101 Speed Test

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Head Office : B-32, Shivalik Main Road, Malviya Nagar, New Delhi-110017
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Sales Office : B-48, Shivalik Main Road, Malviya Nagar, New Delhi-110017
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Tel. : 011-26691021 / 26691713
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Price : ` 360
Typeset by Disha DTP Team
DISHA PUBLICATION
ALL RIGHTS RESERVED
Copyright Publisher
No part of this publication may be reproduced in any form without prior permission of the publisher. The author and the
publisher do not take any legal responsibility for any errors or misrepresentations that might have crept in. We have tried
and made our best efforts to provide accurate up-to-date information in this book.
For further information about books from DISHA,

Log on to www.dishapublication.com or email to info@dishapublication.com
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PREFACE
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101 Speed Tests for IBPS CWE Bank Clerk Exam with Success Guarantee
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IF YOU MASTER THIS BOOK SUCCESS IS GUARANTEED IN THE UPCOMING IBPS CLERK EXAM
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Yes, its true. If you can master this book you will crack the IBPS CWE Bank Clerk Exam for sure. This is the 1st and the
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Most Innovative Book for the most sought after IBPS Bank Clerk Exam. It contains all the IMPORTANT CONCEPTS which
are required to crack this exam. The concepts are covered in the form of 101 SPEED TESTS.
No matter where you PREPARE from a coaching or any textbook/ Guide 101 SPEED TESTS provides you the right
ASSESSMENT on each topic. Your performance provides you the right cues to IMPROVE your concepts so as to perform
better in the final examination.
It is to be noted here that these are not mere tests but act as a checklist of students learning and ability to apply concepts
to different problems.
The book is based on the concept of TRP Test, Revise and Practice. It aims at improving your SPEED followed by
STRIKE RATE which will eventually lead to improving your SCORE.
How is this product different?

1st unique product with 101 speed tests.
Each test is based on small topics which are most important for the IBPS CWE Clerk exam. Each test contains
around 25-30 MCQs on the latest pattern of the exam.
The whole syllabus has been divided into 5 sections which are further distributed into 95 topics.
1. NUMERICAL ABILITY is distributed into 27 topics.
2. REASONING is distributed into 23 topics.
3. ENGLISH LANGUAGE is distributed into 18 topics.
4. COMPUTER KNOWLEDGE is distributed into 8 topics.
5. GENERAL AWARENESS is distributed into 15 topics.
In the end of each section a Sectional Test is provided so as to sum up the whole section.
Finally at the end 5 FULL TESTS are provided so as to give the candidates the real feel of the final exam.
In all, the book contains 3000+ Quality MCQs in the form of 101 tests.
Solutions to each of the 101 tests are provided at the end of the book.
The book provides Separate Tests. The book comes with perforation such that each test can be torn out of the book.
Separate Time Limit, Maximum Marks, Cut-off, Qualifying Score is provided for each test.
The book also provides a separate sheet, SCORE TRACKER where you can keep a record of your scores and
performance.
It is advised that the students should take each test very seriously and must attempt only after they have prepared
that topic.
The General Awareness section has been updated up to October 2013.
Once taken a test the candidates must spend time in analysing their performance which will provide you the right
cues to IMPROVE the concepts so as to perform better in the final examination.
It is our strong belief that if an aspirant works hard on the cues provided through each of the tests he/ she can improve
his/ her learning and finally the SCORE by at least 20%.
Disha Publication
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SYLLABUS
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1. ANALOGY 1-2 32. SQUARE, CUBE, INDICES & SURDS 65-66
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2. CLASSIFICATION 3-4 33. SIMPLIFICATION 67-68
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34. AVERAGE 69-70
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3. SERIES 5-6
4. ALPHABET TEST 7-8 35. PERCENTAGE 71-72
5. CODING - DECODING 9-10 36. RATIO & PROPORTION 73-74
6. BLOOD RELATION 11-12 37. ALLIGATION AND MIXTURE 75-76
7. DIRECTION AND DISTANCE 13-14 38. PROFIT, LOSS & DISCOUNT 77-78
8. TIME, SEQUENCE & RANKING TEST 15-16 39. SIMPLE INTEREST 79-80
9. SITTING ARRANGEMENT 17-18 40. COMPOUND INTEREST 81-82
10. ANALYTICAL PUZZLE - I 19-20 41. DISTANCE, SPEED AND TIME 83-84
11. ANALYTICAL PUZZLE - II 21-22 42. TIME & WORK / PIPE & CISTERN 85-86
12. VENN DIAGRAMS 23-24 43. PROBLEM BASED ON AGES 87-88
13. SYLLOGISM - I 25-26 44. PERMUTATION & COMBINATION 89-90
14. SYLLOGISMS - II 27-28 45. PROBABILITY 91-92
15. SYMBOLS & CODES 29-30 46. AREA AND PERIMETER 93-94
16. ALPHA NUMERIC SEQUENCE PUZZLE 31-32 47. VOLUME AND SURFACE AREA 95-96
17. INPUT-OUTPUT 33-34 48. GEOMETRY 97-98
18. MATHEMATICAL OPERATIONS 35-36 49. NUMBER SERIES - I 99-100
19. CLOCK AND CALENDAR 37-38 50. NUMBER SERIES - II 101-102
20. DATA SUFFICIENCY 39-40 51. DATA INTERPRETATION 103-104
21. STATEMENT & CONCLUSION 52. SECTION TEST :
(MATHEMATICAL) 41-42 NUMERICAL ABILITY 105-106
22. STATEMENT & CONCLUSION 53. READING COMPREHENSION - I 107-110
(LOGICAL) 43-44 54. READING COMPREHENSION - II 111-114
23. PASSAGE BASED CONCLUSION-1 45-46 55. READING COMPREHENSION - III 115-118
24. PASSAGE BASED CONCLUSION-2 47-48 56. SYNONYMS 119-120
25. CUBE & DICE 49-50 57. ANTONYMS 121-122
26. NON-VERBAL REASONING - I 51-52 58. SENTENCE COMPLETION - I 123-124
27. NON-VERBAL REASONING - II 53-54 59. SENTENCE COMPLETION - II 125-126
28. SECTION TEST : REASONING 55-58 60. SIMILAR SUBSTITUTION 127-128
29. NUMBER SYSTEM - I 59-60 61. CORRECT USAGE OF
30. NUMBER SYSTEM - II 61-62 PREPOSITION 129-130
31. LCM, HCF AND FRACTION 63-64 62. SENTENCE IMPROVEMENT 131-132
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63. SPOTTING THE ERRORS - I 133-134 82. RBI & ITS MONETARY POLICIES 173-174
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64. SPOTTING THE ERRORS - II 135-136 83. BANKING PRODUCT & SERVICES 175-176
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65. SPELLING TEST 137-138 84. BANKING TERM/ TERMINOLOGY 177-178
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66. ONE WORD SUBSTITUTION 139-140 85. MICRO FINANCE & ECONOMICS 179-180
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67. PARA JUMBLES 141-142 86. FOREIGN TRADE 181-182
68. IDIOMS AND PHRASES 143-144 87. SOCIO-ECO-POLITICAL

ENVIRONMENT OF INDIA 183-184
69. CLOZE TEST - I 145-146
88. APPOINTMENT/ ELECTION/
70. CLOZE TEST - II 147-148
RESIGNATION 185-186
71. SECTION TEST :
89. EVENTS/ ORGANISATION/
ENGLISH LANGUAGE 149-152
SUMMITS 187-188
72. COMPUTER FUNDAMENTAL &
90. AWARDS AND HONOURS 189-190
BINARY SYSTEM 153-154
91. BOOKS AND AUTHORS 191-192
73. OPERATING SYSTEM 155-156
92. SPORTS AND GAMES 193-194
74. MS OFFICE 157-158
93. SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY 195-196
75. COMMANDS & SHORTCUT KEYS 159-160
94. CURRENT BANKING 197-198
76. SOFTWARES 161-162
95. CURRENT AFFAIRS 199-200
77. PROGRAMMING 163-164
96. SECTION TEST :
78. INTERNET AND NETWORKING 165-166 GENERAL AWARENESS 201-204
79. COMPUTER ABBREVIATIONS 97. IBPS BANK CLERK FULL TEST - 1 205-218
AND GLOSSARY 167-168
98. IBPS BANK CLERK FULL TEST - 2 219-232
80. SECTION TEST :
COMPUTER AWARENESS 169-170 99. IBPS BANK CLERK FULL TEST - 3 233-248
81. HISTORY OF BANKING AND 100. IBPS BANK CLERK FULL TEST - 4 249-262
ITS DEVELOPMENT 171-172 101. IBPS BANK CLERK FULL TEST - 5 263-278
101 SPEED TEST - SOLUTIONS 1-116
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ANALOGY
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Max. Marks : 30 No. of Qs. 30 Time : 20 min. Date : ........./......../................
1. A 'Square' is related to 'Cube' in the same way as a 'Circle' is 8. NUMBER : UNBMRE : : GHOST : ?
related to (a) HOGST (b) HOGTS (c) HGOST
(a) Sphere (b) Circumference (c) Diameter
(d) HGSOT (e) HGOTS
(d) Area (e) None of these
9. DRIVEN : EIDRVN : : BEGUM : ?
2. In a certain code BRIGHT is written as JSCSGF. How is
JOINED written in that code? (a) EUBGM (b) MGBEU
(a) HNIEFO (b) JPKEFO (c) JPKMDC (c) BGMEU (d) UEBGM
(d) KPJCDM (e) None of these (e) BGMUE
3. '34' is related to '12' in the same way as '59' is related to 10. PRLN : X Z T V : : J L F H : ?
(a) 45 (b) 14 (c) 42 (a) RTNP (b) NPRT (c) NRPT
(d) 38 (e) 47
(d) NTRP (e) RPNT
4. 'Mustard' is related to 'Seed' in the same way as 'Carrot' is
11. XWV : UTS : : LKJ : ... ?
related to
(a) Fruit (b) Stem (c) Flower (a) IHG (b) JKL (c) STU
(d) Root (e) None of these (d) MNO (e) KIG
DIRECTIONS (Q. 5 - 24) : For each of the following questions 12. QYGO : SAIQ : : UCKS : ?
there is some relationship between the two terms to the left of :: (a) WDMV (b) VFNU (c) WDLU
and the same relationship obtains between the two terms to its
right. In each of these questions the fourth term is missing. This (d) VEMU (e) WEMU
term is one of the alternatives among the five terms given below. 13. YAWC : UESG : : QIOK : ?
Find out this term. (a) MINC (b) MIKE (c) KOME
5. ADE : FGJ :: KNO : ? (d) MMKO (e) LIME
(a) PQR (b) TPR (c) PQT
14. CFIL : PSVY : : HKNQ : ?
(d) RQP (e) PRS
(a) NPSV (b) LPSY (c) LORU
6. DGPGJ : MPQPS : : KNENQ : ....?
(a) RUFUX (b) RFUFX (c) RXUXF (d) MOQT (e) MPSU
(d) RFUFX (e) None of these 15. 122 : 170 : : 290 : ?
7. UTS : EDC : : WVU : ? (a) 299 (b) 315 (c) 332
(a) XWV (b) WXY (c) SJM (d) 344 (e) 362
(d) RPO (e) SRP
1. a b c d e 2. a b c d e 3. a b c d e 4. a b c d e 5. a b c d e
RESPONSE 6. a b c d e 7. a b c d e 8. a b c d e 9. a b c d e 10. a b c d e
GRID 11. a b c d e 12. a b c d e 13. a b c d e 14. a b c d e 15. a b c d e
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2 SPEED TEST 1
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16. 42 : 56 : : 110 : ? 25. Which of the following pairs of words have the same
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(a) 132 (b) 136 (c) 144
relationship as FAN : HEAT?
(d) 148 (e) 156
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17. 12 : 20 : : 30 : ? (a) Water : Drink (b) Light : Night
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(a) 15 (b) 32 (c) 35 (c) Teach : Student (d) Air : Breathe
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(d) 42 (e) 48
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(e) Food : Hunger
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18. 3 : 10 : : 08 : ?
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(a) 10 (b) 13 (c) 17 26. A disease would always necessarily have
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(d) 14 (e) 16 (a) Medicine (b) Bacteria (c) Cause
19. 08 : 28 : 15 : ?
(d) Cure (e) Fever
(a) 63 (b) 126 (c) 65
(d) 124 (e) 26 27. 'Army' is related to 'Land' in the same way as 'Navy' is related
20. 08 : 09 : : 64 : ? to _____.
(a) 16 (b) 25 (c) 125
(a) Ships (b) Battle (c) Water
(d) 32 (e) 20
21. 6 : 24 : : 5 : ? (d) Admiral (e) Defence
(a) 23 (b) 22 (c) 26 28. A 'Tumbler' is related to 'Empty' in the same way as a 'Seat' is
(d) 20 (e) 19 related to
22. 6 : 35 : : 11 : ?
(a) 120 (b) 115 (c) 122 (a) Occupied (b) Person (c) Chair
(d) 121 (e) 124 (d) Sitting (e) Vacant
23. 3 : 27 : : 4 : ?
29. Secretly is to openly as silently is to__
(a) 140 (b) 75 (c) 100
(d) 80 (e) 64 (a) scarcely (b) impolitely (c) noisily
3 (d) quietly (e) None of these
24. 3:3 :: 5:?
8 30. Spring is to as coil as ring is to____
5 3 1 (a) rope (b) loop (c) cowl

(a) 5 (b) 5 (c) 5
8 8 8 (d) stretch (e) None of these
5 1
(d) 2 (e) 6
8 8

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CLASSIFICATION
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1. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way on the 8. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so
basis of their positions in English alphabet and so form a form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that
group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group. group?
(a) HJG (b) PQN (c) DEB (a) Garlic (b) Ginger (c) Carrot
(d) TUR (e) KLI (d) Radish (e) Brinjal
9. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so
form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that
group?
group ?
(a) Clutch (b) Wheel (c) Break
(a) Rose (b) Jasmine (c) Hibiscus (d) Car (e) Gear
(d) Marigold (e) Lotus 10. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so
3. Four of the following five pairs of alphas and numerals have form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that
same relationship between their elements as in the case of group?
the pair PROBLEM : 2948375 and hence form a group. Which (a) 196 (b) 256 (c) 529
one does not belong to the group? (d) 576 (e) 324
(a) BORE : 8497 (b) MOEP : 5972 11. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so
(c) LBOR : 3849 (d) OMEP : 4572 form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that
(e) EROL : 7943 group?
4. Four of the following five pairs are alike in a certain way (a) RPN (b) WSU (c) HDF
(d) LHJ (e) QMO
and hence form a group. Which one does not belong to
that group?
(a) DONE : NOED (b) WANT : NATW group?
(c) WITH : TIHW (d) JUST : SUTJ (a) 169 (b) 441 (c) 361
(e) HAVE : AVEH (d) 529 (e) 289
5. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so 13. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so
form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that
group? group?
(a) Hill (b) Valley (c) Dam (a) PM (b) EB (c) TQ
(c) River (e) Mountain (d) IF (e) VY
6. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so 14. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so
form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that
group? group?
(a) 115 (b) 85 (c) 95
(a) 50 (b) 65 (c) 170
(d) 75 (e) 155
(d) 255 (e) 290
7. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that
form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
group? (a) 115 (b) 161 (c) 253
(a) 21 (b) 35 (c) 42 (d) 391 (e) 345
(d) 56 (e) 49
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4 SPEED TEST 2
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16. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so 23. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and
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form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that hence form a group. Which is the one that does not belong
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group? to that group?
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(a) OMQ (b) HFJ (c) TPR (a) KP (b) BY (c) DW
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(d) TRV (e) VTX (d) HU (e) GT
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24. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and
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17. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on
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hence form a group. Which is the one that does not belong
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the English alphabetical series and so form a group. Which
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to that group?
is the one that does not belong to that group?
(a) JLNK (b) TVXU (c) ACEB
(a) MLJ (b) WVT (c) OMK (d) PRTQ (e) GJKH
(d) JIG (e) TSQ 25. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and
18. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so hence form a group. Which is the one that does not belong
form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that to that group?
group? (a) GIJF (b) OQRN (c) KMNL
(a) Diabetes (b) Smallpox (d) UWXT (e) CEFB
(c) Conjunctivitis (d) Chickenpox 26. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and
(e) Plague hence form a group. Which is the one that does not belong
19. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so to the group?
(a) Break (b) Change (c) Split
(d) Divide (e) Separate
group?
27. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and
(a) Mustard (b) Jowar (c) Wheat hence form a group. Which is the one that does not belong
(d) Paddy (e) Bajra to the group?
20. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so (a) Train (b) Instruct (c) Educate
form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that (d) Advocate (e) Coach
group? 28. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and
(a) 45 (b) 35 (c) 85 hence form a group. Which is the one that does not belong
(d) 25 (e) 75 to the group?
21. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and (a) Extend (b) Higher (c) Upward
(d) Rise (e) Ascend
hence form a group. Which is the one that does not belong
to that group?
(a) Succeed (b) Victory (c) Triumph
group?
(d) Compete (e) Win (a) Volume (b) Size (c) Large
22. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and (d) Shape (e) Weight
hence form a group. Which is the one that does not belong 30. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so
to that group? form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that
(a) Fair (b) Impartial (c) Indifferent group?
(d) Unbiased (e) Just (a) Anxiety (b) Worry (c) Inhibition
(d) Curiosity (e) Weariness

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SERIES
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DIRECTIONS (Q. 1 - 12) : What should come in place of question 9. 12 18 36 102 360 (?)
mark (?) in the following number series? (a) 1364 (b) 1386 (c) 1384
1. 1050 420 168 67.2 26.88 10.752 ? (d) 1376 (e) None of these
(a) 4.3008 (b) 6.5038 (c) 4.4015 10. 71 78 99 134 183 (?)
(d) 5.6002 (e) None of these (a) 253 (b) 239 (c) 246
2. 0 6 24 60 120 210 ? (d) 253 (e) None of these
(a) 343 (b) 280 (c) 335 11. 342 337.5 328.5 315 297 (?)
(d) 295 (e) None of these (a) 265.5 (b) 274.5 (c) 270
3. 15 19 83 119 631 (?) (d) 260 (e) None of these
(a) 731 (b) 693 (c) 712 12. 161 164 179 242 497 (?)
(d) 683 (e) None of these (a) 1540 (b) 1480 (c) 1520
4. 19 26 40 68 124 (?) (d) 1440 (e) None of these
(a) 246 (b) 238 (c) 236

(d) 256 (e) None of these DIRECTIONS (Qs. 13 to 17): What will come in place of question
5. 11 10 18 51 200 (?) mark (?) in the following number series?
(a) 885 (b) 1025 (c) 865 13. 12, 30, 56, 90, 132, ?
6. 14 24 43 71 108 (?) (d) 189 (e) 196
(a) 194 ( b) 154 (c) 145 14. 91, 381, 871, 1561, 2451, ?
7. 144 173 140 169 136 (?) (d) 3716 (e) 3772
(a) 157 ( b) 148 (c) 164 15. 110, 440, 990, 1760, 2750, ?
8. 656 352 200 124 86 (?) (d) 3840 (e) 3960
(a) 67 (b) 59 (c) 62
(d) 57 (e) None of these
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6 SPEED TEST 3
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16. 5, 6, 11, 20, 33, 50, ? 24. What will be the next term in ?
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(a) 64 (b) 71 (c) 78 DCXW, FEVU, HGTS, ...........
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(d) 81 (e) 84
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(a) LKPO (b) ABYZ (c) JIRQ
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17. 2, 7, 24, 77, 238, 723, ? (d) LMRS (e) None of these
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(a) 1948 (b) 1984 (c) 2010 25. ZXVTR....
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(d) 2096 (e) 2180 (a) O, K (b) N, M (c) K, S
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(d) M, N (e) P, N
DIRECTIONS (Q.18 - 22) :What should come in place of question 26. C, e, G, i, K....
mark (?) in the following number series? (a) O, K (b) m, O (c) k, M
18. 980 484 260 112 50 ? 3.5 (d) M, k (e) O, p
(a) 25 (b) 17 (c) 21 27. m_ _ l m _ l _ m m _ l
(d) 29 (e) None of these (a) mllml (b) mlmll (c) llmlm
19. 1015 508 255 129 66.5 ? 20.875 (d) mmlml (e) llmll
(a) 34.50 (b) 35 (c) 35.30
(d) 35.75 (e) None of these
28. What should come next in the number series given below ?
20. 4.5 18 2.25 ? 1.6875 33.75 1121231234123451234 56123456
(a) 27 (b) 25.5 (c) 36 (a) 5 (b) 2
(d) 40 (e) None of these (c) 8 (d) 1
21. 59.76 58.66 56.46 52.06 ? 25.66 (e) None of these
(a) 48.08 (b) 46.53 (c) 43.46 29. What should come next in the following letter series?
(d) 43.26 (e) None of these ABC DPQRSA BCDE PQ RSTABCDEFPQ RST
22. 36 157 301 470 ? 891 (a) A (b) V
(a) 646 (b) 695 (c) 639 (c) U (d) W
(e) None of these
30. What will come in place of question mark (?) in the following
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 23 to 27) : Which one of the letters when series ?
sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall NDP, QWB, ZFR, ?
complete it?
(a) SVJ (b) AFS
23. acabcbccbca
(c) IVS (d) SFA
(a) b b a b (b) b a b a (c) a a b b
(e) None of these
(d) b b a a (e) None of these

RESPONSE
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ALPHABET TEST
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1. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word 9. If the letters of the word ARROGANCE are interchanged,
EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between first with fifth, second with sixth, third with seventh, fourth
them in the word as they have in the English alphabet? with eighth and the position of the ninth remains unchanged,
(a) None (b) One (c) Two then what will the new arrangement of letters be?
(d) Three (e) More than three (a) GANACRROE (b) GANCRAROE"
2. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word GOLDEN, (c) GNACORRAE (d) GANCARROE
each of which has as many letters between them in the word (e) None of these
as in the English alphabet? 10. If all the letters in the word 'PRINCE' are rearranged in
(a) None (b) One (c) Two alphabetical order, then how many letter(s) will remain
(d) Three (e) More than three unchanged?
3. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word STRIVE (a) None (b) One (c) Two
each of which has as many letters between them in the word
as in the English alphabet ? (d) Three (e) More than three
(a) One (b) Two (c) Three 11. How many meaningful English words can be formed with
(d) Four (e) None of these ESRO using each letter only once in each word?
4. How many meaningful English words can be formed with the (a) None (b) One (c) Two
letters 'ATN' using each letter only once in each word? (d) Three (e) More than three
(l) One (b) Two (c) Three 12. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word
(d) Four (e) More than four CONSTABLE, each of which has as many letters between
5. The serial order of how many letters in the word CLIENT will them in the word as in the English alphabet?
not differ than their serial order in the arrangement where the (a) None (b) One (c) Two
letters of the word are arranged alphabetically? (d) Three (e) More than three
(a) Four (b) One (c) Three 13. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word
(d) Two (e) None of these PHYSICAL, each of which has as many letters between them
6. How many meaningful English words can be made with the in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
letters ENAL using each letter only once in each word? (a) None (b) One (c) Two
(a) One (b) Two (c) Three
(d) Three (e) More than three
(d) Four (e) More than four
7. How many three - letter meaningful words can be formed 14. How many pairs of letters are there in the word 'SHIFTED'
from the word TEAR beginning with 'A' without repeating each of which has as many letters between its two letters as
any letter within that word? there are between them in the English alphabet?
(a) One (b) Three (c) Five (a) None (c) One (c) Two
(d) Two (e) None of these (d) Three (e) None of these
8. If all the letters in the word ARGUMENT are rearranged in 15. How many meaningful English words can be formed by using
alphabetical order and substituted by the letter immediately any two letters of the word 'GOT'?
following it in the English alphabet, what will be the new (a) Three (b) Two (c) One
arrangement of letters? (d) More than three (e) None of these
(a) BFHNOSUV (b) BFHONSWV
(c) BFHNOUSV (d) BFHNOQUV
(e) None of these
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16. How many three-letter meaningful English words can be 23. If each vowel of the word WEBPAGE is substituted with the
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formed from the word NOTE beginning with T and without next letter of the English alphabet, and each consonant is
repeating any letter within that word? substituted with the letter preceding it, which of the following
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(a) Three (b) One (c) Two letters will appear thrice?
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(d) None (e) None of these (a) G (b) F (c) Q
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17. If all the letters in the word MERCIFUL are rearranged in (d) V (e) None of these
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alphabetical order and substituted by the alphabet preceding 24. How many meaningful four letter English words can be
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them in the English alphabet, what will be the new formed with the letters TPSI using each letter only once in
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arrangement of letters? each word?
(a) BDFIEKLQT (b) BDEHKLQT (a) One (b) Two (c) Three
(c) BDEHLKQT (d) BDEJMLQT (d) Four (e) More than four
(e) None of these 25. How many meaningful five-letter words can be formed with
18. If it is possible to make only one meaningful word, from the the letters SLIKL using each letter only once ?
first, the third, the fifth and the eighth letters of word (a) One (b) Two (c) Three
ENTERPRISE using each letter only once, first letter of the (d) More than three (e) None
word is your answer. If more than one such word can be 26. If each vowel in the word HABITUAL is changed to the next
made your answer is `X' and if no such word can be made, letter in the English alphabet and each consonant is changed
your answer is Y'. to the previous letter in the English alphabet, which of the
(a) P (b) S (c) T following will be fourth from the left ?
(a) A (b) S (c) J
(d) X (e) Y
(d) H (e) None of these
19. If in the word DISTANCE all the vowels are replaced by the
27. The positions of how many alphabets will remain unchanged
next letter and all the consonants are replaced by the previous
if each of the alphabets in the word WALKING is arranged in
letter and then all the letters are arranged alphabetically, which
alphabetical order from left to right ?
letter will be third from the right?
(a) None (b) One (c) Two
(a) M (b) F (c) R
(d) J (e) None of these
28. If the first three letters of the word COMPREHENSION are
20. After arranging the letters of the word FOLK in alphabetical reversed, then the last three letters are added and then the
order, if each letter is substituted by the letter immediately remaining letters are reversed and added, then which letter
preceding to it in the English alphabet, what will be the will be exactly in the middle ?
resultant form of the word?' (a) H (b) N (c) R
(a) GLMP (b) EJKP (c) EKJN (d) S (e) None of these
(d) EJKN (e) None of these 29. If the first and second letters in the word DEPRESSION were
21. If A is denoted by 1, B by 2, C by 3, D by 1, E by 2, F by 3 and interchanged, also the third and the fourth letters, the fifth
so on, what would be the sum of the digits for the word and the sixth letters and so on, which of the following would
MULE ? be the seventh letter from the right ?
(a) 7 (b) 8 (c) 9 (a) R (b) O (c) S
(d) 10 (e) None of these (d) P (e) None of these
22. How many meaningful English words can be made with the 30. Arrange the given words in alphabetical order. Which one
letters ARTSE using each letter only once in each word? comes in the middle?
(a) None (b) One (c) Two (a) Restrict (b) Rocket (c) Robber
(d) Three (e) More than three (d) Random (e) Restaurant

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CODING - DECODING
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1. In a certain code, PROSE is written as PPOQE. How would 9. If light is called morning, morning is called dark, dark
LIGHT be written in that code ? is called night, night is called sunshine and sunshine is
(a) LIGFT (b) LGGHT (c) LGGFT called dusk, when do we sleep ?
(d) JIEHR (e) None of these (a) Dusk (b) Dark (c) Night
2. If Z = 52 and ACT is equal to 48, then BAT will be equal to (d) Sunshine (e) None of these
(a) 39 (b) 41 (c) 44 10. If A + B = C, D C = A and E B = C, then what does D + F
(d) 46 (e) None of these stands for ? Provide your answer in letter terms as well as in
3. In a certain code, 15789 is written as EGKPT and 2346 is number terms.
written as ALUR. How is 23549 written in that code ? (a) J & 10 (b) A & 1 (c) C & 3
(a) ALEUT (b) ALGTU (c) ALGUT (d) Q & 17 (e) None of these
(d) ALGRT (e) None of these 11. In a certain code, 247 means spread red carpet, 256 means
4. In a certain coding system, RBM STD BRO PUS means the dust one carpet and 234 means one red carpet. Which
cat is beautiful. TNH PUS DIM STD means the dog is digit in that code means dust?
brown. PUS DIM BRO PUS CUS means the dog has the (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 5
cat. What is the code for has ? (d) 6 (e) None of these
(a) CUS (b) BRO (c) DIM 12. If table is called chair, chair is called cot, cot is called pot and
(d) STD (e) None of these pot is called filter, where does a person sit?
5. If NAXALITE is written in a certain code as LYVYJGRC how (a) pot (b) cot (c) chair
will INTEGRATE be written in the same code ? (d) filter (e) None of these
(a) LGRECYPRC (b) GLRCEPYRC 13. In a certain code OVER is written as $#%*. and VIST is written
(c) PYWMNOPQR (d) BLACKHOLE as #+. How is SORE written in that code?
(a) $*% (b) %$*
(e) None of these
(c) *$% (d) None of these
6. ENGLAND is written as 1234526 and FRANCE as 785291.
How will GREECE be written in this coding scheme ? (e) All of these
(a) 381191 (b) 381911 (c) 394132 14. In a certain code language `PULSE' is written as `DRKTO'
(d) 562134 (e) None of these and 'NEW is written as `VDM'. How will 'PROBES' be written
7. In a certain code, CAT is written as SATC and DEAR is written in that code language?
as SEARD. How would SING be written in that code? (a) RDANQO (b) QSPCFT
(a) GNISS (b) SINGS (c) SGNIS (c) TFCPSQ (d) OPNADR
(d) BGINS (e) None of these (e) None of these
8. PROMISE is coded as 1234567. What should be the code for 15. If REMIT is written as *3 7 and CONSUL is written as
MISER in that code language ? = %8 $5; then OCELOT will be written as
(a) 45672 (b) 43672 (c) 76543 (a) %=3587 (b) %=5%7
(c) %=35% (d) %35%7
(e) None of these
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16. If AMONG is written as NAOGM and SPINE is written as 24. In a certain code,'LOCK' is written as `MPBJ'' and `BLOW' is
b
NSIEP, then LAMON will be written as written as `CMNV'. How is 'WINE' written in that code?
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(a) OALNM (b) MLONA (c) OLMNA (a) VHOF (b) XJMD (c) XJOR
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(d) OLNMA (e) None of these (d) VHMD (e) None of these
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17. In a certain code SEAL is written as $75@ and DOSE is 25. In a certain code SOLDIER is written as JFSCRNK. How is
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written as #8$7. How is SOLD written in that code? GENIOUS written in that code?
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(a) $8@# (b) #87$ (c) #8$7 (a) PVTHHFO (b) PVTHFDM
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(d) $5@# (e) None of these (c) PVTHMDF (d) TVPHFDM
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18. If 'table' is called 'chair'; 'chair' is called `cupboard', 'cupboard' (e) None of these
is called 'chalk', 'chalk' is called 'book', 'book' 26. If blue means green, green means black, black means white,
is called 'duster' and 'duster' is called 'table', what does the white means pink, pink means red and red means orange,
teacher use to write on the black board? then what is the colour of blood?
(a) book (b) cupboard (c) table (a) Red (b) Black (c) White
(d) duster (e) None of these (d) Pink (e) None of these
19. in a certain code `MOTHER' is written as OMHURF. How
will `ANSWER' be written in that code ?
DIRECTIONS (27 and 28) : Study the following information to
(a) NBWRRF (b) MAVSPE
answer the given questions :
(c) NBWTRD (d) NBXSSE
In a certain code colours of the sky is written as ki la fa so,
(e) None of these
rainbow colours is written as ro ki and sky high rocket is
20. In a certain code 'GROW' is written as '=@%#' and 'WITHIN'
written as la pe jo and the rocket world is written as pe so ne.
is written as '# + ' How is 'WING' written in that
27. Which of the following is the code for colours sky high?
code?
(a) ro jo la (b) fa la jo (c) la ki so
(a) # (b) # = (c) % =
(d) ki jo la (e) fa ki jo
(d) # = (e) None of these
28. Which of the following will/may represent the?
21. If 'DO' is written as 'FQ' and 'IN' is written as 'KP' then how
(a) Only fa (b) Either fa or la
would 'AT' be written?
(a) CV (b) BS (c) CU (c) Only so (d) Only la
(d) DV (e) None of these (e) Either so or fa
22. lf 8 is written as B, 1 as R, 6 as K, 9 as O, 4 as M, 7 as W and 29. In a certain code language DREA is written as BFSE, MING
3 as T, then how, would WROMBT be Written in the numeric is written as FMHL vkSj TREA is written as BFSU How will
form? TISE be written in that code ?
(a) 714983 (b) 719483 (c) 769483 (a) DTHS (b) DSTV (c) DSHS
(d) 719486 (e) None of these (d) FUGS (e) None of these
23. In a code language, PINK is written as QHOJ and BOLT is 30. If table is called chair, chair is called cot, cot is called pot
written as CNMS. How would MUST be written in that code? and pot is called filter, where does a person sit?
(a) NVTS (b) NTTS (c) NTRS (a) pot (b) cot (c) chair
(d) NITU (e) None of these (d) filter (e) None of these

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BLOOD RELATION
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1. Pointing to a photograph, Arun said, she is the mother of my 10. Ankit is related to Binny and Chinky, Daizy is Chinkys
brothers sons wifes daughter. How is Arun related to the lady? mother. Also Daizy is Binnys sister and Aruna is Binnys
(a) Cousin (b) Daughter-in-law sister. How is Chinky related to Aruna?
(c) Uncle (d) None of these (a) Niece (b) Sister (c) Cousin
(e) None of these (d) Aunt (e) None of these
2. As mother is sister of B and has daughter C. How can A be 11. Saroj is mother-in-law of Vani who is sister-in-law of Deepak.
related to B from amongst the following ? Rajesh is father of Ramesh, the only brother of Deepak. How
(a) Niece (b) Uncle (c) Daughter is Saroj related to Deepak?
(d) Father (e) None of these (a) Mother-in-law (b) Wife (c) Aunt
3. Introducing Kamla, Mahesh said : His father is the only son (d) Mother (e) None of these
of my father. How was Mahesh related to Kamla ? 12. A man pointing to a photograph says, The lady in the
(a) Brother (b) Father (c) Uncle photograph is my nephews maternal grandmother. How is
(d) Son (e) None of these the lady in the photograph related to the mans sister who
4. Anil, introducing a girl in a party, said, she is the wife of the has only brother and no other sister?
grandson of my mother. How is Anil related to the girl? (a) Sister-in-law (b) Cousin
(a) Father (b) Grandfather (c) Mother (d) Mother-in- law
(c) Husband (d) Father-in-law
(e) None of these
(e) None of these
13. A man pointing to a photograph says, The lady in the
5. A and B are married couple. X and Y are brother. X is the
photograph is my nephews maternal grandmother and her
brother of A. How Y is related to B ?
son is my sisters brother-in-law. How is the lady in the
(a) Brother (b) Brother-in-law photograph related to his sister who has no other sister?
(c) Son (d) Son-in-law
(a) Mother (b) Cousin
(e) None of these
(c) Mother-in-law (d) Sister-in-law
6. A man said to a woman, Your mothers husbands sister is
(e) None of these
my aunt. How is the woman related to the man ?
(a) Granddaughter (b) Daughter (c) Sister DIRECTIONS (Qs. 14 - 16) : Read the information given below to
(d) Aunt (e) None of these answer the questions that follow.
7. Showing a lady in the park, Vineet said, She is the daughter Rama and Mohan are a married couple having two daughters
of my grandfathers only son. How is Vineet related to that named Smita and Devika. Devika is married to a man who is the
lady ? son of Madhu and Jeewan. Romila is the daughter of Aman.
(a) Father (b) Son (c) Brother Krishna who is Amans sister is married to Sunil and has two sons
(d) Mother (e) None of these Anuj and Ankur. Ankur is the grandson of Madhu and Jeewan.
8. X told Y, Though I am the son of your father, you are not my 14. How is Krishna related to Devika ?
brother. How is X related to Y ? (a) Sister-in-law (b) Sister
(a) Sister (b) Son (c) Daughter (c) Aunt (d) None of these
(d) None of these (e) None of these
(e) None of these
9. Rahuls mother is the only daughter of Monikas father. How
15. What is the relationship between Anuj and Romila?
is Monikas husband related to Rahul?
(a) Uncle Niece (b) Father Daughter
(a) Uncle (b) Father
(c) Grandfather (d) Brother (c) Husband Wife (d) Cousins
(e) None of these (e) None of these
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12 SPEED TEST 6
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16. Which of the following is true ? 22. How is T related to S in the expression 'T R V S'?
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(a) Anuj is the son of Smita. (a) Father (b) Sister (c) Daughter
(d) Aunt (e) None of these
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(b) Romila is the cousin of Krishna.
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(c) Madhu is Sunils mother-in-law. 23. How is S related to T in the expression 'T + R V + S'?
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(a) Uncle (b) Nephew
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(d) Jeewan is Devikas maternal uncle.
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(e) None of these (c) Son (d) Cannot be determined
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DIRECTIONS (Qs. 17-20) : Read the information given below to (e) None of these
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answer these questions: 24. Which of the following means that 'S is the husband of T'?
(i) In a family of six persons, A, B, C, D, E and F, there are two (a) T R V + S (b) T R V S
married couples. (c) T R + V S (d) T R V + S
(ii) D is the grandmother of A and the mother of B. (e) None of these
(iii) C is the wife of B and the mother of F. 25. How is V related to T in the expression 'T R + V S'?
(iv) F is the granddaughter of E. (a) Aunt (b) Nephew (c) Niece
17. What is C to A? (d) Uncle (e) None of these
(a) Daughter (b) Grandmother 26. D is brother of B. M is brother of B. K is father of M. T is wife
(c) Mother (d) Cannot be determined of K. How is B related to T?
(e) None of these (a) Son (b) Daughter
18. How many male members are there in the Family? (c) Son or Daughter (d) Data inadequate
(a) Two (b) Three (e) None of these
(c) Four (d) Cannot be determined DIRECTIONS (Qs. 27 - 30) : Study the following information
(e) None of these carefully to answer the questions that follow.
19. Which of the following is true? Adhir Mishra has three children : Urmila, Raghu and Sumit. Sumit
(a) A is the brother of F married Roma, the eldest daughter of Mr. And Mrs. Mohan. The
Mohans married their youngest daughter to the eldest son of Mr.
(b) A is the sister of F
and Mrs. Sharma and they had two children Sandeep and Shaifali.
(c) D has two grandsons
The Mohans have two more children, Roshan and Bimla, both
(d) None of these elder to Sheila. Sohan and Shivendar are sons of Sumit and Roma.
(e) None of these Leela is the daughter of Sandeep.
20. Who among the following is one of the couples? 27. How is Mrs. Mohan related to Sumit ?
(a) C D (b) D E (a) Aunt (b) Mother-in-law
(c) E B (d) Cannot be determined (c) Mother (d) Sister-in-law
DIRECTIONS (Q.21-25) : Read the following information carefully 28. What is the surname of Sohan ?
and answer the questions which follow: (a) Sharma (b) Mohan (c) Mishra
(i) 'P Q' means 'P is son of Q'. (d) Raghu (e) None of these
(ii) 'P Q' means 'P is sister of Q'. 29. What is the surname of Leela ?
(iii) 'P + Q' means 'P is brother of Q'. (a) Sharma (b) Mohan (c) Mishra
(iv) 'P Q' means 'P is mother of Q'. (d) None of these (e) None of these
21. How is T related to S in the expression 'T R + V S'? 30. How is Shivendar related to Romas father ?
(a) Sister (b) Mother (c) Aunt (a) Son-in-law (b) Cousin (c) Son
(d) Uncle (e) None of these (d) Grandson (e) None of these

