NEET | 23.07.

2017
COMBINED TEST 4 (P, C, B)

COMBINED TEST 4 (P, C, B)

Time: 3 hrs
Part A (Physics)

1B/1, TVS Street, Rasipuram 637408. Namakkal (Dt.) 1

Mob : 9444331869, Email : impulse4jee@gmail.com
 NEET | 23.07.2017
COMBINED TEST 4 (P, C, B)

1B/1, TVS Street, Rasipuram 637408. Namakkal (Dt.) 2

Mob : 9444331869, Email : impulse4jee@gmail.com
 NEET | 23.07.2017
COMBINED TEST 4 (P, C, B)

1B/1, TVS Street, Rasipuram 637408. Namakkal (Dt.) 3

Mob : 9444331869, Email : impulse4jee@gmail.com
 NEET | 23.07.2017
COMBINED TEST 4 (P, C, B)

1B/1, TVS Street, Rasipuram 637408. Namakkal (Dt.) 4

Mob : 9444331869, Email : impulse4jee@gmail.com
 NEET | 23.07.2017
COMBINED TEST 4 (P, C, B)

1B/1, TVS Street, Rasipuram 637408. Namakkal (Dt.) 5

Mob : 9444331869, Email : impulse4jee@gmail.com
 NEET | 23.07.2017
COMBINED TEST 4 (P, C, B)

1B/1, TVS Street, Rasipuram 637408. Namakkal (Dt.) 6

Mob : 9444331869, Email : impulse4jee@gmail.com
 NEET | 23.07.2017
COMBINED TEST 4 (P, C, B)

1B/1, TVS Street, Rasipuram 637408. Namakkal (Dt.) 7

Mob : 9444331869, Email : impulse4jee@gmail.com
 NEET | 23.07.2017
COMBINED TEST 4 (P, C, B)

Part B (Chemistry)
46.The product obtained on heating LiNO3 will be
(A)LiNO2+O2 (B) Li2O+NO2+O2 (C) Li2N+O2 (D) Li2O+OH+O2
47. The ionic conductances of following cations in a given concentration are in the
order
(A)Li+<Na+<K+<Rb+ (B) Li+>Na+>K+>Rb+
(C) Li+<Na+>K+>Rb+ (D) Li+=Na+<K+<Rb+
48. Which one of the following order of stability is correct?
(A)MgCO3 > CaCO3 > SrCO3 > BaCO3 (B) BaCO3 > SrCO3 > CaCO3 > MgCO3
(C) MgCO3 > BaCO3 > SrCO3 > CaCO3 (D) CaCO3 > BaCO3 > MgCO3 > SrCO3
49.The activity of alkaline earth metals as reducing agents
(A)Decreases from Be to Ba (B) Increases from Be to Ba

(C) Increases from Be to Ca and decreases from Ca to Ba

(D) Decreases from Be to Ca and increases from Ca to Ba
50.A metal M forms water soluble MSO4 and inert MO. MO in aqueous solution forms
insoluble M(OH)2 soluble in NaOH. Metal M is
(A)Be (B) Mg (C) Ca (D) Si
51. The first order reflection (n=1) from a crystal of the X-ray from a copper anode
tube (=1.54 ) occurs at an angle of 450. What is the distance between the set of
plane causing the diffraction?
(A)0.1089 nm (B) 0.1089 m (C) 0.905 (D) 1.089 x
-9
10 m
52. If the radius of K+ and F- are 133 pm and 136 pm respectively, the distance
between K+ and F- in KF is
(A)269 pm (B) 134.5 pm (C) 136 pm (D) 3 pm
53. What is the structure of NaCl?
(A)BCC (B) FCC
(C) Interpenetrating fee (D) None of these
54. In a face centred cubic lattice, atom A occupies the corner positions and atom B
occupies the face centre positions. If one atom of B is missing from one of the
face centred points, the formula of the compound is
(A)A2B (B) AB2 (C) A2B2 (D) A2B5
55. Graphite is a
(A)Molecular solid (B) Covalent solid (C) Ionic solid (D) Metallic solid
56. Gases X, Y, Z, P and Q have the Vander Waals constants a and b (in CGS units) as
shown below.
X Y Z P Q
a 6 6 20 0.05 30
b 0.025 0.15 0.1 0.02 0.2
The gas with the highest critical temperature is
(A)P (B) Q (C) Y (D) Z
1B/1, TVS Street, Rasipuram 637408. Namakkal (Dt.) 8
Mob : 9444331869, Email : impulse4jee@gmail.com
 NEET | 23.07.2017
COMBINED TEST 4 (P, C, B)

