is the permissible EMI/NMI ratio for Net Annual income above Rs.3.00
Lakhs and below Rs.5.00 Lakhs?
a. 50% b. 55%
c. 60% d. 70%
87. What is the permissible EMI/NMI ratio for Net Annual income above Rs.5.00
Lakhs and below Rs.10.00 Lakhs?
a. 50% b. 55%
c. 60% d. 70%
88. What is the permissible EMI/NMI ratio for Net Annual income above Rs.10.00
Lakhs?
a. 60% b. 65%
c. 70% d. 75%
89. Under which nature of facility Home top loans can be sanctioned?
a. Term Loan up to Rs.20 Lacs b. Term Loan and Overdraft for
loans above Rs.20.00 lacs and
upto Rs.2.00 Lacs
c. Term Loan for loans above d. All are correct
Rs.2.00 Crs up to Rs.5.00
Crs
90. A borrower can avail how many loans at any point of time under Home Top-up
facility?
a. One b. Two
c. Three d. No such restriction
91. When can the borrower avail send Home Top-up Loan?
a. At any time b. 2nd loan cant be sanctioned
c. One year from the date of d. Two years from the date of
disbursement of first loan disbursement of first loan.
92. What is the pre payment penalty under Home Top-up Loan?
a. 1% of the amount paid b. 2% of the amount paid
c. 2.5% of the amount paid d. No pre payment penalty levied.
93. What is the name of the product offered to purchase/construct a House/flat in
Hilly/Tribal Areas?
a. Tribal Home b. Hill Home
c. Tribal Home Plus d. Tribal Plus
94. What is the minimum & maximum age to avail the loan under Tribal Plus?

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a. 18 years & 60 years b. 21 years & 60 years


c. 30 years & 70 years d. 25 years & 65 years
95. What is the minimum service/experience required under Tribal Plus Scheme?
a. 3 years b. 4 years
c. 5 years d. 2 years
96. What is the maximum loan sanctioned under Tribal Plus Scheme?
a. Rs.10.00 Lakhs b. Rs.15.00 Lakhs
c. Rs.20.00 Lakhs d. Rs.25.00 Laksh
97. What is the maximum repayment period allowed under Tribal Plus Scheme?
a. 10 years or the borrower b. 15 years or the borrower attains
attains 65 years whichever is 65 years whichever is less
less
c. 20 years or the borrower d. 25 years or the borrower attains
attains 65 years whichever is 65 years whichever is less
less
98. What is name of the Home Loan product offered to customer for submitting
Earnest Money Deposit (EMD) to Government agencies like Housing Baords,
Urban Development Authorities to get allotment of house/plot?
a. Earnest Money Deposit b. Earnest Home Loan
Scheme
c. Earnest Home Plus d. Earnest Money Dividend
Scheme
99. What is the maximum loan sanctioned under Earnest Money Deposit (EMD)
Scheme?
a. Rs.5.00 Lakhs b. Rs.10.00 Lakhs
c. Rs.20.00 Lakhs d. Rs.25.00 Lakhs
100. The minimum income for home loan under Earnest Money Deposit Scheme is
a. Rs.50,000/- b. Rs.1,00,000/-
c. Rs.1,50,000/- d. No such stipulation
101 What is the minimum age to avail loan under Earnest Money Deposit (EMD)
Scheme?
a. 18 years with steady source b. 21 years with steady source of
of income income
c. 25 years with steady source d. 30 years with steady source of
of income income
102 The type of home loan under Earnest Money Deposit Scheme is
a. Term Loan b. Demand Loan
c. Over Draft d. Cash Credit
103 Bank has revised the loan scheme against property for any personal purpose
is called
a. SBI Loan against immovable b. SBI Personal Mortgage Loan
Property
c. SBI Loan against property d. SBI Top Up
(SBI LAP)
104 The facility of loan offered under SBI LAP (Loan against Property) is
a. Term Loan b. Overdraft
c. Either a or b d. Demand Loan
105 What is the minimum loan amount under SBI LAP (Loan against Property)
a. Rs.5 Lakhs b. Rs.10.00 Lakhs

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c. Rs.15.00 Lakhs d. Rs.20.00 Lakhs


106 SBI LAP cannot be sanctioned at..
a. Rural Area b. Semi Urban Area
c. Rural and Semi urban area d. No such restriction
population below 1 Lakh
107 What is the LTV ratio under SBI LAP (Loan Against Property) for loans up to
Rs.1.00 Cr?
a. 60% b. Rs.65%
c. 75% d. Rs.80%
108 What is the LTV ratio under SBI LAP (Loan Against Property) for loans above
Rs.1.00 Cr and up to Rs.5.00 Crs?
a. 60% b. Rs.65%
c. 75% d. Rs.80%
109 Under SBI LAP (Loan Against Property) the valuation report should not be
more than .. months
a. 2 months b. 3 months
c. 6 months d. 12 months
110 What is the income criteria under SBI LAP (Loan Against Property)
a. NMI of Rs.15,000 or b. NMI of Rs.20,000 or
Rs.1.00 Lakhs p. a. Rs.2.40 Lakhs p. a
c. NMI of Rs.25,000 or d. None of the above
Rs.3.00 Lakhs p. a
111 Which of the following document is mandatory under SBI LAP (Loan Against
Property) along with KYC documents?
a. Pass port b. PAN Card
c. Voter Id Card d. Ration Card
112 The maximum age allowed under SBI LAP (Loan Against Property) is
a. 60 years b. 65 years
c. 70 years d. 75 years
113 The maximum repayment allowed under SBI LAP (Loan Against Property)
a. 15 years b. 20 years
c. 25 years d. 15 years or expected life of
property at least 5 years more
than the loan tenor.
114 The periodicity/frequency to obtain valuation report under SBI LAP (Loan
Against Property) is.
a. 5 years b. 3 years
c. 2 years d. Not required
115 Two CICs (Credit Information Company) reports will be obtained one from
CIBIL and second report from High Mark/Other CIC under SBI LAP (Loan
Against Property) for loans above..
a. Rs.5.00 Lakhs b. Rs.10.00 Lakhs
c. Rs.20.00 Lakhs d. No such stipulation
116 Minimum CIBIL Score under SBI LAP (Loan Against Property) is
a. 700 b. 750
c. 800 d. 650
117 What are the eligible properties to be mortgaged under SBI LAP (Loan Against
Property)?
a. Open Plot b. Commercial/Industrial Property

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c. Non agricultural and d. All the above


SARFAESI compliant
residential house/flat
118 Proposals under SBI LAP (Loan Against Property) will be processed at..
a. RACPCs at BRP Centres b. RASMECs at BPR Centres
c. LPCs at all Non BPR Centres d. All are correct
119 Under reverse mortgage loan how much % of the realizable value of the
property is sanctioned?
a. 60% b. 70%
c. 90% d. 100%
120 What is the minimum amount of loan under SBI Reverse Mortgage Loan?
a. Rs.1.00 Lakh b. Rs.2.00 Lakhs
c. Rs.3.00 Lakhs d. No Minimum loan amount
121 Maximum loan that can be sanctioned under SBI Reverse Mortgage loan?
a. Rs.25.00 Lakhs b. Rs.50.00 Lakhs
c. Rs.75.00 Lakhs d. Rs.100.00 Lakhs
122 What should be the minimum residual life of property in case of single
borrower for sanction of loan under Reverse Mortgage?
a. 15 years b. 20 years
c. 25 years d. 30 years
123 What is the minimum age of the spouse when loan is sanctioned in jointly with
the spouse in the case of SBI Reverse Mortgage loan?
a. Above 55 years b. Above 58 years
c. Above 60 years d. No age restruction
124 Reverse Mortgage Loan scheme is sanctioned as.
a. Term Loan b. Demand Laon
c. Non renewable Over Draft d. Any of the above
125 Reverse Mortgage Loan Scheme is launched specifically for the benefit of ..
a. Senior Citizens b. Professional & Self employed
c. Govt Employees d. Agriculturists
126 Under Reverse Mortgage Loan Scheme the loan amount can be disbursed as
lump sum amount to ___ % of the limit
a. 25% b. 40%
c. 50% d. 60%
127 The minimum age of the borrower under Reverse Mortgage Loan Scheme is
a. Above 50 years b. Above 55 years
c. Above 58 years d. Above 60 years
128 In the case of the death of the borrower under Reverse Mortgage Loan
Scheme the outstanding will be liquidated by.
a. Selling of the House b. Legal heirs can settle the loan
c. Declared as Banks property d. (a) or (b)
129 The residual life of the property to be obtained as security under Reverse
Mortgage Loan Scheme in the case of spouse being below 60 Years of age
______ Years
a. 15 years b. 20 years
c. 25 years d. 30 years
130 The tenor of the loan under Reverse Mortgage Loan Scheme when the age of
the younger of the borrowers is between 58 and upto 68 years of age is _____
Years or till be death of the borrower (s), whichever is earlier.

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a. 10 years b. 15 years
c. 20 years d. 25 years
131 The tenor of the loan under Reverse Mortgage Loan Scheme when the age of
the younger of the borrowers is above 68 years of age is _____ Years or till be
death of the borrower (s), whichever is earlier.
a. 10 years b. 15 years
c. 20 years d. 25 years
132 Quantum of loan under Reverse Mortgage Loan Scheme is inclusive of
a. Interest for one year b. Processing charges
c. Interest till maturity of the d. None of the above
loan
133 Pre-payment penalty of the loan during the tenure of the loan under Reverse
Mortgage Loan Scheme is.
a. 0.50% of pre paid amount b. 1.00% of pre paid amount
c. 2.00% of pre paid amount d. No pre payment penalty
134 Reverse Mortgage Loan Scheme can be sanctioned by the following branches
a. RUSU Branches b. Metro/Urban Branches
c. All PBB Branches d. All branches
135 Maintenance of the properties charged for availing Reverse Mortgage Loan
Scheme lies with
a. Bank b. Borrower
c. Sharing by Bank & Customer d. Sharing by Bank & Customer 25-
50-50 75
136 Ownership of the property mortgaged for availing Reverse Mortgage Loan
Scheme is with
a. Borrower b. Bank
c. Both (a) & (b) d. None of the above
137 In case of the death of the borrower under Reverse Mortgage Loan Scheme
the legal heirs will be allowed to repay the loan within a period of
a. 3 months b. 9 months
c. 6 months d. None of the above
138 Reverse Mortgage Loan is sanctioned only if the surviving spouses are ___.
a. 2 b. 1
c. Either a or b d. None of the above.
139 Under Reverse Mortgage Loan Scheme the title holder has to make a will
superseding earlier will if any in favour of _______
a. Bank b. Spouse
c. No Need of any will d. None of the above.
140 Under Reverse Mortgage Loan, reasonable amount of time
may be provided to the legal heirs for selling the house and settlement
of the outstanding from the date the outstanding amount falls due for
repayment before initiating recovery measures.
a. up to the 3 months b. up to the 6 months
c. up to the 9 months d. up to the 12 months
141 If the outstanding of Reverse Mortgage Loan is not liquidated, then it will be
classified as a Sub-standard Asset on the....... day after the due date.
a. 90th day b. 120th day
th
c. 180 day d. 365th day
142 What are the facilities offered under SBI Reverse Mortgage Loan to Non-

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Renewable Overdraft?
a. ATM b. Cheque Book
c. Internet Banking d. No facility offered
143 Bank has introduced a new product to the Prospective Home Loan borrower to
negotiate confidently with the builder/seller or to finalize the property to be
purchased is called..
a. SBI Home Loan PAL b. SBI Home Loan HAL
c. SBI Home Loan Base d. SBI Home Loan CAL
144 SBI PAL (Pre Approved Limit) is available at
a. All Branches b. PBB branches
c. Metro/Urban Branches d. RACPCs
145 The minimum Limit Sanctioned under SBI PAL (Pre Approved Limit).
a. Rs.10.00 Lakhs b. Rs.15.00 Lakhs
c. Rs.20.00 Lakhs d. Rs.25.00 Lakhs
146 The Validity period of SBI PAL (Pre Approved Limit) is .
a. 1 month b. 2 months
c. 3 months d. 4 months
147 Name the product offered to the Home Loan borrowers for funding 100% SBI
Life premium is .
a. SBI Home Suraksha b. SBI Suraksha
c. SBI Home Life d. None of the above
148 Home Loan product offered to Salaries employees having age of 21 years and
above but below 45 years is called .
a. SBI Yuva Loan b. SBI Flexipay Home Loan
c. SBI Easy Loan d. SBI Young Home Loan
149 Minimum Loan amount under SBI Flexipay Home Loan.
a. Rs.10.00 Lakhs b. Rs.15.00 Lakhs
c. Rs.20.00 Lakhs d. None of the above
150 What is the minimum and maximum tenor of SBI Flexipay Home Loan?
a. 10 years & 30 years b. 15 years & 30 years
c. 20 years & 30 years d. 25 years & 30 years
151 The salaried applicants under SBI Felxipay Home Loan should have minimum
experience of
a. 2 years b. 3 years
c. 5 years d. No such condition
152 Facility of Loan available under SBI Felxipay Home Loan is
a. Term Loan b. Overdraft
c. Demand Loan d. Either (a) or (b)
153 Maximum start up /moratorium period allowed under SBI Felxipay Home Loan
a. 36 months for ready to move b. 36 months + construction period
in properties for under construction properties
subject to maximum period of 60
months
c. 18 months d. Either (a) or (b)
154 Ministry of Housing and Urban Poverty Alleviation (MoHUPA) has launched
Credit Linked Subsidy Scheme (CLSS) for urban area beneficiaries in
EWS/LIG category to acquire/construct a house or repair/extension of
Kucha/Semi Pucca house is called.
a. Pradhan Mantri Niwas b. Pradhan Mantri Gruh Yojana

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Yojana
c. Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana d. Pradhan Mantri Home Yojana
155 Interest Subsidy available under Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (PMAY)..
a. 5.00% b. 6.00%
c. 6.50% d. 10.00%
156 Credit linked Interest subsidy available under Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana
(PMAY) for a tenor of .
a. 10 years or actual tenor of b. 15 years or actual tenor of loan
loan whichever is lower whichever is lower
c. 20 years or actual tenor of d. 25 years or actual tenor of loan
loan whichever is lower whichever is lower
157 The credit linked subsidy available for loan amount up to Rs.
a. Rs.5.00 Lakhs b. Rs.10.00 Lakhs
c. Rs.6.00 Lakhs d. Rs.15.00 Lakhs
158 The income criteria of EWS/LIG beneficiaries under Pradhan Mantri Awas
Yojana (PMAY) is.
a. EWS households with annual b. LIC household with annual
income up to Rs.3.00 Lakhs income above Rs.3.00 Lakhs
and up to Rs.6.00 Lakhs
c. Both (a) & (b) are correct d. None of the above
159 The new Home Loan product launched for financing companies (Where the
borrower is a company) for acquiring residential units is called
a. SBI Commercial Home Loan b. SBI Corporate Home Loan
c. SBI Business Home Loan d. SBI Companys Home Loan
160 Under which segment SBI Corporate Home Loans covered?
a. SME segment b. C&I segment
c. PER segment d. Bother (a) & (b)
161 Minimum Loan under SBI Corporate Home Loans is..
a. Rs.50.00 Lakhs b. Rs.1.00 Cr
c. Rs.2.00 Crs d. No minimum stipulation
162 Maximum LTV under SBI Corporate Home Loans is .
a. 75% b. 80%
c. 85% d. 90%
163 Maximum Loan tenor under SBI Corporate Home Loans is
a. 10 years including b. 15 years including moratorium
moratorium
c. 20 years including d. 25 years including moratorium
moratorium
164 Bank has introduced Two new Home Loan Products to tap the potential after
implementation of Seventh Pay Commission. The two new products are.
a. SBI Privilege & SBI Maurya b. SBI Privilege & SBI Shaurya
c. SBI Quick & SBI Shaurya d. SBI Maurya & SBI Shaurya
165 SBI Privilege Home Loan offered to.
a. Employees of Central/State b. Employees of Central
Governments (including Governments (including PSBs,
PSBs, PSUs of Central Govt PSUs of Central Govt and other
and other individuals with individuals.
pensionable service.
c. Employees of Central/State d. Employees of Central/State

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Governments and Prof. and Governments and Business men


Self Employed
166 SBI Shaurya Home Loan offered to.
a. Defense Personnel belong to b. Defense Personnel belong to
Army Navy
c. Defense Personnel belong to d. All the above
Airforce
167 The Minimum and Maximum Loans under SBI Privilege & SBI Shaurya Home
Loans are
a. Rs.5.00 Lakhs & Rs.25.00 b. Rs.10.00 Lakhs & Rs.25.00 Crs
Crs
c. Rs. 5.00 Laksh & Rs.50.00 d. Rs.10.00 Lakhs & Rs.50.00 Crs
Crs
168 Maximum Repayment period under SBI Privilege & SBI Shaurya Home Loans
is
a. 30 years or 70 years of age b. 30 years or 75 years of age
whichever is early whichever is early
c. 25 years or 70 years of age d. 25 years or 75 years of age
whichever is early whichever is early
169 Minimum Repayment period under SBI Privilege & SBI Shaurya Home Loans
a. 60 months b. 84 months
c. 96 months d. 120 months
170 What the periodicity for registration of property in CERSAI (Central Electronic
Registry) after creation of mortgage?
a. 7 days b. 15 days
c. 21 days d. 30 days
171 The new product offered to the public with a fixed Interest option for 2 years
is
a. SBI Mera Ghar b. SBI Hamara Ghar
c. SBI Apna Ghar d. SBI Ghar
172 Maximum Loan under SBI Hamara Ghar is.
a. Rs.20.00 Lakhs b. Rs.25.00 Lakhs
c. Rs.30.00 Lakhs d. Rs.50.00 Lakhs
173 Pre payment penalty under SBI Hamara Ghar is.
a. 2%+ST if the Loan is closed b. No Pre Payment Penalty if loan
before 2 years closed after 2 years
c. Both (a) and (b) are correct d. Both (a) and (b) are wrong
174 The Loan facility available under SBI Hamara Ghar is.
a. Term Loan b. Overdraft
c. Either (a) or (b) d. Demand Loan
175 To provide hassle free finance over internet banking platform, bank has
launched new Product to the existing Home Loan borrowers against their
Home Property is
a. SBI Quick Top Up b. SBI Insta Home Top Up
c. SBI ezy Top Up d. SBI Home Top Up
176 The Eligibility Criteria to avail SBI Insta Home Top Up is.
a. Minimum HL Limit Rs.20.00 b. Minimum residual tenure of
lacs with INB facility Home Loan of 5 years &
maintaining SB Ac linked with HL

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SBLC MASULIPATNAM THE WINGS 2017

CIF
c. Satisfactory track record of 3 d. No instance of HL ac slipping to
years or more & should not RG-3 or further in the past &
have any Home Top Up CIBIL score of 700 or higher
e. All are correct
177 Minimum and Maximum Loan amount under SBI Insta Home Top Up is
a. 5% of Home Loan Limit, Min b. 10% of Home Loan Limit, Min
Rs.1.00 Lakh & Max. Rs.5.00 Rs.1.00 Lakh & Max. Rs.5.00
Lakhs Lakhs
c. 5% of Home Loan Limit, Min d. 10% of Home Loan Limit, Min
Rs.3.00 Lakh & Max. Rs.3.00 Lakh & Max. Rs.5.00
Rs.10.00 Lakhs Lakhs
178 The Loan facility available under SBI Insta Home Top Up is
a. Term Loan b. Overdraft (Reducing Drawing
Power)
c. Demand Loan d. Any of the above
179 What is the minimum Loan to Non salaried customers (Professionals/Self-
Employed/Businessmen)?
a. Rs.50,000/- b. Rs.1,00,000/-
c. Rs.3,00,000/- d. No minimum loan
180 What is the maximum Loan to Non salaried customers?
a. Rs.5.00 Crs b. Rs.20.00 Crs
c. Rs.25.00 Crs d. Rs.50.00 Crs
181 What are the authorized branches to sanction Home Loans to Non salaried
customers?
a. All Branches b. RACPCs/RASMECCs at BPR
Centres
c. LPCs at Non BPR Centres d. Both (b) & (c) are correct
182 What is the minimum Risk Grade to be obtained on a scale of 1 to 10 by Non
salaried customers to avail Home Loan?
a. Risk Grade 5 b. Risk Grade 6
c. Risk Grade 4 d. No such stipulation
183 Minimum net monthly income under SBI Flexi pay Home Loan is..
a. Rs.25000/- b. Rs.50000/-
c. Rs.75000/- d. No minimum stipulation
184 Maximum loan that can be sanctioned for repairs/renovation under NRI
Housing loan is
a. Rs.10.00 Lakhs b. Rs.5.00 Lakhs
c. Rs.15.00 Lakhs d. Not eligible for repairs/renovation
185 Who are eligible housing loans under CRGFTLIH (Credit Risk Guarantee Fund
Trust for Low Income Housing) Scheme in urban area?
a. Home Loans upto Rs. 5.00 b. Applicant is either EWS or LIG
lacs
c. The carpet area of the d. All the above
House/Flat upto 430 sqft
186 Processing fee under SBI Green Home Loan Scheme is
a. 0.25% of Loan amount b. 0.35% of Loan amount
c. 0.50% of Loan amount d. No Processing Charges
187 What is Interest Rate concession offered to the Home Loans availed by

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Women borrowers?
a. 100 bps b. 50 bps
c. 25 bps d. No Concession
188 What is the Income Tax benefit under section 80 (c) available to the Home
Loan borrowers for repayment towards principal?
a. Rs.1.00 Lakh b. Rs.1.50 Lakhs
c. Rs.2.00 Lakhs d. No such benefit
189 Can the Applicant / Co-applicants be NRI in SBI Shaurya & SBI Privilege
Home Loans?
a. No, Only Resident Indians b. Yes, Resident Indians along with
are eligible for coverage NRIs are eligible for coverage
under the schemes under the schemes
c. Both are correct d. No such condition
190 Bank has launched a New Home Loan product to meet shortfall in funds for
purchase a new home/flat is.
a. SBI Bridge Home Loan b. SBI Help Home Loan
c. SBI GAP Home Loan d. SBI Hope Home Loan

HOME LAONS- ANSWERS

1 A 2 C 3 B 4 E 5 A 6 A 7 A 8 D 9 B 10 A
11 B 12 D 13 B 14 B 15 C 16 C 17 B 18 C 19 B 20 D
21 A 22 C 23 A 24 B 25 C 26 C 27 C 28 D 29 C 30 A

31 A 32 A 33 C 34 A 35 A 36 D 37 C 38 D 39 A 40 E

41 D 42 C 43 C 44 A 45 A 46 A 47 C 48 A 49 B 50 C

51 A 52 A 53 A 54 B 55 B 56 B 57 D 58 B 59 C 60 D

61 B 62 A 63 B 64 B 65 C 66 D 67 A 68 D 69 C 70 B

71 B 72 C 73 C 74 D 75 D 76 C 77 B 78 C 79 B 80 C

81 B 82 C 83 D 84 D 85 C 86 B 87 C 88 C 89 D 90 B

91 C 92 D 93 D 94 B 95 C 96 A 97 B 98 A 99 B 100 D

101 B 102 B 103 C 104 A 105 B 106 C 107 B 108 A 109 B 110

111 B 112 C 113 D 114 B 115 B 116 A 117 C 118 D 119 C 120 C

121 D 122 B 123 B 124 C 125 A 126 C 127 D 128 D 129 C 130 B

131 A 132 C 133 D 134 D 135 B 136 A 137 C 138 B 139 B 140 B

141 A 142 D 143 A 144 D 145 A 146 C 147 B 148 B 149 C 150 D

151 A 152 A 153 D 154 C 155 C 156 B 157 C 158 C 159 B 160 D

161 B 162 A 163 B 164 B 165 A 166 D 167 D 168 B 169 A 170 D

171 B 172 C 173 C 174 A 175 B 176 E 177 A 178 B 179 A 180 D

181 D 182 B 183 D 184 A 185 D 186 D 187 B 188 B 189 A 190 A

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SBLC MASULIPATNAM THE WINGS 2017

CAR LOAN

Prepared by B.Chalamaji.B Manager (Training)

1. Car loan can be sanctioned under which of the facilities?


a) Term Loan b) Demand Loan
c) Overdraft d) Either TL or OD
2. Which of the following are eligible to apply for a car loan?
a) Salaried employees b) Professionals, self- employed
persons, businessmen
c) Agriculturists d) All the above
3. Which of the following category of car loan applicant need not submit Income Tax
Return/Form 16?
a) Salaried employees b) Professionals, self- employed
persons, businessmen
c) Agriculturists d) All the above
4. The age of a car loan applicant should be between _______
a) 18-60 years b) 21-60 years
c) 21-65 years d) 21-70 years
5. Car loan must be fully repaid before the borrower attains the age of :
a) 60 years b) 65 year
c) 70 years d) 75 years
6. The minimum Net Annual Income of ( salaried) applicant and/or co-applicant if
any, together for car loan should be ________
a) 100000 b) 120000
c) 200000 d) 250000
7. In respect of car loan applicants- Professionals, self-employed, Proprietary
/partnership firms, businessmen, the minimum Net Profit/ Gross Taxable Income
per annum as per I T Return after adding back depreciation and deducting
repayments of existing loans should be _____
a) 100000 b) 120000
c) 200000 d) 400000
8. The minimum Net Annual Income of (Agriculturists) applicant and/or co-applicant
if any, together for car loan should be________
a) 100000 b) 120000
c) 200000 d) 400000
9. Income from other sources like ______can be added for arriving at minimum Net
Annual Income of a car loan applicant.
a) Bank interest, rents b) Dividends of listed Companies
c) Agriculture income d) All the above
10. The Net Annual Income of an agriculturist car loan applicant will be arrived at
based on -------------------
a) Nature of activity b) Land holding & cropping pattern
c) Yield d) All the above

11. The maximum amount that can be granted to a salaried person is restricted to ----
------------ times of Net Monthly Income under car loan
a) 24 b) 30
c) 36 d) 48

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12. The maximum car loan amount that can be granted to Self Employed,
Professionals and businessmen etc, is restricted to ---------------- times of Net
Annual Income/Net Profit/Gross Taxable Income
a) 2 b) 2.50
c) 3 d) 4
13. For a car loan applicant having a Net Annual Income up to Rs.5 lacs, the
EMI/NMI ratio should not exceed_______
a) 50% b) 60%
c) 70% d) 75%
14. For a car loan applicant having a Net Annual Income above Rs.5 lacs and up to
Rs.10 lacs, the EMI/NMI ratio should not exceed_______
a) 55% b) 50%
c) 70% d) 75%
15. For a car loan applicant having a Net Annual Income above Rs.10 lacs, the
EMI/NMI ratio should not exceed_______
a) 50% b) 75%
c) 60% d) 60%
16. The margin for a car loan on On road Price of the vehicle would be _____
a) 5% b) 10%
c) 15% d) 25%
17. Penal interest for car loan upto Rs.25000 is charged at.
a) Nil b) 1%
c) 0.50% d) 2%
18. What is maximum repayment period allowed for a car loan?
a) 3 years b) 5 years
c) 7 years d) 10 years
19. Interest Rate in Car Loans is linked to the Score obtained in CICs (Credit
Information Companies) for Car Loan amount of Rs.
a) Rs.3.00 Lakhs and above b) Rs.4.00 Lakhs and above
c) Rs.5.00 Lakhs and above d) Rs.10.00 Lakhs and above
20. In respect of a car loan, if the irregularity exceeds EMI, for a period of------------,
then the penal interest would be charged @2% p.a. (over and above the
applicable interest rate) on the------------------- for the period of default.
a) One month/ overdue amount b) 3 months/ overdue amount
c) 3 months/ outstanding amount d) One month/ outstanding amount
21. The processing fee for a car loan is 0.50%+ST of the loan amount subject to a
minimum and maximum of ________
a) Rs.500+ST & Rs.5000+ST b) Rs.950+ST & Rs.9100+ST
c) Rs.1000+ST & Rs.5000+ST d) Rs.5000+ST & Rs.10000+ST
22. If a car application is rejected after pre-sanction survey ------- % of the Processing
Fee will be retained.
a) 25% b) 50%
c) 60% d) 75%
23. For car loan applicants other than agriculturists, I T Return/ Form 16 for the last
_______ years should be obtained.
a) One year b) 2 years
c) 3 years d) 5 years
24. Takeover of car loans will be considered selectively subject to which of the
following conditions?

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a) The vehicle is not more than 2 b) The account of the borrower with the
years old, It is a single other bank is a Standard Asset
ownership vehicle & no
insurance claim has been
availed
c) The loan should be repaid d) All the above
within 7 years from the date of
the original purchase of the
vehicle
25. Under Car Loan reimbursement will be made for the cars purchased out of own
funds, but not more than. old.
a) 3 months b) 6 months
c) 12 months d) 24 months
26. LTV for a borrower with Net Annual Income of Rs.10 lacs is
a) 85% of on Road Price b) 75% of on Road Price
c) 85% of Ex Showroom Price d) 75% of Ex Showroom Price
27. What is the pre-payment penalty for car loan?
a) 1% of outstanding b) 2% of outstanding
c) 5% of outstanding d) No penalty
28. For car dealer and sales executives, the incentive would be paid at _____ rate for
the loan applications sourced by them. (overall outer limit)
a) 2.30% of the loan amount b) 2.50% of the loan amount
c) 2.25% of the loan amount d) 2.00% of the loan amount
29. Who of the following can be appointed as Auto Loan Counselors?
a) Retired Officers of the Bank b) SBI Customers and others with
certain qualifications
c) Car Dealers d) A & b above
30. Auto Loan Counselors will be paid an incentive of _______ of the car loan
amount for the proposal sourced and sanctioned.
a) 0.10% b) 0.20%
c) 1.00% d) 2.00%
31. What is the maximum loan amount for new car loans?
a) Rs.15 lakhs b) Rs.25 lakhs
c) Rs.50 lakhs d) No ceiling
32. What is the maximum loan amount for used car loans?
a) Rs.5 lakhs b) Rs.10 lakhs
c) Rs.15 lakhs d) Rs.20 lakhs
33. What is the minimum NAI for pensioners to apply for a car loan?
a) Rs.75000/- b) Rs.250000/-
c) Rs.150000/- d) Rs.175000/-
34. What is the repayment cycle in car loans?
a) 10th of the following month for b) 20th of the following month for loans
th
loans disbursed up to 15 of the disbursed up to 16th of the month on
month on which the loan which the loan sanctioned
sanctioned
c) (a) and (b) are correct d) Coincide with the date on which
borrowers major income flow
happens.

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35. Which mode of disbursement is correct in case of car loans?


a) Direct credit into dealers b) Through RTGS/NEFT if dealer
account, if dealer maintains maintain their account with other
their account with us banks.
c) Through DD/BC d) (a) and (b) are correct
36. What types of facilities are available under SBI Combo Loan Scheme?
a) Only OD b) Composite Term Loan
c) Only TL d) Both TL & OD
37. What is the repayment period of used cars?
a) 5 Years b) 7 Years
c) 7 Years from the date of original d) 5 years from the date of original
purchase purchase.
38. The maximum car loan amount that can be granted to agriculturists is restricted to
_____________ times of Net Annual Income
a) 2 times NAI b) 4 times of NAI
c) 2.5 times NAI d) 3 times of NAI
39. The concessionary margin of 10% (loan of 90% of On-Road price) will available
in case of customers under salary package/ tie-up up to NAI of ---
a) Rs.10.00 lakhs b) Rs.15.00 lakhs
c) Rs.12.00 lakhs d) Irrespective of income amount
40. Where a check-off from the reputed employer is available the sanctioning
authority has discretion to reduce the margin by ---% in used cars financing
a) 1% b) 2%
c) 3% d) 5%
41. Pre Payment Penalty for loan sanctioned under Used Car financing
a) No Penalty b) 1.00%
c) 2.00% d) 0.50%
42. What is the Penalty for Non-Registration /Non-Hypothecation of Vehicle - If the
borrower fails to get the vehicle registered, with hypothecation charge in favour of
the Bank, within 120 days?
a) Rs.4000+ST b) Rs.5500+ST
c) Rs.6000+ST d) Rs.5000+ST
43. Periodical inspection frequency for Standard car loans
a) Quarterly b) Monthly
c) Waived after initial inspection d) Yearly
44. What is the minimum EMI/NMI percent in case of car loan applicant having NAI
up to Rs.5 lakhs?
a) 40% b) 50%
c) 55% d) 60%
45. What is the rate of concession in EMI/NMI for car loans in case of tie-ups with
reputed PSU/Corporate institutions for applicants with Net Annual Income up to
Rs.5 lakhs?
a) 40% b) 50%
c) Since withdrawn d) 70%
46. Which of the following repayment method is correct in case of car loan sanctioned
to agriculturists?
a) Half year installments b) EMI method
c) Yearly installments d) As per Agriculture Harvesting year

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47. Under SBI Combo Loan scheme, the following loans can be sanctioned at a time.
a) Car and Tractor b) 2 Cars
c) Car and 3 wheeler d) Car and Two wheeler
48. Insurance of the car should be done in the name of borrower?
a) Comprehensive insurance for b) At least 10% above loan amount
market value
c) Higher of a or b d) None of these
49. The income of the following can be clubbed with that of the applicant for a car
loan?
a) Spouse b) Father, Mother
c) Brother, sister d) Any of the above
50. How many applicants can be considered in the car loan?
a) Only 1 b) Maximum 2
c) Maximum 3 d) Maximum 4
51. What is the maximum cost of accessories to be financed?
a) 5% of the cost of vehicle b) Rs.50000/-
c) Lower of a or b d) Only a
52. What is the minimum processing charge for car loan? (----+ST)
a) 500/- b) 950/-
c) 2000/- d) 2500/-
53. What is the maximum processing charge for car loan? (----+ST)
a) 5000/- b) 9100/-
c) 15000/- d) 20000/-
54. What is the rate of processing charges for a car loan?
a) 1.00% b) 0.75%
c) 0.50% d) 0.25%
55. In the case of short-term promotional drives, the G. M. Of Network can reduce the
processing fee of car loans up to?
a) 25% b) 50%
c) 75% d) 100%
56. What is the name of the website developed by the Ministry of Road Transport &
Highways (MoRTH)?
a) Vahan.nic.in b) Vehicle.nic.in
c) Morth.nic.in d) None of the above
57. As per recent instructions, the loan tenor of a car loan can be extended up to
_______ years if interest rates on the existing loans go up and the EMIs are left
unchanged.
a) 8 years b) 9 years
c) 10 years d) 12 years
58. Who will be the borrower in case of NRI Car loan scheme?
a) Resident Indian b) NRI
c) Resident Indian & NRI d) Only NRI
59. Who will be guarantor in case of NRI Car loan scheme?
a) Resident Indian b) NRI
c) Both (a) & (b) d) NRI & employer
60. What is the percent of margin under NRI CAR loan scheme?
a) 5% b) 10%
c) 15% d) 20%

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61. The sanctioning authority of NRI car loan will have discretion to reduce margin by
_____% where check off from a reputed employer is available
a) 5% b) 10%
c) 20% d) 30%

62. What is the minimum NMI/NAI of the guarantor under NRI car loan scheme?
a) $ 500 NMI or $ 10000 NAI b) $ 1000 NMI or $ 12000 NAI
c) $ 1200 NMI or $15000 NAI d) $1500 NMI or 18000 NAI
63. How the eligible Loan amount is calculated under NRI car loan?
a) 6 times NMI or 0.5 times NAI b) 12 times NMI OR 1 time NAI
c) 18 times NMI or 1.5 times NAI d) 24 times NMI or 2 times NAI
64. What is the minimum loan amount under car loan overdraft facility
a) 3.00 lacs b) 5.00 lacs
c) 10.00 lacs d) 7.00 lacs
65. EMI of the Car Loan may be reduced once during its tenure, if the account is a
Standard Asset and the loan outstanding is at least....and
the interest rate reduction is of 1% or more.
a) Rs. 2.00 Lacs b) Rs. 3.00 Lacs
c) Rs. 4.00 Lacs d) Rs. 5.00 Lacs
66. What is NAI under High value Super Bike Loan scheme for salaried / agriculturist
/ Self-employed, Professionals, Proprietary/Partnership firms and Businessmen
a) 4 lacs b) 3 lacs
c) 6 lacs d) 5 lacs
67. The cut-off score for clear sanction under revised car loan scoring model
is...
a) 66 and above b) 76 and above
c) 85 and above d) 86 and above
68. Eligibility criteria to avail car loan by Ex-servicemen Clerical Staff are minimum 5
years service including that in Armed forces, but subject to completion of
.confirmed service in the Bank.
a) 6 months b) 1 year
c) 2 years d) 3 years
69. As per revised Car Loan Scoring Model, a loan application may be declined if its
score is ..& below
a) 65 b) 75
c) 85 d) None of the above
70. What is the minimum loan amount under High Value Super Bike Loan scheme?
a) Rs.2.00 Lakhs b) Rs.3.00 Lakhs
c) Rs.4.00 Lakhs d) Rs.5.00 Lakhs
71. The car loan product offered to our existing home loan borrowers is
a) Loyalty Car Loan b) Freedom Car Loan
c) Luxury Car Loan d) Home Car
72. Loan amount under Loyalty car Loan
a) 100% of ex showroom price b) 100% of on road price
c) 85% of ex showroom price d) 85% of on road price
73. Extension of EM not required for loans upto Rs._____ under Loyalty Car Loan
Scheme
a) 10 lacs b) 3 lacs
c) 5 lacs d) 7 lacs

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SBLC MASULIPATNAM THE WINGS 2017

74. Processing fee under Loyalty Car Loan Scheme


a) 0.50% b) 0.20%
c) 0.55% d) 0.25%
75. Loyalty car loan is applicable to home loan borrowers who have regularly repaid
the loan for ___ year after moratorium
a) 1 year b) 5 years
c) 2 years d) 3 years

76 What the maximum cost allowed towards accessories under Used Car Loan
Scheme?
a) 5% of the cost of vehicle or b) 5% of the cost of vehicle or
Rs.10000/- Rs.25000/-
c) 10% of the cost of vehicle or d) Not allowed under the scheme.
Rs.10000/-
77 The Minimum NMI/NAI under Two Wheeler Loan Scheme is.
a) Rs.6,250/- & Rs.75000/- b) Rs.10,000/- & Rs.1,20,000/-
c) Rs.12,500/- & Rs.1,50,000/- d) Rs.15,000/- & Rs.1,80,000/-
78 The Minimum and Maximum Loan Amount under Two Wheeler Loan Scheme
a) Min Rs. 10,000/-, Max : <Rs b) Min Rs. 25,000/-, Max : <Rs 3.00 lacs
3.00 lacs
c) Min Rs. 50,000/-, Max : <Rs d) Min Rs. 30,000/-, Max : <Rs 3.00 lacs
3.00 lacs
79 The Margin Stipulated under Two Wheeler Loan Scheme is.
a) 15% b) 20%
c) 25% d) No Margin required
80 Maximum repayment period under Two Wheeler Loan Scheme is.
a) 24 months b) 36 months
c) 48 months d) 60 months
81 Processing fee under Two Wheeler Loan Scheme is.
a) 0.50% + ST b) 1.00% + ST
c) 1.50% + ST d) No Processing fee for two wheelers
82 Maximum Dealer commission payable under Two Wheeler Scheme..
a) 2.50% of the loan amount b) Maximum restricted to Rs.2500/-
(inclusive of Service Tax)
c) Either (a) or (b) d) No such payment

83 What is the security need to be provided by the borrower under NRI Car Loan.
a) 20% of the Loan amount b) 35% of the Loan amount
c) Waived d) 25% of the Loan amount
84 Post disbursement inspection of vehicle must be carried out within .. from the
date of disbursement in respect of auto loans.
a) 15 days b) 30 days
c) 60 days d) 90 days
85 It was permitted in respect of car loans below Rs., to have on record,
insurance policy obtained for the 1year at the time of purchase and do away with
the practice of collecting copies of policies for subsequent renewals, if the
account remains Standard

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a) Rs.10.00 Lakhs b) Rs.20.00 Lakhs


c) Rs.15.00 Lakhs d) Copy to be obtained every year
86 CICs (Credit Information Companies) score is not applicable to the following
category while deciding Rate of Interest in Car Loans..
a) Corporate Salary Package b) Other than Corporate Salary Package
customers customers
c) Business People d) No such instructions
87 The periodicity of verifying registration details of a vehicle/car in Vahan.co.in
website within in
a) 30 days from disbursement b) re-verify the hypothecation details
each time when account slips to NPA
c) 60 days from disbursement d) Both (a) & (b)

88 In terms of extant instructions, operating units have to obtain Credit Information


Reports from two Credit Information Companies for the Car Loan .
a) Limit above Rs.3.00 Lakhs b) Limit above Rs.4.00 Lakhs
c) Limit above Rs.5.00 Lakhs d) No such instructions

89 Credit Information Companies in India at present are..


a) Credit Information Bureau b) Equifax Credit Information Services
Limited Pvt Ltd (ECISPL)
(CIBIL)
c) Experian Credit Information d) CRIF Highmark Credit e) All are correct
Company of India Ltd Information Services Pvt
(ECICIPL) Ltd
(HMCISPL)
90 Which of the following CICs report is the primary report including loans to
agriculturists for sanction of Car Loans?
a) CIBIL b) Experian
c) CRIF Highmark d) Equifax

CAR LOAN ANSWERS

1 d 2 d 3 c 4 C 5 c 6 d 7 d 8 d 9 d 10 d
11 d 12 d 13 a 14 B 15 d 16 c 17 a 18 c 19 b 20 a
21 b 22 a 23 b 24 d 25 a 26 a 27 d 28 a 29 d 30 b
31 d 32 c 33 b 34 d 35 d 36 c 37 c 38 d 39 d 40 d
41 a 42 d 43 c 44 b 45 c 46 b 47 d 48 c 49 d 50 b
51 c 52 b 53 b 54 c 55 b 56 a 57 a 58 b 59 a 60 c
61 a 62 b 63 c 64 a 65 d 66 c 67 d 68 c 69 c 70 b
71 a 72 b 73 a 74 d 75 a 76 b 77 c 78 d 79 c 80 b
81 c 82 d 83 c 84 a 85 b 86 a 87 d 88 c 89 e 90 a

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SBLC MASULIPATNAM THE WINGS 2017

EDUCATION LOANS

Prepared by B .Chalamji Manager (Training)

1 For securing Education loan which of the following documents is mandatory for
both the student and parent/guardian
a) Ration card b) PAN card
c) Passport d) Voter ID
2 Our Educational loan scheme does not cover
a) Within India b) Foreign Study
c) Distance Education d) None of the above
3 Expenses for like study tours, project work, thesis, etc. can be considered for
loan subject to the condition that these should be capped at ____ of the total
tuition fees payable for completion of the course.
a) 40% b) 35%
c) 20% d) None of the above
4 Cost of a two-wheeler upto Rs. ___________ can be included in the expenses
considered eligible for finance where the loan amount is secured by a suitable
third party guarantee and/or tangible collateral security.
a) 1,00,000/- b) 45,000/-
c) 50,000/- d) None of the above
5 Educational loan Quantum of finance____?
a) Rs.10 lacs for studies in India & b) Rs.15 lacs for studies in India &
Rs.30 lacs for studies abroad Rs.30 lacs for studies abroad
c) Rs.20 lacs for studies in India & d) None of the above
Rs.10 lacs for studies abroad
6 Borrower Margin for Education loans of above Rs.4.00 lakhs?
a) Studies in India: 10% b) Studies in India: 5%
Studies abroad: 15% Studies abroad: 15%
c) Studies in India: 10% d) None of the above
Studies abroad: 15%
7 Security for Education loan up to Rs.7.5 lakhs?
a) NIL b) Coobligation of parent(s) & No
Security
c) Third party guarantee d) None of the above
8 Which branch is identified as Nodal branch in respect of education loan for
economically weaker sections for submission of claims under the scheme
a) New Delhi Main branch b Kolkata Main branch
c) Mumbai main branch d Chennai Main branch

9 What is the repayment period under SBI student loan? After commencement of
repayment.
a) 7 years b) 15 years
c) 10 years d) 12 years
10 What is the margin in Scholar loan?
a) Up to Rs.4.00 Lakhs NIL b) Above Rs.4.00 Lakhs & Up to
Rs.7.50 Lakhs 5%
c) 15% d) Both (a) & (b) are correct

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11 What is the security for loan above Rs. 7.5 lakhs under SBI student loan?
a) Co-obligation of parents b) Tangible collateral security.
c) TPG d) Both a) & b
12 What is the rate of interest concession if full interest is repaid during moratorium
period?
a) 1% b) 1.5%
c) 1.75% d) 2.00%
13 What is the processing fee for loans up to Rs.7.5 lakhs?
a) 0.5% b) 0.75%
c) 1.00% d) Nil
14 What is the maximum loan under SBI Scholar scheme?
a) Rs.15.00 lakhs b) Rs.20.00 lakhs
c) Rs.25.00 lakhs d) Rs.30.00 lakhs
15 For availing loan under SBI Education plus the applicant must be permanent
employee with ____ years of service?
a) 1 b) 2
c) 3 d) The scheme was withdrawn
16 In SBI Scholar Loan which of the following institutions were added under List - B
a) Army Institutions b) Navy Institutions
c) Air Force Institutions d) All the above
17 The eligibility criteria for Education counselor/ agency ..
a) Should operate from his/ her b) Should have been into this business
place. Bank will not provide any for minimum 3 years
office
c) Only B d) Both (a) & (b)
18 Budged applications to be sourced by Education counselor/ agency during the
year .
a) 20 b) 30
c) 40 d) 50
19 What is the limit of Education loan that can be classified as priority sector
advance for studies in India?
a) Rs.5.00 lakhs b) Rs.10.00 lakhs
c) Rs.15.00 lakhs d) Rs.20.00 lakhs
20 What is the limit of education loan that can be classified as priority sector
advance for studies abroad?
a) Rs.10.00 lakhs b) Rs.15.00 lakhs
c) Rs.20.00 lakhs d) Rs.25.00 lakhs
21 What is the limit up to which education loans are eligible for interest subsidy
during moratorium for students from economically weaker sections with annual
gross parental/family income up to Rs.4.50 lakhs
a) Rs.2.00 lakhs b) Rs.5.00 lakhs
c) Rs.7.00 lakhs d) Rs.10.00 lakhs
22 SBI Student loan scheme is sanctioned as
a) Overdraft b) Term Loan
c) Both d) None of the above
23 What is the repayment period of education loans sanctioned to wards of staff?
a) 60 months b) 84 months
c) 108 months d) 120 months after moratorium

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24 Which of the following statements about SBI student loan is correct?


a) No qualifying marks stipulated in b) Admission through management
the last qualifying examination quota may be considered.
c) Evening courses of approved d) All of these
institutes
25 Which courses are not eligible under SBI student loan scheme?
a) Vocational training & skill b) Medical courses in USSR, China,
development study courses Nepal &other countries not
recognized by Medical council of
India.
c) Courses conducted by d) All of these
universities through distance
mode of learning.
26 What is the maximum no. of loans in a family under the scheme?
a) 1 b) 2 only
c) 3 only d) No ceiling
27 2% penal interest to be charged for loans of Rs. ---- for the overdue amount and
overdue period?
a) 2 lacs b) Above 2 lakhs
c) 4 lakhs d) Above 4 lakhs
28 Which of the following expenses can be considered for arriving at loan amount?
a) Fee payable to college/hostel b) Expenses like study tours, project
including examination fee. work, theses etc.
c) Purchase of computers d) All of these
29 What is the repayment holiday/moratorium under SBI student loan?
a) Course period + 1 year b) Course period + 6 months after
getting job
c) Course period only d) Course period+ 1 year or 6 months
after getting job whichever is earlier
30 Loan applications under SBI student loan have to be disposed off within a period
of ---- days?
a) 7 days b) 7 weeks
c) 9 days d) 15 days
31 The processing of education loan applications should be monitored by the
controllers and RACPCs on ------ basis?
a) Daily b) Weekly
c) Fortnightly d) Monthly
32 What is the maximum age limit prescribed for the students availing the loan?
a) 21 years b) 25 years
c) 30 years d) No age limit
33 Application for educational loan should not be rejected without the concurrence
of
a) BM b) AGM
c) GM d) Next higher authority.
34 No Dues Certificate need not be insisted upon as a pre-condition for
considering education loan.
a) True b) False
c) Cant Say d) None of these