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DIRECTION AND DISTANCE
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1. At my house I am facing east, then I turn left and go 10 m, (I) Kunal is 40 metres to the right of Atul.
then turn right and go 5 m, and then I go 5 m towards the (II) Dinesh is 60 metres to the south of Kunal
south and from there 5 m towards the west. In which direction (III) Nitin is 25 metres to the west of Atul.
am I from my house ? (IV) Prashant is 90 metres to the north of Dinesh.
(a) East (b) West (c) North 8. Who is to the north-east of the person who is to the left of
(d) South (e) None of these Kunal?
2. My friend and I started walking simultaneously towards each (a) Dinesh (b) Nitin (c) Atul
other from two places 100 m apart. After walking 30 m, my (d) None of these (e)
friend turns left and goes 10 m, then he turns right and goes 9. If a boy walks from Nitin, meets Atul followed by Kunal,
20 m and then turns right again and comes back to the road Dinesh and Prashant, then how many metres has he walked
on which he had started walking. If we walk with the same if he has travelled the straight distance all through?
speed, what is the distance between us at this point of time? (a) 155 metres (b) 185 metres
(a) 50 m (b) 20 m (c) 30 m (c) 215 metres (d) 245 metres
(d) 40 m (e) None of these (e) None of these
3. A watch reads 4:30 Oclock. If minute hand points towards 10. A square field ABCD of side 90 m is so located that its
the East, in which direction does the hour hand point ? diagonal AC is from north to south and the corner B is to the
(a) North-East (b) South-East west of D. Rohan and Rahul start walking along the sides
(c) North-West (d) North from B and C respectievely in the clockwise and anti-
(e) None of these clockwise directions with speeds of 8 km/hr and 10 km/hr.
4. A man travels 3 km to the west, turns left and goes 3 km, Where shall they cross each other the second time ?
turns right and goes 1 km, again turns right and goes 3 km. (a) On AD at a distance of 30 m from A
How far is he from the starting point ? (b) On BC at a distance of 10 m from B
(a) 7 km (b) 6 km (c) 5 km (c) On AD at a distance of 30 m from D
(d) 4 km (e) None of these (d) On BC at a distance of 10 m from C
5. A and B start walking in opposite directions. A covers 3 km and (e) None of these
B covers 4 km. Then A turns right and walks 4 km while B turns 11. One morning after sunrise, Reeta and Kavita were talking to
left and walks 3 km. How far is each from the starting point ? each other face to face at Tilak square. If Kavitas shadow
(a) 5 km (b) 4 km (c) 10 km was exactly to the right of Reeta, then which direction was
(d) 8 km (e) None of these
Kavita facing?
6. Ram walks 10 m south from his house, turns left and walks
(a) North (b) South (c) East
25 m, again turns left and walks 40 m, then turns right and
(d) Data inadequate (e) None of these
walks 5 m to reach to the school. In which direction the
12. I am facing west. I turn 45 in the clockwise direction and
school is from his house ?
then 180 in the same direction and then 270 anticlockwise.
(a) South-west (b) North-east (c) East
Which direction am I facing now?
(d) North (e) None of these
(a) South-West (b) South (c) West
7. A river flows west to east and on the way turns left and goes
(d) North-west (e) None of these
in a semicircle round a hillock, and then turns left in a right-
13. Bhavika and Sunaina start simultaneously towards each
angle. In which direction is the river finally flowing ?
other from two places 100m apart. After walking 30 m Bhavika
(a) North (b) South (c) East
turns left and goes 10 m, then she turns right and goes 20 m
(d) West (e) None of these
and then turns right again and comes back to the road on
which she had started walking. If both Bhavika and Sunaina
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 8 & 9) : Study the information given below walk with the same speed, what is the distance between
carefully to answer these questions: them at this point of time?
On a playing ground, Dinesh, Kunal, Nitin, Atul and Prashant are (a) 70 metres (b) 10 metres (c) 40 metres
standing, as described below, facing the North. (d) 20 metres (e) None of these
GRID 11. a b c d e 12. a b c d e 13. a b c d e
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14. A man starts from a point and moves 3 km north, then turns to (a) North (b) South (c) West
b
west and goes 2 km. He turns north and walks 1 km and then (d) East (e) North-West
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moves 5 km towards east. How far is he from the starting point? 23. Town D is to the West of town M. Town R is to the South of
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(a) 11 km (b) 10 km (c) 5 km town D. Town K is to the East of town R. Town K is towards
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(d) 8 km (e) None of these which direction of town D?
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15. Starting from Point X, Joy walked 15 metres towards West. (a) South (b) East
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He turned left and walked 20 metres. He again turned left (c) North-East (d) South-East
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and walked 15 metres. After which he turned right and (e) None of these
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walked for another 12 metres. How far is Joy from point X if 24. Mohan walked 30 metres towards South, took a left turn
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he is facing North at present? and walked 15 metres. He then took a right turn and walked
(a) 27 m (b) 35 m (c) 32 m 20 metres. He again took a right turn and walked 15 metres.
(d) 42 m (e) None of these How far is he from the starting point?
16. Town D is 12 km towards the North of town A. Town C is 15 (a) 95 metres (b) 50 metres
km towards the West of town D. Town B is 15 km towards (c) 70 metres (d) Cannot be determined
the West of town A. How far and in which direction is town (e) None of these
B from town C? 25. W walked 40 metres towards West, took a left turn and
(a) 15 km towards North (b) 12 km towards North walked 30 metres. He then took a right turn and walked 20
(c) 3 km towards South (d) 12 km towards South metres, He again took a right turn and walked 30 metres.
(e) cannot be determined How far was he from the starting point?
17. Rahul started from point A and travelled 8 km towards the (a) 70 metres (b) 60 metres
North to point B, he then turned right and travelled 7 km to (c) 90 metres (d) Cannot be determined
point C, from point C he took the first right and drove 5 km (e) None of these
to point D, he took another right and travelled 7 km to point 26. Town D is 13 km towards the East of town A. A bus starts
E and finally turned right and travelled for another 3 km to from town A, travels 8 km towards West and takes a right
point F. What is the distance between point F and B? turn. After taking the right turn, it travels 5 km and reaches
(a) 1 km (b) 2 km (c) 3 km town B. From town B the bus takes a right turn again, travels
(d) 4 km (e) None of these 21 km and stops. How far and towards which direction must
18. Meghna drives 10 km towards South, takes a right turn and the bus travel to reach town D?
drives 6 km. She then takes another right turn, drives 10 km (a) 13 km towards South (b) 5 km towards West
and stops. How far is she from the starting point? (c) 21 km towards South (d) 5 km towards South
(a) 16 km (b) 6 km (c) 4 km (e) None of these
(d) 12 km (e) None of these 27. A person travels 12 km due North, then 15 km due East, after
19. Vikas walked 10 metres towards North, took a left turn and that 15 km due West and then 18 km due South. How far is
walked 15 metres, and again took a left turn and walked 10 he from the starting point?
metres and stopped walking. Towards which direction was (a) 6 km (b) 12 km (c) 33 km
he facing when he stopped walking? (d) 60 km (e) 65 km
(a) South (b) South-West 28. In a meeting, the map of a village was placed in such a
(c) South-East (d) Cannot be determined manner that south-east becomes north, north-east becomes
(e) None of these west and so on. What will south become?
(a) North (b) North-east (c) North-west
DIRECTIONS (Q. 20 & 21) : Study the following information (d) West (e) South
carefully to answer these questions. 29. A school bus driver starts from the school, drives 2 km
A vehicle starts from point P and runs 10 km towards North. It towards North, takes a left turn and drives for 5 km. He then
takes a right turn and runs 15 km. It now runs 6 km after taking a takes a left turn and drives for 8 km before taking a left turn
left turn. It finally takes a left turn, runs 15 km and stops at point Q. again and driving for further 5 km. The driver finally takes a
20. How far is point Q with respect to point P? left turn and drives 1 km before stopping. How far and
(a) 16 km (b) 25 km (c) 4 km towards which direction should the driver drive to reach the
(d) 0 km (e) None of these school again?
21. Towards which direction was the vehicle moving before it (a) 3 km towards North (b) 7 km towards East
stopped at point Q? (c) 6 km towards South (d) 6 km towards West
(a) North (b) East (c) South (e) 5 km towards North
(d) West (e) North-East 30. Roma walked 25 metre towards south, took a right turn and
22. Raman starts from point P and walks towards South and walked 15 metre. She then took a left turn and walked 25
stops at point Q. He now takes a right turn followed by a left meter. Which direction is she now from her starting point?
turn and stops at point R. He finally takes a left turn and (a) South-east (b) South (c) South-west
stops at point S. If he walks 5 km before taking each turn, (d) North-west (e) None of these
towards which direction will Raman have to walk from point
S to reach point Q?
29. a b c d e 30. a b c d e
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TIME, SEQUENCE AND RANKING TEST
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1. At an enquiry office at a railway station, a passenger was DIRECTIONS (Qs. 8-11) : Read the following information carefully
told that a train for New Delhi has left 15 minutes ago, but and answer the question that follow:
after every 45 minutes a train leaves for New Delhi. The next Six boys A, B, C, D, E and F are marching in a line. They are
train will leave at 8.30 p.m. At what time was this information arranged according to their height, the tallest being at the back
given to the passanger ? and the shortest in front,
(a) 7.45 pm (b) 8.00 pm (c) 8.15 pm F is between B and A.
E is shorter than D but taller than C who is taller than A.
(d) 8.05 pm (e) None of these
E and F have two boys between them.
2. A watch is a minute slow at 1 p.m. on Tuesday and 2 minutes A is not the shortest among them.
fast at 1 p.m. on Thursday. When did it show the correct time?
8. Where is E ?
(a) 1:00 a.m. on Wednesday (a) Between A and B (b) Between C and A
(b) 5:00 a.m. on Wednesday (c) Between D and C (d) In front of C
(c) 1:00 p.m. on Wednesday (e) None of these
(d) 5:00 p.m. on Wednesday 9. Who is the tallest ?
(e) None of these (a) B (b) D (c) F
3. Reaching the place of meeting on Tuesday 15 minutes before (d) A (e) None of these
8.30 hours, Anuj found himself half an hour earlier than the 10. If we start counting from the shortest, which boy is fourth
man who was 40 minutes late. What was the scheduled time one in the line ?
(a) E (b) A (c) D
of the meeting?
(d) C (e) None of these
(a) 8.00 hrs (b) 8.05 hrs (c) 8.15 hrs 11. Who is the shortest ?
(d) 8.45 hrs (e) None of these (a) C (b) D (c) B
4. A clock gaining 2 min every hour was synchronised at midnight (d) F (e) None of these
with a clock losing 1 min every hour. How many minutes behind 12. Five newly born babies were weighed by the doctor. In her
will its minute hand be at eleven the following morning ? report, she stated that child A is lighter than child B, child C
(a) 23 (b) 27 (c) 22 is lighter than D and child B is lighter than child D, but
(d) None of these (e) heavier than child E. Which child is the heaviest?
5. Samant remembers that his brothers birthday is after fifteenth (a) E (b) D (c) C
(d) A (e) None of these
but before eighteenth of February, whereas his sister
13. Thirty-six vehicles are parked in a parking in a single row.
remembers that her brothers birthday is after sixteenth but After the first car, there is one scooter. After the second car,
before nineteenth of February. On which date of February is there are two scooters. After the third car, there are three
Samants brothers birthday? scooters and so on. Work out the number of scooters in the
(a) 18th (b) 16th (c) 19th second half of the row.
(d) 17th (e) None of these (a) 10 (b) 12 (c) 15
6. A is shorter than B but much taller than E. C is the tallest and (d) 17 (e) None of these
D is little shorter than A. Who is the shortest ? 14. In a row at a bus stop, A is 7th from the left and B is 9th from
(a) A (b) E (c) C the right. Both of them interchange their positions and thus
A becomes 11th from the left. How many people are there in
(d) D (e) None of these
that row?
7. In a class of 35 students Kiran is placed 7th from the bottom (a) 18 (b) 19 (c) 20
whereas Sohan is placed 9th from the top. Mohan is placed exactly (d) 21 (e) None of these
in between the two. What is Kirans position from Mohan? 15. A, B, C, D and E when arranged in descending order of their
(a) 10 (b) 11 (c) 13 weight from the top, A becomes third, E is between D and A while
(d) 12 (e) None of these C and D are not at the top. Who among them is the second?
(a) C (b) B (c) E
(d) Data inadequate (e) None of these
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16 SPEED TEST 8
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DIRECTIONS (Qs. 16 & 17) : Read the relationships given 24. In a row of twenty-five children facing North, W is fifth to
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below to answer the questions that follow. the right of R, who is sixteenth from the right end of the row.
What is W's position from the right end of the row?
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Archana is elder than Suman. Arti is elder than Archana but
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younger than Kusum. Kusum is elder than Suman. Suman is (a) Eleventh (b) Tenth (c) Twelfth
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younger than Arti and Gita is the eldest. (d) Data inadequate (e) None of these
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25. Seema's watch is 6 minutes fast and the train, which should
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16. Who is the youngest ?
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have arrived at 7 p.m. was 14 minutes late. What time is it by
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(a) Archana (b) Suman (c) Arti
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(d) Kusum (e) None of these Seema's watch when the train arrived?
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17. Age wise, who is in the middle ? (a) 7 : 05 pm (b) 7 : 30 pm (c) 7 : 01 pm
(a) Suman (b) Archna (c) Arti (d) 7 : 31 pm (e) None of these
(d) Kusum (e) None of these 26. In a row of children facing North, Ritesh is twelfth from the
18. Five boys took part in a race. Raj finished before Mohit but left end. Sudhir who is twenty-second from the right end is
behind Gaurav. Ashish finished before Sanchit but behind fourth to the right of Ritesh. Total how many children are
Mohit. Who won the race? there in the row?
(a) Raj (b) Gaurav (c) Mohit (a) 35 (b) 36 (c) 37
(d) Ashish (e) None of these (d) 34 (e) None of these
19. Five men A, B, C, D and E read newspaper. The one who
27. Among A, B, C, D and E each reaching school at a different
reads first gives it to C. The one who reads last had taken it
time, C reaches before D and A and only after B. E is not the
from A. E was not the first or the last to read. There were two
readers between B and A. last to reach school. Who among them reached school last?
B passed the newspaper to whom? (a) D (b) A (c) C
(a) A (b) C (c) D (d) Data inadequate (e) None of these
(d) E (e) None of these 28. M is older than R. Q is younger than R and N. N is not as old
20. In a row of children, Bhushan is seventh from the left and as M. Who among M, N, R and Q is the oldest?
Motilal is fourth from the right. When Bhushan and Motilal (a) M (b) R (c) M or R
exchange positions, Bhushan will be fifteenth from the left. (d) Data inadequate (e) None of these
What will be Motilals position from the right ? 29. Akshay is 16th from the left end in the row of boys and Vijay
(a) Eighth (b) Fourth (c) Eleventh is 18th from the right end. Avinash is 11th from Akshay
(d) Twelfth (e) None of these towards the right end and 3rd from Vijay towards the right
21. In a queue I am the last person while my friend is seventh end. How many boys are there in the row?
from the front. If the person exactly between me and my (a) Data inadequate (b) 42 (c) 40
friend is on the 23rd position from the front, what is my
position in the queue ?
30. Geeta is senior to Shilpa but not to Deepa. Gayatri is junior
(a) 37 (b) 36 (c) 38
to Reepa. No one is senior to Fatima. Who is most junior?
22. Pratap correctly remembers that his mother's birthday is (a) Shilpa (b) Geeta (c) Gayatri
before twentythird April but after nineteenth April, whereas (d) Data inadequate (e) None of these
his sister correctly remembers that their mother's birthday is 31. Among M, N, P, R and T each one has secured different
not on or after twentysecond April. On which day in April is marks in an examination. R secured more marks than M and
definitely their mother's birthday? T. N secured less marks than P. Who among them secured
(a) Twentieth third highest marks?
(b) Twentyfirst (a) N (b) R (c) M
(c) Twentieth or Twentyfirst (d) T (e) Data inadequate
(d) Cannot be determined 32. In a column of girls Kamal is 11th from the front. Neela is
(e) None of these 3 places ahead of Sunita who is 22nd from the front.
23. In a row of forty children, R is eleventh from the right end How many girls are there between Kamal and Neela in the
and there are fifteen children between R and M. What is M's column?
position from the left end of the row?
(a) Six (b) Eight
(a) Fourteenth (b) Fifteenth
(c) Seven (d) Cannot be determined
(c) Thirteenth (d) Cannot be determined

31. a b c d e 32. a b c d e
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SITTING ARRANGEMENT
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1. A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting in a line facing east. C is 7. Who is to the immediate left of H?
immediate right of D. B is at the extreme ends and has E as his (a) W (b) T (c) R
neighbour. G is between E and F. D is sitting third from the (d) Data inadequate (e) None of these
south end. Who are the persons sitting at the extreme ends? (e) None of these
(a) A and E (b) A and B (c) F and B 8. Who is third to the right of H ?
(d) C and D (e) None of these (a) M (b) D (c) Y
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 2-4) : Read the following statements to answer (d) R (e) None of these
the questions that follow. (e) None of these
Nine cricket fans are watching a match in a stadium. Seated in one 9. Who is third to the right of D?
row, they are J, K, L, M, N, O, P, Q and R. L is at the right of M and (a) M (b) R (c) W
at third place to the right of N. K is at one end of the row. Q is (d) M (e) None of these
immediately next to O and P. O is at the third place to the left of K. (e) None of these
J is right next to left of O. 10. What is Y's position with respect toT?
2. Who is sitting in the centre of the row ? (a) Third to the right (b) Fourth to the left
(a) L (b) O (c) J (c) Third to the left (d) Second of the left
(d) Q (e) None of these (e) None of these
3. Who is at the other end of the row ? DIRECTIONS (Q.11-15): Study the following information carefully
(a) R (b) J (c) P to answer these questions :
(d) N (e) None of these Eight friends J, K, L, M, N, O, P and Q are sitting around a circle
4. Which of the following statements is true ? facing the centre. J is not the neighour of N. L is third to the right
(a) R and P are neighbours. of K. Q is second to the left of N who is next to the right of L. O is
(b) There is one person between L and O. not the neighbour of N or K and is to the immediate left of P.
(c) M is at one extreme end.
11. Which of the following is the correct position of L?
(d) N is two seats away from J.
(a) To the immediate right of N
(e) None of these
(b) To the immediate right of Q
5. A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting around a round table. A is
between E and F, E is opposite D, and C is not in either of the (c) To the immediate left of N
neighbouring seats of E. Who is opposite to B ? (d) To the immediate left of Q
(a) F (b) C (c) D (e) None of these
(d) None of these (e) 12. Which of the following pair of persons represent O's
6. Four girls (G1, G2, G3, G4) and three boys (B1, B2, B3) are to neighbours?
sit for a dinner such that no two boys should sit together (a) L&N (b) P&K (c) M&P
nor two girls. If they are successively sitting, what is the (d) N&P (e) None of these
position of B2 and G3? 13. Which of the following groups has the first person sitting
(a) 5th and 6th (b) 4th and 5th between the other two persons?
(c) 3rd and 4th (d) 2nd and 3rd (a) PKJ (b) JQL (c) QNL
(e) None of these (d) LMN (e) None of these
14. Who is to the immediate right of K?
DIRECTIONS (Q. 7-10) : Study the following information carefully (a) J (b) P
and answer the questions given below: (c) Q (d) Cannot be determined
W, Y, T, M, R, H and D are seven persons, sitting around a circle (e) None of these
facing the centre. T is fourth to the right of M who is second to the 15. Who is to the immediate left of O?
right of R. W is third to the left of R. H is not an immediate neighbour (a) P (b) L (c) Q
of M. D is not an immediate neighbour of W.
(d) M (e) None of these
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18 SPEED TEST 9
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DIRECTIONS (Q. 16 - 20): These questions are based on the 24. Who sits between G & D?
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basis of following information. Study it carefully and answer the (a) H (b) D (c) F
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questions. (d) E (e) None of these
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Eight executives J, K, L, M, N, O, P and Q are sitting around a 25. Which of the following is the correct position of B with
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circular table for a meeting. J is second to the right of P who is respect to H?
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I Second to the right
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third to the right of K. M is second to the left of O who sits
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between P and J. L is not a neighbour of K or N. II Fourth to the right
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III Fourth to the left
16. Who is to the immediate left of L?
IV Second to the left
(a) Q (b) O (c) K
(a) Only I (b) Only II (c) Only III
(d) N (e) None of these
(d) Both II & III (e) None of these
17. Who is to the immediate left of K?
(a) N (b) J DIRECTIONS (Q. 26 - 30) : Study the following information
(c) Q (d) Cannot be determined carefully and answer the given questions:
(e) None of these Eight friends P, Q, R, S, T, V, W and Y are sitting around a square
18. Which of the following is the correct position of N? table in such a way that four of them sit at four corners of the
(a) Second to the right of K square while four sit in the middle of each of the four sides. The
(b) To the immediate left of K ones who sit at the four corners face the centre while those who
(c) To the immediate right of M sit in the middle of the sides face outside.
(d) To the immediate right of K P, who faces the centre, sits third to the right of V. T, who faces the
(e) None of these centre, is not an immediate neighbour of V. Only one person sits
19. Who is third to the right of P ? between V and W. S sits second to right of Q. Q faces the centre.
(a) L (b) J (c) Q R is not an immediate neighbour of P.
(d) N (e) None of these 26. Who sits second to the left of Q?
20. Which of the following groups of persons have the first (a) V (b) P (c) T
person sitting between the other two? (d) Y (e) Cannot be determined
(a) PJO (b) OPJ (c) OPM 27. What is the position of T with respect to V?
(d) MPO (e) None of these (a) Fourth to the left (b) Second to the left
(c) Third to the left (d) Third to the right
DIRECTIONS (21-25) : Study the following information
(e) Second to the right
carefully to answer these questions.
A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circle facing the form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that
centre. F is third to the right of C and second to the left of H. D is group?
not an immediate neighbour of C or H. E is to the immediate right (a) R (b) W (c) V
of A, who is second to the right of G. (d) S (e) Y
21. Who is second to the left of C? 29. Which of the following will come in place of the question
(a) A (b) B (c) E mark based upon the given seating arrangement?
(d) D (e) None of these WP TR QW RS ?
22. Who is to the immediate right of C? (a) Y T (b) VY (c) V Q
(a) E (b) B (c) D (d) P Y (e) Q V
(d) B or D (e) None of these 30. Which of the following is true regarding R?
23. Which of the following pairs of persons has first person (a) R is an immediate neighbour of V.
sitting to the right of the second person? (b) R faces the centre.
(a) CB (b) AE (c) FG (c) R sits exactly between T and S.
(d) HA (e) DB (d) Q sits third to left of R
(e) None of these

RESPONSE
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ANALYTICAL PUZZLE - I
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DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1 - 5) : The questions below are based on the DIRECTIONS (Qs. 8 - 12) : Study the information given below to
following statements. answer the questions that follow :
Asha and Charu are good in Mathematics and Athletics. Deepa (i) There is a family of 5 persons A, B, C, D and E.
and Asha are good in Athletics and Studies, Charu and Beena are (ii) They are working as a doctor, a teacher, a trader, a lawyer
good in General Knowledge and Mathematics. Deepa, Beena and and a farmer.
Ela are good in Studies and General Knowledge. Ela and Deepa (iii) B, an unmarried teacher, is the daughter of A.
are good in Studies and Arts. (iv) E, a lawyer, is the brother of C.
1. Who is good in Studies, General Knowledge, Athletics & Arts? (v) C is the husband of the only married couple in the family.
(a) Asha (b) Beena (c) Charu (vi) Daughter-in-law of A is a doctor.
(d) Deepa (e) None of these 8. Which of the following is a group of female members in the
2. Who is good in Studies, General Knowledge and Mathematics? family ?
(a) Asha (b) Beena (c) Charu (a) A and D (b) D and E (c) A, C and E
(d) Deepa (e) None of these (d) B and D (e) None of these
3. Who is good in Studies, Mathematics and Athletics ? 9. Which of the following is the married couple ?
(a) Asha (b) Beena (c) Charu (a) A and B (b) C and D (c) A and D
(d) Deepa (e) None of these (d) B and C (e) None of these
4. Who is good in Athletics, General Knowledge and Mathematics? 10. Which of the following is a group of male members in the
(a) Asha (b) Beena (c) Charu family ?
(d) Deepa (e) None of these (a) A, B and C (b) B and D (c) A, C and E
5. Who is good in Studies, General Knowledge and Arts but (d) A, C and D (e) None of these
not in Athletics ? 11. Who is the doctor in the family ?
(a) Asha (b) Beena (c) Charu (a) A (b) B (c) C
(d) Ela (e) None of these (d) D (e) None of these
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 6 & 7) : Study the information given below 12. Who is the trader in the family ?
carefully and then answer the questions that follow : (a) A (b) B (c) C
Students joining certain university can choose from among seven (d) D (e) None of these
courses : Biology, Astronomy, English, Mathematics, History, DIRECTIONS (Qs. 13 - 16) : Study the infomation given below to
Chemistry and Psychology. answer these questions :
A student cannot take both English and Astronomy. There are four friends A, B, C and D. One of them is a Cricketer and
Chemistry is a prerequisite for Biology and cannot be taken studies Chemistry and Biology. A and B play Football. Both
concurrently with Biology. A student must take at least two of the Football players study Maths. D is a Boxer. One football player
three courses, English, History and Psychology. No course may also studies physics. The Boxer studies Maths and Accounts. All
be repeated.
the friends study two subjects each and play one game each.
6. What is the maximum number of courses that can a student
13. Who is the Cricketer ?
can take without violating any of the conditions given above?
(a) A (b) B (c) C
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5
14. Who studies Accounts and plays Football ?
7. If a student is taking Astronomy and Mathematics and
(a) A alone (b) B alone (c) D
wishes to take four courses, then in how many different
ways can the other two courses be taken? (d) A or B (e) None of these
(a) One (b) Two (c) Three 15. Who studies Physics?
(d) Four (e) None of these (a) A or B (b) A alone (c) B alone
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20 SPEED TEST 10
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16. How many games are played and subjects studied by the 22. Who among the teachers was teaching maximum number of
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four friends ? subjects?
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(a) 1 game and 4 subjects (a) A (b) C (c) B
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(b) 2 games and 3 subjects (d) D (e) None of these
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(c) 3 games and 4 subjects 23. Which of the following pairs was teaching both Geography
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(d) 3 games and 5 subjects and Hindi?
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(e) None of these (a) A and B (b) C and A (c) B and C
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(d) None of these (e)
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DIRECTIONS (Qs. 17 - 21) : Study the information given below
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to answer these questions : 24. More than two teachers were teaching which subject?
(i) Six plays A, B, C, D, E and F are to be organised from (a) History (b) French (c) Hindi
Monday to Saturday, i.e from 5th to 10th-one play each day. (d) Geography (e) None of these
(ii) There are two plays between C and D and one play between 25. D, B and A were teaching which of the following subjects?
A and C. (a) English only (b) Hindi only
(iii) There is one play between F and E and E is to be organised (c) Hindi and English (d) English and Geography
before F. (e) None of these
(iv) B is to be organised before A, not necessarily immediately. DIRECTIONS (26-30) : Study the following information carefully
(v) The organisation does not start with B and answer the given questions.
17. The organisation would start from which play ? Seven flights namely those of Jet Airways, British Airways, Delta,
(a) A (b) F Quantas, Emirates, Lufthansa and Air India are scheduled to fly to
(c) D (d) Cannot be determined London. There is only one flight to London on each of the seven
(e) None of these days of the week, starting from Monday and ending on Sunday.
18. On which date the play E is to be organised ? Delta flies on Wednesday. Air India flies the day next to British
(a) 5th (b) 7th Airways. British Airways does not fly on Monday or Friday. Two
(c) 6th (d) Cannot be determined airlines fly between the days British Airways and Emirates fly.
(e) None of these Emirates does not fly on Sunday. Quantas flies a day before
19. The organisation would end with which of the following Lufthansa.
plays? 26. On which of the following days does Jet Airways fly ?
(a) A (b) D (a) Friday (b) Sunday (c) Tuesday
(c) B (d) Cannot be determined (d) Thursday (e) None of these
(e) None of these 27. How many flights fly between Lufthansa and Delta ?
20. On which day the play B is organised ? (a) None (b) One (c) Two
(a) Tuesday (b) Friday (d) Three (e) Five
(c) Thursday (d) None of these 28. Which of the following flights flies on Friday ?
(e) None of these (a) Air India (b) Quantas (c) Emirates
21. Which of the following is the correct sequence of organising (d) Lufthansa (e) Jet Airways
plays? 29. If Delta postpones its flight to Sunday owing to some technical
(a) AECFBD (b) DFECBA (c) BDEFCA reasons and all the flights scheduled for Thursday to Sunday
(d) None of these (e) are now made to take off a day ahead of the schedule, which of
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 22-25) : Read the following information to the following flights would now fly on Friday?
answer these questions : (a) Lufthansa (b) Jet Airways
In a school, there were five teachers. A and B were teaching Hindi (c) British Airways (d) Air India
and English. C and B were teaching English and Geography. D (e) Quantas
and A were teaching Mathematics and Hindi. E and B were teaching 30. If Emirates is related to British Airways and Delta is related
History and French. to Quantas in a certain way based upon the given flight
schedule, then Jet Airways will be related to which of the
following based upon the same relationship ?
(a) Lufthansa (b) Quantas (c) Delta
(d) Air India (e) None of these

RESPONSE
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SPEED TEST 11 21
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ANALYTICAL PUZZLE - II
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DIRECTIONS (Q.1- 5) : Read the following passage carefully (a) None (b) One (c) Two
and answer these questions given below it. (d) Three (e) Four
7. Which of the following plays is scheduled on Saturday?
A group of seven friends A, B, C, D, E, F and G, work as Economist, (a) Q (b) W (c) R
Agriculture Officer, IT Officer, Terminal Operator, Clerk, Forex (d) S (e) T
Officer and Research Analyst, for Banks L, M, N, P, Q, R and S, but 8. R is related to S in a certain way. In the same way P is
not necessarily in the same order. C works for Bank N and is related to V based on the given schedule. Which of the
neither Research Analyst nor a Clerk. E is an IT Officer and works following is W related to the following the same pattern?
for Bank R.A works as Forex Officer and does not work for Bank L (a) P (b) Q (c) R
or Q. The one who is an Agricultural Officer works for Bank M. (d) T (e) Cannot be determined
The one who works for Bank L works as a Terminal Operator. F
9. On which of the following days is Play W scheduled?
works for Bank Q. G works for Bank P as a Research Analyst. D is
not an Agricultural Officer. (a) Monday (b) Tuesday
1. Who amongst the following works as an Agriculture Officer? (c) Wednesday (d) Saturday
(a) C (b) B (c) F (e) Cannot be determined
(d) D (e) None of these 10. Which of the following plays is scheduled on Friday?
2. What is the profession of C? (a) R (b) T (c) Q
(a) Terminal Operator (b) Agriculture Officer (d) W (e) S
(c) Economist (d) Cannot be determined
(e) None of these DIRECTIONS (Q.11-Q.15) : Study the following information
3. For which bank does B work? carefully and answer the questions given below:
(a) M (b) S (c) L P, Q, R, S, T, V and W are seven friends working in a call centre.
(d) Either M or S (e) None of these Each of them has different day offs in a week from Monday to
4. What is the profession of the person who works for Bank S? Sunday not necessarily in the same order. They work in three
(a) Clerk (b) Agriculture Officer different shifts I, II and III with at least two of them in each shift.
(c) Terminal Operator (d) Forex Officer R works in shift II and his day off is not Sunday. P's day off
(e) None of these is Tuesday and he does not work in the same shift with either Q or
5. Which of the following combinations of person, profession W. None of those who work in shift I has day off either on
and bank is correct? Wednesday or on Friday. V works with only T in shift III. S's day
(a) A - Forex Officer - M off is Sunday. V's day off is immediate next day of that of R's day
(b) D - Clerk - L off. T's day off is not on Wednesday. W's day off is not on the
(c) F - Agriculture Officer - Q previous day of P's day off. S works in shift I. Q does not work in
(d) B - Agriculture Officer - S the same shift with R and his day off is not on Thursday.
(e) None of these 11. Which of the following is W's day off?
(a) Tuesday (b) Monday (c) Saturday
DIRECTIONS (Q.6-10) : Study the following information to (d) Data inadequate (e) None of these
answer the given questions. 12. Which of the following is R's day off?
Each of seven plays viz. P, Q, R, S, T, V and W are scheduled to be (a) Friday (b) Thursday (c) Tuesday
staged on a different day of a week starting from Monday and (d) Wednesday (e) None of these
ending on Sunday of the same week. Play V is scheduled on 13. Which of the following groups of friends work in shift II?
Thursday. Two plays are scheduled to be held between Play V (a) RP (b) RV (c) QWS
and Play P. Only one play is scheduled between Play T and Play S. (d) Data inadequate (e) None of these
Play T is not scheduled on the day immediately before or 14. Which of the following is Q's day off?
immediately after the day when Play V is scheduled. Play R is (a) Friday (b) Wednesday (c) Thursday
scheduled the day immediately before the day when Play W is (d) Monday (e) None of these
scheduled. Play S is not scheduled after Play Q. 15. Which of the following groups of friends work in shift I?
6. How many plays are scheduled to be staged between Play R (a) RV (b) RP (c) QWS
and Play S? (d) Data inadequate (e) None of these
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22 SPEED TEST 11
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DIRECTIONS (Q.16-20) : Study the following information 21. Which of the following groups of employees work in
b
Administration department?
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carefully and answer the questions given below:
(a) EGH (b) AF (c) BCD
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(i) A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are eight students, each having a (d) BGD (e) Data inadequate
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different height 22. In which department does E work?
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(ii) D is shorter than A but taller than G. (a) Personnel (b) Marketing
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(iii) E is taller than H but shorter than C. (c) Administration (d) Data inadequate
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(iv) B is shorter than D but taller than F. (e) None of these
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(v) C is shorter than G. 23. Which of the following combinations of employees
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(vi) G is not as tall as F. department-favourite sport is correct?
16. Which of the following is definitely false? (a) E-Administration-Cricket
(a) G is shorter than F (b) C is shorter than F (b) F-Personnel-Lawn Tennis
(c) F is taller than C. (d) B is taller than E. (c) H-Marketing-Lawn Tennis
(e) All are true (d) B-Administration-Table Tennis
17. If another student J, who is taller than E but shorter than G, (e) None of these
is added to the group, which of the following will be definitely 24. What is E's favourite sport?
true? (a) Cricket (b) Badminton (c) Basketball
(a) C and J are of the same height (d) Lawn Tennis (e) None of these
25. What is G's favourite sport?
(b) J is shorter than D.
(a) Cricket (b) Badminton (c) Basketball
(c) J is shorter than H. (d) Lawn Tennis (e) None of these
(d) J is taller than A.
(e) None of these DIRECTIONS (Qs. 26-30): Study the following information
18. Which of the following will definitely be the third from top carefully and answer the given questions.
when the eight students are arranged in descending order P, Q, R, S, T, V and W are seven friends, all of a different height
of height? and fatness.
(a) B (b) F (c) G (i) Q is the thinnest and tallest among them.
(d) B or G (e) Cannot be determined (ii) S is not as short as T, but shorter than R.
19. How many of them are definitely shorter than F? (iii) W is not as fat as R, but fatter than V.
(a) Three (b) Four (c) Five (iv) R and T are taller than W but shorter than R
(d) Data inadequate (e) None of these (v) V is fatter than T and the shorter among them.
20. Which of the following is redundant to answer all the above (vi) R is third among them in fatness in descending order.
questions?
(a) (ii) only 26. Who is the fattest among them?
(b) (ii) and (iii) only (a) P (b) S
(c) (iii) and (iv) only (c) Either P or S (d) Either T or S
(d) (ii) and (v) only (e) None of these
(e) All are necessary to answer the above questions. 27. Which of the given statements is not required to find out
the thickest among them?
DIRECTIONS (Q.21-Q.25) : Study the following information (a) (i) (b) (vi)
carefully and answer the questions given below: (c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (v)
A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are eight employees of an organization (e) None of these
working in three departments, viz Personnel, Administration and 28. If they are made to stand in ascending order of their heights,
Marketing with not more than three of them in any department. who will come in the middle?
Each of them has a different choice of sports from football, cricket, (a) R (b) S (c) T
volleyball, badminton, lawn tennis, basketball, hockey and table (d) Data inadequate (e) None of these
tennis, not necessarily in the same order. 29. If they are made to stand in ascending order of their fatness,
D works in Administration and does not like either football or who will be the second from the last?
cricket. F works in Personnel with only A, who likes table tennis. (a) S (b) V (c) W
E and H do not work in the same department as D. C likes hockey (d) Data inadequate (e) None of these
and does not work in Marketing. G does not work in Administration 30. Who obtained the same place in height and fatness among
and does not like either cricket or badminton. One of those who them when arranged in ascending order of their height and
work in Administration likes football. The one who likes volleyball fatness?
works in Personnel. None of those who work in Administration (a) P (b) Q (c) R
likes either badminton or lawn tennis. H does not like cricket. (d) S (e) None of these