57. According to the kinetic theory of gases, in an ideal gas, between two successive
collisions a gas molecule travels
(A)In a circular path (B) In a wavy path
(C) In a straight line path (D) With an accelerated velocity
58.The rms velocity of molecules of a gas of density 4 kg m-3 and pressure 1.2 x 105
Nm-2 is
(A)300 ms-1 (B) 900 ms-1 (C) 120 ms-1 (D) 600 ms-1
59. Kinetic energy of one mole of an ideal gas at 300 K in kJ is
(A)3.74 (B)348 (C)34.8 (D)3.48
-3
60. The density of a gas is 1.964 g dm at 273 K and 76 cm Hg. The gas is
(A) CH4 (B) C2H6 (C) CO2 (D) Xe
61. The energy of an electron in first Bohr orbit of H-atom is 13.6 eV. The possible
energy value of electron in the excited state of Li2+ is
(A)-122.4 eV (B) 30.6 eV (C) 30.6 eV (D) 13.6 Ev
62. The energy of the electron in first Bohrs orbit is 13.6 eV. The energy of the
electron in its first exited state is
(A) 3.4 eV (B) 27.8 eV (C) -6.8 eV (D)- 10.2 eV

63. Calculate the wavelength (in nanometer) associated with a proton moving at
1.0103ms-1 (Mass of proton=1.6710-27 kg and h=6.6310-34 Js)
(A) 0.032 nm (B) 0.40 nm (C) 2.5 nm (D)14.0 nm
64.Which is not in accordance to aufbau principle?

65. The radius of hydrogen atom in the ground state is 0.53 . The radius of Li2+ ion
(atomic number=3) in a similar state is
(A)0.176 (B) 0.30 (C) 0.53 (D) 1.23
66.The IUPAC name of the following compound is

(A)4-bromo-3-cyanophenol (B) 2-bromo-5-hydroxybenzonitrile

(C) 2-cyano-4-hydroxybromobenzene (D) 6-bromo-3-hydroxybenzonitrile
67. Give the IUPAC name of the compound

(A)1,1,3 trimethylcyclohex -2- ene (B) 1,3,3 trimethylcyclohex -1- ene

(C) 1,1,5 trimethylcyclohex -5- ene (D) 2,6,6 trimethylcyclohex -1- ene
68. The absolute configuration of the following

1B/1, TVS Street, Rasipuram 637408. Namakkal (Dt.) 9

Mob : 9444331869, Email : impulse4jee@gmail.com
 NEET | 23.07.2017
COMBINED TEST 4 (P, C, B)

(A)2S, 3R (B) 2S,3S (C) 2R, 3S (D) 2R, 3R

69.Increasing order of stability among the three main conformations (i.e., Eclipse,
Anti, Gauche) of 2-fluoroethanol is
(A)Eclipse, Gauche, Anti (B) Gauche, Eclipse, Anti
(C) Eclipse, Anti, Gauche (D) Anti, Gauche, Eclipse