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35 Loan applications received and disposed off register should be properly


maintained
a) True b) False
c) Cant Say d) None of these
36 Our branches can issue the capability certificate for the students going abroad
for higher studies
a) True b) False
c) Cant Say d) None of these
37 Government of India has formulated a scheme of providing Interest Subsidy for
Education Loans of students of Economically Weaker Sections whose
parental/family gross Annual Income is up to Rs.__________
a) Rs.1.00 lac b) Rs.2.50 lacs
c) Rs.3.00 lacs d) Rs.4.50 lacs
38 Concession in interest for girl students availing SBI student loan and SBI
Scholar loan w.e.f. 02.03.09 is
a) 1.00 % b) 0.75 %
c) No concession d) 0.50 %
39 Maximum Loan Amount for Studies Abroad is?
a) Rs 20.00 lacs b) Rs 25.00 lacs
c) Rs 30.00 lacs d) Rs 50.00 lacs
40 For the purpose of reporting Priority Sector Lending, loans up to Rs. ____ Lacs
for studies abroad will only be taken into consideration.
a) Rs.20 lakhs b) Rs.25 lakhs
c) Rs.30 lakhs d) Rs.50 lakhs
41 Under SBI Loan Scheme for Vocational Education and Training quantum of
finance for course duration up to 6 months is subject to the ceiling of
a) Rs 25,000/- b) Rs 50,000/-
c) Rs 1,00,000/- d) Rs 2,00,000/-
42 Under SBI Loan Scheme for Vocational Education and Training quantum of
finance for course duration above 6 months is subject to the ceiling of
a) Rs 50,000/- b) Rs 1,00,000/-
c) Rs 2,00,000/- d) Rs 2,50,000/-
43 The margin % stipulated under SBI Loan Scheme for Vocational Education and
Training
a) 5% b) 10%
c) 15% d) NIL
44 Moratorium Period under SBI Loan Scheme for Vocational Education and
Courses Training, of duration up to 1 year ?
a) 3 months from the completion b) 6 months from the completion of
of the course the course
c) 9 months from the completion of d) 12 months from the completion of
the course the course
45 Moratorium Period under SBI Loan Scheme for Vocational Education and
Courses Training, of duration above 1 year ?
a) 3 months from the completion of b) 6 months from the completion of
the course the course
c) 9 months from the completion of d) 12 months from the completion of
the course the course

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46 Repayment Period under SBI Loan Scheme for Vocational Education and
Courses Training, of duration up to 1 year ?
a) 3 years b) 5 years
c) 7 years d) 10 years
47 Repayment Period under SBI Loan Scheme for Vocational Education and
Courses Training, of duration above 1 year?
a) 3 years b) 5 years
c) 7 years d) 10 years
48 Under SBI Scholar Loan scheme, enhanced maximum loan limit without any
tangible collateral, for List AA, A, B and C category institutes are ________
Respectively.
a) Rs15lacs, Rs10lacs, Rs7.50 lacs b) Rs 30 lacs, Rs20lacs, Rs 20 lacs
and Rs.5 lacs and Rs.7.5 lacs
c) Rs25lacs, Rs20lacs, Rs 12.5lacs d) Rs30lacs, Rs20lacs, Rs15 lacs and
and Rs.10 lacs Rs.12 lacs
49 Under SBI Scholar Loan scheme, enhanced maximum loan limit with tangible
collateral of full value for List A and C category institutes are ____ respectively.
a) Rs15lacs and Rs7.50lacs b) Rs20lacs and Rs 10 lacs
c) Rs25lacs and Rs12.5lacs d) Rs30lacs and Rs 30 lacs
50 Maximum repayment period under SBI Scholar Loan?
a) Upto 10 years b) Upto 15 years
c) Upto 12 years d) None of the above
51 Bank has launched New Loan product under Education Loan scheme for
pursuing full time regular courses in foreign colleges/universities abroad against
the collateral security is..
a) SBI Global Ed-Vantage b) SBI Globe Ed-Vantage
c) SBI Overseas Ed-Vantage d) SBI Ed-Vantage

52 Minimum & Maximum Loan under SBI Global Ed-Vantage Loan.


a) Rs.10.00 Lakhs & Rs.1.00 Cr b) Rs.15.00 Lakhs & Rs.1.50 Crs
c) Rs.20.00 Lakhs & Rs.1.00 Cr d) Rs.20.00 Lakhs & Rs.1.50 Crs

53 Processing Fee under SBI Global Ed-Vantage Loan.


a) Rs.5,000/- per application b) Rs.7,500/- per application
c) Rs.10,000/- per application d) No Processing Fee

54 What is the margin required under SBI Global Ed-Vantage Loan.


a) 5% with each disbursement b) 10% with each disbursement
c) 15% with each disbursement d) No Margin
55 What are the security norms under SBI Global Ed-Vantage Loan.
a) 100% of loan amount for liquid b) Land /Building at 110% of loan limit
securities + simple interest during the course
and moratorium
c) Either (a) or (b) d) None of the above
56 Maximum moratorium period allowed under SBI Global Ed-Vantage Loan.
a) 24 months after completion of b) 12 months after completion of
course course
c) 6 months after completion of d) No moratorium period under this
course scheme

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57 SBI Global Ed-vantage Loan is sanctioned at..


a) All branches b) BPR Branches only
c) RACPC/RASMECC d) Only at designated branches
58 Name the trust established by Government of India through Ministry of Human
Resource Development (MoHRD) to guarantee Education Loans up to Rs.7.50
Lakhs
a) Credit Guarantee Fund for b) Credit Guarantee Fund for Skill
Education Loans (CGFEL) Development (CGFSD)
c) Credit Guarantee Fund for d) None of the above
Factoring (CGFF)
59 What is the maximum repayment period under SBI Global Ed-vantage Loan.
a) 8 years b) 10 years
c) 12 years d) 15 years
60 What is the minimum and maximum incentive payable to Education counselor/
agency on each disbursement
a) 0.25% & 2.00% b) 0.50% & 2.00%
c) 0.75% & 2.00 d) 1.00% & 2.00%

EDUCATION LOAN ANSWERS

1 b 2 c 3 c 4 c 5 a 6 b 7 a 8 c 9 b 10 d

11 b 12 a 13 d 14 d 15 d 16 a 17 d 18 d 19 b 20 a

21 d 22 b 23 d 24 d 25 d 26 d 27 d 28 d 29 a 30 d

31 b 32 d 33 d 34 a 35 a 36 a 37 d 38 d 39 c 40 a

41 b 42 b 43 d 44 b 45 d 46 a 47 b 48 b 49 d 50 b

51 a 52 d 53 c 54 b 55 c 56 c 57 d 58 a 59 d 60 c

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SBLC MASULIPATNAM THE WINGS 2017

OTHER PER SEGMENT LOANS


LOANS AGAINST BANK DEPOSITS/ SHARES/ GOLD LOANS/ NSCs

Prepared by B.Chalamaji Manager (Training)

1 How many Demand Loans can be sanctioned against same TDR/STDR within
the overall permissible amount?
a) One b) Two
c) Three d) Four
2 In special cases, the AGM/RM can permit ____ loan against the same TDR/
STDR within the overall permissible amount
a) Second b) Third
c) Fourth d) Fifth
3 The maximum amount that can be sanctioned against security of shares is
a) 5 lacs b) 20 lacs in demat form and 10
lacs for physical shares
c) 50 lacs d) No limit
4 What is the margin prescribed for advances against shares granted for the
purpose of acquiring new shares?
a) 50% b) 40%
c) 33 1/3% d) 75%
5 The maximum Gold Loan amount that can be sanctioned under SBI Personal
Gold Loan
a) Rs.1.00 lac b) Rs.5.00 lacs
c) Rs.20.00 lacs d) No limit
6 Minimum age limit for sanction of Personal Gold Loan?
a) 18 years & above b) 21 years & above
c) 25 years & above d) None of these

7 Maximum repayment period under Personal Gold Loan?


a) 36 months b) 12 months
c) 30 months d) None of these
8 Margin under Personal Gold Loan Scheme?
a) 30% b) 65%
c) 25% d) None of these
9 The loan against debentures to be liquidated within?
a) 36 months b) 30 months
c) 24 months d) None of these
10 If outstanding of loan against shares exceed Rs ______the shares should be
transferred in Banks favour
a) 20 lacs in Demat form 10 lacs b) 15 lacs
Physical
c) 20 lacs d) 25 lacs
11 Charge created on Shares/ debentures?
a) Hypothecation b) Pledge
c) Assignment d) None of these
12 The surrender value of an LIC policy is Rs 10,000/-. How much loan can be
sanctioned?

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SBLC MASULIPATNAM THE WINGS 2017

a) 9,000/- b 9,500/-
c) 10,000/- d) 5,000/-
13 How much % of face value and accrued interests of an NSC can be sanctioned
as loan
a) 50% b 60%
c) 75% d) 85%
14 Maximum repayment period of loan sanctioned against shares
a) 24 months b 30 months
c) 36 months d) 60 months
15 ____% of Face value and accrued interest can be sanctioned to staff members
while sanctioning loan against NSCs
a) 65% b) 85%
c) 75% d) 100%

PENSION LOANS:

16 For availing Pension loan maximum age should not exceed?


a) 70 years of age b) 76 years of age
c) 72 years of age d) None of these
17 Minimum loan amount under Pension loan for Pensioners & Family pensioners?
a) Rs.50,000/- b) Rs.25,000/-
c) Rs.1,00,000/- d) 10%
18 Maximum loan amount under Pension loan scheme for pensioners ?
a) 18 months Pension b) Maximum Rs.14 lacs
c) Both of the above d) None of the above
19 Maximum loan amount under Pension loan scheme for Family pensioners ?
a) 18 months Pension b) Maximum Rs.5 lacs
c) Both of the above d) None of the above
20 Maximum age limit at the time of full repayment for Pensioners & Family
pensioners ?
a) 78 years b) 80 years
c) 84 years d) None of the above
21 ____ % margin should be met by pensioner while availing a pension loan?
a) 15% b) 10%
c) 5% d No margin

XPRESS CREDIT:

22 Under Xpress Credit Loan Scheme, the maximum loan amount for School
Teachers shall be a maximum of.
a) 12 times NMI b) 24 times NMI
c) 36 times NMI d) 48 times NMI
23 Apart from PAN Verification, the Xpress Credit proposals should be processed
through LOS without any exception to ensure
a) CIBIL Defaulters b) Validation under Risk Scoring
c) De-dupe Check d) All of these

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24 Respective RM, RBO to the DGM(B&O) will certify _______ that all Control
Returns in respect of Xpress Credit Loans sanctioned by the Branches
under their control up to the end of previous month have been scrutinized and
found in order.
a) Monthly b) Bi-monthly
c) Quarterly d) Half yearly
25 Minimum NMI for sanction of Xpress Credit Loan?
a) Rs.3,000/- b) Rs.5,000/-
c) Rs.7,500/- d) Rs.10,000/-
26 Minimum & Maximum loan under Xpress Credit Term Loan?
a) Rs.24,000/- & Rs.15 lacs b) Rs.50,000/- & Rs.15 lacs
c) Rs.25,000/- & Rs.15 lacs d) None of these

27 Minimum & Maximum loan under Xpress Credit Overdraft?


a) Rs.5 lacs & Rs.15 lacs b) Rs.10 lacs & Rs.15 lacs
c) Rs.1 lac & Rs.15 lacs d) None of these
28 Maximum loan amount for Employees of Govt. Aided Schools under Xpress
Credit Scheme?
a) Maximum 6 months Gross Salary b) Maximum 12 months Net Salary
c) Maximum 12 Months Gross d) None of these
Salary
29 Minimum & Maximum repayment period under Xpress Credit Scheme?
a) 6 months & 60 months b) 12 months & 60 months
c) 24 months & 60 months d) None of the above
30 What is the periodicity and other conditions for sanction of 2nd loan under
Xpress Credit?
a) 1 year after disbursement b) 1st loan is being satisfactorily
conducted
c) More than 2 loans cannot be d) All of these
outstanding at a time
31 Prepayment penalty for Xpress Credit?
a) Rs.10,000/- b) 2% on the prepaid amount
c) 3% on the prepaid amount d) No Prepayment penalty
32 With a view to further increase our market share in the Unsecured Personal
Loans, a new product launched under Xpress Credit Loan Scheme which is
especially designed for Senior Officials working in Central/ State Governments
establishments, Quasi Government Bodies, PSUs, Defence. The Product Name
is.
a) Xpress Elite b) Xpress Delight
c) Xpress Premium d) Xpress Pride
33 The minimum Gross Monthly Income (GMI) of the employee to avail Loan under
Xpress Elite should be.
a) Rs.50,000 b) Rs.60,000
c) Rs.75,000 d) Rs.1,00,000
34 What is the Minimum and Maximum Loan under Xpress Elite Product?
a) Rs.3.00 Lakhs & Rs.20.00 Lakhs b) Rs.4.00 Lakhs & Rs.20.00 Lakhs
c) Rs.5.00 Lakhs & Rs.20.00 Lakhs d) Rs.3.00 Lakhs & Rs.15.00 Lakhs

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LOAN POLICY GUIDELINES:

35 SBIs Loan Policy is applicable to?


a) All lending b) All domestic lending
c) All foreign lending d) None of these
36 What is CRA?
a) Credit Risk Assessment b) Credit Realisation Assessment
c) Customer Risk Assessment d) None of these
37 Maturity of a Term Loan should not normally exceed?
a) 8 years b) 10 years
c) 9 years d) None of these
38 Repayment of PER Segment loans is generally on the basis of?
a) Post Dated Cheques b) Standing Instructions
c) Equated Monthly Installment d) None of these
39 Take over in respect of PER Segment loans is restricted to?
a) Housing Loans b) Car Loans
c) Both of the above d) None of these

40 During Pre-Sanction, the bank official has to visit.


a) Residence of the Borrower/ b) Work place of the Borrower/
Guarantor Guarantor
c) Actual site/ Builder in case of HL d) All of these
41 Marginal Cost of Funds based Lending Rate (MCLR) system was introduced
w.e.f.
a) 01.04.2016 b) 01.07.2016
c) 01.01.2016 d) None of these

42 Penal Interest should not be charged for priority sector loans up to?
a) Rs.50,000/- b) Rs.25,000/-
c) Rs.1,00,000/- d) None of these
43 Certain documents like Will, Mortages (other EMs) are to be witnessed by?
a) 3 persons b) 2 persons
c) 1 person d) None of these
44 Credit Information Report is used for assessment of borrowers ?
a) Past payment behaviour b) Current capability to service the
loan
c) Both of the above d) None of these

45 Account status BLANK in CIBIL report indicates?


a) The oustandings in the account b) Suit Filed
has not been written off
c) Written off d) None of these

46 Credit Information Companies in India other than CIBIL ?


a) Equifax Credit Information b) Experian Credit Information
Services Pvt. Ltd Company of India Ltd.
c) Highmark Credit Information d) All of these
Services Pvt. Ltd

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47 Bank cannot grant any loans and advances on the security of its own shares
under Section of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949.
a) 20(1) b) 20(a)
c) 20(2) d) 20(b)
48 Unconditional Cancellability clause, which gives the Bank the right to cancel the
sanctioned limit without reference to the borrower at any time
a) True b) False
c) Bank doesnt get such right d) None of the above
49 Grant of advance against NR (E) and FCNR(B) deposits would be subject to the
guidelines issued under..
a) Banking Regulation Act, 1949 b) State Bank of India Act,1955
c) RBI Act, 1934 d) Foreign Exchange Management
Act, 1999
50 Under Takeover Loans for exposure from Rs. 25 lacs and above to less than Rs.
10 crores, CRA of the borrower should be
a) SB-6 or better. b) SB-7 or better.
c) SB-5 or better. d) SB-8 or better.

OTHER P-SEGMENT LOANS - ANSWERS

1 D 2 D 3 B 4 A 5 C 6 B 7 C 8 C 9 B 10 A

11 B 12 B 13 B 14 B 15 B 16 B 17 B 18 C 19 C 20 A

21 D 22 B 23 D 24 A 25 B 26 C 27 A 28 C 29 B 30 D

31 C 32 A 33 D 34 A 35 B 36 B 37 B 38 C 39 C 40 D

41 A 42 B 43 B 44 C 45 A 46 C 47 A 48 A 49 A 50 B

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AGRICULTURE

Compiled By Shri P.Adityudu, Manager (Training)

1 D.C.B register is to be prepared as on what date every year?


A 31st May B 30th April
C 30th June D 31st July
2 Which of the following is one of SBIS initiatives under Bonding with Farmers
A Apka Gaon B Hamara Gaon
C SBI Ka Apna Gaon D Apna Gaon
3 Maximum limit under KCC is ----- Lakhs
A 15 B 20
C 75 D No Limit
4 According to The Ministry of Water Resources, What is the bench mark
percentage for exploitation of ground water in respect of white area for irrigation
purpose
A Less than 90% B Less than 70%
C Less than 80% D Less than 65%
5 SHG financing is based on which committee ?
A Kalia Committee B Narasimham Committee
C Ghosh Committee D Rangarajan Committee
6 What is the Land Holding criteria for Small Farmer ?
A 2.5 acres of Wet land and 4 B 2.5 acres of wet land and 5 acres of
acres of dry land dry land
C 4 acres of wet land and 2.5 D None of the above
acres of dry land
7 Where is ICRISAT located
A Chandigarh B Chennai
C Bangalore D Hyderabad
8 The Document AB 3 refers to what in agriculture advances ?
A Hypothecation Agreement B Gurantee Agreement
C Simp Hypothecation D Mortgage Deed
Agreement
9 Which Document is to be obtained from the Agriculture Borrower at the time of
conversion of Crop Loan to Term Loan
A AB 1 B AB 7
C AB 5 D AB 6
10 What is the validity of KCC Card as per the revised KCC Scheme guidelines
A 4 Years B 6 years
C 2 Years D 5 Years
11 As per the revised KCC scheme the limit will be stepped up by ----% for every
successive year(2nd, 3rd, 4th and 5th year)
A 10% B 20%
C 15% D 25%
12 Under the KCC Scheme, Maintenance expenses can be included in the over all
limit to a maximum extent of ----% of the original limit
A 10% B 20%
C 15% D 25%

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13 Processing Charges are waived upto what limit in Kisan Credit Card Scheme ?
A 2 lac B 1lac
C 3 lac D 5 lac
14 Personal Accident Insurance Scheme to KCC Borrowers can be covered upto
Maximum Age ?
A 70 Year B 72 Years
C 75 Years D 65 Years
15 Under PAIS to KCC Borrowers what is the ratio of fee borne by Bank & Borrower
A 1:2 B 3:1
C 1:3 D 2:1
16 What is the maximum coverage to a KCC Borrower under PAIS, who died due to
accident ?
A 50000/- B 25000/-
C 75000/- D 100000/-
17 What is the maximum premium to be paid by a KCC Borrower under PAIS ?
A Rs.5/- B Rs.15/-
C Rs.10/- D None of these
18 In which scheme Self Employed persons such as fishermen, rickshaw owner,
handloom weavers and SHGs can be sanctioned Working Capital and Term Loan
in same lines of KCC ?
A Kisan Gold Card B General Credit Card
C Swarojgar Credit Card D Kisan Sarpat Yojana
19 What is the Maximum Quantum of finance can be extended under Kisan Gold
Card Scheme ?
A Rs.10 lacs B Rs.15 lacs
C Rs. 5 lacs D Max. 5 times the annual farm
income/50% value of the land
mortgaged less term loan
outstandings/Rs. 10 lacs whichever
is less
20 What is the validity of General Credit Card ?
A 3 years B 5 years
C 4 years D 1 year
21 What is the minimum and maximum quantum of loan that can be sanctioned as a
mortgage loan to seed processing units ?
A Rs.5.00 lacs and Rs.50 lacs B Rs.50.00 lacs and Rs.100 lacs
C Rs.5.00 lacs and Rs.100 lacs D Rs.1.00 lac and Rs.50 lacs
22 What is the Margin fixed for mortgage loan to seed processing units ?
A 35% B 25%
C 20% D 50%
23 What is the maximum amount of advance that can be sanctioned under Produce
Marketing Loan Scheme ?
A Rs.10 lacs B Rs. 50 lacs
C Rs.30 lacs D Rs.15 lacs
24 What is the margin applicable for loans under PML Scheme issued by private
Warehouses ?
A 40% B 5%
C 10% D 15%

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25 What is the maximum repayment period in respect of Term Loans for Power Tillers
A 7 years B 9 years
C 5 years D 6-7 years
26 What is the Maximum Project Cost for financing of Agri Clinic and Agri Business
Centres for single agri graduate and group of agricultural graduates respectively ?
A 20 lacs, 50 lacs B 25 lacs, 50 lacs
C 25 lacs, 100 lacs D 20 lacs, 100 lacs
27 As per the Supreme Court ruling, no advance should be granted to ------- type of
agricultural activity
A Sericulture B Advances for cold storages
C Pisci culture D Brackish Water Aquaculture
28 Maximum amount can be sanctioned to a farmer under SBI Krishak Uthaan
Yojana ?
A 1 lac B 2 lac
C 0.50 lac D 1.5 lac
29 What is the maximum amount can be financed under scheme for financing Private
Cold Storage / Private Warehouses for on-lending to farmers ?
A 100 lacs B 200 lacs
C 300 lacs D 400 lacs
30 What should be the minimum capacity of cold storage to be considered for finance
under scheme for cold storage/private ware houses for on lending to farmers ?
A 2000 mt B 2500 mt
C 1000 mt D 5000 mt
31 What is the minimum land criteria for financing a self propelled Combine Harvestor
A 8 Acres Irrigated land B 6 Acres Irrigated land
C 4 Acres Irrigated land D 2 Acres Irrigated land
32 What should be the minimum usage per annum for Combine Harvestor to become
a viable project, for finance ?
A 500 hrs B 1500 hrs
C 2000 hrs D 1000 hrs
33 Which type of Alternate Channel product is being provided to KCC Borrower ?
A State Bank Gift Card B Green Remit Card
C State Bank Kisan Card D State Bank Credit Card
34 What is the minimum land holding should a borrower possess to become eligible
for finance under Modified New Tractor Loan Scheme ?
A 4 Acre B 2 Acre
C 1.5 Acre D 1 Acre
35 What is the maximum repayment period under Modified New Tractor Loan
Scheme ?"
A 5 years B 9 years
C 7 years D 6 years
36 What is the maximum limit/limits for waiver of collateral security as per the revised
KCC Scheme ?
A 3 lacs B 1 lac
C 2 lacs D 1 lacs and 3 lacs with tie-up
arrangement
37 What Flexible Limit can be sanctioned to KCC borrowers, to meet post harvest
expenses, consumption needs, storage cost and small means of investment etc as
per the revised KCC Scheme for marginal farmers

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A Rs. 10000/- B Rs.50000/-


C Rs.10000/- to Rs.50000/- D None of the above
38 RBI has directed the banks that the shortfall in Agricultural credit of 18% and
shortfall in priority sector lending target of 40% should be invested in
A RBI B RIDF
C PM's Relief Fund D Agriculture Development Fund
39 What is the Bank's reward and recognition scheme to reward the officers who
have excelled in Agri Business
A The Achiever Award B Green Channel Program for
Excellence
C The Gold Crown D The Silver Crown
40 What is the maximum loan amount can be financed to a Dairy unit under New
Dairy Product under tie-up ?
A 1 lacs B 2 lacs
C 3 lacs D 10 lacs
41 What is the maximum repayment period for a Dairy unit under New Dairy Product
under tie-up ?
A 7 yrs with I month Morotorium B 5 yrs with I month morotorium
C 3 yrs with I month morotorium D 4 yrs with I month morotorium
42 What should be maximum age for a borrower to get a finance under Dairy Plus ?
A Below 65 years B Below 70 years
C Below 60 years D No age limit
43 For a big dairy unit of 10 animals and above applicant should own ----- acres of
land
A 1.5 acre B 2 acre
C 1 acre for every 5 animals D None of the above
44 No. of persons in a SHG shall not be more than ------- members ?
A 20 B 10
C 25 D No limit
45 Maximum Credit Limit permissible to an SHG under SHG Credit Card Scheme?
A 10 times of corpus B 8 times of corpurs
C 6 times of corpurs D Rs. 500000/-
46 What is the validity of SHG Credit Card ?
A 1 year B 5 years
C 2 years D 3 years
47 What is the minimum limit amount as per the SHG Gold Card ?
A 1 lac B 2 lac
C 3 lac D 0.50 lac
48 What is the maximum sub limit amount can be financed for purchasing a Bulk
Chilling Unit for a dairy society under Dairy Plus Society scheme
A 2 lac B 3 lac
C 4 lac D 1 lac
49 What is the minimum DSCR to sanction a loan under dairy plus scheme ?
A 2:1 B 1.75:1
C 2.5:1 D None of the above

50 What is the maximum loan amount under SHG finance ?


A 4 times the corpus or savings B 8 times the corpus or savings
C 6 times the corpus/savings D 10 times the corpus or saviangs

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51 What should be the collateral value in respect of an agricultural gold loan ?


A 110% of advance value B 125% of advance value
C 100% advance value D 150% of advance value
52 Agri OCAS has been rolled out for the following Products of the bank
A KCC, PML B KCC, PML, Tractor Loan
C KCC, PML, Tractor Loan,Power D KCC, PML, Tractor Loan,Power
Tiller Tiller, Combine Harvestor & Pump
Set
53 Crop insurance is required to be done compulsorily for -----
A Compulsory for all crops B Not compulsory
C Compulsory for all notified crops D Only Small and M.F crops
54 SBI Krishak Uthaan Youjana aims to provide short term production and
consumption credit to-----
A Small and Marginal Farmers B Agriculture Labour
who own agri land
C Tenant farmers, oral lessees D None of the above
and share croppers
55 What is the margin required for Stree shakti tractor loan with and without collateral.
A Only tractor 25%, For tractor B Only tractor 50%, For tractor and
and implements: 25% implements: 50%
C Only tractor 25%, For tractor D Only tractor 25%, For tractor and
and implements: 25% / 50% implements: 50%
56 What is the minimum hours of work per annum required to get finance under
Tractor Loan Scheme ?
A 600 hours B 800 hours
C 1000 hours D 500 hours
57 Instead of obtaining No dues Certificate _______________from the borrower in
respect of KCC/ACC loans will be obtained.
A CERSAI registration B Letter from Revenue Authorities
C Search Report of the land. D self declaration
58 Margin under AgriAsset Backed Loan is
A 10% - 15% B 20% - 25%
C 5% to 10% D Nil Margin
59 What is the periodicity for inspection of a Irregular Tractor Loan account
A Quarterly B Half Yearly
C Monthly D Annually
60 Combined marks scored under Hiring potential + percentage of income from allied
activities in Tractor scoring model will determine the repayment schedule as:
A Below 5 marks Montly B 6-10 marks Montly Rs.1000/- per
Rs.1000/- per lakh of loan lakh of loan outstanding to service
outstanding to service interest interest plus principal in quarterly
plus principal at Half yearly intervals
intervals
C 11-14 marks Montly EMI D All the above.
covering principal + Interest

61 What is the name of Bank's Scheme for financing Commission Agents who
support the farmers to meet their needs at the time of harvest ?

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A Artisan Credit Card B Arthias Plus


C General Credit Card D None of the above
62 What is the maximum loan limit that can be sanctioned under Arthias Plus Scheme
A Rs. 50 lacs B Rs. 25 lacs
C Rs. 20 lacs D Rs. 10 lacs
63 What is the margin for Arthias Plus ?
A 25% B 40%
C 50% D 15%
64 SHG Linkage is of how many types ?
A Three B Two
C Four D One
65 What is the document executed by Authorised representatives of SHG while
financing an SHG ?
A Hypothecation Agreement B Guarantee Agreement
C Inter Se Agreement D Articles of Agreement
66 What is the document executed by all the group members of SHG while financing
SHG ?
A Hypothecation Agreement B Guarantee Agreement
C Inter Se Agreement D Articles of Agreement
67 Inspection Charges on SHG Loans is ______
A Rs. 75 per lac B Rs. 100 per lac
C 50% of the normal rate D Rs.150 per lac
68 Under SHGs Financing Scheme of Schedule Tribes the max amount of Rs.-------
per member subject to a max. limit of Rs. 5.00 lac per group
A 35000 B 50000
C 25000 D 75000
69 Under SHGs Financing Scheme of Scheduled Tribes (Refinance by NSTFDC)
Bank will charge 6% p.a interest (Fixed) on reducing balance on SHG Loan
accounts and the NSTDFC will charge ------p.a on funds released to the Bank as
100%
A 5 B 4
C 3 D 2
70 As per the revised guidelines Interest subvention entry has to be passed on last
working day of each -------------- without fail.
A Quarterly B Half Yearly
C Yearly D Monthly
71 In the revised scoring model maximum no. of marks are given to which parameter
A Hiring Potential B Social Status
C Cropping Pattern D Perennial Source of Irrgiation
72 Financing of both Working Capital and Term Loan simultaneously is called as?
A Loan Syndication B Composite Loan
C Combined Loan D Loan Syndication
73 While financing for crop production in Agriculture the amount of finance per acre is
called as ?
A Working Capital Finance B Crop Finance
C Scale of Finance D None of the above
74 Scale of Finance i.e., amount we sanction per acre under KCC is decided by ?
A NABARAD B RBI
C AGM of the Region D District Level Technical Committee

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75 The limit in KCC depends on the following


A Farmer, Area, Crop B Farmer, Security, Cropping
C Operational Land Holding, D None of the above
Cropping Pattern, Scale of
Finance
76 In KCC consumption credit is calculated on the following
A Crop Production Limits B Total Limit Sanctioned
C On allied production needs D On total production needs
77 Minimum Loan under Agri Asset Backed Loan is ?
A 3.00 lac B 1.00 lac
C 5.00 lac D 2.00 lac
78 The Primary Security in case of KCC is
A Hypothecation of Standing B D P Note
Crops
C Charge on Land D Mortgage of Land
79 Maximum Loan under Agri Asset Backed Loan is?
A Rs.500 lacs B Rs.200 lacs
C Rs.300 lacs D No Ceiling
80 Crop insurance is applicable to which crops ?
A All crops B Cereals only
C Pulses D Crops as decided by GOI for each
district and for each season
81 Crop Insurance should be covered by ------
A Month wise B Monthwise , Crop wise
C Monthwise, Crop wise, and D Month, Mandal Village and
Mandal wise SF/Big Farmer wise

82 What is the Processing fee on the Agri Asset Backed Loan


A 1% of the Limit B 0.75% of the Limit
C 0.50% of the Limit D 1.50% of the Limit
83 KCC is sanctioned for the following purposes
A Crop production needs B Allied Production needs
C Miscellaneous needs D All the above

84 In contract Farming with the Tie Up Arrangement obtention of collateral security is


waived upto Rs.-------
A 2 lacs B 1 lac
C 3 lacs D 5 lacs
85 In Agricultural Term Loans, collateral is waived upto a limit of Rs.
A 5 lac B 3 lac
C 2 lac D 1lac
86 In Agriculture Term Loans where movable assets are not created out of bank
finance what is the limit above which collateral security is obtained ?
A 1 lac B 0.20 lac
C 0.50 lac D 2.00 lac
87 In Kisan Gold Card (KGC) how many number of loans can be sanctioned to a
single borrower ?
A 3 B 4
C 5 D 6

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88 In personal accident insurance what is the time limit within which the nominee of
the injured has to report to the concerned bank ?
A With in 1 week B Within 10 days
C Within 15 days D Within 30days
89 The corpus fund in SHG does not include the following ?
A Cash in Hand B Bank Loan
C Cash in their Savings Account D Internal Loan outstanding with the
borrowers
90 Government of India is providing Interest Subvention to Short term agriculture
advances to
A Only commercial banks B Commercial banks, RRBs
C Commercial Banks, RRBs, and D None of the above.
Cooperative Banks
91 In Agriculture Cash Credit interest @7% is charged upto a limit of Rs.
A 1 lakh B 3 lakh
C 5akh D 2 lakh
92 RIDF stands for
A Rural India Development Fund B Rural Integrated Deposit Fund
C Rural Industrial Development D Rural Infrastructure Development
Fund Fund
93 NABARD prepares --------plan taking into consideration the potentials available in
the district before preparing the annual credit plan ?
A Potential Credit Plan B Annual Credit Plan
C Service Area Credit Plan D Potential Linked Credit Plan
94 Inspection charges for advances to weaker sections ?
A No charges B 25% of actual charges
C 75% actual charges D 50% of actual charges
95 In agriculture advances, detailed opinion is compiled on borrowers whose
aggregate credit limits are more than Rs.
A 2 lac B 3 lac
C 0.50 lac D 0.25 lac
96 AB1 Simple Documentation is obtained for borrowers whose limits are -------
A Upto 0.50 lac B Upto 2 lac
C Upto 1 lac D Upto 3 lac
97 The minimum amount in KCC for take over -------
A 1 lac B 2 lac
C 3 lac D 5 lac
98 Demand Collection Balance Register is maintained for
A CC & ACC accounts B KCC Accounts
C ATL Accounts D ACC/KCC/ATL accounts
99 What is meant by mixed farming ?
A Growing more than 1 crop B Growing crops on community basis
C Growing crops and allied D None of the above
activities
100 In Agricultuer, Document AB 6 refers to
A Revival Letter - borrower B Revival Letter Gurantor
C Guarantee Deed D Letter sent to Borrower by Bank if
the loan is not repaid on due date

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101 Stamp duty for AB 1 in case of agriculture cash credit where the loan is secured
by mortgage crop is --------% of loan amount or maximum
A 0.5% B 0.6%
C 2% D 2.%
102 Annewari indicates
A Cropping pattern B Rainfall
C Land Cess D The extent to which crops are
damaged due to natural calamity
103 What does AB 4 refer to ?
A Notice to Borrower B Notice to Guarnator
C Revival Letter - Borrower D Revival Letter - Guarantor
104 Which segmental advances will be covered under Differential Interest Rate
Scheme 1971
A SSI B SBF
C Agri D All of these
105 What is the annual family income criteria for Urban and Semi Urban areas to
become eligible for finance under DIR Scheme ?
A Rs.40,000/- B Rs.24,000
C Rs.30,000/- D None of these
106 What is the annual family income criteria for Rural area, to become eligible for
finance under DIR Scheme ?
A Rs.20,000/- B Rs.22,000/-
C Rs.18,000/- D Rs.25,000/-

107 What is the revised or enhanced loan ceiling under DIR Scheme ?
A Rs.15,000/- B Rs.25,000/-
C Rs 20,000/- D Rs. 6,500/-

108 What is the revised loan ceiling for housing under DIR Scheme ?
A Rs.24,000/- B Rs.20,000/-
C Rs.25,000/- D Rs.26,000/-

109 What is the ROI and Margin respectively under DIR Scheme ?
A 3% , 10% B 4%, 15%
C 4%, 5% D 4%, nil
110 The Banks are required to lend under DIR at least ----% of the total credit as at the
end of the previous year.
A 18% B 40%
C 24% D 1%
111 What is the loan maximum loan repayment tenor under DIR ?
A 3 years B 4 years
C 5 years D 2 years
112 What is the criterion for land holding irrigated and non irrigated respectively to
become eligible for finance under DIR scheme ?
A Not to exceed 1 acre of irrigated B Not to exceed 2 acre of irrigated
and 2.5 Acres of Non irrigated and 5 Acres of Non irrigated land
land
C No such ceiling D None of these

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113 What is the criterion for land holding irrigated and non irrigated respectively for
SC/ST community farmers to become eligible for finance under DIR scheme ?
A Not to exceed 1 acre of irrigated B Not to exceed 0.5 acre of irrigated
and 2.5 Acres of Non irrigated and 1.25 Acres of Non irrigated land
land
C No such ceiling D None of these

114 What is the full form of PMEGP ?


A Prime Ministers Education B Prime Ministers Environment
Guarantee Proramme Guarantee Plan
C Prime Ministers Employment D None of these
Guarantee Programme

115 What is the single national level nodal implementation agency for PMEGP ?
A NREGS B PMRY
C KVIC D NHB

116 As per the Scheme of Capital Investment Subsidy Scheme for commercial
production units of organic inputs, out of three components what was the
component that was withdrawn from the scheme w.e.f 11/8/2010 ?
A Fruit and vegetable waste B Vermi Hatcheries
compost production unit
C Biofertilizers and Biopesticides D None of these
production units
117 What is the subsidy provided for Fruit and vegetable waste compost production
unit by the NABARD under the above Scheme ?
A 33% of capital cost max. 60 lakh B 33% of capital cost max. 40 lakh
C 25% of capital cost max. 60 D 25% of capital cost max. 60 lakh
lakh
118 What is the subsidy provided for Bio Fertilizers/Bio Pesticides unit by the NABARD
under the above Scheme ?
A 33% of capital cost max. 60 B 25 % of capital cost max. 40 lakh
lakh
C 25% of capital cost max. 60 D 25% of capital cost max. 60 lakh
lakh
119 What is the implementing agency under the above scheme ?
A National Centre of Organic B NABARD
Farming
C National Horticulture Board D Central Government of India
120 As per the finance under Capital Investment Subsidy for Construction /
Renovation of Rural Godown what is the project cost for godowns upto 1000mt
A Project cost as appraised by B Project cost as appraised by
financing Bank or actual cost of financing Bank or actual cost of
Rs.3500/- per MT of storage Rs.2500/- per MT of storage
capacity, whichever is lower capacity, whichever is lower
C Project cost as appraised by D Project cost as appraised by
financing Bank or actual cost of financing Bank or actual cost of
Rs.5000/- per MT of storage Rs.3000/- per MT of storage
capacity, whichever is lower capacity, whichever is lower

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121 What is the ceiling on maximum subsidy in any category for the finance under the
scheme Capital Investment Subsidy for Cosntruction/Renovation of Rural
Godowns ?
A Rs. 2 Crore B Rs.2.25 Crore
C Rs.1.35 Crore D Rs. 3 crore
122 What is the eligible DSCR to get finance under New Tractor Loan Scheme ?
A 1.75 : 1 B 1.5 : 1
C 2:1 D 2.25 : 1
123 What is the IT platform used for issuing State Bank Kisan Card for usage through
ATM and POS ?
A RuPay B Verisign
C Maestro D Visa
124 What is the Margin on market value of gold to be retained in case of Agriculture
Gold Loans ?
A 20% B 25%
C 30% D 35%
125 Branch should obtain a certificate from a local jeweler for the loans above the limit
---------?
A Rs.50000/- B Rs.100000/-
C Rs.75000/- D Irrespective of the limit
126 The existing schemes under tractor finance are as follows.
A Modified New tractor loans B New tractor loans scheme and
scheme, Stree shakti(SSTL) Stree shakti(SSTL)
And Tatkal Tractor Scheme
C Modified New tractor loans D None of the above
scheme,Stree shakti(SSTL) and
Scoring model scheme.

127 What is Green Power?


A Scheme to donate solar street B Villages having recovery of 50% or
lights to villages with excellent more should be selected.
track record of recovery of Agri
NPAs.
C Each RBO to select 3 to 5 best D All of these.
villages in their area.
128 Limits sanctioned to dealers/sellers of fertilizers, pesticides, seeds, cattle feed,
poultry feed , agricultural implements and other inputs is.
A Rs.5.00 crores. B Rs.1.00 crore.
C Rs.50 lacs. D None of these.
129 Kharif season is from______ to ______.
A April to September. B January to June.
C October to March. D July to December.
130 Rabi season is from______to________.
A April to September. B January to June.
C October to March. D July to December.
131 Apiculture is________cultivation.
A Bee keeping B Mushroom
C Mulbery D None of these

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132 Silviculture relates to___________.


A Bee keeping B Sericulture
C Floriculture. D Forest tree cultivation
133 Pisci culture relates to___________
A Rearing of silk worm B Food grain production
C Fish farming D Mushroom cultivation
134 Aqua culture relates to___________
A Prawn / Shrimp production B Floriculture
C Bee keeping D Mushroom
135 Vermiculture relates to__________
A Fish farming B Rearing of earthworms
C Prawn / Shrimp production D Forest tree cultivation
136 Seri culture relates to____________
A Bee keeping B Rubber producion
C Rearing of Silk worms D Mushroom cultivation
137 Minimum and maximum limit under KCC is Rs._____ and Rs._______.
A No Miminum ceiling, B 1000, No upper ceiling
No upper ceiling
C 1000, Rs.3.00 lacs D None of these.
138 KCC is valid for ________ years.
A 1 B 3
C 5 D 2
139 CC SHG is valid for a maximum period of______years
A 3 B 5
C 1 D 10
140 Inter cropping means.
A Cultivation of crops once in B Cultivation of crops dairy farming.
along with two years.
C Cultivation of shrot duration D None of the above.
crops between the rows of
main crop.
141 Service Area is applicable for_________.
A All agricultural loans B Only for crop loans
C Only for Government D Only for Agricultural Term-loans
sponsored schemes
142 Green revolution relates to ___________.
A Paddy B Grass production
C Food-grains production. D Dairy farming
143 Trail Netting techniques is employed in________.
A Pisciculture B Tissue culture
C Moriculture D Dairy finance
144 Brown revolution relates to____________.
A Cocoa production B Rubber production
C Wheat producton D Paddy production
145 Black revolution relates to_____________.
A Black water B Rubber production
C Oil seed production D Forest tree production

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146 Blue revolution relates to______________.


A Fish farming B Sea water
C Rain water harvesting D None of these
147 Under Minor irrigation, the spacing norms between two bore wells is?
A 250 meters B 180 meters
C 215 meters D None of these.
148 No fresh minor irrigation loan can be sanctioned in
A Green area B Dark area
C Grey area D White area
149 White revolution relates to___________
A Milk production B Rain water harvesting
C Fish farming D Prawn cultivation
150 Yellow revolution relates to__________
A Milk production B Flower production
C Oil seed production D Rubber production.
151 An area is grey block where the underground water exploitation is more
than______% but up to __________%
A 50, 50 B 60, 70
C 70, 90 D 50, 75
152 Underground water exploitation not more than____% is called white block.
A 50 B 25
C 10 D 70
153 Broiler farming means__________
A Rearing of layers B Rearing of ducks
C Poultry farming for meat D Meat
154 Performance test report for tractors, combine harvesters and power tillers should
be obtained by the manufacturers from
A Dealer B Manufacturer
C Central Farm Machinery D RBI
Training & Testing Institute,
Budni(M.P) / Hissar (Haryana)
155 Small farmer means a person who is having
A Up to 5 acres of dry land or 2.5 B 10 acres of dry land
acres of wet land.
C 2.5 acres of dry land D 5 acres of wet land
156 A Person having agricultural income has to produce ______ form No for
depositing cash into a deposit account, as per IT rules.
A 60 B 61
C 50 D 54
157 Marginal farmer is a person having
A 5 acres of wet land B Up to 1.25 acres of wet land & up to
2.5 acres of dry land
C Up to 2.25 acres of wet land & D None of these
up to 5 acres of dry land.
158 Agriculture labourer means
A Person having up to 0.5 acres B Has home stead
C More than 50% of the income D All of these.
is from agricultural wages

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159 Debeaking relates to________


A Sheep rearing B Poultry
C Fisheries D Duck rearing
160 Of the Bank's Net Bank Credit _______ % should go to agricultural sector.
A 40% B 18%
C 10% D 20%
161 BC CSPs should be visited by the Branch Manager or the designated official such
as RMRO/FO of the linked branch as per the following periodicity
A Monthly every CSP irrespective B On a weekly basis on a prefixed day
of geography(M/ U / SU /R) in FI Villages with population above
with population below 2000 2000
population, to be visited once a
week
C Only A D Both A & B
162 BC CSPs should be visited by the Branch Manager or the designated official such
as RMRO/FO of the linked branch and recorded through online portal
A http://10.2.210.248/CSPVisits B http://10.4.248.245/CSPVisits/Login.
aspx
C http://10.4.248.245/CSPVisits D none of the above
163 BCs should submit the following with the MOU to mitigate the operational risks
through BC channel.
A BCP B DRP
C Both D Locking up arrangement
164 The Account opening forms of small accounts opened at branches with product
code 1011-1601 need not be sent to
A RCPC B LCPC as in the case of BC
accounts
C Both A & B D None of the above
165 Boom Heen Kissan scheme is related to
A Financing to Joint Laiablility B Financing KCC borrowers
groups
C Financing self employed D Rural poor
166 Under Boom Heen Kissan scheme the JLG members should be between
A 5-10 B 10-20
C 4-10 D 2-10
167 Under Boom Heen Kissan scheme the maximum finance per member of the
JLG is
A Rs.25,000/- B Rs.50,000/-
C Rs. 1,00,000/- D Rs.75,000/-
168 The objective of Boom Heen Kissan scheme is
A Credit to landless farmers B Credit to poor with atleast 1 acre of
cultivating land as: tenant agricultural land.
farmers, oral lessees or share
croppers and small/marginal
farmers as well as other poor
individuals taking up farm
activities,off-farm activities and
non-farm activities
C Only B D None of the above.

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169 The full form of MDBTL is


A Modified Direct Benefit B Modified Direct Benefit Transfer
Transaction limited limited
C Modified Direct Benefit D None of the above.
Transfer for LPG scheme
170 Under the MDBTL scheme the payment of LPG subsidy can be made by
A Aadhar linked Bank account of B Bank accounts linked to LPG ID of
the LPG consumer the LPG consumer.
C Either of them D Only A
171 In CBS from 15.12.2014 the LPG ID can be linked
A Yes B No
C Only B D None of these.
172 Issue of Rupay debit cards with 1 lac accidential insuracne cover to Financial
Inclusion customers including
A Agriculturists B Minors
C Except Minors D None of the above
173 Agri Gold loans and KCCs where interest subvention is given, the Bank has to
finance as per
A Scale of finance B Area of extent
C Both A & B D Only B
174 Swarna Dhara Agri Gold loan Campaign includes the following
A Agri Gold loans with B Multi purpose Agri Gold loans
subvention without interest subvention
C PER Gold loans D Both A & B
175 Full form of RML the SMS based agri advisor for farmer and trader is
A Reuters Market light B Reporter Market Loader
C Rural Market level D None of the above.
176 Under Credit Scoring Model in Agri loans after the roll out of Agri LOS.
A 71 and above are considered B 26 and above but upto 70 may be
good loans considered after credit
enhancement or referred to next
higher authority
C Applications with credit scoring D All of the above
of 25 and below should not be
sanctioned.
177 The four models of Credit Scoring Model in Agri loans are
A Crop Loans Model Crop Loans, B Dairy and Poultry Loans Model /
Irrigation, Land Development / Horticulture and Plantation Crop
Tractor Loans and other Farm Loan Model
Mechanisation Model
C Both A & B D Only A
178 7% interest subvention loans to Women SHGs under
A National Rural Livelihoods B Govt scheme
Mission scheme(NRLM)
C IRDA scheme D PMEGP scheme
179 Full form of PMJDY is
A Pradhan Mantri Joint B Pradhan Mulk Jan Dhan Yojana
Development Yojana
C Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan D None of these

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yojana
180 Sanction/ Renewal of KCC/ ACC Accounts for raising crops
A Option to adopt SLBC/ DLTC B Only Common repayment due
recommended repayment due dates: 31st Jan for Kharif and 31st
dates or common repayment July for Rabi. 31st July for multiple
due dates crops
C Only B D None of the above.
181 NAIS was replaced w.e.f 01.11.2013 with
A NCIP B WBIS
C AIC D None of the above
182 The full form of NCIP is
A National corporation for B National Crop Insurance
insurance Payment Programme
C National Crop Insurance D None of the above
Payment scheme
183 Campaign for Deposit mobilization through BC channel
A Lakshya 2000 B Lakshya 5000
C Lakshya 7000 D Lakshya 3000
184 Krishi Plus II campaing is related to
A Financing Agri loans to farmers B Financing Agri loans to farmers
having 3 years good track having 3 years good track recored
recored and upto Rs.l lac. and upto Rs.3 lac.
C Only B D None of the above.
185 Nomination for Gold loans
A Not available to loans even B Available
Gold loans
C Only B D None of the above
186 For Tatkal Tractor loan
A Mortgage of Agri land upto 2 B Mortgage of Agri land of 4 acres
acres
C Mortgage of Agri land upto 6 D It is a Mortgage free loan.
acres
187 The definition of High networth farmers in Tatkal tractor loan
A Farmers who score 61 & above B Farmers who score 71 & above
score under Tractor scoring score under Tractor scoring model.
model.
C Farmers who score 56 & above D Farmers who score 76 & above
score under Tractor scoring score under Tractor scoring model.
model.
188 Eligibility of land holding under Tatkal tractor loan scheme
A All farmers-Individual / joint B All farmers-Individual /joint
borrowers who are owner borrowers who are owner cultivators
cultivators having minimum 4 having minimum 8 acres of land.
acres of land.
C All farmers-Individual / joint D All farmers-Individual / joint
borrowers who are owner borrowers who are owner cultivators
cultivators having minimum 2 having minimum 6acres of land.
acres of land.

