PRACTICE SET

IBPS PO-CWE
Test-I: Reasoning Ability
Directions (Q. 1-6): Study the following information
carefully and answer the given questions.
A word and number arrangement machine when given
an input line of words and numbers rearranges them
following a particular rule in each step. The following is an
illustration of input and rearrangement.
Input: new 11 bold 22 carve hundred 32 29 45 houses it 38
Step I: 11 22 new bold carve hundred 32 29 45 houses it 38
Dancing, Drama and Sports. Only one function is organised
on each day according to further information.
Drama was not organised on the closing day, ie on the
30th November.
Debate was organised on the previous day of Singing.
Sports was organised neither on Wednesday nor on
Saturday.
No function was organised on Thursday and Sunday.
Dancing was organised on Monday.
There was a gap of two days between Singing and
Sports.

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Step II: it new 11 22 bold carve hundred 32 29 45 houses 38 7. Which of the following functions exactly precedes
Step III: 29 32 it new 11 22 bold carve hundred 45 houses 38 Dancing?
Step IV: bold carve 29 32 it new 11 22 hundred 45 houses 38 1) Sports 2) Drama 3) Singing
Step V: 38 45 bold carve 29 32 it new 11 22 hundred houses 4) Painting 5) None of these
Step VI: houses hundred 38 45 bold carve 29 32 it new 11 22 8. Which of the following pairs of functions was
Step VI is the last step of the above input, as the organised on Wednesdays?
desired arrangement is obtained. As per the rules followed 1) Painting Drama 2) Drama Singing
above find the appropriate step for the given input. 3) Singing Dance 4) Cant be determined
Input: ice money 21 13 good 18 12 qualify 35 5) None of these
eligible 41 browse candidates 10 9. A gap of how many days was there between Drama
1. Which of the following represents the position of ice

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and Sports?
in Step VI? 1) Two 2) Three 3) Four
1) Third from the left 2) Fifth from the right 4) Five 5) None of these
3) Sixth from the right 4) Fourth from the left 10. The festival started with which of the following
5) None of these functions?
2. Which step will be the last but one? 1) Debate 2) Singing 3) Drama
1) IX 2) VI 3) V 4) VII 5) None of these 4) Sports 5) None of these
3. Which word/number would be at the 5th position from 11. Which of the following expressions is false, if the given
the right in Step V? expression is true?
1) ice 2) qualify 3) 10 4) 12 5) money V=W>X Y=Z
4. How many steps will be required to complete the 1) V > X 2) Y X 3) Y W
arrangement? 4) Z X 5) None of these
1) VI 2) VII 3) VIII 4) X 5) IX 12. What will come in place of question mark (?) to make
5. How many elements (words or numbers) are there the expression E > M true but A < O not true?
between 21 and 12 in Step VII? A?M=N?O E
1) Eight 2) Five 3) Three 1) =, 2) , 3) >, <
4) Six 5) None of these 4) , < 5) None of these
6. Which step number is the following output? 13. In which of the following expressions Q > P is not
money browse 13 18 ice good 10 12 21 qualify 35 true?
eligible 41 candidates 1) J Q > M = H P 2) P > M H = Q N
1) III 2) VI 3) IV 3) M = P < H = N Q 4) Only 1) and 3)
4) V 5) None of these 5) None of these
Directions (Q. 7-10): Study the following information 14. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word
carefully and answer the given questions. CONTAIN each of which has as many letters between
The festival of an institute was organised from 23rd to them in the word as in the English alphabet?
30th November. 23rd was Wednesday. During that period 1) None 2) One 3) Two
six functions were organised, viz Singing, Painting, Debate, 4) Three 5) More than three
15. In a certain code language BONDED is written as
EFMCPC. How is AMOUNT written in that code
language?
1) BNPTNB 2) VOUBNP 3) UONTNB
4) BONTNB 5) None of these
Directions (Q. 16-22): Study the following information
carefully and answer the given questions.
P, Q, R, S, W, V, T and U are eight family members
sitting around a circular table, facing the centre, but not
necessarily in the same order. Each member has a different
hobby, viz Watching TV, Swimming, Cooking, Singing,
Reading, Dancing, Walking and Listening to Music, but
not necessarily in the same order.
P is the head of his family and sits third to the left of
wife Q. T has two sisters and sits second to the right of his
grandfather, whose hobby is Watching TV. S sits on the
numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements
to be true even if they seem to be at variance with
commonly known facts and then decide which of the given
conclusions logically follows from the given statements,
disregarding commonly known facts. Give answer
1) if only conclusion I follows.
2) if only conclusion II follows.
3) if either conclusion I or II follows.
4) if neither conclusion I nor II follows.
5) if both conclusions I and II follow.
(23-24):
Statements: Some cakes are bread.
All breads are toffees.
Some toffees are sugar.
23. Conclusions: I. Some toffees are cakes.
II.All sugar being bread is a

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immediate left of her brother, who sits in front of his father. possibility.
V sits between the person who likes Swimming and the 24. Conclusions: I. All cakes being toffees is a
person who likes Singing. Her hobby is Reading. Q has possibility.
two sons and one of the sons hobby is Singing. U sits in II.All breads are cakes.
front of her mother-in-law, whose hobby is Music. Ws (25-26):
sons hobby is Walking. R and his sister-in-law like Singing Statements: No cabin is a room.
and Cooking respectively. All rooms are houses.
16. How is W related to P? No house is a place.
1) Brother 2) Father 25. Conclusions: I. No cabin is a house.
3) Daughter 4) Son II.Some houses are cabins.
5) None of these 26. Conclusions: I. Some houses are definitely not

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17. How many couples are there in the family? cabins.
1) One 2) Two 3) Three II.No house is a room.
4) Either 2) or 3) 5) None of these 27. Statements: All ribbons are mats.
18. Who among the following sits third to the left of W? Some mats are ropes.
1) Q 2) R 3) T 4) S 5) None of these No rope is a thread.
19. Which of the following pairs of hobbies are a couples Conclusions: I. All ribbons are ropes.
hobbies? II.No thread is a rope.
1) Cooking Dancing 2) Music Singing Directions (Q. 28-30): Each of the questions below
3) Watching TV Reading 4) Swimming Cooking consists of a question and three statements numbered I, II
5) None of these and III given below it. You have to decide whether the data
20. What is the hobby of S? provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the
1) Cooking 2) Singing 3) Dancing questions.
4) Reading 5) None of these 28. Who among Sunita, Naina, Veena and Meena is the
21. Who among the following sits in front of R and what youngest?
is the relationship between them? I. Veena is younger than Meena but older than Sunita
1) Q, who is brother of R 2) P, who is daughter of R and Naina.
3) Q, who is mother of R 4) P, who is father of R II. Meena is older than Naina and Veena but not older
5) None of these than Sunita.
22. Which of the following statements is true? III.Sunita is older than Naina but not older than Veena.
1) P is grandfather of V and sits third to the right of V. 1) Only I and II 2) Only II and III 3) Only II and III
2) W is husband of U and sits on the immediate right 4) Only I and III 5) None of these
of R. 29. How is the woman in the photograph related to Suraj?
3) T is sister of V. I. Pointing to the photograph, Suraj said, She is
4) All are true mother of my fathers only granddaughter.
5) None of these II. Pointing to the photograph, Suraj said, She is the
Directions (Q. 23-27): In each question below are only daughter-in-law of my mother.
given three statements followed by two conclusions III.Suraj has no siblings but has a daughter.
 1) Only I 2) Only II 3) Either I or II 2) Right end of the row
4) Only II and III 5) None of these 3) Fourth to the right of W
30. Among five friends Aman, Neelam, Vidya, Rani and 4) Second to the left of Z
Sapna, whose salary is the highest? 5) None of these
I. Vidyas basic salary is `100 more than Ranis. 40. What is the position of Y with respect to V?
II. Ranis basic salary is more than those of Aman and 1) Immediate right 2) Fourth to the right
Neelam but not more than that of Sapna. 3) Second to the left 4) Third to the left
III.Neelams salary is more than that of Aman. 5) None of these
1) Only II and III 2) All I, II and III 41. The EU has stepped up engagement with state leaders
3) Only I and III 4) Only II ahead of the 2014 polls in India.
5) None of these Which of the following may be a probable cause for
Directions (Q. 31-34): Study the following information taking the above step?
carefully to answer the given questions. 1) EU will be happy to work with any party or coalition
Six friends B, L, N, Q, E and R are in two rows, each that comes to power in Delhi.
row having three friends, facing each other and sitting in 2) Bihar and Odisha could play a key role in the
such a way that E is second to the right of N. B is at the end formation of next government.
of the row. L is the neighbour of R. N is opposite R.

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3) The dominant themes of the forthcoming
31. Which of the following pairs are not facing each other? parliamentary elections cannot be understood by
1) L, Q 2) B, N 3) E, B 4) R, N 5) None of these sitting in Delhi alone.
32. Which of the following are sitting in a row?
4) The EU ambassadors are ambassadors to India and
1) LBE 2) NQR 3) EQN
not ambassadors to Delhi.
4) LNE 5) None of these
5) None of these
33. If R and B exchange their places with each other who
42. Exports from India rose for a fourth month as imports
will be on the immediate left of B?
dropped.
1) L 2) N 3) Q 4) R 5) None of these
Which of the following can be a possible effect of the
34. Who among the following faces Q?
above cause?
1) R 2) L 3) B 4) N 5) None of these
1) Market concerns about the US winding down its

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Directions (Q. 35): Select the related word from the
stimulus programme have gone away.
given alternatives.
35. Mongoose : Snake 2) India's trade deficit is significantly below last year's
1) Milk : Goat 2) Fish : Crane 3) Whale : Crow levels.
4) Water : Sky 5) None of these 3) The dollar has strengthened globally.
36. A man runs 20m towards east and turns to right, runs 4) The Federal Reserve may begin tapering bond
10m and turns to right, runs 9m and turns to left, runs purchases soon.
5m and again turns to left, runs 12m and finally turns 5) None of these
to left, and runs 6m. Now which direction is the man 43. The Prime Minister has said agencies such as CBI
facing? must not sit in judgement of policy formulation and
1) East 2) West 3) Northeast warned against errors of judgement being conflated
4) Southeast 5) North with criminal behaviour.
37. Aman introduces Rohan as the son of the only brother Which of the following is not in line with the Prime
of his fathers wife. How is Rohan related to Aman? Minister's statement?
1) Brother 2) Cousin 3) Son 1) Each agency should confine itself to the role it has
4) Uncle 5) Son-in-law been assigned.
Directions (Q. 38-40): Study the following information 2) Lines of confidence should be clearly drawn
carefully to answer the given questions. between investigating and police agencies on the
Z, Y, X, W, V and T are standing in a row facing south. one hand and honest executive functionaries on
Z is third to the right of V. X is fourth from one end of the the other.
row. Y, who is between Z and W, is third to the right of T. 3) Policymakers should take decisions needed for fast
38. Which of the following pairs sit at the ends of the economic growth without any scope of impropriety.
row? 4) Policymaking is multi-layered and complex.
1) X,T 2) W, Z 3) V, W 5) It is important to distinguish errors of judgement
4) X,Y 5) None of these from criminal acts.
39. What is the position of T? 44. India has been tarnished by allegations of rampant
1) Immediate right of X political corruption, retrospective changes in law,
 policy reforms getting stuck and, to top it all off, an
economic slump.
Which of the following can be a part of possible fallout
of the above situation?
1) India will soon emerge as one of the strongest
markets.
2) The political parties will strive to form a stable
coalition after the next elections.
3) India has witnessed chronic unemployment over
the years.
4) It will be difficult to attract foreign investors.
5) None of these
45. Indian enterprises are getting more proactive about
protecting their data and systems by using better and
advanced technologies as well as by looking outside
the company for expert help. The move is prompted
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by the recent revelations of the US govt's widespread
snooping over the internet and communication
networks.
Which of the following statements substantiates the
views expressed in the above statement?
1) These companies are also now more open to
outsource parts of their security to experts instead
of relying on internal talent alone.
2) India is among the top five countries in terms of
highest incidents of cybercrime.
3) Companies are looking at adding forensics or
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getting in consultants to check their systems for
threats that may not have been detected earlier.
4) There is also a new position called the 'chief risk
officer' (CRO) being institutionalised whereby chief
information security officers are being made to
report to the CRO.
5) None of these
46. The management of a company sent out an email,
"Do catch the legend playing his last international
cricket match being telecast live in our office
cafeterias. Use your discretion to balance work and
passion."
Which of the following inferences can be drawn from
the above statement? (An inference is something
which is not directly stated but can be inferred from
the given facts.)
1) The cafeterias will have quite a number of
employees watching the match.
2) The cafeterias will be packed with employees.
3) The bosses will be there in the cafeteria but not the
subordinates.
4) The legend will reward those employees who watch
the match.
5) None of these
47. According to Gartner, global PC shipments declined
8.6% in the third quarter of 2013, marking the sixth
consecutive quarter of fall.
Which of the following can be a probable cause(s) of
the above phenomenon?
(A) Computer chips are now being used in fewer walks
of life.
(B) There has been a shift in consumer preference
from PCs to tablets for daily content consumption.
(C) Internet-of-things will drive the next wave of
computing.
1) Only B 2) None 3) Only B and C
4) Only A and C 5) Only C
48. The higher education system in the country is dealing
with an acute faculty shortage.
Which of the following can be a course(s) of action to
tackle the situation?
(A) There should be an improvement in the pay and
perks of the faculty.
(B) The faculty should be exposed to the corporate
world.
(C) More management institutes should be opened
across the nation.
1) Only A and C 2) None 3) Only A
4) Only B 5) None of these
49. It would not be proper for the government to bestow
the Bharat Ratna on Dhyan Chand nearly 34 years
after he passed away.
Which of the following substantially weakens the
argument given in the above statement?
1) Tendulkar was not considered for the Bharat Ratna
in 2011 or 2012 because he was still playing.
2) Sardar Patel died in 1950 but he was given the
Bharat Ratna in 1991.
3) There is a complete lack of transparency in the
system of selecting the winners.
4) The Narasimha Rao-led Congress government in
1991 awarded the Bharat Ratna to the late Rajiv
Gandhi, who had passed away a few months earlier.
5) None of these
50. "When you have support on the ground, it shows up
in voting. There is a difference between a spontaneous
crowd and a rented one." A political leader
Which of the following assumptions is implicit in the
above statement? (An assumption is something
supposed or taken for granted.)
1) Rallies are hardly relevant in this day of tweets and
24x7 news.
2) Great public meetings are no longer the barometers
of public opinion they once used to be.
3) The Left parties are past masters at organising
crowds, but this rarely translates into electoral
victory except in their old pockets of strength.
4) The crowd that you see at rallies is often gathered
by hiring supporters.
5) None of these

Test-II: English Language
Directions (Q. 51-65): Read the passage carefully
and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/
phrases are given in bold to help you locate them while
answering some of the questions.
Choosing not to make a choice has been accepted as
a democratic right. The Supreme Court decision to
introduce a None of the Above (NOTA) option enables
people to vote in a way that will have no effect on the
outcome. But will it have a fundamental effect on the
accountability and representativeness of the electoral
system?
The SC decision is an extension of a technical clause
in the Representation of People Act which allows for the
recording of spoilt or unused ballot papers. The use of
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Electronic Voting Machines has not previously allowed
for any choice other than a valid vote, and so the provision
of the NOTA button re-institutes what was recognised as
a legitimate option. As such, it provides a recognition that
people might want to take part in the electoral process, but
not necessarily cast a vote for any of the candidates on
offer.
Dramatic claims about the advantages of a NOTA
option have been made. In his judgment, Chief Justice P
Sathasivam said that in a vibrant democracy, the voter
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must be given an opportunity to choose none of the above
(NOTA) button, which will indeed compel the political
parties to nominate a sound candidate. He stated that the
significance of such a provision was massive, and would
foster the purity of the electoral process.
There is something surreal about debating the right to
cast a vote for no candidate. Representative democracy is
based on the principle that the electorate make a collective
decision, and that the public choose wisely amongst the
available options. The idea that the provision of a neutral
option will significantly enhance the democratic process
seems unlikely. The claim that NOTA will purify the political
process seems based on an assumption that it will threaten
a corrupt cartel of political parties, who can put up criminal
and corrupt candidates in the knowledge that their rivals
are bound to do the same. The Aam Aadmi Partys right-to-
reject proposal is based on the view that voters are forced
to waste our vote on someone we know is unfit for the
job. However, most elections have many candidates, and
the common complaint has been that it was too easy to
stand for election, with voters overwhelmed with choice.
The right-to-reject option provides for a more powerful
negative option. In cases where NOTA is a more popular
option than any candidate in that constituency, the election
would have to be contested again. This vote of no
confidence in the candidates on offer is a radical proposal,
but raises the prospect of political deadlock and a vacuum
in the representative process. Far more constructive is the
decision of Arvind Kejriwal to join the democratic fray, and
through AAP seek to provide a substantive alternative to
voters. Rather than a neutral protest, this is an opportunity
to broaden the choices available to the electorate, and test
the strength of discontent with established parties in the
arena of electoral competition.
A broader consideration is that NOTA will act as an
indicator of democratic legitimacy. In the past, in one-party
states such as Poland and the Soviet Union, the NOTA
option provided a signal that there was widespread
dissatisfaction with the political options on offer. In states
where an election boycott has been a recourse, the NOTA
button provides a way to actively cast a protest against
the political process. Yet it is unlikely that this will be a
common response the advantages of campaigning for a
NOTA vote cant really be expected to be much more
effective than a simple boycott.
51. What is the basic principle on which representative
democracy is based? Give your answer in light of the
facts mentioned in the given passage.
1) That the electorate would make a collective decision
on the basis of their religion
2) That the electorate would vote collectively to
choose the candidate of their caste, creed and race
3) That the electorate would make a collective decision
and that they will choose the candidate of their
choice amongst the available options
4) That the electorate will make a collective decision
and choose wisely amongst the available
candidates who have assured of better services, if
elected
5) None of these
52. Find the correct statement on the basis of the given
passage.
1) Aam Aadmi Partys right-to-reject proposal is based
on the view that it is better not to vote than to vote
for an unfit candidate
2) The decision to introduce NOTA option is based
on the assumption that it will threaten a corrupt
cartel of political parties.
3) These days politics has become a dirty game of
money and muscle power.
4) Right-to-reject option will create a trouble to the
Election Commission in conducting election on
scheduled dates because the existing EVMs do not
have NOTA option.
5) All the above
53. Which of the following is/are true about the NOTA
option?
(A) The NOTA option provides a recognition that
people might want to take part in the electoral
process and necessarily cast a vote for any of the
candidates on offer.
 (B) The EVM has not previously allowed for any 1) It will make voting compulsory for all.
choice other than a valid vote, and the NOTA 2) It will help change the character of our leaders.
button is a legitimate option to that. 3) It will act as an indicator of democratic legitimacy.
(C) The implementation of NOTA option, an extension 4) It will be used to highlight democratic satisfaction
of a clause of RP Act, will debar convicted with the choice on offer.
candidates. 5) None of these
1) Only (A) 2) Only (B) 59. Why did the Supreme Court introduce None of the
3) Only (C) 4) Both (A) and (B) Above button in EVMs?
5) All (A), (B) and (C) (A) To enhance the accountability of the voters
54. What will be the effect of None of the above (NOTA) (B) To put a check on large-scale rigging
option on the results of the election? (C) To purify the electoral process
(A) It will have no effect on the results of the election. 1) Only (A) 2) Only (B) 3) Only (C)
(B) If the number of NOTA exceeds fifty per cent of 4) Only (A) and (B) 5) Only (B) and (C)
the total votes polled, the Election Commission Directions (Q. 60-62): Choose the word/group of
will ask for a fresh poll. words which is MOST SIMILAR in meaning to the word/
(C) It will have effect on the accountability and group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.

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representativeness of the electoral system. 60. Arena
1) Only (A) 2) Only (A) and (B) 3) Only (C) 1) territory 2) field 3) theatre
4) Only (B) 5) All (A), (B) and (C) 4) playground 5) battle
55. In what way are claims being made that the NOTA 61. Cartel
option will affect the electoral process? 1) shell 2) stronghold 3) meeting
1) It will encourage voters to cast their votes even if 4) syndicate 5) carcass
they are not willing to do so. 62. Recourse
2) It will compel the political parties to nominate a 1) resort 2) reply 3) virtue
clean candidate. 4) referendum 5) reaction
3) It will foster the purity of the electoral process. Directions (Q. 63-65): Choose the word/group of
4) Only 2) and 3) words which is MOST OPPOSITE in meaning to the word/

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5) All 1), 2) and 3) group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.
56. How does the author see the decision of Arvind 63. Foster
Kejriwal to form AAP and contest election? 1) support 2) strengthen 3) uphold
1) It is a serious mistake on his part. 4) concoct 5) discourage
2) The formation of AAP will provide a substantive 64. Overwhelmed
alternative to voters who are not satisfied with 1) exceeded 2) devoid 3) overpowered
other candidates in fray. 4) overburdened 5) confuted
3) It is an attempt to befool the innocent voters. 65. Broaden
4) There was a need to form a party like AAP as people 1) scatter 2) disperse 3) shrink
of Delhi are not very much satisfied with Sheila 4) sprout 5) stroke
Dixit govt. Directions (Q. 66-70): Read each sentence to find out
5) The formation of AAP will provide a respite to Anna whether there is any grammatical or idiomatic error in it.
Hazare. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The
57. Which of the following is not in accordance with the number of that part is the answer. If there is No error,
facts mentioned in the given passage? the answer is 5). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)
1) The vote of no confidence raises the prospect of 66. 1) Many writers I know are / 2) far more talented to me
political deadlock in the representative process. / 3) but you need a combination of three essentials / 4)
2) The right-to-reject option provides for a more to succeed: talent, hard work and luck. / 5) No error
powerful negative option. 67. 1) Challenges provide you the opportunity to grow /
3) In cases where NOTA is a more popular option 2) as a human being, gain a fresh perspective / 3) or it
than any other candidate, the election would have can motivate you / 4) to achieve set targets. / 5) No
to be contested again in that constituency. error
4) The decision of Arvind Kejriwal to join the 68. 1) Success comes easy to those / 2) who are hard-
democratic fray is not a wise step. working and knowledgeable / 3) and possess a healthy/
5) None of these 4) dose of self-belief. / 5) No error
58. How will NOTA option prove useful in a democratic 69. 1) The worst of times brings out the best / 2) from a
country? true leader, who, with political skill / 3) and a sense of
 national interest, / 4) turns adverse into advantage. / (E) This resulted in our being technologically
5) No error dependent on the skills and expertise available in
70. 1) It is unfortunate that the General has / 2) other countries.
inadvertently get embroiled in an unnecessary (F) In the past six decades, an infrastructure and
controversy / 3) regarding the modus operandi / 4) of capability largely commensurate with meeting
Army intelligence working in J&K. / 5) No error national needs has been created, minimising our
Directions (Q. 71-75): In the following questions, a dependence on other countries.
sentence has been given with some part of it in bold. To 76. Which of the following would be the FIRST sentence
make the sentence correct, you have to replace the bold after rearrangement?
part with the correct alternative given below. If the 1) E 2) B 3) A 4) D 5) C
sentence is correct as it is, please give 5) as your answer 77. Which of the following would be the THIRD sentence
(ie No correction required). after rearrangement?
71. He behaves as though he is immortal. 1) D 2) F 3) C 4) A 5) B
1) as though he has been 2) as though he was 78. Which of the following would be the FOURTH
3) as though he were 4) as if he will have sentence after rearrangement?
5) No correction required 1) C 2) D 3) F 4) B 5) E
72. You should not get off the bus till it is stopped. 79. Which of the following would be the LAST (SIXTH)

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1) until it stops 2) until it is stopped sentence after rearrangement?
3) unless it stops 4) till it is being stop 1) F 2) B 3) D 4) E 5) A
5) No correction required 80. Which of the following would be the SECOND
73. I knew Sachin would play for India but never thought sentence after rearrangement?
he would end up with all the cricketing records possible. 1) A 2) E 3) B 4) C 5) D
1) he would end all 2) he would end in all Directions (Q. 81-90): In the following passage, some
3) he would end with all 4) he would end into of the words have been left out, each of which is indicated
5) No correction required by a number. Find the suitable word from the options given
74. The Indian Air Force has played a pivotal role in the against each number and fill up the blanks with
nations defence and our glorious history is replete of appropriate words to make the paragraph meaningful.
numerous counts of valour and fortitude in the face

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of extreme odds.
1) replete of numerous accounts
2) replete with numerous accounts
3) replete by numerous account
4) repleted through numerous counts
5) No correction required
75. The recruits have been known to operate Voice Over
Internet Protocol (VOIP) phones which cannot be
investigated by intelligence agencies.
1) infringed 2) intersected 3) interrogated
4) intercepted 5) No correction required
Directions (Q. 76-80): Rearrange the following six
sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper
sequence to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer
the questions given below.
(A) The great achievement during the last century
prior to Independence had been related largely to
pure research.
(B) A range of industries, from small to the most
sophisticated, has been established covering a
wide range of utilities, services and goods.
(C) At the time of Independence, our scientific and
technological infrastructure was neither strong
nor organised as compared to the developed
world.
(D) India has a long and distinguished tradition in
science and technology from the ancient times.
Notwithstanding the role of politics in (81) decisions,
any criticism of the Modi governments latest stand must
be (82) with the view that the death penalty is no (83) to
heinous crimes. The moral and social (84) in criminal justice
must always be on establishing guilt and awarding (85)
punishment, the worst of which should be a lifelong prison
term. Death sentences achieve little more than arithmetic
equivalence. In the case of the Gujarat riots, there has been
a campaign to characterise the violence as a spontaneous
reaction to be Godhra train-burning incident. The
strongest (86) of this theory lies in the Naroda-Patiya
verdict of August 2012, which laid bare the existence of a
(87) involving BJP and Sangh leaders. The Gujarat
government, the Special Investigation Team and the (88)
should focus on sustaining such convictions in the higher
courts instead of seeking the death penalty out of a
misconception that only capital punishment is complete
justice. And investigators and prosecutors throughout the
country would do well to (89) the need to identify the (90)
and establish their guilt in all cases involving organised
mob terrorism rather than labouring for death sentences.
81. 1) creating 2) influencing 3) effecting
4) informing 5) inflicting
82. 1) tempered 2) seen 3) kept
4) looked 5) tested
83. 1) clue 2) return 3) response
4) answer 5) insolence
84. 1) desire 2) uplift 3) imperative 98. What will be the percentage profit after selling an
4) duty 5) status article at a certain price if there is a loss of 25% when
85. 1) proper 2) better 3) corroborative
1
4) corresponding 5) condign the article is sold at
of this selling price?
86. 1) reprimand 2) rebuttal 3) revolt 3
4) salvation 5) resurgence 1) 50% 2) 75% 3) 37.5% 4) 87.5% 5) 125%
87. 1) consternation 2) consistency 3) consolation 99. A person bought a chair at 35% discount on the listed
4) conspiracy 5) consortium price. Had he not got the discount, he would have
88. 1) prosecution 2) perspective 3) prospective paid `112 extra. At what price did he buy the chair?
4) property 5) proposal 1) `208 2) `224 3) `240 4) `248 5) `280
89. 1) align 2) solve 3) address 100. The salary of an employee increases consistently by
4) feel 5) help 20% every year. If his present salary is `11500, then
90. 1) enemy 2) faults 3) friend what will be his salary after three years?
4) assistance 5) culprit 1) `18548 2) `18816 3) `19264
4) `19872 5) `20108
Test-III: Quantitative Aptitude Directions (Q. 101-105): Following line graph shows
the percentage profit earned by two companies A and B

K Directions (Q. 91-95): Which will be the next number over the given years.
in the following number series? Company A Company B
60
91. 5 26 165 1332 13335 ?
1) 143602 2) 124680 3) 180056 50 50
4) 173004 5) 160038 40 40
% profit

92. 1320 720 336 120 24 ? 25 30

30 30 35
1) 12 2) 8 3) 4 4) 2 5) 0 25
93. 8 47 142 317 596 ? 20 20
1) 1003 2) 987 3) 961 4) 942 5) 902 10 15 10 15 10
94. 1 10 27 52 85 ?

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1) 118 2) 122 3) 126 4) 130 5) 136 0
95. 1 54 375 1372 3645 ? 2008 2009 2010 2011 2012 2013
1) 6434 2) 7986 3) 8154 4) 9263 5) 9626 Year
96. Mohan purchases 20 kg of sugar at `9.50 per kg and 101. If the income of Company A in the year 2011 was `91
30 kg of sugar at `9 per kg. At what price per kg should lakh, what was its expenditure in that year?
he sell the mixture in order to gain 40%? 1) `51 lakh 2) `56 lakh 3) `63 lakh
1) `12.48 2) `12.64 3) `12.72 4) `65 lakh 5) `72 lakh
4) `12.88 5) `12.96 102. If the expenditure of Company A in the year 2008 and
97. The ages of Ravi and Rohan are in the ratio of 1 : 3. that of Company B in the year 2009 were equal to `60
After 12 years the ratio of their ages will be 5 : 11. lakh, then what is the difference (in `) between the
What is the difference between their ages? income of Company B in the year 2009 and the income
1) 24 years 2) 28 years 3) 32 years of Company A in the year 2008?
4) 36 years 5) 40 years 1) 6 lakh 2) 9 lakh 3) 12 lakh
4) 15 lakh 5) 18 lakh
103. The percentage profit of Company B in the year 2011
is approximately what percentage of percentage profit
of Company A in the year 2013?
1) 75% 2) 125% 3) 150%
4) 175% 5) 180%
104. If the income of Company A in the year 2011 and that
in 2012 were equal and they were `91 lakh each then
what is the total expenditure (in `) of Company A in
the year 2011 and 2012 together?
1) 182 lakh 2) 154 lakh 3) 135 lakh
4) 124 lakh 5) None of these
105. If the expenditure of Company A in the year 2013 and
the income of Company B in the year 2009 were `45
 lakh and `78 lakh respectively then the income of Following pie-chart shows the percentage distribution
Company A in the year 2013 is what percentage of the of the total viewers of different TV channels and the table
expenditure of Company B in the year 2009? show the ratio of male to female viewers of these channels.
1) 57.7% 2) 33% 3) 78% 4) 84% 5) 90%
Directions (Q. 106-110): Study the following SAB TV
information carefully and answer the questions given Colors 12%
below: 24% ZEE TV
Pie-chart-I shows the percentage distribution of Sahara 18%
students who appeared in an examination from six different 10%
schools and pie-chart-II shows the percentage distribution Sony
Star Plus
of students who passed from these schools. 19%
17%
Pie-chart-I
Total viewers = 84 thousand
F A
17% 18%
B
E

K
13%
20%
C
D 10%
22%

Total students appeared = 9500

Pie-chart-II 111. What is the total number of male viewers of ZEE TV?
1) 5420 2) 5880 3) 6040 4) 6450 5) 6760
A
F
112. What is the difference between the total number of
15%
24%
B female viewers and the total number of male viewers

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8% for Colors?
C 1) 1640 2) 1660 3) 1680 4) 1700 5) 1720
E 12% 113. The total number of female viewers of ZEE TV is
20% D approximately what percentage of the total number of
21% viewers of all six channels together?
1) 11% 2) 13% 3) 15% 4) 17% 5) 19%
Total students passed = 2400 114. The total number of male viewers of Star Plus is
106. What is the difference between the number of students approximately what percentage of the total number of
appeared from School A and those appeared from viewers of Sahara?
School D? 1) 10% 2) 30% 3) 50% 4) 70% 5) 90%
1) 320 2) 340 3) 360 4) 380 5) 400 115. What is the difference between the total number of
107. How many students passed from School B and School female and male viewers of all channels together?
F together? 1) 12480 2) 12620 3) 12840 4) 13010 5) 13260
1) 760 2) 768 3) 774 4) 784 5) 788 Directions (Q. 116-120): Study the following
108. How many students failed from School C? information carefully and answer the questions given
1) 662 2) 664 3) 666 4) 668 5) 672 below:
109. What is the difference between the total number of There are a certain number of students who appeared
failed and passed students from School D? in the state-level engineering examination conducted in
1) 1012 2) 1048 3) 1064 4) 1078 5) 1082 three different States A, B and C. All of them have cleared
110. Total number of failed students from School E is at least one states exam. 39.4% students cleared State As
approximately what percentage of the total number of exam, 41.4% students cleared State Bs exam and 53.6%
appeared students from all six schools together? students cleared State Cs exam. 8% students cleared only
1) 15% 2) 18% 3) 21% 4) 24% 5) 27% State As and State Bs exam, 7% students cleared only
Directions (Q. 111-115): Study the following State Bs and State Cs exam and 9.8% students cleared
information carefully and answer the questions given only State As and State Cs exam. If the total number of
below: students in the group is 500 then answer the following
questions.
116. How many students cleared all three state-level 130. I. 2x2 + 13x + 21 = 0 II. 2y2 + 27y + 88 = 0
examinations? Directions (Q. 131-135): What approximate value
1) 16 2) 14 3) 32 4) 36 5) 48 should come in place of question mark (?) in the following
117. What is the percentage of students who cleared the questions?
only examination conducted by State A? 131. (845% of 955) 5.96 = ?
1) 12.4% 2) 14.6% 3) 16.8% 4) 18% 5) 24% 1) 46420 2) 44620 3) 48420
118. How many students are there who cleared 4) 52200 5) 54520
examinations conducted by at least two states? 132. (8137 + 3640 + 3828) (1946 712 965) = ?
1) 148 2) 142 3) 136 4) 132 5) 128 1) 64 2) 58 3) 52 4) 46 5) 42
119. What is the percentage of students who cleared the 3
exam conducted by State B but couldnt clear the exam 133. 35% of ? = 3984.75
4
conducted by State C? 1) 12720 2) 18480 3) 15180 4) 17460 5) 13220
1) 23.4% 2) 21.6% 3) 27% 4) 28.4% 5) 29.6%
120. How many students are there who have cleared at 1
134. 33 % of 7810 24.89% of 5326 = ?
most one exam conducted by these three states? 3
1) 168 2) 204 3) 308 4) 352 5) 376 1) 3560 2) 3720 3) 3850 4) 3930 5) 4080

K
121. Find the compound interest on `77500 in two years, 135. 3 4.913 3 0.000125 ?
the rate of interest being 10% for the first year and 1) 24 2) 28 3) 34 4) 42 5) 48
12% for the second year.
10
1) `16840 2) `17980 3) `18260 136. The width of a rectangular park is of its length. If
4) `18840 5) None of these 21
the area of the park is 3360 sq m, then what is the
122. Pipe X is 3 times faster than Pipe Y in filling a tank. If
difference between the length and the width of the
Pipe Y can fill the tank in 20 minutes, then how long
park?
will it take to fill the tank if both pipes are opened
1) 40m 2) 44m 3) 48m 4) 52m 5) 56m
together?
137. A rectangular field, 80m long and 55m broad, is
1) 5 minutes 2) 8 minutes 3) 10 minutes
surrounded by a 3-metre-wide path. What is the area
4) 12 minutes 5) None of these

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of the path?
123. There are 16 students in a class. Find the number of
1) 646 sq m 2) 746 sq m 3) 856 sq m
ways in which 5 students can be chosen to form a
4) 846 sq m 5) None of these
group.
138. The length of a rectangle is increased by 40%. By
1) 80 2) 524160 3) 4368
what per cent should the width be decreased so that
4) 21840 5) None of these
the area of the rectangle increases by 12%?
124. A bag contains 4 green, 5 red and 7 white balls. Three
1) 28% 2) 24% 3) 20% 4) 16% 5) 12%
balls are drawn randomly. What is the probability that
139. What value should come in place of question mark (?)
all three drawn balls are of different colours?
in the following equation?
1 3 2 15 3
1) 2) 3) 4) 5) 5292 ?
4 4 17 17 16
? 3072
125. A man can swim a certain distance downstream in 2
1) 4032 2) 3684 3) 3212 4) 3056 5) 2816
hours and return in 7 hours. If the rate of stream is 5
140. In how many different ways can the letters of the word
kmph then what is the speed of man in still water?
EUROPA be arranged such that the vowels always
1) 7 kmph 2) 8 kmph 3) 9 kmph
come together?
4) 10 kmph 5) 11 kmph
1) 720 2) 144 3) 120 4) 36 5) None of these
Directions (Q. 126-130): In each of these questions,
two equations (I) and (II) are given. You have to solve both
the equations and give answer
1) if x > y 2) if x > y
3) if x < y 4) if x < y
5) if x y or relation cannot be established between x
and y.
126. I. x2 + 3x 40 = 0 II. y2 14y + 48 = 0
2
127. I. x + x 2 = 0 II. y2 +5y + 6 = 0
128. I. 7x + 5y = 11 II. 7y 8x = 51
129. I. x2 = 49 II. y2 16y + 63 = 0
 district in the country where every family owns a piece
Test-IV: General Awareness of land?
(with Special Reference to Banking Industry) 1) Kozhikode 2) Kottayam
3) Kannur 4) Kollam
141. Consider the following with respect to the recent path- 5) Kasargod
breaking verdict of the Supreme Court (SC) about the 147. Name the Indian who has been elected to the United
functioning of bureaucrats: Nations Board of Auditors, garnering the largest
(A) The SC suggested that Parliament must enact a number of votes among contenders.
law to regulate postings, transfers and disciplinary 1) Prashant Bhushan 2) N Gopalaswami
action against bureaucrats. 3) Vinod Rai 4) Shashi Kant Sharma
(B) The civil servants should not act on verbal orders 5) None of these
given by political executives and all actions must 148. The Supreme Court upheld the appointment of UK
be taken by them on the basis of written Sinha as the chairman of which of the following
communication. regulators recently?
(C) It asked the Centre and all State govts along with 1) IRDA 2) PFRDA 3) CERC
Union Territories to issue directions within three 4) SEBI 5) None of these
months for providing fixed tenure to civil servants. 149. Which of the following cities has got the world's first

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(D) The bench has suggested constituting Civil publicly accessible ATM machine which can exchange
Services Board at the Centre and State-levels. digital currency, bitcoins, for any official currency?
Which of the above statements is/are correct in the 1) Toronto 2) London 3) New York
context of the recent verdict? 4) Vancouver 5) None of these
1) All the above 2) Only (A) and (B) 150. India and which of the following countries has signed
3) Only (B) and (C) 4) Only (A), (B) and (C) a treaty for transfer of sentenced prisoners languishing
5) Only (B), (C) and (D) in jails in the two countries?
142. The book Vanity Bagh has been authored by 1) Chile 2) Cuba 3) Vietnam
1) Anees Salim 2) Husain Haqqani 4) Croatia 5) None of these
3) Sumati Bagrath 4) Kaveri Ponappa 151. Yuki Bhambri is associated with which of the following

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5) None of these games?
143. The four Public Sector Enterprises have been awarded 1) Hockey 2) Squash 3) Tennis
the Turnaround Awards for 2013 by the Board for 4) Badminton 5) None of these
Reconstruction of Public Sector Enterprises (BRPSE) 152. Who among the following has won the 2013 Singapore
recently. Which of the following PSUs in not among Grand Prix Formula One championship recently?
them? 1) Sebastian Vettel 2) Lewis Hamilton
1) SAIL Refractory Unit 3) Mark Webber 4) Fernando Alonso
2) National Project Construction Corporation Limited 5) None of these
3) National Film Development Corporation Limited 153. The country's first all-women bank Bharatiya Mahila
4) Bharat Coking Coal Limited Bank was launched on 19 Nov, which is the birth
5) Mahanagar Telephone Nigam Limited anniversary of
144. Which of the following countries has emerged as the 1) Indira Gandhi 2) Vijaya Lakshmi Pandit
most attractive investment destination in the world in 3) Annie Besant 4) Sarojini Naidu
a global survey of leading consultancy firm EY 5) None of these
recently? 154. As per the reports published in the financial
1) US 2) China newspapers recently, India's core sector grew by 8 per
3) Indonesia 4) India cent in the month of September, highest in last 11
5) South Africa months. Which of the following is not included in the
145. The panel headed by who among the following has eight core sector industries?
suggested that diesel prices should be hiked by `5 1) Cement 2) Automobiles
per litre, kerosene by `4 per litre and cooking gas (LPG) 3) Electricity production 4) Steel
rates by `250 per cylinder immediately to cut fuel 5) Crude oil
subsidy bill by `72,000 cr? 155. The four-member advisory committee set up by the
1) K Kasturirangan 2) Kirit S Parikh Reserve Bank of India to vet the new bank licence
3) Abhijit Sen 4) Narendra Jadhav applications is expected to complete the process in
5) BK Chaturvedi early 2014. Who among the following is heading the
146. Which of the districts in Kerala has become the first committee?
 1) Bimal Jalan 2) Nachiket Mor 160. In which of the following countries have 152 soldiers
3) D Subbarao 4) C Rangarajan been sentenced to death for 2009 mutiny in one of the
5) Y Venugopal Reddy world's biggest-ever mass criminal trials recently?
156. Consider the following statements with respect to the 1) Sri Lanka 2) Egypt 3) Bangladesh
recently launched India's first Mars Orbiter Mission 4) Indonesia 5) None of these
(MOM): 161. Indian soldiers participated in a 10-day anti-terror
(A) It was launched from the Satish Dhawan Space exercise codenamed 'Hand-in-Hand 2013' with the
Centre in Sriharikota. soldiers of which of the following countries recently?
(B) India's indigenous launch vehicle PSLV C25 carried 1) US 2) Russia 3) Israel
the MOM. 4) China 5) None of these
(C) After launch, the satellite is expected to go around 162. A new rule brought in by the ICC in the ODI matches
the Earth for 20-25 days, before embarking on a made ways for huge individual and team scores in the
nine-month voyage to the red planet. recently concluded India-Australia series. What is the
(D) India's `1000-cr MOM mission is the third in the rule?
world, after the US and Russia. 1) Having five fielders inside the circle at any point of
Which of the above statements is/are correct? time

K
1) Only (A) and (B) 2) Only (B) and (C) 2) Having five fielders outside the circle at any point
3) Only (A), (B) and (C) 4) Only (B), (C) and (D) of time
5) All (A), (B), (C) and (D) 3) Having four fielders inside the circle at any point
157. Which of the following terrorists, the head of Pakistan of time
Taliban, was killed recently in the drone attack by the 4) Having four fielders outside the circle at any point
US in Pakistan? of time
1) Abu Anas al-Libi 2) Hafiz Muhammad Saeed 5) None of these
3) Hakimullah Mehsud 4) Khan Syed Mehsud 163. What is the term used for the goods that are used in
5) None of these producing other goods, rather than being bought by
158. Which of the following Indian batsmen scored a double consumers?
century, only third in the ODIs till date, in the recently 1) White goods 2) Brown goods

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concluded India-Australia ODI series? 3) Capital goods 4) Utility goods
1) Virat Kohli 2) Mahendra Singh Dhoni 5) None of these
3) Rohit Sharma 4) Shikhar Dhawan 164. Consider the following with respect to RBI's decision
5) None of these to allow foreign banks to buy local lenders:
159. Nirupama Rao bid farewell to her diplomatic career (A) The RBI has proposed wholly-owned subsidiary
recently. She last served as India's envoy to which of route for foreign banks, as compared to existing
the following countries? branch model.
1) US 2) Sri Lanka 3) China (B) Currently, foreign investors can hold up to 100%
4) Brazil 5) None of these of a bank's stake both through foreign direct
 investment as well as portfolio investment, but 1) Venezuela 2) Bhutan 3) Cuba
no single entity can own more than 5% stake in a 4) Norway 5) Spain
local bank. 171. Six major central banks have announced to convert
(C) The initial minimum paid-up voting equity capital their "temporary bilateral liquidity swap
for a wholly-owned subsidiary is pegged at `500 arrangements" into standing arrangements to deal with
crore for new entrants. future global financial strains. Which of the following
(D) The priority sector lending requirement is kept at banks is NOT among them?
par with domestic banks, which is 40% of net 1) Bank of England 2) European Central Bank
adjusted bank credit (of previous year). 3) US Federal Reserve 4) Reserve Bank of India
Which of the above statements is/are correct? 5) The Bank of Japan
1) All the above 2) Only (A) and (C) 172. India suspended a two-decade-old tax benefits pact
3) Only (B) and (D) 4) Only (A), (C) and (D) with which of the following countries recently, saying
5) Only (B), (C) and (D) the European nation has "not been providing"
165. Consider the following with respect to the govt's information to authorities here that are trying to track
approval for the launch of a new Integrated Processing down black money?
Development Scheme (IPDS) for textile sector: 1) Croatia 2) Cyprus 3) Belgium
(A) The scheme has been launched to address the 4) Austria 5) None of these

K
environmental concerns faced by textile units. 173. Which of the following is correct with respect to the
(B) The scheme has been launched with a total cost recent policy review (29 Oct 2013) of the RBI?
of `1000 crore in the 12th Plan. 1) It allowed banks to pay interest on fixed deposits
(C) Under the scheme, four to six brownfield projects and bank accounts on a monthly or fortnightly basis
and three to five greenfield projects would be set given that the transition from current practice is
up. not mandatory.
Which of the above is NOT correct in this regard? 2) The RBI is in process to make the inflation index
1) Only (A) 2) Only (B) linked to the consumer price inflation (CPI).
3) Only (C) 4) Both (A) and (C) 3) The RBI advised the banks not to levy charges on
5) None of these SMS alerts.

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166. As per the figures released by the Union ministry of 4) All the above
communication and information technology, which of 5) Only 1) and 2)
the following states in India has the lowest overall 174. What is India's current ranking in the list of 189
teledensity in the country (just 34.33)? countries in the ease-of-doing-business report
1) Bihar 2) West Bengal 3) Uttar Pradesh released by the World Bank recently?
4) Odisha 5) None of these 1) 85 2) 110 3) 130 4) 134 5) None of these
167. Which of the following is the first country in South 175. India has developed a new tactical missile named
Asia to approve the cultivation of genetically modified 'Pragati' with a range of 60-170 km. The missile will be
food crops with approving the commercial cultivation offered to friendly countries and was on display at a
of transgenic Bt brinjal? defence exhibition in South Korea recently. It is a
1) India 2) Bangladesh 3) Pakistan 1) Surface-to-air missile
4) Myanmar 5) None of these 2) Surface-to-surface missile
168. The Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC) has got 3) Air-to-surface missile
its first female managing director (MD) recently. Who 4) Air-to-air missile
is she? 5) None of these
1) Vinita Bali 2) Usha Ananthasubramanian
3) Usha Sangwan 4) Usha Thorat
5) None of these
169. The Parliament of which of the following countries
has passed a new anti-terror bill that toughens
punishment for terrorism and requires terrorists'
relatives to pay for the damages caused in attacks?
1) France 2) UK 3) Australia
4) Russia 5) None of these
170. Which of the following countries has created a Social
Happiness ministry in an attempt to coordinate all the
programmes created to alleviate poverty?
176. What is the current repo rate after the Reserve Bank 184. Which of the following is the command to restart the
of India (RBI) raised it by 25 bps recently (29 Oct 2013)? computer?
1) 7.00 per cent 2) 7.25 per cent 3) 7.50 per cent 1) Ctrl+Z 2) Ctrl+Alt+Del
4) 7.75 per cent 5) None of these 3) Tab+Alt+Del 4) Shift+Ctrl+Tab
177. The US govt is likely to slap a fine of $35 million (`219 5) None of these
crore) on which of the following Indian information 185. When data changes in multiple lists and all lists are
technology companies over charges of inappropriate not updated, this causes
use of visitor visa for business purposes? 1) data redundancy 2) information overload
1) Wipro 2) Infosys 3) Tech Mahindra 3) duplicate data 4) data inconsistency
4) TCS 5) None of these 5) None of these
178. The Shyamal Sen Commission probing the collapse of 186. A dedicated computer is one
the Saradha collective investment scheme controversy 1) which is used by one person only.
has put the size of the scam at ________. 2) which is assigned one and only one task.
1) `1,200 crore 2) `1,620 crore 3) `2,060 crore 3) which uses one kind of software.
4) `2,206 crore 5) None of these 4) which is meant for application software.
179. Which of the following telecommunication companies 5) None of these

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is in process to raise its 64 per cent equity stake in its 187. Which of the following is not a part of the operating
Indian unit to 100 per cent investing `10,141 cr? system?
1) SingTel 2) Sistema 3) Maxis 1) Supervisor 2) Job-control program
4) Vodafone 5) None of these 3) I/O control program 4) Performance monitor
180. The United Nations General Assembly, for the 22nd 5) None of these
year in a row, has voted overwhelmingly to condemn 188. ________ is a system that pre-dates the World Wide
the US economic embargo against _______recently. Web for organising and displaying files on internet
1) Venezuela 2) Cambodia 3) Cuba servers.
4) Croatia 5) None of these 1) HTML 2) SGML 3) Telnet
4) Gopher 5) None of these
Test-V: Computer Knowledge 189. ESRB is a self-regulatory body established in 1994 to

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1) develop entertainment software
181. Which of the following is not a unit of measurement in 2) determine age-appropriate ratings for computer and
a computer system? video entertainment
1) DPI 2) PPI 3) API 4) Bd 5) MB 3) block inappropriate Web content from minors
182. The linking of computers with a communication 4) provide education
system is called 5) None of these
1) Networking 2) Pairing 3) Interlocking 190. ________ include(s) many different categories, such
4) Assembling 5) Sharing as action, puzzles, role-playing, sports, simulation,
183. Booting is a process to strategy, and virtual reality.
1) load DOS 2) Switch on the computer 1) Computer games 2) Video-editing software
3) load the memory 4) All the above 3) Image-editing software 4) Multimedia software
5) None of these 5) None of these
191. The term hypertext means 196. The Assistant is
1) non-sequential writing 1) an application that allows you to take notes and
2) hypermedia save them in a file.
3) blinking text 2) an animated character that provides help and
4) text with heavy formatting suggestions.
5) None of these 3) a button on the standard Toolbar that executes the
192. Programs used to create or modify bitmap images are print command.
called 4) a collection of frequently misspelt words in a
1) illustration programs 2) image editors dictionary file.
3) graphical modifiers 4) bit publishing packages 5) None of these
5) None of these 197. Hardware devices that are not part of the main
193. How many options does a binary choice offer? computer system and are often added later to the
1) None system are called
2) One 1) clip art 2) highlight 3) execute
3) Two 4) peripherals 5) None of these
4) It depends on the amount of memory on the 198. First RAM chip was introduced by which of the
computer. following?

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5) It depends on the speed of the processor of the 1) Microsoft 2) Intel 3) Dell
computer. 4) HP 5)Apple
194. To centre a paragraph using shortcut keys, press 199. Reel-to-reel tape drives are commonly used with
1) CTRL + C 2) CTRL + E 3) CTRL + L 1) mini computers 2) micro computers
4) CTRL + R 5) None of these 3) mainframe computers 4) laptops
195. ________ are attempts by individuals to obtain your 5) personal computers
confidential information by falsifying their identity. 200. Which piece of hardware protects the resource of a
1) Phishing trips 2) Computer viruses private network from other networks?
3) Special function cards 4) Scanners 1) Cache server 2) Proxy server 3) Firewall
5) Keyboards 4) Router 5) Bridge

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Answers
(1-6):
The machine arranges words and numbers in
the following manner:
Step I. The first two numbers are arranged
in ascending order from the left.
Step II. The first two words are arranged
according to the number of letters present in
the word.
This process follows in each alternate step
(7-10):
Date
23
24
25
26
27
28
Day
Wednesday
Thursday
Friday
Saturday
Sunday
Monday
Function
Drama

Debate
Singing

Dancing
Check for 2)

Hence, 2) follows.
Check for 3)

Hence, 3) does not follow.

14. 2;
until all the numbers and words are arranged. 15. 3;
Input: ice money 21 13 good 18 12 qualify 29 Tuesday Sports
35 eligible 41 browse candidates 10 30 Wednesday Painting
Step I: 10 12 ice money 21 13 good 18
7. 3 8. 1 9. 4 10. 3
qualify 35 eligible 41 browse candidates
11. 3; Given expression: Similarly,
Step II: ice good 10 12 money 21 13 18
qualify 35 eligible 41 browse candidates
Step III: 13 18 ice good 10 12 money 21
qualify 35 eligible 41 browse candidates We cant compare W and Y.
(16-22):
Step IV: money browse 13 18 ice good 10
12 21 qualify 35 eligible 41 candidates 12. 3;
Step V: 21 35 money browse 13 18 ice good
10 12 qualify eligible 41 candidates
Step VI: qualify eligible 21 35 money browse
13 18 ice good 10 12 41 candidates Thus, we cant compare A and O.
Step VII: 41 qualify eligible 21 35 money 13. 2; Check options one by one:
browse 13 18 ice good 10 12 candidates Check for 1)
Step VIII: candidates 41 qualify eligible 21
35 money browse 13 18 ice good 10 12
1. 3 2. 4 3. 4 4. 3 5. 1
6. 3 Hence, 1) does not follow.
 Family tree 644
36. 5; Now, price per kg = = `12.88
50
97. 4; Let the age of Ravi and Rohan be x
and y respectively.
x 1
Then, y =
3
37. 2; Rohan is Amans maternal uncles son. or, 3x = y ... (i)
16. 4 17. 2 18. 1 19. 4 20. 3 (38-40): After 12 years
21. 4 22. 1 x 12 5
23. 5; Some cakes are bread (I) + All breads y 12 = 11
are toffees (A) = I + A = I = Some cakes are 38. 3 39. 4 40. 2 11x 5y + 72 = 0 ... (ii)
toffees conversion Some toffees are 41. 3; Both 3 and 4 are quite close. But we go Solving (i) and (ii), we have
cakes. Hence, conclusion I follows. for 3 because it is more explanatory. x = 18, y = 54
Again, there is no negative statement. Hence 42. 2; Trade deficit is the difference between Difference = 54 18= 36 years
the possibility exists in II. imports and exports. 98. 5; Suppose previous selling price = `x
24. 1; There is no negative statement. So 43. 3; This one goes beyond the immediate
the possibility exists in I. Hence, conclusion x
scope of the given statement. Now, the later selling price = `
I follows. 44. 4; The symptoms given in the state- 3
Again, Some cakes are breads conversion There is loss of 25% when selling price
ment form a perfect recipe for shooing away
Some breads are cakes. Hence, conclusion x

K
the investors. is `
II does not follow. 45. 5 3
25. 3; No cabin is a room (E) + All rooms are 46. 1; Choice 2 is ruled out because an appeal x 100 100x 4 x
houses (A) = E + A = O* = Some houses are has been made to use one's "discretion to Cost price =
3 100 25 225 9
not cabins. But conclusion I and II make a balance work and passion".
complementary pair (I-E). Hence, either Now, when the selling price `x,
47. 1; (A) is the effect and not the cause. (C)
conclusion I or conclusion II follows. has nothing to do with PCs. But (B) seems to 4x
26. 1; No cabin is a room (E) + All rooms are be the probable cause quite obviously. If con- x
then the percentage profit = 9 100
houses (A) = E + A = O* = Some houses are sumers start buying less PCs, their shipments 4x
not cabins. Hence, conclusion I follows. are bound to decline. 9
Again, All rooms are houses conversion 48. 3; (B) may improve the quality of the 5x
Some houses are rooms. Hence, = 100 = 125%
faculty but won't address their shortage. (C) 4
conclusion II does not follow. will only aggravate the crisis. (A) will ad- Quicker Method:
27. 2; All ribbons are mats (A) + Some mats dress the shortage because "pay and perks"

KUNDAN
Reqd % profit = 100 3 % loss
are ropes (I) = A + I = No conclusion. Hence, are a great puller for human resources. ( Here, n = 3)
conclusion I does not follow. 49. 2; Choice 4 also weakens the argument 3 (100 x) 100 = 300 3x 100
Again, No rope is a thread conversion but not substantially so. Rajiv Gandhi re- = 200 3x
No thread is a rope. Hence, conclusion II ceived the Bharat Ratna only "a few months" = 200 3 % loss
follows. after his death. = 200 3 25 = 125%
28. 4; From I. Meena > Veena > Sunita, Naina 50. 4; This one is implicit in the reference 99. 1; Let the listed price be `x.
From II. Sunita > Meena > Naina, Veena to "rented crowd" and its relation to the first 35
From III. Veena > Sunita > Naina sentence. Then, x = 112
From I and III. 100
51. 3 52. 2 53. 1 54. 1 55. 5 or, x = 320
Meena > Veena > Sunita > Naina. 56. 2 57. 4 58. 3 59. 3 60. 2 So, the person bought the chair for
Hence, Naina is the youngest. 61. 4 62. 1 63. 5 64. 2 65. 3 320 112 = `208
29. 3; From I: 66. 2; Replace to with than 100. 4; Reqd answer
The woman in the photograph may be 67. 3; Replace it with they
Surajs wife or Surajs brothers wife. 120 120 120
68. 5 = 11500 = `19872
From II: Again, Surajs wife or Surajs 69. 4; Replace adverse with adversity 100 100 100
brothers wife. 70. 2; Replace get with got 100
From III: Suraj has no brother. 101. 4; Expenditure2011 = 91 = 65 lakh
71. 3 72. 1 73. 5 74. 2 75. 4 140
Hence, either I and III, or II and III are (76-80): DACEFB 115
required to reach a certain conclusion, viz 76. 4 77. 3 78. 5 79. 2 80. 1 102. 2; IA2008 = 60 = 69 lakh
100
the woman is Surajs wife. 81. 2 82. 1 83. 4 84. 3 85. 5
30. 5; From I. Vidyas salary is `100 more 86. 2 87. 4 88. 1 89. 3 90. 5 130
than Ranis. IB2009 = 60 = 78 lakh
91. 5; The series is 4 + 6, 6 + 9, 8 + 12, ... 100
From II. Sapna > Rani > Aman, Neelam 92. 5; The series is 113 11, 93 9, 73 9, ... Difference = 78 69 = 9 lakh
From III. Neelam > Aman 93. 1; The series is 3 2 1 1, 5 2 2 3,
Hence, all are not sufficient to answer the 72 3 5, 92 4 7, ... 35
103. 4; Reqd % = 100 175%
question. 94. 3; The series is 1 2 1, 3 4 2, 20
(31-34): 5 6 3, 7 8 4, 9 10 5, ...
100
95. 2; The series is 1 1 3 , 2 3 3 , 3 5 3 , 104. 3; E2011 = 91 = 65 lakh
4 73 , 5 93 , ... 140
96. 4;
100
31. 2 32. 3 33. 1 34. 2 CP = 20 9.5 + 30 9 = 190 + 270 = 460 And, E2012 = 91 = 70 lakh
130
35. 2; First is eaten by the second. 140
SP = 460 = 644 Total expenditure = 65 + 70 = 135 lakh
100
 120 9 1
105. 5; IA2013 = 45 = 54 lakh Star PlusMale = 14280 = 7560 122. 1; Pipe Y can fill of the tank in 1
100 17 20
Now, total number of viewers of Sahara minute.
100 3
EB2009 = 78 = 60 lakh 10 Pipe X will fill of the tank in 1 minute.
130 = 84000 = 8400 20
100
54 If both are opened together then in one
Reqd % = 100 = 90% 7560 7560 1 3
60 Reqd % = 100 = = 90% 1
8400 84 minute they will fill , ie of the
106. 4; 20 20 5
84000 8 ta nk .
( 22 18) 115. 2; MaleTotal = (12 + 18
100 21 So, they will take 5 minutes to fill the tank.
Reqd difference = 9500 = 380
100 7 5 9 3 16!
+ 19 + 17 + 10 + 24 123. 3; Reqd probability = 16 C 5 =
107. 2; Total number of students passed from 18 12 17 10 5! 11!
(8 24) 11 = 4368
School B and F together = 2400 ) 124. 1; n(S) = 16 C 3 = 560
100 24
= 24 32 = 768 32 95 n(E) = 4 C1 5 C1 7 C1 = 4 5 7 = 140
10 = 840 ( +7+ + 9 + 3 + 11)
108. 1; CApp = 9500 950 7 12 140 1
100 = 3840 + 5880 + 6650 + 7560 + 2520 + P(E) = =
560 4
12 9240 = 35690 125. 3; Let the speed of the man in still
CPass = 2400 = 288 Total number of females water be x kmph.
100
= 84000 35690 = 48310 Then, x + 5 2 = x 5 7

K
Number of failed students = 950 288 = 662 Difference = 48310 35690 = 12620 or, 2x + 10 7x + 35 = 0
22 (116-120): or, 5x = 45
109. 5; DApp = 9500 = 2090
100 or, x = 9
21 126. 3; I. x2 + 3x 40 = 0
DPass = 2400 = 504 or, x2 + 8x 5x 40 = 0
100
or, x(x + 8) 5(x + 8) = 0
DFail = 2090 504 = 1586 or, (x 5) (x + 8) = 0
Reqd difference = 1586 504 = 1082 or, x = 5, 8
20 20 II. y2 14y + 48 = 0
110. 1; EFail = 9500 2400
or, y2 6y 8y + 48 = 0
100 100
= 1900 480 = 1420 x + k = 197 (40 + 49) = 108 ... (i) or, y(y 6) 8(y 6) = 0
Total appeared students = 9500 y + k = 207 (40 + 35) = 132 ... (ii) or, (y 6) (y 8) = 0
z + k = 268 (49 + 35) = 184 ... (iii) or, y = 6, 8

KUNDAN
1420 x + y + z + k = 500 (40 + 49 + 35) Hence, x < y
Reqd % = 100 = 14.94 15%
9500 = 376 ... (iv) 127. 2; I. x2 + x 2 = 0
Now, equation (i) + (ii) + (iii) equation (iv) or, x2 + 2x x 2 = 0
18 7 gives or, x(x + 2) 1(x + 2) = 0
111. 2; ZeeMale = 84000 = 5880
100 18 k = 24 or, (x 1) (x + 2) = 0
x = 84, y = 108 and z = 160 x = 1, 2
112. 3; Reqd difference
116. 2; Number of students who cleared all II. y2 + 5y + 6 = 0
24 13 11 the three state-level exams = 24 or, y2 + 2y + 3y + 6 = 0
= 84000 = 1680
100 24 84 or, y(y + 2) + 3(y + 2) = 0
117. 3; Reqd % = 100 = 16.8% or, (y + 2) (y + 3) = 0
18 11 500
113. 1; ZeeF = 84000 = 9240 118. 1; Reqd number of students or, y = 2, 3
100 18
= 40 + 49 + 35 + 24 = 148 Hence, x y
Total number of viewers of all channels
together = 84000 148
119. 5; Reqd % = 100 = 29.6% 128. 3; eqn (I) 8 eqn (II) 7
9240 100 500
56x 40y 88
Reqd % = = 11% 120. 4; Reqd number of students
84000 = 84 + 108 + 160 = 352 49y 56x 357
114. 5; Total number of viewers of Star Plus
110 112 89 y 445
17 121. 2; CI = 77500 77500
= 84000 = 14280 100 100 or, y = 5 and x = 2
100
= 95480 77500 = `17980 Hence, x < y
129. 4; I. x2 = 49
or, x = +7, 7 137. 4;
II. y2 16y + 13 = 0
or, y2 7y 9y + 63 = 0
or, y(y 7) 9(y 7) = 0
or, (y 7) (y 9) = 0
or, y = 7, 9
Hence, x y
Area of A1KND1 = 61 3 = 183 sq m
130. 1; I. 2x2 + 13x + 21 = 0
Area of KABL = 80 3 = 240 sq m
or, 2x2 + 6x + 7x + 21 = 0
Area of path = 2(183 + 240) = 846 sq m
or, 2x(x + 3) + 7(x + 3) = 0
138. 3; Quicker Method: (see rule on page
or, (2x + 7) (x + 3) = 0
562 in Practice Book Quicker Maths)
7 Reqd % decrease in width
or, x = , 3
2 Difference in length and breadth
II. 2y2 + 16y + 11y + 88 = 0 =
100+x
or, 2y(y + 8) + 11(y + 8) = 0
or, (2y + 11) (y + 8) = 0 4012
= 100 20%
11 100+40
or, y = 8,
2 5292 ?
Hence, x > y 139. 1;
? 3072

K
955 or, ?2 = 5292 3072 = (441 12) (256
131. 3; ? = 845 6 12) = 144 256 441
100
or, ? = 12 16 21 = 4032
= 8069.75 6 = 48418.5 48420 140. 2; There are six letters in the word
15605 15600 EUROPA, in which four are vowels. If we
132. 2; ? = = 57.77 58 consider all the vowels as a single letter, then
269 270
3984.75 100 4 total letters will be 2 + 1 = 3
133. 3; ? = = 15180 These three letters can be arranged in 3P3 =
35 3
3! ways and all the fours vowels can be
100 24.89 arranged in 4! ways among themselves.
134. 4; ? = % of 7810 5326
3 100 Total number of ways = 3! 4! = 6 24
100 25 = 144
= 7800 5326

KUNDAN
141. 1 142. 1 143. 5 144. 4 145. 2
3 100 100
146. 3 147. 4 148. 4 149. 4 150. 3
= 2600 + 1331.5 = 3931.5 3930 151. 3 152. 1 153. 1 154. 2 155. 1
1.7 156. 3 157. 3 158. 3 159. 1 160. 3
135. 3; ? = 34
0.05 161. 4 162. 1 163. 3 164. 4 165. 2
136. 2; Let the length of the park be x metres. 166. 3 167. 2 168. 3 169. 4 170. 1
171. 4 172. 2 173. 5 174. 4 175. 2
10 10 x
Width = x = 176. 4 177. 2 178. 3 179. 4 180. 3
21 21 181. 3 182. 1 183. 1 184. 2 185. 4
10x 186. 2
Area = x = 3360 187. 4; Operating system does not measure
21
21 performance.
or, x2 = 3360 = 7056 188. 4 189. 2 190. 1 191. 1 192. 2
10
193. 3 194. 2 195. 1 196. 2 197. 4
or, x = 84
198. 2
Hence, length = x = 84m
199. 3; Reel-to-reel tape is one of the basic
10 tape mechanisms mainly used in mainframe
and width = 84 = 40 metres
21 computers.
Difference = 84 40 = 44 metres 200. 3
PRACTICE SET

IBPS PO-CWE
8. Who among the following is sitting between B and
Test-I: Reasoning Ability W?
1) A 2) C and D 3) C
1. Y is to the west of X and north of W. R is to the 4) A and D 5) None of these
southeast of Y and to the northwest of Q, who is to 9. Who among the following sits third to the right of Z?
the east of W. R is in which direction of W? 1) A 2) C 3) W
1) South 2) West 3) Northeast 4) D 5) None of these
4) Cant be determined 5) None of these 10. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word
2. Among Q, P, L, M and N, each scores a different marks. UBIQUITOUS each of which has as many letters
P scores more than only L and N and less than M and between them in the word as in the English alphabetical

K
Q. Who scores the highest marks? series?
1) Q 2) M 3) N 1) None 2) One 3) Two
4) Data inadequate 5) None of these 4) Three 5) None of these
Directions (Q. 3-4): Study the following information Directions (Q. 11-15): Study the following information
carefully and answer the given questions. carefully to answer the given questions.
R5 8 E %M F4 J I U@ H2 9 T 1 6 W3 P# A word and number arrangement machine when given
3. What will come in place of question mark (?) in the an input line of words and numbers rearranges them
following series based on the above arrangement? following a particular rule in each step. The following is an
8% E FJ4 UH@ ? illustration of the input and its rearrangement.
1) 9T 2) T9 3) 9T Input: site 72 easy owl 28 11 pull 81 40 cut
4) 2T 5) None of these

KUNDAN
Step I: easy site 72 owl 28 pull 81 40 cut 11
4. Which of the following is fifth to the left of the Step II: easy owl site 72 pull 81 40 cut 11 28
eighteenth from the left end of the above arrangement? Step III: easy owl cut site 72 pull 81 11 28 40
1) @ 2) 3) H 4) 2 5) None of these Step IV: easy owl cut pull site 81 11 28 40 72
Directions (Q. 5-9): Study the following information Step V: easy owl cut pull site 11 28 40 72 81
carefully and answer the given questions. Step V is the last step of the above input. As per the
A, Z, B, C, D, W, X and Y are eight friends sitting rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of
around a square table, two on each side. All of them are the following questions, the appropriate step for the
facing away from the centre and each is opposite another. given input below and answer the questions based
There are three female members and they are not seated on it.
next to one another. Input: curtail 53 vitiate 49 33 artifice 45 aptitude 23 ice
X sits between D and Z. Y is a female member who sits 69 entourage bevy
second to the left of X. Z is not a female member but sits 11. How many steps will be required to complete the
opposite A, who is a female. C sits third to the left of W and arrangement of the above input?
is not a male member. 1) Four 2) Five 3) Six
5. Who among the following sits on the immediate left of 4) Seven 5) None of these
Z? 12. What will be the position of 69 in Step IV?
1) W 2) X 3) Y 4) B 5) None of these 1) 9th from the left 2) Fifth from the right
6. Which of the following statements is true about W 3) Extreme left 4) Extreme right
and X? 5) None of these
1) Both are opposite each other. 13. Which step would be the following output?
2) Both are males. aptitude artifice entourage curtail 53 vitiate 49 ice 69
3) W is a female but X is a male. bevy 23 33 45
4) Both are females. 1) IV 2) V 3) VI 4) III 5) VII
5) None of these 14. Which word/number would be at the 9th position from
7. Which of the following groups includes only females? the right end in Step V?
1) YAW 2) ACB 3) XYZ 1) curtail 2) vitiate 3) bevy
4) ACY 5) None of these 4) 53 5) 49
15. Which of the following steps would be the last step
but one?
1) V 2) VI 3) VII 4) IV 5) None of these
Directions (Q. 16-20): Study the following information
carefully and answer the given questions.
PK, SP, RJ, MP, DK, SK and AK are seven shopkeepers
of different shops, viz Grocery, Cosmetics, Clothes,
Footwear, Gift items, Watches and Mobile phones. They
go to supermarkets, viz. Big Bazaar, Max, Reliance Trends
and EasyDay only on Sunday but not necessarily in the
same order. At least one shopkeeper goes to one
supermarket, but no super market is visited by more than
two shopkeepers.
SK, who is a shopkeeper of Clothes, goes alone to
Reliance Trends.
The one who is a shopkeeper of Footwear does not
1) AK and DK 2) Only MP 3) PK and SP
4) Only SK 5) None of these
Directions (Q. 21-25): In the following questions, the
symbols #, $, %, A, and @ are used with the following
meanings as illustrated below:
Q # P means Q is not greater than P.
Q $ P means Q is neither smaller than nor equal to P.
Q % P means Q is neither smaller nor greater than P.
Q P means Q is neither greater than nor equal to P.
Q @ P means Q is not smaller than P.
Now in each of the following questions, assuming the
given statements to be true, find which of the two
conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely true
and give your answers accordingly. Mark answer
1) if only conclusion I is true.
2) if only conclusion II is true.

K
go to Big Bazaar. Also, he never goes either with DK 3) if either conclusion I or II is true.
or with AK. 4) if neither conclusion I nor II is true.
MP goes to EasyDay with the person who is the 5) if both conclusions I and II are true.
shopkeeper of Mobile phones. 21. Statements: Z # Y, Y % X, XW
RJ goes to Max. AK is not a shopkeeper of Mobile Conclusions: I. X @ Z II. Z # W
phones. 22. Statements: K $ J, J @ H, H% I
The one who is the shopkeeper of Footwear goes to Conclusions: I. K @ I II. I $ J
the market with the person who is the shopkeeper of 23. Statements: D C, C # B, B$A
Grocery. Conclusions: I. D A II. D @ A
The one who is the shopkeeper of Gift items goes to 24. Statements: T @ S, S $ Q, Q%P

KUNDAN
EasyDay. Conclusions: I. P T II. Q T
PK is a shopkeeper of neither Cosmetics nor Mobile 25. Statements: M @ N, N $ K, K#G
phones. Conclusions: I. G # M II. K M
The one who is the shopkeeper of Watches goes to Directions (Q. 26-30): Study the following information
Big Bazaar neither with DK nor with MP. carefully and answer the given questions.
The person who is the shopkeeper of Cosmetics goes Q, P, L, N, Y, R and K are seven students in a classroom.
to the supermarket with PK. They sit on three benches A, B and C. There are at least
16. PK goes which of the following supermarkets? two students on each bench and only one girl on each
1) EasyDay 2) Max 3) Big Bazaar bench. L, who is a girl, does not sit with Q, Y or N. R is a
4) Reliance Trends 5) None of these boy and sits only with P. Q sits on the bench A with his
17. Which of the following statements is/are not true? best friend. K sits on the bench C. Y is brother of L.
I. MP is a shopkeeper of Mobile phones and goes to
EasyDay.
II. RJ is a shopkeeper of Footwear and goes to Big
Bazaar.
1) Both I and II 2) Neither I nor II 3) Either I or II
4) Only I 5) Only II
18. Who among the following is shopkeeper of Gift items?
1) SP 2) MP 3) SK 4) PK 5) None of these
19. Which of the following statements is definitely
incorrect?
1) RJ is a shopkeeper of Footwear.
2) DK is a shopkeeper of Mobile phones.
3) AK is shopkeeper of Grocery.
4) All are incorrect
5) None of these
20. Big Bazaar is visited by which of the following
person(s)?
26. On which of the following benches do three students 33. Conclusions: I. No newspaper is a magazine.
sit? II. At least some newspapers are
1) Either A or C 2) A 3) C magazines.
4) Either B or A 5) None of these 34. Conclusions: I. Some radios are not magazines.
27. Which of the following pairs sits on the bench C? II. No radio is a magazine.
1) L and K 2) R and P 3) Y and L 35. Statements: All boxes are pens.
4) Q and Y 5) None of these Some boxes are jugs.
28. Which of the following is the group of girls? Some jugs are glasses.
1) P, N, L 2) N, L, R 3) L, P, N Conclusions: I. At least some glasses are boxes.
4) N, Y, K 5) None of these II. No glass is a box.
29. N sits with which of the following? Directions (Q. 36-40): In each of the following
1) K, L 2) P, R 3) Q, R questions, a question is followed by three statements. You
4) Y, Q 5) None of these have to decide the information given in which of the
30. How many boys are there in the group of students? statements is necessary and sufficient to answer the
1) Three 2) Four 3) Five question.
4) Either 3) or 4) 5) Cant be determined 36. What does are represent in a code language?

K
Direction (Q. 31-35): In each question below are given
three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I
and II. You have to take the given statements to be true
even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known
facts and then decide which of the given conclusions
logically follows from the given statements, disregarding
commonly known facts. Give answer
1) if only conclusion I follows.
2) if only conclusion II follows.
3) if either conclusion I or conclusion II follows.
4) if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows.
I. pi na ta means are you fine in that code language.
II. ja ti da means we like tea in that code language.
III.na da ra means we are going in that code
language.
1) Only I and II 2) Only II and III 3) Only I and III
4) All I, II and III 5) None of these
37. How many sons does P have?
I. I and G are daughters of P.
II. J and F are brothers of G.
III.I is sister of K and F.

KUNDAN
1) Only I and II 2) Only II and III
5) if both conclusions I and II follow. 3) All I, II and III 4) Data inadequate
31. Statements: Some doors are windows. 5) None of these
All windows are beds. 38. How is S related to U?
Some beds are chairs. I. S is the only brother of his sister and father of V.
Conclusions: I. Some windows are chairs. II. U is grandfather of I and has three children.
II. Some doors are beds. III.I is sister of V.
32. Statements: All trolleys are pulleys. 1) Only I and III 2) Only II and III
Some pulleys are chains. 3) All I, II and III 4) Data inadequate
All chains are bells. 5) None of these
Conclusions: I. Some pulleys are bells. 39. At what time did Rishika leave her home for office?
II. All chains are pulleys. I. Rishikas car reached office at 10 : 05 am.
(33-34): II. She received a phone call at 9 : 00 am at her home.
Statements: No television is a magazine. III.Rishika takes only 45 minutes to reach her office
Some magazines are radios. after leaving her home.
Some radios are newspapers. 1) Only I and II 2) All I, II and III 3) Only III
4) Only I and III 5) None of these
40. Among A, B, C, D and E sitting around a circle, who is
second to the right of C?
I. A is second to the left of C and on the immediate
right of D.
II. D is second to the right of E.
III.C is not facing the centre.
1) Only I and II
2) Only II and III
3) All I, II and III are not sufficient
4) All I, II and III are sufficient
5) None of these
41. Most Indians get serious about retirement savings
only in their 40s.
Which of the following may not be a probable reason
for the above phenomenon?
1) A number of them do not have high incomes in
their early years.
2) A number of them make wrong investment choices.
3) A number of them suffer financial setbacks.
4) A number of them don't believe in the power of
compounding.
5) None of these
42. A strict guideline has asked party leaders and state
officials in China to limit banquets to 'four courses
and one soup' and refrain from using official funds for
private parties and accepting gifts from businessmen
and such like.
K
Which of the following can be the best possible reason
for the issuing of this guideline?
1) The Chinese leadership faces criticism from foreign
businessmen and investors about corrupt party
leaders and government officials.
2) China today has a burgeoning affluent and urban
middle class that is increasingly forthcoming with
its opinions.
3) The weibos have become a major source of
commentary on a wide range of issues, especially
KUNDAN
on corruption political, social, economic and
cultural.
4) Chinese leaders and bureaucrats have not been
keeping fit recently.
5) None of these
43. India has a large number of 'closet consumers' these
are consumers who may well have the capacity to
spend on luxury in terms of income levels but due to
an inherent conflict between their values and those
that luxury brands are seen as espousing, their
consumption of luxury is restricted or at a much lower
level than potential.
Which of the following is a course of action marketers
should take?
1) The focus should be on luxury cars and other
products that are catchier than luxury services and
assets.
2) They should ask the government to increase tax
on the rich.
3) They should ask the government to decrease tax
on conspicuous consumption.
4) They should try to change the perception of what
constitutes luxury.
5) None of these
44. Bank X has declared Company Y a wilful defaulter on
the charge that it was diverting funds.
Which of the following is a follow-up measure the
bank can take?
1) It can open a dialogue with the company.
2) It can go for forensic audit to determine the actual
siphoning off of funds.
3) It can file a complaint with the Central Bureau of
Investigation to look into the matter.
4) It can write off the losses incurred in this regard.
5) None of these
45. India's top-listed real estate firms have reported a sharp
drop in sales recently.
Which of the following would weaken the finding in
the above statement?
1) The houses are too steeply priced.
2) There is an air of economic uncertainty engulfing
the country.
3) The real estate developers have been offering
heavy discounts.
4) There have not been too many launches of late.
5) None of these
Directions (Q. 46-50): These questions are based on
the information given below and the sentences labelled
(A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) given after them:
Recent research shows that, despite the younger
generation's supposed egalitarian values and ready
acceptance of workplace diversity, women from leading
MBA programmes continue to be offered lower salaries
and to progress less rapidly in their careers than their male
colleagues.
(A) Companies may not be able to exploit their true
potential.
(B) Family rearing continues to be in women's domain.
(C) Though both Mahesh and Ranjana joined a
company together, Ranjana earns less.
(D) Egalitarianism consists in making no
discrimination on the basis of sex.
(E) Egalitarianism in the corporate world is rather
theoretical.
(F) Women have access to quality education.
46. Which of the following statements is/are an
inference(s) (an inference is something that is not
directly stated but that can be inferred from the
passage) probably true on the basis of the information
given above?
1) Only C 2) Only F 3) Only B and C
4) Only C and E 5) Only D
47. Which of the following statements is/are an
inference(s) (an inference is something that is not
directly stated but that can be inferred from the
passage) definitely true on the basis of the information
given above?
1) Only B 2) Only C and E 3) Only E
4) Only C 5) Only D and E
48. Which of the following statements has been assumed
in the information given above? (An assumption is
something supposed or taken for granted.)
 1) Only D 2) Only D and F 3) Only F
4) Only B and F 5) Only C
49. Which of the following is a disadvantage(s) of the
phenomenon reported in the given information?
1) Only A 2) Only B 3) Only A and B
4) Only E 5) Only C and E
50. Which of the following represents a reason(s) for the
disadvantage women are facing?
1) Only A 2) Only A and B 3) Only B
4) Only C and D 5) Only A and E
Test-II: English Language
Directions (Q. 51-65): Read the passage carefully
and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/
phrases are given in bold to help you locate them while
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answering some of the questions.
For a look at what climate change could do to the
world's food supply, consider what the weather did to the
American Corn Belt last year.
At the beginning of 2012, the Agriculture Department
projected the largest corn crop in the country's history.
But then a savage heat wave and drought struck over the
summer. Plants withered, prices spiked, and the final harvest
came in 27 per cent below the forecast.
The situation bore a striking resemblance to what
happened in Europe in 2003, after a heat wave cut
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agricultural production for some crops by as much as 30
per cent and sent prices soaring.
Several researchers concluded that the European heat
wave was made more likely by human-caused climate
change; scientists are still arguing over the 2012 heat blast
in the United States. Whatever their origin, heat waves like
these give us a taste of what could be in store in a future
with global warming.
"The negative impacts of global climate change on
agriculture are only expected to get worse," said a report
earlier this year from researchers at the London School of
Economics and a Washington think tank, the Information
Technology & Innovation Foundation. The report cited a
need for "more resilient crops and agricultural production
systems than we currently possess in today's world".
This may be the greatest single fear about global
warming: that climate change could so destabilise the
world's food system as to lead to rising hunger or even
mass starvation. A leaked draft of a report by the United
Nations climate committee, known as the Intergovernmental
Panel on Climate Change, suggested that the group's
concerns have grown, and that the report, scheduled for
release in March, is likely to contain a sharp warning about
risks to the food supply.
The tone is strikingly different from that of a report
from the same group in 2007, which discussed some risks,
but saw global warming as likely to benefit agriculture in
many important growing regions.
In the years since, new scientific research has checked
those assumptions.
For one, a group of young scientists has pioneered
more sophisticated ways of analysing the relationship
between agriculture and climate. People like David Lobell
at Stanford and Wolfram Schlenker at Columbia have used
elaborate statistical techniques to get a detailed picture of
what heat does to crop yields.
Their work suggests that rising heat stress in some
major growing areas is already putting a drag on production,
and raises the possibility of much more serious effects as
global warming continues.
Scientists had long hoped that the effect of heat and
water stress on crops might be offset by the very thing
driving global warming: the sharp increase of carbon
dioxide in the air. The gas is the main food supply for plants,
and a large body of evidence suggested that the ongoing
rise could boost crop yields.
But a lot of that evidence came from tests in artificial
environments like greenhouses. Younger scientists, who
insisted on testing crops in open-air conditions more
closely resembling the real world, found that the bump in
yield, while certainly real, was not as high as expected.
And it may not be high enough to offset other stresses
from global warming.
The good news is that agriculture has a tremendous
capacity to adapt to new conditions, including a warming
climate. Crops can be planted earlier, and new varieties
that are more resistant to climate stress can be developed.
"Our past successes in agriculture have lulled many
of those in decisionmaking positions into a false sense of
security," said LVal Giddings, a fellow with the Washington
think tank and a co-author of its report. "It's been so long
since any of them were actually hungry."
51. Why did the final harvest in 2012 come to a remarkably
lower level than what was forecast by the Agriculture
Department?
(A) Heavy rainfall and flood caused severe harm to
the crops.
(B) A heat wave and drought led the plants to wither
away.
(C) A severe cold wave during the winter damaged
the plants to a great deal.
1) Only (A) 2) Only (B) 3) Only (C)
4) Only (A) and (B) 5) All (A), (B) and (C)
52. What did the research report from London School of
Economics say about the impacts of global climate
change on agriculture?
1) There will be bumper crops in years to come.
2) There will be quantitative increase but qualitative
deterioration in crops.
3) Global climate change will have adverse effect on
agriculture.
 4) There is a need for more resilient crops and 3) Artificial environment and open-air condition
agricultural production systems. produced different crop yields.
5) Only 3) and 4) 4) In artificial environment the rate of photosynthesis
53. What is/are the greatest single fear about climate was at optimum level whereas in open-air condition
change? Give your answer in the context of the given the rate of photosynthesis varied throughout the
passage. growing season.
1) Climate change will result in large - scale global 5) None of these
changes in natural and social system. 58. Which of the following gases is responsible for food
2) Climate change will result in the extinction of many supply for plants?
species. 1) Methane 2) Nitrogen
3) Climate change will destablise the worlds food 3) Carbon dioxide 4) Ozone
system and may lead to rising hunger or even mass 5) All the above
starvation. 59. Which of the following is not true about agriculture?
4) Climate change will cause increased malnutrition (A) Agriculture cannot withstand warming climate.
and increased health impacts. (B) Climate-resistant varieties of crops cannot be
5) All the above developed by any means.

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54. What had the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate (C) Agriculture has a huge capacity to adapt to new
Change assumed about the effect of global warming conditions.
in 2007? 1) Only (A) and (B) 2) Only (B) and (C)
(A) That global warming would harm agriculture only 3) Only (A) and (C) 4) Only (B)
in the tropical region 5) All (A), (B) and (C)
(B) That global warming would help agriculture in a Directions (Q. 60-62): Choose the word/group of
lot of important growing regions words which is MOST SIMILAR in meaning to the word/
(C) That global warming is harmful in coastal areas group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.
but beneficial in hilly regions 60. Spiked
1) Only (A) 2) Only (B) 1) projected 2) peaked 3) declined

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3) Only (C) 4) Only (A) and (B) 4) pierced 5) developed
5) Only (B) and (C) 61. Soaring
55. Which of the following is/are the outcome(s) of the 1) dropping 2) slumping 3) escalating
research work of young scientists David Lobell and 4) bitter 5) cutting
Wolfram Schelenker? 62. Resilient
1) That global warming is a temporary phenomenon 1) versatile 2) skilful 3) flexible
and will have little effect on crops in desert regions 4) delicate 5) resistant
2) That the rising heat stress in some major growing Directions (Q. 63-65): Choose the word/group of
areas is putting a drag on production words which is MOST OPPOSITE in meaning of the word/
3) That global warming will have harmful effects on group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.
such crops as are grown in the winter season. 63. Sophisticated
4) That global warming has no effect on the 1) artificial 2) simple 3) cultivated
troposphere 4) experienced 5) sauve
5) All the above 64. Boost
56. What was the reason of soaring prices of crops in 1) discourage 2) improve 3) upgrade
Europe in 2003? 4) raise 5) lessen
1) Rising inflation across the globe 65. Lulled
2) Cyclonic storms which completely destroyed the 1) encouraged 2) qualified 3) pacified
standing crops 4) cooled 5) quelled
3) Heat wave Directions (Q. 66-70): Read the passage carefully
4) Heavy rainfall during crop seasons and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/
5) None of these phrases are given in bold to help you locate them while
57. What was the reason for the difference between the answering some of the questions.
expected and actual results of crop yields? A sharp and unexpected increase in inflation based
1) The increase in CO2 level was not so high as it was on the wholesale price index underlines the need for the
expected. RBI to put in place a framework for delivering low and
2) It was a factual mistake to assume that the rise in stable inflation. There has been a discernible shift in policy
gas level would boost crop yields. in the two months since Raghuram Rajan joined as governor
 the RBI appears to be moving towards becoming a
modern central bank that has price stability as its main
objective. Important steps have been taken but these need
to be institutionalised so that Rajan's legacy is assessed
not merely in terms of how well the RBI does under him,
but by whether or not he leaves behind a reformed
institution.
In the immediate context, Rajan needs to use each and
every opportunity to emphasise price stability or inflation
control as the single most important objective of monetary
policy. This is required because of the enormous confusion
in the past, with the RBI raising interest rates in periods of
high inflation, but in between rate hikes, failing to commu-
nicate its policy to the public. A new and clearer approach
is called for. Rajan has made a good beginning but he will
have to be careful not to fall into the trap many an emerging
68. Find the incorrect statement on the basis of the given
passage.
1) To fulfil secondary objectives such as employment,
an accountable framework needs to be put in place.
2) To bring about a change in the framework, the RBI
needs to be given independence, accountability
and a clear mandate.
3) The old policy makers will be enthused to see the
RBI change.
4) It is innate nature of all bureaucracies to oppose
institutional change.
5) None of these
69. The inflation here is based on which of the following
measures?
1) Consumer Price Index
2) Wholesale Price Index

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economy's central banker has fallen into of worrying 3) Cash Reserve Ratio
about the short-term movements of the rupee. 4) Economic growth rate
In the longer run, the institutional framework for an 5) Current account deficit
inflation-targeting central bank must be clarified. Whether 70. What is the meaning of the word hostage as used in
the RBI should focus only on inflation or on another the given passage?
secondary objective as well for instance, employment, 1) host 2) guest 3) offender
like the US Fed does must be determined. A measurable 4) captive 5) opponent
objective will allow an accountable framework to be put in Directions (Q. 71-75): Read each sentence to find out
place. The RBI will then need to be given independence, whether there is any grammatical or idiomatic error in it.
accountability and a clear mandate. There is no doubt that The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The
old-timers in policymaking, who have managed well within

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number of that part is the answer. If there is No error,
the current mandate, will be reluctant to see the RBI change. the answer is 5). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)
Governors and deputy governors, retired and serving, have 71. 1) There is a growing buzz that Vahanvati is / 2) seeking
often stood for the status quo and resisted loss of turf. But a suitable diplomatic assignment in abroad / 3) or a
opposing institutional change is the nature of all berth in / 4) the Rajya Sabha in good time. / 5) No error
bureaucracies and India cannot be held hostage to that
approach. In the next five years, if Rajan transforms the
way the RBI functions, and leaves behind a modern and
well-functioning central bank, it would help prepare India
for the fluctuations in growth and the business cycle and
for the pressures of globalisation in the coming decades.
66. According to the author of the passage, what
precaution should the governor take?
(A) He should not let the deputy governor take any
financial decision without his consent.
(B) He should not worry about the short-term
movements of the rupee.
(C) He should not pay heed to the unwanted advice
of the Finance Minister.
1) Only (A) 2) Only (B) 3) Only (C)
4) Only (A) and (B) 5) Only (B) and (C)
67. What is the main objective of the RBI governor in the
immediate context?
1) To contain inflation
2) To cut prime lending rate
3) To attract foreign direct investment (FDI)
4) To compete rupee with dollar
5) All the above
72. 1) The Indian Space Research Organisation mission 78. Which of the following would be the THIRD sentence
to / 2) the mysterious red planet is an ambitious attempt after rearrangement?
/ 3) to demonstrate its technological capability / 4) to 1) B 2) A 3) F
conduct a deep space mission. / 5) No error 4) E 5) D
73. 1) The most remarkable thing about the recent cyclone, 79. Which of the following would be the LAST (SIXTH)
Phailin, / 2) which striked Gopalpur in Odisha on sentence after rearrangement?
October 12 / 3) and caused widespread destruction in 1) B 2) C 3) D
the coastal areas, / 4) was the minimal loss of human 4) E 5) F
lives. / 5) No error 80. Which of the following would be the FOURTH
74. 1) The growing number of clashes between officers sentence after rearrangement?
and Jawans indicates / 2) a serious crisis in the Indian 1) E 2) F 3) A
Army / 3) which has resulted from the prolong apathy 4) B 5) C
/ 4) of the military and political leadership. / 5) No error Directions (Q. 81-90): In the following passage, some
75. 1) China and Japan are locked in / 2) an acrimonious of the words have been left out, each of which is indicated
dispute over a group of small islands / 3) in East China by a number. Find the suitable word from the options given
Sea known as / 4) Senkaku in Japan and Diaoyu in against each number and fill up the blanks with

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China. / 5) No error
Directions (Q. 76-80): Rearrange the following six
sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper
sequence to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer
the questions given below.
(A) On the advice of the Technical Advisory
Committee on Child Labour, the government in
September, 2008, notified inclusion of one
Occupation and eight Processes in the list of
Hazardous Occupations and Processes.
appropriate words to make the paragraph meaningful.
The Sardar Patel Memorial Trust in Ahmedabad is in
the news as PM Manmohan Singh and Modi (81) the
function to honour Indias Iron Man on the premises. The
Shahibaug building, in which the trust is (82), has a (83)
history. It was once the palace of Shah Jahan and it was
rumoured that in its underground passages there was a
tunnel which (84) from Ahmedabad to Delhi. During British
rule, the palace was extended to make it a (85) for senior
civil servants and it (86) became the governors residence.