RESPONSE
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SPEED TEST 12 23
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VENN DIAGRAMS
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1. The diagram represent the student who are singers, dancers Rectangle represents males
and poets. Triangle represents educated
Circle represents urban
Singers P Dancers
Q Square represents civil servants
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3. Who among the following is an educated male who is not an
U
T R urban resident?
(a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 11
S (d) 9 (e) None of these
Poets 4. Who among the following is neither a civil servant nor
Study the diagram and identify the region which represent educated but is urban and not a male?
the students who are both poets and singers but not dancer. (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 6
(a) P + T + S (b) T (d) 10 (e) None of these
(c) T + V + R + S (d) P + T + U + S 5. Who among the following is a female urban resident and
(e) None of these
also a civil servant?
2. School children (a) 6 (b) 7 (c) 10
a (d) 13 (e) None of these
b 6. Who among the following is an educated male who hails
d c from urban, a civil servants?
f (a) 6 (b) 7 (c) 10
Artist
e (d) 13 (e) None of these
7. Who among the following is uneducated and also an urban
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male?
Singers (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 11
Above diagram represents school children, artist and singers. (d) 12 (e) None of these
Study the diagram and identify the region. Which represents 8. Who among the following is only a civil servant but neither
those school children who are artist not singers. a male or urban oriented and uneducated?
(a) a (b) b (a) 7 (b) 8 (c) 9
(c) f (d) e (d) 14 (e) None of these
(e) None of these 9. Who among the following is a male urban oriented and also
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 3-9) : The following question are based on a civil servant but not educated?
the diagram given below. (a) 13 (b) 12 (c) 6
10 7 10. Which of the following diagram represents the relationship
3
among sun, moon and stars?
8 12 6 13
4
9 11 14
5 (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
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DIRECTIONS (Qs. 11-14) : Refer to the following Venn DIRECTIONS (Qs. 15-30) : In each of these questions, three
b
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diagram : words are related in some way. The relationship among the words
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in question can best represents by one of the five diagram.
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HISTORY
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16 GEOGRAPHY
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9 18 20 18 9
13 16
15 (c) (d)
MATHEMATICS
19 SCIENCE
11. The number of students who took any three of the above (e)
subjects was
(a) 62 (b) 63 15. Teachers, college, students.
(c) 64 (d) 66 16. Mothers, Homo sapiens, Woman
(e) None of these 17. Cabinet, Home Minister, Minister.
12. The number of students in total, who took History or 18. Parrots, Birds, Mice.
Mathematics or Science, was 19. Professors, Researchers, Scientists.
20. Men, Rodents, Living beings.
(a) 183 (b) 190
21. Parents, Mothers, Fathers.
(c) 424 (d) 430 22. Nitrogen, Ice, Air.
(e) None of these 23. Musicians, Singers, Women
13. The number of students who took both History and 24. Elephants, Carnivore, Tiger.
Geography among other subjects was 25. Fish, Herring, Animal living in water
(a) 62 (b) 63 26. Hospital, Nurse, Patient.
(c) 65 (d) 66 27. Nose, Hand, Body.
28. Rings, Ornaments, Diamond Rings.
(e) None of these
29. Furniture, Table, Books.
14. Which subject was taken by the largest number of students?
30. Indoor games, Chess, Table tennis.
(a) Mathematics (b) Science
(c) Geography (d) History
(e) None of these


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SPEED TEST 13 25
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SYLLOGISM - I
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DIRECTIONS (Q.1-5) : In each of the questions below are given DIRECTIONS (6 - 10): In each question below arc two statements
three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take
You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem the two given statements to be true even if they seem to be at
to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read both of the variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of
conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements
logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly disregarding commonly known facts.
known facts.
Give answer (a) if only conclusion 1 follows.
1. Statements: Some phones are computers. Give answer (b) if only conclusion II follows.
All computers are radios. Give answer (c) if either conclusion I or conclusion II follows.
All radios are televisions. Give answer (d) if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows.
Conclusions: I. All televisions are computers.
Give answer (e) if both conclusions I and II follow.
II. Some radios are phones.
6. Statements : Some windows arc grills.
(a) None follows (b) Only I follows
(c) Only II follows (d) Both I and II follow All glasses are grills.
(e) None of these Conclusions : I. All grills are windows.
2. Statements: All rings are fingers. II. At least some grills are glasses.
Some ears are fingers. 7. Statements : Some painters are artists. Some dancers are painters.
All ears are necklaces. Conclusions : I. All artists are dancers.
Conclusions: I. Some necklaces are fingers. II. All painters are dancers.
II. Some necklaces are rings. 8. Statements : All cabins are rooms.
(a) None follows (b) Only I follows All rooms are buildings.
(c) Only II follows (d) Both I and II follow Conclusions: I. All buildings are rooms.
(e) None of these II. All cabins are buildings.
3. Statements: Some bottles are cups. 9. Statements : All rings are necklaces.
Some cups are plates. No necklace is a bracelet.
No spoon is a plate. Conclusions: I. No ring is a bracelet.
Conclusions: I. Some spoons are bottles. II. All necklaces are rings.
II. No bottle is a spoon. 10. Statements : All hands are arms.
(a) None follows (b) Only I follows Some hands are muscles.
(c) Only II follows (d) Either I or II follow Conclusions: I. Some muscles are arms.
(e) None of these II. All muscles are arms.
4. Statements: All pens are erasers. DIRECTIONS (Qs. 11-15): In each question below are two
Some erasers are sharpeners. statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You
Some sharpeners are staples have to take the two given statements to be true even if they seem
Conclusions: I. Some sharpeners are pens.
to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide
II. Some staples are erasers.
which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given
statements disregarding commonly known facts. Give answer
(c) Only II follows (d) Both I and II follow
(e) None of these (a) if only conclusion I follows.
5. Statements: All hills are trees. (b) if only conclusion II follows.
All trees are jungles. (c) if either conclusion I or II follows.
All jungles are bushes. (d) if neither conclusion I nor II follows.
Conclusions: I. All trees are bushes. (e) if both conclusions I and II follow.
II. Some jungles are hills. 11. Statements: No holiday is a vacation.
(a) None follows (b) Only I follows Some vacations are trips.
(c) Only II follows (d) Both I and II follow Conclusions: I. No trip is a holiday.
(e) None of these II. Some holidays are definitely not trips.
RESPONSE 6. a c d e 7. a c d e 8. a c d e 9. a c d e 10. a c d e
b b b b b
GRID 11. a b c d e
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26 SPEED TEST 13
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12. Statements: Some kites are birds. Give answer (c) if either conclusion I or conclusion II follows;
b
No kite is an aeroplane. Give answer (d) if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows;
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Conclusions: I. All aeroplanes are birds. Give answer (e) if both conclusion I and conclusion II follow.
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II. Some birds are definitely not kites
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21. Statements : Some exams are tests. No exam is a question.
13. Statements: All metals are plastics.
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Conclusions : I. No question is a test.
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All plastics are fibres. II. Some tests are definitely not exams.
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Conclusions: I. Atleast some fibres are metals. 22. Statements : All forces are energies. All energies are
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II. Some metals are not fibres. powers. No power is heat.
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14. Statements: All roads are streets. Conclusions : I. Some forces are definitely not powers.
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No street is a highway. II. No heat is force.
Conclusions: I. No highway is a road. 23. Statements : All forces are energies. All energies are
II. All streets are roads. powers. No power is heat.
15. Statements: Some animals are plants. Conclusions : I. No energy is heat.
All plants are rocks. II. Some forces being heat is a possibility.
Conclusions: I. All plants are animals. 24. Statements : No note is a coin. Some coins are metals.
II. Atleast some rocks are animals. All plastics are notes.
DIRECTIONS (Q.16-20) : In each questions below are two / three Conclusions : I. No coin is plastic.
statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You II. All plastics being metals is a possibility.
have to take the two / three given statements to be true even if they 25. Statements : No note is a coin. Some coins are metals.
seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide All plastics are notes.
which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given Conclusions : I. No metal is plastic.
statements disregarding commonly known facts. Give answer II. All notes are plastics.
(a) if only conclusion I follows. 26. Statements : Some symbols are figures. All symbols are
(b) if only conclusion II follows. graphics.
(c) if either conclusion I or II follows. No graphic is a picture.
(d) if neither conclusion I nor II follows. Conclusions : I. Some graphics are figures.
(e) if both conclusions I and II follows. II. No symbol is a picture.
16. Statements: No holiday is a vacation. 27. Statements : All vacancies are jobs. Some jobs are
Some vacations are trips. occupations.
Conclusions: I. No trip is a holiday. Conclusions : I. All vacancies are occupations.
II. Some holidays are definitely not trips. II. All occupations being vacancies is a
17. Statements: Some kites are birds. possibility.
No kite is an aeroplane. DIRECTIONS (Qs. 28-30) : In each question below are two/three
Conclusions: I. All aeroplanes are birds. statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You
II. Some birds are definitely not kites. have to take the two/three given statements to be true even if
18. Statements: All metals are plastics. they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then
All plastics are fibres. decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the
Conclusions: I. At least some fibres are metals given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
II. Some metals are not fibres.
19. Statements: Some animals are plants. Give answer (a) if only conclusion I follows
All plants are rocks. Give answer (b) if only conclusion II follows.
Conclusions: I. All plants are animals. Give answer (c) if either conclusion I or conclusion II follows.
II. Atleast some rocks are animals. Give answer (d) if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows.
20. Statements: Some institutes are banks. Give answer (e) if both conclusion I and conclusion II follow.
All institutes are academies. (Qs. 28-29) :
All academies are schools. Statements : All gliders are parachutes.
Conclusions: I. All banks can never be schools. No parachute is an airplane.
II. Any bank which is an institute in a school. All airplanes are helicopters.
28. Conclusions : I. No glider is an airplane.
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 21-27) : In each group of questions below are II.All gliders being helicopters is a possibility.
two/three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and 29. Conclusions : I. No helicopter is a glider.
II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they II. All parachutes being helicopters is a
seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide possibility.
which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two/three 30. Statements : Some mails are chats.
statements disregarding commonly known facts. All updates are chats.
Give answer (a) if only conclusion I follows; Conclusions : I. All mails being updates is a possibility.
Give answer (b) if only conclusion II follows; II. No update is a mail.

27. a b c d e 28. a b c d e 29. a b c d e 30. a b c d e
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SPEED TEST 14 27
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SYLLOGISMS - II
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DIRECTIONS (Q.1-5) : In each of the questions below are given 4. Statements:
three statements followed by three conclusions numbered I , II All trees are gardens.
and III. You have to take the given statements to be true even if All gardens are stones.
they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read All stones are fences.
all the conclusions and then decide which of the given Conclusions:
conclusions logically follows from the given statements I. Some fences are gardens.
disregarding commonly known facts. II. All gardens are stones.
1. Statements: III. Some stones are trees.
Some flowers are bins. (a) Only I and II follows (b) Only I and III follows
Some bins are handles (c) Only II or III follow (d) All follow
All handles are sticks. (e) None of these
Conclusions: 5. Statements:
I. Some sticks are bins. All books are leaves.
II. Some handles are flowers. Some leaves are jungles.
III. Some sticks are flowers. No jungle is box.
(a) Only II follows (b) Only III follows Conclusions:
(c) Only I and II follow (d) Only I and III follow I. Some jungles are books.
(e) None of these II. No book is box.
2. Statements: III. Some leaves are boxes.
Some towers are windows. (a) None follows (b) Only I follows
All windows are houses. (c) Only II follows (d) Only III follows
Some houses are temples (e) Only I and II follow
Conclusions:
I. Some towers are temples. DIRECTIONS (Q.6-25) : In each questions below are given
II. Some houses are towers. two/three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I
III. Some temples are windows. and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if
(a) Only I follows (b) Only II follows they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all
the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions
(c) Only III follows (d) Only I and II follow
logically follows from the given statements disregarding
(e) None of these
commonly known facts. Give answer.
3. Statements:
Some walls are doors. (a) if only conclusion I follows.
Some doors are cots. (b) if only conclusion II follows.
Some cots are chairs. (c) if either conclusion I or II follows.
Conclusions: (d) if neither conclusion I nor II follows.
I. Some chairs are doors. (e) if both conclusions I and II follows.
II. Some cots are walls. 6. Statements:
III. No chair is door. Some toys are desks.
(a) Only II follows Some desks are pens.
(b) Only III follows All pens are rods.
(c) Only either I or III follows Conclusions:
(d) Only I follows I. Some rods are toys.
(e) None of these II. Some pens are toys.
GRID 6. a b c d e
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28 SPEED TEST 14
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7. Statements: 15. Conclusions:
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Some table are huts. I. No card is a paper.
No hut is ring. II. Some papers are cards.
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All rings are bangles. 16. Conclusions:
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Conclusions: I. All cards being papers is a possibility.
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I. Some bangles are tables. II. All boards being papers is a possibility.
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II. No bangles is table. 17. Statements: All rings are circles.
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8. Statements: All squares are rings.
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Some chairs are rooms. No ellipse is a circle.
All rooms are trees. Conclusions: I. Some, rings being ellipses is a possibility.
All trees are poles. : II. At least some circles are squares.
Conclusions: 18. Statements : No house is an apartment.
I. Some poles are chairs. Some bungalows are apartments.
II. Some trees are chairs. Conclusions: I. No house is a bungalow.
9-10. Statements: II. All bungalows are houses.
All buildings are houses. 19. Statements: Some gases are liquids.
No house is an apartment.
All liquids are water.
All apartments are flats.
Conclusions: I. All gases being water is a possibility.
9. Conclusions:
II. All such gases which are not water can
I. No flat is a house.
never be liquids.
II. No building is an apartment.
20. Statements: All minutes are seconds.
10. Conclusions:
All seconds are hours.
I. All buildings being flats is a possibility.
II. All apartments being building is a possibility. No second is a day.
11-12.Statements: Conclusions: I. No day is an hour.
Some oceans are seas. II. At least some hours are minutes.
All oceans are rivers. (21-22): Statements: Some teachers are professors.
No river is a canal. Some lecturers are teachers.
11. Conclusions: 21. Conclusions: I. All teachers as well as professors being
I. All rivers can never be oceans. lecturers is a possibility.
II. All canals being oceans is a possibility. II. All those teachers who are lecturers are
12. Conclusions: also professors.
I. No ocean is a canal. 22. Conclusions: I. No professor is a lecturer.
II. At least some seas are rivers. II. All lecturers being professors is a
13-14. Statements: possibility.
No day is night. (23-24):
All nights are noon. Statements: Some flowers are red.
No noon is an evening. Some roses are flowers.
13. Conclusions: 23. Conclusions:
I. No day is noon. I. All those flowers which are roses are red.
II. No day is an evening. II. No rose is red.
14. Conclusions: 24. Conclusions :
I. No evening are nights. I. All roses being red is a possibility.
II. All days being noon is a possibility. II. Some flowers can never be roses.
25. Statements: Some hills are mountains.
15-16. Statements:
All mountains are high.
Some papers are boards
Conclusions: I. All hills being high is a possibility.
No board is a card.
II. Some mountains can never be hills.

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SPEED TEST 15 29
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SYMBOLS & CODES
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DIRECTIONS (Qs.1-5): In each question below is given a group
Number/
of letters followed by four combinations of digits/symbols 9 4 & 5 % 3 # 7 6 @ 8 + 2 $
Symbols
numbered (a), (b), (c) and (d). You have to find out which of the
Letter
combinations correctly represents the group of letters based on X P J H B D K F S T N G R L
Codes
the coding system and the conditions given below and mark the
number of that combination as your answer. If none of the
Conditions:
combinations correctly represents the group of letters, mark (e)
(i) If the first element is a symbol and the last element is a
i.e. None of these as your answer.
number, then the codes for both are to be interchanged.
Letters P M A E J K D R W H I U T F (ii) If both the first and last elements are symbols, then the
Digits/symbols last element is to be coded as the code for the first
4 $ 1 2 3 # 5 @ 6 % 7 9
Conditions element.
(i) If the first letter is a consonant and the last letter is a vowel, (iii) If the group of elements contains only one symbol,
the codes of both these are to be interchanged. then that symbols is to be coded as A.
(ii) If both the first and the last letters are consonants both these 6. 28%956
are to be coded as per the code of the last letter. (a) RNBXHS (b) RNAXSH
(iii) If the first letter is vowel and the last letter is a consonant (c) RNBXSH (d) RNAXHS
both these are to be coded as (e) RNASHX
Note: All the remaining letters are to be coded as per their original
7. 62+74
codes.
1. ERWHKA (a) PSRGFT (b) TSRFGP
(a) 2 @ 6# 1 (b) 1 @ 6# 2 (c) 1 @ 6 # I (c) PSRFGT (d) PRSGFT
(d) 2 @ 6# 2 (e) None of these (e) TSRGFP
2. MPEKDU 8. +5963%
(a) $ 42 #5 (b) $42 #5$ (c) 4 2# 5 (a) GHXSDG (b) GSHXDB
(d) 42 5# $ (e) None of these (c) GHXDSG (d) GHSXDB
3. TMEIUF (e) GXHSDG
(a) 7$2% 9 (b) 7$2% 7 (c) 9$2% 7 9. In a certain code MODE is written as #8%6 and DEAF is
(d) 9$2% 9 (e) None of these written as %67$. How is FOAM written in that code?
4. JTAERI (a) $87# (b) $#7% (c) #87%
(a) % 7 1 2@ 3 (b) 3712@3 (c) 71 2@ (d) $87% (e) None of these
(d) %7 12 @ % (e) None of these 10. In a certain code WEAK is written as 5%9$ and WHEN is
5. UKTMIH written as 5*%7. How HANK written in that code?
(a) # 7$ % 6 (b) 6 # 7$ % (c) #7$% (a) *9$7 (b) 9*$7 (c) $97*
(d) 7 #$ % 6 (e) None of these (d) 9*7$ (e) None of these
DIRECTIONS (Qs.11-15) : In each of these questions a group of
DIRECTIONS (Qs.6-8): In each question below is given a group letters is given followed by four combinations of number/symbol
of numbers/symbols followed by five combinations of letter codes numbered (a), (b), (c) & (d). Letters are to be coded as per the
numbered (a), (b), (c), (d) and (e). You have to find out which of scheme and conditions given below. You have to find out the
the combinations correctly represents the group of numbers/ serial number of the combination, which represents the letter group.
symbols based on the following coding system and the conditions Serial number of that combinations is your answer. If none of the
and mark the number of that combination as your answer. combinations is correct, your answer is (e) i.e. 'None of these'.
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30 SPEED TEST 15
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Letters D K M B I N P R J A L S E Q G
(a) H COQ$%T (b) Q$% oT
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Number /
% 3 7 H 4 @ $ 1 8 5 # 9 2 6 (c) HQ$%OO (d) CCQ$%o
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Symbol Code
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(e) None of these
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Conditions 20. 468910
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(i) If the first letter is a consonant and the last a vowel, (l) $HJKL (b) LHJ@K$
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both are to be coded as the code of the vowel. (c) *HJ@K$ (d) $HJ@K*
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(ii) If the first letter is a vowel and the last a consonant, the (e) None of these
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codes for the first and the last are to be interchanged.
(iii) If no vowel is present in the group of letters, the second DIRECTIONS (Qs. 21-24) : In each of the questions given below,
and the fifth letters are to be coded as . a group of digits is given followed by four combinations of letters/
11. KQAPJE symbols numbered (a), (b),(c) and(d). You have to find out which
(a) 35$82 (b) 358$2 (c) 25$82 of the four combinations correctly represents the group of digits
(d) 25$83 (e) None of these based on the letter/symbol codes and the conditions given below.
12. EMANRB If none of the four combinations represents the group of digits
(a) *75@12 (b) 275@1* (c) 75@2 correctly, give (e) i.e. `None of these' as the answer.
(d) *75@1* (e) None of these
13. JAQDKP Digit 2 8 3 9 4 7 6 5 1
(a) 85%38 (b) $5%3$ (c) $5%38 Code B = T @ K $ P C
(d) $53%8 (e) None of these
14. QDBGRM Conditions:
(a) %*617 (b) $ *6 7 (c) %*167 (i) If the first digit is odd and last digit is even, the codes
(d) % *61 (e) None of these for the first and the last digits are to be interchanged.
15. IKQLMS (ii) If the first as well as the last digit is even, both are to
(a) 43#74 (b) 3#7 (c) 43#74 be coded by the code for last digit.
(d) 93#74 (e) None of these (iii) If the first as well as the last digit is odd, both are to
be coded as X.
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 16-20): In each of these questions, a group
(iv) If the first digit is even and last digit is odd, both are
of digits is given followed by four combinations of letters and
to be coded by the code for the first-digit.
symbols numbered (a), (b), (c) and (d). The group of digits is to be
21. 2976581
coded as per the scheme and conditions given below. The serial
(a) B@$P = B (b) C@$P = C
number of the combination which correctly represents the group
(c) B@$P = C (d) C@SP = B
of digits is your answer. If none of the four combinations is correct,
(e) None of these
your answer is (e) i.e., 'None of these'.
22. 7269534
Digits 5 8 4 3 6 2 9 0 7 1 (a) $BC@PTK (b) KB@PT$
Code T J $ # H Q @ L % K (c) $B@PT$ (d) KB@P=$
Conditions: (e) None of these
(i) If the first as well as the last digit is odd, both are to be 23. 8135246
coded as . (a) = CTPBK = (b) CTP = K
(ii) If the first as well as the last digit is even, their codes are to (c) CTPBK (d) CTPB$ =
be swapped.
(e) None of these
(iii) If '0' is the last digit, it is to be coded as *.
16. 270514 24. 4352718
(a) %LTK (b) $%LTKQ (a) XTPB$CX (b) KTPB$C=
(c) Q%LTK$ (d) $%*TKQ (c) =TPB$CK (d) KTP$CK
17. 364279 25. if 1 is coded as$, 5 is coded as %, 9 is coded as , 3 is coded
(a) H$Q% (b) #H$Q%@ as +, 7 is coded as # and 4 is coded as?, what will be the
(c) H$Q%# (d) #H$Q% correct code of the number 435971?
(e) None of these
(a) ? + % # $ (b) ? + % $ #
18. 875306
(a) J%T#Ll1 (b) H%T#LH (c) ? + % # $ (d) $ # % + ?
(c) H%T#LJ (d) J% oT#LJ (e) None of these
(e) None of these
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SPEED TEST 16 31
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ALPHA NUMERIC SEQUENCE PUZZLE
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DIRECTIONS (Q. 1-5) : Answers the questions given below 8. If all the symbols are dropped from the arrangement, which
referring to the following arrangement: of the following will be the twelfth from the left end ?
J * R 3 PL2 # I N 7 O C @ K 5 D = M $ 6 B< AQ 4 (a) 9 (b) 2 (c) S
1. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way as regards (d) 7 (e) None of these
their position in the above arrangement and so form a group. 9. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on
Which is the one that does not belong to that group? their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group.
(a) 2 3 # (b) O I C (c) K O 5 Which is the one that does not belong to the group?
(d) # P I (e) B $ < (a) L$8 (b) AKM (c) @!F
2. What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the (d) 6%G (e) JD
following series based on the above arrangement? 10. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the
PRJ#L3712@ ON? following series based on the above arrangement >
(a) D K C (b) 5 @ O (c) D K @ F3U %IT L$ ?
(d) = 5 @ (e) None of these (a) 927 (b) 7&A (c) 7AM
3. It the above series is re-arranged in the reverse order, (d) 2&A (e) 27&
which will be the eleventh element to the left to the
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 11-18): Study the following arrangement of
sixteenth element from the left end?
letters/symbols and answer the questions given below:
(a) J (b) 6 (c) B
(d) < (e) None of these D F JT $ # PR ZQ * C MAB@ HK LS + ?
4. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement 11. How many such symbols are there each of which is
each of which is immediately preceded by a consonant and immediately preceded by a symbol and immediately followed
not immediately followed by a symbol? by a letter?
(a) None (b) Two (c) Four (a) One (b) Two (c) Three
(d) Three (e) None of these (d) Four (e) None of these
5. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement 12. If the order of the first half of the arrangement is reversed
each of which is immediately preceded by a number and which of the following letters/symbols will be the fifth to the
immediately followed a consonant? left of the fifteenth letter/symbol from the left?
(a) One (b) Two (c) Three (a) * (b) Q (c) T
(d) More than three (e) None (d) J (e) None of these
13. If all the symbols of the above sequence are denoted by 7
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 6-10) : Study the following arrangement of
and each letter is denoted by 5, then what will be the sum of
consonants, vowels, numbers and symbols carefully and answer
all the elements of the sequence?
the questions given below:
(a) 142 (b) 138 (c) 132
H@ F! 3 U6 % GI T * PL8 $ 9 S 2 7 &AMK + J (d) 122 (e) None of these
D4#5&E 14. If all the symbols from the above sequence are dropped,
6. Which of the following is ninth to the right of the twentieth which letter will be seventh to the right of twelfth letter from
from the right end of the above arrangement ? the right?
(a) K (b) M (c) U (a) H (b) B (c) K
(d) A (e) None of these (d) A (e) None of these
7. How many such consonants are there in the above 15. Which of the following is related to FT in the same way as
arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a DJ is related to? S ?
symbol and also immediately followed by a symbol ? (a) L+ (b) KS (c) HL
(a) None (b) One (c) Two (d) + L (e) None of these
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32 SPEED TEST 16
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16. How many such letters are there in the above sequence 23. If the order of the last fifteen elements in the above
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each of which occupies the same position from the left in arrangement is reversed, which of the following will be the
the sequence as in the alphabet from left? ninth to the right of the eleventh element from. the left end?
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(a) None (b) One (c) Two (a) G (b) % (c) 8
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(d) Three (e) None of these (d) 3 (e) None of these
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17. Four of the following five are alike on the basis of their 24. How many such consonants are there in the above
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position in the above sequence and hence form a group. arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a
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Which of the following does not belong to that group? symbol but not immediately followed by either a number or
m
(a) DJ ? (b) T # L (c) FT + a vowel?
(d) PZ @ (e) J # S (a) None (b) One (c) Two
18. Which of the following will be exactly midway between fifth (d) Three (e) More than three
element from the left and eighth element from the right? 25. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on
(a) C (b) * (c) Q their position in the above arrangement and so form a group.
(d) M (e) None of these Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
19. Select the combination of numbers so that letters arranged (a) A $ E (b) % V N (c) 2 F V
accordingly will form a meaningful word. (d) 4 K 1 (e) 6 Q
R A C E T DIRECTIONS (Qs. 26-30): Study the following arrangement
1 2 3 4 5 carefully and answer the questions given below:
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 (b) 3, 2, 1, 4, 5 M 5 T R E 3 $ PJ 1 7 D 1 2 NA4 F H 6 * U 9 # V B @ W
(c) 5, 2, 3, 4, 1 (d) 5, 1, 2, 3, 4 26. If the positions of the first fourteen characters of the above
(e) None of these arrangement are reversed, which of the following will be the
20. Select the combination of numbers so that the letters twenty-second from the right end?
arranged accordingly will form a meaningful word. (a) J (b) I (c) P
VA R S T E (d) 3 (e) None of these
(a) 2, 3, 1, 6, 4, 5 (b) 4, 5, 2, 3, 1, 6 27. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement,
(c) 6, 3, 4, 5, 2, 1 (d) 3, 2, 4, 5, 6, 1 each of which is immediately preceded by a vowel and
(e) None of these immediately followed by a consonant?
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 21-25): Study the following arrangement (a) None (b) One (c) Two
carefully and answer the questions given below: (d) Three (e) More than three
J 1 #P 4 E K 3 A D $ R U M 9 N 5 1 % T V * H2 28. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the
F6G8QW series given below based on the above arrangement?
21. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement, R3 PIE ?AF I
each of which is either immediately preceded by or (a) DNJ (b) D21 (c) IN1
immediately followed by a vowel or both? (d) N4D (e) None of these
(a) None (b) One (c) Two 29. How many such consonants are there in the above
(d) Three (e) More than three arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a
22. Which of the following is exactly in the middle between the symbol but not immediately followed by a number?
tenth from the left and the eighth from the right end in the (a) None (b) One (c) Two
above arrangement? (d) Three (e) More than three
(a) M (b) N (c) 1 30. Which of the following is the fifth towards right of the
(d) 5 (e) None of these seventeenth from the right end?
(a) $ (b) 4 (c) 7
(d) A (e) None of these

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SPEED TEST 17 33
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INPUT-OUTPUT
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5. Input: paper dry 37 23 height call 62 51
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-5): Study the following information carefully
and answer the given questions: Which of the following steps will be the last but one?
(a) V (b) IV (c) VI
A word and number arrangement machine when given an input
(d) III (e) None of these
line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular
rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and DIRECTIONS (Qs.6-10) : A word and number arrangement
rearrangement. (All numbers are two-digit numbers.) machine when given an input line of words and numbers rearranges
Input : good for everything 19 37 26 all 65 them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an
Step I : all good for everything 19 37 26 65 illustration of an input and rearrangement.
Step II : all 65 good for everything 19 37 26 Input : 17 put show on 39 27 85 gold
Step III : all 65 everything good for 19 37 26 Step I : show 17 put on 39 27 85 gold
Step IV : all 65 everything 37 good for 19 26 Step II : show 85 17 put on 39 27 gold
Step V : all 65 everything 37 for good 19 26 Step III : show 85 put 17 on 39 27 gold
Step VI : all 65 everything 37 for 26 good 19 Step IV : show 85 put 39 17 on 27 gold
and Step VI is the last step of the rearrangement as the desired Step V : show 85 put 39 on 17 27 gold
arrangement is reached. Step VI : show 85 put 39 on 27 17 gold
As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of Step VII : show 85 put 39 on 27 gold 17
the following questions the appropriate step for the given input. and step VII is the last step of the rearrangement of the above
(All numbers are two-digit numbers.)
input.
1. Input: won 13 now 25 72 please go 47
As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of
How many steps will be required to complete the rearrangement?
the following questions the appropriate step for the given input.
(a) Four (b) Five (c) Six
(d) Three (e) None of these 6. Input : glass full 15 37 water now 85 67
2. Step III of an input is : Which of the following will be step VI of the above input?
car 81 desk 15 42 39 tall more (a) 85 now 67 full glass 15 37
Which of the following will be Step VI? (b) water 85 now 67 glass full 15 37
(a) car 81 desk 42 39 15 tall more (c) water 85 now 67 glass 37 full 15
(b) car 81 desk 42 15 39 tall more (d) There will be no such step.
(c) car 81 desk 42 more 39 15 tall (e) None of these
(d) There will be no such step. 7. Step II of an input is: ultra 73 12 16 mail sort 39 kite. Which of
(e) None of these the following steps will be the last but one?
3. Step II of an input is: (a) VIII (b) IX (c) VII
bell 53 town hall near 27 43 12 (d) VI (e) None of these
How many more steps will be required to complete the 8. Step III of an input is: win 75 voice 15 39 store gap 26. Which
rearrangement? of the following is definitely the input?
(a) Five (b) Four (c) Six (a) voice 15 win 75 39 store gap 26
(d) Three (e) None of these (b) voice win 75 15 39 store gap 26
4. Step II of an input is (c) 15 75 win voice store gap 26
box 93 25 year end 41 32 value (d) Cannot be determined
Which of the following is definitely the input? (e) None of these
(a) 25 year end box 93 41 32 value 9. Step II of an input is: tube 83 49 34 garden flower rat 56. How
(b) 25 year end 93 41 32 value box many steps will be required to complete the rearrangement?
(c) 9325 box year end 41 32 value
(a) Four (b) Five (c) Six
(d) Cannot be determined
(d) Three (e) None of these
(e) None of these
RESPONSE 6. a b c d e 7. a b c d e 8. a b c d e 9. a b c d e
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34 SPEED TEST 17
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10. Input : hunt for 94 37 good 29 48 book. Input : 51 pour 32 start now 23 46 house
b
How many steps will be required to complete the Step I : 23 51 pour 32 start now 46 house
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rearrangement? Step II : 23 start 51 pour 32 now 46 house
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(a) Four (b) Five (c) Six Step III : 23 start 32 51 pour now 46 house
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(d) Seven (e) None of these Step IV : 23 start 32 pour 51 now 46 house
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DIRECTIONS (Q.11 to 15) : Study the following information to Step V : 23 start 32 pour 46 51 now house
s
Step VI : 23 start 32 pour 46 now 51 house
s
answer the given questions:
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and step VI is the last step of the rearrangement
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A word and number arrangement machine when given an input
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line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular
the following questions the appropriate steps for the given input.
rule. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement.
16. Step II of an input is : 18 task bear cold dish 81 63 31
(All the numbers are two-digit numbers.)
How many more steps will be required to complete the
Input : sine 88 71 cos theta 14 56 gamma delta 26
rearrangement?
Step I : cos sine 71 theta 14 56 gamma delta 26 88
(a) Three (b) Four (c) Five
Step II : delta cos sine theta 14 56 gamma 26 88 71
(d) Six (e) None of these
Step III : gamma delta cos sine theta 14 26 88 71 56
17. Input : 72 59 37 go for picnic 24 journey
Step IV : sine gamma delta cos theta 14 88 71 56 26
How many steps will it take to complete the rearrangement?
Step V : theta sine gamma delta cos 88 71 56 26 14
Step V is the last step of the rearrangement.
18. Input : nice flower 24 12 costly height 41 56
the following questions the appropriate steps for the given input.
Which of the following will be step III ?
Input for the questions:
(a) 12 nice 34 height flower costly 41 56
Input : for 52 all 96 25 jam road 15 hut 73 bus stop 38 46 (All the
(b) 12 nice 34 height 41 flower costly 56
numbers given in the arrangement are two digit numbers).
(c) 12 nice 34 flower costly height 41 56
11. Which word/ number would be at 8th position from the
(d) 12 nice flower 34 costly height 41 56
right in step IV ?
(e) None of these
(a) 15 (b) road (c) hut
19. Step II of an input is : 16 victory 19 36 53 store lake town.
(d) jam (e) stop
Which of the following will be step V ?
12. Which step number would be the following output? Bus all
(a) 16 victory 19 town store 36 53 lake
for 52 25 jam road 15 hut stop 38 46 96 73.
(b) 16 victory 19 town 36 store 53 lake
(a) There will be no such step.
(c) 16 victory 19 town 36 53 store lake
(b) III (c) II (d) V
(d) There will be no such step
(e) VI
(e) None of these
13. Which of the following would be step VII?
20. Step III of an input is : 15 yes 29 ask for soap 42 37
(a) stop road jam hut for bus all 15 96 73 5246 38 25
Which of the following is definitely the input?
(b) road jam hut for bus all stop 15 25 38 46 52 73 96
(a) ask yes 29 15 for soap 42 37
(c) stop road jam hut for bus all 96 73 52 46 38 25 15
(b) yes ask 15 29 for soap 42 37
(d) jam hut for bus all 25 road stop 15 96 73 52 46 38
(c) 29 15 yes ask for soap 42 37
(e) There will be no such step
14. Which word/number would be at 6th position from the left
(e) None of these
in step V?
21. Input : milk pot 18 24 over goal 36 53
(a) 25 (b) stop (c) jam
Which of the following steps will be the last but one?
(d) all (e) road
(a) VI (b) V (c) VII
15. Which of the following would be step III?
(d) VIII (e) None of these
(a) hut for bus all 25 jam road 15 stop 38 96 73 52 46
22. Step III of an input is : 36 win 44 95 86 ultra box queen
(b) for bus all 25 jam road 15 hut 38 stop 96 46 73 52
How many more steps will be required to complete the
(c) hut for bus all jam road 15 stop 38 96 73 52 46 25
rearrangement?
(d) for bus all 25 jam road 15 hut stop 38 46 96 73 52
(e) None of these
DIRECTIONS (Q. 16 to 23) : Study the following information 23. Input : new 22 model 27 pump 38 11 join
carefully and answer the given questions: How many steps will be required to complete the
A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line rearrangement?
of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular rule in (a) Four (b) Five (c) Six
each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement. (d) Seven (e) None of these

b b b b b
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SPEED TEST 18 35
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1. If + means minus means multiplied by means plus 8. If L stands for +, M stands for , N stands for , P stands for
and means divided by, then , then 14 N 10 L 42 P 2 M 8 = ?
10 5 3 2 + 3 = ? (a) 153 (b) 216 (c) 248
53 (d) 251 (e) None of these
(a) 5 (b) 21 (c) 9. It being given that: > denotes +, < denotes , + denotes ,
3
denotes =, = denotes less than and denotes greater than.
Find which of the following is a correct statement.
2. In the following question you have to identify the correct
response from the given premises stated according to the (a) 3 + 2 > 4 = 9 + 3 < 2
following symbols. (b) 3 > 2 > 4 = 18 + 3 < 1
If + means , means , means + and means (c) 3 > 2 < 4 8 + 4 < 2
, then 63 24 + 8 4 + 2 3 = ? (d) 3 + 2 < 4 9 + 3 < 3
(a) 54 (b) 66 (c) 186 (e) None of these
(d) 48 (e) None of these 10. If P denotes +, Q denotes , R denotes and S denotes
3. Which one of the following is correct? which of the following statements is correct?
6 * 4 * 9 * 15 (a) 36 R 4 S 8 Q 7 P 4 = 10
(a) , = , (b) , , = (c) =, , (b) 16 R 12 P 49 S 7 Q 9 = 200
(d) , , = (e) None of these (c) 32 S 8 R 9 = 160 Q 12 R 12
4. If > = , = , < = +, = , + = <, = =, = > (d) 8 R 8 P 8 S 8 Q 8 = 57
(a) 6 > 2 > 3 8 4 + 13 (e) None of these
(b) 6 2 < 3 > 8 < 4 13 11. If stands for addition, < for substraction, + for division,
(c) 6 2 < 3 8 > 4 13 > for multiplication, for equal to, for greater than and
(d) 6 > 2 3 < 8 4 + 13 = for less than, then state which of the following is true?
(e) None of these (a) 3 4 > 2 9 + 3 < 3
5. Find out the correct answer for the unsolved equation on (b) 5 3 < 7 8 + 4 1
the basis of the given equations. (c) 5 > 2 + 2 = 10 < 4 8
If 6 * 5 = 91, 8 * 7 = 169, 10 * 7 = 211, then11 * 10 = ? (d) 3 2 < 4 16 > 2 + 4
(a) 331 (b) 993 (c) 678
(e) None of these
6. If stands for division, + for multiplication DIRECTIONS (Qs. 12 - 16): In an imaginary language, the digits
for subtraction and for addition. Which one of the 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8 and 9 are substituted by a, b, c, d, e, f, g,
following equation is correct? h, i and j. And 10 is written as ba.
(a) 6 20 12 + 7 1 = 70 12. (cd + ef) bc is equal to
(b) 6 + 20 20 7 1 = 62 (a) 684 (b) 816 (c) 916
(c) 6 20 12 7 + 1 = 57 (d) 1564 (e) None of these
(d) 6 + 20 20 7 1 = 38 13. dc f (bf d) d is equal to
(e) None of these (a) abb (b) abe (c) bce
7. In an imaginary mathematical operation + means (d) bcf (e) None of these
multiplication, means subtraction, means addition and
14. baf + fg (ca h/be) is equal to
means division. All other rules in mathematical operation
(a) 141 (b) 145 (c) 151
are the same as in the existing system.
Which one of the following gives the result of (d) 161 (e) None of these
175 25 5 + 20 3 + 20 = ? 15. baf bf d is equal to
(a) 160 (b) 2370 (c) 7 7 (a) df (b) cb (c) be
(d) 240 (e) None of these (d) d (e) None of these
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36 SPEED TEST 18
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16. If + means , means , means + and means 24. If means + ; means ; + means and means
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, then which of the following gives the result of then 20 12 4 + 8 6 = ?
175 25 5 + 20 3 10 = ?
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(a) 77 (b) 160 (c) 240 (a) 8 (b) 29 (c) 32
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17. If + means , means , means + and means , then 36
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25. If means ; means + ; + means and means
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8 + 4 6 + 2 3 = ?
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(a) 2 (b) 18 (c) 43 then 40 12 + 3 6 60= ?
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(a) 44 (b) 7.95 (c) 16
1
(d) 6 (e) None of these (d) 28 (e) None of these
2 26. If + means divided by means added to x means
18. If the given interchanges namely : signs + and and subtracted from and means multiplied by then what is
numbers 2 and 4 are made in signs and numbers, which one the value of 24 12 18 + 9 ?
of the following four equations would be correct ? (a) 25 (b) 0.72 (c) 15.30
(a) 2 + 4 3 = 3 (b) 4 + 2 6 = 1.5 (d) 290 (e) None of these
(c) 4 2 + 3 = 4 (d) 2 + 4 6 = 8. 27. If stands for addition stands for subtraction
(e) None of these
stands for division ; stands for multiplication' stands
19. If L denotes x, M denotes , P denotes + and Q denotes
, than 8 P 36 M 6 Q 6 M 2 L 3 = ? for equal to' then which of the following alternatives is
correct?
13 1 1
(a) (b) (c) 14 (a) 7 43 6 1 4
6 6 2
(d) 5 (e) None of these (b) 3 6 2 3 6 5
20. If X stands for addition, < for substraction, + stands for (c) 5 7 3 2 5
division, > for multiplication, , stands for equal to,
for greater than and = stands for less than, state which (d) 2 5 6 2 6
of the following is true ? (e) None of these
(a) 3 2 < 4 16 > 2 + 4 28. Of x Stands for addition z for subtraction + for division'
(b) 5 > 2 + 2 = 10 < 4 2 > for multiplication for equal to + for greater than
(c) 3 4 > 2 9 + 3 < 3 and '=' for ' less than' state which of the following is true. ?
(d) 5 3 < 7 8 + 4 1 (a) 3 x 4 > 2 9 + 3 < 3
(e) None of these (b) 5 x 3 < 7 8 + 4 x 1
21. If 20 10 means 200, 8 4 means 12, 6 2 means 4 and (c) 5 > 2 + 2 = 10 < 4 x 8
12 + 3 means 4, then (d) 3 x 2 < 4 16 > 2 + 4
100 10 1000 1000 + 100 10 = ? (e) None of these
(a) 1090 (b) 0 (c) 1900 29. If means + means x means and + means x then
(d) 20 (e) None of these 36 x 4 8x 4
22. If means +, means , means and + means , then 8 =?
4 8 x 2 16 1
7 8 + 40 2 = ?
(a) 0 (b) 8 (c) 12
2 3
(a) 1 (b) 7 (c) 8 (d) 16 (e) None of these
5 5 30. If x means +, means x , means + and + means then
(d) 44 (e) None of these (3 15 19) x 8 + 6 = ?
23. If + means ; means ; means and means (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 4
+ then 9 + 8 8 4 9 = ? (d) 8 (e) None of these
(a) 26 (b) 17 (c) 65