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189 Maximum loan amount under Tatkal Tractor loan scheme


A 75% (Tractor B 100% (Tractor
cost+Insurance+Registration cost+Insurance+Registration
charges) charges)
C 90% (Tractor D 90% (Tractor
cost+Insurance+Registration cost+Insurance+Registration
charges) charges)

190 In Tatkal tractor loan rate of interest is based on


A Margin B Acerage
C Score D None of the above
191 DSCR in Tatkal Tractor loan is
A 1.75 : 1.00 B 1.50 : 1.00
C 2.00 : 1.00 D 1.00 : 1.00

192 Minimum and Maximum Repayment period in Tatkal Tractor loan is


A 48 months and 60 months B 60 months and 84 months
C 36 months and 48 months D 36 months and 60 months

193 Security to be obtained in case of Tatkal Tractor loan scheme is


A Primary : Hypothecation of B Primary : Hypothecation of tractor is
tractor, Collateral : Lien on sufficient, no need of TDR as
TDR accepted as a Margin margin money.
Money.
C Primary : Hypothecation of D None of the above
tractor, Collateral : 2 acres of
Agricultural land.
194 Maximum LTV Ratio based on loan limit under Agri Asset Backed Loan is
A) 65% B) 60%
C) 55% D) 50%

195 What is the interest on Agri Asset Backed Loan?


A MCLR + 1% B MCLR + 2.5%
C Base Rate + 2% D None of the above
196 What is the repayment for Agri Asset Backed Loan
A 84 months B 36-84 months
C 12 months to 72 months with D 84 months with Equated
equated reduction in Limit Reduction in Limit.

197 What is the type of can be sanctioned under Agri Asset Backed Loan?
A Term Loan B Cash Credit
C Drop line- Overdraft facility (OD) D None of the above

198 What is the Penal interest on Agri Asset Backed Loan?


A 2% of the limit B 1% p.a over and above the rate
of interest on the balance
outstanding
C 1% of the limit D No Penal Interest

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199 Under Agri Asset Backed Loan the property should be with ___ in the radius of the
branch?
A 15 km B 20 km
C 5 km D 25 kms

200 Agricltural Subventon is applicable for Agri Asset Backed Loan?


A Yes B No
C Applicable for loans upto 3 lacs D Applicable for loans upto 1 lacs

201 For what purpose the Agri Asset Backed Loan can be sanctioned?
A Short Term Production B Investment Credit
C Short Term Production & D None of the Above
Investment Credit
202 The new product product launched for Agriculturists is
A Mc-Revised KCC B Digital KCC
C New KCC D None of these

203 What is the interest rate concession under Digital KCC Scheme for above
Rs.3.00 lacs Loan
A 1.25% B 1%
C 0.75% D 0.50%
204 What is the minimum and Maximum Loan amount under Digital KCC scheme?
A 1.01 lacs & No Ceiling B 0.50 lacs & 3.00 Lacs
C 1.00 lacs & 5.00 lacs D No minimum & No Maximum

205 What is the FREE insurance available under PAIS for Digital KCC Scheme
Borrowers?
A Rs.1.00 lacs B Rs.5.00 lacs
C Rs.2.00 lacs D No Free Insurance undr PAIS

206 The Scoring Model for PML/WHR financing is applicable for the loans
A 10 lacs-15 lacs B 25 lacs-50 lacs
C Above 50 lacs D Scoring Model is not required

207 Who will obtain insurance of the cash at the BC outlet?


A B.C himself B Regional Business Office
C Link Branch D None of the above

208 What is the minimum land criteria for financing a Combine Harvestor?
A 8 Acres Irrigated land B 6 Acres Irrigated land
C 4 Acres Irrigated land D 2 Acres Irrigated land

209 All crop loans under KCC are to be covered under


A Prime Minister Fasal Bhima B National Agricultural Insurance
Yojana Scheme
C National Crop Insurance Scheme D None of the above

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AGRICULTURE MCQs - ANSWERS

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
c c D b a b d d b d
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
a b C a d a a c d a
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
c a B a b d d a a d
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
a d C b a d c b b a
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
b a C a a d b c b d
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
b d A c d a d a c d
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
b a B a d c c a c d
71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
b b C d c d a a b a
81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
d a D c d a c d b c
91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
b d D a b c a d c d
101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
b d C d b c a b d d
111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
c a C c c b a b a a
121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
d b A b a a d a a c
131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
a d C a b c a c b c
141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
c c A a b a a b a c
151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160
a d C c a b b d b b
161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
d b A b a c b a c c
171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
a b C d a d c a c a
181 182 183 184 185 186 187 188 189 190
a b c a a d a c b a
191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
b a a a b c c b d b
201 202 203 204 205 206 207 208 209
c b d a c b a b a

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SYSTEMS & PROCEDURES I

Compiled By Shri P.Adityudu, Manager (Training)

1. As per extant instructions regarding payment of balances in the deceased


constituents accounts, no separate affidavit (COS 539) would be required for
an aggregate amount up to Rs.______
a) Rs. 0.50 lacs b) Rs. 5 lac
c) Rs. 2 lacs d) Rs. 3 lacs

2. A person will be declared as legally dead, if for a period of _______ years or


more, the persons who would have normally known of his existence have not
heard of him / known of his existence:
a) 5 b) 6
c) 7 d) 8
3. Nomination by illiterate to be witnessed by ___________
a) One person b) Two persons
c) A Bank official d) Nominee
4. Which of the following statement is not correct?
a) Nomination can be made by b) Nomination can be made on
illiterate depositor joint Accounts also
c) One person should be nominated d) Two persons can be nominated
in the Joint Accounts
5. Nomination, cancellation of Nomination and change in nomination
require______
a) Registration with Revenue b) Registration with Co. Act
authorities
c) Registration with RBI under BR Act d) No Registration is required

6. An Officer of __ scale and above is authorized to issue notices under


SARFAESI Act
a) III b) IV
c) V d) VI
7. All customer complaints have to be
a) Acknowledged within 24 hours b) Disposed off within 21 days

c) Both (A) & (B) above d) None of the above

8. Search warrant for Locker issued by Income Tax Department should bear
Signature of official not below the rank of Commissioner of I.T. of search
authority. (Sec of I tax act)
a) Sec 52 b) Sec 122
c) Sec 132 d) Sec 142
9. Bearer Bonds, IVPs, TDR/STDR held as security against loan are kept in
a) Single custody of Branch Manager b) Single custody of Manager
(cash)
c) Joint Custody of Manager (cash) & d) Single custody of Manager
Branch operation Branch operation

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10. Safe Custody A/c in the name of Minor can be opened in respect of
a) Govt Securities only b) Banks TDR only
c) Any Security d) Cannot be opened
11. While delivering scrip kept under safe custody to the depositor, his
acknowledgement is obtained on
a) COS 139 b) COS 339
c) COS 49 d) COS 141R
12. Relationship between Customer & Banker in case of Safe Deposit Article
a) Bailer- Bailee b) Debtor- Creditor
c) Licensor- Licensee d) None of the above
13. In case of Joint A/c (E or S), locker can be surrendered and the account
closed
a) By both of them jointly b) By either of them
c) By First Hirer singly d) Either a or b

14. Nomination facility is available in case of Safe Deposit Lockers under which
act?
a) Sec 45Z of BR Act b) Sec 45ZA of BR Act
c) Sec 45ZC of BR Act d) Sec 45 ZE of BR Act

15. Locker rent for New/existing hirers is to be paid every year in advance on
a) 31 st March b) 1 st April
c) 2 nd April d) Date of Allotment of Locker
16. Periodicity for balancing Safe custody/Security is
a) Monthly b) Quarterly
c) Half yearly d) Yearly
17. Lockers cannot be allotted to
a) Resident Individuals b) Non Resident Indians
c) Blind Persons d) Minors
18. While closing an account
a) Customers ID is to be established b) Ensure that no lien is marked
beyond doubt on deposits
c) Ensure that there is no d) All of these
direct/indirect liability to the Bank
19. Security forms should be stocked to meet
a) 6 months requirements b) 12 months requirements
c) 24 months requirements d) None of these
20. All state Government transactions are reported to
a) FSLO at LHO b) GAD, Belapur
c) GAS, Nagpur d) None of the above.
21. Security forms should be in the custody of
a) Accountant b) Branch Manager
c) Joint custodians d) None of these
22. Various audit reports are under the custody of
a) Record Keeper b) Accountant
c) Branch Manager d) Any officer
23. EXIM Bills is the software used in
a) LCPC b) LPC
c) RACPC/RASMECC d) CCIL

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24. Disaster Recovery Site for ATM Switch is at


a) Mumbai b) Chennai
c) Kolkata d) Bangalore
25. The stages of Pre Sanction Credit Process are
a) Appraisal and Sanction b) Assessment, Appraisal and
Sanction
c) Appraisal and recommendation, d) Appraisal and Assessment
Assessment and Sanction
26. CGTMSE stands for
a) Credit Guarantee Trust for Micro b) Credit Guarantee Fund Trust
and Small Enterprises for Micro and Small Enterprises
c) Credit Guarantee Trust for d) Credit Guarantee Fund Trust
Manufacturing & service Enterprises for Manufacturing & service
Enterprises
27. RTGS business hours as per the revised RBI guidelines are
a) 9 AM TO 2 PM b) 8 AM TO 8 PM
c) 10 AM TO 4 PM d) 9 AM TO 4 PM
28. Foreign Department (FD), Kolkatta has been renamed as
a) Global Link Services b) Global Marketing Unit
c) None of these d) No change
29. OPERATION SANKALP is the name of campaign announced by Bank for
a) RINB b) GCC & GRC
c) NPA reduction d) None of the above
30. i-Probe is mandatory for all loan applications of
a) Rs.5 lacs & above b) Rs.25 lacs & above
c) Rs.10 lacs & above d) Rs.1 cr & above
31. Maximum capability that can be given to Employee in CBS is
a) 7 b) 9
c) 10 d) 12
32. Maximum amount of subscription to be made in a PPF account in a financial
year is
a) Rs.1 lac b) Rs.1.50
c) Rs.1.25 lacs d) Rs.0.50 lac
33. The ceiling on MCCSs as per CTS 2010 Standard cheques at Home branch is
a) Rs.10 lacs b) No Ceiling
c) Rs.50 lacs d) Rs.20 lacs
34. Succession certificate does not cover
a) Gold loan ornaments b) Safe deposit lockers
c) Articles in safe custody d) All of the above
35. The Manager, CAC is having reporting relationship with
a) AGM, FSLO b) DGM (B&O)
c) Regional Manager of the Region in d) None of the above
which the CAC is Located
36. Which of the following roles is not stipulated by BPR manual for CAC?
a) Mobile messengers b) Dy Manager (transportation)
c) Deputy Manager(Maintenance) d) Mobile Cashiers

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37. Issuance of a cheque without balance is punishable under


a) Cr.CPC b) IPC
c) Banking Regulation Act d) NI Act
38. Small coin depot transaction reported to
a) SGLO b) FSLO
c) CAG d) ITS
39. A depositor of PPF account can nominate ____persons
a) One b) Two
c) Three d) No limit
40. When interest is applied to PPF accounts?
a) 31st December b) 31st March
c) 30th June d) 30th September
41. CDR mechanism covers only multiple banking/consortium/syndication
accounts with outstanding exposure of Rs. __ Cr. And above.
a) 10 b) 5
c) 25 d) 1
42. CRA is applicable to trade advances of ______
a) Above Rs.5 lacs b) Above Rs.10 lacs
c) Above Rs.20 lacs d) Above Rs.25 lacs
43. What are the KYC conditions we have to fulfill to open Small accounts ?
a) Photograph and Address proof b) Two Photo proof and self
certification
c) Photo proof and address proof d) Photograph and self
certification for the address
44. In the CPPC ( Centralized Pension Processing Centers) concept the
commission between Dealing/Home branch and Focal Point branch/ CPPC is
distributed -------
a) 75%-25% b) 100%by CPPC
c) 100% by Dealing/ Home branch d) 25%-75%
45. A authorizes B for operating his locker. B approaches the bank for surrender
thereof. How would you react?
a) B can surrender the locker b) B cannot surrender the locker

c) If contents are nil he can surrender d) None of the above


46. The packets or boxes accepted for keeping in safe custody must bear which
one of the following seals------------:
a) Seal of the Bank b) Seal of the depositor
c) Both the above d) None of the above
47. When a person dies without leaving behind a will, a person appointed by court
to manage his estate is called
a) An executor b) An attorney
c) An administrator d) A trustee
48. In the event of Original and duplicate IOI are presented for payment through
clearing, by two different banks on the same day, the Bank----------
a) Will pay the duplicate b) Will pay the original
c) Will return both d) Both will have to be paid
49. 49.Maximum amount for which an IOI can be issued is
a) Rs. 100,00,00,000 b) Rs. 99,99,99,999
c) 99,00,00,000 d) none of these

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50. If the collection is realized beyond 45 days it is treated as---------


a) Normal Delay b) Abnormal delay
c) Delay is delay, it hardly whether d) No such classification matters
normal or abnormal
51 BMMC is to be submitted at what intervels to the controllers
a) Before 5th of Every Month b) Before 7th of every month
c) At the Quarter end d) BMMC is discontinued

ANSWERS SYSTEMS & PROCEDURES 1

1 B 11 C 21 C 31 B 41 C
2 C 12 A 22 C 32 B 42 D
3 B 13 A 23 D 33 B 43 D
4 D 14 D 24 B 34 D 44 A
5 D 15 C 25 C 35 B 45 B
6 B 16 C 26 B 36 C 46 B
7 C 17 D 27 B 37 D 47 C
8 C 18 D 28 B 38 B 48 A
9 C 19 A 29 C 39 D 49 B
10 B 20 A 30 C 40 B 50 B
51 D

SYSTEMS & PROCEDURES II

Compiled By Shri P.Adityudu, Manager (Training)

1. What is MDBTL Scheme?


a) Mobile Direct Benefit Transfer of b) Modified Direct Benefit Transfer of
LPG LPG
c) Mobile Direct Bank Transfer of d) None of the above
LPG
2. What is the name the Project rolled out by NPCI In respect of CTS-2010?
a) Payee Name Project b) Project CTS-2010
c) Project Vijay d) Project MCC

3. Nomination facility is available in case of Deposit accounts, under which act?


a) Sec 45Z of BR Act b) Sec 45ZA of BR Act
c) Sec 45ZC of BR Act d) Sec 45 ZE of BR Act

4. All branches should ensure that all cases of counterfeit currency note to be
reported by way of counterfeit currency report to principal office (KYC/AML)
through?
a) DGM& CFO and money b) GM & CFO
laundering officer
c) CGM & CFO d) AGM & CFO

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5. Forgery of valuable security / cash transaction where forged or counterfeit


currency note have been used, the report should be furnished to FIU-IND?
a) Every month by 5th day of b) Every month by 15th day of
succeeding month succeeding month
c) Every month by 10th day of d) None of the above
succeeding month
6. Maximum number of deposits that can be made in a PPF account in a
financial year is
a) 24 b) 6
c) 36 d) 12
7. What is the name the campaign for Deposit Mobilization through BC channel ?
a) Lakshya 2000 b) Lakshya 7000

c) Lakshya 5000 d) Lakshya 3000


8. When a scrip is withdrawn for renewal, it will be entered in which register?

a) Miscellaneous register b) Branch Document Register


c) Securities Exchange Custody d) Securities Register
register
9. Nomination of safe custody and safe deposit articles is available under what
section?
a) Sec 45ZC of BR Act b) Sec 45ZC of SBI Act

c) Sec 45ZAof BR Act d) Sec 45ZF of SBI Act


10. Two currency Note press owned by RBI are at?
a) Devas and Nashik b) Devas and Salboni
c) Devas and Salboni d) Mysore and Salboni

11. Difference between Days deposit and withdrawal in the chest is known as?
a) Chest Transfer b) Currency Transfer
c) Amount Transfer d) Balance Transfer
12. In case if counterfeit notes found in remittance from currency chest to RBI,
how much amount is debited from banks current account?
a) Entire amount + ( Bank Rate+2%) b) Entire amount + (Base Rate+ 2%)
c) Entire amount + (Base Rate ) d) Entire amount + (Bank Rate+ 1%)
13. What is the Fidelity insurance for SWO?
a) 1 Lac b) 3 Lac
c) 5 Lac d) 4 Lac
14. What is the size of the aluminium box of SWO?
a) 14x11x4 b) 11x14x4
c) 4x11x14 c) None of the above
15. IOI can be paid by ______ irrespective of the location of the drawee branch
a) Drawee branch only b) Clearing branch
c) Issuing branch only d) Any branch
16. Under Deceased account what is the aggregate balance upto which surety is
not required?
a) 1 Lac b) 2 Lac
c) 4 Lac d) 5 Lac

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17. Under Pahla Kadam and Pehli Udaan what is the threshold limit for Auto
Sweep?
a) 10000/- b) 15000/-
c) 20000/- d) 25000/-
18. Under Pehla Kadam and Pehli Udaan the transaction limit for Internet Banking
per day is--?
a) 2000/- b) 4000/-
c) 3000/- d) 5000/-
19. Under Pehla Kadam and Pehli Udaan the transaction limit for Mobile Banking
per day is --?
a) 1000/- b) 2000/-
c) 3000/- d) 4000/-
20. Duplicate draft is to be issued within a maximum period of
a) 14 days b) 5 days
c) 10 days d) 7 days
21. Which one of the following is NOT a BPR initiative ?
a) Grahak Mitra b) Drop Box
c) Project Ambience d) Cross Selling
22. How many compartments does the Drop Box have, to accept the
instruments/Cheques through it for processing ?
a) Two b) Four
c) Three d) None of these
23. Which one of the following Business Unit is not a part of National Banking
Group (NBG) at Corporate Centre ?
a) SME Business Unit b) Government Business Unit
c) Financial Institutions Business d) Agri Business Unit
Unit
24. What is the Annual Turnover Range defined for any unit to be classified under
Mid Corporate Group ?
a) Rs. 10 Cr to Rs.100 Cr b) Rs. 100 Cr to Rs.500 Cr
c) Rs. 500 Cr to Rs.1000 Cr d) Rs. 50 Cr to Rs.500 Cr

25. Which one of the following is the major role of Green Banking Cell that has
been set up in the Bank ?
a) Setting up of Green Channel to all b) Providing Internet Banking Facility
Counters in the Branch
c) Providing Green Remit Cards d) Undertaking various initiatives like
Energy efficient lighting, tree
plantation, water & waste
management etc, to the
Customers.
26. CENMAC (Central Office Management Committee) consists of
a) CGM, CDO, MDs b) Chairman, MDs, DMDs
c) MDs, DMDs, Circle CGMs d) None of these

27. The Bank's Registered Office is at


a) Mumbai b) Kolkatta
c) New Delhi d) Chennai

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28. The reduction of liquidity and interest rate risk and optimization of returns is
managed by which committee ?
a) Asset Liability Management b) Inspection and Audit Committee
Management System
c) Bank Risk Management d) Corporate Risk Mitigation
Department Committee
29. BPR is introduced as per the recommendations of which consultancy
organization
a) Rangarajan Committee b) Narasimham Committee
c) Mckinsey & Co d) Tata Consultancy Services
30. The functionality of Loan Origination Software (LOS) refers to
a) Designing a Loan Product b) Registration, Processing and
Generation of Loan using the
software Documents and tracking
the status of Loan applications
c) NPA Tracking d) None of these
31. As per the revised Bank's organizational structure, The Regional Manager of a
Region will directly report to
a) DGM (O & C) b) DGM (B & O)
c) GM (Net Work) d) CGM of the Circle
32. Which of the following is not a profitability Ratio for the Bank ?
a) Gross Rate of Return b) Net Profit Per Employee
c) Rs. Expenses Ratio d) Net Interest Margin

33. What is the role of Currency Administration Cell ?


a) Managing of Currency Chest b) It is the cell provided at RBI to
take care of Cash
c) Optimization of currency balances d) Printing of Currency Notes
at our branches, efficient
movement planning, insurance
and security arrangements.
34. Which is the software used at Currency Administration Cells ?
a) Finance One b) B@ncs 24
c) Bancslink d) Kubera
35. The Role of CRO is linked to which Cell under BPR initiative ?
a) Currency Administration Cell b) Liability CPC
c) Multi Product Sales Team d) RACPC
36. Trade Finance Central Processing Center deals with
a) Letters of Credit b) Bank Guarantees
c) LC & BG d) LC, BG and Bills both rupees and
foreign currencies
37. Which is the unit set up by Bank which performs the various services like
receiving voice calls, emails, letters, complaints from the customers, in
addition to accepting the requests for cheque book, fund transfer, bill payment
etc.
a) Liability Centralized Processing b) Contact Centre
Center
c) Complaint Centre d) Outbound Sales Force

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38. Presently, how many associate Banks are there in the State Bank Group ?
a) 7 b) 6
c) 5 d) None of these
39. What is the role of Document Archival Centre (DAC) under BPR ?
a) Decongest the Branches by b) Execution of Bank's Loan
removing records maintenance
c) Printing of Bank's Loan d) None of these
Documents
40. Who is a Manager (BO) in a BPR Branch?
a) Accountant b) Branch Manager
c) CRO d) RMPB
41. Number of IRCs (Inward Remittance Cell) in the country are
a) Only two b) 14 at all LHOs

c) 4 at Delhi, Chennai, Calcutta and d) Only one


Mumbai
42. Limitation period of a TDR is 3 years from the date of
a) Demand b) Maturity
c) No Limitation period d) None of the Above
43. Limitation period of a mortgage is _____years from the date the mortgage
money falls due.
a) 3 b) 12
c) 6 d) 1
44. Which one of the following is not an actionable claim ?
a) TDR b) Units of Unit Trust
c) LIC Policy d) Book Debt
45. Who is responsible for the genuiness and purity of the gold ornaments ?
a) Cash Officer b) Branch Manager
c) Joint Custodians d) Accountant
46. Bank cannot file a suit after the expiry of
a) The due date of installment b) The limitation period
c) None of these d) Both A&B
47. All the accounts where mortgage has been created has to keyed in the system
within___ days failing which Rs.5000 has to be paid an additional fee.
a) 60 b) 30
c) 15 d) 90
48. License for Gun at the branch is obtained in the name of
a) Regional Manager b) Armed Guard
c) Bank d) Branch Manager

49. LIC Policy given as Security for Overdrafts are entered in


a) Miscellaneous Security Register b) Branch Documents Register
c) Risk Register d) Safe custody register

50. DRP and BCP is prepared in the first week of __________every year for
approval by C.A.
a) February b) January
c) December d) May

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KEY FOR SYSTEM & PROC - 2

1 B 2 A 3 B 4 A 5 B
6 D 7 B 8 C 9 A 10 D
11 B 12 A 13 C 14 A 15 D
16 D 17 C 18 D 19 B 20 A
21 D 22 C 23 C 24 D 25 D
26 B 27 B 28 A 29 C 30 B
31 B 32 C 33 C 34 D 35 B
36 D 37 B 38 D 39 A 40 A
41 D 42 A 43 B 44 E 45 A
46 B 47 B 48 D 49 A 50 B

GENERAL AWARENESS-1

Prepared by : Sri. P.Adityudu, Manager(Trg)

1. Commodity exchange markets in India are regulated by


a) Commodities exchange Board b) Forward markets commission
c) Commodities Exchange d) Commodities Exchange
Regulation Commission. Regulation Board.
2. MCA-21 relates to
a) Mopping up of black money in the b) Prevention of malpractices by
country. companies.
c) Computerization of ROC/MCA d) Governing companies in a
(Registrar of companies) better way in the wake of
dealings. Sathyam.
3. Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE) is situated at Mumbai. Where is the National
Stock Exchange (NSE)?
a) Kolkata b) New Delhi
c) Bangalore d) Mumbai
4. Stress Testing in financial parlance relate to
a) Finding out Banks strength to b) An advanced approach for
withstand various stresses asset liability management of
emanating from various risks. financial institutions.
c) Business strategy of banks by d) An approach for measuring
testing the stress in the economy. stress levels in bank
employees.
5. IRDA Chairman is
a) Amitabh Chowadhary b) J.Hari Narayan
c) K.Chakraborthy d) T.S.Vijayan
6. The headline inflation measure in Indian economy are based on
a) Year-on-year variation of WPI. b) Year-on-year variation of CPI.
c) Real time variation of WPI d) Real time variation of CPI.
7. Bit coins in the economy means
a) Bit coins is digital currency not b) New currency going to be
backed by any Government. introduced.
c) Coins in bit form d) Plastic coins.

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8. As per IRDA, a pension insurance policy should also contain a provision for
a) One time withdrawal b) An annuity
c) Benefits of accident d) Both (b) & (c)
9. M-3 money supply measurement in India takes into consideration
a) Post office SB savings b) Time deposits with banks
c) Interbank deposits d) All the above.
10. The social web site ORKUT is owned by
a) msn.com b) Rediff.com
c) Google d) None of the above
11. 4G SPECTRUM is
a) New generation of cell phones b) Allotment of new and higher
bandwidths in cellular
communication
c) New technology in cellular d) Multimedia cellular
.communication. communication technology.
12. The managing director of IMF is
a) Percy Anderson b) Lileon Mathew
c) Christine Lagarde d) Lely Cipora
13. Vijay Malya Chairman of the ill fated Kingfisher Airlines resigned from
a) VB Group b) UB Group
c) Jaiswal Group d) Jindal Group
14. Who is the president of CII?
a) Adi Godrej b) Dr.Naushad Forbes.
c) D.Parekh c) Anil Ambani
15. The world Bank consists of
a) IBRD (International Bank for b) IBRD only and IDA is an
reconstruction and Development) independent and
& IDA (International development complementing agency.
Agency).
c) IDA only and IBRD is an d) None of the above is correct.
independent and complementing
agency.

16. Worlds largest bank in terms of balance sheet size is


a) BNP Paribas b) Deutche Bank
c) HSBC Bank d) ICBC of china
17. Procyclicality is a word associated with
a) Credit Risk b) Market Risk
c) Country Risk d) Systemic Risk
18. Carbon credits are systematized following
a) Paris protocol b) Kyoto protocol
c) Manila protocol d) Washington protocol

19. The institution which looks after regulation of insurance sector in the country is
a) IRDA b) AMFI
c) ICDA d) SEBI
20. As per the recommendations of Basel-III, the Tier-2 capital is to be ______
a) Enhanced b) Reduced
c) Eliminated d) Harmonized.

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21. The tag line of which of the following banks is worlds local bank
a) HDFC b) ABN AMRO
c) HSBC d) CITY BANK
22. Who is the chairman of IBA (Indian Banks Association)?
a) Smt.Chanda Kochchar b) Sri.Rajeev Rishi
c) Shri.Bhaskar Sen d) Shri.K.R.Kamath
23. Aadhar Payment Bridge System (APBS) was developed by
a) NPCI b) RBI
c) SBI d) CCIL
24. Which bank / Financial Institution took the lead in setting up of CCIL (Clearing
Corporation of India Limited)?
a) SBI b) IDBI
c) LIC d) ICICI
25. As per SEBI Rules, what is the maximum investment limit for Retail Inventors in
public issues?
a) Rs.50,000/- b) Rs.100,000/-
c) Rs.125,000/- d) Rs.200,000/-

26. Jean Claude Trichet is a personality associated with______?


a) IMF b) World Bank
c) European Central Bank d) Federal Reserve
27. Which of the following summits is related to climate change?
a) Canberra summit b) Greenland summit
c) Copenhagen summit d) Venice summit
28. Who is the honorary secretary of IBA?
a) Shri.T.M.Bhasin b) Smt.Arundhati Bhattacharya
c) Shri.Bhaskar Sen d) Shri.K.R.Kamath
29. Monetary review will be taken up by RBI at
a) Half yearly intervals b) Annual policy
c) Quarterly intervals d) Bi-monthly intervals.
30. Finacle is a CBS software developed by
a) TCS b) Infosys
c) IBM India d) i-flex solutions
31. Who is the new chairman of Tata Sons?
a) JRD Tata b) Natarajan Chandrasekharan
c) Nandan Nelekan d) Narayana Murthy
32. Technology up-gradation fund scheme (TUFS) promoted by Government of
India is applicable to
a) Textile & Jute Industry b) Sugar industry
c) Tea & coffee industry d) Food industry
33. NASSCOM is the
a) Indo-American venture for b) American outsourcing
collaboration in software. regulatory authority
c) National Association of Software d) Chamber of commerce of IT-
and Service Companies BPO industries in America.
34. Rail Bandhu is a
a) Indian Railways magazine b) Indian Railways Volunteer
c) Indian Railways co-branded card d) Railways Hotel chain

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35. Which committee on customer service appointed by RBI recommended for


restoration of cash failed to be dispensed through ATMs to the customers
accounts within 5 days?
a) Damodaran Committee b) Khale committee
c) Usha Thorat Committee d) Narendra Dev committee
36. Abbrevation of MUDRA
a) Micro Units Development and b) Money Utility Development
Recovery agency and Refinance agency
c) Micro Units Devlopment and d) None of the above.
Refinance agency
37. BRICS stands for
a) Brazil, Russia, Indonesia & Chile b) Britain, Russia, India and
Chile
c) Britain, Russia, Indonesia and d) Brazil, Russia, India,China
China. and South Africa
38. VAT is imposed ----------
a) Directly on consumer b) On final stage of production
c) On first stage of production d) On all stages between
production and final sale.
39. Viticulture refers to
a) Preparing honey b) Preparing wine from grapes.
c) Preparing olive oil d) Preparing narcotics.
40. DGFT is related to
a) Exports & imports form India b) Transportation in India.
c) Civil aviation in India d) Industrialization of the
country.
41. Julian Assange is a name known for association with
a) Apple b) Dell
c) Wikileaks d) Times magazine
42. Which city has been identified as the hottest ( i.e. first ranking ) outsourcing
destination in the world.
a) Banglore ( India) b) Dublin ( Ireland)
c) Makati City (The Philippines) d) Tokyo (Japan)
43. How many capital buffers were recommended by Basel-III?
a) One b) Two
c) Three d) Four
44. RIDF is a scheme to be operationalized by
a) State Governments b) Ministry of Rural development
c) NABARD d) Nationalized Banks
45. Which Indian Bank recently entered the mortgage loan market in UK?
a) BOB b) SBI
c) ICICI d) HDFC
46. OTCEI is __________
a) Atomic submarine of china b) Economy policy of USA
c) An Indian Share market d) A Defence research
organisation
47. The cap on FDI in insurance sector presently is
a) 74% b) 49%
c) 26% d) 51%

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48. The entities identified by PFRDA for floating their pension funds are
a) LIC,SBI & UTI-AMC b) LIC, SBI & UTI
c) SBI, BOB & AXIS Banks d) SBI, BOB & UTI
49. Swavalamban is related to
a) RIDF (Rural Infrastructure b) Health insurance programme
development fund) scheme launched for rural poor
c) Rural housing scheme. d) Governments assistance to
NPS (New pension scheme)
50. According to 2001 census, the state with lowest literacy rate is
a) Bihar b) Rajastan
c) Madhya Pradesh d) Nagaland
51. The capital conservation buffer recommended by Basel-III as percentage os
RWA (Risk Weighted Assets) is
a) 2% b) 2.5%
c) 3% d) 5.0%
52. The base of Consumer Price Index for Industrial Workers is being shifted
from 1982 to ______
a) 1995 b) 1998
c) 2000 d) 2001

53. TALLY is a
a) Software for book keeping b) Software for balancing banks
daily transactions
c) Software for Banks balance d) None of the above.
sheets.
54. Incredible India is
a) A campaign for promoting b) A campaign for promoting
India as a investment India as a global tourist hot
destination spot
c) A campaign launched for d) A campaign launched to
promoting SBI as a global promote India as an exporter.
bank.
55. Contribution is
a) Sales fixed cost b) Sales/variable cost
c) Sales variable cost d) Sales/fixed cost.
56. Which of the following is not a Credit Rating Agency?
a) CAMELS b) ICRA
c) CRISIL d) CARE
57. MCX is a
a) Exchange for gold trading b) Commodities exchange
c) Forex exchange d) Metals exchange
58. ETF stands for
a) Exchange traded fund b) Electronic traded fund
c) Exchange traded future d) Electronic traded future
59. Who is the NSE chairman?
a) Vijay Khelkar b) Ashok Chawla
c) J.Hari Narayan d) None of the above
60. One of the focus areas of Bharath Nirmaan programme is
a) Construction of rural dwellings b) Removal of poverty through

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employment assurance
programme
c) Rural & urban upliftment d) Literacy programme.
programme
61. Chairman of Federal reserve of USA is
a) Alen Greenspan b) Ben Bernanke
c) Steve Goldstein d) Janet L.Yellen
62. iPhone is the product of
a) Microsoft b) Samsung
c) Apple d) Motorola
63. SAARC University will have its head office in
a) Dhaka ( Bangledesh) b) New Delhi ( India)
c) Colombo ( Srilanka ) d) Male ( Maldives )

64. SEZ (Special economic Zone) is a


a) Improvement over EPZ b) Renamed EPZ concept.
concept
c) Old form of EPZ concept. d)
No relation between EPZ and
SPZ concept.
65. Recently a new Tax system bill is passed in the parlament What is the
tax?
a) Direct tax code b) Uniform CST (Central sales
Tax)
c) GST (Goods and Services d) All the above
Tax)
66. Oligopoly refers to
a) Perfect competition b) Competition between few
players
b) A pure form of monopoly d) None of the above
67. 360 degrees feedback is
a) Boss appraisal b) Subordinate appraisal
c) HR system d) None of the above
68. Factoring relates to
a) Bill finance b) Export finance
c) Receivable finance d) Infrastructure finance
69. Take out finance is best used for
a) Bill finance b) Real estate sector
c) Stock broker finance d) Infrastructure finance
70. Derivatives derive their value
a) From SWAPs b) Based on market prices
c) From the underlying security d) Future tradable proposition.
71. Call option refers to
a) The right of the investor to buy a b) The right of the investor to sell
stock a stock.
c) The obligation of the investor to d) The right of the investor both
buy a stock to buy and sell a stock.
72. Which of the following is an Indian e-commerce firm?
a) Expedia.com b) Flipkart.com
c) Bestbuy.com d) Amazon.com

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73. Reverse mortgage loans are introduced by banks


a) At the behest of RBI advice. b) To help out old age people.
c) Changing population profile. d) All the above
74. RBI advised Indian banks to adapt RBS (Risk Based Supervision)
a) To fall in line with BASEL-II b) To facilitate RFIA.
framework.
c) To quantify risk d) None of the above.
75. IFRS refers to
a) International financial b) International Financial
reconstruction system Reporting Standards
c) Internal Financial Regulation d) Internal Financial reporting
and Supervision. system

ANSWERS GENERAL AWARENSS - 1

1. b 2. c 3. d 4. a 5. d 6. a 7. a 8. d 9. b 10. c
11. b 12. c 13. b 14. b 15. a 16. d 17. d 18. b 19. a 20. d
21. c 22. b 23. a 24. a 25. d 26. c 27. c 28. b 29. d 30. b
31. b 32. a 33. c 34. a 35. a 36. c 37. d 38. d 39. b 40. a
41. c 42. a 43. b 44. c 45. b 46. c 47. b 48. a 49. d 50. a
51 b 52 d 53 a 54 b 55 c 56 a 57 b 58 a 59 b 60 a
61 d 62 c 63 b 64 a 65 c 66 b 67 a 68 c 69 d 70 c
71 a 72 b 73 d 74 a 75 b

GENERAL AWARENESS -2

Compiled by Shri P.Adityudu, Manager (Training)

1. CAPART is related with ___


a) Assisting and Evaluating rural welfare b) Computer hardware
programmes
c) Consultanat Service of export d) Controlling pollution in
promotion. big cities.
2. Note issuing deptt. of RBI should always possess the minimum gold stock of
worth -------
a) Rs.85 crore b) Rs. 115 crore
b) Rs. 200 crore. d) None of these.
3. Which of the following does not grant any tax rebate ?
a) National Saving Certificate b) Indira Vikas Patra
c) National Saving Scheme d) Public Provident Fund
4. Ad hoc Treasury Bill System of meeting budget deficit in india was abolished on
_____
a) 31 March , 1997 b) 31 March , 1996
c) 1 April , 1992 d) 1 April , 1995
5. SEBI was established in _______
a) 1993 b) 1992
c) 1988 d) 1990

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6. The working of SEBI includes ________


a) To regulate the dealings of b) To check the foul dealings in share
share market. market
c) To control the inside trading of d) All of these.
shares
7. The Committee appointed by RBI to look into the HR management practices in
Public sector Banks was headed by
a) Dr. A.K.Khandelval b) Dr. Rangarajan
c) Dr. Raghu Ram Rajan d) Dr. Bhimal Jalan
8. Which statement of the following is true for IMF ?
a) It is not an agency of UNO b) It can grant Loan to any country of
the world
c) It can grant loan to state d) It grants loan only to member
Govt. of a country. nations.
9. The Ad hoc Treasury Bill system of meeting budget deficit in India was
replaced by Ways and Means Advances System which has come into force
on _____
a) March 31, 1997. b) April 1, 1996.
c) April 1, 1997. d) None of these.
10. Indian economy is __________
a) Socialistic economy b) Gandhian economy
c) Mixed economy d) Free economy .
11. The most important source of capital formation in india has been ?
a) House Hold savings b) Public sector savings
c) Government revenue surpluses d) Corporate savings

12. In india , the public sector is most dominant in ?


a) Transport b) Steel production
b) Commercial d) Organised term lending financial
banking institutions.
13. Goas economy is mainly based on ?
a) Tourism b) Export of ores.
c) Agriculture d) None of these
14. As per Finance Ministers speech while presenting the Union Budget, the
Current Account deficit continues to be high due to excess dependence on
a) Oil & Coal imports b) Coal & Gold imports
c) Gold & Oil imports d) All the three.
15. Indias wage policy is based on ?
a) Cost of living b) Standard of living
c) Productivity d) None of these.

16. Which of the following is correct regarding the Gross Domestic Savings in India.
a) Contribution of the b) Contribution of Government sector
household sector is the is the largest.
largest.
c) Contribution of the d) None of the above.
corporate sector is the
largest.

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17. The modern economy is not characterized by


a) Capital intensive mode of b) Development of money
production economy
c) Production for market. d) Self Sufficient village
system.
18. One of the problems in calculating the national income in India correctly is ?
a) Under employment. b) Inflation.
c) Non monetized consumption. d) Low savings.
19. The main source of Indias national income is ?
a) Industry. b) Agriculture.
c) Forestry d) None of these.
20. Which of the following are the main causes of slow rate of growth of per capita
income in India. ?
a) High capital output ratio. b) High rate of growth of
population.
c) High rate of capital formation. d) All the above
21. Among Indian economists who had done pioneering work on National Income?
a) P N Dhar b) Jagdish Bhagwati
c) V K R V Rao d) Prof. Shenoi
22. Which of the following is not a method of estimating national income ?
a) Income method b) Value added method.
c) Expenditure method d) Export import method.

23. In our country , which of the following affects poverty line the most ?
a) Level of Prices b) Expenditure method
c) Export import method. d) None of these.

24. The largest revenue in india is obtained from


a) Sales tax. b) Direct taxes.
c) Excise duties. d) None of these.
25. DTC is related to
a) Income Tax b) Excise duty
c) Customs duty d) Service Tax
26. Which of the following is an advice rendered by RBI to banks to curtail frauds
involving stolen/theft cards?
a) Introducing additional b) Introducing photo embossed cards
passwords
c) Introducing online tracking d) Introduction of comprehensive chip
mechanism for cards based cards

27. Chairman of the Prime Ministers economic advisory council is?


a) Mr.C.Rangarajan b) Dr.Y.V.Reddy
c) Mr.Ahluwalia d) None of these ( vacant)
28. Stagflation is a characterized by
a) High growth rate and low b) High growth rate and high inflation
inflation rate rate
c) Low growth rate and low d) Low growth rate and high inflation
inflation rate rate

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29. As per specific guidelines of RBI, repayments into loans can be


a) Through ECS only wherever b) Either through ECS or through Post
ECS is available dated cheques as per the choice of
banks at all centers
c) Either through ECS or through d) No specific instructions.
Post dated cheques as per the
choice of banks at centers
where ECS is available.
30. Head quarter of IMF
a) New York b) Washington D.C.
c) Islamabad d) Hyderabad
31. WMA (Ways and means advances) is
a) Banks borrowings from RBI b) Government borrowings from RBI
c) Government borrowings from d) RBIs borrowings from banks
banks
32. The interest rate charges on WMA outstanding is
a) Repo rate b) Reverse Repo Rate
c) Bank rate d) Standing Facility Rate

33. After the recent infusion of capitalization of SBI by Government of India to the
tune of Rs.3,004 Crores, the share holding of Government of India will go up to
a) 62.22% b) 59.24%
c) 52.35% d) 55.0%
34. CAMELS framework is meant for
a) Credit appraisal b) Assessing health of banks
c) Sovereign credit rating method d) Trends in global economic
used by credit rating agencies situations
35. As per the census of India, which city (with a population of more than 1 million)
tops the list of cities with largest number of slum households?
a) Mumbai b) New Delhi
c) Chennai d) Visakhapatnam
36. CDs (Certficate of Deposits) are basically
a) Short term instruments issued b) Promissory notes issued by banks
by Corporates for short term fund raising
c) Promissory notes issued by d) All the above
Corporates for short term fund
raising
37. Minimum public shareholding (MPS) norms of SEBI are applicable to
a) PSUs alone b) Non-PSUs only
c) To both PSUs and Non-PSUs d) PSBs alone
as well
38. As per the census of India, which State tops the list of cities with largest number
of slum households?
a) Andhra Pradesh b) Bihar
c) Delhi d) Maharastra
39. CAMELS was developed by
a) IMF b) World Bank
c) US Federal reserve d) European Central Bank

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SBLC MASULIPATNAM THE WINGS 2017

40. FSLRC (Financial Sector Legislative Reforms Commission) was led by


a) Mr.C.Rangarajan b) Justice. B.N. Sri Krishna
c) Sri Tarapore d) Mr.Chidambaram
41. Banks are being asked to populate Aadhaar Numbers along with bank account
numbers for the purpose of
a) Rapid cheque clearing and ECS b) Replacement of IFSC code for
operations NEFT/RTGS transactions in the
long run
c) Identification of government d) All the above
beneficiaries
42. IBAN stands for
a) International Bank Account b) Indian Banks Association Number
Number
c) International Bankers d) International Bankers
Authentication Number Authentication Norm
43. A post dated instrument/ debit mandate issued in favour of the creditor by the
debtor in some financial markets like Singapore, Indonesia are popularly called
as
a) PIRO b) LIRO
c) TEMPO d) GIRO
44. The principal recommendation of FSLRC (Financial Sector Legislative Reforms
Commission) is
a) One super regulator for entire b) RBI to be the super regulator for
financial sector entire financial sector
c) Stringent law enforcement to d) Widening the scope of laws for
regulate financial sector better controlling financial sector
45. Report on Currency and Finance is published by
a) RBI b) Ministry of Finance, Government of
India
c) Central Statistical Organization d) International Monetary Fund(IMF)
(CSO)

46. Who is the present appellate authority of Banking Ombudsman?


a) Deputy Governor of RBI b) Dr.Raghuram Rajan, Governor of
RBI
c) Central Finance Minister d) Dr. Ranga Rajan
47. NIBM (National Institute for Bank Management) is an autonomous training
institute of
a) Promoted by Government of b) IBA
India.
c) NABARD d) RBI
48. The Slogan of Census-2011 is
a) Census India-Bright India b) Our Census-Our Future
c) Bright India-Our future d) Future India-Bright India

49. Who is the current World Bank president?


a) Mr.Jim Yong Kim b) Mr.Bon Yong Moon
c) Mr. Ravulfson d) Mr.Richard Calson

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50. e-filing of income tax returns is mandatory for individuals with annual taxable
income of
a) Above Rs.5.00 lakhs b) Above Rs.5.50 lakhs
c) Above Rs.7.50 lakhs d) Above Rs.8.00 lakhs
51. El Nino is
a) A Korean trading Company b) A weather pattern in Pacific which
affects monsoon arrival in India
c) A pattern of movement in Dow d) Statistical tool for arriving at stock
Jones index of New York stock price sensitivities
exchange
52. PMI (Purchasing Managers Index) , an index relating to purchasing orders by
manufacturers company, is published by
a) HDFC b) CMIE (Center for monitoring Indian
economy)
c) HSBC India d) Ministry of Finance
53. EMV Compliance is related to
a) Cross border money transfers b) Payments systems in India
c) Debit cards d) Forex transactions
54. The Core Sector Industries in India are
a) 5 b) 6
c) 7 d) 8
55. Which of the following is not Core sector industry in Indian economy?
a) Gas & Oil production b) Coal mining
c) Cement industry d) Capital goods industry
56. The minimum capital required for setting up a new bank under RBIs new
licensing norms is
a) Rs.75 Cr b) Rs.100 Cr
c) Rs.250 Cr d) Rs.500 Cr
57. Which of the following is a must for new banks under new licensing norms of
RBI?
a) The new banks should be stock b) Foreign share holding should not
market listed within 3 years of exceed 49% within the first 5 years
commencement
c) th of the branches should be d) All the above
opened in rural areas.
58. As per WTO estimates for 2012, India is the _______largest merchandise
exporter and _______largest merchandise importer in the world.
a) 19th and 12th b) 12th and 19th
rd th
c) 3 and 7 d) 7th and 3rd
59. A recent committee appointed by Ministry of Finance suggested that currency
bins occupancy rate should not be more than ____% of Vault Holding Limit(VHL)
so that more shuffling of currency takes place.
a) 10% b) 25%
c) 50% d) 75%
60. Fresh evaluation of every item of expenditure from the very beginning of each
financial year is called ?
a) Fresh Budgeting b) Deficit Budgeting
c) Performance Budgeting d) Zero-based Budgeting

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61. SBI recently opened its second Branch in China at


a) Shangai b) Beijing
c) Tianjin d) Shangdu
62. Chairman of Planning Commission In India is
a) Prime Minister of India b) President of India
c) Finance Minister d) Cabinet Secretary, Ministry of
Finance
63. SDRs are part of
a) Balance of payments b) Forex Reserves
c) Current Account deficit d) Trade deficit
64. The purpose of allowing banks to introduce Gold Deposit scheme by RBI is
a) To channelize idle gold with b) To check unbridled Gold imports
public into productive purposes
c) As suggested by K U B Rao d) All the above
committee
65. The FDI limits in retailing as introduced by Government of India recently are
a) 51% in single brand and 49% in b) 100% in single brand and 49% in
multi brand multi brand
c) 100% in single brand and 51% d) 100% in both single and multi
in multi brand brands
66. CAD (Current Account Deficit) is always measure as a proportion of
a) GNP b) GDP
c) NNP d) NDP
67. The proposed GST (General Sales Tax) is a replacement of
a) Central Excise duty b) Value added tax (VAT)
c) Service tax & other local taxes d) All the above
68 An ad valorem duty is a tax on the basis of
a) Check the accumulation of b) Run the machinery of the state
wealth among the rich.
b) Uplift weaker sections. d) None of these
69 Troika is the name for
a) IMF, World Bank and United b) IMF, World Bank and European
Nations Central Bank
c) IMF, United Nations and d) IMF, European Union and
European Central Bank European Central Bank
70 Which group of firms is facing charges from SEBI for violating various norms of
mobilization of funds from the public?
a) Aditya Birla Group b) Vijaya Malya Group
c) Sahara Group d) All the above
71 Recently a sting operation on money laundering activities by some private banks
was conducted in India by
a) Financial Express b) Cobra Post
c) Wikileaks d) RBI and SEBI jointly
72 According to recent Banking Ombudsman Report, which type of complaints are
more in number form Banking Sector?
a) Card related complaints b) Excess Interest charged related
complaints
c) SB Account maintenance d) Cheque collection delay related
related complaints questions

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73 Visa / Master Card Secure is a


a) Card to Card transfer b) A second factor authentication
mechanism
c) A special Card offered by both d) A special mechanism between
Visa and Master jointly Visa and Master to settle their
transactions
74 Which type of cards are being introduced on a large scale to protect users from
skimming and cloning?
a) Secure Cards b) Second factor authentication
c) Chip based Cards d) All the above
75 What is the name of the scheme launched under PDS (Public Distribution
Scheme) to benefit poor families with foodgrains availability?
a) AAY (Antyodaya Anna Yojana) b) Antyodaya Dhanya Yojana
scheme (ADY) scheme
c) Rajiv Anna Yojana d) Rajiv Dhanya Yojana
76 Who is SEBI chairman
a) R V Verma b) T S Vijayan
c) U K Sinha d) Vijay kelkar
77 Who is new Vice Chancellor of Nalanda University
a) Suniana Singh b) Vijay Kelkar
c) Praveen Sastry d) None of the above
78 Which country has become new new member of SASEC South Asia Sub-
Regional Economic Cooperation programme
a) Myanmar b) China
c) South Korea d) Iran
79 Who is the new chairman of the CBEC (Central Board of Excise & Customs)
a) Najib Shah b) Ms.Vanaja N.Sarna
c) Nitish Kumar d) Milind Sharma
80 Which Country has recognised Bitcoin & Digital Currencies as Legal Money
a) Japan b) China
c) South Korea d) United States of America
81 Indias first solar Power Boad Aditya is launched in
a) Kerala b) Andhra Padesh
c) Gujarat d) Madhya Pradesh
82 The 2017 annual meeting of WEF (World Economic Forum) will be held
a) China b) Japan
c) Singapore d) Switzerland
83 Indias first international stock exchange India International Exchange ha sbeen
launched in
a) Hyderabad b) Pune
c) Gandhinagar d) Mumbai
84 The insurance Company tied up with SIDBI for capital support to Enterprises is
a) Life Insurance Corporationof b) New India Assurance Co. Ltd
India (LIC)
c) SBI Life insurance Co. Ltd d) Oriental Insurance Co.Ltd
85 Expected date of roll-out of GST is
a) 1st of July 2017 b) 1st of August 2017
c) 1st of June 2017 d) None of the above

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ANSWERS- GENERAL AWARENESS 2

1 a 2 b 3 b 4 a 5 b
6 d 7 a 8 d 9 c 10 c
11 a 12 b 13 b 14 d 15 a
16 a 17 d 18 c 19 b 20 a
21 c 22 d 23 c 24 c 25 a
26 b 27 d 28 d 29 a 30 b
31 b 32 a 33 a 34 b 35 d
36 b 37 c 38 a 39 c 40 b
41 c 42 a 43 d 44 a 45 a
46 a 47 d 48 b 49 a 50 a
51 b 52 c 53 c 54 d 55 d
56 d 57 d 58 a 59 b 60 d
61 c 62 a 63 b 64 d 65 c
66 b 67 d 68 a 69 d 70 d
71 c 72 b 73 a 74 d 75 a
76 c 77 a 78 a 79 b 80 a
81 a 82 d 83 c 84 a 85 a

GENERAL AWARENESS-3

Compiled by Sri. P.Adityudu, Manager (Training)

1. The present CRR is


a) 3% b) 4%
c) 5% d) 6%
2. Base rate of SBI as on 01.04.2017 is
a) 9.50% b) 10.00%
c) 9.10% d) 9.00%
3. Present Bank rate is
a) 6.50% b) 8%
c) 7.5% d) 7.75%
4. Which airliner borrowed substantially from SBI is facing liquidity problems?
a) Air India b) Jet Airways
c) Kingfisher Airlines d) Indigo Airlines

5. MCX stands for


a) Money Commodities Exchange b) Multiple Commodities Market
c) Multi Commodities Xchange d) Multi Commodities Exchange of
India
6. Subir Gokarn is
a) SEBI chief b) Election Commissioner
c) RBI Deputy Governor d) Advisor to Ministry of Finance.