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(B) The Act also regulates employment of children in Rabindranath Tagore wrote his short story, The Hungry
non-hazardous occupations and processes. Stones while staying there. (87), the palace should have
(C) Further, on the recommendations of the Technical been handed over to the ASI. Instead, as Gujarat CM,
Advisory Committee on Child Labour, the Babubhai Patel donated the building to the Sardar Patel
government has shown its intention, vide Memorial Trust, of which he (88) to be a trustee. The trust
notification dated 7th June 2010, to add two more has shown no concern for (89) the buildings past and has
occupations, viz Circus and Caring of Elephants, (90) the interiors with a series of wooden partitions to
to the Schedule listing to occupations where make a maze of rooms.
employment of children is prohibited. 81. 1) witnessed 2) presented 3) accompanied
(D) As per the Child Labour (Prohibition & 4) escorted 5) attended
Regulation) Act, employment of children below 82. 1) residing 2) housed 3) chambered
the age of 14 years is prohibited in notified 4) sheltered 5) seated
hazardous occupations and processes. 83. 1) big 2) tall 3) enlarged
(E) Some of the important prohibited occupations and 4) long 5) broad
processes are carpet weaving, building and 84. 1) encircle 2) goes 3) stretched
construction work, brick kilns, production of 4) spread 5) covered
hosiery goods etc. 85. 1) residency 2) home 3) college
(F) There are at present 16 hazardous occupations 4) buildings 5) place
and 65 processes, where employment of children 86. 1) thereby 2) latter 3) after
is prohibited. 4) later 5) then
76. Which of the following would be the FIRST sentence 87. 1) Psychologically 2) Logically 3) Physically
after rearrangement? 4) Absolutely 5) Firmly
1) F 2) A 3) B 88. 1) likes 2) become 3) had
4) C 5) D 4) was 5) happened
77. Which of the following would be the SECOND 89. 1) removing 2) reforming 3) preserving
sentence after rearrangement? 4) collecting 5) reserving
1) E 2) D 3) C 90. 1) mutilated 2) disturbed 3) deformed
4) B 5) A 4) decayed 5) rotten
 104. There are 6 boys and 6 girls. They sit in a row
Test-III: Quantitative Aptitude randomly. What is the probability that all the girls sit
together?
Directions (Q. 91-95): What should come in place of
1 1 1
question mark (?) in the following number series. 1) 2) 3)
91. 7 11 25 59 133 ? 36 42 77
1) 285 2) 287 3) 289 4) 291 5) 293 1
4) 5) None of these
92. 6 13 26 53 110 ? 132
1) 221 2) 223 3) 225 4) 227 5) 229 105. Two trains of length 100m and 160m respectively are
93. 5 7 10 20 35 ? running on parallel tracks. When running in the same
1) 61 2) 63 3) 65 4) 67 5) 69 direction the faster train passes the slower train in
94. 3 5 16 63 316 ? 10.4 seconds, but when running in opposite directions
1) 1785 2) 1815 3) 1855 4) 1895 5) 1905 they take 4 seconds to cross each other. What is the
95. 4 17 75 210 454 ? speed of the faster train?
1) 835 2) 837 3) 839 4) 841 5) 843 1) 30 ms1 2) 40 ms1 3) 45 ms1
1 1
96. A shopkeeper sold an item for `884 after allowing 15% 4) 50 ms 5) 60 ms
106. The cost of painting the walls of a room 9 metres long

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discount on the labelled price and earned 10.5% profit
on the cost price. Had no discount been offered, what and 7 metres wide at `16.5 per sq metre is `2904. What
would have been his percentage profit? is the height of the room?
1) 22.5% 2) 25.5% 3) 28% 4) 30% 5) 32.5% 1) 4.5m 2) 5.5m 3) 6.5m 4) 7m 5) 7.5m
97. The simple interest on a certain sum of money will be 107. The length and breadth of a rectangle are in the ratio
`768 after 8 years. If the principal is increased 4 times of 9 : 5. When the sides of the rectangle are extended
after 4 years, then the total interest at the end of 8 on each side by 2.5 metres the ratio of length to breadth
years will be becomes 5 : 3. What is the area of the original
1) `1760 2) `1840 3) `1920 rectangle?
4) `1980 5) `2040 1) 1125 sq m 2) 1250 sq m 3) 1375 sq m
98. In what time will `555000 amount to `1150848 at 20% 4) 1500 sq m 5) 1650 sq m

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pa compound interest? 108. The height of a tent which is in a circular-cone shape
1) 2 years 2) 3 years 3) 4 years is 32 metres and the diameter of the base is 48 metres.
4) 5 years 5) 6 years What is the slant height of the tent?
99. What is the cost price of an item, which when sold at 1) 40 metres 2) 42 metres 3) 48 metres
a profit of 15% yields `96 more than when it is sold at 4) 54 metres 5) 56 metres
a loss of 15%? 109. The radius and height of a right circular cylinder are
1) `420 2) `620 3) `300 increased by 20% and 30% respectively. What will be
4) `320 5) None of these the percentage increase in its curved surface area?
100. The ratio of As age to Bs is 4 : 3 and the sum of their 1) 50% 2) 56% 3) 60% 4) 64% 5) 67.5%
ages is 98 years. The ratio of their ages after 14 years 110. A can do a piece of work in 40 days. A with the help of
will be B does the same piece of work in 30 days. If they are
1) 6 : 5 2) 5 : 4 3) 4 : 3 paid `7148 for that work, then what is the share of A?
4) 3 : 2 5) None of these 1) `5147 2) `5214 3) `5361 4) `5427 5) `5504
101. A person purchased 80 kg of rice at the rate of `24 per
kg. He sold 40 kg of it at a profit of 15%. At what rate
should he sell the remaining rice to get a profit of 25%
on the whole deal?
1) `28.50 2) `29.20 3) `30.60
4) `32.40 5) `33.50
102. 8 men and 13 women can finish a work in 4 days. One
man alone can finish the same work in 45 days. In how
many days will a woman finish the work?
1) 90 days 2) 120 days 3) 150 days
4) 180 days 5) 210 days
103. What is the number of diagonals of a polygon of 11
sides?
1) 110 2) 35 3) 44 4) 121 5) 54
 Directions (Q. 111-115): In each of these questions, Directions (Q. 121-125): Following table shows the
two equations (I) and (II) are given. You have to solve both population of six different cities A, B, C, D, E and F and the
the equations and give answer ratio of Males to Females among them and the ratio of
1) if x > y 2) if x > y Adults to Children in the total population. Answer the
3) if x < y 4) if x < y given questions based on this table.
5) if x y or no relation can be established between x Total Male : Adult :
and y. City
population Female Children
111. I. x = (3)2 II. y2 20y + 99 = 0 A 410400 13 : 11 5 :3
112. I. x2 + 8x 65 = 0 II. y = 841 B 369900 5:4 7:2
113. I. 5x 17y + 14 = 0 II. 8y2 + 3y 5 = 0 C 442800 5:7 7 :5
2
114. I. 2x 5x 12 = 0 II. 2y2 + 9y + 9 = 0
2
115. I. 7x 34x 5 = 0 II. 2y2 + 3y 14 = 0 D 465500 17 : 18 4 :3
Directions (Q. 116-120): Following graph shows the E 499500 5:4 5:4
ratio of import to export of two companies A and B during F 366000 8 :7 17 : 13
the period 2008 to 2013. 121. What is the total number of females of City F?

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0.8 Company A Company B 1) 1.432 lakh 2) 1.578 lakh 3) 1.708 lakh
0.75 4) 1.952 lakh 5) 2.12 lakh
Import/Export

0.6 0.6 0.6 122. What is the total number of males of City C and City D
0.45 0.5
together?
0.4 0.3
0.4 0.35 1) 3.784 lakh 2) 4.106 lakh 3) 4.248 lakh
0.4
0.2 0.3 0.2 4) 4.726 lakh 5) 5.04 lakh
0.25 123. What is the difference between the total adult and
0 total child population of City A?
2008 2009 2010 2011 2012 2013 1) 0.918 lakh 2) 1.026 lakh 3) 1.124 lakh
Year 4) 1.107 lakh 5) 1.248 lakh
124. Which of the following cities has the maximum adult

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116. If the import of Company A in the year 2008 and that of
population?
Company B in the year 2010 were `25.2 lakh and `24
1) E 2) D 3) C 4) B 5) A
lakh respectively then what was the difference between
125. The female population of City B is approximately what
the export of Company A in the year 2008 and that of
per cent of its male population?
Company B in the year 2010?
1) 40% 2) 60% 3) 80% 4) 120% 5) 125%
1) `1.2 lakh 2) `2.4 lakh 3) `3.5 lakh
Directions (Q. 126-130): Study the following
4) `4 lakh 5) `4.2 lakh
information carefully and answer the questions given
117. If the export of Company A in the year 2012 was `65
below:
lakh and the import of Company B in the year 2009
There are total 12 thousand students in six different
was `30 lakh then the import of Company A in the year
schools. The ratio of the total number of boys to that of
2012 is approximately what per cent of the export of
girls is 7 : 5. In the following pie-charts, the first chart
Company B in the year 2009?
shows the percentage distribution of the total number of
1) 48% 2) 52% 3) 64% 4) 108.4% 5) 192.3%
students and the second chart shows the percentage
118. The ratio of import to export of Company B in the year
distribution of the total number of girls among these
2008 is what per cent of the ratio of import to export of
schools.
Company A in the year 2010?
Pie-chart - I
1) 55.55% 2) 80% 3) 90% 4) 150% 5) 180%
119. If the import of Company A in the year 2009 and the A
F
import of Company B in the year 2013 were equal to 17.2%
13.5%
`23.1 lakh each then what is the difference between E
the export of Company B in the year 2013 and that of 12.8%
Company A in the year 2009? B
1) 3.465 lakh 2) 11.8 lakh 3) 17.2 lakh D
24.3%
4) 19.8 lakh 5) 10 lakh 13.6%
C
120. In the year 2011, if the import of Company B is increased 18.6%
by 50% and the export is decreased by 50% then what
will be its new import-to-export ratio?
1) 5 : 9 2) 4 : 9 3) 9 : 4 4) 1 : 2 5) 9 : 5 Percentage distribution of students
 Pie-chart - II 1) 11.1% rise 2) 11.1% fall 3) 15% rise
4) 15% fall 5) None of these
F 133. The total number of bikes produced by Company A in
E 11% A
the year 2010 is approximately what per cent of the
10.2% 23.7%
total number of bikes produced by it in the year 2008?
D 1) 84% 2) 90% 3) 96% 4) 104% 5) 112%
15.7% B
134. The total number of bikes produced by Company B in
C 22.8%
the year 2012 is approximately what per cent more or
16.6%
less than the total number of bikes produced by it in
the year 2011?
Percentage distribution of girls 1) 42% 2) 36% 3) 32% 4) 24% 5) 16%
126. What is the total number of boys in School A? 135. The total number of bikes produced by Company B in
1) 879 2) 897 3) 903 4) 921 5) 932 the year 2009 is approximately what per cent of the
127. What is the difference between the total number of total number of bikes produced by Company A in all
boys and that of girls in School B? six years together?
1) 448 2) 496 3) 512 4) 584 5) 636 1) 11% 2) 17% 3) 21% 4) 23% 5) 27%

K
128. The total number of boys in School F is approximately Directions (Q. 136-140): Study the following
what per cent of the total number of girls in all six information carefully and answer the questions given
schools together? below:
1) 19% 2) 21.5% 3) 22.5% A survey of a group of 1250 students is conducted to
4) 26% 5) 25% know about their likeness of different icecream flavours.
129. The total number of girls in School D is approximately 68% students like Strawberry, 69.6% like Vanilla and 64%
what per cent more or less than the total number of like Chocolate flavour. 14.4% of them like only Strawberry,
girls in School E? 16.85% like only Vanilla and 8.8% like only Chocolate
1) 42% 2) 48% 3) 54% 4) 60% 5) 64% flavour. Now, answer the following questions based on
130. The total number of boys in School B is what per cent this information.
136. What per cent of students like both Strawberry and

KUNDAN
of the total number of students in all six schools
together? Vanilla but not Chocolate flavour?
1) 12.5% 2) 14.8% 3) 16.2% 4) 18.6% 5) 20% 1) 4.2% 2) 4.8% 3) 5.6% 4) 6.4% 5) 7.2%
Directions (Q. 131-135): The following graph shows 137. How many students are there who like all three
the number of bikes (in thousand) produced by two flavours?
companies A and B over the years. 1) 420 2) 450 3) 480 4) 520 5) 540
138. What per cent of the students like Strawberry and
Company A Company B Chocolate both but not Vanilla?
90
Number of bikes (in thousand)

81 1) 4.8% 2) 5.6% 3) 6.4% 4) 7.2% 5) 8.4%

80 74 72 139. How many students are there who like any two flavours
70
70 62.9 62 of icecream from the given three flavours.
60 56.8 60
60 57.6
50 1) 210 2) 230 3) 270 4) 320 5) 340
50 40 140. What per cent of the students like at most one flavour
40 of icecream from the given flavours?
30 1) 24% 2) 30% 3) 40% 4) 54% 5) 60%
20
10 Test-IV: General Awareness
0
2008 2009 2010 2011 2012 2013 (with Special Reference to Banking Industry)
Year 141. The Paris-based Organisation for Economic Co-
131. What is the average number of bikes produced by operation and Development (OECD) has pegged
Company B over the period 2008 to 2013? Indian economy to grow at what per cent in the current
1) 62450 2) 63720 3) 64550 financial year on market prices?
4) 64940 5) 65250 1) 3.2 per cent 2) 3.4 per cent 3) 4.3 per cent
132. What is the percentage rise or fall in the number of 4) 5.1 per cent 5) None of these
bikes produced by Company B from the year 2008 to 142. Who among the following has been given the
2009? 'International Indian of the Decade' award by the India
 Link International for his outstanding achievements provide an insurance cover for online transactions:
in the fields of industry, education and philanthropy? (A) The insurance cover will be provided to both
1) Anil Agarwal 2) Lakshmi Mittal 3) Lord Paul domestic and international transactions and will
4) Ravi Ruia 5) None of these be over and above any policy taken by a member-
143. Name the Indian-American nominated by the US bank.
President Barack Obama for the post of Surgeon (B) The overall insurance cover that will be provided
General. He would be the first-ever Indian-American will be `1 cr and the per-card cover will be `25,000.
to occupy this post and also the youngest ever (C) The insurer selected by the NPCI will have to
Surgeon General of the US. settle claims within 30 days of claim submission
1) Bharat Desai 2) Vivek Murthy by NPCI.
3) Vinod Khosla 4) Kavitark Ram Shriram Which of the above statements is/are correct in this
5) None of these regard?
144. What is the term used for the practice of replacing 1) Only (A) 2) Only (B) 3) Only (C)
relatively high-cost debt with that of lower-cost 4) Only (A) and (C) 5) All (A), (B) and (C)
borrowing to take advantage of falling interest rates? 150. Consider the following with respect to STT and choose
1) Derivative 2) Credit risk management the correct statement(s):

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3) Debt swap 4) Credit enhancement 1) The term STT stands for Systematic Transaction
5) None of these Tax.
145. What is the term used for a banking system under 2) The Central Govt levies STT on all transactions
which the banks are to raise low-cost funds and invest done on the stock exchanges at rates prescribed
such funds in low-risk assets such as govt securities? from time to time.
1) Rural banking 2) Priority banking 3) The STT came into effect from 1 Oct, 2004.
3) Narrow banking 4) Universal banking 4) All the above
5) None of these 5) Only 2) and 3)
146. The National Integration Day is observed every year 151. Consider the following with respect to the K
on which of the following dates? Kasturirangan panel report on Western Ghat ecology:

KUNDAN
1) 14 Nov 2) 17 Nov 3) 19 Nov (A) The panel has recommended prohibition on
4) 21 Nov 5) None of these development activities in 60,000 sq km
147. The UN General Assembly elected 14 new members ecologically sensitive area spread over six states.
on the 47-member Human Rights Council recently for (B) The panel had to examine the Western Ghats
a three-year period beginning 1 Jan 2014. Which of ecology expert panel report (WGEEP) prepared
the following is not among the newly elected under the leadership of Madhav Gadgil.
countries? (C) The Environment Ministry, headed by Jayanthi
1) Cuba 2) Saudi Arabia 3) UK Natarajan, has decided to accept the
4) Maldives 5) None of these Kasturirangan panel report.
148. Consider the following with respect to a nuclear non- Which of the above statements is/are correct?
proliferation programme between US and Russia which 1) Only (A) 2) Only (B) 3) Only (C)
ended recently: 4) Only (A) and (C) 5) All (A), (B) and (C)
(A) It was a 10-year programme to convert highly 152. Who among the following has been given the
enriched uranium from dismantled Russian prestigious Hridaynath Mangeshkar award for his/her
nuclear weapons into fuel for the US power plants. contribution to the film industry?
(B) The programme is commonly known as 1) Subhash Ghai 2) Amitabh Bachchan
'Megatons to Megawatts' and is one of the most 3) Dilip Kumar 4) Hema Malini
successful nuclear nonproliferation partnerships 5) None of these
ever undertaken. 153. Consider the following regarding the Petroleum
(C) The agreement gave Russia the financial Ministry's approval to take away five gas discoveries
incentive to dismantle thousands of nuclear in KG-D6 basin off the cost of Andhra Pradesh from
weapons. RIL:
Which of the above statements is/are correct? (A) The Directorate General of Hydrocarbons, the oil
1) All the above 2) Only (A) regulator, had recommended taking away these
3) Only (B) 4) Only (A) and (C) discoveries as timeline to develop the fields had
5) Only (B) and (C) expired.
149. Examine the following regarding the decision by the (B) The five blocks are believed to hold gas worth
National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) to $10 billion (about `62,000 crore).
 (C) RIL was awarded the KG-D6 block in 2000 and 163. Name the process in which the electronic holding of
has been producing gas from three fields since share replaces the paper securities.
September 2008-09. 1) Dematerialisation 2) Electronic share
Which of the above statements is/are correct in this 3) Demutualisation 4) Rematerialisation
regard? 5) None of these
1) Only (A) 2) Only (B) 164. Which of the following has emerged as India's top-
3) Only (C) 4) Only (A) and (B) notch brand in banking and financial services industry
5) All (A), (B) and (C) (BFSI) category in a survey by Trust Research
154. As per the information provided by the RBI Deputy Advisory, a brand intelligence company?
Governor KC Chakrabarty recently, how many out of 1) ICICI Bank 2) LIC of India 3) SBI
600,000 villages in India have bank branches? 4) Axis Bank 5) HDFC Bank
1) 40,000 2) 50,000 3) 60,000 165. Which of the following statements is/are correct about
4) 80,000 5) None of these the Swarnajayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana Aajeevika
155. The govt has decided to infuse fresh capital into public (SGSY) scheme?
sector banks. What amount has been allocated to the 1) The SGSY scheme comes under the Ministry of
country's biggest lender State Bank of India (SBI)? HRD.

K
1) `1,200 cr 2) `1,500 cr 3) `2,000 cr 2) The RBI has directed PSBs to provide credit to
4) `2,200 cr 5) None of these women SHGs at 7 per cent interest rate for all loans
156. Which of following countries is the largest producer up to `3 lakh on or after Dec 1, 2013.
of gold in the world at present? 3) The RBI has announced that SHGs will be given an
1) South Africa 2) Russia 3) US additional 3% subvention on prompt repayment of
4) Australia 5) China loan.
157. The book Magnificent Delusions has been authored 4) Only 1) and 3)
by 5) Only 2) and 3)
1) Husain Haqqani 2) Rana Mitter 166. What is India's rank in the 2013 World Prosperity Index
3) Sumati Bagrath 4) Ravi Subramaniam compiled by London-based Legatum Institute
5) None of these recently?

KUNDAN
158. The UN owes $80 mn to which of the following 1) 51 2) 60 3) 102 4) 103 5) 106
countries for costs relating to peacekeeping 167. As per the Draft National Sports Development Bill
operations, the most it has to pay to any country? 2013, which of the following sports federations will
1) Rwanda 2) Pakistan 3) Bangladesh have the right to use 'India' as the team name?
4) Ethiopia 5) India 1) Those who come under the RTI ambit
159. The RBI has suggested dilution of Govt shareholding 2) Those who are using the word 'India' since 1947
in public sector banks in the context of requiring 3) Those who are the only representative of the
additional capital to implement the Basel-III norms. concerned sport
According to the statute, the Govt's shareholding in 4) Those who have earned international recognition
the public sector banks cannot fall below for India
1) 49 per cent 2) 51 per cent 3) 55 per cent 5) None of these
4) 75 per cent 5) None of these 168. The GAGAN system is set to begin initial operations
160. As per the prevailing RBI norms, the banks are required by Dec end. Which of the following statements is/are
to invest what per cent of their deposits in Govt correct about the system?
securities? 1) It stands for GPS Aided Geo Augmented
1) 15 per cent 2) 21 per cent 3) 23 per cent Navigation.
4) 25 per cent 5) None of these 2) This system will create straight and direct air
161. The Indian navy conducted the bilateral naval exercise routes, vastly improve precise take-offs and
named 'Malabar 2013' in the Bay of Bengal recently landings and save five per cent of airlines fuel bills.
with the navy of which of the following countries? 3) It will also benefit banking and financial networks,
1) Russia 2) US 3) France power grids, precision agriculture, as well as land,
4) Germany 5) None of these sea and air transport.
162. Who among the following has won the Abu Dhabi 4) All the above
Grand Prix recently? 5) Only 2) and 3)
1) Lewis Hamilton 2) Fernando Alonso 169. In a bid to support micro and small enterprises (MSEs),
3) Sebastian Vettel 4) Mark Webber the RBI has announced to provide refinance
5) None of these aggregating what amount to SIDBI, which will in turn
 use the funds for direct as well as onward lending to 1) Jyoti Randhawa 2) Anirban Lahiri
banks? 3) Mohammad Siddikur 4) Shiv Chowrasia
1) `5,000 crore 2) `7,500 crore 3) `10,000 crore 5) None of these
4) `15,000 crore 5) None of these 179. As per the provisions of the Mahatma Gandhi National
170. According to the RBI, the current account deficit for Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA), what
2013-14 will stand at less than 3 per cent of gross fraction of the given employment should be women?
domestic product (GDP) and will be around________. 1) two-third 2) half 3) one-third
1) USD 50 billion 2) USD 56 billion 3) USD 60 billion 4) one-fourth 5) None of these
4) USD 76 billion 5) None of these 180. The term 'NOTA' is associated with
171. Which of the following cricketers had become the first 1) An international treaty
victim of the third umpire system adopted by the ICC 2) Anti-tobacco campaign
in 1992? 3) Nuclear non-proliferation
1) Shane Warne 2) Sachin Tendulkar 4) A voting option in EVMs
3) Steve Waugh 4) Brian Lara 5) None of these
5) None of these
172. A year-long celebration to mark the 150th birth Test-V: Computer Knowledge

K
anniversary of Lakshminath Bezbruah kickstarted in
New Delhi recently. He was a literature pioneer 181. All the information collected during database
belonging to development is stored in a ________.
1) Arunachal Pradesh 2) Assam 1) repository 2) data warehouse 3) RAD
3) Sikkim 4) West Bengal 4) CASE 5) None of these
5) Manipur 182. When data changes in multiple lists and all lists are
173. The two-time Nobel Prize winner British scientist not updated, this causes
Frederick Sanger died recently. He 1) data redundancy 2) information overload
1) is the only person to win the Nobel Prize for 3) duplicate data 4) data inconsistency
Chemistry twice. 5) None of these

KUNDAN
2) is known as the 'father of genomics'. 183. Smart Card is
3) contributed greatly in the field of biochemistry. 1) Special purpose Cards
4) All the above 2) Microprocessor Cards
5) Only 2) and 3) 3) Processing unit containing memory for storing data
174. The Basel-III norms will be fully implemented in India 4) Processing unit for software handling
from 5) None of these
1) 31 Mar, 2014 2) 31 Mar, 2016 3) 31 Mar, 2018 184. A ________ is approximately one billion bytes.
4) 31 Mar, 2020 5) None of these 1) kilobyte 2) bit 3) gigabyte
175. Expand the term DIPP. 4) megabyte 5) None of these
1) Department of Institutional Policy and Promotion 185. The ________ directory is mandatory for every disk.
2) Department of Industrial Practices and Policies l) Root 2) Base 3) Sub
3) Department of Industrial Policy and Production 4) Case 5) None of these
4) Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion 186. Modern computers represent characters and numbers
5) None of these internally, using which of the following number
176. Name the risk that is associated with failure of internal systems?
processes of a bank or business organisation. 1) Penta 2) Octal 3) Hexa
1) Settlement risk 2) Operational risk 4) Septa 5) Binary
3) Procedural risk 4) Credit risk 187. Which of the following terms is used to describe the
5) None of these movement of an item with the help of mouse to a new
177. Name the pistol shooter of India who won a gold medal position on screen?
in the ISSF World Cup Final in Munich, Germany 1) Click 2) Double-click 3) Drag and drop
recently. She is the first pistol shooter of the country 4) Point 5) Right-click
to achieve the feat. 188. CSMA/CD is
1) Heena Sidhu 2) Annu Raj Singh 1) an important protocol 2) IEEE 802.3
3) Rahi Sarnobot 4) Anjali Bhagwat 3) IEEE 802.4 4) Both 1) and 2)
5) None of these 5) Both 1) and 3)
178. Who among the following won the 50th edition of the 189. An algorithm is best described as ________.
Indian Open golf tournament recently? 1) a computer language
 2) a step-by-step procedure for solving a problem 195. Which of the following is used to click to open any
3) a branch of Mathematics web page?
4) All the above 1) URL 2) Hyperlink 3) Navigation
5) None of these 4) URN 5) None of these
190. The taskbar is presented 196. The number of pixels displayed on a screen is known
1) on the start menu as the screen
2) on the quick launch toolbar 1) resolution 2) colour depth 3) refresh rate
3) on the bottom of screen 4) viewing size 5) None of these
4) on the top of screen 197. A repair for a known software bug, usually available
5) on the right side at no charge on the internet, is called a
191. Which of following types of keys cannot be used in 1) Version 2) Patch 3) Tutorial
database? 4) FAQ 5) None of these
1) Primary key 2) Foreign key 198. The capability of a computer to perform more than
3) Super key 4) Secondary key one task at the same time is called
5) Transitive key 1) Batch processing
192. Which command is given to run or switch off the 2) Realtime Processing

K
computer? 3) Multitasking
1) Ctrl+Alt 2) Ctrl+Alt+Del 3) Alt+Del 4) Scheduled Processing
4) Alt+Shift+Del 5) None of these 5) None of these
193. What do we call the keys that change the meaning of 199. ________is the smallest dot that can be uniquely
what you type? drawn on a computer screen.
1) Change keys 2) Disk space 3) Modifier keys 1) Boxel 2) Computer Dot 3) Cursor
4) Keyboard 5) None of these 4) Pixel 5) None of these
194. An example of web browser is 200. The ________ symbol is used to specify a cell range.
1) Mozilla 2) Google Chrome 3) Epic 1) Slash 2) Hyphen 3) Colon
4) Safari 5) All the above 4) Comma 5) Asterisk

KUNDAN
words starting with a consonant are arranged (21-25):
Answers in alphabetical order. The numbers are # ,$ >, % =, <, @
arranged in ascending order from the right 21. 1; Given statements: Z Y ... (i)
1. 3; end. Y = X ... (ii)
Input: curtail 53 vitiate 49 33 artifice 45 X < W ... (iii)
aptitude 23 ice 69 entourage bevy Combining all these statements, we have
Step I. aptitude curtail 53 vitiate 49 33 Z Y=X<W
artifice 45 ice 69 entourage bevy 23 Thus, Check for I. Z X or X Z
Hence, R is towards northeast of W. Step II. aptitude artifice curtail 53 vitiate Hence, conclusion I is true.
2. 4; M, Q > P > L, N Hence, either M or Q. 49 45 ice 69 entourage bevy 23 33 Check for II. Z < W. Hence, conclusion II
Step III. aptitude artifice entourage curtail is not true.
3. 2; 53 vitiate 49 ice 69 bevy 23 33 45 22. 4; Given statements: K > J ... (i)
Step IV. aptitude artifice entourage ice curtail J H ... (ii)
53 vitiate 69 bevy 23 33 45 49 H = I ... (iii)
Step V. aptitude artifice entourage ice bevy Combining all these statements, we get
4. 3; Fifth to the left of the eighteenth from
curtail vitiate 69 23 33 45 49 53 K>J H=I ... (iv)
the left end is (18 5 =) 13th from the left
Step VI. aptitude artifice entourage ice bevy Check for I. K > I
end, ie H.
curtail vitiate 23 33 45 49 53 69 Hence, conclusion I is not true.
(5-9):
11. 3 Check for II. From (iv), J I is true. Hence,
12. 5; 8th from the left or 6th from the conclusion II is not true.
right 23. 3; Given statements: D < C ... (i)
13. 4 14. 3 15. 1 C B ... (ii)
(16-20): B > A ... (iii)
Shopkeeper Super Market Shop Combining all these statements, we get
PK Big Bazaar Watch D<C B >A ... (iv)
5. 3 6. 2 7. 4 8. 1 9. 2 SP Max Grocery/Footwear Hence, we cant compare D and A. But
10. 2; RJ Max Footwear/Grocery
conclusion I (D < A) and conclusion II
(D A) are complementary. Hence, either
MP EasyDay Gift Items
(11-15): follows.
DK EasyDay Mobile phones 24. 5; Given statements: T S ... (i)
The machine rearranges one word and one
SK Reliance Trends Clothes S > Q ... (ii)
number in each step. The words starting with
a vowel are arranged first in alphabetical AK Big Bazaar Cosmetics Q = P ... (iii)
order from the left. When this is done, the 16. 3 17. 1 18. 2 19. 3 Combining all these statements
20. 5; PK and AK
T S>Q=P ... (iv) 73. 2; Replace stricked with struck
Check for I. 38. 3; 74. 3; Replace prolong with prolonged
From (iv), T > P or P < T. 75. 3; Place the before East
Hence, conclusion I is true. (76-80): DBFEAC
Check for II. 76. 5 77. 4 78. 3 79. 2 80. 1
From (iv), T > Q or Q < T. 81. 5 82. 2 83. 4 84. 3 85. 1
Hence, conclusion II is true. 86. 4 87. 2 88. 5 89. 3 90. 1
25. 2; Given statements: M N ... (i) Thus, S is son of U. Hence, all I, II, III are 91. 2; The series is +4, +14, +34, +74 ...
N > K ... (ii) sufficient to answer the question. 92. 5; The series is +8 1, +16 3, +32 5, ...
K G ... (iii) 39. 4; Rishikas car reached office at 93. 1; The series is +12 + 1, +22 1, +32 + 1,
Combining all these statements, we get 10 : 05 am and she takes only 45 minutes. +42 1, ...
M N>K G ... (iv) So, (10 : 05 0 : 45) = 9 : 25 am. 94. 4; The series is 2 1, 3 + 1, 4 1, 5
Check for I. Hence, I and III are sufficient to answer the + 1 ...
From (iv), we cant compare G and M. question. 95. 3; The series is +42 3, +82 6, +122 9,
Hence, conclusion I is not true. 40. 3; From I, II and III +162 12, ...
Check for II. 884 100 88400
From (iv), M > K or K < M. 96. 4; Labelled price = (100 15) =
85
Hence, conclusion II is true. = `1040
(26-30): 884 100
Student CP = = `800

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Bench 110.5
(+) Male () Female Hence, either B or E is second to the right of C. If there is no discount then required per cent
A Q(+) Y(+) N() 41. 4; It is possible that people are not aware
1040 800 24000
B R(+) P() of the power of compounding. But not profit = 100 = = 30%
C K(+) L() believe? How can one not believe in 800 800
26. 2 27. 1 28. 3 29. 4 30. 2 something that is objectively true? 97. 3; Let the sum be `x.
31. 2; All windows are beds (A) + Some beds 42. 1; Both choice 3) and 1) fit the bill to a 768 100 9600
large extent. But we have to choose the best Rate = = % pa
are chairs (I) = A + I = No conclusion. Hence, x 8 x
conclusion I does not follow. reason. We go for 1) because the reason given x 4 9600
Again, Some doors are windows (I) + All in this affects the country directly. SI for first 4 years = = `384
43. 4; This will address the "inherent con- 100x
windows are beds (A) = I + A = I = Some doors
flict" associated with the "values" of the 4 x 4 9600
are beds. Hence, conclusion II follows. SI for last 4 years = = `1536
32. 1; Some pulleys are chains (I) + All chains "closet consumers". 100x

KUNDAN
are bells (A) = I + A = I = Some pulleys are 44. 3; Choices 1) and 2) are measures that Total SI = 384 + 1536 = `1920
t
bells. Hence, conclusion I follows. are taken before declaring a company a "wil- r
Again, Some pulleys are chains conversion ful defaulter". While 4) goes beyond the per- 98. 3; A P 1
100
Some chains are pulleys. Hence, missible limits. t
45. 5; All the choices only strengthen the 20
conclusion II does not follow. Then, 555000 1 = 1150848
33. 3; Some magazines are radios (I) + Some fact given in the statement. 100
radios are newspapers (I) = I + I = No 46. 3; If we go into the factors responsible
t 4
conclusion. Hence, conclusion I does not for women being offered lower salaries, (B) 20 1150848 1296 6
may be inferred as a probable reason. Again, or, 1 = = =
follow and conclusion II also does not follow. 100 555000 625 5
But they make a complementary pair (I-E). (C) is true because of the comparison be-
tween male and female employees. But a t 4
Thus, either conclusion I or conclusion II 6 6
follows. particular inference can only be probably true. or, t = 4 years
5 5
34. 4; Some magazines are radios 47. 3; (E) can be definitely inferred from the
99. 4; Let the cost price be `x.
conversion Some radios are magazines. gap between the supposed values and the real
Then, x (15 + 15)% = 96
Hence, both conclusions I and II do not position on the ground.
48. 2; (D) is implicit in the contrast made 96 100
follow. or, x = = `320
35. 3; Some boxes are jugs (I) + Some jugs between egalitarian values and the latter half 30
of the information. (F) is implicit in the fact 100. 2; Let the age of A be x years and that
are glasses (I) = I + I = No conclusion. But
that women have gone through "leading MBA of B be y years.
they make a complementary pair (I-E).
programmes". x 4
Hence, either conclusion I or conclusion II Then, y =
follows. 49. 1; If women employees remain neglected 3
36. 3; From I. pi na ta are you fine thus, they will not be able to contribute their or, 3x = 4y ... (i)
From III. na da ra we are going best. x + y = 98 ... (ii)
Thus, na is the code for are. Hence, 50. 3; If women employees have to bear the From eqn (i) and (ii), we have
statements I and III are sufficient to answer responsibility of rearing the family, they will x = 56 years, y = 42 years
the question. obviously not be able to devote much time 56 14 70 5
to their job. This may result in their getting Reqd ratio = = = =5:4
37. 4; lower salaries than their male counterparts. 42 14 56 4
51. 2 52. 5 53. 3 54. 2 55. 2 101. 4; Total cost = 80 24 = `1920
56. 3 57. 3 58. 3 59. 1 60. 2 115
Again, SP of 40 kg rice = 40 24
61. 3 62. 5 63. 2 64. 5 65. 1 100
66. 2 67. 1 68. 3 69. 2 70. 4 = `1104
We dont know the gender of K. 71. 2; Delete in For 25% profit on entire deal, SP
Hence, all I, II and III are not sufficient to 72. 1; Replace organisation with 125
answer the question. organisations = 1920 = `2400
100
 Cost of remaining 40 kg rice And height = 32m 3
= 2400 1104 = 1296 or, y = 3,
2 2 2 2
1296
height = h r2 = (32) ( 24)
Hence, x y
Rate per kg of remaining rice =
40 = 1600 = 40m 115. 5; I. 7x2 34x 5 = 0
= `32.4 or, 7x2 35x + x 5 = 0
109. 2; Let the initial height and radius be h
8 or, 7x(x 5) + 1(x 5) = 0
102. 4; 8 mens one days work = and r respectively.
45 Curved surface area = 2 rh or, (7x + 1) (x 5) = 0
1 8 13 After increase, curved surface area 1
13 womens one days work = = or, x = 5,
4 45 180 = 2 (1.2r 1.3h) = 3.12 rh 7
3.12 rh 2 rh II. 2y2 + 3y 14 = 0
ie 13 women can finish that work in 100
Reqd % change = or, 2y2 + 7y 4y 14 = 0
180 2 rh
days. or, y(2y + 7) 2(2y + 7) = 0
13 1.12 rh
= 100 = 56% or, (y 2) (2y + 7) = 0
180 2 rh
1 woman can finish it in 13 = 180 days 7
13 1 or, y = 2,
103. 3; Number of diagonals 110. 3; As one days work = 2
40 Hence, relation can not be established
11(11 3) 11 8
= = = 44 1 between x and y.
2 2 (A + B)s one days work = Im
104. 4; Total number of persons = 12 30 0.3
Bs one days work 116. 4; Ex

K
A
n(S) = 12 P12 = 12!
1 1 43 1 25.2
Taking all six girls as one person, total = = = Now, Ex A = 84 lakh
30 40 120 120 0.3
number of persons = 6 + 1 = 7
They can sit in 7! ways and the six girls can ie B can finish the work in 120 days. Im
Again, Ex 0.3
be arranged in 6! ways among themselves. As share : Bs share = 120 : 40 = 3 : 1 B

n(E) = 6!7! 7148 24

6! 7! 1 As share = 3 = `5361 or, Ex B = 80 lakh
4 0.3
Hence, P(E) = ExA ExB = 84 lakh 80 lakh = 4 lakh
12! 132 111. 4; I. x = (3)2 = 9
105. 3; Let the speed of the faster train be II. y2 20y + 39 = 0 117. 2; IA2012 = 0.6 65 = 39 lakh
x ms1 and that of the slower train be y ms1 . or, y2 9y 11y + 99 = 0
30
Speed in same direction = x y or, y(y 9) 11(y 9) = 0 EB2009 = = 75 lakh
and that in opposite direction = x + y or, (y 11) (y 9) = 0 0.4
100 160 260 or, y = 9, 11 39

KUNDAN
Now, x y = = = 25 Reqd % = 100 = 52%
10.4 10.4 Hence, x y 75
x y = 25 ... (i) 112. 3; I. x2 + 8x 65 = 0
or, x2 + 13x 5x 65 = 0 I B2008 I A 2010
260 118. 5; E = 0.45;
Again, x + y = = 65 ... (ii) or, x(x + 13) 5(x + 13) = 0 B2008 E A 2010 = 0.25
4
Solving eqn (i) and (ii), we get or, (x 5) (x + 13) = 0 0.45
or, x = 5, 3 Reqd % = 100 = 180%
x = 45ms1 and y = 20ms1 0.25
106. 2; Let the height of the room be h II. y = 841 Im
metres. 119. 4; = 0.5
y = 29 Ex A 2009
Area of four walls = 2h(l + b) = 2h(9 + 7)
Hence, x < y
= 32h metres 23.1
113. 1; I. 5x2 17x + 14 = 0 ExA2009 = = 46.2 lakh
904 0.5
Now, 32h = = 176 or, 5x2 10x 7x + 14 = 0
16.5 or, 5x(x 2) 7(x 2) = 0 Im
176 or, (x 2) (5x 7) = 0 Again, 0.35
h= = 5.5m Ex B2013
32 7
107. 1; Let the length be x and breadth be y. or, x = 2, 23.1
5 ExB2013 = = 66 lakh
T he n, II. 8y2 + 3y 5 = 0 0.35
or, 8y2 + 8y 5y 5 = 0 Difference = 66 46.2 = 19.8 lakh
or, 8y(y + 1) 5(y + 1) = 0 I 2011 3
or, (8y 5) (y + 1) = 0 120. 5; E 0.6
2011 5
5 Let new import be I 1 , and new export be E 1 .
y = 1,
8 50 3I
x 9 Hence, x > y Then, I1 = I + I =
100 2
y = 5 114. 2; I. 2x2 5x 12 = 0
or, 2x2 8x + 3x 12 = 0 E E
or, 5x = 9y ... (i) And, E1 = E =
or, 2x(x 4) + 3(x 4) = 0 2 2
x 5 5
Now, y 5 = or, (x 4) (2x + 3) = 0 I1 3I 2 3I
3 Ratio = E 2 E = E
3 1
or, 3x 5y = 10 ... (ii) or, x = 4, 3 9
Solving (i) and (ii), 2
II. 2y2 + 9y + 9 = 0 =3 = =9:5
x = 45, y = 25 5 5
or, 2y2 + 6y + 3y + 9 = 0 121. 3; Total female population of City F
Area of the rectangle = 45 25 = 1125 sq m
or, 2y(y + 3) + 3(y + 3) = 0 7
108. 1; Diameter = 48m
or, (y + 3) (2y + 3) = 0 = 366000 = 1.708 lakh
Radius = 24m 15
122. 2; Total male population of City C Total number of boys in School F 62.9
= 1620 550 = 1070 Reqd % = 100 16.926 17%
5 371.6
= 4.428 = 1.845 lakh 1070
12 100 = 21.4% 21.5 (136-140):
Reqd % =
Total male population of City D 5000
17 129. 3; Total number of girls in School D
= 4.655 = 2.261 lakh 15.7
35
= 5000 = 785
Total male population of City C and D 100
together = 1.845 + 2.261 = 4.106 lakh Total number of girls in School E
(5 3) 10.2
123. 2; Difference = 4.104 = 5000 = 510
8 100
= 1.026 lakh
785 510 27500
124. 4; Adult population of Reqd % = 100 =
City A 2.565 lakh 510 510 x + y + k + 180 = 850
City B 2.877 lakh = 53.92% 54% or, x + y + k = 670 ... (i)
City C 2.583 lakh 130. 2; Total number of students in School B x + z + k + 210 = 870
City D 2.66 lakh 24.3 or x + z + k = 660 ... (ii)
City E 2.775 lakh = 12000 = 2916 y + z + k + 110 = 800
100
Hence, City B has the maximum number of Total number of girls in School B or, y + z + k = 690 ... (iii)
adults. x + y + z + k = 750 ... (iv)

K
22.8
125. 3; The ratio of males to females in City = 5000 = 1140 Putting (i), (ii) and (iii) and eqn (iv) one by
B, ie M : F = 5 : 4 100 one,
Total number of boys in School B k = 520
4 = 2916 1140 = 1776
Reqd % = 100 = 80% or, x = 60, y = 90, z = 80
5 Total number of students in all schools
126. 1; Total number of students in School A 60
together = 12000 136. 2; Reqd % = 100 = 4.8%
17.2 1250
1776 137. 4; 520
= 12000 = 2064 Reqd % = 100 14.8%
100 12000 90
Total number of girls in School A 131. 1; Average 138. 4; Reqd % = 100 7.2%
23.7 1250
74 62.9 81 40 56.8 60 374.7 139. 2; x + y + z = 60 + 90 + 80 = 230
= 5000 = 1185 = =
100 6 6 140. 3; At most one flavour = 180 + 210 +
Total number of boys = 2064 1185 = 62.45 thousand = 62450 110 = 500
= 879 132. 4; Reqd % fall 500

KUNDAN
127. 5; Total number of students in School B 74 62.9 1110 Reqd % = 100 = 40%
24.3 = 100 15% 1250
= 12000 = 2916 74 74 141. 2 142. 3 143. 2 144. 3 145. 3
100 146. 3 147. 5 148. 5 149. 4 150. 5
Total number of girls in School B 57.6 5760
133. 3; Reqd % = 100 = = 96% 151. 5 152. 2 153. 5 154. 1 155. 3
22.8 60 60
156. 5 157. 1 158. 5 159. 2 160. 3
= 5000 = 1140
100 56.8 40 161. 2 162. 3 163. 1 164. 2 165. 5
134. 1; Reqd % = 100
Total number of boys = 2916 1140 40 166. 5 167. 1 168. 4 169. 1 170. 2
= 1776 1680 171. 2 172. 2 173. 4 174. 3 175. 4
Difference = 1776 1140 = 636 = = 42% 176. 2 177. 1 178. 3 179. 3 180. 4
40
128. 2; Total number of students in School F 135. 2; Total number of bikes produced by 181. 2 182. 4 183. 2 184. 3 185. 1
13.5 Company A in all six years together 186. 5 187. 3 188. 4 189. 2 190. 3
= 12000 = 1620 191. 5 192. 2
100 = 371.6 thousand
Total number of girls in School F Total number of bikes produced by 193. 3; Modifier key is a key which is used
11 Company B in the year 2009 to change the meaning of what we write.
= 5000 = 550 = 62.9 thousand 194. 5 195. 2 196. 1 197. 2 198. 3
100
199. 4 200. 3
PRACTICE SET

IBPS PO-CWE
7. Towards which direction was the van running before
Test-I: Reasoning Ability stopping at point Z?
1) North 2) East 3) West
Directions (Q. 1-6): Study the following information 4) South 5) None of these
carefully and answer the given questions. 8. How far is Jay from point X?
A, D, F, H, J, I and L are seven employees in an 1) 23 km 2) 25 km 3) 17 km
organisation, who are learning distance courses in different 4) 50 km 5) None of these
institutes, viz SMU, PTU and IGNOU. There are three girls 9. In a queue of children, A is fifth from the left and Z is
among these seven students. Each of the girls studies in sixth from the right. When they interchange their
the three different institutes. Two of the seven students positions among themselves, A becomes thirteenth
study Accounts, two study Computer Science and one from the left. Then, what will be the position of Z from
each studies MCA, Finance and Textile Designing. the right?
F studies in the same institute as A, who studies Textile 1) 18th 2) 14th 3) 13th
Designing in PTU. No girl studies Finance or Textile

K
4) 20th 5) None of these
Designing. J studies Accounts in SMU and his brother I 10. In the following number sequence, how many such
studies MCA in IGNOU. H studies Finance in the same even numbers are there each of which is exactly
institute as D. Neither F nor L studies Accounts. The girl divisible by its immediate preceding number but not
who studies Accounts does not study in IGNOU. exactly divisible by its immediate succeeding number?
1. Which of the following pairs of students study 4952672835893943653962
Computer Science? 1) None 2) One 3) Two
1) D, A 2) L, A 3) F, L 4) Three 5) None of these
4) H, F 5) None of these Directions (Q. 11-15): Study the following information
2. What is the field of study of F? carefully to answer the given questions.
1) Accounts 2) MCA 3) Finance A word and number arrangement machine when given

KUNDAN
4) Computer Science 5) None of these an input line of words and numbers rearranges them
3. Which of the following groups represents girls? following a particular rule in each step. The following is an
1) H, D, I 2) L, D, A 3) D, L, F illustration of the input and its rearrangement.
4) F, A, J 5) None of these Input: 25 11 ice cage 12 it redact tacit 32 55
4. In which of the following institutes do three employees Step I: it 55 25 11 ice cage 12 redact tacit 32
study? Step II: ice 11 it 55 25 cage 12 redact tacit 32
1) IGNOU 2) SMU or PTU 3) SMU Step III: cage 12 ice 11 it 55 25 redact tacit 32
4) PTU 5) None of these Step IV: tacit 32 cage 12 ice 11 it 55 25 redact
5. In which of the following institutes does D study? Step V: redact 25 tacit 32 cage 12 ice 11 it 55
1) SMU 2) PTU 3) IGNOU Step V is the last step of the above input. As per the
4) Cant be determined 5) None of these rules in the above steps, find out in each of the
6. Which of the following combinations is not true? following questions the steps for the input given
1) L Male IGNOU Computer Science below:
2) A Male PTU MCA Input: forsake 36 ebullience page 89 10 quack 42
3) Either 1) or 2) amicable 56 21 redact
4) Both 1) and 2) 11. Which of the following steps would be the last step
5) None of these but one?
Directions (Q. 7-8): Study the following information 1) III 2) V 3) VI
carefully and answer the given questions. 4) IV 5) None of these
Jay starts his van from point X and covers a distance 12. If in Step IV 42 is related to page and redact is
of 10 km towards west, then he turn norths and covers a related to 10 in a certain way. Following the same
distance of 17 km. Again, he takes a right turn and covers way, quack is related to which of the following?
25 km. Now he covers 6 km, after taking a left turn. At last 1) 89 2) amicable 3) 36
he takes a left turn and covers 15 km and stops at point Z. 4) ebullience 5) None of these
13. What is the position of forsake in Step III? possibility.
1) Sixth from the left 2) Eighth from the right II.Some bangles are chains.
3) Sixth from the right 4) Fifth from the left 21. If R < Q and V Q are definitely true then which of the
5) None of these following symbols should be placed in the blank spaces
14. Which of the following will be Step V? respectively?
1) ebullience 36 amicable 89 forsake 42 redact 21 quack K > R _ C = Q A= M _ V
56 page 10 1) , 2) <, 3) , =
2) amicable 89 forsake 42 redact 21 page 10 36 quack 4) >, 5) None of these
56 ebullience 22. Which of the following expressions is true if the given
3) amicable 89 forsake 42 redact 21 quack 56 page 10 expression is true?
36 ebullience L N=J< P S>T
4) Cant be determined 1) S > J 2) L > P 3) T < J
5) None of these 4) P N 5) None of these
15. How many steps will be required to complete the 23. Which of the following symbols should be placed in
rearrangement? the blank spaces respectively in order to complete the
1) Four 2) Five 3) Seven given expression in such a manner that makes the
4) Six 5) None of these expression H K and G > J definitely true?
Directions (Q. 16-20): In each question below are K_J_I _ H_ G
given three statements followed by two conclusions 1) <, =, , < 2) , , =, >
numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements 3) , =, , < 4) =, <, <, =

K
to be true even if they seem to be at variance with 5) None of these
commonly known facts and then decide which of the given 24. Which of the following expressions is false if the given
conclusions logically follows from the given statements, expression is true?
disregarding commonly known facts. Give answer T S< R= Q> P U
1) if only conclusion I follows. 1) Q > T 2) R > U 3) S = Q
2) if only conclusion II follows. 4) P < R 5) None of these
3) if either conclusion I or II follows. 25. What will come in place of question mark (?) to make
4) if neither conclusion I nor II follows. the expressions S < Z as well as R A definitely true?
5) if both conclusions I and II follow. Z>A= N ? S P R
16. Statements: Some schools are colleges. 1) > 2) 3) <

KUNDAN
Some colleges are hostels.
No hostel is an institute.
Conclusions: I. All institutes being colleges is a
possibility.
II. No institute is a hostel.
17. Statements: All nails are hammers.
All hammers are needles.
Some needles are threads.
Conclusions: I. At least some threads are hammers.
II. All hammers being nails is a
possibility.
18. Statements: Some stones are shells.
All shells are boxes.
All boxes are pearls.
Conclusions: I. Some shells are pearls.
II. Some stones are boxes.
(19-20):
Statements: All chains are bangles.
Some bangles are pendants.
No pendant is a ring.
19. Conclusions: I. Some chains are pendants.
II. No chain is a bangle.
20. Conclusions: I. Some rings being pendants is a
4) = 5) None of these
Directions (Q. 26-30): Study the following information
carefully and answer the given questions.
Eight friends A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting in a
straight line facing north. H is on the immediate right of D,
who is not at the end of the row. B is on the immediate left
of E but B is neither a neighbour of A nor sits at the ends of
the row. C and E are not adjacent to each other. There are
three persons between B and H. A is adjacent to F, who is
on the immediate left of C. G is second to the left of H and
is on the immediate right of E.
26. Which of the following statements is true?
1) B is in the middle of the row.
2) H is at the right end of the row.
3) A is second to the left of B.
4) All are true
5) None of these
27. Which of the following pairs sit at the ends of the
row?
1) BH 2) FC 3) AH 4) CB 5) None of these
28. If C faces south then how many persons will be sitting
to the right of C?
1) One 2) Two 3) Three
4) Four 5) None of these
29. If A is related to H and F is related to D in a certain way, of females?
then, following the same way, C is related to which of 1) I, K, L 2) H, N, J 3) H, J, I
the following? 4) M, K, N 5) None of these
1) H 2) B 3) G 4) E 5) None of these 40. Which of the following statements is true?
30. Which of the following persons sits second to the 1) H is son of L 2) K is brother-in-law of I
right of B? 3) M is sister of K 4) I is mother of H and J
1) A 2) C 3) D 4) G 5) H 5) None of these
Directions (Q. 31-35): Study the following information 41. Indias neighbouring countries have seen a surge in
carefully and answer the given questions. their imports of the metal. This gold is then being
In a certain code language speak the truth is written carried across into India by smugglers.
as ke la ta, always seek knowledge is written as bi ti na, Which of the following inferences can best be drawn
knowledge is truth is written as ti ta si and never seek from the above statements?
violence is written as li bi za. 1) There is duty differential between India and its
31. Which of the following codes stands for always? neighbouring countries.
1) ti 2) na 3) bi 2) The tough restrictions on the metals imports could
4) ke 5) None of these be eased.
32. What does the code ta stand for? 3) India has a high current account deficit.
1) truth 2) the 3) speak 4) There has been a sharp depreciation of the rupee.
4) the or speak 5) None of these 5) None of these
33. Which of the following is the code for is? 42. The Competition Commission of India (CCI) has found

K
1) ta 2) bi 3) si Coal India (CIL) guilty of abusing its monopoly against
4) ti 5) None of these power producers.
34. Which of the following can be a code for violence is Which of the following courses of action should best
always seek? be taken?
1) si na bi li 2) za li bi na 3) bi na ta za 1) A coal regulator should be formed.
4) Cant be determined 5) None of these 2) CIL should be asked to appoint an internal audit
35. ke la li za is the code for which of the following? committee.
1) knowledge is always speak 3) The coal sector should be restructured by
2) the violence is truth introducing more players.
3) never speak the violence 4) A public interest litigation (PIL) should be filed

KUNDAN
4) Cant be determined against CIL.
5) None of these 5) None of these
Directions (Q. 36-40): Study the following information 43. India is 9th in a global nation brand study done by
carefully and answer the given questions. Brand Finance, a leading brand valuation company,
H, I, J, K, L, M, N and P are eight family members ahead of countries like Australia, Singapore or
sitting around a circle facing the centre but not necessarily Switzerland. Its brand value has even risen by 10 per
in the same order. There are five females and three males in cent between 2012 and 2013.
the family. L sits second to the right of his sister and on the Which of the following statements substantiates the
immediate left of his wife. J sits third to the right of L. M fact expressed in the above statement?
sits second to the right of her husband P, who is not an 1) Most of the start-ups do not have the critical mass
immediate neighbour of his sister K. I sits second to the to make an impact.
right of H and has two children. N is not an immediate 2) The government has done few road shows.
neighbour of L but son of P. P sits second to the right of L, 3) Foreign investors have problems with the countrys
who is brother of K. administration.
36. How many sons does L have? 4) Indias biggest industrialists are investing in other
1) One 2) Two 3) None markets.
4) Cant be determined 5) None of these 5) None of these
37. Who among the following sits second to the right of 44. Travellers should generally be careful about booking
I? a hotel at the time that a big convention is in town.
1) P 2) J 3) N 4) K 5) None of these Which of the following is the most plausible reason
38. How is K related to J? for exercising this caution?
1) Aunt 2) Sister 3) Mother 1) Hotels boost rates when conventions are going on
4) Father 5) None of these in town.
39. Which of the following groups represents the group 2) Terrorist threats are likely at the time of
 conventions.
3) Conventions are a breeding ground for swindlers
of all types.
4) If you go to a town where a convention is going
on, you are most likely to spend all your time
attending the convention.
5) None of these
45. Its no secret that in America, the wealthy have a
reputation for getting away with murder both literal
and metaphorical provided they pay up.
Which of the following assumptions is implicit in the
above statement? (An assumption is something
supposed or taken for granted.)
1) Murders have become very common in America.
2) It is important to pay in America before you commit
a crime.
3) Money rules the roost in America.
4) Murder does not have a literal meaning.
5) None of these
46. Indias talented young batsmen face a different
K
challenge. They are confronted by the toughest task
in cricket adjusting from low-bouncing pitches to
strips that encourage the faster bowlers to try their
luck by banging a few in their half of the wicket.
Which of the following occasions is most likely to
have elicited this statement?
1) A new Indian cricket team has been selected.
2) Majority of the Indian cricket team consists of fast
bowlers.
3) The Indian cricket team has gone on a foreign tour.
KUNDAN
4) There has been inconsistency of talent in the Indian
cricket team.
5) None of these
47. As the countdown begins for Nissan Motor Indias
ambitious launch of Datsun brand, which aims to take
on Maruti Suzukis Alto and Hyundai Eon head-on,
the Japanese carmaker has begun a road show
covering 100 locations spread over 10 weeks.
Which of the following can best be concluded from
the above statement?
1) The marketing blitz is one of the largest in the Indian
automobile industry in recent times.
2) The average car buyer in India will have plenty to
choose from.
3) There will be an encouraging response from the
car buyers.
4) The company wants to reach out to prospective
first-time car buyers across the country who could
touch and feel the car before closing the purchase.
5) None of these
48. It took the soaring rhetoric of US President Barack
Obama in his eulogy to Mandela to finally bury
the embarrassing legacy of American policy towards
the South African leader during his lifetime. It has taken
a black president of the US to make amends for treating
Mandela as an enemy, long after the Cold War had
ended.
Which of the following can be the best reason for the
assertion made in the above statement?
1) Mandela was opposed to racism.
2) Obama is opposed to racism.
3) The Cold War has now ended.
4) US Presidents are entitled to change their foreign
policy.
5) None of these
49. The alarming surge in the incidence of crimes
committed by juveniles National Crime Research
Bureau data shows a majority of juveniles involved in
crimes are 16 to 18 years of age calls for urgent and
considered action. Studies have shown that children
are now attaining maturity earlier.
Which of the following inferences can be made in the
above situation?
1) Manipulation in date of birth should not be allowed
by certificate-issuing authorities.
2) There should be uniformity in our laws on the age
of majority.
3) Blanket protection should not be extended to all
juveniles below 18 years of age.
4) Juveniles involved in heinous crimes are different
from children in need of care and protection.
5) None of these
50. A hung verdict is just that: divided and unclear. And
Party X would be quite justified in querying why,
despite its consistent stand on governing only in case
of a clear verdict, should the onus of forming the
government be laid at its door.
Which of the following assumptions is implicit in the
above statement? (An assumption is something
supposed or taken for granted.)
1) Party X does not have a clear majority.
2) Party X is the single largest party in the house.
3) Party X is not the single largest party in the house.
4) Both 1) and 2)
5) Both 1) and 3)
Test-II: English Language
Directions (Q. 51-62): Read the passage carefully
and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/
phrases are given in bold to help you locate them while
answering some of the questions.
In the past, the few women professionals who dotted
our corporate landscape suffered in silence, not willing to
complain about discrimination or harassment for fear of
losing their jobs. Today, there is strength in numbers and
women are willing to raise issues of gender discrimination
and sexual harassment publicly. Although women have
greater confidence, financial independence, strong peer
groups and a deeper understanding of their rights, they
are still reluctant to expose issues related to sexual
harassment and to take their tormentors down the legal
path of justice. There exists, unfortunately, a huge
psychological challenge that women, and society as a
whole, need to address. This relates to behavioural
attitudes and codes of conduct in the workplace.
It was in 1997 that a womens rights group called
Vishaka filed a PIL in the Supreme Court in response to a
humiliating legal battle fought by a rape victim in Rajasthan,
who did not get justice and was shamed and ostracised by
her community instead. Consequently, the Supreme Courts
Vishaka judgment laid down guidelines for employers to
deal with complaints of sexual harassment/assault at the
workplace, which included the formation of an independent
redressal committee.
If one looks at the statistics of reported rape cases, it
K
is obvious that women have been denied justice. Between
2009 and 2012, over one lakh cases of rape and molestation
were registered, but, sadly, the convictions declined from
44 per cent in 1973 to 24 per cent in 2012.
Against this backdrop, the alleged sexual assault case
involving the former editor-in-chief of Tehelka, Tarun
Tejpal, has yet again revealed, the ugly truth of how women
are victimised in their workplaces. Worse still, Tejpal initially
confessed to misconduct, and then retracted once he
realised the gravity of the case. The victim, on the other
KUNDAN
hand, has courageously steered the matter on a legal course
and is now braving the onslaught of allegations and tirades
from Tejpals camp. Why did you ride the elevator with
Tejpal for a second time? is one such ridiculous question.
Inane comments such as these, about such serious matters,
are what undermine the status of women in our society.
Another outrageous comment came from a UP politician
who now questions the employability of women. Such
irresponsible utterances must be condemned if we are ever
to build an equitable and modern society. The anger and
outrage expressed this time has reached a critical decibel
level and needs to be channelled into positive change. We
cannot allow our attention span to be so short. We must
act swiftly and surely to ensure that the Vishaka guidelines
are implemented by every organisation. Women must be
empowered and provided a safe working environment.
51. What needs to be done to address the issues of gender
discrimination and sexual harassment at workplace?
1) A womens cell should be established in every
office where women are employed.
2) There should be separate seating arrangement for
women in corporate offices.
3) There should be specific code of conduct to
provide adequate safeguards to women employees.
4) There should be provision for harsh punishment
for those who do not follow the codes of conduct
meant especially to protect women employees.
5) None of these
52. Which of the following is true with regard to women
professionals who worked in corporate offices in the
past?
(A) They were considered as most privileged women
and special treatment was given to them.
(B) They had to suffer in silence because of male
dominance and fear of losing jobs.
(C) They were given special perks and leave facilities.
1) Only (A) 2) Only (B)
3) Only (C) 4) Only (A) and (B)
5) Only (A) and (C)
53. What is the main intention of the author behind
quoting the recent case of Tejpal?
1) To establish that Tejpal is an honest man and has
whole-heartedly confessed his misconduct
2) To show that Tejpal initially could not understand
the gravity of the case
3) To prove that women have become more
courageous to lodge a complaint against a man,
however powerful he may be
4) To make it known that Tejpal has thoroughly been
a controversial man
5) None of these
54. What is the opinion of a UP politician, as mentioned
in the passage regarding the employability of women?
1) That women should be given equal job opportunity
as men
2) That it is not proper to employ women in offices
3) That in most of the cases of shameful instances,
women are more responsible for the event than men,
and hence they should not be employed in public
offices
4) Women must be empowered and provided a safe
working environment.
5) Only 3) and 4)
55. Find the correct statement(s) regarding woman
professionals employed in the corporate world at
present.
(A) Their number has increased significantly and now
they are in a position to raise issues of gender
discrimination and sexual harassment publicly.
(B) They are still not willing to expose issues related
to sexual harassment and take the culprit down
the legal path of justice.
(C) A large number of women working in corporate
offices are holding top positions these days.
1) Only (A) 2) Only (B)
3) Only (C) 4) Only (A) and (B)
5) All (A), (B) and (C)
56. What was/were the outcomes of the PIL filed by the
 womens right group Vishaka?
1) The rape victim ultimately got justice and was gladly
accepted by her community.
2) The Supreme Court laid down guidelines for
employers to deal with complaints of sexual assault
at the workplace.
3) The Supreme Court directed the employers to form
an independent redressal committee.
4) Only 1) and 2)
5) Only 2) and 3)
57. Which of the following statements is not true from the
facts mentioned in the given passage?
1) Over one lakh cases of rape and molestation were
registered between 2009 and 2012.
2) In the year 1973 the rate of conviction was forty
four per cent.
3) In comparison to 1973 there is a surge in conviction
rate in 2012.
4) The statistics of reported rape cases show that
women have been denied justice.
rapprochement between America and Iran.
As it creates possibilities for new geopolitical equations
in a very critical region, the nuclear agreement has already
stirred a big backlash in the United States and the Middle
East hardliners and ideologues in America and Iran will accuse
their governments of giving away too many concessions.
Some of the predictable hostility is rooted in the
demonisation of each other over many decades. But a close
look at the terms of what is being called the first step nuclear
agreement suggests sensible give and take that would instil
mutual confidence and facilitate talks for a final resolution of
the nuclear dispute. For its part, Iran has agreed to freeze
some of the sensitive activities of its nuclear programme and
roll back others. Iran is now open to unprecedented
international inspections to verify its commitments under
the accord. The international community, in turn, has given
modest relief from the massive sanctions regime that has
been constructed in recent years against Iran. To be sure,
the terms of the deal are reversible in practice. The deal,
however, opens the door to a comprehensive settlement

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5) None of these which would ensure that Irans nuclear programme remains
Directions (Q. 58-60): Choose the word/group of peaceful, in return for an end to the international economic
words which is MOST SIMILAR in meaning to the word/ blockade against Tehran.
group of words printed in bold as used in the passage. Time is of the essence for Irans President Hassan
58. Tormentor Rouhani, who is acutely aware that the present window of
1) fugitive 2) colleague 3) offender political opportunity at home to negotiate with the US will
4) manager 5) companion not last too long. President Barack Obama is under fire
59. Backdrop from Israel and the Gulf Arab states, especially Saudi Arabia,
1) attack 2) general situation 3) violence who fear that a US-Iran detente will make them vulnerable
4) reaction 5) substitute to Tehrans rising regional clout. Meanwhile, the US

KUNDAN
60. Onslaught Congress threatens to undermine the deal by pushing for
1) outbreak 2) opposition 3) drive more sanctions against Iran. As Obama and Rouhani move
4) assault 5) thought forward in a political minefield, India has a major
Directions (Q. 61-62): Choose the word/group of opportunity to raise its diplomatic profile in the region,
words which is MOST OPPOSITE in meaning of the word/ where it has so much at stake. Delhi, which has welcomed
group of words printed in bold as used in the passage. the nuclear deal, must step up its engagement with all the
61. Ostracised major players in the region, for the Middle East will not be
1) included 2) survived 3) excelled the same as the prospects for Irans reconciliation with
4) overtook 5) exceeded America improve.
62. Confessed 63. What has Iran agreed to do as per the recent nuclear
1) accepted 2) performed 3) countered agreement? Give your answer in the context of the
4) surpassed 5) denied given passage.
Directions (Q. 63-70): Read the passage carefully 1) Iran has agreed to dismantle all its nuclear arsenals.
and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/ 2) Iran has agreed to freeze some of the sensitive
phrases are given in bold to help you locate them while activities of its nuclear programme.
answering some of the questions. 3) Iran has denied to get its commitments under the
The interim nuclear accord between Iran and the accord inspected by international inspectors.
international community announced after tense negotiations 4) Iran has agreed to discontinue all its nuclear
in Geneva, is historic for two reasons. The deal promises to programmes.
end Irans prolonged nuclear confrontation with the world, 5) None of these
strengthen the global non-proliferation regime and reduce 64. What is/are the importance of the nuclear deal between
the dangers of war in the Middle East. Second, emerging from Iran and the international community?
secret talks between Washington and Tehran over the last 1) The deal lays the foundation for a long overdue
many months, the deal lays the foundation for a long overdue friendship between Iran and America.
 2) The deal will help reduce the dangers of war in the
Middle East.
3) The deal promises to end Irans prolonged nuclear
confrontation with the world.
4) It creates possibilities for a new geopolitical
equation in a very critical region.
5) All the above
65. Find the correct statement(s) on the basis of the given
passage.
(A) In lieu of Irans nuclear agreement, the
international community has given some relief
from certain sanctions against Iran.
(B) In practice, the terms of the deal are irreversible.
(C) The international community has rejected the
request of Iran to continue its nuclear programme
even for peaceful purposes.
1) Only (A) 2) Only (B) 3) Only (C)
4) Both (B) and (C) 5) Both (A) and (B)
66. What is the reason of Saudi Arabias fear?
1) Increasing regional clout of Tehran
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2) As per the recent agreement Iran would not be in a
position to help Saudi Arabia when in need.
3) The regular threats received from the USA
4) US Congress has threatened Saudi Arabia to
impose sanctions if it does not abide by the diktat
of the US.
5) All the above
67. How has India taken the interim nuclear accord
announced between Iran and the international
community?
KUNDAN
1) India thinks that the recent accord will weaken
Tehran and all its neighbouring countries will make
it a soft target.
2) India has welcomed the nuclear deal because this
will provide an opportunity to step up its
engagement in the Middle East.
3) India takes the announcement of nuclear accord as
a big opportunity to raise its diplomatic profile in
Iran.
4) Only 1) and 2)
5) Only 2) and 3)
Directions (Q. 68-69): Choose the word/group of
words which is MOST SIMILAR in meaning of the word/
group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.
68. Instil
1) steal 2) stimulate
3) initiate 4) infuse
5) incite
69. Blockade
1) lump 2) barrier
3) union 4) outburst
5) stroke
Directions (Q. 70): Choose the word/group of words
which is MOST OPPOSITE in meaning to the word/group
of words printed in bold as used in the passage.
70. Rapprochement
1) friendship 2) conflict 3) battle
4) trade 5) enmity
Directions (Q. 71-75): Read each sentence to find out
whether there is any grammatical or idiomatic error in it.
The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The
number of that part is the answer. If there is No error,
the answer is 5). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)
71. 1) Parents are often unaware of the dangers / 2) of
social networking sites / 3) and how to put private
lives online / 4) can seriously harm a youngsters
emotional life. / 5) No error
72. 1) Lalus sentence has sent a clear and loud message
/ 2) to one and all that no one however powerful / 3)
he may be is above the law / 4) and everyone will
have to atone for their sins. / 5) No error
73. 1) Corrupt officials and construction mafia continue
to / 2) jeopardise the lives of thousand of residents /
3) in the country by constructing illegal buildings / 4)
that flout safety regulations. / 5) No error
74. 1) We need to look at / 2) the pros and cons / 3) of
foreign investment / 4) in each sector. / 5) No error
75. 1) We wish to place in the public domain / 2) all facts
and figures available with / 3) the government, initiate
a debate and take decision which / 4) are the best for
the country. / 5) No error
Directions (Q. 76-80): Rearrange the following five
sentences (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) in the proper sequence
to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the
questions given below.
(A) Bank under a contract of guarantee is bound to
honour its guarantee and its obligation to pay is
primary and independent of the underlying
contract between the customer on whose behalf
the guarantee is given and the beneficiary.
(B) Guarantee issued by banks mainly are financial
guarantee, performance guarantee, deferred
payment guarantees and statutory guarantees.
(C) A bank guarantee is a contract by which the bank
guarantees a certain sum to a person/entity on
the customer failing to fulfil any contractual or
legal obligation to the said person/entity.
(D) The only exception for a bank not to make
payment under a guarantee is when a fraud exists,
which must be proved beyond doubt, or special
equity is in favour of the debtor.
(E) This has been settled by the various decisions of
the Courts.
76. Which of the following would be the FIRST sentence
after rearrangement?
1) A 2) B 3) D 4) E 5) C
77. Which of the following would be the SECOND
sentence after rearrangement?
 1) C 2) A 3) B 4) D 5) E 4) 1664 5) 1848
78. Which of the following would be the THIRD sentence 4
92. 6561 0.05 ?
after rearrangement?
1) A 2) E 3) D 4) C 5) B 1) 18 2) 90 3) 180 4) 0.45 5) 45
79. Which of the following would be the FOURTH 93. (343)6.2 ( 7 )8 (2401)2.2 = (7)?
sentence after rearrangement?
1) 4.8 2) 5.2 3) 5.4 4) 5.8 5) 6.2
1) B 2) D 3) C 4) E 5) A
94. (14896 19) 16 = ?
80. Which of the following would be the LAST (FIFTH)
1) 49 2) 54 3) 58 4) 62 5) 67
sentence after rearrangement?
95. 136% of 1245 56% of 1945 = 4 ?
1) E 2) D 3) A 4) B 5) C
1) 143 2) 151 3) 163 4) 177 5) 181
Directions (Q. 81-90): In the following passage, some
Directions (Q. 96-100): The given pie-chart I shows
of the words have been left out, each of which is indicated
the percentage distribution of the total number of students
by a number. Find the suitable word from the options given
appeared and pie-chart II show the percentage distribution
against each number and fill up the blanks with
of the total students passed from five schools.
appropriate words to make the paragraph meaningful.
Pie-chart I
Development is essentially (81) to production of
material goods and services for (82) of people, which is
(83) in indicators like gross domestic production per capita. A
E
The (84) of development has been (85) expanded to (86) 22%
27%
education and health. The expectation is that those

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educated could (87) more to production (88) the B
uneducated. Similarly, the healthier the population, the D
19%
more is the desired production. Unhealthy and uneducated 21% C
population is seen as (89) and a (90) on resources. 11%
81. 1) associated 2) attached
3) connected 4) joined
Total appeared students = 1900
5) related
Pie-chart II
82. 1) consumption 2) usage 3) distribution
4) transfer 5) consideration
83. 1) inherent 2) embedded 3) assumed

KUNDAN
4) reflected 5) deflected E A
84. 1) basis 2) concept 3) rate 21% 25%
4) thesis 5) object
85. 1) nowhere 2) besides 3) mere B
D
4) ever 5) further
27% C 14%
86. 1) alleviate 2) deposit 3) include
13%
4) increase 5) submit
87. 1) contribute 2) subscribe 3) serve
4) cause 5) infringe Total passed students = 1100
88. 1) like 2) then 3) as 96. How many students passed from School D and E
4) than 5) not together?
89. 1) restriction 2) worthless 3) weight 1) 524 2) 528 3) 536 4) 542 5) 548
4) interference 5) retardation 97. How many students failed from School C?
90. 1) leak 2) outlet 3) drain 1) 66 2) 69 3) 72 4) 75 5) 78
4) draw 5) drawback 98. The total number of students appeared from School C
is approximately what per cent of the total number of
Test-III: Quantitative Aptitude students passed from School A?
1) 54% 2) 62% 3) 76% 4) 84% 5) 132%
Directions (Q. 91-95): What value should come in 99. The total number of students passed from School B is
place of question mark (?) in the following equations? approximately what per cent of the total number of
1 students appeared from all schools together?
91. 3.6 of 4.8 of of 1155 = ? 1) 8% 2) 12% 3) 15% 4) 18% 5) 21%
10.8
1) 1242 2) 1308 3) 1512 100. The total number of failed students from School A is
 approximately what per cent of the total number of Directions (Q. 111-115): In each of these questions,
students passed from all schools together? two equations (I) and (II) are given. You have to solve both
1) 8% 2) 13% 3) 17% 4) 21% 5) 24% the equations and give answer
101. A sum of `13000 amounts to `16307.20 in two years 1) if x < y 2) if x > y
when compounded annually. What is the rate of 3) if x y 4) if x y
interest? 5) if x = y, or relationship between x and y cant be
1) 10% pa 2) 11% pa 3) 12% pa 4) 13% pa 5) 14% pa established.
102. In how many different ways can the letters of the word 111. I. 7x2 33x + 20 = 0 II. 7y2 + 9y 10 = 0
MULTIPLE be arranged so that the vowels always 112. I. 7x + 3y = 8 II. 3x + 2y = 12
come together?
113. I. x2 = 289 II. y = 3
2197
1) 4320 2) 2160 3) 1080 4) 40320 5) 20160
2 2
103. Pipe A can fill a water tank in 8 hours, Pipe B can fill the 114. I. 8x 11x + 3 = 0 II. y 8y + 7 = 0
same tank in 12 hours and Pipe C can empty the tank 115. I. x = 1089 II. y2 + y 756 = 0
in 24 hours. If all three pipes are opened together, in
Directions: (Q. 116-120): What will come in place of
how many hours will the tank be completely filled or
question mark (?) in the following number series?
empty?
116. 7 11 18 34 77 ?
1) 4.8 hours 2) 5 hours 3) 5.4 hours
1) 197 2) 201 3) 204 4) 212 5) 219
4) 6 hours 5) 7.2 hours
117. 4 40 162 448 1000 ?
104. A person sold an item for `14280 after giving 15%
1) 1908 2) 1926 3) 1932 4) 1944 5) 1956
discount on the labelled price and earned 19% profit

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118. 7 14 23 34 47 ?
on the cost price. What would have been the
1) 62 2) 67 3) 73 4) 81 5) 96
percentage profit, had he not given the discount?
119. 1 10 33 76 145 ?
1) 30% 2) 34% 3) 40%
1) 312 2) 284 3) 272 4) 257 5) 246
4) 42.5% 5) None of these
120. 9 41 253 2033 20341 ?
105. What principal will amount to `5140.80 in 3 years and
1) 242108 2) 243407 3) 244105
3 months at 8% simple rate of interest?
4) 245804 5) 246320
1) `4050 2) `4080 3) `4220 4) `4260 5) `4350
Directions (Q. 121-125): Following table shows the
106. A man sold a cycle at a loss of 15%. Had he sold it for
percentage of marks obtained by six students in six
`241.87 more he would have gained 24%. For what
different subjects. Answer the following questions based
value should he sell it in order to earn a profit of 30%?
on this table.

KUNDAN
1) `782 2) `792 3) `796 4) `800 5) `806
Subject Hindi English Maths Science GK Economics
107. The average age of the whole class is 12.05 years. The
Student (100) (100) (200) (50) (50) (75)
average age of all girls is 12.5 years and the average
A 83 77 68 64 60 64
age of boys is 11.75 years. If the total number of boys
B 71 67 65 70 62 76
is 45 then what is the total number of girls in the class?
C 65 52 55 46 58 56
1) 20 2) 25 3) 30 4) 35 5) 40
D 48 58 51 42 48 44
108. A man can do a piece of work in 10 days. With the help
E 53 46 45 54 40 60
of a boy he can do the same piece of work in 8 days. If
F 51 62 48 56 50 48
they get `11115 for the work then what will be the 121. What is the total marks scored by Student C?
share of boys? 1) 321 2) 323 3) 327 4) 334 5) 337
1) `2223 2) `2784 3) `3163 122. What is the average marks scored by all students in
4) `3312 5) None of these GK?
109. A person covered a certain distance by bus at the rate 1) 24.5 2) 25 3) 25.5 4) 26 5) 26.5
of 40 kmph and walked back to the initial point at the 123. What is the ratio of marks scored by Student E in
rate of 6 kmph. The whole journey took 13 hours and Science to that scored by Student F in Economics?
48 minutes. What distance did he walk? 1) 2 : 3 2) 3 : 4 3) 4 : 5 4) 5 : 6 5) 7 : 8
1) 60 km 2) 64 km 3) 70 km 124. The marks scored by Student A in English is
4) 72 km 5) 80 km approximately what per cent of the marks scored by
110. A box contains 4 green, 5 red and 6 white balls. Three Student F in GK?
balls are drawn randomly. What is the probability that 1) 128% 2) 216% 3) 254% 4) 308% 5) 342%
the balls drawn are of different colours? 125. The marks scored by Student C in Science is
24 67 21 70 3 approximately what percentage more than the marks
1) 2) 3) 4) 5)
91 91 91 91 13
 scored by Student E in GK?
Company A Company B
1) 3% 2) 12% 3) 15% 4) 18% 5) 24% 50
40 45

Percentage profit
126. If the radius of a circle is increased by 40% then what 40 40
will be the percentage increase in its area? 30
30 25 25 35
1) 40% 2) 64% 3) 96% 30
4) 160% 5) None of these 20 20
20 15
127. A wire is in a square shape whose area is 55 sq ft. If it 10 12
is reshaped into a circle, what will be its area? 0
1) 55 sq ft 2) 70 sq ft 3) 77 sq ft 4) 84 sq ft 5) 110 sq ft 2008 2009 2010 2011 2012 2013
128. Find the number of diagonals of a polygon having 17 Year
sides. 136. Percentage profit of Company B in the year 2009 is
1) 119 2) 238 3) 289 4) 34 5) 68 approximately what per cent of the percentage profit
129. Four plastic sheets of 25 cm 8 cm are arranged to of Company A in the year 2008?
form a square shape. What will be the area of the inner 1) 120% 2) 150% 3) 180% 4) 250% 5) 300%
part of the square formed? 137. For Company A, in which year is the percentage
1) 324 sq cm 2) 289 sq cm 3) 256 sq cm increase in percentage profit over the previous year
4) 196 sq cm 5) 121 sq cm the highest?
130. A brick measures 20 cm 12 cm 5 cm. How many 1) 2009 2) 2010 3) 2011 4) 2012 5) 2013
bricks will be required for a wall 40 m long, 3m high 138. If the income of Company A in the year 2012 was `144.3
and 0.25 thick?

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lakh then what was its expenditure in that year?
1) 20000 2) 25000 3) 32000 4) 46000 5) 64000 1) `107 lakh 2) `111 lakh 3) `115 lakh
Directions (Q. 131-135): Study the following 4) `118 lakh 5) `124 lakh
information carefully and answer the questions given 139. If the income of Company A in the year 2010 is equal
below: to the expenditure of Company B in that year, then
Out of 800 students of a school 60.625% play cricket, what is the ratio of their profits in 2010?
54.625% play football and 43.75% play hockey. 23.625% 1) 1 : 1 2) 4 : 5 3) 2 : 5 4) 2 : 1 5) 1 : 2
students play only cricket, 14% play only football and 140. If the income of Company A in the year 2009 and the
16.875% students play only hockey. expenditure of Company B in the year 2013 are equal
Now answer the following questions based on this and they are `96 lakh each then what is the difference
information. between the profit of Company A in the year 2009 and

KUNDAN
131. How many students are there who play all three the profit of Company B in the year 2013?
games? 1) `1.2 lakh 2) `1.4 lakh 3) `1.6 lakh
1) 92 2) 108 3) 112 4) 124 5) 132 4) `1.8 lakh 5) `2.4 lakh
132. What is the percentage of students who play only
football and hockey? Test-IV: General Awareness
1) 7.2% 2) 8% 3) 8.5% 4) 9.6% 5) 12%
133. How many students are there who play cricket and (with Special Reference to Banking Industry)
hockey but dont play football?
1) 39 2) 42 3) 48 4) 54 5) 57 141. Five East African countries have agreed to adopt a
134. What percentage of students play atmost one type of single currency recently. Which of the following is
game? correct in this regard?
1) 51.5% 2) 52.5% 3) 53.5% 4) 54.5% 5) 56.5% 1) These countries are Kenya, Uganda, Tanzania,
135. How many students are there who play at least two Rwanda and Burundi.
games? 2) These countries are members of the East African
1) 352 2) 364 3) 372 4) 384 5) 256 Community (EAC) economic group.
Directions (Q. 136-140): Following graph shows the 3) These countries have signed a protocol for the
percentage profit of two companies over the years. adoption of a common currency within 2 years.
4) All the above
5) Only 1) and 2)
142. India is providing full grant assistance to set up a
three-tier English Language Training System in nine
provinces of which of the following countries as part
of its assistance to the country?
1) Bangladesh 2) Thailand 3) Maldives
 4) Myanmar 5) Sri Lanka
143. Who among the following has been conferred with
the prestigious 'Order of the Rising Sun, Gold and
Silver Star' award by the govt of Japan recently?
1) E Sreedharan 2) Raghuram Rajan
3) Azim Premji 4) Amartya Sen
5) None of these
144. Who among the following has taken over as Chief
Executive of the Indian Banks Association (IBA), the
representative body of Indian banks and financial
institutions based in Mumbai, recently?
1) K Ramakrishnan 2) Pratip Chaudhuri
3) Mohan V Tanksale 4) Rajeev Rishi
5) None of these
145. In order to ensure security in card-based payment
transactions taking place at point of sale (POS)
terminals or at ATMs, the RBI has advised banks to
follow which of the following measures?
1) Banks may adopt Aadhaar as additional
authentication.
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2) Banks may move to Europay MasterCard Visa
(EMV) chip and pin technology.
3) Banks call centre should call and confirm every
transaction.
4) All the above
5) Only 1) and 2)
146. What is Indias position in the Transparency
International (TI)s Corruption Perceptions Index 2013
released recently? Berlin-based TI is a non-
governmental organisation that monitors and
KUNDAN
publicises corporate and political corruption in
international development.
1) 127 2) 94 3) 84 4) 80 5) None of these
147. Who among the following has been appointed
UNICEFs first brand ambassador for South Asia
recently? He will work for promoting hygiene and
sanitation in the South Asian region for two years.
1) Virat Kohli
2) Shikhar Dhawan
3) Mahendra Singh Dhoni
4) Sachin Tendulkar
5) None of these
148. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has relaxed norms for
non-banking finance companies (NBFCs) involved in
insurance joint ventures. Now NBFCs are allowed to
hold
1) more than 20 per cent in insurance JVs
2) more than 30 per cent in insurance JVs
3) more than 40 per cent in insurance JVs
4) more than 50 per cent in insurance JVs
5) None of these
149. The Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE) has launched a
platform for trading in currency and interest rate
derivatives. Consider the following in this regard:
(A) It will now allow the rupee pair trading in dollar,
euro, pound and the yen on the new currency
derivatives segment.
(B) As per the BSE chief Ashish Chauhan, the
Exchange will not levy any transaction charge on
trades done in the currency derivatives segment
for the first six months.
(C) With the launch, BSE has become the first stock
exchange in the world to start currency and
interest rate derivative scheme.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
1) Only (A) 2) Only (B)
3) Only (C) 4) Only (A) and (B)
5) Only (B) and (C)
150. The recently published book titled The Dwarf s Moon
has been authored by who among the following?
1) Preeti Shenoy 2) Jhumpa Lahiri
3) Devdutt Pattnaik 4) Arnab Mitra
5) None of these
151. The US has exempted which of the following countries
along with India for another six months from tough
financial sanctions imposed on Iran, targeting its oil
sales?
1) China 2) Turkey 3) South Korea
4) All the above 5) None of the above
152. In the recently introduced Companies Act 2013, all
restrictions have been removed on corporate houses
willing to make donations to political parties. Earlier,
what was the upper limit for political contributions
imposed on corporates?
1) 5 per cent of average net profit
2) 5.5 per cent of average net profit
3) 7.5 per cent of average net profit
4) 10.5 per cent of average net profit
5) None of these
153. What does the term FPO stand for?
1) First Public Offer 2) Final Public Offer
3) Follow-on Public Offer 4) Forward Public Offer
5) None of these
154. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has announced to
launch an awareness campaign regarding which of
the following practices recently?
1) Using coins for small transactions
2) Using internet banking for fund transfers
3) Not accepting soiled or damaged currency notes
4) Not writing on currency notes
5) None of these
155. In one of the biggest settlements in pharmaceuticals
history, which of the following companies has agreed
to pay USD 2.5 bn as compensation to around 8,000
US citizens for its faulty hip implants recently?
1) Unilever 2) Reckitt Benckiser
3) Johnson & Johnson 4) GlaxoSmithkline
 5) None of these business. Consider the following in this regard:
156. The Department of Telecommunications (DoT) has (A) Banks desirous of offering insurance broking
slapped `600 cr penalty on which of the following services have to get specific prior approval of
telecom operators of India recently for its alleged RBI.
violation of licence conditions in its merger deal with (B) Validity period for the approval granted for
Spice Communications? insurance broking will be ten years subject to
1) Idea Cellular 2) Bharti Airtel review thereafter.
3) Vodafone 4) Reliance Communication (C) Aspiring banks should have a net worth of not
5) Aircel less than `500 cr and CRAR (capital to risk assets
157. India is all set to raise a 10-metre high embankment ratio) of not less than 10 per cent.
running along the 197-km stretch of the International (D) The level of net non-performing assets should
border along which of the following countries in an not be more than 3 per cent and the bank should
effort to check frequent border crossing? have made profits for the last three consecutive
1) Bangladesh 2) Nepal 3) China years.
4) Myanmar 5) Pakistan Which of the above is/are correct in this regard?
158. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has recently allowed 1) All the above 2) Only (A)
banks to pay interest on rupee savings and term 3) Only (B) 4) Only (A), (C) and (D)
deposits at 5) Only (B), (C) and (D)
1) quarterly or longer intervals 164. What is the upper limit fixed by the RBI for fund
2) shorter than quarterly intervals transfer through National Electronic Fund Transfer

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3) half-yearly or longer intervals (NEFT) facility?
4) yearly intervals 1) `50,000 2) `75,000 3) `150,000
5) None of these 4) `200,000 5) No limit
159. Which of the following has been made compulsory 165. The Supreme Court has directed all States to put in
by the RBI for all debit card transactions from 1 Dec, place draft rules for regulating which of the following
2013? by March 31, 2014?
1) Punching PIN 1) Sale of inflammables in canisters
2) Furnishing ID card 2) Sale of junk food in school canteens
3) Using one-time password sent by the bank 3) Sale of acids and other corrosive substances
4) Shopping at RBI-authorised points of sale only 4) Sale of medicine without prescription

KUNDAN
5) None of these 5) None of these
160. The anti-apartheid icon, Nelson Mandela, died 166. What is Obamacare, a much-talked-about scheme
recently. Which of the following statements is/are launched by the US President Barack Obama?
correct about him? 1) A plan aimed at senior citizens
1) He was South Africas first elected black Prime 2) A plan aimed at pregnant women
Minister. 3) A rehabilitation plan for migrants
2) He spent 27 years in prison after being convicted 4) A healthcare plan
by the apartheid govt. 5) None of these
3) He shared the Nobel Peace Prize of 1993 with 167. The United Nations (UN), in its first global assessment
Frederik Willem de Klerk for their work for peaceful of the state of the planets land resources, have found
termination of the apartheid regime in South Africa. that farmers will have to produce _______ more food
4) All the above by 2050 to feed the worlds expected 9-bn-strong
5) Only 2) and 3) population.
161. Name the cricketer who has won the 2013 LG Peoples 1) 40% 2) 50% 3) 60%
Choice Award of ICC recently. 4) 70% 5) None of these
1) AB de Villiers 2) Virat Kohli 168. Under the MSME Act 2006, an enterprise where the
3) Michael Clarke 4) Sachin Tendulkar investment in plant and machinery is more than `25
5) Mahendra Singh Dhoni lakh but does not exceed `5 cr, is termed as a
162. Which of the following has become the farthest object 1) Micro enterprise 2) Small enterprise
sent by India into the space so far? 3) Medium enterprise 4) Large enterprise
1) Chandrayaan-1 2) SARAL 3) GSAT-7 5) None of these
4) Mangalyaan 5) None of these 169. The US has fined which of the following banks
163. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has released draft USD100 mn for violating sanctions against Iran,
guidelines for entry of banks into insurance broking Sudan, Burma and Cuba recently?
 1) Royal Bank of Scotland 2) JPMorgan Chase
3) Standard Chartered 4) CitiBank
5) None of these
170. The govt has offered an interest-free relief package to
the sugar sector recently. Examine the following in
this regard:
(A) The package to the sugar sector includes interest-
free `7,200-cr loan from banks.
(B) A part of the 12 per cent interest on the amount
will be borne by the Centre and the rest by the
Sugar Development Fund (SDF) created from the
cess collected on cane crushing.
(C) The loans can be repaid in five years and the
millers have also been allowed to restructure all
their existing loans, according to the RBI
guidelines.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
1) Only (A) 2) Only (B) 3) Only (C)
4) All the above 5) Only (A) and (B)
171. The National Tiger Conservation Authority has given
K
its nod to develop a tiger reserve at Nagzira situated
in which of the following states recently? This will be
the fifth tiger reserve of the state.
1) Gujarat 2) Maharashtra
3) Madhya Pradesh 4) Odisha
5) Rajasthan
172. Mauritius has agreed to include a limitation of benefits
(LoB) clause in its revised tax treaty with India recently.
The LoB clauses are typically aimed at
1) promoting appropriate use of tax pacts by third-
KUNDAN
country investors.
2) preventing inappropriate use of tax pacts by third-
country investors.
3) limiting use of tax pacts to Persons of Indian Origin
(PIOs) only.
4) encouraging Mauritius investors to invest half of
all investments in India.
5) None of these
173. CVR Rajendran has been appointed the new Chairman
and Managing Director (CMD) of which of the
following public sector banks recently?
1) Andhra Bank 2) Bank of India
3) Indian Bank 4) Bank of Baroda
5) Union Bank of India
174. What is the priority sector lending target for foreign
banks in India with less than 20 branches (as per cent
to net bank credit)?
1) 20 per cent 2) 22 per cent 3) 30 per cent
4) 32 per cent 5) 40 per cent
175. The Union Cabinet gave its nod to the Telangana Bill
recently. Examine the following statements with respect
to the Bill:
(A) Telangana will comprise 13 districts and the rest
of Andhra Pradesh comprises 10 districts.
(B) Hyderabad will remain the common capital for
both the states for a period not exceeding 10 years.
(C) The Govt of India will extend financial and other
support to the creation of a new capital for the
successor state of Andhra Pradesh.
(D) Polavaram will be declared as a national project
and will be executed by the Union Govt following
all environmental and R&R norms.
Which of the above is NOT true with respect to the
Bill?
1) All are true 2) Only (A)
3) Only (C) 4) Only (A) and (B)
5) Only (A) and (C)
176. Bombay High Court has directed the Union Public
Service Commission (UPSC) and the Centre to
implement what per cent quota in the Indian
Administrative Service for the disabled as per
provisions under the Persons with Disability Act
recently?
1) Three per cent 2) Four per cent 3) Five per cent
4) Six per cent 5) None of these
177. In case of dishonour of a cheque due to insufficient
funds in the account of the person drawing the cheque,
a court can punish the guilty (defaulter) with a prison
term of two years and/or a fine, which can be as high
as ________the cheque amount.
1) twice 2) thrice
3) four times 4) five times
5) None of these
178. The Prohibition of Employment as Manual Scavengers
and Rehab Act 2013 came into force recently. The new
act prohibits
1) Employment of manual scavengers
2) Manual cleaning of sewers and septic tanks
without protective equipment
3) Construction of insanitary latrines
4) All the above
5) Only 1) and 2)
179. The Union Foreign Minister Salman Khurshid
represented India at Manama Dialogue held at Manama
recently. The three-day-long summit was held on which
of the following issues?
1) Climate change
2) Regional and global security
3) Ensuring fuel security for developing nations
4) Doing away with agricultural subsidies
5) None of these
180. Name the golfer who has scripted history, becoming
the first Indian to win Indonesia Open recently.
1) Shiv Kapur 2) Anirban Lahiri
3) Jyoti Randhawa 4) Gaganjeet Bhullar
5) None of these
 190. From smallest to largest, rank the following logical
Test-V: Computer Knowledge pieces of the database : data block, tablespace, extent,
segment.
181. Charts tips can 1) tablespace, segment, extent, data block
1) show the formatting of data label 2) data block, segment, extent, tablespace
2) show the name of a data series 3) segment, extent, data block, tablespace
3) show the value of data point 4) data block, extent, segment, tablespace
4) 2) and 3) 5) None of these
5) None of these 191. Which of the following is not a type of error?
182. The name box 1) Logical error 2) Run time error 3) Syntax error
1) shows the location of the active cell 4) All the above 5) None of these
2) appears below the status bar 192. Which key is used to search any data in a computer?
3) appears below the menu bar 1) F1 2) F2 3) F3
4) All the above 4) F4 5) F5
5) None of these 193. What is the full form of VLSI?
183. SAN stands for 1) Very Large Scale Integration
1) Single area network 2) South area network 2) Very Large Scale Intranet
3) Storage area network 4) Simple area network 3) Very Large Scale Internet
5) None of these 4) Very Large Scale Internetwork
184. To increase font size in MS PowerPoint which short- 5) None of these

K
cut key is used? 194. Which of the following is the location to store a file in
1) CTRL + Shift + < 2) CTRL + Shift + > a drive?
3) CTRL + I 4) CTRL + R 1) File Folder 2) Version 3) Pad
5) F7 4) Folder 5) None of these
185. You receive an e-mail message that informs you that a 195. A dumb terminal has
terrible virus has been unleashed on the Internet and 1) processing ability
that you should warn all the people in your Address 2) data storage space
Book. Which of the following have you most likely 3) extensive memory
encountered? 4) a keyboard and a screen
1) A virus hoax 2) A filter 3) spam 5) an embedded microprocessor

KUNDAN
4) A virus 5) A worm 196. Decryption and encryption of data are the
186. BIOS stands for responsibility of ________ layer.
1) Basic Input Output Service 1) physical 2) network
2) Basic Inner Outer Services 3) session 4) presentation
3) Better Input Output Services 5) transport
4) Better Inner and Outer Services 197. The amount of a cheque is recorded in magnetic ink,
5) None of these using an
187. A ________ computer (also referred to as a laptop) is 1) encoder 2) embosser 3) inscriber
a small, lightweight personal computer that 4) imprinter 5) None of these
incorporates the screen, the keyboard, storage, and 198. Punched cards use
processing components into a single portable unit. 1) Alphanumeric code 2) Hollerith code
1) notebook 2) journal 3) diary 3) EBCDIC code 4) BCD code
4) briefcase 5) None of these 5) ASCII code
188. What is the name of the protocol used to eliminate 199. Offline device is ________.
loops? 1) a device which is not connected to a CPU.
1) Switching 2) ISL 3) Frame Tagging 2) a device which is connected to a CPU.
4) Spanning Tree 5) Scanning 3) a direct access storage device.
189. Which layers of the OSI model are included in the 4) an I/O device.
lower layers? 5) None of these
1) Application, Session, Presentation 200. A Winchester disk is a
2) Data Link, Physical, Transport, Network 1) disk stack 2) removal disk 3) flexible disk
3) Physical, Data Link, Network, Application 4) All the above 5) None of these
4) Session, Data Link, Physical
5) None of these
 K
Answers
(1-6):
at the left and then shift rightward such that
for the numbers, are arranged in ascending
order from right to left, while for words, the
possibility in II exists. Hence, conclusion II
is inherent in first statement.
18. 5; All shells are boxes (A) + All boxes are
(+) Male, () Female number of letters present in the word are pearls (A) = A + A = A = All shells are pearls.