70.A mixture of o-nitrophenol and p-nitrophenol can be separated by

(A)Fractional crystallization (B) Sublimation
(C) Chemical separation (D) Steam distillation
71. 0.25 g of an organic compound on Kjeldahls analysis gave enough ammonia to
just neutralize 10 cm3 of 0.5 M H2SO4. The percentage of nitrogen in the
compound is
(A)28 (B) 56 (C) 14 (D) 112
72. Which of the following complex formation indicates presence of sulphur in the
organic compound when sodium nitroprusside is added to sodium extract of the
compound?
(A)Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3 (B) Na2[Fe(NO)(CN)5]
(C) Fe4(CNS)3 (D) Na4[Fe(CN)5 NOS]
73. The ammonia evolved from the treatment of 0.30 g of an organic compound for
the estimation of nitrogen was passed in 100 mL of 0.1 M sulphuric acid. The
excess of acid required 20 mL of 0.5 M sodium hydroxide solution for complete
neutralization. The organic compound is
(A)Acetamide (B) Benzamide (C) Urea (D) Thiourea
74. Tautomerism is exhibited by

75. The number of stereoisomers possible for a compound of the molecular formula
CH3 CH = CH CH(OH) Me is
(A)3 (B) 2 (C) 4 (D) 6
76. Observe the following reaction, 2 A + B C. The rate of formation of C is 2.2 10-
d A
3
mol L-1 min-1. What is the value of (in mol L-1 min-1)?
dt
(A) 2.2 10-3 (B) 1.1 10-3 (C) 4.4 10-3 (D) 5.5
-3
10
77. The time required for 100% completion of a zero order reaction is

1B/1, TVS Street, Rasipuram 637408. Namakkal (Dt.) 10

Mob : 9444331869, Email : impulse4jee@gmail.com
 NEET | 23.07.2017
COMBINED TEST 4 (P, C, B)

a a 2k
(A)ak (B) (C) (D)
2k k a
78.For a first order reaction, the concentration changes from 0.8 to 0.4 in 15 min.
The time taken for the concentration to change from 0.1 M to 0.025 M is
(A)30 min (B)15 min (C)7.5 min (D)60 min
79. Inversion of cane sugar in dilute acid is a
(A)Bimolecular reaction (B)Pseudo unimolecular reaction
(C)unimolecular reaction (D)Trimolecular reaction
80. If a plot of log10C versus t gives a straight line for a given reaction, then
the reaction is
(A)Zero order (B)First order (C)second order (D)third
order
81. Which is not correct for physical adsorption?
(A) Adsorption is spontaneous
(B) Both enthalpy and entropy of adsorption are negative
(C) Adsorption on solid is reversible
(D)Adsorption increases with increase in temperature
82.Gold numbers of protective colloids A, B, C and D are 0.50, 0.01, 0.10 and 0.005,
respectively. The correct order of their protective powers is:
(A) D<A<C<B (B)C<B<D<A(C)A<C<B<D(D)B<D<A<C
83.Among the electrolytes Na2SO4, CaCl2, Al2(SO4)3 and NH4Cl, the most effective
coagulating agent for Sb2S3 sol is:
(A)Na2SO4 (B)CaCl2 (C)Al2(SO4)3 (D)NH4Cl
84. Which plot is the adsorption isobar for chemisorption where x is the
amount of gas adsorbed on mass m (at constant pressure) at temperature T?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

85.An example of solid solid system is:
(A)Smoke (B)Cake (C)Synthetic gems (D)Pumic stone
86. The E 0 M 3 M 2
values for Cr, Mn, Fe and Co are -0.41, +1.57, +0.77 and +1.97

V respectively. For which one of these metals the change in oxidation state from
+2 to +3 is easiest:
(A)Co (B)Mn (C)Fe (D)Cr
87.For the redox change; Zn(s) Cu 2 Zn2 Cu(s), taking place in a cell E 0 cell is 1.10
0.1M 1M

volt. Ecell for the cell would be:

(A)1.07 V (B)0.82 V (C)2.14 V (D)180 V
88. The standard emf of cell having one electron change is found to be 0.591 V
0
at 25 C. The constant of the reaction is:
(A)1.01030 (B) 1.0105 (C) 1.01010 (D) 1.0101