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7. White Label ATM (WLA) is an ATM owned by


a) Banks b) NBFC
c) Owned by non-bank and runs for d) By many banks together for
banks on fee basis collective use.
8. PPP represents
a) A political party in Uttara Pradesh b) An investment concept for
infrastructure projects
c) A new concept in financial d) None of the above
inclusion.
9. In recent times SENSEX generally became more sensitive to which of the
following factors?
a) FII flows b) FDI flows
c) Money flow from Mutual Funds d) Profits announced by companies.
10. Which five countries together are known as PIIGS?
a) 5 East Asian Countries b) 5 Latin American countries
c) 5 Southern Eurozone nations d) 5 Central Asian Nations
11. As per recent RBI guidelines which of the following is correct regarding White
Label ATM?
a) Five free transactions per month b) WLA is hired by one bank.
can be conducted by customers
c) Usage charges are displayed for d) All the above
the customers
12. The Railway budget is presented to the parliament on
a) 15th Feburary. b) 15th March.
c) 31st March. d) Along with Union Budget on 1st
February
13. Who is the MD&GE of Corporate Accounts Group of SBI
a) B.V.Chaubal b) B.Sriram
c) V.G.Kannan d) P.Pradeep Kumar
14. Which of the following rates provide direction to interest rates in the country?
a) Bank Rate b) Prime Lending Rate
c) Repo and Reverse Repo Rates d) Base Rate
15. If RBI cuts CRR, then
a) Excess Cash will be removed b) Liquidity will be infused into the
from the economy economy
c) Foreign Inward Remittances will d) Either (a) or (b)
take place on large scale.
16. What are the main components for fixing base rate by a bank?
a) Cost of Deposits, Operating b) Cost of Deposits, CRR & SLR
Costs and Profit Margin Costs and Profit Margin
c) Profit Margin , Operating Costs d) Cost of deposits, Profit Margin ,
and CRR & SLR Costs Operating Costs and CRR & SLR
Costs
17. Which of the following rates play a key role in RBIs LAF (Liquidity Adjustment
Facility)?
a) Repo and Reverse Repo Rates b) Bank Rate
c) PLR d) All the above

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18. The income tax in india is a


a) Indirect and Progressive b) Direct and Proportional
c) Direct and Progressive d) Indirect and proportional
19. Which of the following is true with respect to Bank rate?
a) A statutory rate in terms of b) A non-statutory rate used by RBI
Banking Regulation Act to provide direction to the interest
rate regime
c) A statutory rate in terms of RBI d) Bank Rate moves in tune with
Act Repo and Reverse Repo Rates
20. The state with highest population density in India as per census 2011 is
a) NCT Delhi b) Bihar
c) Tamilnadu d) Kerala
21. Fiscal policy is connected with ______
a) Issue of currency. b) Exports and imports.
c) Public revenue and expenditure. d) None of these.
22. AMA (Advanced Measurement Approach) is used to calculate
a) Operational risk b) Credit Risk
c) Market Risk d) Sovereign risk
23. Capital Conservation Buffer was mentioned in
a) Basel-1 b) Basel-II
c) Basel-III d) RBI Mid term policy Review

24. Malegaom Committee was set up by RBI for


a) Reviewing LAF b) Looking into Micro Finance
Institutions regulation issue
c) Review Bank rate concept d) To look into issues related to
MSME finance.
25. Government Business can be conducted by
a) Public Sector Banks only b) Public Sector Banks and a few
private sector Banks
c) All public Sector and Private sector d) None of the above
banks
26. Under FRBM (Fiscal responsibility and Budget management) mechanism, the
fiscal deficit to be restricted to
a) 3% of GDP b) 4.5% of GDP
c) 5% of GDP d) No such restriction
27. Gross Domestic Savings of India as part of GDP hover in the range of
a) 10-15% b) 15-18%
c) Around 20% d) Around 30%
28. Which of the following are called EMV Cards?
a) Magnetic stripe cards b) Signature based cards
c) Chip based cards d) All the above
29. At present which bank is leading in setting up of POS machines?
a) ICICI Bank b) Axis Bank
c) SBI d) Bank of Baroda
30. A CRR cut is expected to
a) Increase liquidity in the market b) Boost NIM of banks
c) Increase trends of inflation d) All the above

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31. Which country is the largest consumer of sugar in the world?


a) USA b) China
c) India d) Brazil
32. Which of the following is not a direct tax ?
a) Wealth tax b) Income tax
c) Estate Duty d) Sales tax.
33. Recently RBI gave banking licenses to which of the following institutions ?
a) IDBI and Bandhan b) Godrej and videocon
c) Bajaj and Reliance d) Sundaram and Manapparam
34. HDI (Human Development Index) is a measure of human development used by
a) World Bank b) IMF (international Monetary fund)
c) G- 7 Nations d) UNDP of UNO (United Nations
Organization)
35. A decrease in general price level of goods and services in an economy is called
a) Inflation b) Hyperinflation
c) Deflation d) Disinflation
36. Broad Money in Indian economy is denoted by
a) M1 money supply b) M2 money supply
c) M3 money supply d) None of the above
37. The effective literacy rate of India as per census 2011 is
a) 68.34% b) 74.04%
c) 70.12% d) 68.25%
38. The population density of India as per census 2011 is
a) 282 b) 382
c) 252 d) 352
39. The agency to look after the regulation of foreign trade of India is
a) Ministry of commerce b) EXIM House
c) EXIM Bank d) DGFT
40. Statutory liquidity ratio (SLR) is
a) 22.5% b) 23%
c) 20.5% d) 24.5%
41. Insurance for exports from and imports to India is provided by
a) Banks b) ECGC
b) EXIM Bank d) All the above
42 Which two organizations are popularly known as Brettenwoods Twins?
a) World Bank & United Nations b) IMF and UNDP
Development Program (UNDP)
c) IMF and World Bank d) IMF and International
Reconstructions Fund
43 SDR is a drawing facility available
a) From world Bank to member b) From IMF to member nations
nations
c) From Exim bank to big Corporate d) Aid from UNDP
houses in India
44 Government of India decided year 2017 to as
a) Cash Less b) Tourism
c) Water Conservation year d) Alleviating Poverty

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45. Who is is the chairman of UPSC?


a) T.Jacob b) Subodh Das
c) Laljit Singh d) RK Patil

46 The president of World Bank is


a) Nicolas Sarkozy b) Alexi Kudrin
c) Jim Yong Kim d) Christine Lagarde
47. There is a growing controversy about the deliberate undervaluation of a
particular currency to gain unfair advantage in trade by that nation. Which
currency is that?
a) Yuan b) Yen
c) Rial d) Euro
48. Chief Executive of IBA (Indian Banks Association) is
a) K.Ramanathan b) Mohan V Tankasale
c) Sandeep Deshpande d) Sudip Gokarn

49. Gen X is a deposit product launched by


a) Oriental Bank of commerce b) SBH
c) Andhra Bank d) Bank of Baroda

50. There is a growing controversy between Tamilnadu and Kerala regarding which
dam?
a) Periyar Dam b) Udukki dam
c) Mullaperiyar dam d) Idukki dam
51. The present Repo rate is
a) 6.5% b) 6.75%
c) 7.75% d) 6.25%

52. The present Reverse repo rate is


a) 6% b) 5.75%
c) 6.75% d) 5.5%
53. First ATM in India was installed in the year 1987 by
a) SBI b) HSBC
c) Standard & Chartered Bank d) Citi Bank
54. Investment limit under Sec 80C of the Income-tax act raised from 1 lack to
a) 1.25 lacs b) 2 lacs
c) 1.50 lacs d) 1.75 lacs

55. The Noble peace prize to Satyarthi and Malala Yousafzai is for the fought
against
a) Right of all children to b) Labour reforms
education
c) Protecting against widow d) None of these
marriages
56. Under Basel III, RBI has stipulated a CRAR(Capital to Risk weighted Asset
Ratio) of
a) 9% b) 11.5%
c) 10.5% d) 8%

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57 Computer security day is observed on


a) Nov 30th b) Sep 30th
c) Sep 14th d) Nov 14th
58. The union Budget is presented to the parlament on this day
a) 28th of February every year b) 1st of February every year
c) 31st of March Every Year d) As decided by the Government

59 The Trade Finance Software Exim Bills is being provided by


a) China system b) Infosys
c) TCS d) IBM
60 Which state ranked No.1 in Economic Freedom
a) Maharashtra b) Gujarat
c) West Bengal d) Tamilnadu
61. Sachin Tendulkars model village in Andhra Pradesh is
a) Mummidivaram, EG Dist b) Narsipatnam, Visaka Dist
c) Puttamraju Kandriga, Nellore d) Machilipatnam, Krishna Dist
Dist
62. The first asian country to send aircraft to Mars is
a) China b) India
c) Pakistan d) Srilanka
63. The author of book The Accidental Prime Minister-the making and unmaking of
Manmohan Singh
a) Sanjay Baru b) Pranab Mukherjee
c) PC Parakh d) Sachin Tendulkar
64. The autobiography of Sachin Tendulkar is
a) Playing cricket b) Playing it my way
c) The godfather d) None of the these
65. Which airlines plane disappeard in South China Sea
a) US airlines b) Arabian airlines
c) Malaysian Airlines d) Singapore Airlines
66. The bank formed on the efforts of Lala Lajpat Rai is
a) Bank of Baroda b) Punjab National Bank
c) Canara Bank d) Central Bank of India
67. The slogan Indias International Bank is of which Bank?
a) Punjab National Bank b) Bank of Baroda
c) Allahabad Bank d) Bank of Maharashtra
68. The slogan Experience our expertise is of which Bank?
a) Axis Bank b) HSBC
c) BNP Paribus d) Yes Bank
69. The aim of 12th Five Year plan 2012-13 to 2016-17 is
a) Growth with social justice and b) Faster and inclusive growth
equality
c) Faster and inclusive and d) Maximisation of employment
sustainable growth in all sectors
70. The slogan The Art of Being Smart is of which insurance company?
a) United India Insurance Co., Ltd b) The New India Ins.,Com Ltd.,
c) The oriental insurance co., Ltd d) General Insurance Corporation
of India

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71. Which ndian business group has announced joint venture with a South African
Insurance giant MMI Holding Ltd., to enter Indias health Insurance market
a) Reliance Group b) Aditya Birla Group
c) Tata group d) Bharati Enterprises
72. In International banking, TIBOR stands for
a) Tokyo Interbank offered rate b) Taiwan interbank offered rate
c) Thailand Interbank offered rate c) None of the above
73. The term Paper Gold refers to
a) Gold bonds b) Special Drawing Rights
c) Mutal funds d) Gold traded funds
74. Which country has recently launched Gandhi Inspired Tourist Attraction
Project
a) England b) USA
c) Pakistan d) South Africa
68. United Nations has decided to dedicate year 2017 to which of the following?
a) Water conservation b) Nuclear Energy
c) Clean India d) Sustainable Tourism for
development
69. International Internet day was observed globally on
a) October 29 b) October 30
c) October 24 d) October 1
70. With which bank, RBI has signed a pact for supervisory cooperation and
exchange of supervisory information.
a) Federal Reserve Bank b) Central Bank of Kenya
c) Bank of China d) Bank of Japan
71. Social networking site of SBI
a) SBI Aspirations b) SBI Facebook
c) SBI Twitter d) SBI You tube.
72. Which committee recommended a maximum age of 65 for private bank CEOs
?
a) Damodaran committee b) A.K.Kandelval committee
c) Dr. Rangarajan committee d) P J Nayak committee

73. SBI has its social media presence on


a) Only Face book b) Facebook, You tube and
Twitter.
c) Face book and twitter d) Facebook and Youtube

74. Union Government recently approved amendment to __ Act 1981 for


increasing authorized capital
a) NABARD b) RBI
c) SBI d) CAPITAL
75. What is a Masala Bond
a) To invest in commodies market b) Bonds to get exemption under
IT
c) Raised by individual d) Rupee demoniated bonds to
raise money from foreign
markets

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76. For merger of Associates into SBI which acts have to be amended
a) BR Act & RBI Act b) RBI Act & SBI Act
c) SBI Act & SBH Act d) SBI Act. & Associate Bank sAct
77. What is Indradhanush
a) Plan for recapitalization of b) New Deposit Scheme
Public Sector lenders
c) Scheme for Instant Issue of d) New Scheme to protect
Passport. Environment
78. RBI is to set up a separate Enforcement Department to
a) To monitor the NPAs b) Monitor banks against violation
of regulations.
c) To monitor digital transacntions d) To monitor cash transactions
of the banks
79. Recently RBI issued Final Payments Bank Licence to
a) India Post b) SBI
c) Tata Services d) Reliance
80. Other entities who got final Payments Bank Licence from RBI are
a) Tata Services & Birla Group b) Bharati Airtel & Paytm
c) d) Reliance & SBI
81. What is FSDC
a) Financial stability and b) Financial Stability and
Distribution Channel Development Commission
c) Financial Stability and d) None of the above
Development Council
82. Who is the Chairman of FSDC
a) Union Finance Minister b) Prime Minister
c) Reserve Bank Governor d) Finance Secretary
83. New Executive Director of RBI is
a) Ms.Malavika Sinha b) Mr.Govind nikhlani
c) Mr.Sanjay Baru d) Mr.K.Ramanathan
84. RBI has recently increased the limit of Prepaid Payment Instruments to
a) Rs.10,000/- b) Rs.20,000/-
c) Rs.40,000/- d) Rs.15,000/-
85. What is FDMC
a) Financial Distributory and b) Finanancial Development and
Maintainance Centre Maintenance Council
c) Financial Data Management d) Financial Data Merging Centre
Centre

86. GOI has appointed _______ as new Deputy Governer of RBI


a) Mr.Ajay Thagyi b) Sri Hemant Khandeval
c) Mr.N.Ramachander Rao d) Mr.V.Acharya
87. What is SBIs Mobile Wallet app
a) Eazy Pay b) SBI Buddy
c) Mobicrash d) Mobi Wallet
88. Which village is declared as first digital village of india.
a) Sangareddy of Telangana State b) Pedana of Andhra Pradesh
State
c) Akodara of Gujarat State d) Kandriga, Goa State

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89. What is the name of the new Payment System launched by Prime Minister
recently
a) BHIM b) Buddy
c) e-Zee Pay d) Mobi Transfer
90. What is GST
a) Goods and Services Tax b) Goods and Statutary Tax
c) Global Service Tax d) Government Service Tax
91. GST is applicalbe in which states
a) All the States. b) All the States Except J&K and
North Eastern States
c) All the states Except J&K d) Non of the above
92. GST is Governed by
a) Finance Minister b) Prime Minister
c) Neti Ayog d) GST council
93. Chairman of GST Council is
a) Prime Minister b) Finance Secretary
c) Union Financi Minister d) RBI Governor
94. GOI compensates the states for revenue loss o/a introduction os GST is for
a) 3 Yrs from date of Introduction. b) 5 Yrs from date of Introduction.
c) 10 Yrs from date of Introduction. d) No Compensation will be given
nd
95. 2 annual meeting of New Development Bank is hosted by
a) India b) China
c) Brazil d) Pakistan
96. Which Bank has launched UNNATI Credit Card to spread credit inclusion?
a) Bank Of india b) Union Bank Of India
c) State Bank Of India d) ICICI Bank
97. Truecaller Pay the UPI based mobile payment service has partnered with
which bank
a) State Bank Of India b) ICICI Bank
c) Axis Bank d) HDFC Bank
98. Money Plant Rupay International Platinium Debit Card is launched by which
bank
a) Bharateeya Mahila Bank b) AXIS Bank
c) Union Bank Of India d) Karnataka Bank
99. Which company is the new sponsor for the Indian Cricket?
a) Reliance b) Aditya Birla Group
c) Oppo d) Sahara
100. For the year 2016 which bank has been adjudged the Best Small Bank
a) Indus Ind Bank b) Bharateeya Mahila Bank
c) Karur Vysya Bank d) Kotak Mahindra Bank

ANSWERS- GENERAL AWARENSS 3

1. b 11. c 21. c 31. c 41. B


2. c 12. d 22. a 32. d 42. C
3. a 13. b 23. c 33. d 43. B
4. c 14. c 24. b 34. d 44. D

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5. d 15. b 25. c 35. c 45. A


6. c 16. d 26. a 36. c 46. C
7. c 17. a 27. d 37. b 47. A
8. b 18. c 28. c 38. b 48. B
9. a 19. c 29. c 39. d 49. B
10. c 20. a 30. d 40. c 50. C
51 d 61 c 71 b 81 c 91 c
52 b 62 b 72 c 82 a 92 d
53 b 63 a 73 b 83 a 93 c
54 c 64 b 74 a 84 b 94 b
55 a 65 c 75 d 85 c 95 a
56 B 66 b 76 c 86 d 96 c
57 a 67 b 77 a 87 b 97 b
58 b 68 d 78 b 88 c 98 d
59 a 69 c 79 a 89 a 99 c
60 b 70 b 80 b 90 a 100 c

General Awareness 4

Prepared by Sri. P.Adityudu, Manager(Trg)

1. Prime Ministers prestigious project Make in India is related to


a) Discourage Multinational b) Manufacturing abroad and labelling
companies vis a vis our domestic in India
companies
c) Encouraging Multinational and d) Encourage Banks and financial
domestic countries to manufacture instutions to design products in
in India. India.

2. Make in India was launched on


a) 25.09.2014 b) 26.01.2015
c) 25.07.2015 d) 15.08.2015
3. Make in India policy consists of ______sectors
a) 10 b) 15
c) 20 d) 25
4. 2017 G-20 summmit will be held in
a) Hamburg b) Geneva
c) Beijing d) None of the above

5. The project relating to cleanliness of rural and urban areas is


a) Swatch India b) Surabhi Bharat
c) Swatchata Bharat d) Swachh Bharat
6. Goveronor of RBI
a) Dr. Raghuram Rajan b) Dr. Subba Rao
c) Dr. K C Chakraborthy d) Urjith Patel

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7. Foreign exchange reserves of India as on March 2017 were


a) US$370 billion b) US$353 billion
c) US$275 billion d) US$253 billion
8. NITI Aayog stands for
a) National Institute for Technology b) National Institution for
and Investment Transforming India
c) National Institute of Tech d) None of the above
Initiatives
9. Period of demonitization announced by GOI recently is
a) 09.11.2016 to 30.12.2016 b) 08.11.2016 to 31.12.2016
c) 09.11.2016 to 31.03.2017 d) None of the above
10. The CEO of a MNC is sacked Recently is
a) Nusli Wadia b) Pallonji Mistry
c) Cyrus Mistry d) Noneof the above
11. The period of new Foreign trade policy is
a) 2015-2020 b) 2014-2019
c) 2012-2017 d) 2012-2018
12. The twelth five year plan is
a) 2014-2019 b) 2015-2020
c) 2012-2017 d) 2013-2018
13. The other Name of Career Development Scheme (C.D.S)
a) Saksham b) Sakshyam
c) Suraksha d) Suraksha unnati
14. C.D.S is revamp of __________
a) Products of SBI b) Products of SBI Associates
c) Human Resources d) None of the above
15. The 5 grades of C.D.S are
a) A, B, C, D, E b) AAA, AA, A, B, C
c) AA, A, B, C, D d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
16. The Consultants of C.D.S are
a) Mckensy and Co b) Price water Cooper
c) Boston Consultancy group d) L & T
17. NITI Aayog replaced
a) National Informatic Centre b) Planning Commission
c) National Advisory Council d) None of the above
18. Chairperson of NITI Aayog is
a) Union Finance Minister b) Prime Minister
c) RBI Governor d) None of the above
19. The Governing council of NITI Aayog is
a) CMs of States & Lt.Governors of b) All the Union Ministers
Union Teritories
c) Governors of all the States d) None of the above

20. First District to become the geotag of all the assets created under MGNRGA is
a) Siddipet of Telangana State b) Dharvad of Karnataka State
c) Kangra of H.P State d) None of the above

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21. Finacle is CBS software developed by


a) TCS b) Infosys
c) IBM India d) i.flex solutions
22. Which committee on customer service appointed by RBI recommended for
restoration of cash failed to be dispensed through ATMs to the customers
accounts within 5 days?
a) Damodaran Committee b) Khale Committee
c) Usha Thorat Committee d) Narendra Dev committee
23. SEBI was established in
a) 1993 b) 1992
c) 1988 d) 1990
24. WMA (Ways and means advances) is
a) Bank borrowings from RBI b) Government borrowings from RBI
c) Government borrowings from Banks d) RBI borrowings from banks.
25. How many digits are there in the Unique Identity Number Adhaar, issued by the
Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI)
a) 9 b) 11
c) 12 d) 16

ANSWERS - GENERAL AWARENSS -4


1 c 2 a 3 d 4 a 5 d
6 d 7 a 8 b 9 a 10 c
11 a 12 c 13 a 14 c 15 b
16 c 17 b 18 b 19 a 20 c
21 b 22 a 23 b 24 b 25 c

ORGANISATIONAL STRUCTURE AND HISTORY

Compiled by Sri.P.Adityudu, Manager (Training)

1. On recommendations of and ________through passing of an Act in


parliament, Imperial Bank of India was renamed as State Bank of India on 1st
July 1955.
a) All India Rural Credit Survey b) Goiporia committee
Committee (Gorawala Committee)
c) Narsimham committee d) RBI recommendations

2. State Bank Mobi Cash has been launched by SBI under with the partnership?
a) Bharati Airtel b) BSNL
c) Realiance Communications d) None of the above
3. Fully wholly owned banking subsidiary of SBI
a) Nepal SBI Bank Ltd b) SBI Mauritius Ltd
c) SBI Commercial & International d) SBICAP Securities Ltd
Bank Ltd (SBICI)
4. Find out which is not one of the Joint Venture of SBI
a) SBI Macquarie SBI Infrastructure b) Oman India Joint Investment
Trustee Pvt Ltd Fund-Trustee Co Pvt. Ltd
c) GE Capital Business Process d) SBI General Insurance
Management Services Pvt Ltd Company Ltd

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5. Which of the following statement is wrong?


a) SBIs Registered Office & Central b) SBIs Corporate Centre (Apex
Accounts Office is in Kolkata Office) is in Chennai
c) Corporate Centre headed by d) SBIs Corporate Centre is in
Chairman Mumbai.
6. Each Business Group is headed by
a) Deputy Managing Director b) Managing Director
c) Chief General Manager d) Chairman
7. State Bank of India has adopted _____villages under SBI ka ApnaGaon
Scheme.
a) 1,272 b) 2,272

c) 1,722 d) 2,722
8. The Bank has ____ foreign offices in ___ countries spanning all time zones.
a) 173: 34 b) 200:37
c) 34:173 d) 34:186
9. Stressed Assets Management Group (SAMG) resolves all NPAs of Rs.___and
above across the country with a view to provide focused efforts in resolution of
NPAs.
a) 10 cr b) 1 cr
c) 100 cr d) 1000 cr
10. Asset Liability Management Committee (ALCO) is headed by
a) MD & GE CAG b) Chairman & DMD
c) MD & CCRO d) DMD & CFO

11. Strategic Training Unit has been created headed by a ________to cater to
ever increasing training needs of the Bank. There are 5 ATIs (Apex Training
Institutes) and 47 SBLCs State Bank Learning Centres) across the country.
a) DGM (L&D) b) AGM (L&D)
c) CGM (L&D) d) CM (L&D)
12. The current Interest rate of PPF Balance is
a) 8.10% b) 8.00%
c) 7.95% d) 7.90%
13. Consultants for BPR in SBI
a) Deloitte consultancy b) Tata consultant services
c) Mc Kinsey d) None of these
14. The following is not the Pillars of BPR
a) NPA Management b) Alternate Delivery Channels
c) Centralized Processing Centers c) Branch Re-design
15. The following is not a Central Processing Centre
a) Retail Asset Central Processing b) Currency Administration Cell
Centre (RACPC) (CAC)
c) Small and Medium Enterprise City d) Centralized Clearing Processing
Credit Centre or SMECCC Centre(CCPC)

16. Turn Around Time (TAT) for Housing Loan at BPR centre under builder tie-up
a) 6 days b) 16 days
c) 7 days d) 17 days

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17. SBI Buddy is available in ____ languages


a) 6 b) 10
c) 13 d) 8
18. CRA model is applicable for limits of ________
a) above 25lacs for all segments b) 25 lacs and above for all
segments except Personal
segment
c) above 50lacs for all segments d. 50 d) None of the above
lacs and above for all segments
except Personal segment
19. If loan is given by two or more Banks jointly then it is
a) multiple banking b) consortium

c) sole banking d) None of these


20. Requirement of double signature while issuing DFT/ Bankers cheque
increased from 50000/- to .
a) 1,00,000 b) 1,50,000/-
c) 2,00,000 d) No such change
21. What is e_Booste
a) Migrating transactions from b) Migrating transactions from
branches to INB Channels branches to GCC
c) Migrating more & more transactions d) Migrating more & more
from branches to GRC transactions from branches to
ATM
22. SBI General Health Insurance pilot launched w.e.f
a) 01.09.2013 b) 02.09.2013
c) 03.09.2013 d) 04.09.2013
23. Priority Sector lending pertaining to Housing loans is reckoned up to Rs.___
a) 5 lacs b) 15lacs
c) 25 lacs d) 75 lacs
24. Abbreviation of GLIF is______.
a) General Ledger Interchange File b) General Ledger Interface File
c) General Loss Identification File d) General Loss Interface File
25. e-filing of income tax returns is mandatory for individuals with annual taxable
income of
a) Above Rs. 3.00 lacs b) Above Rs. 5.00 lacs
c) Above Rs. 7.50 lacs d) Above Rs.10.00 lacs
26. Chinas Currency is
a) Yuan b) Yen
c) Taka d) None of the above
27. GOI has announced the scheme during the demonitization period to control
the Black Money in the country is
a) Pradhanmantri Garib Kalyan b) Pradhan Mantri Jandhan
Deposit Scheme Yojana
c) Pradhanmantri Mudra Yojana d) None of the above
28. SBI has sponsored_____ RRBs,
a) 3 b) 5
c) 10 d) 15

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29. Interest concession for women given by SBI in which of the following scheme
a) Housing Loan b) Personal Loan
c) Agr Gold Loan d) Car Loan
30. Total Number of Foreign branches of SBI is
a) More than 225 b) More than 198 branchs
c) More than 250 d) None of the above
31. The Subsidiary launched by SBI for implementation of CSR is
a) SBI Power b) SBI Services
c) SBI Foundation d) None of the above
32. BCSBI means
a) Business correspondent of SBI b) Bankers Cheque of SBI
c)Banking Codes and Standards d) Bank Commission acct of SBI
Board of India
33. SBIs Mobile Wallet Buddy launched in collaboration witth
a) Accenture & Master Card b) Tata consultancy Services
c) Infosys & Master Card d) None of the above
34. SBI started dedicated Specialized Branch for Start-Ups called is.
a) SBI In Cube b) SBI -Starts
c) SBI - Exclusive d) None of the above
35. Recently SBI sought approval to operate in the following country along with
other Asian Asian Banks is
a) Bhutan b) Srilanka
c) Singapore d) Myanmar
36. FIBU stand for
a) Financial Institutions Business Unit b) Foreign Institutions Business
Unit
c) First Institution Business unit d) Former Institution Business Unit
37. SBI launched a single wndow for investment of the following country and the
single window is called:
a) China China Source b) Japan Japan Desk
c) Myanmar Myans source d) None of the above

38. SBI tied up with the following e-commerce gaint is


a) Flipkart b) Amazon
c) Snapdeal d) Shopclues

39. SBIs new Social Media Banking Platform is


a) SBI Mingle b) Twitter
c) Face Book d) Pintrest

40. New Managing Director of SBI appointed by GOI is


a) Mr.B.Sriram b) Mr.Rajanish Kumar
c) Mr.Praveen Kumar Gupta d) Mr.Dinesh Kumar Khara
41. Aggregate amount of Members contribution and Banks contribution plus
interest /income (if any) of Pension is known as _________.
a) Pension Treasure b) Cumulative Pension
c) Pension Wealth d) Double Pension

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42. Advertisement "Paisa Bolta Hai" is related to ____________.


a) Highlighting security features of b) Promotion of Credit Cards
Bank Notes
c) A slogan of Reserve Bank of India d) Promotion of Debit cards
43. Grievance Redressal Committee was reconstituted at Corporate Centre to
redress the appeals/representations of willful defaulters is headed by
a) Chairman b) MD & GE (IB)
c) DMD & GE (SAMG) d) Any DMD
44. Under Corporate Social Responsibility our Bank has taken new steps
beneficial to environment.
a) Green Champion b) Ozone Champion
c) Green Colour Banking d) Both (a) & (b)
45. Ultra Small Branches of the Banks are in the context of ______________
a) Financial Inclusion b) Focused lending for SME
c) Intensified Agricultural lending d) Priority sector lending
46. To facilitate online monitoring of currency chests maintained by us a Website
called ________has been launched.
a) CAC online b) CURRENCYCHEST-online
c) RBI online d) SBI online
47. After the merger of new banks into SBIs market share is expected to increase
by
a) 22.5% 23% b) 18% - 20%
c) 23% - 25% d) None of the above
48. The past and the latest data of the branch business environment, and
economic data is available in
a) P Report b) B.S.R. Report
c) Branch Dossier d) Weekly Abstract

49. Legal expenses incurred by the bank in respect of Recalled assets accounts
are to be debited to
a) Charges A/c - legal b) respective PB/RD A/c
c) Cash Receipt d) Charges sundries

50. Which bank merged with State Bank Of India along with 5 associates?
a) Bharateeya Mahila Bank b) Punjab & Sind Bank
c) Maharana Pratap Bank d) Uco Bank

Organizational Structure key

1 a 2 b 3 c 4 b 5 b 6 a 7 a 8 b 9 a 10 c
11 c 12 d 13 c 14 a 15 b 16 a 17 c 18 b 19 b 20 b
21 a 22 b 23 c 24 b 25 b 26 a 27 a 28 d 29 a 30 b
31 c 32 c 33 a 34 a 35 d 36 a 37 b 38 a 39 a 40 d
41 c 42 a 43 b 44 d 45 a 46 b 47 a 48 c 49 a 50 a

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Supervisory roles and Responsibilities

Prepared by Sri. P.Adityudu, Manager (Trg)

1. Passing powers of MMGS-II and above


a) Rs.5,00,000/- lacs b) Rs.10,00,000/- lacs
c) Rs.4,00,000/- lacs d) Unlimited.
2. Passing powers of PO, TO is Cash Rs______ & Transfers_______ (3 months
after their date of joining)
a) Rs.20000/- and Rs.25000/- b) Rs.25000/- and Rs.50000/-
c) Rs.50000/- and Rs.100000/- d) None of the above
3. Passing powers of PO, TO is Cash Rs_____& Transfers_______ (6months
after their date of joining)
a) Rs.25000/- and Rs.50000/- b) Rs.50000/- and Rs.100000/-
c) Rs.100000/- and Rs.200000/- d) Rs.200000/- and Rs.500000/-
4. Passing powers of JMGS I/ PO, TO is Cash Rs_____& Transfers_______
(2nd year of probation)
a) Rs.50000/- and Rs.100000/- b) Rs.100000/- and Rs.200000/-
c) Rs.200000/- and Rs.500000/- d) None of the above.
5. Passing powers of JMGS-I designated as Accountant, Field officer, Branch
Manager, Manager of Division are
a) Cash-Rs.200000/- and Transfer- b) Cash-Rs.500000/- and
Rs.500000/- Transfer-Rs.1000000/-
c) Cash-Rs.700000/- and Transfer- d) Unlimited.
Rs.800000/-
6. The role of Assistant is redesignated as
a) Assistant (Cash and Accounts) b) Junior Associate
c) Junior Associate (Customer Support d) None of the above
and sales)
7. The role of Customer Assistant is redesignated as
a) Customer Assistant (Sales) b) Customer Assistant(Customer
support & sales)
c) Associate (Customer Support & d) None of the above.
sales)
8. The role of Senior Assistant is redesignated as
a) Senior Assistant (Sales) b) Senior Associate (Customer
support)
c) Senior Associate (Sales) d) Senior Associate (Customer
support & Sales)
9. The role of Special Assistant is redesignated as
a) Special Assistant (Sales) b) Chief Associate (Customer
support and sales)
c) Special Associate (Sales) d) Special Associate (Customer
support & Sales)
10. The role of Senior Special Assistant is redesignated as
a) Senior Special Assistant (Sales) b) Senior Special Associate
(Customer support and sales)
c) Chief Special Associate (Customer d) Chief Associate (Customer

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support and sales) support and sales)


11. Passing powers of Chief Associate (Customer Support & Sales) is Cash
Rs__________& Transfers_______
a) Rs.200000/- and Rs.500000/- b) Rs.400000/- and Rs.500000/-
c) Rs.100000/- and Rs.400000/- d) Unlimited
12. Passing powers of Special Associate (Customer Support & Sales) is Cash
Rs_________& Transfers_______
a) Rs.200000/- and Rs.500000/- b) Rs.100000/- and Rs.400000/-
c) Rs.400000/- and Rs.500000/- d) None of the above
13. Passing powers of Senior Associate (Customer Support & Sales) is Cash
Rs_________& Transfers_______
a) Rs.50000/- and Rs.100000/- b) Rs.100000/- and Rs.200000/-
c) Rs.200000/- and Rs.400000/- d) None of the above
14. Passing powers of Junior Associate (Customer Support & Sales) with capability
level 1 is Cash Rs_________& Transfers_______
a) Rs.50000/- and Rs.100000/- b) Rs.25000/- and Rs.50000/-
c) Rs.20000/- and Rs.25000/- d) Rs.15000/- and Rs.20000/-
15. Passing powers of Associate (Customer Support & Sales) is Cash
Rs_________& Transfers_______
a) Rs.50000/- and Rs.100000/- b) Rs.25000/- and Rs.50000/-
c) Rs.35000/- and Rs.70000/- d) Rs.15000/- and Rs.20000/-
16. Passing powers of RM(SE) JMGS I officer is Cash Rs_________&
Transfers_______
a) Rs.200000/- and Transfer- b) Rs.200000/- and Transfer-
Rs.500000/- Rs.1000000/-
c) Cash-Rs.700000/- and Transfer- d) Unlimited
Rs.800000/-
17. Passing powers of Special Management Executives MMGS III officer for the
first 6 months and after 6 months is Cash Rs_________& Transfers_______
a) Up to 6 months : Rs.50000 & a) Up to 6 months : Rs.100000 &
Rs.100000 Rs.200000
After 6 months : Rs.200000 & After 6 months : Rs.100000 &
Rs.500000 Rs.200000
c) Up to 6 months : Rs.200000 & c) None of the above.
Rs.500000
After 6 months : Rs.500000 &
Rs.800000
18. Signing powers of JMGS-I/Chief Associate (Customer support & sales) in
respect of Draft/IOI is
a) Below Rs.150000/- Individually b) Jointly with another official
Rs.150000/- and above: Jointly with having full signing powers.
another official having full signing
powers.
c) Unlimited signing powers individually d) None of the above.
19. Drafts, Banker cheques, SC payment advices to be signed by _____ officials if
the amount is Rs.150000/- and above
a) One official b) Two officials
c) Three officials d) None of the above

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20. LCs/Guarantees to be signed by______ officials irrespective of the amount


a) One official b) Two officials
c) Three officials d) None of the above

21. Debits in Income A/cs should be authorized by


a) Branch Head b) Controlling authority
c) Accountant d) Field officer
22. Debits in Sundry Deposits should be authorized by
a) Accountant b) Controlling authority
c) Field officer d) Branch head
23. Both Debit & Credit in Suspense A/c should be authorized by
a) Accountant b) Branch head
c) Field officer d) Controlling authority
24. Retention period of power attorney register is
a) 5 years b) 10 years
c) 60 years d) To be retained permanently
25. Record register, letter of Indemnity and General ledger are to be preserved
a) 5 years b) 10 years
c) 60 years d) To be preserved permanently
26. Banker Cheques prepared by debiting to charges account and are outstanding
for more than 3 years are to be credited to
a) Charges(Sundries) b) Branch Exchange a/c
c) Branch Commission account d) Cannot be credited.
27. Purchases below Rs.1000/- fixed assets to be debited to
a) Fixed assets account(P&M) b) Charges account(Sundries)
c) Fixed assets (Furniture and fixtures) d) None of the above
28. Cost of furniture item (Tea poy) amounting to Rs.850/- is debited to
a) Fixed assets (Furniture and fixtures) b) Charges account (Sundries)
c) Fixed assets account (P&M) d) None of the above
29. The cost of a trunk box for an amount of Rs.700/- for the purpose of using for
cash remittances
a) Charges account b) Exchange account
c) Fixed assets account d) Commission account
30. Cheques / Instruments etc in respect of Govt / Non Govt transactions to be
passed by two officials with full passing powers for amount of
a) Rs.10 lacs and above b) Rs.25 lacs and above
c) Rs.50 lacs and above d) It is unlimited individually
31. Production of sureties may not be insisted upon while obtaining indemnity for
issuance of duplicate IOI (Draft) where the amount of IOI (Draft) is up to
Rs_____ if the applicant (purchaser) of a IOI (Draft) is considered good for the
amount.
a) Rs.5000/- b) Rs.10000/-
c) Rs.50000/- d) Rs.100000/-
32. Power of Attorneys are entered in
a) Power of Attorney register b) Branch Documents register
c) Miscellaneous security register d) Sundry deposit register
33. LIC Policy given as security for Overdrafts are entered in

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a) Power of Attorney register b) Branch Documents register


c) Miscellaneous security register d) Sundry deposit register
34. Death certificates, Succession certificates, Letter of Administration, Probates,
Court orders appointing receivers for property are entered in
a) Power of Attorney register b) Branch Documents register
c) Miscellaneous security register d) Sundry deposit register
35. Indemnity Bonds are entered in
a) Power of Attorney register b) Branch Documents register
c) Miscellaneous security register d) Sundry deposit register
36. Licenses, Retention limits, Insurance, Title Deed related to Banks property,
lease, agreement etc are entered in
a) Power of Attorney register b) Branch Documents register
c) Miscellaneous security register d) Sundry deposit register
37. The unused/ Un surrendered cheque leaves are entered in
a) Power of Attorney register b) Branch Documents register
c) Lost Document Register d) Sundry deposit register
38. DRP & BCP are entered in
a) Power of Attorney register b) Branch Documents register
c) Lost Document Register d) Sundry deposit register
39. Water droplet test (Fugitive ink test) needs to be conducted for instruments of
a) Rs.25000/- and above b) Rs.50000/- and above
c) Rs.100000/- and above d) Not required in CTS
40. With effect from 01.07.2017 the revised scoring in RFIA for Adequatly
Controlled Branche is
a) Marks between 700 - 849 b) Marks between 725 - 849
c) Marks between 750 - 849 d) None of the above
41. With effect from 01.07.2017 the revised scoring in RFIA for Moderatly
Controlled Branche is
a) Marks between 700 - 849 b) Marks between 700 - 849
c) Marks between 650 - 724 d) None of the above
42. Proposed Number of Circle after the merger of Associate Banks is
a) 14 b) 15
c) 16 d) None of the above
43. Under the new TDS system TRS stands for
a) Tax Reporting System b) TDS Reporting System
c) Tax Reconciliation System d) None of the above
44. In MRFTP (Market related fund transfer price mechanism), TP Bid rate means
a) Central office Interest receivable on b) Central office interest payable
deposits on advances
c) Both a & b d) None of the above
45. In MRFTP (Market related fund transfer price mechanism), TP offer rate means
a) Central office Interest receivable on b) Central office interest payable
deposits on advances
c) Both a & b d) None of the above
46. Every year expenses on a/c of training of all branch staff is transferred to LHO
a) 28th/29th February b) 31st January
c) 31st March d) On any day.

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47. Yearly entry relating to staff welfare fund is passed on


a) 31st January b) On any day.
th th
c) 28 /29 February d) 31st March
48. Income tax register is to be preserved for atleast
a) 5 years b) 10 years
c) 25 years d) permanently
49. Recoveries made on account of written off accounts are credited to
a) Charges account(Recovery from b) P & L account
return off accounts)
c) Adjusting account d) Loan account /deposit account
of the customer
50. Bank Guards name is entered in Gun license as
a) Owner b) Holder
c) Retainer d) Only BMs name entered
51 Minimum Amount to be deposited in Sukanya Samriddhi Account in a FY is
a) Rs.1,000/- b) Rs.1,500/-
c) Rs 500/- d) No minimum is prescribed
52 Maximum Amount to be deposited in Sukanya Samriddhi Account in a FY is
a) Rs.12,000/- b) Rs.6,000/-
c) Rs.1,50,000/- d) No Ceiling
53 Penaulty for non payment of minimum amount of Deposit under Sukanya
Samriddhi Account is
a) Rs.50/- Per year b) Rs.10/- per year
c) Rs.100/- per year d) No Penaulty
54 Withdrawal under Sukanya Samriddhi Account is as under
a) Girl child attains 18 years b) Girl child has passed 10th
th
of age or has passed 10 standard, standard
whichever is earlier
c) Girl child attains 18 yearsof age d) None of the above
55 Pre mature closure of the account can be done on exceptional cases after the
completion of ____ years
a) 10 yrs from the opening of such b) 5 yrs from the opening of such
account account
c) 15 yrs from the opening of such d) Pre mature closure is not
account available

KEY FOR MCQ Supervisory roles and Responsibilities

1 d 2 a 3 b 4 c 5 d
6 c 7 c 8 d 9 d 10 d
11 a 12 b 13 a 14 d 15 c
16 b 17 a 18 a 19 b 20 b
21 a 22 d 23 b 24 c 25 d
26 a 27 b 28 a 29 b 30 a
31 d 32 a 33 c 34 d 35 b
36 b 37 c 38 b 39 a 40 b
41 c 42 c 43 b 44 a 45 b
46 a 47 c 48 b 49 a 50 c
51 a 52 c 53 a 54 a 55 b

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BUSINESS CORRESPONDENTS & BUSINESS FACILITATORS

Compiled by Sri.P.Adityudu, Manager (Training)

1 As per latest instructions, Savings Bank accounts opened by Business


correspondents/CSPs the instruction is
(a) Biometric machines to be (b) Signatures of the account
provided at branches in future. holders to be scanned and
withdrawls to be allowed at
branches.
(c) Transactions may be allowed (d) All the above.
at branches, based on photo
identification as in the case of
illiterate customers, till
biometric machines are
installed.
2 The services of Business facilitators to be
(a) Terminate the existing (b) Discontinue the engagement of
individual B.Fs on expiry of fresh individual B.Fs.
their agreements
wef.11.04.2012.
(c) New entity B.Fs(Corporate & (d) All the above.
NGOs) may be engaged on
selective basis and existing
entities may be reviewed
based on their contribution and
action taken.
3 An officer of the link branch will visit the CSPs once a week on fixed time and
day, and will use the visit for
(a) Monitor the activities at CSP. (b) Deposit mobilization,
Collect and check all Marketing for loans and
applications for opening of new advances, follow up for
savings account. recovery of loans/NPAs.
(c) To meet the villagers to create (d) All the above.
awareness and to get feed ack.