KUNDAN
Person Institute Course arranged in ascending order from right to Hence, conclusion I follows.
() F PTU Computer Science left in the final arrangement. Again, Some stones are shells (I) + All shells
Input: forsake 36 ebullience page 89 10 are boxes (A) = I + A = I = Some stones are
(+) A PTU Textile Designing
quack 42 amicable 56 21 redact boxes. Hence, conclusion II follows.
(+) J SMU Accounts
Step I: page 10 forsake 36 ebullience 89 19. 4; All chains are bangles (A) + Some
(+) I IGNOU MCA quack 42 amicable 56 21 redact bangles are pendants (I) = A + I = No
(+) H SMU Finance Step II: quack 56 page 10 forsake 36 conclusion. Hence, conclusion I does not
() D SMU Accounts ebullience 89 42 amicable 21 redact follow.
() L IGNOU Computer Science Step III: redact 21 quack 56 page 10 forsake Again, All chains are bangles conversion
1. 3 2. 4 3. 3 4. 3 5. 1 36 ebullience 89 42 amicable Some bangles are chains. Hence,
6. 4 Step IV: forsake 42 redact 21 quack 56 page conclusion II does not follow.
(7-8): 10 36 ebullience 89 amicable 20. 2; No pendant is a ring conversion
Step V: amicable 89 forsake 42 redact 21 No ring is a pendant. Hence, conclusion I
quack 56 page 10 36 ebullience does not follow.
Step VI: ebullience 36 amicable 89 forsake Again, All chains are bangles conversion
42 redact 21 quack 56 page 10 Some bangles are chains. Hence,
11. 2 12. 4 13. 3 14. 3 15. 4 conclusion II follows.
16. 5; Some colleges are hostels (I) + No 21. 2; Check options one by one.
7. 3 hostel is an institute (E) = I + E = O = Some Check for option 1)
8. 1; 17 + 6 = 23 km colleges are not institutes. However, the
Jay 23 km far from point X. possibility mentioned in conclusion I exists.
9. 2; Total number of students in the queue Hence, I follows.
= (13 + 6 1 =) 18 Again, No hostel is an institute conversion Thus, R Q is true. Hence 1) does not follow.
Now, Zs position from the right end = (18 No institute is a hostel. Hence, conclusion Check for option 2)
5 + 1) = 14th II follows.
10. 4; 4 9 5 2 6 7 2 8 3 5 8 9 3 9 4 3 6 5 3 9 17. 2; All hammers are needles (A) + Some
6 2 needles are threads (I) = A + I = No
(11-15): conclusion. Hence, conclusion I does not This, leads to R < Q and Q V or V Q.
In each step numbers and words are arranged follow. There is no negative statement. Thus, Hence, 2) follows.
Check for option 3) From (ii) and (iii), 86. 3 87. 1 88. 4 89. 2 90. 3
knowledge ti ... (vii)
From (iii), (v) and (vii), 1
91. 5; ? = 3.6 4.8 1155
is si 10.8
Thus, option 3) does not follow. From (i) and (v) = 1.6 1155 = 1848
Check for option 4) speak/the ke/la ... (viii)
From (ii), (vi) and (vii) 92. 3; ? = 4 6561 0.05 = 9 0.05 = 180
always na ... (ix)
From (iv) and (vi) 93. 4; 7? = (343)6.2 ( 7 ) 8 (2401)2.2
Thus, option 4) does not follow. never/violence li/za ... (xii)
1
22. 1; 31. 2 32. 1 33. 3 34. 1 35. 3 8
(36-40): or, 7? = (73)6.2 7 2 (74)2.2
or, 7 = (7) (7) (7)8.8 = (7)18.6 4 8.8
? 18.6 4

Thus, J < S or S > J is true. And we cant = (7)5.8

compare L and P, or T and J also, P > N. ? = 5.8
Hence, option 2), 3) and 4) do not follow. 94. 1; ? = (14896 19) 16 = 784 16 = 49
23. 3; Check for 1) K < J = I H < G
This lead us to K < H, and J < G or G > J. 136 1245 56 1945
Hence, does not follow. 95. 2; 4 ? =
100 100
Check for 2) K J I = H > G
= 1693.2 1089.2 = 604
This leads us to K H. But we cant compare
or, ? = 604 4 = 151
J and G. Hence, does not follow.
Check for 3) K J = I H < G 96. 2; Total number of students passed from
Thus K H is true and J < G or G > J is also school D and E together

K
true. Hence, option 3) follows. (27 21)
Check for 4) K = J < I < H = G = 1100 = 11 48 = 528
36. 3 37. 2 38. 1 39. 3 40. 4 100
This leads us to K < H and J < G. Hence, does
41. 1; It is the duty differential that has led 97. 1; Total number of students appeared
not follow.
gold to other destinations and its consequent
24. 3; 11
smuggling. from School C = 1900 = 209
Given expression: T S < R = Q > P U 100
42. 3; Note the word monopoly. Increasing
Thus, T < Q or Q > T is true.
competition is the best way out. Total number of students passed from
Option 1) does not follow.
43. 5; All the given choices only negate what
R > U is true. Option 2) does not follow. 13
has been given in the statement. School C = 1100 = 143
And S < Q is true. Hence, S = Q is false. Thus, 100
44. 1; This one is obvious from demand
option 3) follows.
supply match. Failed students = 209 143 = 66
Again, R > P or P < R is true. Hence, option
45. 3; The wealthy can get away with mur- 98. 3; Total number of students appeared
4) does not follow.
der.

KUNDAN
25. 4; Check options one by one. 11
46. 3; When the team goes on a foreign
Check for 1) Z > A = N > S P R from School C = 1900 = 209
tour, adjustment to the new pitches often 100
This means Z > S or S < Z is true. But we
becomes an issue of concern. Total number of students passed from
cant compare A and R. Hence does not
47. 2; Alto, Eon, Datsun The list is in-
follow. 25
creasing. Good news for the consumers.
Check for 2) Z > A = N S P R School A = 1100 = 275
48. 2; Whose attitude has changed? That of 100
This means A R but we cant compare Z
the US under the leadership of Obama.
and S. Hence does not follow. 209
Clearly, he is a votary of non-discrimination 100 = 76%
Check for 3) Z > A = N < S P R Reqd % =
on the basis of colour that Obama is a 275
This means A < R. We cant compare Z and
black president has been highlighted.
S. Hence, does not follow. 14
49. 3; The real issue here is that such crimi-
Check for 4) Z > A = N = S P R 99. 1; Bpass = 1100 = 154
nals are juvenile by age but adult by deeds. 100
This leads to Z > S or S < Z is true and A R
50. 1; The party would govern only in case Total number of students appeared = 1900
or R A is true. Hence, follows.
of a clear verdict. The assumption, there-
(26-30): 154
fore, is that it does not have a clear verdict 100 8.1 8%
Reqd % =
at present. 1900
51. 3 52. 2 53. 3 54. 2 55. 4
56. 5 57. 3 58. 3 59. 2 60. 4 22 25
61. 1 62. 5 63. 2 64. 5 65. 1 100. 2; AFail = 1900 1100
100 100
26. 2 27. 3 28. 2 29. 3 30. 4 66. 1 67. 2 68. 4 69. 2 70. 5
= 418 275 = 143
(31-35): 71. 3; Replace to put with putting
Total number of students passed from all
speak the truth ke la ta ... (i) 72. 1; Replace clear and loud with loud and schools together
always seek knowledge bi ti na ... (ii) clear
knowledge is truth ti ta si ... (iii) 73. 2; Replace thouand with thousands 143
never seek violence li bi za ... (iv) Reqd % = 100 13%
74. 5 1100
From (i) and (iii), 75. 3; Replace decision with decisions
truth ta ... (v) n
(76-80): CBAED r
From (ii) and (iv), 101. 3; A = P 1
76. 5 77. 3 78. 1 79. 4 80. 2 100
seek bi ... (vi)
81. 5 82. 1 83. 4 84. 2 85. 5
 107. 3; Let the number of girls be x. or, x = 17
2
r The number of boys is 45.
or, 13000 1 = 16307.20 II. y = 3 2197
100 Total age of boys and girls in the class
= (x + 45) 12.05 y = 13
2 2 or, (x + 45) 12.05 = 45 11.75 + x 12.5 Hence, we cant find a relationship between
r 16307.20 112
or, 1 or, 12.05x + 542.25 = 528.75 + 12.5x x and y.
100 13000 100
or, 13.5 = 0.45x 114. 3; I. 8x2 11x + 3 = 0
r 112 13.5 or, 8x2 8x 3x + 3 = 0
or, 1 or, x = 30 or, 8x(x 1) 3(x 1) = 0
100 100 0.45
or, (8x 3) (x 1) = 0
r 12 108. 1; In one day boys can do
or, 3
100 100 1 1 54 1 or, x = 1,
= = part 8
r = 12% per annum 8 10 40 40
II. y2 8y + 7 = 0
102. 2; We consider all three vowels (U, I, So, boys can finish the work in 40 days. or, y2 y 7y + 7 = 0
E) as one letter, so total number of letters Now, Mens share : Boys share = 40 : 10 or, y(y 1) 7(y 1) = 0
= 6, and three vowels can be arranged in 3! =4:1 or, (y 1) (y 7) = 0
ways among themselves. However, the letter or, y = 1, 7
L comes twice.) 11115
Boys share = 1 = `2223 x y
5
6! 3! 115. 2; I. x = 1089
Total number of ways = 109. 4; Let the distance be x km.
2! or, x = 33
= 720 3 = 2160 x x 48 69 II. y2 + y 756 = 0
Then, 13
103. 4; If all three pipes are opened together, 40 6 60 5 or, y2 + 28y 27y 756 = 0

K
in one hour they will fill or, y(y + 28) 27(y + 28) = 0
23x 69 or, (y 27) (y + 28) = 0
1 1 1 3 2 1 1 or,
= part of tank. 120 5 or, y = 27, 28
8 12 24 24 6 x>y
So, to fill it completely it will take 6 hours. 69 120 116. 2; The series is
or, x = = 72 km
23 5 7 11 18 34 77 201
14280 100
104. 3; Labelled price = 110. 1; Total number of balls = 15
85 43 124
4 7 16
= `16800 n(S) = 15 C3 455
Now, we have to pick one ball of each colour. 3 9 27 81
14280 100 117. 4; The series is 12 4, 22 10, 32 18,
Now, cost price = = `12000 2 2 2
119 n(E) = 4 C1 5 C1 6 C1 = 4 5 6 = 120 4 28, 5 40, 6 54 ...
118. 1; The series is 2 3 + 1, 3 4 + 2,

KUNDAN
16800 12000 120 24 4 5 + 3, 5 6 + 4, 6 7 + 5, 7 8 + 6, ...
% profit = 100 P(E) = =
12000 455 91 119. 5; The series is 1 2 2 1, 22 3 2,
32 4 3, ...
4800 100 111. 4; I. 7x2 33x + 20 = 0 120. 3; 4 + 5, 6 + 7, 8 + 9, ...
= = 40% or, 7x2 28x 5x + 20 = 0 121. 1; Total marks scored by Students C
12000
or, 7x(x 4) 5(x 4) = 0
105. 2; Let the principal be `x. 1 1
or, (7x 5) (x 4) = 0 = 65 + 52 + (55 2) + (46 ) + (58 )
x 3.25 8 2 2
Now, 5140.8 x = 5
100 or, x = 4, 3
7
+ (56 )
or, 514080 100x = 26x 2 4
II. 7y + 9y 10 = 0
514080 or, 7y2 + 14y 5y 10 = 0 = 65 + 52 + 110 + 23 + 29 + 42 = 321
or, x = = `4080 or, 7y(y + 2) 5(y + 2) = 0 122. 5; Average marks scored in GK
126
106. 5; Let the cost price be `x. or, (7y 5) (y + 2) = 0 1 1
= (60 + 62 + 58 + 48 + 40 + 50)}
5 6 2
85x or, y = , 2 Hence, x y
Selling price = 7 1 1 159
100
112. 1; I. 7x + 3y = 8 = ( 318) = = 26.5
6 2 6
124x II. 3x + 2y = 12
If profit is 24% then selling price = 54
100 Now, solving both the eqns, we get 50 27
123. 2; EScience =
eqn (i) 2 eqn (ii) 3 100
124x 85x
Now, = 241.8 14 x 6 y 16 48
100 100 FEconomics = 75 36
2 x 6 y 36 100
24180 5x 20
or, 39x = 24180 or, x = = `620 27 3
39 Ratio = = =3:4
x = 4 and y = 12 36 4
130 x<y 124. 4; AEnglish = 77
For 30% gain SP = 620 = `806 113. 5; I. x2 = 289
100
 130. 2; Volume of brick
50 25 20
FGK = 50 25 In 2010 100 = 25%
100 20 12 5 3 20
= cu m
100 100 100 2500
77 40 25 15 100
Reqd % = 100 308% Volume of wall = 40 3 0.25 = 30 cu m In 2011 100 = = 60%
25 25 25
30 2500
46 Number of bricks = = 30 30 40
125. 3; CScience = 50 = 23 3 3 In 2012 100 = 25% (decrease)
100 25
2500
40 = 25000 45 30 15
EGK = 50 = 20 In 2013 100 = 100 = 50%
100 (131-135): 30 30
Hence, in 2009 the percentage increase in
(23 20) 100 300
Reqd % = = = 15% profit is the maximum.
20 20
100 14430
126. 3; Let the initial radius be x m. 138. 2; ExA = 144.3 (100 30) =
Area = x2 130
After increase, area = (1.4x) 2 = 1.96 x2 = `111 lakh
2 139. 1; Let the income of Company A and
0.96 x expenditure of Company B be equal to
Reqd % = 100 96%
x2 `x ea ch.
x + y + k = 485 189 = 296 ... (i)
127. 2; Perimeter of square Expenditure of Company A = 0.8x
x + z + k = 437 112 = 325 ... (ii)
= Perimeter of circle and PA = x 0.8x = 0.2x
y + z + k = 350 135 = 215 ... (iii) Expenditure of Company B = x
= 2 r = 4 55 x + y + z + k = 800 (189 + 112 + 135) Income of Company B = 1.2x

K
= 364 ... (iv) Profit of Company B = 1.2x x = 0.2x
4 55 Solving all four eqns, we get Ratio = 1 : 1
r= x = 149, y = 39, z = 68 and k = 108
2 140. 3; Profit of Company B2013 = 96 1.15
131. 2 96 = 110.4 96 = `14.4 lakh
2
4 55 16 55 68 100
Area = = 132. 3; Reqd % = 100 = 8.5% Profit of Company A = 96 96
2 22 800 120
4
7 133. 1; 39 = 96 80 = `16 lakh
= 70 sq ft Difference = 16 14.4 = `1.6 lakh
(189 112 135)
128. 1; Number of diagonals 134. 4; Reqd % = 100 141. 5 142. 5 143. 1 144. 3 145. 5
800 146. 2 147. 4 148. 4 149. 4 150. 4
17(17 3) 17 14 151. 4 152. 3 153. 3 154. 4 155. 3
= 119 436
2 2 = = 54.5% 156. 1 157. 5 158. 2 159. 1 160. 5

KUNDAN
8 161. 5 162. 4 163. 4 164. 5 165. 3
135. 2; Number of students playing at least 166. 4 167. 4 168. 2 169. 1 170. 4
129. 2; two games = 149 + 39 + 68 + 108 = 364 171. 2 172. 2 173. 1 174. 4 175. 2
176. 1 177. 1 178. 4 179. 2 180. 4
30
136. 4; Reqd % = 100 250% 181. 4 182. 1 183. 3 184. 2 185. 4
12 186. 1 187. 1 188. 4 189. 2 190. 4
137. 1; For Company A, the percentage 191. 5 192. 3 193. 1 194. 4
increase 195. 4; A dumb terminal in computing
consists of a computer screen and a keyboard
20 12 800
We can see AB = AD = 17 cm In 2009 100 = 66.66% but practically has no processing ability.
Area of inner part = (17)2 = 289 sq cm 12 12 196. 4 197. 1 198. 2 199. 1 200. 1
PRACTICE SET

IBPS PO-CWE
7. How many words/numbers are there between 58 and
Test-I: Reasoning Ability price in Step III?
1) One 2) Two 3) Three
1. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word 4) None 5) None of these
INTEREST each of which has as many letters between 8. Which of the following steps would be the last step
them in the word as in the English alphabetical series? but one?
1) None 2) One 3) Two 1) III 2) IV 3) V 4) VI 5) None of these
4) Three 5) More than three Directions (Q. 9-10): Study the following information
2. How many meaningful English words can be formed carefully and answer the given questions:
with the letters MLEI using each letter only once in There are six letters O, R, U, D, N and A which are
each word? arranged in a particular manner such that A is placed fourth
1) One 2) Two 3) Three to the left of N. O is not placed immediately next to either A
4) None 5) None of these or N. Both letters R and U are placed immediately next to O.

K
Directions (Q. 3-8): Study the following information D is not at the left end of the row.
carefully and answer the given questions. 9. Which of the following pairs sits at the extreme ends
A word and number arrangement machine when given of the row?
an input line of words and numbers rearranges them 1) OD 2) AD 3) NA
following a particular rule in each step. The following is an 4) DN 5) None of these
illustration of the input and its rearrangement: 10. Which of the following meaningful words will be
Input : success cause 81 follow 25 related 31 give 19 35 formed after arrangement?
Step I: 31 cause 81 follow 25 related give 19 35 success 1) DAROUN 2) ARDOUN 3) AROUND
Step II: 31 25 cause 81 follow give 19 35 related success 4) ARUNOD 5) None of these
Step III: 31 25 35 cause 81 give 19 follow related success Directions (Q. 11-15): In the following questions, the

KUNDAN
Step IV: 31 25 35 81 give 19 cause follow related success symbols $, @, , and # are used with the following
Step V: 31 25 35 81 19 give cause follow related success meanings as illustrated below:
Step VI: 4 7 8 9 10 give cause follow related success A $ B means A is neither greater nor smaller than B
Step VI is the last step of the rearrangement of the A @ B means A is neither greater than nor equal to B
above input. A B means A is neither smaller than nor equal to B
As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out A B means A is not smaller than B
in each of the questions the appropriate step for the given A # B means A is not greater than B
input. In each of the following questions, assuming the given
Input: inflation 92 73 loan 68 price economic 58 79 statements to be true, find out which of the two conclusions
credit 69 service I and II given below them is/are definitely true. Give answer
3. How many steps will be required to complete the 1) if only conclusion I is true.
arrangement of the above input? 2) if only conclusion II is true.
1) Five 2) Six 3) Seven 3) if either conclusion I or II is true.
4) Eight 5) None of these 4) if neither conclusion I nor II is true.
4. If inflation is related to 73 and economic is related 5) if both conclusions I and II are true.
to 58, in the same way service is related to which of 11. Statements: W P, P G, G @ I, I # N
the following in Step III? Conclusions: I. I P II. N # W
1) price 2) 68 3) loan 4) 79 5) None of these 12. Statements: U @ D, D $ E, E Y, Y W
5. Which of the following would be at the 6th position Conclusions: I. W @ E II. D W
from the left in Step IV? 13. Statements: Z N, N # K, K $ M, M @ R
1) loan 2) 79 3) price 4) 16 5) None of these Conclusions: I. M $ N II. M N
6. What will be the position of credit in Step II? 14. Statements: V D, D T, K $ T, K # F
1) 9th from the left 2) 6th from the right Conclusions: I. D K II. T F
3) 5th from the right 4) 7th from the left 15. Statements: S $ Q, Q @ B, B K, K # W
5) None of these Conclusions: I. K # S II. S @ W
 Directions (Q. 16-21): Study the following information 25. What is the code for price?
carefully and answer the given questions. 1) sa 2) ha 3) ta
L, N, P, R, M, Q, T and Y are the members of a committee 4) ka 5) Either ka or sa
sitting around a circular table but not facing the centre. 26. low price in economic can be coded as
Each member has a different zodiac sign, viz Leo, Virgo, 1) na pa ka la 2) pa sa na ja 3) ka sa na pa
Libra, Cancer, Aries, Gemini, Pisces and Scorpio, but not 4) Cant be determined 5) None of these
necessarily in the same order. Directions (Q. 27-31): In each question below are
T is third to the right of P. The one whose sunsign is given two/three statements followed by two conclusions
Leo is second to the left of the one whose sunsign is Libra. numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to
Ys sunsign is Libra and is sitting exactly between P and L. be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly
The one whose sunsign is Pisces sits second to the right known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide
of N. The one whose sunsign is Aries is second to the which of the given conclusions logically follows from the
right of the person whose sunsign is Gemini. P sits third to given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.
the left of the person whose sunsign is Virgo. Neither Q Give answer
nor L is the immediate neighbour of N. Q is fourth to the 1) if only conclusion I follows.
left of L. Ns sunsign is neither Cancer nor Aries. The person 2) if only conclusion II follows.
whose sunsign is Leo is sitting second to the right of the 3) if either conclusion I or II follows.
person whose sunsign is Cancer. Rs sunsign is Leo and is 4) if neither conclusion I nor II follows.

K
not an immediate neighbour of N. 5) if both conclusions I and II follow.
16. Which of the following is Ns sunsign? 27. Statements: Some glasses are cups.
1) Pisces 2) Scorpio 3) Gemini All cups are balls.
4) Cant be determined 5) None of these No ring is a ball.
17. Who sits third to the right of L? Conclusions: I. Some glasses are balls.
1) P 2) Y 3) R II. No cup is a ring.
4) Q 5) None of these (28-29):
18. What is Ys position with respect to Q? Statements: No cat is a dog.
1) Third to the left 2) Fourth to the left No dog is a monkey.
3) Second to the right 4) Third to the right Some monkeys are rats.

KUNDAN
5) Second to the left 28. Conclusions: I. No cat is a monkey.
19. How many persons are there between P and N? II. Some rats are not dogs.
1) None 2) Two 3) Three 29. Conclusions: I. Some rats are monkeys.
4) Four 5) None of these II. Some monkeys are cats.
20. What is the sunsign of P? (30-31):
1) Gemini 2) Libra 3) Leo Statements: All books are goods.
4) Cant be determined 5) None of these All goods are bags.
21. Which of the following combinations is true? Some bags are luggages.
1) M Gemini 2) P Cancer 3) N Scorpio 30. Conclusions: I. No bag is a book.
4) None is true 5) All are true II. Some books are luggages.
Directions (Q. 22-26): Study the following information 31. Conclusions: I. Some goods are luggages.
carefully and answer the given questions. II. Some luggages are bags.
In a certain code language, the economic growth of Directions (Q. 32-36): Study the following information
India is written as fa di ga hi na, high price low growth carefully and answer the questions given below:
state is written as ha ga ta sa ka, growth of the united There are eight employees S, T, U, V, W, X, Y and Z of
state is written as ta hi fa ga la and high inflation in an organisation working in three departments viz P, Q and
India is written as di ha ja pa. R. Each of them has a different choice of colours, viz Blue,
22. What is the code for economic? Yellow, Orange, White, Green, Violet, Brown and Black, but
1) fa 2) na 3) hi not necessarily in the same order. There are not more than
4) di 5) None of these three employees in any department.
23. ta is the code for V likes Brown colour and does not work in department
1) growth 2) of 3) state R. Z does not work in department Q and does not like
4) the 5) None of these either Yellow or White colour. W works in department Q
24. high rate in india can be coded as and likes neither Blue nor Yellow colour. Y works in
1) si di pa ha 2) pa di ha sa 3) ha pa ga fa department P with only U, who likes Black colour. S and X
4) ha na pa di 5) None of these do not work in the same department as W. The one who
likes Blue colour works in department Q. The one who
likes Orange colour works in department P. Those who
work in department Q like neither White nor Green colour.
X does not like Yellow colour.
32. Which of the following colours does Z like?
1) Orange 2) Green 3) Brown
4) Blue 5) None of these
33. Which of the following groups of employees works in
department Q?
1) TVW 2) UVW 3) VWZ
4) TVS 5) None of these
34. Who among the following likes Violet colour?
1) T 2) S 3) W
4) V 5) Cant be determined
35. In which of the following departments does S work?
1) P 2) Q 3) R
4) Cant be determined 5) None of these
36. Which of the following combinations is true?
1) V P Black 2) V Q Brown
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3) T R Green 4) All are true
5) None of these
Directions (Q. 37-40): Each of the questions below
consists of a question and two statements numbered I and
II given below it. You have to decide whether the data
provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the
question. Read both the statements and give answer
1) if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to
answer the question, while the data in statement II
alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
KUNDAN
2) if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to
answer the question, while the data in statement I
alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
3) if the data either in statement I alone or in statement
II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
4) if the data in both the statements I and II together
are not sufficient to answer the question.
5) if the data in both the statements I and II together
are necessary to answer the question.
37. Three apples A1, A2 and A3 are shared by five persons
D, E, F, G and H. D shares apple A3 with H. Apple A2 is
shared with F, who shares it with G but not with E.
Who among them definitely ate a single apple?
I. G did not get share in apple A3 while E did not get
share in apple A2.
II. H likes to share apple A3, but not with E.
38. What is the relation between Q and A?
I. P is son of R, who is mother of As fathers sister
and grandmother of Q.
II. N is brother-in-law of P and he has two children. P
is a bachelor.
39. Among Z, K, N, R and M, is M greater than N?
I. K is either greater than or equal to N, who is either
smaller than or equal to Z. Z is greater than R, who
is equal to M.
II. Z is greater than N and either smaller than or equal
to K, who is equal to R and M is greater than R.
40. L, M, N, O, P, Q, R and S are standing in a straight line
facing north. Who sits at the ends of the row?
I. S is fourth to the right of O, who is the immediate
neighbour of N. L is second to the left of N, who is
third to the left of Q.
II. L is fourth to the left of O and is at one end of the
row. N is fourth to the right of S, who is not a
neighbour of O.
41. Player X, one of the best tennis doubles players of all
time and certainly Indias best alongside Player Y, has
been dropped for the tie against Chinese Taipei.
Which of the following may be a probable cause for
taking the above step?
1) He has fallen victim to a battle with the
establishment.
2) Player Y is not available for selection.
3) There is lack of transparency and accountability in
selection.
4) The form of Player Y has of late been on the wane.
5 None of these
42. The rupee has been under considerable stress.
Which of the following can be a possible effect of the
above cause?
1) The rupee has been depreciated.
2) The RBI has decided to release cash into the market.
3) The RBI has clamped down on rupee forward
contract transactions.
4) There will be lesser shocks from the overseas
market.
5) None of these
43. Prime Minister Manmohan Singh may slash the
Cabinet Committee on Investments (CCI) threshold
limit by half to `500 crore to get more stalled projects
moving again as the governments term nears its end.
Which of the following is not in line with the Prime
Ministers statement?
1) A committee was set up in January 2013 to revive
projects that have got stuck due to various reasons.
2) Industrial growth slumped to a negative 0.2% in
the first eight months of 2013-14.
3) The PM is committed to reviving Indias growth
impulses till his last day in office.
4) As of now, CCIs mandate allows it to push for time-
bound clearances to investments of `1,000 crore
or more.
5) None of these
44. Beverage and snacks maker PepsiCo India is pushing
to become more aggressive in the market as it battles
Coca-Cola in soft drinks and ITC and Parle in foods.
Which of the following can be a part of possible
fallout of the above situation?
1) The company is battling growth slowing across
 foods and beverages, fluctuating weather
conditions that make market behaviour
unpredictable and consumers turning to healthier
foods and drinks.
2) The foods business is getting increasingly
fragmented.
3) The company has made sweeping changes in its
senior leadership structure.
4) Its top eight brands generate a business of about
`1,000 crore each.
5) None of these
45. In its mid-quarter policy review on 18 December, RBI
kept its policy rate unchanged at 7.75%, hoping for a
drop in the inflation rate because of an expected fall in
food prices.
Which of the following statements substantiates the
views expressed in the above statement?
1) The Consumer Price Index (CPI)-based inflation has
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come down just because of the softening of
vegetable prices while prices of many other
components of food inflation are still hardening.
2) Factory output contracted for a second straight
month in November, by 2.1%, because of a sharp
decline in production of consumer durables.
3) Since he took charge in September, RBI
governorRaghuramRajanhasraisedthekeypolicy
rate twice, from 7.25% to 7.75%.
4) State governments have done away with middlemen
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in the sale of fruits and vegetables by amending
the Agricultural Produce Market Committee Act.
5) None of these
46. Gold investors lost heavily in 2013.
Which of the following inferences cannot be drawn
from the above statement? (An inference is something
which is not directly stated but can be inferred from
the given facts.)
1) Great myths had been woven around gold.
2) Exchange-traded funds made investment in gold
too easy.
3) The investors forgot that what goes up must come
down.
4) People put only their hard-earned money into the
metal.
5) None of these
47. The home branch concept has become irrelevant in
banking.
Which of the following can be a probable cause(s) of
the above phenomenon?
(A) The customers of the bank have become too busy,
hopping from one city to another.
(B) Banks are now planning to introduce account
portability.
(C) Most bank branches are now on core banking
solutions, through which all account holder
information is maintained in a centralised
database.
1) Only C 2) Only B and C 3) Only B
4) All the three 5) Only A and C
48. Car X failed to enthuse consumers. One common
explanation is that the car was promoted for its low
price rather than its features.
Which of the following can be a course(s) of action to
tackle the situation?
(A) A revamped version of the car should be
launched.
(B) A fuel-efficient version of the car should be
launched.
(C) A variant of the car should be launched with a
power steering.
1) Only B 2) Only A 3) Only A and B
4) Only B and C 5) All the three
49. Party X lost the election due to anti-incumbency.
Which of the following substantially weakens the
argument given in the above statement?
1) People were unhappy with the party in power.
2) There are instances of chief ministers enjoying
power for as long as 15 years.
3) The default setting for governance involved
bypassing substantive resolution of peoples
issues in favour of calculated exercises in political
expediency aimed at securing another innings in
power.
4) It is difficult to honour everyones wishes once
you are in power.
5) None of these
50. Just as at present, I will take up whatever
responsibility is given to me by my party in the future
and do it diligently to the best of my abilities. Mr
X, a politician
Which of the following assumptions is implicit in the
above statement? (An assumption is something
supposed or taken for granted.)
1) Mr X is the PM nominee for the next elections.
2) Mr X may become the prime minister of the country.
3) Mr X may not become the prime minister of the
country.
4) Either 2) or 3)
5) Mr X is the prime minister of the country.
Test-II: English Language
Directions (Q. 51-70): Read the passage carefully
and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/
phrases are given in bold to help you locate them while
answering some of the questions.
In spite of its well-deserved reputation as one of the
worlds leading information technology and software
development hubs, India is far from being the connected
society many foreigners imagine...
Today India, with a population of 1.2 billion people,
has more than 600 million mobile-phone users but only
about 150 million people regularly connect to the internet.
In 2011, Indias internet penetration rate (the percentage of
the population using the internet) was 11%, according to
the International Telecommunication Union. Thats far
below that of developed nations, where penetration rates
average 70%, and less than a third of Chinas penetration
ratio of 38%. Its also less than half the penetration rates
for all developing countries, which average 24%. The
number of Indias broadband users, 20 million, is even
smaller. By any reasonable definition, India is an internet
laggard. The internet in India today feels a little like where
it was in America in about 1994 four years before Google
was even born.
The good news is that theres tremendous potential
for increased internet penetration to have a positive impact
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on Indias economy and society. India is on the cusp of a
connectivity revolution. India has the chance to leapfrog
its current connectivity challenges, bring internet access
to a majority of its citizens and even raise its penetration
ratio to 60% or 70% within the next five to ten years.
Connecting its next 500 million will make India the largest
open-access internet market in the world. In 10 years time,
it will be almost impossible for any child in India to imagine
what life was like before the internet. But to realise that
promise, India must make the right technology choices.
KUNDAN
One key choice will be how and how quickly India
builds out the fixed-line networks in its cities and towns.
Fibre-optic cables are, by far, the best way to promote higher
connectivity. You want to bury them underground in every
place you can: every road, every path, every ditch, every
piece of land... A second area to get right is cellular
technology. India should make the transition from 2G and
3G to 4G technology as quickly as possible because 4G
makes far more efficient use of the spectrum and users can
get so much more bandwidth out of it. It may take time for
India to achieve these two goals because its
telecommunications industry is undercapitalised and has
a lot of debt. But I am confident that eventually the
transformation will happen.
Investing in a bigger, faster telecommunications
network will have a big payoff for India as that network
combines with one of the most radically life-altering
developments of the last decade: the emergence of
moderately priced mobile devices.
India is sure to witness a customer-driven revolution
on a scale weve never seen before in education, financial
services, health care, entertainment, and almost every
conceivable aspect of life. In education alone, the
possibilities are staggering. Parents who believe their
children are not getting proper instruction in local schools
will be able to use mobile phones or tablets to help fulfil
their kids educational needs. Great teachers can connect
to children in remote villages. Indian students can watch
Ivy League professors on YouTube or share knowledge
and ideas by video chat with experts or other students
thousands of kilometres away.
Similar changes are in store for banking and financial
services. India has a huge number of people whose banking
needs are underserved. The governments Unique
Identification project, led by Nandan Nilekani, is creating
enormous new possibilities for e-commerce. Already were
seeing the emergence of many new start-ups created to help
middle-and lower-income consumers move money around,
and because of the sheer scale of the market in India, these
new businesses are likely to be highly profitable.
The creative potential of Indias people can be seen in
Silicon Valley, where India-born entrepreneurs account for
40% of startups. Just think what will happen when Indias
entrepreneurial innovators are able to create great global
companies without leaving their country. Theyll change
the world.
Hundreds of large firms focused on the internet will
be founded and will succeed by focusing purely on Indian
consumers, Indian taste, Indian style, Indian sports. Can
one of those companies ultimately become the next Google?
Of course. That may not happen for quite a few years. But
if India plays its cards right, well soon see Indian engineers
and small businesses tackling Indian problems first, then
exporting the solutions that work best.
Internet freedom will produce information and images
that are displeasing, even appalling to many segments of
society. False accusations and hateful commentary are
inevitable, if unfortunate, components of the internet mix.
But trying to control what people say is a losing
proposition. It is much better to let good speech overwhelm
bad speech, using the kinds of principles that have worked
reasonably well on the free and open internet we enjoy in
the US and other developed countries.
Having witnessed Indias progress over the past
decade, it is hard not to be optimistic about the next 10
years. Global success and a vast improvement in living
conditions for hundreds of millions of its citizens are within
the countrys grasp, but only if Indias leaders invest in
the right infrastructure and embrace the transparency and
openness of the internet.
51. Why is the author hopeful that investing in a bigger
telecom network will pay a handsome dividend to
India?
1) Because of easy availability of cheaper Chinese
mobile phones in India
2) Because, in addition to computer users, internet is
being used by a vast majority of mobile-phone users
3) Because internet literacy in India has reached a
dramatic high level
 4) Because of better paying capacity of the Indian
masses.
5) All the above
52. What is/are the stumbling block(s) in the way of Indias
becoming an advanced internet user country?
1) Illiteracy of the people of India
2) Reluctance of the Ministry of Telecom
3) Undercapitalised and debt-ridden telecom industry
4) Lack of internet service providers in India
5) All the above 58.
53. What, according to the author, is good news for India
according to the passage?
1) India can raise internet penetration ratio up to 70%
within the next 5-10 years.
2) In India, connectivity revolution is imminent.
3) India has tremendous potential for increased
internet penetration.
4) Internet will have a positive impact on Indias
(A) By making popular cartoon shows available on
their mobile phones
(B) By fulfilling educational needs of school children
by their parents using mobile phones or tablets.
(C) By availing chatting facilities with their friends
sitting far away from them.
1) All (A), (B) and (C) 2) Only (A) and (B)
3) Only (B) and (C) 4) Only (A) and (C)
5) Only (B)
Find the incorrect statement on the basis of the given
passage.
1) India is not providing banking services to a large
number of people.
2) The governments unique identification project is
creating enormous new possibilities for e-
commerce.
3) Many different types of businesses have emerged
to help middle-and lower-income consumers earn

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economy and society. profit.
5) All the above 4) The new businesses are likely to be highly
54. What is foreigners perception about internet profitable because of the growing Indian market.
connectivity in India? 5) All the above are correct statements
(A) In India internet connectivity is on a par with 59. What would be the probable results if no restriction is
developed nations. imposed on the usage of internet?
(B) In India a lot of steps have already been taken to (A) The number of internet users will increase
make it a fully connected society. significantly.
(C) India does not come under the purview of internet (B) Displeasing and appalling information and images
connected society as of now. may be sent to targeted persons or society

KUNDAN
1) Only (A) 2) Only (B) through internet.
3) Only (C) 4) Only (A) and (B) (C) There will be frequent cases of hateful commentary
5) Only (B) and (C) and false accusation.
55. Which of the following is not true about the internet 1) Only (A) and (B) 2) Only (A) and (C)
penetration rate in India? 3) Only (B) and (C) 4) Only (B)
1) As per the data released by the International 5) Only (C)
Telecommunication Union, Indias internet 60. Which of the following is true about Indias people all
penetration rate was about eleven per cent in 2011. around in Silicon Valley?
2) Internet penetration rate in India is far below that 1) Indians over there are engaged in making television
in developed nations. sets.
3) Chinas internet penetration rate is more than thrice 2) India-born entrepreneurs are about forty per cent
that of India. of all startups.
4) The member of internet users in India, at present, is 3) Silicon valley is situated in the USA where a series
not more than those in America in 1994. of startups are engaged in developing software
5) All the above are true programmes.
56. How can connectivity revolution be brought about in 4) The anti-aging brain trust is the most interesting
India? startup in the Silicon Valley.
1) By building out fixed-line networks using fibre-optic 5) All the above
cables in cities and towns 61. What is the central idea of the given passage?
2) By getting right cellular technology 1) That Indians are far behind the developed nations
3) By making the transition from 2G to 4G technology as far as computer literacy is concerned.
without any further delay 2) India is on the verge of connectivity revolution.
4) Only 1) and 2) 3) If India-born entrepreneurs in Silicon Valley can do
5) All 1), 2) and 3) better job there, then why can they not do better
57. How can school children be helped with the help of here in India?
internet?
 4) India is the hub of information technology. 2030. / 5) No error
5) Indias telecom industry is undercapitalised and 75. 1) Although the mission to Mars had been mentioned
debt-ridden. of and on by ISRO officials since 2007 / 2) and studies
Directions (Q. 62-66): Choose the word/group of within ISRO for such a possible mission seem to have
words which is MOST SIMILAR in meaning to the word/ begun / 3) around that time, it had never been projected
group of words printed in bold as used in the passage. / 4) as a definitive planetary mission in the short term.
62. Cusp / 5) No error
1) vicinity 2) middle 3) edge Directions (Q. 76-80): Below is given a single word
4) apex 5) bottom with its meaning in different contexts as options. You have
63. Staggering to select all those options which are synonyms of the word
1) wasting 2) surprising 3) crushing when the context is changed. Select the correct alternative
4) faltering 5) adjusting from 1), 2), 3), 4) and 5) which represents all the synonyms.
64. Potential 76. Debacle
1) feasibility 2) capacity 3) energy (A) Wreckage (B) Destruction
4) possibility 5) paralysis (C) Ruins (D) Stampede
65. Embrace 1) Only (B) 2) Only (A), (B) and (C)
1) give 2) push away 3) grasp 3) Only (B) and (D) 4) Only (C)
4) uncover 5) release 5) Only (B), (C) and (D)
66. Emergence 77. Woo

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1) development 2) evolution 3) decadence (A) Pursue (B) Stagger
4) stoppage 5) appearance (C) Solicit (D) Trouble
Directions (Q. 67-70): Choose the word/group of 1) Only (A) 2) Only (C)
words which is MOST OPPOSITE in meaning of the word/ 3) Both (B) and (D) 4) Both (A) and (C)
group of words printed in bold as used in the passage. 5) Only (D)
67. Laggard 78. Tendency
1) lingerer 2) slow 3) advanced (A) Inclination (B) Mood
4) dawdler 5) loafer (C) Aptitude (D) Bent
68. Payoff 1) Only (A) and (B) 2) Only (A) and (C)
1) assistance 2) advantage 3) block 3) Only (A), (C) and (D) 4) Only (A)

KUNDAN
4) payment 5) profit 5) All (A), (B), (C) and (D)
69. Inevitable 79. Incessant
1) necessary 2) imminent 3) impending (A) Incidental (B) Uninterrupted
4) uncertain 5) binding (C) Unable (D) Incompetent
70. Tremendous 1) Only (A) 2) Only (B)
1) small 2) immense 3) temporary 3) Only (C) 4) Only (D)
4) massive 5) large 5) Only (C) and (D)
Directions (Q. 71-75): Read each sentence to find out 80. Laud
whether there is any grammatical or idiomatic error in it. (A) Praise (B) Float
The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The (C) Doze (D) Slow
number of that part is the answer. If there is No error, 1) Only (A) 2) Only (A) and (B)
the answer is 5). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.) 3) Only (D) 4) Only (C)
71. 1) One of the major problems with / 2) representative 5) Only (B)
democracy is that / 3) the business of government has Directions (Q. 81-90): In the following passage,
/ 4) become the privilege of few. / 5) No error some of the words have been left out, each of which is
72. 1) Whether or not there exists a standard definition of indicated by a number. Find the suitable word from the
the term globalisation, / 2) there is a broad agreement options given against each number and fill up the blanks
with the fact that / 3) the process of globalisation has with appropriate words to make the paragraph
had and continues to have / 4) profound impact on meaningful.
various aspects of human life. / 5) No error Life Insurance Corporation of India (81) a large number
73. 1) If two types of economy exists in the country / 2) of death claims every year. Only in case of fraudulent (82)
either there should be conflict / 3) between the two or of material information is the claim repudiated. The (83) of
/ 4) one will overwhelm the other. / 5) No error death claims repudiated is very small. Even in these cases,
74. 1) India is the second most populous / 2) country in an opportunity is given to the claimant to make a (84) for
the world / 3) and is expected to / 4) take over China by consideration by the Claims Dispute Redressal committees
at the zonal offices and the central office. As a result, (85) 98. 2 30 130 350 738 ?
on the merits of each case, appropriate decisions are taken. 1) 1216 2) 1278 3) 1342 4) 1396 5) 1404
The Claims Dispute Redressal Committees at the central 99. 4 5 12 39 160 ?
and zonal offices have among other members a retired High 1) 765 2) 805 3) 835 4) 870 5) 895
Court/District Court judge. 100. 8 12 24 60 180 630 ?
For (86) quick redressal of customers (87) the 1) 2440 2) 2480 3) 2500 4) 2520 5) 2540
corporation has introduced a user-friendly integrated Directions (Q. 101-105): In each of these questions,
Complaints Management System (ICMS) (88) their two equations (I) and (II) are given. You have to solve both
customer portal where policy holder can directly (89) the equations and give answer
complaint/grievance and (90) its status. 1) if x > y 2) if x y
81. 1) sets 2) originates 3) pays 3) if x < y 4) if x y
4) claims 5) settles 5) if x y or relation cannot be established between x
82. 1) depression 2) revelation 3) suppression and y.
4) messaging 5) compression 3
101. I. x2 x 56 = 0 II. y = 729
83. 1) number 2) kind 3) collection
2 2
4) condition 5) terms 102. I. x + 7x + 10 = 0 II. y +13y + 42 = 0
84. 1) suit 2) portfolio 3) file 103. I. 14x2 55x + 50 = 0 II. 2y2 13y + 20 = 0
4) representation 5) terms 104. I. 7x + 8y = 5 II. 6x 5y = 28

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85. 1) realised 2) depending 3) subjected 105. I. 5x2 52x + 96 = 0 II. 5y2 + 3y 36 = 0
4) trusting 5) depicting Directions (Q. 106-110): Study the following table
86. 1) securing 2) guaranteed 3) protecting and answer the following questions.
4) ensuring 5) following Following table shows the population of six cities,
87. 1) tribulation 2) injury 3) grievances percentage of literate population and the ratio of males to
4) annoyance 5) injustice females among the literate and illiterate population.
88. 1) through 2) in 3) upon Population % literate Literate Illite rate
4) with 5) over City
(in lakh) population M : F M :F
89. 1) express 2) roll 3) list
A 12 48% 5 :3 7 :5
4) mark 5) register
B 17.5 60% 8 :7 3 :2

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90. 1) trail 2) track 3) explore
4) pursue 5) trace C 10.6 54% 2 :1 12 : 11
D 15 65% 7 :6 8 :7
Test-III: Quantitative Aptitude E 16.8 70% 4 :3 9 :5
F 20.4 55% 6 :5 5 :4
Directions (Q. 91-95): What value should come in
place of question mark (?) in the following questions? 106. What is the population of literate males of City A?
91. 148% of 19500 18 1470 = ? 1) 3.2 lakh 2) 3.6 lakh 3) 4.2 lakh
1) 2210 2) 2350 3) 2400 4) 2520 5) 2700 4) 4.5 lakh 5) 4.8 lakh
107. What is the population of illiterate females of City B?
3 5 1) 2.4 lakh 2) 2.5 lakh 3) 2.8 lakh
92. 8064 ? 18360
7 8 4) 3.2 lakh 5) 3.6 lakh
1) 6.5 2) 7.5 3) 8.5 4) 9.5 5) 12.5 108. What is the total literate population of City C and D
93. 5.4% of 650 2.4% of 175 = ? 0.3 together?
1) 103 2) 107 3) 112 4) 115 5) 118 1) 15.474 lakh 2) 16.248 lakh 3) 16.724 lakh
3 4) 17.844 lakh 5) 18.6 lakh
94. 5832 4225 ? % of 9360 109. The literate population of City E is approximately what
1) 7.5 2) 12.5 3) 15 4) 17.5 5) 25 per cent of the total population of City A?
95. (1.7)5.6 (2.89)2.1 (4.913)1 = (1.7)? 1) 92% 2) 94% 3) 96% 4) 98% 5) 104%
1) 3.6 2) 4.2 3) 4.4 4) 4.8 5) 5.2 110. The total number of illiterate males in City F is
Directions (Q. 96-100): What value should come in approximately what per cent of its total population?
place of question mark (?) in the following number series? 1) 16% 2) 20% 3) 25% 4) 30% 5) 36%
96. 1336 744 368 160 72 ? 111. A square park is surrounded by a 3-metre-wide path.
1) 56 2) 48 3) 42 4) 36 5) 32 If the area of path is 192 sq m then what is the area of
97. 7 151 251 315 351 ? the park?
1) 392 2) 384 3) 372 4) 367 5) 363 1) 144 sq m 2) 169 sq m 3) 196 sq m
 4) 225 sq m 5) 256 sq m 4) `25050 5) `25550
112. Find the cost of painting the walls of a room 8 metres 123. A person bought two cycles for `1900. He sold one of
long, 6 metres wide and 5 metres high at `13.5 per them at a profit of 10% and the other at a profit of
square metre. 51.25%. He found that the selling price of both the
1) `1720 2) `1780 3) `1840 4) `1890 5) `1920 cycles are equal. What are the cost prices of those
113. The expense of carpeting a rectangular hall is `10800. two cycles respectively?
Had the length been 5 metres less the expense would 1) `1200, `700 2) `1100, `800 3) `1000, `900
have been `9450. What is the length of the room? 4) `1050, `850 5) None of these
1) 25 metres 2) 30 metres 3) 35 metres 124. Out of three numbers the average of the first and the
4) 40 metres 5) 45 metres second number is 27 more than the average of the
114. If the length and the breadth of a rectangle increase second and the third number. What is the difference
by 10% and 8% respectively, then by what per cent between the first and the third number?
does the area of the rectangle increase? 1) 32 2) 44 3) 48 4) 52 5) 54
1) 18% 2) 18.2% 3) 18.4% 4) 18.6% 5) 18.8% 125. Three persons A, B and C take a contract of work for
115. A cylindrical piece of metal of radius 7 cm and height 8
12 cm is shaped into a cone of the same radius. Then `2301. A and B together do of the work and
13
what will be the height of the cone? the remaining work is done by C. What will be the
1) 12 cm 2) 24 cm 3) 36 cm 4) 48 cm 5) 18 cm share of C?
116. 12 persons are seated around a round table. What is

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1) `705 2) `785 3) `815 4) `885 5) `945
the probability that three particular persons sit Directions (Q. 126-130): In the following pie-charts,
together? pie-chart I shows the percentage distribution of the total
1 3 1 3 number of employees among six companies and pie-chart
1) 2) 3) 4) 5) None of these II shows the percentage distribution of the total number of
110 55 55 110
female employees among these companies.
117. In a party every person shakes hand with each other.
Pie-chart I
If there was a total of 351 handshakes, then how many
persons were present in the party?
1) 24 2) 25 3) 26 4) 27 5) 28 F
72 A
118. A man rows a certain distance downstream in 4 hours
90

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and back to the same point in 7.5 hours. If the speed of E 18

the stream is 3.5 kmph then what is the speed of the
man in still water? D B
1) 9.5 kmph 2) 10.5 kmph 3) 11.5 kmph 54 C 54
4) 12.5 kmph 5) 13.5 kmph 72
119. A train completes its journey in 31 hours at the speed
of 40 kmph. If the same distance has to be covered in Total employees = 14000
24.8 hours, how much more speed should the train
Pie-chart II
gain?
1) 5 kmph 2) 8 kmph 3) 10 kmph
4) 12 kmph 5) 15 kmph A
F
120. Three persons A, B and C together earn `1715 in 7 97.2
82.8
days. A and C together earn `620 in 4 days. B and C
together earn `1530 in 9 days. What is the daily earning E
of C? 36 B
1) `75 2) `80 3) `85 4) `90 5) `95 43.2
D
121. A person lent a certain sum at 8% pa simple interest, C
72
and in 7 years the interest amounted to `2244 less 28.8
than the principal amount. Then what is the amount
that the person had lent? Total female employees = 6000
1) `5100 2) `5200 3) `5300 4) `5400 5) `5500 126. What is the total number of male employees in
122. The difference between the simple interest and the Company B?
compound interest compounded yearly at the rate of 1) 720 2) 1040 3) 1260 4) 1380 5) 1420
10% pa at the end of 2 years is `255. What is the sum? 127. What is the difference between the total number of
1) `20500 2) `25000 3) `25500 male employees and the total number of female
 employees in Company A? Directions (Q. 136-140): Study the following
1) 220 2) 240 3) 260 4) 280 5) 300 information carefully and answer the questions given
128. The total number of female employees of Company C below:
is approximately what per cent of the total number of A total of 2000 students appeared in an examination
employees of Company B? from four schools A, B, C and D. 21% of the total students
1) 17% 2) 23% 3) 27% 4) 30% 5) 32% are from School A and one-fourth of the total students are
129. What is the difference between the total number of from School B. 18% of the total students are from School C
female employees of Company F and the total number and the remaining students are from School D. 35% of the
of female employees of Company E? students from School A are girls, which is 153 less than the
1) 740 2) 760 3) 780 4) 820 5) 840 number of boys from School B. The number of girl students
130. The total number of female employees of Company A from School C is 4.5% of the total number of students from
is approximately what per cent of the total number of all schools together. The total number of girl students from
female employees of Company D? all schools together is 869.
1) 74% 2) 120% 3) 135% 4) 150% 5) 185% Answer the following questions based on the above
Directions (Q. 131-135): The following bar graph information.
shows the total number of students appearing in an 136. What is the total number of boys appearing from School
examination from two schools A and B over the years. A?
School A School B 1) 213 2) 247 3) 251 4) 273 5) 287

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137. What is the ratio of the total number of boys from
1000 School C to the total number of girls from School D?
900
900 820 1) 5 : 3 2) 5 : 8 3) 4 : 5 4) 4 : 3 5) 3 : 2
800
800 750 750
700 138. What is the difference between the total number of
700 640
600 boy students and the total number of girl students
600 550
500 500 480 from School D?
500 1) 132 2) 144 3) 156 4) 162 5) 176
400
139. The number of boy students from School C is
300
approximately what per cent of the total number of
200
students appearing from all four schools together?
100

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1) 12.5% 2) 13% 3) 13.5% 4) 14% 5) 14.5%
0
140. What is the average number of boy students from
2008 2009 2010 2011 2012 2013 School B, C and D together?
Year 1) 280 2) 282 3) 284 4) 286 5) 288
131. What is the average number of students appearing
from School A over the given period? Test-IV: General Awareness
1) 705 2) 710 3) 715
(with Special Reference to Banking Industry)
4) 720 5) 725
132. For School A, what is the percentage increase in the 141. Japan approved its biggest ever budget recently as
number of students appearing from 2008 to 2009? the Prime Minister Shinzo Abes cabinet rubber-
1) 20% 2) 25% 3) 40% 4) 50% 5) 60% stamped a plan that will see the country spending
133. The number of students appearing from School A in ______ in the year from April 2014.
the year 2012 is approximately what per cent of the 1) USD 622 bn 2) USD 722 bn 3) USD 822 bn
number of students appearing from School B in the 4) USD 922 bn 5) None of these
year 2013? 142. The Centre approved the implementation of Rural
1) 75% 2) 120% 3) 150% 4) 175% 5) 187.5% Water Supply and Sanitation Project for Low Income
134. The number of students appearing from School A in States (RWSSP-LIS) recently. Which of the following
the year 2008 is approximately how much per cent more states in NOT among the beneficiaries of the project
or less than the number of students appearing from which will get completed in 2019-20?
School A in the year 2010? 1) Assam 2) Bihar 3) Jharkhand
1) 14% 2) 24% 3) 28% 4) 48% 5) 40% 4) Uttar Pradesh 5) None of these
135. What is the difference between the total number of 143. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) released a draft paper
students appearing from School A and the total number of the committee on financial benchmarks recently.
of students appearing from School B in all six years The Committee, set up in Jun 2013, was headed by
together? 1) Y Venugopal Reddy 2) C Rangarajan
1) 470 2) 530 3) 570 4) 590 5) 610
 3) Bimal Jalan 4) Vijay Kelkar
5) Vijaya Bhaskar
144. Banks have strict regulations to protect themselves
as well as their customers and if these regulations are
violated, banks levy a penalty on the violator. Which
of the following will NOT be considered a bad money
practice?
1) Frequent ATM PIN request
2) Not updating change in personal and residential
details
3) Using non-bank ATM machines more frequently
4) Withdrawing over the minimum balance limit
5) All the above
145. Which of the following dates is celebrated as National
Mathematics Day in India to honour the great
Mathematician Srinivasa Ramanujan?
1) 12 Dec 2) 17 Dec 3) 22 Dec 4) 27 Dec 5) 2 Jan
146. The United Nations has felicitated which of the
following Indian state govts for effectively handling
recently?
1) It is a nuclear-capable missile.
2) It has a strike range of more than 3,000 km.
3) It is a surface-to-surface missile.
4) It is indigenously developed.
5) It is powered by a three-stage liquid-propellant
system.
151. Wrestlings apex body (Fila) has decided to merge
three freestyle weight categories into two new ones
from Jan 2014, putting Indias squad in a tricky
situation. Who among the following sportspersons is
not associated with the game of wrestling?
1) Amit Kumar 2) Yogeshwar Dutt
3) Sushil Kumar 4) Vijay Kumar
5) None of these
152. Mukesh Ambani-led Reliance Jio has inked an
unprecedented pact for sharing telecom infrastructure
with which of the following telecom operators?
1) Bharti Airtel 2) Vodafone 3) Idea

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Cyclone Phailin in Oct 2013? It is the first state in South 4) Aircel 5) None of these
East Asia to be felicitated for disaster management. 153. What is the expanded form of TDS, a term related to
1) Odisha 2) Kerala 3) West Bengal taxation in India?
4) Tamil Nadu 5) Andhra Pradesh 1) Tax Deducted at Source
147. Name Russias most famous prisoner and Kremlin critic 2) Tax Defaulted at Source
who walked out of jail after spending more than 10 3) Tax Demanded at Source
years behind bars. He was released following a surprise 4) Tax Differed at Source
pardon by President Vladimir Putin. 5) None of these
1) Alexei Navalny 2) Roman Abramovich 154. Which of the following banks has recently joined
3) Mikhail Khodorkovsky 4) Platon Lebedev hands with the National Payments Corporation of India

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5) None of these
148. The banks/institutions involved in a credit
arrangement in the case of credit syndication, are
termed as:
1) Members 2) Arrangers 3) Syndicates
4) Contributors 5) Negotiators
149. Which of the following is true with regard to the RBIs
recent notification allowing Indian companies to issue
non-convertible debentures?
(A) It has allowed Indian companies to issue non-
convertible or redeemable preference shares or
debentures to non-resident shareholders as bonus.
(B) The issue of preference shares, excluding non-
convertible/redeemable preference shares and
convertible debentures, would be subject to
Foreign Direct Investment Scheme.
(C) So far, market regulator SEBI was granting
permission for such issuances on a case-to-case
basis.
1) Only (A) 2) Only (B)
3) Only (C) 4) Only (A) and (B)
5) All (A), (B) and (C)
150. Which of the following facts in NOT true about the
Agni-III missile successfully test-fired by India
(NPCI) to introduce e-KYC (electronic Know Your
Customer) norms in its branches? It is the second
lender to introduce e-KYC in the country.
1) Axis Bank 2) HDFC Bank 3) ICICI Bank
4) Federal Bank 5) Kotak Mahindra
155. According to the think tank Centre for Economic and
Business Research (CEBR), which of the following
countries is expected to overtake Germany as the
biggest economy of Europe by 2030?
1) France 2) Spain 3) Italy
4) Germany 5) UK
156. The Central Govt has cleared a proposal for setting up
of National Cancer Institute at which of the following
campuses of All India Institute of Medical Sciences
(AIIMS) at a cost of `2,035 cr?
1) Jhajjar 2) Patna 3) Guwahati
4) Jaipur 5) Chandigarh
157. Which of the following countries was formally
accepted as a new member by the World Trade
Organisation (WTO) in its ministerial conference held
in Bali recently?
1) Uganda 2) Yemen 3) Romania
4) South Sudan 5) None of these
158. A bank draft can be issued by a bank accepting cash
 provided the amount does not exceed credited to the account.
1) `25,000 2) `50,000 3) `75,000 (C) It can be held only in the form of a current account
4) `1,00,000 5) None of these with no interest payable on it.
159. Who among the following is competent to endorse a Which of the above statements is/are correct?
cheque or other instruments? 1) All the above 2) Only (A)
1) A minor 3) Only (B) 4) Only (A) and (C)
2) An unmarried woman 5) Only (B) and (C)
3) An insolvent person with authority from another 166. Who among the following was awarded with Lala
competent person Amarnath Award at the annual prize ceremony of BCCI,
4) An illiterate person for being the best all-rounder in the 2012-13 edition of
5) All the above the Ranji Trophy?
160. The book titled Follow Every Rainbow has been 1) Abhishek Nayar 2) Ravichandran Ashwin
authored by 3) MS Dhoni 4) Cheteshwar Pujara
1) Jeffrey Archer 2) Amish Tripathi 5) Rohit Sharma
3) Rashmi Bansal 4) Anand Neelakantan 167. Who among the following has been appointed the
5) None of these Director General of the Central Industrial Security
161. Which of the following software firms has unveiled a Force (CISF) recently?
new tracking app Guardian for its mobile operating 1) Dilip Trivedi 2) KF Rustomji

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system recently? It enables friends and family to track 3) Arvind Ranjan 4) JN Choudhury
the user in real-time. 5) None of these
1) Microsoft 2) Google 3) Blackberry 168. Who among the following has won womens
4) Apple 5) None of these individual title of the 34th National Archery
162. Consider the following with respect to the much- Championships recently?
talked-about health insurance cover, Obamacare, 1) Deepika Kumari 2) Dola Banerjee
which came into effect recently in the US: 3) Bombayla Devi Laishram 4) Jayanta Talukdar
(A) Under the scheme, it is now compulsory for the 5) None of these
people to have health cover. 169. Which of the following states topped the recently
(B) Those who cannot afford the cover will get help released financial inclusion ranking Inclusix Index

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from the state. prepared by CRISIL?
(C) Those who remain without any insurance will be 1) Gujarat 2) Madhya Pradesh
fined. 3) Kerala 4) Bihar
Which of the above statements is true? 5) None of these
1) Only (A) 2) Only (B) 3) Only (C) 170. Dept of Electronics launched E-inclusion programme
4) Only (A) and (B) 5) All (A), (B) and (C) recently. Examine the following with respect to this
163. The govt approved increasing foreign shareholding programme and choose the correct statement(s):
in which of the following private sector banks from 49 (A) It is an initiative under the National e-Governance
per cent to 62 per cent recently? The approval would Plan (NeGP).
result in foreign investment of about `7,250 cr in the (B) Under the project, economically weaker sections
country. of the society including rural SC, ST and women
1) HDFC 2) Axis Bank 3) YES Bank will receive IT training.
4) ICICI Bank 5) None of these (C) It will make at least one individual in every
164. Who among the following guide(s) banks regarding household e-literate.
credit operations? 1) Only (A) 2) Only (B)
(A) Govt (B) RBI 3) Only (C) 4) All (A), (B) and (C)
(C) World Bank (D) Banks own discretion 5) None of the above
1) All the above 2) Only (A) 171. Which of the following landmark laws was notified on
3) Only (A) and (D) 4) Only (A), (B) and (C) 1 Jan, 2014?
5) Only (A), (B) and (D) 1) National Food Security Bill
165. Examine the following with respect to Exchange 2) Lokpal Bill
Earners Foreign Currency Account (EEFC): 3) Companies Bill
(A) It is a facility provided to the foreign exchange 4) Land Acquisition Act
earners (individual or company). 5) None of these
(B) The account holders are entitled to get only 50 172. Which of the following is not considered a valid proof
per cent of their foreign exchange earnings of address while opening an account with a bank?
 1) PAN Card 2) Driving Licence 2012-13 in India.
3) Electricity Bill 4) Voter ID 1) Only (A) 2) Only (B) 3) Only (C)
5) Passport 4) Only (A) and (B) 5) Only (A) and (C)
173. A customer can generally seek a first-time home loan 180. The Govt of India has terminated with immediate effect
for which of the following purposes? the Agreement signed in 2010 for the supply of 12
1) Buying a house/flat VVIP helicopters in the wake of a scam in the deal. The
2) Renovation of an existing house/flat deal was signed with
3) Extension and repair of existing house/flat 1) Kamov 2) AgustaWestland
4) All the above 3) Dassault Rafale 4) Lockheed Martin
5) Only 1) and 2) 5) None of these
174. Who among the following has cracked the fastest
century in one-day international history recently? He Test-V: Computer Knowledge
reached three figures in just 36 deliveries playing
against the West Indies. 181. GDI represents
1) Shane Watson 2) Rohit Sharma 1) Global Data Interface
3) Shahid Afridi 4) Corey Anderson 2) Graphics Data Interface
5) None of these 3) Graphics Device Interface
175. In a major step towards allowing more autonomy to 4) Global Device Interface
CBI, the govt has placed the agencys legal wing, 5) None of these

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Directorate of Prosecution, under the command of the 182. Which of the following codes is written into a serially
CBI director recently. Earlier, the legal wing used to accessed memory?
report to: 1) EOD code 2) Gray code 3) Bar code
1) Law Ministry 2) Home Ministry 4) Excess-3 code 5) Unicode
3) PMO 4) Attorney General 183. ________ temporarily holds program instructions,
5) None of these data and output until they are no longer needed by
176. Which of the following is correct regarding the recent the computer.
advice by the RBI to banks regarding acceptance of 1) Hard disk 2) Motherboard 3) CD
currency notes? 4) RAM 5) Floppy disk
1) Banks will accept currency notes with scribbling 184. Basic Input Output System (BIOS) is necessary for

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on it. 1) boot-up
2) Banks will not accept currency notes with scribbling 2) mouse and keyboard only
on it. 3) revolution
3) Only RBIs regional branches will accept currency 4) audio and video system
notes with scribbling on it. 5) None of these
4) Banks will accept currency notes with scribbling 185. It is an undetectable virus which attempts to allow
on it on half value only. someone to gain control of a computer system.
5) None of these 1) Macro virus 2) Boot sector virus
177. What is the target stipulated by the Reserve Bank of 3) Root kit virus 4) Polymorphic virus
India (RBI) for advances to weaker sections for 5) Memory resident virus
domestic and foreign (with 20 and above branches) 186. SCSI
commercial banks as of now ? 1) is a set of standards for transferring data
1) 10 2) 18 3) 32 4) 40 5) None of these 2) defines commands and protocols
178. India and which of the Gulf countries have signed a 3) is commonly used for hard disks and tape drives
pact recently to protect interests of Indian domestic 4) can connect scanners, CD drives etc
sector workers working in the country? 5) All the above
1) Bahrain 2) Kuwait 3) Saudi Arabia 187. Any program logic could be expressed by using which
4) Iraq 5) None of these of the following control/logic structures?
179. Which of the following statements is/are correct with 1) Sequence logic 2) Selection logic
respect to steel production in India? 3) Loop logic 4) All the above
(A) India is the worlds largest producer of Direct 5) None of these
Reduced Iron (DRI) or Sponge Iron. 188. The representation of numbers in the positional
(B) The steel sector contributes to nearly 2% of the number system with radix 16 is
GDP and employs over 5 lakh people. 1) binary 2) decimal 3) octal
(C) The per capita steel consumption was 42 kg in
 4) hexadecimal 5) dotted decimal 195. The statement in SQL which allows the definition of a
189. Which of the following is a non-impact printer? table to change is
1) Dot-matrix printer 2) LCD printer 1) Alter 2) Update 3) Create
3) Chain printer 4) Daisy wheel printer 4) Select 5) None of these
5) Drum printer 196. ________is when the more power-hungry components
190. The number system that uses ________ as a base is such as the monitor and the hard drive are put to idle.
abbreviated as octal. 1) Hibernation 2) Power down
1) 10 2) 8 3) 7 4) 9 5) None of these 3) Standby mode 4) The shutdown procedure
191. Shimmer Sparkle Text, Blinking Background, etc are 5) None of these
known as 197. ________ is the SQL command that you would use to
1) font styles 2) word art 3) font effects query the data.
4) text layout 5) text effects 1) Drop 2) Select 3) Alter
192. 10 Base F type of Ethernet uses ________ topology. 4) Create 5) Insert
1) Bus 2) Ring 3) Star 198. When a language has the capability to produce new
4) Tree 5) Mesh data types it is said to be
193. The________tier processes HTTP protocol, scripting 1) Reprehensible 2) Overloaded 3) Encapsulated
tasks, performs calculations, and provides access to 4) Inherited 5) Extensible
data. 199. Time-sharing systems require

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1) Client 2) Applications/Web server 1) a number of terminals connected to a system.
3) Enterprise server 4) DBA 2) memory protection mechanism to prevent a jobs
5) None of these instructions.
194. RSA is 3) job status preservation mechanism to preserve a
1) Symmetric Cryptosystem jobs status.
2) Asymmetric Cryptosystem 4) an alarm clock mechanism to send an interrupt.
3) Block Cypher 5) All the above
4) Digital Signature 200. Wi-fi is the embedded technology of
5) Both 2) and 4) 1) WLAN 2) WWAN 3) LAN
4) WAN 5) None of these

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 K
Answers
1. 5;

2. 2; MLEI MILE, LIME

9. 2
10. 3; Hence meaningful word formed is
AROUND.
(11-15):
$
11. 4;
=, @ <, >, ,#
14. 1; Given statements: V D ... (i)
D>T
K= T
K F
Combining all these statements, we get
V D>T=K F
... (ii)
... (iii)
... (iv)

Thus, only two meaningful words can be Given statements: W P ... (i) Thus, D > K. Hence, conclusion I is true.

KUNDAN
formed. P>G ... (ii) Again, T F. Hence conclusion (T F) is
(3-8): G<I ... (iii) not true.
In the rearrangement, numbers are arranged I N ... (iv) 15. 4; Given statements: S = Q ... (i)
according to the sum of the digits of the Combining all these statements, we get Q < B ... (ii)
number in increasing order from left to right W P>G<I N B K ... (iii)
and the words are arranged according to the Check for I. We cant compare P and I. K W ... (iv)
number of letters present in the word in Hence, conclusion I is not true. Combining all these statements, we get
decreasing order from right to left in each Check for II. We cant compare W and N. S=Q<B K W
step. But if the numbers of letters present in Hence, conclusion II is not true. Thus, we cant compare K and S. or, S and
words are the same then reverse alphabetical 12. 5; W. Hence, neither conclusion I nor II is true.
order applies. However, in the final step, Given statements: U < D ... (i) (16-21):
sum of digits is written. D=E ... (ii)
Input: inflation 92 73 loan 68 price E>Y ... (iii)
economic 58 79 credit 69 service Y W ... (iv)
Step I: 73 92 loan 68 price economic 58 79 Combining all these statements, we get
credit 69 service inflation U<D=E>Y W
Step II: 73 92 58 loan 68 price 79 credit 69 Check for I. E > W or W < E is true. Hence,
service economic inflation conclusion I is true.
Step III: 73 92 58 68 loan price 79 69 credit Check for II. D > W is true. Hence,
service economic inflation conclusion II is true.
13. 3; Given statements: Z > N ... (i) 16. 2 17. 5; M
Step IV: 73 92 58 68 69 loan 79 price credit
N K ... (ii) 18. 4 19. 3 20. 1 21. 3
service economic inflation
K = M ... (iii) (22-26):
Step V: 73 92 58 68 69 79 loan price credit
M < R ... (iv) the economic growth of India
service economic inflation
Combining all these statements, we get fa di ga hi na ... (i)
Step VI: 10 11 13 14 15 16 loan price credit
Z>N K=M<R high price low growth state
service economic inflation
Hence, N M or M N is true. For this, ha ga ta sa ka ... (ii)
3. 2 4. 3 5. 1
conclusion I (M = N) and conclusion II (M > growth of the united state
6. 3 7. 2 8. 3
N) make a complementary pair. So, either ta hi fa ga la ... (iii)
(9-10):
conclusion I or II is true. high inflation in India di ha ja pa ... (iv)
A R O U N D or A U O R N D
From (i) and (iv), India di ... (v)
From (i), (ii) and (iii), growth ga ... (vi) 38. 4; From I and II. 8064 15
From (ii), (iii) and (vi), state ta... (vii) 92. 3; ? = 18360
56
From (ii) and (iv), high ha ... (viii) 18360
From (ii), (vi), (vii) and (viii), ?= = 8.5
2160
price/low sa/ka ... (ix)
From (i), (iii) and (vi) of/the hi/fa ... (x) 650 175
93. 1; ? 0.3 = 5.4 2.4
From (i), (v), (vi) and (x), Hence, Q is either Brother or Sister of A. 100 100
economic na ... (xi) = 35.1 4.2 = 30.9
39. 2; From I.
From (iii), (vi), (vii) and (x)
30.9
united la ... (xii) or, ? = 103
From (iv), (v) and (viii), inflation/in 0.3
pa/ja ... (xiii) From II. ? 9360 3
94. 2; 5832 4225
22. 2 23. 3 24. 1 25. 5 26. 3 100
27. 5; Some glasses are cups (I) + All cups are = 18 65 = 1170
Hence, only statement II is sufficient to
balls (A) = I + A = I = Some glasses are balls. 1170 100
answer the question. ?= 12.5
Hence, conclusion I follows. 9360
40. 1; From I. L _ NO _ Q _ S
Again, All cups are balls (A) + (No ring is a 95. 3;
Hence, statement I is sufficient to answer
ball conversion ) No ball is a ring (E) = (1.7)? = (1.7)5.6 {(1.72)}2.1 {(1.7)3}1
the question.
A + E = E = No cup is a ring. Hence, = (1.7)5.6 (1.7)4.2 (1.7)3
From II. L S _ _ O N _ _
conclusion II also follows. = (1.7)5.6 4.2 + 3 = (1.7)4.4 ? = 4.4
L_S_O_N_
28. 1; No cat is a dog (E) + No dog is a 96. 1; The series is 113 + 5, 93 + 15, 73 + 25,
41. 1; Such battles are nothing new in the arena
monkey (E) = E + E = No conclusion. Hence, 53 + 35 ...
of sports and have ruined many a career.

K
conclusion I does not follow. 97. 4; The series is +122 , +102, +8 2, +62 ...
42. 3; Forward trading is a known culprit in
Again, No dog is a monkey (E) + Some 98. 3; The series is 13 + 1, 33 + 3, 53 + 5 ...
bringing imbalance in the markets.
monkeys are rats (I) = E + I = O* = Some 99. 2; The series is 1 + 1, 2 + 2, 3 + 3 ...
43. 5; Choice 1 is in line with the statement
rats are not dogs. Hence, conclusion II 100. 4; The series is 1.5, 2, 2.5, 3, 3.5
because it seems to be a reference to the CCI
follows. ...
mentioned in the statement. 2 is a likely
29. 1; Conclusion I follows by converting 101. 3; I. x2 x 56 = 0
outcome of projects getting stalled. 3 is
the third statement. No cat is a dog (E) + No or, x2 + 7x 8x 56 = 0
implied by the decision taken even as the
dog is a monkey (E) = E + E = No conclusion. or, x(x + 7) 8(x + 7) = 0
governments term nears its end. 4 is in line
Hence, conclusion II does not follow. or, (x 8) (x + 7) = 0
on the basis of simple calculation.
30. 4; All books are goods (A) + All goods are or, x = 8, 7
44. 3; Change in leadership structure may be
bags (A) = A + A = A = All books are bags.
a part of the aggressive strategy. II. y = 3 729
Hence, conclusion I does not follow. or, y = 9
45. 4; Doing away with middlemen reduces
Again, All books are bags (A) + Some bags Hence, x < y
costs and is expected to bring inflation down.

KUNDAN
are luggages (I) = A + I = No conclusion. 102. 1; I. x2 + 7x + 10 = 0
46. 4; If only hard-earned money had gone
Hence, conclusion II does not follow. or, x2 + 2x + 5x + 10 = 0
into the purchase of gold, the market would
31. 2; All goods are bags (A) + Some bags are or, x(x + 2) + 5(x + 2) = 0
have brought steady gains. Generally, it is
luggages (I) = A + I = No conclusion. Hence, or, (x + 5) (x + 2) = 0
speculative money that leads to bubbles and
conclusion I does not follow. or, x = 2, 5
their subsequent busting.
Some bags are luggages conversion II. y2 + 13y + 42 = 0
47. 1; Centralised databanks have led to
Some luggages are bags. Hence, conclusion II or, y2 + 6y + 7y + 42 = 0
anywhere banking, thus making the concept
follows. or, y(y + 6) + 7(y + 6) = 0
of home branch redundant.
(32-36): or, (y + 6) (y + 7) = 0
48. 5; All the three highlight its features and
Person Department Colour are therefore proper corrective actions. y = 6, 7
W Q Violet 49. 2; If people can stay in the saddle for 15 Hence, x > y
long years, it is proof that they have been 103. 4; I. 14x2 55x + 50 = 0
Y P Orange
elected on a pro-incumbency plank. or, 14x2 35x 20x + 50 = 0
U P Black 50. 2; Since Mr X will take up whatever or, 7x(2x 5) 10(2x 5) = 0
S R Yellow responsibility is given to him, he assumes or, (7x 10) (2x 5) = 0
X R White that he may become the prime minister of 10 5
x= ,
Z R Green the country. 7 2
51. 2 52. 3 53. 5 54. 3 55. 5 II. 2y2 13y + 20 = 0
V Q Brown
56. 5 57. 5 58. 3 59. 3 60. 2 or, 2y2 8y 5y + 20 = 0
T Q Blue
61. 2 62. 3 63. 2 64. 2 65. 3 or, 2y(y 4) 5(y 4) = 0
32. 2 33. 1 34. 3 35. 3 36. 2
66. 5 67. 3 68. 3 69. 4 70. 1 or, (y 4) (2y 5) = 0
37. 5; From I and II.
71. 4; Add the before few 5
A1 A2 A3 72. 5 or, y = 4,
2
D 73. 1; Replace exists with exist Hence, x y
E 74. 4; Replace take over with overtake 104. 1; I. 7x + 8y = 5 ... (i)
75. 1; Replace of with off II. 6x 5y = 28 ... (ii)
F 76. 1 77. 4 78. 3 79. 2 80. 1 Now, eqn (i) 5 + eqn (ii) 8
G 81. 5 82. 3 83. 1 84. 4 85. 2 35x 40 y 25
H 86. 4 87. 3 88. 1 89. 5 90. 2 48x 40y 224
Thus, E ate only a single apple, viz A1 . 148 83x 249
91. 3; ? = 19500 26460
Hence, both statements are sufficient to 100 x = 3 and y = 2
answer the question. = 28860 26460 = 2400 Hence, x > y
105. 2; I. 5x2 52x + 96 = 0 1715
8 7 Now, (X + Y + Z) = = 245 ... (i)
or, 5x2 40x 12x + 96 = 0 or, xy 7
or, 5x(x 8) 12(x 8) = 0 ( x 5) y
620
or, (x 8) (5x 12) = 0 or, (x 5) 8 = 7x X+Z= = 155 ... (ii)
4
12 or, 8x 40 = 7x
or, x = 8, or, x = 40 metres 1530
5
114. 5; Let the original length and breadth Y+Z= = 170 ... (iii)
II. 5y2 + 3y 36 = 0 9
or, 5y2 + 15y 12y 36 = 0 of the rectangle be 100m and 50m From (eqn (ii) + eqn (iii)) eqn (i), we have
or, 5y(y + 3) 12(y + 3) = 0 respectively. (X + Y + 2Z) (X + Y + Z) = 325 245
or, (5y 12) (y + 3) = 0 Area = 5000 sq m Z = `80. Hence, C earns `80 daily
12 After increase, length = 110m and breadth 121. 1; Let the principal be `x.
or, y = 3, = 54m
5 x 8 7
Area = 5940 sq m
Hence, x y Now, x 2244 =
106. 2; Literate males of City A 940 100
Reqd % = 100 = 18.8% or, 100x 224400 = 56x
48 5 5000
= 1200000 360000 = 3.6 lakh or, 44x = 224400
100 8 115. 3; Volume of cylinder = (7)2 12
107. 3; Illiterate females of City B 224400
1 x= = `5100
40 2 and volume of cone = (7) 2 h 44
= 17.5 = 2.8 lakh 3
100 5 122. 3; Let the sum be `x.
108. 1; Total literate population of City C (where h is the height of the cone)
2
1 10 x 10 2
54 Now, (7)2 12 = (72) h Now, x 1 x 255
= 10.6 = 5.724 lakh 3 100 100

K
100 h = 12 3 = 36 cm
Total literate population of City D 116. 2; n(s) = number of ways in which 12 121 x
65 persons can sit around a round table or, x x 255
= 15 = 9.75 lakh 100 5
100 = (12 1)! = 11!
Total = 15.474 lakh We consider three particular persons as one.
21x x
109. 4; Literate population of City E So, the total number of persons is 10 and the or, 255
number of ways they can sit around the round 100 5
70
= 16.8 = 11.76 lakh table is (10 1)! = 9! 21x 20 x
100
The three persons can sit in 3! ways among or, = 255
Total population of City A = 12 lakh 100
themselves.
11.76 n(E) = 9! 3! x = `25500
Reqd % = 100 = 98%
12 Quicker Method:
110. 3; Total population of City F = 20.4 lakh n (E ) 9! 3! 3
P(E) = n (S) = =
Pr 2

KUNDAN
Total illiterate males in City F 11! 55
Difference =
45 5 117. 4; Let the total number of persons in (100) 2
= 20.4 = 5.1 lakh
100 9 the party be n.
5.1 510 Total number of handshakes = nC 2 = 351 255 100 100
Reqd % = 100 = = 25% P= = `25500
20.4 20.4 10 10
n (n 1)
or, = 351 123. 2; Let the cost price of two cycles be
2
111. 2; `x and `y respectively.
or, n2 n 702 Now, x + y = 1900 ... (i)
or, n2 27n + 26n 720 = 0
or, n(n 27) + 26(n 7) = 0 110 151.25
Again, x =y
or, (n 27) (n + 26) = 0 100 100
n = 27, 26 or, 11000x = 15125y
Hence, n = 27 or, 88x = 121y ... (ii)
118. 3; Let the speed of the man in still Solving eqn (i) and (ii), we get
water be x kmph. x = `1100, y = `800
2 Downstream speed = (x + 3.5) kmph
192 4 32 124. 5; Let the three numbers be x, y and z
Upstream speed = (x 3.5) kmph respectively.
Area of the square park = 4 3 Now, (x + 3.5) 4 = (x 3.5)7.5
( x y ) ( y z)
2 2 or, 4x + 14 = 7.5x 26.25 Now, 27
192 36 156 or, 3.5x = 40.25 2 2
= = = (13)2 = 169 sqm or, x + y y z = 27 2 = 54
12 12
40.25 or, x z = 54
112. 4; Area of four walls = 2 (8 + 6) 5 or, x = = 11.5 kmph
= (2 14) 5 = 140 sq m 3.5 8 5
Cost = 140 13.5 = `1890 119. 3; Total distance = 31 40 = 1240 km 125. 4; Cs work = 1 =
13 13
113. 4; Let the length and the breadth of To cover the distance in 24.8 hours,
room be x m and y m respectively. 8 5
1240 (A + B)s work : Cs work = :
area = xy m2 speed = = 50 kmph 13 13
24.8
After decreasing length, area = (x 5)y (A + B)s share : Cs share = 8 : 5
Reqd gain in speed = 50 40 = 10 kmph
10800 9450 120. 2; Let the daily earning of A, B and C be 2301
Now, xy ( x 5) y Cs share = 5 = `885
X, Y and Z respectively. 13
126. 4; Total number of employees
900
133. 5; Reqd % = 100 187.5%
14000 480
in Company B = 54 2100
360
(640 500)
Total number of female employees 134. 3; Reqd % = 100
500
6000
in Company B = 43.2 = 720 140
360 = = 28%
Total number of male employees 5
in Company B = 2100 720 = 1380 135. 4; Total number of students appearing
127. 3; Total number of employees in from School A = 4290
Total number of students appearing from
14000
Company A = 90 3500 School B = 3700
360 Difference = 4290 3700 = 590
Total number of female employees in (136-140):
6000 School Total Boys Girls
Company A = 97.2 1620
360 A 420 273 147
Total number of male employees in B 500 300 200
Company A = 3500 1620 = 1880
C 360 270 90
Difference = 1880 1620 = 260
128. 2; Total number of female employees D 720 288 432

K
6000 136. 4
in Company C = 28.8 480
360 270 5
137. 2; Reqd ratio = = =5:8
Total number of employees in Company B 432 8
14000 138. 2; Difference = 432 288 = 144
= 54 2100
360 270
139. 3; Reqd % = 100 13.5%
2000
480
Reqd % = 100 = 22.85 23%
2100 300 270 288
140. 4; Average =
6000 3
129. 3; Difference = (82.836 )
360
858
6000 = = 286

KUNDAN
= 46.8 = 780 3
360
141. 4 142. 5 143. 5 144. 5 145. 3
97.2 9720 146. 1 147. 3 148. 2 149. 4 150. 5
130. 3; Reqd % = 100 = 135%
72 72 151. 4 152. 1 153. 1 154. 2 155. 5
131. 3; Average 156. 1 157. 2 158. 2 159. 5 160. 3
161. 1 162. 5 163. 2 164. 5 165. 4
640 800 500 700 900 750 4290
= = 166. 1 167. 3 168. 1 169. 3 170. 4
6 6 171. 4 172. 1 173. 4 174. 4 175. 1
= 715 176. 1 177. 1 178. 3 179. 4 180. 2
800 640 181. 3 182. 1 183. 4 184. 1 185. 3
132. 2; % rise = 100 186. 5 187. 4 188. 4 189. 2 190. 2
640
191. 5 192. 3 193. 1 194. 5 195. 1
160 196. 3 197. 2 198. 5 199. 5 200. 1
= 100 25%
640
PRACTICE SET

IBPS PO-CWE
Test-I: Reasoning Ability
Directions (Q. 1-6): Study the following information
carefully and answer the given questions.
There are eight friends S, T, U, V, W, X, Y and Z sitting
around a circular table facing the centre and playing cards
but not necessarily in the same order. All of them have a
favourite card among these eight cards. Out of these eight
cards, four are Kings and four are Queens of spade, club,
diamond and heart.
S likes the Queen of spade and is not an immediate
neighbour of the one who likes the King of club. The one
1) Y is the immediate neighbour of that person who
likes the Queen of spade.
2) Y sits between T and X.
3) Y is opposite the person who likes the King of
diamond.
4) All are true
5) None is true
Directions (Q. 7-11): In each question below are
given three statements followed by two conclusions
numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements
to be true even if they seem to be at variance with
commonly known facts and then decide which of the given
conclusions logically follows from the given statements,

K
who likes the Queen of diamond sits on the immediate left
of T, who likes the Queen of club. U likes the King of club
and sits third to the left of W. The one who likes the King
of spade and the one who likes the Queen of diamond are
immediate neighbours of each other but both of them are
the neighbours neither of W nor of U. The one who likes
the King of diamond and the one who likes the Queen of
spade are immediate neighbours of each other. Neither W
nor V likes the King of diamond. Only X sits between the
one who likes the Queen of diamond and the one who likes
disregarding commonly known facts. Give answer
1) if only conclusion I follows.
2) if only conclusion II follows.
3) if either conclusion I or II follows.
4) if neither conclusion I nor II follows.
5) if both conclusions I and II follow.
(7-8):
Statements: Some papers are pencils.
No paper is a bottle.
No pencil is a pen.

KUNDAN
the Queen of heart. Y sits third to the left of the person 7. Conclusions: I. No pen is a bottle.
who likes the King of diamond. II. No pen is a pencil.
1. Who likes the King of spade? 8. Conclusions: I. Some pencils are not papers.
1) X 2) Y 3) Z II. Some pens are not papers.
4) Cant be determined 5) None of these (9-10):
2. W likes which of the following cards? Statements: All stickers are cups.
1) Queen of spade 2) King of heart No cup is a wire.
3) Queen of heart 4) Cant be determined All wires are bulbs.
5) None of these 9. Conclusions: I. All bulbs being cups is a
3. The liker of which of the following sits exactly between possibility.
T and Z? II. No sticker is a wire.
1) Queen of club 2) King of diamond 10. Conclusions: I. All stickers being bulbs is a
3) King of club 4) King of spade possibility.
5) None of these II. No bulb is a sticker.
4. How many persons sit between V and the person who 11. Statements: Some glasses are bowls.
likes the King of club? All bowls are spoons.
1) None 2) One 3) Two No spoon is a plate.
4) Three 5) None of these Conclusions: I. Some bowls are plates.
5. Which of the following pairs are the immediate II. Some glasses are not spoons.
neighbour of that person who likes the King of
diamond? 12. What should come in place of question mark (?) in the
1) T, U 2) S, T 3) W, S given expression to make T < Q and L T definitely
4) V, Y 5) None of these true?
6. Which of the following statements is/are true with Q?L=M?R=T
respect to Y? 1) , < 2) , > 3) <, 4) <, 5) None of these
13. Which of the following expressions will be false, if the but not necessarily in the same order. There are five male
expression R < E = A M > N is definitely true? and three female candidates in this group. Each male and
1) A > N 2) E N 3) R < A each female has applied from his/her city, viz Jaipur, Delhi,
4) N < E 5) None of these Noida, Kanpur, Patna, Ranchi, Gurgaon and Ghaziabad.
14. Which of the following symbols should be placed in No male has applied from Ranchi and Kanpur.
blank spaces respectively to make the expressions P has applied for Indian Bank from Ghaziabad. The
B J, L > C and J < A definitely true? one who has applied for Corporation Bank is neither from
H<A_ B _ C = J _L Noida nor from Kanpur. G has applied for OBC. His sister L
1) >, , < 2) <, , > 3) =, <, has applied for Dena Bank from Jaipur. The one who belongs
4) <, , < 5) None of these to Delhi has applied for BOB. The one who has applied
15. Which of the following expressions will be true if the from Noida is not a female. N has applied for UBI and her
expression Z Y > L = W N > F is definitely true? friend has applied for BOB. Q is from Gurgaon and has not
1) Z W 2) L = N 3) F < Z applied either for Corporation Bank or for UCO Bank. The
4) W = Y 5) None of these one who has applied for UCO Bank has applied neither
Directions (Q. 16-20): Study the following information from Patna nor from Noida. S has applied from Kanpur. A
carefully and answer the given questions. does not apply from Patna.
A @ B means A is father of B 21. Which of the following groups is a group of female
A % B means A is husband of B applicants?
A $ B means A is sister of B 1) G, N, L 2) N, Q, S 3) L, N, S

K
A B means A is mother of B 4) P, Q, R 5) None of these
A B means A is brother of B 22. Who among the following has applied from Ranchi?
16. What should come in place of question mark to make 1) P 2) N 3) S
the expression E is grandfather of T true? 4) L 5) None of these
E@ V?N%RT 23. Which of the following combinations is true?
1) @ 2) 3) 4) % 5) None of these 1) A UBI Ranchi
17. Which of the following statements is true if the given 2) R Corporation Bank Noida
expression is definitely true? 3) L UCO Bank Jaipur
A%L$KBC 4) G OBC Noida
1) K is sister-in-law of A 2) C is daughter of K 5) None of these

KUNDAN
3) A is father of B 4) C is son of L 24. Who among the following has applied for BOB?
5) None of these 1) A 2) S 3) N
18. Which of the following expressions, if true, makes N 4) Q 5) None of these
is sister of R true? 25. G belongs to which of the following cities?
1) F U @ N $ K R 2) N $ F K R $ U 1) Delhi 2) Ranchi 3) Noida
3) R $ U K $ N 4) N F $ K R $ U 4) Gurgaon 5) None of these
5) None of these 26. Four of the five are alike in a certain way and hence
19. Which of the following statements is false if the given form a group. Which is the one that does not belong
expression is true? to that group?
JKL@MN$O 1) P 2) R 3) A 4) L 5) Q
1) M is son of L 2) K is grandmother of O Directions (Q. 27-31): Study the following information
3) M is grandson of J 4) N is sister of M carefully and answer the given questions.
5) None of these A word and number arrangement machine when given
20. What is the relation between W and P if the given an input line of words and numbers rearranges them
expression is definitely true? following a particular rule in each step. The following is an
G% HW V%RP illustration of an input and its rearrangement.
1) P is son of W 2) W is uncle of P Input: 51 rest 11 loan 21 club 10 art 41
3) P is sister-in-law of W 4) Cant be determined Step I: art rest 11 loan 21 club 10 41 51
5) None of these Step II: art club rest 11 loan 10 21 41 51
Directions (Q. 21-26): Study the following information Step III: art club loan rest 10 11 21 41 51
carefully and answer the given questions: Step IV: art club loan rest 1 4 9 25 36
Eight candidates A, G, L, N, P, Q, R and S have applied Step IV is the last step of the above input. As per the
for IBPS exam for different banks, viz BOB, BOI, Dena Bank, rules followed in the above steps find the appropriate
UBI, OBC, Indian Bank, Corporation Bank and UCO Bank step for the given input.
Input: water 13 ferry 15 place 16 boat 22 market 18
 verb 12
1) 3 km 2) 5km 3) 2.5km
27. What is the position of place in Step III?
1) Sixth from the left 2) Fifth from the right 4) 4 km 5) None of these
3) Fourth from the left 4) Sixth from the right Directions (Q. 37-40): Each of the questions below
5) None of these consists of a question and two statements numbered I and
28. Which of the following would be at the 7th position II given below it. You have to decide whether the data
from the right in Step V? provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the
1) water 2) verb 3) 13 4) 15 5) None of these question. Read both the statements and give answer
29. How many steps will be required to complete the 1) if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to
arrangement of the above input? answer the question, while the data in statement II
1) Four 2) Five 3) Six alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
4) Seven 5) None of these 2) if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to
30. Which step number would be the following output? answer the question, while the data in statement I
boat ferry market place verb water 12 13 15 16 18 22 alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
1) III 2) IV 3) VI 3) if the data either in statement I alone or in statement
4) V 5) None of these II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
31. If Step III of an input is as given below, what will be 4) if the data in both the statements I and II together
the input? are not sufficient to answer the question.
art cute junk 15 18 punch gun 23 28 35 5) if the data in both the statements I and II together

K
1) art cute 15 18 cute punch gun 35 28 23 are necessary to answer the question.
2) 35 art cute 15 18 punch gun 23 28 junk 37. How is D related to A?
3) cute junk art 15 18 punch gun 23 28 35 I. D is married to E, who is brother of B.
4) Cant be determined II. As son B is married to C, who is sister of D.
5) None of these 38. Which direction was Manish facing?
32. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word I. Manish and Mohit were talking to each other face
SEASON each of which has as many letters between to face.
them in the word as in the English alphabetical series? II. At 4 oclock Manishs shadow was exactly on the
1) None 2) One 3) Two left of Mohit.
4) Three 5) None of these 39. What is the rank of R from the bottom in a class of 30
33. The position of the first and fifth letters of the word students?