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SPEED TEST 19 37
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CLOCK AND CALENDAR
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1. The number of times in a day the Hour-hand and the Minute- 8. At what time between 5.30 and 6 will the hands of a clock be
hand of a clock are at right angles, is at right angles?
(a) 44 (b) 48 (c) 24
5 7
(d) 12 (e) None of these (a) 43min. past 5 (b) 43 min. past 5
2. An accurate clock shows the time as 3.00. After hour hand 11 11
has moved 135, the time would be (c) 40 min. past 5 (d) 45 min. past 5
(a) 7.30 (b) 6. 30 (c) 8.00 (e) None of these
(d) 9.30 (e) None of these 9. At what time between 4 and 5 oclock will the hands of a
3. An accurate clock shows 8 O' clock in the morning. watch point in opposite directions?
Throughout how many degrees will the hour hand rotate, (a) 45 min. past 4 (b) 40 min. past 4
when the clock shows 2 O' clock in the afternoon?
(a) 150 (b) 144 (c) 168 4 6
(c) 50 min. past 4 (d) 54 min. past 4
(d) 180 (e) None of these 11 11
4. March 1, 2008 was Saturday. Which day was it on March 1, (e) None of these
2002? 10. How much does a watch lose per day, if its hands coincide
(a) Thursday (b) Friday (c) Saturday
every 64 minutes?
(d) Sunday (e) None of these
5. How many times are an hour hand and a minute hand of a 8 5
(a) 32 min. (b) 36 min. (c) 90 min.
clock at right angles during their motion from 1.00 p.m. to 11 11
10.00 p.m.? (d) 96 min. (e) None of these
(a) 9 (b) 10 (c) 18 11. The last day of a century cannot be
(a) Monday (b) Wednesday (c) Tuesday
6. At what approximate time between 4 and 5 am will the
hands of a clock be at right angle? (d) Friday (e) None of these
(a) 4 : 40 am (b) 4 : 38 am (c) 4 : 35 am 12. Which of the following is not a leap year?
(d) 4 : 39 am (e) None of these (a) 700 (b) 800 (c) 1200
7. At what time between 3 and 4 oclock, the hands of a clock (d) 2000 (e) None of these
coincide? 13. How many days are there in x weeks x days?
4 (a) 7 x2 (b) 8 x (c) 14 x
(a) 16 minutes past 3
5 14. It was Sunday on Jan 1, 2006. What was the day of the week
(b) 15 minutes past 3 on Jan 1, 2010?
61
(a) Sunday (b) Saturday (c) Friday
5 (d) Wednesday (e) None of these
(c) 15 minutes to 2
60 15. On 8th Feb, 2005 it was Tuesday. What was the day of the
4 week on 8th Feb, 2004?
(d) 16 minutes to 4
11 (a) Tuesday (b) Monday (c) Sunday
(e) None of these (d) Wednesday (e) None of these
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38 SPEED TEST 19
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16. The calendar for the year 2007 will be the same for the year. 23. Ashish leaves his house at 20 minutes to seven in the
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(a) 2014 (b) 2016 (c) 2017 morning reaches Kunals house in 25 minutes. They finish
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(d) 2018 (e) None of these their breakfast in another 15 minutes and leave for their
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17. Today is Monday. After 61 days, it will be office which takes another 35 minutes. At what time do
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(a) Wednesday (b) Saturday (c) Tuesday they leave Kunals house to reach their office?
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(d) Thursday (e) None of these (a) 7.40 a.m. (b) 7.20 a.m. (c) 7.45 a.m.
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18. What was the day of the week on 17th June, 1998? (d) 8.15 a.m. (e) None of these
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(a) Monday (b) Tuesday 24. Reaching the place of meeting on Tuesday 15 minutes
(c) Wednesday (d) Thursday before 8.30 hours, Anuj found himself half an hour earlier
(e) None of these than the man who was 40 minutes late. What was the
19 If 21st July, 1999 is a wednesday, what would have been scheduled time of the meeting?
the day of the week on 21st July, 1947 ? (a) 8.00 hrs (b) 8.05 hrs (c) 8.15 hrs
(a) Monday (b) Sunday (c) Thursday (d) 8.45 hrs (e) None of these
(d) Saturday (e) None of these 25. A clock gaining 2 min every hour was synchronised at
20. At an enquiry office at a railway station, a passenger was midnight with a clock losing 1 min every hour. How many
told that a train for New Delhi has left 15 minutes ago, but minutes behind will its minute hand be at eleven the
after every 45 minutes a train leaves for New Delhi. The following morning ?
next train will leave at 8.30 p.m. At what time was this (a) 23 (b) 27 (c) 22
information given to the passanger ? (d) None of these (e) None of these
(a) 7.45 pm (b) 8.00 pm (c) 8.15 pm 26. Rama remembers that she met her brother on Saturday,
(d) 8.05 pm (e) None of these which was after the 20th day of a particular month. If the
21. A watch is a minute slow at 1 p.m. on Tuesday and 2 minutes 1st day of that month was Tuesday, then on which date did
fast at 1 p.m. on Thursday. When did it show the correct Rama meet her brother ?
time ? (a) 24th (b) 23rd (c) 25th
(d) None of these
(a) 1:00 a.m. on Wednesday
(b) 5:00 a.m. on Wednesday 1
27. In 2 hours the hour hand of a clock rotates through an
(c) 1:00 p.m. on Wednesday 2
(d) 5:00 p.m. on Wednesday angle of
(e) None of these (a) 90 (b) 140 (c) 120
22. An application was received by inward clerk in the afternoon
28. On 27 March, 1995 was a Monday. Then what days of the
of a week day. Next day he forwarded it to the table of the
week was 1 November, 1994?
senior clerk, Who was on leave that day. The senior clerk
(a) Monday (b) Sunday
put up the application to the desk officer next day in the
(c) Tuesday (d) Wednesday
evening. The desk officer studied the application and
29. 16 January 1997 was a Thursday. What day of the week
disposed off the matter on the same day i.e., Friday. Which
was 4 January 2000?
day was the application received by the inward clerk ?
(a) Tuesday (b) Wednesday (c) Thursday
(a) Monday
(d) Friday (e) None of these
(b) Wednesday
30. In a year 28th February is Tuesday; if the leap year is
(c) Tuesday
excluded, then 28th March will be a
(d) Previous weeks Saturday
(a) Sunday (b) Tuesday (c) Monday
(e) None of these (d) Saturday (e) None of these

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SPEED TEST 20 39
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DATA SUFFICIENCY
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7. In a row of girls facing North, what is Ds position from the
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1 - 20) : Each question below is followed by
left end?
two statements I and II. You are to determine whether the data
I. D is twentieth from the right end.
given in the statement is sufficient to answer the question. You
II. There are ten girls between B and D.
should use the data and your knowledge of Mathematics to choose
8. Town M is towards which direction of Town K?
between the possible answers.
I. Town K is towards North-West of Town D.
Give answer (a) if the statement I alone is sufficient to answer the
II. Town M is towards South - East of Town D.
question, but the statement II alone is not
9. How many daughters does P have?
sufficient.
I. K and M are sisters of T.
Give answer (b) if the statement II alone is sufficient to answer
II. Ts father is husband of Ps mother.
the question, but the statement I alone is not
10. Towards which direction is Village M from Village T?
sufficient.
I. Village P is to the south of Village M and Village P is to
Give answer (c) if both statements I and II together are needed to
the west of Village T.
answer the question.
II. Village K is to the east of Village M and Village K is to
Give answer (d) if either the statement I alone or the statement II
the north of Village T.
alone is sufficient to answer the question.
11. How is D related to M?
Give answer (e) if you cannot get the answer from the statements
I. K and D are the only sisters of R.
I and II together, but need even more data.
II. M is married to Rs father.
1. What is the age of C, in a group of A, B, C, D and E, whose
12. What is Rs position from the left end in a row of children
average age is 45 years?
facing South?
I. Average of the ages of A and B is 53 years.
I. There are forty children in the row.
II. Average of the ages of D and E is 47 years
II. D is tenth to the left of R and fifteenth from the right
2. Tower P is in which direction with respect to tower Q?
end of the row.
I. P is to the West of H, which is to the South of Q.
13. Towards which direction was D facing when he started his
II. F is to the West of Q and to the North of P.
journey?
3. How is K related to N?
I. D walked 20 metres after he started, took a right turn
I. N is the brother of M, who is the daughter of K.
and walked 30 metres and again took a right turn and
II. F is the husband of K
faced West.
4. What is Nidhis age?
II. D walked 20 metres after he started, took a left turn and
I. Nidhi is 3 times younger than Rani.
walked 30 metres and again took a left turn and faced
II. Surekha is twice the age of Rani and the sum of their
West.
ages is 72.
14. How many daughters does A have?
5. What is Seemas age?
I. A has four children.
I. Seemas age is half of Reema age
II. B and C are sisters of D who is son of A.
II. Reema is 5 years younger than her sister.
15. How far is A from the starting point?
6. What is Deepalis age?
I. A moves 5 km. towards East, then 2 km. towards left,
I. Deepali is two times younger than Nisha.
10 km, towards right and finally. 2 km, towards right
II. Supriya is twice the age of Nisha.
and stops
II. A moves 2 km. towards East, then 2 km. towards right,
13 km, towards left and finally, 2 km. towards left and
stops.
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40 SPEED TEST 20
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16. In a row of 40 students facing North, how many students are (b) if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the
b
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there between R and S? question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient
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I. Ss position in the row is 15th from the right end. to answer the question.
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II. Rs position in the row is 4th from the left end. (c) If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone
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17. How many children does Suneeta have? are sufficient to answer the question.
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I. X is the only daughter of Suneeta. (d) if the data given in both the statements I and II together are
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II. Y is brother of X. not sufficient to answer the question.
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18. Pole X is in which direction with respect to pole Y? (e) if the data given in both the statements I and II together are
I. Pole H is to the north-east of pole X and to the north of necessary to answer the question.
pole Y. 21. In a row of girls facing North, what is Ds position from the
II. Pole R is to the east of pole X and to the north of pole left end?
Y. I. D is twentieth from the right end.
19. How many children does Seema have? II. There are ten girls between Band D.
I. Seema, the mother of Varshas sister has only one son. 22. Town M is towards which direction of Town K?
II. Varsha has only three siblings. I. Town K is towards North-West of Town D
20. How is Anil related to Sanjay? II. Town M is towards South-East of Town D
I. Sanjays son is the brother of only sister of Anil. 23. How many daughters does P have?
II. Radhika, the only daughter of Sanjay has only two I. K and M are sisters of T.
brothers. II. Ts father is husband of Ps mother.
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 21-25) : Each of the questions below consists 24. On which day of the week from Monday to Sunday did Arun
of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below leave for London?
it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements I. Arun did not leave for London during the weekend.
are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements II. Aruns brother left for London on Friday two days after
and Give answer Arun left for London.
(a) if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the 25. How is new written in a code language?
question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient I. new good clothes is written as 5 3 9 in that code
to answer the question. language.
II. good clothes are costly is written as 9673 in that
code language.

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SPEED TEST 21 41
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STATEMENT & CONCLUSION (MATHEMATICAL)
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DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-4): In these questions, relationships between Give answer
different elements is shown in the statements. These statements (a) if only Conclusion I is true.
are followed by two conclusions. (b) if only Conclusion II is true.
Give answer (a) if only conclusion I follows. (c) if either Conclusion I or II is true.
Give answer (b) if only conclusion II follows.
Give answer (c) if either conclusion I or conclusion II follows. (d) if neither Conclusion I nor II is true.
Give answer (d) if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II (e) if both Conclusions I and II are true.
follows. 5. Statements: F @ N, N R, H @ R
Give answer (e) if both conclusions I and II follow. Conclusions: I. H N
1. Statement : II. F # R
A< L<T< R H>K 6. Statements: M # T, T@ K, K $ N
Conclusions :
Conclusions: I. M # N
I. H > L
II. K > T II. K M
2. Statement : 7. Statements: T % H, H $ W
P= N > D G< B= J Conclusions: I. W # T
Conclusions : II. W % T
I. G < P 8. Statements: N K, K # D, D % M
II. G < J
Conclusions: I. M K
3. Statement :
F C V=Z<X=U II. D N
Conclusions : 9. Statements: J $ B, B % R, R F
I. V N R S and @ are used with different meanings as follows:
Conclusions :
'A B' means A is smaller than B.
I. E = S
A # B means A is either smaller, than or equal to B.
II. S N
`A * B' means A is greater than B.
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 5-9): In the following questions, the symbols A $ B means A is either greater than or equal to B.
, %, $, # and @ are used with the following meaning as illustrated A @ B means A is neither smaller than nor greater than B.
below: In each of the following questions assuming the given
P $ Q means P is not smaller than Q. statements to be true, find out which of the two conclusions
P @ Q means P is not greater than Q. I and II given below them is/are definitely true.
P Q means P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q. Give answer (a) if only conclusion I is true.
P # Q means P is neither greater than nor equal to Q. Give answer (b) if onlyconclusion II is true.
P % Q means P is neither smaller than nor greater than Q. Give answer (c) if either conclusion I or conclusion II is true.
Give answer (d) if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is
Now in each of the following questions assuming the given
true.
statements to be true, find which of the two conclusions I and II Give answer (e) if both conclusions I and II are true.
given below them is/are definitely true? 10. Statements:V # S, S L, L J
Conclusions: I. V L
II. S J
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42 SPEED TEST 21
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11. Statements: M # R, R J, J # H 17. Statements:
b
Conclusions: I. M # H K # T, T $ B, B @ F
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II. R H Conclusions: I. F $ T
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12. Statements:H $ F, F @ G, G M II. K # B
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Conclusions: I. H M III. T $ F
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II. H G (a) None is true (b) Only I is true
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13. Statements:R J, J T, T # L (c) Only I and II are true (d) Only II and III are true
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Conclusions: I. R @ T (e) All are true
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II. J @ L 18. Statements:
14. Statements: W @ T, T $ K, K F Z # F, R @ F, D c R
Conclusions: I. W $ K Conclusions: I. Z # R
II. W @ K II. F # D
DIRECTIONS (Qs.15-19) : In the following questions, the symbols III. D @ Z
(a) None is true (b) Only I is true
@, #, %, $ and c are used with the following meaning as illustrated
(c) Only III is true (d) Only either I or III is true
below:
(e) All are true
'P # Q' means 'P is neither greater than nor equal to Q'.
19. Statements:
'P c Q' means 'P is neither equal to nor smaller than Q'
M c R, R % D, D @ N
'P % Q' means 'P is neither smaller than nor greater than Q.
Conclusions: I. M c N
'P $ Q' means 'P is not smaller than Q'
'P @ Q' means 'P is not greater than Q'. II. N $ R
Now in each of the following questions, assuming the given III. M c D
statements to be true, find which of the three conclusions I, II and (a) Only I and II are true (b) Only II and III are true
III given below them is/are definitely true and give your answer (c) Only I and III are true (d) All are true
accordingly. (e) None of these
15. Statements: R @ D, D c W, B $ W DIRECTIONS (Qs.20-22) : In these questions, relationship
Conclusions: between different elements is shown in the statements. These
I. W # R II. B c D III. W $ R statements are followed by two conclusions.
(a) None is true (b) Only I is true Mark answers if
(c) Only III is true (d) Only either I or III is true (a) Only conclusion I follows.
(e) All are true (b) Only conclusion II follows.
16. Statements: (c) Either conclusion I or II follows.
H $ V, V % M, K c M (d) Neither conclusion I nor II follows.
Conclusions: I. K c V (e) Both conclusion I and II follows.
20. Statement: P Q=R>S>T
II. M @ H
Conclusions: I. P T
III. H c K
II. T < Q
(a) Only I and III are true (b) Only II and III are true 21. Statement: L M<N>O P
(c) Only I and II are true (d) All are true Conclusions: I. O < M
(e) None of these II. P N
22. Statement: A > B, B C = D < E
Conclusions: I. C < A
II. D B

RESPONSE
GRID
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SPEED TEST 22 43
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STATEMENT & CONCLUSION (LOGICAL)
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DIRECTIONS (Q. 1 to 18) : In each question below is given a 4. Statement : Population increase coupled with depleting
statement followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You resources is going to be the scenario of many developing
have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then countries in days to come.
consider the two conclusions together and decide which of them Conclusions :
logically follows beyond a reasonable doubt from the information I : The population of developing countries will not
given in the statement. continue to increase in future.
Give answer (a) if only conclusion I follows. II : It will be very difficult for the governments of
Give answer (b) if only conclusion II follows. developing countries to provide its people decent
Give answer (c) if either I or II follows. quality of life.
Give answer (d) if neither I nor II follows. 5. Statement : Mr. X is one of the probable candidates
Give answer (e) if both I and II follows. shortlisted for the post of Director of K. L. M. Institute.
1. Statement : Although we have rating agencies like Crisil. Conclusions :
ICRA, there is demand to have a separate rating agency for I : Mr. X will be selected as Director of K. L. M. Institute.
IT Companies to protect investors. II : Mr. X will not be selected as Director of K. L. M.
Conclusions : Institute.
I : Assessment of financial worth of IT Companies calls 6. Statement :
for separate set of skills, insight and competencies. We follow some of the best and effective teaching learning
II : Now the investors investing in I. T. Companies will get practices used by leading institutes all over the world. A
protection of their investment. statement of professor of MN Institute.
2. Statement : Company "Y" will improve the manufacturing Conclusions :
I. The MN Institute is one of the leading institutes of the
facilities for the production of shaving kits as a result of
world.
which capacity would increase and cost would be reduced
II. Whatever is being followed by worlds leading institutes
A spokesperson of the Company "Y". will definitely be good and useful.
Conclusions : 7. Statement :
I : The products of Company "Y" will complete the market In the absence of national health insurance or social security
norms in the quality and cost factor. cover, a person with limited resources has to depend on
II : There will be demand of shaving kits of Company "Y"? government hospitals, which are crowded, overburdened
3. Statement : During 1997-98 the total loss incurred by the and understaffed.
111 Public Sector Units was to the tune of ` 6809 crore, Conclusions :
which was converted into paid capitals by the Government I. National health insurance is meant only for the affluent
of its total investment of ` 5129 crore. sections of society.
Conclusions : II. The government hospitals provide treatment on nominal
I : The Government is left with only one option that is to charges or free.
privatise these units. 8. Statement :
II : The Government did not take care in the matter of We do not need today in India extraordinary specialists but
investments in these public sector units. those trained ordinary doctors who are dedicated to their
profession.
Conclusions :
I. We should promote medical profession with dedicated
ordinary doctors rather than promoting high specialised
medical education.
II. Extraordinary specialists are not dedicated to their
profession.
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44 SPEED TEST 22
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9. Statement : 16. Statements :
b
The Government will review the present policy of the diesel A study of planning commission reveals boom in revenues.
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price in view of further spurt in the international oil prices However, this has been of little avail owing to soaring
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expenditure. In the event, there has been a high dose of
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A spokesman of the Government.
deficit financing, leading to marked rise in prices.
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Conclusions :
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Large financial outlays year after year had little impact on
I. The Government will increase the price of the diesel after
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the standard of living.
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the imminent spurt in the international oil prices.
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Conclusions :
II. The Government will not increase the price of the diesel
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I. A boom in revenues leads to soar in prices.
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even after the imminent spurt in the international oil II. Large financial outlays should be avoided.
prices. 17. Statements :
10. Statement : The average number of students per teacher is 50 in the urban
Vegetable prices are soaring in the market. area whereas it is 60 in rural areas. The national average is 55.
Conclusions : Conclusions :
I. Vegetables are becoming a rare commodity. I. The student-teacher ratio in the rural areas is higher than
II. People cannot eat vegetables. in the urban areas.
11. Statement : II. More students study with the same teacher in the rural
Being from a business family, Chandan was apparently areas as compared to those in the urban areas.
18. Statement :
convinced by his parents and other family members to join
Morning walks are good for health.
the family trade. Conclusions :
Conclusions : I. All healthy people go for morning walks.
I. People should take up their family profession so that II. Evening walks are harmful.
family prospers. 19. Statement : The cost of manufacturing cars in state A is 30
II. It is necessary to keep in family members happy by per cent less than the cost of manufacturing cars in state B.
choosing familys business. After transportation fee for the differential distances of states
12. Statement : A and B and the interstate taxes, it is cheaper to manufacture
Global ecological issues have eclipsed local environmental cars in state B than in state A for selling these cars in State C.
problems which are being faced by the poor societies. Which of he following supports the conclusion draw in the
Conclusions : above statement?
I. Poor societies always have to suffer because of their (a) The cost of transportation from state A to state C is
more than 30 per cent of the production cost.
poverty.
(b) The production cost of cars in state B is lower in
II. Global ecological issues are not so important. Rich comparison to state A.
societies can bear with it. (c) Only entry tax at state C is more for the production
13. Statements : originating in state A.
Of the ten fishermen caught in a storm, nine managed to (d) Entry tax at state C is more for the products originating
return to the shore. in state B.
Praveen has not yet returned after four days. (e) The total of transportation cost of cars from state B to
Conclusions : state C and entry tax of cars at state C is less than 30
I. Praveen got killed in the storm. per cent of the production cost of cars in state B.
II. Praveen has survived the storm. 20. Statement : There was a slow decline in the number of
14. Statements : patients with flu-like symptoms visiting various health
Now you dont need an import licence to own a VCR. facilities in the city during the last fortnight.
Which of the following substantiates the fact mentioned in
Conclusions :
the above statement?
I. VCRs are now manufactured indigenously. (a) Majority of the people suffering from flu visit the health
II. VCRs are now freely permitted to be imported. facilities in the city.
15. Statements : (b) There has been a continuous increase in the sale of
Just about everyone in Germany has been on a diet at one medicines for curing flu in the city limits.
time or the other and millions of them have learned that the (c) People have started visiting the crowded places like
weight they lose is all too easily regained. malls and cinema halls during the last fortnight after a
Still despite their frustration, few question the wisdom of cautioned gap of one month.
dieting. (d) There is a sudden increase in the number of deaths
Conclusions : caused by flu-like symptoms followed by respiratory
I. Germany should stop dieting. complications.
II. Germans do not learn from experience. (e) None of these

RESPONSE
GRID
19. a b c d e 20. a b c d e
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SPEED TEST 23 45
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PASSAGE BASED CONCLUSION-1
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DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-3): Study the following information carefully 18.2% rural population moved out of poverty whereas another 22.1%
and answer the given questions. fell into it over this period. This net increase of about four percentage
points was seen to have a considerable variation across states and regions.
The prospects for the Indian economy this year will be influenced by the
4. Which of the following is a conclusion which can be drawn from
behaviour of the monsoon and expansion of commerce and trade. The
the facts slated in the above paragraph ?
Eleventh Plan has envisaged a growth target of 8%. If the agriculture
(a) Accurate estimates of number of people living below poverty
sector does well and the world trade conditions improve then it is possible
line in India is possible to be made.
to achieve a growth of 6-7%. We need to improve our economy and aim
(b) Many expert groups in dia are not interested measure poverty
at a higher rate of growth in order to feed our population, maintain the
objectively.
standard of living and improve the quality of life. It is now more than 10
(c) Process of poverty measurement needs to take into account
years since we have adopted reforms. We need to go forward in
various factors to tackle its dynamic nature.
liberalisation but we cannot throw open the market for everything. There
(d) People living below poverty line remain in that position for
are sectors like village industries which need protection.
a very long time.
1. Which of the following is an assumption which is implicit in the
(e) None of these
facts stated in the above paragraph?
5. Which of the following is an assumption which is implicit in the
(a) India should adopt economic policies of developed countries.
facts stated In the above paragraph ?
(b) Free market strategy is beneficial for India, but not in all the
(a) It may not be possible to have an accurate poverty
sectors.
measurement in India.
(c) Over the last few years, we have achieved sustained growth.
(b) Level of poverty in India is static over the years.
(d) A very good monsoon is expected this year.
(c) Researchers avoid making conclusions on poverty
(e) None of these
measurement data in India.
2. Which of the following is an inference which can be drawn from the
(d) Government of India has a mechanism to measure level of
facts stated in the paragraph?
poverty effectively and accurately.
(a) The world trade conditions don't affect Indian economy.
(e) None of these
(b) The world trade conditions have a major impact on Indian
6. Which of the following is an inference which can be made from
economy.
the facts stated in the above paragraph ?
(c) Indian economy has been downgraded since last decade.
(a) Poverty measurement tools in India arc outdated.
(d) Govt should cut the subsidies in order to obtain sustained growth.
(b) Increase in number of persons falling into poverty varies
(e) None of these
considerably across the country over a period of time.
3. Which of the following is a conclusion which can be drawn from
(c) Government of India has stopped measuring poverty related
the facts stated in the above paragraph?
studies.
(a) India may become a super economic power some day.
(d) People living in rural areas are more susceptible to fall into
(b) The standard of living of people has continuously degraded
poverty over the time
in India.
(e) None of these
(c) Growth of Indian economy and a good mon soon are
complement of each other. DIRECTIONS (Qs. 7 to 9) : Study the given information carefully and
(d) Indian economy is on the peak of growth. answer the questions that follow:
(e) None of these Indian Navy's now believes that its worst fear has come true, and believes
it's unlikely to find any survivors onboard INS Sindhurakshak. The Navy
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 4-6) : Study the following Information carefully
also came out with a statement, which said that 'the state of these two
and answer the questions given below :
bodies and conditions within the submarine leads to firm conclusion that
Poverty measurement is an unsettled issue, both conceptually and finding any surviving personnel within the submarine is unlikely'.
methodologically. Since poverty is a process as well as an outcome; This is for the first time that the Indian Navy has got first-hand
many come out of it while others may be falling into it. The net effect of confirmation of fatality since two massive explosions rocked INS
these two parallel processes Is a proportion commonly identified as the Sindhurakshak. A Navy release said that the bodies were shifted to INHS
head count ratio, but these ratios hide the fundamental dynamism that Asvini where a DNA identification test would be carried to identify the
characterises poverty in practice. The most recent poverty reestimates crewmember.
by an expert group has also missed the crucial dynamism. In a study The damage and destruction within the submarine around the control
conducted on 13.000 households which represented the entire country In room area indicates that the feasibility of locating bodies of personnel in
1993-94 and again on 2004-05. it was found that in the ten-year period the forward part of the submarine is also very remote as the explosion
GRID 6. a b c d e
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46 SPEED TEST 23
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and very high temperatures, which melted steel within, would have 11. Which of the following is an Assumption which is implicit in the
b
incinerated the bodies too, said Navy officials. But navy officials said facts stated in the above paragraph?
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that the divers would continue to search every inch of the submerged (a) Advertising guarantees the manufacturer in exhausting the
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submarine till all bodies are either located or it can be stated with finality
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stocks he has produced.
that no bodies remain to be found.
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(b) Advertising stimulates consumers to buy more products.
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7. Which of the following is the conclusion which can be drawn
(c) Advertising leads to fierce competition.
from the facts stated in the above paragraph?
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(d) A manufacturer manufactures a product because there is
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(a) No personnel have survived in the INS Sindhurakshak tragedy.
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demand in the market.
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(b) It is impossible to trace the bodies of all the personnel died in
(e) It is impossible to predict the demand of a product accurately.
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the incident.
(c) The Navy is presently concentrating on reaching the interiors 12. Which of the following is an Inference which can be made from
of the submarine to locate and extricate any remaining bodies the facts stated in the above paragraph?
that may still be trapped within. (a) Manufacturers shall not try to predict the demand of a
(d) Navy's rescue and salvage effort is proceeding slowly because product.
it lacks expertise in conducting such an operation. (b) These days there are a lot of tools that helps in predicting the
(e) It was a massive accident leading to the death of all the sailing demand of a product accurately.
crew members. (c) Manufacturers must produce only what they can sell.
8. Which of the following is an assumption which is implicit in the (d) Consumer is the king.
facts stated in the above paragraph? (e) Advertising can minimise the risk taken by manufacturers.
(a) Some personnel could be found alive. 13. Our school district should not spend its money on the new Verbal
(b) The submarine and its internal machinery could be reused Advantage reading program. After all, our students get all the reading
thus saving costs for the Navy. practice they need by studying history and science.
(c) The temperature inside the submerged submarine would be The argument above depends on which the following assumptions?
very hot. (a) The Verbal Advantage program would not help the students
(d) There is lack of divers who are equally skilled in using gas learn history and science.
cutters or other machinery required to break open jammed (b) Other reading programs are just as effective but less expensive
hatches. than the Verbal Advantage program.
(e) Looking at the level of destruction more dead bodies would
(c) The Verbal Advantage program involves only reading practice.
be found.
9. Which of the following is an inference which can be made from
(d) Teaching students history and science is more important
than teaching them reading skills.
(a) The explosion and very high temperatures, which melted
steel within, would have incinerated the bodies too. (e) None of these
(b) Continuous efforts would lead to extrication of the bodies of 14. Efficiency is all right in its place, in the shop, the factory, the store.
all the personnel. The trouble with efficiency is that it wants to rule our play as well
(c) The bodies are expected to be so badly charred that as our work; it wont be content to reign in the shop, it follows us
identification will not be possible. home.
(d) Submarines are not safe watercraft capable of carrying It can be inferred from the above passage that
independent operation underwater. (a) Efficiency can become all - pervading
(e) Old vessels and other crafts must be phased out so as to (b) Efficiency does not always pay
avoid such accidents in future. (c) Efficiency can be more of a torture than a blessing
DIRECTIONS (Qs 10 to 12): Study the given information carefully (d) both (b) and (c) (e) None of these
and answer the questions that follow: 15. The fare-paying capacity of people who travel on routes connecting
to small towns is very low. Most successful airlines which operate
Through advertisting, manufacturing exercises a high degree of control
in such regions have a large number of seats.
over consumer's desires. However, the manufacturer assumes enormous
risks in attempting to predict what consumers will want and in producing Which of the following can be inferred from the above information?
goods in quantity and distributing them in advance of final selection by (a) Regional airlines are quite profitable.
the consumers. (b) People from cities are increasingly travelling to small towns.
10. Which of the following is the conclusion which can be drawn (c) Regional airlines have to charge low fares in order to be
from the facts stated in the above paragraph? profitable.
(a) Distribute goods directly to the consumers. (d) The number of people travelling from small towns to cities is
(b) Can eliminate the risk of overproduction by advertising. massive.
(c) Always take moderate and calculated risk. (e) None of these
(d) Can predict with great accuracy the success of any product
they put on the market.
(e) Must depend upon the final consumers for the success of
their undertakings.
GRID 12. a b c d e 13. a b c d e 14. a b c d e 15. a b c d e

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SPEED TEST 24 47
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PASSAGE BASED CONCLUSION-2
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DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1 to 3): Study the given information carefully and DIRECTIONS (Q. 4 and 5) : In the following questions a paragraph is
answer the questions that follow: given. Read the paragraph carefully and answer the questions which
follow each of these paragraph.
In economics, a recession is a business cycle contraction, a general
slowdown in economic activity. Macroeconomic indicators such as GDP Fashion has become one of the largest fads among the youth. The amount
(Gross Domestic Product), employment, investment spending, capacity of time wastage and expenditure on fashion is very large. What bothers,
utilization, household income, business profits, and inflation fall, while however, is the fact that fashion is here to stay despite countless arguments
bankruptcies and the unemployment rate rise. against it. What is required, therefore, is that strong efforts should be
Recessions generally occur when there is a widespread drop in spending made in order to displace the excessive craze of fashion from the minds of
(an adverse demand shock). This may be triggered by various events, such todays youth.
as a financial crisis, an external trade shock, an adverse supply shock or the 4. Which of the following statements finds the least support by the
bursting of an economic bubble. Governments usually respond to recessions argument made by the author in the given paragraph?
by adopting expansionary macroeconomic policies, such as increasing money (a) Youngsters should be motivated to do constructive business
supply, increasing government spending and decreasing taxation. rather than wasting time on fashion.
1. Which of the following is the conclusion which can be drawn from (b) The world of fashion being glamorous and glittery attracts
the facts stated in the above paragraph? people towards itself.
(a) Recession leads to financial crisis. (c) Following the latest fashion increases the self-efficacy of
(b) Demand and supply play a major role in determining the people, thus increasing their overall mental abilities.
fundamentals of an economy. (d) Many universities have implemented a dress code to put a
(c) Cash is the king. So always keep your money safe. check on the increasing fad amongst the youth which was
(d) In a recession, interest rates are reduced so as to enable people affecting their grades.
to take loans which bring back the money in the economy (e) None of these
thus increasing spending and economic activity. 5. Which of the following can be inferred from the given paragraph?
(e) Recession is a normal (albeit unpleasant) part of the business (a) The author has made strong efforts to wipe out fashion from
cycle and brings in correction in the market. the minds of youth.
2. Which of the following is an assumption which is implicit in the (b) Steps need to be taken in order to control the growing fad of
facts stated in the above paragraph? fashion amongst the youth.
(c) The author is upset with the shift of fashion from the
(a) Recessions generally occur when there is a widespread drop
traditional ethnic wear to western outfits.
in spending.
(d) Fashion world is responsible for lack of creativity among the
(b) When economic activity slows down, firms may decide to
youth.
reduce employment levels and save money rather than invest.
(e) None of these
(c) A recession generally lasts from six to 18 months.
(d) Recession is the result of adverse supply shock or the bursting DIRECTIONS (Qs. 6 to 8): Study the given information carefully and
of an economic bubble. answer the questions that follow:
(e) A slow growing nation can protect itself from recession.
3. Which of the following is an inference which can be made from Due to enormous profits involved in smuggling, hundreds of persons
the facts stated in the above paragraph? have been attracted towards this anti-national activity. Some of them
(a) Recession leads to decline in consumption, investment, became millionaires overnight. India has a vast coastline both on the
Eastern and Western Coast. It has been a heaven for smugglers who have
government spending, and net export activity.
been carrying on their activities with great impunity. There is no doubt,
(b) In a recession people should generally try to watch their
that from time to time certain seizures were made by the enforcement
spending and not take any undue risks that might put their
authorities, during raids and ambush but even allowing these losses the
future financial goals in jeopardy.
smugglers made huge profits.
(c) Recession affects both the developed and developing nations
6. Which of the following is the conclusion which can be drawn from
of the world.
(d) Countries must reduce their imports drastically so as to avoid
(a) smuggling hampers the economic development of a nation.
recession. (b) smuggling ought to the curbed.
(e) Recession is a business cycle contraction which brings a (c) authorities are taking strict measures to curb smuggling.
general slowdown in economic activity. (d) smuggling is fast increasing in our country owing to the quick
profit it entails.
(e) None of these
GRID 6. a b c d e
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48 SPEED TEST 24
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7. Which of the following is an assumption which is implicit in the (c) Increase in income of all leads to a better life style of people.
b
facts stated in the above paragraph? (d) Increase in exports does not guarantee increase in income
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(a) Coastlines provide easy escape for the smugglers. levels of all class of people.
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(b) People are driven by money not by values. (e) The gap between rich and poor determines national
prosperity.
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(c) Smugglers are smart enough to be caught.
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(d) Government can earn a lot of money from seizing smuggled DIRECTIONS (Qs. 12 to 14): Study the given information carefully
s
goods.
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and answer the questions that follow:
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(e) Smuggling cannot be stopped as smugglers will find new
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The consumption of harmful drugs by the people can be prevented not
ways of doing it.
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only by banning their sale in the market but also by instructing users
8. Which of the following is an inference which can be made from about their dangerous effects which they must understand for their safety.
the facts stated in the above paragraph? Also the drug addicts may be provided with proper medical facilities for
(a) The enforcement authorities lack in their efforts to curb their rehabilitation. This will help in scaling down the use of drugs.
smuggling. 12. Which of the following is the conclusion which can be drawn
(b) Authorities are taking bribe from smugglers there by from the facts stated in the above paragraph?
increasing their potential. (a) are on increase in the society
(c) There is no measure taken by authorities. (b) can always be reduced.
(d) Smuggling hampers the GOD of a nation. (c) are due to lack of medical facilities.
(e) None of these (d) can be eliminated with the help of banning their sale.
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 9 to 11): Study the given information carefully and (e) may be channelised through proper system.
answer the questions that follow: 13. Which of the following is an assumption which is implicit in the
Exports and imports, a swelling favourable balance of trade, investments facts stated in the above paragraph?
and bank-balances, are not an index or a balance sheet of national (a) Such drugs are harmful and can lead to severe depression and
prosperity. Till the beginning of the Second World War, English exports suicidal tendencies.
were noticeably greater than what they are today. And yet England has (b) People using drugs harm the society.
greater national prosperity today than it ever had. Because the income of (c) Scaling down the use of such harmful drugs is beneficial for
average Englishmen, working as field and factory labourers, clerks, the society.
policemen, petty shopkeepers and shop assistants, domestic workers (d) Medical facilities needs to be improved in our country.
and other low-paid workers, has gone up. (e) The government is not taking appropriate actions to curb the
9. Which of the following is the conclusion which can be drawn use of harmful drugs.
from the facts stated in the above paragraph? 14. Which of the following is an inference which can be made from
(a) a countrys economic standard can be best adjudged by per the facts stated in the above paragraph?
capita income. (a) Such harmful drugs should not be available at the first place.
(b) a countrys balance of trade is the main criteria of determining (b) Controlling drug addicts can scale down the use of drugs.
its economic prosperity.
(c) People using these drugs must be rehabilitated.
(c) a nations economy strengthens with the increase in exports.
(d) Awareness about the ill-effects of these drugs can scale down
(d) English trade has continually increased since the Second their usage.
World War.
(e) Bad company leads to spread of use of such drugs.
(e) None of these
15. If you want a hassle-free holiday package for city M, then join
10. Which of the following is an assumption which is implicit in the only our tour. Hurry up; only a few seats available An
facts stated in the above paragraph? advertisement of XYZ Tourist Company.
(a) Increasing exports and decreasing imports helps a nation If the above statement is true then which of the following has been
prosper. assumed while making the statement?
(b) Prosperity of a nation is the outcome of prosperity of its (a) No seats may be available with other tour operators for city
people. M.
(c) Greater exports leads to higher GDP which leads to better (b) Nowadays people have a lot of money to spend on their
flow of money in the economy. comforts.
(d) Second World War led to deterioration in the national (c) Travel packages offered by other tour operators are neither
prosperity of England. cheap nor comfortable.
(e) None of these (d) Many people desire convenience and comfort while going
11. Which of the following is an inference which can be made from for a holiday.
the facts stated in the above paragraph? (e) None of these
(a) Countries must focus on increasing income of its people and
not an exports or imports.
(b) Favourable balance of trade will automatically lead to higher
income of people.