4 The Software that has been developed with the various objectives like
maintenance of BC/BF details, their commission details, computation of
commissions payable, MIS and performance control is.
(a) ChannelManagement Software (b) SBI connect
(c) China systems (d) B@ncs 24

5 Outsourcing of certain banking activities through Business Facilitators (BFs)


and Business Correspondents (BCs) has been permitted by which Authority?
(a) R.B.I (b) S.B.I
(c) S.E.B.I (d) I.R.D.A

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6 The objectives of engaging BC/BF


(a) Greater financial inclusion (b) Increasing the out reach of the
banking sector.
(c) Only (a) (d) Both (a) & (b)
7 Can BC/BFs source large value deposits / loans
(a) Yes (b) No
(c) None (d) Cant say
8 FIC (FINANCIAL INCLUSION CENTER) is primarily meant for
(a) Creating awareness about (b) Supporting Business
financial inclusion Correspondents
(c) RBI move (d) All the above
9 The security deposit for individual Business Correspondents is
(a) average turnover of 3 days with (b) average turnover of 2 days
minimum Rs. 0.50 lacs. with minimum Rs. 0.50lacs.
(c) average turnover of 4 days with (d) average turnover of 5 days
minimum Rs. 0.50 lacs. with minimum Rs. 0.50 lacs.
10 The minimum security deposit of Rs.10 lacs to be applicable for Entity BCs
(NGOs, Sec. 25 companies, Societies etc) is
(a) upto 1000 CSPs. (b) upto 2000 CSPs
(c) upto 3000 CSPs (d) upto 4000 CSPs
11 The maximum amount that can be accepted by a BC/CSP under AEPS is
(a) Rs.20000/- (b) Rs.10000/-
(c) Rs.5000/- (d) Rs.15000/-
12 The maximum amount that can be accepted in cash for deposit to a
customers account by third party in kiosk banking is
(a) Rs.20000/- (b) Rs.10000/-
(c) Rs.5000/- (d) Rs.15000/-
13 Who is the head of the committee on Financial Inclusion?
(a) V. Khelkar (b) Usha Thorat
(c) C.Rangarajan (d) Vepa Kamesam
14 what is the periodicity of commission payable to BC/BF
(a) Monthly (b) Weekly
(c) Quarterly (d) Halfyearly
15 Which account is to be debited while paying commission to BC/BF?
(a) Charges fees paid to BC/ BF (b) Commission fees paid to
BC/BF
(c) Interest account (d) Suspense account
16 What is a small value transaction?
(a) Cash withdrawl/deposit upto (b) Cash withdrawl/deposit upto
Rs.10000/- Rs.1000/-
(c) Cash withdrawl/deposit upto (d) Cash withdrawl/deposit upto
Rs.5000/- Rs.100/-
17 What is the difference between a BC and BF?
(a) Both are same (b) A BF will only source
applications for deposits. A BC
in addition to the activities of
the BF will also carry out small
value transactions cash /
transfer

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SBLC MASULIPATNAM THE WINGS 2017

(c) A BC in addition to the (d) None of the above.


activities of the BF will also
carry out high value
transactions cash / transfer
18 Whether commission is to be recovered from BC/BF in case of premature
payment of TDR?
(a) Yes. In case the pre-mature (b) Yes. In case the pre-mature
payment is before a period of payment is before a period of 6
1 year. months.
(c) Yes. In case the pre-mature (d) Yes. In case the pre-mature
payment is before a period of payment is before a period of 3
2 years. months.
19 What is the minimum period for which a term deposit can be sourced by a
BC/BF?
(a) 3 months (b) 1 year
(c) 9 months (d) 6 Months
20 Whether renewal of TDR is eligible for commission?
(a) Yes, sourced by any body (b) No such provision
(c) Yes, provided it is originally (d) None of the above
sourced by a BC/BF.
21 What is the rate of commission payable to BC/ BF on SB account?
(a) Rs.20/- is payable for every (b) Rs.10/- is payable for every
S.B account S.B account
(c) Rs.30/- is payable for every (d) Rs.5/- is payable for every S.B
S.B account account
22 ________Committee report is on Rural Credit and Micro Finance and deals
with modalities for appointment of banking correspondents
(a) Khan committee report (b) Narasimham committee
(c) Rangarajan committee (d) None of the above

23 Can BC accept cash


(a) Yes, maximum of Rs.20000/- (b) Yes, maximum of Rs.500/- per
per day per customer day per customer
(c) Yes, maximum of Rs.10000/- (d) Yes, maximum of Rs.1000/-
per day per customer per day per customer
24 Can an individual/entity affiliated to a political party be engaged as a BC/BF.?
(a) Yes (b) Yes, but with satisfactory
record
(c) None (d) No
25 Are the BCs required to make investment before commencing
transaction on behalf of the bank?
(a) Only laptop (b) The BCs need to make
investment in POS
devices,finger print capturing
machine, receipt printer and
finger print scanner, laptop and
a digital camera.
(c) None (d) Fixed amount of Rs.50000/-

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26 What is a CSP?
(a) Customer Sales Point (b) Consumer sales point
(c) Customer sales procedure (d) Customer Service Point
27 Does the BC/BF also required to maintain a complaint register?
(a) No (b) Maintained at the link branch
(c) Maintained at the R.B.O (d) Yes
28 Who will obtain insurance of the cash at the BC outlet?
(a) B.C himself (b) Link Branch
(c) Channel manager (d) Regional Business office
29 Will the BCs/BFs be given any business targets?
(a) No targets (b) Yes, Individual targets given
(c) Yes. The target given to the (d) Yes, maximum target of
Channel Manager / Channel Rs.100000/-
Manager Advisor will be
distributed among the
BCs/BFs.
30 Can the customers who have opened an account with BC Smart
Card / transact through the Branch also
(a) Yes. The customer has the (b) Yes. The customer has the
freedom to use Branch freedom to use only at CSP.
banking facilities.
(c) No such facility (d) None of the above
31 Pass Books for the FIC accounts maintained by the BCs can be issued at?
(a) Issued at Link Branch only (b) Issued at BC point only
(c) Both A & B are Correct (d) Pass Book Cannot be issued
to FIC account Holders
32 Maximum Loan to Business Correspondents under SME segment To meet all
kinds of Credit requirements relating to business
(a) Rs.1.00 lacs (b) Rs.2.50 lacs
(c) Rs.3.00 lacs (d) No Loan canbe extended to
B.Cs

ANSWERS (FI)

1. d 2 d 3 d 4 a 5 a
6 d 7 b 8 b 9 a 10 a
11 b 12 a 13 c 14 a 15 a
16 a 17 b 18 a 19 d 20 c
21 d 22 a 23 a 24 d 25 b
26 d 27 d 28 a 29 c 30 a
31 a 32 b

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SBLC MASULIPATNAM THE WINGS 2017

PER SEGMENT DEPOSIT PRODUCTS

Compiled by Sri K Giridhar Reddy, Manager (Training)

1 Which of the following cannot open Saving Bank account?


(a) Illiterate Person (b) Municipal Corporations or
Committees
(c) Pardanashin women (d) Minor
2 What is the minimum amount of deposit into SB account?
(a) 5 (b) 10
(c) 50 (d) No such stipulation
3 Savings Account should be treated as inoperative, if there are no debit as well
as credit transactions over a period of
(a) 1 year (b) 2 years
(c) 3 years (d) None of these
4 Minors who can adhere to uniform signature and are not less than ten years
old can open sb accounts in their single name and maintain therein a
maximum balance of
(a) Rs. 100,000/- (b) Rs. 500,000/-
(c) Rs. 200,000/- (d) Rs. 300,000/-
5 What is the minimum amount of withdrawal in SB account?
(a) Rs.10 (b) Rs.20
(c) Rs.50 (d) No such Stipulation
6 What is the agelimit for Yuva Savings account?
(a) 18-40 years (b) 18-45 years
(c) 18-30 years (d) 18-50 years
7 What is the min. and max. Period for which MOD can be accepted ?

(a) 1 and 5 years (b) 6 Months and 120 Months


(c) 7 days and 10 years (d) None of the above
8 The type of deposit that can be opened in MODS
(a) TDR (b) STDR
(c) Either a or b (d) None of the above
9 Corporate Liquid Term Deposit can be accepted for amounts of
(a) Min Rs.50000 and in multiples (b) Subsequent deposits Min.25000
of Rs.5000 and in multiples of Rs.5000
(c) Both a and b are true (d) None of the above
10 Savings Plus is the combination of
(a) SB and MODS (b) SB and CLTD
(c) Current account and MODS (d) None of these
11 Which of the following are not true in respect of Savings Plus ?
(a) Min. balance Rs.5000 (b) Deposits matured will be rolled
over unless indicated otherwise
(c) TDS is applicable for MODS (d) None of these
created
12 Withdrawals are permitted from Savings Plus Account through
(a) Cheque (b) ATM
(c) INB (d) All of the these

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SBLC MASULIPATNAM THE WINGS 2017

13 Which of the following are true in respect of Savings Plus account


(a) No overdraft will be allowed (b) Deposits cannot be accepted as
against SBI MOD Deposits margin for any NF business
(c) Both are true (d) None of the above are true
14 Which of the following are true in case of Senior Citizen Deposit Scheme
(a) Objective is to provide (b) Min. 7 days and Max. 10 years
differential interest rate to
Senior Citizens
(c) Min. Rs.10000 and in multiples (d) All of these
of Rs.1000
15 Which of the following are not true in respect of Capgain Plus Scheme
(a) Parking of capital gains for a (b) Min Rs.1000 in SB a/c and Min
max period of 3 years Rs.5000 in TD Account
(c) Deposit can neither be (d) None of these
accepted as margin nor as
collateral
16 Amount withdrawn from deposits under Capgain Plus to be utilized within
(a) 30 days (b) 60 days
(c) 90 days (d) None of the above
17 Upper limit (ceiling) for issue of MCC for Per segment Savings Account holders
(Others) and for HNI/NRIs is
(a) Rs.2 lacs and Rs.10.00 lacs (b) Rs.5 lacs and Rs.20.00 lacs
(c) Rs.10 lacs and Rs.50.00 lacs (d) None of these
18 What are the variants available under Corporate Salary Package
(a) Silver (b) Gold
(c) Diamond & Platinum (d) All of the above
19 What is the eligibility criteria for opening salary accounts under Corporate
Salary Package
(a) Min. 25 employees (b) Min. payout of Rs.1.25 lacs
(c) Both a & b (d) None of the above

20 The deposit scheme available in the bank that offers both higher interest and
tax benefits u/s 80 C
(a) Cap Gain Plus (b) MODS
(c) SBI Tax Savings Scheme 2006 (d) None of the above
21 The income criteria under Corporate salary package under Gold category is
(a) Rs.5,000 to Rs.20,000 (b) Rs.20,000 to Rs.50,000/-
(c) Rs.50,000 to Rs.1,00,000 (d) Above Rs.1,00,000/-
22 The maximum number of debit entries permitted in savings account per half
year is ---------- except transactions routed through alternate channels.
(a) Depends on QAB (b) Depends on Half yearly balance
(c) Depends on Monthly avg bal (d) No such stipulation
23 The income criteria under Corporate salary package under Silver category is
(a) Rs.5,000 to Rs.20,000 (b) Rs.20,000 to Rs.50,000/-
(c) Rs.50,000 to Rs.1,00,000 (d) Above Rs.1,00,000/-
24 The income criteria under Corporate salary package under Diamond category
(a) Rs.5,000 to Rs.20,000 (b) Rs.20,000 to Rs.50,000/-
(c) Rs.50,000 to Rs.1,00,000 (d) Above Rs.1,00,000/-

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25 Small Deposit account means


(a) Balance at any point of time (b) Aggregate of all credits in a
does not exceed Rs.50000 financial year does not exceed
Rs.100000
(c) Aggregate of all withdrawals (d) All the above
and transfers in a month does
not exceed Rs.10000
26 Salient feature of Yuva SB account include
(a) Free collection of one cheque, (b) Min. balance Rs.5000
with a ceiling of Rs.20,000/- pm
(c) Free INB (d) All of these

27 Penalty applicable on premature payment of TDRs


(a) Retail Term Deposits up to Rs (b) For term deposit above Rs 5.00
5.00 lacs will be NIL provided lacs but less than Rs 1 crore,
the deposits have remained with 1% for all tenors
the bank for at least 7 days.
(c) No premature penalty will be (d) All of the above
levied on staff and SBI
pensioners Deposits
28 Norms for loan/overdraft against TDRs are
(a) 0.50% above contracted rate (b) 90% of principal and accrued
interest can be sanctioned as
loan
(c) Both a & b (d) None of the above
29 Recurring Deposit with flexibility in amount of installment
(a) SBI Flexi (b) MODS
(c) SBI Tax Savings Scheme 2006 (d) None of the above

30 Features of SBI Flexi Deposit include


(a) Min. Rs.5000 per year and (b) Max. Rs.50000 in a financial
Rs.500 at any one instance year
(c) Penalty for default in payment (d) All the above
of minimum deposit will be
Rs.50/- per Financial Year
31 Which of the following are not true in respect of SBI Surabhi
(a) SB or CA will be linked to (b) Min bal for CA is Rs.10000
CLTD
(c) Min bal for SB is Rs.1000 (d) None of the above
32 In Surabhi, CLTD will be created for the periods
(a) Min 12 months and Max 36 (b) Min 7 days and max 10 years
months
(c) Min 6 months and Max 10 (d) None of the above
years
33 Which of the following are not true in case of SBI Surabhi ?
(a) No loan or OD is permissible (b) Partial withdrawal based on
against the deposit LIFO
(c) Periodicity for Sweep is weekly (d) None of the above

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34 The following are not true in case of SBI Tax Saving Scheme 2006
(a) PAN is mandatory (b) Min Period of deposit is 5 years
(c) Min deposit is Rs.1000 (d) None of the above
35 Under Premier Savings account, which are the facilities available
(a) Through auto sweep, Term (b) Unlimited no of debits
deposit under MOD
(c) Free RTGS/NEFT (d) PRODUCT DISCON TINUED
36 Tenure for MOD Component under Savings Plus
(a) 1 year to 3 years (b) 3 year to 5 years
(c) 1 year to 5 years (d) 2 year to 3 years
37 Under Tax Savings scheme, which sections of IT act is applicable for deposits
(a) 80 B (b) 80 C
(c) 80 D (d) 80 H
38 Maturity proceeds if exceeds Rs.20,000/- or more to be invariably be credited
to account or paid through Account payee cheque is stipulation under:
(a) Section 269 of IT Act (b) Section 269 of SBI Act
(c) Section 268 of IT Act (d) Section 268 of SBI Act
39 Period of deposit under SBI Flexi Deposit scheme is
(a) 3-5 years (b) 5-7 years
(c) 4-7 years (d) 5-10 years
40 What is the period of deposit under Tax Savings Scheme
(a) 5-7 years (b) 5 years
(c) 5-8 years (d) 5-10 years
41 Name the deposit scheme which allows lump sum deposit and payment of
principal and interest at equated monthly installments
(a) SBI Annuity Deposit (b) SBI Flexi
(c) SBI Power Jyothi (d) None of these
42 Which of the following are not features of SBI Annuity Deposit
(a) Min Deposit Amount Rs.25000 (b) Min Monthly Annuity Rs.1000
(c) Period of Deposit 36/60/84/120 (d) None of the above
months
43 The loan facility under PPF scheme is available during the period
(a) 4-5 years (b) 3-5 years
(c) 2-5 years (d) 5th year onwards
44 Which of the following is true under Sukanya Samriddhi Account
(a) any girl child who had attained (b) Minimum Deposit in a year is
the age of ten years Rs.1000/- and Maximum is
Rs.150,000/-.
(c) Minimum deposit mandatory till (d) All the above
14 years from the date of
opening
45 Pehla Kadam is a Savings Bank scheme for children below the age of
(a) 5 yrs (b) 15 yrs
(c) Minor of any age (d) 12 yrs
46 Pehli Udaan is a Savings Bank scheme for children above the age ofand
sign uniformly.
(a) 12 yrs (b) 5 yrs
(c) 1o yrs (d) 8 yrs

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SBLC MASULIPATNAM THE WINGS 2017

47 What is the cap on per day INB Transaction limits in Pehli Kadam, Pehli
Udaan account
(a) Rs. 2,000 (b) Rs. 3,000
(c) Rs. 4,000 (d) Rs. 5,000
48 Which child plan of SBI life is offered to customers of Pehli Kadam and Pehli
Udaan with inbuilt premier waiver benefit:
(a) Smart Kadam (b) Smart Udaan
(c) Smart Scholar (d) Smart Student
49 What is the basis for determining the variant of Salary Account under
Corporate Salary Package
(a) CSP Gross Salary (b) Rank of the employee in all
other packages
(c) Both a & b are true (d) None of the above
50 Following are the common features of all Salary Packages
(a) Savings Plus accounts will be (b) Overdraft facility available up to
opened 2 months net salary
(c) 1% discount on purchase of (d) All the above
Gold Coins of all
denominations
51 Personal Accident Insurance cover available for Gold & Diamond variants in
all the salary packages
(a) Rs.5.00 lacs (b) Rs.4.00 lacs
(c) Rs.3.00 lacs (d) None of these
52 The following offers are available for Platinum Variant in all the salary
packages
(a) SBI Vishesh Status (b) Free Platinum International
Debit Card
(c) 25% concession in locker (d) All of these
charges
53 Authority vested with CGM to permit coverage of employees having salaries of
less than Rs.5000 p.m under Silver variant provided:
(a) All the salary accounts are (b) Employees drawing gross
maintained with our Bank salary of less than Rs.5000
should not be more than 20% of
total
(c) Both a & b are true (d) None of these
54 Max amount of deposit in any account under Pehla Kadam SB account
(a) Rs.5 lacs (b) Rs 10 lacs
(c) Rs.1 lac (d) Rs 2 lacs
55 Max amount of deposits under common CIF in Pehla Kadam SB Account
(a) Rs 10 lacs (b) Rs 5 lacs
(c) Rs 1 lac (d) Rs 3 lacs

56 The maximum deposit permitted under SBI Tax Savings Scheme 2006
(a) 150000 (b) 200000
(c) 100000 (d) 50000
57 If a customer feels that the services rendered by the branch are not
satisfactory he can close his SB account with in_ _ and the SB account
closure charges are waived

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SBLC MASULIPATNAM THE WINGS 2017

(a) 14 days (b) 15 days


(c) 30 days (d) 18 days
58 What is the margin stipulation for loan against term deposits ?
(a) 10% of the face value plus (b) 5% of the face value plus
accrued interest accrued interest
(c) 15% of the face value plus (d) None of these
accrued interest
59 The interest will be paid on pre-mature payment of term deposits, if the deposit
remained in the Bank for a minimum period of _ _ _ _ _ _ days
(a) 15 days (b) 14 days
(c) 7 days (d) 30 days
60 The cap of 120 months on the tenor of term deposits is as per the guidelines
of _ _ _ _
(a) RBI (b) IBA
(c) Min. of Finance, GOI (d) None of these
61 Dishonor of electronic funds transfer has to be treated as dishonor of
negotiable instrument as per the provisions of ..
(a) BR Act (b) NI Act
(c) Payment and Settlement (d) None of these
Systems Act
62 Which of the following statement are incorrect
(a) Witness has to be obtained in (b) Two witness signatures have to
all nomination forms be obtained on nomination
forms given by illiterate persons
(c) For E or S deposit account (d) Nomination should be in favor
nomination can be obtained of an individual only
63 What is the minimum deposit under Kisan Mitra Jama Yojana scheme
(a) Rs.500 (b) Rs.1000
(c) Rs.1500 (d) Rs.2000
64 The tenure of deposit under Kisan Mitra Jama Yojana scheme
(a) 12 months to 5 years (b) 12 months to 7 years
(c) 12 months to 8 years (d) 12 months to 10 years

65 On pre-mature payment of deposits the reduction in waiver of penalty can be


permitted by ____
(a) CGM of the circle (b) GM of the Network
(c) DGM of the Module (d) No discretion
66 What is the minimum monthly pay out in CSP facility ?
(a) Rs.1.25 lacs (b) Rs.1.50 lacs
(c) Rs.2.00 lacs (d) Rs.5.00 lacs
67 Who can not open PPF account
(a) Resident Individual (b) NRI
(c) HUF (d) Both b and c
68 PMJDY scheme stands for
(a) Prime Minister Jan Dhan (b) Prime Minister Jeevan Dan
Yojana Yojana
(c) Prime Minister Jana Drishti (d) Prime Minister Jeevan Dharti
Yojana Yojana

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69 Rupay card is associated with


(a) New Yuva Card (b) Credit Card
(c) Prepaid NRE Card (d) PMJDY
70 Accidental Death Insurance Cover of Rs________ is available in PMJDY A/C
(a) 25000 (b) 100000
(c) 50000 (d) 30000
71 Life Insurance Cover of Rs______ is available in PMJDY account
(a) 50000 (b) 100000
(c) 30000 (d) 10000
72 Overdraft of Rs_____ is available after 6 months in PMJDY account
(a) 50000 (b) 5000
(c) 10000 (d) 25000
73 Which of the following is true about granting overdraft in Savings Bank
account:
(a) Good customers to an extent of (b) Not more than 3 occasions in a
Rs.1000/- year
(c) OD to be adjusted within one (d) All the above
month
74 Which of the following is not true about Basic Savings Bank account(fully KYC
Compliant) :
(a) No Minimum Balance (b) No annual maintenance fee
(c) Max 4 withdrawals in a month (d) Interest calculated on monthly
average basis
75 Which of the following is not in the list Officially Valid Documents declared by
Government of India for the purpose of proof of identity under KYC.
(a) Passport (b) Driving licence
(c) Id card issued by Post offices (d) NREGA card issued by
Revenue authorities
76 What is the periodicity for updation of KYC under High risk category customers
(a) 2 years (b) 3 years
(c) 4 years (d) 5 years
77 Bank has set up AML/CFT cell at Jaipur, what is the software used by them for
analysing the alerts on transactions across the bank
(a) Analog (b) Amlock
(c) Digilock (d) Amlcftlock
78 What is the periodicity for updation of KYC under High risk category customers
(a) 2 years (b) 5 years
(c) 8 years (d) 10 years
79 What is the minimum threshold limit for executing auto sweep under Pehli
Kadam and Pehli Udaan account
(a) Rs.10000 (b) Rs.15000
(c) Rs.20000 (d) Rs.25000
80 Which of the following is true about Over Draft facility in Pehli Kadam and
Pehli Udaan account
(a) Overdraft facility is available to (b) Overdraft may be grated
the parents for meeting against fixed deposits
immediate requirements such
as payment of school fees, etc

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SBLC MASULIPATNAM THE WINGS 2017

(c) two months salary in case of (d) All the above


Corporate Salary package
accounts as the case may be
subject to fulfilling other terms
and conditions
81 Under which of the following scheme is Value Added Feature(optional) facility
for PAI Cover by SBI General Insurance under
(a) Pehli Kadam (b) Pehli Udaan
(c) Available in Both a&b (d) No such facility
82 Which of the following is true about DL against TDR/STDR
(a) Maximum amount of loan that (b) Max of 4 DLs can be
can be granted against Term sanctioned
Deposits 90% of principal
amount + accrued interest
(c) Both a&b (d) None of these
83 Interest on deceased CA to be paid at the rate of
(a) No interest to be paid (b) TDR Rate
(c) SB rate based on simple (d) None of these
interest from the date of death
84 Which of the following is true about for 15G/H.
(a) Form 15H is submitted by (b) Form 15G is submitted by
Depositors with age of 60 Individuals below age of 60
years & above years
(c) Both a&b (d) None of these
85 If PAN card is not submitted by depositor alongwith 15G/H, applicable rate of
TDS for Resident Individuals
(a) 10% Plus 3% Cess (b) 15% Plus 3% Cess
(c) 20% Plus 3% Cess (d) 25% Plus 3% Cess

86 Which of the following is true about Recurring Deposit Minimum Monthly


installment
(a) Rs. 100/- at Metro/ Urban/ (b) Rs 50/- at Rural centres
Semi Urban centre
(c) Thereafter in multiples of Rs. (d) All the above
10/ -
87 What is the periodicity for MODs under Savings Plus Scheme:
(a) 1 year to 3 years (b) 1 year to 5 years

(c) 1 year to 10 years (d) 1 year to 7 years

88 Which of the following is true about Premium Savings Account.


(a) 50% concession in draft issue (b) No Service charges in respect
charges and cheque collection of outward RTGS/NEFT
charges. Bankers Cheques will transactions.
be issued free.
(c) Penalties for closing the (d) All the above
account before completion of
12 months: Rs.500/-

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SBLC MASULIPATNAM THE WINGS 2017

89 Which of the following is true about Kissan Mitra Jama Yojana?

(a) Minimum amount of deposit (b) Minimum amount of Partial


Rs 1500 and thereafter in withdrawal Rs. 500/- in
multiples of Rs. 100/- multiples of Rs. 100/-
(c) Period of deposit 12 months & (d) All of the above
10 years
90 What is the minimum, maximum amount of deposit in a year under Sukanya
Samriddi Yojana Scheme
(a) Rs.1000, Rs.100000 (b) Rs.1000, Rs.150000
(c) Rs.1000, Rs.200000 (d) Rs.2000, Rs.100000

91 Which of the following true about Sukanya Samriddi Yojana Scheme


(a) Natural/ Legal guardian may (b) Minimum deposit mandatory till
open two accounts in the name 14 years from the date of
of two girl children. opening.
(c) The account shall mature on (d) All the above
completion of 21 years from
the date of opening the
account
92 Which of the following is not true about Caps Gain Plus Scheme
(a) No Cheque Book (b) Withdrawal at home branch
(c) ATM facility (d) No INB Facility
93 What is the period of deposit under Flexi Deposit Scheme
(a) Min 1 yrs & Max 7 yrs (b) Min 3 yrs & Max 7 yrs
(c) Min 2 yrs & Max 7 yrs (d) Min 5 yrs & Max 7 yrs
94 In case of joint account under SBI Tax Savings Scheme 2006, who will get the
benefit under Section 80C of IT Act 1961:
(a) First account holder (b) Second account holder
(c) All the account holders equally (d) None of these
95 The following is true in case of SBI Tax Saving Scheme 2006
(a) Max deposit Rs.1.50 lacs pa (b) Period of deposit 5-10 years
(c) No Loan facility (d) All of the above
96 What is the personal Accident cover available under Platinum variant of
Corporate Salary package in Rs.
(a) 3.00 lacs (b) 4.00 lacs
(c) 5.00 lacs (d) 10.00 lacs
97 What is the income criteria under Platinum variant of Corporate Salary
package in Rs.
(a) 50000-100000 (b) 50000-75000
(c) 25000-50000 (d) Above 100000

98 When an account holder is unable to attend personally for withdrawing money,


(a) He may send his (b) He may send his representative
representative along with pass along with a letter of authority
book
(c) Withdrawal not permitted to (d) Both a & b
third party

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99 In case the account holder is too ill/old to sign a withdrawal or put their thumb
impression, the impression of the depositor should be identified by
(a) No witnesses required (b) Two independent witnesses
known to the Bank
(c) One of the witnesses should be (d) Both a & b
Bank official
100 Nomination in respect of a Term Deposit shall be in prescribed form:
(a) DA1 (b) DA2
(c) DA3 (d) DA4

PER DEPOSIT PRODUCTS ANSWERS

1 b 11 d 21 b 31 d 41 a 51 a
2 b 12 d 22 c 32 a 42 d 52 d
3 b 13 c 23 a 33 d 43 b 53 b
4 c 14 d 24 c 34 d 44 d 54 c
5 c 15 d 25 d 35 d 45 c 55 a
6 c 16 b 26 d 36 c 46 c 56 a
7 a 17 c 27 d 37 b 47 d 57 a
8 c 18 d 28 c 38 a 48 c 58 a
9 c 19 c 29 a 39 b 49 c 59 c
10 a 20 c 30 d 40 d 50 d 60 b

61 c 67 d 73 d 79 c 85 c 91 d 97 d
62 a 68 a 74 d 80 d 86 d 92 c 98 d
63 c 69 d 75 c 81 a 87 b 93 d 99 b
64 d 70 b 76 a 82 c 88 d 94 a 100 a
65 d 71 c 77 b 83 c 89 d 95 d
66 a 72 b 78 d 84 c 90 b 96 c

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REMITTANCES & COLLECTIONS

Compiled by Sri K Giridhar Reddy, Manager (Training)

1. The RBI draft is valid for ____ ( becomes stale after)


a) 1 month b) 2 months
c) 3 months d) 6 months
2. RBI draft becomes lapsed if not paid within
a) 6 months from the date of its b) 1 accounting year from the date
issue of its issue
c) 2 accounting years from the date d) 3 accounting years from the date
of its issue of its issue
3. RBIs accounting Year is
a) April to March b) July to June
c) January to December d) Either of the above
4. A lapsed RBI draft can be revalidated
a) With the clearance of Local Office b) With the clearance of Central
of RBI Office of RBI
c) With the clearance of Dy. d) With the clearance of Currency
Governor of RBI Chest Branch of a Bank
5. Which of the following statements is not true in respect of RBI draft
a) Duplicate draft can be issued b) Duplicate Draft can be cancelled
against indemnity only if both the original &
duplicate are produced
c) If the original is not produced, d) Duplicate draft cannot be
the payment of the duplicate to be cancelled under any
obtained at the drawee office circumstances
6. RBI Interest warrant lapses _________ months after issue
a) 6 b) 8
c) 12 d) 18
7. Relationship of Banker with purchaser of Bank Draft:
a) Debtor & Creditor b) Creditor& Debtor
c) Principal & Agent d) Agent & Principal
8. Relationship of Banker with Payee of Bank Draft:
a) Trustee & Beneficiary b) Debtor & Creditor
c) Creditor& Debtor d) Principal & Agent
9. Hologram is affixed on drafts of Rs.______ against the Payees Name To
Prevent Tampering
a) Rs.50000 & above b) Rs 1 lakh & above
c) Rs.2 lakhs & above d) Rs.5 lakhs & above
10. Drafts of Rs. ________should be issued only by debit to customers A/C or
against cheque, etc.
a) Rs.20000/- and above b) Rs.50000/- and above
c) Rs.100000/- and above d) Rs.200000/- and above
11. Payment of Drafts of Rs ___ should be made through Bank A/C and not in
cash
a) Rs.20000/- and above b) Rs.50000/- and above
c) Rs.100000/- and above d) Rs.200000/- and above

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12. Which of the following statements is not true in respect of Bank draft
a) If PAN is provided cash b) Drafts of Rs.1,50,000/- and above
transactions of Rs 50000/- and should be signed by two officials
above are permissible
c) No Advice is sent for Drafts d) Even If PAN is provided cash
below Rs 10 Lakh transactions of Rs 50000/- and
above are not permissible
13. Inter Office Instrument (IOI) is a single running security form for issuing ___
a) Demand Draft b) Associate Bank Draft
c) Bankers Cheque d) All the above

14. BGL A/C 98602BBBBBC represents


a) IOI Account b) IOI to be issued Account
c) Drafts Account d) Bankers Cheque

15. BGL A/C 98505BBBBBC represents


a) IOI Account b) IOI to be issued Account
c) Drafts Account d) Bankers Cheque

16. Which of the following statements is not true in respect of IOI


a) Duplicate IOI can be issued b) Duplicate IOI shall not be
by the issuing branch only. hand written
c) Triplicate IOI cannot be d) Triplicate IOI can be
issued Issued

17. Which of the following statements is not true in respect of IOI


a) Can be issued for all b) Serial number of IOI will be
denominations including HC a unique 12 digit number
series upto Rs.99,99,99,999/- without any Circle prefix
c) Serial number of IOI will be d) Instrument type for IOI is 16.
a unique 12 digit number with
Circle prefix
18. Which of the following statements is not true in respect of Bill of Exchange
a) A bill of exchange is a written b) signed by the maker, directing
instrument containing to pay a certain amount of money
an unconditional order, only to a particular person, or to
the bearer of the instrument
c) It is a negotiable instrument d) It is a negotiable instrument
drawn by the seller on the buyer drawn by the buyer on the seller
for value of the goods delivered to for value of the goods delivered to
him. him.
19. Which of the following statements is not true in respect of Bill of Exchange
a) A demand bill is payable on b) Clean Bills are accompanied by
demand whereas a Usance bill is documents of title to goods
payable after a specified time.
c) Documentary Bills are supported d) Clean Bills are not accompanied
by Railway Receipt (RR) or Lorry by documents of title to goods
Receipt (LR) or Bill of Lading (BL)

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20. In case Blank IOI forms are lost during the transit from Printer to Circle
Stationary Department, such losses are to be reported by _______ to _____.
a) Branch to Central Stationery b) Circle Stationery Department to
Department Central Stationery Department
c) Central Stationery Department to d) None of the above
Circle Stationery Department
21. As per the benchmark prescription known as 'CTS-2010 standard' issued by
RBI, no changes/ corrections should be carried out on the cheques other than
____ for validation purpose, if required effective from Dec 1, 2010. (under the
image-based Cheque Transaction System and not applicable to cheques
cleared under other clearing arrangements such as MICR clearing, non MICR
clearing , over the counter collection for cash payment or direct collection of
cheques)
a) Date b) Amount
c) Signature d) None of these
22. In case Blank IOI forms are lost at Branch, such losses are to be reported by
_______ to _____________.
a) Branch to Central Stationery b) Circle Stationery Department to
Department Central Stationery Department
c) Branch to Controllers besides d) Central Stationery Department to
making necessary input in CBS Circle Stationery Department
23. As the __________is updating the whole Bank level data of Draft/IOI reported
lost, the maintenance of Draft/IOI lost register at Branches is redundant and
hence is dispensed with.
a) Draft Reconciliation Department b) IOR
c) CRMD d) None of the above
24. RBI has advised that Savings as well as Current Account should be treated
as ________ if there are no debit as well as credit transactions induced at the
instance of customers in the account for over a period of ____ years.
a) Dormant, 2 b) Inoperative, 2
c) Dormant, 1 d) Inoperative, 1
25. IBTS is
A Inter branch transfer system B Inter branch transaction system
C Inter branch transfer scheme D Inter branch transaction scheme
26. IBTS is meant for
A Inter branch transfers other than B Inter Branch transfers including
SC/DDPs SC/DDP
C Inter Branch transfers other than D None of the above
staff purpose.
27. How many new BGL accounts have been created for IBTS purpose?
A 4 B 3
C 2 D 8
28. The purpose of IBTS is
A To ensure better control on inter B To replace Branch Clearing
Branch transactions. General Account (BCGA) as
IBTS is self reconciliation facility.
C Due to RBI compulsions. D To enable faster realization of
SCs/DDPs

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29. In IBTS, the transaction originated by the originating Branch


A Can be monitored till the same is B The other Branch should be
responded by other Branch. responding instantly.
C The originating branch cant view D The controllers will be able to
the status after originating see the status for follow up.
transaction.

30. The transaction originated by the originated Branch


A Should be accepted by the B Can be accepted or declined by
responding Branch. the responding Branch.
C Can be reversed by it at any point D Cant be reversed by the
of time. originating Branch

31. The transaction originated by the originating Branch in IBTS


A Can be reversed by the originating B Can be reversed by the
Branch at any point of time without originating Branch on the same
the involvement of the responding day without involvement of the
Branch. responding Branch.
C Cant be reversed by the declining D None of the above.
Branch without getting declined by
the responding Branch.

32. Once the transaction in IBTS is declined by the responding Branch


A The originating Branch has no B The originating Branch can
option but to reverse it. either reverse or re-originate the
same.
C The originating Branch can only re- D Both (a) & (c)
originate the entry after reversal
33. Re-origination of entry in IBTS by the originating Branch involves
A Accounting entries. B No accounting entries.
C Automatic accounting entries at D Automatic accounting entries
originating Branch by the system. both at originating Branch and
at receiving Branch by the
system.

34. While re-origination of the entry by the originating Branch, which of the
following can be changed/modified.
A Destination Branch code, amount B Destination Branch BGL No,
and narration amount and narration.
C Destination Branch code, amount D Destination Branch code, BGL
and destination BGL account. account and narration.

35. For responding a IBTS entry, the responding Branch


A Need not depend on any B It can respond after receiving
documents. system generated forward letter
and documents.
C It can respond on the strength of D None of the above.
Branch Clearing General Account.

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36. If IOI security form fails to get printed or the printing is defective or the form
gets corrupted/torn while printing, the security form shall be treated as
damaged and destroyed, as it cannot be put to use. Who can mark such IOI
as damaged in CBS
a Vault teller only b VPIS custodian only
c Branch Manager d either a or b
37. Which of the following statement is not true in respect of blank IOI forms
a Blank IOI forms lost during the b Blank IOI forms lost during the
transit from Printer to Circle transit from Circle Stationary
Stationary Department then Department to
Central Stationary Department will Branch: The Circle stationary
make necessary input in CBS up Department will inform the
on receipt of information from details of lost blank IOI forms to
circle stationary department Central Stationary Department
which will make necessary input
in CBS.
c Loss of blank IOI forms at Branch: d Draft/IOI lost register is
The branch will inform Central dispensed with
Stationary Department who will
make the necessary input in CBS
38. Which is the customized forex outward remittance facility on the Retail Internet
Banking platform introduced by the Bank
a RemXout b Xoutrem
c ReXout d remoutX
39. The customized forex outward remittance facility on the Retail Internet Banking
platform named remXout is presently permitted in
a USD b Euro
c GBP d All of these
40. Under a customized forex outward remittance facility with RINB, a user can
make
Upto ______ remittances in a calendar month.
a 8 b 4
c 12 d 18
41. Under remXout, Remittances will initially be permitted to be made for which of
the following purposes on self-declaration basis:
a Education b Medical treatment abroad
c Maintenance of close relatives d All of these
42. Under remXout, Remittance will initially be restricted to how many countries?
a 10 b 11
c 12 d 13
43. How many remittances can a person receive in a single calendar year under
Money Transfer Service Scheme (MTSS) through Western Union and
Moneygram
a 10 b 20
c 30 d 40
44. Bank has tied up with which of the following for Remittance Business with
Moneygram
a M/S Thomascook Ind Ltd b M/s Quwait India International
c Master Card International d None of the above

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45. Cheques drawn on branches of other banks located at State Capitals/Major A


class Cities/other locations will be collected within __, __, ___days respectively.
a 5,10,15 b 7,10,14
c 7,14,21 d 6,12,18
46. Cheques drawn on branches of SBI branches located at State Capitals/Major
A class Cities/other locations will be collected within __, __, ___ days
respectively.
a 6,8,10 b 7,10,14
c 1,1,1 d 5,10,15
47. Duplicate IOI can be issued by
a Issuing Branch only b Drawee Branch only
c Any Branch d Cannot be issued
48. Triplicate IOI can be issued by
a Issuing Branch only b Drawee Branch only
c Any Branch d Cannot be issued
49. Serial Number of IOI is a unique _________ digit number
a 10 b 11
c 12 d 13
50. IOI can be paid by ______ irrespective of the location of the drawee branch
a Drawee branch only b Clearing branch
c Issuing branch only d Any branch
51. Under Secion ______ of RBI Act, issue of bearer draft is prohibited as it would
virtually tantamount to issue of currency note
a 36 b 31
c 33 d 35
52. Duplicate draft is to be issued within a maximum period of
a 14 days b 5 days
c 10 days d 7 days
53. Physical verification of draft forms is to be done at _____ intervals
a Quarterly b yearly
c Fortnightly d Half yearly
54. All drafts over Rs._______ are to be crossed before issue as per RBI norms
a 50000 b 100000
c 20000 d 25000
55. Drafts can be revalidated if presented within __________ year of issue
a 1 b 3
c 2 d 5
56. A single individual beneficiary can receive ____ remittances in a calendar year
underr Western Union Money Transfer
a 12 b 30
c 10 d 20
57. A capof USD ______ is fixed on individual remittance under WUMT scheme
a 2500 b 1000
c 1500 d 5000
58. MTCN in Western Union Money Transfer stands for
a Money Transfer Currency Number b Money Transfer Control Note
c Money Transfer Control Number d Money Transfer Check Number
59. The per transaction limit for SBI Green Remit Card is

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a Rs 40000 b Rs 30000
c Rs10000 d Rs 50000
60. IMPS in mobile banking facility stands for
a Immediate Payment Service B Inter Bank Money Payment
Service
c Intermoney payment service d Intramoney Payment Service
61. What is the minimum balance for sending remittance through NEFT, RTGS?
a NIL, Rs.1,00,000/- B Nil, Rs.2,00,000/-
c Nil, nil d Nil, Rs.3,00,000/-
62. The front-end software used for making payments under Western Union
payment is
a WestLink B Bankslink
c Translink d FastLink
63. Release of foreign exchange is not admissible for travel to and transaction
with residents of _______ & _______.
a Bangladesh & Pakistan B Nepal & Bhutan
c Sri Lanka & Maldives d Pakistan & China
64. The Nodal Branch for making payments under Western Union payment is
a NRI Chennai B NRI Kochi
c NRI Bangalore d Payment System Br, Mumbai
65. If RBI cuts CRR, then
a Excess Cash will be removed from B Liquidity will be infused into the
the economy Economy
c Foreign Inward Remittances will d Either (c) or (b)
take place on large scale
66. What is the function of Global Link Services?
a It enables user to manage gold B GLS handles the online
loan portfolio remittance product - SBI Express
Remit
c it handles the ECB portfolio of d it handles FCCB requirements of
corporate Corporates
67. Limit under Liberalised Remittance Scheme for Resident Individuals in one
financial year as gift to a person residing outside India is
a USD 1 LAC b USD 250000
c USD 75000 d USD 500000
68. Production of sureties may not be insisted upon while obtaining indemnity for
issuance of duplicate IOI draft where the amount of IOI is upto Rs._______ if
the applicant is considered good for the amount.
a Rs.50000/- b Rs.100000/-
c Rs.200000/- d Rs.300000/-
69. In case both the original and duplicate drafts are presented simultaneously,
which is to be honoured
a Original b Duplicate
c Both to the paid d Both to be returned
70. If the duplicate is presented after the original is paid, the duplicate is returned
with the remarks:
a Draft reported lost b Payees endorsement required
c Original paid d No remarks

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71. __ section of RBI Act prohibits issue of bearer draft as it would virtually
tantamount to issue of currency. And it is punishable under section __of the act.
a 21, 48B b 31, 58B
c 31, 58B d 131, 158B
72. All Bankers cheques issued by debit to charges account and outstanding for
more than __ years are to be transferred to ____ account annually.
a 3, commission account b 2, commission account
c 3, Charges account d 2, Charges account
73. Branch will credit immediate credit of outstation cheques upto and inclusive of
Rs.___ tendered by customers of satisfactorily conducted accounts for 6 months
a 15000 B 20000
c 25000 d 30000
74. Compensation for delay in collection of cheques(interest rate payable for
delayed collections) in India is:
a Nil B Savings Bank
c Term Deposit rate d 2% above corresponding TDR rate
75. Compensation for delay in collection of cheques beyond 14 days is (interest
rate payable for delayed collections) in India is:
a Nil B Savings Bank
c Term Deposit rate d 2% above corresponding TDR rate
76 Compensation for delay in collection of cheques beyond 90 days is (interest
rate payable for delayed collections) in India is:
a Nil B Savings Bank
c Term Deposit rate d 2% above corresponding TDR rate
77. Compensation for delay in collection of cheques beyond 90 days for loan
accounts is (interest rate payable for delayed collections) in India is:
a Nil B Savings Bank
c Term Deposit rate d 2% above applicable interest rate
in the loan account
78. What is the limit on Foreign remittance to a SMALL account
a No credit of Foreign remittance B Rs.50,000/- per month
c Rs.10,000/- per day d Rs.25,000/- per annum
79. A revalidated draft is valid for a period of __ months and an overdue draft can
be revalidated only__ within a year.
a 1,1 B 2,2
c 3,3 d 6,6
80. Usance Bills are generally entitled to a grace period __ days
a 1 B 2
c 3 d 5

ANSWERS-REMITTANCES
1 d 2 d 3 b 4 b 5 d 6 b 7 a 8 a 9 b 10 b
11 b 12 d 13 d 14 a 15 b 16 d 17 c 18 d 19 b 20 b
21 a 22 c 23 a 24 b 25 b 26 a 27 a 28 b 29 a 30 b
31 b 32 b 33 b 34 d 35 b 36 d 37 c 38 a 39 d 40 b
41 d 42 b 43 c 44 a 45 b 46 a 47 a 48 d 49 c 50 d
51 b 52 a 53 d 54 c 55 a 56 b 57 a 58 c 59 a 60 a
61 b 62 c 63 b 64 b 65 b 66 b 67 b 68 b 69 b 70 c
71 c 72 c 73 d 74 b 75 c 76 d 77 d 78 a 79 c 80 c

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LEGAL ASPECTS

Compiled by Sri K. Giridhar Reddy, Manager (Training)

1 Payment in due course is defined under


(a) section 10 of NI Act (b) section 11 of NI Act
(c) section 10 of Contract Act (d) section 1 of NI Act
2 Hypothecation is defined in which of the following Act?
(a) Transfer of Property Act (b) SARFAESI Act
(c) Indian Contract Act (d) NI Act
3 The charge created with ROC for companies is for which of the following ?
(a) Lien (b) Mortgage
(c) Mortgage& Hypothecation (d) Pledge and Hypothecation
4 Income tax attachment order does not attach which of the following amount?
(a) Entire balance in joint accounts (b) Balance in Deceased depositor
account
(c) Fixed Deposit maturing in (d) Chq sent for collection
future date
5 A loan is guaranteed by a surety. When the Prinicpal Debtor failed to repay the
loan, bank asked the surety to pay which was complied. On making payment ,
the surety became entitled to all rights and remedies which the bank had
against the principal debtor. This right of the surety is called...
(a) Right of Subrogation (b) Right of redemption
(c) Right of Foreclosure (d) Right of Lien
6 Dishonor of an electronic fund transfer instruction due to insufficiency of funds
in the account etc., is an offence punishable with imprisonment or with fine or
both, similar to the dishonor of a cheque under the Negotiable Instruments Act
1881. Such a provision is under which Act?
(a) u/s 25 of PSS Act, 2007 (b) Section 138 of NI Act
(c) Section 172 of contract Act (d) None
7 The maximum number of partners in a Banking firm shall not exceed
(a) 20 (b) 10
(c) 2 (d) None of these
8 RBI was established on the recommendations of
(a) Hilton Young Commission (b) Royal Commission on Indian
currency & Finance
(c) Gorwala Committee (d) None of these
9 RBI Act was passed in the year 1934 and the RBI was established on 1.4.1935
as a Private Sector Bank. It was nationalised on
(a) 1.1.1946 (b) 1.1.1947
(c) 1.1.1948 (d) 1.1.1949
10 The Banking Regulation Act 1949 is applicable to, and
(a) commercial banks (b) co-operative Banks
(c) foreign banks operating in India (d) All of these
including J & K
11 Which among the following is not found in the Memorandum of Association of a
Company?
(a) Objectives of the Company (b) Authorised capital
(c) Borrowing powers of Directors (d) Registered office