KUNDAN
SUBSTANCE are interchanged. Similarly, the position
of second and sixth letters, third and seventh letters,
and fourth and eighth letters are interchanged. The
ninth letter remains as it is. In the new arrangement,
how many letters are there in the English alphabetical
series between the letters which is second from the
right end and the third from the left end?
1) None 2) One 3) Two
4) Four 5) More than four
34. In a certain code language COURSE is written as
DRQDPV. How is PUZZLE written in that code
language?
1) DKYQVA 2) QVADKY 3) DKYAVQ
4) QVAAMF 5) None of these
Directions (Q. 35-36): Study the following information
carefully to answer the given questions:
A man goes to the market. He walks 2 km towards
north from his home and then he turns to his left and walks
2 km. Again he turns to his left and walks 1 km. Finally he
turns to his left and walks 4 km and reaches the market.
35. In which direction is mans home from the market?
1) West 2) South 3) Northeast
4) Southwest 5) Cant be determined
36. What is the distance between his home and the market?
I. N is fourth from the top and there are five students
between N and R.
II. The rank of K is fourth from the bottom and there
are 17 students between K and R.
40. There are five students Aarti, Babita, Chandan, Dhiraj
and Suman sitting arround a circular table. Who is on
the immediate right of Aarti?
I. Aarti is second to the left of Dhiraj, who is not the
neighbour of Babita.
II. Babita is second to the right of Dhiraj and is an
immediate neighbour of Chandan and Suman.
41. International diplomatic practice and US immigration
law enable the abuse of domestic workers.
Which of the following is not in line with the above
statement?
1) The wages of domestic workers required by US
law are impossibly high.
2) The livelihood and visa status of the workers
depend on the good will of an employer protected
from prosecution by diplomatic immunity.
3) The William Wilberforce Act bolsters federal efforts
to combat both international and domestic traffic
in human beings.
4) Some of the clauses of the law are simple while
 others are complex.
5) None of these
42. High-end pawn stores are getting increasingly popular.
Which of the following may be a probable reason for
the above phenomenon?
1) For those who borrow a couple of thousand dollars
against, say, a Rolex watch, the rates range from
12% to more than 60% on an annualised basis.
2) That pawnshops exist to lend money to those who
fall on hard times is either a necessary or
unfortunate facet of life, depending on ones point
of view.
3) Conventional lenders over the past five to six years
have become increasingly reluctant to advance
credit on all fronts.
4) When a business needs liquidity to fund operations
or growth, theyre able to go to the capital markets
and use business assets to obtain loans.
5) None of these
K
43. There are investors who are keen to invest in equities
but are afraid of losing money in the stock markets.
Which of the following is a course of action such
investors should take?
1) They should offer 20% of their money in stocks.
2) They should invest in products with a tenure of
five years.
3) They should invest in debt-oriented hybrid funds.
4) They should invest in schemes that are listed on
stock exchanges.
KUNDAN
5) None of these
44. Professor X raised serious charges of mismanagement,
incompetence and illegal behaviour against the
University of Mumbais current administration.
Which of the following courses of action should be
taken?
(A) The professor should be suspended.
(B) As an insider and a well-respected academic, his
criticism of the administration deserves to be
taken seriously.
(C) The truth should be verified by an independent
committee or a court of law.
1) Only A 2) Only B 3) Only C
4) Only A and B 5) Only B and C
45. Google is buying out Nest and there are concerns
among customers about Google having so much data
about people. But it has agreed that Nests privacy
policies are going to be well-respected. Which of the
following statements would most weaken Nests
beliefs?
1) History has shown that privacy policies change.
2) Google products can easily be integrated into Nest.
3) The deal between the two companies has not yet
closed.
4) Unlike many of Silicon Valleys most popular
companies that make software that costs very little
to build, Nest is capital-intensive because it builds
hardware.
5) None of these
Directions (Q. 4650): These questions are based on
the information given below and the sentences labelled
(A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) given after them:
The Aam Aadmi Party (AAP) claims that it consults
many stakeholders before it takes important decisions, like
forming its first government in Delhi. Who did it consult
before deciding that Delhi would not allow foreign direct
investment (FDI) in supermarkets? The government of India
took the decision to open up supermarkets to overseas
investments after protracted debate in media, academia,
civil society and Parliament, because in balance, the
benefits of FDI in supermarkets outweighed the costs.
Supermarkets create jobs. There are many other benefits
as well.
(A) If food retailers were allowed to buy direct from
farmers, instead of going through a complex chain
of politically-connected middlemen in states, it
would reduce waste, speed up time from farm to
plate, boost prices of farm produce for farmers
and cut food inflation by eliminating middlemens
margins.
(B) AAP should withdraw the ban on FDI in
supermarkets.
(C) There should be consistency in the style of
decision-making.
(D) Debate in media is more meaningful than mere
referendum.
(E) Foreign powers had manoeuvred the government
of India in saying yes to FDI.
(F) By banning FDI, the AAP looks like an Aam
Shopkeeper Party.
46. Which of the following has/have been assumed in the
information in the paragraph given above?
1) Only C 2) Only E 3) Only B
4) Both B and C 5) Both B and E
47. Which of the following statements strengthen(s) the
argument given in the paragraph above?
1) Only D 2) Only E 3) Only A
4) Both A and D 5) Both D and E
48. Which of the following is a benefit(s) of FDI in
supermarkets?
1) Only A 2) Only D 3) Only F
4) Both A and D 5) Both A and F
49. Which of the following statements weaken(s) the
argument given in the paragraph above?
1) Only A 2) Only B 3) Only C
4) Only D 5) Only E
50. Which of the following can be a conclusion on the
basis of the paragraph given above?
 1) Only F 2) Only D 3) Only C
4) Only B 5) Both B and C
Test-II: English Language
Directions (Q. 51-70): Read the passage carefully
and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/
phrases are given in bold to help you locate them while
answering some of the questions.
The global financial crisis has heightened fears about
integration with global financial markets. For a country like
India, which should inexorably open up further to global
markets, an important task of policymaking is to identify
the path of this integration. It lies neither in shutting out
foreign capital, nor in recklessly opening up to dollar-
denominated debt, which has landed many a country in
trouble.
A recent Sebi study on foreign investment in
government bonds has recommended the removal of
K
quantitative restrictions on foreign holdings of rupee-
denominated debt and moving towards a framework similar
to the one for foreign portfolio investment in equity. In this
study may co-authors and I find that Indias capital controls
continue to be guided by concerns about debt and its
maturity, rather than its currency denomination. For
example, India has placed many restrictions on foreign
investment in rupee-denominated bonds, even though this
is one of the safest areas to open up. This is because the
currency risk is borne by the foreigner and there is a foreign
appetite for rupee-denominated debt. Currently, the
KUNDAN
restrictions include caps on the total amount of rupee-
denominated bonds that a foreigner is permitted to hold as
well as limits that vary by investor class, maturity and issuer.
These have been implemented through a complicated
mechanism for allocation and reinvestment. The restrictions
fail to meet the objectives of economic policy today and
must be removed.
In 1991, India embarked on its integration with the
world economy through trade and capital account
liberalisation. A key idea behind the early decontrol
measures was that debt inflows were dangerous and,
therefore, strong restrictions need to be placed on them.
Restrictions were imposed to shift the composition of capital
entering India towards non-debt-creating inflows and to
regulate external commercial borrowings (ECBs), especially
short-term debt. As a consequence, while the framework
for FDI and portfolio flows is relatively liberal, India has a
number of restrictions on debt flows.
Over the past decade, the global thinking on debt flows
has changed. The macroeconomic and financial instability
in emerging markets following the crises of the late 1990s
has led to increased efforts in these countries to develop
local currency denominated bond markets as an alternative
source of debt financing for the public and corporate
sectors.
In the 2000s, emerging economies domestic bond
markets have grown substantially. The outstanding stock
of domestic bonds now exceeds $6 trillion, compared to
only $1 trillion in the mid-1990s. Along with this, foreign
participation has also increased substantially over the last
decade. In contrast, the Indian policy framework on debt
flows, characterised by quantitative restrictions on foreign
participation, has resulted in limited foreign investment.
There is a strong case for opening up the local-currency
government and corporate debt market to foreign investors.
The present arrangement governing foreign borrowing
comprises two parts. First, dollar-denominated debt: India
raises capital through foreign currency denominated debt
via government borrowing (both bilateral and multilateral),
ECBs by firms (including foreign currency convertible
bonds and foreign currency exchangeable bonds) and fully
repatriable NRI deposits. Second, rupee-denominated debt:
Foreign investment in rupee-denominated debt takes the
form of foreign investors buying bonds in the Indian debt
market, which is denominated in rupees. This is subject to
an array of quantitative restrictions. There are different
limits for foreign investment in government and corporate
bonds. This arrangement is further complicated by sub-
limits across assets and investor classes.
The share of outstanding government bonds that are
owned by foreign investors has risen through the years.
As of March 2013, it stands at 1.6 per cent. In absolute
numbers, foreign investors own `700 billion or
approximately $11 billion of Indian government bonds. At
present, the quantitative restriction on foreign investment
in government bonds stands at $30 billion. The small scale
of foreign ownership implies a substantial upside potential.
The internal debt of the government stands at `48.7 trillion.
Government securities account for 90 per cent of this
amount. Even if the ownership of foreign investors went
up by ten times overnight, to $110 billion, it would only
amount to 16 per cent of the existing stock of bonds.
A comparison with other emerging economies shows
that India greatly lags behind in the proportion of
government bonds owned by foreigners. This raises
questions on the structure of capital controls in the rupee-
denominated bond market.
The Working Group on Foreign Investment pointed
out that the existing regulations create incentives for Indian
firms to favour foreign-currency borrowings over issuing
debt denominated in rupees. It recommended easing the
restrictions on rupee-denominated debt as a safer way to
manage globalisation. The Committee on Financial Sector
Reforms, chaired by Raghuram Rajan, also recommended
the steady opening up of rupee-denominated government
and corporate bond markets to foreign investors.
The Sebi study recommends that the existing
framework of quantitative restrictions be dismantled. This
will encourage greater engagement of foreigners in the
government debt market.
51. Why should India open up the local-currency
government and corporate debt market for foreign
investors?
1) Because India is in dire need of money for
developing infrastructure of some of its sick
industries
2) Because India has lagged behind due to restrictions
on foreign debt flows
3) Because India is passing through a financial crisis
4) Because India is a developing economy
5) None of these
52. What are the different types of restrictions imposed
by India on foreign investment in rupee denominated
bonds?
1) Caps on the total amount to be invested in rupee-
denominated bonds
2) Class of the investors
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3) Maturity period
4) Issuer of bonds
5) All the above
53. What has/have been recommended by Sebi about
foreign investment in government bonds?
(A) A new framework for foreign portfolio investment
in equity should be made.
(B) Foreign investment in government bonds should
be discouraged because not only India but also
many other countries have experienced a bad
KUNDAN
effect on their economy.
(C) Quantitative restrictions on foreign holdings of
rupee-denominated debt should go away.
1) Only (A) 2) Only (B)
3) Only (C) 4) Both (A) and (B)
5) All (A), (B) and (C)
54. Why does the author think that foreign investment in
rupee-denominated bonds is one of the safest areas
to be opened up? Give your answer in the context of
the given passage.
1) Because foreign investors are forced to invest on
our terms
2) Because the currency risk is borne by the foreigner
3) Because in such as a situation, India becomes the
custodian of their money
4) Because India is not bound to pay the invested
money before the date of maturity
5) None of these
55. What was the effect of the late 1990s crises on the
emerging markets of different countries?
1) The affected countries had to open their emerging
markets for dollar-denominated bond markets.
2) Such countries had to open their emerging markets
for euro-denominated bond markets.
3) Such countries were compelled to develop local
currency denominated bond markets for the public
and corporate sectors.
4) Such countries were forced to disallow foreign
investment in their emerging markets.
5) None of these
56. Which of the following comprise(s) foreign
borrowings? Give your answer in the context of the
passage.
1) External commercial borrowings by firms and fully
repatriable NRI deposits
2) Foreign investment in rupee-denominated debt
3) Foreign currency denominated bilateral and
multilateral government borrowing
4) Only 1) and 2)
5) All 1), 2) and 3)
57. Which of the following statements is not true
according to the facts mentioned in the given
passage?
1) The share of outstanding govt bonds owned by
foreign investors has gone down significantly
through the years.
2) Foreign investors are the owners of approximately
11 USD billion of Indian government bonds.
3) The quantitative restrictions on foreign investment
in govt bonds stands at USD 30 billion as of now.
4) Govt securities account for 90% of the internal debt
of the govt.
5) None of these
58. What was/were the thoughts behinds imposing
restrictions on foreign investment in India while
opening up its economy in 1991?
1) Allowing foreign investment in India means
dependence on foreign investors.
2) It was thought foreigners would take away major
chunk of profits from India and Indias economy
would be in trouble.
3) It was thought that debt inflows were dangerous.
4) India wanted to be on the safer side because it had
never before opened its economy for foreign
investors and hence had no experience of allowing
foreign investment.
5) All the above
59. Which of the following is true about Indias capital
control?
1) Indias capital control is guided by Indias central
bank.
2) As far as Indias capital control is concerned, India
is more concerned about currency denomination
than the amount of debt and its maturity.
3) No control is exercised by Indias central bank on
the debt and its denomination.
4) Indias capital control is guided by debt and its
maturity.
5) None of these
60. What should India do to integrate with financial global 4) grows 5) lacks
market? Directions (Q. 68-70): Choose the word/group of
(A) It should identify the path of integration. words which is MOST OPPOSITE in meaning of the word/
(B) It should not shut out foreign capital. group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.
(C) It should not carelessly allow dollar-denominated 68. Recklessly
debt. 1) carefully 2) hopefully 3) inadvertently
1) Only (A) and (B) 2) Only (A) and (C) 4) unruly 5) readily
3) All (A), (B) and (C) 4) Only (B) and (C) 69. Steady
5) Only (B) 1) uniform 2) stable 3) turbulent
61. Find the incorrect statements on the basis of the given 4) regular 5) stationary
passage. 70. Embarked
1) Compared to the mid-1990s, the outstanding stock 1) launched 2) began 3) stopped
of domestic bond markets has increased 4) proposed 5) regularised
approximately six times in the 2000s. Directions (Q. 71-75): The following questions
2) Foreign participation has not shown any remarkable consist of a single sentence with one blank only. You are
increase over the last decade. given six words denominated by A, B, C, D, E and F as
3) In the 2000s, emerging economies domestic bond answer choices and from the six choices you have to pick
markets have grown substantially. two correct answers, either of which will make the
4) Strong restrictions on foreign participation have sentence meaningfully complete.

K
resulted in limited foreign investment in India. 71. It has come to the notice of Sebi that some companies/
5) None of these entities are illegally mobilising funds from the public
62. Who among the following do/does not favour the by making false promise of ________ rates of return/
easing of restriction on rupee-denominated debt? interest under various schemes/arrangement.
(A) The Working Group on Foreign Investment (A) extreme (B) unreasonable (C) illegal
(B) The Committee on Financial Sector Reforms (D) high (E) exorbitant (F) little
(C) Securities and Exchange Board of India 1) (A) and (B) 2) (B) and (C) 3) (C) and (D)
1) Only (A) and (B) 2) Only (B) and (C) 4) (C) and (E) 5) (B) and (E)
3) Only (A) and (C) 4) Only (C) 72. President Pranab Mukherjee will meet two groups of
5) None of these people who will give him the ________ on the
63. What is the central idea of the given passage? deteriorating law-and-order situation in West Bengal.

KUNDAN
1) Domestic bond markets play a crucial role in the (A) lowdown (B) letter (C) dossier
countrys economy. (D) details (E) brochure (F) information
2) Dollar-denominated debt should not be allowed in 1) (A) and (C) 2) (B) and (E) 3) (A) and (F)
India without any restriction. 4) (C) and (D) 5) (C) and (F)
3) Foreign investors play a vital role in Indias 73. The space between Damascus and Baghdad is
economy. becoming an area for Jihadists to ________ into a
4) India must lift restrictions on foreign investment in global terrorist army.
rupee-denominated debt. (A) convert (B) unite (C) coalesce
5) Importance of financial stability in emerging markets (D) develop (E) collapse (F) collect
Directions (Q. 64-67): Choose the word/group of 1) (A) and (F) 2) (B) and (E) 3) (C) and (F)
words which is MOST SIMILAR in meaning to the word/ 4) (D) and (F) 5) (B) and (F)
group of words printed in bold as used in the passage. 74. Public sector banks are ________ to pick up a stake
64. Inexorably in Bharat Heavy Electricals Ltd.
1) inevitably 2) inextricably 3) magnificently (A) eager (B) motivated (C) adamant
4) openly 5) vigorously (D) keen (E) coming (F) reluctant
65. Array 1) (A) and (B) 2) (B) and (E) 3) (C) and (E)
1) apprehension 2) continuity 3) order 4) (D) and (F) 5) (A) and (E)
4) area 5) multitude 75. Reliance Industries Limited yet again ________ at
66. Dismantled the upper boundary and then moved back into
1) imposed 2) exempted 3) legalised previous consolidation band.
4) removed 5) broken (A) touched (B) picked (C) continued
67. Lags (D) stopped (E) stayed (F) faltered
1) falls out 2) falls behind 3) advances 1) (B) and (D) 2) (E) and (F) 3) (A) and (B)
4) (B) and (F) 5) (A) and (F)
 Directions (Q. 76-80): Rearrange the following six and think. It is in your actions, in the way you are, the
sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper way you carry yourself. Its not (86) you do only when
sequence to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer others are watching. I ask people a simple question: if
the questions given below. there is no policeman at a traffic signal, will you stop?
(A) The RBIs internal management is based on Only 10% say they will stop, 90% will not. Life offers leader
functional specialisation and coordination a perch higher than other people have. If leaders cannot
amongst about 20 departments with headquarters see any (87) than others, they become objects of ridicule.
at Mumbai, which is the financial capital of the They must have (88) into situations, into problems and
country. possible solutions.
(B) RBI is a state-owned institution under the Reserve There is a drought of leadership at all levels of life in
Bank of India Act, 1948. our country. But leaders dont fall from the (89). Some
(C) The RBI is the oldest among the central banks people become leaders themselves or sometimes situations
operating in developing countries, though it is (90) them to become leaders.
much younger than the Bank of England and the 81. 1) gratified 2) shielded 3) defended
Federal Reserve Board operating as the central 4) grapple 5) contend
banks in the UK and the USA respectively. 82. 1) moreover 2) else 3) then
(D) The control of the RBI vests in the Central Board 4) when 5) nonetheless
of Directors that comprises the above mentioned 83. 1) raising 2) creating 3) forming
Governor, four Deputy Governors and 15 4) making 5) building

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Directors nominated by the Union Government. 84. 1) always 2) been 3) ever
(E) This Act empowers the Union Government, in 4) often 5) there
consultation with the Governor of the RBI, to issue 85. 1) coherence 2) adherence 3) sticking
such directions to RBI as considered necessary 4) deciding 5) relation
in public interest. 86. 1) everything 2) when 3) important
(F) The Governor and four Deputy Governors of RBI 4) something 5) anything
are appointed by the Union Government. 87. 1) one 2) better 3) more
76. Which of the following would be the FIRST sentence 4) thing 5) clearly
after rearrangement? 88. 1) insight 2) depth 3) control
1) E 2) F 3) D 4) C 5) B 4) belief 5) knowledge

KUNDAN
77. Which of the following would be the SECOND 89. 1) above 2) god 3) sky
sentence after rearrangement? 4) universe 5) haven
1) C 2) B 3) E 4) F 5) A 90. 1) make 2) instigate 3) prepare
78. Which of the following would be the THIRD sentence 4) develop 5) compel
after rearrangement?
1) A 2) D 3) C 4) B 5) E Test-III: Quantitative Aptitude
79. Which of the following would be the LAST (SIXTH)
sentence after rearrangement? Directions (Q. 91-95): What value should come in
1) E 2) B 3) A 4) D 5) C place of question mark (?) in the following equations?
80. Which of the following would be the FOURTH
91. 0.2304 0.012 ?
sentence after rearrangement?
1) F 2) C 3) B 4) A 5) D 1) 3.84 2) 9.6 3) 19.2
Directions (Q. 81-90): In the following passage, some 4) 38.4 5) None of these
of the words have been left out, each of which is indicated 92. 18 1.8 7.5 = (?)3 100
by a number. Find the suitable word from the options given 1) 5 2) 7 3) 9 4) 11 5) 13
against each number and fill up the blanks with 93. 20% of 40% of ? = 439.6
appropriate words to make the paragraph meaningful. 1) 5275 2) 5345 3) 5495 4) 5525 5) 5655
I have three Is for you. They are Inspiration, Integrity 94. 578 ? 12 = 325992
and Insight. Leaders essentially (81) with something 1) 41 2) 43 3) 45 4) 47 5) 49
larger than what others are willing to grapple with, which 95. ? = (42 56) 16
is what makes them leaders. They need inspiration to be
1) 22201 2) 21609 3) 21025 4) 20449 5) 19881
able to do that, (82) they will get frustrated. The second
Directions (Q. 96-100): What should come in place
component is integrity, which is a key element in (83)
of question mark (?) in the following number series?
trust, without which you are never (84) going to be a
96. 1717 1744 1869 2212 2941 ?
leader. Integrity is about (85) between what you say, do
 1) 3726 2) 3912 3) 4083 4) 4272 5) 4326 1) 24 kmph 2) 60 kmph 3) 72 kmph
97. 1268 2051 2726 3301 3784 ? 4) 90 kmph 5) 120 kmph
1) 4183 2) 4296 3) 4312 4) 4443 5) 4508 110. The ratio of the age of son to that of father is 2 : 7.
98. 18 50 142 414 1226 ? After 12 years, the ratio will become 4 : 9. What is the
1) 3248 2) 3306 3) 3424 4) 3572 5) 3658 present age of son?
99. 28 33 109 560 3940 ? 1) 18 years 2) 16 years 3) 14 years
1) 35125 2) 35235 3) 35485 4) 35705 5) 35915 4) 12 years 5) 8 years
100. 16 65.5 264.5 1061.5 4250.5 ? Directions (Q. 111-115): In each of these questions,
1) 14008.5 2) 15009.5 3) 16006.5 4) 17007.5 5) 18008.5 two equations (I) and (II) are given. You have to solve both
101. What is the compound interest on `48750 for 2.5 years the equations and give answer
at 12% pa? 1) if x < y 2) if x > y
1) `15228.42 2) `15864.24 3) `16071.12 3) if x y 4) if x y
4) `16474.62 5) `16846.84 5) if x = y, or relationship between x and y cant be
102. A shopkeeper marks his goods 30% above the cost established.
price and allows 15% discount on it. If he sells his 111. I. 6x2 49x + 99 = 0 II. 5y2 + 17y + 14 = 0
2
goods for `1038.70, what is the cost price? 112. I. 5x = 19x 12 II. 5y2 + 11y = 12
1) `920 2) `940 3) `960
113. I. x2 = 3 1331 II. 2y2 21y + 55 = 0
4) `980 5) `1020
103. The simple interest in 16 months on a certain sum at 114. I. 5x = 7y + 21 II. 11x + 4y + 109 = 0

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the rate at 12% pa is `266 more than the interest on the 115. I. 2x2 11x + 12 = 0 II. 2y2 17y + 36 = 0
same sum at the rate of 18% pa in 8 months. What is 116. A park is 60m long and 48m broad. It has a 3m-wide
the sum? path all around it each on its inside and outside both.
1) `6450 2) `6650 3) `6750 How much will it take to carpet the path if the rate of
4) `6850 5) `7050 carpeting is `7 per sq metre?
104. A and B can finish a job in 30 days, while A, B and C 1) `8084 2) `9072 3) `10112
can finish it in 12 days. C alone can finish the job in 4) `10742 5) `10956
1) 15 days 2) 18 days 3) 20 days 117. A room is 9m long and 7m wide. The floor of the room
4) 21 days 5) 24 days is to be tiled fully with 9 cm 8 cm rectangular tiles
105. If 8 men and 5 women can earn `3390 in 6 days, and 5 without breaking tiles to smaller sizes. How many tiles
men and 7 women can earn `3600 in 8 days, then in will be required?

KUNDAN
how many days will 7 men and 8 women earn `6435? 1) 8750 2) 9600 3) 10400 4) 12600 5) 14000
1) 9 days 2) 11 days 3) 12 days 118. The dimensions of a room are 12m 8m 5m. There
4) 13 days 5) 15 days are two doors (2.5m 1m) and two windows (1.5m
106. In how many different ways can the letters of the word 1m) in the room. What is the cost of painting the walls
COLLECTION be arranged? of the room if the rate of painting is `13.5 per square
1) 453600 2) 113400 3) 56700 4) 5040 5) 1260 metre?
107. A box contains 3 black, 3 blue and 3 white balls. Two 1) `2416 2) `2592 3) `2684 4) `2748 5) `2804
balls are drawn from the box at random. What is the 119. A cylindrical piece of metal of radius 4.5 cm and height
probability that both the balls are of the same colour? 11 cm is shaped into a cone of the same radius. What
will be the height of the cone?
1 3 20 1 1 1) 16.5 cm 2) 22 cm 3) 27.5 cm 4) 33 cm 5) 38.5 cm
1) 2) 3) 4) 5)
4 4 21 21 66 120. How much will it cost to make a wall, which is 28m
108. A man can row 28 km upstream and 70 km downstream long, 8m high and 0.5m thick, from bricks whose
in 12 hours. Also, he can row 40 km upstream and 56 dimensions are 20 cm 10 cm 7 cm? One brick costs
km downstream in 14 hours. What is the speed of the `3.
man in still water? 1) `1.8 lakh 2) `2.4 lakh 3) `2.8 lakh
1) 7 kmph 2) 8 kmph 3) 9 kmph 4) `3.2 lakh 5) `3.6 lakh
4) 12 kmph 5) 14 kmph Directions (Q. 121-125): The following line graph
109. A person travelled 120 km by bus, 480 km by train and shows the percentage increase in the population of two
432 km by bike. It took 15 hours. If the speed of the cities A and B over the period 2009 to 2013.
5
train is 5 times that of the bus and times that of the
3
bike, what is the speed of the bike?
 Percentage increase 30 City A City B Company % sale
25 25 A 72%
20 20 B 80%
20 C 84%
15 15 D 65%
10 10
10 10 10 E 70%
5 F 75%
5 5 126. What is the total number of items sold by Company
0 A?
2009 2010 2011 2012 2013 1) 27720 2) 48400 3) 56980 4) 71280 5) 99000
Year 127. What is the difference between the total items sold by
The table shows the population of these cities at the Company B and the total items sold by Company C?
beginning of 2009. 1) 21420 2) 22720 3) 23210 4) 24080 5) 24420
City Population (in lakh) 128. What is the average number of items sold by all six
A 12 companies?
B 10 1) 66935 2) 65415 3) 64285 4) 63150 5) 62740
121. What is the population of City A at the beginning of 129. What is the ratio of the total unsold items of Company
the year 2011? B to that of Company E?

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1) 14.96 lakh 2) 15.18 lakh 3) 15.72 lakh 1) 3 : 5 2) 3 : 7 3) 4 : 7 4) 4 : 5 5) 5 : 7
4) 16.04 lakh 5) 16.24 lakh 130. The total unsold items of Company F is what per cent
122. What is the difference between the population of City of the total sold items of Company B?
A and City B at the end of the year 2011? 1) 41.25% 2) 42.5% 3) 43.75% 4) 45% 5) 47.5%
1) 53400 2) 54600 3) 55300 4) 56100 5) 57500 Directions (Q. 131-135): The following bar chart
123. What is the ratio of the population of City A to that of shows the total number of readers of newspaper A and B
City B at the end of 2009? over the period of 2009 to 2013 and the table shows the
1) 1 : 2 2) 6 : 5 3) 8 : 5 percentage of female readers among them.
4) 11 : 10 5) None of these A B
124. What will be the population of City B at the end of the
64 65

KUNDAN
year 2013? 70
56 60 54
Number of readers

1) 17.325 lakh 2) 18.464 lakh 3) 19.0575 lakh 60

48 45
(in thousand)

50 42 44
4) 20.040 lakh 5) None of these 40
40
125. The population of City B at the end of the year 2011 is
30
approximately what per cent of the population of City 20
A at the beginning of the year 2009? 10
1) 72.7% 2) 87.5% 3) 112.5% 4) 125% 5) 137.5% 0
Directions (Q. 126-130): The following pie-chart 2009 2010 2011 2012 2013
shows the percentage distribution of the total items Year
produced by six different companies in the year 2013, and
the table shows the percentage sale of these companies. A B
(Total items produced by all six companies together is 5.5
% female % female
lakh)
2009 43% 51%
A 2010 37% 45%
F
21%
18% 2011 45% 48%
B 2012 52% 54%
E 15% 2013 39% 56%
14% 131. What is the total number of female readers of
C
D newspaper B in the year 2012?
23% 9%
1) 21480 2) 22320 3) 23760 4) 24850 5) 25200
132. What is the difference between the total male readers
of newspaper A and its total female readers in the year
2009?
1) 8620 2) 7840 3) 7450 4) 7280 5) 7060
133. What is the ratio of the total male readers of newspaper
A in the year 2011 to the total female readers of Test-IV: General Awareness
newspaper B in the year 2013? (with Special Reference to Banking Industry)
1) 22 : 21 2) 13 : 22 3) 24 : 23
4) 25 : 24 5) 16 : 15 141. Sahyog-Kaijin 2014, the 13th edition of joint exercises
134. What is the average number of male readers of between the Indian Coast Guard and its counterpart
newspaper B over the years? from which of the following countries, was held off
1) 21320 2) 22640 3) 23450 Kochi recently?
4) 24780 5) 25160 1) Russia 2) China 3) Japan
135. The total number of female readers of newspaper A in 4) Australia 5) US
the year 2010 is approximately what per cent of the 142. South Korean steel maker Posco has received
total number of male readers of newspaper B in the environment clearance for its `52,000-cr steel plant after
year 2010? remaining in the pipeline for the past eight years. The
1) 65% 2) 63% 3) 61% plant is to be set up in which of the following states?
4) 59% 5) 57% 1) West Bengal 2) Karnataka 3) Odisha
Directions (Q. 136-140): Study the following 4) Jharkhand 5) Andhra Pradesh
information carefully and answer the questions given 143. The Reserve Bank of India released the Financial
below: Stability Report (FSR) Dec 2013 recently. Aiming to
In a company there are total 2400 employees, in which create awareness about the vulnerabilities in the

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the ratio of males to females is 7 : 5. All the employees work financial system, the FSR is published every
in three different departments, D 1, D2 and D3 of the 1) month 2) two months 3) three months
company. The number of male employees working in D1 is 4) four months 5) six months
27% of the total number of male employees of the company, 144. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and Bank of Japan
and it is 90% of the total number of female employees in D1. (BOJ) signed a pact to enhance the maximum amount
6
of the Bilateral Swap Arrangement (BSA) between the
The total number of female employees in D2 is of the two countries recently. What is the new limit of the
7 BSA?
total number of female employees in D1 and the total number 1) USD 20 bn 2) USD 30 bn 3) USD 40 bn
of male employees working in D2 is 140% of the total female 4) USD 50 bn 5) USD 60 bn
employees working in D2. Answer the following questions

KUNDAN
145. The RBI had announced to launch Inflation Indexed
based on these information. National Saving Securities-Cumulative (IINSS-C),
136. How many male employees are working in department which was later extended to a later date 31 Mar, 2014.
D3? The minimum limit for investment in the bond per
1) 504 2) 512 3) 518 applicant per annum is `5,000. What is the maximum
4) 524 5) 532 limit?
137. The total number of female employees in department 1) `1 lakh 2) `2.5 lakh 3) `5 lakh
D3 is approximately what per cent of the total number 4) `7.5 lakh 5) `10 lakh
of male employees working in department D1? 146. The Committee on Comprehensive Financial Services
1) 51.7% 2) 53.4% 3) 55.6% for Small Businesses and Low-Income Households,
4) 57.2% 5) 58.2% headed by Nachiket Mor, proposed a plan to overhaul
138. What is the ratio of the total male employees in the Indian banking landscape recently. Which of the
department D 1 to the total male employees in following have been proposed in the report?
department D2? (A) All resident Indians above 18 years of age will
1) 2 : 3 2) 3 : 4 3) 4 : 5 have full-service bank accounts by 1 Jan, 2016.
4) 5 : 6 5) None of these (B) Every account holder will have an electronic
139. The total number of male employees in department D3 payment access point within 15 minutes of walk.
is approximately what per cent of the total number of (C) Increasing the priority-sector lending target from
female employees in department D2? 40 per cent of net bank credit to 60 per cent and
1) 84% 2) 112% 3) 128% 4) 144% 5) 156% doing away with farm-loan subsidies
140. The total number of male employees in department D2 (D) Allowing banks to set up subsidiaries dedicated
is approximately what per cent of the total number of to financial inclusion, without prior approvals from
employees in the company? the RBI
1) 15% 2) 18% 3) 21% 4) 24% 5) 27% 1) All the above 2) Only (A) and (C)
 3) Only (B) and (D) 4) Only (A), (B) and (D) 155. Consider the following with respect to the Reserve
5) Only (B), (C) and (D) Bank of India (RBI)s decision to increase the loan-to-
147. What is Indias global ranking in the recently released value (LTV) ratio of gold loan companies:
2014 Index of Economic Freedom? The index is (A) The NBFCs have been allowed to lend up to 100
published annually by the Heritage Foundation and per cent of the value of gold.
the Wall Street Journal. (B) The decision has been taken on the
1) 48th 2) 52nd 3) 79th 4) 102nd 5) 120th recommendations of the KUB Rao committee.
148. Who among the following has been appointed the (C) NBFCs will have to certify purity of gold to
new CEO of Indias commodity exchange MCX-SX determine the maximum permissible loan.
recently? (D) Loans of `1 lakh and above must be disbursed
1) GK Pillai 2) Jignesh Shah through cheques.
3) Joseph Massey 4) Saurabh Sarkar Which of the above statements are true?
5) None of these 1) Only (A) and (B) 2) Only (C) and (D)
149. Which of the following countries has enacted a new 3) Only (A), (B) and (C) 4) Only (B), (C) and (D)
law, Same Sex Marriage Prohibition Act, which 5) All (A), (B), (C) and (D)
criminalises homosexual clubs, associations and 156. The Delhi High Court recently held that the
organisations with penalties up to 14 years in jail? Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG) can
1) Chile 2) Uganda 3) Nigeria audit the accounts of which of the following under
4) Malaysia 5) North Korea the relevant provisions of the law?

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150. The recently published book titled This Place has been 1) Private educational institutions
authored by who among the following? 2) Private telecom operators
1) Vikram Chandra 2) Nighat M Gandhi 3) NGOs
3) Juliet Reynolds 4) Amitabha Bagchi 4) MNCs
5) Fatima Bhutto 5) All the above
151. Who among the following has won the 2013 FIFA 157. The Sakala programme, which guarantees time-bound
Player of the Year award Ballon dOr recently? delivery of services to citizens by govt departments,
1) Lionel Messi 2) Cristiano Ronaldo has won National award under outstanding
3) Wayne Rooney 4) Arjen Robben performance in citizen-centric service delivery category
5) Franck Ribery recently. The scheme is running in

KUNDAN
152. Which of the following software firms has announced 1) Madhya Pradesh 2) Bihar
to set up the worlds largest corporate learning and 3) Gujarat 4) Rajasthan
development centre in India? It will have a total 5) Karnataka
capacity to train 15,000 professionals at one time and 158. The Finance Ministry has tasked a nine-member panel
50,000 professionals annually. to review the framework on external commercial
1) Tech Mahindra 2) Wipro borrowings (ECBs) and foreign currency convertible
3) Infosys 4) TCS bonds (FCCBs). The panel is headed by
5) IBM 1) Bimal Jalan 2) MS Sahoo
153. Name the Indian sportswoman whose silver medal at 3) Y Venugopal Reddy 4) C Rangarajan
the World Athletics Final in 2005 was recently elevated 5) None of these
to gold by the International Association of Athletics 159. Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority
Federations recently as gold winner Tatyana Kotova (IRDA) has set up a 10-member committee to look into
was disqualified for doping. having 100% Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) in
1) Kunjarani Devi 2) Karnam Malleswari insurance intermediaries and Third Party
3) Tintu Luka 4) Anju B George Administrators (TPAs). The committee will be headed
5) None of these by
154. The Enforcement Directorate has signed an agreement 1) TS Vijayan 2) Usha Sangwan
with the Commerce Ministry for sharing of foreign 3) Sushobhan Sarker 4) SK Roy
exchange realisation data ore eBRC which is expected 5) Suresh Mathur
to increase transparency. The term BRC stands for: 160. The Nachiket Mor Committee, in its recent report, has
1) Bank Redemption Certificate proposed to convert which of the following
2) Bank Realisation Certificate institutions into a commercial entity?
3) Bank Rationalisation Certificate 1) NABARD 2) SIDBI
4) Bank Reference Certificate 3) National Housing Bank 4) HUDCO
5) Bank Ratification Certificate 5) None of these
161. The govt of India will receive a special dividend of
`16,485.71 cr for its 90 per cent stake in which of the
following Maharatna companies as approved by the
companys board?
1) CIL 2) ONGC 3) IOC
4) GAIL 5) SAIL
162. Who among the following was the chief guest at the
65th Republic Day parade at Rajpath in Delhi?
1) Shinzo Abe (Japan)
2) Akihito and Michiko (Japan)
3) Jigme Khesar Namgyel Wangchuck (Bhutan)
4) Abdulla Yameen (Maldives)
5) None of the above
163. According to the Justice MB Shah Commission report
on illegal mining in Odisha, its good quality iron ore
reserves will last for how many years at present rate of
extraction?
1) 10 yrs 2) 20 yrs 3) 30 yrs 4) 40 yrs 5) 50 yrs
164. Michelle Bachelet was officially declared by the
K
Electoral Court to have won the presidential election
held in Dec, 2013 and will be sworn in on 11 Mar as the
new president of which of the following countries?
1) Chad 2) Spain 3) Chile
4) Norway 5) New Zealand
165. Banks are planning to ask the RBI to lift the cap on
borrowing under the daily Liquidity Adjustment
Facility (LAF). Currently, banks can borrow what per
cent of net demand and time liabilities (NDTL) from
the LAF window?
1) 0.5% 2) 1% 3) 1.5% 4) 2% 5) 2.5%
KUNDAN
166. Which of the following banks has agreed to pay USD
1.7 bn to victims of the convicted fraudster, Bernard
Madoff, following a settlement with US prosecutors?
The bank is accused of not maintaining an effective
anti-money laundering programme.
1) Standard Chartered 2) Citibank
3) JP Morgan 4) Bank of America
5) HSBC
167. With the successful launch of GSLV-D5 recently, India
has entered into a select group of nations which have
developed their own cryogenic rocket engine
technology. Which of the following is NOT at present
in the group?
1) US 2) Germany 3) Japan
4) China 5) Russia
168. Which of the following teams has lifted both the Mens
(Barna Ballack Cup) and Womens (Jayalakshmi Cup)
Team titles of the 75th Senior National Table Tennis
Championships recently in Patna?
1) West Bengal
2) Petroleum Sports Promotion Board (PSPB)
3) Airport Authority of India (AAI)
4) Railways Sports Board (RSPB)
5) None of these
169. What does the letter S denote in the abbreviation
SUUTI, a term we often read in financial newspapers?
1) Securities 2) Specified 3) Series
4) Serious 5) None of these
170. Which of the following countries formally joined the
Euro Zone as the 18th member of the group which
uses the Euro as its currency? It has become the
European Union's fastest growing economy.
1) Albania 2) Serbia 3) Latvia
4) Slovenia 5) None of these
171. Pushpa Kapila Hingorani, who died recently, was
Indias pioneer of
1) Public Interest Litigation (PIL)
2) Right to Information (RTI)
3) Right to Education (RTE)
4) Womens education
5) None of these
172. Which of the following is/are correct with respect to
the notification issued by the govt regarding National
Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT) set up
under the new Companies Act?
1) Its chairperson will be entitled to a fixed monthly
pay of `90,000 besides other allowances.
2) It would be the appellate body for National
Company Law Tribunal.
3) It will replace the Company Law Board.
4) All the above
5) Only 1) and 2)
173. Multilateral funding agency World Bank has
announced to provide loan to construct disaster-
resilient houses and roads in cyclonic-disaster-hit
Uttarakhand. What is the amount of the loan?
1) USD 250 mn 2) USD 280 mn 3) USD 320 mn
4) USD 350 mn 5) USD 380 mn
174. Centre has decided to provide an additional wage
employment beyond the stipulated 100 days under
Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment
Guarantee Act (MGNREGA) for Scheduled Tribe
households in forest areas. It will be for
1) 20 days 2) 30 days 3) 40 days
4) 50 days 5) None of these
175. Consider the following with respect to the RBIs move
to introduce globally compatible unique identity codes
to entities which are parties to a financial transaction
in India as part of the G-20 mandate:
(A) The unique identity code called Legal Entity
Identifier (LEI) is a 20-character code assigned
by a local operating unit (LOU).
(B) Clearing Corporation of India Ltd (CCIL) has been
selected to act as LOU.
(C) The functioning of CCIL as a local operating unit
will not fall under the regulation and oversight of
the RBI.
Which of the above statements is NOT correct?
 1) Only (A) 2) Only (B) 182. A repair for a known software bug, usually available
3) Only (C) 4) Only (A) and (B) at no charge on the Internet, is called a(n)
5) Only (B) and (C) 1) Version 2) Patch 3) Tutorial
176. In a move aimed at thwarting money laundering 4) FAQ 5) None of these
activities, the market regulator Sebi has made which 183. The property that when classes are arranged in a
of the following compulsory for all investments into hierarchy, each class assumes the attributes and
Collective Investment Scheme (CIS)? All investments methods of its ancestors is called
in CIS funds are to be made 1) generalisation 2) inheritance
1) through banking channels 3) encapsulation 4) information hiding
2) in cash 5) None of these
3) through correspondents only 184. All of the following are examples of real security and
4) through registered broking agencies privacy risks except
5) None of these 1) Hackers 2) Spam
177. The nations first comprehensive adolescent health 3) Viruses 4) Identity theft
programme named Rashtriya Kishor Swasthya 5) None of these
Karyakram (RKSK) was launched recently from Thane, 185. If you wish to extend the length of the network without
Maharashtra. Based on a national analysis, RKSK will having the signal degrade, you would use a
focus on six areas including: 1) repeater 2) router 3) gateway
1) sexual and reproductive health 4) switch 5) None of these

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2) nutrition 186. Which of the following is used to move down a page
3) injuries and violence (including gender-based in a document?
violence) 1) Jump 2) Fly 3) Wriggle
4) non-communicable diseases 4) Scroll 5) None of these
5) All the above 187. ________ is the process of carrying out commands.
178. As part of taking banking services to rural areas, the 1) Fetching 2) Storing 3) Decoding
Centre has revised its target for opening new bank 4) Coding 5) Executing
branches which will also create an additional 55,000 188. Which of the following types of viruses are often
new jobs in the banking sector. Now, how many new transmitted by a floppy disk left in the floppy drive?
bank branches will be opened yearly from next fiscal? 1) Trojan horse 2) Boot sector 3) Script

KUNDAN
1) 5,000 2) 7,000 3) 9,000 4) 10,000 5) 12,000 4) Logic bomb 5) Worm
179. Which of the following industrial groups has become 189. The binary language consists of________digit(s).
the first corporate in the country to disburse salaries 1) 8 2) 2 3) 1,000
leveraging the Aadhaar Payment Bridge (APB) to avoid 4) 1 5) None of these
fake data? 190. Which of the following is not the basic principle of
1) RIL 2) Adani group networks?
3) Trident group 4) Vedanta group 1) Each computer must have a network card.
5) Bharati group 2) There must be communication media connecting
180. National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development the network and hardware devices.
(NABARD) reduced the refinance rates for banks and 3) There must be at least one connecting device.
other lending agencies by 0.20 per cent to promote 4) Each computer must have software that supports
rural credit and rural infrastructure. What is the new the movement of information.
rate for refinance effective from 7 Jan, 2014? 5) None of these
1) 9.10 per cent 2) 9.30 per cent 191. For deleting data permanently, we use
3) 9.50 per cent 4) 9.70 per cent 1) Delete 2) Shift + Alt + Delete
5) 9.90 per cent 3) Shift + Delete 4) Erase
5) All the above
Test-V: Computer Knowledge 192. Integrated circuits are made up of
1) Si 2) Al 3) Mn
181. The main job of a CPU is to 4) Mg 5) All the above
1) carry out program instructions. 193. Whas is the full form of XP in Windows XP?
2) store data/information for future use. 1) XTRA Power
3) process data and information. 2) XTREME Programming
4) Both 1) and 3) 3) XTRA Process
5) None of these 4) XTREME Power
 5) None of these
198. The output quality of a printer is measured by
194. Which key is used to send a digital signature?
1) dots per sq inch 2) dots per inch
1) Public key 2) Private key 3) Digital key
3) dots printed per unit 4) dots printed per line
4) Keypad 5) None of these
5) Both 1) and 2)
195. The first computer made available for commercial use
199. IEEE ________ standard is used for wireless LAN.
was
1) 802.12 2) 802.13 3) 802.15
1) Mark-I 2) ENIAC 3) UNIVAC
4) 802.11 5) 802.10
4) EDSAC 5) EDVAC
200. DNS is extremely important for the correct functioning
196. EPROM consists of
of the Internet. To do so, it
1) bipolar transistors 2) Diodes
1) encrypts data
3) ETL 4) MOSFETs
2) maps symbolic names for machines onto their IP
5) None of these
address
197. ________ is not an Internet connection.
3) translates message into machine language
1) Broadband 2) WWAN 3) DSL
4) All the above
4) WLAN 5) Dial-up
5) None of these

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KUNDAN
 E@VN%RT
Answers Option 3)
(1-6):

Thus, we cant compare Q and T. Hence,

does not follow.
Option 4) Hence, E is grandfather of T.

17. 1;

1. 1 2. 2 3. 3 4. 4
This leads us to Q < T is true and L T is Hence, K is sister-in-law of A.
5. 5; U and S true. Hence, does not follow.
6. 2 18. 1; Option 1)
13. 2;
7. 2; Some papers are pencils (I) + No pencil Given expression: R < E = A M > N
is a pen (E) = I + E = O = Some papers are
Thus, A > N is true, and R < A is true.
not pens. Now, No paper is a bottle
Again, E > N or N < E is true.
conversion No bottle is a paper (E) +
Some papers are not pens (O) = E + O = No Hence, options 1), 3) and 4) do not follow.
Thus, N is sister of R. Hence option 1)
conclusion. Hence, conclusion I does not But, option 2) is false and hence follows.
follows.
follow. 14. 1; Check options one by one:
Again, No pencil is a pen conversion 1) H < A > B C = J < L Option 2)

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No pen is a pencil. Hence, conclusion II
follows.
8. 4; Some papers are pencils conversion
Some pencils are papers. Hence,
conclusion I does not follow.
Again, Some papers are pencils (I) + No
pencil is a pen (E) = I + E = Some papers are
not pens. Hence, conclusion II does not
follow.
9. 2; No cup is a wire (E) + All wires are bulbs
(A) = E + A = O* = Some bulbs are not cups.
Hence, conclusion I does not follow.
This leads us to B J being true. C < L or L
> C is true. And A > J or J < A is true. Hence,
option 1) follows. Hence, option 2) does not follow.
2) H < A < B C = J > L Option 3)
This leads us to B J, being true. But C > L or
Hence, option 3) does not follow.
L < C is true. Also, we cant compare A and J.
Hence, 2) does not follow. Option 4)
3) H < A = B < C = J L
This leads to B < J being true. But (B J)
does not follow. Hence, option 4) does not follow.
Again, C L is true. But (L > C) does not
follow. And A < J. Hence (J < A) does not 19. 3;

KUNDAN
Again, All stickers are cups (A) + No cup is a follow.
wire (E) = A + E = E = No sticker is a wire. 4) H < A < B C = J < L
Hence, conclusion II follows. This leads us to A < J or J > A. But (J < A) does
10. 1; No sticker is a wire (E) + All wires are not follow. Again, B J does not follow.
bulbs (A) = E + A = O* = Some bulbs are not 15. 3;
stickers. Hence conclusion I follows, but Given expression: Z Y > L = W N > F
conclusion II does not follow.
Thus, Z > W. Hence, (Z W) does not follow. 20. 2;
11. 4; All bowls are spoons (A) + No spoon is Again, L N is true. So, (L = N) may be true.
a plate (E) = A + E = E = No bowl is a plate.
Again, Z > F or F < Z is definitely true.
Hence, conclusion I does not follow.
Hence, follows. But Y > W is true but
Again, Some glasses are bowls (I) + All bowls
(Y = W) does not follow.
are spoons (A) = I + A = I = Some glasses are
spoons. Hence, conclusion II does not follow. 16. 3;
Thus, W is uncle of P. Hence, option 2) is
By putting in place of question mark we true.
12. 5; Check options one by one
get
Option 1)
(21-25):
Bank City
Person Dena Indian Corp
Thus, we cant compare Q and T. BOB BOI UBI OBC UCO Delhi Patna Ranchi Kanpur Gur Gha Jaipur Noida
Bank Bank Bank
But L < T is true. Hence, does not follow.
P(+)
Option 2) A(+)
L()
N()
Q(+)
Thus, Q > T or T < Q is true. But L > T is G(+)
true. Hence, does not follow. R(+)
S()
 S um m ar y 35. 3; Northeast 46. 1; Look at the way the author has com-
Person Bank Place 36. 2; pared to the referendum sought by AAP while
P(+) Indian Bank Ghaziabad EF = DE = 2 km AE = BE = CD = 1 km forming government. The author assumes
2 that it is wrong to seek referendum in one
R(+) Corporation Bank Patna Now, AF = ( AE) ( EF) 2 crucial matter and not do so in another cru-
G(+) OBC Noida
cial matter that affects one and all.
L() Dena Bank Jaipur = 12 2 2 = 5 km 47. 4; (A) takes the argument more in favour
A(+) BOB Delhi 37. 5; From I. D is a female of FDI. Similarly, (D) also helps clinching
N() UBI Ranchi the argument in favour of the author and
Q(+) BOI Gurgaon taking it away from AAP.
From II. 48. 1; The benefits have been clearly enu-
S() UCO Kanpur
21. 3 22. 2 23. 4 24. 1 25. 3 merated in (A).
Hence, both the statements are sufficient to
26. 4 49. 5; If the government of Indias decision
answer the question.
(27-31): was taken at the behest of foreign powers,
38. 5; From I and II.
The machine arranges the words and the then clearly there is a need for rethink.
numbers in each step. As for words, the words 50. 4; We cant go for (C) because it loses
are arranged in alphabetical order from left sight of the core issue involved in the para-
to right and the numbers are arranged in graph.
Then, Manish is facing north. 51. 2 52. 5 53. 3 54. 2 55. 3
descending order from right to left. However,
after arranging all the numbers the digit-sums 39. 3; From I. 56. 5 57. 1 58. 3 59. 4 60. 3
of numbers are squared in the last step. 61. 2 62. 5 63. 4 64. 5 65. 5
Input: water 13 ferry 15 place 16 boat 22 66. 4 67. 2 68. 1 69. 3 70. 3
market 18 verb 12 71. 5 72. 3 73. 1 74. 4 75. 2
(76-80): CBEFDA

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Step I: boat water 13 ferry 15 place 16
market 18 verb 12 22 Rs rank from the top is (4 + 6 =) 10th. 76. 4 77. 2 78. 5 79. 3 80. 1
Step II: boat ferry water 13 15 place 16 From the bottom the rank of R is (30 10 + 81. 4 82. 2 83. 5 84. 3 85. 1
market verb 12 18 22 1) = 21st. 86. 4 87. 2 88. 1 89. 3 90. 5
Step III: boat ferry market water 13 15 place From II. The rank of R from the bottom is 91. 5; ? = 0.2304 0.012
verb 12 16 18 22 4 + 17 + 1 = 22nd. Hence, either statement
I or II alone is sufficient to answer the = 0.48 0.012 = 40
Step IV: boat ferry market place water 13
question. 92. 2; (?)3 100 = 18 1.8 7.5 = 243
verb 12 15 16 18 22
or, (?)3 = 243 + 100 = 343 = (7)3
Step V: boat ferry market place verb water 40. 2; From I. ?=7
12 13 15 16 18 22
Step VI: boat ferry market place verb water 20 40
93. 3; ? = 439.6
9 16 36 49 81 16 100 100
Step VI is the last step of the above input 43960 100
or, ? = 5495

KUNDAN
27. 4 28. 1 29. 3 30. 4 31. 4 20 40
32. 4; From II. 325992
94. 4; ? = = 47
578 12
42 56
33. 4; Given Word: SUBSTANCE 95. 2; ? = = 147
16
After rearrangeing the given word, it becomes or, ? = (147)2 = 21609
TANCSUBSE 96. 4; The series is +33, +53 , +73, +93, ...
Now, Second from the right is S. 97. 1; The series is +28 2 1, +26 2 1,
Third from the left is N. +242 1, ...
There are four letter been N and S in the 98. 5; The series is 3 4, 3 8, 3 12,
English alphabetical series, ie O, P, Q and R. 3 16, ...
34. 1; 99. 3; The series is 28 1 + 5 = 33,
33 3 + 10 = 109, 109 5 + 15 = 560,
560 7 + 20 = 3940, 3940 9 + 25
Hence, statement II is sufficient to answer
= 35485, ...
the question.
100. 4; The series is 16 4 + 1.5 = 65.5,
Similarly, 41. 3; A law that combats traffic in human
65.5 4 + 2.5 = 264.5, 264.5 4 + 3.5
beings will rather prevent abuse of domestic
= 1061.5, 1061.5 4 + 4.5 = 4250.5, 4250.5
workers.
4 + 5.5 = 17007.5, ...
42. 3; Since conventional lenders have be-
101. 3; CI = (48750 1.12 1.12 1.06)
(35-36): come increasingly reluctant, borrowers have
48750 = 64821.12 48750 = `16071.12
Let A be the mans home and F the market. to resort to pledging their property in order
102. 2; Let the cost price be `x.
to borrow money.
43. 3; Debt-oriented hybrid funds offer a sort 130
Marked price = x
of compromise formula. You may enjoy the 100
benefits of stock markets but at the same 130 85
SP = x
time have some cushion as well. 100 100
44. 3; Although B is also correct, it is not a
course of action. 130 85
Now, x = 1038.70
45. 1; If history repeats itself, privacy poli- 100 100
cies may go for a six. x = `940
103. 2; Let the sum be `x. or, 20u + 28v = 7 ... (ii) 113. 1; I. x2 = 3 1331 = 11
16 8 Solving eqn (i) and (ii), we get
x 12 x 18 x= 11 = 3.316
12 12 = 266 1 1
v= and u = y = 4, x = 14 2y2 21y + 55 = 0
II.
100 100 14 4
or, 16x 12x = 26600 2y2 10y 11y + 55 = 0
or,
4 14 or,
2y(y 5) 11(y 5) = 0
26600 Speed of man in still water =
x= = `6650 or,
(2y 11) (y 5) = 0
4 2
= 9 kmph 11
1 y = 5, Hence, x < y
104. 3; (A + B + C)s one days work = 109. 3; Let the speed of the train be x kmph. 2
12 114. 2; I. 5x 7y = 21
1 x
And (A + B)s one days work = Speed of the bus = kmph the and the II. 11x + 4y = 109
30 5 Solving eqn (i) 11 eqn (ii) 5
Cs one days work 55x 77 y 231
3x
1 1 52 1 speed of the bike = kmph
= = = 5 55x 20 y 545
12 30 60 20
97 y 776
C alone can finish the work in 20 days.
120 480 432 y = 8 and from this x = 7
105. 2; Let the daily earning of a man and Then, 15
that of a woman be `x and `y respectively. x x 3x Hence, x > y
5 5 115. 3; I. 2x2 8x 3x + 12 = 0
3390
Then, 8x + 5y = = 565 ... (i) or, 2x(x 4) 3(x 4) = 0
6 600 480 720 or, (2x 3) (x 4) = 0
or, 15
3600 x x x 3
Again, 5x + 7y = = 450 ... (ii) x= ,4
8 1800 2
or, 15

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x II. 2y2 8y 9y + 36 = 0
Solving equation (i) and (ii), we have
x = 120 or, 2y(y 4) 9(y 4) = 0
eqn (i) 5 eqn (ii) 8
or, (2y 9) (y 4) = 0
40 x 25y 2825 3x 3 120
Speed of bike = = = 72 kmph 9
40 x 56 y 3600 5 5 y = 4, Hence, x y
2
31y 775 110. 4; Let the present age of son and father 116. 2;
y = `25, x = `55 be x years and y years respectively.
Now, daily earning of 7 men and 8 women x 2
together = 7x + 8y = 7 55 + 8 25 Then, y 7
= 385 + 200 = `585
or, 7x = 2y ... (i)
`585 is earned by 7 men and 8 women in
x 12 4
one day. Again, after 12 years, y 12 =
`6435 is earned by 7 men and 8 women 9

KUNDAN
1 or, 9x + 108 = 4y + 48 Area of inside path RSPQ = 2{(60 3) + (42
in 6435 = 11 days or, 9x 4y = 60 ... (ii)
585 3)} = 2(180 + 126) = 612 sq m
Solving eqn (i) and (ii), we get Area of outside path LMNO
Hence, number of days = 11
x = 12 years, y = 42 years = 2{(66 3) + (48 3)} = 2{198 + 144}
106. 1; Total number of letters in the word
111. 2; I. 6x2 49x + 99 = 0 = 2 342 = 684 sq m
COLLECTION is 10.
or, 6x2 27x 22x + 99 = 0 Total area of the path = 612 + 684
So, the number of arrangements = 10!
or, 3x(2x 9) 11(2x 9) = 0 = 1296 sq m
Here L, C and O each occurs twice.
or, (3x 11) (2x 9) = 0 Cost of carpeting = 1296 7 = `9072
10!
Number of ways = 11 9 900 700
2!2!2! x= , 117. 1; Number of tiles = = 8750
3 2 9 8
3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 II. 5y2 + 17y + 14 = 0
= 453600 118. 2; Area of four walls = 2 5 (12 + 8)
1 2 1 2 or, 5y2 + 10y + 7y + 14 = 0 = 200 sq m
107. 1; Total number of balls in the box = 3 or, 5y(y + 2) + 7(y + 2) = 0 Area of doors = 2 2.5 1 = 5 sq m
+3+3=9 or, (5y + 7) (y + 2) = 0 Area of windows = 2 1.5 1 = 3 sq m
9 8 7 Effective area = 200 8 = 192 sq m
Number of sample space n(S) = 9 C 2 = y = 2,
2 5 Cost of painting = 192 13.5 = `2592
= 36 Hence, x > y 119. 4; Volume of cylinder = Volume of cone
n(E) = 3 C 2 3 C2 3 C2 = 3 + 3 + 3 = 9 112. 4; I. 5x2 19x + 12 = 0 1
Then, (4.5)2 11 = (4.5)2 h
n (E ) or, 5x2 15x 4x + 12 = 0 3
9 1
P(E) = n (S) = = or, 5x(x 3) 4(x 3) = 0 or, h = 11 3 = 33 cm
36 4 or, (5x 4) (x 3) = 0 1
108. 3; Let the downstrem speed be x kmph 120. 2; Volume of the wall = 28 8
4 2
and upstream speed be y kmph. x = 3, = 112 m3
5 Volume of a brick
28 70 14 35
Then, y II. 5y2 + 11y 12 = 0
x = 12 or, y x =6 20 10 7 7
or, 5y2 + 15y 4y 12 = 0 = m3
1 1 or, 5y(y + 3) 4(y + 3) = 0 100 100 100 5000
Let y u and v or, (5y 4) (y + 3) = 0 Reqd number of bricks
x
Now, 14u + 35v = 6 ... (i) 4
y= , 3 112 112 5000
40 56 20 28 5 = 80000
14 , 7 7 7
y x y x Hence, x y
5000
 Cost of making the wall = 80000 3 = Total number of unsold items of Company E (136-140):
`240000 Total = 2400
14 30
= `2.4 lakh = 550000 = 23100 M:F=7:5
121. 2; Population of City A at the beginning 100 100 Male = 1400, Female = 1000
110 115 165 5
of the year 2011 = 12 = 15.18 lakh Ratio = = =5:7
100 100 231 7
122. 4; Population of City A at the end of
130. 3; Total number of unsold items of
110 115 105
2011 = 12 = 15.939 lakh Company F = 55(21 25) = 28875
100 100 100 Total number of sold items of Company B
Population of City B at the end of 2011
= 55(15 80) = 66000
120 125 105
= 10 = 16.5 lakh 28875
100 100 100 Reqd % = 100 = 43.75% 136. 3
66000 137. 5; D3 (Female) = 220
Difference = 16.5 15.939 = 0.561 lakh
131. 3; Total number of female readers of And D1 (Male) = 378
= 56100
newspaper B in the year 2012
220
110 Reqd % = 100 = 58.2%
12 54 378
100 12 11 11 = 44000 = 23760
123. 4; Ratio = 120 10 12 10 100
10 378 3
100 138. 2; Ratio = =3:4
= 11 : 10 (57 43) 504 4
132. 2; Difference = 56000
124. 3; Population of City B at the end of 100 139. 4; D3 (Male) = 518 D2 (Female) = 360
120 125 110 105 110 = 560 14 = 7840 518
2013 = 10 133. 1; Reqd ratio Reqd % = 100 = 143.88 144%

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100 100 100 100 100 360
= 19.0575 lakh 55
48000 504
125. 5; Population of City B at the end of 100 48 55 140. 3; Reqd % = 100 21%
the year = 10 1.20 1.25 1.1 = 16.5 lakh = 2400
45000
56 45 56 = 66 : 63 = 22 : 21
Population of City A at the beginning of the 100 141. 3 142. 3 143. 5 144. 4 145. 3
year 2009 = 12 lakh 146. 4 147. 5 148. 4 149. 3 150. 4
16.5 134. 4; Average number of male readers of 151. 2 152. 4 153. 4 154. 2 155. 4
Reqd % = 100 = 137.5% 156. 2 157. 5 158. 2 159. 5 160. 1
12 1000
126. 4; Total sold items of Company A newspaper B = (42 49 + 64 55 + 161. 1 162. 1 163. 3 164. 3 165. 1
5 100
166. 3 167. 2 168. 2 169. 2 170. 3
18 72 54 52 + 44 46 + 45 44)
= 550000 = 71280 171. 1 172. 4 173. 1 174. 4 175. 3
100 100 = 2 (2058 + 3520 + 2808 + 2024 + 1980) 176. 1 177. 5 178. 4 179. 3 180. 4
127. 5; Difference = 2 12390 = 24780 181. 4 182. 2 183. 2 184. 2 185. 1

KUNDAN
15 80 9 84 135. 2; Total number of male readers of 186. 4 187. 5 188. 2 189. 2 190. 2
= 550000( ) newspaper A in the year 2010
100 100 100 100 191. 3 192. 1
= 55(1200 756) = 55 444 = 24420 193. 5; The letters XP stand for
37
128. 1; Total sale = 55(18 72 + 15 80 + = 60000 = 22200 eXPerience, meaning the operating system
9 84 + 23 65 + 14 70 + 21 75) 100
was meant to be a new type of user
= 55(1296 + 1200 + 756 + 1495 + 980 + Total number of male readers of newspaper experience.
1575) = 55 7302 = 401610 B in the year 2010 194. 2; Private key is used, because it is known
401610 55 to user only.
Average = = 66935 = 64000 = 35200 195. 3 196. 4 197. 2 198. 1 199. 4
6 100
200. 2; DNS (Domain Name System) acts as
129. 5; Total number of unsold items of a resolutor which maps names onto IP ad-
22200
15 20 Reqd % = 100 = 63.068 63% dress and vice versa.
Company B = 550000 = 16500 35200
100 100
PRACTICE SET

IBPS PO-CWE
Test-I: Reasoning Ability
Directions (Q. 1-5): Study the following information
carefully to answer the given questions.
A word and number arrangement machine when given
an input line of words and numbers rearranges them
following a particular rule in each step. The following is an
illustration of the input and rearrangement. (All the numbers
are two-digit numbers.)
Input: 76 pink 83 colour 79 each 65 owl ice 81
Step I: each 76 pink 83 colour 79 65 owl ice 81
Step II: each 65 76 pink 83 colour 79 owl ice 81
Directions (Q. 6-8): Study the following information
carefully and answer the given questions.
There are five bottles A, E, I, O and U arranged on a
table but not necessarily in the same order. Bottle E is to
the north of bottle O. Bottle I is to the south of bottle E.
Bottle A and bottle U are in the east and west respectively
of bottle I.
6. In which direction is bottle O with respect to bottle I?
1) South 2) North 3) Either 1) or 2)
4) East 5) North-east
7. If bottle I is exactly between E and O then in which
direction is bottle A with respect to bottle O?
1) North 2) North-east 3) South-east

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Step III: each 65 ice 76 pink 83 colour 79 owl 81 4) South 5) None of these
Step IV: each 65 ice 76 owl pink 83 colour 79 81 8. In which direction is bottle U with respect to bottle E?
Step V: each 65 ice 76 owl 79 pink 83 colour 81 1) South 2) South-east 3) West
Step VI: each 65 ice 76 owl 79 colour pink 83 81 4) South-west 5) None of these
Step VII: each 65 ice 76 owl 79 colour 81 pink 83 9. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word
Step VII is the last step of the above input as the EDITION each of which has as many letters between
desired arrangement is obtained. As per the rules them in the word as in the English alphabetical series?
followed above, find the appropriate step for the given 1) One 2) Two 3) Three
input. 4) Four 5) None of these
Input: magazine 14 desire 21 input 13 28 expire activate 10. In a certain code langauge RIVER is written as LUXOB.
25 30 How is TEPID written in that code language?

KUNDAN
1. Which step number is the following output? 1) HWRAF 2) HWQAF 3) HRNAF
activate 13 expire 14 input magazine desire 21 28 25 30 4) AFRHW 5) None of these
1) Step IV 2) Step V 3) Step VII Directions (Q. 11-15): Study the following information
4) There is no such step 5) None of these carefully and answer the given questions.
2. How many elements (words or numbers) are there There are six family members L, M, N, O, P and Q. Each
between 14 and 25 as they appear in the last step member has a different choice of ice cream, viz Vanilla,
but one? Chocolate, Strawberry, Mango, Kesar-Pista and Peanut
1) Two 2) Three 3) Four butter but not necessarily in the same order. There are two
4) Five 5) Six married couples in the family. No female member likes either
3. Which word/number would be at the fifth position Vanilla or Kesar-Pista.
from the right in Step III? L is daughter-in-law of Q and likes Strawberry. N is
1) desire 2) 14 3) input brother of O and son of M, and likes Peanut butter. P is
4) 21 5) None of these grandmother of O, who does not like Mango. The husband
4. Which of the following represents the position of has a choice for Vanilla and his wife likes Chocolate ice
input in the sixth step? cream.
1) Seventh from the left 11. How many male members are there in the family?
2) Fifth from the right 1) Two 2) Three 3) Four
3) Fifth from the left 4) Cant be determined 5) None of these
4) Sixth from the right 12. Which of the following is true about O?
5) None of these 1) Daughter of M
5. How many steps would be required to get the final 2) Son of L
output? 3) Brother of Q
1) Six 2) Seven 3) Five 4) Either brother or sister of P
4) Nine 5) Eight 5) None of these
13. How is M related to Q? not a teacher and P is a lawyer. Which of the following
1) M is sister of Q 2) M is son of Q statements is correct?
3) M is grandson of Q 4) Cant be determined 1) M is married to R, who is a teacher.
5) None of these 2) N is married to R, who is a CA.
14. Which of the following combinations of ice cream does 3) L is married to P, who is a teacher.
one of the couples like? 4) Only 2) and 3) are correct
1) Vanilla Mango 5) None of these
2) Kesar-Pista Peanut butter 22. There are five books J, K, Y, W and X placed on a
3) Strawberry Mango table. Y is placed just below J, W is placed just above
4) Peanut butter Mango X, and K is placed below Y and X. Which of the
5) None of these following books touches the surface of the table?
15. Which of the following ice creams does P like? 1) W 2) X 3) K
1) Vanilla 2) Mango 3) Chocolate 4) J 5) Y
4) Kesar-Pista 5) None of these Directions (Q. 23-27): Study the following information
Directions (Q. 16-20): In each question below are carefully and answer the given questions.
given three statements followed by two conclusions Q, R, S, T, U, V, W and X are eight group captains of
numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements different games, viz, Badminton, Volleyball, Cricket, Table
to be true even if they seem to be at variance with Tennis, Football, Hockey, Kho-Kho and Lawn Tennis, but
commonly known facts and then decide which of the given not necessarily in the same order. There are three female

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conclusions logically follows from the given statements,
disregarding commonly known facts. Give answer
1) if only conclusion I follows.
2) if only conclusion II follows.
3) if either conclusion I or II follows.
4) if neither conclusion I nor II follows.
5) if both conclusions I and II follow.
16. Statements: All plastics are notes.
No note is a coin.
Some coins are papers.
Conclusions: I. Some coins are plastics.
members in the group and four captains are holding PhD
degrees.
X has a PhD degreee and is the captain of Volleyball.
Q is the captain of Cricket. R is the captain of Hockey.
The one who is the captain of Table Tennis does not
have a PhD degree.
No female is captain of either Football or Lawn Tennis.
The captain of Lawn Tennis does not have a PhD
degree.
W and S are not the captains of either Football or
Hockey.

KUNDAN
II. No coin is a note. S is the captain of a ladies team and U and S have PhD
(17-18): degrees.
Statements: No graphic is a picture. R and V are lady captains and are not PhD degree
Some pictures are figures. holders. T has a PhD degree and is the captain of the
All symbols are figures. Kho-Kho team.
17. Conclusions: I. Some figures are not graphics. 23. Who is the captain of the Hockey team?
II. Some pictures are symbols. 1) Q 2) R 3) S
18. Conclusions: I. All symbols being pictures is a 4) T 5) None of these
possibility. 24. Which captain is a female and a PhD degree holder?
II. Some graphics are symbols. 1) R 2) T 3) S
(19-20): 4) V 5) None of these
Statements: Some birds are insects. 25. Which of the following groups represent the male
All birds are butterflies. group of captains who have PhD degrees?
All insects are snakes. 1) QTU 2) SUX 3) UTS
19. Conclusions: I. Some snakes are birds. 4) TUX 5) Cant be determined
II. Some butterflies are snakes. 26. S is the captain of which of the following games?
20. Conclusions: I. All butterflies being insects is a 1) Cricket 2) Hockey 3) Badminton
possibility. 4) Kho-Kho 5) None of these
II. All birds being snakes is a 27. Which of the following combinations is true?
possibility. 1) R Male Hockey PhD
21. There are three ladies L, M and N married to three men 2) S Female Badminton PhD
P, Q and R. All the men have a different profession 3) T Male Cricket PhD
while the women have none. L is married to P. M is not 4) W Male Lawn Tennis PhD
married to the CA. N is not married to the teacher. R is 5) None of these
28. If the expression R V and P < Q are true, then which Maxima and the one who likes HMT (count in
of the following symbols should be placed in the blank clockwise direction starting from HMT)?
spaces respectively in the given expression? 1) Two 2) None 3) One
Q_R N=P_V 4) Three 5) None of these
1) >, 2) =, > 3) , 37. Which of the following statements is true?
4) >, > 5) None of these 1) M is the neighbour of R and N.
29. Which of the following expressions is true, if the given 2) A likes HMT and faces outside the centre.
expression is true? 3) S likes Maxima and does not face the centre.
E>F G=H I<J 4) All are true
1) E > I 2) J > G 3) F J 5) None is true
4) E H 5) None of these Directions (Q. 38-40): Each of the questions below
30. Which of the following symbols should be placed in consists of a question and two statements numbered I and
the blank spaces respectively to make the expression II given below it. You have to decide whether the data
Q > M and P M definitely true? provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the
M_N_O_P_Q question. Read both the statements and give answer
1) <, =, , < 2) , >, =, > 3) =, , , = 1) if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to
4) , =, , < 5) None of these answer the question, while the data in statement II
31. In the following number sequence, how many such alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
even numbers are there which are exactly divisible by 2) if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to

K
its immediate preceding number but not exactly
divisible by its immediate following number?
4852683945 939532692
1) None 2) One 3) Two
4) Three 5) None of these
Directions (Q. 32-37): Study the following information
carefully and answer the given questions.
A, N, M, R, J, V, S and D are eight friends sitting around
a circular table. Two of them are not facing the centre. All
of them like watches of different brands, viz Maxima, Puma,
HMT, Titan, Fastrack, Rado, Quartz and Omega, but not
answer the question, while the data in statement I
alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
3) if the data either in statement I alone or in statement
II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
4) if the data in both the statements I and II together
are not sufficient to answer the question.
5) if the data in both the statements I and II together
are necessary to answer the question.
38. There are five persons A, B, C, D and E. Then B is in
which direction with respect to E?
I. A is to the west of D and to the north of B, and C is

KUNDAN
necessarily in the same order. to the south of E.
R and M are sitting third and second to the left of A II. D is to the north of A and east of E. B is to the west
respectively. R and S are neighbours of N, who likes of C and south-east of D.
Fastrack. The one who likes Titan sits on the immediate 39. What is the angle between the two hands of a clock?
right of N. S is sitting third to the right of A and likes I. One hour ago the angle between the two hands
Maxima. D is third to the right of J and likes Quartz. A and was 75 degrees and the minute hand was ahead of
D are not the neighbour of that person who likes Rado. V the hour hand.
does not like HMT and Titan. The person who likes Omega II. The hour hand is between 9 and 10.
is sitting opposite J. 40. Among T, F, L, M and B, is M uncle of F?
32. The person who is sitting second to the left of A likes I. F is son of T, who is brother of M. L is sister-in-law
which of the following watches? of M.
1) Maxima 2) Puma 3) Rado II. L is mother of F and wife of T, who is son of B, who
4) Omega 5) None of these is father of M and has only two sons.
33. Who among the following likes Rado? 41. One day when I was nine years old my father punished
1) N 2) M 3) R 4) D 5) None of these me the only time I was ever punished by shutting
34. What is the position of V with respect to A? me in a room alone for a whole day. Sarojini Naidu
1) Immediate left of A 2) Second to the right of A Which of the following inferences can best be drawn
3) Immediate right of A 4) Cant be determined from the above statement?
5) None of these 1) Sarojini Naidu was stubborn as a child.
35. If S is on the immediate right of N then by the same 2) People realised in Naidus lifetime that punishment
logic who among the following sits third to the right is no solution to stop a child from rebelling.
of N? 3) Severe punishment was prevalent during the time
1) M 2) J 3) D 4) V 5) None of these of Naidus childhood.
36. How many persons sit between the person who like
 4) Naidu was transformed by that single day of
punishment.
5) None of these
42. Inadequacy of financial resources is a key constraint
to railways following the desired path. Railway
Minister Mallikarjun Kharge
Which of the following courses of action should best
be taken?
1) Passenger and freight fares should be increased.
2) The monopoly of Indian Railways should be
abolished.
3) Big policy announcements should be made.
4) There should be improved ticket checking, and IT
should be used to improve ticket sales.
5) None of these
43. One-third of Indias GDP slowdown is due to the global
slowdown. But the impact on our advanced coastal
states has been disproportionately high, and the impact
on backward inland states has been disproportionately
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low.
Which of the following statements substantiates the
fact expressed in the above statement?
1) The coastal states of Odisha and West Bengal are
not globalised.
2) West Bengal used to be Indias commercial capital
at Independence, but has been driven into
backwardness by the ruination of its industry by
Marxist trade unions.
3) The inland states are less globalised and less export-
oriented.
KUNDAN
4) Nothing succeeds like success.
5) None of these
44. The appointment of Satya Nadella as the CEO of the
iconic Microsoft has given us a reason to take pride in
the success of a fellow Indian.
Which of the following is the best reason for the
abovementioned pride?
1) He is Indian by birth.
2) He went to ordinary schools and colleges and got
to the top on his own merit.
3) He remained a nice, normal and humble guy.
4) In his success, we see the possibility of our own
success.
5) Young people are looking for role models to
emulate.
45. Party Xs support swell doesnt seem that evident in
Uttar Pradesh, where the survey gives the party 34
out of 80 seats.
Which of the following assumptions is implicit in the
above statement? (An assumption is something
supposed or taken for granted.)
1) Party X is not likely to get as many seats as it did
last time.
2) Party X is not likely to get as many seats in Uttar
Pradesh as it did last time.
3) Uttar Pradesh may show contrary results this time.
4) Party X is not likely to reach its all-time best.
5) Party X is not likely to reach its all-time best in
Uttar Pradesh.
46. Existing 3G plans will apply to users who will be
migrated to 4G for no extra cost. However, they will
have to get a SIM card replacement.
Which of the following occasions is most likely to
have elicited this statement from the company?
1) Voice networks will continue to run on 2G and 3G
net.
2) The company has launched 4G recently.
3) The company is launching 4G services for
smartphones.
4) 4G network users will be able to download 10
standard movies within 30 minutes.
5) None of these
47. How many of us know that televisions, computers
and other electronic items contain hazardous material
like lead, mercury and cadmium and that they pose
serious threat to the environment if buried in a landfill?
Which of the following can be concluded from the
above statement?
1) People should not use televisions and computers.
2) Electronic items should be made without using
hazardous materials.
3) The environment has been endangered from e-
waste and is on the verge of crashing.
4) There should be proper disposal of electronic items.
5) None of these
48. The biggest mistake people make is buying a life
insurance policy every year to save taxes.
Which of the following can be the best reason for the
assertion made in the above statement?
1) Such people do not have adequate insurance cover.
2) The annual premium becomes huge over a period
of time.
3) There is a mad rush to make investments to save
taxes in the last three months of the financial year.
4) A salaried individual can invest up to `1 lakh and
claim tax deduction under Section 80 C of the I-T
Act.
5) None of these
49. Do tax-free bonds qualify for tax deduction under
Section 80C? Well, according to stories doing the
rounds, somebody thought they do and bought
them.Needlesstosay,thepoorsoulrealisedthattax-
free bonds were not meant to save tax under Section
80C; they only offer tax-free interest. Similarly, many
bank customers are not aware that the bond they just
bought to save tax is actually an insurance policy.
 Some taxpayers also dont know that a PPF is a
15-year account.
Which of the following inferences can be made in the
above situation?
1) Investors are unaware of the nitty-gritty of tax-
saving instruments.
2) Investment consultants often take their clients for
a ride.
3) There are no bonds that save your taxes in their
year of investment.
4) PPF allows tax benefits after a period of 15 years.
5) None of these
50. Raising tariffs wont be an easy option since the market
is still very competitive and all operators do not have
the same high costs of spectrum.
Which of the following assumptions is implicit in the
above statement? (An assumption is something
supposed or taken for granted.)
1) Phone call rates are not likely to go up.
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2) There are not too many players in the telecom
market.
3) It costs a lot to buy spectrum.
4) Raising telecom tariffs involves prior approval from
TRAI.
5) None of these
Test-II: English Language
Directions (Q. 51-60): Read the passage carefully
and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/
KUNDAN
phrases are given in bold to help you locate them while
answering some of the questions.
My favorite story in Erik Brynjolfsson and Andrew
McAfees fascinating new book, The Second Machine Age,
is when the Dutch chess grandmaster Jan Hein Donner
was asked how hed prepare for a chess match against a
computer, like IBMs Deep Blue. Donner replied: I would
bring a hammer.
Donner isnt alone in fantasising that hed like to
smash some recent advances in software and automation
think self-driving cars, robotic factories and artificially
intelligent reservationists which are not only replacing
blue-collar jobs at a faster rate, but now also white-collar
skills, even grandmasters!
Something very, very big happened over the last
decade. My own shorthand is that the world went from
connected to hyperconnected and, as a result, average
is over, because employers now have so much easier,
cheaper access to above-average software, automation and
cheap genius from abroad. Brynjolfsson and McAfee, both
at MIT, offer a more detailed explanation: We are at the
start of the Second Machine Age.
The First Machine Age, they argue, was the Industrial
Revolution that was born along with the steam engine in
the late 1700s. This period was all about power systems
to augment human muscle, explained McAfee in an
interview, and each successive invention in that age
delivered more and more power. But they all required
humans to make decisions about them. Therefore, the
inventions of this era actually made human control and
labour more valuable and important.
In the Second Machine Age, though, argues
Brynjolfsson, we are beginning to automate a lot more
cognitive tasks, a lot more of the control systems that
determine what to use that power for. In many cases today
artificially intelligent machines can make better decisions
than humans. So humans and software-driven machines
may increasingly be substitutes, not complements. Whats
making this possible, the authors argue, are three huge
technological advances that just reached their tipping
points, advances they describe as exponential, digital and
combinatorial.
To illustrate exponential they retell the story of the
king who was so impressed with the man who invented
chess that he offered him any reward. The inventor
suggested rice to feed his family. He asked the king to
simply place a grain of rice on the first square of a
chessboard and then have each subsequent square receive
twice as many grains as the previous. The emperor agreed
until he realised that 63 instances of doubling yields a
fantastically big number, even starting with one grain
like 18 quintillion grains of rice, once you finish the second
half of the chessboard.
The authors compare this second half of the
chessboard to Moores Law about the relentless doubling
of digital computing power about every two years. Unlike
the steam engine, which was physical and doubled in
performance every 70 years, computers get better, faster
than anything else, ever, says Brynjolfsson. Now add the
spread of the Internet to both people and things soon
everyone on the planet will have a smartphone, and every
cash register, airplane engine, student iPad and thermostat
will be broadcasting digital data via the Internet.
51. Why does the author say that average is over? Give
your answer in the context of the given passage.
1) Because the world is now hyperconnected.
2) Because people have now become more intelligent.
3) Because we have to compete with intelligent people,
not average ones.
4) Because employees now have easier and cheaper
access to above-average software and cheap
genius from abroad.
5) Because the average man will produce goods or
services of average quality, which casts negative
impact on consumers.
52. Why did Jan Hein Donner, in reply to a question, say
that he would bring a hammer if asked to match against
a computer?
 1) Because he knew that he could not compete with a Directions (Q. 57-58): Choose the word/group of
computer. words which is MOST SIMILAR in meaning to the word/
2) Because he was completely against the excessive group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.
use of computers. 57. Smash
3) Because he thought that computer would someday 1) emulate 2) crush 3) appraise
render labourers as well as intelligent men jobless. 4) succeed 5) appreciate
4) Because he knew that computer was the greatest 58. Cognitive
enemy of mankind. 1) complex 2) physical 3) mechanical
5) None of the above 4) unique 5) mental
53. What, according to McAfee, was/were the Directions (Q. 59-60): Choose the word/group of
characteristic features of the First Machine Age? words which is MOST OPPOSITE in meaning of the word/
(A) This period was all about power system to group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.
enhance the utility of manpower. 59. Augment
(B) This period is marked as the invention of steam 1) enhance 2) wax 3) elongate
engine. 4) diminish 5) increase
(C) The inventions of this era made human control 60. Subsequent
and labour more valuable and important. 1) next 2) later 3) previous
1) Only (A) and (B) 2) Only (B) and (C) 4) perfect 5) following
3) Only (A) and (C) 4) Only (A) Directions (Q. 61-70): Read the passage carefully

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5) All (A), (B) and (C) and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/
54. What is the significance of quoting the story of the phrases are given in bold to help you locate them while
king who wanted to reward the inventor of chess? answering some of the questions.
1) The author wants to entertain the readers. A Reserve Bank of India panel has submitted a report
2) The author wants to make it known that exponential on financial inclusion. It proposes that priority sector
progression gives much higher result than lending by banks be raised and that banks be mandated to
arithmetic progression does. open accounts for every adult Indian by January 2016.
3) The author wants to affirm that technology has The recommendations do not challenge the RBIs basic
grown at exponential rate. approach to financial inclusion. This approach, which has
4) Only 1) and 2) been to mandate banks to undertake financial inclusion,
5) Only 2) and 3) might have spread public sector bank branches in rural

KUNDAN
55. Which of the following is not true about the Second areas for some years, helped open bank accounts and
Machine Age? Give your answer in the context of the directed credit, but it has stopped yielding results. What
given passage. India needs is a new approach, which encourages
1) In this age, artificially intelligent machines can make competition and innovation, rather than more mandates.
better decisions than humans. Indias approach to financial inclusion has been bank-
2) No machine in the Second Machine Age can fully centric. So far, it has focused on bank nationalisation,
automate cognitive tasks. continued with government ownership of banks and their
3) Human-and software-driven machines may recapitalisation. The way to ensure inclusion has been
substitute human force. priority sector lending, which mandates that 40 per cent of
4) In this age, many cognitive tasks are being each banks lending be to weaker sectors small-scale
automated. industries, agriculture and exports to which the bank
5) None of these might not have lent otherwise. The RBI panel now
56. Find the correct statement(s) on the basis of the given recommends raising this share to 50 per cent.
passage. The panels recommendations are in sync with the
(A) According to Moores law, the computing power RBIs recent guidelines for the grant of licences to new
of a computer gets doubled every two years. banks. These require that the bank have a plan for financial
(B) The First Machine Age is also known as the inclusion and that it open 25 per cent of its branches in
industrial revolution. unbanked rural areas. This approach is similar to the one
(C) If a grain doubles itself exponentially it becomes that required PSU banks to open rural branches. By once
eighteen quintillion grains in just sixty three again mandating financial inclusion, this time for private
instances of doubling. sector licence applications, instead of focusing on
1) Only (A) 2) Only (B) competition and innovation, the RBI is essentially doing
3) Only (C) 4) Only (A) and (B) more of the same.
5) All (A), (B) and (C) Financial inclusion may be defined as access to a range
of financial services in a convenient, flexible, reliable and
continuous manner from formal, regulated financial
institutions. Even though access can be ensured by
mandates, the quality parameters of access may be
compromised in the process. This is seen in the low usage
of accounts and the poor asset quality of priority sector
portfolios. Such inclusion confuses ends with means. A
bank account is meant to fulfil certain functions simply
opening an account is not enough. The panel proposes to
make it mandatory for every Indian over the age of 18 to
have a bank account.
An often overlooked consequence of the mandate-
driven approach to inclusion, as pursued by the RBI, is
that the costs of this inclusion are levied on the investors
and consumers of banks. The losses from unused bank
accounts and poorly performing priority sector assets are
eventually borne by the investors and consumers. If the
political objective of opening bank accounts is to be met,
or lending to certain sectors ensured, it should be
3) New banks should open one-fourth of their
branches in unbanked rural areas.
4) At least twentyfive per cent of total deposits
received by a bank should be invested in central
govt securities.
5) All the above
63. What is the consequence of the mandate-driven
approach to inclusion?
1) The mandate-driven approach to inclusion results
into inclusion of such people as cannot continue
their accounts for a longer period.
2) It enhances workload on bank staff, which results
into poor service.
3) Such an approach to inclusion defeats the very
purpose of financial inclusion.
4) The losses from unused bank accounts are
eventually borne by the investors and consumers.
5) None of these
64. Find the correct statement(s) on the basis of the given

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transparent as a line item on the governments budget.
Instead, it is done through a cross-subsidy that effectively
makes other customers pay for the political goals of a
government pushing its agenda through banks.
This approach has been accompanied by a neglect of
the other drivers of inclusion competition and
innovation. In the last 11 years, the Indian economy has
grown rapidly, but no banking licences have been given in
this time. The trend has been that once a decade, the RBI
decides to give a few licences, but there is no window to
get licences during this period. The incumbent banks feel
passage.
1) Indias approach to financial inclusion has focused
on the nationalisation of banks.
2) The RBI panel has recently recommended to raise
the lending share for weaker sectors to forty per
cent.
3) Indias financial inclusion means government
ownership of banks and their recapitalisation.
4) Only 1) and 2)
5) Only 1) and 3)
65. What guidelines have been prepared by the RBI panel

KUNDAN
little or no pressure to reach out to unbanked areas and on financial inclusion?
people with their services. This, in turn, necessitates a (A) Banks be instructed to open accounts for every
mandate-driven approach to financial inclusion. Despite adult Indian by Jan 2016
decades of RBI mandates, rural customers turn to informal (B) Banks be allowed to open satellite branches to
channels and unregulated financial firms. provide better services in unbanked rural areas
61. What was the basic purpose of the RBIs financial (C) Priority sector lending by banks be raised
inclusion? 1) Only (A) and (B) 2) Only (B) and (C)
1) To spread public sector bank branches in rural areas 3) Only (A) and (C) 4) Only (A)
2) To provide financial assistance to farmers and 5) All (A), (B) and (C)
artisans at a lower rate Directions (Q. 66-68): Choose the word/group of
3) To encourage competition between private and words which is MOST SIMILAR in meaning to the word/
public sector banks group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.
4) To force every Indian citizen to open bank accounts 66. Mandate
with public sector banks 1) accuse 2) command 3) request
5) None of these 4) hinder 5) uphold
62. According to the passage, what is/are the conditions 67. Borne
for granting licences to new banks as per the recent 1) endured 2) tolerated 3) carried
recommendations of the RBI? 4) sustained 5) launched
1) The entity seeking a licence for opening a new bank 68. Window
should have a minimum paid-up capital of `500 1) casement 2) opening 3) pane
crore 4) bay 5) loophole
2) All PSU banks should open at least 25 per cent of Directions (Q. 69-70): Choose the word/group of
its branches in rural areas. words which is MOST OPPOSITE in meaning of the word/
group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.
69. Overlooked that it replaces the requirement of carrying cash
1) underlined 2) ignored 3) excluded or cheque book, when the transactions are being
4) denied 5) responded carried out.
70. Levied 76. Which of the following would be the FIRST sentence
1) imposed 2) exempted 3) taxed after rearrangement?
4) forced 5) collected 1) G 2) B 3) D 4) C 5) A
Directions (Q. 71-75): Read each sentence to find out 77. Which of the following would be the SECOND
whether there is any grammatical or idiomatic error in it. sentence after rearrangement?
The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The 1) A 2) C 3) E 4) F 5) B
number of that part is the answer. If there is No error, 78. Which of the following would be the THIRD sentence
the answer is 5). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.) after rearrangement?
71. 1) An international team of scientists successfully 1) A 2) B 3) G 4) E 5) C
developed / 2) a new topological insulator which 79. Which of the following would be the FOURTH
exhibits / 3 / many topological effects that have / 4) sentence after rearrangement?
not seen experimentally before. / 5) No error 1) C 2) E 3) D 4) B 5) F
72. 1) The recent discovery of ancient artifacts / 2) deep 80. Which of the following would be the LAST
in the heart of Sunderban in West Bengal / 3) indicates (SEVENTH) sentence after rearrangement?
that the region has human habitation / 4) as early as 1) B 2) A 3) G 4) F 5) E
the third century BCE. / 5) No error Directions (Q. 81-90): In the following passage, some

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73. 1) The very definition of a classic implies the
recognition / 2) that it speaks to all ages, despite the
complex ways / 3) in which it relates to and reflects / 4)
the specific circumstances of the world in which it
originates. / 5) No error
74. 1) Ujjaini was long a centre of learning and intellectual
activity; / 2) an observatory had been built fairly early
in its history / 3) and the prime meridian passed from
the city, / 4) making Ujjaini the Greenwich of ancient
India. / 5) No error
75. 1) Hopes for an end to the conflict in Syria are high / 2)
of the words have been left out, each of which is indicated
by a number. Find the suitable word from the options given
against each number and fill up the blanks with
appropriate words to make the paragraph meaningful.
There was a time when Prime Minister Manmohan
Singh was (81) as someone who could do no wrong; not a
run-of-the-mill politician, the economist-prime minister was
seen as the (82) of Indias growth story. And rightly so.
His meteoric rise in Indias politics was seen as a (83) of
the educated, hard-working Indian middle class. Now
Manmohan Singh is no (84) the feted leader but is seen as

KUNDAN
as the Geneva peace talks are announced / 3) and the a (85) of a ship who failed to read the headwinds correctly.
US decides to abort war plans / 4) after investigations So when the government announced that the prime minister
find that the rebels used sarin. / 5) No error will hold a press conference, only his third in the last 10
Directions (Q. 76-80): Rearrange the following seven years, it generated a lot of (86). Rumours about his
sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E), (F) and (G) in the proper retirements had been doing the (87) for some time and Mr
sequence to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer Singh took this opportunity to announce that he would
the questions given below. (88) up his boots after the general elections. Commenting
(A) If the balance is insufficient to cover the debit, on the quality of his stint, Mr Singh (89) the charge that he
the difference becomes payable immediately or was a weak prime minister and said that history will
else a service fee is levied. hopefully be more kind to him that the Opposition and (90)
(B) Debit cards are the same as credit cards. media have been as he did the best he could in the given
(C) Quite obviously, a debit card may not be the political circumstances.
appropriate card for those who would like to have 81. 1) admitted 2) listened 3) communicated
a credit. 4) purviewed 5) seen
(D) If the amount payable is overdue for a long period, 82. 1) author 2) actor 3) lender
the card may be cancelled. 4) performer 5) creator
(E) As the transactions in the debit card are debited 83. 1) defeat 2) step 3) triumph
to the account instantaneously, they are relatively 4) way 5) luck
less risky to banks than credit card. 84. 1) one 2) more 3) way
(F) The only difference in this card is that the amount 4) less 5) body
of dues from the cardholder for each and every 85. 1) commander 2) leader 3) sailor
transaction is debited to cashholders account as 4) captain 5) passenger
soon as each transaction is notified to the issuer. 86. 1) buzz 2) problem 3) fuss
(G) This, has, however, an advantage in the sense 4) trouble 5) pleasure
87. 1) noise 2) news 3) rounds 96. 5 7.5 15 37.5 112.5 ?
4) clocks 5) best 1) 340 2) 395.5 3) 393.75
88. 1) cling 2) make 3) leave 4) 397.25 5) 339
4) give 5) hang 97. 66 35 72 38 78 ?
89. 1) represented 2) refuted 3) declared 1) 39 2) 158 3) 37 4) 41 5) 40
4) accepted 5) clarified 98. 21 25 52 68 193 ?
90. 1) current 2) present 3) recent 1) 391 2) 139 3) 200 4) 211 5) 229
4) contemporary 5) latest 99. 5 7.25 13.5 25.75 46 ?
1) 70.25 2) 71.25 3) 73.25 4) 75.25 5) 76.25
Test-III: Quantitative Aptitude 100. 16 25 44 83 162 ?
1) 317 2) 250 3) 282 4) 301 5) 321
Directions (Q. 91-93): What value should come in Directions (Q. 101-105): In each of these questions,
place of question mark (?) in the following equations? two equations (I) and (II) are given. You have to solve both
the equations and give answer
9 81 5 8
91. 54 ? 1) if x > y 2) if x < y
42 63 8 5 3) if x y 4) if x y
5) if x y or relation cannot be established between x
413 399 540
1) 2) 3) and y.
20 4 39 101. I. 8x + y = 10 II. 4x + 2y = 13

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397 102. I. (x + 3) (y + 2) = 12 II. 2xy + 4x + 5y = 11
4) 5) None of these 3x 2 3x 6 x 2 x 5
40
103. I. y II.
y 16 y 4 y 10
1 2 5 8 104. I. x2 + 20x + 4 = 50 25x II. y2 10y 24 = 0
92. 2 3 ?
3 5 4 3
x 2 10x 16 2
105. I. 2 II. y2 y 20 = 0
37 17 9 x 12x 24 3
1) 2) 3)
12 12 2 106. A right prism has a triangular base with perimeter 38
47 cm. If the lateral surface area of the prism is 342 cm2,
4) 5) None of these find its height.
12

KUNDAN
1) 5 cm 2) 16 cm 3) 12 cm 4) 9 cm 5) 17 cm
2 15
8 107. A 360-m-long train is running at a speed of 54 kmph. In
3 13 ? what time will it pass a 240-m-long tunnel?
93. 10 3
2 1) 48 seconds 2) 40 seconds 3) 36 seconds
22 11 4) 38 seconds 5) 42 seconds
11 2 2 11 7 108. A solid rectangular box of dimensions 16 cm 12 cm
1) 2) 3) 4) 5)
2 11 11 2 2 11 cm is melted to make lead balls of diameter 4 cm
Directions (Q. 94-95): What approximate value should each. Find the number of balls.
come in place of question mark (?) in the following 1) 52 2) 100 3) 93 4) 22 5) 63
questions? 109. A rectangular box has dimensions 9m 8m 7m. Find
1 its total surface area and volume respectively.
3 1727 3(12) (13) (25) 2195 2 1) 371m2, 292m3 2) 382m2, 504m3 3) 504m2, 382m3
94. ? 4) 121m2, 392m3 5) None of these
143 24 (13) 168
110. A park is in the form of a rectangle 120m 100m. At the
1 1 1 centre of the park there is a circular lawn. The area of
1) 2) 3) 4) 25 5) 5 the park, excluding the lawn, is 8700m2. Find the radius
25 4 5
of the circular lawn.
240 13 5 25 1) 32.40m 2) 44.4m 3) 22.4m 4) 28.40m 5) 35m
95. ?
11.8 38.99 8 6 111. Out of 5 men and 2 women, a committee of 3 is to be
formed. In how many different ways can it be done if
9 7 at least one woman is to be included?
1) 2) 7 3) 9 4) 5) 6
2 5 1) 30 2) 60 3) 24 4) 25 5) 72
Directions (Q. 96-100): What will come in place of 112. An unbiased coin is tossed. If the head turns up a
question mark (?) in the following number series? person gains `20. If the tail turns up he loses `5. If 4
 unbiased coins are tossed simultaneously, what is the a city.
probability that he gains `5 overall?