1B/1, TVS Street, Rasipuram 637408. Namakkal (Dt.) 11

Mob : 9444331869, Email : impulse4jee@gmail.com
 NEET | 23.07.2017
COMBINED TEST 4 (P, C, B)

89. The limiting molar conductivities 0 for NaCl, KBr and KCl are 126, 152 and
150 S cm2mol-1 respectively. The 0 for NaBr S cm2 mol-1 is:
(A)302 (B)176 (C)278
(D)128
90. Aluminium oxide may be electrolysed at 10000C to furnish Al metal (at.
Mass=27 amu). The cathode reaction is; Al3++3eAl. How much
electricity is required to prepare 5.12 kg of Al by this method?
(A) 5.49107 coulomb (B)1.83107 coulomb
(C) 5.49104 coulomb (D)5.491010 coulomb

Part C (Biology)
91. Active immunity development is related to
(1) Natural killer cells (2) Memory cells (3) Helper T cells (4) Suppresser T
cells
92. Rejection of tissue of organ transplants is brought about mainly by

(1) Cytotoxic T cells (2) NK cells (3) Suppressor T cells (4) B cells
93. Colostrum provides the infant with
(1) Auto immunity (2) Passive immunity (3) Active immunity (4) Innate
immunity
94. Cells obtained from cancerous tumors are known as
(1) Hybridomas (2) Myelomas (3) Lymphocytes (4) Monoclonal
cells
95. Which one of the following provide non specific pathogen defense for the body
(1) T-cells (2) B-cells (3) Phagocytes (4) Stem cells
96. To which category multiple sclerosis belong
(1) Immunodeficiencydiseases (2) Autoimmune diseases
(3) Hyper sensitivity (4) All the above
97. Note the following:
(A) Skin (B) Phagocytes (C) B-cells
1B/1, TVS Street, Rasipuram 637408. Namakkal (Dt.) 12
Mob : 9444331869, Email : impulse4jee@gmail.com
 NEET | 23.07.2017
COMBINED TEST 4 (P, C, B)

(D) Inflammation (E) Antibodies (F) T-cells

(G) Fever (H) Antimicrobial proteins
(I) NK-cells (J) Secretions
Identify the factors involved in 2nd line of defence
(1) B, D, G and I (2) B, C, E and I (3) D, F, Hand J (4) C, E, G and H
98. Choose the wrong statement regarding AIDS
(1) AIDS is an immunodeficiency disease ! (2) It is caused by a retrovirus, HIV
(3) HIV selectively infects and kill B-lymphocytes
(4) Retroviruses have RNA genomes that replicate via DNA intermediate
99. Only one of the following four ways through which AIDS can spread
(1) Infected needles and syringes (2) Through mosquito bites
(3) Looking after AIDS patient (4) Shaking hands, coughing,
sneezing, hugging
100. The immune system which works against self is
(1) Self immune system (2) Autoimmunity (3) Specific immunity (4) None of
the above
101. The immunity obtained after the body has recovered from a disease is
(1) Active immunity (2) Passive immunity (3) Both
(4) None of these
102. AIDS is caused by
(1) Blood cancer (2) HTLV-III (3) Bacterium (4) TMV
103. When an organ is transplanted and is rejected by the body, the lymphocytes are
produced by
(1) T-cells (2) B-cells (3) Neutrophils (4) None
104. Passive immunity can be obtained by injecting
(1) Antigens (2) Antibodies
(3) Antibiotics (4) Vaccination having weakened
germs
105. Immune deficiency syndrome in human could develop as consequence of
(1) AIDSvirus infection (2) Defective liver
(3) Defective thymus (4) Weak immune system
106. First triple antigen vaccination is given to the child at the age of
(1) One month (2) Three month (3) Four month
(4) One year
107. Edward Jenner discovered
(1) Vaccination against polio (2) Immunization against polio
(3) Vaccination against small pox (4) Immunization against small pox
108. Which of the following is primarily concerned with protection against germs
(1) Liver (2) Lymphatic tissue (3) Kidney (4) Thyroid
109. B.C.G. vaccine is used against
(1) T.B. (2) Leprosy (3) Food poisoning (4) None of these