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12 As per Section 108 of Indian Evidence Act person will be declared as legally
dead, if for a period of.........years or more, the persons who would have
normally known of his existence have not heard of him / known of his
existence.
(a) 12-years (b) 7-years
(c) 5-years (d) 3-years
13 Section 45-Z of Banking Regulation Act, 1949 deal with?
(a) Return of unclaimed deposits (b) Permission to open new
branches
(c) Maintenance of currency chest (d) Return of paid cheque
14 What is "conversion" according to the Negotiable Instrument Act?
(a) Calculating the rupee (b) Payment of cash against tender
equivalent of a negotiable of negotiable instrument drawn
instrument expressed in foreign on the Bank
currency
(c) Payment to a holder in due (d) Wrongful transfer of the benefit
course of negotiable instrument to a
person who is not the true
owner
15 The relationship between the hirers of Bank locker and the Bank is that of:
(a) Debtor - Creditor (b) Bailor - Bailee
(c) Licensor - Licensee (d) Principal- Agent
16 The provisions of Consumer Protection Act,1986 are applicable to the services
rendered by the Banks __________________.
(a) To the customers of the Bank (b) To the customers and the users
only of the services irrespective of
whether the service is gratis or
for consideration
(c) To the customers and any user (d) All of these
of Bank's services against
consideration
17 What does "Assignment" refer to ?
(a) Immovable property (b) Ownership rights
(c) Transfer of interest in (d) None of the above
actionable claims
18 As per Section___of NI Act 1881A Minor can draw, endorse and accept an
N.I.
(a) 16 (b) 26
(c) 36 (d) 46
19 Which of the following is true about dishonor of cheques in NI Act 1881.
(a) sections 138-142 have been (b) Drawer is liable for either
introduced by Banking, Public punishment upto 2 yerars or
Financial Institutions and with fine which may go pto twice
Negotiable Instruments Laws the amount, or both if cheque is
Amendment Act of 1988. returned for want of sufficient
balance
(c) Sec-138: Chq. return for (d) All of these
insufficient funds

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20 As per Section___of Partnership Act 1932 Joint and Several liability of


partners for all acts
(a) 16 (b) 20
(c) 25 (d) 46
21 As per Section___of Partnership Act 1932 Death, Insolvency etc of a partner
dissolves the partnership
(a) 16 (b) 20
(c) 25 (d) 42
22 As per Section___of BR Act 1949 No Advance to be sanctioned by a Bank
against its owns shares(it will amount to reduction of its capital)
(a) 16 (b) 20
(c) 25 (d) 42
23 As per Section___of BR Act 1949 Ombudsman is appointed is defined
(a) 25 (b) 30
(c) 35A (d) 45Y
24 As per Section___of BR Act 1949 Nomination facility is defined in
(a) 45C (b) 30Z
(c) 45ZA 45ZF (d) 45Y
25 As per Section___of Indian Contract Act 1872 Claytons rule. Appropriation of
payments when several debts are owed. is defined in
(a) 45-50 (b) 50-55
(c) 59-61 (d) 59-65
26 Mortgage is defined in ____________.
(a) Sale of Goods Act (b) Contract Act
(c) Transfer of property Act (d) Companies Act
27 Pari Passu charge refers to a charge ____________.
(a) Ranking equally in priority, (b) Merely notional in nature
regardless of quantum of
advances
(c) Ranking equally in priority in (d) None of these
proportion to the lender's share
of advance
28 RBI issue directive to banks in respect of their loan / advances, under sec21 of:
(a) Banking Regulation Act (b) Negotiable Instrument Act
(c) SBI Act (d) RBI Act 1934
29 The right to set-off of a banker has been conferred on the bank under ...
(a) NI Act (b) Indian Contract Act
(c) RBI Act (d) Civil Procedure Code
30 Under which of the following situations, the Clayton's rule applies......
(a) Payment of cheque (b) Right of set-off
(c) Right of appropriation (d) B and c
31 In the process of issuing a garnishee order court first issues.....
(a) Order Nisi (b) Order primary
(c) Order attachment (d) Order absolute
32 According to Hindu minority act and guardianship act 1956, the natural
guardian of married minor Hindu girl is.......
(a) Husband, if he is a major (b) Father in law, if husband is
minor
(c) Mother of the girl (d) a and b

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33 Usually, a loan obtained by a minor cannot be recovered but when it is given


for the necessity, the loan can be recovered from his property. This provision is
as per......
(a) Sec 11, Indian contract (b) Sec 68, Indian contract act1872
act1872
(c) Sec 11, majority act1872 (d) Sec 11,Indian minority act 1872
34 A partnership firm can be registered with......
(a) Registrar of firms (b) Registrar of companies
(c) Registrar of deeds (d) Registrar of estate
35 A company winds up its affairs and the Person appointed for this purpose by
the court is -
(a) Executor (b) Administrator
(c) Receiver (d) Liquidator
36 Who issues Certificate of Incorporation ?
(a) Central Govt (b) Ministry of corporate affairs
(c) Registrar of firms (d) Registrar of Companies
37 Which of the following documents will have to be carefully examined by a bank
branch, when It is approached by Administrator of a deceased estate?
(a) Succession certificate (b) Letter of probate
(c) Letter of Administration (d) Liquidation order
38 Who among the following is empowered to issue the succession certificate ?
(a) Special executive magistrate (b) Tahasildar
(c) Dist judge or high court (d) Presiding officer of DRT
39 A minor can draw, endorse and accept the cheque/negotiable instrument to
bind
(a) Self (b) Others
(c) Drawer (d) All other except self
40 Basel-III capital regulation will be fully implemented in India by........
(a) 31.03.2015 (b) 31.03.2017
(c) 31.03.2019 (d) 31.03.2018
41 Bank does not disclose the affairs of the customer's account and maintain
secrecy owing to ........
(a) Sec 27 of BR Act (b) Sec 17 RBI Act
(c) Sec 13, Banking Company (d) Sec 43, Banking Secrecy Act
acq.& trf of u/t Act 1970
42 Garnishee order attaches:
(a) Balance in term deposit (b) Term deposit payable at
maturity
(c) Unrealized proceeds of (d) both a & b
instruments sent for collection
43 The legal status of a nominee is ---------.
(a) Trustee for legal heirs (b) The depositor
(c) Agent of legal heirs (d) Agent of the depositor
44 BCSBI is a registered entity under .act.
(a) Societies Regn act (b) RBI act
(c) NI act (d) BR act
45 Who can seek information from the Bank
(a) Individual (b) Organisation
(c) Association (d) All of these

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46 In respect of application received through a CAPIO, the CPIO has a time limit
of .... days from the date of receipt of the application by the CAPIO.
(a) 35 (b) 30
(c) 25 (d) 20
47 Under the provisions of the RTI act, the appellate authority for branches in the
circle is......
(a) GM of the Network (b) CGM
(c) DGM of Module (d) None of these
48 what is the maximum limit on the amount of compensation as specified in an
award by the Banking Ombudsman
(a) 10 lac (b) 15 lac
(c) 20 lac (d) 30 lac
49 The District Forum Under the COPRA can hear claims upto a maximum of ...
(a) 20 lac (b) 15 lac
(c) 10 lac (d) 30 lac
50 President of State Commission Under the COPRA is a judge from the .....
(a) High Court (b) District Court
(c) Sessions Court (d) None of these.
51 The apex appellate authority under the provisions of the COPRA is.....
(a) Supreme Court (b) High Court
(c) National Forum (d) None of these.
52 In case of Bank Deposits the Law of Limitation operates from the Date of .....
(a) Deposit (b) Maturity
(c) Demand (d) Not Applicable
53 Appellate Authority is vested with......... under the provisions of the Banking
Ombudsman Act.
(a) Deputy Governor of the RBI (b) Regional Director of the RBI
(c) High Court (d) Supreme Court
54 A physical grievance from a pensioner has to be acknowledged within a period
of . days.
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 4
55 The amount to the credit of any account in India with any bank which has not
been operated upon for a period of ten years will be transferred to....... fund.
(a) Depositor Education and (b) Rural Infra Development
Awareness
(c) Financial Education (d) Rural Poverty Alleviation
56 Which of the following is not a document of title to goods
(a) Railway Receipt (b) Lorry Receipt
(c) None of these (d) Bill of lading
57 Tax is required to be deducted at source when rent payments made in a
financial year [including advance, if any] exceed Rs.......lac.
(a) 1.8 (b) 2
(c) 2.5 (d) 1.5
58 Form 24Q/26Q/27Q is associated with........
(a) Yrly TDS statement (b) Qrtly TDS statement
(c) Yrly Service Tax statement (d) Qrtly Service Tax statement

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59 The periodicity of submission of Form15(G/H) to IT deptt is......


(a) Half yearly (b) Yearly
(c) Monthly (d) Weekly
60 Under RTI Act CIC (Central Information Commission) can impose penalty of
Rs.____ per day till the information is provided subject to a maximum of Rs.__
(a) 500/- & 25,000/- (b) 100/- & 10,000/-
(c) 250/- & 25,000/- (d) 500/- & 50,000/-
61 Equitable Mortgage is defined under which act
(a) Sale of goods Act (b) Registration Act
(c) Transfer of property Act (d) Transfer of Assets Act
62 Garnishee order is issued by court under
(a) Sec 50 of Civil Procedure Code (b) Sec 126 of Indian Contract Act
(1908)
(c) Sec 60 of Civil Procedure Code (d) Sec 102 of Criminal Procedure
(1908) Code (1973)
63 The Bank has the right to sell the gold ornaments pledged, after giving
reasonable notice to the borrower vide section ___ of the Indian Contract Act.
(a) 138 (b) 25
(c) 167 (d) 176
64 As per Sec __ of RBI ACT 1934, CRR to be maintained with RBI
(a) 24 (b) 42
(c) 44 (d) 28
65 Under COPRA Act District forum deals with claims up to______
(a) Rs.20 lacs (b) Rs.25 lacs
(c) Rs.5 lacs (d) Rs.50 lacs
66 Penalty for non stamping / under stamping up to _________ ,the amount by
which documents have been under stamped.
(a) 10 Times (b) 5 times
(c) 20 times (d) 15 times
67 Father of a minor is convicted and imprisoned. Then the natural guardian of the
child will be
(a) Mother (b) Elder brother
(c) Paternal grand father (d) Father
68 Consumer protection act is not applicable to
(a) Failure to open accounts (b) Failure to issue draft
(c) Failure to accept small (d) Non-sanction of loans and
denominations & small coins advances.
69 Inchoate instrument is
(a) No proper name (b) Instrument partially or fully
destroyed
(c) Incomplete instrument (d) Instrument not legible.
70 uberrimae fides contracts are pertinent to
(a) Banking sector (b) Capital markets
(c) Insurance sector (d) Mutual funds sector

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LEGAL ASPECTS - ANSWERS

1 a 11 c 21 d 31 a 41 c 51 a 61 c
2 b 12 b 22 b 32 d 42 d 52 c 62 c
3 c 13 d 23 c 33 b 43 a 53 a 63 d
4 a 14 d 24 c 34 a 44 a 54 c 64 b
5 a 15 c 25 c 35 d 45 d 55 a 65 a
6 a 16 c 26 c 36 d 46 a 56 b 66 a
7 b 17 c 27 c 37 c 47 a 57 a 67 a
8 b 18 b 28 a 38 c 48 a 58 b 68 d
9 d 19 d 29 b 39 d 49 a 59 c 69 c
10 d 20 c 30 c 40 c 50 a 60 a 70 c

FOREIGN EXCHANGE
Prepared by Sri. K S Prakash Rao, Manager (Training)

1. NRI status is derived from


A Residential status B Citizenship/origin of a person
C Both the above D None of the above
2. Sending foreign currency remittance through fx-out is available at
A NRI branches B NRI intensive branches
C All SBI branches D Authorised branches
3. Ceiling on interest rate on 3-5 yr maturity of FCNR(B) deposit
A LIBOR/ SWAP rates plus 200 B LIBOR/ SWAP rates plus 100 basis
basis points points
C LIBOR/ SWAP rates plus 300 D Deregulated now
basis points
4. OCB (Overseas Corporate Body) is permitted to open
A NRE account only B FCNR account only
C Both the above D None of the above
5. The main difference between NRI and NRO account is
A Repatriability of funds B Nature of accounts
C Both the above D None of the above.
6. Resident Foreign Currency (Domestic) Account is a
A Current account B Current account or Term Deposit
C SB or Term Deposit D SB, CA or TDR / STDR
7. Which of the following is not true about NRO account?
A NRO account can be opened B NRO account can be opened
jointly with resident. jointly with Non-Resident.
C Nomination facility is available to D A resident cant operate a NRO
NRO account holders. account based on a POA.

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8. Which of the following is not true about NRO account?


A Account holder can deposit any B Legitimate income earned by NRI
convertible foreign currency in India can be credited to NRO
brought in by him through legal account.
means.
C The NRO account holder can D International credit card payments
repatriate his current income. cant be made by debit to NRO a/c
9. A NRI can repatriate balance in his NRO account for bonafide purposes up to
A USD one million for FY B USD 0.1 million for FY
C USD 10 million for FY D Cant be repatriated.
10. A resident POA holder can operate on the NRO account of NRI for
A All local payments in rupees B For transfer of amount to other
including payments for eligible NRO accounts
investments.
C Make gift to a resident on behalf D All the above.
of the NRI
11. A person having a overdraft facility became NRI. Then,
A The OD should be closed B The OD may be allowed to
immediately. continue subject to repayment from
domestic sources alone.
C The OD may be allowed to D Before leaving for foreign country,
continue subject to repayment the account should be closed.
either from domestic sources or
legitimate inward remittances.
12. NRE accounts are
A Rupee designated accounts B Opened in 6 foreign currencies
C POA holder of NRI can open the D Both (a) & (c) are correct
account for NRI
13. Which of the following is true regarding NRE accounts?
A Balances in the accounts are fully B Balances with interest can be fully
repatriable. repatriated.
C They are exempted from income D They are not exempted from any
tax, but not form wealth tax. tax.
14. An NRI can open FCNR(B) joint account with
A An NRI with Malaysian passport. B Any resident Indian.
C Another NRI. D Resident close relative
15. Which of the following is false about NRE accounts?
A NRE accounts can be opened as B Interest rates are totally de-
SB,CA and STDR with normal regulated for NRE deposits.
maturity periods as applicable to
domestic deposits.
C Transfers from FCNR accounts is D All the above.
strictly restricted for NRE
accounts.

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16. Which of the following is not a permitted debit for NRE account?
A Local disbursements B Transfer to FCNR/NRE accounts of
other people.
C Remittance outside India D None of the above.
17. Which of the following is correct about NRE accounts?
A NRE account balances cant be B FCNs tendered by POA of NRI can
used for payment of charges of be credited to NRE account of the
International credit cards. NRI
C POA holder of NRE account cant D All the above.
make gifts on behalf of the NRI
18. Upon return to India, the NRE account of a NRI is
A Is re designated as resident rupee B Converted into RFC
account (HCD) deposit.
C Either of the two at the option of D Can be continued as NRE account.
the depositor.
19. Upon return of NRI, the fixed deposit in NRE account
A Will be converted into resident B Can be continued as NRE account
account and will earn applicable till the date of maturity and as per
deposit rates to domestic deposits NRE deposit rates
C Will be converted into resident D None of the above
account but continue to earn NRE
rates if the same is continued till
the date of maturity
20. Which of the following is true regarding FCNR(B) deposit scheme?
A They are 6 foreign currency B They are foreign currency
designated accounts in the form designated term deposits with
of STDR,SB,CA etc maximum maturity period of five
years irrespective of the currency.
C The interest income from these D Recurring deposits can be
accounts is not free of tax. accepted under FCNR(B).
21. Firms dealing in purchase / sale of rough or cut and polished diamonds /
precious metal jewellery can transact through Diamond Dollar Account if they
have average annual turnover of ______ during the preceding three licensing
years
A Rs. 3 crores B Rs. 1 crore
C USD 1 Mio D USD 250000
22. Which of the following is not a permitted mode to open FCNR(B) account?
A By a transfer of funds from B By transfer of funds from existing
existing NRE accounts. FCNR(B) account.
C By transfer of funds from NRO D With funds received by debit to the
accounts. account of non-resident bank
maintained with authorized dealer
in India.

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23. Which of the following is true regarding FCNR(B) accounts?


A All credits permitted in NRE B All debits permitted in NRE
accounts are also permitted in accounts are not permitted in
FCNR(B) accounts. FCNR(B) deposits as well.
C The maturity proceeds of the D Only (b) & (c) are true.
FCNR(B) deposit can not be
remitted to third parties outside
India.
24. Which of the following is true regarding maturity proceeds of FCNR(B) deposit
scheme?
A The maturity proceeds will be B TT buying rate will be offered to the
paid in the same designated depositor for converting the
currency and the depositor cant maturity proceeds into Rupees.
convert it into the currency of his
choice.
C Interest is payable quarterly on D All the above.
FCNR(B) deposit as per the
choice of the depositor.

25. The sale proceeds of the immovable property held by an NRI can be remitted
abroad upto ________ per financial year
A USD 250000 B USD 1 Mio
C USD 100,000 C Rs. 100,000
26. FCNR(B) deposits can be maintained in
A USD or GBP B Any freely convertible currency
C USD, GBP or EURO D INR
27. The repatriation of sale proceeds of immovable property should not exceed the
amount paid for acquisition of the property received through normal channels or
out of funds held in
A NRE account B EEFC account
C FCNR(B) account D A or C
28. The sum total of accruals during a calendar month in EEFC accounts is to
converted into Rupee value by
A before the last day of the current B before the last day of the
month succeeding calendar month
C before the last day of the current D before the last day of the
financial year succeeding financial year
29. Which of the following statement is true regarding loans to NRIs against
deposits?
A No loans can be granted to third B The loan amounts can be fully
parties against NRI deposits. repatriated.
C The loan amount can be credited D The loan can be repaid out of local
to NRE account of the NRI rupee resources in the NRO
account of the NRI.

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30. Which of the following is true regarding loans in foreign currencies to NRIs?
A Documents can be executed by B Loan proceeds can be used for
POA holder investments in India.
C Repayment of the loan can be D Loans can be sanctioned against
made from NRO account. third party deposits.
31. The repatriation of sale proceeds of residential immovable property by an NRI
is restricted to
A No restrictions B Not more than five properties
C Not more than three properties D Not more than two properties
32. In case of remittance of sale proceeds of immovable property purchased by NRI
with foreign exchange, the sale proceed are restricted to
A USD 2 million for FY B 2 properties in a FY
C 2 years lock in period is D None of the above.
stipulated.
33. A student with NRI status can receive from close relations in India, a foreign
remittance of _______ under LRS
A USD 250,000 for maintenance B USD 200,000 for maintenance
C USD 50,000 for maintenance D He cant receive
34. SBI Express Rupee is a
A A remittance product for US & UK B A remittance product for Gulf NRIs
NRIs
C A remittance product for US NRIs D None of the above.
alone
35. SBI Express is presently being facilitated by
A GLS (Global Link Services) B GMU (Global Markets Unit)
C OB,Mumbai D Exchange companies in Gulf
36. SBI Express Worldwide is a Money Transfer Request in GLS Worldwide
website through which online remittance upto ___________ is allowed
A USD 100000 per financial year B USD 100000 per month
C USD 100000 per calendar year D USD 100000 per transaction
37. Online remittance facility for customers based out of UK
A SBI Express Remit UK B SBI e-Remit
C SBI ERupee D SBI Express Rupee
38. The internet based online platform for Mid-corporate, small and medium
enterprises to book their trade transactions at rates provided directly by the
Central Treasury, Mumbai
A e-Remit B e-forex
C ERupee. D None
39. RNOR (Resident but not ordinarily resident) is defined
A Under FEMA Act B Under IT Act

C Defined by RBI D Defined by ministry of finance.

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40. A NRI after coming back to India got his NRE accounts converted into RFC
accounts. What is status of the account when he becomes NRI again
A The RFC accounts will become B They will continue as RFC
NRE accounts accounts.
C Either of the above as per his D None of the above
choice
41 The balance along with interest in NRE account can be repatriated with the
permission of
A RBI B Ministry of Finance
C Commerce Ministry D No permission required
42 Operation of NRE Account by third party can be permitted by ADS
A Under a Power of Attorney B Letter of Authority in the prescribed
format
C Either of (a) or (b) D None of the above

43 Interest rate on NRI is regulated by RBI


A TRUE B FALSE
44 Current income like rent, interest, pension can be credited to NRE account
A Tru B FALSE
45 ADs can grant FC loans to the NRIs minimum to the tune of Rs. _______
A USD25000/GBP15000/EURO200 B USD15000/GBP10000/EURO1000
00 0
C USD30000/GBP20000/EURO250 D No limit
00
46 TDR/STDR under NRE account can be opened for a period of :
A Minimum 1 Year Maximum 10 B Minimum 1 Year Maximum 5 Years
Years
C Minimum 6 Months Maximum 10 D None of the above
Years
47 What type of transaction is permitted by the Power of Attorney Holder?
A Withdrawals for local payments B Remittance to the account holder
himself under a specific power
C Facilitate investments in India in D All the above
case NRI is permitted to do the
same
48 For which nationality has RBI recently allowed opening of NRO account without
seeking prior permission
A Bangladesh B Pakistan
C Both D Neither
49 ADs can grant loans in Indian Rupees to the NRIs against their NRE/FCNB
deposits maximum to the tune of Rs. __________
A Equivalent to Rs. 50 lakhs B Equivalent to Rs. 100 lakhs

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C Equivalent to Rs. 20 lakhs D No limit


50 Which is the product meant for NRIs residing in USA to send remittances to
friends and relatives in India
A SWIFT B Global Remittance
C NRI Remittance D SBI Express US Rapid Remittance
51 The remittance facility offered to Singapore NRIs is
A S-Remit B e-Remit
C Express Remit Singapore D None
52 Resident Foreign Currency (Home Coming Deposit) account can be opened in
our bank in _____________currency
A Rupees B USD
C GBP, USD, EURO D EURO
53 The minimum deposit in USD under RFC (HCD) is ___________
A 1000 B 2000
C 3000 D 5000
54 RFC (HCD) can be opened as ____________account
A Savings Bank B Current Account
C TDR D All the above
55 RFC (HCD) account can be maintained in _________name of the returning
Indians
A Returning Indian who has been B Joint (Both returning Indians are
NRI for minimum one year eligible)
C Jointly with resident close relative D All of the Above
on former or survivor basis
56 Advance value (In Rs.) is calculated at what rate in case of sanctioning rupee
loan against balance held in RFC (HCD) account.
A Notional B TT Selling
C TT Buying D FCTC buying
57 RFC (HCD) scheme replaced which of the earlier schemes?
A NRE B Nro
C FCNR (B) D RIFEE
58 Balances under RFC (HCD) are exempted from the requirements of
A CRR B SLR
C Both (a) and (b) D None of the above
59 A person resident in India may open an account in foreign currency under which
of the following schemes
A Resident Foreign Currency B Resident Foreign Currency
(Home Coming Deposit) (Domestic)
C Either of (a) or (b) D None of the above
60 The minimum balance required for opening the account under RFC (Domestic)
scheme in USD and EURO currencies is
A 250 B 500

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C 750 D 1000
61 The balances of all accounts opened under RFC (Domestic) scheme will be
classified in which segment
A IB B C&I
C P D DBD
62 A small legend is branded on the reverse of each cheque issued to the account
holder of RFC (Domestic)
A Name B Purpose
C Both (a) and (b) D None of the above
63 Unspent foreign exchange is to be submitted within how many days of return
A 180 B 90
C 270 D 360
64 Name the card that offers freedom to shop anywhere in the world
A SME Credit Card B Kisan Gold Card
C SBI Vishwa Yatra Foreign Travel D Artisan Credit Card
Card

65 What is the maximum limit up to which a resident can retain foreign currency
notes?
A USD 1000 B USD 5000
C USD 2000 D No limit
66 SBI Vishwa Yatra Card can be issued in which currency
A USD B GBP
C Euro D All of the above
67 What is the minimum amount for which Vishwa Yatra Card can be initially
loaded?
A USD 200 B GBP 250,EURO 400 and USD 500
C USD 1000 D USD 10000
68 What is the maximum amount for which Vishwa Yatra Travel Card can be
issued?
A USD 400 B USD 500
C USD 600 D EURO & GBP equivalent of USD
10000
69 Which rate will be applied while selling Vishwa Yatra Card?
A TT Selling B Bill Selling
C TT Buying D TC Buying
70 Which rates will be applied for purchasing the unspent balance in Vishwa Yatra
Card?
A Bill Buying B Bill Selling
C TT Buying D TC Buying
71 A person going to Bhutan/Nepal cannot take Indian Rupees in denomination in
excess of

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A 100 B 500
C 50 D No such restriction
72 What is the minimum reload amount for SBI Vishwa Yatra Foreign Travel Card
in GBP?
A 120 B 130
C 250 D 300
73 What is the minimum reload amount for SBI Vishwa Yatra Foreign Travel Card
in Euro?
A 180 B 150
C 250 D 100

ANSWERS
1. c 2. c 3. c 4. d 5. a 6. a 7. d 8. d 9. a 10. a
11. c 12 a 13. b 14. d 15. d 16. d 17. c 18. c 19. c 20. b
21. a 22 c 23. a 24. b 25. b 26. b 27. d 28. b 29. d 30. c
31. d 32 b 33. a 34. b 35. a 36. d 37. a 38. b 39. b 40. a
41. d 42.c 43.b 44. a 45.a 46.a 47.d 48.a 49.d 50.d
51.b 52.c 53.a 54.c 55.d 56.a 57.d 58.c 59.b 60.b

61.c 62.b 63.a 64.c 65.c 66.d 67.a 68.d 69.b 70.a
71.a 72.a 73.b

INTERNATIONAL BANKING: EXPORTS & IMPORTS


Compiled by Sri. K S Prakash Rao, Manager (Training)

1. All categories of foreign exchange earners are now allowed to retain ______% of
their foreign exchange earnings in EEFC accounts.
a) 50 b) 75
c) 100 d) 125
2. Where an exporter receives advance payment (with or without interest), from a
buyer outside India, the exporter shall be under an obligation to ensure that the
shipment of goods is made within ____________ from the date of receipt of
advance.
a) Three months b) Six months
c) one year d) 15 months
3. Expand OPGSP
a) Online Payment Gateway b) Online Payment Gateway Service
System Providers Provision
c) Online Payment Gateway d) Online Payment General Service
Service Providers Providers

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4. The exporter should submit declaration in Form SOFTEX in quadruplicate in


respect of export of computer software and audio / video / television software to
the designated official concerned of the Government of India at STPI / EPZ /FTZ
/SEZ for valuation / certification not later than ____ days from the date of invoice
/ the date of last invoice raised in a month
a) 30 b) 21
c) 180 d) 90
5. Interest is paid on EEFC accounts at the rate of
a) TDR rate b) SB rate
c) No interest d) As per FEMA rules
6. AD Category I) banks have been allowed to offer the facility of repatriation of
export related remittances by entering into standing arrangements with OPGSPs
for export of goods and services of value not exceeding
a) USD 1,000,000 b) USD 1 Mio
c) USD 10,000 d) Rs. 1 Crore
7. In cases where exporters present documents pertaining to exports after the
prescribed period of ____ days from date of export, AD Category I banks may
handle them without prior approval of the Reserve Bank
a) 21 b) 15
c) 7 d) 30
8. Status Holders exporters are permitted to write off to the extent of______ % of
the total export proceeds realised during the previous calendar year if he has
not been able to realize the outstanding export dues for more than one year,
despite best efforts,
a) 5 b) 10
c) 15 d) 20
9. EBW statement in the context of exports is for _________________.
a) Export Bills Withheld b) Export Bills Without Payment
c) Exports Bills Withdrawn d) Export Bills Written Off
10. Who is the authority for considering requests by Indian exporter, for refund of
export proceeds of goods exported from India and being re-imported into India on
account of poor quality?.
a) Once exported from India b) Authorised Dealer, who handled the
cannot be imported back to export realisation
India.
c) Any authorized Dealer d) RBI
11. FEMA rules have come into force with effect from ____________.
a) 1st June,2000 b) 1st June,2010
c) 1st May,2000 d) 1st April, 2000
12. The exporter should submit declaration in Form SOFTEX in quadruplicate in
respect of export of computer software and audio / video / television software to
the designated official concerned of the Government of India at STPI / EPZ /FTZ
/SEZ for valuation / certification not later than _______ days from the date of
invoice / the date of last invoice raised in a month

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a) 30 b) 21
c) 7 d) 10
13. Expand EDPMS
a) Export Data Processing and b) External Data Processing and
Monitoring System Monitoring System
c) Export Data Processing and d) Export Data Processing and
Monitoring Service Maintenance System
14. For setting up of an office abroad by Indian exporter, the maximum remittance
towards initial expenses, up to ____________% of the average annual
sales/income or turnover during the last two financial years or up to twenty-five
per cent of the net worth, whichever is higher can be permitted by authorised
dealers.
a) 5 b) 10
c) 15 d) 25
15. The rate of interest payable on the advance payment received by Indian exporter,
should not exceed ____________ basis points.
a) LIBOR + 10 b) LIBOR + 50
c) LIBOR + 75 d) LIBOR + 100
16. Exporters having a minimum export turnover of ___________ during the last
financial year can be granted permission by the authorised dealers, for opening /
hiring warehouses abroad.
a) USD 50,000/- b) USD 75,000/-
c) USD 150,000/- d) USD 100,000/-
17. AD Category I banks may allow payment of commission by Indian exporters, in
respect of their exports covered under counter trade arrangement through
________ Accounts designated in US Dollar
a) EEFC b) NRE
c) RFC d) Escrow
18. AD Category I banks may regularize cases of dispatch of shipping documents
by the exporter direct to the consignee or his agent resident in the country of the
final destination of goods, up to ____________ or its equivalent, per export
shipment
a) USD 10,000 b) USD 1 Mio
c) USD 25,000 d) USD 10 Mio
19. AD Category I bank may allow advance remittance for import of goods without
any ceiling. However, if the amount of advance remittance exceeds
____________ or its equivalent, an unconditional, irrevocable standby Letter of
Credit or a guarantee from an international bank of repute situated outside India
or a guarantee of an AD Category I bank in India, if such a guarantee is issued
against the counter-guarantee of an international bank of repute situated outside
India, is obtained.
a) USD 200,000 b) USD 75000
c) USD 100000 d) USD 50000

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20. AD (CategoryI) banks may permit settlement of import dues delayed due to
disputes, financial difficulties, etc. and Interest thereon, for a period of less
than_________ from the date of shipment.
a) 1 year b) 2 years
c) 3 years d) 5 years
21. Remittances against import of books may be allowed within ________, as to the
time limit, provided interest payment is as prescribed from time to time for trade
credit.
a) 1 month b) 2 months
c) 3 months d) without restriction
22. Which of the following is true with respect to pre-payment of usance import bills?,
a) remittances may be made, b) prepayment of usance import bills is
after reducing proportionate allowed only for 30 days.
interest for the unexpired
portion of usance at the rate at
which interest has been
claimed or LIBOR applicable.
c) prepayment of usance import d) No, prepayment of usance import
bills is allowed freely. bills is not allowed.

23. AD Category I banks may make remittances where import bills have been
received directly by the importers from the overseas supplier provided the value
of import bill doesnot exceed USD _________.
a) 100000 b) 150000
c) 200000 d) 300000
24. AD Category - I banks may allow remittance for imports up to ______, where the
importer of rough diamonds, rough precious and semi-precious stones has
received the import bills / documents directly from the overseas supplier.
a) USD 100,000 b) USD 200,000
c) USD 300,000 d) No amount is allowed.

25. Currency declaration Form (CDF) to customs authorities need not be submitted if
at any one time, the value does not exceed ________ and/or the aggregate
value of foreign currency notes (cash portion) alone brought in does not exceed
USD 5,000 (US Dollars five thousand) or its equivalent.
a) USD 50,000 b) USD10,000
c) USD 1,00,000 d) USD 5,000

26. In the case of a Public Sector Company or a Department/ Undertaking of the


Government of India/ State Governments, approval from the Ministry of Finance,
Government of India for advance remittance for import of services without bank
guarantee for an amount exceeding _______
a) USD 100,000 b) USD 10,00,000
c) Rs.5,00,000 d) Rs. 5 crores

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27. In case of all imports made by post, where value of foreign exchange remitted /
paid for import into India exceeds USD 100,000 or its equivalent, it is obligatory
on the part of the AD Category I bank through which the relative remittance was
made, to ensure that the importer submits
a) Customs Assessment b) Postal Appraisal Form
Certificate
c) Bill of Entry d) Either a or b
28. Authorised Dealer (CategoryI) may allow payment of interest on usance bills or
overdue interest for a period of __________, from the date of shipment at the
rate prescribed for trade credit from time to time.
a) less than 6 months b) less than 1 year
c) less than 2 years d) less than three years
29. Import bills and documents should be received from the banker of the supplier by
the banker of the importer in India. AD Category I bank should not, therefore,
make remittances where import bills have been received directly by the importers
from the overseas supplier, except Where the value of import bill does not
exceed USD ____________.
a) 100000 b) 200000
c) 250000 d) 300000

30. What is Currency Declaration Form (CDF)?


a) Which is submitted to b) Which is submitted to Customs when
Customs when an individual an individual sales foreign currency,
carries foreign currency after arrival in India
(import of currency)
c) Which is submitted to d) Which is submitted to Customs when
Customs when an individual an individual exports foreign
consumes foreign currency currency (export of currency)
31. SOFTEX Form relates to _____________.
a) Soft foreign remittances b) Import and export of Softwares
c) Soft form of Foreign Exchange d) Form to be submitted to RBI by
related returns Authorised dealers at monthly
intervals.

32. Authorized Dealers need not obtain any document, including Form A-1, except a
simple letter from the applicant , as long as it is a current account transaction, if
the amount does not exceed ____.
a) USD 100 b) USD 500
c) USD 750 d) USD 25000
33. Any person resident in India who had gone out of India on a temporary visit, may
bring into India at the time of his return (other than from Nepal and Bhutan),
currency notes of India up to an amount not exceeding __________.
a) Rs.15,000/- per person b) Rs.25,000/- per person
c) Rs.7,500/- per person d) No such cap, since he is bringing
back Indian currency.

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34. Which of the following is true with respect to advance payments for import of
goods?
a) Irrevocable Letter of Credit or b) Irrevocable Letter of Credit or Bank
Bank Guarantee to be Guarantee to be obtained if the
obtained if the amount of amount of remittance exceeds USD
remittance exceeds USD 50000.
100000.
c) No Irrevocable Letter of Credit d) Irrevocable Letter of Credit or Bank
or Bank Guarantee need to be Guarantee to be obtained if the
obtained now. amount of remittance exceeds USD
200000
35. For status holder exporters, the limit for EDF waiver as per the present Foreign
Trade Policy is Rs._____ or 2 per cent of the average annual export realization
during the preceding three licensing years (April-March), whichever is higher
a) USD 100,000 b) Rs.10 lacs
c) USD 10 Mio d) Rs.1,00,000
36. AD Category I banks may consider requests for grant of EDF waiver from
exporters for export of goods free of cost, for export promotion up to 2 per cent of
the average annual exports of the applicant during the preceding three financial
years subject to a ceiling of
a) Rs.5 lacs b) USD 500,000
c) Rs. 50 lacs d) USD 5 Mio
37. Airline companies which have been permitted by the Directorate General of Civil
Aviation to operate can make advance remittance without bank guarantee, up
to_____________ for purchase of aircrafts/ Helicopters.
a) USD 25 million. b) USD 50 million.
c) USD 75 million. d) USD 100 million.
38. With respect of direct import of Gold, which of the following is true?
a) Suppliers and Buyers Credit, b) Suppliers and Buyers Credit,
including the usance period of including the usance period of LCs
LCs opened should not should not exceed 180 days.
exceed 90 days.
c) Suppliers and Buyers Credit, d) No Suppliers and Buyers Credit, is
including the usance period of allowed for direct import of gold.
LCs opened should not
exceed 360 days.
39. Documents evidencing import into India should be preserved by AD Category I
banks for a period of ___________ from the date of its verification
a) 6 months b) 9 months
c) one year d) 3 years.
40. Where imports are made in non-physical form, i.e., software or data through
internet / datacom channels and drawings and designs through e-mail/fax, a
certificate from ______________ that the software / data / drawing/ design has
been received by the importer, is to be obtained by the authorised dealer.
a) Concerned receiving Bank. b) Chartered Accountant

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c) Exporter d) RBI
41. What is BEF statement?
a) Statement submitted by b) Statement submitted by authorised
authorised dealer to RBI with dealer to RBI with regard to
regard to importers defaulting exporters who defaulted submission
submission of import of documents.
documents
c) Statement submitted by d) Statement submitted by RBI to GOI
authorised dealer to RBI with with regard to importers.
regard to defaulting importers
& exporters.
42. Which of the following is true with regard to Merchanting Trade?
a) The entire merchant trade b) The entire merchant trade
transaction to be completed transaction is to be completed within
within a period of 3 months. a period of 45 days.
c) The entire merchant trade d) Merchanting Trade transactions are
transaction to be completed not being permitted now.
within a period of 9 months.
43. AD CategoryI bank may accept, in lieu of Exchange Control copy of Bill of Entry
for home consumption, a certificate from the Chief Executive Officer (CEO) or
auditor of the company that the goods for which remittance less than USD
1,000,000 was made have actually been imported to India, provided the
company is a listed one and its networth is not less than Rs._________crores.
a) 50 b) 100
c) 150 d) 250
44. Expand XBRL
a) eXtensible Business b) eXtensible Bills Receivable Letter
Reporting Language
c) eXtensible Business d) eXtensible Bills Reversal Letter
Reporting Letter
45. Bill of Entry is ______________.
a) Evidence of export b) Evidence of payment
c) Evidence of import d) Evidence of remittance
46. EEFC stands for __________________.
a) Earners Exchange & Foreign b) Exchange Earning Foreign Currency
Currency
c) Exchange & Earning Foreign d) Exchange Earners Foreign Currency
Currency
47. In cases where exporters present documents pertaining to exports after the
prescribed period of ____ days from date of export, AD Category I banks may
handle them without prior approval of the Reserve Bank, provided they are
satisfied about the bonafides of the transaction
a) 90 b) 30
c) 21 d) 7

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48. What is EDF in exports?


a) Export Declaration Form b) Extended Delivery Form
c) Export Demand Form d) Estate Declaration Form
49. Bill of Lading is _______________.
a) Evidence of shipment b) Evidence of import
c) Evidence of payment d) Evidence of remittance.
50. At what intervals the BEF statement is submitted to RBI?
a) Every June & December b) Every May & November
c) Every March & September d) It has recently been dispensed with.
51 The normal time limit for settlement of import payment is within how many days
from the date of shipment
A 30 days B 6 months
C 21 days D None of the above
52 Consolidated statement of Trade Credits is submitted to RBI at what intervals
A Fortnightly B Monthly
C Quarterly D Half Yearly
53 Documents evidencing import are to be preserved for how many years from the
date of verification, except in cases of investigation.
A 1 Year B 2 Years
C 3 Years D Not required

54 Non submission of evidence by the importers is to submitted to RBI in which


return?
A XOS B ENC
C BEF D STAT
55 Evidence of import/Bill of Entry is to be submitted by the importer within a period
of ______________from the date of remittance.
A 21 days B 3 months
C 30 days D 6 months
56 Fully utilized Control Copy of Import License is to be retained by
A RBI B Importer
C AD D DGFT
57 A no objection certificate, Chartered Accountants certificate, Certificate of
payment of I.T. are required for remittance of
A Import under Penalty B Replacement import
C Import of films on lease/rental D Import of Aircraft/Aircraft
basis engine/helicopter on lease basis
58 Which is not applicable in case of Diamond Dollar Account?
A Customer to have good track B Customer to apply through AD to RBI
record of 3 years and average for approval
annual turnover of Rs. 5
crores or above during 3

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preceeding years
C Customer can have a D Only a & b are applicable
maximum of 5 accounts
E All are applicable
59 When the imports are made in non physical form, a certificate is required from
whom for evidencing the import?
A Chartered Accountant B RBI
C Authorized Dealer D Exporter
60 Import licenses are issued for what value of the goods to be imported
A FOB B CIF
C Insured D None of the above
61 In case of postal imports importer has to submit
A Postal appraisal form B Custom assessment certificate
C Either of these D Neither of these
62 Crystallisatiion means___________
A Retirement of an import bill B Conversion of FC Liability into Rupee
Liability
C Conversion of Rupee liability D All of these
into FC Liability
63 Blue Card denotes
A A credit Card B A Debit Card
C A Proposition by EU to attract D None of these
highly qualified professionals
from other countries
64 What is TIBOR?
A Tokyo Interbank Offered Rate B Taiwan Interbank Offered Rate
C Thailand InterBank Offered D None of these
Rate
65 Centralized cheque collection and export bill payment centre is
A GMU-K B IBG, Corporate Centre
C GLS D Overseas Branch, Mumbai
66 GNR is a system of cheque collection prevalent in USA. GNR stands for
A Guaranteed no return B General non receipt
C General Non Return D Guaranteed non receipt
67 Inward Remittance Cell is at
A Overseas Branch Mumbai B Overseas Branch, Kolkatta
C GMU Kolkatta D None of the above

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ANSWERS
1. C 2. C 3. C 4. A 5. C 6. C 7. A 8. B 9. D 10. B
11. A 12 A 13 A 14 C 15 D 16 D 17 D 18 B 19 A 20. C
. . . . . . .
21 D 22 A 23 D 24 C 25 B 26 A 27 D 28 D 29 D 30. A
. . . . . . . .
31 B 32 D 33 B 34 D 35 B 36 A 37 B 38 A 39 C 40. B
. . . . . . . .
41 A 42 C 43 B 44 A 45 C 46 D 47 C 48 A 49 A 50. A
. . . . . . . .
51 B 52 B 53 A 54 C 55 B 56 C 57 C 58 E 59 A 60 B
61 C 62 B 63 C 64 A 65 C 66 A

INTERNATIONAL BANKING (UCPDC)

Compiled by Sri. K S Prakash Rao, Manager (Training)

1 UCPDC in the context of International Banking stands for _______________.


a) Uniform Customs and b) Universal Customs and Procedures
Practice for Documentary for Documentary credits
Credits
c) Universal Customs and d) Uniform Customs and Procedures
Practice for Documentary for Documentary credits
credits
2 Uniform Customs and Practice for Documentary Credits (UCPDC), Revision
2007 is published by __________________.
a) International Chamber of b) World Chamber of Commerce
Commerce (ICC)
c) International Monetary Fund d) World Bank
(IMF)
3 The bank that is not a confirming bank advises the credit and any amendment
without any undertaking to honour or negotiate
a) The negotiating bank b) The issuing bank
c) The advising bank d) The paying bank

4 The current version of UCPDC is ____________.


a) UCPDC 500 b) UCPDC 600
c) UCPDC 700 d) UCPDC 800
5 International Chamber of Commerce (ICC) is Head quartered at _________.
a) Washington D.C. b) New York
c) Paris d) London

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6 URC rules are published by ICC. URC stands for _______________.


a) Universal Rules for Collection b) Universal Realisation of Credits
c) Uniform Rules & Customs d) Uniform Rules for Collection
7 The no. of articles in current version of UCPDC is ________.
a) 39 b) 29
c) 19 d) 49
8 Article 2 of UCPDC is about ___________.
a) Definitions of Applicant, b) Credit Vs. Contracts
advising Bank, Credit etc.
c) Documents Vs. Goods d) Amendments to a Credit.
9 Which of the following is an Import L/c?
a) L/c opened by Citi Bank, b) L/c opened by SBI, New York in
Mumbai in favour of SBI, New favour of Citi Bank, Mumbai
York.
10 The current version of URC, which is a publication of ICC is _______.
a) URR 522 b) URC 522
c) URC 725 d) URR 725
11 Except as otherwise provided by article 38, a credit can neither be amended nor
cancelled without the agreement of
a) the issuing bank b) the confirming bank
c) the beneficiary d) All the these
12 Article ____ of UCPDC (ICC 600) illustrates about Issuing Bank undertaking.
a) 7 b) 15
c) 22 d) 29
13 Which of the following is True with respect to revised version of UCPDC 600?
a) The no. of articles have been b) The no. of articles have been
reduced to 49 as against 59 reduced to 39 as against 49 in the
in the pre revised version pre revised version.
c) There is no change in No. of d) No. of Articles have been doubled
Articles as equal no. of when compared to pre revised
articles are deleted and are version.
added.
14 Article ____ of UCPDC (ICC 600) portrays Confirming Banks undertaking.
a) 5 b) 8
c) 11 d) 15
15 The other two important publications of International Chamber of Commerce,
other than UCPDC,600 are ______________.
a) URC, URR b) UCPDC 700 & 800
c) UCPDC I & II d) None of the above.
16 Unloading from one means of conveyance and reloading to another means of
conveyance (whether or not in different modes of transport) during the carriage
from the place of dispatch to the place of final destination stated in the Credit is

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known as ___________.
a) Bill of Lading b) Partial Shipment
c) Sea Way Bill d) Transhipment
17 UCPDC is in use in more than _______ countries.
a) 175 b) 225
c) 255 d) 301
18 What is true about calculation of maturity period as per UCP600?
a) The words from and after b) The words from and after include
exclude date mentioned when date mentioned when used to
used to determine maturity determine maturity
c) Either of the above d) Maturity date has to be specific
19 A bank assumes no liability or responsibility for the consequences arising out of
the interruption of its business by Acts of God, riots, civil commotions,
insurrections, wars, acts of terrorism, or by any strikes or lockouts or any other
causes beyond its control. This is as per Article _____ of UCPDC,600.
a) 36 b) 37
c) 38 d) 39
20 Which article of UCPDC deals with Extension of Expiry Date or Last Day for
Presentation?
a) 22 b) 25
c) 29 d) 31
21 Which article of UCPDC deals with Partial Drawings and Shipments?
a) 22 b) 29
c) 30 d) 31
22 Which of the following statements is True with regard to Advising Bank?
a) An advising bank may utilize b) An advising bank cannot utilize the
the services of another bank services of another bank (second
(second advising bank) to advising bank) to advise the credit
advise the credit and any and any amendment to the
amendment to the beneficiary. beneficiary.
c) An advising bank, after d) An advising bank which advises a
advising the Credit, cannot credit must add its confirmation.
advise any further
amendment to the beneficiary.
23 Except as otherwise provided by article 38, a credit can neither be amended nor
cancelled without the agreement of the issuing bank, the confirming bank, if any,
and the beneficiary. This is as per Article _____ of UCPDC,600.
a) 2 b) 10
c) 19 d) 22
24 Which of the following is True with respect to UCPDC provisions?
a) A credit is irrevocable even if b) All credits are normally revocable
there is no indication to that even if there is no indication to that
effect. effect.