Ur
1 1 3 1 7 M alayalam

du
1) 2) 3) 4) 5) Telugu

6%
2 4 4 8 8 19%
13%
113. Kaushal is three times as old as his son. After 10 years,
the sum of their ages will be 72 years. Find the ratio of Hindi Tamil
the present age of Kaushal to that of his son. 10% 22%
1) 2 : 3 2) 1 : 3 3) 3 : 1 4) 1 : 4 5) 3 : 7
Bangla
114. Find the altitude of a rhombus whose area is 44 m2 and Oriya
12%
perimeter 44m. 18%
1) 9m 2) 5m 3) 4m 4) 6m 5) 8m
115. A sum of money triples itself at compound rate of
interest in 10 years. In how many years will it become Number of people speaking Oriya = 14400
nine times? The table shows the ratio of male to female
1) 45 years 2) 30 years 3) 20 years for each language
4) 25 years 5) 15 years
116. The sum of two numbers is 1000 and the difference of Language M :F
their squares is 256000. Find the largest number. Tamil 5:6
1) 628 2) 372 3) 682 4) 724 5) 282

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Oriya 5:7
117. A 200-m-long train crosses a pole in 10 seconds.
Bangla 2 :3
Another train travelling at the same speed crosses a
300-m-long platform in 20 seconds. Find the time taken Hindi 7:9
by the second train to cross the first train, if the first Telugu 4:9
train is stationary. Urdu 7 : 17
1) 20 seconds 2) 15 seconds 3) 10 seconds Malayalam 9:7
4) 30 seconds 5) 25 seconds
121. How many people speak Tamil?
118. An article is marked 40% over its cost price. Two
1) 16000 2) 19500 3) 18600 4) 17600 5) 15200
2 122. Telugu-speaking people are what per cent more than
successive discounts of 14 % and 10% are allowed those speaking Bangla?
7

KUNDAN
on the marked price of the article. Find the profit/loss 1) 6.66% 2) 3.33% 3) 5.54% 4) 8.33% 5) 9%
per cent after selling at discount. 123. The number of Oriya-speaking males is approximately
1) 71% loss 2) 8% profit 3) 20% profit what per cent of the number of females speaking
4) 30% profit 5) 40% loss Malayalam?
119. A, B and C entered into a partnership with the capital 1) 65% 2) 90% 3) 85% 4) 95% 5) 99%
in the ratio of 3 : 5 : 8. If at the end of the year the ratio 124. The number of Bangla-speaking females is what per
of their profits is 6 : 15 : 4, find the ratio of their periods cent more than the number of Hindi-speaking males?
of investment. 1) 62.5% 2) 63.5% 3) 61.5% 4) 64.5% 5) 66.5%
1) 2 : 3 : 2 2) 2 : 3 : 1 3) 4 : 6 : 1 125. The number of Urdu-speaking females is approximately
4) 3 : 2 : 12 5) 1 : 2 : 3 what per cent of the total female population of the
120. A, B and C can complete a piece of work in 8, 12 and 24 city?
days respectively. A and C started working, and B 1) 4% 2) 9% 3) 5% 4) 8% 5) 11%
joined them after one day. If C left 2 days before Directions (Q. 126-130): Population of a country of
completion of the work, in how many days was the six different places in two different years:
work finished? Pie-chart I shows the population of different places in
2012 out of 5 lakh and pie-chart II shows the population of
3 2 1 different places in 2013 out of 7 lakh.
1) 3 days 2) 3 days 3) 4 days
4 3 2
2 1
4) 4 days 5) 3 days
3 3
Directions (Q. 121-125): The following graph shows
the percentage of people speaking different languages in
 Pie-chart I
U V
E F 11% 9% W
16% T 10%
19%
9%
A P
D 15% S 18%
20% 16%
B R Q
C
18% 12% 15%
12%

Year 2012; population = 5 lakh Total = 5400

Marks obtained by B in 8 different subjects
Pie-chart II
U V
E W
F 11% 9%
D 17% T
8% 10%
15% 9%
A P
18% S 18%

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C
16% Q
22% B R
20% 12% 15%

Year 2013; population = 7 lakh Total = 6500

131. What is the marks scored by B in R?
126. What is the total population of place A in the year 1) 720 2) 730 3) 790 4) 780 5) 800
2012? 132. The marks scored by A in Q is what per cent more than
1) 50000 2) 65000 3) 95000 the marks scored by B in T?
4) 75000 5)70000 1) 33.4% 2) 39.2% 3) 40.8% 4) 38.4% 5) 60%
127. The population of place D in the year 2012 is what per 133. What is the total marks scored by A and B in U and V

KUNDAN
cent more than that of place F in the year 2013? respectively?
1) 63.5% 2) 78.5% 3) 50% 1) 1309 2) 1071 3) 1185 4) 1173 5) 1179
4) 72.3% 5) 62.8% 134. The marks scored by A in P is what per cent more than
128. What is the total population of place C in the year the marks obtained by B in W?
2013? 1) 38.5% 2) 49.5% 3) 61.2% 4) 43.5% 5) 55%
1) 135000 2) 116000 3) 124000 135. What is the total marks obtained by A and B in Q?
4) 154000 5) 165000 1) 1645 2) 1785 3) 1745 4) 1760 5) 1790
129. The population of place A in the year 2013 is what per Directions (Q. 136-140): Study the following
cent more than that of place B in the year 2012? information carefully and answer the questions given
1) 20% 2) 15% 3) 35% 4) 25% 5) 40% below:
130. What is the population of place E in the year 2013? Pie-chart I shows the sales of different products of a
1) 120000 2) 116000 3) 119000 4) 118000 5) 112000 company in 2009 and pie-chart II shows the sales of
Directions (Q. 131-135): Study the following different products in 2010.
information carefully and answer the questions given Pie-chart - I
below:
Marks obtained by A in 8 different subjects
 1) Sundarbans 2) Wular Lake 3) Western Ghats
4) Chilika lagoon 5) None of these
E
142. India has signed a loan agreement worth $275 mn with
D 20.7%
which of the following agencies/banks for improving
21.5%
A rural road connectivity in five states in the country?
15.4% 1) Asian Development Bank
C 2) European Central Bank
18.1% B
3) Bank of Japan
24.3%
4) World Bank
5) None of these
2009; Total = 65000 units 143. Enrico Letta resigned recently after serving as the Prime
Minister of which of the following countries for just
Pie-chart-II 10 months?
1) Spain 2) Italy 3) Norway
4) Zimbabwe 5) None of these
E 144. The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA)
29% has approved the proposal to increase foreign
D
A investment limit to 74 per cent for which of the following
16%
13% private banks recently? The increase is subject to the

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aggregate foreign institutional investors (FIIs)
C B shareholding cap.
23% 19% 1) Indusind Bank 2) Federal Bank
3) Kotak Mahindra Bank 4) Yes Bank
5) Saraswat Bank
2010; Total = 95000 units
145. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has constituted an
136. What is the percentage increase in sales of Product B
expert committee to review governance of boards of
in the year 2010 from 2009?
banks under the chairmanship of who among the
1) 13.2% 2) 16.1% 3) 15.7%
following?
4) 14.2% 5) 20%
1) PJ Nayak 2) C Rangarajan
137. What is the average sales of Product A, C and E in the
3) Y Venugopal Reddy 4) Bimal Jalan
year 2010?

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5) None of these
1) 19588.3 2) 20583.3 3) 16293.8
146. Bank loans to PACS is considered as direct finance
4) 21000 5) 16584.2
for agricultural purposes under the priority sector
138. What is the per cent increase of Product E in the year
lending specified by the Reserve Bank of India. What
2010 from Product C in the year 2009?
is expanded form of PACS?
1) 13.4% 2) 190.2% 3) 54%
1) Premier Agricultural Credit Societies
4) 134.1% 5) 150%
139. What is the average sales of Product A and B in the 2) Primary Agricultural Credit Services
3) Permanent Agricultural Credit Societies
year 2009?
1) 12902.5 2) 11908.5 3) 11904.5 4) Primary Agricultural Credit Societies
5) Provisional Agricultural Credit Societies
4) 12909.8 5) 1390.5
140. What is the difference between sales of Product D in 147. Nageswara Rao, who passed away recently, was a
legendary ______actor.
the year 2010 and 2009?
1) 1025 2) 1225 3) 1125 1) Bengali 2) Marathi 3) Tamil
4) Telugu 5) Malayalam
4) 1350 5) 1325
148. The panel set up by the govt for considering splitting
overseas inflows into two categories Foreign
Test-IV: General Awareness Portfolio Investment (FPI) and Foreign Direct
(with Special Reference to Banking Industry) Investment (FDI) is headed by who among the
following?
141. Which of the following biodiversity hotspots in India 1) Arvind Mayaram 2) Anand Sinha
has been named destination flyways by United 3) Subir Gokarn 4) KC Chakrabarty
Nations World Tourism Organization (UNWTO) 5) Usha Thorat
recently? It is the only site to be selected from Asia. 149. The govt launched the ambitious National Urban
 Health Mission (NUHM) recently. Consider the
following with respect to NUHM:
(A) It is aimed at providing adequate and efficient
urban public health delivery system for the urban
poor.
(B) It would cover 779 urban areas with over 50,000
population across the country by Mar 2015.
(C) The central govt will share 50 per cent of the cost
to implement the programme.
Which of the above statements is/are correct about
the mission?
1) Only (A) 2) Only (B)
3) Only (C) 4) Only (A) and (B)
5) All (A), (B) and (C)
150. As per the National Manufacturing Policy (NMP) 2011,
the govt aims at raising the share of manufacturing
sector to 25 per cent of GDP from the current 16 per
cent by which of the following years?
1) 2018 2) 2020 3) 2022
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4) 2024 5) 2030
151. The Govt of India has defined micro, small and medium
enterprises. Which of the following is correctly
matched for an enterprise engaged in the manufacture
or processing of goods as per the definition?
(A) Micro enterprise: Investment in plant and
machinery does not exceed `25 lakhs
(B) Small enterprise: Investment in plant and
machinery is more than `25 lakhs but does not
exceed `5 cr.
(C) Medium enterprise: Investment in plant and
KUNDAN
machinery is more than `5 cr but does not exceed
`20 cr.
1) All the above 2) Only (A) and (B)
3) Only (A) and (C) 4) Only (B) and (C)
5) None of the above
152. The Reserve Bank of India carries out state govts
transactions in terms of the agreement entered into
with them. As of now, such agreements exist between
RBI and all the state govts except which of the
following state govt?
1) Sikkim 2) Arunachal Pradesh 3) Kerala
4) Goa 5) Nagaland
153. Name the Indian-American who has been awarded with
Baylor Universitys 2014 Robert Foster Cherry Award
for Great Teaching. It carries the single largest
monetary reward of $250,000.
1) Jaishankar Ganesh 2) V Ramanathan
3) Meera Chandrasekhar 4) Anjani Jain
5) None of these
154. Which of the following countries has introduced new
restrictions on online shopping as part of efforts to
stop foreign currency reserves from falling any further?
Anyone buying items through international websites
will now need to sign a declaration.
1) Indonesia 2) Malaysia 3) Argentina
4) Brazil 5) Thailand
155. The RBIs expert panel which has suggested adoption
of new Consumer Price Index (CPI) for anchoring
monetary policy in the country among other
suggestions, was headed by who among the
following?
1) Subir Gokarn 2) Harun Rashid Khan
3) Urjit Patel 4) Anand Sinha
5) Kamalesh Chandra Chakrabarty
156. With a view to enabling highly rated corporate
borrowers to diversify their sources of short-term
borrowings and to providing an additional instrument
to investors, the commercial paper was first introduced
in India in which of the following years?
1) 1980 2) 1985 3) 1990 4) 1995 5) 2000
157. In the event of a bank failure, the Deposit Insurance
and Credit Guarantee Corporation (DICGC) protects
bank deposits that are payable in India. Which of the
following deposits will be insured by the DICGC?
1) Deposits of foreign govts
2) Deposits of central/state govts
3) Inter-bank deposits
4) All the above
5) None of the above
158. The United Nations World Tourism Organisation
(UNWTO) awarded Ulysses Award for Innovation
in Public Policy and Governance to the tourism
department of which of the following states recently?
It is the highest honour given to the govt bodies for
shaping global tourism policies through innovative
initiatives.
1) Kerala 2) Andhra Pradesh 3) Goa
4) West Bengal 5) Odisha
159. India and which of the following countries are building
a state-of-the-art satellite for earth observation for
climate change? It is the third satellite to be developed
jointly after they have successfully designed Megha-
Tropiques in 2011 and SARAL-AltiKa in 2013.
1) US 2) Germany 3) Japan
4) France 5) Russia
160. In a move that is likely to hit currency hoarders and
counterfeiters, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has
decided to withdraw from circulation all currency notes
issued prior to which of the following years? These
notes do not have on them the year of printing.
1) 2000 2) 2002 3) 2005
4) 2009 5) 2011
161. A Non-Banking Financial Company (NBFC) with what
asset size, as per last audited balance sheet, is
categorised as a systemically important NBFC as their
activities will have a bearing on the financial stability
in our country?
 1) `10 cr or more 2) `20 cr or more 5) The RBI has the powers to print currency notes of
3) `50 cr or more 4) `75 cr or more up to `20,000 denomination.
5) `100 cr or more 170. Name the shuttler who has clinched the womens
162. Which of the following financial institutions has singles title of the Syed Modi International India Grand
announced recently to instal 3000 ATMs and 1.35 lakh Prix Gold badminton tournament recently?
micro-ATMs by Sep 2015 in the country? 1) PV Sindhu 2) Saina Nehwal
1) Mahindra Finance 2) Tata Capital 3) Qingchen Chen 4) Jia Yi Fan
3) Muthoot Fincorp 4) Bajaj Capital 5) None of these
5) India Post 171. Who among the following has won the mens singles
163. Name the Indian-origin academician who will become title of the 2014 edition of the Australia Open tennis
dean of the prestigious Harvard College wef July 1, tournament recently?
2014. 1) Rafael Nadal 2) Stanislas Wawrinka
1) Soumitra Dutta 2) Dipak Jain 3) Roger Federer 4) Horia Tacau
3) Rakesh Khurana 4) Sunil Kumar 5) Daniel Nestor
5) Nitin Nohria 172. State Bank of India (SBI) has raised `8,032 cr by selling
164. Which of the following teams has won the Federation shares through QIP, making it the biggest ever equity
Cup football tournament recently? sale via this route recently. What does QIP stand for?
1) Mohun Bagan 2) Churchill Brothers 1) Qualified Initial Placement
3) Mohammedan Sporting 4) Sporting Clube de Goa 2) Qualified Institutional Proposal

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5) None of these 3) Qualified International Placement
165. Who among the following are among the awardees of 4) Qualified Initial Proposal
the prestigious Padma Bhushan awards conferred 5) Qualified Institutional Placement
recently? 173. Which of the following countries has been ranked at
1) Pullela Gopichand 2) Yuvraj Singh the bottom in the Global Gender Gap Report 2013,
3) Leander Paes 4) Only 1) and 3) published by the World Economic Forum (WEF) for
5) All the above 136 countries recently? Iceland tops the list.
166. Name the India-born engineer-scientist who has been 1) Yemen 2) Pakistan 3) India
awarded the 2014 Marconi Prize, a Nobel equivalent 4) China 5) Japan
for technology pioneers. His work is at the heart of 174. India and which of the following countries entered
the current high-speed WiFi and 4G mobile systems. into a double taxation avoidance agreement (DTAA)

KUNDAN
1) AJ Paulraj 2) Dipak Jain 3) Sunil Kumar for the first time recently? The DTAA has provisions
4) Nitin Nohria 5) Rakesh Khurana for exchange of banking information for tax
167. With the prior approval of the Reserve Bank of India, administration purpose among other things.
the Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs) 1) Malaysia 2) Mauritius 3) Fiji
having a minimum net owned fund of `100 cr are 4) Rwanda 5) None of these
allowed to undertake which of the following 175. As per the recent estimates of the Planning
businesses? Commission, the number of persons living below the
1) Debit cards 2) Stored-value cards poverty line in the country has declined from 40.74
3) Credit cards 4) All the above crore in 2004-05 to _____in 2011-12.
5) None of these 1) 27 crore 2) 32 crore 3) 37 crore
168. The meeting of finance ministers and central bank 4) 38 crore 5) 39 crore
governors of the G20 major economies was held in 176. Who among the following has been appointed the
which of the following countries recently? new CEO of the software giant Microsoft recently?
1) Turkey 2) Australia 3) Russia 1) Sundar Pichai 2) Stephen Elop 3) Alan Mulally
4) Mexico 5) France 4) Satya Nadella 5) None of these
169. Consider the following with respect to Indian currency 177. Which of the following is the best alternative banking
and identify the statement which is NOT correct. service to achieve the target of financial inclusion in
1) The `5-note was the first paper currency issued by the country?
the RBI in Jan 1938. 1) Agricultural loans
2) At present, notes of `10, `100, `500 and `1,000 2) Kisan Credit Cards
only are printed. 3) Personal Banking Branches
3) The printing of `1, `2 and `5 has been stopped as 4) Mobile Banking Facility
these have been coinised. 5) None of the above
4) Coins of up to `1,000 denomination can be minted. 178. The RBIs report titled State Finances A study of
 Budgets of 2013-14 put which of the following states 5) None of these
on top of a list of states based on fiscal management? 189. In the URL http://www.prenhall.com, the portion
1) Jharkhand 2) Goa labelled http is
3) Madhya Pradesh 4) Bihar 1) host 2) domain name
5) Chhattisgarh 3) protocol 4) top-level domain
179. The book titled Maverick Unchanged, Unrepentant 5) None of these
has been penned by who among the following? 190. In a database, a field is a
1) Ram Jethmalani 2) Preeti Shenoy 1) label 2) table of information
3) Chetan Bhagat 4) Elizabeth Chatterjee 3) group of related records 4) category of information
5) None of these 5) None of these
180. Which of the following countries has become the first 191. A standard code used to exchange information among
Asian country and only 3rd in the world to have Shore data processing and communication systems, is
Based Test Facility (SBTF)? The facility is primarily 1) ACM 2) ASCII 3) APL
meant for flight testing of naval aircrafts and pilots. 4) ANSI 5) None of these
1) China 2) Japan 3) South Korea 192. A unit for measuring data transmission speed is called
4) India 5) Pakistan 1) Cache 2) Band 3) Byte
4) Broadband channels 5) None of these
Test-V: Computer Knowledge 193. Which of the following languages is used to retrieve
data from database?

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181. Which of the following can be used to select the entire 1) DDL 2) DCL 3) DML
column in a worksheet? 4) Any of the above 5) None of these
1) shift + space 2) ctrl + space 3) alt + space 194. RTF stands for
4) ctrl + space + 1 5) shift + space + 1 1) Real Time Formatting 2) Rich Text Format
182. MS-Excel 2003 contains ________ rows. 3) Real Time Fonts 4) Real Text Format
1) 65,500 2) 65,534 3) 65,535 5) None of these
4) 65,536 5) 65,533 195. You can edit the existing Excel data by pressing the
183. ________ is the default page set-up orientation of 1) F1 key 2) F2 key 3) F3 key
slides in PowerPoint. 4) F4 key 5) None of these
1) Vertical 2) Landscape 3) Portrait 196. In ________ topology, n-1 lines are required for
4) Horizontal 5) None of these connecting n nodes.

KUNDAN
184. Information in a memory that is no longer valid or 1) ring 2) bus 3) star 4) mesh 5) hybrid
wanted is 197. Newsgroups use a special network of computers that
1) volatile 2) surplus 3) garbage are called
4) bug 5) non-volatile 1) channel net 2) address net 3) mail net
185. FIND option is available under which menu? 4) Usenet 5) control net
1) Tools 2) View 3) File 198. The main circuit board in the computer system unit is
4) Edit 5) None of these 1) BIOS 2) motherboard 3) SMPS
186. Which of the following is the default setting in a cell 4) CPU 5) None of these
of Excel sheet? 199. Which of the following is NOT done by a modem?
1) Leftaligned 2) Rightaligned 3) Centred 1) Transmission speed
4) Justified 5) None of these 2) Data accuracy
187. We use ________ shortcut key to insert worksheet in 3) Error detection and correction
Microsoft Excel. 4) Data compression
1) ctrl + W 2) ctrl + P 3) Shift + F11 5) None of these
4) Shift + Alt 5) None of these 200. Which of the following is a program coded in
188. E-R stands for programming language?
1) Equity-Relationship 2) Entity-Relationship 1) Target code 2) Source code 3) Block
3) Equal-Relationship 4) All the above 4) All the above 5) None of these
 K
KUNDAN
Answers
(1-5):
In the given arrangement the machine
rearranges the words starting with vowels in
alphabetical order and then those starting
with consonants in alphabetical order. The
numbers are arranged in ascending order.
However, words and numbers are arranged in
each alternate step.
1. 2
(6-8):
2. 4 3. 4

There are two possibilities.

Possibility (i)
4. 3 5. 5 (11-15):

11. 3 12. 2 13. 2 14. 3 15. 3

Input: magazine 14 desire 21 input 13 28
expire activate 25 30
Step I. activate magazine 14 desire 21 input
13 28 expire 25 30
Step II. activate 13 magazine 14 desire 21
input 28 expire 25 30
Step III. activate 13 expire magazine 14
desire 21 input 28 25 30
Step IV. activate 13 expire 14 magazine
desire 21 input 28 25 30
Step V. activate 13 expire 14 input magazine
desire 21 28 25 30
Step VI. activate 13 expire 14 input 21
magazine desire 28 25 30
Step VII. activate 13 expire 14 input 21
desire magazine 28 25 30
Step VIII. activate 13 expire 14 input 21
desire 25 magazine 28 30
16. 2; All plastics are notes (A) + No note is
a coin (E) = A + E = E = No plastic is a coin.
Hence, conclusion I does not follow.
Again, No note is a coin conversion
Possibility (ii)
No coin is a note. Hence, conclusion II
follows.
17. 1; No graphic is a picture (E) + Some
pictures are figures (I) = E + I = O* = Some
figures are not graphics. Hence, conclusion I
6. 3 7. 2 8. 4 follows.
Again, Some pictures are figures
9. 3;
conversion Some figures are pictures.
Now, All symbols are figures (A) + Some
figures are pictures (I) = A + I = No conclusion.
10. 1; Hence, conclusion II does not follow.
18. 1; Now, All symbols are figures (A) +
Some figures are not graphics (O) = A + O =
Similarly, No conclusion. Hence, conclusion II does
not follow.
Again, All symbols are figures (A) + Some
figures are pictures (I) = A + I = No conclusion.
But the possibility in I exists. Thus, 21. 2; ()L P(+) Lawyer option 3) does not follow. But G < J or J > G
conclusion I follows. ()M Q(+) Teacher is true. Hence, option 2) follows.
19. 5; Some birds are insects (I) + All insects ()N R(+) CA
are snakes (A) = I + A = I = Some birds are 22. 3; There are two possibilities. 30. 4; Option 1)
snakes conversion Some snakes are Possibility (i)
birds. Hence, conclusion I follows.
Again, Some birds are insects conversion
Some insects are birds (I) + All birds are Hence, option 1) does not follow.
butterflies (A) = I + A = I = Some insects are
butterflies conversion Some butterflies Option 2)
are insects (I) + All insects are snakes (A) = Possibility (ii)
I + A = I = Some butterflies are snakes. Hence,
conclusion II follows.
20. 5; Both the conclusions follow since there Hence, option 2) does not follow.
are no negative statements.
Hence, K touches the surface of the table. Option 3)
(23-27):
PhD Female Male
Game
Degree () (+)
Person
Volly Cric Bad Hockey Kho Foot
Lawn Table Hence, option 3) does not follow.
Tennis Tennis
Option 4)
X
Q
R

K
S
Hence, option 4) follows.
T 31. 4; 485, 268, 269
U (32-37):
V
W

Summing the table not follow. Q P is true. But (P < Q) does

Captains Degree Game not follow.
Q (+) Cricket 3) Q R N = P V
This leads us to R V is true. But Q P is
R () Hockey
true. Hence, (P < Q) does not follow. 32. 4 33. 5; J 34. 3 35. 4 36. 1
S () PhD Badminton 4) Q > R N = P > V 37. 2

KUNDAN
T (+) PhD Kho-Kho This leads us to R > V is true. But (R V) 38. 2; From II.
U (+) PhD Football does not follow.
V () Table Tennis Q > P or P < Q is true. Hence, option 4) does
W (+) Lawn Tennis not follow. Hence, B is to the southeast of E.
X (+) PhD Volleyball 29. 2; Given expression 39. 1; Every hour the angle varies by fixed
23. 2 24. 3 25. 4 26. 3 27. 2 degrees.
28. 1; Check the options one by one.
1) Q > R N = P V 40. 2; From I.
This leads us to R V is true. And Q > P or We cant compare E and I. Hence, 1) does
P < Q is true. Hence, follows. not follow.
2) Q = R N = P > V Again, E > H is true. Thus, (E H) or 4) does We dont know the gender of M.
This leads us to R > V. Hence, (R V) does not follow. We cant compare F and J. Thus,
From II. or, 3xy + 48x 2y 32 = 3xy + 6y
26 15 or, 48x 6y 2y = 32
22 11
93. 4; ? = 3 13 10 or, 48x 8y = 32 ... (i)
10 50 40 2 x 2 x 5
22 II. y 4 y 10
94. 3; 1727 (12) 3 or, xy + 10x + 2y + 20 = xy + 5y + 4x + 20
Hence, M is uncle of F. 2195 (13) 3 or, 6x 3y = 0
41. 3; Choices 2 and 4 are unpredictable 143 (12) 2 or, 6x = 3y
consequences. Choice 1 comes quite close, 168 (13) 2 y = 2x
but it is difficult to gather a general inference 1 Putting the value of y in eqn (i), we get
3 1727 3 12 13 25 2195 2 48x 8 2x = 32
regarding a person from a stray incident. But
?= or, 32x = 32
3 gives us an indication of the prevailing 143 24 13 168
norms. Look at the way she announces her x = 1 and y = 2
1
achievement: the only time I was ever Hence, x < y
3 (12 13)3 2
punished. 104. 5; I. x2 + 20x + 4 = 50 25x
42. 5; Choice 1 does not follow: freight fares or, x2 + 45x = 46
(12 13) 2
are already high. Choices 2 and 3 make hollow or, x2 + 45x 46 = 0
claims. Choice 4 will help to some extent { (a + b)3 = a3 + 3ab(a + b) + b3 or, x(x + 46) 1 (x + 46) = 0
but the extent would be very little. and (a + b)2 = a2 + 2ab + b2} or, (x 1) (x + 46) = 0
43. 3; This brings out the connection 1 or, x = 1, 46
between global slowdown and backward 25 2 1 1 II. y2 10y 24 = 0
inland states. = or, y2 12y + 2y 24 = 0
252 25 5
or, y(y 12) + 2(y 12) = 0
44. 4; It is thus identifying with him that
fills us with pride. 240 39 5 6 or, (y + 2) (y 2) = 0

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95. 3; ? = 9
45. 5; In general, Party Xs support has swelled. 12 13 8 25 y = 2, y = 12
So 1 and 4 are ruled out. Choice 3 is vague. 96. 3; The series is 1.5, 2, 2.5, 3, 3.5... Hence, relation cant be established between
Although 2 and 5 are both concerned with the 97. 4; The series is a combination of two x and y.
partys performance in Uttar Pradesh, 2 is ruled series:
x 2 10 x 16 2
out because there is nothing in the statement Series I: 105. 5; I.
to indicate about last time. x 2 12x 24 3
46. 2; This seems to be the most obvious or, 3x2 30x + 48 = 2x2 24x + 48
choice. Choice 3 is ruled out because it goes or, x2 6x = 0
Series II: or, x(x 6) = 0
specifically into smartphones.
47. 4; Choices 1 and 2 may stand logical x = 0, 6
scrutiny but they go too much by the letter 98. 4; The series is +22, +33, +42, +53, +62, ... II. y2 y 20 = 0
of the statement and not by its spirit. Choice 99. 5; The series is +(1.5) 2 , +(2.5) 2 , +(3.5) 2 , or, y2 5y + 4y 20 = 0
3 is rather alarmist. +(4.5) 2 , +(5.5) 2, ... or, y(y 5) + 4(y 5) = 0

KUNDAN
48. 2; The premiums go on accumulating. 100. 5; The series is +4 2 + 1, +9 2 + 1, or, (y + 4) (y 5)
49. 1; The passage paints a scenario of +19 2 + 1, +39 2 + 1, +79 2 + 1, ... y = 4, 5
ignorance among those who invest in tax- 101. 2; I. 8x + y = 10 ... (i) Hence, relation cant be established between
saving instruments. II. 4x + 2y = 13 ... (ii) x and y.
50. 1; That is why it is projected as not an On solving eqn (i) and (ii), we get 106. 4; Lateral surface area of prism
easy option. = Perimeter height
16x 2 y 20 ...(iii ) Now, 38 h = 342
51. 4 52. 3 53. 5 54. 2 55. 2
4x 2y 13 ... (iv) 342
56. 5 57. 2 58. 5 59. 4 60. 3
h= = 9 cm
61. 5; Choice 1 is not the basic purpose; it is 38
the result of the basic approach. 12 x 7 107. 2; Sum of the length of train and tunnel
62. 3 63. 4 64. 5 65. 3 = 360 + 240 = 600m
7 Speed of train = 54 kmph
66. 2 67. 3 68. 2 69. 1 70. 2 x=
71. 4; Add been after not 12
Putting the value of x in eqn (i), we get 5
72. 3; Replace has with had = 54 = 15 m/sec
73. 4; Replace originates with originated 7 18
8 y 10
74. 3; Replace from with through 12 Time taken by the train to cross the tunnel
75. 5 14 16 600
(76-80): BFADCGE or, y = 10 = = = 40 seconds
3 3 15
76. 2 77. 4 78. 1 79. 3 80. 5 Hence, x < y
81. 5 82. 1 83. 3 84. 2 85. 4 108. 5; Number of lead balls
102. 1; I. xy + 2x + 3y + 6 = 12
86. 1 87. 3 88. 5 89. 2 90. 4 or, 2xy + 4x + 6y = 12 ... (i) Volume of box
=
9 63 5 8 II. 2xy + 4x + 5y = 11 ... (ii) Volume of lead balls
91. 5; ? = 54 Subtracting (ii) from (i), we get
42 81 8 5 16 12 11
y=1 = 4 63
22
5 8 360 25 64 399 Putting the value of y in (i), we get 2 2 2
= 9 x=3 3 7
8 5 40 40
Hence x > y 109. 2; Total surface area = 2(lb + bh + hl)
7 17 5 8 7 17 8 47 3x 2 3x 6 = 2(9 8 + 8 7 + 9 7) = 382m2
92. 4; ? = =
3 5 4 3 3 4 3 12 103. 2; I. Now, volume = l b h = 9 8 7 = 504m3
y y 16
110. 1; Area of the park = 12000m2 T T C for (x 2) days
Area of the park excluding the lawn r r
or, 9 = 1 or, 32 = 1 x ( x 1) (x 2)
= 8700m2 100 100 Now, = 1 (Total work)
8 12 24
Area of the lawn = 12000 8700 = 3300m2
10 2 T 28 4 2
or, r2 = 3300 r r
Thus, 1 = 1 or, x = = 4 = 4 days
3300 7 100 100 6 6 3
or, r = = 1050 32.40m (121-125):
22 T = 20 years
111. 4; Total number of ways Hence, the money becomes 9 times in 20 Language Male Female Total
years. Tamil 8000 9600 17600
= 5 C2 2 C1 5 C1 2 C2 = 20 + 5 = 25
116. 1; Let the larger number be x and the
112. 2; Since he gains only `5 in 4 tosses, Oriya 6000 8400 14400
smaller number be y.
Possible outcomes = H, T, T, T Then, x + y = 1000 ... (i) Bangla 3840 5760 9600
Possibility of r heads if n coins are tossed Now, x2 y2 = 256000 Hindi 3500 4500 8000
n 4 256000
Cr C1 4 1 Telugu 3200 7200 10400
= xy= = 256 ... (ii)
2n 24 16 4 1000
Urdu 1400 3400 4800
113. 2; Let the present age of Kaushals son Again, solving (i) and (ii), we get
x y 1000 Malayalam 8550 6650 15200
be x years.
1256 Total 34490 45510 80000
Then, Kaushals age = 3x x y 256 x= = 628
After 10 years, Kaushals age = (3x + 10) years 2 x 1256 2
22
Kaushals sons age = (x + 10) years 200 121. 4; 80000 17600
Now, 3x + 10 + x + 10 = 72 117. 2; Speed of 1st train = = 20 m/s 100
10
or, 4x = 72 20 = 52 [18% of x = 14400
Now, speed of 2nd train = Speed of first train
x = 13 years x = 80000]

K
x 300
Kaushals age = 3 13 = 39 20 = 10400 9600
20 122. 4; Req % = 100 = 8.33%
13 9600
Reqd ratio = =1:3 where x = length of 2nd train
39 x = 100m 6000
114. 3; 123. 2; Req % = 100 90%
Now total length = 100 + 200 = 300m 6650
We have perimeter of the rhombus = 44m
Now, s = 20 m/s 5760 3500
And area of the rhombus = 44m2 124. 4; Req % = 100 = 64.5%
Now, side of the rhombus 300 3500
Time = = 15 seconds
Perimeter of rhombus 44 20 3400
= = = 11m 118. 2; Let CP = `100 125. 4; Req % = 100 8%
4 4 45510
Marked price = `140
100 (126-130):
Altitude of the rhombus = % of 140 = `20
Now, Place 2012 2013
7
Area of rhombus 44 And 10% of (140 20) = 12 A 75000 126000

KUNDAN
= = 4m
Side 11 SP = 140 (20 + 12) = `108 B 90000 140000
115. 3; Let the sum be `P. 108 100 C 60000 154000
It triples in 10 years. Percentage profit = 100 = 8%
100 D 100000 105000
10
r 119. 3; Ratio of periods of investment E 15000 119000
Therefore, 3P = P 1 Ratio of profits
100 6 15 4 F 80000 56000
= Ratio of capitals = : : 4 : 6 :1
126. 4; Population of A
10 3 5 8
r
or, 3 = 1 1 15 500000
100 120. 4; One days work of A = = = 75000
8 100
Now, suppose the money becomes 9 times, 1 100000 56000
ie 9P, in T years. Bs one days work = 127. 2; Req % = 100 = 78.5%
12 56000
T
r 1 128. 4
So, 9P = P 1 Cs one days work =
100 24 126000 90000
129. 5; Req % = 100 40%
Let the number of days taken be x. 90000
A worked for x days. 130. 3
B for (x 1) days
(131-135):
Subject A B
P 972
Q 810
R 648
S 864
T 486
U 594
V 486
W 540
131. 4
156. 3 157. 5 158. 1 159. 4 160. 3
161. 5 162. 5 163. 3 164. 2 165. 4
1170 166. 1 167. 3 168. 2 169. 5 170. 2
975 171. 2 172. 5 173. 1 174. 3 175. 1
780 176. 4 177. 4 178. 5 179. 1 180. 4
181. 2 182. 4 183. 2 184. 3
1040
185. 4; FIND option is used to find a
585
particular word or group of words. It is
715 available under EDIT menu.
585 186. 2 187. 3 188. 2 189. 3 190. 3
650 191. 2 192. 2 193. 3 194. 2 195. 2
196. 3 197. 4 198. 2 199. 2 200. 2

810 585
132. 4; 100 = 38.4%
585
133. 5; Total marks = 584 + 585 = 1179
972 650
134. 2; 100 = 49.5%
650
135. 2
(136-140):

Product 2009 2010

A 10010 12350

K
B 15795 18050
C 11765 21850
D 13975 15200
E 13455 27550
Total 65000 95000

18050 15795
136. 4; 100 = 14.2
15795
137. 2
27550 11765

KUNDAN
138. 3; 100 = 134.1%
11765
139. 1
140. 2
141. 4 142. 1 143. 2 144. 2 145. 1
146. 4 147. 4 148. 1 149. 4 150. 3
151. 2 152. 1 153. 3 154. 3 155. 3
 PRACTICE SET-1
each longer side and each on the smaller sides.
Test-I: Reasoning Ability D is sitting second to the right of the person who is from
Amritsar. E is sitting third to the left of the person who is
Directions (Q. 1-5): Study the following information from Lucknow. F and G are sitting opposite each other. C is
carefully and answer the questions given below. sitting diagonally opposite the person from Bhatinda. B is
Eight playersSachin, Virender, Mahender, Suresh, sitting opposite the person who is from Delhi. The person from
Praveen, Rahul, Ravinder and Dinesh are sitting in three lines Mumbai is sitting second to the right of the person from Chennai
L1, L2 and L3. And they are in three different categories, and second to the left of A, who is not sitting near the person
either batsman or bowler or all rounder. In each line at least who is from Bhatinda. G is sitting on the smaller side and to the
two and at most three players are sitting there. And at least right of the person who is from Bhatinda. Persons from Chennai
two players are in each category but not more than three. and Mumbai are not on the same side of the table. The person
Virender and Mahender are in different lines but not in from Mumbai is sitting third to the right of the person from
line L2, and both are in same categories. Dinesh and Ravinder Amritsar, who is not sitting diagonally opposite the person
are in same line and in same categories, but not all rounders. from Pune. The person from Mumbai third to the left of C. F sits
Suresh and Praveen are in different lines but not in line L1 second to the left of H. Pune sits opposite Chennai.
and in different categories but not all rounder. Sachin is in 6. Who is sitting third to the right of the person from
line L2 and Suresh is not in same as in Sachin. Both players of Lucknow?
line L2 are bowlers. Rahul is all rounder and not in line L1. 1) E 2) Person from Chennai
From three all rounder two are line in L3. Rahul andMahender 3) A 4) Person from Bhatinda
are in same line and there are three batsmen. 5) None of these
1. Who are batsmen among these eight players? 7. Who is definitely sitting diagonally opposite to D?
1) Virender, Suresh, Rahul 1) A
2) Ravinder, Suresh, Virender 2) C
3) Virender, Ravinder, Dinesh 3) Person from Delhi
4) Dinesh, Ravinder, Mahender 4) Person from Kochi
5) Suresh, Dinesh, Ravinder. 5) Can't be determined
2. In which line Ravinder and Suresh are sitting? 8. According to the sitting arrangement what will come in
1) L2 and L3 2) L1 and L2 3) L1 and L3 place of question mark?
4) both in L3 5) Cant be determined D : Mumbai :: C : ?
3. Which two are in same categories and in same line? 1) Lucknow 2) Chennai 3) Kochi
1) Rahul and Virender 2) Dinesh and Suresh 4) Amritsar 5) None of these
3) Ravinder and Virender 4) Mahender and Rahul 9. From which city does A belong?
5) Praveen and Suresh 1) Pune 2) Delhi 3) Chennai
4. In which category and line Praveen is there? 4) Amritsar 5) Can't be determined
1) BowlerL2 2) BowlerL3 3) BatsmenL2 10. Which of the following combinations is definitely
4) BatsmenL3 5) Cant be determined correct?
5. In which categories 3 players are there? 1) H Amritsar 2) D Chennai
1) Bowlers and all rounders 3) A Kochi 4) G Mumbai
2) Batsmen and all rounders 5) None of these
3) Bowlers and batsmen 11. Company X has changed delivery slots for many of its
4) Cant be determined orders.
5) None of these Which of the following may be a probable cause for
Directions (Q. 6-10): Study the following information taking the above step?
and answer the questions given below. 1) It has suddenly seen a shortage of staff.
In a conference 8 people A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H from 2) It cannot cope with the sudden surge in demand of
different cities Delhi, Pune, Kochi, Mumbai, Chennai, its products.
Lucknow, Bhatinda and Amritsar not necessarily in same order 3) It does not have adequate logistic support for the
are sitting around a rectangular table. 3 persons are sitting on delivery of its products.
 4) Both 1 and 2
5) All of the above
12. As a society we are getting more assertive and traditional
power structures are eroding.
Which of the following can be a possible effect of the
above cause?
1) Social media rapidly build or damage brands.
2) Consumers are getting more unforgiving, fully aware
of their buyer power.
3) Social-media weapons allow consumers to express
their displeasure and cause reputation damage.
4) Casteism is on the rise in the country and this is
evident in elections.
5) None of these
13. Luxury and premium brands such as Cartier, Armani, Diesel
and Corneliani have found a not-so-exclusive platform
to reach out to consumers in India: WhatsApp.
4) The number of students heading abroad every year
is on the increase.
5) None of these
Directions (Q. 16-20): In each question below are given
statements followed by five conclusions numbered 1), 2), 3),
4) and 5). You have to assume everything in the statements to
be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly
known facts and then find out which of the five given
conclusions does not logically follow from the statements,
disregarding commonly known facts.
16. Statements: Some numbers are letters.
No letter is a vowel.
All vowels are words.
Conclusions: 1) Some numbers are not vowels.
2) No vowel is a letter.
3) Some words are not letters.
4) Some numbers are words.

K
Which of the following is not in line with the given 5) Some words are vowels.
statement? 17. Statements: All papers are pages.
1) E-mails help you access more relevant customers than Some pages are books.
phones do. All books are copies.
2) Selling luxury is all about offering personalised Conclusions: 1) All papers being copies is a
services and platforms like WhatsApp enable that. possibility.
3) Cash-rich-time-poor customers find it convenient 2) Some papers are books.
to go through the latest stock and also blockbook the 3) Some copies are pages.
items to be home-delivered or to be picked up from 4) Some pages are papers.
stores at a later date at ease. 5) All books being papers is a possibility.
4) Conversion rate in case of customers using 18. Statements: No cup is a glass.

KUNDAN
WhatsApp is as high as 80%. Some glasses are bottles.
5) All the above are in line with the given statement All bottles are caps.
14. Company X has taken orders for its new mid-size sedan Conclusions: 1) Some glasses are caps.
even before publicly displaying the car or revealing its 2) Some bottles are not cups.
technical specifications or price. 3) Some caps are cups.
Which of the following cannot be a part of possible 4) Some caps are bottles.
fallout of the above situation? 5) No glass is a cup.
1) The consumer affairs ministry is considering legal 19. Statements: All kicks are sticks.
actionagainstthecompany. No stick is a brick.
2) Other carmakers are also adopting similar marketing Some bricks are stones.
strategies to rustle up interest in new products. Conclusions: 1) No kicks are bricks.
3) The booking is completely voluntary for customers 2) Some stones are not sticks.
and entirely at their discretion. 3) Some stones are bricks.
4) The sales will go down once the specifics are revealed. 4) All bricks being kicks is a possibility.
5) All of the above are possible fallouts 5) No brick is a stick.
15. Every once in a while, an inter-country ranking of 20. Statements: All birds are swans.
universities surfaces and it is discovered that India All swans are ducks.
doesnt do particularly well. Some ducks are parrots.
Which of the following statements substantiates the view Conclusions: 1) All birds being parrots is a possibility.
expressed in the above statement? 2) Some swans are parrots.
1) If all rankings show a similar picture, there is 3) Some ducks being birds is a possibility.
robustness in the finding. 4) Some swans are not parrots.
2) There are approximately 555 students per educational 5) No swan is a bird.
institute. Directions (Q. 21-25): Each of the questions below
3) Private education is yet to take off in our country. consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II
given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided 2) mo go lo nui eu wuf dum
in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read 3) go mo lo eu nui wuf dum
both the statements and give answer 4) mo go lo dum eu nui wuf
1) if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer 5) None of these
the question, while the data in statement II alone are 27. What will be the step VI for the following input?
not sufficient to answer the question. Input: I dont like to listen bad jokes
2) if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer 1) dont like listen I jokes bad to
the question, while the data in statement I alone are 2) dont like listen I bad jokes to
not sufficient to answer the question. 3) like listen bad dont jokes to I
3) if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II 4) like bad listen dont jokes I to
alone are sufficient to answer the question. 5) None of these
4) if the data in both statements I and II together are not 28. Which of the following steps would read as listen bad
sufficient to answer the question. jokes like to I dont if the answer of the Q. 187 be the
5) if the data in both statements I and II together are step IV of that input?
necessary to answer the question. 1) Step VIII 2) Step IX
21. There are six persons P, Q, R, S, T and U sitting around a 3) Step X 4) Step XI
table. Who is on the immediate right of T? 5) None of these
I. Only U is sitting between T and P. 29. If Step II of an input is dos cruk me nam ram jam sam,

K
II. P is third to the right of S. which of the following will be Step VIII of the input?
22. What is the shortest distance between two points A 1) me ram jam cruk sam nam dos
and B? 2) ram jam cruk me dos sam nam
I. A is 15 km North from another point P, which is to 3) cruk jam ram nam me dos sam
the East of B at a distance of 22 km. 4) me dos ram cruk jam nam sam
II. A point X is to the West of B at a distance of 5.6 km 5) None of these
and to the North of A at a distance of 6.5 km. 30. How many steps are needed for an input to regain its
23. Who is Kavitas sister? original form according to the sample given above?
I. Sapna is the granddaughter of Amit, who is the father 1) Seven 2) Nine 3) Eight
of Kavitas father. 4) Eleven 5) None of these

KUNDAN
II. The name of Kavitas sister starts with the letter S. 31. In a certain way Dam is related to Water. Which of the
24. Who among the five friends Suraj, Taj, Mehmood, Vikram following shows the same relationship?
and Bhairav is the youngest? 1) Hive : Bees 2) Godown : Foodgrains
I. Bhairav is older than three of them but Suraj is younger 3) Fruit : Seed 4) Grains : Granary
than Mehmood. 5) None of these
II. Taj is older than Vikram and Bhairav. 32. Four of the following five groups of letters are alike in
25. What is the code for book in a code language? some way while one is different. Find out which one is
I. In that language pik tik rik means I like reading different.
and mik nek bek fek means this book is interesting. 1) PUYRN 2) CHLEA 3) MRVOK
II. In the same language pik tik mik rik means I like 4) HMQJF 5) UZVWS
reading book and mik juk pan means you read book. 33. How many pairs of letters are there in the word
Directions (Q. 26-30): Study the following information COMMUNICATION which have as many letters between
carefully to answer the questions given below. them as in the English alphabet?
In a toy exhibition, a machine processes a given input by 1) Four 2) Five 3) Six
the following rule: 4) Seven 5) None of these
Input: ata put nu zil del ta cha 34. If A means +, E means , I means and O means , then
Step I: zil ata put cha nu del ta what is the value of
Step II: cha zil ata ta put nu del 21 O 3 I 7 E 10 A 39
Step III: ta cha zil del ata put nu 1) 78 2) 87 3) 49
Step IV: del ta cha nu zil ata put 4) 59 5) None of these
and so on. 35. If the order of the digits in each of the following numbers
Now answer the questions given below. is reversed and then the newly formed numbers are
26. If lo nui wuf go dum eu mo is the Step V of an input, arranged in descending order, what will be the middle
which of the following would definitely be the input? digit of the fourth number?
1) Data inadequate 942, 636, 199, 387, 531, 249, 711, 293
 1) 9 2) 3 3) 4 not next to S. S and U get diagonally opposite flats. R, who is
4) 8 5) None of these next to U, gets a south-facing flat and T gets a north-facing flat.
Directions (Q. 36-40): Read the following information 41. Whose flat is between S and Q?
carefully and answer the questions following it. 1) T 2) U 3) R
W and her seven female friends P, Q, R, S, T, U, and V 4) P 5) None of these
live in XYZ Apartments in a metropolitan city. Each person 42. The flats of which of the pairs, other than SU, are
pursues a different profession Author, Clerk, Doctor, diagonally opposite each other?
Engineer, Housewife, Probationary Officer (PO), Professor 1) PS 2) QP 3) RT
and Teacher but not necessarily in the same order as the 4) TS 5) None of these
names. Each person is adept at playing different musical Directions (Q. 43-44): Read the following information
instrumentsFlute, Guitar, Harmonium, Saxophone, Sitar, carefully and answer the questions that follow:
Tabla, Trumpet and Violin but not necessarily in the same A + B means A is not greater than B.
order as the names. Each of the persons plays only those A B means A is neither equal to nor less than B.
instruments which they like the most. Now read some A B means A is neither greater than nor less than B
additional clues. A B means A is not less than B.
(i) P, who plays tabla, is neither a housewife nor a A % B means A is neither greater than nor equal to B.
professor, whereas Q is a clerk and does not play 43. In the equation P % Q R + T V, which of these

K
guitar or trumpet. But the lady who is an engineer conclusions follow(s)?
always plays flute. (A) R V (B) P V (C) P % R
(ii) One of them is an author and plays saxophone. But 1) Only A 2) Only B 3) Only B and C
the lady who plays guitar is a renowned doctor and 4) Only C 5) None of these
her neighbour V does not play flute. Q plays violin. 44. In the given expression,
(iii) One who plays harmonium is a teacher whereas T MNP+Q%R
and U play trumpet and saxophone respectively. which of these conclusions follow(s)?
(iv) S and R play guitar and sitar respectively. But the (A) M Q (B) P + R
latter is neither a housewife nor a PO. (C) M Q (D) M P
36. Who among the following is a Teacher? 1) Only A and B 2) Only B and C
1) Data inadequate 2) V 3) Only C and D 4) Only D

KUNDAN
3) W 4) R 5) Only B, C and D
5) None of these 45. K is Ls wifes husbands brother. M is sister of K. N is
37. What is the profession of W? sister of L. How is K related to M?
1) Data inadequate 2) Teacher 1) Sister-in-law 2) Brother 3) Daughter
3) Engineer 4) Professor 4) Wife 5) Cousin
5) None of these 46. In a certain code language chip din chunk means
38. One who plays tabla is student attends class, din sunk dink means Arjuna is
1) Probationary officer 2) Clerk student, jump nink sink means schools are good and
3) Housewife 4) Teacher dink mup chimp means teacher is good, what is the
5) None of these code for Arjuna?
39. Which of the following pairs represents the person 1) din 2) sunk 3) dink
associated with harmonium and flute respectively? 4) chunk 5) None of these
1) W and V 2) V and W 3) P and R 47. Which of the following symbols would come in place of
4) Data inadequate 5) None of these question mark (?) in the expression given below to make
40. Which of the following is correctly matched? S < U definitely true?
Person Instrument Profession P Q> R S<T ?U=V
1) R Guitar Professor 1) > 2) 3) <
2) S Sitar Doctor 4) 5) Either < or
3) T Trumpet Author 48. In which of the following expressions B < F is definitely
4) U Saxophone Housewife true?
5) None of these 1) A B C = D E = F G > H
Directions (Q. 41-42): Study the following information 2) A B > C = D < E < F G > H
carefully and answer the given questions. 3) A B < C = D F < G = H
Six flats on a floor in two rows facing north and south are 4) All of these
allotted to P, Q, R, S, T and U. Q gets a north-facing flat and is 5) None of these
49. As per the following expression, which of the choices
given below is not true?
P= Q T = Z< F R< S Q
1) Q Z 2) Z < S 3) F S
4) P T 5) None of these
50. What should come in place of question mark (?) in the
expression given below to make S < P definitely true?
C< D< F R= Z< S T?P
1) 2) = 3) >
4) 5) <
Test-II: English Language
Directions (Q. 51-59): Read the following passage
carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain
words are given in bold to help you locate them while
answering some of the questions.
K
It is an old dictum of political science that the state comes
into being for life (protection of life and security) but it exists
for good life. The transition of modern democracies from
merely providing security from external aggression and
internal disturbances and disorder to a welfare state providing
the citizen social security schemes from the cradle to the
grave is a familiar phenomenon of the 20th century. India is
no exception to the rule. In fact, the Indian concept of justice
Dharmais far older than the concept of law. India had always
regarded that peace and security were empty concepts in a
KUNDAN
system where social, political and economic justice was denied
to the people.
The concept of justice is itself a changing one. It changes
with the growth and development of the society and with the
philosophy which informs the society at a given time. For
instance, slavery was legitimate in certain parts of the world
but is no longer so now. An eye for eye and tooth for tooth
was considered just in primitive society but is abhorrent today.
In our own lifetime, right to property was included as a
fundamental right in Art 19 (1)(f) of the Constitution. By 1978,
it was sought to be removed from the statute books as
contrary to the socialist philosophy. All these go to show
that human ingenuity does not extend to foreseeing the near
or distant future and that no law can be permanent or
immutable. Orderly transition and growth of society can be
stalled only at the peril of a revolution.
No Constitution is or can be perfect. Nor can it provide
for every contingency that may arise in the future. Besides
conditions change or new concepts emerge as a result of
changes in the political, social and economic conditions and
concepts. According to political science, sovereignty may
rest with the Crown in a monarchy or with a dictator in ruthless
control over the people. But in a democracy sovereignty rests
with the people of the country. If the generation living in 1949
had the authority to frame a Constitution for the nation, the
generation living in 2000 AD will have equal right to add,
alter, amend, delete, substitute or even to frame a new
Constitution, subject to compliance with the conditions and
restrictions imposed by the Constitution itself.
51. According to the theory of political science, survival of
a state is related to
1) The law of the land.
2) Its tradition.
3) The welfare of its people.
4) Its defence strategy.
5) The growth of its service sector.
52. In India the main concept of the state is
1) The body which controls internal disturbances.
2) The organ which runs governments.
3) The organ which builds international relations.
4) The body which support the social cause.
5) The body which generates life.
53. Which of the following statements stands true in context
of the Indian philosophy?
1) Peace and security emanates from social, political and
economic justice.
2) Peace and security are empty slogans in todays
society.
3) There is no peace where there is no security.
4) Social, political and economic justice is a dream for
the people.
5) None of these
54. What does it implyAn eye for eye and tooth for tooth
was considered just in primitive society but is abhorrent
today?
1) There is no place for the concept of might is right in
any society.
2) What may be legally just today may not be so
tomorrow.
3) There is no give-and-take concept in our society.
4) He that is down needs fear no fall.
5) None of these
55. Which of the following is a feature of law?
1) Law is a phenomenon which remains unchanged for
ages.
2) Law supports the mighty even today.
3) Law changes its shape along with time.
4) Law has become a force in a democracy.
5) None of these
56. Which of the following is a unique feature of a democratic
set-up?
1) Democracy and sovereignty are inter-related.
2) According to the passage, democracy is more
efficient than any other system of governance.
3) In a democracy people are free to do anything.
4) There can be no proper Constitution in a democracy.
5) None of these
57. What is the Indian concept of Justice and Dharma?
1) To look after peace and security of the nation
2) To work for economic upliftment of the masses
3) To promote the social cause and look after the well-
being of its people
4) to promote social harmony in the world
5) None of these
58. What do you mean by the phrase from the cradle to the
grave, as used in the passage?
1) From step to step
2) From each and every possible means
3) From darkness to light
4) From birth to death
5) None of these
59. The passage is related to which subject?
1) Economics 2) Social Science
4) History 4) Constitutional law
K
5) None of these
Directions (Q. 60-70): Read the following passage
carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain
words are given in bold to help you locate them while
answering some of the questions.
Close and confidential relations between Russia and
India are based on the proximity of their fundamental national
interests and rest upon the centuries-old history of peaceful
and mutually beneficial contacts between the two nations.
The strength of these bonds has been tested many times in
critical situations. Time and again, in moments of crisis, both
KUNDAN
New Delhi and Moscow have turned to each other.
India has been and remains, without any reservations,
Russias closest and most reliable friend and partner. Of
principal importance is the national consensus existing in the
two countries regarding the necessity for developing further
cooperation between both bilaterally and in the international
arena. The intensity of political dialogue has been on a steady
rise, embracing ever new challenges and issues emerging in
the context of a rapidly-changing situation in the world. It is
based on the convergence of views with regard to major
problems of the present days. Summit-level talks between
president VV Putin and prime minister AB Vajpayee and
meetings of the ministers of foreign affairs, including their
interaction at the UN, have become an annual feature.
Trilateral interaction among Russia, India and China is
gaining momentum and acquiring substance. Deliberations
on anumber of joint working groups set up by the foreign
ministries are yielding noticeable results. The first rounds of
the working group on global challenges and the working
groups on international terrorism in Sep-Oct 2003 brought
the two countries together as de facto allies, once again
providing the effectiveness of our joint quests for ways to
strengthen international and regional security. Russia has
supported the advancement of the process of normalisation
between India and Pakistan.
Vajpayees 12 steps to peace initiative addressed to the
leadership of Pakistan has received our full support. It
provides a realistic and durable basis for the resumption of
dialogue and settlement of all outstanding problems between
these two South Asian countries on the basis of the 1972
Shimla Accord and 1998 Lahore Declaration. No doubt, to
make it possible, favourable conditions should be created.
First of all, the acts of trans-border terrorism along the Line of
Control in Jammu and Kashmir must be stopped.
New Delhis views on the situation in Afghanistan and
Iraq are consonant with the assessments of our diplomacy.
Together we are doing our best to restore peaceful life there.
We are consistently upholding the centrality of the
coordinating role of the United Nations, and the necessity of
concerted actions of the entire comity of nations when such
crises with international ramifications take place. We have
been successful jointly in mapping the means and avenues
of expanding the scope of trade and economic cooperation.
Highly productive deliberations have been held on the
Intergovernmental Commission on Trade, Scientific,
Technological and Cultural Cooperation. Experts are actively
working out a mechanism for investing the rupee assets
available to Russia as a result of the repayment of Indias
debt into promising projects in both countries.
The prospects of cooperation in this sphere give rise to
optimism. Military and technical cooperation, being a
significant and inalienable segment of the special nature of
the bilateral relationship, is doing splendidly. A number of
major deals in the pipeline are now being finalised. When
signed, they will make a considerable contribution to
strengthening Indias defence capability and security while
promoting peace and stability in the region. Among the top
priorities on the Russian-Indian agenda are also our
traditionally warm people-to-people contacts and cooperation
in the field of culture. An example of this is the successful
functioning of the Russian-Indian International Roerich
Memorial Trust in Naggar in Kullu Valley, Himachal Pradesh.
Every year the Roerich Museum and Art Gallery there are
visited by over 100,000 tourists from around the country and
abroad. It is symbolic that as the prime minister visits Moscow,
an exhibition on Russian culture is on in all major Indian
metros, drawing large audiences.
This colourful gala marks the renaissance of active
cultural cooperation between the two countries and highlights
the special spiritual affection the Russians and Indians have
for each other. For many centuries, this magic bridge of culture,
stretching over the Palmaris and the Himalayas, has spanned
our nations, and together with our Indian friends we keep
walking along it towards the future horizons of our strategic
partnership.
60. Which of the following is a unique feature of Indo-
Russian relationship?
 1) It is based on mutual cooperation and sharing of 66. CONVERGENCE
knowledge in key areas. 1) weight 2) similarity 3) acceptance
2) It has stood firm even in trying times. 4) exchange 5) reflection
3) It is the oldest relation between any two countries in 67. RAMIFICATIONS
the world. 1) norms 2) scale 3) significance
4) This relationship has been envied by many countries. 4) consequences 5) carnage
5) None of these Directions (Q. 68-70): Choose the word which is opposite
61. Which of the following is true in the context of the in meaning of the word given in bold as used in the passage.
passage? 68. STEADY
1) There is much closeness in the primary national 1) unrealistic 2) normal 3) insignificant
interests of India and Russia. 4) negligible 5) inconstant
2) Russia has offered to mediate in solving the Indo-Pak 69. CONSONANT
problem. 1) hostile 2) aloof 3) inconsistent
3) Indias views on the situation in Afghanistan and 4) deprived 5) criticising
Iraq is different from that of Russia. 70. INALIENABLE
4) Russia wants Pakistan to accept Indias conditions 1) unfamiliar 2) unconditional 3) prime
for normalisation of relations at any cost. 4) secondary 5) trivia
5) None of these

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62. What has maintained the Indo-Russian relations even
amidst rough weathers?
1) their sense of respect for each other
2) their age-old experience in tackling the odds
3) the powerful international image of both the countries
4) the attitude of both the countries to help each other
at difficult times
5) None of these
63. Majority of the Indian and Russian populations want
both the countries jointly
Directions (Q. 71-80): In the following passage there
are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These
numbers are printed below the passage and against each five
words are suggested, one of which fits the blank
appropriately. Find out the appropriate words.
In India, Republic Day celebration has become a
community (71). Unlike other countries, India has been a
victim of proxy war for a long time. The (72) of arms during
the Republic Day parade not only (73) our (74) to defend our
borders at any time but also (75) the morale of our soldiers.
Indias national unity is under threat because of growing

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1) to emerge a superpower on the global scene. (76). It is during the parade that all the states come together
2) to extend their area of cooperation. and (77) their energies to make the event a great (78). We
3) to counter any superpower on the international front. Indians are notorious for being culturally phobic. Therefore,
4) to address their concerns on the international and these kind of cultural presentations (79) Indias future
national front as well. generations with its (80).
5) to operate against any terrorist activities within their 71. 1) symptom 2) feature 3) affair
regions. 4) event 5) involvement
64. Which of the following is false in the context of the 72. 1) load 2) cache 3) running
passage? 4) march 5) display
1) The interaction between the leaders of India and 73. 1) reminds 2) initiates 3) address
Russia has increased in recent years. 4) reflects 5) sustain
2) Russia supports the solving of Indo-Pak dispute in 74. 1) preparedness 2) threat 3) forces
view of the 1972 Shimla Accord and 1998 Lahore 4) strength 5) strategy
Declaration. 75. 1) creates 2) boosts 3) signals
3) Favourable conditions should be built if Indo-Pak 4) holds 5) strives
dispute is to be settled. 76. 1) unrest 2) disparity 3) regionalism
4) Afghanistan and Iraq crises are not without 4) unemployment 5) poverty
international consequences. 77. 1) pool 2) rejuvenate 3) empower
5) None of these 4) review 5) reflect
Directions (Q. 65-67): Choose the word which is same 78. 1) mark 2) initiative 3) stride
in meaning as the word given in bold as used in the passage. 4) success 5) landmark
65. PROXIMITY 79. 1) manifest 2) energise 3) link
1) closeness 2) unity 3) awareness 4) confer 4) enrich
4) unanimity 5) depth 80. 1) experience 2) roots 3) forefathers
4) entity 5) enigma
 Directions: (Q. 81-85): In each of the following 88. 1) To be eligible for a loan, / 2) you need to have a / 3)
sentences there are two blank spaces. Below each sentence regular source of income salary, / 4) business or any
there are five pairs of words denoted by numbers 1), 2), 3), 4) occupation. / 5) No error
and 5). Find out which pair of words can be filled up in the 89. 1) Women tend to outlive their spouses, / 2) which makes
blanks in the sentence in the same sequence to make it it important for them / 3) to save money in instruments
meaningfully complete. that will help them / 4) build corpse to last a lifetime. / 5)
81. This move is likely to bring some ________ of order in No error
higher education and will go a long way in ________ 90. 1) Success at work should not carry a disproportionate
equal opportunities for all. price tag / 2) whereby we end up souring relationships /
1) change, cementing 2) merit, serving 3) with our family members and friends / 4) which matter
3) relief, establishing 4) semblance, ensuring to us. / 5) No error
5) unity, discussing
82. We in India have not only given in to politicians, but
________ to ________ them whenever we can. Test-III: Quantitative Aptitude
1) aspire, imitate
2) evade, oblige Directions (Q. 91-95): What will come in place of
3) compromise, challenge question mark (?) in the following questions?

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4) deny, contest 91. 200.1 9.9 25 62.5 + 12 144 = ? 26.49
5) surrender, force 1) 1627.98 2) 1842.28 3) 1958.8
83. Politicians are just too strong for the meek ________ 4) 1972.88 5) 2172.98
that some organisations ________ against them from 92. 48 80 176 324 121 ? 7 4 11
time to time.
1) voting, cast 2) protest, spell 1) 4( 5 7) 2) 6( 3 5) 3) 4( 3 5)
3) resistance, mount 4) courage, stage
5) opposition, flaunt 4) 3( 5 7) 5) 9( 2 3)
84. It is a mans highest duty to ________ himself with the 2
93. 1265 25.3 + 102 98 (23) = ?
whole world and when that happens he ________ others 1) 8517 2) 9517 3) 8717
like himself. 4) 7087 5) 9087

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1) associate, preaches
3 3
2) observe, follows 94. 12167 21952 % of 280 3 704969 % of 56 ?
3) unite, serves 1) 41.56 2) 51.46 3) 51.56
4) position, worships 4) 65.56 5) None of these
5) identify, considers
17 22 28 37
85. For a perfect person and for those ________ for 95. 33 34 35 36 ?
perfection, doing good to others is always ________. 25 37 52 57
1) pining, remedy 1) 1853.78 2) 3259.55 3) 2467.59
2) striving, spontaneous 4) 2650.29 5) 2493.13
3) fighting, appreciated Directions (Q. 96-100): The bar graph shows the total
4) competing, cheered number of children in five different schools and the line
5) looking, praiseworthy graph shows the percentage of girls in them.
Directions (Q. 86-90): Read each sentence to find out
3000
whether there is any grammatical or idiomatic error in it.
The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The 2500
Number of children

number of that part is the answer. If there is No error, the

2000
answer is 5). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)
86. 1) They understood how just a twitch, a shuffle, smirk or 1500
a glare on stage or screen / 2) can give audiences more
1000
insight / 3) into the impenetrable depths of a personality
/ 4) than a thousand-word dialogue. / 5) No error 500
87. 1) Gone are the days / 2) when people used to / 3) plan 0
and save for years before buying / 4) the big-ticket items P Q R S T
they aspired for. / 5) No error
School
 35 1) 120 2) 240 3) 60
30 4) 720 5) None of these
Percentage of girls

25 107. How many terms of the series 1 + 5 + 9 + 13 + ... must be

taken in order so that the sum may be 190?
20
1) 14 2) 18 3) 6
15 4) 10 5) None of these
10 108. 16 men can do 50% of a piece of work in 10 days. 10
5 women can do 75% of the same work in 15 days. Then in
how many days can 80% of the same work be done by 8
0
men and 5 women?
P Q R S T 1) 20 days 2) 24 days 3) 15 days
School 4) 16 days 5) None of these
109. 25% of the employees of department A and 16% of the
96. What is the approximate percentage of boys in School P
employees of department B took part in a function.
and R together?
Participants from department A were 500 in number but
1) 65% 2) 79% 3) 82%
252 employees of department B did not take part in the
4) 85% 5) 77%
function. Find the total no. of employees in A and B.
97. What is the total number of boys in School S and School
1) 2200 2) 2300 3) 2000

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T together?
4) 2500 5) None of these
1) 3075 2) 3044 3) 3095
110. A square sheet of paper is converted into a cylinder by
4) 3025 5) 3041
rolling it along its length. What is the ratio of the base
98. What is the average number of boys in School R and
radius of cylinder to the side of the square?
School T together?
1) 1602 2) 1644 3) 1675 1) 7 2 : 22 2) 7 : 22 3) 7 : 44
4) 1650 5) 1625 4) 22 : 7 5) None of these
99. What is the ratio of the number of girls in School P to the 111. A passenger train covers the distance between stations
number of boys in School T? X and Y 50 minutes faster than a goods train. Find this
1) 35 : 7 2) 7 : 35 3) 6 : 35 distance if the average speed of the passenger train is 60
4) 35 : 6 5) None of these

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kmph and that of goods train 20 kmph.
100. The number of boys in School T is approximately what 1) 20 km 2) 24 km 3) 45 km
per cent of the number of girls in School S? 4) 40 km 5) None of these
1) 790% 2) 795% 3) 731% 112. In a certain locality 55% are females. Of these 32% are
4) 778% 5) 765% illiterate. If male literacy is 64% find the ratio of illiterate
Directions (Q. 101-105): Find out the number in place males to literate women.
of question mark (?) in the following number series. 1) 9 : 8 2) 81 : 88 3) 81 : 187
101. 529 841 961 1369 1681 1849 ? 4) 88 : 81 5) None of these
1) 2809 2) 3249 3) 2208 113. Total age of Ram and Shyam is 15 years more than that of
4) 6424 5) 2209 Shyam and Mohan. While the average age of Ram,
102. 1108 1117 1142 1191 ? 1481 Shyam and Mohan is equal to that of Ram and Shyam.
1) 1312 2) 1272 3) 1300 Then what is the difference between the ages of Ram
4) 1204 5) None of these and Shyam?
103. 841 961 1089 1225 1369 1521 ? 1) 15 2) 30 3) 10
1) 1785 2) 1581 3) 1681 4) 20 5) None of these
4) 1881 5) 1781
1
104. 12 14 32 102 416 2090 ? 114. If 6x - 9 = x 2 = 16x - 23, what is the value of N?
1) 15522 2) 12552 3) 13525 N
4) 17552 5) None of these 13 2 3
105. 384 381 372 345 264 ? 1) 6 2) 6 3) 11
25 5 5
1) 25 2) 27 3) 44
4) 49 5) None of these 3
106. Letters of the word GINGER are arranged in such a 4) 2 5) None of these
25
way that all the vowels come together. Find out the total
115. Pipe A usually fills a tank in 2 hours. On account of a leak
number of ways for making such an arrangement.
at the bottom of the tank, it takes pipe A 30 minutes more
 to fill the tank. How long will the leak take to empty a full Directions (Q. 121-125): In each of the following
tank if pipe A is shut? questions two equations I and II are given. You have to solve
1) 12 hrs 2) 15 hrs 3) 5 hrs both the equations and give answer
4) 10 hrs 5) None of these 1) if P < Q
Directions (Q. 116-120): Study the following graph to 2) if P Q
answer the given questions. 3) if P Q
Ratio of Exports to Imports (in terms of money) of two 4) if P = Q
companies over the years 5) if P > Q
1.6 Company A Company B 121. I. 9P 2 9P 2 0
2
1.4 II. 18Q 3Q 1
1.2 122. I. P 2 13P 42 0

1 II. 2Q 2 22Q 60 0
123. I. 6P + 7Q = 45
0.8 II. 2P + 3Q = 17
0.6 124. I. 3P 2 192 48P

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2
0.4 II. Q 16Q 64 0
0.2 125. I. 15P 2 8P 1 0
2
II. 45Q 21Q 6
0
Directions (Q. 126-130): Study the following table to
1996 1997 1998 1999 2000 2001 answer the given questions.
Year Percentage of marks obtained by
116. For company B, in how many of the given years were the six students in six subjects
imports more than the exports?
1) One Subjects
2) Two (Max Maths Science Eco Eng Hindi Pol Sc

KUNDAN
3) Three Marks)
4) Cant be determined Students (100) (150) (75) (120) (80) (60)
5) None of these
Raman 80 72 88 75 40 85
117. In 2001, the ratio of exports of company A to that of
Pramod 90 80 64 95 60 65
company B was 3 : 4. If the import of company A during
that year was `60 cr, what was the import of company B Arvind 75 90 80 85 70 80
during that year? Ritesh 65 68 48 70 50 75
1) `140 cr 2) `112 cr Ankit 100 84 84 65 75 90
3) `70 cr 4) Cant be determined Nilesh 80 60 40 90 85 65
5) None of these 126. What is the total marks obtained by Nilesh in all the
118. The difference between exports and imports for company subjects?
A in 1998 was `120 cr. Then what was the total amount of 1) 410 2) 415 3) 425
exports and imports for company A in that year? 4) 525 5) None of these
1) `240 cr 2) `300 cr 127. Marks obtained by Arvind in Science and Economics
3) `348 cr 4) Cant be determined together is what per cent more than the marks obtained
5) None of these by Pramod in these two subjects?
119. The export of company B in 1999 was `156 cr. What was 1) 16% 2) 14% 3) 108%
the value of its import in that year? 4) 13% 5) 1.5%
1) `187.2 cr 2) `130 cr 3) `140 cr 128. How many students have got 65% or more marks in each
4) `156 cr 5) None of these subject?
120. In which year(s) was the difference between import and 1) One 2) Two 3) Three
export of company A the minimum? 4) Four 5) None of these
1) 1996 2) 2000 129. What is the average marks obtained by these six students
3) 2001 4) Cant be determined in English?
5) None of these
 1) 92 2) 80 3) 84 134. What per cent of Daily water output is water expired
4) 96 5) None of these from lungs?
130. What is the average percentage of marks obtained by all 1) 1.6% 2) 10%
the students in Economics? (rounded off to two digits) 3) 160% 4) 16%
1) 66.67 2) 50.5 3) 67.33 5) None of these
4) 52.34 5) None of these 135. What per cent of the Daily water intake is the Daily
Directions (Q. 131-135): Study the following graphs water output through the kidney?
and informations carefully to answer these questions. 1) 33% 2) 120%
Weight distribution in an average adult 3) 60% 4) 100%
(Total body weight 80 kg) 5) 75%
Directions (Q. 136-140): Each of the questions below
Organ Weight
consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II
Brain 2 kg given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided
Bones 16 kg in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read
Blood 8 kg both the statements and give answer:
Intestine 3 kg 1) if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer
Liver 2 kg the questions, while the data in statement II alone are

K
not sufficient to answer the question.
Lungs 1 kg
2) if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer
Flesh 35 kg
the question, while the data in statement I alone are
Others 13 kg not sufficient to answer the question.
3) if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II
Use of water by the average adult alone are sufficient to answer the question.
Daily water intake Daily water output 4) if the data even in both the statements together are
not sufficient to answer the question.
Solid 5) if the data in both statements together are necessary
w aste to answer the question.
From solid food Sw eat
Lungs 100 g

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1000 gm 500 g 136. The HCF and LCM of two numbers are 44 and 264
400 g
respectively. What is the second number?
I. If the first number is divided by 2, the quotient is 44.
Water 1500 g
Liquid w ater (kidney) II. If the first number is multiplied by 3, the product is
1500 g 264.
137. By selling a product for `65 how much profit was earned?
I. The profit was one-fourth of the cost price
131. Which of the following can be inferred from the table II. Total earned profit is 75% less than the cost price.
and graph? 138. What is the total strength of female employees of
(a) Half of the total body weight is that of the bones and company C?
blood. I. If a person counts total no. of hands of male and
(b) About 10% of the total body weight is blood. female employees separately, he finds the no. of hands
(c) The weight of blood in the average adult is half the of males is 50% more than that of females.
weight of the bones. II. Total strength of employees is more than 4000.
1) Only a 2) Only b 3) Only c 139. A and B are positive integers. Is the sum of 781, A and B
4) Only a and c 5) Only b and c an odd number?
132. Weight of the bones is what percentage of the total body I. The product of A and B is even number.
weight? II. Both A and B are different odd numbers.
1) 23% 2) 18% 3) 20% 140. What is a two-digit number?
4) 21% 5) None of these I. The product of the two digits is
133. What is the central angle for solid food in the graph II. The difference of the digits is 1.
depicting Daily water intake?
1) 51 2) 120 3) 144
4) 216 5) None of these
 150. Which of the following states has imposed a ban on the
Test-IV: General Awareness sale of thermocol plates with the move aimed at the
promotion of leaf plates in the state?
(With Special Reference to Banking Industry)
1) Chhattisgarh 2) Assam 3) Jharkhand
141. Who among the following won the US Open golf 4) West Bengal 5) None of these
championship in Jun 2015? 151. All branches of the Public Sector Banks (PSBs) in the
1) Jordan Spieth 2) Rory Mcllroy 3) Dustin Johnson country will remain closed on all ________ from Jul 2015
4) Anirban Lahiri 5) None of these as the RBI has approved the same.
142. The winner of the mens singles title of 2015 Queens 1) first and second Saturdays
Club final tennis tournament is 2) first and third Saturdays
1) Kevin Anderson 2) Viktor Troicki 3) second and third Saturdays
3) Novak Djokovik 4) Andy Murray 4) second and fourth Saturdays
5) None of these 5) None of these
143. The Retirement fund body EPFO has made UAN 152. Who among the following is the present chairman of the
mandatory for all employers covered under its purview. Indian Banks Association (IBA)?
Expand the term UAN. 1) VG Kannan 2) P Pradeep Kumar
1) Unique Account Number 3) TM Bhasin 4) Balachandran M

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2) Unique Access Number 5) None of these
3) Universal Account Number 153. The World Day for International Justice, also referred to
4) Universal Access Number as Day of International Criminal Justice or International
5) None of these Justice Day is celebrated throughout the world on
144. If the RBI increases reverse repo rate, consequently 1) 11 Jul 2) 17 Jul 3) 18 Jul
1) banks will have less money to lend 4) 28 Jul 5) 30 Jul
2) banks will have more money to lend 154. Which bank has launched a voice recognition service,
3) banks will decrease interest rates which can identify and authenticate a customer, based
4) liquidity in the economy will increase on his/her voice?
5) None of these 1) HDFC Bank 2) ICICI Bank 3) Axis Bank
4) Federal Bank 5) None of these

KUNDAN
145. Which of the following countries tested a supersonic
nuclear delivery vehicle, dubbed the Wu-14, in Jun 2015? 155. Which of the following films has been awarded Palme
1) The US 2) Israel 3) North Korea dOr Award at 68th Cannes Film Festival?
4) Russia 5) China 1) Chronic 2) Dheepan 3) The Assassin
146. Japanese giant SoftBank, along with Bharti Enterprises 4) Son of Saul 5) None of these
and Taiwanese Foxconn, have decided to invest USD 20 156. Which of the following is the correct order in which the
bn in ________ projects in India. four Grand Slam tennis tournaments are played in a year
1) mobile manufacturing 2) tech-start up starting from Jan?
3) wind energy 4) solar energy 1) Australian Open, French Open, Wimbledon, US Open
5) None of these 2) French Open, Australian Open, Wimbledon, US Open
147. The Small Industries Development Bank of India (Sidbi) 3) Wimbledon, Australian Open, French Open, US Open
has set up a ________ Make in India fund to create a 4) US Open, French Open, Wimbledon, Australian Open
world-class manufacturing hub of MSMEs. 5) None of these
1) `100 cr 2) `5000 cr 3) `1,000 cr 157. Who among the following is the present chairperson of
4) `10,000 cr 5) None of these the Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT)?
148. ________ has overtaken Saudi Arabia as the worlds 1) Rajiv Mehrishi 2) Hasmukh Adhia
biggest oil producer in 2014. It produced 11.6 mn barrels 3) Chitra Ramkrishna 4) Anita Kapur
of oil per day in 2014. 5) None of these
1) Russia 2) Mexico 3) US 158. Who won the Orange cap for most runs in the eight
4) Iraq 5) None of these edition of the Indian Premier League (IPL)?
149. The banks now allow minors above 10 years to 1) David Warner 2) Kieron Pollard 3) Chris Gayle
independently open and operate savings bank accounts. 4) Rohit Sharma 5) None of these
These minors cannot avail which of the following 159. Who among the following has won the best actor award
services? at the 62nd National Film Awards?
1) Internet banking 2) ATM 3) Debit card 1) Vijay 2) Shahid Kapoor 3) Ranbir Kapoor
4) Cheque book 5) None of these 4) Hrithik Roshan 5) Rajinikanth
160. Which of the following franchises has NOT won the 171. Lee Kuan Yew died on 23 Mar 2015. He was widely
Indian Premier League (IPL) tournament so far? respected as the architect of modern
1) Chennai Super Kings 2) Mumbai Indians 1) Thailand 2) Singapore 3) Malaysia
3) Kolkata Knight Riders 4) Kings IX Punjab 4) Philippines 5) Vietnam
5) Rajasthan Royals 172. The book titled The Black Hill has been authored by
161. Who among the following heads the new innovative 1) Tulsi Badrinath 2) Veena Das
council of Indian Railways, called Kaya Kalp? 3) Anita Anand 4) Mamang Dai
1) Ratan Tata 2) Nandan Nilekani 5) None of these
3) NR Narayana Murthy 4) Mukesh Ambani 173. Which of the following statements is NOT correct with
5) Cyrus Pallonji Mistry respect to cheque?
162. The govt has approved the release of what amount in 1) It is a negotiable instrument
tranches to states and UTs to compensate them for 2) There are four main items on a cheque
revenue loss due to phasing out of Central Sales Tax for 3) Its validity has been reduced to only 6 months
three financial years up to 2012-13? 4) It is a type of exchange bill
1) `22,000 cr 2) `33,000 cr 3) `35,000 cr 5) None of these
4) `45,000 cr 5) `50,000 cr 174. Who among the following heads the task force for Skill
163. Uma Nath Singh has been sworn-in as the Chief Justice Development set up by the NITI Ayog?
of which of the following High Courts? 1) Shivraj Singh Chouhan 2) Manik Sarkar

K
1) Delhi High Court 2) Allahabad High Court 3) Siddaramaiah 4) Devendra Fadnavis
3) Guwahati High Court 4) Patna High Court 5) Anandiben Patel
5) Meghalaya High Court 175. There are two parts of banks balance sheet assets and
164. In case of small accounts opened with banks, total liabilities. The assets, everything that the bank owns or
credits in one year should not exceed is owed, does not include
1) `25,000 2) `50,000 3) `75,000 1) cash in its vaults
4) `1,00,000 5) `2,00,000 2) bank branch buildings
165. Which of the following is the mildest form of inflation in 3) govt bonds
which prices rise by not more than 3 per cent per annum? 4) loans made by the bank
1) Walking inflation 2) Creeping inflation 5) None of these

KUNDAN
3) Running inflation 4) Hyper inflation 176. Sanand, which is developing as the new global auto
5) None of these hub, is situated in which of the following states?
166. Which of the following does NOT come under the RBIs 1) Maharashtra
quantitative measure of credit control? 2) Tamil Nadu
1) Moral Suasion 2) SLR 3) Gujarat
3) CRR 4) Open Market Operations 4) Madhya Pradesh
5) Bank Rate 5) Rajasthan
167. Which of the following countries will give 1 billion euro 177. Which of the following is a secondary function of
loan to India over the next six years to strengthen commercial banks?
renewable power transmission infrastructure? 1) Taking deposits
1) Spain 2) Japan 3) US 2) Facilitating overdraft
4) Germany 5) France 3) Buying/selling securities
168. What is the current nuclear power capacity of India? 4) Providing money on demand
1) 4,400 MW 2) 5,780 MW 3) 7,560 MW 5) Providing ATM service
4) 10,080 MW 5) 12,520 MW 178. Name the activist who has been conferred the prestigious
169. Which of the following banks introduced Internet 2015 Stockholm Water Prize.
banking in India for the first time? 1) Ramdev 2) GD Agrawal
1) State Bank of India 2) ICICI Bank 3) Nigamananda Saraswati 4) Rajendra Singh
3) HDFC Bank 4) Axis Bank 5) None of these
5) Bank of Baroda 179. In the field of banking, which of the following transactions
170. Dilma Rousseff is the present President of which of the done through a mobile device will be termed as mobile
following countries? banking?
1) Thailand 2) Brazil 3) Indonesia 1) Loan application 2) Cheque book request
4) Malaysia 5) Singapore 3) Balance inquiry 4) Fund transfer
5) All the above
180. An interest rate that is allowed to move up and down 189. ________ refers to the degree to which data in a database
with the rest of the market or along with an index over system are accurate and correct.
the duration of the debt obligation is called 1) Data security 2) Data verification
1) fixed interest rate 2) floating interest rate 3) Data independence 4) Data validity
3) forward interest rate 4) future interest rate 5) Data integrity
5) functional interest rate 190. ________ virus spreads in application software.
1) Boot sector 2) File infector 3) E-mail
4) Parasitic 5) Macro
Test-V: Computer Knowledge 191. Microsoft Office button does not contain
1) print 2) save 3) new
181. Information in a memory that is no longer valid or wanted
4) page setup 5) print preview
is
192. Which of the following is not an advantage of
1) volatile 2) surplus 3) garbage
multiprogramming?
4) bug 5) non-volatile
1) increased throughput
182. In data link layer, we find 2) shorter response time
1) repeater 2) bridge 3) switches 3) decreased OS overhead

K
4) (1) and (3) 5) (2) and (3)
4) ability to assign priorities to jobs
183. NACS stands for
5) None of these
1) Network Asynchronous Communication Services
193. Integrated circuits are made by
2) Network Asynchronous Communication System
1) Si 2) Al 3) Mn
3) Netware Asynchronous Communication System 4) Mg 5) All the above
4) Netware Asynchronous Communication Services 194. Uniform resource location has ________ part(s).
5) National Asynchronous Communication System
1) two 2) three 3) one
184. ________ is added to give the framework a solid
4) four 5) None of these
appearance in graphics.
195. Daisy wheel printer is a type of ________.
1) Morphing 2) Anti-aliasing 1) matrix printer 2) impact printer 3) laser printer

KUNDAN
3) Coloring 4) Shading 4) manual printer 5) line printer
5) None of these
196. Which of following types of key cannot be used in
185. Using computers and communication technology to help
database?
people better use and manage information is called
1) Primary key 2) Foreign key
1) Ergonomics
3) Super key 4) Secondary key
2) Except System 5) Transitive key
3) Decision Support System 197. The default header for a worksheet is
4) Office Automation
1) your name 2) the date and time
5) Executive Support System
3) the sheet tab name 4) the worksheet name
186. Cells in Excel can be referred in ________ ways.
5) None of these
1) 2 2) 3 3) 4
198. The first computer made available for commercial use
4) 5 5) 6 was
187. ICMP, RIP and BGP protocols are applicable in ________ 1) Mark-I 2) ENIAC 3) UNIVAC
layer.
4) EDSAC 5) EDVAC
1) Network 2) Application 3) Presentation
199. EPROM consists of
4) Session 5) Transport
1) bipolar transistors 2) Diodes
188. ________ is capable of operating at electronic speed.
3) ETL 4) MOSFETS
1) Magnetic disk 5) None of these
2) Magnetic drum 200. ________ contains location of file on the disk.
3) Magnetic tape
1) Boot sector 2) File allocation table
4) Semi-conductor disk
3) Data area 4) Root folder
5) Semi-conductor memory
5) Memory unit
 Answers and Explanations
(1-5): Batsman = BT, Bowler = BW, All rounder = AR No letter is a vowel (E) conversion No vowel
is a letter (E). Hence conclusion 2) follows.
L1 L2 L3 Name BT BW AR
No letter is a vowel (E) + All vowels are words (A) =
Sachin E + A = O* = Some words are not letters. Hence 3)
Virender follows.
Mahender Now, Some numbers are not vowels (O) + All vowels
are words (A) = O + A = No conclusion. Hence
Suresh conclusion 4) does not follow.
Praveen All vowels are words (A) conversion Some
Rahul words are vowels (I). Hence conclusion 5) follows.
Ravinder 17. 2; There is no negative statement. Thus the
possibilities in 1) and 5) exist. Hence conclusion 1)
Dinesh and 5) both follow.
1. 5; Suresh, Dinesh, Ravinder. All papers are pages (A) + Some pages are books (I)
2. 3; L1 and L3 = A + I = No conclusion. Hence conclusion 2) does

K
3. 4; Mahinder and Rahul not follow.
4. 1; BowlerL2 Some pages are books (I) + All books are copies (A)
5. 2; Batsmen and All rounder = I + A = I = Some pages are copies (I). Hence
(6-10): conclusion 3) follows.
All papers are pages (A) conversion Some
pages are papers (I). Hence conclusion 4) follows.
18. 3; Some glasses are bottles + All bottles are caps = I +
A = I = Some glasses are caps. Hence I follows. No
cup is a glass (E) conversion No glass is a cup
(E). Hence conclusion 5) follows. No cup is a glass

KUNDAN
6. 4 7. 2 8. 1 9. 1 10. 4
11. 5; The delivery depends on several factors
adequate staff, adequate logistic support, etc. Again,
this adequacy may change if there is a surge in
demand.
12. 2; The erosion of traditional power structure has given
much more power in the hands of the consumers.
We cant go for 3 because in this statement the
focus shifts to social-media weapons.
13. 1; If emails are preferable to phones, WhatsApp a
phone application loses the game.
14. 3; This can only be a condition, not a fall-out.
15. 4; Students are leaving the country for education
because they cannot get quality here. This goes
hand in hand with the findings that universities here
dont do well.
16. 4; Some numbers are letters (I) + No letter is a vowel =
I + E = O = Some numbers are not vowels. Hence
conclusion 1) follows.
(E) + Some glasses are bottles (I) = E + I = O* = Some
bottles are not cups (O*). Hence conclusion 2)
follows.
Some bottles are not cups (O*) + All bottles are
caps (A) = O* + A = No conclusion. Hence conclusion
3) does not follow.
All bottles are caps (A) conversion Some caps
are bottles (I). Hence conclusion 4) follows.
19. 4; All kicks are sticks (A) + No stick is a brick (E) = A +
E = E = No kick is a brick. Hence conclusion 1)
follows.
No stick is a brick (E) + Some bricks are stones (I) =
E + I = O* = Some stones are not sticks. Hence
conclusion 2) follows.
Some bricks are stones (I) conversion Some
stones are bricks (I). Hence conclusion 3) follows.
4) does not follow from conclusion 1).
No stick is a brick (E) conversion No brick is a
stick (E). Hence conclusion 5) follows.
20. 5; There is no negative statement. Thus the
possibilities in 1) and 3) exist. Hence conclusion 1)
and 3) follow.
All swans are ducks (A) + Some ducks are parrots
 (I) = A + I = No conclusion. But there are 24. 4; From I: we get,
complementary statements of conclusions 2) and Mehmood | Bhairav
4). Hence either conclusion II or IV follows. Suraj | k
All birds are swans (A) conversion Some | k
swans are birds (I). Hence conclusion 5) does not k
follow. From II: We get
21. 4; From I and II: We get the following possible Taj
arrangement:
Vikram Bhairav
S From I and II: Still we do not know who is the
youngest.
25. 2; From I: The code for book is mik or nek or bek or
fek.
From II:
pik tik mik rik I like reading book ... (i)
mik juk pan you read book ... (ii)
From (i) and (ii), code for book is mik because only

K
P book is common in both.
Position of T can be either on immediate left or on
immediate right of S. Thus, because of lack of
specific position of T the question still remain
unanswered.
22. 3; From I:
(26-30): Here the rule followed is:
In each step the fourth word becomes the first and
the last becomes the fourth. All the other words
shift simply towards right except the third, which
shifts two places rightwards.
The words may be represented digitally as follows:
Input: 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
Step I: 4 1 2 7 3 5 6
Step II: 7 4 1 6 2 3 5
Step III: 6 7 4 5 1 2 3

KUNDAN
Step IV: 5 6 7 3 4 1 2
Step V: 3 5 6 2 7 4 1
Step VI: 2 3 5 1 6 7 4
AB = BP 2 AP 2 22 2 15 2 Step VII: 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
= 26.62 km and so on.
484 225
26. 5; Step V: lo nui wuf go dum eu mo
From II: 3 5 6 2 7 4 1
Input: mo go lo eu nui wuf dum
1 2 3 4 5 6 7
27. 2; Input: I dont like to listen bad jokes
1 2 3 4 5 6 7
Step VI: dont like listen I bad jokes to
2 3 5 1 6 7 4
28. 2; Step IV: dont like listen I bad jokes to
Again, AB = BX 2 AX 2 5. 6 2 6.5 2 5 6 7 3 4 1 2
listen bad jokes like to I dont
= 31.36 42.25 8.579 km 7 4 1 6 2 3 5
23. 4; From I: The above step is Step II. But as we see step VII is
the same as the input. So Step IX will be the same as
Step II.
29. 5; Step II: dos cruk me nam ram jam sam
From II: We do not get any useful information. 7 4 1 6 2 3 5
Thus, from I and II together still we do not know Since Step VIII will be the same as Step I. Hence
who is Kavitas sister. Note that we do not know Step VIII: cruk me ram dos jam sam nam
whether Sapna is sister or cousin of Kavita. 4 1 2 7 3 5 6
 30. 1; It is obvious from the chart (digital representation).
31. 2; Dam is a wall that is built across a river or stream in
order to stop the flow of water and use it further.
Similarly, a godown stores foodgrains and uses them
further.
32. 5; Fifth + 2 = First; First + 2 = Fourth; Fourth + 3 =
Second and Second + 4 = Third.
C O M M U N I C A T I O N
33. 3;
34. 1; 21 O 3 I 7 E 10 A 39
21 3 7 - 10 + 39 = 78
35. 2; When the order of the digits of each number is
reversed, we get
249, 636, 991, 783, 135, 942, 117, 392
When the above numbers are arranged in the
descending order, we get
46. 2; chip din chunk student attends class... (i)
din sunk dink Arjuna is student ... (ii)
jump nink sink schools are good ... (iii)
dink mup chimp teacher is good ... (iv)
From (i) and (ii), student din ... (v)
From (ii) and (iv), is dink ... (vi)
Now, from (ii), (v) and (vi) Arjuna sunk
47. 5; Given expression:
P Q> R S<T ?U=V
We put either < or in place of question mark (?).
In either case S < U is definitely true.
Thus, either < or satisfies.
48. 3; From I.
From II.