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SPEED TEST 25 49
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CUBE & DICE
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1. Each of the six faces of a cube is numbered by one of the K H B
digits from 1 to 6. This cube is shown in its four different
positions in the figure I, II, III, and IV. B K H
A M P
6 1 5 6
What is the letter opposite to A?
(a) H (b) P (c) B
3 2 4 2 6 4 2 4 (d) M (e) None of these
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 5 -8) : A cube is coloured red on all faces. It is
cut into 64 smaller cubes of equal size. Now, answer the following
I II III IV questions based on this statement :
Consider the following statements. 5. How many cubes have no face coloured?
1. Figures II and III are sufficient to known as to which (a) 24 (b) 16 (c) 8
face is opposite to the face numbered 6. (d) 0 (e) None of these
2. figures II and III are sufficient to known as to which 6. How many cubes are there which have only one face
coloured?
face is opposite to the face numbered 4. . (a) 4 (b) 8 (c) 16
3. Figures I and IV are sufficient to known as to which (d) 24 (e) None of these
face is opposite to the face numbered 3. 7. How many cubes have two red opposite faces?
Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 0 (b) 8 (c) 16
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only (d) 24 (e) None of these
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 8. How many cubes have three faces coloured?
2. Six faces of a cube are numbered from 1 to 6, each face (d) 4 (e) None of these
carrying one different number. Further,
1. The face 2 is opposite to the face 6.
2. The face 1 is opposite to the face 5. 9.
3. The face 3 is between the face 1 and the face 5
4. The face 4 is adjacent to the face 2. How many dots are there on the dice opposite to the one
Which one of the following is correct? dot?
(a) The face 2 is adjacent to the face 3 (a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 5
(b) The face 6 is between the face 2 and the face 4 (d) 6 (e) None of these
(c) The face 1 is between the face 5 and the face 6 10. Select from alternative, the box that can be formed by folding
(d) None of the above the sheet shown.
(e) None of these 1
3. Six squares are coloured, front and back, red (R), blue (B),
yellow (Y), green (G), white (W) and orange (O) and are 4 3 6
hinged together as shown in the figure given below. If they
are folded to form a cube, what would be the face opposite 2
the white face?
5
R B
G Y O 2 4 3
W (a) 3 5 (b) 6 3 (c) 2 5
(a) R (b) G (c) B
(d) O (e) None of these 4
4. Three views of a cube following a particular motion are given (d) 3 (e) None of these
below: 1
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50 SPEED TEST 25
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11. Select from alternative, the box that can be formed by folding 14. Which number is on the face opposite to 6 on the dice
b
the sheet shown. whose four positions as shown below ?
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6 6 5
2
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2 4 4 4
2 6
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(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3
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= (d) 4 (e) None of these
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15. A cube is painted white on all the sides. It is then cut into 64
+ smaller cubes of equal sizes. How many of these smaller
cubes have no paint on any side?
(a) 8 (b) 6 (c) 4
16. How many cubes are there in the following figure?
(a) + (b) = (c)
(d) (e) None of these
12. Select from the alternative, the box that can be formed by
folding the sheet shown in figure (X) :
(a) 6 (b ) 10 (c) 12
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 17 - 19) : The questions below are to be
answered on the basis of the three views of a cube given as follows:
5 4 2
4 6 6
(X) 1 3 5
17. Which number is on the face opposite to 1 ?

(a) 3 (b) 2 (c) 6
(A) (B) (C) (D) 18. Which number is on the face opposite to 4 ?
(a) A only (b) A and C only (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 6
(c) A , C and D only (d) A, B, C and D (d) 1 (e) None of these
(e) None of these 19. Which number is at the bottom face of figure 1?
13. Three positions of a cube are as shown below : (a) 3 (b) 2 (c) 6
20. Four positions of a cube are shown below. Which symbol
is opposite to the face having ?
?

+ +

The figure on the face opposite the triangle is the :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(a) pentagon (b) circle
(c) question mark (d) rectangle (a) (b) (c)
(e) None of these (d) (e) None of these

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NON-VERBAL REASONING - I
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DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1 to 5): In each of the questions given below which one of the five Answer Figures on the right should come after
the Problem Figures on the left, if the sequence were continued?
Problem Figures Answer Figures

1.
S C O B E B S O L O O L B
E E B K E S K O S L S S K
C S K L C S L O C E E E L C
O B K L L O B K C E S O L B K C E L C B K C B K C B K E S O
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
2.
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
3.
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
4. o o
c
c
c
o c c o c o o o
c
c o
o o c
c
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
5. E L S S S
L L
E E H H L L
=HOLE H K C C L H L L
O H L C H
K H S S H
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
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DIRECTIONS (Qs. 6 to 10) : In each of the following questions a 12. Problem Figures
b
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series begins with an unnumbered figure on the extreme left. One
o
and only one of the five lettered figures in the series does not fit
rd
into the series. The two unlabelled figures, one each on the extreme
p
left and the extreme right, fit into the series. You have to take as
re
Answer Figures
many aspects into account as possible of the figures in the series
s
s
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and find out the one and only one of the five lettered figures which
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does not fit into the series. The letter of that figure is the answer.
m
6.
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
s s s s s s s
13. Problem Figures
=
(a)
= =
(b)
=
(c) (d)
= =
(e)
=
?
Answer Figures
7. N

N
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)

(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
14. Problem Figures
8.

(a) (b) (c) (d) (e) ?
Answer Figures
s c s c s c
9. c s
c s s c c s
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)

(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
15. Problem Figures
10.
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e) ?

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 11-15) : In each of the questions given below Answer Figures
which one of the five answer figures on the bottom should come
after the problem figures on the top if the sequence were
continued?
11. Problem Figures (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
z s * o =
o z
o s ? =
* *
Answer Figures
o * o * *
z * o s z s * o s o =
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)

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NON-VERBAL REASONING - II
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DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1 to 5): In each of the questions, there are two 3. Problem Figures
sets of figures. The figures on upper side are problem figures
marked by letters (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5), and on the bottom side
are answer figures marked by numbers (a), (b), (c), (d) and (e). A ?
series is established, if one of the five answer figures is placed in
place of the (?) sign in the problem figures. That figure is your (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)
answer. Answer Figures
1. Problem Figures
? (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)

4. Problem Figures
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)
Answer Figures
?
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)
Answer Figures
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
2. Problem Figures
S = S S 0 C S C ?
= 0 C ? ? = 0
5.
(a) (b)
Problem Figures
(c) (d) (e)
? C 0 ? =
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)
Answer Figures ?
S C 0 S S ? S C = S C
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)
0 = C 0 = 0 = ? Answer Figures
? ? = C ? 0
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 6 to 10): In each of the following questions, a related pair of figures is followed by five lettered pairs of figures. Select
the pair that has relationship similar to that in the question figure. The best answer is to be selected from a group of fairly close choices.
6.
I II I II I II I II I II I II
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
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7.
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(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
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8.
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(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
9.
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
10.
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 11-15): In each of the questions given below which one of the following five answer figures should come after the
problem figures, if the sequence were continued?
11. Problem Figures Answer Figures
Z O E VP TD SA Z P U
P
P
E V P T D SA ZB U U U
U
P
Answer Figures (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
B B B = = 14. Problem Figures
C D C D C C
= A Z = A Z B s Dz z s DD s
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e) z o Co s s o o z z o
DZ T DO T z o
C
DO T DZ Z T O
D C D s z C C z C
T Z DZ z o s z o o D s D s o D s
Answer Figures (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
DZ Z D O 15. Problem Figures
O DO T DZ T Z DZ T
T T O O
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
U
P U
U
U
P
P
U
P
P
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
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SECTION TEST : REASONING
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1. How many meaningful three letter English words can be 7. In a certain code DISPLAY is written as RHCQZBM. How is
formed with the letters AER, using each letter only once in GROUPED written in that code?
each word ? (a) PSHTEFQ (b) NQFVCDO
(a) None (b) One (c) NQFVEFQ (d) PSHTCDO
(c) Two (d) Three (e) None of these
(e) Four 8. Among P, Q, R, T and W each having different weight, T is
2. If in a certain language LATE is coded as 8 & 4 $ and HIRE heavier than W and lighter than only P. Q is not the lightest.
is coded as 7*3$ then how will HAIL be coded in the same Who among them is definitely the lightest ?
language ? (a) R (b) W
(a) 7 & 8* (b) &7*8 (c) R or W (d) Data inadequate
(c) 7*& 8 (d) 7&*8 (e) None of these
(e) None of these 9. In a row of thirty children M is sixth to the right of R who is
3. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so twelfth from the left end. What is Ms position from the right
form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that end of the row ?
group ? (a) Twelfth (b) Thirteenth
(a) Stem (b) Tree (c) Fourteenth (d) Data inadequate
(c) Root (d) Branch (e) None of these
(e) Leaf 10. What should come next in the following letter series?
4. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so B D F H J L N A C E G I K M B D F H J LA C E G I K B D F H J
form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that (a) B (b) L
group ? (c) M (d) F
(a) Clutch (b) Wheel (e) None of these
(c) Break (d) Car DIRECTIONS (Qs. 11-15) : Study the following arrangement
(e) Gear carefully and answer the questions given below
5. How many such pairs of letters are there in word SENDING,
M, D, K, R, T, H, W and A are sitting around a circle facing at the
each of which has as many letters between its two letters as
centre. D is second to the right of M who is fifth to the left of T. K
there are between them in the English alphabets ?
is third to the right of R who is second to the right of D. H is
(a) None (b) One
second to the right of W.
(c) Two (d) Three
11. Who is second to the right of A ?
(e) More than three
(a) M (b) D
(c) K (d) Data inadequate
(e) None of the above
group?
12. Who is third to the left of M ?
(a) 169 (b) 441
(a) A (b) T
(c) 361 (d) 529
(c) H (d) D
(e) 289
(e) Data inadequate
GRID 11. a b c d e 12. a b c d e
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56 SPEED TEST 28
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13. Who is fourth to the right of H ? 19. Statements:
b
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(a) A (b) T All puppies are tigers.
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(c) R (d) K All kittens are tigers.
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(e) None of these Conclusions:
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14. In which of the following combinations is the first person I. All puppies are kittens.
s
sitting between the second and the third person ? II. All tigers are puppies.
s
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(a) KMW (b) MWD 20. Statements: Some doctors are nurses.
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(c) RHT (d) TAK All nurses are patients.
(e) None of the above Conclusions:
15. In which of the following pairs is the second person sitting I. All doctors are patients.
to the immediate left of the first person ? II. Some patients are doctors.
(a) MW (b) AK DIRECTIONS (Qs.21-25) : Study the following information to
(c) TA (d) RH answer the given questions :
(e) WD Six plays A, B, C, D, E and F are to be staged on six days of the
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 16 - 20): In each question below, there are week starting from Monday and ending on Saturday. Play C is
three of two statements followed by two conclusions numbered staged on Tuesday. Plays A, F and B are staged one after the
I and II. You have to take the three given statements to be true other in the same order. Play D is not staged on Monday or
even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts Wednesday.
and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follow 21. How many plays are staged after play A is staged ?
from the three statements. (a) One (b) Two
Give answer (a) if only conclusion I follows. (c) Three (d) Four
Give answer (b) if only conclusion II follows. (e) Cannot be determined
Give answer (c) if either I or II follows. 22. Four of the following five form a group based on the days
Give answer (d) if neither I nor II follows. that they are staged. Which one of them does not belong to
Give answer (e) if both I and II follow. that group ?
16. Statements: (a) EC (b) FD
All fish are birds. (c) CA (d) AF
Some hens are fish. (e) BD
Conclusion: 23. Which play is staged immediately before the day play E is
I. Some hens are birds. staged ?
II. No birds are hens; (a) B (b) A
17. Statements: (c) F (d) D
Some shoes are coats. (e) There is no such play staged
Some coats are buttons 24. If play D was staged on a Monday, which of the following
Conclusions: plays would definitely be staged on a Saturday (all the other
I. No button is shoe. conditions given above remain the same) ?
II. Some shoes are buttons. (a) B (b) A
18. Statements: (c) E (d) E or B
All bats are boys. (e) Cannot be determined
All boys are gloves. 25. Which play is staged on Thursday ?
Conclusions: (a) B (b) E
I. Some gloves are bats. (c) D (d) F
II. All bats are gloves.. (e) Cannot be determined

b b b b b
GRID
23. a b c d e 24. a b c d e 25. a b c d e
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SPEED TEST 28 57
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DIRECTIONS (Qs.26-28) : In each question a group of letters is 30. Which of the following is an Assumption which is implicit in
b
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given followed by four combinations of number/symbol numbered the facts stated in the above paragraph
o
(a), (b), (c) and (d). Letters are to be coded as per the scheme and (a) Whatever you do you cannot protect yourself from
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conditions given below. You have to find out the serial number of fashion.
p
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the combination, which represents the letter group. Serial number (b) Fashion changes the outward appearance and makes
s
of that combination is your answer. If none of the combinations is one feel better.
s
.c
correct, your answer is (e) i.e. None of these. (c) Today's youth is highly influenced by fashion.
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(d) Normal clothing is good as it keeps a person grounded.
Letters Q M S I N G D K A L P R B J E (e) Fashion is spoiling the minds of the youngsters.
Number/ 7 @ 4 # % $ 6 1 2 5 * 9 8 3
Symbol
31. Which of the following is an Inference which can be made
from the facts stated in the above paragraph?
Conditions : (a) Moderate investment of time and money by youth is
(i) If the first letter is a consonant and the last a vowel, both are acceptable.
to be coded as the code of the vowel.
(b) Fashion brings with itself feelings of materialism.
(ii) If the first letter is vowel and the last a consonant, the codes
(c) All of us have to adopt ourselves to latest fashion to
for the first and the last are to be interchanged. some bit.
(iii) If no vowel is present in the group of letters, the second and (d) Fashion helps in projecting a better image of one's
the fifth letters are to be coded as . personality.
26. BARNIS (e) People who will avoid fashion completely will be
(a) 9 2 * % # 4 (b) 9 2 4 # * %
outdated.
(c) 9 2 * # % 9 (d) 4 2 * # % 4
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 32-35) % In the following questions, the symbols
(e) None of these
27. DMBNIA @, #, $, and % are used with the following meaning as illustrated
(a) 6 @ 9 % # 2 (b) 2 @ 9 % # 6 below :
(c) 2 @ 9 % # 6 (d) 2 9 % # 2 'P@ Q' means P is not smaller than Q,
(e) None of these 'P# Q' means P is not greater than Q.
28. IJBRLG
'P$ Q' means P is neither greater than nor equal to Q.
(a) # 8 9 * $ (b) # 8 9 * #
(c) $ 8 9 * # (d) $ 8 9 * $ 'P Q' means P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q.
(e) None of these 'P% Q' means P is neither smaller than nor greater than Q.
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 29-31) : Study the given information carefully Now in each of the following questions, assuming the given
and answer the questions that follow: statements to be true, find which of the two conclusions I
Though the waste of time or the expenditure on fashions is very and II given below them is/are definitely true.
large, yet fashions have come to stay. They will not go, come what Give answer (a) if only conclusion I is true.
may. However, what is now required is that strong efforts should Give answer (b) if onlyconclusion II is true.
be made to displace the excessive craze for fashion from the minds Give answer (c) if either conclusion I or conclusion II is true.
of these youngsters. Give answer (d) if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is
29. Which of the following is the conclusion which can be drawn true.
from the facts stated in the above paragraph? Give answer (e) if both conclusions I and II are true.
(a) Fashion is the need of the day. 32. Statements: % V $ W, W@T, T#H
(b) The excessive craze for fashion is detrimental to one's Conclusions: I. VT
personality. II. H%W
(c) The hoard for fashion should be done away with so as 33. Statements: H M, M @ E, E $ C
not to let down the constructive development.
Conclusions: I. C@M
(d) Work and other activities should be valued more than
the outward appearance. II. HE
(e) None of these

RESPONSE
GRID
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58 SPEED TEST 28
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34. Statements: N@J, J%R, RH 38. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement
b
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Conclusions: I. R#N each of which is immediately preceded by a number and
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immediately followed by a letter?
II. NH
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(a) None (b) One
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35. Statements: L@K, KA, A$W
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(c) Two (d) Three
Conclusions: I . W$L
s
(e) More than three
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II. L#W 39. If all the numbers are dropped from the above arrangement,
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DIRECTIONS (Qs. 36-40) : Study the following arrangement which of the following will be the eleventh from the left end?
carefully and answer the questions given below (a) B (b) H
D5 R@AK 3 9 B JE F$ MPI 4 H1W (c) $ (d)
6 2 # UQ8 T N (e) None of these
36. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement 40. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on
each of which is immediately preceded by a symbol and their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group.
immediately followed by a letter? Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(a) None (b) One (a) 41I (b) 6#W
(c) Two (d) Three (c) QTU (d) RA
(e) More than three (e) J9E
37. Which of the following is the ninth to the right of the twenty
second from the right end of the above arrangement ?
(a) E (b) I
(c) D (d) N
(e) None of these

RESPONSE
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NUMBER SYSTEM - I
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1. Which is the smallest of the following numbers ? 8. How many of the following numbers are divisible by 132 ?
264, 396, 4, 762, 792, 968, 2178, 5184, 6336
2 5 (a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 6
(a) (b) 1.5 (c)
3 3 (d) 7 (e) None of these
(d) 1.375 (e) None of these 9. Find the number which, when added to itself 13 times, gives
2. Three-fourth of 68 is less than two-thirds of 114 by 112.
(a) 12 (b) 25 (c) 35 (a) 9 (b) 7 (c) 8
3. If one-third of a number is 3 more than one -fourth of the 10. The smaller number by which 3600 can be divided to make it
number, then the number is : a perfect cube is :
(a) 18 (b) 24 (c) 30 (a) 9 (b) 50 (c) 300
4. Which is the smallest of the following numbers ? 11. The least number having four digits which is a perfect square
is :
1 7
(a) 7 (b) (c) (a) 1004 (b) 1016 (c) 1036
7 7 (d) 1226 (e) None of these
1 12. A positive integer, which added to 1000, gives a sum which is
(d) (e) None of these greater than the product obtained when it is multiplied by
7
1000. The positive integer is :
5. If one-eighth of a pencil is black, half of the remaining is (a) 1 (b) 5 (c) 2
yellow and the remaining 3 cm is blue, then the length of
2 3 2
13. Of the 120 people in the room, are women. If of the
the pencil is : 5 3
(a) 6 cm (b) 7 cm (c) 8 cm people are married, then what is the maximum number of
(d) 11 cm (e) None of these women in the room who are unmarried?
6. A boy was asked to write 25 9 2 but he wrote 2592. The (a) 40 (b) 50 (c) 60
numerical difference between the two is: (d) 80 (e) None of these
(a) 0 (b) 3 (c) 2 14. How many odd numbered pages are there in a book of 1089
(d) 9 (e) None of these pages ?
7. In a group of buffaloes and ducks, the number of legs are (a) 545 (b) 544 (c) 543
24 more than twice the number of heads. What is the number (d) 547 (e) None of these
of buffaloes in the group ? 15. If p is a prime number greater than 3, then (p 2 1) is always
(a) 6 (b) 12 (c) 8
divisible by :
(a) 6 but not 12 (b) 24 (c) 12 but not 24
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60 SPEED TEST 29
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16. A man has 1044 candles. After burning all of them he can 24. What is the least number to be added to 1500 to make it a
b
make a new candle from 9 stubs left behind. Find the maximum
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perfect square?
number of candles that can be made :
o
(a) 20 (b) 21 (c) 22
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(a) 116 (b) 120 (c) 130
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17. Find the whole number which when increased by 20 is equal 25. How many pieces of 8.6 metres length cloth can be cut out
s
of a length of 455.8 metres cloth?
s
to 69 times the reciprocal of the number:
.c
(a) 7 (b) 5 (c) 3 (a) 43 (b) 48 (c) 55
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(d) 2.5 (e) None of these (d) 53 (e) 62
18. A clock strikes 4 taking 9 seconds. In order to strike 12 at the 26. If an amount of ` 15,487 is divided equally among 76 students,
same rate, the time taken is approximately how much amount will each student get?
(a) 36 seconds (b) 27 seconds (c) 30 seconds (a) `206 (b) `210 (c) `204
(d) 33 seconds (e) None of these (d) `218 (e) `212
19. The sum of the place values of 3 in the number 50, 35, 35 is 27. The difference between a number and one fifth of it is 84.
(a) 3300 (b) 6 (c) 60 What is the number?
20. How many numbers are there between 500 and 600 in which (d) 108 (e) 112
9 occurs only once? 28. A, B, C, D and E are five consecutive odd numbers The sum
(a) 19 (b) 18 (c) 20 of A and C is 146. What is the value of E?
21. The product of two consecutive even numbers is 12768. (d) 79 (e) None of these
What is the greater number ? 29. The sum of five consecutive even numbers of set A is 280.
(a) 110 (b) 108 (c) 114 What is the sum of a different set B of five consecutive
numbers whose lowest number is 71 less than double the
lowest number of set A ?
22. The product of two consecutive odd numbers is 19043. (a) 182 (b) 165 (c) 172
Which is the smaller number? (d) 175 (e) None of these
(a) 137 (b) 131 (c) 133 30. Deepak has some hens and some goats. If the total number
(d) 129 (e) None of these of animal heads is 90 and the total number of animal feet is
23. The product of two successive numbers is 8556. What is the 248, what is the total number of goats Deepak has ?
smaller number? (a) 32 (b) 36 (c) 34
(a) 89 (b) 94 (c) 90 (d) Cannot be determined
(d) 92 (e) None of these (e) None of these

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NUMBER SYSTEM - II
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2 8. Given, n = 1 + x, where x is the product of four consecutive

1. Farah got married 8 years ago. Today her age is 1 times
7 integers. Then which of the following is true ?
her age at the time of her marriage. At present her daughter's A. n is an odd integer
age is one-sixth of her age. What was her daughter's age 3 B. n is prime.
years ago? C. n is a perfect square
(a) 6 years (b) 2 years (a) Both A and C are correct.
(c) 3 years (d) Cannot be determined (b) Both A and B are correct.
(e) None of these (c) Only A is correct
2. If (12)3 is subtracted from the square of a number the answer (d) Only C is correct
so obtained is 976. What is the number? (e) None of these
(a) 58 (b) 56 (c) 54
9. 9 6 7, when divided by 8, would have a remainder :
(a) 0 (b) 6 (c) 5
3. The cost of 5 chairs and 8 tables is ` 6,574. What is the cost
of 10 chairs and 16 tables?
(a) ` 15674 (b) ` 16435 (c) ` 13148 10. The remainder when 7 4 is divided by 342 is :
(d) Cannot be determined (a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 21
(e) None of these (d) 340 (e) None of these
4. If (56)2 is added to the square of a number, the answer so 11. Students of a class are preparing for a drill and are made to
obtained is 4985. What is the number? stands in a row. If 4 students are extra in a row, then there
(a) 52 (b) 43 (c) 65 would be 2 rows less. But there would be 4 more rows if 4
(d) 39 (e) None of these students are less in a row. The number of students in the
5. The units digit in the product 7 35 371 1155 is : class is :
(a) 96 (b) 56 (c) 69
(a) 1 (b) 3 (c) 7
6. If p be a number between 0 and 1, which one of the following 12. Three friends divided some bullets equally. After each of them
shot 4 bullets, the total number of bullets remaining is equal
will be true ?
to the bullets each had after division . Find the original number
1 of bullets:
(a) p> p (b) p
p2 (a) 15 (b) 17 (c) 20
1 13. If x and y are negative, then which of the following statements
(c) p (d) p3 p2 is/are always true ?
p
I. x + y is positive
(e) None of these
II. xy is positive
7. In a certain shop, 9 oranges cost as much as 5 apples, 5
III. x y is positive
apples cost as much as 3 mangoes, 4 mangoes cost as
(a) I only (b) II only (c) III only
much as 9 lemons. If 3 lemons cost 48 paise, the price of an
(d) I and II only (e) None of these
orange is :
14. A student was asked to divide a number by 6 and add 12 to
(a) 12 paise (b) 14 paise (c) 13 paise
the quotient. He, however, first added 12 to the number and
(d) 15 paise (e) None of these
then divided it by 6, getting 112 as the answer. The correct
answer should have been :
(a) 122 (b) 118 (c) 114
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62 SPEED TEST 30
b
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22. The letters L, M, N, O, P, Q, R, S and T in their order are
1
b
15. If Harry is rd the age of his father, George now, and was substituted by nine integers 1 to 9 but not in that order. 4 is
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3 assigned to P. The difference between P and T is 5. The
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1 difference between N and T is 3. What is the integer
th the age of his father 5 years ago, then how old will
p
assigned to N?
4
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(a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 6
s
George be 5 years from now ?
s
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(a) 20 years (b) 45 years (c) 40 years
23. A number when divided by 765 leaves a remainder 42. What
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(d) 50 years (e) None of these
m
will be the remainder if the number is divided by 17 ?
16. On Monday, a certain animal shelter housed 55 cats and
(a) 8 (b) 7 (c) 6
dogs. By Friday, exactly 1/5 of the cats and 1/4 of the dogs
had been adopted; no new cats or dogs were brought to the (d) 5 (e) None of these
shelter during this period. What is the greatest possible 24. If m and n are natural numbers such that 2m 2n = 960, what
number of pets that could have been adopted from the animal is the value of m ?
shelter between Monday and Friday ? (a) 10 (b) 12 (c) 16
(a) 11 (b) 12 (c) 13 (d) Cannot be determined
17. The number 6n2 + 6n, for any natural number n, is always 25. At the first stop on his route, a driver uploaded 2/5 of the
divisible by : packages in his van. After he uploaded another three
(a) 6 only (b) 18 only (c) 12 only packages at his next stop, 1/2 of the original number of
(d) 6 and 12 (e) None of these packages remained. How many packages were in the van
18. A bus starts from city X. The number of women in the bus is before the first delivery?
half of the number of men. In city Y, 10 men leave the bus and (a) 25 (b) 10 (c) 30
five women enter. Now, the number of men and women is (d) 36 (e) None of these
equal. In the beginning, how many passengers entered the 2
bus? 26. A divisor is of the dividend and 2 times the remainder If
3
(a) 15 (b) 30 (c) 36
the remainder is 75, then find the dividend.
19. In a class, there are 18 boys who are over 160 cm tall. If these (d) 65 (e) None of these
constitute three-fourths of the boys and the total number of 27. The quotient arising from the division of 24162 by a certain
boys is two-thirds of the total number of students in the number x is 89 and the remainder is 43. Find x.
class, then what is the number of girls in the class? (a) 271 (b) 281 (c) 261
(d) 24 (e) None of these 28. A boy multiplied a certain number x by 13. He found that the
20. In a family, a couple has a son and a daughter. The age of the resulting product consisted of all nines entirely. Find the
father is three times of his daughter and the age of the son is smallest value of x.
half of his mother. The wife is nine years younger to her (a) 76913 (b) 76933 (c) 76923
husband and the brother is seven years older than his sister. (d) 75933 (e) None of these
What is the age of the mother? 29. Find the units digit in the product (2467)153 (341)72.
(a) 40 years (b) 50 years (c) 45 years (a) 6 (b) 7 (c) 8
(d) 60 years (e) None of these (d) 9 (e) None of these
21. Soma purchases National Savings Certificates every year 30. What is the digit in the unit place of 251 ?
whose value exceeds the previous years purchase by Rs. (a) 2 (b) 8 (c) 1
400. After 8 years, she finds that she has purchased certificates (d) 4 (e) None of these
whose total face value is Rs. 48,000. What is the face value of
the certificates purchased by her in the first year ?
(a) Rs. 4,300 (b) Rs. 4,500 (c) Rs. 4,400
(d) Rs. 4,600 (e) None of these

30. a b c d e
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LCM, HCF AND FRACTION
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1. If the L.C.M and H.C.F. of two numbers are 2400 and 16, 8. Four runners started running simultaneously from a point on
one number is 480; find the second number. a circular track they took 200 sec, 300 sec, 360 sec and 450 sec
(a) 40 (b) 80 (c) 60 to complete one round, after how much time do they meet at
(d) 50 (e) None of these the starting point for the first time?
2. The L.C.M. of two number is 630 and their H.C.F. is 9. If the (a) 1800 sec (b) 3600 sec (c) 2400 sec
sum of numbers is 153, their difference is (d) 4800 sec (e) None of these
(a) 17 (b) 23 (c) 27 9. Philip, Tom and Brad start jogging around a circular field and
(d) 33 (e) None of these complete a single round in 18, 22 and 30 seconds respectively,
3. The H.C.F and L.C.M of two numbers are 21 and 4641 In how much time, will they meet again at the starting point ?
respectively. If one of the numbers lies between 200 and (a) 3 min 15 sec (b) 21 min
300, then the two numbers are (c) 16 min 30 sec (d) 12 min
(a) 273, 357 (b) 273, 361 (c) 273, 359 (e) None of these
(d) 273, 363 (e) None of these 10. The numbers 11284 and 7655, when divided by a certain
4. Suppose you have 108 green marbles and 144 red marbles. number of three digits, leave the same remainder. Find that
You decide to separate them into packages of equal number number of three digits.
of marbles. Find the maximum possible number of marbles (a) 161 (b) 171 (c) 181
in each package. (d) 191 (e) None of these
(a) 4 (b) 36 (c) 9 11. The LCM of two numbers is 2079 and their HCF is 27. if one of
(d) 12 (e) None of these the numbers is189, find the other.
5. One pendulum ticks 57 times in 58 seconds and another (a) 273 (b) 279 (c) 297
608 times in 609 seconds. If they started simultaneously, (d) 307 (e) None of these
find the time after which they will tick together. 12. Find the least number which, when divided by 18, 24, 30 and
42, will leave in each case the same remainder 1.
211 1217 1218 (a) 2521 (b) 2556 (c) 2456
(a) s (b) s (c) s
19 19 19 (d) 2473 (e) None of these
1018
13. The HCF and LCM of two numbers are 44 and 264 respectively.
(d) s (e) None of these If the first number is divided by 2, the quotient is 44. What is
19
the other number?
6. From 3 drums of milk, 279, 341 and 465 respectively are to (a) 108 (b) 44 (c) 124
be drawn out. To do it in a minimum time, the capacity of (d) 132 (e) None of these
the measuring can be 14. The product of two number is 2160 and their HCF is 12. Find
(a) 271 (b) 61 (c) 111 the possible pairs of numbers.
7. Product of two co-prime numbers is 117. Their L.C.M. should (d) 4 (e) None of these
be: 15. Three bells toll at intervals of 9, 12 and 15 minutes respectively.
(a) 1 (b) 117 All the three begin to toll at 8 a.m. At what time will they toll
(c) equal to their H.C.F. together again?
(d) cannot be calculated (a) 8.45 a.m. (b) 10. 30 a.m. (c) 11.00 a.m.
(e) None of these (d) 1. 30 p.m. (e) None of these
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64 SPEED TEST 31
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16. Four metal rods of lengths 78 cm, 104 cm, 117 cm and 169 cm 31
b
21 31
are to be cut into parts of equal length. Each part must be as (a) (b) (c)
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long as possible. What is the maximum number of pieces 38 38 48
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that can be cut? 17
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(a) 27 (b) 36 (c) 43
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(d) 400 (e) 402
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17. The LCM and HCF of two numbers are 84 and 21, respectively.
s
9 2 8 5
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24. If the fractions , , , are arranged in ascending
If the ratio of two numbers be 1 : 4, then the larger of the two 13 3 11 7
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numbers is : order, then the correct sequence is :
(a) 21 (b) 48 (c) 84
(d) 108 (e) None of these 9 2 8 5 2 9 5 8
(a) , , , (b) , , ,
18. Which of the following pair of fractions adds up to a number 13 3 11 7 3 13 7 11
greater than 5 ?
2 8 5 9 5 8 2 9
13 11 11 8 7 11 (c) , , , (d) , , ,
(a) , (b) , (c) , 3 11 7 13 7 11 3 13
5 6 4 3 3 5 (e) None of these
5 3 25. If the numerator and the denominator of a proper fraction are
(d) , (e) None of these increased by the same quantity, then the resulting fraction is:
3 4
(a) always greater than the original fraction
19. Which of the following fractions is the least ? (b) always less than the original fraction
12 1 4 (c) always equal to the original fraction
(a) (b) (c) (d) Cant be determined
119 10 39
(e) None of these
7 26. If x is a positive number, then which of the following fraction
69 has the greatest value ?
4 x ( x 1) x
2 (a) (b) (c)
20. Which of the following is not the reciprocal of ? x x ( x 1)
3
( x 2)
3
4
2
4 4 (d) (e) None of these
3 (x 3)
(a) (b) (c)
2 3 2 27. Four bells begin to toll together and toll respectively at in-
4 tervals of 6, 5, 7, 10 and 12 seconds. How many times they
3 will toll together in one hour excluding the one at the start ?
24 (a) 7 times (b) 8 times (c) 9 times
21. A certain type of wooden board is sold only in lengths of (d) 11 times (e) None of these
multiples of 25 cm from 2 to 10 metres. A carpenter needs a 28. HCF of 3240, 3600 and a third number is 36 and their LCM is
large quantity of this type of boards in 1.65 meter length. For
the minimum waste, the lengths to be purchased should be: 2 4 35 5 2 7 2 . The third number is :
(a) 3.30 m (b) 6.60 m (c) 8.25 m (a) 2 4 53 7 2 (b) 2 2 35 7 2
(d) 9.95 m (e) None of these
22. Which of the following group of fractions is arranged in (c) 2 3 35 7 2 (d) 25 52 7 2
ascending order ? (e) None of these
29. The LCM of two numbers is 4800 and their HCF is 160. If one
5 7 6 7 6 5
(a) , , (b) , , of the numbers is 480, then the other number is :
16 18 17 18 17 16 (a) 16 (b) 16000 (c) 160
5 6 7 6 7 5 (d) 1600 (e) None of these
(c) , , (d) , , 30. The traffic lights at three different road crossings change
16 17 18 17 18 16
after every 48 seconds, 72 seconds and 108 seconds
(e) None of these respectively. If they all change simultaneously at 8 : 20 hours,
23. What is the least fraction which, when added to or subtracted then at what time will they again change simultaneously ?
29 15 (a) 8 : 20 : 08 hrs (b) 8 : 24 : 10 hrs
from , will make the result a whole number ? (c) 8 : 27 : 12 hrs (d) 8 : 30 : 15 hrs
12 16
(e) None of these