1B/1, TVS Street, Rasipuram 637408. Namakkal (Dt.) 13

Mob : 9444331869, Email : impulse4jee@gmail.com
 NEET | 23.07.2017
COMBINED TEST 4 (P, C, B)

110. Rishikesh is famous for the production of

(1) Antibiotics (2) Heavy electricals
(3) Fertilizers (4) Transistorized radios
111. T-cells are lymphocytes which produce the cellular immunity. These are
developed from
(1) Thymus (2) Liver (3) Spleen (4) Endothelium of blood
vessels
112. DPTvaccine is given for
(1) Tetanus, polio, plague (2) Diphtheria, whooping cough and
leprosy
(3) Diphtheria, pneumonia, tetanus (4) Diphtheria, whooping cough,
tetanus
113. Characters of acquired immunity are
(1) Specificity of antigen (2) Difference between self & non-self
(3) Retains memory (4) Allof these
114. Action of lysozyme is
(1) Physiological (2) Anatomical (3) Morphological (4) None of these
115. Expand ELISA
(1) Enzyme linked immunosorbent assay (2) Enzyme linked ion sorbent assay
(3) Enzyme linked inductive assay (4) None of the above
116. The disease caused by viruses is
(1) Tuberculosis (2) Small pox (3) Cholera (4) Typhoid
117. Which of the disease is not transmitted by house flies
(1) Typhoid (2) Yellow fever (3) Cholera (4) Dysentery
118. 'Encephalitis' in man is a viral disease and is transmitted by
(1) Anopheles (2) Culex (3) Aedes (4) Culex and Aedes
119. Out of the following one disease is caused by virus
(1) Malaria (2) Influenza (3) Diphtheria
(4) Typhoid
120. Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome (SARS)
(1) Is caused by a variant of pneumococcus pneumoniae
(2) Is caused by a variant of the common cold virus (corona virus)
(3) Is an acute form of asthma
(4) Affects non-vegetarians much faster than the vegetarians
121. Which of the following disease is caused by virus in man

(1) Tetanus (2) Dysentery (3) Typhoid (4) None of the above
122. Polio immunizing vaccine was developed by
(1) E. Jenner (2) Dr. Salk (3) St. Hale (4) Landsteiner

123. Which one is a viral disease

(1) Syphilis (2) Measles (3) Rickets (4) Beri-beri

1B/1, TVS Street, Rasipuram 637408. Namakkal (Dt.) 14

Mob : 9444331869, Email : impulse4jee@gmail.com
 NEET | 23.07.2017
COMBINED TEST 4 (P, C, B)