K
991 942 783 636 392 249 135 117
Thus, the fourth number is 636, and the required
middle digit is 3. From III.
(36-40):
Person Instrument Profession
49. 3
1. P Tabla Probationary Officer
50. 5; We have C < D < F R = Z < S T < P
2. Q Violin Clerk
Thus, S < P is definitely true.
3. R Sitar Professor
51. 3; A state exists for good life, which is welfare of its
4. S Guitar Doctor people.

KUNDAN
5. T Trumpet Housewife 52. 4; In India there is a concept of a welfare state.
6. U Saxophone Author 53. 1; India had always regarded that peace and security
7. V Harmonium Teacher can only be ensured to its people if they get social,
8. W Flute Engineer political and economic justice.
36. 2 37. 3 38. 1 39. 2 40. 5 54. 2; The concept of justice changes with time.
(41-42): 55. 3 56. 5 57. 3 58. 4
59. 5; Political science
60. 2; The bonds of friendship between both the countries
have been tested many times in critical situations
but they remain intact.
41. 1 42. 2
61. 1; There is proximity of their fundamental national
(43-44):
interests.
+ , >, =, ,% ,% <
62. 4; Time and again, in moments of crisis, both New Delhi
43. 4; P < Q = R T > V
and Moscow have turned to each other.
Now, we cant compare R and V, or P and V,
63. 2; The national consensus is existing in the two
Thus, neither A nor B follows.
countries regarding the necessity for developing
Again, P < R. Hence, conclusion C follows.
further cooperation.
44. 4; M = N > P Q < R
64. 5 65. 1 66. 2 67. 4 68. 5
Now, we cant compare M and Q.
69. 3 70. 4
Thus, (A) and (C) do not follow.
71. 3 72. 5 73. 4 74. 1 75. 2
Again, P < R. But the given conclusion is P R.
76. 3 77. 1 78. 4 79. 3 80. 2
Hence (B) does not follow. So, M > P. Hence
81. 4 82. 1 83. 3 84. 5 85. 2
conclusion (D) follows.
86. 2; Replace can with could
45. 2; Ls wifes husband brothers is K. So K is brother of
87. 5
L. M is sister of K. So K is brother of M.
88. 4; Insert other after any
89. 4; Replace corpse with corpus
90. 4; Replace which with who 20
1500
100 6
91. 5; 200.1 9.9 25 62.5 + 12 144 = ? 26.49 99. 3; Reqd ratio = 6 : 35
or, 1980.99 1562.5 + 1728 = ? 26.49 70 35
2500
or, ? = 1980.99 + 1728 + 26.49 1562.5 100
= 3735.48 1562.5 = 2172.98
70
92. 3; ? + 7 + 4 11 = 100. 4; Number of boys in School T = 2500 1750
48 80 176 324 121 100
or, ? = 4 3 + 4 5 + 4 5 + 7 7 4 11 15
Number of girls in School S = 1500 225
100
= 4( 3 5)
1750
93. 2; ? = 1265 25.3 + 102 98 (23)2 Reqd % = 100 777.77% 778
= 50 + 9996 529 = 9517 225
101. 5; The series is 232, 292, 312, 372 ...
94. 3; ? 3
12167 3
21952 % of 280 3 704969 % of 56 102. 1; The series is +32, +52, +72, +112, +132, ...
28 280 89 56 103. 3; The series is +120, +128, + 136, +... +160, ...
= 23 104. 2; The series is 1 + 2, 2 + 4, 3 + 6, 4 + 8, 5 + 10,
100 100

K
6 + 12 ...
= 23 + 78.4 49.84 = 51.56 105. 5; The series is 3, 9, 27, 81, 243 ...
17 22 28 37 5!
95. 5; ? = 33 34 35 36 106. 1; No. of arrangements = 2! 120
25 37 52 57 2!

842 1280 1848 2089 n

= 107. 4; Sum = [2a (n 1)d ]
25 37 52 57 2
n
842 256 616 2089 or, 190 [2 (n 1)4]
= 2
5 37 52 19
or, 190 = n(2n - 1) n = 10

KUNDAN 215552 1286824 108. 4; 16 men do the whole (100%) work in 10 2 = 20 days
=
185 969 15 100
10 women do the whole (100%) work in
= 1165.14 + 1302.45 = 2467.59 75
96. 5; Number of boys in School P = 20 days
80 16 men + 10 women do the whole work in
= 1500 1200
100 20 20
Number of boys in School R = 10 days
20 20
75 8 men + 5 women do the whole work in 20 days
= 2000 = 1500
100
80
Total number of students in P and R together = 1500 required days = 20 100 16 days
+ 2000 = 3500
2700 100
Reqd % = 100 = 77.14% 77 109. 2; Total employees of A = 500 2000
3500 25
97. 4; Number of boys in Schools S and T together
100
85 70 Total employees of B = 252 (100 16) 300
= 1500 2500
100 100
Total strength of A and B = 2300
= 1275 + 1750 = 3025
110. 3; Let the side of the square be x.
1 75 70 circumference of base of cylinder = x
98. 5; Reqd average = 2000 2500
2 100 100
7 7x
1 radius = x
= 1500 1750 1625 44 44
2
 7x 112 10
ratio = 7 : 44 import of company B = = `140 cr
44x 8
118. 5; Ratio of export to import for company A in 1998
60 20 50
111. 5; Distance = 25 km
60 20 60 4
=
10
45 36
112. 3; Required ratio = 81 : 187 difference = 10 - 4 = 6
55 68
6 120
113. 2; R + S = S + M + 15
R - M = 15 .... (i) 120 14
(10 + 4) = `280 cr
And, 6
R S M R S 156 10
119. 2; Import of company B in 1999 = = `130 cr
3 2 12
or, 3R + 3S = 2R + 2S + 2M 120. 5; 1999. On the basis of ratio only, we generally cant
find it. But when the ratio is 1, export and import are
R S the same, so the difference is 0 (minimum).
M= .... (ii)
2
121. 5; I. 9P 2 9P 2

K
0
Putting (ii) in (i),
or, 9P 2 6P 3P 2 0
R S
R 15 or, (3P - 1) (3P - 2) = 0
2
1 2
R - S = 30 P= ,
3 3
114. 5; 6x - 9 = 16x - 23
or, 10x = 14 II. 18Q 2 3Q 1 0
7 or, 18Q 2 6Q 3Q 1 0
x=
5 or, (6Q - 1) (3Q + 1) = 0

KUNDAN
1 1 1
x2 6x 9 Q ,
Now, 3 6
N
Hence, P > Q
1 49 42 3 122. 2; I. P 2 13P 42 0
or, 9
N 25 5 5
or, P 7 P 6P 42
2
0
1 49 3 49 15 34 or, (P + 7) (P + 6) = 0
or,
N 25 5 25 25 P = -7, -6
25 II. 2Q 2 22Q 60 0
N=
34 2
or, Q 11Q 30 0
115. 4; Time taken by the leak to empty a full tank or, (Q + 5) (Q + 6) = 0
5
Q = -5, -6
2 Hence Q P
xy 2
= 10 hrs
y x 5 123. 5; P = 4 and Q = 3
2
2 Hence P > Q.
116. 3; Amount of imports will be more than exports when 124. 4; I. 3P 2 48P 192 0
the ratio is less than 1. It is valid for 1996, 1997 and or, P 2
16P 64 0
2001.
60 14
or, P 8 2 0
117. 1; In 2001, export of company A = = `84 cr P = -8
10
4 II. Q 2 16Q 64 0
export of company B = 84 = `112 cr 2
3 or, Q 8 0
 Q = -8 136. 3; From I: First no. = 44 2 = 88
Hence P = Q.
HCF LCM
125. 3; I. 15P 2 8P 1 0 2nd no. =
88
or, 15P 2 3P 5P 1 0
264
or, (3P - 1) (5P - 1) = 0 From II: First no. = 88
3
1 1
P= , HCF LCM
3 5 2nd no. =
88
II. 45Q 2 21Q 6 0 Hence either statement is sufficient.
or, 15Q 2 137. 3; From I : CP + Profit = SP
7Q 2 0
x
or, 15Q 2 10Q 3Q 2 0 or, x 65
4
or, (5Q - 1) (3Q + 2) = 0
x = 52
1 2
Q , 52
5 3 profit = Rs 13
4

K
Hence, P Q From II: Let CP = 100
126. 2; Total marks obtained by Nilesh Profit = 100 75 = 25
= 80 + 90 + 30 + 108 + 68 + 39 = 415. SP = 100 + 25 = 125
127. 1; Marks obtained by Arvind in Science and Economics
25 65
= 135 + 60 = 195 real profit = Rs 13
Marks obtained by Pramod in Science and 125
Economics = 120 + 48 = 168 Therefore, either statement is sufficient.
138. 4; From I: Ratio of males to females = 150 : 100 = 3 : 2
195 168 From II: It doesnt give any definite no. of
Reqd % = 100 16%
168 employees.

KUNDAN
128. 2; Only Arvind and Ankit have got 65% or more marks So, even after combining both the statements, we
in each subject. cant find the answer.
129. 4; Average marks obtained by all the students in Eng 139. 2; Only II alone is sufficient to answer the question.
120 ( 75 95 85 70 65 90) 140. 4; There are two nos. 56 and 65 whose product of the
= 96 digits is 30 and difference is 1.
6 100
141. 1 142. 4 143. 3 144. 1 145. 5
130. 3; Average % of marks 146. 4 147. 3 148. 3 149. 5 150. 3
88 64 80 48 84 40 404 151. 4 152. 3 153. 2 154. 2 155. 2
= = 67.33% 156. 1 157. 4 158. 1 159. 1 160. 4
6 6
131. 5; Only (b) and (c). 161. 1 162. 2 163. 5 164. 4 165. 2
166. 1 167. 4 168. 2 169. 2 170. 2
16 171. 2 172. 4 173. 3 174. 2 175. 5
132. 3; Required percentage = 100 20%
80 176. 3 177. 3 178. 4 179. 5 180. 2
181. 3 182. 5 183. 4 184. 4 185. 4
1000
133. 3; Central angle = 360 144 186. 2 187. 1 188. 5 189. 4 190. 5
2500 191. 4 192. 3 193. 4
400 100 194. 2; URL has three parts: (a) Protocol, (b) Name of
134. 4; Required answer = 16% machine (c) Name of file.
2500
195. 2 196. 5 197. 5 198. 3 199. 4
135. 3 200. 2
 PRACTICE SET-2
7. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and
Test-I: Reasoning Ability so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong
to that group?
1. If it is possible to make a meaningful word from the 1) Magenta 2) Cyan 3) Yellow
second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the 4) Red 5) White
word POWERFUL, using each letter only once, then 8. A rich businessman runs a prosperous company. He is
which will be the third letter of the word? If no such word disappointed in his two children, Violet and Hazen,
can be formed your answer would be X, if only two because he believes that neither of them possesses the
words can be formed your answer would be Y, and if potential of having the ability to take control of his
more than two words can be formed your answer would company. He thinks that both of his children lack common
be Z. sense.
1) X 2) Y 3) Z This belief formulates from the opinion that:
4) L 5) W 1) Violet and Hazen are ignorant to the experience of
2. Mr Y started walking along a circular path (around a controlling the company.
circular field) in anti-clockwise direction around the field. 2) Even a person who is not brilliant can control a
When he had walked x metres, he observed that he company, if she or he has been able to obtain an
needed to walk x metres more to reach the starting point. MBA.
Since he was reluctant to walk such a long distance 3) In order to run a company, a person needs common
therefore he followed the shortest route and reached the sense.
starting point by walking only 1400 metres more. How 4) If Hazen showed any sign of common sense, he would
much total distance did he travel? have the ability to aid Violet in controlling the
1) 6600 m 2) 2900 m 3) 5800 m company.
4) 3600 m 5) 3800 m 5) A committee with an average of three trained
Directions (Q. 3-5): Study the following information personnel could assist either Violet or Hazen in
and answer the questions following it. controlling the company.
There are ten rows and six columns of boys, ie each row 9. We are well aware that there are warning signs concerning
consists of six boys. All of them are facing towards west. L, massive climate changes; these climate changes are
K, X and Z are on the immediate right of H, F, G and T reducing plant life. Many hopeful crop growers believe
respectively. H, F, G, and T are in front of D, L, K and X that there will not be an overall negative effect on the
respectively. At least four persons are ahead of Z in his column. plant growth population due to the fact that rainfall
Similarly, at least one person is behind D. should not be altered because of the climate changes.
3. How many persons hold positions in Gs column ahead However; for the average plant, it is because of the climate
of him? change that agricultural technology has an overall role
1) Five 2) Six 3) Seven in annual yield.
4) Cant say 5) None of these On which of the following assumptions are these hopeful
4. How many persons occupy positions left of G? claims based?
1) Two 2) Three 3) Four 1) There is no accurate way to predict a climate change.
4) Cant say 5) None of these 2) If patterns of rainfall began to follow the climate
5. If only G occupies place between B and K then who changes there would be significant damaging effects.
occupies place on the immediate right of B? 3) Improved yields grow highly unlikely if technology
1) Z 2) T 3) G is significantly influential in spite of climate change.
4) K 5) None of these 4) Rainfall patterns are not as predictable as patterns of
6. How many pairs of letters are there in the word temperature.
CORPORATION which have number of letters between 5) Plant life is threatened more from cool temperatures
them in the word two less than the number of letters than warm ones.
between them in English alphabet? 10. My family doctor said that he would be performing a
1) Six 2) Five 3) Four blood test on me when I visit him today. I know I will feel
4) Three 5) Less than three pain today.
 The above argument depends on which one of these
assumptions?
1) The use of a needle causes pain in the patient.
2) The doctor will have a hard time finding the patients
vein.
3) In the past, this patient has experienced pain at the
family doctors.
4) The needle will leave a bruise.
5) The doctor will have to try different needles to perform
the test.
11. Never again will you have to pay high prices for imported
spring water. It is now bottled locally and inexpensively.
Youll never taste the difference. However, if you are
likely to be embarrassed to serve domestic spring water,
simply serve it in a leaded crystal decanter.
What is the assumption made by this ad?
1) Its not hard to tell domestic water from imported water
K
based on its flavour.
2) The majority of spring water is bottled at its source.
3) Restrictions on importing and customs duties may
make the price of imported water higher.
4) Spring water tastes best when its served from a
decanter
5) Some people may purchase imported spring water
instead of domestic as a status symbol.
Directions (Q. 12-16): Read the following information
and answer the questions given below it:
A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I and J are ten persons who travel to
KUNDAN
office everyday by a particular train which stops at six stations
I, II, III, IV, V and VI respectively after it leaves base station.
1. D gets in with only I at the same station on which G
gets down with H. But H travels between only two
stations.
2. C gets down before G. A and E get in alone.
3. B and F get in before D. Also, both B and F
get down at the next station after D.
4. G gets in at station I only with one person. J gets
down after one station but he gets in with three others.
5. None of them gets in at station III. Whereas none of
them gets down at station V.
12. How many persons get down at station VI?
1) Two 2) Three
3) Four 4) Data inadequate
5) None of these
13. How many persons get in at base station?
1) Two 2) Three
3) Four 4) Data inadequate
5) None of these
14. At which station does D get in?
1) Station I 2) Station II
3) Station IV 4) Station V
5) None of these
15. How many persons get down before station IV?
1) One 2) Four
3) Five or Six 4) Data inadequate
5) None of these
16. In how many stations the number of passengers (consider
only A to J) who get in is equal to that of those who get
down at the same station?
1) One 2) Two
3) Three 4) Data inadequate
5) None of these
Directions (Q. 17-21): Each of the questions below
consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II
given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided
in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read
both the statements and give answer
1) if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer
the question, while the data in statement II alone are
not sufficient to answer the question.
2) if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer
the question, while the data in statement I alone are
not sufficient to answer the question.
3) if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II
alone are sufficient to answer the question.
4) if the data in both statements I and II even together
are not sufficient to answer the question.
5) if the data in both statements I and II together are
necessary to answer the question.
17. In which direction was Rishu facing when he was talking
with Madhu?
I. Madhu and Rishu were facing each other while talking
and Madhus shadow was falling on her immediate
right.
II. Madhu and Rishu were facing each other while talking
and Rishus shadow was falling on his immediate left.
18. A student needs at least 95% average to receive a grade
of A in five tests having different weightage. What is the
minimum average the student must get in the last two
tests to receive a grade of A?
I. On the first three tests the student averaged 92%
II. Weightage of the last two papers is in the ratio 2 : 1.
19. A farmer distributed his land among three sons X, Y and
Z. Would all the sons have to pay equal amount for
fencing their field?
I. There fields are a circle, a rectangle, and a square
respectively.
II. The areas of the fields are equal.
20. Trevor had some markers he could turn in at the end of
the year for extra credit points he had earned during the
year. Some markers were worth one point and others
were worth two points. How many one-point markers
did he have?
I. Trevor had 60 markers.
II. He was entitled to a total of 83 extra credit points.
21. Four holes are drilled in a straight line in a rectangular
steel plate. What is the distance in millimetres, between
the centre of hole 1 and the centre of hole 3? (It is given
that holes 1, 2, 3 and 4 are drilled from left to right.)
I. The distance between the centres of hole 3 and hole
4 is the same as the distance between the centres of
hole 2 and hole 3.
II. The distance between the centres of hole 1 and hole
4 is 35 mm and the distance between the centres of
hole 2 and hole 3 is twice the distance between the
centres of hole 1 and hole 2.
Directions (Q. 22-25): A word and number arrangement
machine when given an input line of words and numbers
rearranges them following a particular rule and generates
stepwise outputs till the arrangement is complete following
that rule. Following is an illustration of input and steps of
rearrangement till the last step:
Input: send book 98 63 fate 13 glamour 37
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Step I: book send 98 63 fate 13 glamour 37
Step II: book fate send 98 63 13 glamour 37
Step III: book fate 98 send 63 13 glamour 37
Step IV: book fate 98 63 send 13 glamour 37
Step V: book fate 98 63 glamour send 13 37
Step VI: book fate 98 63 glamour send 37 13
And step VI is the last step of the input. As per the rules
followed in the above steps, find out the answer to each of
the questions given below.
22. Step III of an input is:
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boy earn 84 toy 20 22 pour 40
Which of the following steps will be the last but one?
1) Step V 2) Step VI 3) Step VIII
4) Step VII 5) None of these
23. Step IV of an input is:
easy man 81 62 11 30 quite new
Which of the following will definitely be Step II of the
output?
1) easy man 11 62 81 30 quite new
2) easy man new 81 62 11 30 quite
3) easy man quite new 81 11 62 30
4) Can not be determined
5) None of these
24. Input: buy 46 62 abandon 12 28 amuse beware
Which of the following is the Step III of the input?
1) abandon amuse 62 46 buy 12 28 beware
2) abandon amuse 62 46 buy beware 12 28
3) abandon amuse 62 46 buy beware 28 12
4) Cannot be determined
5) None of these
25. Input: boom honest 45 75 15 good 35 toy
Which of the following steps will be the last step?
1) Step V 2) Step VI
3) Step IV 4) Step VII
5) None of these.
Directions (Q. 26-30): In each question the statements
are followed by two conclusions I and II. You have to take the
given statements to be true and then decide which of the
conclusions logically follow from the given statements,
disregarding the commonly known facts. Given answer
1) If only conclusion I follows.
2) If only conclusion II follows.
3) If either conclusion I or II follows.
4) If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
5) If both conclusions I and II follow.
26. Statements: Some apples are mangoes.
Some Mangoes are oranges.
No orange is apple
Conclusions:
I. Some mangoes that are organges are apples.
II. Some apples that are mangoes are oranges.
27. Statements: Some birds are animals.
All animals are black.
No black is a white.
Some whites are birds.
Conclusions:
I. Some birds which are black are not white.
II. All animals which are black are necessarily bird.
28. Statements: All scooters are buses.
All bikes are buses.
50% buses are trains.
Conclusions:
I. All buses are either bikes or scooters.
II. Some scooters are train is a possibility.
29. Statements: All apples which are red are tastey.
Most reds are apples.
Some balls are red.
Most apples are balls.
Conclusions:
I. Some reds are tastey.
II. Some apples are neither red nor ball.
30. Statements: All cups are plates.
Some plates are bowls.
Conclusions:
I. Some bowls if they are cups, are also plates.
II. All bowls which are not plates are also not cups.
Directions (Q. 31-35): Study the following information
carefully and answer the questions given below.
Eight friends A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around
a circular table. Only E, D and G are facing outside the table,
while rest are facing the centre of the table. B is second to the
right of A, who is fifth to the right of E. C is third to the left of
D, who is sitting second to the right of B. F is second to the
left of G.
31. Who is third to the left of A?
1) H 2) E
3) F 4) Data inadequate
5) None of these
32. Who is second to the right of H? 3) Finance Piyush Defense Colony
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) HR Sujata Shree Kunj
4) Data inadequate 5) None of these 5) None of these
33. If H and G interchanges their positions, who will be third Directions (Q. 41-42): Study the following information
to the right of D? to answer the given questions.
1) A 2) B 3) H In a certain code language they have grown up is written
4) C 5) None of these as sit pit dip ra, grown up people is written as pit ra tik,
34. In which of the following combinations is the first person they are up again is written as pit sit ja ka.
sitting between the second and third persons? 41. How is people written in that code language?
1) CAG 2) AGB 3) DFE 1) ra 2) tik 3) pit
4) EHC 5) None of these 4) Cant be determined 5) None of these
35. Who is fourth to the right of F? 42. How is have written in that code language?
1) H 2) E 3) D 1) sit 2) pit 3) ra
4) C 5) None of these 4) dip 5) Cant be determined
Directions (Q. 36-40): Study the following information 43. Statement: In a bid to escape police checking, a truck
carefully and answer the questions given below. driver hit at least four vehicles, including two cars and
Akhil, Bharat, Divya, Farhan, Piyush, Rupesh, Sujata, an autorickshaw. A few minutes before the incident, the
truck had reportedly hit a policeman also.

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and Tarun are eight professionals working in different
departments viz., Finance, HR, Marketing, Advertisement, Which of the following statements (A), (B) and (C) is/are
IB, IT, Operation and Research and Development but not a proper course(s) of action?
necessarily in same order. They live in three colonies viz., (A) The number of armed policemen should be increased
Vasant Kunj, Shree Kunj and Defense Colony with not more at the checking point.
than three of them in any one colony. Divya is either in (B) The registration number of the vehicle must be
advertisement or in marketing. Sujata, Akhil and Rupesh are checked and the driver should be caught.
in IT, IB and HR departments respectively. Piyush is either in (C) People should be told to remain in their houses at
operation or finance department. Tarun is in research and night.
development (R&D) and R & D professional doesnt live in 1) None 2) Only A and B 3) Only B
Shree Kunj. Finance professional is in Defence Colony. Both 4) Only B and C 5) All A, B and C

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the persons of Vasant Kunj are not in IT, IB and Marketing. 44. Effect: The 40th edition of the New Delhi world Book
Piyush is in Defence Colony and Farhan is in Shree Kunj Fair is all set to be inaugurated on Monday, but the six
colony and Marketing professional is in Defence Colony. stalls reserved for Pakistani publishers might remain
Rupesh and Sujata are in the same colony, Divya and Tarun empty. A contingent of at least 20 publishers from the
are in the same colony. neighbouring country was expected in India this week,
36. Who is in the Operation Department? but is yet to get a visa.
Which of the following can be a probable cause of the
1) Piyush 2) Tarun 3) Akhil
above effect?
4) Bharat 5) Farhan
(A) Last month, India was defeated by Pakistan in the
37. Who are in the Shree Kunj Colony?
cricket match played between the two countries.
1) Tarun, Piyush, Rupesh
(B) Pakistani books are charged a higher price than the
2) Farhan, Bharat, Sujata
ones published in India.
3) Divya, Piyush, Sujata
(C) The relation between India and Pakistan is in troubled
4) Farhan, Rupesh, Sujata
waters these days.
5) Divya, Rupesh, Sujata
1) Only A 2) Only A and B 3) Only B
38. In which department does Bharat works?
4) Only C 5) None of these
1) Finance 2) Advertisement
Directions (Q. 45): Read the following information
3) Marketing 4) Operation
carefully and answer the questions that follow:
5) R and D 45. Oil companies stocks surged on the Bombay Stock
39. Person who is in HR department lives in which colony? Exchange soon after the government announced partial
1) Vasant kunj 2) Shree Kunj decontrol of diesel prices.
3) Defense Colony 4) 1 or 3 Which of the following assumptions is/are implicit in the
5) Cant be determined given statement?
40. Which of the following combination is correct? (A) Oil companies are looking forward to a profit after
1) R & D Tarun Defense Colony this step.
2) Operation Bharat Shree Kunj
 (B) Indian economy is in a nascent stage. 57. 1) trend 2) focus 3) development
(C) Oil companies are incurring losses. 4) effort 5) nature
1) Only A 2) Only B 3) Only C 58. 1) alleviation 2) tackling 3) monitoring
4) All A, B and C 5) None of these 4) reflecting 5) addressing
Directions (Q. 46-50): In each of these questions, 59. 1) oriented 2) delivered 3) hosted
relationships between two elements is shown in the 4) navigated 5) launched
statements. These statements are followed by two 60. 1) ascertained 2) revealed 3) directed
conclusions. Read the statements and give answer 4) realised 5) traced
1) if only conclusion I follows. 61. 1) wipe 2) trickle 3) balance
2) if only conclusion II follows. 4) raise 5) trailing
3) if either conclusion I or II follows. Directions (Q. 62-65): Read each sentence to find out
4) if neither conclusion I nor II follows. whether there is any error in it. The error, if any, will be in
5) if both conclusions I and II follow. one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the
46. Statements: P = Q, M < N, P < N, J M answer. If there is no error, the answer is 5). (Ignore the
Conclusions: I. P > M II. N > J errors of punctuation, if any.)
47. Statements: C Q, L = T, D < C, L Q 62. 1) For almost 80 per cent of our /2) countrymen,
Conclusions: I. Q > L II. D > L agriculture is their /3) backbone, not just economically /
48. Statements: U < V, S C, U F, F > C 4) but culturally. /5) No error

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Conclusions: I. V > C II. U > S 63. 1) Life sentence ensures /2) endless sufferings /3)
49. Statements: T > R, I E, T E, I = L wherein death penalty /4) puts an end to it. /5) No error
Conclusions: I. E = R II. R > L 64. 1) From the point of view for inflicting /2) maximum
50. Statements: L M, N > J, X M, L = N sufferings on a /3) convicted criminal, life sentence is /4)
Conclusions: I. N < M II. N M more appropriate than death penalty. /5) No error
65. 1) Let us not hold up democracy /2) as an excuse for /3)
not taking appropriate measures /4) to stabilise the
Test-II: English Language population. /5) No error
Directions (Q. 66-68): In each of the following questions
Directions (Q. 51-61): In the following passage there four words are given, of which two words are most nearly the

KUNDAN
are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These same or opposite in meaning. Find the two words which are
numbers are printed below the passage and against each five most nearly the same or opposite in meaning and indicate
words are suggested, one of which fits the blank the number of the correct letter combination.
appropriately. Find out the appropriate words. 66. (A) Nascent (B) Haggle
Since the (51) of planning in our country, continuous (C) Sodden (D) Bargain
(52) has been laid on (53) distribution of income as a broad 1) A - B 2) B - C 3) C - D
(54). As (55) of poverty was higher in the rural areas, where 4) A - C 5) B - D
majority of the population lives, it was considered (56) to 67. (A) Wizened (B) Shrivelled
shift the (57) of poverty (58) programmes to the rural areas. (C) Penitent (D) Maraud
But, despite several programmes being (59) by the 1) A - B 2) C - D 3) A - C
government, it was (60) towards the end of Fifth Five Year 4) B - D 5) A - D
Plan that fruits of development had failed to (61) down to the 68. (A) Flagrant (B) Foreordain
poorer sections living in the rural areas (C) Unsavoury (D) Tasteful
51. 1) conception 2) emergence 3) inception 1) A - B 2) B - C 3) C - D
4) managing 5) arrival 4) A - C 5) B - D
52. 1) light 2) path 3) debate Directions (Q. 69-81): Read the following passage
4) argument 5) stress carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain
53. 1) equitable 2) social 3) pragmatic words are given in bold to help you locate them while
4) economic 5) solid answering some of the questions.
54. 1) spectrum 2) objective 3) majority The chaos and cacophony of elections is the surest sign
4) viewpoint 5) achievement of a vibrant democracy. What role do opinion and exit polls
55. 1) nature 2) tendency 3) striking play in this democratic process? A non-partisan debate on
4) incidence 5) reflection this issue must underscore the qualitative difference between
56. 1) irksome 2) irritating 3) imperative opinion polls and exit polls and the differing impact each has
4) basic 5) astonishing on the democratic process. Opinion polls are sample surveys,
reporting statistical results of potential future behaviour by
voters who answer certain questions. An opinion poll is
always conducted before a voter has exercised his franchise,
usually several days or weeks before voting. It usually asks
more than one question. An exit poll is conducted upon a
voter who has already voted. It involves no questions and
seeks to report how a voter has voted.
Keeping this difference in mind, there are several reasons
for banning exit polls and an arguable, though weaker, case
for banning opinion polls. Democracy is the bedrock of our
nation and of the Constitution. A republican secular democratic
nation has been held by the apex court to be part of the basic
structure of the Constitution. Free and fair elections have
also been held judicially to be part of this basic structure.
This means free and fair polls are an unamendable, inalienable
feature of our Constitution.
In turn, free and fair elections necessitate a level playing
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field where the contestants and voters are not subjected to
unfair external influences which vitiate the process of
elections. The Representation of People Act (RPA) and the
Model Code of Conduct, along with several other rules, are
all designed to ensure this essential fairness in the electoral
process.
In a multi-phased electoral contest and the exit polls
ban argument is relevant only in multi-phased polls the
exit poll results of a prior poll have a direct impact on the next
poll. For example, the present polls are scheduled for April 20,
26, May 5 and 10. An exit poll publication for April 20
KUNDAN
suggesting heavy voting for Party A is bound to create an
overall ambience of victory in favour of that party. Such pre-
declaration of exit poll results often leads to a self-fulfilling
prophecy. Party A may have strong support in the April 20
polls but may normally be a miserable loser in all the next
three phases. However, an ambience in its favour qua the
April 20 polls may generate a herd instinct or bandwagon
effect amid voters to follow the likely winner of the first
phase.
This may itself not be pernicious if the April 20 exit poll
results reflected the complete reality. But exit poll results are
based on fractional samples, generalising from miniaturised
reality. Since they do not even claim to represent the whole
truth, their impact on future polls is bound to distort the
electoral process. Vitiation of democracy and violation of the
basic structure is a likely consequence.
Opinion polls are worse because they generalise not
from actual behaviour but from presumed and predicted
behaviour. The fractional size of the sample (e.g. 40,000 in an
Indian electorate of 60 crore) underlines its inherent
inadequacy. Many surveys thrive on much smaller sample
sizes! Second, the sample cant be truly representative,
especially in a humungous and heterogeneous society like
India. Third, opinion polls are conducted well before the polls
and their remoteness in time affects their predictive utility.
Several recent polls have quoted widely divergent figures
and this reflects their untenability. Nevertheless, they
inexorably influence the voter and create an uneven playing
field.
69. What does the author mean when he says that chaos
and cacophony of elections is the surest sign of a vibrant
democracy?
1) A lively and active democracy is known by its
election-generated difference of opinions and sounds,
disorder and confusion etc.
2) A vibrant democracy cannot be identified without
the mismanagement of elections.
3) A democracy is active only when it controls the chaos
and cacophony during elections.
4) In a vibrant democracy elections can in no way be
held in order and peace.
5) None of these
70. Which of the following best describes the opinion poll?
1) Opinion poll is something that shapes the direction
of the election.
2) Opinion poll is an exercise that gives the results of an
election beforehand in a real way.
3) Opinion poll is an exercise that seeks to know the
mood and choice of a voter before polls.
4) Opinion poll is something that runs parallel to the
electoral process determining the future government.
5) None of these
71. How can we have free and fair polls in our democracy?
1) by holding elections in a single phase
2) by denying tickets to criminals
3) by giving the judiciary a free hand to monitor the
process
4) by giving the voters enough options to choose from
5) None of these
72. In what condition would the talk of banning exit polls be
meaningless?
1) if opinion polls are not banned
2) if elections are held in a single phase
3) if we have to maintain freedom of speech
4) if it does not hinder the election process
5) None of these
73. Which of the following is true in the context of the
passage?
1) Opinion poll is a post-poll exercise.
2) Exit poll is a pre-poll exercise.
3) Opinion and exit polls influence the outcome of
election results.
4) Opinion polls always benefit the ruling party.
5) None of these
74. According to the author, opinion polls are more harmful
than exit polls because
1) opinion polls influence the voter directly whereas exit
polls remain silent.
 2) opinion polls are conducted on a bigger scale as 4) alternative, sufficient
compared to exit polls. 5) counterpart, sharp
3) opinion polls influences illiterate voters whereas exit 83. In mature democracies, ________ of national importance
polls remain silent. are ________ without a trace of politics.
4) opinion polls are based on assumption whereas exit 1) policies, enacted
polls are based on reality. 2) concern, subjected
5) None of these 3) issues, drawn
75. What is the central message behind this passage? 4) cases, looked
1) Opinion polls and exit polls are based on freedom of 5) matters, debated
speech, so, rather than banning them, they should be 84. If a government loses its ________ in the legislature, it
monitored. should ________ gracefully and allow the opposition to
2) Opinion polls should be conducted in a free and fair form a new government.
manner. 1) confidence, admit
3) Opinion polls and exit polls must be banned to ensure 2) majority, quit
free and fair elections. 3) grip, react
4) Exit polls must be banned first as opinion polls are 4) command, manage
not that harmful for our democracy. 5) monopoly, compromise
5) None of these 85. With fixed tenures, governments defeated on the

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Directions (Q. 76-78): Choose the word which is the ________ of the legislature would not be able to force
same in meaning as the word given in bold as used in the ________ elections on the people.
passage. 1) front, biased
76. PROPHECY 2) ground, indirect
1) prediction 2) proclamation 3) judgement 3) house, unfair
4) probity 5) declaration 4) floor, premature
77. PERNICIOUS 5) table, undue
1) peculiar 2) abnormal 3) intentional Directions (Q. 86-90): Rearrange the following six
4) irritating 5) mischievous sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper sequence
78. INEXORABLY to form a meaningful paragraph, then answer the questions

KUNDAN
1) extremely 2) inevitably 3) basically given below them.
4) positively 5) sternly (A) No one knows their names.
Directions (Q. 79-81): Choose the word which is the (B) With irrigation systems, farmers were able to raise
opposite in meaning of the word given in bold as used in the more food with less labour.
passage. (C) The first engineers lived in the Middle East,
79. INALIENABLE probably around 3500 B.C.
1) distinct 2) remote 3) indirect (D) Todays city, thus, is essentially still a place where
4) transferable 5) subsidiary specialists live and work.
80. VITIATE (E) Thus, an increasing number of people were relieved
1) embolden 2) enforce 3) balance of agricultural chores and able to gather in cities to
4) sharpen 5) validate practise specialities.
81. FRACTIONAL (F) However, they conceived and built the elevated
1) bold 2) complete 3) influential irrigation canal.
4) diverse 5) varied 86. Which of the following will be the FOURTH sentence
Directions: (Q. 82-85): In each of the following after rearrangement?
sentences there are two blank spaces. Below each sentence 1) A 2) B 3) C
there are five pairs of words denoted by numbers 1), 2), 3), 4) 4) D 5) E
and 5). Find out which pair of words can be filled up in the 87. Which of the following will be the FIFTH sentence after
blanks in the sentence in the same sequence to make it rearrangement?
meaningfully complete. 1) A 2) B 3) C
82. As a ________ of medicine Ayurveda has witnessed 4) D 5) E
________ growth in the last two decades. 88. Which of the following will be the SECOND sentence
1) system, phenomenal after rearrangement?
2) genre, thumping 1) A 2) B 3) C
3) branch, increasing 4) D 5) E
89. Which of the following will be the SIXTH (LAST) 102. 0 4 18 48 120 180 294
sentence after rearrangement? 1) 4 2) 18 3) 48
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) 120 5) 180
4) D 5) E 103. 1000 970 950 938 932 930 929
90. Which of the following will be the FIRST sentence after 1) 929 2) 930 3) 932
rearrangement? 4) 938 5) 970
1) A 2) B 3) C 104. 3.5 8.5 19 59.5 181 729.5 2922
4) D 5) E 1) 19 2) 59.5 3) 181
4) 729.5 5) 19
105. 2.5 6 19 77 384 2317
Test-III: Quantitative Aptitude 1) 6 2) 19 3) 77
4) 384 5) 2317
Directions (Q. 91-100): What should come in the place 7
of question mark (?) in the following questions? 106. Out of a group of monkeys, times the square root of
2
91. 3228 + 3670 + 246 = 7132 + ? the total number are lurching on the branches of a tree.
1) 8 2) 12 3) 16 The remaining two are moving on the ground. What
4) 24 5) 26 percent of the total monkeys are moving on the ground?

K
1 2 3 1) 25% 2) 50% 3) 12.5%
92. 3 + 4 ? = 2
7 5 5 4) 6.25% 5) None of these
1 1 8 107. A small tower 15 m high casts a shadow 18 m long. At the
1) 10 2) 7 3) 8
7 10 7 same time and place a long tower casts a shadow 45 m
8 long. Find the height of the long tower.
4) 9 5) None of these 1) 54 m 2) 47.5 m 3) 42.5 m
7
93. 5287 176.22 78.584 = ? 4) 32.5 m 5) None of these
1) 5023.196 2) 5032.196 3) 5302.196 108. The product of Shankars age five years ago and his age
4) 5203.196 5) None of these 8 years later is 30, his ages at both times being given in
94. 6000 15 225 70000 = ? years. What is his present age?
1) 20000 2) 18000 3) 16000 1) 9 years 2) 6 years 3) 8 years

KUNDAN
4) 14000 5) 15000 4) 10 years 5) None of these
95. ?% of 170 = 85 109. A train passes two bridges of lengths 200 m and 120 m in
1) 50 2) 60 3) 40 29 seconds and 21 seconds respectively. What is the
4) 30 5) 80 length of the train, if the train is running at the same
96. 0.003 ? 0.0003 = 0.00009 speed over both the bridges?
1) 10 2) 3 3) 0.03 1) 80 m 2) 90 m 3) 100 m
4) 0.003 5) None of these 4) 110 m 5) None of these
97. 5712 2876 + 8760 = ? 110. Find the least multiple of 23, which, when divided by 18,
1) 11679 2) 11697 3) 11596 21 and 24, leaves the remainders 7, 10 and 13 respectively.
4) 12679 5) None of these 1) 493 2) 997 3) 3013
1 4) 3035 5) None of these
98. 7 70 10 = (?) 3 111. A wire when bent in the form of a circle encloses an area
1) 7 2) 49 3) 343 of 1386 sq cm. What will be the enclosed area when the
4) 2401 5) None of these same wire is bent into the form of an equilateral triangle?
99. 20% of 750 = ?% of 160 1) 484 3 cm 2 2) 616 3 cm 2 3) 308 3 cm 2
1) 93.75 2) 75.75 3) 83.75 4) 512 cm2 5) None of these
4) 86.75 5) None of these 112. A person was appointed as a teacher and received a
100. 36 0.036 100 = ? salary of `2500 per month in his first year of teaching
1) 3.6 2) 36.6 3) 29.6 with the expectation of being paid `2550 per month in
4) 32.4 5) None of these his second year, `2600 per month in the third year, and
Directions (Q. 101-105): In each of the following number so on. Find the total salary he expects to have received
series, a wrong number is given. Find out the wrong number. by the end of 3 years.
101. 32 33 32 36 34 43 41 1) `98100 2) `91800 3) `92800
1) 33 2) 36 3) 34 4) `92600 5) None of these
4) 43 5) 41
113. What is the probability that a number selected from the 119. `4500 is to be divided among A, B and C. What is the
numbers 1, 2, 3, 4, ... 23, 24, 25 is a prime number, when share of B?
each of the given number is equally likely to be selected? I. The share of C is 100% more than the combined shares
of A and B.
1 7 11
1) 2) 3) II. A gets `500 more than B.
5 25 25 120. Atul and Kundan enter into a partnership with their
9 capitals in the ratio 3 : 2. What was the share of Atul in a
4) 5) None of these total profit of `24000?
25
I. Atul invested his capital for 1 year while Kundan
114. A boat goes from point A to point B upstream and returns
invested it for 9 months.
from B to A downstream. If the round trip takes the boat
II. Profit of Kundan was 50 per cent less than that of
12 hours and the distance between both the point is 40
Atul.
km, what is the speed of the stream if the speed of boat in
Directions (Q. 121-125): In each of these questions two
still water is 12 km/h?
equations are given. You have to solve these equations and
1) 4 km/h 2) 6 km/h 3) 8 km/h
give answer.
4) 7 1 2 km/h 5) None of these 1) if x < y
115. How much money should be invested at 5% for 3 years 2) if x > y
3) if x = y

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to earn 3 4 of the simple interest of what `2400 will yield
in 6 years at 4% p.a.? 4) if x y
1) `2880 2) `2160 3) `1440 5) if x y
4) `3260 5) None of these
Directions (Q. 116-120): Each of the questions below 121. I. 3x 2 13x 14 0 II. 3y 2 11y 10 0
consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II
122. I. 49x 2 84x 36 0 II. 25y 2 30y 9 0
given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided
in the statement are sufficient to answer the question. Read 123. I. 3x + 4y = 49 II. 5x + 8y = 91
both the statements and give answer 1 17
1) if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer 124. I. x II. 4y 2 4 17 y 0
x 4
the question, while the data in statement II alone are

KUNDAN
not sufficient to answer the question. 125. I. x 2 9x 18 0 II. 2 y 2 5y 3
2) if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer Directions (Q. 126-130): Study the following graph
the question, while the data in statement I alone are carefully and answer the questions given below it:
not sufficient to answer the question. Amount of production and sales by a company
3) if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II over the years (in lakh tonnes)
alone are sufficient to answer the question. Production Sales
4) if the data in both statements I and II together are not
27.5

sufficient to answer the question. 30

5) if the data in both statements I and II together are
25

24

necessary to answer the question. 25

21

21
20

20
116. Is a = b?
18

20
15

2 2
12.5

I.
14

a 2 b 2
15
10

1 1 10
II. a b 4
a b
5
117. Did Rajan make a profit on his sale?
I. If he had sold 5 pens less than he presently did for 0
`100, his profit would have decreased by `20. 1996 1997
1998 1999 2000 2001
II. If he had sold 50 paise less per pen, he would have Year
lost `10. 126. Total sales of 1996 and 1999 together was what per cent
118. What are two numbers? of total production in these two years?
I. The larger number is 36 more than half the difference 1) 75 2) 87.5 3) 77.5
of the two numbers. 4) 82.5 5) None of these
II. The two numbers are in the ratio 5 : 3.
127. The percentage of sales with respect to production was 135. What is the average marks obtained by these six students
maximum in which of the following years? in Economics?
1) 1997 2) 1998 3) 1999 1) 52 2) 52.5 3) 55.5
4) 2000 5) 2001 4) 53.5 5) None of these
128. What was the percentage increase in sales from 1997 to Directions (Q. 136-140): Study the following graph to
1998? answer the given questions.
1) 22.22 2) 27.33 3) 28 Per cent profit earned by two cos. over the years
4) 28.57 5) 33.33
Income Expenditure
129. What was the average production over the years of the Per cent profit 100
company? Expenditure
1) 17.5 lakh tonnes
Company 'x' Company 'y'
2) 22.5 lakh tonnes 40
3) 20 lakh tonnes 35
4) 19 lakh tonnes 30

Percent profit
5) None of these 25
130. What was the difference between total production and
total sales of the company for all the given years? (in 20
15

K
lakh tonnes)
1) 11 2) 12.5 3) 11.5 10
4) 13 5) None of these 5
Directions (Q. 131-135): Study the following table to 0
answer these questions. 1996 1997 1998 1999 2000 2001
Percentage of marks obtained by six students in six Year
different subjects. Number given in small brackets
indicates the full marks of the subject. 136. If the income of company x in 1998 was twice the
expenditure of company y in that year, what was the
Sub Math Eng Hindi Eco Social Sc Com Sc ratio of their respective incomes?
Stu (120) (75) (60) (75) (150) (50) 1) 5 : 6 2) 5 : 3 3) 25 : 23

KUNDAN
Pradeep 80 64 75 92 64 70 4) 8 : 5 5) None of these
Rakhi 96 72 45 80 82 92 137. In which of the following years was the percentage
increase/decrease in per cent profit from the previous
Rupesh 72 44 65 52 78 86
year the minimum for company x?
Preeti 98 76 65 64 84 80 1) 1997 2) 1998
Deepak 92 80 70 88 62 78 3) 1999 4) 2000
Rani 90 48 75 68 76 88 5) 2001
138. In how many of the given years, the expenditure of
131. What is the average percentage of marks obtained by all
company y was more than that of company x?
the three girls (Rakhi, Preeti and Rani) in English?
1) 1 2) 2
1) 63.67 2) 67.33 3) 66.66
3) 3 4) 4
4) 65.33 5) None of these
5) Cant be determined
132. Marks obtained by all the three boys together in Hindi is
139. If the income of company y in 1997 was equal to the
how much more than that by all the three girls together
expenditure of company x in that year, what was the
in Hindi?
1) 9 2) 12 3) 25 ratio of their respective profits?
4) 21 5) None of these 1) 15 : 23 2) 15 : 20
133. In which subject has Preeti got the least marks? 3) 20 : 23 4) 15 : 29
1) Computer Sc 2) Economics 3) Hindi 5) None of these
4) English 5) None of these 140. The income of company y in 1996 was `675 lakhs. What
134. What is the total marks obtained by Rani in all the was its profit in that year?
subjects? 1) `37.5 lakhs 2) `50 lakhs
1) 378 2) 398 3) 368 3) `75 lakhs 4) `60 lakhs
4) 408 5) None of these 5) None of these
 1) France, Kuwait and Tunisia
Test-IV: General Awareness 2) Italy, Kuwait and Syria
3) France, Iran and Kenya
(With Special Reference to Banking Industry)
4) Israel, Indonesia and Tunisia
5) None of these
141. The RBI has overhauled the priority sector lending
152. Who won the womens singles title at the 2015
targets. Now banks have to lend what per cent of their
Badminton Asia Championships in China?
credit to small and marginal farmers (having less than
1) Li Xuerui 2) Ratchanok Intanon
two hectares of land)?
3) Zhao Yunlei 4) Wang Shixian
1) 8 per cent 2) 7.5 per cent 3) 10 per cent
5) Wang Yihan
4) 12 per cent 5) 9 per cent
153. Who among the following won the Shamkir Chess
142. Which of the following countries has been ranked on
tournament on 26 Apr 2015?
top in the 2015 World Happiness Report?
1) Rauf Mamedov 2) Magnus Carlsen
1) Canada 2) Norway 3) Denmark
3) Vishwanathan Anand 4) Fabiano Caruana
4) India 5) Switzerland
5) None of these
143. The capital city of Armenia is
154. The Uttar Pradesh govt has renamed the Lucknow
1) Yerevan 2) Zagreb 3) Tbilisi
Zoological Garden after who among the following?
4) Baku 5) None of these
1) Chandrashekhar Azad 2) Nawab Wajid Ali Shah

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144. 25 Apr is commemorated every year as
3) Ashfaqulla Khan 4) Ram Prasad Bismil
1) World Malaria Day 2) World AIDS Day
5) None of these
3) World Typhoid Day 4) World Tuberculosis Day
155. The Section 377 of the Indian Penal Code is related to
5) World Diarrhea Day
1) prohibition of Child Marriage
145. Under the revised priority sector lending targets, foreign
2) prohibition of Child Labour
banks with less than 20 branches will have to start lending
3) homosexuality
________of their net credit to the priority sector by the
4) dowry harassment
end of fiscal year 2020.
5) None of these
1) 20 per cent 2) 31 per cent 3) 40 per cent
156. ________ won the womens doubles title of the 2015
4) 42 per cent 5) 45 per cent
Rogers Cup Masters tournament?
146. Calbuco volcano erupted in which of the following

KUNDAN
1) Caroline Garcia and Katarina Srebotnik
countries for the first time in more than 42 years in Apr
2) Bethanie Mattek-Sands and Lucie Safarova
2015?
3) Sania Mirza and Martina Hingis
1) Australia 2) Cameroon 3) Chile
4) Renata Voracova and Sania Mirza
4) Argentina 5) Spain
5) None of these
147. The govt has raised the limit of foreign direct investment
157. The metro rail service commenced in which of the
(FDI) in the pension sector to what per cent?
following cities on 29 Jun 2015?
1) 49 per cent 2) 51 per cent 3) 74 per cent
1) Bengaluru 2) Chennai 3) Hyderabad
4) 100 per cent 5) None of these
4) Kochi 5) Panaji
148. Who became the 83rd US attorney general and the first
158. What is the full form of the term QIP as used in banking/
African-American woman to serve as the nations top
finance?
law enforcement official?
1) Qualified Industrial Placement
1) Elizabeth Edwards 2) Anita M Britton
2) Qualified International Placement
3) Caroline Kennedy 4) Loretta Lynch
3) Qualified Institutional Purchase
5) None of these
4) Qualified Institutional Placement
149. The govt has allowed retirement fund body EPFO to
5) None of these
invest minimum what per cent of its corpus in exchange
159. Who among the following are the winners of the
traded funds?
womens doubles title of the 2015 Canada Open
1) 2 per cent 2) 3 per cent 3) 5 per cent
badminton tournament?
4) 8 per cent 5) 10 per cent
1) Chan Kaka Tsz Ka and Yuen Sin Ying
150. Earth Day is an annual event, celebrated on
2) Shiho Tanaka and Koharu Yonemoto
1) 12 Apr 2) 22 Apr 3) 23 Apr
3) Eefje Muskens and Selena Piek
4) 25 Apr 5) 26 Apr
4) Jwala Gutta and Ashwini Ponnappa
151. Terrorist attacks in three nations on 26 Jun 2015 left
5) None of these
several people dead and triggered panic across
continents. These three countries were
160. Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority 3) Arvind Mayaram
(IRDA) was renamed as Insurance Regulatory and 4) Rajiv Mehrishi
Development Authority of India on 30 Dec in the year 5) Ajay Tyagi
1) 2011 2) 2012 3) 2013 171. Which state has launched Grama Jyothi programme which
4) 2014 5) None of these is aimed at comprehensive development of rural areas
161. As declared by the UNO in 2010, whose birthday on 15 allowing planning and execution of works by villages
Oct is observed as the World Students Day globally? themselves?
1) Atal Bihari Vajpayee 2) Madan Mohan Malaviya 1) Andhra Pradesh 2) Telangana
3) APJ Abdul Kalam 4) Syama Prasad Mukherjee 3) Chhattisgarh 4) Jharkhand
5) Deendayal Upadhyaya 5) Karnataka
162. The Sangeet Natak Academy and the Padmashri awardee 172. Cricketing icon and Bharat Ratna Sachin Tendulkar has
Vasundhara Komkali died recently. She was an eminent become a Tiger Ambassador of which of the following
1) vocalist 2) actor 3) author states?
4) scientist 5) environmentalist 1) Telangana 2) Chhattisgarh
163. Who is the author of the book titled Sleeping on Jupiter 3) Madhya Pradesh 4) Maharashtra
which is shortlisted for Man Booker Prize 2015? 5) West Bengal
1) Rahul Bhattacharya 2) Vikas Swarup 173. Bajrang Kumar, who has been chosen for the prestigious

K
3) Anuradha Roy 4) Tahmima Anam Arjuna award this year, is a
5) Jahnavi Barua 1) shooter 2) boxer 3) weightlifter
164. Which of the following banks announced to buy 4) wrestler 5) archer
domestic online retail broking major Sharekhan for an 174. Narendra Modi is the first Indian Prime Minister to visit
undisclosed sum of money? the United Arab Emirates (UAE) in the last ________
1) BNP Paribas 2) HDFC Bank 3) ICICI Bank years in Aug 2015.
4) Federal Bank 5) Standard Chartered 1) 21 2) 24 3) 28
165. The proposed National Investment and Infrastructure 4) 34 5) 42
Fund (NIIF) entity will be headquartered in 175. Which of the following airports in India has become the
1) Mumbai 2) New Delhi 3) Bengaluru worlds first airport to operate on solar power?
4) Hyderabad 5) Pune 1) Mangaluru International Airport

KUNDAN
166. Kalyani group has tied up with Israels Rafael to produce 2) Cochin International Airport
a man-portable, anti-tank missile in India. Name the 3) Jaipur International Airport
missile. 4) Srinagar International Airport
1) Javelin 2) Spike 3) Python 5 5) Indira Gandhi International Airport
4) Sparrow 5) Matra R530 176. Which of the following teams lifted South Asian Football
167. Who among the following has/have been recommended Federation (SAFF) U-16 title on 18 Aug 2015?
for Dhyan Chand Award for 2015? 1) Maldives 2) Afghanistan 3) Sri Lanka
1) Romeo James 2) TPP Nair 3) SP Misra 4) India 5) Bangladesh
4) All the above 5) Only 1) and 3) 177. The World Photography Day is observed every year on
168. Which firm has acquired the title sponsorship rights for which of the following days?
BCCIs domestic and international cricket matches at 1) 11 Aug 2) 15 Aug 3) 19 Aug
home for 4 years? 4) 17 Aug 5) 9 Aug
1) Snapdeal 2) Flipkart 3) Paytm 178. The term Deficit Financing means the Government
4) Shopclues 5) Amazon borrows money from the
169. As per the composite announced by govt, in private 1) IMF 2) Local bodies
sector banking there will a sub-limit of 49 per cent on 3) RBI 4) Large corporates
portfolio investment within the overall foreign investment 5) Public at large
limit of 179. Which of the following is Indias new rating index
1) 69 per cent 2) 74 per cent 3) 75 per cent developed by the Ministry of Finance?
4) 76 per cent 5) 100 per cent 1) CECA 2) CRIS 3) SENSEX
170. The central govt has nominated who among the following 4) TIEA 5) RTGS
to be director on the central board of directors of the RBI 180. Which of the following is NOT a financial institute/
with immediate effect? agency?
1) UK Sinha 1) IRDA 2) BCCI 3) FPSB
2) Arvind Subramanian 4) SEBI 5) CAG
 192. Which of the following is a command that saves what
Test-V: Computer Knowledge you are working on into the hard drive, or onto a disk?
1) View 2) Hold
181. Which of the following is the name of the part of a 3) Save 4) Go
computer that one can touch and feel? 5) None of these
1) Programs 2) Software 3) Hardware 193. Which of the following is a command to get a file you
4) Output 5) None of these worked on from the memory where it was stored?
182. Computers gather data, which means they allow users to 1) Close 2) Delete
___ data. 3) Open 4) Get it
1) present 2) store 3) output 5) None of these
4) input 5) None of these 194. Which of the following is used to move down a page in
183. CPU stands for a document?
1) CD-run on memory 1) Jump 2) Fly
2) central processing unit 3) Wriggle 4) Scroll
3) call powers up 5) None of these
4) create programs user 195. The primary device that a computer uses to store
5) None of these information is

K
184. A disk on which you store information is 1) TV 2) storehouse
1) plate 2) data disk 3) paper disk 3) desk 4) hard drive
4) TV disk 5) None of these 5) None of these
185. Which of the following allows you to print? 196. Which of the following is the screen that comes when
1) ribbon 2) monitor 3) go now you turn on your computer and shows all the icons?
4) Control-P 5) None of these 1) Desktop 2) Face to face
186. Which of the following means easy to use? 3) Viewer 4) View space
1) user-friendly 2) select 3) helpful 5) None of these
4) ever-ready 5) None of these 197. Which of the following is a program that works like a
187. When your computer stops working suddenly, it is

KUNDAN
calculator for keeping track of money and making
referred to as a budgets?
1) crash 2) die 3) death 1) calculator 2) spreadsheet
4) penalty 5) None of these 3) budgeter 4) financier
188. The smallest item of useful information that a computer 5) None of these
can handle is called 198. Memory, also called random access memory, or RAM,
1) bite 2) byte 3) bit 1) contains the electronic circuits that cause processing
4) bait 5) None of these to occur
189. Devices that let the computer communicate with you are 2) makes the information resulting from processing
called available for use
1) input devices 2) output devices 3) allows data, programs, commands, and user responses
3) type devices 4) print devices to be entered into a computer
5) None of these 4) consists of electronic components that store data
190. Devices that allow you to put information into the 5) None of these
computer are called 199. Correcting errors in a program is referred to as
1) input devices 2) output devices 1) debugging 2) bugging 3) rectifying
3) type devices 4) print devices 4) modifying 5) None of these
5) None of these 200. An assembler is used to translate a program written in
191. Which of the following is the command used to remove 1) a low-level language
text or graphics from a document? The information is 2) machine language
then stored on a clipboard so that you can paste it. 3) a high-level language
1) Chop 2) Cut 4) assembly language
3) Clip 4) Cart away 5) None of these
5) None of these
 Answers and Explanations
1. 3; Here the specified letters are: O, W, F and L. 10. 1; How is the speaker aware of the feeling of pain if
Words formed with these letters are as follows: blood test is done? Obviously, 1) is the assumption.
1. FLOW 2. FOWL (a bird) 3. WOLF 11. 5; Choices 1, 2 and 4 can be easily ruled out. 3 may be
2. 4; Here diameter = 1400 m an assumption because this may be the reason of
radius = 700m price difference. But it is also possible that the cost
of bottling abroad may itself be higher. Hence go for
x metre
5. This is why the author suggests the way out of
embarrassment.
(12-16): Let us make a table as shown below and put the
1400 metre
information obtained from the clues 4 and 5 in the
table. It looks as follow:

Station Get in Get down

And, the distance travelled by the person
Base Station
= (x + 1400)m = r 1400 m
I G,

K 22 II
= 700 1400 m 3600m
7 III
IV
(3-5): The given information gives us the following two
possible cases: V
VI
Case I Case II
Now from clue 1, we get that D and I get in at the
same station where G and H get down. obviously D
and I did not get in at base station or station I or III
or V. Thus, D and I must have got in either at station

KUNDAN
T Z T Z
G X G X II or at station IV. But it is given that H travels
F K F K between only two stations, hence we can conclude
H L H L that G and H did not get down at station IV also.
D D
Hence, D and I get in at station II and G and H get
3. 1 down at station II. Also, we get that H gets in at
4. 4; Either two or three station I.
5. 2 Now, from clue 2, we get that C gets down before G.
This implies that C gets down at station I.
6. 2; C O R P O R A T I O N Again, from clue 3, we get that B and F get in before
D. This implies that B and F get in at base station.
Again, from clue 3, we get that B and F get down at
7. 4; Except it others are secondary colours or composite next station after D. This implies that, B and F did
colours. not get down at station VI (because no person gets
Note that red, green and blue are the primary colours. down at station V). And since D gets in at station II,
The colours obtained by mixing primary colours are this implies that B and F must have got down after
called secondary or composite colours. eg at least station III.
(i) Red + Blue = Magenta Thus, we can conclude that B and F get down at
(ii) Blue + Green = Cyan station IV and D gets down at station III.
(iii) Red + Green = Yellow Again, from clue 2, we get that C gets down at station
(iv) Red + Green + Blue = White I before G. This implies that C must have got in at the
8. 3; Only options 1) and 3) are close to the answer. Hence, base station. Also, we get that A and E must have
reject 2), 4) and 5). Now, reject 1) because it is a sort got in either at station IV or at station V. Hence, we
of restatement. Hence, for the choice 3). can conclude that J gets in at base station (see clue
9. 2 4) and get down at station I.
 Hence, by elimination, we get that A and E get down 25. 1; Input: boom honest 45 75 15 good 35 toy
at station VI. Step I: boom good honest 45 75 15 35 toy
But still we do not where I gets down among the Step II: boom good 75 honest 45 15 35 toy
stations III, IV and VI. Step III: boom good 75 45 honest 15 35 toy
Thus the whole information obtained can be Step IV: boom good 75 45 honest toy 15 35
summarised as below: Step V: boom good 75 45 honest toy 35 15
26. 4 27. 1 28. 2 29. 1 30. 5
Station Get in Get down (31-35):
Base Station B, C, F and J
I G and H C and J
II D and I G and H
III D
IV Only A or E B and F
V Only E or A
VI A and E
31. 2 32. 1 33. 3 34. 3 35. 4
12. 4 13. 3 14. 2 15. 3 16. 4 (36-40):

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17. 4; The position of the sun is not known.
18. 4; The information regarding weightage of all the Department Colony
papers is not known. Akhil IB Defence
19. 5; If different shapes have the same area, their Bharat Marketing Defence
perimeters are different. Hence, amounts of fencing
Divya Advertisement Vasant Kunj
will not be equal.
20. 5; From I and II: Follow the process as given below: Farhan Operation Shree Kunj
Suppose number of 1-point markers be x; and the Piyush Finance Defence
number of 2-point markers be y. Rupesh HR Shree Kunj
Now, according to the question, Sujata IT Shree Kunj
we get

KUNDAN
Tarun R&D Vasant Kunj
x + y = 60 ....(i)
and x + 2y = 83 .... (ii) 36. 5 37. 4 38. 3 39. 2 40. 3
x = 37 and y = 23. (41-42):
21. 5; From I and II: they have grown up sit pit dip ra ... (i)
#1 #2 #3 #4 grown up people pit ra tik ... (ii)
they are up again pit sit ja ka ... (iii)
x 2x 2x From (i), (ii) and (iii)
35 mm up pit ... (iv)
From the diagram given above From (i) and (ii)
we get 5x = 35 mm, ie x = 7 mm grown ra ... (v)
Hence, the required distance = 3 7 = 21 mm.
From (i) and (iii)
22. 1; Step III: boy earn 84 toy 20 22 pour 40
they sit ... (vi)
Step IV: boy earn 84 40 toy 20 22 pour
Step V: boy earn 84 40 pour toy 20 22 From (iv), (v) and (ii)
Step VI: boy earn 84 40 pour toy 22 20 people tik
Since, step VI is the last step (because all elements From (iv), (v), (vi) and (i)
of step III get arranged in step VI), step V is the have dip
required step (penultimate step or last but one.) From (vi), (iv) and (iii)
23. 4; Since it is a case of Arrangement, previous steps are/again ja/ka
cant be obtained with certainty. 41. 2 42. 4
24. 5; Input: buy 46 62 abandon 12 28 amuse beware 43. 3; A is uncalled for and C is absurd.
Step I: abandon buy 46 62 12 28 amuse beware
44. 4; Note that the problem here is denial of visa. Bad
Step II: abandon amuse buy 46 62 12 28 beware
relationship between the two countries seems to be
Step III: abandon amuse 62 buy 46 12 28 beware
the cause.
45. 1; Stock prices surge on the assumption of a higher Check for conclusion I.
profit.
46. 2; Statements: P = Q ... (i)
M<N ... (ii) Thus, I does not follow.
P<N ... (iii) Check for conclusion II.
J M ... (iv)
Conclusions: I. P > M II. N > J
Combining all the expressions
Thus, II does not hold true.
Q=P<N>M J
50. 4; Statements: L M ... (i)
Check for I. N> J ... (ii)
X M ... (iii)
Thus, I does not follow. L= N ... (iv)
Check for II. Conclusions: I. N < M II. N M
Combining all the expressions
X M L= N>J
Hence, conclusion II follows.
Check for I.
47. 4; Statements: C Q ... (i)

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L= T ... (ii)
D< C ... (iii)
L Q ... (iv) Check for II.
Conclusions: I. Q > L II. D > L
Combining all the expressions Then conclusion II does not follow.
D< C Q L=T 51. 3 52. 5 53. 1 54. 2 55. 4
Check for I. 56. 3 57. 2 58. 1 59. 5 60. 4
61. 2
62. 4; It should be but culturally too. So, add too after
Check for II. culturally.

KUNDAN
63. 3; Replace wherein with whereas.
64. 1; It should be From the point of view of. So, replace
Thus, II doesnt follow.
for with of.
48. 1; Statements: U < V ... (i) 65. 5
S C ... (ii) 66. 5; same
U F ... (iii) 67. 1; same
F>C ... (iv) 68. 3; opposite
Conclusions: I. V > C II. U > S 69. 1; In a vibrant democracy elections are not a silent
Combining all the expressions affair as it generates lot of difference of opinion,
V>U F>C S noise, confusion etc. Such features of elections
Check for I. show the certainty of a vibrant democracy.
70. 3; Opinion poll is conducted before polls in order to
look into the potential future behaviour by voters.
Thus, conclusion I is true. 71. 5; By having a level playing field where the contestants
Check for II. and voters are not subjected to unfair external
influences
72. 2; The exit polls ban argument is relevant only in multi-
Thus, II does not follow.
phased polls where the exit poll results of a prior
49. 4; Statements: T > R ... (i)
poll have a direct impact on the next poll. So, if polls
I E ... (ii)
are held in a single phase, banning exit polls would
T E ... (iii) be meaningless.
I= L ... (iv) 73. 3
Conclusions: I. E = R II. R > L 74. 4; Opinion polls are worse than exit polls because they
Combining all the expressions, generalise not from actual behaviour but from
L=I E T >R presumed and predicted behaviour.
 75. 3
15
76. 1 77. 5 78. 2 79. 4 80. 5 From ABC, tan =
81. 2 82. 1 83. 5 84. 2 85. 4 18
86. 2 87. 5 88. 1 89. 4 90. 3 H
91. 2 92. 1 93. 2 In DEF, tan =
45
6000 225
94. 1; ? = 70000 = 90000 70000 = 20000 15 H
15 or,
18 45
85 100
95. 1; ? = = 50 45 15
170 H= 37.5 m
0.00009 18
96. 5; ? = 0.003 0.0003 = 100 108. 5; Correct answer is 7 years.
97. 3 (200 120) m
1 109. 2; Speed of the train = 10 m / sec
98. 3; = 7 7 =7 (29 21) sec
(?) 3
In the first case,
? = (7)3 = 343
Distance = Speed Time = 10 29 = 290 m.
20 750 length of the train = 290 - 200 = 90 m.
99. 1; ? = = 93.75

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160 110. 3; LCM of 18, 21, 24 = 504
100. 4; ? =36 3.6 = 32.41 Since 18 - 7 = 21 - 10 = 24 - 13 = 11
The required number should be (504x - 11) where x is
101. 5; The series is 12 , 1, 2 2 , 2, 32 , 3 ... and so
any positive integer. We have to find the minimum
on. value of x such that (504x - 11) is divisible by 23.
Therefore, 41 should be replaced by 40. From the given choices, (3) satisfies the condition.
102. 4; The series is 13 12 , 23 2 2 , 33 32 , 4 3 4 2 , ... 111. 1; Area of circle r 2 1386
and so on. r = 21 cm.
Therefore, 120 should be replaced by 100. Length of the wire = Circumference of circle
103. 1; The series is (62 6), (52 5), (42 4), ... and so 44
21 132 cm

KUNDAN
on. So, 929 should be replaced by 930. =
7
104. 3; The series is 2 + 1.5, 2 + 2, 3 + 2.5, 3 + 3, 4 + 3.5, perimeter of the triangle = 132 cm
4 + 4 ... and so on. Here, 181 should be replaced by
132
181.5. and each side of the triangle = 44 cm
105. 4; The series is 2 + 1, 3 + 1, 4 + 1, ... and so on. Here, 3
384 should be replaced by 386. So, reqd enclosed area
106. 3; Let the total no. of monkeys = x2 3
= 44 44 484 3 sq cm
2 7 4
From the question, x x2 2 112. 2; `91800
2
113. 4; S = {1, 2, 3, ... 24, 25}
2x 2 7x 4 0
(x - 4) (2x +1) = 0 Event E = {2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17, 19, 23}
x=4 n ( E) 9
Hence, total no. = 42 = 16 P(E) =
n (S) 25
2 114. 3; Let the speed of the stream be x km/h.
reqd percentage = 100 12.5%
16 From the question,
40 40
107. 5; D 12
A 12 x 12 x
960
15 m H or, 12
144 x 2
B 18 m C
F or, 144 x 2 80
E 45 m
2
x 64
Value of will be the same for both the figures
x = 8 km/hr
(since time and place are the same).
 3 3 2400 6 4 121. 5; I. 3x 2 13x 14 0
115. 1; of SI = = `432
4 4 100 or, (3x + 7) (x + 2) = 0
432 100 7
reqd sum = = `2880 x = -2 or
5 3 3
116. 2; From I, we cant answer. As the statement is true for II. 3y 2 11y 10 0
a = 0, b = 4 (and also true for a = b). or, (y + 2) (3y + 5) = 0
1 1 5
y = -2 or
From II, a b a b
4 3
Hence, x y
b a 122. 2; I. 49x 2 84x 36 0
a b 4
ab or, 49x 42x 42x 36
2
0
a b
2
4ab or, (7x - 6) (7x - 6) = 0
6
a2 b2 2ab 4ab 0 x=
7
2

K
a b 0
II. 25y 2 30y 9 0
a=b
117. 1; From statement I: When he sells 5 pens less his or, 5y 3 2 0
profit decreases. It clearly means that he made profit
3
when he sold all the pens. y=
From statement II: When he reduces the selling 5
Hence x > y
price he loses `10. At the original selling price he
123. 3; Here, x = y = 7
might have got profit or loss or neither profit nor
loss. We cant conclude. 1 17 1
124. 2; I. x 4
x 4 4
x y
118. 5; From I, 36 x x + y = 72

KUNDAN
1
2 x = 4 or
From II, x : y = 5 : 3 4
from I & II both, x = 45, y = 27 II. 4y 2 17 y 4 0
119. 5; Using both the statements,
or, 4 y 2 16y y 4 0
Let the share of B = x
and share of A = x + 500 or, (y + 4) (4y + 1) = 0
1
200 y = -4 or
share of C = 2x 500 4x 1000 4
100 Hence x > y.
In the question, the sum of their shares is given 125. 4; I. x 2 9x 18 0
(`4500).
or, (x - 6) (x - 3) = 0
Therefore, now we can find out the share of B =
x = 6 or 3
`500.
120. 3; From I, Ratio of their profits II. 2y 2 5y 3 0
= (3 12) : (2 9) = 2 : 1 or, (y 3) (2y + 1) = 0
2 1
share of Atul = 24000 = `16000 y= or 3
3 2
From II, let the profit of Atul = x Hence, x y .
x 126. 2; Total sales in 1996 and 1999
profit of Kundan = 50% of x = = 10 + 25 = 35 lakh tonnes
2
Total production in 1996 and 1999
x = 12.5 + 27.5 = 40 lakh tonnes
Since, x = `24000
2 35
x = `16000 Reqd percentage = 100 87.5%
Hence, either statement is sufficient. 40
127. 5; Percentage of sales to production: 136. 2; Let the expenditure of Co. x in 1998 = 100
1996 1997 1998 1999 2000 2001 income of x = 125
80 93.33 90 90.9 87.5 95.24 125
And exp. of co. y =
2
18 14
128. 4; Per cent increase in sales = 100 28.57% 125 120
14 Income of co. y = 75
129. 3; Average production 2 100
12.5 15 20 27.5 24 21 125
= Hence, reqd ratio = 5:3
6 75
120 137. 5; 2001
= 20 lakh tonnes
6 138. 5; Actual expenditure cant be found only from the
130. 5; Reqd difference = (12.5 - 10) + (15 - 14) + (20 - 18) + given graph. Hence, we cant compare the
(27.5 - 25) + (24 - 21) + (21 - 20) = 12 lakh tonnes expenditure of the two cos.
131. 4; Average percentage of marks (of girls) 139. 1; 15 : 23
72 76 48 140. 3; Let the expenditure of the company in 1996 = 100
= 65.33
3 Income = 112.5 and profit = 12.5
132. 5; Marks obtained by the boys (in Hindi)

K
= (75% of 60) + (65% of 60) + (70% of 60) 12.5
= 45 + 39 + 42 = 126 So, reqd profit = 675 = `75 lakhs
112.5
Marks obtained by the girls 141. 1 142. 5 143. 1 144. 1 145. 3
= (65% of 60) + (75% of 60) + (45% of 60)
146. 3 147. 1 148. 4 149. 3 150. 2
= 27 + 39 + 45 = 111
Reqd difference = 126 - 111 = 15 151. 1 152. 2 153. 2 154. 2 155. 3
133. 3; In Hindi, she has got only 39 marks. 156. 2 157. 2 158. 4 159. 4 160. 4
134. 2; Total marks gained by Rani 161. 3 162. 1 163. 3 164. 1 165. 1
= (90% of 120) + (48% of 75) + (75% of 60) + (68% of 166. 2 167. 4 168. 3 169. 2 170. 5
75) + (76% of 150) + (88% of 50)
171. 2 172. 4 173. 4 174. 4 175. 2
= 108 + 36 + 45 + 51 + 114 + 44 = 398

KUNDAN
135. 3; Average marks in Economics 176. 5 177. 3 178. 3 179. 2 180. 2
181. 3 182. 4 183. 2 184. 2 185. 4
92 80 52 64 88 68
= % of 75 186. 1 187. 1 188. 3 189. 2 190. 1
6
191. 2 192. 3 193. 3 194. 4 195. 4
444
= 75 55.5 196. 1 197. 2 198. 4 199. 1 200. 4
6 100
K
KUNDAN
 PRACTICE SET-3
1) Son 2) Nephew
Test-I: Reasoning Ability 3) Grandson 4) Son-in-law
5) Brother
Directions (Q. 1-5): Study the following information to 7. If Raju finds that he is 12th from the right in a row of
answer the given questions. boys and 4th from the left, how many boys should be
A word and number arrangement machine when given added to the row such that there are 28 boys in the row?
an input line of words and numbers rearranges them following 1) 11 2) 12 3) 13
a particular rule. The following is an illustration of an input 4) 14 5) None of these
and rearrangement. (All the numbers are two-digit numbers.) Directions (Q. 8-10): Study the following information
Input: goat 70 99 jump nor 80 fox 78 72 bids sit 75 carefully and answer the given questions following it.
Step I: bids goat 70 jump nor 80 fox 78 72 sit 75 99 (i) P Q means Q is the mother of P.
Step II: fox bids goat 70 jump nor 78 72 sit 75 99 80 (ii) P - Q means P is the brother of Q.
Step III: goat fox bids 70 jump nor 72 sit 75 99 80 78 (iii) P + Q means P is the father of Q.
Step IV: jump goat fox bids 70 nor 72 sit 99 80 78 75 (iv) P Q means Q is the sister of P.
Step V: nor jump goat fox bids 70 sit 99 80 78 75 72 8. Which of the following means M is the son of K?
Step VI: sit nor jump goat fox bids 99 80 78 75 72 70
1) M + L K 2) L M + K 3) M L K
And Step VI is the last step of the above input.
4) M - L K 5) None of these
As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in
9. Which of the following means D is the aunt of B?
each of the following questions, the appropriate step
1) A B - C + D 2) A B C D
for the given input.
3) A + B C D 4) D - C + B A
Input: 10 get 89 41 ace bed done 45 nor 73 60 made
5) None of these
1. How many steps will be required to complete the
rearrangement? 10. Which of the following statements is/are redundant to
1) Six 2) Seven answer the previous question no. 9?
3) Eight 4) Nine 1) Only (i) 2) Only (ii)
5) None of these 3) Only (ii) and (iii) 4) Only either (i) or (ii)
2. Which of the following represents the position of 73 in 5) None of these
Step V? Directions (Q. 11-15): Read the following information
1) Fourth from the left 2) Fourth from the right carefully and answer the questions given below.
3) Fifth from the right 4) Sixth from the left Seven playersAnil, Bhusan, Chaman, Dayal, Ela,
5) None of these Farhan, and Gitabelong to three different cities
3. Which word/number would be at the seventh position Hyderabad, Mumbai and Bangalore. Three of them play chess
from the left in the third step? and two each play badminton and hockey. One chess player
1) 41 2) 60 3) get is from each of these cities. Chaman plays badminton and is
4) 45 5) None of these from Bangalore. Dayal and Gita are the only players from
4. Which step number is the following output? Hyderabad and Dayal plays hockey. No two players
get done bed ace 10 41 nor made 89 73 60 45 belonging to the same city play the same game. None of the
1) Step I 2) Step II 3) Step III hockey players is from Bangalore. Farhan is from Bangalore.
4) Step IV 5) Step V Bhusan doesnt play either chess or badminton. Ela does not
5. Which will be the second step? play badminton.
1) 10 get 89 41 ace bed done 45 nor 73 60 made 11. Which game does Farhan play?
2) ace 10 get 41 bed done 45 nor 73 60 made 89 1) Badminton 2) Chess
3) bed ace 10 get 41 done 45 nor 60 made 89 73 3) Hockey 4) Data inadequate
4) get done bed ace 10 41 nor made 89 73 60 45 5) None of these
5) None of these 12. In which city all the games are played by the players?
6. Pointing to a photograph, a woman says, This mans 1) Hyderabad 2) Mumbai
sons sister is my mother-in-law. How is the womans 3) Bangalore 4) Data inadequate
husband related to the man in the photograph? 5) None of these
13. Which of the following pairs of players play Chess? 1) 7 9 5 2) 5 9 3 3) 6 9 7
1) Gita, Ela, Anil 2) Anil, Ela, Dayal 4) 5 7 6 5) None of these
3) Ela, Chaman, Gita 4) Ela, Farhan, Anil 23. What is the code for are?
5) Farhan, Gita, Ela 1) 9 2) 7 3) 5
14. Which of the following pairs of players play all the three 4) 6 5) 3
games? 24. Which of the following can represent Delhi is beautiful
1) Anil, Ela, Chaman 2) Ela, Farhan, Anil capital?
3) Gita, Ela, Anil 4) Ela, Bhusan, Anil 1) 6 9 5 3 2) 3 5 6 7 3) 5 7 6 4
5) None of these 4) 6 7 4 9 5) 9 7 5 6
15. Which game does Anil play? 25. What does 5 represents in this code?
1) Chess 2) Hockey 1) Delhi 2) beautiful
3) Badminton 4) None of these 3) capital 4) Patna
5) Data inadequate 5) Cannot be determined
Directions (Q. 16-20): These questions are based on Directions (Q. 26-30): These questions are based on
the following information. the following information.
Seven BoysSaurav, Karan, Pawan, Gautam, Dhananjay, Five people P, Q, R, S, T are sitting on a straight line
Harshit and Rahul are sitting in a row facing the same direction. facing South. Another group V, W, X, Y, Z is sitting facing
We have the following information about their arrangement North. The two groups are facing each other.

K
Dhananjay is two places away from Pawan. Rahul is to the S is facing V and second to the right of T, who is sitting
left of Saurav. Karan is three places away to the right of on a corner. Y is second to the left of Z. R is third to the right
Harshit. Saurav is to the immediate right of Dhanajay. There of P. W is sitting on left corner.
are exactly three boys between Gautam and Saurav. 26. Which of the following pairs is facing towards each
16. Find the number of boys who are between Dhananjay other?
and Gautam. 1) PV 2) TW 3) RV
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) YQ 5) ZQ
4) 4 5) Cant be determine 27. Which of the following pairs is sitting on the corner of
17. If Harshit is second from the left end of the row, who is at the line facing North?
the extreme right of the row? 1) XY 2) VX 3) WV
1) Saurav 2) Karan 4) ZW 5) XW

KUNDAN
3) Pawan 4) Gautam 28. What is the position of Y with reference to X?
5) Cant be determine 1) fourth right 2) third left 3) third right
18. Rahul is the third from the left end of the row, then at 4) second right 5) None of these
what place is Saurav from the right end of the row? 29. Which of the following is sitting exactly in the middle of
1) Second 2) Third 3) Fourth the line facing South?
4) Fifth 5) Immediate 1) S 2) Q 3) T
19. If Pawan is third from left end of the row, then find the 4) P 5) R
number of boys who are between Saurav and Harshit? 30. If R is related to X and T is related to W in a certain way,
1) None 2) One 3) Two then which of the following would be related to each
4) Three 5) Four other, following the same pattern?
20. If Rahul is two places away to the right of Harshit, then 1) QZ 2) PY
who is at the extreme right of the row? 3) SY 4) Both (1) and (2)
1) Pawan 2) Saurav 3) Karan 5) None of these
4) Goutam 5) Rahul Directions (Q. 31-35): Following questions are based
Directions (Q. 21-25): These questions are based on on the information given below.
the following information. Tom, Joy, Ricky, Smith, Nickole, Moorie and Megan are
In a certain code, Delhi is capital is coded as 7 5 9, seven friends who left for seven different destinations
capital are beautiful is coded as 3 6 9, Delhi is beautiful is Australia, England, South Africa, Ireland, Canada, Holand
coded as 6 7 5, Patna also capital is coded as 9 2 4. and Zimbabweeach one on a different day of the week.
21. What is the code for beautiful? Ricky left for Zimbabwe on Monday. On the last day of the
1) 2 2) 4 3) 5 week, the person left for Ireland. Nickole left on the next day
4) 6 5) 7 of Tom, who left for Holand on the next day of Megan. Smith
22. Which of the following can represent capital is left for Canada on Friday. Joy left neither for South Africa nor
beautiful? for Ireland and Megan left for Australia.
31. On which day of the week did Joy leave? 36. An interest in life science is an essential qualification to
1) Sunday 2) Saturday specialise in the field of pharmaceuticals.
3) Wednesday 4) Data inadequate 37. There is a good range of employment opportunities for
5) None of these specialisers.
32. Who left for Ireland? 38. All those who want to become a doctor but fail, end up
1) Nickole 2) Tom in pharmacy.
3) Moorie 4) Data inadequate 39. Below 5000 manufacture units are involved in making
5) None of these bulk drugs.
33. On which day of the week did Nicole leave? 40. Indigenous companies are accumulating huge profits as
1) Tuesday 2) Thursday compared to multinational companies.
3) Sunday 4) Wednesday Directions (Q. 41-45): In each of the questions below
5) None of these are given four statements followed by four conclusions
34. Which of the following combinations of person-place is numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to assume everything in
not correct? the statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance
1) Ricky-Zimnbabwe 2) Tom-Holand with commonly known facts and then decide which of the
3) Nickole-SA 4) Moorie-Ireland four given conclusions logically follows from the statements,
5) All correct disregarding commonly known facts, and select the
35. Who left on Tuesday? appropriate answer.