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32
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SQUARE, CUBE, INDICES & SURDS
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DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-25): What should come in place of the 9. 3 6859 ? 4

question mark (?) in the following questions? (a) 26 (b) 25 (c) 23
1. 1190 7225 ? 3094
10. 7 447 21 73 26 ?
(a) 221 (b) 121 (c) 214
2
2. 5 1 ? 2 5 ? 15 4 40
11.
25 2
(a) 6 (b) 6 2 5 (c) 6 5 (a) 20 (b) 45 (c) 25
(d) 6 2 5 (e) None of these (d) 50 (e) None of these
12. 2
656 164 ?
? 25
3. 11 3 18 (a) 14 (b) 16 (c) 64
36
(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 5 2
(d) 6 (e) None of these 13. 255 17 5 ?
4. 12 145 6 34 ? (a) 9 (b) 3 (c) 3

(a) 18 (b) (324)2 (c) 18 (d) 27 (e) 81
14. (32 42 5) 36 = (?)2 80
(a) (100)2 (b) 10 (c) 100
5. 2 2 2 (d) 10 (e) None of these
13 5 676 7 ?
2
(a) 10 (b) 20 (c) 5 15. 6 1 ? 2 6
(d) (25)2 (e) 5 5 (a) 7 (b) 6 (c) 4 6 7

2 2 (d) 4 6 (e) None of these
6. 16 53 169 ?
16. 12 184 23 26 73 ?
(a) (12)2 (b) 144 (c) 12
(a) (b) 2 (c) 7
(d) (144)2 (e) None of these 7 7
2
(d) (49)2 (e) None of these
7. 225 2304 ? 12
17. 2 3 2
13 4 676 2 ?
(a) 205 (b) 207 (c) 206
(d) 27 (e) 18
8. 450 890 685 ?
18. 74 676 42 ? 496
(a) 43 (b) 45 (c) 55

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66 SPEED TEST 32
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19. 30. A gardener plants 34969 mango trees in his garden and
97344 ?
b
arranges them so that there are so many rows as there are
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(a) 302 (b) 322 (c) 292
mango trees in each row. The number of rows is
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(a) 187 (b) 176 (c) 169
p
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20. 2 392 21 8 7
s
DIRECTIONS (Q. 31-40): What will come in place of question
s
(a) 4 (b) 4 (c) 12
.c
mark (?) in the following questions?
(d) 2 (e) 6
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31. 93 812 273 = (3)?
21. 7365 + (5.4)2 + ? = 7437.16
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5
3 5 2 ?
3? 32. 9 81 27 3
22. 756 67 804
(a) 195112 (b) 250047 (c) 226981 (a) 5 (b) 4 (c) 7
33. 81.1 42.7 23.3 = 2?
23. 17 51 51 289 ? (a) 7.1 (b) 14 (c) 0.5
(a) 3 (b) 5 (c) 8
34. (49)3 (7)2 = ?
(a) 2401 (b) 49 (c) 343
24. 217 52 12 ? (d) 7 (e) None of these
(a) 18 (b) 16 (c) 12 35. 643.1 84.3 = 8?
(d) 15 (e) 10 (a) 10.5 (b) 7.4 (c) 1.2
25. 10201 3136 ? 36. 87 26 82.4 = 8?
(a) 45 (b) 42 (c) 46 (a) 10.6 (b) 9.6 (c) 8.6
(d) 49 (e) None of these (d) 6.6 (e) None of these
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 26-30): What approximate value will come in 37. (31)31 (31) 27 = ?
place of the question mark (?) in the following questions? (You are (a) (961)2 (b) 4 (c) (31)2
not expected to calculate the exact value.) (d) 29791 (e) None of these
26. If 21025 145 , then the value of 210.25 2.1025 ? 2 2
12
(a) 0.1595 (b) 1.595 (c) 159.5 38. ?
(d) 15.95 (e) None of these 2 2
12
27. What is the least number to be added to 2000 to make it a
perfect square? 12
(a) 12 (b) 4.8 (c)
(a) 25 (b) 64 (c) 36 144
28. If (22)3 is subtracted from the square of a number, the answer 39. 64 362 216 = 6(?)
so obtained is 9516. What is the number? (a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5
(d) 136 (e) None of these 6 3 ?
29. If the square of a number is subtracted from 4052 and the 40. 8 64 84 8
difference is multiplied by 15, the answer so obtained is
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5
41340. What is the number?
(a) 36 (b) 1024 (c) 32

39. a b c d e 40. a b c d e
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SIMPLIFICATION
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8. (78700 1748) + (3.79 121.24) = ?
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1 to 12) : What will come in place of qustions
mark (?) in the following questions? (a) 305 (b) 415
1. 19.99 9.9 + 99.9 = ? (c) 525 (d) 635
(a) 129. 79 (b) 297. 801 (e) 745
(c) 1009 (d) 296.91 9. 3 4 6560
6080 74000 ?
(e) None of these
2. 456.675 + 35.7683 67.909 58.876 = ? (a) 30 (b) 80
(a) 33382 (b) 3587 (c) 130 (d) 170
(c) 1540 (d) 2756 (e) 210
(e) 2830
1 2 3
3. {(52)2 + (45)2} ? = 8 10. of of of 1715 ?
(a) 611.345 (b) 487.225 8 3 5
(c) 591.125 (d) 372.425 (a) 80 (b) 85
(e) None of these (c) 90 (d) 95
4. (12.25)2 625 = ? (e) 75
11. 561 35.05 19.99 = ?
(a) 235.1625 (b) 125.0625
(a) 320 (b) 330
(c) 375.2625 (d) 465.3625 (c) 315 (d) 325
(e) None of these (e) 335
5. 572 + 38 0.50 16 = ? 12. (15.01)2 730 ?
(a) 289 (b) 305 (a) 6125 (b) 6225
(c) 448 (d) 565 (c) 6200 (d) 6075
DIRECTIONS (13-20): What will come in place of the question
3 2 11 mark (?) in the following questions?
6. ? 1056
7 5 13 13. (3325 25) (152 16) = ?
(a) 1269.4 (b) 1264.9
(a) 7280 (b) 7296
(c) 1265.3 (d) 1263.5
(c) 7308 (d) 7316 (e) None of these
(e) 7324
1 2 2
14. 5 2 3 ?
7. 6138 3 17576 = ? 9 5 15 3
(a) 15 (b) 13
(a) 676 (b) 729
11
(c) 784 (d) 841 (c) (d) 12
15
(e) 961
(e) None of these

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68 SPEED TEST 33
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15. 15 27 88 63 + 255 = ?
b
23. ? 11 1521
(a) 55 (b) 74
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(c) 62 (d) 59 (b) (28)2
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(a) 2500
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(e) None of these
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16. (2525 0.25 5) 7 = ? (c) 28 (d) 50
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(a) 889.43 (b) 883.75
s
(e) None of these
s
(c) 886.45 (d) 881.75
.c
(e) None of these 24. 8059 7263 ? 40
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14 57 20 (a) 19.9 (b) 18.7
17. ? (c) 15.9 (d) 17.7
19 70 21
(e) None of these
2 4
(a) (b) 25. 4 ? 4062 5
7 7
(a) 203.1 (b) 213.1
2 3 (c) 205.1 (d) 215.1
(c) (d)
9 7 (e) None of these
(e) None of these
18. 32% of 500 + 162% of 50 = ? 26. 3.5 80 2.5 ?
(a) 231 (b) 245 (a) 122 (b) 111
(c) 237 (d) 247
(c) 222 (d) 212
(e) None of these
19. 45316 + 52131 65229 = ? + 15151 (e) None of these
(a) 17063 (b) 17073 27. 13% of 258 ? = 10
(c) 17076 (d) 17067 (a) 23.45 (b) 24.53
(e) None of these (c) 23.54 (d) 24.35
20. ?
23 of 400 4 3 5
28. 2 ?
(a) 7 (b) 9 5 4 8
(c) 8 (d) 5
(e) None of these 12 12
(a) 4 (b) 1
21. What will come in place of both the question marks (?) in 35 35
the following question ?
11 13
(?) 4 / 3 28 (c) 2 (d) 3
35 25
32 ? /3
5
(e) None of these
(a) 16 (b) 12 29. 623.15 218.82 321.43 = ?
(c) 18 (d) 14
(a) 89.2 (b) 82.2
(e) None of these
(c) 89.9 (d) 79.2
22. 16% of 450 ? % of 250 = 4.8 (e) None of these
(a) 12 (b) 6 30. 5437 3153 + 2284 = ? 50
(c) 4 (d) 10 (a) 96.66 (b) 91.36
(e) None of these (c) 96.13 (d) 93. 16
(e) None of these

RESPONSE
GRID
30. a b c d e
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AVERAGE
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1. The average of five numbers is 281. The average of the first 8. The average of 5 consecutive numbers A, B, C, D and E is 48.
two numbers is 280 and the average of the last two numbers What is the product of A and E?
is 178.5. What is the third number ? (a) 2162 (b) 2208
(a) 488 (b) 336 (c) 2024 (d) 2800
(e) None of these 9. If the value of 16a + 16b = 672, what is the average of a and b?
2. The average age of 3 friends is 32 years. If the age of a (a) 44 (b) 21
fourth friend is added, their average age comes to 31 years. (c) 24 (d) 42
What is the age of the fourth friend ? (e) None of these
(a) 32 years (b) 28 years
10. The sum of five numbers is 290. The average of the first two
(c) 24 years (d) 26 years
numbers is 48.5 and the average of last two numbers is 53.5.
(e) None of these
What is the third number?
3. Find the average of the following set of scores.
(a) 72 (b) 84
965, 362, 189, 248, 461, 825, 524, 234
(c) 96 (d) 108
(a) 476 (b) 504 (e) None of these
(c) 461 (d) 524 11. The average age of the family of five members is 24. If the
(e) None of these present age of youngest member is 8 yr, then what was the
4. If the value of 21a + 21b=1134, what is the average of a+b? average age of the family at the time of the birth of the youngest
(a) 29 (b) 27 member ?
(c) 58 (d) 54 (a) 20 yr (b) 16 yr (c) 12 yr
(e) None of these (d) 18 yr (e) 21 yr
5. Out of three given numbers, the first number is twice the 12. The average of four consecutive odd numbers is 36. What is
second and thrice the third. If the average of the three num- the smallest of these numbers ?
bers is 154, what is the difference between the first and the (a) 31 (b) 35 (c) 43
third number? (d) 47 (e) None of these
(a) 126 (b) 42 13. Average score of Rahul, Manish and Suresh is 63. Rahuls
(c) 166 (d) 52 score is 15 less than Ajay and 10 more than Manish. If Ajay
(e) None of these scored 30 marks more than the average scores of Rahul,
1 Manish and Suresh, what is the sum of Manishs and Sureshs
6. Average weight of three boys P, T and R is 54 kgs while scores ?
3
the average weight of three boys, T, F and G is 53 kgs. What (a) 120 (b) 111
is the average weight of P, T, R, F and G? (c) 117 (d) Cannot be determined
(a) 53.8kgs (b) 52.4kgs (e) None of these
(c) 53.2kgs (d) Cannot be determined 14. The total marks obtained by a student in physics, Chemistry
(e) None of these and Mathematics together is 120 more than the marks obtained
7. Find the average of the following set of scores by him in Chemistry. What are the average marks obtained by
221, 231, 441, 359, 665, 525 him in Physics and Mathematics together ?
(a) 399 (b) 428 (a) 60 (b) 120
(c) 40 (d) Cannot be determined
(e) None of these


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70 SPEED TEST 34
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15. A man drives to his office at 60 km/hr and returns home 23. The average of three numbers is 135. The largest number is
b
along the same route 30 km/hr. Find the average speed. 180 and the difference between the others is 25. The small-
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(a) 50 km/hr (b) 45 km/hr (c) 40 km/hr est number is :
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(d) 55 km/hr (e) None of these (a) 130 (b) 125 (c) 120
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16. A cricketer has completed 10 innings and his average is 21.5 (d) 100 (e) None of these
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runs. How many runs must he make in his next innings so as 24. There are 30 student in a class. The average age of the first
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to raise his average to 24? 10 students is 12.5 years. The average age of the next 20
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(a) 69 (b) 59 (c) 49 students is 13.1 years. The average age of the whole class
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(d) 39 (e) None of these is:
17. One-third of a certain journey is covered at th rate of 25 km / (a) 12.5 years (b) 12.7 years (c) 12.8 years
hr, one-fourth at the rate of 30 km / hr and the rest at 50 km / (d) 12.9 years (e) None of these
hr. Find the average speed for the whole journey. 25. The weight in kilograms of 10 students are 52, 45, 31, 35, 40,
1 1 1 55, 60, 38, 44, 36. If 44 is replaced by 46 and 40 is replaced by
(a) 33 km / hr (b) 44 km / hr (c) 33 km/ hr 35, then the new median will be :
3 4 5 (a) 42 (b) 40.5 (c) 40
1 (d) 41.5 (e) None of these
(d) 44 km / hr (e) None of these 26. The average (arithmetic mean) of x and y is 40. If z = 10, then
5
18. The average salary of all the workers in a workshop is what is the average of x, y and z ?
` 8,000. The average salary of 7 technicians is `12,000 and (a) 16
2
(b) 30 (c) 25
the average salary of the rest is Rs 6,000. The total number 3
of workers in the workshop is : 1
2
27. The average of 11 numbers is 10.9. If the average of the first
19. A batsman makes a scores of 98 runs in his 19th inning and
six numbers is 10.5 and that of the last six numbers is 11.4,
thus increases his average by 4. What is his average after
then the middle number is :
19th inning ?
(a) 11.5 (b) 11.4 (c) 11.3
(a) 22 (b) 24 (c) 28
28. The average of 10 numbers is 40.2. Later it is found that two
20. The average weight of 45 students in a class is 52 kg. 5 of
numbers have been wrongly copied. The first is 18 greater
them whose average weight is 48 kg leave the class and
than the actual number and the second number added is 13
other 5 students whose average weight is 54 kg join the
class. What is the new average weight (in kg) of the class ? instead of 31. Find the correct average.
(a) 40.2 (b) 40.4 (c) 40.6
2 1 (d) 40.8 (e) None of these
(a) 52.6 (b) 52 (c) 52
3 3 29. Last year, a Home Appliance Store sold an average (arithmetic
(d) 62.5 (e) None of these mean) of 42 microwave ovens per month. In the first 10
21. The batting average of 40 innings of a cricket player is 50 months of this year, the store has sold an average (arithmetic
runs. His highest score exceeds his lowest score by 172 mean) of only 20 microwave ovens per month. What was the
runs. If these two innings are excluded, the average of the average number of microwave ovens sold per month during
remaining 38 innings is 48. His highest score was : the entire 22 months period ?
(a) 172 (b) 173 (c) 174 (a) 21 (b) 30 (c) 31
22. A car owner buys petrol at Rs 7.50, Rs 8.00 and Rs 8.50 per 30. The average temperature for the first four days of a week is
litre for three successive years. What approximately is his 40.2C and that of the last four days is 41.3C. If the average
average cost per litre of petrol if he spends Rs 4000 each temperature for the whole week is 40.6C, then the tempera-
year ? ture on the fourth day is :
(a) Rs 8 (b) Rs 9 (c) Rs 7.98 (a) 40.8C (b) 38.5C (c) 41.3C
(d) Rs 8.50 (e) None of these (d) 41.8C (e) None of these
GRID 30. a b c d e
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PERCENTAGE
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9. 36% of 245 40% of 210 = 10 ?
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-18): What should come in place of the
question mark (?) in the following questions? (a) 4.2 (b) 6.8 (c) 4.9
1. 76% of 1285 = 35% of 1256 + ?
(a) 543 (b) 537 (c) 547 1
10. of 3842 + 15% of ? = 24499
(d) 533 (e) None of these 2
2. (21.5% of 999)1/3 + (43% of 601)1/2 = ? (a) 3520 (b) 3250 (c) 3350
(a) 18 (b) 22 (c) 26
(d) 30 (e) 33 11. 57% of 394 2.5% of 996 = ?
3. 64.5% of 800 + 36.4% of 1500 = (?)2 + 38 (a) 215 (b) 175 (c) 200
(d) 180 (e) 205
(a) 32 (b) 38 (c) 42
(d) 48 (e) 34 12. 40% of 265 + 35% of 180 = 50% of ?
4. 41% of 601 250.17 = ? 77% of 910 (a) 338 (b) 84.5 (c) 253.5
(a) 800 (b) 500 (c) 700
(d) 650 (e) 550 1 1
13. 4 3 ? = 20% of 120
5. 40.005% of 439.998 + ?% of 655.011 = 228.5 5 3
(a) 8 (b) 17 (c) 12
(d) 20 (e) 5 1
(a) 10 (b) 10 (c) 5
15
6. 25% of 84 24% of 85 = ?
(a) 424.2 (b) 488.4 (c) 482.8
14. 14% of 250 ? % of 150 = 840
(a) 15 (b) 18 (c) 16
7. 20.06% of 599 + 10.01% of 901 = ?
(a) 150 (b) 210 (c) 250
15. 18% of 609 + 27.5% of 450 = ?
(d) 280 (e) 300
(a) 220 (b) 233 (c) 267
8. 14.2% of 5500 + 15.6% of ? = 1795
(d) 248 (e) 274
(a) 6500 (b) 6200 (c) 5600

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72 SPEED TEST 35
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16. 125% of 3060 85% of ? = 408 (a) 700 (b) 730
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(a) 3890 (b) 3940 (c) 4020 (c) 745 (d) 765
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(e) None of these
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17. If x% of 500 = y% of 300 and x% of y% of 200 = 60, then x = ? 24. The population of a town is 198000. It increases by 7% in the
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(a) 10 2 (b) 20 2 (c) 15 2 1st year and decreases by 5% in the 2nd year. What is the
s
population of the town at the end of 2 years?
s
(d) 30 2 (e) None of these
.c
(a) 211860 (b) 201267
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18. 185% of 400 + 35% of 240 = ? % of 1648
m
(c) 222453 (d) 198900
(a) 85 (b) 75 (c) 125
25. Bovina spent ` 44,668 on her air tickets, ` 56,732 on buying
2 gifts for the family members and the remaining 22% of the
19. What is 25% of 50% of rd of 630 ?
3 total amount she had as cash with her. What was the total
(a) 36.5 (b) 52.5 (c) 45.5 amount?
(d) 68.5 (e) None of these (a) ` 28]600 (b) ` 1]30]000
20. There are 1225 employees in an organization, out of which (c) ` 1]01]400 (d) ` 33]800
40% got transferred to different places. How many such (e) None of these
employees got transferred ?
26. Rubina decided to donate 16% of her monthly salary to an
(a) 540 (b) 490
NGO. On the day of donation she changed her mind and
(c) 630 (d) 710 donated ` 6,567 which was 75% of what she had decided
(e) None of these earlier. How much is Rubinas monthly salary?
21. If the numerator of a fraction is increased by 500% and the (a) ` 8]756 (b) ` 54]725
denominator is increased by 300%, the resultant fraction (c) ` 6]56]700 (d) ` 45]696
4 (e) None of these
is 2 . What was the original fraction?
7 27. In a college election between two candidates, one candidate
4 12 got 55% of the total valid votes. 15% of the votes were
(a) (b) invalid. If the total votes were 15,200, what is the number of
7 7 valid votes the other candidate got ?
15 6 (a) 7106 (b) 6840
(c) (d)
4 5 (c) 8360 (d) 5814
22. If the numerator of a fraction is increased by 250% and the 28. If the radius of a circle is diminished by 10%, the area is
decreased by
7 (a) 36% (b) 20% (c) 19% (d) 10%
denominator is increased by 300%, the resultant fraction is .
9 (e) None of these
What is the original fraction ? 29. If As salary is 25% higher than Bs salary, then how much
7 per cent is Bs salary lower than As ?
8
(a) (b)
11 8 1 1
(a) 16 % (b) 20% (c) 25% (d) 33 %
3 3
8 7
(c) (d) (e) None of these
9 11
30. A reduction of 20% in the price of an apple enable a man to
(e) None of these buy 10 apple more for ` 54. The reduced price of apple per
23. In an examination it is required to get 40% of the aggregate dozen is
marks to pass. A student gets 261 marks and is declared failed (a) ` 4.32 (b) ` 12.96
by 4% marks. What are the maximum aggregate marks a (c) ` 10.80 (d) ` 14.40
student can get? (e) None of these

RESPONSE
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RATIO & PROPORTION
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1. The total number of students in a school is 819. If the number (a) 10 years (b) 15 years
of girls in the school is 364, then what is the respective ratio (c) 24 years (d) Cannot be determined
of the total number of boys to the total number of girls in the
(e) None of these
school ?
8. In a college the students in Arts and Commerce faculties were
(a) 26 : 25 (b) 21 : 17
in the ratio of 4 : 5 respectively. When 65 more students joined
(c) 18 : 13 (d) 5 : 4 Commerce faculty the ratio became 8 : 11. How many students
(e) None of these are there in Arts faculty?
2. If a dividend of ` 57,834 is to be divided among Meena, (a) 520 (b) 650
Urmila and Vaishali in the proportion of 3:2:1, find Urmila's (c) 715 (d) Cannot be determined
share.
(e) None of these
(a) ` 19,281 (b) ` 17,350
9- The ratio between the boys and girls in a class is 6 : 5. If 8 more
(c) ` 23,133 (d) ` 19,278 boys join the class and two girls leave the class then the ratio
(e) None of these becomes 11 : 7. What is the number of boys in the class now?
3. The ratio of the ages of Richa and Shelly is 5 : 8. The ratio of (a) 28 (b) 38
their ages 10 years hence would be 7:10. What is the present
(c) 44 (d) 36
age of Shelly?
(e) None of these
(a) 45years (b) 40years
10. At present Meena is eight times her daughter's age. Eight
(c) 35years (d) 30years
years from now, the ratio of the ages of Meena and her
(e) 25years daughter will be 10 : 3. What is Meena's present age ?
4. A sum of money is to be divided equally amongst A, B, and (a) 32 years (b) 40 years
C in the respective ratio of 3:4:5 and another sum of money
(c) 36 years (d) Cannot be determined
is to be divided between E and F equally. If F got `1050 less
than A, how much amount did B receive? (e) None of these
(a) ` 750 (b) ` 2000 11. The ratio of the ages of a father and son is 17 : 7. 6 years ago
the ratio of their ages was 3 : 1 . What is the fathers present
(c) ` 1500 (d) Cannot be determined
age?
(e) None of these
(a) 64 (b) 51
5. The average age of a woman and her daughter is 42 years.
The ratio of their ages is 2:1. What is the daughter's age? (c) 48 (d) Cannot be determined
(a) 28 years (b) 48 years (e) None of these
(c) 52 years (d) 32 years 12. The ratio of the money with Rita an Sita is 7 : 15 and that with
Sita and Kavita is 7 : 16. If Rita has ` 490, how much money
(e) None of these
does Kavita have?
6. The difference between the present ages of Arun and Deepak
(a) 1050 (b) 2200 (c) 2400
is 14 years. Seven years ago the ratio of their ages was 5 : 7
respectively. What is Deepaks present age?
13. In two alloys, the ratio of iron and copper is 4 : 3 and 6 : 1,
respectively. If 14 kg of the first alloy and 42 kg of the second
(c) 63 years (d) 35 years alloy is mixed together to form a new alloy, then what will be
(e) None of these the ratio of iron to copper in the new alloy ?
7. Ratio of Ranis and Komals age is 3 : 5. Ratio of Komals and (a) 11 : 3 (b) 11 : 8 (c) 8 : 1
Poojas age is 2 : 3. If Rani is two-fifth Poojas age, what is (d) 3 : 11 (e) None of these
Ranis age?

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74 SPEED TEST 36
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23. An amount of money is to be distributed among P, Q and R
1 1 1
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: : and its in the ratio 3 : 1 : 5. The difference between Qs and Rs share
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14. The sides of a triangle are in the ratio
2 3 4 is Rs 3600. What is the total of Ps and Qs share ?
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perimeter is 104 cm. The length of the longest side is:
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(a) Rs 5400 (b) Rs 3600 (c) Rs 2700
(a) 52 cm (b) 48 cm (c) 32 cm
p
(d) Rs 1800 (e) None of these
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(d) 26 cm (e) None of these 24. Mrs. X spends Rs 535 in purchasing some shirts and ties for
s
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15. The ratio of two numbers is 4 : 7. If each of these numbers her husband. If shirts cost Rs 43 each and the ties cost Rs 21
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increases by 30, their ratio will become 5 : 8 . What is the each, then what is the ratio of the shirts to the ties, that are
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average of these two numbers? purchased ?
(a) 135 (b) 145 (c) 155 (a) 1 : 2 (b) 2 : 1 (c) 2 : 3
(d) 165 (e) 175 (d) 3 : 4 (e) None of these
1 2 3 25. If a : b = 2 : 5, then the value of (2a 3b) : (7a 5b) is :
16. If ` 782 be divided into three part, proportional to : : ,
2 3 4
then the first part is : 19 99 31
(a) (b) (c)
(a) ` 182 (b) ` 190 (c) ` 196 39 13 19
(d) ` 204 (e) None of these
19
3 (d) (e) None of these
17. The scale of map is of cm = 1 km. If the distance on the 31
4
map between two towns is 60 cm, then the actual distance is 26. If two numbers are in the ratio 6 : 13 and their least common
multiple is 312, then the sum of the numbers is :
(a) 60 km (b) 80 km (c) 75 km
(d) 50 km (e) None of these (a) 75 (b) 57 (c) 76
A B C
18. If A : B : C = 2 : 3 : 4, then : : is equal to : 5a 3b 23
B C A 27. If , then the value of a : b is :
2a 3b 5
(a) 4 : 9 : 16 (b) 8 : 9 : 12 (c) 8 : 9 : 16
(d) 8 : 9 : 24 (e) None of these (a) 2 : 1 (b) 1 : 4 (c) 1 : 2
(d) 4 : 1 (e) None of these
19. The average age of three boys is 25 years and their ages are
in the proportion 3: 5 : 7. The age of the youngest boy is: 28. A bag contains Rs 216 in the form of one rupee, 50 paise and
25 paise coins in the ratio of 2 : 3 : 4. The number of 50 paise
(a) 21 years (b) 18 years (c) 15 years
coins is :
(a) 96 (b) 144 (c) 114
20. The income of A and B are in the ratio 3 : 2 and expenses are
in the ratio 5 : 3. If both save ` 200, what is the income of A?
29. The ages of two persons are in the ratio of 5 : 7. Sixteen years
(a) ` 1000 (b) ` 1200 (c) ` 1500
ago, their ages were in the ratio of 3: 5. Their present ages
are:
21. ` 750 is distributed among A, B and C such that
(a) 30 years and 44 years
As share : Bs share = 2 : 3 and Bs share: Cs share = 6 : 5.
(b) 35 years and 52 years
The share of A is,
(c) 40 years and 56 years
(a) ` 150 (b) ` 175 (c) ` 200
(d) ` 250 (e) None of these (d) 45 years and 60 years
22. Two number are in the ratio 5 : 4 and their difference is 10. (e) None of these
What is the larger number ? 30. In a mixture of 28 litres, the ratio of milk and water is 5 : 2.
(a) 30 (b) 40 (c) 50 Another 2 litres of water is added to the mixture. The ratio of
(d) 60 (e) None of these milk and water in the new mixture is:
(a) 1: 1 (b) 2: 1 (c) 3: 1
(d) 4: 1 (e) None of these

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ALLIGATION AND MIXTURE
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1. One litre of water was mixed to 3 litres of sugar. Solution 8. An alloy contains copper and zinc in the ratio 5 : 3 and another
containing 4% of sugar. What is the percentage of sugar in alloy contains copper and tin in the ratio 8 : 5. If equal weights
the solution? of both the alloys are melted together, then the weight of tin
(a) 3 (b) 4 in the resulting alloy per kg will be:
(c) 6 (d) Insuffficient data
26 5 7
(e) None of these (a) (b) (c)
5 26 40
2. A trader mixes 80 kg of tea at ` 15 per kg with 20 kg of tea at
cost price of ` 20 per kg. In order to earn a profit of 25%, 40
what should be the sale price of the mixed tea? (d) (e) None of these
7
(a) ` 23.75 (b) ` 22 (c) ` 20
9. The ratio of milk and water in 55 litres of adulterated milk is
(d) ` 19.20 (e) None of these
7 : 4. How much water must be added to make the mixtures
3. Alcohol cost ` 3.50 per litre and kerosene oil cost ` 2.50 per ratio 7 : 6?
litre. In what proportion these should be mixed so that the
(a) 5 lt (b) 10 lt (c) 15 lt
resulting mixture may be ` 2.75 per litre?
(d) 25 lt (e) None of these
(a) 2 : 5 (b) 1 : 3 (c) 4 : 7
10. A and B are two alloys of gold and copper prepared by mixing
metals in the ratio 7 : 2 and 7 : 11 respectively. If equal
4. Pure milk costs ` 3.60 per litre. A milkman adds water to 25 quantities of the alloys are melted to form a third alloy C, then
litres of pure milk and sells the mixture at ` 3 per litre. How the ratio of gold and copper in alloy C will be
many litres of water does he add?
(a) 5 : 7 (b) 5 : 9 (c) 7 : 5
(a) 2 litres (b) 5 litres (c) 7 litres (d) 9 : 5 (e) None of these
(d) 11 litres (e) None of these
11. Sameer bought 10 kg of tea at ` 45 per kg and 8 kg at ` 50 per
5. In what ratio must water be mixed with milk to gain 20% by kg. He mixed both the brands and sold it at a total profit of `
selling the mixture at cost price? 32. What was the selling price per kg of the mixture?
(a) 1 : 3 (b) 1 : 5 (c) 1 : 7 (a) ` 48 (b) ` 50 (c) ` 49
(d) 1 : 10 (e) None of these (d) ` 47 (e) None of these
6. A chemist has 10 litres of a solution that is 10 per cent nitric 12. How many litres of pure alcohol must be added to 10 litres of
acid by volume. He wants to dilute the solution to 4 per mixture which is 15% alcohol to make a mixture which will be
cent strength by adding water. How many litres of water 25% alcohol?
must he add ?
(a) 15 (b) 20 (c) 18 5 5 3
(a) (b) (c)
(d) 25 (e) None of these 4 2 4
2 4
7. In what ratio must water be mixed with milk to gain 16 % (d) (e) None of these
3 3
on selling the mixture at cost price?
(a) 1 : 6 (b) 6 : 1 (c) 2 : 3

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76 SPEED TEST 37
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13. How many kg of custard powder costing ` 40 per kg must be 20. If 50% of a 2 : 3 solution of milk and water is replaced with
b
mixed with 16 kg of custard powder costing ` 55 per kg so
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water, then the concentration of the solution is reduced by:
that 25% may be gained by selling the mixture at ` 60 per kg? (a) 25% (b) 33.33% (c) 50%
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(a) 11 kg (b) 14 kg (c) 12 kg (d) 75% (e) None of these
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(d) 20 kg (e) None of these 21. In a mixture of 45 litres, the ratio of milk and water is 3 : 2.
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14. 300 gm of sugar solution has 40% sugar in it. How much
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How much water must be added to make the ratio 9 : 11?
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sugar should be added to make it 50% in the solution? (a) 10 litres (b) 15 litres (c) 17 litres
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(a) 40 gm (b) 50 gm (c) 60 gm (d) 20 litres (e) None of these
m
(d) 70 gm (e) None of these 22. Three containers A, B and C are having mixtures of milk and
15. Gold is 19 times as heavy as copper 9 times. In what ratio water in the ratio 1 : 5, 3 : 5 and 5 : 7, respectively. If the
should these metals be mixed so that the Gold may be 15 capacities of the containers are in the ratio 5 : 4 : 5, then find
times as heavy as copper ? the ratio of the milk to the water if the mixtures of all the three
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 3 : 2 (c) 2 : 3 containers are mixed together.
(d) 4 : 5 (e) None of these (a) 51 : 115 (b) 52 : 115 (c) 53 : 115
16. In a mixture of 60 litres, the ratio of milk to water is 2 : 1. If the (d) 54 : 115 (e) None of these
ratio of milk to water is to be 1 : 2, then amount of water to be 23. Five litres of water is added to a certain quantity of pure milk
further added is ___________. costing Rs. 3 per litre. If by selling the mixture at the same
(a) 20 (b) 40 (c) 60 price as before, a profit of 20% is made, then what is the
(d) 80 (e) None of these amount of pure milk in the mixture ?
17. In a mixture of milk and water the proportion of water by (a) 20 litres (b) 30 litres (c) 25 litres
weight was 75%. If in 60 gm of mixture 15 gm water was (d) 35 litres (e) None of these
added, what would be the percentage of water? (Weight in
24. How many kg of tea worth Rs 25 per kg must be blended
gm)
with 30 kg of tea worth Rs 30 per kg so that by selling the
(a) 75% (b) 88% (c) 90%
blended variety at Rs 30 per kg there should be a gain of
(d) 100% (e) None of these
10%?
18. In what ratio must tea at Rs. 62 per kg be mixed with tea at
(a) 32 kg (b) 40 kg (c) 36 kg
Rs. 72 per kg so that the mixture must be worth Rs. 64.50 per
kg? (d) 42 kg (e) None of these
(a) 3 : 1 (b) 3 : 2 (c) 4 : 3 25. How many kg of sugar costing Rs 5.75 per kg should be
(d) 5 : 3 (e) None of these mixed with 75 kg of cheaper sugar costing Rs 4.50 per kg so
19. Two vessels A and B contain spirit and water mixed in the that the mixture is worth Rs 5.50 per kg ?
ratio 5 : 2 and 7 : 6 respectively. Find the ratio in which these (a) 350 kg (b) 300 kg (c) 250 kg
mixture be mixed to obtain a new mixture in vessel C contain- (d) 325 kg (e) None of these
ing spirit and water in the ratio 8 : 5 ?
(a) 4 : 3 (b) 3 : 4 (c) 5 : 6

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PROFIT, LOSS & DISCOUNT
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1. If the cost price is 96% of the selling price, then what is the 9. A man buys milk at Rs 6 per litre and adds one third of water
profit percent? to it and sells mixture at Rs 7.20 per litre. The gain is
(a) 4.5% (b) 4.2% (c) 4% (a) 40% (b) 80% (c) 60%
(d) 3.8% (e) None of these (d) 25% (e) None of these
2. If the manufacturer gains 10%, the wholesale dealer 15% 10. A dishonest fruit seller professes to sell his goods at the cost
and the retailer 25%, then find the cost of production of a price but weighs 800 grams for a kg weight. Find his gain
table, the retail price of which is ` 1265? percent.
(a) ` 800 (b) ` 1000 (c) ` 900 (a) 100% (b) 150% (c) 50%
(d) ` 600 (e) None of these (d) 200% (e) None of these
1 11. Two electronic musical instruments were purchased for
3. A man sold his book for Rs 891, thereby gaining of its ` 8000. The first was sold at a profit of 40% and the second at
10
loss of 40%. If the sale price was the same in both the cases,
cost price. Find his cost price.
what was the cost price of two electronic musical instruments?
(a) ` 850 (b) ` 810 (c) ` 851
(a) ` 2000, ` 5000 (b) ` 2200, ` 5500
(c) ` 2400, ` 5000 (d) ` 2400, ` 5600
4. A man buys 50 pencils for Rs 100 and sells 45 pencils for
` 90. Find his gain or loss %. (e) None of these
12. A tradesman is marketing his goods 20% above the cost price
(a) 20% (b) 35% (c) 25%
of the goods. He gives 10% discount on cash payment, find
(d) No gain or loss (e) None of these
his gain percent.
5. A dealer sold a mixer for ` 420 at a loss of 12.5%. At what
(a) 12% (b) 8% (c) 15%
price should he have sold it to gain 12.5%.
(a) ` 620 (b) ` 540 (c) ` 650
13. A man sells his car for ` 5000 and loses something. Had he
sold it for ` 5600, his gain would have been double the former
6. A man sold 10 eggs for 5 rupees and gained 20%.How loss. Find the cost price.
many eggs did he buy for 5 rupees?
(a) ` 5500 (b) ` 5100 (c) ` 5400
(a) 10 eggs (b) 12 eggs (c) 14 eggs
(d) 16 eggs (e) None of these
14. John sold a fan at a loss of 7%. If he had sold it for ` 48 more,
7. Coconuts were purchased at ` 150 per hundred and sold at he would have gained 5%. Find the cost price of the fan.
` 2 per coconut. If 2000 coconuts were sold, what was the
(a) ` 350 (b) ` 480 (c) ` 240
total profit made?
(a) ` 500 (b) ` 1000 (c) ` 1500
15. The owner of an electronics shop charges his customer 22%
more than the cost price. If a customer paid ` 10,980 for a
8. A shopkeepers price is 50% above the cost price. If he
DVD player, then what was the cost price of the DVD player?
allows his customer a discount of 30% what profit does he
make? (a) ` 8000 (b) ` 8800 (c) ` 9500
(a) 5% (b) 10% (c) 15% (d) ` 9200 (e) None of these