124. 'Polio' is caused by

(1) A bacteriophage
(2) A virus with single strand RNA
(3) A virus with single strand DNA
(4) A virus with double strand DNA
125. 'Small pox' (Variola) disease is caused by
(1) Virus (2) Bacterium (3) Protozoan (4)
Mosquito
126. Match the following bacteria with the diseases and choose the correct option
Column I Column II
(1) Treponema pallidum 1 Plague
(2) Yersinia pestis 2 Anthrax
(3) Bacillus anthrasis 3 Syphilis
(4) Vibrio 4 Cholera
(1) A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4 (2) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4
(3) A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4 (4) A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2
127. Cholera, leprosy and diptheria are
(1) Bacterial diseases (2) Viral diseases (3) Fungal diseases (4) Functional
diseases
128. Tetanus disease is caused by
(1) Virus (2) Bacteria (3) Fungi (4) Mycoplasma
129. Which of the following is an STD
(1) Measles (2) Syphilis (3) Diphtheria (4) Cancer
130. Biological name of insect (vector) carrying the plague
(1) Xenopsylla cheopis (2) Anopheles mosquito
(3) Bacillus pestis (4) Pediculus human us
131. Which is a water-borne disease
(1) Small pox (2) Malaria (3) Tuberculosis (4) Cholera
132. The causative agent of tuberculosis is
(1) Salmonella (2) Pneumococcus (3) Streptomyces (4) Mycobacterium
133. Lung tuberculosis is caused by
(1) Pseudomonas aeruginosa (2) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
(3) Streptococcus pneumoniae (4) Escherichia coli
134. Which one of the following contains bacterial diseases
(1) Cholera, typhoid, pneumonia (2) Malaria, AIDS, cholera
(3) Typhoid, tuberculosis, influenza (4) Diabetes, malaria, syphilis
135. 'Black death' is related with
(1) Plague (2) Cancer (3) Tuberculosis (4) Measles
136. Kala-azar disease is causes by
(1) Trypanosoma gambiense (2) Wuchereria bancrofti
(3) Tania solium (4) Leishmania donovani
137. The fish used for control of malaria is
1B/1, TVS Street, Rasipuram 637408. Namakkal (Dt.) 15
Mob : 9444331869, Email : impulse4jee@gmail.com
 NEET | 23.07.2017
COMBINED TEST 4 (P, C, B)

(1) Gambusia (2) Rohu (3) (1) and (2) both (4) None
of these

1B/1, TVS Street, Rasipuram 637408. Namakkal (Dt.) 16

Mob : 9444331869, Email : impulse4jee@gmail.com
 NEET | 23.07.2017
COMBINED TEST 4 (P, C, B)

138. Infection of Entamoeba histolytica can be checked by

(1) Bathing before taking meals (2) Covering the food articles
(3) Washing hands before taking meals
(4) Washing the vegetables before their consumption
139. Mapacrine and pelludrine are used to cure which disease
(1) Plague (2) Malaria (3) T.B. (4) Pneumonia
140. Which of the following causes malaria
(1) Plasmodium (2) Hook worm (3) Ascaris (4) Filaria worm
141. Which of the following is the infective stage of the malarial parasite
(Plasmodium)
(1) Gametocyte (2) Merozoite (3) Sporozoite
(4) Trophozoite
142. A person sufferring from malaria feel fever when
(1) Exoerythrocytic cycle is completed (2) Signet ring stage is formed
(3) When RBC generally ruptured and haemozoin granules are released
(4) All the above
143. Entamoeba gingivalis lives in the
(1) Intestine (2) Colon
(3) Pus pockets of pyorrhoea (4) Intestines and colon
144. One of the following is an intracellular parasite of man
(1) Ancylostoma (2) Plasmodium (3) Mosquito (4) Entamoeba
145. Enteritis, a widespread disease in India and its infection occurs by

(1) Viruses (2) Mosquito bite

(3) Ingesting cysts with food and drinks (4) None of the above
146. Which one of the following is the correct matching set of gland and its secretion

(1) Pituitary gland - Thyroxin (2) Salivary gland - Amylase

(3) Adrenal cortex - Vasopressin (4) Islets of Langerhans - Secretin
147. Gastric juice contains
(1) Pepsin, rennin, lipase (2) Pepsin, amylase, rennin
(3) Pepsin, amylase, trypsin (4) Lipase, rennin, trypsin
148. Deamination occurs in liver to
(1) Get rid of urea from blood (2) Synthesis amino acids
(3) Make use of excess amino acid (4) Convert proteins to urea and uric
acid
149. Succus entericus is secreted by
(1) Islets of Langerhans (2) Gastric gland
(3) Uterine crypt and endometrium (4) Crypts of Leiberkuhn and
Brunners gland
150. Which word best describes the action of bile on fats
(1) Neutralisation (2) Digests (3) Emulsification (4) Absorbs
151. Surgical removal of gall bladder in human beings would lead to
1B/1, TVS Street, Rasipuram 637408. Namakkal (Dt.) 17
Mob : 9444331869, Email : impulse4jee@gmail.com
 NEET | 23.07.2017
COMBINED TEST 4 (P, C, B)