K
1) Tom 2) Megan 3) Joy 41. Statements: Some numbers are digits.
4) Moorie 5) None of these All digits are alphabets.
Directions (Q. 36-40): Below is given a passage followed No alphabet is a vowel.
by several possible inferences which can be drawn from the All consonants are vowels.
facts stated in the passage. You have to examine each Conclusions: I. No digit is a vowel.
inference separately in the context of the passage and decide II. No alphabet is a consonant.
upon its degree of truth or falsity. Mark answer III. No vowel is a number.
1) if the inference is definitely true, ie it properly IV. All vowels are numbers.
follows from the statement of facts given. 1) Only I and III follow
2) if the inference is probably true though not 2) Only II and IV follow
definitely true in the light of the facts given. 3) Only I and II follow

KUNDAN
3) if the data are inadequate, ie from the facts given 4) Only I, II and III follow
you cannot say whether the inference is likely to be 5) Only I , II and either III or IV follow
true or false. 42. Statements: All documents are files.
4) if the inference is probably false though not Some files are papers.
definitely false in the light of the facts given. All papers are certificates.
5) if the inference is definitely false, ie it cannot No certificate is a manuscript.
possibly be drawn from the facts given or it contradicts Conclusions: I. At least some documents are papers.
the given facts. II. No manuscript is a document.
Pharmaceutical science involves the synthesis and mass III. At least some certificates are files.
manufacture of drugs from natural and synthetic sources for IV. No paper is a document.
the treatment and prevention of diseases. Doctors rely on 1) Only I , II and IV follow
pharmaceutical companies for the development of new and 2) Only II and III follow
more effective drugs to combat diseases. Today, 3) Only I and IV follow
pharmaceutical sector is a highly competitive sector with lots 4) Only III follows
of companies competing for supremacy and market control. 5) None of these
Pharmacists are concerned with production, productive 43. Statements: No group is people.
processes, quality control and testing of drugs. All people are animals.
According to Indian government statistics, today the All animals are plants.
market comprises over 25000 manufacturing units; one-fifth All plants are roots.
of them involved in making bulk drugs. The fact that the Conclusions: I. No group is a plant.
industry has been showing nearly 10 per cent growth, II. All people are plants.
indicates the potential it has. With liberalisation in practice, III. At least some groups are plants.
there are many job opportunities opening up, especially in IV. All plants are groups.
multinational pharmaceutical companies.
 1) Only II follows 2) There are many institutes which have better
2) Only I and IV follow infrastructure than College XYZ.
3) Only II and III follow 3) The rate of enrolment in College XYZ has come down
4) Only III and IV follow in recent years.
5) None of these 4) Majority of the institutes have contradicted the
44. Statements: Some jobs are vacancies. findings of the magazine Pulse.
All jobs are works. 5) None of these
No work is a trade. 48. Statements: There are several types of wrist watches in
All professions are trades. the world. A new type of digital wrist watch has been
Conclusions: I. At least some works are jobs. introduced in the market which can calculate the life span
II. No vacancy is a trade. of a person. The wrist watch stops when the person
III. No profession is a work. dies.
IV. At least some works are professions. Which of the following can be concluded from the facts
1) All I, II, III and IV follow given in the statements?
2) Only II, III and IV follow 1) This could lead to chaos and confusion in the world.
3) Only I and IV follow 2) A person can know how long his life is left and he
4) None follows could live his life happily.
5) Only I and III follow 3) The new wrist watch has altered the life pattern of the

K
45. Statements: All marks are grades. people.
No grade is a score. 4) The statement implies that death is certain.
All letters are scores. 5) None of these
All scores are characters. 49. Statements: The United States-based FMCG company
Conclusions: I. At least some letters are grades. has developed a new deodorant. The company selected
II. At least some scores are grades. a mediaperson couple for its promotion and marketing.
III. At least some characters are marks. They marketed it through television, radio, print, hoarding
IV. Some characters are letters. and social media.
1) Only II and IV follow Which of the assumptions is implicit in the above
2) Only IV follows statements? (An assumption is something supposed or
3) Only I and III follow taken for granted)

KUNDAN
4) All I, II, III and IV follow
5) None follows
46. Statements: A country X has no national gun act. There
is no firearms control and licensing mechanism in the
country. The general public is free to acquire gun. The
people require arms for their safety. This has ultimately
increased the crime rate considerably in the country.
Which of the following inferences can be drawn from
the above statements?
1) It is not necessary to license gun or firearms.
2) The gun or firearms act is opposed by the people of
the country.
3) The Government should make all necessary
arrangements to enact firearms act.
4) Many countries in the world have no firearms act
5) None of these
47. Statement: According to a survey conducted by a
magazine Pulse, College XYZ ranked best among all the
MBA institutes in the country.
Which of the following statements substantiates the fact
expressed in the above statement?
1) A large number of students of College XYZ find better
placement after completing their course.
1) People do not pay heed to advertisements and buy
such goods as are available easily.
2) Marketing through electronic media has not proved
to be very effective.
3) People want to see film stars and famous sports
personality in the advertisement of an FMCG product.
4) Some people may tend to buy the deodorant of the
United States-based FMCG company.
5) None of these
50. Statement: The luxury car manufacturer Phantom has
increased the price of its stunning, fastest limousine car
by about 45 per cent.
Which of the following can be the best possible reason
for the above step taken by the car manufacturer?
1) The government is planning to review taxes on the
raw materials for manufacturing cars.
2) The car sales market is going through a jubilant phase
as the volume of sales has picked up considerably in
the recent past.
3) The limousine car is the best in its segment and no
other car is posing any challenge to this car.
4) Car buyers prefer to buy limousine car as it provides
efficient after-sales service.
5) None of these

Test-II: English Language
Directions (Q. 51-65): Read the following passage
carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain
words are given in bold to help you locate them while
answering some of the questions.
In any lively democracy the press and the politician have
a healthy mutual need. When politicians, political parties and
governments want to be heard they go in search of the press,
among other vital ingredients. With Indias highly politicised
reading public and a cynical middle class, unless there is a
political twist given to a speech, an iftar party or a meeting on
the front page, the newspaper would fold up or at least so
the media believes. If a political party is particularly idle it will
use a front-page twist to raise a storm in Parliament sometimes
without bothering to ascertain the facts. All this is accepted
as fair game as long as not much harm is done. However, the
K
very sine qua non of any story claiming to be news rather
than views has to be the unadulterated truth. Anything short
of verified truth can only be presented as opinion, speculation
or allegation. Without this, the edifice of credibility that a free
press is accorded in a democracy would crumble.
In dictatorships or controlled democracies the press must
write the truth as the ruling establishment wishes it to be
written. The Big Lie comes from on high. The press can then
rightly claim that their freedom is curtailed and disclaim
responsibility for presenting the truth. However, in a
KUNDAN
democracy in which the press has complete freedom to write
about anything it pleases, the responsibility for presenting
the truth and nothing but the truth devolves on the media.
A journalist being human and fallible is subject to the
same laws and rights as any other citizen. There is no right
given to him that overrides the rights of other individuals
and no law he need not bow before no matter what the
motivation for his story. It is only at the time of according
punishment to a lawbreaker that the judge can consider the
circumstances under which the crime was committed, but a
journalist cannot quote public interest to justify breaking a
law. Even a person from a law enforcement agency has the
right to drive through a red light only if he is on an authorised
mission to chase a suspected criminal.
It is also important to remember that freedom of expression
is a right given by the Constitution as much to the individual
as it is to the press. The right of the press to write about
persons is no less than the right of those persons to give
their version to the same public through whatever means
there are at their disposals, including through the press. It is
for the press to respect that right as a natural corollary of its
own right. Just as a reporter is unhappy if the proprietor is
unhappy, if the ruling establishment curtails the freedom of
the press, the ordinary citizen, be he the reader or the subject
matter of a story in the media, has the right to uncurtailed and
undiluted expression of his version and view of events. If
this two-way process did not exist and the press claimed the
unilateral right to freedom of expression in the garb of press
freedom, it would amount to the dictatorship of the press.
In the age of media trials and sensationalism it is even
more important that those in the media who genuinely believe
that democratic and civil rights take priority over profits
remember their responsibility to adhere to the truth, the law
and specified journalistic ethics.
51. What makes the political leaders get closer to the media?
1) to obtain information about their adversaries
2) to voice their opinion on different matters in public
and gain publicity
3) to settle political scores
4) to interfere with the functioning of the media
5) None of these
52. Why is it that a political twist given to a speech, iftar
party or a meeting is published on the front page of a
newspaper?
1) because politics has creeped into every area of human
activity
2) because of growing competition among newspapers
to make political issues their first priority
3) because of the hold of political leader on the masses
4) because the reader has little interest in other issues
5) None of these
53. What do you mean by the expression sine qua non as
used in the passage?
1) essential condition 2) root of information
3) place of origin 4) after-effect
5) None of these
54. Which of the following is true in the context of the
passage?
1) A journalist has got more powers regarding the right
to information than an ordinary citizen.
2) A journalist has the authority to break the law only in
matters of public interest.
3) Press is not as free in a dictatorship as in a democracy.
4) Freedom of expression is only meant for the press
and not for people in general.
5) None of these
55. How can the credibility of a free press in a democratic
setup be ensured?
1) by the press providing information on aspects other
than mere political issues
2) by publishing human interest stories
3) by giving equal space to every political party
4) by exposing corruption and malpractices prevalent in
the system
5) None of these
56. What is the basic difference between the functioning of Directions (Q. 63-65): Choose the word which is the
the press in a dictatorial regime and in a democracy? opposite in meaning of the word given in bold as used in the
1) While in a dictatorship the rulers are the subject-matter passage.
for the press, in a democracy it is the people. 63. CURTAILED
2) While in a dictatorship the rulers sponsor the press, 1) guaranteed 2) extended 3) assured
in a democracy sponsorship comes from the people. 4) allowed 5) paved
3) While in a dictatorship the press has to be loyal to 64. UNILATERAL
the ruling class in any condition, such is not the case 1) bilateral 2) multilingual 3) universal
in a democracy. 4) global 5) basic
4) There is little public support to the press in a 65. ADHERE
dictatorship whereas it commands full public support 1) oppose 2) deny 3) counter
in a democracy. 4) defy 5) criticism
5) None of these Directions (Q. 66-70): In each of the following questions
57. Even a person from a law enforcement agency has the four words are given, of which two words are most nearly the
right to drive through a red light only if he is on an same or opposite in meaning. Find the two words which are
authorised mission to chase a suspected criminal. most nearly the same or opposite in meaning and indicate
This means the number of the correct letter combination in your answer.
1) Law can only permit one to break the law. 66. A) Curb B) Courage

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2) No one is above law and all are equal on the parameters C) Control D) Identity
of law. 1) A - B 2) B - C 3) C - D
3) Law always takes its own course. 4) A - C 5) B - D
4) Only a person from a law enforcement agency has the 67. A) Components B) Ornamentation
right to break the law. C) Accessories D) Attachments
5) One can break the law if situation demands. 1) A - D 2) B - D 3) C - D
58. Which of the following is false in the context of the 4) A - C 5) B - C
passage? 68. A) Eagerly B) Radically
1) Politicians approach the press to be heard. C) Vigorously D) Severely
2) Any news story has to be factual. 1) A - C 2) B - D 3) B - C
3) Press is a free institution whether in a democracy or 4) A - B 5) C - D

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in a dictatorship. 69. A) Spurious B) Authorised
4) Any item published without having truth in it may be C) Attested D) Genuine
considered as views and not news. 1) A - D 2) A - C 3) A - B
5) None of these 4) B - D 5) B - C
59. What is the main theme of the passage? 70. A) Sensitive B) Immune
1) responsibilities of a free media C) Vulnerable D) Covered
2) media and politics 1) A - B 2) B - C 3) C - D
3) media and sensationalism 4) A - C 5) A - D
4) abuse of freedom of expression Directions: (Q. 71-75): In each of the following
5) None of these sentences there are two blank spaces. Below each sentence
Directions (Q. 60-62): Choose the word which is the there are five pairs of words denoted by numbers 1), 2), 3), 4)
same in meaning as the word given in bold as used in the and 5). Find out which pair of words can be filled up in the
passage. blanks in the sentence in the same sequence to make it
60. ASCERTAIN meaningfully complete.
1) examine 2) scrutinise 3) discover 71. A number of scientists in the country think that they are
4) approve 5) dismantle on the ________ of a major ________.
61. CRUMBLE 1) centre, achievement 2) gateway, breakthrough
1) buckle 2) ruin 3) periphery, success 4) threshold, overhaul
3) jolt 4) surrender 5) frontier, experimentation
5) collapse 72. Diseases are easily ________ through ________ with
62. COROLLARY infected animals.
1) occurrence 2) phenomenon 1) transferred, affinity 2) transported, closeness
3) ingredient 4) subsequent 3) transplanted, serving 4) transmitted, contact
5) consequence 5) generated, entertainment
73. You must ________ your house in order before you 84. 1) wherein 2) which 3) that
________ to offer advice to others. 4) how 5) when
1) set, venture 2) arrange, proceed 85. 1) difference 2) reduction 3) margin
3) organise, preach 4) adjust, think 4) deduction 5) cut
5) maintain, dare Directions (Q. 86-90): Read each sentence to find out
74. The Indian government should take ________ whether there is any grammatical or idiomatic error in it.
________ to check terrorist activities in Jammu & The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The
Kashmir. number of that part is the answer. If there is No error, the
1) bold, policy answer is 5). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)
2) urgent, measurement 86. 1) To project Dr Ambedkar as / 2) just a Dalit icon, or treat
3) firm, steps him like / 3) a prophet, does not do / 4) justice of his
4) courageous, activities memory. / 5) No error
5) concrete, deployment 87. 1) An amaging magical place which / 2) is a fine synthesis
75. Indias relations with Pakistan are once again at of / 3) spiritual and natural / 4) wonder is Ladakh. / 5) No
________ ________. error
1) unprecedented, tense 88. 1) He lost both his legs / 2) on the day he was / 3) going
2) abnormal, hostility to write Delhi University / 4) BEd entrance exam. / 5) No
3) dispute, stages error

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4) conflict, position
89. 1) All men between / 2) eighteen to forty-five without
5) low, ebb
exception / 3) are expected to serve / 4) in the army during
Direction (Q. 76-85): In the following passage, some of
a war. / 5) No error
the words have been left out, each of which is indicated by a
number. Find the suitable word from the options given against 90. 1) Our neighbours are / 2) old fashioned and / 3) are very
each number and fill up the blanks with appropriate words to strictly / 4) with their children / 5) No error
make the paragraph meaningful.
A Surendran, Additional General Manager of
International Banking at Federal Bank, said banks expected
Test-III: Quantitative Aptitude
about $10 billion to (76) in. The (77) of these inflows will be
seen only in the next (78). There may be an impact now but Directions (Q. 91-95): What should come in place of

KUNDAN
not a major one, as these (79) have to be fresh deposits or the question mark (?) in the following questions?
renewal of deposits, he said. 91. [(192)2 64 24] 48 = ?
Reports say the total NRE, NRO (non-resident ordinary) 1) 83000 2) 82944 3) 82954
and FCNR deposits are at $51.97 billion as in October 2011. If 4) 82950 5) None of these
one (80) a one per cent (81) in the value of rupee and takes 92. 555.55 + 55.55 + 15 + 0.55 + 0.05 = ?
(82) account the (83) rates in other countries, NRIs have an 1) 626.65 2) 626.50 3) 625.70
option (84) they could borrow from their home countries and 4) 626.70 5) None of these
deposit in India, thereby making a clear (85) of 1-2 per cent. 93. (21% of 1326) (17% of 932) = ?
76. 1) grow 2) blow 3) flow 1) 120.02 2) 206.05 3) 240.04
4) go 5) call 4) 120.20 5) None of these
77. 1) produce 2) consequent 3) resultant
4) impact 5) reaction 94. 182.25 = ?
78. 1) time 2) fiscal 3) year 1) 11.25 2) 12.5 3) 13.5
4) mensem 5) plan 4) 14.5 5) None of these
79. 1) tenders 2) money 3) cash
1 1
4) credits 5) deposits
80. 1) thinks 2) lends 3) assumes 95. (1331) 3 (343) 3 = ?
4) borrows 5) feels 1) 2 2) 5 3) 4
81. 1) grow 2) appreciation 3) plus 4) 3 5) None of these
4) dividend 5) cut Directions (Q. 96-100): What should come in place of
82. 1) into 2) for 3) in question mark (?) in the following number series?
4) to 5) out 96. 11 13 17 19 23 29 31 37 ?
83. 1) prime 2) lending 3) pulse 1) 47 2) 43 3) 41
4) increase 5) depreciation 4) 39 5) None of these
97. 165 195 255 285 345 ? 108. What is the sum of two consecutive odd numbers, the
1) 375 2) 420 3) 435 difference of whose squares is 64?
4) 390 5) None of these 1) 33 2) 18 3) 24
98. 7 26 63 124 215 342 ? 4) 25 5) 32
1) 481 2) 511 3) 391 109. The speed of a boat in still water is 15 kmph and rate of
4) 421 5) 451 current is 3 kmph, then distance travelled downstream in
99. 2 4 12 48 240 ? 20 minutes is
1) 1920 2) 960 3) 1080 1) 6 km 2) 5.8 km 3) 4 km
4) 1440 5) None of these 4) 7 km 5) 5 km
100. 8 7 11 12 14 17 17 22 ? 110. Ramesh starts a business with `8000 and after 18 months,
1) 20 2) 22 3) 24 Suresh joins Ramesh as his partner. After 6 years the
4) 27 5) None of these profit is divided in the ratio 2 : 3. What is Sureshs
101. What is the probability of getting a sum 9 from two contribution in the capital?
throws of a dice? 1) `8000 2) `16000 3) `24000
4) `32000 5) None of these
1 1 1
1) 2) 3) Directions (Q. 111-115): Study the following graph
6 8 9 carefully and answer accordingly:
1 The following graph shows the registration of
4) 5) None of these

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new vehicles in Delhi in 2014.
12
102. Two dice are tossed. Probability that total score is in
prime number is 50 Cars Total Vehicles 45

1 5 1 45
36 36
1) 2) 3)
No. (in thousands)

40
6 12 2 35 27
30 25
7 22
4) 5) None of these 25
28
9 20
103. X alone can do a piece of work in 8 days and Y alone in 15 21 20
10 17
10 days. X and Y undertook to do it for `4800. With the 15 15

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help of Z they do it in 4 days. How much is to be paid to 5
Y? 0
1) `1200 2) `480 3) `580 Jan Feb Mar Apr May Jun
4) `1820 5) `1920
104. Sunil can do a piece of work in 14 days. Raj is 40% more 111. What was the difference between the number of cars
efficient than Sunil. The number of days taken by Raj to registered in January and that in June?
do the same piece of work is 1) 2000 2) 6000 3) 4000
1) 12 days 2) 10 days 3) 8 days 4) 13000 5) None of these
4) 9 days 5) None of these 112. What was the number of vehicles other than cars
105. A sum of money at simple interest amounts to `945 in registered in March 2014?
4 years and to `964 in 5 years. The sum is 1) 5000 2) 37000 3) 40000
1) `687 2) ` 869 3) ` 589 4) 10000 5) None of these
4) `574 5) ` 458 113. What was the percentage increase in the number of
106. Two trains running in opposite directions cross a man vehicles other than car registered from January to June?
standing on the platform in 24 seconds and 15 seconds 1) 200% 2) 183.33% 3) 190%
respectively and they cross each other in 21 seconds. 4) 180% 5) None of these
Ratio of their speed is 114. In which of the following months the % registration of
1) 2 : 1 2) 1 : 2 3) 1 : 3 cars with respect to the previous month the maximum?
4) 2 : 3 5) 3 : 4 1) February 2) March 3) June
107. Raj went to a shop and bought things worth `24, out of 4) April 5) None of these
which 28 paise went on sale tax on taxable purchases. If 115. In which of the following months was the registration of
the tax rate was 4%, then what is the cost of tax free item? vehicles other than cars the maximum?
1) `17.28 2) `15.72 3) `16.72 1) April 2) June 3) May
4) `17 5) `14.72 4) March 5) None of these
 Directions (Q. 116-120): Each of the questions below 123. I. 4p 2 5p 1 0
consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II II. 80q 2 18q 1 0
given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided
124. I. 4p + 8q = 3
in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read
the question and both the statements and give answer II. 12p + 16q = 7
1) if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer 125. I. q 2 9q 14 0
the question, while the data in statement II alone are II. p 2 23p 112 0
not sufficient to answer the question. Directions (Q. 126-130): Study the following graph
2) if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer carefully and answer accordingly:
the question, while the data in statement I alone are The following graph shows the percentage
not sufficient to answer the question. profit of two companies over the years
3) if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II 80
alone are sufficient to answer the question. 75
70 70
4) if the data even in both the statements I and II together 65
60 60
are not sufficient to answer the question.
5) if the data in both the statements I and II together are 50 50
50 45
necessary to answer the question. 40 40 35 50
35
116. A train running at a certain speed crosses a platform in 30 30

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20 secs. What is the speed of the train? 25
20 20
I. Length of the train is 132 m.
10 A B
II. The train crosses a man who is on the platform in 11
seconds. 0
117. The weights of A, B and C are in the ratio of 8 : 7 : 5. As 1996 1997 1998 1999 2000 2001 2002
weight is 60% more than Cs. Find the weight of B. Year
I. Total weight of A, B and C is 100 kg. 126. If the difference between the income of company B in
II. Difference between As and Cs weights is 15 kg. 2002 and that of A in 1997 was `405 lakhs, what was the
118. A shopkeeper sells some articles, taking profit of 20% on difference between the expenditure of company B in 2002
the cost price. Find the amount of profit. and that of A in 1997?
I. Cost price of the article is `1200. 1) `325 lakhs 2) `350 lakhs

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II. Selling price of the article is `240 more than the cost 3) `300 lakhs 4) Cant be determined
price. 5) None of these
119. A 180-m-long plot of rectangular land is to be fenced. 127. In which of the following years is the ratio of expenditure
Find the cost of fencing per square metre. to income for company B the least?
I. Breadth of the rectangular plot is 30 m. 1) 1999 2) 1996
II. Length of the rectangular plot is 60 m. 3) 2001 4) 1998
120. The difference between the simple interest and the 5) 2000
compound interest on a sum of money at the end of four 128. If the income of company A in 2000 was equal to the
years is `641. Find the sum. expenditure of company B in 1997, find the ratio of the
I. Amount of simple interest accrued after four years is income of company B in 1997 to the expenditure of
`4000. company A in 2000.
II. Rate of interest is 10% per annum. 1) 8 : 15 2) 5 : 6
Directions (Q. 121-125): For the two given equations 3) 6 : 5 4) 15 : 8
I and II give answer 5) None of these
1) if p is greater than q 129. If the income of company A in 2002 was `660 lakhs, find
2) if p is smaller than q the expenditure of company A in the same year.
3) if p is equal to q 1) `600 lakhs 2) `450 lakhs
4) if p is either equal to or greater than q
3) `400 lakhs 4) Data inadequate
5) if p is either equal to or smaller than q
5) None of these
121. I. 3p + 4q = 5 130. If the income of company B in 1998 was `450 lakhs, find
II. p + 2q = 2 the expenditure of company B in 2000.
122. I. 2q 2 3q 1 0 1) `300 lakhs 2) `400 lakhs
II. 2p 2 5p 3 0 3) `675 lakhs 4) Cant be determined
5) None of these
 Directions (Q. 131-135): Study the following table Directions (Q. 136-140): Study the following pie-charts
carefully and answer accordingly: below and answer the questions that follow:
The following table shows the major Classification of candidates from different states who
currencies in Dollar terms appeared and qualified in a competitive exam
MP
Pound Deutsch Yen
Date Euro Gujarat UP
Sterling Mark (100 units) 10%
5% 18%
May 19 1.5088 0.4739 0.9164 0.9269
7%
Mumbai 15% Bihar
May 20 1.4991 0.4727 0.9141 0.9246 12%
20% 13% Punjab
May 21 1.4989 0.4735 0.9113 0.9262
Delhi
Haryana
May 22 1.4914 0.4689 0.9180 0.9171
Candidates appeared (2 lakh)
May 23 1.4901 0.4640 0.9213 0.9074
MP
10% UP
131. On which date was the value of Euro maximum against 14%

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Dollar? Gujarat Bihar
1) May 19 2) May 20 12% 10%
3) May 21 4) May 22
Punjab
5) May 23
Mumbai 8%
132. Which currencys value increases continuously against
Dollar? 19% Haryana
Delhi
1) Euro 6%
21%
2) Yen
3) Deutsche Mark Candidates qualified (16500)
4) Pound Sterling 136. What is the difference between the number of candidates
5) None of these

KUNDAN
who qualified from Gujarat, MP and UP together and
133. Which currencys value is maximum against Dollar? that of those who qualified from Bihar and Punjab
1) Pound Sterling 2) Deutsche Mark together?
3) Yen 4) Euro 1) 3045 2) 2603 3) 2970
5) Data inadequate 4) 2556 5) None of these
134. One Deutsche Mark is equal to how many Pound 137. What is the percentage of the number of candidates
Sterlings on May 19? who qualified from UP and Bihar together with repect to
1) 3.2114 2) 0.31 those who appeared from Delhi and Haryana?
3) 0.40 4) 3.1837 1) 9.6% 2) 6.8% 3) 6%
5) 3.4324 4) 8% 5) None of these
135. In the following questions an equation is presented in 138. What is the ratio of the number of candidates who
four parts with = sign in between the parts. The four appeared from UP to that of those who qualified from
parts of the equation are numbered 1, 2, 3 and 4. One of Mumbai, Delhi, Haryana and Punjab together?
these parts in the equation may be wrong and therefore 1) 3 : 2 2) 57 : 79 3) 5 : 9
may not yield the same result as the others do. Find out 4) 125 : 108 5) None of these
the wrong part, if any. (If all the four parts are correctly 139. Which of the following states has the least percentage
equated, the answer is 5, ie No error.) of number of candidates who qualified with respect to
1) 15 28 4 96 8 + 13 4 4 + 1 appeared from that state?
2) 3 343 3 216 + 9 10 + 9 1) Haryana 2) Delhi 3) Mumbai
3) 80 + 45 5 17 5 + 25 6 13 4) Gujarat 5) UP
140. In which of the following states the percentage of the
4) 625 49 20% of 170 number of qualified candidates with respect to the number
5) No error
of appeared candidates is the maximum?
1) Haryana 2) Gujarat 3) Mumbai
4) Delhi 5) UP
 3) Metropolitan Life Insurance Company
Test-IV: General Awareness 4) BNP Paribas
5) None of these
(With Special Reference to Banking Industry)
150. The ICC made changes in the rules for ODIs, recently, on
the recommendations made by the ICCs cricket
141. The output of eight infrastructure sectors expanded by
committee headed by
4.4 per cent in May. Which of the following industries is
1) Kapil Dev 2) Saurabh Ganguly
NOT one of the eight core sector industries?
3) Sachin Tendulkar 4) Anil Kumble
1) Fertilizer 2) Textile 3) Cement
5) None of these
4) Steel 5) Petroleum refinery
151. The govt has issued rules to raise limit on funds
142. India and which of the following countries have signed
individuals can take abroad under liberalised remittances
an MoU to establish the `50 cr ($7.9 mn) PACEsetter
scheme. The limit has been raised to
Fund? It aims to accelerate commercialisation of
1) $1.25 lakh 2) $1.50 lakh 3) $2 lakh
innovation in off-grid clean energy solutions.
4) $2.5 lakh 5) None of these
1) Germany 2) France 3) Canada
152. As per extant instructions, the maximum value that can
4) Norway 5) US
be stored in any prepaid card (issued by banks and
143. The World Diabetes Day (WDD) is observed on
authorised non-bank entities) at any point of time is
1) 6 Nov 2) 10 Nov 3) 12 Nov
1) `10,000 2) `20,000 3) `50,000
4) 14 Nov 5) 16 Nov

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4) `75,000 5) `100,000
144. Which of the following terms is NOT used in banking/
153. We often read about the OROP in newspapers now a
finance?
day. What does the term OROP stand for?
1) Credit Default Swaps
1) One Rank, One Provision
2) Electronic Clearing System
2) One Rank, One Position
3) Sudden Death
3) One Rank, One Perks
4) Blue Chip
4) One Rank, One Pension
5) RTGS
5) None of these
145. Yevgeny Primakov died at 85 recently. The journalist,
154. Which of the following firms has emerged as the top
diplomat and a seasoned spy was the former Prime
Indian corporate to earn the highest net profit for
Minister of
2014-15?

KUNDAN
1) Russia 2) Kazakhstan 3) Ukraine
1) Coal India 2) SBI
4) Belarus 5) Ukraine
3) TCS 4) ONGC
146. Bangladesh signed an agreement with which country to
5) Reliance Industries
construct a 3.5-km tunnel under the Karnaphuli River in
155. King Carl Gustaf and Queen Silvia welcomed President
Chittagong at a cost likely to be over $ 1 bn recently?
Pranab Mukherjee on May 31, 2015 in which of the
1) Japan 2) South Korea
following countries during his visit?
3) China 4) Malaysia
1) Norway 2) Belarus 3) Spain
5) Singapore
4) Sweden 5) None of these
147. Even individuals without a bank account (walk-in
156. The sale and registration of any new four-wheeled
customers) can deposit cash at the NEFT-enabled bank
vehicle not complying with BS-IV emission norms will
branches using NEFT restricted to a maximum of
not be allowed anywhere in the country from
________per transaction.
1) Dec 2015 2) Jan 2016
1) `20,000 2) `25,000 3) `50,000
3) Apr 2017 4) Sep 2017
4) `100,000 5) `200,000
5) Jun 2018
148. Arun Shrivastava is the present managing director &
157. Name the ace Indian archer who won a bronze in the
chief executive officer of which of the following public
womens individual recurve event of the World Cup on
sector banks?
31 May in Antalya (Turkey).
1) Indian Bank 2) Union Bank of India
1) Deepika Kumari 2) Chekrovolu Swuro
3) Bank of India 4) Canara Bank
3) Dola Banerjee 4) Bombayla Devi Laishram
5) Syndicate Bank
5) None of these
149. Who among the following is the SBIs JV partner in its
158. How many languages appear in the language panel of
life insurance venture SBI Life?
Indian banknotes in addition to Hindi and English?
1) American International Group
1) 9 2) 11 3) 13
2) Tokio Life
4) 15 5) 22
159. India has signed a 10-year defence framework agreement, member, ending 20 years of negotiation?
which contain a specific reference to the Defense 1) Maldives 2) Seychelles 3) Fiji
Technology & Trade Initiative (DTTI), with which of the 4) Myanmar 5) Cuba
following countries? 169. The first International Day of Yoga was observed
1) South Korea 2) Japan recently on
3) US 4) Russia 1) 14 Jul 2) 23 Sep 3) 15 May
5) Israel 4) 14 Sep 5) 21 Jun
160. The Union Information and Broadcasting (I&B) ministry 170. The window for banks to borrow from Reserve Bank of
has appointed who among the following as director India (RBI) in emergency situation when inter-bank
general (news) in Doordarshan (DD)? liquidity dries up completely, is called
1) Akshay Rout 2) Veena Jain 1) Marginal Standing Facility (MSF)
3) Sanjeev Srivastava 4) Rajdeep Sardesai 2) Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF)
5) None of these 3) Call money
161. Which of the following is NOT a public sector bank 4) Repo rate
(PSB) operating in India? 5) None of these
1) Federal Bank 2) IDBI Bank 171. Which of the following is the only cricket team to win
3) Indian Bank 4) Vijaya Bank the ICC Cricket World Cup five times?
5) Andhra Bank 1) West Indies 2) Australia 3) India

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162. According to just-released data from the 2011 census, 4) Sri Lanka 5) England
about what per cent of all girls aged 19 in India having 172. The IFSC Code is an alphanumeric code used in RTGS
married? and NEFT transactions. What does letter S denote in
1) 20 per cent 2) 21 per cent the term IFSC?
3) 33 per cent 4) 41 per cent 1) Subscriber 2) Station 3) State
5) None of these 4) System 5) Source
163. The software giant Microsoft has unveiled its new 173. Which of the following is NOT a general insurance
product named Edge which is its new company functioning in India?
1) web browser 1) HDFC Ergo
2) word processor 2) ICICI Lombard
3) spreadsheet programme 3) Oriental Insurance Company

KUNDAN
4) mobile operating system 4) IFFCO Tokio
5) None of these 5) None of these
164. The banks have fixed the upper limit on withdrawals at 174. The Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) started their
micro automatic teller machines (ATMs) at development process on 2 Oct 1975 with the formation
1) `1,000 2) `2,000 3) `5,000 of Prathama Grameen Bank in Moradabad. This bank
4) `10,000 5) `15,000 was sponsored by
165. The CCI is now starting intense analysis of multi-sided 1) State Bank of India (SBI)
high technology market as it looks to boost its vigil 2) Punjab National Bank (PNB)
against unfair business ways. Here, the term CCI stands 3) Syndicate Bank
for 4) Indian Bank
1) Costing Commission of India 5) Bank of Baroda
2) Coordination Commission of India 175. Who among the following is NOT a deputy governor of
3) Competition Commission of India the RBI at present?
4) Customs Commission of India 1) HR Khan 2) Anand Sinha 3) SS Mundra
5) None of these 4) R Gandhi 5) Urjit R Patel
166. India has 29 states and ________Union Territories 176. What is the tagline of ICICI bank?
(UTs). 1) Together we prosper
1) seven 2) six 3) five 2) Khayal aapka
4) four 5) nine 3) Relationships beyond Banking
167. Yuki Bhambri is associated with the game of 4) Indias International Bank
1) badminton 2) tennis 3) squash 5) A tradition of trust
4) hockey 5) shooting 177. Ashok Bhooshan assumed office as the Chief Justice of
168. The World Trade Organisation (WTO) on 27 Apr which of the following High Courts recently?
welcomed which of the following countries as its 161st 1) Allahabad High Court
 2) Kerala High Court 187. All of the following are examples of real security and
3) Punjab and Haryana High Court privacy risks EXCEPT
4) Delhi High Court 1) Hackers 2) Spam
5) Guwahati High Court 3) Viruses 4) Identity theft
178. The govt has approved launch of National 5) None of these
Supercomputing Mission to connect national academic 188. If you want to move an icon on your desktop, this is
and R&D institutions at an estimated cost of called ________
1) `5,000 cr 2) `4,500 cr 3) `5,500 cr 1) double clicking 2) highlighting
4) `7,500 cr 5) None of these 3) draggin 4) pointing
179. The ICC Cricket World Cup 2019 will be hosted by 5) None of these
1) South Africa 2) India 3) Sri Lanka 189. A computer checks the ________ of user names and
4) England 5) None of these passwords for a match before granting access.
180. Presently, India has how many river stretches declared 1 ) website 2) network 3) backup file
as National Waterways? 4) database 5) None of these
1) Three 2) Five 3) Seven 190. Computers that are portable and convenient for users
4) Nine 5) 11 who travel are known as ________
1) supercomputers 2) laptops
3) minicomputers 4) file servers

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Test-V: Computer Knowledge 5) None of these
191. Deleted data remains on a disk until
181. What is backup ? 1) the data is overwritten
1) Adding more components to your network 2) the recycle bin is emptied
2) Protecting data by copying it from the original source 3) a file compression utility is used
to a different destination 4) the disk is scanned
3) Filtering old data from the new data 5) None of these
4) Accessing data on tape 192. The________enables your computer to connect to other
5) None of these computers.
182. Which of the following is true ? 1) video card
1) byte is a single digit in a binary number 2) sound card

KUNDAN
2) bit represents a grouping of digital numbers 3) network interface card (NIC)
3) eight-digit binary number is called a byte 4) controller card
4) eight-digit binary number is called a bit 5) None of these
5) None of these 193. What menu is selected to save or save as ?
183. A hard copy of a file created on a computer refers to data 1) Tools 2) File 3) Format
1) saved on a floppy disk 4) Edit 5) None of these
2) printed on a printer 194. To make the number pad act as directional arrows, you
3) backed up on a tape drive press the________key.
4) sent as an e-mail 1) num lock 2) caps lock 3) arrows lock
5) None of these 4) shift 5) None of these
184. A ______ is an organised collection of data about a 195. A button that makes character either upper or lower case
single entity. and numbers to symbols.
1) file 2) library 3) database 1) monitor 2) shift key 3) icon
4) dictionary 5) None of these 4) mouse 5) None of these
185. Something which has easily-understood instructions is 196. If you type a word that is not in Words dictionary, a
said to be wavy ________ underline appears below the word.
1) user-friendly 2) information 1) red 2) green 3) blue
3) word processing 4) icon 4) black 5) None of these
5) None of these 197. Which of the following is considered a vulnerability of
186. Hardware devices that are not part of the main computer SNMP?
system and are often added later to the system are 1) Clear text community strings
________ 2) Its use of TCP
1) clip art 2) highlight 3) execute 3) The fact that it is on by default in Windows 2000
4) peripherals 5) None of these server
 4) The fact that it is on by default in Windows XP 2) The ACK received will include the segment number
Professional that was not received.
5) None of these 3 ) The sending host will send a PACK to verify segment
198. Network routing information distributed among routers receipt.
is stored in which of the following? 4) The destination host will send a YACK message back
1) Flash memory 2) Route table to the sending host.
3) Metric table 4) NVRAM 5) None of these
5) Router memory 200. Small application programs that run on a Web page and
199. If the destination did not receive a segment, how will the may ensure a form is completed properly or provide
TCP host know to resend the information? animation are known as ________
1) The ACK received will not include the segment 1) flash 2) spiders 3) cookies
number that was not received. 4) applets 5) sparks

Answers and Explanations

(1-5): The machine rearranges words and numbers in such From 4): K()
a way that words are arranged in alphabetical order |
from left side while numbers are arranged in M(+) L

K
descending order from right side in each step. Hence, 4) is our correct choice.
Input: 10 get 89 41 ace bed done 45 nor 73 60 made 9. 2; Reject 1) because it gives no idea regarding the sex
Step I. ace 10 get 41 bed done 45 nor 73 60 made 89 of D. Reject 4) because it represents D as a male.
Step II. bed ace 10 get 41 done 45 nor 60 made 89 73 Now from 2):
Step III. done bed ace 10 get 41 45 nor made 89 73 60 C() D()
|
Step IV. get done bed ace 10 41 nor made 89 73 60 45
B() A
Step V. made get done bed ace 10 nor 89 73 60 45 41
Hence, D is the aunt of B.
Step VI. nor made get done bed ace 89 73 60 45 41 10 From 3):
1. 1 2. 2 3. 4 4. 4 5. 3 A(+) D()
6. 3; Suppose the man in the photograph is X and the | |

KUNDAN
woman who is pointing to the photograph is Y. B C()
Now, the given statements give us following family Hence, from (3), D is the mother of B.
tree where 10. 2
P is the son of X, Q is daughter of X, R is the husband (11-15):
of Q, and Z is the husband of Y.
Games
X(+) Cities
Chess Hockey Badminton
P(+) Q () R (+) Hyderabad G D
Bangalore F C
Y() Z(+)
Mumbai E B A
Hence womans husband (Z) is grandson of the man 11. 2; Chess.
(X) in the photograph. 12. 2; Mumbai.
7. 3; Total boys in the row = 12 + 4 1 = 15 13. 5; Farhan, Gita, Ela.
Hence (28 15 =) 13 boys should be added to the 14. 4; Ela, Bhusan, Anil.
row. 15. 3; Badminton.
8. 4; From 1): (16-20): Only three possible arrangement are possible:
M (+ ) Harshit, Gautam, Rahul, Karan,
|
Dhananjay, Saurav,Pawan ...(1)
L ()K
Rahul, Gautam, Pawan, Harshit,
We get M is the father of K.
Dhananjay, Saurav, Karan ...(2)
From 2): represents M is a female whereas +
Rahul, Harshit, Gautam, Pawan,
represents that M is a male. Hence, reject 2) also.
Karan, Dhananjay, Saurav ...(3)
From 3): We have no idea regarding the sex of M.
16. 2; Two boys.
Hence reject 3) also.
 17. 1; Saurav. are certificates (A) = I + A = I = Some files are
18. 1; Second from the right hand. certificates (I) conversion Some certificates
19. 2; Only one Boy, Dhananjay. are files. Hence, conclusion III follows.
20. 1; Pawan. 43. 5; All people are animals (A) + All animals are plants
21. 4 22. 3 23. 5 24. 5 25. 5 (A) = A + A = A = All people are plants. Hence,
26. 4 27. 5 28. 2 29. 1 30. 4 conclusion II follows. Now, No group is people (E)
(31-35): + All people are plants (A) = E + A = O* = Some
plants are not groups. Thus, conclusion I, III and IV
Person Place Day do not follow. However, I and III make a
Ricky Zimbabwe Monday complementary E-I pair. Hence, either I or III follows.
Megan Australia Tuesday 44. 5; All jobs are works (A) implication Some works
are jobs (I). Hence, conclusion I follows.
Tom Holand Wednesday
Again, Some jobs are vacancies (I) conversion
Nickole South Africa Thursday Some vacancies are jobs (I) + All jobs are works
Sumit Canada Friday (A) = I + A = I = Some vacancies are works (I) + No
Joy England Saturday work is a trade (E) = I + E = O = Some vacancies are
Moorie Ireland Sunda not trades. Hence, conclusion II does not follow.
Now, No work is a trade (E) No trade is a work
31. 2 32. 3 33. 2 34. 5 35. 2

K
36. 2; Service provided through pharmaceuticals and its
nature of job make it probably true.
37. 1; Passage says that pharmacists are concerned with
different types of work such as production,
productive processes, quality control and testing
of drugs etc. And the last sentence of the passage
says that there are many job opportunities opening
up.
38. 3
39. 5; According to the passage, more than 5000
Again, All professions are trades (A) + No trade is a
work (E) = A + E = E = No profession is a work.
Hence, conclusion III follows. But conclusion IV
does not follow.
45. 2; No grade is a score (E) conversion No score is
a grade (E). Now, All letters are scores (A) + No
score is a grade (E) = A + E = E = No letter is a grade
(E). Hence, conclusion I does not follow. And
conclusion II does not follow from statement II.
Again, All marks are grades (A) + No grade is a
score (E) = A + E + E = No mark is a score (E) + All

KUNDAN
manufacturing units are involved in making bulk
drugs.
40. 4; Job prospects are better for an individual in MNCs.
It is likely MNCs are in a stronger position than
indigenous companies. Hence, the inference drawn
seems false.
41. 3; All digits are alphabets (A) + No alphabet is a vowel
(E) = A + E = E = No digit is a vowel. Hence,
conclusion I follows.
No alphabet is a vowel (E) conversion No
vowel is an alphabet (E).
Now, All consonants are vowels (A) + No vowel is
an alphabet (E) = A + E = E = No consononant is an
alphabet (E) conversion No alphabet is a
consonant. Hence, conclusion II follows.
Again, Some numbers are digits + All digits are
alphabets = I + A = I = Some numbers are alphabets
(I) + No alphabet is a vowel (E) = I + E = O = Some
numbers are not vowels. Hence, conclusion III and
IV do not follow.
42. 5; All documents are files (A) + Some files are papers
(I) = A + I = No conclusion. Hence, conclusion I, II
and IV do not follow. However, I and conversion of
IV make a complementary pair. Hence, either I or IV
follows. Again Some files are papers (I) + All papers
scores are characters (A) = E + A = O* = Some
characters are not marks. Hence, conclusion III does
not follow. But All letters are scores (A) + All scores
are characters (A) = A + A = A = All letters are
characters (A) conversion Some characters
are letters (I). Hence, conclusion IV follows.
46. 3; The Government should make all necesssary
arrangements to enact firearms act. Firearms should
not be let free because they increase crimes in the
country.
47. 1; If students of a college find better placement, it
indicates the good quality of the institute.
48. 4; The wrist watch calculates the life span of a person.
But when the person dies the wrist watch stops. It
means the statement says that death is certain.
Hence, option 4) follows.
49. 4; It is with prospective customers in mind that
marketing campaigns are launched.
50. 5; The reason for such a steep hike in prices must be a
rise in input prices. Only choice 1 talks about such a
rise increase in taxes on raw materials. However,
note that the govt is still planning to review taxes.
And actual prices are not increased on mere
anticipation.
51. 2; When politicians want to be heard by the people
1 1
they go in search of the media. They use media as = (11) 3 3 (7 ) 3 3
the vehicle to gain publicity.
52. 4; Because it gains easy acceptability among Indias = 11 7 4 =2
highly politicised reading public and a cynical middle
96. 3; All are prime numbers.
class and if political twist is not there in a front-page
97. 3; The series is:
story it may be rejected.
15 11 = 165
53. 1
15 13 = 195
54. 3; In a dictatorship the press has to oblise the rulers.
15 17 = 255
55. 5; Anything short of verified truth cannot be presented
15 19 = 285
as news and they can only be presented as views, ie
15 23 = 345
opinion, speculation or allegation.
56. 3; In a dictatorship the press must write the truth as 15 29 = 435
the ruling class wishes it to be written whereas in a 98. 2; The series is:
democracy nothing influences the reality. 23 1 = 7
57. 2 58. 3 59. 1 60. 1 61. 5 33 1 = 26
62. 5 63. 2 64. 1 65. 4 43 1 = 63
66. 4; same 53 1 = 124

K
67. 3; same 63 1 = 215
68. 2; same 73 1 = 342
69. 1; opposite
83 1 = 511
70. 2; opposite
71. 2 72. 4 73. 1 74. 3 75. 5 99. 4; The series is:
76. 3 77. 1 78. 5 79. 4 80. 2 22=4
81. 3 82. 5 83. 4 84. 1 85. 2 4 3 = 12
86. 4; Replace of with to 12 4 = 48
87. 5 48 5 = 240
88. 5 240 6 = 1440
89. 2; Replace to with and

KUNDAN
100. 1; These are two series:
90. 3; Replace strictly with strict 8, 11, 14, 17, 20 and 7, 12, 17, 22
91. 2; After solving this we find value = 288 Next number is 20.
? (288) 2 82944 101. 3; In two throws of die, n(S) = 6 6 = 36
92. 4 Let E = event of getting sum 9
93. 1; ? = (21% of 1326) (17% of 932) = {(3, 6) (6, 3) (4, 5) (5, 4)}
n ( E) 4 1
21 1326 17 932 P(E) =
= n (S) 36 9
100 100
= 278.46 158.44 102. 2; n(S) = 6 6 = 36
= 120.02 E = {(1, 1), (1, 2), (1, 4), (1, 6), (2, 1), (2, 3), (2, 5), (3, 2),
Alternate Method: (3, 4), (4, 1), (4, 3), (5, 2), (5, 6), (6, 1), (6, 5)}
? = (21% of 1326) (17% of 932) n(E) = 15
= 21% of 17 78 17% of 932 n (E ) 15 5
= 17% of (21 78 932) P(E) = n (S) 36 12
= 17% of (1638 932)
= 17% of 706 1 1 1 1 9 1
= 120.02 103. 5; Zs 1 days work =
4 8 10 4 40 40
18225 135 1 1 1
94. 3; ? = 182.25 = 13.5 Xs wages : Ys wages : Zs wages = : :
100 10 8 10 40
1 1 =5:4:1
95. 1; ? = (1331) 3 (343) 3 4800
Ys share = 4 = 4 480 = `1920
10
104. 2; Ratio of time taken by Sunil and Raj = 140 : 100 Quicker Method: Just check in which month there
=7:5 is the maximum gap between car and total vehicles.
Let Raj take x days to do the work. 116. 5; Combining both the statements together,
7 : 5 : : 14 : x 132 18
Solving this x = 10 ie 10 days. Speed of the train = 43.2 km / hr
11 5
105. 2; SI for 1 year = 964 945 = `19
SI for 4 year = 19 4 = `76 100
117. 3; I. Weight of B = 7 35 kg
Amount = 945 76 = `869 20
106. 1; Let their speeds x m/sec and y m/sec.
Length of first train = 24x m and second train = 15y m 15
II. Weight of B = 7 35 kg
3
24x 15y
= 21 Hence, either statement I alone or II alone is
x y sufficient answer the question.
24x + 15y = 21x + 21y 118. 3; I. Amount of profit = 20% of 1200 = `240
3x = 6y II. SP - CP = 240 = Amount of profit.
Hence, either statement I alone or II alone is
x 6 2 sufficient to answer the question.
=2:1 119. 4; Cost of fencing per square metre is not given. So,
y 3 1

K
107. 3; Let the amount taxable purchases be `x. even combining both the statements together, total
cost of fencing cant be determined.
28 120. 2; From statement II alone:
So 4% of x = 0.28 =
100 Let the sum be `P.
28 100 4
x= =7 10 P 10 4
100 4 P 1 P
100 100 = 641
Cost = {24 (7 + 0.28)} = 24 7.28 = `16.72
108. 5; Let the numbers be x and x + 2.
P = `1000
(x + 2)2 x2 = 64
Hence, statement II alone is sufficient to answer the
4x + 4 = 64

KUNDAN
question.
x = 15
121. 1; I. 3p + 4q = 5
Numbers are 15 and 17.
or, 6 - 6q + 4q = 5
Sum = 15 + 17 = 32
or, 2q = 1 or, q = 1/2
109. 1; Speed downstream = 15 + 3 = 18 kmph
II. p + 2q = 2
20 1 or, 3p + 6q = 6
Distance travelled = 18 18 = 6 km
60 3 or, 3p = 6 6q
110. 2; Let share of Suresh be x. 1
Also, 3p = 6 - 6q = 6 6 6 3 3
8000 72 2 2
Then
x 54 3 or, 3p = 3
111. 5; Reqd difference = 28 - 21 = 7000 or, p = 1
112. 4; No. of vehicles other than car registered in March Hence, p > q
2014 = 25 - 15 = 10000 122. 4; I. 2q 2 3q 1 0
113. 2; No. of vehicles other than car registered in January
= 27 - 21 = 6000 1
No. of vehicles other than car registered in June or, q = 1,
2
= 45 - 28 = 17000
II. 2p 2 5p 3 0
17000 6000
Reqd % increase = 100 183.33%
6000 3
or, p = 1,
114. 3; There is maximum slope between the months of May 2
and June. Hence, p q.
115. 3; Registration of vehicles other than cars is maximum 123. 1; I. 4p 2 5p 1 0
in the month of May.
 1 128. 4; i 00 A e 97 B = `x lakhs
or, p = 1,
4 125
i 97 B e 97 B
2 100 125 150
II. 80q 18q 1 0 15 : 8
e 00 A 100 100 100
i 00 A
or, 80q 2 10q 8q 1 0 150
or, (8q - 1) (10q - 1) = 0 100
129. 3; Expenditure of A in 2002 = 660 = `400 lakhs
1 1 165
or, q = , 130. 4; Without knowing the income for different years, the
8 10
Hence, p > q expenditure value cant be determined
124. 3; I. 4p + 8q = 3 131. 5; Decrease in amount indicates increase in value.
or, 12p + 24q = 9 132. 4 133. 1
or, 12p = 9 - 24q 0.4739
II. 12p + 16q = 7 134. 2; One Deutsche Mark = = 0.31 pound sterling
1.5085
or, 9 - 24q + 16q = 7 135. 1; Other parts are equal to 141
or, 8q = 2 136. 3; Reqd difference in the number of qualified candidate
2 1 = 36% of 16500 18% of 16500

K
or, q =
8 4 18 16500
= 18% of 16500 = = 2970
100
1
Also, 12p = 9 24 9 6 3 137. 3; The number of qualified candidates (UP + Bihar)
4
24% of 16500 = 3960
1 No. of candidates appeared (Delhi and Haryana)
or, p 33% of 2 lakh = 66000
4
Hence, p = q 3960
Reqd % = 100 = 6%
125. 4; I. q 2 9q 14 0 66000
138. 5; The number of candidates appeared from UP 18%
or, q 2 7q 2q 14 0

KUNDAN
of 2 lakh = 36000
or, (q - 7) (q - 2) = 0 The number of candidates qualified from Mumbai,
or, q = 2 or, 7 Delhi, Haryana and Punjab
= 54% of 16500 = 8910
II. p 2 23p 112 0
36000 400
or, p 2 16p 7 p 112 0 Ratio = = 400 : 99
8910 99
or, (p - 16) (p - 7) = 0 139. 1; Haryana
or, p = 7 or, 16 140. 2; Gujarat
Hence, p q. 141. 2 142. 5 143. 4 144. 3 145. 3
126. 3; i 02 B i 97 A 405 146. 3 147. 3 148. 5 149. 4 150. 4
151. 4 152. 3 153. 4 154. 5 155. 4
100 100
e 02 B e 97 A i 02 B i 97 A 156. 3 157. 1 158. 4 159. 3 160. 2
135 135
161. 1 162. 4 163. 1 164. 4 165. 3
100 166. 1 167. 2 168. 2 169. 5 170. 1
= i 02 B i 97 A
135 171. 2 172. 4 173. 5 174. 3 175. 2
176. 2 177. 2 178. 2 179. 4 180. 2
100
= 405 = `300 lakhs 181. 2 182. 3 183. 2 184. 1 185. 1
135
186. 4 187. 2 188. 3 189. 4 190. 2
127. 1; Ratio of expenditure to income for company B is the
191. 2 192. 3 193. 2 194. 1 195. 2
least when the percentage profit is maximum. Hence,
in 1999 the ratio was least. 196. 1 197. 1 198. 5 199. 2 200. 1
 PRACTICE SET-4
1) If only conclusion I follows.
Test-I: Reasoning Ability 2) If only conclusion II follows.
3) If either conclusion I or II follows.
Directions (Q. 1-5): A word arrangement Machine, when 4) If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
given a particular input, rearranges it following a particular 5) If both conclusions I and II follow.
rule. The following is the illustration of the input and the 6. Statements: P > Q, Q R, R = K, K < M
steps of rearrangement. Conclusions: I. Q = K II. Q > K
Input: we again 36 early 17 morning in day 7 11 7. Statements: V F, F > R, R G
Step I: again we 36 early 17 morning in day 7 11 Conclusions: I. G < V II. G > V
Step II: again 36 we early 17 morning in day 7 11 8. Statement: P= Q L<M= R K
Step III: again 36 early we 17 morning in day 7 11 Conclusions: I. K > Q II. Q M
Step IV: again 36 early 7 we 17 morning in day 11 9. Statements: J M, M = N, N < T
Step V: again 36 early 7 in we 17 morning day 11 Conclusions: I. T > J II. T = J
Step VI: again 36 early 7 in day we 17 morning 11 Direction (Q. 10-15): In each of the questions below are
Step VII: again 36 early 7 in 17 day we morning 11 given some statements followed by some conclusions. You
Step VIII: again 36 early 7 in 17 day 11 we morning have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem
Step IX: again 36 early 7 in 17 day 11 morning we to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the
And Step IX is the last step. conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions
1. If the following is the II step of an input what will be Vth logically follow from the given statements disregarding
step? commonly known facts.
Step II: After 89 she 38 wins 11 Olympic 22 the 7 10. Statements: Some roses which are plants are flowers.
1) after 89 she 7 the 22 Olympic 11 wins 38 All plants are lotus.
2) after 89 Olympic she 38 wins 11 22 the 7 Conclusions: I. Some lotus are not flowers.
3) after 89 Olympic 7 she 38 the wins 11 22 II. Some lotus which are roses are
4) after 89 Olympic 7 she 38 the 11 wins 22 flowers.
5) None of these III. Some roses are lotus.
2. Which of the following is the last step for the Input eat 1) Only I and II follow 2) Only II follows
9 fast icecream 22 3 umbrella cat 5? 3) Only II and III follow 4) Only I and III follow
1) cat eat 9 fast 5 icecream 22 umbrella 3 5) None of these
2) eat 22 icecream 3 umbrella 9 cat 5 fast 11. Statements: All matches are cups.
3) eat 22 umbrella 3 icecream 9 cat 5 fast Some fields are not viewers.
4) eat 22 icecream 3 umbrella 5 cat 9 fast All viewers are fans.
5) None of these Some matches are not fans.
3. Which step will be the last step for the Input elephant Conclusions:
17 free open 41 27 danger 15? I. Some cup which are fans are not viewers.
1) IV 2) V 3) VI II. Some matches which are not viewers are cups.
4) VII 5) None of these III. Some fields which are fans are not matches.
4. Which word/number will be at 4th from the left in step V 1) Only I and III follow 2) Only II follows
for the given input in above question 3? 3) Only II and III follow 4) Only III follows
1) 41 2) danger 3) open 5) None of these
4) 15 5) None of these 12. Statements: Some pens are books.
5. Which word/number will be 3rd to the right of 41 in Some books are pencils.
step IV for the given input in Q. 3? Some pencils are rubbers.
1) open 2) danger 3) 15 All books are slates.
4) 17 5) None of these Conclusions: I. All pencils are books.
Direction (Q. 6-9): In these questions, relationship II. All pens are pencils.
between different elements is shown in the statements. These III. Some slates are pens.
statements are followed by two conclusions. Mark answer IV. All slates are books
 1) Only I and II follow
2) Only III and IV follow
3) Only III follow
4) Only I and IV follow
5) None of these
13. Statements:
All roses which are leaves are flowers.
Some sunflowers which are leaves are not plants.
Conclusions:
I. Some roses which are plants are not flowers.
II. Some flowers which are roses are not sunflowers.
1) Only I follows 2) Only II follows
3) Neither I nor II follows 4) I and II both follow
5) None of these
14. Statements: Some animals are not cats.
All elephants are cats.
No Kangaroo is animals.
Conclusions:
K
I. Some animals which are not elephants are not
kangaroos.
II. Some cats are not Kangaroos.
1) Only I follows 2) Only II follows
3) Neither I nor II follows 4) I and II both follow
5) None of these
15. Statements:
Some schools which are not students are colleges.
No student is a principal.
All schools are principals.
KUNDAN
Conclusions: I. No college is a principal.
II. Some principals are colleges.
III. All colleges are schools.
1) Only I and III follow 2) Either I or II follows
3) Only II follows 4) Either I or III follows
5) None of these
Directions (Q. 16-20): In making decisions about
important questions, it is desirable to be able to distinguish
between strong arguments and weak arguments insofar
as they relate to the question. Strong arguments are those
which are both important and directly related to the question.
Weak arguments are those which are of minor importance
and also may not be directly related to the question or may be
related to a trivial aspect of the question.
Each question below is followed by two arguments
numbered I and II. You have to decide which of the arguments
is a strong argument and which is a weak argument.
Give answer
1) if only argument I is strong.
2) if only argument II is strong.
3) if either I or II is strong.
4) if neither I nor II is strong.
5) if both I and II are strong.
16. Statement: Should Antipiracy Bill be brought in the
Parliament?
Arguments:
I. Yes. This will help the film industry to fight against
piracy as a result of which the industry will be
financially strong.
II. No. We have already provisions such as Copyright
laws etc to fight against piracy.
17. Statement: Should Non-Resident Indians (NRIs) be
entitled to dual citizenship?
Arguments:
I. Yes. This will bolster the intimacy of the NRIs with
the Indian soil.
II. No. The move will not be fruitful for all NRIs because
there is lack of provision for dual citizenship in many
countries.
18. Statement: Should reputed private driver training schools
be allowed to issue driving licences?
Arguments:
I. Yes. This will enable more and more people to get
driving licences.
II. No. This will increase the congestion of the vehicles
on the road and will result in traffic jams too.
19. Statement: Should a trouble-torn state like Jammu &
Kashmir release separatist leaders without any condition?
Arguments:
I. Yes. Release of separatist leaders will be useful as a
goodwill gesture to make the situation peaceful in the
state.
II. No. Unconditional release of the separatist leaders
will aggravate the existing situation because these
leaders have not shown any flexibility in their views.
20. Statement: Should power theft be made a cognisable
offence?
Arguments:
I. Yes. People do not use power honestly.
II. Yes. This will be a wise decision and will reduce anti-
social activities in society.
Directions (Q. 21-25): A statement is given followed by
three courses of action. A course of action is taken for
improvement, follow-up etc. Read the statement carefully
and pick the correct answer choice.
21. Statements: The twenty-third death due to the cold wave
was reported in the town X and amongst the deceased
twenty were homeless people. A report
Cources of action:
I. Municipal corporation of city X should waive the
entry fee for night shelters during winter.
II. New shelters should be built.
III. The timing of night shelters should be extended.
1) All follow
2) Only I and II follow
3) Only II and III follow
4) Only I and III follow
5) None of these
22. Statement: Women constables are attacked by teasers
when they are a part of the special team assigned to trap
eve-teasers.
Courses of action:
I. Women should stop taking part in such campaign.
II. The women constables should be given a strong
back-up force consisting of men constables too.
III. The women constables should be equipped with
revolvers and sharp knives.
1) Only I follows
2) Only II and III follow
3) Only II follows
4) Only III follows
5) None of these
23. Statement: A painting worth `70 lakhs of a reputed painter
has been stolen from an exhibition of city Z.
Courses of action:
I. All painting lovers should be called into police
Directions (Q. 26-30): Each of the questions below
consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II
given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided
in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read
both the statements and give answer
1) if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer
the question, while the data in statement II alone are
not sufficient to answer the question.
2) if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer
the question, while the data in statement I alone are
not sufficient to answer the question.
3) if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II
alone are sufficient to answer the question.
4) if the data in both statements I and II together are not
sufficient to answer the question.
5) if the data in both statements I and II together are
necessary to answer the question.
26. Is it 5 oclock?

K
station for an enquiry. I. Im looking at my watch. From this moment on, the
II. Costly paintings should not be allowed for exhibition. hour hand will take exactly twice as long as the minute
III. An operation for search should be started by the hand to reach the number six.
police after the lodging of an FIR. II. Im looking at my watch. From this moment on, the
1) Only I follows 2) Only II and III follow hour hand will take exactly three times longer than
3) Only I and III follow 4) All follow the minute hand to reach the number six.
5) None of these 27. In which month is my birthday?
24. Statement: When all the citizens of country X were I. I will celebrate my birthday in a month which begins
expecting excellence from their team in the forthcoming on a Friday and ends on a Friday too.
World Cup cricket tournament, defeat in the recently- II. I will celebrate my birthday in the current month. The
concluded one-day series against country Y is a major result of adding the date of the last Monday of last

KUNDAN
jolt. month and the date of the first Thursday of next month
Courses of action: is 38.
I. Government should immediately set up an enquiry 28. Alka and Madhu put 40 matches on the table and make
commission to find out the reason for the dismal themselves aware of the game for which the matches are
performance of the cricket team of country X. to be used. As per the rules, the winner is the one who
II. The players should be advised to concentrate on takes the last match. Who will win the game?
regular practice. I. Each player in turn takes 1, 3 or 5 matches.
III. Poor performers should be replaced by good II. Madhu chooses to go first and takes 3 matches.
performers, who have shown their performance in 29. Two cars start traveling from different points and in
domestic cricket. opposite directions in a circuit race at a constant speed.
1) Only I and III follow 2) Only II and III follow How much faster is one car going than the other?
3) Only II follows 4) Only III follows I. The distances from A to B, B to C, and C to A are the
5) None of these same.
25. Statement: Free sales of foreign goods are harming II. The cars cross for the first time at point A, the second
indigenous industries. time at point B, the third time at point C, and the
Courses of action: fourth time again at point A.
I. Import duties on foreign goods should be increased. 30. What was the score in each match of a three-team
II. Indigenous industries should be given patronage tournament in which the three teams (who participated)
by the government. A, B and C got 3 points, 2 points and 1 point respectively?
III. Foreign goods should be duplicated to fulfil domestic 2 pointsare awarded for a win and 1 for a draw.
demands of foreign goods. I. Each team played once against each of the two other
1) All follow 2) Only I and II follow teams.
3) Only II follows 4) Only I follows II. Each team scored one goal.
5) None follows
 Directions (Q. 31-32): Study the following information 37. Which of the following indicates the pair of persons
carefully and answer the questions following it. who speak neither English nor Italian?
At a train station, Choudharys family is saying good- 1) AD 2) AB 3) BD
bye to Thakurs family. But it is not known who is leaving and 4) DE 5) None of these
who is staying. Directions (Q. 38-40): Use the following series of
Each of the members of the Choudhary family says elements (alphabet-number-symbol) to answer these
farewell to each of the members of the Thakur family. questions. Every two-digit number (given in brackets) and
To say good-bye, two men shake hands, but a man and two consecutive elements (if both are symbols) is to be treated
a women kiss once on the cheek and so do two women. as single number or single symbol.
An eyewitness to the event counted 21 handshakes and E 1 * J # @ 7 9 D 2 6 B C 8 5 4 nK L $ 3 M (10) (13)
34 kisses. F &zR G uQ H N P S Q (17)
31. How many men were saying good-bye? 38. Four of the following five groups of elements are alike in
1) 6 2) 7 3) 8 a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that
4) 9 5) None of these does not belong to that group?
32. How many women were saying good-bye? 1) 179 2) u 3) 3(10)(13)
1) 6 2) 7 3) 8 4) #@ 5) 43(10)
4) 9 5) None of these 39. Which of the following groups of elements will come in
Directions (Q. 33-37): Study the following information the place of the question-mark in the series of elements

K
carefully and answer the questions following it. given below ?
At a recent international summit five delegates A, B, C, D E(17)4 ? DRK B(10)L 43$
and E participated. A person observed and made the following 1) #H 2) #@Hn 3) @Hn
statements: 4) #@H 5) None of these
I. B and C spoke English, although when D joined 40. If the above series is written in reverse order, which letter
them they all changed to Spanish, the only common will be sixteenth to the left of 9th letter from your right?
language among the three of them. 1) 4 2) M 3) (13)
II. The only common language among A, B and E was 4) 5 5) None of these
French. Directions (Q. 41-45): Study the following information
III. The only common language between C and E was carefully and answer the given questions.

KUNDAN
Italian. Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around
IV. Three delegates could speak Portuguese. a circular table facing away from the centre. Each of them has
V. The most common language was Spanish. a different rank in mock test, viz 1st, 2nd, 3rd, 4th, 5th, 6th, 7th
VI. One of the delegates spoke all five languages, and 8th but not necessarily in the same order.
another one spoke four, one spoke three, one spoke A and C, whose rank is 3rd, can never sit together. There
two, and one spoke only one language. are two persons between the persons whose ranks are 7th
33. The person who speaks all the five languages is and 5th. The person whose rank is 5th sits second to the
1) A 2) B right of F. H does not rank 2nd or 1st and he is also immediate
3) C 4) Cant say neighbour of the one whose rank is 5th. The person whose
5) None of these rank is 1st cannot sit with the person whose rank is 4th.
34. D does not speak which of the following languages? There are two persons sitting between C and the person
I. French II. Italian III. Portuguese whose rank is 6th. B and E are immediate neighbours of each
1) Only I 2) Only I and II other. The person whose rank is 1st sits on the immediate left
3) Only I and III 4) Only II and III of the person whose rank is 8th. A is second to the right of
5) All I, II and III the person whose rank is 7th. Ds rank is neither 6th nor 7th.
35. E speaks which of the following languages? E and G are not immediate neighbours. G, who does not rank
I. French II. Italian III. Portuguese 5th, sits on the immediate right of H. There is only one person
1) Only I 2) Only I and II sitting between those two persons whose ranks are 8th and
3) Only I and III 4) Only II and III 6th.
5) All I, II and III There is only one person sitting between G and the person
36. The only person who does not speak Spanish is whose rank is 6th and the person can never be F.
1) A 2) B 41. Which of the following pairs of persons and ranks is
3) C 4) Cant say definitely true?
5) None of these 1) C 8th 2) D 1st 3) G 3rd
4) B 7th 5) All are false
42. How many persons are sitting between E and B when 4) unpleasant armymen being are enthusiastic people.
counted in anticlockwise direction from B? 5) None of these
1) None 2) Two 3) Three 50. Which of the following is the code for firefighters
4) Five 5) Six armymen belongs to positive people?
43. Which of the following is the position of F with respect 1) tee kee cee que loo dee
to the person whose rank is 4th? 2) mee cee loo dee kee see
1) Second to the left 3) mee tee cee loo dee kee
2) Third to the right 4) mee tee kee cee que dee
3) Third to the left 5) Cant be determined
4) Fourth to the right
5) Cant be determined
44. If A interchanges his place with the person whose rank Test-II: English Language
is 2nd, then which of the following is the position of the
person whose rank is 3rd with respect to the person Directions (Q. 51-65): Read the following passage
whose rank is 6th? carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain
1) Second to the left words are given in bold to help you locate them while
2) Second to the right answering some of the questions.
3) Third to the right Water scarcity looms large in the state. This headline is

K
4) Third to the left enough to disturb people who have yet to forget the days
when taps flowed for an hour every second day and long
5) None of these
queues in front of public hydrants needed police presence to
45. Which of the following is the rank of H?
maintain order. But then, it was a fact that in Rajasthan,
1) 3rd 2) 4th 3) 5th
drinking water had to be transported by train last year. And
4) 1st 5) Cant be determined
hasnt someone predicted that the next war will be fought not
Directions (Q. 46-50): Study the following information
over oil but for water?
to answer the given questions.
What comes like a heavenly blessing in this sombre
In a certain code language firefighters are armymen is
setting is the hope ignited by watershed management effort
written as tee mee kee, courageous people are armymen is
in Madhya Pradesh. And the charm of it is that no aid or
written as kee loo nee tee, courageous being enthusiastic know-how had to be imported. It was just robust

KUNDAN
is written as loo pee jee, people are enthusiastic is written
commonsense along with unstinted public participation that
as kee nee pee and positive people are unpleasant is written made the difference.
nee kee dee see. The Deendayal Research Institute, in collaboration with
46. What is the code for being? the District Rural Development Agency, Majhgawan (Satna),
1) loo 2) jee 3) kee took up an area of 12,536 hectares and formed 17 micro-
4) pee 5) None of these watershed schemes to tackle low productivity, lack of
47. Which of the following may be the possible code for irrigation, a receding water table, shortage of drinking water,
unpleasant firefighters are positive? high soil erosion, etc. The watershed area the area over
1) dee see tee mee which rainwater collects was taken as a unit. Contour
2) dee see kee mee trenching and bunding check the flow of water. Trenches are
3) see tee mee kee excavated and bunds erected (with the soil taken out) to check
4) dee see jee lee the free flow of the water. This prevents soil erosion while
5) None of these plenty of percolated water raises its sub-soil level.
48. What does pee stand for? The vision of water management programmes is as simple
1) courageous 2) positive 3) army men as they can be. Instead of tanks or dams, water is kept where
4) enthusiastic 5) None of these nature keeps it underground. Thus, there is no loss due to
49. Which of the following is represented by the code see evaporation. The old philosophy of water should not be
jee tee pee dee kee loo? allowed to run, it should walk has been replaced by the new
1) unpleasant armymen enthusiastic being are positive one which states that water should creep and, ultimately,
firefighters come to a halt.
2) unpleasant armymen enthusiastic courageous The whole point is to ensure that not a single drop is
positive are being allowed to flow more than 10 metres above the surface. The
3) unpleasant armymen being enthusiastic are positive paradoxical scenario will be of dry streams and unfilled tanks
people in the rainy season. Instead, the water that seeps in, reappears
in wells, tube-wells, pond and stop-dams later when and where
wanted.
This strategy is the result of a calculated comparison of
costs. An assessment was made of the amount of water saved
and the expense incurred in each of the approaches available
in the village of Dantha in Khandwa district. The cost of
water secured through contour trenches, earthen checks, etc
worked out to just 4 paise per litre. The system is so water-
tight that even if it rains up to 10 centimetres a day double
the average daily downpour at Cherapunji, one of the heaviest
rain receivers in the world not a drop of water will flow
down the drain. The result is a water surplus even in
conditions of low rainfall which was the case during the
last three years.
51. Why does the headline Water scarcity looms large in
the state disturb the people of Rajasthan?
1) because people of Rajasthan are not familiar with water
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crisis on a big scale
2) because water is a very precious commodity for the
people of Rajasthan
3) because the people of Rajasthan have faced the
nightmarish experience of water crisis
4) because Rajasthan has to buy water from other states
to overcome water crisis
5) None of these
52. What does the passage imply when it says that the next
war will be fought not over oil but for water?
KUNDAN
1) There is more stock of oil than water in the world.
2) Oil will lose its importance in near future.
3) Water is more precious for mankind than oil and man
can go to any extent to get it.
4) Water is such a dynamic commodity that it can be
used in place of oil but the same does not apply with
oil.
5) None of these
53. What happens when water is stored in tanks or dams
instead of keeping it underground?
1) Owing to overuse, it does not last long.
2) It takes higher maintenance cost as compared to
underground water.
3) The naturalness of water gradually wanes.
4) It generates war-like situation among the people over
its use.
5) None of these
54. The philosophy Water should creep and, ultimately,
come to a halt is meant for
1) water harvesting and its storage.
2) the mismanagement of water.
3) the looming water crisis.
4) the abundant use of water.
5) the evergreen scarcity of water.
55. How is the flow of water checked in a watershed area?
1) by collecting the rain water
2) Trenches are dug and borders raised so that the water
does not go outside.
3) Irrigation from the watershed area makes free flow of
water impossible as there is no surplus water.
4) In watershed area water is allowed to creep and not
run, so there is no free flow of water.
5) None of these
56. How does watershed scheme check soil erosion?
1) by hardening the soil
2) by raising the level of the soil
3) by saving the trees and bushes from getting uprooted
4) by checking the free flow of water which contains
soil with it
5) None of these
57. Following watershed management will lead to a scene of
dry streams and unfilled tanks in the rainy season. This
means that
1) large quantity of water has sunk beneath the surface
of the earth.
2) large quantity of water has evaporated.
3) large quantity of water has flown outside.
4) there will be a water crisis in the near future.
5) water has become a scarce commodity.
58. Which of the following seems to be false in the context
of the passage?
1) Bunding along with digging helps in checking the
flow of water.
2) There have been successful efforts of watershed
management in Rajasthan.
3) Public participation is necessary in watershed
management.
4) Watershed management is a cost-effective scheme.
5) None of these
59. What message does the author want to convey through
this passage?
1) There is no dearth of water in our country.
2) Rajasthan can borrow the surplus water from Madhya
Pradesh.
3) Water scarcity is a man-made phenomenon.
4) With the help of appropriate strategy and peoples
participation water scarcity can be overcome.
5) None of these
Directions (Q. 60-62): Choose the word which is the
same in meaning as the word given in bold as used in the
passage.
60. LOOMS
1) appears 2) depends 3) assumes
4) remains 5) surrounds
61. SOMBRE
1) diverse 2) tight 3) gloomy
4) reverse 5) hard
62. EXCAVATED 77. (A) Consummate (B) Spontaneous
1) built 2) drawn 3) furnished (C) Contagious (D) Imperfect
4) surrounded 5) dug 1) A-D 2) A-C 3) A-B
Directions (Q. 63-65): Choose the word which is opposite 4) B-D 5) B-C
in meaning of the word given in bold as used in the passage. 78. (A) Putative (B) Repine
63. UNSTINTED (C) Fret (D) Revue
1) certain 2) conditional 3) mandatory 1) A-B 2) B-C 3) C-D
4) limited 5) blind 4) A-C 5) A-D
64. RECEDING 79. (A) Courteous (B) Excrete
1) increasing 2) flying 3) floating (C) Impolite (D) Feeble
4) driving 5) proportionate 1) A-C 2) B-D 3) B-C
65. SURPLUS 4) C-D 5) A-D
1) flow 2) worsening 3) deterioration 80. (A) Esoteric (B) Obscure
4) scarcity 5) depletion (C) Gigantic (D) Myopic
Directions (Q. 66-75): In the following passage there 1) A-D 2) B-C 3) A-C
are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These 4) A-B 5) B-D
numbers are printed below the passage and against each five Directions (Q. 81-85): Which of the phrases (1), (2), (3)
words are suggested, one of which fits the blank and (4) given below each sentence should replace the phrase

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appropriately. Find out the appropriate words. printed in bold to make the sentence grammatically correct?
The (66) functioning of the world economy should be If the sentence is correct as it is, mark (5), i.e. No correction
(67) to (68) instead of (69) it with a war-like (70) created by required, as your answer.
the US and Britain which is (71) for. Iraq has (72) (73) lessons 81. It may be risky to change the chief minister just in months
after a decade of economic (74) and (75) of so many lives. before from an election.
66. 1) crystal 2) speed 3) accelerated 1) just in months of
4) smooth 5) lubricated 2) in just months before from
3) in months from
67. 1) made 2) directed 3) governed
4) just months before
4) assisted 5) allowed
5) No correction required
68. 1) roll 2) continue 3) turn
82. It is too clear all that the party leadership is not going to

KUNDAN
4) energise 5) hold
spare anyone who take their position for granted.
69. 1) destroying 2) concerning 3) shadowing
1) all too clear that
4) drying 5) facing
2) too much clear that
70. 1) dictatorship 2) hostility 3) scenario
3) all in clear language
4) destruction 5) gravity
4) too clear that all
71. 1) condemned 2) rebuked 3) unmindful
5) No correction required
4) uncalled 5) silly
83. It is in wide belief that most patient cannot afford to
72. 1) sought 2) learnt 3) availed enter these hospitals.
4) resulted 5) slapped 1) widely in belief
73. 1) bitter 2) hot 3) sour 2) widely believed
4) enough 5) severe 3) widely in believing
74. 1) block 2) sanctioning 3) penalty 4) wide in believe
4) showdown 5) embargo 5) No correction required
75. 1) injury 2) damages 3) claim 84. It has already infused `1000 crore in this flagship scheme.
4) loss 5) killing 1) already has infused
Directions (Q. 76-80): In each of the following questions 2) infused already
four words are given of which two words are most nearly the 3) already has been infusing
same or opposite in meaning. Find the two words which are 4) already infused
most nearly the same or opposite in meaning and indicate 5) No correction required
the number of the correct letter combination as your answer. 85. There is a good fortune for the members of our community
76. (A) Confab (B) Condone provided we would heave consider ourselves Indians
(C) Dither (D) Hesitate first and anything else later.
1) A-B 2) B-C 3) C-D 1) we would have to be considered ourselves
4) A-C 5) B-D 2) we ought consider ourselves
 3) we consider ourselves 97. 725 25 - 13 = ?
4) we have considered ourselves 1) 16 2) 29 3) 12
5) No correction required 4) 18 5) None of these
Directions (Q. 86-90): In each question below, a sentence Directions (Q. 98-102): Study the graphs below and
with four words printed in BOLD type is given. These are answer the questions that follow.
numbered as 1), 2), 3) and 4). One of these four boldly printed Rainfall in August and rainfall during the entire June-
words may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the September season over the years
context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly
spelt or inappropriate, if any. The number of that word is in August Total rainfall in June-Sept
your answer. If all the boldly printed words are correctly
spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence,

Rainfall (in milimetres)

1100

900
890

895

890
mark 5), ie All Correct, as your answer.

880
86. Owing to 1)/ scarsity of water, 2)/ the metropolitan city 900

700
of Mumbai is passing 3)/ through a hard time. 4)/ All
correct 5). 700
87. I repriminded him for using 1)/ humiliating language 500

300

280
265
255
250
while 2)/ addressing the 3)/ audience. 4)/ All correct 5)

190
88. I appealed to her to look after my 1)/ children during my 300

K
2)/ absence and she 3)/ acceded to my request. 4)/ All 100
correct 5) 2006 2007 2008 2009 2010 2011
89. You have absolutely no 1)/ authority to 2)/ interphere in
my 3)/ affairs. 4)/ All Correct 5) Year
90. This time I was compelled 1)/ to leave him unpunished
2)/ although he deserved severe 3)/ punishment for Production of foodgrains (in million tonnes) over the years
breech of rules. 4)/ All correct 5)
Rice Wheet Peas
Production (in million tonnes)

110
100
Test-III: Quantitative Aptitude 100
90
90

KUNDAN
70 78 85
80 70
Directions (Q. 91-97): What should come in the place
70 60 78
of question mark (?) in the following questions? 68 68
60
50 60
18 15 20
91. (3.2 9.4) 7.6 ? 40 50
42
30 40
32 35
1) 75 2) 100 3) 150 20 25 30
4) 50 5) None of these 10
92. 963 874 = ? 2006 2007 2008 2009 2010 2011
1) 840788 2) 843588 3) 839736
4) 842536 5) None of these Year
98. What is the approximate percentage of average rainfall
93. 12544 64 ? 43.75 in August with respect to that in June to September for
1) 30 2) 15 3) 25 all the given years?
4) 40 5) None of these 1) 32% 2) 35% 3) 30%
94. (16)9 (16)4 (16)3 = (16)? 4) 38% 5) None of these
1) 6.75 2) 8 3) 10 99. What is the percentage of rainfall in August 2009 with
4) 12 5) None of these respect to that in same month in all the years together?
5 1) 14.66% 2) 12.33% 3) 16.13%
95. ? 45
3242 4) 18.43% 5) None of these
1) 29178 2) 25936 3) 35662 100. In which of the following years the percentage rainfall in
4) 22694 5) None of these August is maximum with respect to the total rainfall in
96. 444 (16 1.5) = ? that year?
1) 41.625 2) 222 3) 18.5 1) 2006 2) 2007 3) 2008
4) 185 5) None of these 4) 2009 5) None of these
101. In which of the following years the production of wheat 1) R 2) V 3) T
is maximum with respect to total rainfall in the same year? 4) P 5) None of these
1) 2006 2) 2007 3) 2008 112. By what per cent the production of rice in 1998 produced
4) 2009 5) None of these by state Q is less than that by state U in 2000?
102. In which of the following years percentage increase/
1
decrease in the production of rice is maximum with respect 1) 50% 2) 33 % 3) 40%
to that of the previous year? 3
1) 2006 2) 2007 3) 2008 4) 25% 5) None of these
4) 2010 5) None of these 113. Find the average production of rice (in million tonnes)
Directions (Q. 103-105) : What should come in place of the by all states in 1999.
question mark (?) in the following number series ? 1) 55.42 2) 65.42 3) 60.72
103. 12 16 24 40 ? 4) 50.82 5) 70.67
1) 76 2) 72 3) 84 114. The rice produced by states S and U together in 1998 is
4) 88 5) None of these what per cent more than that by state Q and S together in
104. 8 17 42 91 ? 2000?
1) 170 2) 142 3) 140 1) 50% 2) 33.33% 3) 40%
4) 172 5) None of these 4) 60% 5) None of these
105. 3840 960 240 60 ? 115. Which of the following states shows a continuous

K
1) 20 2) 18 3) 12 decrease in the production of rice over the years?
4) 22 5) None of these 1) P 2) Q 3) R
Directions (Q. 106-110): In each question two equations 4) V 5) None of these
are provided. On the basis of these you have to find out the Directions (Q. 116-120): Study the following table
relation between p and q. Give answer carefully and answer accordingly:
1) if p = q 2) if p > q 3) if q > p The following table shows the different five-star hotel
4) if p q 5) if q p projects completed by different companies.
No. of Year of
106. I. 3p + 2q = 19 II. p + q = 8 Project
rooms
Cost (Rs cr)
completion
Company

107. I. 10q 2 19q 9 0 II. 13p 2 2p 11 0 A 600 275 1998 P

B 320 210 1999 Q

KUNDAN
108. I. 2p 2 3p 5 0 II. 2q 2 11q 15 0 C 250 250 1999 R
D 400 430 1998 S
109. I. 2401p2 = p2 II. 7(p + q) = 2 E 520 310 2000 T
110. I. p 2 3p 2 0 II. q 2 7q 10 0 F 450 400 1998 U
G 500 250 2000 V
Directions (Q. 111-115): Study the following graph
carefully and answer accordingly: 116. Which project had the minimum cost per room?
The following graph shows the production of rice (in 1) A 2) B 3) G
million tonnes) in seven states from 1998 to 2000. 4) E 5) D
1998 1999 2000 117. What is the investment in projects to be completed in
120 120 1998 as percentage of investment in projects to be
100 105 completed in all three years?
105
90 1) 41% 2) 52% 3) 47%
90 90 80
75 4) 56% 5) None of these
75 70 80
80 75 118. What is the approximate average number of rooms that
60 60 50 60
would be built per crore of rupees over the three-year
45 55 40 period?
45 50
30 30 1) 1.25 2) 1.70 3) 0.90
25 4) 1.40 5) 1.55
15 25
119. Assuming a simple interest rate of 10% per annum, what
0 is the approximate average cost per room for all the
P Q R S T U V projects in 2000?
111. Which of the following states show the maximum 1) `1.0 cr 2) `0.70 cr 3) `0.80 cr
percentage increase in the production of rice from 1998 4) `0.90 cr 5) `1.50 cr
to 2000?
120. What is the approx value of the investment on project B. If the shopkeeper does not give the discount the
E in 1997, if the interest rate is 10% p.a. compounded shopkeeper gets a profit of 50%.
annually? C. If the shopkeeper gives only 5% discount on marked
1) `220 cr 2) `250 cr 3) `235 cr price, he will have 42.50% profit.
4) `205 cr 5) Cant be determined 1) Any two of them
Directions (Q. 121-125): The following questions are 2) Only A and B together
accompanied by three statements A, B and C. You have to 3) Only B and C together
determine which statement(s) is/are necessary/sufficient 4) A and either B or C
to answer the question. 5) Only A
121. P, Q and R together invested an amount of `42000 in the 125. What is the rate of interest at which Binod has invested
ratio of 4 : 3 : 7 for different periods of time. What was the money?
amount of profit earned by them individually at the end A. The compound interest at this rate of `2500 in 2 yrs is
of one year? 2
A. They invested for periods in the ratios of 1 : 2 : 1. equal to the simple interest in 3 yrs of ` 1716
3
B. Rs profit is `5500 less than Qs investment. at the same rate.
C. Total amount of profit at the end of one year is `8800. B. The total simple interest on an investment of `12000
1) Only A and B together for 3 yrs and `10000 for 5 yrs at this rate is `5160.