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c) A credit is irrevocable when it d) All the above


is requested by the Applicant.
25 A presentation including one or more original transport documents subject to
Articles 19, 20, 21, 22, 23, 24 or 25 must be made by or on behalf of the
beneficiary not later than _______ calendar days after the date of shipment as
described in these rules, but in any event not later than the expiry date of the
credit.
a) 15 b) 21
c) 30 d) 60
26 Which Article of UCPDC deals with Examination of Documents?
a) 14 b) 15
c) 21 d) 22
27 Which of the following is True as per UCPDC,600?
a) Beneficiary means the party in b) Applicant means the party on whose
whose favour a credit is request, the credit is issued.
issued.
c) Both a & b d) None of these
28 Under Force Majeure Clause, as per Article 36 of UCPDC, Banks __________
a) assumes liability / b) assumes responsibility but No
responsibility for the liability for the interruption of its
interruption of its business by business by Acts of God, riots, civil
Acts of God, riots, civil commotions, wars etc., however
commotions, wars etc., if it is such liability shall not exceed the
covered by proper Insurance. amount mentioned in the Credit
c) assumes liability but not d) assumes no liability or responsibility
responsibility for the for the consequences arising out of
interruption of its business by the interruption of its business by
Acts of God, riots, wars etc., Acts of God, riots, civil commotions,
however such liability shall insurrections, wars, acts of terrorism,
not exceed the amount or by any strikes or lockouts or any
mentioned in the Credit (L/C). other causes beyond its control.
29 In documents other than the _____________, the description of the goods,
services or performance, if stated, may be in general terms not conflicting with
their description in the credit.
a) Beneficiary copy b) Transport document
c) Commercial invoice d) Insurance document
30 Which of the following is True with respect to UCPDC,600?
a) Confirming bank means the b) Confirmation means a definite
bank that adds its undertaking of the confirming bank,
confirmation to a credit upon in addition to that of the issuing
the issuing banks bank, to honour or negotiate a
authorization or request. complying presentation.
c) Both a & b d) None of the above
31 As per Article 14 of UCPDC, a nominated bank, a confirming bank, if any, and
the issuing bank shall each have a maximum of ______ banking days following

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the day of presentation to determine if a presentation is complying.


a) 5 b) 7
c) 9 d) 11
32 Unless a nominated bank is the __________, an authorization to honour or
negotiate does not impose any obligation on that nominated bank to honour or
negotiate, except when expressly agreed to by that nominated bank and so
communicated to the beneficiary
a) paying bank b) advising bank
c) confirming bank d) negotiating bank
33 You have received a Letter of Credit advised by SBI, International Services
Branch (ISB), Mumbai issued by Barclays Bank, New York to be advised to M/s
PQR & Sons, Hyderabad. The beneficiary wanted to know whether the L/C
received, is revocable or irrevocable? You would _____________.
a) Contact SBI, ISB, Mumbai b) Contact L/C opening Bank
c) All L/Cs, if otherwise not d) In the credit (L/C), a mention must
mentioned, are irrevocable. be there as to whether it is revocable
or irrevocable.
34 Which of the following is True in connection with amendment of L/Cs?
a) A bank that advises an b) Partial acceptance of an amendment
amendment should inform the is not allowed and will be deemed to
bank from which it received be notification of rejection of the
the amendment of any notifi- amendment.
cation of acceptance or
rejection
c) A provision in an amendment d) All of these
to the effect that the
amendment shall enter into
force unless rejected by the
beneficiary within a certain
time shall be disregarded.
35 Article 18 of UCPDC deals with ____________.
a) Bill of Lading b) Transport Documents
c) Quality Certificate d) Commercial Invoice
36 Who is the ultimate obligator of payment under LC?
a) Negotiating Bank b) Confirmating Bank
c) Nominated Bank d) Issuing Bank
37 Which of the following is True with regard to Confirming Bank?
a) A confirming bank is b) A confirming bank undertakes to
irrevocably bound to honour reimburse another nominated bank
or negotiate as it adds its that has honoured or negotiated a
confirmation to the credit. complying presentation and
forwarded the documents to the
confirming bank.
c) If a bank is requested to d) All the above
confirm a credit, but is not

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prepared to do so, it must


inform the issuing bank with-
out delay and may advise the
credit without confirmation.
38 Partial acceptance of an amendment to credit is
a) not allowed b) Allowed
c) Allowed only with consent of d) Allowed only with consent of
issuing bank negotiating bank
39 What is effective date of UCPDC600?
a) 01/06/2007 b) 01/07/2007
c) 01/08/2007 d) 01/05/2007
40 As per Article 31 of UCPDC, which deals with Partial shipments, which of the
following is Correct?
a) Only partial shipments are b) Partial drawings or shipments are
allowed, but not partial allowed.
drawings.
c) Only partial drawings are d) Both partial shipments and drawings
allowed, but not partial are not allowed.
shipments.

41 Which of the following is True with respect to Commercial Invoice?


a) It need not be signed. b) It should be signed & stamped.
c) It should be countersigned by d) It should preferably in triplicate.
Customs, after shipment.
42 As per UCP 600, credit available with a nominated bank is also available with
a) the issuing bank b) The advising bank
c) the confirming bank d) The negotiating bank
43 Which is true about UCP 600 compared to UCP500?
a) Article 6,8,12,38 of UCP 500 b) 39 Articles are subdivided into sub-
have been completely delete articles
c) Topics wise categorization in d) All are true
UCP 600 has been provided
44 You have received a set of documents for negotiation and have observed that
documents require scrutiny and comparison with original credit for discrepancies
if any. You have ______ working days to do so.
a) Five b) Six
c) Seven d) 21
45 Which of the following is True?
a) A credit must state the bank b) A credit must state whether it is
with which it is available or available by sight payment, deferred
whether it is available with any payment, acceptance or negotiation.
bank.
c) A credit must not be issued d) All of the above.
available by a draft drawn on

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the applicant.
46 As per Article 20 of UCPDC, a Bill of Lading _______________.
a) Must indicate the name of the b) Must indicate the port of loading and
carrier and it should be the port of discharge stated in the
signed. credit.

c) indicate that the goods have d) All the above


been shipped on board, a
named vessel at the port of
loading stated in the credit.
47 As per Article 30, which of the following is correct?
a) The words "about"/ b) A tolerance not to exceed 5% more
"approximately" used in or 5% less than the quantity of the
connection with the amount of goods is allowed, provided the credit
the credit or the quantity/unit does not state the quantity in terms
price are to be construed as of a stipulated number of packing
allowing a tolerance not to units/individual items and the total
exceed 10% more or 10% amount of the drawings does not
less. exceed the amount of the credit.
c) Both a & b d) Tolerance which was upto 10% has
now been reduced to zero.

48 The last Article of UCPDC i.e. Article 39 deals with ___________.


a) Assignment of Proceeds b) Transferable Credits
c) Force Majeure d) Hours of Presentation
49 Which of the following is True as per the provisions of UCPDC?
a) A document may be dated b) If the expiry date of a credit or the
prior to the issuance date of last day for presentation falls on a
the credit, but must not be day when the bank is closed for
dated later than its date of reasons other than Force Majeure,
presentation. the expiry date or the last day for
presentation, as the case may be,
will be extended to the first following
banking day.
c) When the insurance d) All of the above
document indicates that it has
been issued in more than one
original, all originals must be
presented.
50 Which of the following is True with regard to UCPDC,600?
a) Negotiating bank / issuing b) All Credits are treated as
bank shall each have a Irrevocable.
maximum of five banking days
following the day of
presentation to determine if
documents are complying.

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c) The No. of Articles have been d) All of the above


pruned down to 39
51. Which of the following is true as per Article 15 of UCPDC,600?
a) When an issuing bank b) When a confirming bank determines
determines that a presentation that a presentation is complying, it
is complying, it must honour. must honour or negotiate and
forward the documents to the issuing
bank.
c) When a nominated bank d) All of the these.
determines that a presentation
is complying and honours or
negotiates, it must forward the
documents to the confirming
bank or issuing bank.
52 The terms "beginning", "middle" and "end" of a month shall be construed
respectively as the 1st to the
a) Between 11th to the 20th b) 11th to the 20th both dates exclusive
c) 11th to the 20th both dates d) Between 10th to the 20th
inclusive
53. What is meaning of first class, well known, qualified, independent,
competent used to describe the issuer of a document as per UCP600?

a) The issuer must have b) The issuer must be having license to


qualified degree of well known issue such document
institute
c) The issuer must be given d) Any issuer except the beneficiary
permission by competent to may be first class or well known or
issue such documents qualified or independent or
competent
54. Article 25 of UCPDC deals with ____________.
a) Courier Receipt, Post Receipt b) Commercial Invoice
or Certificate of Posting
c) Bill of Lading d) Original Documents
55. As per Article 17 of UCPDC, which of the following is true?
a) At least one original of each b) A bank shall treat a document as
document stipulated in the original, if it is bearing an apparently
credit must be presented. original signature, mark, stamp, or
label of the issuer of the document,
unless the document itself indicates
that it is not an original.
c) If a credit requires d) All of these
presentation of copies of
documents, presentation of
either originals or copies is
permitted.
56. Date of Bill of Lading is 01st June, LC is expiring on 23th June, then what will be

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the latest date of presentation of documents?


a) 22nd June b) 15th June
c) 21st June d) 14th June
57. Article 26 of UCPDC deals with _____________.
a) Air way Bill of Lading b) Clean Transport Document
c) Courier Receipt, Post Receipt d) "On Deck", "Shipper's Load and
or Certificate of Posting Count", Said by Shipper to Contain
and Charges Additional to Freight.
58. Which of the following is True with regard to UCPDC,600?
a) These Articles/provisions are b) They are binding on all parties
applicable to thereto unless expressly modified or
Foreign/Import/Export excluded by the credit.
transactions only.
c) These are applicable to both d) Both b & c
Inland and Foreign Credits
59. What is true when expression on or about is used in Documentary Credit?
a) 5 days before and after b) Both start and end dates should be
specified date included
c) Both of the above d) Date has to be specific
60. Which of the following is True with respect to UCPDC,600?

a) Issuing bank means the bank b) Negotiation means the purchase by


that issues a credit at the the nominated bank of drafts,
request of an applicant or on documents under a complying
its own behalf. presentation.
c) Credit means any irrevocable d) All of the above.
arrangement that constitutes a
definite undertaking of the
issuing bank to honour a
complying presentation.

ANSWERS
1. a 2. a 3. c 4. b 5. c 6. d 7. a 8. a 9. a 10. b
11. d 12 a 13 b 14 b 15 a 16 d 17 a 18 a 19 a 20. c
. . . . . . .
21. d 22 a 23 d 24 a 25 b 26 a 27 c 28 d 29 c 30. c
. . . . . . .
31. a 32 c 33 c 34 d 35 d 36 d 37 d 38 a 39 b 40. b
. . . . . . .
41. a 42 a 43 d 44 a 45 d 46 d 47 c 48 a 49 d 50. d
. . . . . . .
51. d 52 c 53 d 54 a 55 d 56 a 57 d 58 d 59 c 60. d
. . . . . . .

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SBLC MASULIPATNAM THE WINGS 2017

CASH DEPARTMENT PROCEDURES

Compiled by Shri. A.S.R.K.K.SARMA, Manager (Training)

1. Currency held by non-chest branches of SBI is the property of ?


a) Govt of India b) SBI
c) RBI d) None of these
2. Strong Room fitness certificate has to be renewed once in ?
a) Once in two months b) A quarter
c) Once in a year d) Six months
3. The size of the 2000/- bank note is
a) 66x166 b) 66x156
c) 66x176 d) 66x200
4. Excess cash found in the cash balance of a SWO has to be credited to ?
a) Suspense account b) Charges account
c) Sundry Deposit account d) Commission account
5. The deposit and withdrawal of Cash Box in/from Vault under IBCH will be
entered in ?
a) Cash Receipt / Delivery Register b) Cash officers jotting book
c) Cash box receipt Delivery d) None of these
Register
6. Cash held in the cash box overnight, will be treated as ?
a) Sundry balance b) Petty cash balance
c) Branch Cash balance d) None of these
7. Specific gravity of pure gold is ?
a) 18.1 b) 20.1
c) 19.3 d) None of these
8. Cash officer is responsible for ______ while sanctioning gold loan ?
a) Purity b) Weight
c) Value d) All the above
9. Gold ornaments of deceased borrower pending their settlement will have to be
kept in ?
a) Joint custody b) Safe Deposit Articles
c) In a separate locker d) None of these

10. Vault Register will always be kept in ?


a) Accountants Hand Safe b) Strong Room
c) With Cash Officer d) None of these

11. Minimum Transaction that can be made to currency chest ?


a) Rs 1 lakh & multiples of Rs 1 lak b) Rs 1 lak & in multiples of Rs
only 50,000 there of
c) Rs 50,000 & multiples of Rs d) None of these
50,000
12. Currency Chest is the property of ?
a) Government of India b) SBI
c) Reserve Bank of India d) None of the above

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13. Small Coin Depot consists of ?


a) All coins b) Coins upto Rs. 1/-
c) Coins below Re. 1/- d) Coins upto Rs. 5/-
14. Small Coin Depot (SCD) is the property of ?
a) SBI b) RBI
c) Govt. of India d) None of these
15. Rs 1/- notes are issued by ?
a) Govt of India b) RBI
c) IBA d) None of these
16. Min. withdrawal / deposits in SCD ?
a) Rs 100/- & multiples of Rs 50/- b) Rs 500/- & multiples of Rs 50/-
c) Rs 1000/- & multiples of 100/- d) None of these
17. Small coin depot transactions are to be reported to ?
a) Zonal Office b) RBI
c) FSLO d) None of these
18. Clean Note Policy (CNP) is governed by ?
a) Sec 35 of Indian Currency Act b) Sec 35 A of B.R Act
c) Sec 35 A of RBI Act d) None of these
19. Relationship between RBI & SBI in case of currency chests is
a) Principal & Agent b) Bailor & Bailee
c) Agent & Principal d) None of these
20. Person preparing the note packet is responsible for both quality & quantity upto
a) Rs 100/- b) Rs 50/-
c) Rs 10/- d) Rs 500/-
21. IBCH overnight cash retention limit is ?
a) Rs 2 lakh b) Rs 5 lakh
c) Rs 1 lakh d) None of these
22. In Branch Cash Handling (IBCH) is applicable to ?
a) Metro branches b) Non currency chest branches
c) All branches d) Currency chest branches
23. For Rs 500/- & Rs 2000/- person preparing the note packet is responsible for ?
a) Quantity only b) Quality only
c) Both quality & quantity d) None of these
24. Balances in Currency Chest have to be verified by an official other than the joint
custodians once in ?
a) Once in two months b) Half year
c) Quarter d) Once in a year
25. The difference between days total withdrawals and days total deposits in the
chest is ?
a) Treasury Transfer b) Cash Transfer
c) Currency Transfer d) None of these
26. The certificate of chest balance as on ____ is submitted to RBI by the Chest
branch ?
a) 31st March b) 31st May
th
c) 30 June d) 31st Dec
27. In a soiled note remittance to RBI if more than ___% of notes is found to be
issuable notes, then entire remittance will be returned by RBI at sending banks
cost ?

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a) 10 b) 5
c) 20 d) None of these
28. Name the of the Register to record exchange of Cash between SWOs in Cash
Dept.?
a) Cash Transfer Register b) Cash Receipts Delivery Register
c) Cash Officers Jotting Book d) Cash Transaction Register
29. What type of insurance cover is obtained for Cash Remittances?
a) Comprehensive insurance cover b) Fidelity Insurance cover
c) Transit Insurance cover d) None of these
30. As per the latest instructions of the RBI, FIR has to be lodged in case of Fake
Currency notes, if the no. of notes is ?
a) 4 b) 5 or more
c) 3 d) 2
31. Days net Withdrawal/ Deposit to reported to FSLO through ?
a) ICCOMS b) IFAMS
c) Fax d) email
32. Verification of Currency Chest balances by officials other than Joint custodian is
done at___________ intervals ?
a) Once in a month b) Once in 2 months
c) No periodicity stipulated d) Once in a quarter
33. Surprise verification of Critical Currency Chests is made by LHO at ?
a) Monthly Interval b) Quarterly Interval
c) Half Yearly Interval d) No periodicity stipulated
34. Which of the following is true when remittance is sent from one currency chest
to another currency chest ?
a) Branch Cash Balance is credited b) Branch Cash Balance is debited
and RBIs Account is debited and RBIs Account is credited
c) No Entry is passed d) None of these
35. Charges towards police escorts, transport etc. for chest to chest remittances of
treasure is ?
a) Borne by Bank b) Paid by RBI
c) Paid initially by Bank, then d) None of these
reimbursed by RBI
36. Repository is part of ?
a) Branch Cash Balance b) Currency Chest
c) Small Coin Depot d) None of these
37. Printing & Circulation of forged Indian currency notes is an offence u/s ?
a) Sec 292 of Criminal Procedure b) Sec 489A to 489E of Indian Penal
Code Code
c) Both d) None
38. Forged Note Vigilance Cell (FNVC) of the bank is required to submit data on
counterfeit notes detected during a month on all India basis by email to
____before the end of succeeding month.
a) RBI Issue Office b) FIU-IND, New Delhi
c) National Crime Records Bureau, d) Currency Management Dept. of
New Delhi RBI, Mumbai
39. Fidelity insurance cover for single window operator is obtained for ?
a) Rs 1 Lakh b) Rs 2 Lakh
c) Rs 5 lakh d) Rs 8 Lakh

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40. Recounting of note packets is not required for denominations upto ?


a) Rs 50/- b) Rs 100/-
c) Rs 500/- d) All note packets to be recounted
41. Who will be responsible for tampered bundles / note packets kept in the vault ?
a) Cash-in-Charge alone b) Joint Custodian of Vault
c) Accountant alone d) Branch Head alone
42. In respect of soiled notes bundles prepared for remittance to RBI, who is/are
responsible for Quality & Quantity of notes in the bundle ?
a) Person preparing the bundle b) Cash-in-charge
c) Accountant d) Joint Custodian
43. Mahesh, single window operator, reported shortage of cash of Rs 5000/- in his
counter on 3rd Jan 2014. He is also not in position to deposit the same.
Shortage will be made good by debit to ?
a) Suspense A/c b) System Suspense A/c Originating
Debit
c) Recalled Asset A/c d) Charges A/c
44. Ceiling for petty cash expense is ?
a) Rs.100/- b) Rs.25/-
c) Rs.50/- d) Rs.49/-
45. Petty Cash should be checked by ____________ at _____________ interval
a) BM, Monthly Irregular b) Accountant, Regular
c) RM, Monthly d) BM, Fortnightly
46. Which of the following is not true regarding In- Branch Cash Handling Process ?
a) Size of the aluminium box should b) Each SWO/Asstt. Cash is provided
be 14X11X4 size with an aluminium box having
Overnight cash retention
limit of Rs 1.00 lakh
c) Every day, in the beginning, d) This process will reduce the time
Cash-in-Charge verifies the spent by the Cash Officer/Cashier-
contents of Cash box on the in-charge/SWO/Assistant
basis of system generated (Cash) in handing over and
random list receiving cash at the
beginning/close of the day
47. Safe deposit receipt relating to deposit of duplicate keys is entered in BD
register and the safe deposit receipt is held by _________________ ?
a) Accountant outside the strong b) Accountant inside the strong room
room
c) BM outside the strong room d) BM inside the strong room

48. One Re coin is issued under _______ act


a) Coinage Act, 1906 b) RBI
c) SBI d) BR Act
49. Currency Notes are printed at ?
a) Nasik, Dewas, Mysore & Salboni b) Nasik, Pune, Indore & Kanpur
c) Nasik, Pune, Dehradun &Mysore d) Nasik, Hissar, Salboni & Pune
50. Cash retention limit of the branch will be reviewed by _________ every year in
the month of__________ ?
a) RM or CM (Admin), May b) CM (Admin), May
c) Regional Manager, Nov d) RM or CM (Admin), Nov

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51. How many angular bleed lines in 2000/- note in left and right hand site in raised
print?
a) 7 b) 5
c) 6 d) 4
52 The Controller of the branches will arrange for periodical cash verification of
Hand Balance Branches ____ ?
a) at half yearly interval by the b) By the Branch Manager of the
Branch Managers of nearby Branch
branches
c) No need for verification d) None of the above
53 The coverage of cash-in transit insurance will be limited to _____?
a) The cash retention limit of the b) Upto 50,00,000/-
branch.
c) Upto 49,00,000/- d) None of the above
54. What is Shrink Wrapping in Cash Department ?
a) While sending soiled remittance b) While sending soiled remittance
to RBI Wrapping 1000 pieces in to RBI packing 10 packets of 100
a bundle instead of packing 10 pieces in a bundle
packets of 100 pieces in a
bundle
c) Both a) and b) d) None of the above
55 While sending Soiled Note Remittance to RBI, remittance should sent in
multiples of ________?
a) Rs.100000/- b) Rs.50000/-
c) Rs.500/- d) None of the above
56 The counterfeit bank notes cannot be impounded by-------------
a) All PSBs b) All Treasuries and Sub-treasuries
c) All NBFCs d) All Co-operative banks & RRBs
57 Cash shortage up to which is made good by the employee same day and if
there is no suspicion of fraud, it need not be reported as fraud.
a) Rs.1,000/- b) Rs.5,000/-
c) Rs.10,000/- d) None of these
58 In order to keep FCN(Foreign Currency Notes) at optimum level, branches are
advised to handover the FCNs to ........
a) Overseas Branch at monthly b) M/s Thomas Cook India
intervals Limited(TCIL) at regular interval
c) Reserve Bank of India d) Need not to hand over FCNs, to
be retained at branch
59 The BGL A/c No.98903 in CBS is
a) Branch Cash Balance A/c b) Teller Cash Balance A/c
c) Currency Transfer A/c d) Bin Balance A/c

60 The BGL A/c No.98912 in CBS is


a) Branch Cash Balance A/c b) Teller Cash Balance A/c
c) Currency Transfer A/c d) Bin Balance A/c

61 The basic colour of new 2000/- series note is


a) Pink b) Red
c) Magenta d) Stone gray

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62 The basic colour of new 500/- series note is


a) Pink b) Red
c) Magenta d) Stone gray
63 The dimension of new 500/- series note is
a) 66 mmx160mm b) 66mmx170mm
c) 66mmx150mm d) 66mmx140mm
64 The coins of denomination______ and below are now uncurrent coins
a) Rs.1 and below b) Rs.50 ps and below
c) Rs.25 ps and below d) Rs.10 ps and below.
65. In case of exchange of soiled notes at currency chest branches, Banks should
exchange notes per person upto _____ notes and value of Rs.____ per day
free of charge over the counter.
a) 50 notes and Rs.10000 b) 20 notes and Rs.5000
b) 10 notes and Rs.10000 d) 20 notes and Rs.10000
66. In case of exchange of soiled notes at currency chest branches, Where number
of notes presented by a person exceeds _____ notes and value of Rs.____per
day against receipt for value to be credited later with service charge.
a) 50 notes and Rs.10000 b) 20 notes and Rs.5000
b) 10 notes and Rs.10000 d) 20 notes and Rs.10000
67. The CBS user type for Cash Officer/Cash-in-charge is
a) 40 b) 45
c) 60 d) 50
68. The CDC report of the difference between CGL Cash and BGL cash is
a) Glcntr b) Glcash
c) Glcomp d) Gldiff
69 The CGL number for CASH is
a) 1260505001 b) 1204505001
c) 5108505001 d) 5108505002
70 ICCOMS stands for
a) Integrated Computerised b) Integrated Computerised Central
Currency Operations and Operations and Management
Management System System
c) Integrated Computerised Chest d) Integrated Currency Chest
Operations and Management Operations and Management
System System
71.. Penalty in case of , shortages in soiled note remittance for notes in
denomination upto 50 is ______
a) Rs.50/- per peace in addition to b) Equal to the value of the
the loss denomination per peace in
addition to the loss.
b) Rs.100/- per peace d) No penalty
72 Penalty in case of , shortages in soiled note remittance for notes in
denomination of 100 and above is ______
a) Rs.50/- per peace in addition to b) Equal to the value of the
the loss denomination per peace in
addition to the loss.
b) Rs.100/- per peace d) No penalty

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73 Penalty Non-compliances with operational guidelines by currency chests


detected by RBI Officials such as non functioning of CCTV,Branch Documents
kept in strong room, Non utilisation of NSMs for sorting notes etc.,
a) Rs.5000/- each irregularity and b) Rs.5000/- each irregularity and
Rs.10000/- in case of repition Rs.7500/- in case of repition
b) Rs.5000/- each irregularity and d) Rs.5000/- each irregularity and
Rs.50000/- in case of repition Rs.100000/- in case of repition
74 The Manager(CAC) will report to _________
a) AGM of the region b) DGM of the AO
c) GM directly d) Chief Manager of the Branch

75 User Capability and Usertype in case of Cash-In-charge Special Assistant


/Senior Assistant
a) Capability level : 4 and User b) capability level : 5 and
type: 60 Usertype:60
c) capability level : 4 and User d) capability level : 4 and
type:50 Usertype:50

ANSWERS

1. b 2. c 3. a 4. c 5. c 6. c 7. c 8. d 9. b 10. b

11. b 12. c 13. c 14. c 15. a 16. a 17. c 18. b 19. a 20. a

21. c 22. c 23. b 24. a 25. c 26. b 27. b 28. b 29. c 30. b

31. b 32. b 33. b 34. c 35. c 36. b 37. b 38. d 39. c 40. b

41. b 42. a 43. c 44. c 45. a 46. c 47. c 48. a 49. a 50. a

51. a 52 a 53. a 54. a 55 b 56. c 57. a 58. b 59 a 60 b

61 c 62 d 63 c 64 c 65 b 66 b 67 d 68 c 69 B 70 A

71 a 72 b 73 a 74 b 75 a

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GOVERNMENT BUSINESS

Compiled by Shri. A.S.R.K.K.SARMA, Manager (Training)

1 SBI handles Govt. Business as agent of RBI as per


(a) Sec 45 of RBI Act (b) Sec 32 of SBI Act
(c) Both a & b (d) None of these
2 TDS deducted during the month should be deposited to the credit of Govt
Account
(a) Before 1st of subsequent month (b) On the last working of the
respective month
th
(c) Before 7 of subsequent month (d) None of these

3 Agency commission paid by RBI in respect of Govt. Receipts - Physical mode


(a) Rs.45 per transaction (b) Rs.50 per transaction
(c) 9 paise per Rs.100 (d) None of these
4 Agency commission paid by RBI in respect of Govt. Receipts-e-mode
(a) Rs.50 per transaction (b) Rs.12 per transaction
(c) 9 paise per Rs.100 (d) None of these

5 Agency commission paid by RBI in respect of pension payments where Pension


Files are held by the Bank
(a) Rs.60 per transaction (b) Rs.65 per transaction
(c) 5.5 paise per Rs.100 turnover (d) None of these

6 Agency commission paid by RBI in respect of payments other than pension


(a) 9 paise per Rs.100 turnover (b) 5.5 paise per Rs.100 turnover
(c) Rs.50 per transaction (d) None of these

7 PPF account can be opened by


(a) Adult Individuals (b) HUF
(c) NRI (d) All the above

8 Maximum amount that can be deposited in a PPF account during financial year
(a) Rs.50000 (b) Rs.70000
(c) Rs.150000 (d) None of the above

9 How many installments in a financial year are allowed for depositing amounts in
PPF account
(a) 5 (b) 9
(c) 12 (d) None of these

10 Withdrawal is allowed from PPF account from _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ onwards.


(a) 3rd financial year (b) 5th financial year
(c) 6th financial year (d) All the above are true

11 What is the maximum period for which a PPF account can be opened
(a) 5 years (b) 10 years
(c) 15 years (d) None of the above

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12 Who are eligible to open accounts under Senior Citizen Saving Scheme 2004
(a) An individual who has attained (b) Who has attained the age of 55
the age of 60 years and above years or more but less than 60
on the date of opening of an years and who has retired on
account superannuation or otherwise on
the date of opening the account
(c) Both a & b (d) None of the above

13 Min and Maximum amount that can be accepted under Senior Citizen Savings
Scheme 2004
(a) Min Rs.1000 and Max Rs.15 (b) Min Rs.10000 and Max Rs.15
lacs lacs
(c) Any amount can deposited (d) None of the above
14 What is the maximum amount of deposit that can be accepted in cash under
Senior Citizen Savings Scheme 2004
(a) 100000 (b) 500000
(c) 1500000 (d) No cash is accepted
15 Deposits under Senior Citizen Savings Scheme 2004 is accepted for a
maximum period of
(a) 3 years (b) 5 years
(c) 5 years and extension by 3 (d) None of the above
more years
16 What is the time limit within which Govt Transactions are to be settled with Govt
of India
(a) T+3 working days where (b) T+5 working days where Dealing
Dealing Branch and FPLB are Branch and FPLB are different
at the same centre centres
(c) Both a & b are true (d) None of these
17 CBDT transactions to be settled within
(a) T+3 working days irrespective (b) T+5 working days
of location
(c) T+1 working day (d) None of the above
18 All Govt Transactions through e-mode to be settled within
(a) T+1 day (b) T+3 days
(c) T+5 days (d) None of the above
19 Penalty rate for delay in settlement of Govt Transactions beyond permitted
period is
(a) At Bank Rate (b) Bank Rate+1%
(c) Bank Rate + 2% (d) None of the above
20 What is the expansion of EASIEST
(a) Electronic Accounting System (b) Electronic Accounting Standards
in Excise and Service Tax in Excise and Service Tax
(c) Eectronical Accounts Services (d) None of the above
in Excise and Sales Tax

21 Challan format to be used for CBEC credits is


(a) GAR 7 (b) ITS 280
(c) GAR 9 (d) None of the above

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22 Settlement of State Govt transactions with regional office of RBI is the


responsibility of
(a) GAD (b) FLSO
(c) FSLO (d) None of the above
23 GBSS has been launched w.e.f.
(a) 01.1.2009 (b) 01.02.2009
(c) 01.03.2009 (d) None of the above

24 Which of the following are not true with regard to e-Focal Point Link branches
(a) e-FPB for CBDT Bangalore (b) e-FPB for Central Excise World
Main Branch University Service Centre Branch,
Chennai
(c) e-FPB for Service Tax Fort (d) None of these
Market Branch, Mumbai
25 Which of the following statements are not true in case of CBDT Transactions
(a) CIN will be generated for each (b) CIN consist of BSR code, Date
credit transaction and serial number of challan
(c) Quoting PAN/TAN mandatory (d) None of these
in challans
26 Issue of Bankers Cheques at the request of Government Departments convered
under RBI Remittance facility Scheme
(a) Yes, Exchange need not be (b) No, not covered under RBI
collected Remittance facility Scheme,
hence exchange to be collected
27 Expand GBSS?
(a) Government Business (b) Government Business Software
Software Solutions System
(c) Government Business System (d) Government Banking Software
Software Solutions
28 Certified copy of Datewise Monthly Statement (DMS) is called
(a) Verified Datewise Monthly (b) Valued Datewise Monthly
Statement (VDMS) Statement
(c) Certified Datewise Monthly (d) None of the above
Statement (CDMS)

29 While transferring PPF account from one branch to the other what to be done
regarding the Accured Interest on the PPF A/c ?
(a) A separate Draft has to be sent (b) Advise the Accured interest to the
to the other branch other branch so as to incorporate
the same in CBS.
(c) A/c can be transferred as if it is (d) None of these
a normal Deposit account in
CBS.
30 The time frame for crediting the pension/ family after despatch of New PPO ?
(a) Within 5 days (b) With in a week
(c) Within a fortnight (d) At the month end
31 Interest paid on PPF Account on ?
(a) 31 January (b) On 31St March
(c) 31 December (d) None of the above

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32 Interest will be accured on the balance available in PPF as on ?


(a) Minimum balance between 5th (b) Minimum balance between 10th to
th
to 30 of every month 30th of every month
(c) On daily balance (d) None of the above
33 Nomination facility available in PPF account ?
(a) Available in the name of single (b) Available infavour of one or more
individual persons
(c) Not available (d) None of the above

34 PPF account gets matured after the completion of ____ Yrs


(a) 10 Yrs (b) 15 Yrs
(c) 20 Yrs (d) 25 Yrs
35 TDS decuted on Bank Deposits during the month of March to be remitted to
Govt. by
(a) 7th of next month (b) 27th April
th
(c) 30 April (d) None of the above
36 Electronic filing of Quarterly TDS returns to be normally filed by
(a) 15th day of next calendar (b) 30th day of next calendar Quarter
Quarter
(c) 6th day of the next calendar (d) None of the above
Quarter
37 Electronic filing of Quarterly TDS returns for the Quarter ending March 31 to be
filed by
(a) 15th day of next calendar (b) 30th day of next calendar Quarter
Quarter
(c) 31st May (d) None of the above
38 Penalty for delay/wrong submission of TDS Quarterly returns
(a) Rs.300/- per day till the date of (b) Rs.200/- per day till the date of
filing of returns filing
(c) Flat 10,000/- (d) None of the above
39 e-payment of central excise duty and service tax is mandatory for all tax payers
paying the tax of ___________ w.e.f. 01.01.2014.
(a) Rs 1,00,000.00 (Rs One Lac) & (b) Rs.10,00,000/-
over
(c) e-payment not required (d) None of the above
40 The pensioner can submit annual Life certificate at _________of the Bank either
in person or through his/ her authorized representative.
(a) Home Branch (b) Non Home Branch
(c) CPPC (d) Either at Home Branch or at Non-
home Branch
41 Income Tax Refund Order is a ?
(a) Negotiable Instrument , 3 (b) Not Negotiable Instrument , 3
months validity , Rs.50000/- months validity , Rs.50000/-
(c) Quasi Negotiable Instrument , (d) Quasi Negotiable Instrument , 3
3 months validity , Rs.25000/- months validity , Rs.50000/-
42 Public provident Fund Scheme framed under provision
(a) PPF ACT 1968 (23 OF 1968) (b) PPF ACT 1967 (23 OF 1968)
(c) PPF ACT 1966 (23 OF 1968) (d) PPF ACT 1965 (23 OF 1968)

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43 What is the periodicity at which interest is paid out in SCSS account?


(a) monthly (b) Half yearly
(c) quarterly (d) Annually
44 What should be the source of funds for investing in SCSS?
(a) Only retirement benefits (b) Part of investment should be
invariably from retirement benefits
(c) Source of funds is immaterial, if (d) None of the above
the depositor is of 60 yrs
&above
45 In TDS Centralization, New BGL A/c No for TDS on Interest Paid on Deposits?
(a) 4898047 (b) 4898048
(c) 4898049 (d) 4898050
46 In TDS Centralization, New BGL A/c No for TDS on Pension Payments?
(a) 4898048 (b) 4898049
(c) 4898050 (d) 4898051
47 In TDS Centralization, New BGL A/c No for TDS on payments made to
employees (HRMS)?
(a) 4898048 (b) 4898051
(c) 4898049 (d) 4898050
48 In TDS Centralization, New BGL A/c No for TDS on Rent?
(a) 4898047 (b) 4898048
(c) 4898049 (d) 4898050
49 In TDS Centralization, New BGL A/c No for TDS on VPS?
(a) 4898047 (b) 4898048
(c) 4898049 (d) 4898050
50 In TDS Centralization, TDS on Interest paid on deposits comes under which
stream?
(a) CBS (b) VPS
(c) HRMS (d) CPPC
51 In TDS Centralization, TDS on Pension Payments comes under which stream?
(a) CBS (b) VPS
(c) HRMS (d) CPPC
52 In TDS Centralization, Name the Tool for TDS Centralization?
(a) TDS Remittance System (b) TDS Reporting System
(c) TDS Rating System (d) TDS Return System
53 In TDS Centralization, How many PAN Nos are mapped to HRMS stream
(a) One (b) Two
(c) Three (d) TAN will be mapped based on
each branch/network based on
network in the circle
54 In TDS Centralization, How many PAN Nos are mapped to CBS stream
(a) One (b) Two
(c) Three (d) TAN will be mapped based on
each branch/network based on
network in the circle
55 In TDS Centralization, How many PAN Nos are mapped to VPS stream
(a) One (b) Two

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(c) Three (d)


TAN will be mapped based on
each branch/network based on
network in the circle
56 In TDS Centralization, How many PAN Nos are mapped to CPPC stream
(a) One (b) Two
(c) Three (d) TAN will be mapped based on
each branch/network based on
network in the circle
57 In the GST regime, What is GSTN?
(a) Goods and Service Tax (b) Goods and Sales Tax Network
Network
(c) Goods and Security Tax (d) Goods and Supermarket Tax
Network Network
58 Which taxes are migrated to GST?

(a) VAT and Service Tax (b) VAT ,Service Tax and Central
Excise
(c) VAT, Service Tax, Central (d) VAT only
Excise and Income Tax
59 Due date for quarterly uploading of 15G/15H in respect of quarter ending June
is (Ist quarter)
(a) 15th july (b) 5th July
st
(c) 31 July (d) 7th July
60 Due date for quarterly uploading of 15G/15H in respect of quarter ending
December is (3rd quarter)
(a) 15th January (b) 5th January
(c) 31st January (d) 7th January
61 TDS Deduction certificate Form 16A is for?
(a) Deduction in respect of (b) Deduction in respect of other than
Salaries salary
(c) Both a and B are correct (d) None of the above
62 Sukanya Samriddhi Account is for GirlS below Yrs.
(a) 2 Yrs (b) 10 Yrs.
(c) 3 Yrs (d) 5 Yrs.
63 Minimum & Maximum contributions in Sukanya Samriddhi Account per year is
(a) 100 & 150000 (b) 1000 & 100000
(c) 1000& 150000 (d) 2500 & 250000
64 CIN stands for
(a) Challan Inquiry Number (b) Challan Identification Number
(c) Challan Information Number (d) Challan Identify Number
65 Minimum & Maximum contributions in Sukanya Samriddhi Account per financial
year is
(a) 100 & 150000 (b) 1000 & 100000
(c) 500 & 150000 (d) 1000& 150000
66 Deposits in Sukanya Samridhi Account can be made till the completion of
period of _______Years from the date opening of such account.
(a) 12 Years (b) 15 Years
(c) 18 Years (d) 10 Years

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67 Default Sukanya Samridhi Account can be regularised within _____ Years

(a) 15 Years (b) 12 Years


(c) 18 Years (d) 10 Years

68 Default Sukanya Samridhi Account can be regularised by paying a penalty of


Rs._____ per year along with minimum specified amount.
(a) 150 (b) 50
(c) 100 (d) No penalty
69 Sukanya Samridhi default account can only be regularised within 15 years else
________ rate of interest is applicable at the time of maturity.
(a) Original Interest applicable for (b) PPF Interest
the product
(c) Savings interest (d) Post Office Savings Bank interest

70 Withdrawal in Sukanya Samridhi Account is permitted only after the girl child
attains the age of ______or has passed _____standard whichever is earlier.
(a) 18 years or 8th standard (b) 18 years or 10th standard
(c) 18 years or 7th standard (d) 18 years or Graduation
71 No interest is payable once the Sukanya Samridhi Account has complets _____
Years from the date of its opening
(a) 18 (b) 15
(c) 21 (d) 20
72 The minimum and maximum purchase of gold in Sovereign Gold Bond Scheme
per person is?
(a) 2 grams & 500 grams (b) 5 grams & 500 grams
(c) 1 gram & 500 grams (d) 2 grams & 100 grams
73 Payment and Processing of Staff pensions are at?
(a) Centralised Staff Pension (b) HRMS
Processing Cell
(c) Branches (d) CPPC
74 Pensioners help line number ____________should be displayed prominently in
. the Banking hall.
(a) 1800112211 (b) 1800110009
(c) 1800000000 (d) 1800111111
75 Compensation in respect of delay in crediting the pension by the pension
payment branches is _______
(a) Savings Bank rate (b) 18% fixed
(c) TDR rate (d) 8% fixed
76 The interest payable on Sovereign Gold Bond Scheme is on ____basis?
(a) Quarterly (b) Half yearly
(c) Annually (d) Monthly
77 The tenure of Sovereign Gold Bond Scheme is
(a) 5 years (b) 3 years
(c) 8 years (d) 10 years
78 Premature closure in case of minor PPF accounts managed by guardians can
be considered with a penalty clause of ______
(a) 1% less on the interest rate (b) 2% less on the interest rate
applicable on PPF applicable on PPF

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(c) 1.5% less on the interest rate (d) No premature closure allowed.
applicable on PPF
79 Jeevan Pramaan is a
(a) SBI Life policy (b) Digital Life Certificate for
pensioners
(c) SBI General policy (d) Savings Bank variant

80 In respect of OLTAS, BSR (Basic Statistical Return) Code of the Branch


contain_____digits
(a) 7 digits (b) 5 digits
(c) 10 digits (d) 8 digits
81 The Challan No. meant for payment of TDS/TCS is_____
(a) ITNS 280 (b) ITNS 281
(c) ITNS 279 (d) ITNS 282
82 The Challan No.meant for payment of Income Tax is ______
(a) ITNS 280 (b) ITNS 281
(c) ITNS 279 (d) ITNS 282
83 The regulatory authority for NPS (National Pension System) is
(a) RBI (b) SBI
(c) SEBI (d) PFRDA
84 Who are eligible to subscribe to NPS Scheme?
(a) All individuals between to 18 to (b) All Individuals between 18 to 60
60 years years including NRIs
(c) All individuals between 21 to (d) All individuals between 21 to 60
60 years years including NRIs.
85 Sum assured in case of Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyothi Bhima Yojana (life
insurance cover for death due to any reason)
(a) 1 lac (b) 2 lac
(c) 3 laac (d) 5 lac
86 The premium payablefor PMJBY scheme is Rs.____?
(a) Rs.330 (b) Rs.360
(c) Rs.12/- (d) Rs.102/-
87 The premium payable for PMSBY (Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bhima Yojana
(Accidental insurance coverage scheme)
(a) Rs.330 (b) Rs.360
(c) Rs.12 (d) Rs102
88 PRAN stands for
(a) Pension Retirement Account (b) Permanent Retirement Account
Number Number
(c) People Retirement Account (d) Person Retirement Account
Number Number
89 PAN No is a _______
(a) 10 digit numeric number (b) 10 digit alphanumeric number
(c) 8 digit numeric number (d) 8 digit alphanumeric number
90 E kuber is a ________
(a) Core Banking solution of CAC (b) Core Banking solution of SBI
(c) Core Banking solution of RBI (d) Core Banking solution of SBI
subsidiaries

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ANSWERS
1 c 2 c 3 b 4 b 5 b 6 b 7 a 8 c 9 c 10 c

11 c 12 c 13 a 14 a 15 c 16 c 17 a 18 a 19 c 20 a

21 a 22 c 23 b 24 d 25 d 26 b 27 a 28 a 29 c 30 b

31 b 32 a 33 b 34 b 35 c 36 b 37 c 38 b 39 a 40 d

41 c 42 a 43 c 44 c 45 a 46 d 47 d 48 b 49 c 50 a

51 d 52 b 53 a 54 d 55 a 56 a 57 a 58 b 59 c 60 c

61 b 62 b 63 c 64 b 65 d 66 b 67 a 68 b 69 d 70 b

71 c 72 c 73 b 74 b 75 d 76 b 77 c 78 a 79 b 80 a

81 b 82 a 83 d 84 b 85 b 86 a 87 c 88 b 89 b 90 c

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INTER BRANCH TRANSFER SYSTEM (IBTS)

Prepared by Shri A.S.R.K.K.SARMA, Manager (Training)


1. IBTS is
A Inter branch transfer system B Inter branch transaction system
C Inter branch transfer scheme D Inter branch transaction scheme
2. IBTS is meant for
A Inter branch transfers other than B Inter Branch transfers including
SC/DDPs SC/DDP
C Inter Branch transfers other than D None of the above
staff purpose.
3. How many new BGL accounts have been created for declining of an entry by
Responding Branch?
A 4 B 3
C 2 D 8
4. The purpose of IBTS is
A To ensure better control on inter B To replace Branch Clearing General
Branch transactions. Account (BCGA) as IBTS is self
reconciliation facility.
C Due to RBI compulsions. D To enable faster realization of
SCs/DDPs
5. In IBTS, the transaction originated by the originating Branch
A Can be monitored till the same is B The other Branch should be
responded by other Branch. responding instantly.
C The originating branch cant view D The controllers will be able to see
the status after originating the status for follow up.
transaction.
6. The transaction originated by the originated Branch
A Should be accepted by the B Can be accepted or declined by the
responding Branch. responding Branch.
C Can be reversed by it at any point D Cant be reversed by the originating
of time. Branch
7. The transaction originated by the originating Branch in IBTS
A Can be reversed by the B Can be reversed by the originating
originating Branch at any point of Branch on the same day without
time without the involvement of involvement of the responding
the responding Branch. Branch.
C Cant be reversed by the declining D None of the above.
Branch without getting declined
by the responding Branch.
8. Once the transaction in IBTS is declined by the responding Branch
A The originating Branch has to B The originating Branch can either
manually reverse the entries reverse or re-originate the same.
parked by the system in IBT-
Sundry Deposit Account at the
originating Branch
C The responding Branch can only D Both (a) & (c)
re-originate the entry after
acceptance

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9. Re-origination of entry in IBTS by the originating Branch involves


A Accounting entries. B No accounting entries.
C Automatic accounting entries at D Automatic accounting entries both
originating Branch by the system. at originating Branch and at
receiving Branch by the system.
10. While re-origination of the entry by the originating Branch, which of the following
can be changed/modified.
A Destination Branch code, amount B Destination Branch BGL No, amount
and narration and narration.
C Destination Branch code, amount D Destination Branch code, BGL
and destination BGL account. account and narration.
11. For responding a IBTS entry, the responding Branch
A Need not depend on any B It can respond after receiving
documents. system generated forward letter and
documents.
C It can respond on the strength of D None of the above.
Branch Clearing General
Account.
12. An auto generated e-mail message will be sent by the system for Originating
entry of Rs.____ and above put through by the originating branch.
A 2 lac. B 5 lac
C 1 lac D 10 lac
13. In addition to an auto generated e-mail message, SMS also will be sent by the
system for Originating entry of Rs.____ and above put through by the originating
branch.
A 25 lac B 50 lac
C 1 crore D 2 crore

ANSWERS

1 B 2 A 3 c 4 B 5 A

6 B 7 B 8 A 9 B 10 D

11 B 12 B 13 C

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COMMERCIAL & INSTITUTIONAL FINANCE (C&I)

Compiled by Ms. Arun Jyothi,Chief Manager (Trng)

1 1. What are two types of Ratings we have in New CRA 2010?