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78 SPEED TEST 38
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16- Cost of 24 bats and 32 sticks is `5,600. What is the price of 24. If the cost of 12 pencils is equal to the selling price of 10
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pencils, the profit percent in the transaction is :
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3 bats and 4 sticks?
(a) ` 1,400 (b) ` 2,800
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(a) 16 % (b) 22 % (c) 20%
(c) ` 700 (d) Cannot be determined 3 2
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(e) None of these (d) 25% (e) None of these
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17. The profit earned after selling an article for ` 1,754 is the
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25. Two motor cars were sold for Rs 9,900 each, gaining 10% on
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same as loss incurr ed after selling the article for one and losing 10% on the other. The gain or loss percent in
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` 1,492. What is the cost price of the article? the whole transaction is :
(a) ` 1,623 (b) ` 1,523 (c) ` 1,689 (a) Neither loss no gain
(d) ` 1,589 (e) None of these 1 100
18. Prathik sold a music system to Karthik at 20% gain and Karthik (b) % gain (c) % profit
99 99
sold it to Swasthik at 40% gain. If Swasthik paid `10,500 for
(d) 1% loss (e) None of these
the music system, what amount did Prathik pay for the same?
26. The retail price of a water geyser is Rs 1265. If the
(a) ` 8,240 (b) ` 7,500 (c) ` 6,250 manufacturer gains 10%, the wholesale dealer gains 15%
(d) Cannot be determined and the retailer gains 25%, then the cost of the geyser is :
(e) None of these (a) Rs 800 (b) Rs 900 (c) Rs 550
19. The cost of 5 pendants and 8 chains is ` 1,45,785. What (d) Rs 650 (e) None of these
would be the cost of 15 pendants and 24 chains? 27. A man buys a watch for Rs. 1950 in cash and sells it for Rs.
(a) ` 3,25,285 (b) ` 4,39,355 2200 on credit of 1 year. If the rate of interest is 10% per
(c) ` 5,50,000 (d) Cannot be determined annum, then the man
(e) None of these (a) Gains Rs. 55 (b) Gains Rs. 50
20. What price should a shopkeeper mark on an article costing (c) Loses Rs. 30 (d) Gains Rs. 30
him Rs 153 to gain 20% after allowing a discount of 15% ? (e) None of these
(a) Rs 162 (b) Rs 621 (c) Rs 216 28. A shopkeeper marks up his goods to gain 35%. But he allows
(d) Rs 226 (e) None of these 10% discount for cash payment. His profit on the cash
21. Three successive discounts of 10%, 12% and 15% amount transaction in percentage, is
to a single discount of :
1 1
(a) 36.28 % (b) 34.68% (c) 37 % (a) 13 (b) 25 (c) 21
(d) 38% (e) None of these 2 2
22. A machine is sold at a profit of 10%. Had it been sold for Rs 1
80 less, there would have been a loss of 10%. The cost price (d) 31 (e) None of these
2
of the machine is : 29. A man sold two steel chairs for Rs. 500 each. On one he
(a) Rs 350 (b) Rs 400 (c) Rs 450 gains 20% and on other, he loses 12%. How much does he
(d) Rs 520 (e) None of these gain or lose in the whole transaction?
23. If selling price is doubled then, the profit triples. What is (a) 1.5% gain (b) 2% gain (c) 1.5% loss
profit per cent : (d) 2% loss (e) None of these
2 1 30. By selling 12 notebooks, the seller earns a profit equal to the
(a) 66 (b) 100 (c) 33 selling price of two notebooks. What is his percentage
3 3
profit?
2
(a) 25% (b) 20% (c) 16 %
3
(d) Data inadequate
(e) None of these

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SIMPLE INTEREST
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1. Ms. Sandhya deposits an amount of ` 31,400 to obtain a 8. What total amount would Mithilesh get at the end of three
simple interest at the rate of 12 per cent per annum for 8 years if he invests an amount of ` 11200 in a scheme, which
years. What total amount will Ms. Sandhya get at the end offers simple interest 8.5% per annum for three years ?
of 8 years? (a) ` 14056 (b) ` 14348 (c) ` 13852
(a) ` 31,444 (b) ` 61,544 (c) ` 41,544 (d) ` 15064 (e) None of these
(d) ` 31,144 (e) None of these 9. A sum of Rs. 2600 is lent out in two parts in such a way that
2. Mr. Deepak invested an amount of ` 21,250 for 6 years. At the interest on one part at 10% for 5 years is equal to that on
what rate of simple interest will he obtain the total amount the other part at 9% for 6 years. The sum lent out at 10% is
of ` 26,350 at the end of 6 years? ________ .
(a) 6 % p.a (b) 5 % p.a (c) 8 % p.a (a) 1250 (b) 1350 (c) 1450
(d) 12 % p.a (e) None of these (d) 1550 (e) 1650
3. Asmita invests an amount of ` 9535 at the rate of 4 per cent 10. At a certain rate of simple interest, a certain sum doubles
per annum to obtain a total amount of ` 11442 on simple itself in 10 years. It will treble itself in years ________ .
interest after a certain period. For how many year did she (a) 10 (b) 20 (c) 25
invest the amount to obtain the total sum? (d) 30 (e) 45
(a) 10 years (b) 2 years (c) 5 years 11. A sum of money at simple interest amounts to ` 600 in 4 years
(d) 4 years (e) None of these and ` 650 in 6 years. Find the rate of interest per annum.
4. Girish invested a certain amount at the rate of 8% p.a. for 6 (a) 3% (b) 5% (c) 9%
year to obtain an amount of ` 28,046. How much amount (d) 10% (e) 15%
did Girish obtain as simple interest? 12. A person lent at certain sum of money at 4% simple interest;
(a) `12,550 (b) `9,096 (c) `18,950 and in 8 years the interest amounted to ` 340 less than the
(d) Cannot be determined sum lent. Find the sum lent.
5. Mr. Anuraag Awasthi deposits an amount of ` 56500 to (d) 1500 (e) 1700
obtain a simple interest at the rate of 12% p.a. for 3 years. 1
What total amount will Mr. Anuraag Awasthi get at the end 13. In what time will ` 72 become ` 81 at 6 % p.a. simple interest?
4
of 3 year ?
(a) 1 year 6 months (b) 2 years (c) 1 years
(a) `75680 (b) `77540 (c) `76840
1
(d) `73420 (e) None of these (d) 2
years (e) None of these
6. Veena obtained an amount of ` 8, 376/- as simple interest 2
on a certain amount at 8% p.a. after 6 years. What is the 14. A sum of money lent out at simple interest amounts to
amount invested by Veena? ` 1008 in 2 years and ` 1164 in 3 years. Find the rate % p.a.
(a) ` 17,180 (b) ` 18,110 (c) ` 16,660 1
(d) ` 17,450 (e) None of these (a) 13% (b) 14% (c) 12 %
2
7. The simple interest accrued on a sum of certain principal is
` 2000 in five years at the rate of 4% per annum. What
would be the compound interest accrued on same principal 15. A sum of money lent out at simple interest amounts to ` 720
at same rate in two years ? after 2 years and to ` 1,020 after a further period of 5 years.
(a) ` 716 (b) ` 724 (c) ` 824 Find the sum and the rate %.
(d) ` 816 (e) None of these (a) ` 500, 10% (b) ` 600, 10% (c) ` 500, 12%
(d) ` 600, 12% (e) None of these

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80 SPEED TEST 39
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16. A sum of ` 2500 TS lent out in two parts. One at 12% p.a. and 24. Nitin borrowed some money at the rate of 6% p.a. for the
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another at 12.5% p.a. for one year. If the total annual Income first three years, 9% p.a. for the next five years and 13% p.a.
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is ` 306. The money lent at 12% is for the period beyond eight years If the total interest paid by
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(a) 1000 (b) 1200 (c) 1500 him at the end of eleven years is ` 8160, how much money
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(d) 1300 (e) None of these did he borrow?
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17. A sum was put at simple interest at a certain rate for 4 years (a) ` 8000 (b) ` 10,000 (c) ` 12,000
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Had it been put at 2% higher rate, it would have fetched ` 56 (d) Data inadequate (e) None of these
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more. Find the sum. 25. An automobile financier claims to be lending money at simple
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(a) ` 500 (b) ` 600 (c) ` 700 interest, but he includes the interest every six months for
(d) ` 800 (e) None of these calculating the principal. If he is charging an interest of 10%,
18. The simple interest on ` 200 for 7 months at 5 paise per the effective rate of interest becomes :
rupee per month is (a) 10% (b) 10.25% (c) 10.5%
(a) ` 70 (b) ` 7 (c) ` 35 (d) Data inadequate (e) None of these
(d) ` 30.50 (e) None of these 26. A lent ` 5000 to B for 2 years and ` 3000 to C for 4 years on
19. A father left a will of ` 68,000 to be divided between his two simple interest at the same rate of interest and received
sons aged 10 years and 12 years such that they may get ` 2200 in all from both of them as interest. The rate of interest
equal amount when each attains the age of 18 years If the per annum is:
money is reckoned at 10% p.a., find how much each gets at 1
the time of the will. (a) 5% (b) 7% (c) 7 %
8
(a) ` 30,000, ` 38,000 (b) ` 28,000, ` 40,000
(c) ` 32,000, ` 36,000 (d) cannot be determined. (d) 10% (e) None of these
(e) None of these 27. The rates of simple interest in two banks A and B are in the
20. In how many minimum number of complete years, the interest ratio 5 : 4. A person wants to deposit his total savings in two
on ` 212.50 P at 3% per annum will be in exact number of banks in such a way that he received equal half-yearly
rupees? interest from both. He should deposit the savings in banks
(a) 6 (b) 8 (c) 9 A and B in the ratio.
(a) 2 : 5 (b) 4 : 5 (c) 5 : 2
21. What annual instalment will discharge a debt of ` 4,200 due
in 5 years at 10% simple interest? 28. If a certain sum of money becomes double at simple interest
(a) ` 500 per year (b) ` 600 per year in 12 years, what would be the rate of interest per annum ?
(c) ` 700 per year (d) ` 800 per year 1
(a) 8 (b) 10 (c) 12
(e) None of these 3
22. A certain amount earns simple interest of ` 1750 after 7 years (d) 14 (e) None of these
Had the interest been 2% more, how much more interest 29. Two equal sums were borrowed at 8% simple interest per
would it have earned? annum for 2 years and 3 years, respectively. The difference
(a) ` 35 (b) ` 245 (c) ` 350 in the interests was Rs 56. The difference in the interests
(d) Cannot be determined was Rs 56. The sum borrowed were :
(e) None of these (a) Rs 690 (b) Rs 700 (c) Rs 740
23. What will be the ratio of simple interest earned by certain (d) Rs 780 (e) None of these
amount at the same rate of interest for 6 years and that for 30. How much interest will Rs 10,000 earn in 9 months at an
9 years? annual rate of 6 percent ?
(a) 1 : 3 (b) 1 : 4 (c) 2 : 3 (a) Rs 450 (b) Rs 460 (c) Rs 475
(d) Data inadequate (e) None of these (d) Rs 600 (e) None of these

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COMPOUND INTEREST
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1. Sudhanshu invested ` 15,000 at interest @ 10% p.a for one 7. Rohit invested some amount at the rate of 6 pcpa and at the
year. If the interest is compounded every six months what end of 3 yr he got ` 8730 simple interest. How much compound
amount will Sudhanshu get at the end of the year? interest he will get on same amount and same rate of interest
(a) ` 16,537.50 (b) ` 16,5000 after 2 yr.
(c) ` 16,525.50 (d) ` 18,150 (a) ` 5820 (b) ` 5949.60 (c) ` 5900
(e) None of these (d) ` 5994.60 (e) None of these
2. What would be the compound interest obtained on an 8. Sonika invested an amount of ` 5800 for 2 years. At what rate
amount of ` 1,250 at the rate of 8% p.a. after 2 year ? of compound interest will she get an amount of ` 594.5 at the
end of two years ?
(a) ` 200 (b) ` 208 (c) `212
(a) 5 p.c.p.a. (b) 4 p.c.p.a. (c) 6 p.c.p.a.
(d) `220 (e) None of these (d) 8 p.c.p.a. (e) None of these
3. Shyam invests an amount of ` 5,690 at the rate of 5 per cent 9. What would be the compound interest accrued on an amount
per annum for 3 years. What approximate amount of of ` 7400 @ 13.5 p.c.p.a. at the end of two years ?
compound interest will he obtain at the end of 3 years? (Rounded off to two digits after decimal)
(a) ` 854 (b) ` 799 (c) ` 843 (a) ` 2136.87 (b) ` 2306.81 (c) ` 2032.18
(d) ` 787 (e) ` 897 (d) ` 2132.87 (e) None of these
4. The simple interest accrued on an amount of ` 84,000 at the 10. If the compound interest accrued on an amount of ` 14500 in
end of three year is ` 30,240. What would be the compound two years is ` 4676.25, what is the rate of interest p.c.p.a ?
interest accrued on the same amount at the same rate in the (a) 11 (b) 9 (c) 15
same period? (d) 18 (e) None of these
(a) ` 30,013.95 (b) ` 31,013.95 11. What will be the compound interest accrued on an amount of
(c) ` 32,013.95 (d) ` 33,013.95 ` 10000 @ per annum in two years if the interest is 20%
(e) ` 34,013-95 compounded half-yearly ?
5. What will be the difference between the compound interest (a) ` 4400 (b) ` 4600 (c) ` 4641
and simple interest at the rate of 5% p.a. on an amount of (d) ` 4680 (e) None of these
` 4,000 at the end of two years? 12. What will be the difference between the simple interest and
(a) ` 10 (b) ` 20 compound interest earned on a sum of ` 985.00 at the rate of
(c) ` 30 (d) Data inadequate 14% per annum at the end of two years ?
(e) None of these (a) ` 16.408 (b) ` 14.214 (c) ` 19.218
6. Pamela invested an amount of ` 35,000 for two year at the (d) ` 17.405 (e) None of these
rate of 5% p.a. What amount of compound interest would 13. A sum of money at compound interest amounts in two years
she receive at the end of two year ? to ` 2809, and in three years to ` 2977.54. Find the rate of
(a) ` 3587.50 (b) ` 3500 (c) ` 3580.50 interest and the original sum.
(d) ` 3565.50 (e) None of these (a) 2000 (b) 2100 (c) 2200
(d) 2500 (e) 3000

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82 SPEED TEST 40
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14. In what time will 6250 amount to ` 6632.55 at 4 p.c. compound 20. A sum of money invested at compound interest amounts in
b
interest payable half-yearly? 3 years to Rs 2,400 and in 4 years to Rs. 2,520. The interest
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(a) (b) (c) (a) 6% (b) 5% (c) 10%
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5 9 21. A computer is available for Rs. 39,000 cash or Rs. 17,000 as
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(d) (e) cash down payment followed by five monthly installments
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of Rs. 4,800 each. What is the rate of interest under the
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15. If the simple interest on a certain sum of money for 3 years at
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instalment plan ?
5% is ` 150, find the corresponding CI.
(a) 35.71% p.a. (b) 37.71% p.a.
(a) 197 (b) 157.62 (c) 137.36
(c) 36.71% p.a. (d) 38.71% p.a.
(d) 117.17 (e) 127.34
16. A sum of money becomes eight times in 3 years if the rate is (e) None of these
compounded annually. In how much time, the same amount 22. Under the Rural Housing Scheme, the Delhi Development
at the same compound interest rate will become sixteen times? Authority (DDA) allotted a house to Kamal Raj for Rs.
(a) 6 years (b) 4 years (c) 8 years 1,26,100. This payment is to be made in three equal annual
(d) 5 years (e) None of these instalments. If the money is reckoned at 5% per annum
17. The difference between the simple interest and the compound compound interest, then how much is to be paid by Kamal
interest compounded annually at the rate of 12% per annum Raj in each instalment ?
on Rs 5000 for two years will be : (a) Rs. 45,205 (b) Rs. 47,405 (c) Rs. 46,305
(a) Rs 47.50 (b) Rs 63 (c) Rs 45 (d) Rs. 48,505 (e) None of these
(d) Rs 72 (e) None of these 23. A finance company declares that, at a certain compound
18. Rahul borrowed a certain sum from Dhawan at a certain rate interest rate, a sum of money deposited by anyone will
of simple interest for 2 years. He lent this sum to Ramesh at become 8 times in three years. If the same amount is deposited
the same rate of interest compounded annually for the same at the same compound rate of interest, then in how many
period. At the end of two years, he received Rs 4200 as year will it become 16 times ?
compound interest but paid Rs 4000 only as simple interest. (a) 5 years (b) 4 years (c) 6 years
Find the rate of interest. (d) 7 years (e) None of these
(a) 12% (b) 25% (c) 35% 24. Seema invested an amount of Rs. 16,000 for two years on
(d) 10% (e) None of these compound interest and received an amount of Rs. 17,640 on
19. What will Rs 1000 be worth after three years if it earns interest maturity. What is the rate of interest ?
at the rate of 5% compounded annually ? (a) 5 % pa (b) 8 % pa
(a) Rs 1075 (b) Rs 1257 (c) Rs 1157 (c) 4 % pa (d) Data inadequate
(d) Rs 1300 (e) None of these (e) None of these
25. Two friends A and B jointly lent out Rs. 81,600 at 4% per
annum compound interest. After 2 years A gets the same
amount as B gets after 3 years. The investment made by B
was
(a) Rs. 40,000 (b) Rs. 30,000 (c) Rs. 45,000
(d) Rs. 38,000 (e) None of these

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DISTANCE, SPEED AND TIME
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1. How many seconds will a train 60 m in length, travelling at 8. A 200 meter long train crosses a platform double its length in
the rate of 42 km an hour, rate to pass another train 84 m 36 seconds. What is the speed of the train in km/hr ?
long, proceeding in the same direction at the rate of 30 km (a) 60 (b) 48 (c) 64
an hour?
(a) 42 (b) 43.2 (c) 45
9. A 160 meter long train running at a speed of 90 km/h crosses
a platform in 18 seconds. What is the length of the platform in
(d) 50 (e) None of these meters?
2. A train takes 5 seconds to pass an electric pole. If the length
of the train is 120 metres, the time taken by it to cross a (a) 210 (b) 240 (c) 290
railway platform 180 metres long is _______ seconds. (d) 310 (e) None of these
(a) 12.5 (b) 13.5 (c) 14.5 10. Excluding the stoppages, the speed of a bus is 64 km/hr and
including the stoppages the speed of the bus is 48 km/hr. For
how many minutes does the bus stop per hour?
3. A train is running at the rate of 40 kmph. A man is also (a) 12.5 minutes (b) 15 minutes (c) 10 minutes
going in the same direction parallel to the train at the speed (d) 18 minutes (e) None of these
of 25 kmph. If the train crosses the man in 48 seconds, the 11. The ratio between the speed of a train and a car is 18 : 13 .
length of the train is _______ metres. Also, a bus covered a distance of 480 kms. in 12 hours. The
(a) 100 (b) 150 (c) 200 speed of the bus is five-ninth the speed of the train. How
(d) 250 (e) None of these much distance will the car cover in 5 hours ?
4. A train speeds past a pole in 15 seconds and speeds past a (a) 250 km. (b) 280 km.
platform 100 metres long in 25 seconds. Its length in metres (c) 260 km. (d) Cannot be determined
is ________ . (e) None of these
(a) 50 (b) 100 (c) 150 12. A 300 meter long train moving with an average speed of 126
(d) 200 (e) None of these km/hr crosses a platform in 24 seconds. A man crosses the
5. A bus covers a distance of 2,924 km in 43 hours. What is same platform in 5 minutes. What is the speed of the man in
the speed of the bus? meters/second
(a) 72 kmph (b) 60kmph (a) 1.8 m/s (b) 1.2 m/s
(c) 68kmph (d) Cannot be determined (c) 1.5 m/s (d) Cannot be determined
6. A bus travels at the speed of 49 kmph and reaches its 13. A bike covers a certain distance at the speed of 64 km/hr in 8
destination in 7 hours. What is the distance covered by the hours. If a bike was to cover the same distance in
bus? approximately 6 hours, at what approximate speed should the
(a) 343 km (b) 283 km (c) 353 km bike travel?
(d) 245 km (e) 340 km (a) 80 km./hr. (b) 85 km/hr. (c) 90 km./hr.
7. Nilesh goes to school from his village & returns at the (d) 75 km/hr. (e) 70 km./hr
speed of 4 km/hr. If he takes 6 hours in all, then what is the
distance between the village and the school?
(a) 6 km (b) 5 km
(c) 4 km (d) Cannot be determined
(e) None of these

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b
meters ahead of him. After 20 seconds the bus is 60 meters travelled 5 km/h faster, it would have done the journey in 6
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behind. The speed of the bus is : hours 40 minutes. Find its original speed.
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(a) 36 kmph (b) 20 m/sec. (c) 72 m/sec. (a) 25 km/h (b) 40 km/h (c) 45 km/h
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(d) 18 kmph (e) None of these (d) 36.5 km/h (e) None of these
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15. Two trains 100 meters and 120 meters long are running in the 24. A car travels 25 km an hour faster than a bus for a journey of
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same direction with speeds of 72 km/h and 54 km/h. In how 500 km. If the bus takes 10 hours more than the car, then the
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much time will the first train cross the second? speeds of the bus and the car are
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(a) 50 sec (b) 44 sec (c) 38 sec (a) 25 km/h and 40 km/h respectively
(d) 42 sec (e) None of these (b) 25 km/h and 60 km/h respectively
16. A man covers a certain distance on a scooter. If the scooter (c) 25 km/h and 50 km/h respectively
moved 4 km/h faster, it would take 30 minutes less. If it moved (d) Cannot be determined
2 km/h slower, it would have taken 20 minutes more. Find the (e) None of these
distance. 25. A thief goes away with a Maruti car at a speed of 40 km/h.
(a) 60 km (b) 58 km (c) 55 km The theft has been discovered after half an hour and the
(d) 50 km (e) None of these owner sets off in another car at 50 km/h. When will the owner
17. A boat running downstream covers a distance of 16 km in 2 overtake the thief from the start.
hours while for covering the same distance upstream, it takes 1
4 hours. What is the speed of the boat in still water? (a) 2 hours (b) 2 hr 20 min
2
(a) 4 km/h (b) 6 km/h (c) 1 hr 45 min (d) Cannot be determined
(c) 8 km/h (d) Data inadequate (e) None of these
(e) None of these 26. In a flight of 600 km, an aircraft was slowed down due to bad
18. In a 800 m race around a stadium having the circumference weather. Its average speed for the trip was reduced by 200
of 200 m, the top runner meets the last runner on the 5th km/ hr and the time of flight increased by 30 minutes. The
minute of the race. If the top runner runs at twice the speed duration of the flight is:
of the last runner, what is the time taken by the top runner to (a) 1 hours (b) 2 hours (c) 3 hours
finish the race ?
(d) 4 hours (e) None of these
(a) 20 min (b) 15 min (c) 10 min
27. A train covers 180 km distance in 4 hours. Another train
(d) 5 min (e) None of these
covers the same distance in 1 hour less. What is the difference
19. A long distance runner runs 9 laps of a 400 meters track
in the distances covered by these trains in one hour ?
everyday. His timings (in minutes) for four consecutive days
(a) 45 km (b) 9 km (c) 40 km
are 88, 96, 89 and 87 resplectively. On an average, how many
(d) 25 km (e) None of these
meters/minute does the runner cover ?
28. The jogging track in a sports complex is 726 metres in
(a) 40 m/min (b) 45 m/min (c) 38 m/min
circumference. Pradeep and his wife start from the same point
(d) 49 m/min (e) None of these
and walk in opposite directions at 4.5 km/h and 3.75 km/h,
20. A cyclist covers a distance of 750 m in 2 min 30 sec. What is respectively. They will meet for the first time in :
the speed in km/h of the cyclist ? (a) 5.5 min (b) 6.0 min (c) 5.28 min
(a) 18 km/h (b) 15 km/h (c) 20 km/h (d) 4.9 min (e) None of these
(d) 22 km/h (e) None of these 29. The speed of a boat in still water is 15 km/h and the rate of
21. An aeroplane flies along the four sides of a square at the stream is 5 km/h. The distance travelled downstream in 24
speeds of 200, 400, 600 and 800 km/h. Find the average speed minutes is
of the plane around the field. (a) 4 km (b) 8 km (c) 6 km
(a) 384 km/h (b) 370 km/h (c) 368 km/h (d) 16 km (e) None of these
(d) 378 km/h (e) None of these 30. A man makes his upward journey at 16 km/h and downward
22. R and S start walking each other at 10 AM at the speeds of journey at 28 km/h. What is his average speed ?
3 km/h and 4 km/h respectively. They were initially 17.5 km (a) 32 km/h (b) 56 km/h (c) 20.36 km/h
apart. At what time do they meet? (d) 22 km/h (e) None of these
(a) 2 : 30 PM (b) 11 : 30 AM (c) 1 : 30 PM
(d) 12 : 30 PM (e) None of these
29. a b c d e 30. a b c d e
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TIME AND WORK / PIPE AND CISTERN
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1. A can complete a piece of work in 12 days. A and B together 7. Sunil and Pradeep can complete a work in 5 days and 15 days
can complete the same piece of work in 8 days. In how many respectively. They both work for one day and then Sunil
days can B alone complete the same piece of work? leaves. In how many days will the remaining work be completed
by Pradeep ?
(a) 15 days (b) 18 days (c) 24 days
(d) 28 days (e) None of these (d) 8 days (e) None of these
2. George takes 8 hours to copy a 50 page manuscript while 8. If 6 men and 8 boys can do a piece of work in 10 days while 26
Sonia can copy the same manuscript in 6 hours. How many men and 48 boys can do the same in 2 days, the time taken by
hours would it take them to copy a 100 page manuscript, if 15 men and 20 boys in doing the same work will be:
they work together ? (a) 4 days (b) 5 days (c) 6 days
6 5 (d) 7 days (e) None of these
(a) 6 (b) 9 (c) 9 9. 12 men complete a work in 9 days. After they have worked for
7 7
6 days, 6 more men join them. How many days will they take to
complete the remaining work?
3. A can finish a work in 18 days and B can do the same work
in half the time taken by A. Then, working together, what
(d) 5 days (e) None of these
part of the same work can they finish in a day?
10. A and B can do a job in 16 days and 12 days respectively. B
1 1 2 has started the work alone 4 days before finishing the job, A
(a) (b) (c) joins B. How many days has B worked alone?
6 9 5
2
(d) (e) None of these (d) 7 days (e) None of these
7 11. Three taps A, B and C can fill a tank in 12, 15 and 20 hours
4. A and B can finish a work in 10 days while B and C can do it respectively. If A is open all the time and B and C are open for
in 18 days. A started the work, worked for 5 days, then B one hour each alternately, then the tank will be full in :
worked for 10 days and the remaining work was finished by
2
C in 15 days. In how many days could C alone have finished (a) 6 hrs. (b) 6 hrs. (c) 7 hrs.
the whole work ? 3
(a) 30 days (b) 15 days (c) 45 days 1
(d) 7 hrs. (e) None of these
(d) 24 days (e) None of these 2
5. Two pipes A and B can fill a cistern in 10 and 15 minutes 12. Two pipes A and B when working alone can fill a tank in 36
respectively. Both fill pipes are opened together, but at the min. and 45 min. respectively. A waste pipe C can empty the
end of 3 minutes, B is turned off. How much time will the tank in 30 min. First A and B are opened. After 7 min., C is also
cistern take to fill ? opened. In how much time will the tank be full ?
(a) 6 min (b) 8 min (c) 10 min (a) 1/60 (b) 1/30 (c) 7/20
(d) 12 min (e) None of these (d) 13/20 (e) None of these
6. A is 30% more efficient than B. How much time will they, 13. A man can do a piece of work in 10 days but with the assistance
working together, take to complete a job which A alone could of his son, the work is done in 8 days. In how many days, his
have done in 23 days? son alone can do the same piece of work?
(a) 11 days (b) 13 days (a) 15 days (b) 22 days (c) 30 days
3 (d) 40 days (e) None of these
(c) 20 days (d) Cannot be determined
17
(e) None of these

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86 SPEED TEST 42
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3 22. A contractor undertook to do a piece of work in 9 days. He
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14. A can do of a work in 12 days. In how many days can he employed certain number of laboures but 6 of them were
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finish of the work?
employed .
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(a) 6 days (b) 5 days (c) 3 days (a) 15 (b) 6 (c) 13
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(d) 2 days (e) None of these (d) 9 (e) None of these
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15. A can do a piece of work in 25 days and B in 20 days. They 1
23. After working for 8 days, Anil finds that only of the work
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work together for 5 days and then A goes away. In how
has been done. He employs Rakesh who is 60% efficient as
many days will B finish the remaining work ?
Anil. How many more days will Anil take to complete the job?
(a) 17 days (b) 11 days (c) 10 days (a) 15 days (b) 12 days (c) 10 days
(d) 15 days (e) None of these (d) 8 days (e) None of these
16. A contractor undertakes to built a walls in 50 days. He 24. 2 men and 3 boys can do a piece of work in 10 days while
employs 50 peoples for the same. However after 25 days he 3 men and 2 boys can do the same work in 8 days. In how
finds that only 40% of the work is complete. How many more many days can 2 men and 1 boy to the work ?
man need to be employed to complete the work in time? 1 1 1
(a) 25 (b) 30 (c) 35 (a) 12days (b) 11 days (c) 15 days
2 2 2
17. A and B can finish a work in 10 days while B and C can do it 1
(d) 13 days (e) None of these
in 18 days. A started the work, worked for 5 days, then B 2
worked for 10 days and the remaining work was finished by C 25. A can do a certain job in 12 days. B is 60% more efficient than
in 15 days. In how many days could C alone have finished A. How many days B alone take to do the same job?
the whole work ? 1 1
(a) 30 days (b) 15 days (c) 45 days (a) 7 (b) 11 (c) 8
2 2
(d) 24 days (e) None of these (d) 8 (e) None of these
18. 12 men complete a work in 18 days. Six days after they had 26. A man can do a piece of work in 5 days but with the help of
started working, 4 men joined them. How many days will all his son he can do it in 3 days. In what time can the son do it
of them take to complete the remaining work ? alone?
(a) 10 days (b) 12 days (c) 15 days 1 1
(d) 9 days (e) None of these (a) 6days (b) 7 days (c) 7 days
2 2
19. 10 men can complete a piece of work in 15 days and 15 women (d) 8 days (e) None of these
can complete the same work in 12 days. If all the 10 men and 27. x is 3 times as faster as y and is able to complete the work in
15 women work together, in how many days will the work get 40 days less than y. Then the time in which they can complete
completed? the work together?
1 2 1
(a) 6 (b) 6 (c) 6 (a) 15 days (b) 10 days (c) 7 days
3 3 2
2 (d) 5 days (e) None of these
(d) 7 (e) None of these 28. Pipe A can fill a tank in 5 hours, pipe B in 10 hours and pipe C
3 in 30 hours. If all the pipes are open, in how many hours will
20. A can do a piece of work in 10 days, while B alone can do it in
the tank be filled ?
15 days. They work together for 5 days and the rest of the (a) 2 (b) 2.5 (c) 3
work is done by C in 2 days. If they get ` 450 for the whole (d) 3.5 (e) None of these
work, how should they divide the money ? 29. Two taps can fill a tank in 12 and 18 minutes respectively.
(a) ` 225, ` 150, ` 75 (b) ` 250, ` 100, ` 100 Both are kept open for 2 minutes and the first is turned off. In
(c) ` 200, ` 150, ` 100 (d) ` 175, ` 175, ` 100 how many minutes more will the tank be filled ?
(e) None of these (a) 15 min. (b) 20 min. (c) 11 min.
21. 10 men and 15 women together can complete a work in 6 (d) 13 min. (e) None of these
days. It takes 100 days for one man alone to complete the 30. A cistern has three pipes, A, B and C. The pipes A and B can
same work. How many days will be required for one woman fill it in 4 and 5 hours respectively and C can empty it in 2
hours. If the pipes are opened in order at 1, 2 and 3 a.m.
alone to complete the same work?
respectively, when will the cistern be empty ?
(a) 90 (b) 125 (c) 145 (a) 3 p.m. (b) 4 p.m. (c) 5 p.m.
(d) 105 (e) None of these (d) 6 p.m. (e) None of these
29. a b c d e 30. a b c d e
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PROBLEM BASED ON AGES
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1. The average age of a man and his son is 16 years. The ratio (a) 10 yrs (b) 30 yrs (c) 20 yrs
of their ages is 15 : 1 respectively. What is the sons age? (d) 40 yrs (e) None of these
(a) 30 years (b) 32 years (c) 2 years 9. Ten yrs ago, A was half of B in age. If the ratio of their present
(d) 4 years (e) None of these ages is 3 : 4, what will be the total of their present ages?
2. The average age of a lady and her daughter is 28.5. The (a) 25 (b) 35 (c) 45
ratio of their ages is 14 : 5 respectively. What is the daugh- (d) 50 (e) None of these
ters age? 10. The sum of the ages of a mother and her daughter is 50 yrs.
Also 5 yrs ago, the mothers age was 7 times the age of the
(c) 18 years (d) Cannot be determined
daughter. What are the present ages of the mother and the
(e) None of these
daughter?
3. Present age of Sudha and Neeta are in the ratio of 6 : 7
respectively. Five years ago their ages were in the ratio of (a) 35, 5 (b) 40, 10 (c) 30, 20
5 : 6 respectively. What is Sudhas present age? (d) 25, 15 (e) None of these
(a) 30 years (b) 35 years 11. The ratio of the fathers age to the sons age is 4 : 1. The
(c) 40 years (d) Cannot be determined product of their ages is 196. What will be the ratio of their
(e) None of these ages after 5 years?
4. Average age of 36 children of the class is 15 years. 12 more (a) 7 : 3 (b) 14 : 9 (c) 11 : 4
children joined whose average age is 16 years. What is the (d) 17 : 3 (e) None of these
average age of all the 48 children together? 12. The ratio of Ritas age to the age of her mother is 3 : 11. The
(a) 15.25 years (b) 15.5 years difference of their ages is 24 yrs. What will be the ratio of their
(c) 15.3 years (d) 15.4 years
ages after 3 yrs?
(e) None of these
5. Two years ago the ratio of the ages of Swati and Khyati (a) 1 : 2 (b) 1 : 3 (c) 3 : 7
was 5 : 7 respectively. Two years hence the ratio of their (d) 2 : 5 (e) None of these
ages will be 7 : 9 respectively. What is the present age of 1
Khyati? 13. A mans age is 125% of what it was 10 years ago, but 83 %
3
(a) 16 years (b) 14.5 years
(c) 12 years (d) Cannot be determined of what it will be after 10 years. What is his present age?
(e) None of these (a) 30 yrs (b) 40 yrs (c) 50 yrs
6. The age of a man is 4 times that of his son. 5 yrs ago, the (d) 60 yrs (e) None of these
man was nine times as old as his son was at that time. What 14. The age of a man is three times the sum of the ages of his two
is the present age of the man? sons. Five years hence, his age will be double of the sum of
(a) 28 yrs (b) 32 yrs (c) 40 yrs the ages of his sons. The father's present age is
(d) 42 yrs (e) None of these (a) 40 years (b) 45 years (c) 50 years
7. After 5 yrs, the age of a father will be thrice the age of his (d) 55 years (e) 65 years
son, whereas five years ago, he was 7 times as old as his
15. The ratio between the present ages of P and Q is 3 : 4
son was. What is the present age of the father ?
respectively. Four years hence Q will be 5 years older than P.
(a) 30 yrs (b) 40 yrs (c) 50 yrs
What is Ps present age?
(d) 60 yrs (e) None of these
8. 10 Yrs ago, Sitas mother was 4 times older than her (a) 15 years (b) 20 years
daughter. After 10 yrs, the mother will be two times older (c) 25 years (d) Cannot be determined
than the daughter. What is the present age of Sita? (e) None of these

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88 SPEED TEST 43
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16. Present ages of Rama and Shyama are in the ratio of 4 : 5 24. The sum of the ages of 5 children born at the intervals of 3
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respectively. Five years hence the ratio of their ages be- years each is 50 years. What is the age of the youngest
comes 5 : 6 respectively. What is Ramas present age?
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child?
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(a) 25 years (b) 22 years (c) 20 years (a) 4 years (b) 8 years (c) 10 years
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17. In a family, a couple has a son and daughter. The age of the
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father is three times that of his daughter and the age of the 25. If 6 years are subtracted from the present age of Gagan and
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the remainder is divided by 18, then the present age of his
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son is half of his mother. The wife is nine years younger to
her husband and the brother is seven years older than his grandson Anup is obtained. If Anup is 2 years younger to
sister. What is the age of the mother? Madan whose age is 5 years, then what is Gagans present
(a) 40 years (b) 45 years (c) 50 years age?
(d) 60 years (e) 65 years (a) 48 years (b) 60 years (c) 84 years
18. Rams present age is three times his sons present age and (d) 96 years (e) 100 years
two-fifth of his fathers present age. The average of the
26. The ratio between the school ages of Neelam and Shaan is
present ages of all of them is 46 years. What is the difference
5 : 6 respectively. If the ratio between the one-third age of
between the Rams sons present age and Rams fathers
Neelam and half of Shaans age is 5 : 9, then what is the
present age?
school age of Shaan?
(c) 58 years (d) Cannot be determined (a) 25 years
(e) None of these (b) 30 years
19. Abhays age after six years will be three-seventh of his (c) Cannot be determined
fathers age. Ten years ago, the ratio of their ages was 1 : 5.
(d) 35 years
What is Abhays fathers age at present?
(a) 30 yrs. (b) 40 yrs. (c) 50 yrs. (e) None of these
(d) 60 yrs. (e) 70 years 27. A is two years older than his son. In two years, his age will
20. The present ages of three persons are in proportions be twice the age of his son. The present age of the son is:
4 : 7 : 9. Eight years ago, the sum of their ages was 56. Find (a) 7 (b) 8 (c) 9
their present ages (in years).
(d) 10 (e) 11
(a) 8, 20, 28 (b) 16, 28, 36 (c) 20, 35, 45
(d) 25, 30, 40 (e) None of these 28. Eighteen years ago, a father was three times as old as his
21. Tanyas grandfather was 8 times older to her 16 years ago. son. Now the father is only twice as old as his son. Then the
He would be 3 times of her age 8 years from now. Eight years sum of the present ages of the son and the father is:
ago, what was the ratio of Tanyas age to that of her grand- (a) 54 (b) 72 (c) 105
father? (d) 108 (e) 116
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 1 : 5 (c) 3 : 8 29. One year ago, Preeti was four times as old as her daughter
(d) 11 : 53 (e) None of these Sonal. Six years hence, Preetis age will exceed her daughters
22. Q is as much younger than R as he is older than T. If the sum age by 9 years. The ratio of the present ages of Preeti and
of the ages of R and T is 50 years, what is definitely the
her daughter is :
difference between R and Qs age?
(a) 1 year (b) 2 years (c) 25 years (a) 9 : 2 (b) 11 : 3 (c) 12 : 5
(d) Data inadequate (e) None of these (d) 13 : 4 (e) 17 : 7
23. The sum of the ages of a father and his son is 45 years. Five 30. The present age of the father and the son are in the ratio of
years ago, the product of their ages is 34. Find the present 8:3. After 12 years the ratio of their ages will be 2:1. What is
age of father. the sum of the present age of the father and the son?
(a) 32 years (b) 36 years (c) 38 years (a) 66yrs (b) 70yrs (c) 74yrs
(d) 40 years (e) 39 years (d) 78yrs (e) 80yrs.