(1) Impairment of the digestion of fat (2) Increased acidity in the intestine

(3) Jaundice (4) None of the above

152. Ammonia is formed during digestion in
(1) Liver (2) Small intestine (3) Large intestine (4) Stomach
153. Which one of the following pairs of the kind of cells and their secretion of
correctly matched
(1) Oxyntic cells - A secretion with pH between 2.0 and 3.0
(2) Alpha cells of islets of Langerhans - Secretion that decreases blood sugar
level
(3) Kupffer cells - A digestive enzyme that hydrolyses nucleic acids
(4) Sebaceous glands - A secretion that evaporates for cooling
154. Liver is called the reticular gland because
(1) The shape is reticular
(2) It contains reticular tissue
(3) Lobules branches and anastomose with one another to form a network
(4) Hepatic duct and cystic duct unite to form the bile duct
155. Kupffer cells are present in
(1) Liver (2) Lungs (3) Spleen (4) Gall bladder
156. Duct of Wirsung is a duct of
(1) Liver (2) Pancreas (3) Gall bladder (4) Duodenum
157. Match the type of cells listed under column I with the secretions given under
column II. Choose the answer which gives the correct combination of the
alphabets of the two columns
Column I Column II
(Type of cells) (Secretions)
(A) Beta cells (p) Lysozyme
(B) Mast cells (q) Histamine
(C) Paneth cells (r) Insulin
(D) Acinar cells (s) Pancreatic enzymes
(1) A = r ; B = s ; C = p ; D = q (2) A = s ; B = q ; C = p ; D = r
(3) A = r ; B = q ; C = p ; D = s (4) A = q ; B = r , C = p , D = s
158. Lysozymes are found in -
(1) Saliva (2) Tears (3) Saliva and tears both (4) Mitochondria
159. The amount of gastric juice secreted per day from mans stomach is about

(1) 5000 ml to 10000 ml (2) 2000 ml to 3000 ml

(3) 100 ml to 500 ml (4) 10 ml to 15 ml
160. Kupffer cells of liver are
(1) Loose connective tissue (2) Phagocytic cell
(3) Mast cell (4) Fat cell
161. The largest gland in the human body is
(1) Liver (2) Brain (3) Pancreas (4) Thyroid
1B/1, TVS Street, Rasipuram 637408. Namakkal (Dt.) 18
Mob : 9444331869, Email : impulse4jee@gmail.com
 NEET | 23.07.2017
COMBINED TEST 4 (P, C, B)

162. Lactase is found in

(1) Saliva (2) Bile (3) Pancreatic juice (4) Intestinal
juice
163. Bilirubin and biliverdin are found in
(1) Blood (2) Bile (3) Pancreatic juice (4) Saliva
164. An average man needs approximately
(1) 2900 K cal. energy/day (2) 500 K cal. energy/day
(3) 1000 K cal. energy/day (4) 2000 K cal. energy/day
165. Which one of the following is the correct matching of a vitamin, its nature and its
deficiency disease
(1) Vitamin A - Fat-soluble - Beri-beri (2) Vitamin K - water-soluble -
Pellagra
(3) Vitamin A - Fat-soluble - Night blindness (4) Vitamin K - Fat-soluble -
Beri-beri
166. Vitamins, we must consume daily are
(1) Fat soluble (2) Water soluble (3) (1) and (2) both (4) None of these