K
2) Only A and C together C. In 3 yrs `1500 at the same rate becomes `1725 by
3) A and either B or C simple interest.
4) All statements are required 1) Any of them
5) Question cant be answered even after using all the 2) A and either B or C
informations 3) Only C
122. What was the sum of the ages of the mother and the son 4) Only A and either B or C
ten years earlier? 5) Any two of them
A. Ratio of the mothers present age to the sons age 126. The price of sugar falls by 12%. How many quintals can
after 10 years is 5 : 3. be bought for the same money which was sufficient to
B. The difference between thrice the present age of the buy 44 quintals at the higher price?
mother and five times the present age of the son is 1) 54 2) 50 3) 38

KUNDAN
50 years. 4) 48 5) None of these
C. The ratio of the age of the mother after 10 years to the 127. The distance between two stations A and B is 220 km.
age of the son after 16 years is 5 : 3. Two motorcyclists start simultaneously from A and B in
1) Any two of them opposite directions and the distance between them after
2) Any one of them 2 hours is 30 km. The faster motorcyclists speed is 5 km/
3) B and either A or C hr more than the slower motorcyclists. Find the ratio of
4) All statements are required the faster motorcyclists speed to the slower
5) Question cant be answered even after using all the motorcyclists.
1) 9 : 5 2) 10 : 11 3) 10 : 9
informations
4) 5 : 8 5) None of these
123. What will be the cost of fencing a rectangular plot?
128. A field can be plouged in 16 days. If 18 more hectares of
A. Cost of fencing a circular plot whose area is 616 cm2
land is ploughed daily, the work will be finished in 10
is `968.
days. Find the area of the field.
B. Perimeter of the rectangular plot is 200 m.
1) 480 hectares 2) 520 hectares
C. Perimeter of the square whose length is equal to the
3) 440 hectares 4) 500 hectares
breadth of the rectangular plot is 20 m.
5) None of these
1) Only C
129. An article costing `425 is marked to be sold at a price
2) A and C together
which gives a profit of 20%. What will be its selling price
3) A and B together
in a sale when 15% is taken off the marked price?
4) A and either B or C
1) `442 2) `430 3) `438
5) Question cant be answered even after using all the 4) Data inadequate 5) None of these
informations 130. How much pure alcohol can be added to 700 ml of an
124. What is the cost price of an article? 18% solution to make its strength 30%?
A. After allowing a discount of 10% on marked price the 1) 60 ml 2)100 ml 3) 140 ml
shopkeeper charges `810. 4) 120 ml 5) None of these
131. A ladder 12 m long reaches a point 8 m below the top of 137. In which State, the percentage of qualified candidates
a building. At the foot of the ladder the elevation of the with respect to that of appeared candidates is minimum?
top of the building is 60. Find the approx height of the 1) C 2) F 3) D
building. 4) E 5) G
1) 18 m 2) 21 m 138. What is the difference between the number of qualified
3) 16 m 4) Data inadequate candidates of States D and those of G?
5) 14 m 1) 690 2) 670 3) 780
132. Find the value of x in the equation 4) 720 5) None of these
x 3 3x 1241 139. What is the percentage of qualified candidates with
2 respect to appeared candidates from States B and C taken
3x 1 217
1) 17 2) 19 3) 13 together? (rounded to two decimal places)
4) 27 5) None of these 1) 23.11 2) 24.21 3) 21.24
133. A hemispherical bowl of internal diameter 54 cm contains 4) 23 5) None of these
a liquid. The liquid is to be filled in cylindrical bottles of 140. What is the ratio between the number of candidates
radius 3 cm and height 9 cm. How many bottles are qualified from States B and D together to the number of
required to empty the bowl? candidates appeared from State C respectively?
1) 8 : 37 2) 11 : 12 3) 37 : 40
1) 221 2) 343 3) 81
4) 243 5) None of these 4) 7 : 37 5) None of these

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134. How many numbers are there between 100 and 1000 such
that 7 is at units place?
1) 100 2) 90 3) 81
Test-IV: General Awareness
4) 82 5) None of these (With Special Reference to Banking Industry)
135. Find the chance of throwing a sum more than 15 in one
throw with 3 dice. 141. The World Refugee Day is observed on
1 5 5 1) 19 Jun 2) 20 Jun
1) 2) 3) 3) 21 Jun 4) 22 Jun
36 216 108
5) None of these
11 142. Name the footballer on whose name CR7 Galaxy has been

KUNDAN
4) 5) None of these named by the European Southern Observatory (ESO).
216
1) Cristiano Ronaldo 2) Neymar
Directions (Q. 136-140): These questions are based on
3) Gareth Bale 4) Lionel Messi
the following graphs.
5) None of these
Classification of appeared candidates in a competitive test from
143. Which of the following states launched the Village
different states and qualified candidates from those states.
Mentoring Project (VMP) to improve healthcare and
Appeared candidates = 45,000. Qualified candidates = 9000.
education of the villagers with a special emphasis on girl
G
child?
A A
G
13% 1) Uttar Pradesh 2) Bihar
15% 18%
22% F 3) Haryana 4) Tamil Nadu
B
11%
11% 5) West Bengal
B
144. Name the Indian historian who was awarded Japans
F C E 16%
prestigious Fukuoka Prize for 2015 in the Academic
18% 8% 14%
D C category.
E
17% D 7% 1) Romila Thapar 2) Madhav Gadgil
9%
21% 3) Sujata Keshavan 4) Ramachandra Guha
5) None of these
145. The 350th founding anniversary of the holy Sikh city
136. What is the ratio of the number of appeared candidates
Anandpur Sahib was observed in Punjab on 19 Jun. This
from States C and E together to that of the appeared
city was founded in 1665 by
candidates from States A and F together?
1) Guru Ram Das 2) Guru Tegh Bahadur
1) 17 : 33 2) 11 : 13 3) 13 : 27
3) Guru Arjan Dev 4) Guru Gobind Singh
4) 17 : 27 5) None of these
5) Guru Nanak
146. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is NOT empowered to 156. Who among the following has been appointed as the
issue banknotes of which of the following new Director of National Book Trust (NBT)?
denominations? 1) MA Sikandar 2) Uddipana Goswami
1) `5 2) `500 3) `1000 3) Rita Chowdhury 4) Arupa Kalita Patangia
4) `10000 5) None of these 5) Anuradha Sharma Pujari
147. The duty imposed by a govt on imported products which 157. The RBI has signed a special currency swap agreement
have prices less than their normal values or domestic with the central bank of which of the following countries
price, is termed as allowing the latter to draw up to $1.1 bn for a maximum
1) customs duty 2) excise duty period of six months?
3) anti-dumping duty 4) import duty 1) Afghanistan 2) Bangladesh 3) Myanmar
5) None of these 4) Sri Lanka 5) Maldives
148. Who among the following Indian scientist was conferred 158. India has signed a pact with the World Bank for $250-mn
Japans highest civilian award, the Order of the Rising financial assistance for the Disaster Recovery Project of
Sun, Gold and Silver Star in Jun 2015? 1) Odisha 2) Tamil Nadu
1) CNR Rao 2) MRS Rao 3) Andaman and Nicobar 4) Andhra Pradesh
3) G Madhavan Nair 4) APJ Abdul Kalam 5) Lakshadweep
5) None of these 159. Indigenously built INS Astravahini was decommissioned
149. Who won the Austrian Grand Prix F1 championship in at Vishakhapatnam in Jul 2015. It was a

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Jun 2015? 1) torpedo launch and recovery vessel
1) Felipe Massa 2) Lewis Hamilton 2) guided missile destroyer
3) Nico Rosberg 4) Sebastian Vettel 3) fast attack vessel
5) None of these 4) helicopter carrier
150. Which of the following states decided to observe 2015- 5) anti-submarine warfare carrier
16 as the Year of Development? 160. The proposal of which Chinese telecom solutions
1) Punjab 2) Rajasthan provider to set up a manufacturing unit in Tamil Nadu
3) Madhya Pradesh 4) Uttarakhand has received conditional security clearance from the
5) None of these govt?
151. The South Korean steel giant Posco put on hold its $12- 1) China Unicom 2) Pioneer Global

KUNDAN
bn steel project in which of the following states due to 3) ZTE 4) Huawei
delays in various regulatory approvals? 5) Lenovo
1) Karnataka 2) Maharashtra 3) Madhya Pradesh 161. Who among the following Indian crickets has been
4) Odisha 5) Tamil Nadu inducted as one of the five new members into the
152. Name the Indian American woman who has been prestigious Laureus Sports Academy in Shanghai?
honoured as one of the Champions of Change by the 1) Rahul Dravid 2) MS Dhoni
White House of the US. 3) Kapil Dev 4) Sachin Tendulkar
1) Sunita Viswanath 2) Indra Nooyi 5) None of these
3) Sunita Williams 4) Renu Khator 162. The state-owned power equipment maker BHEL has
5) Geeta Menon signed an MoU with a Russian company INTMA, to set
153. The Haryana govt has appointed who among the up a gas-based power project in
following as its brand ambassador for the Beti Bachao, 1) Kazakhstan 2) Kyrgyzstan
Beti Padhao campaign? 3) Tajikistan 4) Uzbekistan
1) Kareena Kapoor 2) Parineeti Chopra 5) None of these
3) Deepika Padukone 4) Priyanka Chopra 163. Who among the following is the new Indian Ambassador
5) Madhuri Dixit to France?
154. The Union govts Department of Industrial Policy and 1) Arun Kumar 2) Vijay Gokhale
Promotion (DIPP) has approved a proposal to set up the 3) Ashok K Kantha 4) Mohan Kumar
countrys first defence industrial park at Ottappalam in 5) None of these
1) Tamil Nadu 2) Kerala 3) Karnataka 164. Stanislav Gross, who died recently, was the former Prime
4) West Bengal 5) Gujarat Minister of which of the following countries?
155. Alcides Edgardo Ghiggia, who passed away recently, 1) Slovenia 2) Croatia
was the soccer legend of 3) Czech Republic 4) Venezuela
1) Brazil 2) Argentina 3) Chile 5) None of these
4) France 5) Uruguay
165. Name the Indian scientist and co-creator of element 117 173. The DigiLocker is a system launched by the govt to
who was awarded Hevesy Medal Award 2015 on 12 Apr. securely store documents online. Which of the following
1) SS Katiyar 2) Susanta Lahiri document cannot be stored in it?
3) Lakshmi Kantam 4) VN Krishnamurthy 1) Insurance 2) Medical reports
5) None of these 3) Marriage certificate 4) School certificate
166. Surya Bahadur Thapa died on 16 Apr 2015. He was the 5) None of these
former ________of Nepal. 174. A universal bank does not undertake which of the
1) Prime Minister following activities?
2) President 1) Investment Banking 2) Commercial Banking
3) Chief Justice of Supreme Court of Nepal 3) Development Banking 4) Insurance
4) Founder of the Communist Party of Nepal 5) None of these
5) None of these 175. Which of the following is Indias highest civilian honour?
167. The Montreal Protocol is associated with which of the 1) Bharat Ratna
following? 2) Padma Shri
1) Phasing out of nuclear arms 3) Padma Bhushan
2) Destruction of chemical weapons 4) Padma Vibhushan
3) Convention on Diplomatic Relations 5) None of these
4) Protection of the Ozone Layer 176. The Indian Railway has launched pre-paid RuPay debit

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5) None of these card for ticket bookings and purchasing on IRCTC site.
168. How many non-official directors are appointed to the The card has been launched is association with
Central Board of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) along 1) State Bank of India
with a governor and four deputy governors? 2) Bank of India
1) 5 2) 11 3) 15 3) Bank of Baroda
4) 18 5) None of these 4) Union Bank of India
169. Seeking to overcome the hurdles in interlinking of rivers, 5) Central Bank of India
the Centre has constituted a Task Force which will be 177. Who among the following has won the Best Director
chaired by award at the 62nd National Film Awards?
1) BN Navalawala 2) Rajendra Singh 1) Vikas Bahl (Queen)
3) Murli Manohar Joshi 4) Uma Bharti 2) Srijit Mukherji (Chotushkone)

KUNDAN
5) None of these 3) Vishal Bhardwaj (Haider)
170. A ________is a negotiable financial instrument issued 4) Omung Kumar (Mary Kom)
by a bank to represent a foreign companys publicly 5) None of these
traded securities. 178. Since the launch, which of the following rates have been
1) depositary receipt used as benchmark rate for the majority of money market
2) participatory notes deals made in India?
3) buyers credit 1) LIBOR
4) cross listed stock 2) MIBOR
5) None of these 3) Bank Rate
171. Identify the one which is NOT allowed in small accounts 4) Base rates of fiver top banks
opened with banks? 5) None of these
1) Withdrawal and transfers of `10,000 in a month. 179. The SDR is an international reserve asset, created by the
2) Credit of foreign remittances IMF in 1969 to supplement its member countries official
3) Total credits in one year of `1,00,000 reserves. The term SDR stands for
4) All the above 1) Structured Drawing Rights
5) None of these 2) Special Drawing Rights
172. The commercial paper (CP) is an unsecured money market 3) Segregated Drawing Rights
instrument issued in the form of a promissory note. It 4) Special Drawing Resolution
can be issued by 5) None of these
1) Corporates 180. Prime Minister Narendra Modi launched MUDRA bank
2) Primary Dealers (PDs) on 8 Apr 2015 with a corpus of
3) All-India Financial Institutions (FIs) 1) `3,000 cr 2) `5,000 cr 3) `10,000 cr
4) All the above 4) `20,000 cr 5) `25,000 cr
5) None of these
 191. Which of the following produces the best-quality
Test-V: Computer Knowledge graphics reproduction?
1) Laser printer 2) Inkjet printer
181. IP address consists of how many bits? 3) Plotter 4) Dot matrix printer
1) 16 bits 2) 8 bits 5) CAD
3) 30 bits 4) 36 bits 192. A process is another name for
5) None of these 1) job 2) program
182. Which storage device is mounted on reels? 3) task 4) method
1) Floppy disk 2) CD-ROM 5) call
3) Magnetic disk 4) Magnetic tape 193. A computer virus is a software program which has the
5) Hard disk essential ability to
183. A paint program keeps track of every ________ placed 1) damage data 2) clone itself
on the screen. 3) hide itself 4) damage program
1) image 2) object 5) None of these
3) pixel 4) colour 194. Communication between computers is almost always
5) symbol 1) serial 2) parallel
184. Rules of a programming language are called 3) serially parallel 4) direct
1) procedures 2) calls 3) methods 5) indirect

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4) login 5) syntax 195. The interface of data from a CPU to peripheral devices of
185. A primary key can also be called a ________. a computer is achieved through
1) super key 2) candidate key 1) interface 2) commands
3) alternate key 4) secondary key 3) buffer 4) parts of computer
5) foreign key 5) All the above
186. Which shortcut key is used to open a new file in MS- 196. DNS is extremely important for the correct functioning
Word? of the Internet. To do so, it
1) ctrl + N 2) ctrl + M 3) ctrl + Y 1) encrypts data
4) ctrl + X 5) ctrl + Z 2) maps symbolic names for machines onto their IP
187. Bridge operates in which of the following OSI layers? address

KUNDAN
1) Physical 2) Network 3) translates message into machine language
3) Data link 4) Both (1) and (3) 4) All the above
5) Session 5) None of these
188. ________ printer is used for fax machines. 197. Which of the following was the first widely used OS
1) Line 2) Dot matrix with graphical interface?
3) Laser 4) Ink jet 1) OS12 2) MVS 3) Mac OS
5) Thermal 4) DOS 5) VMS
189. What does AMD stand for 198. Lynx is a type of
1) Advanced Mainframe Devices 1) search engine 2) web index
2) Advanced Micro Devices 3) meta-search engine 4) web browser
3) Advanced Mini Devices 5) newsgroup
4) Advanced Major Devices 199. A computer is a box full of electronic
5) Advanced Monitor Devices 1) chips 2) registers
190. Foxpro is an example of 3) circuits 4) switching devices
1) DBMS 5) None of these
2) Relational DBMS 200. Which of the following keyboards is the fastest?
3) Object-oriented DBMS 1) QWERTY 2) Dvorak
4) Distributed DBMS 3) Alphanumeric 4) Numeric
5) Knowledge base DBMS 5) None of these
 Answers and Explanations
(1-5): Word arrangement machine first arranges words
having first letter vowel in alphabetical order, after
that words having first letter consonent will be
arranged in alphabetical order. Alternately the
numbers are choosen such that - greatest, lowest,
2nd greatest, 2nd lowest and so on.
1. 3; Step II: after 89 she 38 wins 11 olympic 22 the 7
Step III: after 89 olympic she 38 wins 11 22 the 7
Step IV: after 89 olympic 7 she 38 wins 11 22 the
Step V: after 89 olympic 7 she 38 the wins 11 22
2. 2
3. 3; Input : elephant 17 free open 41 27 danger 15
Step I: elephant 41 17 free open 27 danger 15
Step II: elephant 41 open 17 free 27 danger 15
Step III: elephant 41 open 15 17 free 27 danger
Step IV: elephant 41 open 15 danger 17 free 27
K
Step V: elephant 41 open 15 danger 27 17 free
Step VI: elephant 41 open 15 danger 27 free 17
4. 4 5. 2
6. 3; Q R = K
So, Q K
7. 4; F > R and R G
So, F > G and also given F V.
Cant say about V and G.
8. 4; Q L < M = R K
Q L< M K
KUNDAN
Q L<K cant say about Q and K.
Q L<M cant say about Q and M
9. 1; J M = N, N < T
J N<T
So, J < T
10. 3 11. 2
12. 3; Here, after looking all the statements we found that
the term books have one 100% notation in
statement IV and this term is common with statement
I and II. So, two possible conclusions are Some
slates one pencils and Some slates are pens. So
conclusion III follow.
No conclusion can start with All So others will be
eliminated.
13. 3 14. 1 15. 3
16. 1; Only I is strong. II is not strong because we do not
know whether the existing provisions are sufficient
or not.
17. 1; I is strong because intimacy of NRIs with Indian
soil will be helpful for Indian economy. II is a weak
argument because a move cant be restricted only
because the move is not giving benefit to all of a
kind.
18. 4; I is weak because it is not desirable. Moreover, is
falsely assumes that govt authorities cant cope with
the demand of driving hiences. II is weak because it
is not logical. It wrongly assumes that such a move
will lead to a spurt in the number of vehicles.
19. 3; I is strong because it will encourage non-violence
and will make the environment conducive for peace.
II is also strong because effort from only one side
will not necessarily usher in desirable result. But
the state cant be both more and less peaceful at the
same time. Hence either I or II follows.
20. 4
21. 1; I is advisable because this will facilitate the homeless
to fight against cold wave. II is also advisable
because it will provide shelter to some more people.
III is also advisable because extending timing of
night shelter will give some more relief to the
homeless.
22. 3; I is not advisable because it will adversely affect the
campaign. II is advisable because it will bolster
support to the women constable. III is not advisable
because cases of casualty will increase.
23. 5; I is impractical. II is ridiculous. Hence, neither I nor
II follows. But III follows because it is the right way
of action.
24. 5; Only I and II follow. I is a advisable because it will
be helpful in taking measures to make reform in the
performance of the team. II is also advisable because
practice makes a man perfect. III is not advisable
since it is a matter of World Cup and newcomers will
take some time to adjust themselves.
25. 3; I does not follow because it is not appropriate in a
globalised, WTO-regulated world. II follows,
however. III is an act of piracy and therefore needs
to be condemned.
26. 3; From I: Our answer is Yes because from here, the
minute hand will take 30 minutes to reach 6, and the
hour hand will take an entire hour.
From II: Our answer is No. There are two possible
times in this situation: approx 5 : 15 (the minute hand
takes 15 minutes to reach 6 and the hour hand takes
45) and approx 3 : 45 (the minute hand takes 45
minutes to reach 6 and the hour hand takes 2 hours
and 15 minutes, which is 135 minutes.)
27. 1; From I: If a month starts and ends with the same
day of the week, it must have a complete number of
weeks plus one more day. The only possible month
is a 29-day February.
From II: In order to add up to 38, it can only be the
highest possible number for the last Monday of a
month (31) and the highest for the first Thursday of
a month (7). Therefore, both last month and the
current must have 31 days. The only two 31-day
 months in a row in the same calender year are July
and August. If both the months are from the same
calendar year, August is our answer. But the
statement does not say that the both the months
are from the same calendar year. Note that December
and January are also the months in a row which
have 31 days each.
28. 5; From I and II together: Every player takes an odd
number of matches per play. After the first player
goes, there will always be an odd number of matches
left. After the second player goes, there will always
be an even number of matches left. Therefore, the
second player, ie Alka, is the winner.
29. 2; From II: The first crossing took place at point A.
Consider A as a new starting point. Do the same for
every crossing point. Since they drove at consistent
speeds, the distances from A to B, B to C, and C to A
are the same. After point A, one car must have driven
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twice the distance as the other to reach B at the
same time. Therefore, one goes twice as fast as the
other.
30. 5; From I and II together: The team A could win 3
points only by winning one match and tying
another. Since they only scored one goal, the results
must be 1-0 and 0-0. The team C tied one and lost
the other match. The scores must have been 1-1 and
0-1. Their tied game must have been against the
team B. So team A beat team C (1-0) and team A tied
KUNDAN
with team B (0-0).
(31-32): The number of handshakes and kisses add up to 55.
Each member of Choudhary family said goodbye to
each member of Thakur family. If we multiply the
number of members of both families, the result
should be 55.
There are two possibilities.
I. 55 = 11 5 (One family with 11 members and other
one with 5)
II. 55 = 55 1 (Which is not possible, since a family
is not formed by only one person)
We now analyse the handshakes following the same
procedure. There are two possibilities:
I. 21 = 7 3 (7 men in one family and 3 in the other)
II. 21 = 21 1 (Which is not possible, because none
of these families has so many members, as seen
above)
Therefore, one family is formed by 7 men and 4
women and the other by 3 men and 2 women.
31. 5; 7 + 3 = 10
32. 1; 4 + 2 = 6
(33-37): Draw a table with five rows and five columns, making
the languages the column headers and the people
33. 2
the row headers.
Statement I tells us that B and C speak English.
Mark a tick mark ( ) in the corresponding cells.
Statement I also tells us that D does not speak
English. Mark a cross-mark () in the corresponding
cell. Additionally, statement I tells us B, C and D
speak Spanish. Mark it in the table. Follow the same
procedure for statement II and statement III.
Statement III says that the only common language
between C and E is Italian and Since C also speaks
English and Spanish, we can put a cross-mark for E
in those columns. Similarly put a cross-mark for
French in C.
Languages
People
Eng Sp Fr Port Ital
A
B
C
D
E
We can see that three people speak Spanish and
French. Add another tick mark for Spanish, since it
is the most common language.
From statement VI we need one person who speaks
only one language. The only possibility is D.
Complete the row with cross-marks.
From statement IV, we look for the three people who
speak Portuguese. They cannot be C and E both,
since their common language was Italian. Therefore,
two of the Portuguese speakers must be A and B.
From statement VI we need a person who speaks
only two languages. It can only be E, so we put a
cross mark for E in Portuguese. Thus the third person
who speaks Portuguese must be C, so we mark a
tick-mark in the corresponding cell.
We look now for the person who speaks three
languages, and it can only be A. Put cross-marks in
the corresponding cells. So the person who speaks
five languages is B. The table is now complete.
Languages
People
Eng Sp Fr Port Ital
A
B
C
D
E
34. 5 35. 2 36. 5 37. 1
 38. 4; Others have only three elements while #@ consists 71. 4 72. 2 73. 1 74. 5 75. 4
of two elements. 76. 3; same
39. 2; The first elements follow +4 series; the second 77. 1; opposite
elements follow -6, -5, -4, ... series; and the third 78. 2; same
elements follow +1 series. 79. 1; opposite
40. 5; (10) 80. 4; same
(41-45): 81. 4 82. 1 83. 2 84. 5 85. 3
86. 2; The correct spelling is scarcity.
87. 1; The correct word will be reprimand. The meaning
of reprimand is to express severe disapproval of
somebody or their actions especially officially.
88. 5
89. 3; The correct spelling is interfere.
90. 4; The correct spelling is breadh.
18 15 20 270 20 250
41. 4 42. 5 43. 3 44. 3 45. 2 91. 4; ? = (3.2 9.4) 7.6 = = = 50
(46-50): firefighters are armymen tee mee kee 12.6 7.6 5
... (i) 92. 5; ? = 963 874 = 841662

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courageous people are armymen kee loo nee tee 93. 3; 12544 64 ? = 43.75
... (ii)
courageous being enthusiastic loo pee jee 112
or, ? = 43.75
... (iii) 64
people are enthusiastic kee nee pee 7
... (iv) or, ? = 43.75
4
positive people are unpleasant nee kee dee see 43.75 4
... (v) or, ? = = 25
7
From (i), (ii) and (iv) are kee
From (i) and (ii) armymen tee (16) 9 (16) 3
94. 2; = (16)?
From (i) firefighters mee (16) 4

KUNDAN
From (iii) and (iv) enthusiastic pee or, (16)9 + 3 4 = (16)?
From (ii), (iv) and (v) people nee or, (16)8 = (16)?
From (ii) and (iii) courageous loo ?=8
From (iii) being jee
From (v) positive/unpleasant dee/see 5
95. 1; ? = 45
46. 2 47. 2 48. 4 49. 2 50. 5 3242
51. 3; People of Rajasthan are yet to forget the days when 45 3242
there was scarce water supply and drinking water or, ? = = 29178
5
had to be transported by train from other places.
52. 3 444
96. 3; ? = = 18.5
53. 5; Being in direct contact with the sun, a good amount 16 1.5
of water is lost because of evaporation. 725
54. 1 97. 1; ? = 13 = 29 - 13 = 16
25
55. 2
56. 4; If the water flows without any restriction it will wash 98. 3; Total average rainfall in all the years (from June to
away a good amount of soil with it, so the movement 5155
of water is checked to stop soil erosion. September) =
6
57. 1 = 859.166
58. 2; Watershed management has been successful in
Madhya Pradesh and not in Rajasthan. 1540
Average rainfall in August = 256.66
59. 4 60. 1 6
61. 3 62. 5 63. 4 64. 1 65. 4 256.66
66. 4 67. 5 68. 2 69. 1 70. 3 Reqd % = 29.87 30%
859.166
 190
99. 2; Reqd % = 100 = 12.33% 108. 4; I. 2p 2 3p 5 0
1540
300 or, p = 1, 5 2
100. 1; In the year 2006 100 33.33
890
250 II. 2q 2 11q 15 0
In the year 2007 100 27.77
900
or, 2q 2 6q 5q 15 0
255
In the year 2008 100 28.97 or, 2q(q + 3) + 5(q + 3) = 0
880
or, (q + 3) (2q + 5) = 0
90
In the year 2009 100 27.14
700 or, q = -3, 5 2
265
In the year 2010 100 29.60 Hence, p q.
895 109. 1; I. 2401p2 = p2
280
In the year 2011 100 31.46
890 4 1
Hence, in the year 2006. or, p
2401
101. 4

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10 4
100 16.66 4 1 1
102. 2; In the year 2007 = or, p or, p =
60 7 7
10
2009 = 100 14.70 II. 7p + 7q = 2
68
12 or, 7q + 1 = 2
2010 = 100 15.38 or, 7q = 1
78
Hence in the year 2007.
or, q = 1 7
103. 2; 12 2 - 8 16 2 - 8 24 2 - 8 40 2 - 8 72
104. 4; 8 +(3)2 17 +(5)2 42 +(7)2 91 +(9)2 172 Hence, p = q
110. 5; I. p 2 3p 2

KUNDAN
0
105. 5; 3840 1 960 1 240 1 60 1 15
4 4 4 4 or, (p - 2) (p - 1) = 0
106. 3; II. p + q = 8 or, p = 1, 2
or, p = 8 - q .... (i)
I. 3p + 2q = 19 II. q 2 7q 10 0
or, 3(8 - q) + 2q = 19 or, (q - 2) (q - 5) = 0
or, q = 5 or, q = 2, 5
p=8-5=3 Hence, q p.
Hence, q > p 111. 5; There is maximum gap between 1998 and 2000 for
107. 2; I. 10q 2 19q q 0 state U. And maximum percentage increase is also
2
or, 10q 10q 9q 9 0 for state U.
or, 10q(q 1) 9(q 1) 0 105 70 1
112. 2; Reqd. less % 100 33 %
105 3
or, (q 1) (10q 9) 0 113. 3; Avg. production
or, q 9 , 1 80 60 25 50 50 80 80
10 =
7
II. 13p 2 2p 11 0 = 60.72 million tonnes
or, 13p 2 13p 11p 11 0 45 75 55 25
114. 1; Reqd. more % 100 50%
or, 13p(p 1) 11(p 1) 0 55 25
or, (13p + 11) (p - 1) = 0 115. 2
11 ,1 116. 1; Only for project A, the value of cost per room is less
or, p 13 than half crore, whereas in other projects it is either
Hence, p > q more than or equal to half crore.
117. 2; Total investments for all the projects Now, combining (A) with (C),
= 275 + 210 + 250 + 430 + 310 + 400 + 250 SP = 900 0.95 = `855
= `2125 cr 100
Investments on those projects which are completed CP = 855 142.50 = `600
in 1998 Hence, A and either B or C are sufficient.
= 275 + 430 + 400 = `1105 cr 125. 1; Let the rate of interest be r%.
1105
reqd % 100 52% 2
2125 r 5150 r 3
118. 4; Total no. of rooms over the three-year period A. 2500 1 1
100 100
= 600 + 320 + 250 + 400 + 520 + 450 + 500
= 3040 12000 r 3 10000 r 5
reqd average no. of rooms per crore of rupees B. 5160
100 100
3040 1725 1500
= 1.4 r 100 5%
2125 C.
3 150
119. 3; When the interest rate is 10% p.a. at SI, then the Hence, any one of them is sufficient.
total cost in 2000
= 330 + 231 + 275 + 516 +310 + 480 + 250 44
126. 2; Reqd amount = 50 quintals
= `2392 cr 0.88

K
127. 3; Let the speed of the slower motorcyclist be x km/hr.
2392
Avg. cost per room = 0.80 cr Therefore the speed of the faster motorcyclist will
3040 be (x + 5) km/hr.
120. 3; Investments in 1997 on project E In 2 hrs both motorcylists cover
10 10 10 2x + 2(x + 5) = (4x + 10) km distance.
= 310 235 cr
11 11 11 i.e. 4x + 10 = 220 - 30
121. 3; The given question gives the amounts of investment or, 4x = 180 or, x = 45
of P, Q and R, which is P = `12000, Q = `9000 and S Ratio = 50 : 45 = 10 : 9
= `21000. Statement (A) combined with the 128. 1; Let original area ploughed daily = x hectares
questions information will give us the ratio of their Total area ploughed = 16x

KUNDAN
profits, i.e. 4:6:7. Now, combine this either with B or If (x + 18) hectares is ploughed daily, then total area
C, and profit earned by them can be determined. = 10(x + 18)
Therefore, A and either B or C is sufficient. Given that, 16x = 10(x + 18)
122. 5; Let the present ages of mother and son be M and S or, x = 30 hectares
yrs respectively. total area of field = 16 30 = 480 hectares
129. 5; Net profit on the article
M 5
A. 20 15
S 10 3 = 20 15 2%
100
or, 3M - 5S = 50
Selling price of the article = 425 1.02
B. 3M - 5S = 50
= `433.50
M 10 5 130. 4; By Method of Alligation:
C.
S 16 3
or, 3M - 5S = 50
Here, all the three equations are the same. Therefore
option 5) is the correct choice.
123. 3; Statement (A) gives the cost of fencing one metre
of the plot. Combining this with statement (B), total
cost of fencing can be determined.
124. 4; A. Marked price of the article
100 70
810 = `900 Ratio = 35: 6
= 12
90
B. CP of the article (with the help of A) For each part of liquid I, 6 part of liquid II should
35
900 100 be added. So for 700 ml of liquid I, 120 ml of liquid II
= = `600
150 should be added.
131. 3; In the adjacent figure, 135. 3; A throw amounting to 18 must be made up of 6, 6, 6
P and this can occur in 1 way; 17 can be made up of 6,
6, 5, which can occur in 3 ways; 16 may be made up
of 6, 6, 4 and 6, 5, 5, each of which arrangements can
M occur in 3 ways.
Therefore the no. of favourable cases is
1 + 3 + 3 + 3 = 10
60 Total no. of cases = 63 = 216
Q
R 10 5
PQ = length of the building required probability =
RM = length of the ladder, 216 108
Given RM = 12 m, PM = 8 m and PRQ 60 8 9
136. 1; Reqd ratio = 17 : 33
15 18
In PQR 137. 5; Here, do not find the ratio of the no. of qualified
8 MQ 8 MQ candidates to that of the appeared. Simply check
tan 60 or, RQ the ratio of % qualified candidates with respect to
RQ 3
the appeared is the least for which state. Ans = G.
In MQR 138. 4; Reqd difference = (21 - 13) % of 9000 = 720

K
RM 2
MQ 2
RQ 2 16 7 % of 9000
139. 2; Reqd % = 11 8 % of 45000 100 = 24.21%
2
2 2 8 MQ
or, 12 MQ
140. 3; Reqd ratio =
16 21 % of 9000
= 37:40
3 8% of 45000
or, MQ 8m 141. 2 142. 1 143. 3 144. 4 145. 2
Height of the building = PM + MQ = 8 + 8 = 16m 146. 5 147. 3 148. 1 149. 3 150. 1
151. 4 152. 1 153. 2 154. 2 155. 5
x 3 3x 1241 156. 3 157. 4 158. 4 159. 1 160. 4
132. 1; 2
3x 1 217 161. 4 162. 1 163. 4 164. 3 165. 2
Using componendo and dividendo, we get 166. 1 167. 4 168. 3 169. 1 170. 1

KUNDAN
171. 2 172. 4 173. 5 174. 5 175. 1
x 3 3x 3x 2 1 1241 217 176. 4 177. 2 178. 2 179. 2 180. 4
3 2 1241 217 181. 5; IP address consists of 32 bits.
x 3x 3x 1
182. 4; Magnetic tape is mounted on reels like audiotape.
x 13 1458 183. 3; Every image on the screen consists of pixels.
or, 3 184. 4
x 1 1024
185. 2; In candidate key, one key is considered as a primary
3 3 key.
x 1 9
or, 186. 1
x 1 8 187. 4; Bridge is applicable in physical as well as data link
x 1 9 layer.
or, 188. 5 189. 2 190. 1
x 1 8
or, 8x + 8 = 9x - 9 or, x = 17 191. 3; Plotter is used for producing best-quality graphical
image.
2 192. 3; A process is a program which is in execution.
27 3
133. 4; Reqd no. of bottles = 3 243 193. 2; Virus has the ability to clone itself, so that it can
3 26 multiply, constantly seeking new host environment.
194. 1 195. 4
134. 2; In a three-digit no. with 7 at units place, zero cant 196. 2; DNS (Domain Name System) acts as a resolutor
be there at hundreds place. So, hundreds place which maps names onto IP address and vice versa.
can be filled with any of the digits from 1 to 9. Thus 197. 3
there are 9 options. 198. 4; Lynx is a text-based web browser.
Tens place = digits 0 to 9 = 10 options 199. 4
Units place = 7 = 1 option 200. 2; Dvorak keyboard is a type of keyboard with
no. of required numbers = 9 10 1 = 90 positions for the keys different from QWERTY.
 PRACTICE SET-5
Test-I: Reasoning Ability
Directions (Q. 51-55): In each question are given four
statements followed by five conclusions, one of which
definitely does not logically follow (or is not a possibility of
occurrence) from the given statements. That conclusion is
your answer.
(Note: You have to take the four given statements to be
true even it they seem to be at variance with commonly known
facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically
does not follow from the given statements disregarding
commonly known facts.)
51. Statements: Some chocolates are toffees.
All toffees are gems.
All gems are candies.
No candy is a stone.
Conclusions: 1) No toffee is a stone.
2) Some chocolates are not stones.
3) No gem is a stone.
4) All stones being chocolates is a
possibility.
5) All gems being stones is a possibility.
52. Statements: All letters are words.
No vowel is a consonant.
Some words are papers.
All papers are vowels.
Conclusions: 1) Some papers are consonants.
2) Some vowels not being papers is a
possibility.
3) All words being vowels is a
possibility.
4) No consonant is a vowel.
5) No paper is a consonant.
53. Statements: No table is a chair.
Some chairs are boxes.
No box is a cover.
All covers are drawers.
Conclusions: 1) Some boxes are not tables.
2) Some chairs are not covers.
3) All chairs are covers.
4) No cover is a box.
5) Some drawers are covers.
54. Statements: All cups are bottles.
Some bottles are jugs.
No jug is a bucket.
All buckets are tubs.
Conclusions: 1) Some cups are buckets.
2) Some cups are jugs.
3) Some bottles are not buckets.
4) No cup is a jug.
5) All tubs are jugs.
55. Statements: All numbers are letters.
No letter is a book.
Some books are papers.
No paper is a copy.
Conclusions: 1) No number is a book.
2) Some books are not copies.
3) Some papers are not numbers.
4) Some books are not letters.
5) All papers being letters is a possibility.
Directions (Q. 6-10): Read the following passage
carefully and answer the questions given below.
The governments version of the Lokpal Bill says that
sitting prime ministers will not come under the ombudsmans
lens. Now, the Lokpal will have jurisdiction over ministries,
but not the prime minister. Its a mistake. He is the head of the
Cabinet and the first among equals; as liable to scrutiny as
his peers. Ministries and various departments are the
functioning arms of the government, which enforce rules.
The root of corruption lies in how these rules and policies are
administered.
6. Which of the following is the conclusion of the above
discussion?
1) The government has no will to fight corruption.
2) In case the prime minister is brought under the purview
of the Lokpal, his office may face frequent frivolous
allegations.
3) Keeping the prime minister out of the purview of the
Lokpal will render the institution impotent to check
corruption in the country.
4) Ministries and departments are not under the effective
control of the government.
5) None of these
7. Which of the following is the assumption of the above
discussion?
1) The incumbent government wants to protect the prime
minister from facing corruption charges.
2) The prime minister wants to maintain his supremacy
over the ministers.
3) The prime minister is a constitutional position and it
cant be brought under the Lokpal.
4) Bringing ministers under the Lokpal is enough to
check corruption in high places.
5) None of these
8. Which of the following is an inference of the above
passage?
1) There are fundamental flaws in how policies and rules
are administered my ministries and departments.
2) Ministries and departments are incapable of enforcing
rules and policies properly in lack of support from
ministers.
3) Scrutiny of ombudsman is not a necessary factor for
controlling corruption.
4) Only sitting prime ministers are accused of corruption
charges.
5) None of these
9. Read the following passage carefully and answer the
question given below.
Though focused on inflation, the RBIs monetary policy
can never ignore economic growth. The RBI has
recognized the signs of slowdown but says that it is
essentially confined to sectors that are sensitive to
K
interest rates. There is no evidence yet of a broad-based
slowdown.
Which of the following weakens the above discussion?
1) Hike in short-term lending and borrowing rates contain
inflation and control price rise.
2) Measures to control inflation hurt investment across
all sectors.
3) The costly auto, home and corporate loans do not
have overall impact on the economy.
4) The stock markets, bankers and corporate leaders do
KUNDAN
not represent overall economy of the country.
5) None of these
10. Read the following passage carefully and answer the
question given below.
It is a major contradiction in Indias healthcare service:
even as there has been a mushrooming of huge, well-
equipped, multi-discipline hospitals in big cities serving
the rich, thousands of rural Indias poor patients have to
go without a semblance of medical care.
Which of the following is an assumption of the above
passage?
1) Rural India lacks sufficient trained medical personnel
to take care of poor patients.
2) Rural poor bear the brunt of government apathy
towards their health even as rich among them avail
superior healthcare facilities in nearby cities.
3) The government wants the rural people to opt for
city-based specialty hospitals in case of serious illness.
4) The rural poor are themselves to blame for poor
medical facilities as they go for indigenous medical
systems.
5) None of these
Directions (Q. 11-15): In these questions relationship
between different elements is shown in the statements. These
statements are followed by two conclusions. Give answer
1) If only conclusion I follows.
2) If only conclusion II follows.
3) If either conclusion I or II follows.
4) If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
5) If both conclusion I and II follow.
11. Statements: L > M > N, N > P > R, R B O
Conclusions: I. M R
II. N > B
12. Statements: X = B, B < Z, Y = X, Z > X
Conclusions: I. Z = Y
II. Z > Y
13. Statements: A > B, Z B, Z = W, M > W
Conclusions: I. B = W
II. B > W
14. Statements: P Q = X Y < Z
Conclusions: I. X P
II. Z > X
15. Statements: A = B, C G, G A, A P
Conclusions: I. G B
II. C P
Directions (Q. 16-20): A word arrangement machine,
when given a particular input, rearranges it following a
particular rule. The following is the illustration of the input
and the steps of arrangement:
Input: cook 32 look 39 give 95 take 47 71
Step I: 95 32 look 39 give cook take 47 71
Step II: 95 71 look 39 give cook take 47 32
Step III: 95 71 take 39 give cook look 47 32
Step IV: 95 71 take look give cook 39 47 32
Step V: 95 71 take look 47 cook 39 give 32
Step VI: 95 71 take look 47 give 39 cook 32
Step VII: 95 71 take look 47 give cook 39 32
Step VII is the final Output of this machine.
16. If 97 82 sun 50 moon night 36 72 evening is step 2 then
how many more steps are required to reach on final
output?
1) 5 steps more 2) 6 steps more
3) 4 steps more 4) 3 steps more
5) None of these
17. 86 92 fighter next 88 tire army 29 75 is the input of a
machine and 92 88 tire next 86 fighter army 29 75 is one
of the step of given input. Find out which step is it?
1) Step III 2) Step IV
3) Step V 4) This step is not possible
5) None of these
18. 52 42 tag mug 36 hug 40 bag 21 is the step no. 3 of an
input. Find out the step 1 from this step.
1) 52 36 40 mug 42 hug tag bag 21
2) 52 40 mug 36 42 tag hug bag 21
3) 52 36 mug 40 hug 42 tag bag 21
 4) Cant be determined
5) None of these
19. If input of a machine is 94 hair fair 61 dare 69 share 57
32, find out the step 4.
1) 94 69 share hair 61 fair dare 57 32
2) 94 69 share hair dare 61 57 fair 32
3) 94 69 share hair 61 dare fair 57 32
4) 94 69 share hair 61 57 dare fair 32
5) None of these
20. If step 2 is 99 83 hate gate 64 rate 23 date 57, then how
many more steps are required to get the final output?
1) 3 step 2) 4 step
3) 5 step 4) It cant be step 2
5) None of these
Directions (Q. 21-25): Answer these questions
referring to the symbol-letter-number sequence given below:
M@9lKQ3#8 U2C1EBG6WH4ZA7SD5$Y
21. What would be the total number of the symbols
the question, while the data in statement II alone are
not sufficient to answer the question.
2) if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer
the question, while the data in statement I alone are
not sufficient to answer the question.
3) if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II
alone are sufficient to answer the question.
4) if the data in both statements I and II even together
are not sufficient to answer the question.
5) if the data in both statements I and II together are
necessary to answer the question.
26. You must reach home within five days from the date of
receiving the letter. A wrote to B
What is the exact date before which B should reach
home?
I. The letter war received on 25th February.
II. It was not a leap year.
27. How many students are there between Suresh and

K
immediately preceding the letters and the numbers Mohan in a row of fifty students?
followed by the letters together in the above sequence I. Suresh is twelfth from the left end and Mohan is
if every fifth element disappears from the left end of the seventeenth from the right end.
sequence, dropping K first ? II. Suresh is six places away from Jayesh, who is
1) Eight 2) Five twentieth from the left end.
3) Seven 4) Six 28. How many daughters does X have?
5) None of these I. A and B are the only sisters of D.
22. How many letters and numbers are there in the first II. Bs father is X and has only one son, ie D.
twenty elements in the sequence which are either 29. In how many hours did a train XYZ complete a journey
immediately preceded or immediately followed by a between two stations P and Q?
symbol? I. According to As wife, the train took more than five

KUNDAN
1) Seven 2) Eight 3) Nine hours but less than ten hours to complete the journey.
4) Six 5) None of these II. According to Bs husband, the train took more than
23. Which of the following indicates the total number of eight hours but less than twelve hours to complete
symbols, letters and numbers respectively in the new the journey.
sequence if the first ten elements are written again in the 30. What will be the code for beautiful and lovely dream in
end (ie, after Y)? a code language?
1) 12, 17, 10 2) 11, 16, 11 3) 10, 16, 12 I. koko dhoo kan cha means have a nice dream and
4) 10, 17, 12 5) None of these pich kich nich means fair and lovely.
24. If every sixth part of the sequence is written in the reverse II. loch chop toto means she is beautiful and chop
order, what will be 4th to the left of 7th to the right of 11th pich nich means fair and beautiful.
from the left? Directions (Q. 31-35): Read the following information
1) B 2) 2 3) K carefully and answer the questions following it.
4) C 5) None of these A hostel accommodates twelve persons in six rooms.
25. What should come in place of the question mark(?) in The persons are A, B, C, D, E, F, P, Q, R, S, T and U. The rooms
the following sequence? are #1, #2, #3, #4, #5 and #6. Each room of the hostel is
?, QU9, 8CK, 213 coloured with different colours. Those colours are: blue, green,
1) M89 2) l8M 3) 98M yellow, beige, pink and white. Each room accommodates only
4) l @ 5) None of these two persons.
Directions (Q. 26-30): Each of the questions below A, B, Q, R, T and U are the only males in the group.
consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II Females rooms are odd-numbered whereas males rooms are
given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided even-numbered.
in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read A and B share a room. Cs roommate is not D. E does not
both the statements and give answer live in #6, which is yellow. Neither room #5 nor room #4 is
1) if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer blue or beige. The pink room has an odd number but it is not
room #3. F lives in room #5 with D. Ps roommate is not S. The If a candidate fulfils all the above criteria, he/she may
blue room is even-numbered. R lives in the green room whereas be appointed as a whole-time Inspector. However, in case of a
D lives in the white room. S does not live in room #3. Ts room candidate who fulfils all these criteria except
is blue. (A) (ii) above, but has a minimum experience of 13 years
31. Who among the following are accommodated in the pink- including 3 years experience in a foreign institution,
coloured room? the candidate may be appointed as the Zonal
1) E and S 2) C and S Inspector.
3) P and C 4) Data inadequate (B) (iii) above, but is at least 40 years old and has
5) None of these obtained 85% marks in the interview, the case may
32. Who among the following are accommodated in room be referred to the Chairman.
#3? On the basis of the above criteria decide about the course
of action that has to be taken for each of the candidates. You
1) P and C 2) P and E
are not to assume anything in the case of any candidate. All
3) C and E 4) Data inadequate
the information are provided to you as on 1.5.2004. Mark
5) None of these
answer:
33. In which room are A and B accommodated?
1) If the candidate is to be selected as the whole-time
1) #2 2) #4 Inspector.
3) #6 4) Data inadequate 2) If the candidate is to be selected as the Zonal
5) None of these Inspector.

K
34. Which of the following statements is/are definitely true? 3) If the case is to be referred to the Chairman.
I. U is the partner of T. 4) If the data is inadequate to to take a decision.
II. Q is the partner of T. 5) If the candidate is not to be selected.
III. R is the partner of Q. 36. Shrinivasan Iyer is a 41-year-old professor in the
IV. U is the partner of R. University of Chennai. He has the MBBS qualification
1) Only I 2) Only II as well as a postgraduate medical degree qualification in
3) Only III 4) Both I and III surgery. He has an experience of 16 years in teaching
5) None after postgraduate degree in which 3 years teaching
35. Which of the following statements is/are definitely false? experience in a foreign medical college is included. He
I. A and B are accommodated in the yellow room. has got 85 marks in the interview. He is a citizen of India.

KUNDAN
II. Q is accommodated either in the blue room or in the
green room.
III. C is accommodated either in the pink room or in the
beige room.
IV. U is accommodated in room #2.
1) None 2) Only IV
3) Only I and IV 4) Only II and IV
5) All are true
Directions (Q. 36-40): Read the following information
carefully and answer the questions given below:
The Medical Council of India has invited applications
for the posts of whole-time Inspectors and Zonal Inspectors.
Following are the criteria for selection:
The candidate must
(i) have an MBBS qualification or its equivalent with a
recognised Postgraduate medical degree
qualification.
(ii) have an experience of 16 years in teaching after
postgraduate degree.
(iii) be in the age group of 50-55 years on 1-05-2004.
(iv) obtain 70 marks in the interview, the full marks
being 100.
(v) The candidate must be a citizen of India.
37. Sharad Kapoor was born in Mumbai on 2-1-1953. He has
pursued a postgraduate medical degree after doing
MBBS. He has been teaching in a university since
1986 after doing PG. He has never been to a foreign
country. He has got 72 marks in the interview.
38. Meena Kumari is a professor in the Harvard School of
Medicine with an experience of 17 years in teaching. She
has done her MBBS and postgraduate medical degree
courses. The date of her birth is 19-07-1952. She has the
citizenship of India. She has obtained 70 marks in the
interview. She had started teaching after completing her
postgraduate medical degree qualification.
39. Javed Akhtar is an MBBS. He has also pursued a
postgraduate medical degree. He has been teaching in
the Medical School of California since his 35th birthday
on 25-06-1990. He was born in Delhi. He has got 70 marks
in the interview.
40. Tulsidas Khan is a doctor having MBBS and
postgraduate medical degrees. He started teaching after
postgraduation. He has 11 years of experience in teaching
in the Medical School of Guwahati. He has also taught in
different medical schools in the UK for 4 years. He is 54
years old. He has obtained 79% marks in the interview.
He is an Indian.
 Direction (Q. 41-45) : Read the given information
carefully and answer the questions that follow.
Twelve wards N, O, P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W, X and Y of a
hospital are in two parallel buildings. Building 1 is facing
west and Building 2 is facing east. Wards P, Q, R, S, T and U
are in Building 1 and wards N, O, V, W, X and Y are in Building
2. Each ward of Building 1 is exactly opposite the other ward
in Building 2.
Ward V, which is at one of the ends of the building, is
second to the left of ward Y.
There are two wards between ward N and O.
There is only one ward between ward S and T.
Ward U is third to the right of Q.
Ward U is not opposite either V or Y.
Ward S and T are not opposite V. Ward P is adjacent to
ward S.
Ward W, which is not opposite T, is not adjacent to N.
4) All business establishments who are involved in child
labour should be closed.
5) None of these
47. Statistics released by the National Crime Records Bureau
show the maximum unnatural deaths recorded in 2012
were in road accidents.
Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from
the above statement?
1) Public transportation systems are no longer safe for
travelling.
2) People are taking no precaution while driving.
3) In India, there are no proper safety measures for
vehicles.
4) In India, people do not follow traffic rules and
regulations.
5) None of these
48. Owing to delayed and weak south-west monsoon there
is an alarming depletion in the water levels of important

K
41. Which ward is opposite Q? reservoirs.
1) N 2) Y 3) W Which of the following courses of action could be taken
4) X 5) O by the government?
42. How many wards are there between wards R and S? 1) The Central Government should issue an advisory to
1) Four 2) Three 3) Two the State Government to make judicious and regulated
4) One 5) None of these release of water.
43. Ward R is related to ward X in the same way as ward U is 2) The government should give preference to drinking
related to O, based on the given arrangement. Who water and irrigation, and enhance ground water use
among the following is Q related to, following the same to meet current needs.
pattern? 3) Farmers should be advised by the government to grow
such crops as require less water.

KUNDAN
1) N 2) V 3) W
4) Y 5) None of these 4) All 1), 2) and 3)
44. Which of the following wards are at the ends of the 5) None of these
building? 49. The interest rates on small savings schemes such as the
1) V, O 2) U, Q 3) V, W post office savings schemes, ROI Relief Bonds, Provident
4) R, T 5) None of these Fund and PPF continue to be administered at high levels
45. Which of the following statements is true about P? in relation to market rates. These schemes also have a
variety of tax schemes and tax incentives which result in
1) Ward Y is opposite ward P.
much higher post-tax returns, and on the flip side more
2) Ward N is not the neighbour of that ward which is
liability for the government.
opposite P.
Which of the following inferences drawn from the facts
3) Ward S is not adjacent to ward P.
stated in the above passage is definitely true?
4) Ward P is 2nd from the right end. 1) Tax incentives are provided to benefit all sections of
5) Ward O is opposite that ward which is 3rd to the left the society.
of ward P. 2) The interest rates on small savings have decreased
46. Despite provisions of legal punishment, child labour is considerably over the last few years.
prevalent in our society. 3) Returns on different government-administered
Which of the following could be a logical course of action savings schemes are higher for the tax-paying
for the above mentioned phenomenon? individuals.
1) Strict laws should be made by the parliament against 4) The government-administered savings schemes drain
child labour. out the exchequers money in the long run.
2) Focus should be brought about on the proper 5) None of these
execution of the legal provisions. 50. The Rail Ministry has decided to set up one-stop facility
3) The youth should be persuaded to rebel against their counters to attend the various needs of the passengers
parents who are involved in child labour. at all major stations.
 Which of the following assumptions is implicit in the
above statement? (An assumption is something taken
for granted)
1) Majority of the passengers will remain deprived of
the variety of services during their journey.
2) The services provided by these counters will help all
those passengers who are travelling alone.
3) This will lead to an extra burden on the Railways.
4) The services provided by these counters will result
in better facilities to the passengers.
5) None of these
Test-II: English Language
Directions: (Q. 51-55): In each of the following
sentences there are two blank spaces. Below each sentence
there are five pairs of words denoted by numbers 1), 2), 3), 4)
and 5). Find out which pair of words can be filled up in the
56. A. At best, it has had one or two dangerous bowlers in
an attack of four.
B. Except for a brief spell in the 1970s, India has never
had a match-winning bowling combination.
C. But this comes as no surprise to those who have
followed Indian cricket over the last 50 years.
D. India has one of the worst bowling attacks in the
world.
1) ABCD 2) DCBA 3) CDAB
4) BCAD 5) CBAD
57. A. Language, it was once said, is a dialect backed by an
army.
B. Despite more than 50 years of state sponsorship,
neither Urdu nor Hindi, at least in its official
incarnation, has gained the allegiance of the people
at large.
C. Yet, the history of national languages in the region
tells a very different story.

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D. On the face of it, this is perhaps more true of the
blanks in the sentence in the same sequence to make it
Indian subcontinent than any other part of the world.
meaningfully complete.
1) ADCB 2 ) BDCA 3) DCBA
51. Autonomy in investigation and prosecution would
4) CDBA 5) CABD
________ judicial disposals and restore ________ in the
58. A. We should judge and determine if our acts are correct,
rule of law.
whether they are appropriate before the Lord who
1) expedite, credibility 2) energise, autonomy
has granted us life.
3) empower, faith 4) maintain, awareness
B. We should live in a manner that material
5) supervise, speed
considerations and personal benefits dont matter.
52. The highest court of this country has always gone out
to ________ the ________ of the citizenry. C. Every one of us should find the time for meditation
and communion with the Almighty.

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1) govern, issues 2) deliver, justice
3) stretch, rights 4) derive, hope D. If we find we have acted properly, we should fear no
5) uphold, interests one.
53. ________ of illiteracy from a nation that is set to become 1) DCBA 2) ABCD 3) CADB
the most populated in the world is by no ________ easy. 4) ACBD 5) DACB
1) Dealing, effect 2) Management, concern 59. A. Therefore, all this breast-beating about the few
3) Eradication, means 4) Uprooting, method knocking advertisements that are being aired, taking
5) Capturing, task potshots at our political leaders, is needless.
54. This approach would ________ the enormous illiteracy B. The right to information is the bedrock of a true
problem to be ________ in a holistic manner. democracy.
1) drive, controlled 2) enable, tackled C. By the very fact that these politicians are in the public
3) contain, settled 4) manage, defined space and are seeking our mandate to represent us
5) negotiate, sorted and rule this country for the next five years, we have
55. It is time to ________ ongoing programmes and ________ the right to know both their pluses and minuses.
new horizons. D. What is not spelt out but is implicit in this right is that
1) allocate, define 2) consider, think the information can be both negative as well as
3) justify, assemble 4) assess, seek positive.
5) evaluate, avail 1) ABCD 2) DCBA 3) CDAB
Directions (Q. 56-60): In each of the questions below 4) DABC 5) BDAC
four sentences are given which are denoted by A), B), C) and 60. A. An individuals decline begins with desire and ends
D). By using all the four sentences you have to frame a in misery.
meaningful para. The correct order of the sentences is your B. Animals take life as it comes, but when man fails to do
answer. Choose from the five alternatives the one having the a certain thing or to possess certain things, he gets
correct order of sentences and mark it as your answer. angry and slips into mental depression.
 C. To keep the mind happy, we have to learn to be
content with minimum wants.
D. Human beings are the only species in Gods creation
who make an issue out of nothing.
1) BACD 2) DCBA 3) ABCD
4) DBAC 5) ACBD
Directions (Q. 61-75): Read the following passage
carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain
words are given in bold to help you locate them while
answering some of the questions.
Ariel Sharons visit to India is a historic one. Not only is it
the first ever by any Israeli prime minister, but it also opens a
new chapter in cooperation between the two countries which
has multiplied manifold since the establishment of full-fledged
diplomatic relations in 1992. It is understood that the present
and former Israeli PMs had been keen on visiting India for quite
some time, but the ball was lying in New Delhis court.
Sharons visit is likely to focus on bolstering strategic
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partnershiphighlighting the horrors of terrorism and the
need to cooperate to effectively combat the scourge as also
to boost defence and trade cooperation. Indeed, of late, the
focus of Indo-Israeli cooperation has been in the areas of
security and anti-terrorism which found a further impetus in
the wake of the 9/11 attacks in the US and the December 13
attack on the Indian Parliament.
After the disintegration of the Soviet Union, Israel has
become Indias second-largest arms supplier after Russia.
New Delhi now may be Israels largest arms purchaser. Several
billion dollars worth of arms deals have either been signed or
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are under way, including joint ventures to upgrade Soviet-
era planes as well as Indian purchase of Israeli sea-to-sea
missiles and hi-tech border monitoring systems. The US has
given a green signal to the Israeli sale of the Phalcon radar
system to India and is reportedly considering lifting limits on
Israel exporting defence systems against ballistic missiles
which could enable Delhi to purchase Israels Arrow anti-
missile defence systems. Although, the security and
intelligence cooperation is forming the core of relation in
recent years the blooming romance between the two extends
beyond the struggle against terrorism. Ties have diversified
and huge strides have been made since 1992. Following the
decades of political alienation and economic estrangement,
there has been a perceived sense of growing convergence of
interests.
Relations between the two had remained strained until 1992
as Nehruvian policies kept both the countries away from each
other for decades. During the independence movement, Nehru
and Gandhi did not favour the Zionist claim to Palestine and
saw a fundamental difference between the Zionist movement
and Indian national movement. The Hindu nationalist
movement, however, saw Israel through a different prism. The
Nehruvian perspective guided Indias West Asia police for
decades after Independence and India, while recognising Israel
but not establishing diplomatic relations, allied itself with the
Arabs. Also, on a more pragmatic level, India needed oil and
strong business ties with the Arab countries.
However, the new world order of the Nineties changed
Indias perception. Indian policy-makers started viewing its
West Asia policy not necessarily as a zero-sum game and
New Delhi started playing both sidesIsraeli and Arabin
the region. Repeated pro-Pakistani resolution on Kashmir by
the OIC and Israels consistent support of the Indian position
on Kashmir also encouraged India to re-evaluate its West
Asia policy. Ever since, New Delhi has consistently reiterated
Indias support for the Palestinian cause but has
simultaneously nurtured warm ties with the Jewish State.
Even before forging formal ties with Israel, Indian army and
military intelligence officers are believed to have been
receiving training in Israel since the Eighties.
61. What kept the Israeli premier from visiting India for so
long even after 1992?
1) because no Indian premier had visited Israel till date
2) because the intensity of terrorism in Israel and India
did not favour such visit
3) because India and Israel took much time to understand
each other
4) because India took much time in giving the right signal
5) None of these
62. What is the common problem that India and Israel both
are most concerned about?
1) Both of them are bearing the heat of terrorism.
2) Both of them are facing frequent change of guard in
the system of governance.
3) Both of them are indulging in an undue arms race.
4) Both of them are in the race of becoming a developed
nation.
5) None of these
63. Which of the following is true in the context of the
passage?
1) India gets the largest supply of arms from Israel now.
2) Indias closeness with Israel has invited the wrath of
the Arab countries.
3) In order to come close to Israel, India has distanced
itself from the Arabs.
4) Indo-Israeli relations were cold before the Nineties.
5) None of these
64. What gave a further boost to Indo-Israeli cooperation
on the front of anti-terrorism?
1) the disintegration of the Soviet Union
2) the US giving a green signal to the Israeli sale of the
Phalcon radar system to India
3) the world opinion building against terrorism and
violence
4) repeated pro-Pakistani resolutions on Kashmir by the
OIC
5) None of these
65. What was the hurdle in the way of India purchasing Directions (Q. 70-72): Choose the word which is the
Israels Arrow anti-missile defence systems? same in meaning as the word given in bold as used in the
1) India and Israel were not on good terms for decades. passage.
2) The US had imposed limits on Israel exporting defence 70. IMPETUS
systems against ballistic missiles. 1) favour 2) boost 3) recognition
3) It was seen as promoting arms race in the world by 4) upheaval 5) establishment
many nations. 71. STRIDES
4) Pakistan had objected to any such deal. 1) mammoth 2) decisions 3) progress
5) None of these 4) promises 5) tasks
66. Which of the following is false in the context of this 72. FORGING
passage? 1) assembling 2) normalising 3) strengthening
4) initiating 5) creating
1) No Israeli premier other than Ariel Sharon had visited
Directions (Q. 73-75): Choose the word which is opposite
India so far.
in meaning of the word given in bold as used in the passage.
2) Cooperation in the area of security and intelligence is
73. BOLSTERING
at the centre of Indo-Israeli relations.
1) avoiding 2) refusing 3) weakening
3) Mahatma Gandhis opinion on Zionist movement was 4) questioning 5) evading
entirely different from that of Nehru. 74. ESTRANGEMENT
4) India re-assessed its West Asia policy in the Nineties. 1) friendliness 2) empowerment 3) dependence

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5) None of these 4) upliftment 5) significance
67. After Indias independence, for decades its West Asia 75. ALLIED
policy was against establishing diplomatic relations with 1) confronted 2) competed 3) struggled
Israel because 4) distanced 5) detached
1) Israel had never supported its freedom movement. Direction (76-80) : Which of the phrases (1), (2), (3)
2) both the nations were not on good terms. and (4) given below should replace the phrase given in bold
3) there was no initiative from either side to come close. in the following sentences to make the sentence gramatically
4) Nehruvian thinking did not support the Zionist meaningful and correct. If the sentence is correct as it is
movement of Israel. and no correction is required, mark (5) as the answer.
5) there was no dialogue between both the countries for 76. In guest rooms, the central portion is generally reserved

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the same at the upper level. for sofa set.
68. What was the scenario of Indo-Israeli relations before 1) generally is reserved
1992? 2) is reserved generally
1) They were at hostile terms against each other. 3) was generally reserved
2) They were only linked in the area of security and 4) are generally reserved
defence at bigger level. 5) No correction required
3) They were unknown and not concerned to each other 77. The impact of the composite bow on warfare was equal
to the crossbow of medieval times.
in any area except the political field.
1) was equal to of the
4) They were united, among other, in the area of fight
2) is equal to the
against terrorism.
3) is equal to that
5) None of these
4) was equal to that of the
69. What made India shift from the Nehruvian perspective 5) No correction required
and reassess its West Asia policy? 78. Culture, climate and geography plays an important part
1) OICs consistent support to Pakistan and Israels in the formation of any proverb.
consistent support to India on Kashmir front 1) plays an important role
2) Growing intensity of terrorism world over after the 2) plays a important part
9/11 attacks in the US and the December 13 attack on 3) play an important role
the Indian Parliament 4) play a important part
3) The change of guard in the Indian government in the 5) No correction required
nineties 79. This book will be of particular interested to those
4) Indias need for oil and strong business ties with the fascinated by the recent philosophy.
Arab countries 1) of particularly interested
5) None of these 2) of particular interest
 3) of interested in particular
4) particularly of interested 92. 6.5536 = ?
5) No correction required 1) 3.6 2) 3.3 3) 2.8
80. These days developed countries have started looking 4) 2.6 5) 1.6
down for underdeveloped countries as it is advantageous 93. 783.58 + 102.93 41.12 9.75 = ?
for both the parties. 1) 785.24 2) 835.64 3) 885.14
1) looking after 4) 912.84 5) None of these
2) looking down upon 94. 85943 71206 + 37517 3512 + 119 = ?
3) to look down at 1) 48861 2) 47641 3) 47929
4) looking for at 4) 48781 5) 49101
5) No correction required 95. (84 ) 2 ( 44) 2 = (?)2 82
Directions (Q. 81-90): In the following passage there
are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These 1) 164 2) 68 3) 72
numbers are printed below the passage and against each five 4) 76 5) 80
words are suggested, one of which fits the blank Directions (Q. 96-100): Find out the approximate value
appropriately. Find out the appropriate words. which should replace the question mark (?) in the following
Its really (81) that major political parties have (82) questions. You are not expected to find out the exact value
advertisements which attack prominent political personalities. 1

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This is (83). These politicians are so-called (84) of democracy 96. of 7777 + 12% of 1203 = ?
5
and are (85) to be role models for the citizens of this country.
1) 1250 2) 125 3) 1950
Therefore its high time they understood the (86) of a (87)
4) 1800 5) 1700
election (88) and showed a little bit of maturity, so that (89) of
97. 32.1 26 - 27 25 = ?
their winning or losing, people can look up to them with respect,
1) 160 2) 15 3) 250
for the kind of ideologies they (90).
4) 55 5) 110
81. 1) surprising 2) usual 3) challenging
4) discernible 5) striking 98. 3480.9998 100.99 ?
82. 1) favoured 2) created 3) issued 1) 40 2) 39 3) 52
4) raised 5) directed 4) 42 5) 44
83. 1) childish 2) secular 3) ashamed

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1 1 1 1
4) disgraceful 5) bias 99. 2 ?
3 3 5 7
84. 1) future 2) upholders 3) stars
1 1
4) performers 5) builders 1) 4 2) 3 3) 2
85. 1) tasked 2) authorised 3) paid 2 2
4) 3 5) 5
4) represented 5) expected
2 1 0
86. 1) merit 2) core 3) result 100. 123 1.2 1.02 1.002 ?
4) value 5) response 1) 147 2) 1731 3) 1730
87. 1) dignified 2) drastic 3) participatory 4) 1733 5) 148
4) friendly 5) subjective Directions (Q. 101-105): In each of the following
88. 1) trial 2) battle 3) campaign questions a number series is given. After the series, a
4) mandate 5) operation number is given followed by (a), (b), (c), (d) and (e). You have
89. 1) beyond 2) irrespective 3) unless to complete the series starting with the number given,
4) ahead 5) away following the sequence of given series and answer the
90. 1) preach 2) believe 3) adhere questions given below the series.
4) impart 5) pursue 101. 1.5 5 20 74 215 422
6 (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
What will come in place of (b)?
Test-III: Quantitative Aptitude 1) 128 2) 155 3) 80
4) 135 5) None of these
Directions (Q. 91-95): What should come in the place 102. 12 18 42 102 222 432
of question mark (?) in the following questions? 41 (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
91. (0.782)2 (0.218)2 = ? What will come in place of (c)?
1) 0.564 2) 1.128 3) 1.0 1) 151 2) 141 3) 121
4) 2.256 5) 1.692 4) 132 5) None of these
103. 8 9 26 105 484 2) if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer
5 (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) the question, while the data in statement I alone are
What will come in place of (e)? not sufficient to answer the question.
1) 2085 2) 2285 3) 2185 3) if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II
4) 2205 5) None of these alone are sufficient to answer the question.
104. 9 10 3 12 -1 0 4) if the data even in both the statements I and II together
25 (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) are not sufficient to answer the question.
What will come in place of (c)? 5) if the data in both the statements I and II together are
1) 36 2) 28 3) 30 necessary to answer the question
4) 24 5) None of these 111. How much time would Rahul take to reach the destination
if he travels by car?
105. 64 24 18 27 81
I. The speed of Rahuls car is double his walking speed
96 (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
for the destination.
What will come in place of (b)?
II. The ratio of the speed at which Rahul and Sanjay
1) 24 2) 30 3) 48
walk is 3 : 4 and Rahul takes 30 minutes more than the
4) 50 5) None of these time taken by Sanjay to reach the destination.
106. Average cost of 8 pens and 5 pencils is `25. While the 112. Mohan does a work in 10 days. After 5 days he is joined
average cost of 4 pens and 7 pencils is `21. What is the by Suresh. In how many days will the work be finished?
total cost of 18 pens and 18 pencils? I. Suresh takes double time to finish the work than

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1) `586 2) `834 3) `1112 Mohan.
4) `724 5) None of these II. Suresh does half of the work in 10 days.
107. The radii of the bases of a cylinder and a cone are in the 113. There are three friends A, B and C working in a company.
ratio 3 : 2, whereas the heights of the cylinder and cone If A has a salary of `10,000 per month, who has a salary
are in the ratio 2 : 3. Their volumes are in the ratio of `12,500 per month?
1) 1 : 1 2) 3 : 2 3) 9 : 4 I. Cs salary is 25% more than As salary.
4) 9 : 2 5) None of these II. As salary is 20% less than Bs salary.
108. 72 litres of a mixture of milk and water contains 18% of 114. What is the unitary digit of the number x?
water. How much water must be added to make the water I. x2n ends in 1 while x2n + 1 ends in 9.
28% in the mixture? II. x is less than 20 and the sum of its digits is 10.

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1) 10 lit 2) 5 lit 3) 15 lit 115. If Deepak and Vivek work for a day alternately, in how
4) 12.5 lit 5) None of these many days will the work be finished?
109. A Lieutenant wishes to draw up his 1688 soldiers in the I. Vivek alone can do that piece of work in 6 days.
form of a solid square. After arranging them, he found II. Deepak alone can do that piece of work in 5 days.
that some of them are left over. How many are left? Directions (Q. 116-120): In each of these questions two
equations are given. You have to solve these equations and
1) 6 2) 5 3) 8
give answer.
4) 9 5) None of these
1) if x < y
110. A sales boys terms were changed from a flat commission
2) if x > y
of 7% on all his sales to a fixed salary of `500 plus 5%
3) if x = y
commission on all sales exceeding `5000. If his
4) if x y
remuneration as per the new scheme was `50 more than
5) if x y
that in the previous scheme, then find his total sales in
1
` term. 100 2
1) `12000 2) `10000 3) `15000 116. I. x(x + 7) = 30 II. y
9
4) `12500 5) None of these
Directions (Q. 111-115): Each of the questions below 117. I. 3x 2 16x 21 0 II. 6 y 2 25y 21 0
consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II
5 2 1 9 1 11
given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided 118. I. 2x (x ) 128 II. y y
in the statements are sufficient to answer the questions. 3 24
Read both the statements and give answer: 119. I. 20 x 2 108x 144 0
2
II. 25y 50y 72 0
1) if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer
2
the question, while the data in statement II alone are 120. I. 2x 2 18x 36 0 II. y y 12 0
not sufficient to answer the question.
121. Four of the five parts numbered (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5) are Directions (Q. 126-130): Study the following graph
exactly equal. Which one of the parts is not equal? The carefully and answer the questions given below it:
number of that part is your answer. Ratio of export to import (in terms of `) of
two cos over the years.
a 2 b a ab(2a 1) = a (b 2ab) a(a 2 b)
1) 2) 2.1
Company A
1.8
= 2a 2 (a b) a 3 = a 2 b 2
a b ba 2
b 2
ab Company B
3) 4) 1.5
1.2
= a 2 a b ab 2
5) 0.9
122. Which one of the following has the fractions in 0.6
descending order?
0.3
16 25 21 0
1) , ,
19 28 23 1998 1999 2000 2001 2002 2003
Year
16 21 25
2) , ,
126. In the year 2001, the export of company A was 50% more

K
19 23 28
than the export of company B. If the import of company
25 21 16 A during the year was `270 cr, what was the import of
3) , ,
28 23 19 company B during that year?
1) `90 cr 2) `162 cr
21 25 16
4) , , 3) `180 cr 4) `108 cr
23 28 19 5) None of these
5) None of these 127. If the total amount of export and import for company B
123. A rectangular solid metal which is 36 cm long, 18 cm in 2001 was `294 cr, what was the difference between its
broad and 3 cm high, is to be melted and cast into two export and import in that year?
different cubes, the volume of the bigger being eight 1) `63 cr

KUNDAN
times that of the smaller one. Find the surface area of the 2) `168 cr
smaller cube. 3) `84 cr
1) 180 cm2 4) Cant be determined
2) 36 cm2 5) None of these
3) 144 cm2 128. If company A had registered 20% growth in export in
4) 150 cm2 2000 over the previous years export of `126 cr, what was
5) None of these its import in 2000?
124. A and B working together can do a job in D days. If A 1) `150 cr 2) `151.2 cr
works alone and completes the job, he will take D + 16 3) `72 cr 4) `84 cr
days. If B works alone and completes the job, he will take 5) None of these
D + 4 days. What is the value of D? 129. In 1999, total amount of the exports of Company A and
1) 6 B was `270 cr. What was the import of company A in
2) 9 that year?
3) 10 1) `100 cr
4) Cant be determined 2) `150 cr
5) None of these 3) `120 cr
125. A student who gets 20% marks fails by 5 marks but 4) Cant be determined
another student who gets 42% marks gets 6 marks more 5) None of these
than the pass marks. Find the pass marks. 130. For company B, in how many of the given years were
1) 20 the imports more than the exports?
2) 23.5 1) one 2) two
3) 15 3) three 4) four
4) 17.5 5) None of these
5) None of these
 Directions (Q. 131-135): Following table shows the
number of items (in thousand) produced by four different Company I1 I2 % Sold I1 % Sold I2
companies (A, B, C and D) and the ratio of sold to unsold A 5 3 65% 62%
items among them.
B 5 4 56% 78%
A B C D
C 2 3 72% 66%
Company
Year Total S : US Total S : US Total S : US Total S : US D 3 4 75% 60%
2006 45.5 4 :3 64.8 5 : 3 42.14 4 :3 50 3:2 E 4 3 64% 55%
2007 48.6 5 :4 70.15 3 : 2 49.5 4 :5 52.7 8:9 F 3 2 50% 48%
2008 40 2 :3 77.11 5 : 6 51 9:8 56.4 1 :1
2009 55 3 :2 86.4 5 : 3 54 1:1 51 2 :1 Total items (I1 and I2) = 16 lakh
2010 64.4 3 :4 85 8 :9 66.22 6:5 60.5 2:3 136. What is the difference between the total items produced
2011 68 5 :3 81.18 5 : 4 68.8 5:3 62.1 3:2 by Company A and B together and the total items
produced by Company D?
131. What is the number of items sold by Company A in all six 1) 3.84 lakh 2) 3.06 lakh 3) 2.96 lakh
years together? (Answer options are in thousand) 4) 2.24 lakh 5) 1.78 lakh
1) 168.4 2) 171.6 3) 172.1 137. What is the difference between the total number of I1
4) 173.2 5) None of these items and the total number of I2 items produced by
132. What is the average number of items produced by Company F?

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Company D in all six years (Answer options are in 1) 24800 2) 25600 3) 26300
thousand) 4) 27500 5) 28300
1) 54.25 2) 55.45 3) 56.75 138. What is the average number of I1 items sold by all six
4) 57.5 5) None of these companies together?
133. The number of items sold by Company D in the year 1) 89480 2) 89580 3) 89680
2009 is what percentage of the number of items which 4) 89780 5) None of these
remain unsold by Company D in the year 2006? 139. What is the difference between the number of I1 items
1) 58.82% 2) 80% 3) 120% sold and the number of I2 items sold by Company E?
4) 150% 5) 170% 1) 14560 2) 14480 3) 14610
134. The number of items which remain unsold by Company 4) 14340 5) 14220
C in 2008 is what percentage more or less than the number 140. The number of I1 items sold by Company A is what

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of items which are sold by Company B in the year 2010? percentage of the number of I1 items sold by Company
1) 16% 2) 24% 3) 32% F?
4) 40% 5) 48% 1) 40.625% 2) 120% 3) 184.64%
135. What is the difference between the total items sold and 4) 296.5% 5) None of these
the total items that remain unsold by Company D in all
six years together?
1) 24220 2) 25640 3) 26380 Test-IV: General Awareness
4) 27550 5) None of these
Directions (Q. 136-140): Following pie-chart shows the (With Special Reference to Banking Industry)
percentage distribution of total items (I1 and I2) produced by
six companies (A, B, C, D, E and F) and the table shows the 141. Five sports coaches have been recommended for the
ratio of I1 to I2 and percentage sale of I1 and I2. prestigious Dronacharya Award this year. Which of the
following pairs of coaches and games they are associated
F with is NOT correct?
E 1) Nihar Ameen (swimming)
8% A
7% 2) Harbans Singh (athletics)
24% 3) Anoop Singh Dahiya (wrestling)
4) Naval Singh (para-athletics)
D
5) None of these
28% B 142. Who won the womens singles title of the 2015 Rogers
18% Cup Masters tournament?
C
15% 1) Caroline Garcia 2) Serena Williams
3) Simona Halep 4) Belinda Bencic
5) Caroline Wozniacki
143. Introducing the PSBs revamp plan termed Mission 153. Who among the following is NOT a winner of the Ramon
Indradhanush, the govt has announced BBB to be Magsaysay Awards 2015?
operational by Apr 2016. The term BBB stands for 1) Kommaly Chanthavong, Laos
1) Bank Board Bureau 2) Basic Bank Bureau 2) Anshu Gupta, India
3) Broad Bank Board 4) Bank Beholding Bureau 3) Kyaw Thu, Myanmar
5) None of these 4) Dilma Rousseff, Brazil
144. Which of the following banks has launched an automated 5) Sanjiv Chaturvedi, India
locker facility with high-end robotic technology for the 154. The French Govt has honoured who among the following
first time in the country? with the Officier de la Lgion dHonneur (Officer of the
1) HDFC Bank 2) ICICI Bank 3) Axis Bank Legion of Honour), the highest French civilian
4) Yes Bank 5) Kotak Mahindra Bank distinction?
145. Which of the following scooter models in India crossed 1) Manmohan Singh 2) Yashwant Sinha
the 1-crore sales milestone recently? 3) Salman Khurshid 4) Jaswant Singh
1) Hero Pleasure 2) Hero Maestro 3) Honda Aviator 5) None of these
4) Honda Activa 5) Suzuki Swiss 155. India has signed loan agreement worth $300 mn with
146. Bandhan Bank, which started operations on 23 Aug, has which of the following agencies to support the govts
fixed savings interest rates at ________ for deposits flagship program, the National Urban Health Mission
below `1 lakh and ________ for those above `1 lakh. (NUHM)?

K
1) 4 per cent, five per cent 1) World Bank 2) IMF
2) 4.25 per cent, five per cent 3) New Development Bank 4) Asian Development Bank
3) 4.5 per cent, 5.5 per cent 5) None of these
4) 5 per cent, six per cent 156. Which country has joined the World Trade Organisation
5) None of these (WTO) as its 162nd member?
147. If a portion of a banknote is missing or composed of 1) Zimbabwe 2) Zambia 3) Yemen
more than two pieces, its called 4) Kazakhstan 5) Vietnam
1) scribbled notes 2) stuck note 157. The International Tiger Day, also known as Global Tiger
3) charred note 4) mutilated note Day, is held annually on
5) soiled notes 1) 11 Jul 2) 18 Jul 3) 28 Jul
148. Which of the following banks has launched a mobile 4) 29 Jul 5) 30 Jul

KUNDAN
wallet app called Buddy in collaboration with Accenture 158. The Indian Army on 26 Apr conducted a major exercise,
and Mastercard recently? Akraman-II, in which of the following states recently?
1) SBI 2) PNB 3) Axis Bank 1) Arunachal Pradesh
4) Federal Bank 5) IndusInd Bank 2) Jammu and Kashmir
149. As per the revised draft of FSLRC report released by the 3) Rajasthan
finance ministry, the commission has proposed a financial 4) Gujarat
regulatory architecture featuring 5) None of these
1) Public Debt Management Agency 159. ________ on 23 Apr 2015 won the Asian Banker
2) Reserve Bank of India Achievement Award 2015. It was awarded for
3) Financial Redress Agency Technology Implementation in the category of Best
4) Resolution Corporation Outsourcing Project (New Bank)
5) All the above 1) ICICI Bank 2) Axis Bank
150. Rating agency Moodys Investors Service on 18 Aug 3) Bank of India 4) Bharatiya Mahila Bank
scaled down its projections for Indias economic growth 5) None of these
for 2015-16 to 160. For the full year 2014-15, Indias gross domestic product
1) 7 per cent 2) 7.5 per cent 3) 7.3 per cent (GDP) grew at what per cent?
4) 7.1 per cent 5) 6.9 per cent 1) 5.1 per cent 2) 7.5 per cent 3) 6.9 per cent
151. Who is the new chairman of the food regulator FSSAI? 4) 7.3 per cent 5) None of these
1) Ashish Bahuguna 2) Bimal Kumar Dubey 161. India has been ranked a lowly 143rd on Global Peace
3) Yudhvir Singh Malik 4) Bhanu Pratap Sharma Index for 2015 released by Institute for Economics and
5) None of these Peace. The country which has topped the index is
152. What is the currency of Slovakia? 1) Iceland 2) Norway 3) Sri Lanka
1) Peso 2) Ringgit 3) Baht 4) Nepal 5) Bhutan
4) Rupiah 5) Euro
162. According to a research published by the World 171. The govt has set a target of installing ________of power
Economic Forum, which of the following is the worlds from solar energy by 2022.
biggest employer which claims over 3.2 mn employees 1) 40 GW 2) 50 GW 3) 80 GW
on its roster? 4) 100 GW 5) None of these
1) Indian Railways 172. The Appointments Committee of the Cabinet (ACC) on
2) McDonalds 29 May cleared the appointment of who among the
3) Walmart following as the new cabinet secretary?
4) Peoples Liberation Army, China 1) G Mohan Kumar
5) US Department of Defense 2) RK Mathur
163. Mid-sized private sector lender Yes Bank plans to raise 3) Ajit Seth
money through an ADR issue. The term ADR stands for 4) Pradeep Kumar Sinha
1) Associated Depository Receipts 5) None of these
2) Accredited Depository Receipts 173. As per a recent report, cancer has emerged as the second-
3) American Discounted Receipts leading cause of death globally. Which of the following
4) American Depository Receipts is the leading cause of death globally?
5) None of these 1) Malaria
164. Name the Indian spiritual leader who was conferred with 2) Cardiovascular diseases
Colombias highest civilian award Orden de la 3) AIDS
Democracia Simon Bolivar in Jun 2015. 4) Tuberculosis

K
1) Ramdev 2) Sri Sri Ravi Shankar 5) None of these
3) Jaggi Vasudev 4) Mata Amritanandamayi 174. Who among the following is the Union minister for
5) None of these Development of North Eastern Region (DoNER) in the
165. The govt has renamed the national optical fibre network present cabinet?
(NOFN) as 1) Jitendra Singh 2) Kiren Rijiju
1) BharatNet 2) IndiaNet 3) Inderjit Singh Rao 4) General VK Singh
3) PanchayatNet 4) SamparkNet 5) None of these
5) None of these 175. Which of the following terms is used in Banking?
166. Which of the following is correct about the three 1) Epicentre 2) Pascals Law
categories of loans to be provided by the MUDRA Bank? 3) Currency 4) Centre of Gravity

KUNDAN
1) Shishu loan of up to `50,000 5) Latitude
2) Kishor loan above `50,000 up to `5 lakh 176. Teaser Rates are related to which of the following types
3) Tarun above `5 lakh and up to `10 lakh of loans?
4) All the above 1) Home Loans 2) Personal Loans
5) Only 1) and 2) 3) Auto Loans 4) Reverse Mortgage Loans
167. Which county shut down its oldest nuclear reactor, 5) Crop Loans
Grafenrheinfeld reactor, as part of a move to switch off 177. Which of the following terms is not used in banking
all its nuclear plants by the end of 2022? world?
1) France 2) Japan 3) Norway 1) Credit 2) Rate
4) Germany 5) Italy 3) Financial status 4) Discount
168. India recalled its envoy Ravi Thapar from which of the 5) Absolute zero
following countries after his wife was accused of 178. Which of the following organisations provides credit
assaulting help? history of the borrowers?
1) South Korea 2) Australia 3) Sweden 1) CIBIL 2) ARCIL 3) SEBI
4) New Zealand 5) South Africa 4) RBI 5) CCIL
169. The supreme court of which of the following countries 179. Which of the following agencies in India is responsible
ruled that same-sex marriage is a legal right across the for computation of national income?
country? 1) NCAER 2) CSO 3) NSS
1) Ireland 2) Argentina 3) Denmark 4) RBI 5) SBI
4) England 5) US 180. The Agriculture Insurance Company was launched with
170. Which of the following countries has been ranked on the help of
top of the Baseline Profitability Index (BPI) 2015? 1) RBI 2) SIDBI 3) NABARD
1) India 2) US 3) China 4) ECGC 5) IDBI
4) Indonesia 5) Vietnam
 192. What type of port sends data one bit at a time?
Test-V: Computer Knowledge 1) Serial 2) Parallel 3) USB
4) FireWire 5) None of these
181. The memory which forgets everything when you switch 193. The power-saving mode that allows the computer to
off the power is known as restart by simply pressing a key on the keyboard is called
1) Corrupt 2) Volatile 3) Non-Volatile 1) standby
4) Non-Corrupt 5) None of these 2) warm boot
182. The linking of computers with acommunication system 3) power management
is called 4) cold boot
1) Networking 2) Pairing 3) Interlocking 5) None of these
4) Assembling 5) Sharing 194. Retail employees typically use ___ terminals to process
183. A 16-bit microprocessor has sales transactions.
1) 16 address lines 2) 16 buses 3) 16 data lines 1) sales processing
4) 16 routes 5) None of these 2) transaction point
184. PARAM is an example of a 3) automatic teller
1) Super computer 2) PC 3) Laptop 4) point of sale
4) PDA 5) None of these 5) None of these
185. Who among the following developed the analytical 195. The process of ________involvesautomatedstudyof

K
engine? consumers buying patterns in order to support marketing,
1) Jacquard Loom 2) Charles Babbage 3) Shannon inventory replenishment and pricing decisions.
4) IBM 5) None of these 1) transaction processing
186. ENIAC stands for 2) data mining
1) Electrical Numerical Integrator and Calculator 3) simulation
2) Electronic Numerical Integrator and Computer 4) information processing
3) Electronic Numerical Integrator and Calculator 5) None of these
4) Electronic Number Integrator and Calculator 196. The engineering discipline that involves construction
5) None of these of computing devices of the size of a molecule is called
187. The first generation of computers was based on which 1) nanotechnology
of the following technologies? 2) molecular processing

KUNDAN
1) Transistor 2) Vacuum Tube 3) silicon grafting
3) LSI 4) VLSI 4) nanoscience
5) None of these 5) None of these
188. Microprocessor was introduced in which generation of 197. The prefix that stands for billionth is
computers? 1) giga 2) tera 3) nano
1) Second Generation 2) Fourth Generation 4) peta 5) None of these
3) Both 1) and 2) 4) Third Generation 198. Programsthatautomaticallysubmityoursearchrequest
5) All the above to several search engines simultaneously are called
189. GUI stands for 1) Metasearch engines 2) Webcrawlers
1) Graphical User Interface 3) Spiders 4) Hits
2) Graph Use Interface 5) None of these
3) Graphical Universal Interface 199. Graphical diagrams are used to represent multiple
4) All the above perspectives of a system which include
5) None of these 1) use-case, class and state diagrams.
190. The time taken by the CPU to retrieve and interpret the 2) state, interaction and derivative diagrams.
instructions to be executed is called as 3) interaction, relationship and class diagrams.
1) Instruction cycle 2) Fetch cycle 4) deployment, relationship and use-case diagrams.
3) Either 1) and 2) 4) Both 1) and 2) 5) None of these
5) None of these 200. Which is the best view for representing your thoughts
191. Which of the following is a permanent memory? as a presentation on a computer?
1) SRAM 2) DRAM 3) ROM 1) Outline view 2) Notes page view
4) All the above 5) None of these 3) Slide sorter view 4) Slide view
5) None of these
 Answers and Explanations
51. 5; All toffees are gems (A) + All gems are candies (A)
= A + A = A = All toffees are candies (A) + No candy
is stone (E) = A + E = E = No toffee is a stone. Hence
conclusion 1) follows.
Again, Some chocolates are toffees (I) + All toffees
are gems (A) = I + A = I = Some chocolates are gems
(I) + All gems are candies (A) = I + A = I = Some
chocolates are candies + No candy is a stone (E) = I
+ E = O = Some chocolates are not stones. Hence
conclusion 2) follows.
Again, All gems are candies (A) + No candy is a
stone (E) = A + E = E = No gem is a stone. Hence
conclusion 3) follows. But conclusion 5) does not
follow.
Again, Some chocolates are not stones. It means
All stones being chocolates is a possibility that can
Again, No jug is a bucket (E) + All buckets are tubs
(A) = E + A = O* = Some tubs are not jugs. Hence
conclusion 5) does not follow.
55. 5; All numbers are letters (A) + No letter is a book (E)
= A + E = E = No number is a book. Hence conclusion
1) follows.
Again, Some books are papers (I) + No paper is a
copy (E) = I + E = O = Some books are not copies.
Hence conclusion 2) follows.
Now, No number is a book (E) + Some books are
papers (I) = E + I = O* = Some papers are not numbers.
Hence conclusion 3) follows.
Again, No letter is a book (E) conversion No
book is a letter (E). Hence conclusion 4) follows.
Again, No letter is a book (E) + Some books are
papers (I) = E + I = O* = Some papers are not letters.
Hence conclusion 5) does not follow.

K
exist. Hence conclusion 4) follows. 6. 3 7. 1 8. 1 9. 2 10. 2
52. 1; Again, All papers are vowels (A) conversion 11. 4; M>N>P>R
Some vowels are papers (I). Thus, Some vowels not So, M > R. So I does not follow.
being papers is a possibility. Hence conclusion 2) N>R&R B
follows. N>R B
There is no negative statement regarding words and So II also not follow.
vowels. Thus, the possibility in 3) exists. Hence 12. 2; Z>X =Y
conclusion 3) follows. So Z > Y
No vowel is a consonant (E) conversion No 13. 3; B Z, Z = W
consonant is a vowel (E). Hence conclusion 4) So B W

KUNDAN
follows. i.e B > W or B = W
All papers are vowels (A) + No vowel is a consonant Either I or II
(E) = A + E = E = No paper is a consonant (E). Hence 14. 5; P Q=X
conclusion 5) follows and conclusion 1) does not P X
follow. and X Y < Z
53. 3; No table is a chair (E) + Some chairs are boxes (I) = E So X < Z
+ I = O* = Some boxes are not tables. Hence 15. 5; G A= B
conclusion 1) follows. So G B
Again, Some chairs are boxes (I) + No box is a cover C G A P
(E) = I + E = O = Some chairs are not covers. Hence So C P
conclusion 2) follows. 16. 3; Step II: 97 82 sun 50 moon night 36 72 evening
And 3) does not follow. Step III: 97 82 sun night moon 50 36 72 evening
And All covers are drawers (A) conversion Step IV: 97 82 sun night 72 50 36 moon evening
Some drawers are covers (I). Hence conclusion 5) Step V: 97 82 sun night 72 moon 36 50 evening
follows. Step VI: 97 82 sun night 72 moon evening 50 36
54. 5; Some bottles are jugs (I) + No jug is a bucket (E) = I Four more steps are required.
+ E = O = Some bottles are not buckets. Hence 17. 1; Input: 86 92 fighter next 88 tire army 29 75
conclusion 3) follows. Step I: 92 86 fighter next 88 tire army 29 75
Now, All cups are bottles (A) + Some bottles are not Step II: 92 88 fighter next 86 tire army 29 75
buckets (O) = A + O = No conclusion. Hence 1) may Step III: 92 88 tire next 86 fighter army 29 75
follow. This step is step no. 3.
Again, All cups are bottles (A) + Some bottles are 18. 4; 52 42 tag mug 36 hug 40 bag 21 is step 3 and
jugs (I) = A + I = No conclusion. But conclusion 2) finding step 1 is not possible.
and 4) may follow. Cant be determined.
19. 3; Input: 94 hair fair 61 dare 69 share 57 32
Step I: 94 69 fair 61 dare hair share 57 32
Step II: 94 69 share 61 dare hair fair 57 32
Step III: 94 69 share hair dare 61 fair 57 32
Step IV: 94 69 share hair 61 dare fair 57 32
20. 2; 99 83 hate gate 64 rate 23 date 57
After just 4 step (more) we will reach on final output.
99 83 rate hate 64 gate date 57 23 .
21. 4; We have to look for symbol-letter and number-letter
sequences.
Now, after the rearrangement, the sequence becomes
as follows:
M @ 9 l Q 3 # 8 U 2 C E B G 6 H 4 ZAS D 5 $
22. 2;
There are eight such letters and numbers.
23. 5; After adding the first ten elements at the end of the
sequence, it becomes as follows:
29. 4; Statement I lacks the complete information regarding
the exact time taken. Hence, I alone is not sufficient.
Similar is the case with the statement II. Hence, II
alone is not sufficient. Even from I and II together
we cant get the exact time taken to complete the
journey. We only get that the time is less than 10
hours and more than 8 hours but it can be in fraction
too. Hence, both the statements even together are
not sufficient.
30. 4; Statement I lacks specific information regarding
codes of beautiful, and, lovely and dream.
Hence, I alone is not sufficient. Statement II also
lacks the same information. From I and II, we get the
codes for lovely and beautiful. But still we lack
the information regarding the codes for and and
dream. Hence, both I and II even together are not
sufficient.
(31-35):

K
M @ 9 l K Q 3 # 8 U 2 C 1 E B G 6 WH4 ZA7 Room Persons Colour of the
SD5$YM@ 9lKQ3#8 No. house
There are 10 symbols, 18 letters and 12 numbers. #1 E or C and S Pink
24. 2; After the rearrangement, the new sequence will #2 U or Q and T Blue
become as follows: #3 C or E and P Beige
K l 9 @ M 8 # 3 Q 1 C 2 UW6 GBE 7AZ 4 H #4 Q or U and R Green
Y$5DS #5 F and D White
4th to the left of 7th to the right of 11th from the left #6 A and B Yellow
= 11 + 7 4 = 14th from the left = 2 31. 4 32. 4 33. 3 34. 5 35. 1
25. 3; (36-40):
+3 Q +3 8 +3

KUNDAN
2
+2 Q. Condition
? U +2 C +2 1 i ii/(A) iii/(B) iv v Ans
No. Person
+2 9 +2 K +2 3 36. Shrinivasan ( ) 3
3
Hence, ? = Q 9 37. Sharad 1
U 2
8 38. Meena 1
9 2
M 39. Javed ( ) 5
26. 5; Statement I lacks the information about the number 40. Tulsidas ( ) 2
of days in the month of February. Hence, I alone is
(41-45):
not sufficient. Again, II alone is obviously not
sufficient. But, both I and II together can give the
exact date which is 2nd March.
27. 1; From I:
Suresh = 12th from left
Mohan = 17th from right = (50 - 17 + 1 = ) 34th from
left
No. of students between them = 34 - 12 - 1 = 21 41. 5 42. 3 43. 1 44. 4 45. 1
From II: No data about Mohan. 46. 2; When the legal provisions are already there, the
28. 5; Statement I lacks the information about X. Hence, I next logical step is proper execution of these laws.
alone is not sufficient. Statement II lacks the 47. 4; Accidents have a direct link to violation of traffic
information about the number of daughters of X. rules and regulations.
Hence, II alone is not sufficient. Now, from I and II, 48. 1; Judicious and regulated release of water is the only
we get the information that X has two daughters A way out. (2) does not make sense because absence
and B and the only son D.
 of rains will also lead to scarcity of ground water. (3) 98. 4; 3480.9998 100.99 ?
is ruled out because it is not directly related. 59 = 101 - ?
49. 3; (1) is not true because the incentives would benefit ? = 42
only a particular section the tax payers. (2) does
not seem likely if we go by the concern shown in the 1 1 1 1 316
99. 4; 2 3
statement. (3) is true because of the tax incentives 3 3 5 7 105
associated with the schemes. (4) is not true because
there may be other positive factors in the long run. 100. 2; 123 1.2 2 1.02 1 1.009 0
50. 4; Whenever a facility is provided to people, the = 1728 + 1.44 + 1.02 + 1 1731
assumption is that it would lead to better services 101. 2; The series is 6 - 4; 5 - 5; 4 - 6; 3 - 7; 2 - 8, ...
to them. 102. 5; The series is +(1 2 3); +(2 3 4); + (3 4 5); +
51. 1 52. 5 53. 3 54. 2 55. 4 (4 5 6) ... and so on. Hence correct answer would
56. 2 57. 1 58. 3 59. 5 60. 4 be 131.
61. 4; It is understood that the present and former Israeli 103. 3; The series is 1 13 ; 2 2 3 ; 3 3 3 ; 4 43 , ...
PMs had been keen on visiting India for quite some
104. 1; The series is 1 + 1; 2 - 2; 3 + 3; 4 - 4; ...
time, but the ball was lying in New Delhis court.
62. 1; Evident from the passage 3 3 3
105. 5; The series is ; ; ; 3 ... and so on.
63. 4; There were decades of political alienation and 8 4 2
economic estrangement between the two countries

K
Here, our answer would be 27.
before 1992. 106. 2; 8 pen + 5 pc = 25 13 = 325
64. 5; The focus of Indo-Israeli cooperation in the areas 4 pen + 7 pc = 21 11 = 231
of security and anti-terrorism found a further impetus 12 pen + 12 pc = 556
in the wake of the 9/11 attacks in the US and the Total cost of 18 pens and 18 pencils
December 13 attack on the Indian Parliament.
65. 2; It has been mentioned that the US is reportedly 3
= 556 = `834
considering lifting limits on Israel exporting defence 2
systems against ballistic missiles to India. Volume of cylinder
66. 3; Gandhi and Nehru did not favour the Zionist claim 107. 4;
Volume of cone
to Palestine and held similar views on it.

KUNDAN
2
67. 4; because its West Asia policy was guided by r12 h1 3 .2
Nehruvian perspective which did not support 1 2 1 2 =9:2
Zionist movement of Israel. r2 h 2 2 .3
3 3
68. 5; There was political alienation and economic
estrangement and no diplomatic ties. 108. 1; 10 litres
69. 1; evident from the last para. 109. 5; Correct answer is 7 as (412 7 1688)
70. 2 110. 2; Let his total sales be `x.
71. 3 72. 5 73. 3 74. 1 75. 5 From the question,
76. 5 77. 4 78. 3 79. 2 80. 1
81. 1 82. 3 83. 4 84. 2 85. 5 7x 5
50 500 ( x 5000)
86. 4 87. 1 88. 3 89. 2 90. 5 100 100
91. 1; a2 b2 = (a + b) (a b) 7x 5x
(0.782)2 (0.218)2 = (0.782 + 0.218) = 0.564 50 500 250
100 100
92. 5; (1.6)4 = 6.5536
2x
200
6.5536 = 1.6 100
x = `10000
93. 2 94. 1
95. 3; (?)2 64 = (84 + 44) (84 44) = 128 40 = 5120 111. 5; From II, Ratio of time (walking) 1 30 min
(?)2 = 5120 + 64 = 5184 time taken by Rahul (walking) = 4 30
= 120 m. Now, from I, since speed of Rahuls car is
?= 5184 = 72 double the walking speed, hence time taken by Rahul
96. 5; ? 1555 + 144 1700 120
97. 1; ? 834 - 675 160 to reach the destination by car = 60 minutes.
2
So, both the statements are necessary.
112. 3
II. 25y 2 90y 72 0
113. 3; Either of the statements gives the answer but the
answers are different. In statement I, answer is C, 25y 2 30 y 60 y 72 0
while in II, it is B.
(5y - 6) (5y - 12) = 0
114. 3; From I, any number ending in 9 will have this
property. 6 12
y or
From II, numeric value of x would be 19, so unitary 5 5
digit of x is 9. x y
115. 4; Who starts the work, Deepak or Vivek? 120. 5; I. 2x 2 18x 36 0
116. 1; I. x(x + 7) = 30
2
x 2 7x 30 0 x 9x 18 0
(x - 3) (x + 10) = 0 (x + 6) (x + 3) = 0
x = 3 or -10 x = -3 or -6
1
II. y 2 y 12 0
100 2
II. y (y + 3) (y - 4) = 0
9
y = 4 or -3
10 Hence x y
y

K
3
Hence x < y 121. 5; All others are equal to a 3 2a 2 b .
117. 2; I. 3x 2 16x 21 0 21
0.91;
25
0.89;
16
0.84
122. 4;
3x 2 9x 7x 21 0 23 28 19
(3x - 7) (x - 3) = 0 123. 5; Volume of cuboid = volume of two cubes together
36 18 3 = a 3 8a 3
7
x = 3 or a 3 216
3
a = 6 cm
II. 6 y 2 25y 21 0 surface area of the smaller cube
2
6 y 18y 7 y 21 0 = 6 6 2 216 cm 2

KUNDAN
(6y + 7) (y + 3) = 0 124. 5; Time taken by both (A and B) to finish the job,
7
y = -3 or (D 16) (D 4)
6 D
Hence x > y (D 16 D 4)
118. 2; I. 2x 5 x 2 128 2D 2 20D D2 20D 64
3
2x 128 2
D 64
x=4 D = 8 days
1 9 1 11 125. 3; Let the maximum marks = x
II. y y
3 24 From the question,
y9 3 20x 42x
11
5 6
y 24 100 100
1 1 22x
11
100
y2 8 x = 50
y= 2 2 20x
Hence, x > y Hence, pass marks = 5 15
100
119. 4; I. 20 x 2 108x 144 0 126. 1; In 2001, export of Company A
9
5x 2 27 x 36 0 270 = ` 243 cr
10
(5x 12) (x 3) 0 export of Company B
100
12 = 243 = `162 cr
x = 3 or 150
5
 10 Unsold = 20 + 27.9 + 28.2 + 17 + 36.3 + 24.84
Import of Company B = 162 = ` 90 cr = 154.24 thousand
18
Diff = 178.46 154.25 = 24.22 thousand
127. 3; Ratio of export to import of Company B in 2001
[(24 18) 28]
18 136. 4; Total items = 16 = 2.24 lakh
= 9:5 100
10
8
9 137. 2; TotalF = 16 = 1.28 lakh,
export = 294 = ` 189 cr 100
(9 5)
1.28
5 I1 = 3 = 0.768
Import = 294 = ` 105 cr 5
14 1.28
Difference = 189 - 105 = `84 crs I2 = 2 = 0.512
5
126 120 Diff = 0.768 0.512 = 0.256 lakh = 25600
128. 3; Export of Co A in 2000 = cr
100 24 5 65
Imports of the company 138. 3; I1 sold by A = 16 = 1.56 lakh
100 8 100
126 120 10 Similarly,
= = `72 crs
100 21 Total I1 = 1.56 + 0.896 + 0.6912 + 1.44 + 0.4096 + 0.384

K
129. 4; Cant be determined. = 5.3808 lakh
130. 3; Amount of imports will be more than the exports, 5.3808
when the ratio is less than one. Average = = 0.8968 lakh = 89680
6
4 5
131. 3; Totalsold = 45.5 48.6 + 7 4 64
7 9 139. 1; I1 = 16 = 0.4096,
100 7 100
2 3 3 5 Similary, I2 = 0.2640
40 55 + 64.4 68
5 5 7 8 Diff = 0.4096 0.2640 = 0.1456 lakh = 14560
= 26 + 27 + 16 + 33 + 27.6 + 42.5 140. 5; I1 sold by A = 156000,
= 172.1 thousand I1 sold by F = 38400

KUNDAN
132. 2 156000
133. 5; Sold2009 = 34 thousand Reqd % = 100 = 406.25%
38400
Unsold2006 = 20 thousand 141. 5 142. 4 143. 1 144. 2 145. 4
34 146. 2 147. 4 148. 1 149. 5 150. 1
Reqd % = 100 = 170%
20 151. 1 152. 5 153. 4 154. 2 155. 4
156. 4 157. 4 158. 3 159. 4 160. 4
8
134. 4; Unsold C2008 = 51 = 24 thousand 161. 1 162. 5 163. 4 164. 2 165. 1
17
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8 171. 4 172. 4 173. 2 174. 1 175. 3
Sold B2010 = 85 = 40 thousand
17 176. 1 177. 5 178. 1 179. 2 180. 3
40 24 1600 181. 2 182. 1 183. 3 184. 1 185. 2
% less = 100 = 40%
40 40 186. 2 187. 2 188. 2 189. 1 190. 1
135. 1; Sold = 30 + 24.8 + 28.2 + 34 + 24.2 + 37.26 191. 3 192. 1 193. 1 194. 4 195. 2
= 178.46 thousand 196. 1 197. 3 198. 1 199. 1 200. 1
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