a) Regular & Simplified Ratings b) Borrower & Facility Ratings
c) WC & TL Ratings d) None of these
2 CRA 2010 is applicable for all advance accounts with aggregate exposure(Fund
based+Non fund based) of _______
a) Rs 5 lacs and above b) Rs 1 crore and above
c) Rs 50 lacs and above for all loans d) Rs 5 crores and above
with a risk scoring model
3 How many risk rating grades are there in CRA 2010?
a) 16 b) 10
c) 8 d) 15
4 CRA 2010 is applicable for all advance accounts with aggregate exposure(Fund
based+Non fund based) of _______
a) Rs.5 lacs and above b) Rs 25 lacs and above for loans
sanctioned under general credit
c) Rs 1 crore and above d) Rs 5 crores and above
5 What is the hurdle rate under New CRA-2010?
a) SB- 5 b) SB- 4
c) SB- 8 d) SB- 10
6 Opinion reports on Borrowers / Guarantors are to be updated at ---
a) Quarterly intervals b) Half yearly intervals
c) at yearly intervals irrespective of d) at the time of renewal / enhancement of
review / renewal of limits
7 Financial Follow up Reports (FFRs) to be submitted by borrowal accounts with FBWC
limits of
a) Rs 5 Crore and above b) Rs 2 Crores and above
c) Rs 1 Crore and above d) Rs 3 Crores and above
8 FFR I should be submitted at
a) Quarterly intervals within 6 weeks b) Quarterly intervals within 6 weeks from
from the completion of the quarter the completion of the quarter
c) Half yearly intervals within 6 weeks d) Half yearly intervals within 8 weeks
from the completion of the Half year from the completion of the Half year
9 What do you mean by specified securities?
a) stocks, funds and securities (other b) receipts, certificates or any other form
than immovable property) in which of instrument issued by the State Bank
a trustee may invest trust money in evidence of or representing amounts
under any law for the time being in deposited with it
force in India;
c) any other security that may be d) All of the above
specified by the Central Board
10 FFR II should be submitted at
a) Quarterly intervals within 6 weeks b) Half yearly intervals within 8 weeks
from the completion of the quarter from the completion of the Half year
c) Quarterly intervals within 6 weeks d) Half yearly intervals within 6 weeks
from the completion of the quarter from the completion of the Half year

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11 Prudential exposure limits for single and group borrowers other than infrastructure
projects is:-
a) 15% of the capital (Tier I and Tier II b) 25% for individual borrowers and 50%
Capital) of the Bank for single and for group of borrowers
40% for the group of borrowers
c) 20% of the capital of the Bank for d) None of the above
individual and 50% for the group of
borrowers
12 What constitutes exposure?
a) Includes both FB and NFB limits b) Loans and advances sanctioned to the
sanctioned to the borrowers borrowers
c) Includes FB and NFB facilities, d) all of the above
investments, underwriting and any
other commitment
13 What are the substantial exposure norms for single borrower specified by our Bank?
a) 15% of the Tire I and Tire II capital b) 7.5% of the Tire I and Tire II capital of
of the Bank the Bank.
c) Rs. 20 crores d) None of the above.
14 What are the prudential exposure norms for non-corporate and non-individual
borrowers?
a) Rs.80 crores b) 100 crores
c) Rs. 50 crores d) 25 crores
15 What is the loan policy guideline of the Bank in respect of maturity of loans (inclusive of
gestation period)?
a) 10 years b) 5 years
c) 7 years d) 8 years
16 What is the indicative bench mark of the Bank in respect of Current Ratio for
Manufacturing units?
a) 1.25 b) 1.50
c) 1 d) 1.33
17 To assess the financial soundness of the unit, what is the reasonable TOL/TNW
prescribed by the Bank for Trade and Service Units?
a) 2:1 b) 5:1
c) 4:1 d) 3:1
18 What is the indicative Net Debt Service Coverage Ratio prescribed by the Bank?
a) 3:1 b) 1.75:1
c) 2:1 d) 1.50:1

19 What is the indicative Gross Debt Service Coverage Ratio prescribed by the Bank?
a) 3:1 b) 1.75:1
c) 2:1 d) 1.50:1
20 What is the indicative Debt Equity Gearing prescribed by the Bank for Trade & Service
Units?
a) 1.50 : 1 b) 2.25: 1
c) 1.75:1 d) 2: 1
21 Selective Credit Control directives issued by RBI will not cover the following aspects of
advances
a) monetary ceiling per borrower b) Interest rate on advances
c) overall ceiling for the Bank as a d) Margin on advances

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whole in respect of a particular


commodity
22 What is the main objective of Selective Credit Control
a) To control the loaning activities of b) To regularize rate of interest on
the Banks particular types of commodities
c) To control the level of advances to d) To prevent speculative holding of
a particular trade / industry essential commodities with the help of
Bank Credit
23 What is the validity period of administrative clearance (AC) accorded by the
CCC/CCCC?
a) 3 months b) 2 months
c) 8 weeks d) 12months
24 What are the three major components of post-sanction credit process?
a) Creation of security, documentation b) Inspection, follow-up and recovery
and disbursement
c) Follow-up, supervision and Control d) None of the above
25 Follow-up function include one of these jobs
a) creation of security and b) Pre-sanction Inspection
documentation
c) Sanction of the loan d) Application, appraisal and
recommendations
26 Supervision function include one of these jobs
a) Periodical classification of assets as b) Documentation and creation of charge
per IRAC norms
c) Obtention of Stock Statements d) Verification of books, registers and
statements periodically
27 Cash Budget method used commonly for the following types of borrowers
a) for SSI units of Rs.25 lacs and b) For C&I units of Rs.1 crore and above
above
c) for traders d) for seasonal industries like sugar, tea
and for construction activity
28 PBS method of assessment will be applicable to the following types of accounts
a) Borrowers engaged in b) Borrowers requiring FB Limits of Rs25
manufacturing, services and trading lacs and above
and agricultural activities
c) For borrowers with FB Limit d) none of the above
requirement of above Rs.5 crores
29 Turn Over method is applicable for the following credit limits
a) For all units whose working capital b) For manufacturing units whose wc
requirement is upto Rs.1 crore requirements is upto Rs.2 crores
c) For manufacturing, trade and d) None of the above
services units whose working
capital requirement is upto Rs. 5
crores
30 What do you mean by ABF method? (Assessed Bank Finance)
a) It is the amount of Limit sanctioned b) It is one of the WC assessment method
to the unit
c) it is a part and parcel of PBF d) none of the above
method of WC assessment

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31 Demand Bills purchased and received at the realization branch are called:-
a) Demand Bills Received for b) Local Short Credits
Realization
c) Bank Bills Receivable d) none the above
32 What do you mean by Documentary Bill?
a) Bills drawn on stamped paper, by b) Bills supported by documents
Document Writers
c) Where the bills are supported by d) Where the bills are not supported by
RRs, LRs or BoL which are documents of title to goods
otherwise known as documents of
title to goods
33 What do you mean by Supply Bills?
a) Bills arising on account of supply of b) Bills submitted by the Suppliers for
goods to Government collection
c) Bills sent by various traders for the d) None of the above
supply of stationery / furniture etc.
to the Bank
34 In case of BGs issued on behalf of partnership firm the counter guarantee must be
signed by
a) at least two partners of the firm b) all the partners of the firm
c) Managing Partner of the firm d) Managing Partner and another partner
35 What are the main statements used for analysis of Financial Statements
a) Balance Sheet b) Balance Sheet and Profit & Loss
Account
c) Balance Sheet , Profit & Loss d) Balance Sheet, Profit & Loss Account,
Account and Funds Flow Funds Flow Statement and Cash Flow
Statement statement
36 Which one of the following is not a Current Liability?
a) Income tax dues payable b) Term Loan installments payable within
a year
c) salaries / rents / wages payable d) Long Term Deposits obtained to supply
goods on credit
37 What do you mean by PBDIT?
a) Profit before depreciation, interest b) Profit before discount, interest and
and taxes taxes
c) Net Profit d) Operational profit
38 What do you mean by Net Working Capital?
a) Total working capital required by b) Liquid surplus (i.e. CA CL)
the unit
c) Working capital limits sanctioned by d) Margin of working capital brought in by
the Bank the borrowing unit
39 What do you mean by TNW?
a) Fixed Assets Long Term b) Total Capital of the unit
Liabilities
c) Capital + free reserves intangible d) None of the above
assets
40 Which one of these ratios is not a Liquidity ratio?
a) Acid Test Ratio (CA- b) TOL / TNW (Total Outside
Stocks/Inventory/(CL-Bank Liabilities/Tangible Net Worth)

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SBLC MASULIPATNAM THE WINGS 2017

Borrowings)
c) Current Ratio (Current Assets d) Quick Ratio (Current Assets-Stocks or
/Current Liabilities) Inventory/Current Liabilities)
41 Which one of these ratios is not a Operating Ratio?
a) Inventory Turnover Ratio(Net Sales b) Gross Profit Margin Ratio(Gross
/ Inventory) Profit/Total Sales x 100)
c) Average collection period d) Assets Turnover Ratio(Net Sales / Total
days/months(Sundry Debtors/Credit Assets)
Sales X 365)
42 Which one of these ratios is not a Profitability Ratio?
a) Gross Profit Margin Ratio b) Return on Capital Employed
(PBDIT/Total Assets)
c) Net Profit Margin Ratio(Net Profit / d) TOL/TNW
Total Assets x 100)
43 Which one of these ratios is not a Coverage Ratio?
a) Debt Service Coverage Ratio b) Gross DSCR (PAT+Dep.+ Interest /
(PAT+Depreciation /instalments) Instalments + Interest)
c) Interest Coverage ratio d) TOL/TNW
(PBDIT/Interest)
44 Which one of these ratios is not a leverage ratio?
a) Debit / Equity Ratio (Term b) Assets Turnover ratio (Sales / Total
Liabilities/ TNW) Assets)
c) TOL/TNW d) None of the above
45 What is a healthy practice in funds flows?
a) long term deficit must be met from b) long term deficit must be met from long
short term sources term sources
c) short term deficit must be met from d) short term deficit must be met from
long term sources short term sources
46 Break-even analysis is useful to find out
a) Break-even Fixed Assets b) Break-even sales
c) Break-even staff strength d) None of these
47 Sensitivity analysis does not study the impact of profits on account of changes in the
following:-
a) Volume of sales b) Price of Product
c) Costs of production d) Volume of production
48 What do you mean by contribution?
a) Fixed Cost Variable Cost b) Variable Cost Fixed Cost
c) Sales Price Variable Cost d) Sales Price Fixed Cost
49 Under New CRA, both borrower rating and facility rating is required under
a) Simplified Regular b) Regular Model
c) Simplified Model d) None of these
50 We have to prepare both Borrower wise and Facility wise rating for Customers whose
FB+NFB Requirements are above
a) Rs.50 lacs b) Rs.2 crores
c) Rs.25 lacs d) Rs.5 crores
51 As per the Basel II norms, the Credit Conversion Factor for Documentary LCs is
a) 20% b) 25%
c) 50% d) 100%

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52 Benchmark levels for Current Ratio for other than Manufacturing units with FBWC
limits < Rs. 5 crores is (as per loan policy)
a) 1.30 b) 1.00
c) 1.20 d) 1.33
53 Cost of Sales is
a) Cost of Production + Selling, b) Cost of Production - Non Operating
General & Administration Exp Expenses
c) Cost of Production + Op Stock of d) Cost of Production + Op. St. of FG - Cl.
SIP - Cl Stock of SIP St. of FG
54 While analyzing Balance Sheet , Deferred Tax Assets are classified as
a) Current Assets b) Non Current Assets
c) Fixed Assets d) Intangible Assets
55 Benchmark levels for Project Debt Equity as per loan policy is
a) 3:1 b) 4:1
c) 1:1 d) 2:1
56 Substantial Exposure is reckoned as ------ % of Bank's Capital Funds for a Group of
borrowers
a) 5.00 b) 10.00
c) 2.5 d) 15.00
57 Cash Flow Statement classifies cash flows from these activities
a) Operating, Accounting & Financing b) Financing & Investing
c) Operating & Investing d) Operating, Investing & Financing
58 To ensure 'End Use of Funds', the best tool is
a) Cash Flow Statement b) Operating Statement
c) Cash Budget d) Funds Flow Statement
59 While analyzing Balance Sheet, Software related CAPEX is classified as
a) Current Assets b) Intangible Assets
c) Fixed Assets d) Non Current Assets
60 While analyzing Balance Sheet , Advances paid to suppliers of raw materials' is
classified as
a) Non Current Assets b) Intangible Assets
c) Fixed Assets d) Current Assets
61 While analyzing Balance Sheet , 'Advances to suppliers of Capital Goods' is classified
as
a) Current Assets b) Intangible Assets
c) Fixed Assets d) Non Current Assets
62 Receivables to Gross Sales falls in category of
a) Liquidity ratios b) Solvency ratios
c) Turnover ratios d) Coverage ratios
63 Current Ratio benchmarks for 'trade' are
a) 1 for limit upto Rs.1 crore and 1.20 b) 1.20 for limit upto Rs 5 crore and 1.33
thereafter thereafter
c) 1 for limit upto Rs.5 crore and 1.20 d) 1 for limit upto Rs.2 crore and 1.20
thereafter thereafter
64 FFR II pertains to
a) Projections for next quarter b) P&L Funds flow of the next half year
c) P&L Funds flow of the previous half d) Projections of next half year
year

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65 While analyzing Balance Sheet , 'Term Loan installments falling due in _______' are
classified as Current Liabilities
a) within next 6 months b) within next 9 months
c) within next 3months d) within next 12 months

66 According to Basel-II, a corporate is a unit having annual turnover of---


a) 50Cr & above for average 3 yrs b) 50Crore & above for average 5 yrs
c) 100Cr & above for average 3 yrs d) 100Cr & above for average 5 yrs
67 For a limit of Rs.100 lac, sanctioned for an Agricultural Unit, you use which form of
CRA?
a) Trading Model (Simple) b) Trading Model (Regular)
c) Manufacturing (Simple) d) Manufacturing (Regular)
68 As per the guidelines of the bank, audited financials need not be obtained for limits up
to Rs-----.
a) 25 Lac b) 25 Lac
c) 10 Lac d) 10 Lac
69 What is DTL?
a) Debt to Liability b) Debt Taken as Loan
c) Differed Tax Liability d) Differed Total Liability
70 If DTL is there in the Financial Statements, where it has to be shown on Balance
Sheet?
a) As an Asset b) As a term liability
c) As a current liability d) As a Net Worth item
71 Tier I capital consists of mainly
a) Share capital and disclosed b) Certain reserves and subordinated debt
reserves
c) All the above d) None of these
72 Tier II capital consists of mainly
a) Share capital and disclosed b) Certain reserves and subordinated debt
reserves
c) Core Capital d) All the above
73 The loan policy is an embodiment of banks approach to
a) Sanctioning, Managing and b) Sanctioning, Managing and Monitoring
Monitoring Credit Risk Market Risk
c) Sanctioning, Managing and d) All the above
Monitoring Operational Risk
74 The Banks loan policy applies to
a) Standard Assets only b) Overseas advances and Domestic
Advances
c) Overseas Advances only d) All Domestic Lendings only
Additional credit exposure to group borrower beyond normal limit of 40%. in case of
75
infrastructure projects is
a) 5% b) 10%
c) 15% d) 20%
Additional credit exposure up to 5% beyond normal limit of 15%. Permitted to a single
76
borrower if the limit is for ______projects.
a) Agriculture investment b) Export oriented
c) Infrastructure d) None of these

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Prudential Exposure limit for single and group borrowers including infrastructure
77
projects is -- & --% capital of the bank
a) 20% & 40% b) 15% & 40%
c) 20% & 50% d) 10% & 20%
At whole bank level, the non-fund exposure will not exceed ------ the level of fund
78 based
exposure.
a) 2 times b) 3 times
c) 4 times d) 5 times
Which of the following does not fall under Infrastructure Lendings extended by
79
lenders to the borrowers
a) Transport b) Energy, Water & Sanitation
c) Communication d) None of these
Banks exposure to leasing, Hire purchase and Factoring Services should not exceed
80
_% of total advances
a) 10% b) 5%
c) 15% d) 20%
81 Which committee recommended factoring in India
a) Kalyana Sundaram Committee b) Narasimham Committee
c) Nayak Committee d) None of these
How many types of deviations are being monitored by OTMS, web-based solution
82 based on the requirements of OMS (Off-site monitoring Systems) at I & MA,
Hyderabad
a) 11 b) 12
c) 10 D 15
As per RBI guidelines, What is the time period for opening current accounts of
83 borrowers enjoying credit facilities (FB + NFB) , by Non-Lending banks if NOC from
Lending banks is not received?
a) If NOC is not obtained within a b) If NOC is not obtained within a month
fortnight
c) If NOC is not obtained within a d) If NOC is not obtained within 3 months
week
ESR (Early Sanction Review) mechanism was introduced in audit system since
84
September 2014 to review sanctions of
a) Above 5 crores b) Above 10 crores
c) Only units enjoying NFB Limits d) Sanctions of more than 1 cr upto 5 crs
85 Which of these is not the objective of ESR mechanism
a) To capture the critical risks in the b) Improve the quality of pre-sanction/
proposals sanctioned, as an early sanction processes
stage and apprise the controllers of
such risks for mitigation thereof at
the earliest.
c) Improve the quality of loan d) For financing units above 1 crores to 5
proposals crores

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ANSWERS

1 b 2 c 3 a 4 b 5 d 6 c 7 a 8 a 9 d 10 b
11 a 12 d 13 b 14 b 15 a 16 d 17 b 18 c 19 b 20 d
21 b 22 d 23 c 24 c 25 a 26 d 27 d 28 c 29 c 30 c
31 a 32 c 33 a 34 b 35 d 36 d 37 a 38 b 39 c 40 b
41 b 42 d 43 d 44 b 45 c 46 b 47 d 48 c 49 b 50 d
51 a 52 c 53 d 54 d 55 d 56 d 57 d 58 d 59 b 60 d
61 d 62 c 63 c 64 c 65 d 66 a 67 c 68 b 69 c 70 d
71 a 72 b 73 a 74 d 75 b 76 c 77 c 78 a 79 d 80 a
81 a 82 a 83 a 84 d 85 d

SME ADVANCES

Compiled by Ms. Arun Jyothi, Manager (Training)

Please choose correct answer from the given alternatives


1. Which one of the following is not classified as Industrial Enterprises under
MSMED Act 2006
a) Micro Enterprises b) Small Enterprises
c) Small Business Finance d) Medium Enterprises
2. A manufacturing unit with original investment in P & M for a unit to be classified
as micro enterprise
a) Rs.25 Lakhs excluding L & B b) Rs. 25.00 Lakhs including L & B
c) Rs.10 Lakhs excluding L & B d) Rs. 10.00 Lakhs including L & B
3. A service enterprise with original investment in equipment for a unit to be
classified as micro enterprise
a) Upto Rs.10 Lakhs b) From Rs.10 Lakhs & upto Rs. 2
crores
c) Above Rs.2 crores & upto Rs. 5 d) Above Rs.2 crores & upto Rs.10
crores crores
4. A manufacturing unit with original investment in P & M more than Rs.5.00 cr but
doesnt exceed Rs.10.00 Cr is classified under MSMED act as
a) Micro Enterprise b) Small Enterprise
c) Medium Enterprise d) Not applicable
5. As per RBI guidelines, how much of the advances to Micro & Small enterprises
should go to Micro enterprises (manufacturing) having investment in P & M upto
Rs.5.00 lakhs and micro enterprises (services) having investment in equipment
up to Rs.2.00 lakhs?
a) 40% b) 20%
c) 50% d) 35%
6. As per RBI guidelines, what is the share of Micro enterprise advances as part of
total advances to MSE
a) 50% b) 80%
c) 60% d) 55%
7. As per RBI guidelines, how much of the advances to Micro & Small Enterprises
should go to Micro Enterprises (manufacturing) having investment in P & M
above Rs.5.00 lakhs and upto Rs.25.00 lakhs and Micro enterprises (Services)

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having investment in equipment above Rs.2.00 lakhs and upto Rs.10.00 lakhs

a) 40% b) 20%
c) 50% d) 35%
8. As per Prime Ministers task force on MSMEs (Micro, small and medium
enterprises), the credit growth rate recommended for this sector is

a) 25% b) 10%
c) 15% d) 20%
9. As per Prime Ministers task force on MSMEs (Micro, Small and medium
enterprises), the no of accounts growth rate recommended for this sector is
a) 10% b) 15%
c) 17% d) 12%
All manufacturing units defined in MSMED Act, 2006 when engaged in exports
10
are classified as priority sector advances
a) No, Only micro and small b) No, only micro manufacturing units
manufacturing units fall under the fall under the category of priority
category of priority sector sector
c) No, only small manufacturing units d) Yes, all units fall under the category
fall under the category of priority of priority sector
sector
Advances to manufacturing units which are classified as medium enterprises
11
under MSMED Act, 2006 fall under the category of
a) Priority sector advances b) Non-priority sector C&I advances
c) Priority sector C& I advances d) Indirect priority sector advances
12 As per recent RBI guidelines
a) No collateral should be accepted b) No collateral should be accepted for
for all MSE sector manufacturing all MSE sector service enterprise
loans up to Rs.10.00 lakhs loans up to Rs.5.00 lakhs
c) No collateral should be accepted d) No collateral should be accepted for
for all MSE sector manufacturing & all MSE sector manufacturing and
services sector loans up to Rs.5.00 service sector loans up to Rs.10.00
lakhs lakhs
13 As per SME documentation SME-4 represents
a) Supplemental Agreement of loan b) Agreement of loan cum
cum Hypothecation Hypothecation
c) Letter of furnishing the particulars d) None of these
of assets
14 Which of the following with SME -2 is incorrect
a) It is a both principle and charging b) Covers both fund based and non
document fund based facilities
c) Contains two schedules A & B d) Creates Pledge on movable assets
15 With regard to SME 3 which of the following is incorrect
a) Stamped as an agreement + Power b) Covers all types of guarantees like
of attorney personal guarantee, Third party
Guarantee and Corporate
guarantee
c) Fresh SME 3 to be obtained for d) It has supplemental guarantee
enhanced aggregate limit agreement for enhanced limit

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16 With regard to SME 5 which of the following is correct


a) Provides for creation of EM by all b) To be stamped
types of mortgagers i.e.,
Borrower(s), Guarantor(s) or Third
party Mortgagor(s)
c) Mortgage debt may be less than or d) All of the above
equal to the aggregate limit
17 With regarding to SME 6, which of the following is incorrect
a) It is an independent evidence for b) To be signed by all the
creation of mortgage by Deposit of Mortgagor(s)
Title Deeds and intention to create
EM in favour of the bank
c) To be signed by 2 officials of the d) To be obtained from all types of
bank Mortgagor(s)
18 Title Investigation Report contains the following parts
a) Letter to advocate for search and b) Annexure B is to be completed by
verification of title the panel advocate
deeds/documents
c) Annexure C- checklist for the d) All of these
guidance of the advocates verifying
the title to the property(ies) offered
as security
19 With regard to SME 12, following are correct
a) To facilitate migration from earlier b) To be executed by all the
segmental documents (SSI & C&I) Borrower(s) and Guarantor(s)
to SME documents
c) In case of corporate Borrowers, the d) All of the above
link letter may have to be filed with
the ROC along with the SME
documents to evidence the
continuity or modification of the
existing charges
20 e-DFS facility is for
a) Financing dealers of companies b) Financing share brokers
c) Financing realtors d) Financing dealers of stock
exchanges
Whenever S format is used for assessment, control/review of the proposal will be
21
done in
a) AC format b) SA format
c) AS format d) S-1 format
22 S Format is used for
a) Assessment and appraisal of small b) Assessment and appraisal of loans
loans up to Rs.25.00 lakhs
c) Assessment and appraisal of loans d) Assessment and appraisal of loans
above Rs.25.00 lakhs above Rs.5.00 crores
23 CGTMSE stands for
a) Credit Guarantee Fund Trust for b) Credit Guarantee Trust for Medium
Micro and Small Industries Scale Industries
c) Credit General Trust for Medium d) Collateral Guarantee Trust for

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and Small Enterprises Medium Scale Enterprises


For advance to a retail trader to be classified under SBF, the limit should not
24
exceed
a) Rs.20.00 lakhs b) Rs.10.00 lakhs
c) Rs.12.00 lakhs d) Rs.50.00 lakhs
25 Primary security in the context of CGTMSE mean
a) Assets created out of the credit b) L & B of factory/office/godown etc.
facility which pertains to the unit and
associated with the project and is
unencumbered
c) Personal guarantee of the d) All the above
proprietor

ANSWERS
1. c 2. a 3. c 4. c 5. a 6. c 7. b 8. d 9. a 10. a
11. b 12. c 13. a 14. d 15. d 16. d 17. c 18. d 19. d 20. a
21. c 22. c 23. a 24. a 25. d

SME ASSET PRODUCTS

Please choose the correct answer from the given alternatives :

1. The maximum amount of loan that can be sanctioned to a Manufacturing unit


under SME Smart Score?
a) Rs.10 Lacs b) Rs.5 Lacs
c) Rs.50 Lacs d) Rs.25 Lacs
2. The minimum amount of Loan that can be sanctioned to a Manufacturing unit
under SME Smart Score?
a) Rs.5 Lacs b) Rs.25 Lacs
c) Rs.10 Lacs d) Rs.2 Lacs
3. The margin stipulated for a term loan under SME Smart Score is______.
a) 25% b) 20%
c) 33% d) 30%
4. The minimum percentage of score that an applicant should get in order to avail a
loan under SME Smart Score?
a) 60% (with a minimum score of 50% b) 75% (with a minimum score of 60%
under each sub head) under each sub head)
c) 50% (with a minimum score of 45% d) 70% (with a minimum score of 60%
under each sub head) under each sub head)
5. The maximum amount of loan that can be sanctioned under SME Smart Score for
a Trader / Service provider?
a) Rs.100 Lacs b) Rs.50 Lacs
c) Rs.60 Lacs d) Rs.25 Lacs

6. What percent of annual turn over can be financed as working capital under SME
Smart Score for a manufacturing unit?
a) 20% b) 15%

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SBLC MASULIPATNAM THE WINGS 2017

c) 25% d) 30%

7. What percent of annual turn over can be financed as working capital under SME
Smart Score for an unit dealing in Trade & Services?
a) 25% b) 15%
c) 20% d) 30%

8. The maximum repayment period that can be allowed for a term loan under SME
Smart Score?
a) 5 years excluding moratorium of 6 b) 5 years including moratorium of 6
months months
c) 7 years including moratorium of 6 d) 7 years excluding moratorium of 6
months months

9. The age criteria stipulated for the promoter/ applicant to avail a loan under SME
Smart Score is___________.
a) Min 21 Yrs- Max 65 Yrs. b) Min 21 Yrs- Max 70 Yrs.
c) Min 18 Yrs- Max 65 Yrs. d) Min 18 Yrs- Max 60 Yrs.

10. Which of the following is true?


a) Loans not approved under SME b) SME Smart Score is renewed once
Smart Score can be financed under in 2 years and reviewed every year
the normal credit dispensation
based on considerations.
c) The margins stipulated under SME d) All the above
Smart score are 25% for W.C. and
33% for T.L.
11. The maximum quantum of finance that can be extended under Asset Backed
Loan?
a) Rs.2 Crores b) Rs.10 Crores
c) Rs.20 Crores d) Rs.50 Crores
12. The minimum quantum of finance that can be extended under Asset Backed
Loan?
a) Rs.0.10 Crore b) Rs.0.50 Crores
c) Rs.1.00 Crore d) No minimum amount stipulated
13. Under Asset backed Loan, Maximum permissible amount against the property for
loans upto Rs.10 crore is
a) 50% b) 75%
c) 70% d) 60%
14. Under Asset backed Loan, Maximum permissible amount against the property for
loans above Rs.10 crore is
a) 60% b) 65%
c) 55% d) 50%
15. Which of the following target group is eligible to avail a loan under Asset backed
Loan?
a) Oil Mills, Cotton ginning Mills b) Professional & Self employed
c) Commission Agents engaged d) All manufacturing and service
foodgrains sector units covered under MSMED
Act 2006

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16. Which of the following is a feature of Asset Backed Loan?


a) It is a Drop-Line over draft facility b) The property mortgaged needs to
be within a radius of 25 km
c) No renewal of limit, review has to d) All the above
be carried our annually
17. The quantum of finance that can be extended under Asset backed Loan is____.
a) For working capital it is based on b) For Term Loan it is based on the
the projected sales as per Nayak actual proposed expenditure
committee or ABF
c) 60% of the realizable value of the d) All are correct
property for loans upto 10 crores
and thereafter 50% of the
realizable value of the property
18. Which of the following is not true with respect to Asset backed Loan?
a) Asset backed Loan can be b) Stocks statements need to be
sanctioned as DL/TL/CC. furnished at the half yearly
c) The property lies within a radius of d) Free cash pick up facility for limits
25Km from the branch above Rs.1.00 crore
19. The maximum quantum of loan that can be extended under SME Credit Card is:
a) Rs.10 Lacs b) Rs.20 Lacs
c) Rs.10 Lacs fro Traders & Rs.20 d) Rs.25 Lacs
Lacs for Manufacturing Units
20. The SME Credit Card is sanctioned for a period of ________.
a) 2 years, subject to annual review b) 3 years, subject to annual review
c) One year d) 3 years
21. The minimum score, an applicant should get to be eligible for availing finance
under SME Credit Card is:
a) 60% b) 65%
c) 70% d) 50%
22. The maximum age criteria stipulated under SME Credit Card is___________.
a) 65 years b) 70 Years
c) 66 Years d) No maximum age stipulated
23. Which of the following is true with respect to SME Credit Card?
a) No collateral is insisted upon for b) For SBF units, collateral/third party
SSI units guarantee is obtained if the loan is
more than Rs.25,000/-
c) Maximum repayment for the term d) All the above
loan component is 5 years.
24. Which of the following is true with respect to SME Credit Card?
a) The limit can be reviewed if the b) A repayment schedule has to be
credit summations are 50% of the fixed if the credit summations are
projected turn over. less than 50% of Projected Annual
turn over.
c) Both CC and TL can be sanctioned d) All the above.
25. Under SME Credit Card scheme, which of the following is Not true?
a) Cheque book to be marked as b) Stock statement is obtained once in
SME Credit Card a year, preferably in last quarter
c) Borrower can be issued a Photo d) Detailed Opinion reports are to
Identity Card compiled and should be on record.

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26. Who among the following is not eligible for finance under SME Credit Card?
a) Self employed with a credit b) Professionals with credit
requirement of Rs.10 Lacs requirement of Rs.8 Lacs
c) Village Industries with a credit d) SSI units with credit requirement of
requirement of Rs.7.5 Lacs Rs.15 Lacs
27. Which product do you suggest to a small manufacturer whose credit limit
requirement is Rs.25 Lacs and who wishes that the facility can be sanctioned for
a period of 2 years?
a) SME Credit Card b) Traders Easy Loan
c) SME Smart Score d) SME Credit Plus
28. The maximum amount of Loan that can be extended under Doctor Plus Scheme
is
a) Rs.1 Crore b) Rs.2 Crores
c) Rs.5 Crores d) Rs.10 Crores
29. Who among the following is eligible to avail finance under Doctor Plus scheme?
a) Partnerships, Individuals b) Corporates
c) Trusts with powers to borrow d) All the above

30. The minimum DSCR stipulated for loans under Doctor Plus is ________.
a) 1:1.5 b) 1:1.75
c) 1:1.15 d) 1:1.33
31. Which of the following is Correct with respect to Doctor Plus Scheme?
a) The loan can be sanctioned as b) The loan can be sanctioned as an
Medium Term Loan/Cash Credit Overdraft.
c) The loan can also be sanctioned as d) The loan can be sanctioned as a
Demand Loan. Medium Term Loan/Cash
Credit/Demand Loan/O.D.
32. Maximum Moratorium that can be allowed for loans sanctioned under Doctor Plus
is:
a) 6 months b) 12 months
c) 18 months d) Till the doctor's practice is stabilized
subject to a maximum of 18
months.
33. The maximum amount that can be sanctioned to an individual under Doctor Plus
scheme at Metro / Urban centres is:
a) Rs.10 Crores b) Rs.5 Crores
c) Rs.2 Crores d) Rs.1Crores
34. Which of the following is True under Doctor Plus Scheme?
a) The collateral security for loans b) The collateral security for loans for
above Rs.25 lacs and upto Rs.1 loans sanctioned to Micro & Small
Crore should be at least 25% of the Enterprises above Rs.1Crore
loan amount. Alternatively,eligible should be at least 25% of the loan
accounts may be covered under amount and also Personal
CGTMSE scheme. guarantee of the promoters.
c) The primary security will be d) all the above
hypothecation of Assets financed
35. Which of the following can be considered for finance under Doctor Plus scheme?
a) Setting up clinic and Purchase of b) Expansion/renovation etc.
Ambulance

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c) Setting up Nursing home and d) All the above


Purchase of Computers etc.
36. The margin stipulated for loans upto Rs.10 Lacs under Doctor Plus scheme?
a) 15% b) 25%
c) 20% d) 10%
37. The margin stipulated for loans above Rs.10 lacs and upto Rs.5 crs is:
a) 25% b) 20%
c) 30% d) 15%
38. Which of the following is NOT a salient feature of the product Doctor Plus?
a) Multiple disbursements over a b) 50% concession over the Card
period of 24 months form date of rates in Upfront Fee/Processing
sanction based on requirements Charges is extended.
can be made.
c) The inspection of the unit should d) All eligible advances can be
be carried out at Monthly/quarterly covered under CGTMSE.
intervals.
39. Maximum marks under Scoring Model for Doctor Plus scheme_____.
a) 50 b) 100
c) 75 d) 90
40. Which of the following is NOT true with respect to Doctor Plus scheme?
a) The rate of Interest for limits up to b) Minimum score of 40 on credit
Rs.25 lacs will be based on Credit scoring model is required to be
Scoring Model. eligible for the loan.
c) For limits above Rs.25 lacs and up d) Units with CRA Rating below SB 8
to Rs.10 crores, the Pricing will be can be considered subject to
based on CRA rating. premium pricing of 100 basis
points.
41. The hurdle score for Personal Details and Business scoring under Scoring Model
of Doctor Plus scheme (for loans upto Rs.25 Lacs) are ___ & _______
respectively (out of 32 & 43 respy).
a) 15, 20 b) 20,25
c) 17,22 d) 16,23
42. For Non Allopathic doctors (Unani, Ayurvedic,Homeopathic), the maximum
quantum of loan that can be extended under Doctor Plus is ____.
a) Rs.50Lacs b) Rs.20 Lacs
c) Rs.25 Lacs d) Rs.10 Lacs
43. The maximum quantum of finance that can be extended under School Plus is___.
a) Rs.10 Crores b) Rs.5 Crores
c) Rs.20 Crores d) No Maximum cap
44. Which of the following is NOT true with respect to School Plus scheme?
a) It can be extended to Primary and b) Coaching institutes can also be
higher secondary schools. financed under the scheme and no
CRA is required.
c) Graduation & Post Graduation d) Government Aided schools/colleges
colleges can also be financed. are also eligible under the Scheme.
45. The margin stipulated under School Plus is_______.
a) 15% b) 25%
c) 20% d) 33%

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46. Can a Computer training institution be extended finance under School Plus?
a) Yes b) No.
c) No. They can be considered under d) Yes subject to collateral coverage
regular CRA model or mortgage of 75%.
loan only.

47. Which of the following is True with respect to School Plus?


a) Purchase of Laboratory & Sports b) Maximum repayment allowed is 84
equipments, purchase of play EMIs only.
ground and buses etc. can be
financed under the scheme.
c) More than one loan can be d) All the above.
sanctioned subject to repayment
capacity of the unit.
48. The maximum amount of loan that can be sanctioned under Rent Plus is:_____.
a) Rs.10 Crores b) Rs.5 Crores
c) Rs.2 Crores d) Rs.1 Crore
49. Margin stipulated under Rent Plus scheme is___________.
a) 30% b) 25%
c) 40% d) 33%
50. The maximum repayment allowed for term loans sanctioned under Rent Plus
scheme is_______.
a) 7 years or the residual lease period b) 5 years or the residual lease period
whichever is less. whichever is less
c) 7 years or the residual lease period d) 7 years or the residual lease period
whichever is less, subject to a whichever is higher.
moratorium of 6 months.
51. The minimum amount that can be sanctioned under Rent Plus is______.
a) Rs.1,00,000 b) Rs.5,00,000
c) Rs.50,000 d) Rs.25,000
52. The quantum of finance under Rent Plus scheme will be arrived as_______.
a) 60% of the gross rental income for b) 85% of the gross rental income for
the residual period (net of advance the residual period (net of advance
rent received & statutory dues) or rent received & statutory dues) or
85% of the market value of the 60% of the market value of the
property whichever is less. property whichever is less.
c) 60% of the gross rental income for d) 75% of the gross rental income for
the residual period (net of advance the residual period (net of advance
rent received & statutory dues) or rent received & statutory dues) or
75% of the market value of the 85% of the market value of the
property whichever is less. property whichever is less.
53. In case of non corporate borrower, the Minimum and maximum age of the
applicant, stipulated for loans under SMECFL are:
a) 21,65 b) 18,65
c) 21,66 d) 21,70
54. The maximum amount of loan that can be sanctioned under SMECFL is:
a) Rs.2 Crores b) Rs. 1 Crore
c) Rs.50 Lacs d) Rs.75 Lacs
55. Which of the following is true with respect to SBI SME CFL?

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SBLC MASULIPATNAM THE WINGS 2017

a) For Loans below Rs.25 Lacs, b) For Loans above Rs.25 Lacs and
preliminary screening will be as per upto Rs.1 Crore, Simplified CRA
SME Smart Score scoring model. will be applicable.
c) WC is to be renewed every two d) All the above
years and review will be annually.
56. Which of the following is True with respect to assessment of limits under SBI SME
CFL?
a) The Working capital eligibility for b) The working capital eligibility for
manufacturing units, would be 20% service enterprises would be 15%
of projected turn over & the of projected revenue and for term
eligibility for Term Loans is 75% of loans it is 75% of the project cost.
the project cost.
c) Maximum amount of finance is d) All the above.
Rs.1 Crore and loans upto Rs.5
Lacs have to be covered under
"SBI Micro Loans".
57. The one time guarantee fee payable to CGTMSE would be in the range of ___.
a) 0.75 to 1.00 b) 0.50 to 2.00
c) 0.75 to 2.00 d) 0.50 to 1.50
58. The upfront guarantee fee payable to CGTMSE for loans upto Rs.5 lacs is____.
a) 0.75 b) 1.00
c) 1.50 d) No fee
59. The upfront guarantee fee payable to CGTMSE for loans above Rs.5 lacs and
upto Rs.100 Lacs is____.
a) 0.50 b) 1.00
c) 0.75 d) 1.50
60. The upfront guarantee fee payable to CGTMSE for loans upto Rs.5 lacs in North
East region is ______.
a) 1.00 b) 1.50
c) 0.75 d) 0.50
61. The upfront guarantee fee payable to CGTMSE for loans above Rs.5 lacs and
upto Rs.50 Lacs in North East region is ______.
a) 0.85 b) 2.00
c) 1.00 d) Fee waived for NE region
62. The upfront guarantee fee payable to CGTMSE for loans above Rs.50 lacs and
upto Rs.100 Lacs in North East region is ______.
a) 0.85 b) 1.00
c) 2.00 d) Fee waived for NE region
63. The annual fee payable to CGTMSE on loans above Rs.50 Lacs and upto Rs.1
Crore is_______.
a) 1.00 b) 0.75
c) 1.50 d) 0.50
64. The annual fee payable to CGTMSE on loans above Rs.5 Lacs and upto Rs.50
Lacs is_______.
a) 0.75 b) 1.00
c) 0.50 d) Waived
65. The CGTMSE trust shall pay 75% of the guaranteed amount on preferring of
eligible claim by the lending institution, within ___ days. Subject to the claim being
otherwise found in order and complete in all respects.

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SBLC MASULIPATNAM THE WINGS 2017

a) 30 b) 60
c) 90 d) 45
66. The annual fee for the credit facilities sanctioned as on March31st should be paid
to CGTMSE on or before ________.
a) 30th April b) 30th September
c) 31st May d) 30th June
67. Which of the following is NOT true with respect to CGTMSE?
a) The credit facilities sanctioned to b) The guarantee cover will be for a
Self Help Groups cannot be period of 5 years where only
covered under the scheme. working capital facilities are
sanctioned, subject to payment of
annual service fee.
c) Small road and water transport d) Existing borrowers who have
loans are also eligible for already availed finance cannot be
guarantee cover. covered under the scheme.

68. The maximum amount of loan that can be sanctioned under SBI Micro Loan is__.
a) Rs.10 Lacs b) Rs.25 Lacs
c) Rs.5 Lacs d) Rs.50 Lacs
69. The demand loan sanctioned under SBI Micro Loan is repayable within _____.
a) 1 year b) 5 years
c) 3 years d) No demand loan is sanctioned
70. SME-1, is obtained for
a) Letter of Arrangement b) Agreement of Loan Cum
Hypothecation
c) Guarantee Agreement d) Link Letter
71. SME-2, is obtained for,
a) Agreement of Loan Cum b) Letter of Arrangement
Hypothecation.
c) Link Letter d) Guarantee Agreeement.
72. SME-3, is obtained for,
a) Letter of Arrangement b) Agreement of Loan Cum
Hypothecation
c) Guarantee Agreement d) Link Letter
73. SME-12, is obtained for,
a) Letter of Arrangement b) Link Letter
c) Guarantee Agreement d) Revival Letter
74. SME-11, is obtained for,
a) Link Letter b) Agreement for Hypothecation
c) Revival Letter d) Guarantee Agreement
75. Under SME Credit Plus, ____% of aggregate working capital limit subject to a
maximum of Rs.25 Lacs can be sanctioned.
a) 10% b) 20%
c) 25% d) 15%
76. The maximum time period allowed for repayment of SME Credit Plus is _____.
a) 3 months b) 1 month
c) 6 months d) 2 months.
77. SME Credit Plus can be sanctioned for which of the following purposes?
a) tax payments b) repairs to machinery

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SBLC MASULIPATNAM THE WINGS 2017

c) any other contingency d) all the above


78. Which of the following is TRUE with respect to SME Credit Plus?
a) It is sanctioned to meet sudden b) It is sanctioned as a additional
and unforeseen expenditure/bulk working capital limit by way of
orders. clean cash credit.
c) It can be sanctioned to new d) All the above.
borrowers also as a marketing tool.
79. The maximum quantum of finance that can be extended under Stand by Line of
Credit is: ___________.
a) Rs.5 Crores b) Rs.2 Crores
c) Rs.1 Crores d) Rs.10 Crores
80. Under Stand by Line of Credit , ____% of working capital limit subject to a
maximum of Rs.5 Crores can be sanctioned.
a) 10 b) 20
c) 15 d) 25
81. The maximum time allowed for repayment of Stand by Line of Credit is____.
a) 1 month b) 2 months
c) 3 months d) 6 months
82. The maximum amount of loan that can be sanctioned under General Purpose
Term loan for SSI sector is___.
a) Rs.1 Crores b) Rs.2 Crores
c) Rs.50 Lacs d) Rs.5 Crores
83. Which of the following is true with respect to General Purpose Term Loan for SSI
sector?
a) Normal repayment allowed is 3 b) The unit should have earned
years and can be extended upto 5 profits in preceding 3 years.
years in deserving cases.
c) The margin stipulated is 25% d) All the above
84. The maximum amount of finance that can be extended under Open Term Loan
(Manufacturing sector) is:
a) Rs.250 Lacs b) Rs.500 Lacs
c) Rs.100 Lacs d) Rs.200 Lacs
85. Under Open Term Loan, the sanction is valid upto:
a) 6 months b) 3 months
c) 12 months d) 1 month
86. Which of the following is a feature of Open Term Loan?
a) It's a pre sanctioned term loan limit b) Non customers can also be
with the option of multiple considered subject to fulfillment of
disbursements. take over norms and after obtaining
opinion reports from existing
Bankers.
c) DSCR should be atleast 1.75 d) All of these
87. The maximum amount of finance that can be extended under Open Term Loan
(For Services sector) is:
a) Rs.250 Lacs b) Rs.200 Lacs
c) Rs.100 Lacs d) Rs.50 Lacs
88. The maximum quantum of loan that can be sanctioned to a Commission Agent
under Arthias Plus is:_____
a) Rs.25 Lacs b) Rs.50 Lacs

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SBLC MASULIPATNAM THE WINGS 2017

c) Rs.1 Crore d) Rs.10 Lacs

89. Which of the following is true in respect of Arthias Plus?


a) It is a Cash Credit facility against b) To be liquidated within 6 months
hypothecation of book debts, not and to be renewed annually.
older than 6 months.
c) The margin stipulated is 40%. d) All the above
90. The maximum quantum of loan that can be sanctioned under SBI Shoppe is__.
a) Rs.20 Lacs b) Rs.50 Lacs
c) Rs.100 Lacs d) Rs.200 Lacs
91. The product in which two term loans are sanctioned, one for Housing and
another for setting up an office/shop is _____.
a) SBI Super Shoppe b) SBI Home Shoppe
c) SBI Shoppe Plus d) SBI Shoppe
92. The quantum of finance that can be extended under SBI Shoppe plus is____.
a) 1st Term Loan as per Housing b) 75% of Cost of total Project
loan Scheme and 75% of cost of
setting up office/shop as 2nd T.L
c) Both the term loans will be d) Both the term loans will be
considered as Commercial Loans considered as Housing Loans.
93. Which of the following is TRUE with respect to Car Loans to SME units?
a) Finance can be extended for b) Maximum loan amount would be
purchase of car/ sports utility 2.5 times to Net annual Income
vehicle/ multi utility vehicle by and there is no ceiling in loan
Promoter/ his family members. amount.
c) Margins prescribed are 15% and d) All the above
no additional security will be
insisted upon. Maximum amount of
loan for a used vehicle is Rs.15
lacs
94. The quantum of finance that can be extended to a Corporate under SBI Fleet
Finance Scheme is:
a) Rs.10 Crores b) Rs.7.5 Crores
c) Rs.5 Crores d) Rs.2.5 Crores
95. The minimum Average DSCR (gross) as prescribed in the scheme "SBI Fleet
Finance Scheme" is:
a) 1.75 b) 1.50
c) 1.33 d) 2.50
96. Which of the following SME Asset Products are withdrawn by the bank.
a) Auto Clean b) Swarojgar Credit Card
c) Cyber Plus d) All the above
97. Maximum amount of loan that can be sanctioned under SME Construction
Equipment Loan ( in Metros) is____.
a) Rs.50.00 Cr b) Rs.25.00 Cr
c) Rs.15.00 Cr d) Rs.60.00 Cr
98. Maximum amount of loan that can be extended under SBI-Dental Equipment
Plus scheme and the minimum DSCR required are _____ & _______
respectively.
a) Rs.20 Lacs & 1.5 b) Rs.20 Lacs & 1.75

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SBLC MASULIPATNAM THE WINGS 2017

c) Rs.10 Lacs & 1.5 d) Rs.10 Lacs & 1.75

99. The minimum & maximum amount of loan under CRE Asset Backed loan is
is_____.
a) Minimum Rs.10 Lacs, Maximum b) Rs.2 Lacs
Rs. 50 crores for Tier I branch,
Rs.20 crores for Tier II, Tier III
branches and Rs.5 crores for Tier
IV, V, VI Branch
c) Rs.5 Lacs d) No minimum is stipulated.
100. ECR is mandatory for CRE Asset backed loan for limits above
a) Rs.5 crores b) Rs.20 crores
c) Rs.10 crores d) None of these

ANSWERS

1. c 2. a 3. c 4. a 5. d 6. a 7. b 8. a 9. c 10. D
11. c 12 a 13. d 14. d 15. d 16. d 17. d 18. a 19. a 20. B
21. a 22 d 23. d 24. d 25. d 26. d 27. c 28. d 29. d 30. A
31. a 32 b 33. b 34. d 35. d 36. a 37. b 38. c 39. c 40. D
41. a 42 d 43. d 44. b 45. a 46. c 47. d 48. a 49. c 50. A
51. c 52 a 53. a 54. b 55. d 56. d 57. a 58. a 59. b 60. C
61. a 62 a 63. a 64. b 65. a 66. c 67. d 68. c 69. c 70. A
71. a 72 c 73. b 74. c 75. b 76. d 77. d 78. d 79. a 80. C
81. b 82. c 83. d 84. a 85. c 86. d 87. c 88. a 89. d 90. A
91. c 92. a 93. d 94. a 95. b 96. d 97 a 98. c 99. a 100. C

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