167. Milk sugar is

(1) Sucrose (2) Galactose (3) Lactose (4) Glucose
168. Which of the following is not a trace element -
(1) Zn (2) Cu (3) Mn (4) Fe
169. Holophytic nutrition is found in
(1) Amoeba (2) Giardia (3) Entamoeba (4) Euglena
170. The process of sucking of fluid from the cell surface is called as
(1) Diffusion (2) Phagocytosis (3) Pinocytosis (4)
Osmosis
171. Digestion is the breaking down of large food molecules into smaller ones. The
main purpose of this is to -
(1) Make the food soluble
(2) Enable the digestive enzymes to be used up
(3) Provide many different types of molecules for absorption
(4) Make the passage of food along the gut easier
172. Vitamin D is synthesized in skin, by the action of sunlight on
(1) Cholesterol (2) 7-hydroxy cholesterol
(3) Cephano-cholesterol (4) Orthophenoxy - cholesterol
173. Which of the following is the matching pair of the deficient nutrient and the
resulting disease in which the patient develops swollen lips, thick pigmented skin
of hands and legs and irritability
(1) Iodine-goitre (2) Niacin-pellagra
(3) Thiamine-beri beri (4) Protein -Kwashiorkar
174. Which of the following is not a source of vitamin A
(1) Carrot (2) Mango (3) Apple (4) Yeast

1B/1, TVS Street, Rasipuram 637408. Namakkal (Dt.) 19

Mob : 9444331869, Email : impulse4jee@gmail.com
 NEET | 23.07.2017
COMBINED TEST 4 (P, C, B)

175. Which one of the following is a matching pair of a certain body feature and its
value/count in a normal human adult
(1) Urea 5-10 mg/100 ml of blood
(2) Blood sugar 80-100 mg/ 100 ml
(3) Total blood volume 3-4 litres
(4) ESR in wintrobe method 9-15 mm per hour in males and 20-34 mm per hour
in females
176. The richest sources of vitamin B12 are
(1) Rice and hens egg (2) Carrot and chickens breast
(3) Goats liver and Spirulina (4) Chocolate and green gram
177. One of the following is not a common disorder associated with digestive system

(1) Tetanus (2) Diarrhoea (3) Jaundice (4) Dysentery

178. Trysinogen is an inactive enzyme secreted by the pancreas. It is activated by
(1) Pepsin of stomach (2) Chymotrypsin (3) Bile (4) Enterokinase
179. If pancreas is removed, the compound which remain undigested is
(1) Carbohydrates (2) Fats (3) Proteins (4) All of these
180. Chylomicrons are -
(1) Undigested proteins (2) Undigested carbohydrates
(3) Fat droplets coated with glycerol and protein (4) Fat droplets coated with
phospholipids

ANSWER KEY 23.07.2017

PART A (PHYSICS)
Q.No 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans A C D C D A B C C A
Q.No 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans B A A C A A C C B D
Q.No 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans B D B B A B B A C C
Q.No 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans C A B B D B B B A D
Q.No 41 42 43 44 45
Ans A C C C D
PART B (CHEMISTRY)
Q.No 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55
Ans B A B B A C A B D B
Q.No 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
Ans B C A A C C A B C A
Q.No 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75
Ans B B B C D B D C A C
Q.No 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
Ans C C A B B D C C C C
1B/1, TVS Street, Rasipuram 637408. Namakkal (Dt.) 20
Mob : 9444331869, Email : impulse4jee@gmail.com
 NEET | 23.07.2017
COMBINED TEST 4 (P, C, B)

Q.No 86 87 88 89 90
Ans D A C D A
PART C (BIOLOGY)
Q.No 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Ans 2 1 2 2 3 2 1 3 1 2
Q.No 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
Ans 1 2 1 2 1 2 3 2 1 1
Q.No 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
Ans 1 4 4 1 1 2 2 2 2 2
Q.No 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
Ans 4 2 2 2 1 2 1 2 2 1
Q.No 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
Ans 4 4 2 1 1 4 1 3 2 1
Q.No 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
Ans 3 3 3 2 3 2 1 3 4 3
Q.No 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160
Ans 1 1 1 3 1 2 3 3 2 2
Q.No 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
Ans 1 4 2 4 4 3 1 3 2 3
Q.No 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
Ans 4 4 3 3 2 2 4 2 3 1

1B/1, TVS Street, Rasipuram 637408. Namakkal (Dt.) 21

Mob : 9444331869, Email : impulse4jee@gmail.com