RESPONSE
GRID
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PERMUTATION AND COMBINATION
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1. In how many ways can six different rings be worn on four 8. In how many different ways can it be done so that the
fingers of one hand ? committee has at least one woman?
(a) 10 (b) 12 (c) 15 (a) 210 (b) 225 (c) 195
9. In how many different ways can it be done, so that the
2. In how many ways can 7 persons be seated at a round table
committee has at least 2 men?
if 2 particular persons must not sit next to each other ? (a) 210 (b) 225 (c) 195
(d) 720 (e) None of these 10. In how many ways can 5 boys be chosen from 6 boys and 4
3. In how many different ways can the letters of the word girls so as to include exactly one girl?
MATHEMATICS be arranged so that the vowels always (a) 252 (b) 210 (c) 126
come together ? (d) 90 (e) 60
(a) 10080 (b) 4989600 (c) 120960 11. In how many different ways can the letters of the word
(d) 12960 (e) None of these CORPORATION be arranged?
4. The number of ways in which four letters of the word (a) 3326400 (b) 1663200 (c) 831600
MATHEMATICS can be arranged is (d) 415800 (e) 207900
(d) 192 (e) None of these "COUNTRY" be arranged in such a way that the vowels
5. In how many different ways can the letters of the word always come together?
(a) 720 (b) 1440 (c) 2880
PRETTY be arranged?
(a) 120 (b) 36 (c) 360
13. In how many different ways can the letters of the word
(d) 720 (e) None of these PROBLEM be arranged ?
6. In how many different ways can be letters of the word (a) 5060 (b) 720 (c) 5040
CYCLE be arranged? (d) 980 (e) None of these
(a) 120 (b) 4240 (c) 30 14. How many different ways can the letters in the word ATTEND
be arranged?
TRUST be arranged? (a) 60 (b) 120 (c) 240
DIRECTIONS (Qs.8 & 9): Answer these questions on the basis OFFICES be arranged?
of the information given below :
From a group of 6 men and 4 women a Committee of 4 persons is (a) 2520 (b) 5040 (c) 1850
to be formed. (d) 1680 (e) None of these

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90 SPEED TEST 44
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16. In how many different ways can the letters of the word 22. Letters of the word DIRECTOR are arranged in such a way
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ARMOUR be arranged? that all the vowels come together. Find out the total number
of ways for making such arrangement.
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(a) 720 (b) 300 (c) 640
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(a) 4320 (b) 2720
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(d) 350 (e) None of these (c) 2160 (d) 1120
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(e) None of these
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17. In how many different ways can 4 boys and 3 girls be
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23. How many three digit numbers can having only two
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arranged in a row such that all boys stand together and all
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consecutive digits identical is
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the girls stand together?
(a) 153 (b) 162
(a) 75 (b) 576 (c) 288 (c) 168 (d) 163
18. In how many different ways can be letters of the word 24. In how many ways can the letters of the word 'PRAISE' be
SOFTWARE be arranged in such a way that the vowels arranged. So that vowels do not come together?
always come together? (a) 720 (b) 576
(c) 440 (d) 144
(a) 13440 (b) 1440
(e) None of these
(c) 360 (d) 120
25. The number of ways in which one or more balls can be
(e) None of these
selected out of 10 white, 9 green and 7 blue balls is
19. A bag contains 2 red, 3 green and 2 blue balls. 2 balls are to
(a) 892 (b) 881
be drawn randomly. What is the probability that the balls (c) 891 (d) 879
drawn contain no blue ball? (e) None of these
5 10 26. How many 3-digit numbers, each less than 600, can be formed
(a) (b) from {1, 2, 3, 4, 7, 9} if repetition of digits is allowed?
7 21
(a) 216 (b) 180
2 11 (c) 144 (d) 120
(c) (d)
(e) None of these 27. If a secretary and a joint secretary are to be selected from a
20. In how many different ways can the letters of the word committee of 11 members, then in how many ways can they
BOOKLET be arranged such that B and T always come be selected ?
together? (a) 110 (b) 55
(a) 360 (b) 720 (c) 22 (d) 11
(e) None of these 28. On a railway route there are 20 stations. What is the number
21. In a box there are 8 red, 7 blue and 6 green balls. One ball is of different tickets required in order that it may be possible
picked up randomly. What is the probability that it is neither to travel from every station to every other station?
red nor green? (a) 40 (b) 380
7 2 (c) 400 (d) 420
(a) (b) (e) None of these
19 3
29. What is the number of five-digit numbers formed with 0, 1, 2,
3 9 3, 4 without any repetition of digits?
(c) (d)
4 21 (a) 24 (b) 48
(e) None of these
30. What is the number of three-digit odd numbers formed by
using the digits 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 if repetition of digits is allowed?
(a) 60 (b) 108
(c) 120 (d) 216
(e) None of these

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PROBABILITY
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1. Tickets numbered 1 to 20 are mixed up and then a ticket is 6. In a box, there are 8 red, 7 blue and 6 green balls. One ball is
drawn at random. What is the probability that the ticket picked up randomly. What is the probability that it is neither
drawn bears a number which is a multiple of 3? blue nor green?
3 3 2 2 3 7
(a) (b) (c) (a) (b) (c)
10 20 5 3 4 19
1 8 9
(d) (e) None of these (d) (e)
2 21 21
7. Two dice are tossed. The probability that the total score is a
2. In a lottery, there are 10 prizes and 25 blanks. A lottery is
prime number is :
drawn at random. What is the probability of getting a prize?
1 5 1
1 2 2 (a) (b) (c)
(a) (b) (c) 6 12 2
10 5 7
7
(d) (e) None of these 9
7 8. In a simultaneous throw of two coins, the probability of getting
3. One card is drawn at random from a pack of 52 cards. What at least one head is
is the probability that the card drawn is a face card? 1 1 2
(a) (b) (c)
1 4 1 2 3 3
(a) (b) (c)
13 13 4 3
9 4
(d) (e) None of these 9. Three unbiased coins are tossed. What is the probability of
52
getting at least 2 heads?
4. One card is drawn from a pack of 52 cards. What is the
probability that the card drawn is either a red card or a 1 1 1
(a) (b) (c)
king? 4 2 3
1 6 7 1
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e) None of these
2 13 13 8
10. In a single throw of a die, what is the probability of getting a
27 number greater than 4?
(c) (e) None of these
52
1 1 2
5. A bag contains 6 black and 8 white balls. One ball is drawn (a) (b) (c)
at random. What is the probability that the ball drawn is 2 3 3
white? 1
3 4 1 4
(a) (b) (c) 11. In a simultaneous throw of two dice, what is the probability
4 7 8 of getting a total of 7?
3 1 1 2
(d) (e) None of these (a) (b) (c)
7 6 4 3
3
4
GRID 11. a b c d e
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92 SPEED TEST 45
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12. What is the probability of getting a sum 9 from two throws 19. What is the probability that a leap year selected at random
b
of a dice? contains 53 Mondays?
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1 1 1 1 2 7
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(a) (b) (c) (a) (b) (c)
6 8 9 7 7 366
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(d) (e) None of these (d) (e) None of these
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12 183
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13. In a simultaneous throw of two dice, what is the probability 20. What is the probability of getting a sum of 7 with two dice?
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of getting a doublet?
1 1 1
1 1 2 (a) (b) (c)
(a) (b) (c) 6 3 12
6 4 3
5
(d) (e) None of these 36
7 21. A bag contains 5 white, 7 red and 8 black balls. If 4 balls are
14. In a simultaneous throw of two dice, what is the probability drawn one by one with replacement, what is the probability
of getting a total of 10 or 11? that all are white ?
1 1 7 1 1 4
(a) (b) (c) (a) (b) (c)
4 6 12 256 16 20
5 4
(d) (e) None of these (d) (e) None of these
36 8
15. A coin is tossed three times. What is the probability of 22. An urn contains 6 red balls and 9 green balls. Two balls are
getting head and tail (HTH) or tail and head (THT) drawn in succession without replace ment. What is the
alternatively ? probability that first is red and second is green.
(a) 1/4 (b) 1/5 (c) 1/6 9 9 27
(d) 1/8 (e) None of these (a) (b) (c)
36 35 36
16. In a lottery, 16 tickets are sold and 4 prizes are awarded. If a
person buys 4 tickets,what is the probability of his winning 3
a prize? 36
4 23. A bag contains 3 white balls and 2 black balls. Another bag
175 1
(a) (b) (c) contains 2 white balls and 4 black balls. A bag is taken and a
164 256 4 ball is picked at random from it. The probability that the ball
81 will be white is:
(d) (e) None of these 7 5
256 7
(a) (b) (c)
17. Two letters are drawn at random from the word HOME. 11 30 11
What is the probability that both the letters are vowels? 7
(a) 1/ 6 (b) 5/ 6 (c) 1/ 2 (d) (e) None of these
15
(d) 1/ 3 (e) None of these 24. Out of 20 consecutive positive integers, two are chosen at
18. Three dice are thrown. What is the probability that the same
random. The probability that their sum is odd is
number will appear on each of them?
(a) 19/20 (b) 10/19 (c) 1/20
1 1 1 (d) 9/19 (e) None of these
(a) (b) (c) 25. An unbiased die is tossed. What is the probability of getting
6 18 24
a multiple of 3.
1
(d) (e) None of these 1 1 2
36 (a) (b) (c)
2 3 5
1
6

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AREA AND PERIMETER
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1. The circumference of a circle is 44 metres. Find the area of 10. How many plants will be there in a circular bed whose outer
the circle. edge measure 30 cms, allowing 4 cm2 for each plant ?
(a) 154 m2 (b) 160 m2 (c) 175 m2 (a) 18 (b) 750 (c) 24
(d) 168 m 2 (e) None of these (d) 120 (e) None of these
2. The length and breadth of a rectangle are in the ratio 9 : 5. 11. A rectangular plot 15 m 10 m, has a path of grass outside it.
If its area is 720 m2, find its perimeter. If the area of grassy pathway is 54 m 2, find the width of the
(a) 112 metre (b) 115 metre path.
(c) 110 metre (d) 118 metre (a) 4 m (b) 3 m (c) 2 m
(e) None of these (d) 1 m (e) None of these
3. A circle and a rectangle have the same perimeter. The sides 12. If the area of a circle decreases by 36%, then the radius of a
of the rectangle are 18 cm and 26 cm. What is the area of the circle decreases by
circle ? (a) 20% (b) 18% (c) 36%
(a) 88 cm2 (b) 154 cm2 (c) 1250 cm2 (d) 64% (e) None of these
(d) 616 cm2 (e) None of these
13. The floor of a rectangular room is 15 m long and 12 m wide.
4. The cost of carpeting a room 18m long with a carpet 75 cm
The room is surrounded by a verandah of width 2 m on all its
wide at ` 4.50 per metre is ` 810. The breadth of the room is:
sides. The area of the verandah is :
(a) 7 m (b) 7.5 m (c) 8 m
(d) 8.5 m (e) None of these (a) 124 m2 (b) 120 m2 (c) 108 m2
5. If the perimeter and diagonal of a rectangle are 14 and 5 cms (d) 58 m2 (e) None of these
respectively, find its area. 14. A circular grass lawn of 35 metres in radius has a path 7
(a) 12 cm2 (b) 16 cm2 (c) 20 cm2 metres wide running around it on the outside. Find the area of
(d) 24 cm2 (e) None of these path.
6. In an isoscele right angled triangle, the perimeter is 20 metre. (a) 1694 m2 (b) 1700 m2 (c) 1598 m2
Find its area. (d) 1900 m2 (e) None of these
(a) 16 m2 (b) 17 m2 (c) 18 m2 15. The radius of the wheel of a bus is 70 cms and the speed of
(d) 19 m 2 (e) None of these the bus is 66 km/h, then the r.p.m. (revolutions per minutes) of
7. The diameter of a garden roller is 1.4 m and it is 2 m long. the wheel is
(a) 200 (b) 250 (c) 300
22
How much area will it cover in 5 revolutions ? use (d) 330 (e) None of these
7
16. The altitude drawn to the base of an isosceles triangle is 8 cm
(a) 40 m2 (b) 44 m2 (c) 48 m2 and the perimeter is 32 cm. The area of the triangle is
(d) 36 m2 (e) None of these (a) 72 cm2 (b) 60 cm2 (c) 66 cm2
8. The area of a triangle is 615 m2. If one of its sides is 123 (d) 67 cm 2 (e) None of these
metre, find the length of the perpendicular dropped on that 17. The area of a square field is 576 km2. How long will it take for
side from opposite vertex. a horse to run around at the speed of 12 km/h ?
(a) 15 metres (b) 12 metres (a) 12 h (b) 10 h (c) 8 h
(c) 10 metres (d) 9 metres (d) 6 h (e) None of these
(e) None of these
18. The area of a rectangular field is 144 m2. If the length had
9. A horse is tethered to one corner of a rectangular grassy
been 6 metres more, the area would have been 54 m2 more.
field 40 m by 24 m with a rope 14 m long. Over how much
The original length of the field is
area of the field can it graze?
(a) 22 metres (b) 18 metres (c) 16 metres
(a) 154 cm2 (b) 308 m2 (c) 150 m2
2 (d) 24 metres (e) None of these
(d) 145 cm (e) None of these

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94 SPEED TEST 46
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19. The ratio between the length and the breadth of a rectangular 28. The perimeter of a square is double the perimeter of a
b
park is 3 : 2. If a man cycling along the boundary of the park rectangle. The area of the rectangle is 240 sq cm. What is the
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at the speed of 12km / hr completes one round in 8 minutes, area of the square ?
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then the area of the park (in sq. m) is: (a) 100 sq cm (b) 36 cq cm
p
(a) 15360 (b) 153600 (c) 30720 (c) 81 sq cm (d) Cannot be determined
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20. A wire can be bent in the form of a circle of radius 56 cm. If it 29. If the perimeter of a square is equal to the radius of a circle
s
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is bent in the form of a square, then its area will be: whose area is 39424 sq. cm, what is the area of the square ?
o
(a) 3520 cm2 (b) 6400 cm2 (c) 7744 cm2
m
(a) 1225 sq. cm (b) 441 sq. cm
(d) 8800 cm 2 (e) None of these (c) 784 sq. cm (d) Cannot be determined
21. The length of a room is double its breadth. The cost of (e) None of these
colouring the ceiling at ` 25 per sq. m is ` 5,000 and the cost 30. Two poles, 15 m and 30 m high, stand upright in a playground.
of painting the four walls at ` 240 per sq. m is ` 64,800. Find If their feet be 36 m apart, find the distance between their
the height of the room. tops.
(a) 4.5 m (b) 4 m (c) 3.5 m (a) 35 cm (b) 39 cm (c) 45 cm
(d) 5 m (e) None of these (d) 50 cm (e) None of these
22. The surface area of a cube is 150 m2. The length of its 31. A semi-circle is constructed on each side of a square of
diagonal is length 2m. Find the area of the whole figure.
(a) (5 + 3 ) m2 (b) (4 + 3 ) m2 (c) (4 + ) m2
10
(a) 5 3m (b) 5 m (c) m (d) (4 + 2 ) m2 (e) None of these
3 32. In a quadrilateral, the length of one of its diagonal is 23 cm
(d) 15 m (e) None of these and the perpendiculars drawn on this diagonal from other
23. The length and breadth of a playground are 36m and 21 m two vertices measure 17 cm and 7 cm respectively. Find the
respectively. Poles are required to be fixed all along the area of the quadrilateral.
boundary at a distance 3m apart. The number of poles (a) 250 cm2 (b) 276 cm2 (c) 300 cm2
required will be (d) 325 cm 2 (e) None of these
(a) 39 (b) 38 (c) 37 33. A circular wire of radius 42 cm is cut and bent in the form of
(d) 40 (e) None of these a rectangle whose sides are in the ratio of 6 : 5. Find the
24. What would be the area of a square whose diagonal measures smaller side of the rectangle.
28 cm? (a) 50 cm (b) 60 cm (c) 70 cm
(a) 288 sq cm (b) 514 sq cm (c) 428 sq cm (d) 80 cm (e) None of these
(d) 392 sq cm (e) None of these 34. The following figure contains three squares with areas of
25. The perimeter of a square is one-fourth the perimeter of a 100, 16 and 49 sq. units respectively laying side by side as
rectangle. If the perimeter of the square is 44 cm and the shown. By how much should the area of the middle square
length of the rectangle is 51 cm, what is the difference be reduced in order that the total length PQ of the resulting
between the breadth of the rectangle and the side of the three squares is 19?
square?
(a) 30 cm (b) 18 cm (c) 26 cm
(d) 32 cm (e) None of these
26. The area of a rectangle is equal to the area of a circle with 100
circumference equal to 220 metres. What is the length of the 49
rectangle if its breadth is 50 metres? 16
(a) 56 metres (b) 83 metres (c) 77 metres
P Q
(d) 69 metres (e) None of these
27. A man riding a bicycle, completes one lap of a circular field (a) 12 (b) 4 (c) 3
along its circumference at the speed of 79.2 km/hr in 2 minutes (d) 2 (e) 6
40 seconds. What is the area of the field? 35. A rectangle has perimeter of 50 metres. If its length is 13
(a) 985600 sq metre (b) 848500 sq metre metres more than its breadth, then its area is:
(c) 795600 sq metre (d) Cannot be determined (a) 124 m2 (b) 144 m2 (c) 114 m2
(d) 104 m 2 (e) 117m 2
(e) None of these
34. a b c d e 35. a b c d e
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VOLUME AND SURFACE AREA
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1. A cylindrical bucket of height 36 cm and radius 21 cm is 7. The length of a cold storage is double its breadth. Its height
filled with sand. The bucket is emptied on the ground and is 3 metres. The area of its four walls (including the doors) is
a conical heap of sand is formed, the height of the heap 108 m2. Find its volume.
being 12 cm. The radius of the heap at the base is : (a) 215 m3 (b) 216 m3
(c) 217 m 3 (d) 218 m3
(a) 63 cm (b) 53 cm
(c) 56 cm (d) 66 cm (e) None of these
(e) None of these 8. A cube of 384 cm2 surface area is melt to make x number of
small cubes each of 96 mm2 surface area. The value of x is
2. A metal cube of edge 12 cm is melted and formed into three
(a) 80,000 (b) 8
smaller cubes. If the edges of two smaller cubes are 6 cm
(c) 8,000 (d) 800
and 8 cm, then find the edge of the third smaller cube.
(e) None of these
(a) 10 cm (b) 14 cm
9. A conical vessel, whose internal radius is 12 cm and height 50
(c) 12 cm (d) 16 cm cm, is full of liquid. The contents are emptied into a cylindrical
(e) None of these vessel with internal radius 10 cm. Find the height to which the
3. A well 22.5 m deep and of diameter 7 m has to be dug out. liquid rises in the cylindrical vessel.
Find the cost of plastering its inner curved surface at ` 3 (a) 18 cm (b) 22 cm
per sq. metre. (c) 24 cm (d) 20 cm
(a) ` 1465 (b) ` 1485 (e) None of these
(c) ` 1475 (d) ` 1495 10. A hollow sphere of internal and external diameters 4 cm and 8
(e) None of these cm respectively is melted into a cone of base diamater 8 cm.
4. A copper sphere of radius 3 cm is beaten and drawn into a The height of the cone is:
wire of diametre 0.2 cm. The length of the wire is (a) 12 cm (b) 14 cm
(c) 15 cm (d) 18 cm
(a) 9 m (b) 12 m
(e) None of these
(c) 18 m (d) 36 m 11. A cone of height 9 cm with diameter of its base 18 cm is
(e) None of these carved out from a wooden solid sphere of radius 9 cm. The
5. If the volume of a sphere is divided by its surface area, the percentage of the wood wasted is:
result is 27 cms. The radius of the sphere is (a) 25% (b) 30%
(a) 9 cms (b) 27 cms (c) 50% (d) 75%
(c) 81 cms (d) 243 cms (e) None of these
(e) None of these 12. A monument has 50 cylindrical pillars each of diameter 50 cm
6. A cistern 6 m long and 4 m wide contains water up to a and height 4 m. What will be the labour charges for getting
depth of 1 m 25 cm. The total area of the wet surface is: these pillars cleaned at the rate of 50 paise per sq. m?
(a) 49 m2 (b) 50 m2 (use 3.14)
(c) 53.5 m2 (d) 55 m2 (a) ` 237 (b) ` 157
(e) None of these (c) ` 257 (d) ` 353
(e) None of these
GRID 11. a c d e 12. a c d e
b b
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96 SPEED TEST 47
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13. A conical vessel of base radius 2 cm and height 3 cm is filled 20. The curved surface of a right circular cone of height 15 cm
b
with kerosene. This liquid leaks through a hole in the bottom and base diameter 16 cm is :
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and collects in a cylindrical jar of radius 2 cm. The kerosene (a) 120 cm2 (b) 60 cm2
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level in the jar is (c) 136 cm 2 (d) 68 cm2
p
(a) cm (b) 1.5 cm (e) None of these
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(c) 1 cm (d) 3 cm 21. The weight of a solid cone having diameter 14 cm and vertical
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(e) None of these height 51 cm is ....., if the material of solid cone weighs 10
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14. In a swimming pool measuring 90 m by 40 m, 150 men take a grams per cubic cm :
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dip. If the average displacement of water by a man is 8 cubic (a) 16.18 kg (b) 17.25 kg
metres, what will be the rise in water level? (c) 26.18 kg (d) 71.40 kg
(a) 33.33 cm (b) 30 cm (e) None of these
(c) 20 cm (d) 25 cm 22. A hemispherical bowl is made of steel 0.5 cm thick. The inside
(e) None of these radius of bowl being 4 cm. The volume of the steel used in
15. Three cubes of a metal are of edges 3 cm, 4 cm and 5 cm. making the bowl is :
These are melted together and from the melted material, (a) 55.83 cm2 (b) 56.83 cm2
another cube is formed. The edge of this cube is : (c) 57.83 cm 2 (d) 58.83 cm2
(a) 8 cm (b) 10 cm (e) None of these
(c) 9 cm (d) 6 cm 23. Consider the volumes of the following :
(e) None of these A. A parallelopiped of length 5 cm, breadth 3 cm and height
16. A cylindrical bath tub of radius 12 cm contains water to a 4 cm.
depth of 20 cm. A spherical iron ball is dropped into the tub B. A cube having each side 4 cm.
and thus the level of water is raised by 6.75 cm. What is the C. A cylinder of radius 3 cm and length 3 cm.
radius of the ball? D. A sphere of radius 3 cm.
(a) 8 cm (b) 9 cm The volumes of these in the decreasing order is :
(c) 12 cm (d) 7 cm (a) A, B, C and D (b) A, C, B and D
(e) None of these (c) D, B, C and A (d) D, C, B and A
17. The volume of a cube is numerically equal to the sum of the (e) None of these
lengths of its edges. What is its total surface area in square 24. Two solid spheres of radii 1 cm and 2 cm were melted and
units ? combined to form a bigger sphere. The radius of the bigger
(a) 64 (b) 144 sphere is:
(c) 36 (d) 72 1 1
(e) None of these (a) (b)
23 33
18. The volume of a cube whose surface area is 726m2, is :
(a) 1300 m3 (b) 1331 m3 1 1
(c) (d)
(c) 1452 m 3 (d) 1542 m3 83 93
19. If a cistern is 3 m long, 2 m wide and 1 m deep, its capacity in 25. The inner diameter of a circular building is 54 cm and the
litres is : base of the wall occupies a space of 352 cm 2. The thickness
(a) 6 (b) 600 of the wall is :
(c) 6,000 (d) 60,000 (a) 29 cm (b) 2 cm
(e) None of these (c) 4 cm (d) 58 cm
(e) None of these

GRID 23. a c d e 24. a c d e 25. a c d e
b b b
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GEOMETRY
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1. In triangle ABC, angle B is a right angle. If (AC) is 6 cm, and (a) 8 cm (b) 4 cm
D is the mid-point of side AC. The length of BD is (c) 5 cm (d) 7 cm
(e) None of these
A
5. If the angles of a triangle are in the ratio 5 : 3 : 2, then the
triangle could be :
D (a) obtuse (b) acute
(c) right (d) isosceles
(e) None of these
B C 6. In the figure, AB = 8, BC = 7 m, ABC = 1200. Find AC.
(a) 4 cm (b) A
6cm
(c) 3 cm (d) 3.5 cm
(e) None of these 8
1200
2. AB is diameter of the circle and the points C and D are on M B C
the circumference such that CAD 30 . What is the
(a) 11 (b) 12
measure of ACD ? (c) 13 (d) 14
C (e) None of these
D 7. The perimeters of two similar triangles ABC and PQR are
36 cm, and 24 cm, respectively. If PQ = 10 cm, then the
70 length of AB is :
A B
(a) 16 cm (b) 12 cm
(c) 14 cm (d) 15 cm
(e) None of these
(a) 40 (b) 50
8. Two isosceles triangles have equal vertical angles and their
(c) 30 (d) 90
areas are in the ratio 9 : 16. The ratio of their corresponding
(e) None of these
heights is :
3. The sum of the interior angles of a polygon is 1620. The
(a) 3 : 4 (b) 4 : 3
number of sides of the polygon are :
(c) 2 : 1 (d) 1 : 2
(a) 9 (b) 11
(e) None of these
(c) 15 (d) 12
9. The circumcentre of a triangle is always the point of
(e) None of these
intersection of the :
4. A point P is 13 cm. from the centre of a circle. The length of
(a) medians
the tangent drawn from P to the circle is 12cm. Find the
(b) angle bisectors
radius of the circle.
(c) perpendicular bisectors of sides
T (d) perpendiculars dropped from the vertices on the
12c opposite sides of the triangle.
r m.
(e) None of these
O 13cm. P
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98 SPEED TEST 48
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10. In a triangle ABC, A x , B y and C y 20 . 18. Number of degrees in two and half right angles is
b
__________ .
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If 4x y = 10, then the triangle is :
(a) 245 (b) 225
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(a) Right-angled (b) Obtuse-angled
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(c) 200 (d) 180
(c) Equilateral (d) Cannot be determined
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(e) None of these
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(e) None of these 19. Number of degrees in five and two-third of a right angle is
s
11. If the sides of a right triangle are x, x + 1 and x 1, then its
s
(a) 510 (b) 490
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hypotenuse is : (c) 486 (d) 480
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(c) 1 (d) 0 20. An angle is two-third of its complement and one-fourth of
(e) None of these its supplement, then the angle is
12. Two circles touch each other internally. Their radii are 2 cm (a) 46 (b) 56
and 3 cm. The biggest chord of the outer circle which is (c) 36 (d) 40
outside the inner circle is of length (e) None of these
(a) 2 2 cm (b) 3 2 cm 21. The measures of the four angles of a quadrilateral are in the
ratio of 1 : 2 : 3 : 4.
(c) 2 3 cm (d) 4 2 cm What is the measure of fourth angle?
(e) None of these (a) 144 (b) 135
(c) 125 (d) 150
1
13. An angle is equal to rd of its supplement. Find its measure. (e) None of these
3 22. Find the length of a chord which is at a distance of 3 cm from
(a) 60 (b) 80 the centre of a circle of radius 5 cm
(c) 90 (d) 45 (a) 8 cm (b) 10 cm
(e) None of these (c) 12 cm (d) 6 cm
14. An angle measuring 270 is an example of (e) None of these
(a) acute angle (d) obtuse angle 23. Two adjacent angles of a parallelogram are in the ratio 2 : 3.
(c) right angle (d) reflex angle Find the measures of all angles
(e) None of these (a) 72o, 108o, 72o, 108o
15. Find the angle which is equal to its supplementary angle (b) 72o, 108o, 70o, 110o
(a) 45 (b) 180 (c) 80o, 100o, 80o, 100o
(c) 90 (d) 360 (d) Cannot be determined
16. Three angles of a quadrilaterals are in the ratio 24. If the angle of triangle are in the ratio of 4 : 3 : 2, then the
1 : 2 : 3. The sum of the least and the greatest of these angles triangle
is equal to 180. All the angles of the quadrilateral will be : (a) is obtuse angled triangle
(b) has one angle greater than 80
(a) 30, 90, 45, 60
(c) is a right triangle
(b) 45, 90, 135, 90
(d) is acute angled triangle
(c) 120, 150, 210, 360
(e) None of these
(d) Cannot be determined 25. One of the angles of a parallelogram is 45. What will be the
(e) None of these sum of the larger angle and twice the smaller angle of the
17. The number of degrees in four and one-third right angles is parallelogram ?
(a) 405 (b) 390 (a) 228 (b) 224
(c) 395 (d) 400 (c) 225 (d) 222
25. a b c d e
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NUMBER SERIES - I
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DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-5): What should come in place of question 9. 9 49 201 1009 ? 20209 80841
mark (? ) in the following number series ? (a) 4054 (b) 4049
1. 121 117 108 92 67 ? (c) 4050 (d) 4041
(a) 31 (b) 29
(e) None of these 10. 31 35 44 60 85 ?
2. 50 26 14 ? 5 3.5 (a) 121 (b) 111
(a) 6 (b) 8
(c) 109 (d) 97
(c) 10 (d) 12
3. 3 23 43 ? 83 103 DIRECTIONS (Q.11-15) : What will come in place of the question
(a) 33 (b) 53 mark (?) in the following number series?
(c) 63 (d) 73
11. 7 9 12 16 ?
(e) None of these
(a) 2 2 (b) 19
4. 748 737 715 682 638 ?
(c) 20 (d) 21
(a) 594 (b) 572
(e) None of these
(c) 581 (d) 563
12. 384 192 96 48 ?
(e) None of these
(a) 36 (b) 28
5. 1 9 25 49 81 ? 169
(a) 100 (b) 64 (c) 24 (d) 32
(e) None of these 13. 5 6 14 45 ?
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 6-10) : What should come in place of question (a) 183 (b) 185
mark (?) in the following number series? (c) 138 (d) 139
6. 36 20 ? 8 6 5 (e) None of these
(a) 10 (b) 12 14. 8 9 13 22 ?
(c) 14 (d) 16 (a) 30 (b) 31
7. 668 656 632 584 ? 296 (e) None of these
(a) 392 (b) 438 15. 6 11 21 41 ?
(c) 488 (d) 536 (a) 81 (b) 61
8. 1 121 441 961 1681 ? (e) None of these
(a) 2701 (b) 2511
(c) 2611 (d) 2801
(e) None of these
GRID 11. a c d e 12. a c d e 13. a c d e 14. a c d e 15. a c d e
b b b b b
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100 SPEED TEST 49
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DIRECTIONS (Qs. 16-20): What will come in place of question 24. 4 2 3.5 7.5 26.25 118.125
b
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mark (?) in the following number series? (a) 118.125 (b) 26.25
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16. 7 13 25 49 ? (c) 3.5 (d) 2
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(a) 99 (b) 97 (e) 7.5
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(c) 89 (d) 87 25. 16 4 2 1.5 1.75 1.875
s
(e) None of these
s
(a) 1.875 (b) 1.75
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17. 5 6 10 19 ?
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(c) 1.5 (d) 2
(a) 28 (b) 37
m
(c) 36 (d) 35 (e) 4
(e) None of these DIRECTIONS (Q. 26-30) : In the following number series only
18. 8 9 20 63 ? one number is wrong. Find out the wrong number.
(a) 256 (b) 252 26. 4 6 18 49 201 1011
(c) 246 (d) 242 (a) 1011 (b) 201
(e) None of these
(c) 18 (d) 49
19. 11 13 16 20 ?
(c) 28 (d) 27 27. 48 72 108 162 243 366
20. 608 304 152 76 ?
(c) 162 (d) 243
(a) 39 (b) 36
(e) None of these 28. 2 54 300 1220 3674 7350
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 21-25) % In the following number series, a wrong (a) 3674 (b) 1220
number is given. Find out that wrong number.
(c) 300 (d) 54
21. 2 11 38 197 1172 8227 65806
(e) None of these
(a) 11 (b) 38
29. 8 27 64 125 218 343
(c) 197 (d) 1172
(e) 8227 (a) 27 (b) 218
22. 16 19 21 30 46 71 107 (c) 125 (d) 343

(c) 30 (d) 46 30. 19 68 102 129 145 154
(e) 71 (a) 154 (b) 129
23. 7 9 16 25 41 68 107 173 (c) 145 (d) 102
(a) 107 (b) 16
(e) None of these
(c) 41 (d) 68
(e) 25

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NUMBER SERIES - II
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DIRECTIONS (Qs.1-5) : What should come in place of the 8. 101 103 99 105 97 ? 95
question mark (?) in the following number series ? (a) 93 (b) 104
1. 353 354 351 356 349 ? (c) 108 (d) 107
(c) 338 (d) 385
(e) 340 9. 3 219 344 408 ? 443 444
2. 1 5 13 29 ? 125 253 (a) 416 (b) 435
(a) 83 (b) 69 (c) 423 (d) 428
(c) 61 (d) 65
(e) 81 (e) None of these
3. 45 57 81 117 165 ?
10. 7 10 16 28 52 ? 196
(a) 235 (b) 215
(c) 205 (d) 245 (a) 100 (b) 90
(e) 225 (c) 160 (d) 150
4. 17 18 26 53 117 ? 458 (e) None of these
(a) 342 (b) 142
(c) 257 (d) 262 DIRECTIONS (Qs. 11-15) : What should come in place of the
(e) 242 question mark (?) in the following number series ?
1 1 3 1 1 3 11. 1 1 2 6 ? 120
5. 11 1 1 ?
4 2 4 4 2 4 (a) 24 (b) 60
(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 100 (d) 30
1 (e) None of these
(c) 6 (d) 1 12. 7 8 16 43 ? 232
5
(a) 204 (b) 107
2
(e) 1 (c) 119 (d) 89
3
(e) None of these
DIRECTIONS (Qs.6-10) : What should come in place of the 13. 4 13 17 ? 30 39
question mark (?) in the following number series?
(a) 29 (b) 21
6. 4 19 49 94 154 ?
(a) 223 (b) 225 (c) 26 (d) 19
(e) None of these 14. 982 977 952 827 822 ?
1 1 1 (a) 779 (b) 817
7. 1 1 2 2 3 ?
2 2 2 (c) 789 (d) 697
(a) 3 (b) 2
2 3 15. 41472 5184 576 72 8 ?
1 (a) 0 (b) 9
(c) 4 (d) 3
4 (c) 1 (d) 8
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102 SPEED TEST 50
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DIRECTIONS (Qs. 16-20) : What should come in place of the 22. 4 12 42 196 1005 6066 42511
b
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question mark (?) in the following number series? (a) 12 (b) 42 (c) 1005
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16. 64 54 69 49 74 44 ? (d) 196 (e) 6066
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23. 2 8 12 20 30 42 56
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(a) 89 (b) 69
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(c) 59 (d) 99 (a) 8 (b) 42 (c) 30
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(d) 20 (e) 12
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(e) None of these
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24. 32 16 24 65 210 945 5197.5
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17. 4000 2008 1012 ? 265 140.5 78.25 (a) 945 (b) 16 (c) 24
(a) 506 (b) 514 (d) 210 (e) 65
(c) 520 (d) 512 25. 7 13 25 49 97 194 385
18. 5 5 15 75 ? 4725 51975 (d) 194 (e) 25
(a) 520 (b) 450 DIRECTIONS (Qs. 26 - 30) :In each of these questions, a number
(c) 525 (d) 300 series is given. In each series, only one number is wrong number.
Find out the wrong number.
(e) None of these
26. 16 19 21 30 46 71 107
19. 52 26 26 39 78 ? 585
(a) 19 (b) 21 (c) 30
(a) 195 (b) 156
(d) 46 (e) 71
(c) 234 (d) 117
27. 7 9 16 25 41 68 107 173
(e) None of these
(a) 107 (b) 16 (c) 41
20. 29, 23, ?, 17, 13, 11, 7 (d) 68 (e) 25
(a) 19 (b) 21 28. 32 16 24 65 210 945 5197.5
(c) 23 (d) 27 (a) 945 (b) 16 (c) 24
(e) None of these (d) 210 (e) 65
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 21 to 25): In each of these questions, a number 29. 850 600 550 500 475 462.5 456.25
series is given. In each series, only one number is wrong. Find out (a) 600 (b) 550 (c) 500
the wrong number. (d) 4625 (e) None of these
21. 3601 3602 1803 604 154 36 12 30. 8 12 24 46 72 108 216
(a) 3602 (b) 1803 (c) 604 (a) 12 (b) 24 (c) 46
(d) 154 (e) 36 (d) 72 (e) None of these

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DATA INTERPRETATION
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DIRECTIONS (Q. 1-5): Study the following graph carefully to answer these questions.
Quantity of Various Items Sold and Price per kg
30 60
25 50
20 40
Price
Price in ` per kg
15 30 Quantity sold in quintals
10 20 Quantity
5 10
0 0
A B C D E F
Items
1. If the quantity sold of item D increased by 50% and the DIRECTIONS (Qs. 6 - 10): Study the following graph carefully
price reduced by 10%. What was the total value of the and answer the questions given below it.
quantity sold for item D ?
Number of Students Studying in Various Colleges from
(a) ` 675 (b) ` 6750 (c) `67550
Various Faculties (Number in Thousands)
2. Approximately, what is the average price per kg of items A, 80
B& C?
70 65
(a) ` 9.50 (b) ` 8 (c) ` 7.50 60 56
60
Number of Students
(d) ` 9 (e) ` 10.50 51.2 50

50 Arts
3. What is the ratio between the total values of quantity sold 40
44
for items E & F respectively ? 40 36.5 Science
33
30 30 Commerce
(a) 15 : 14 (b) 3 : 2 (c) 5 : 7 30 25
(d) 7 : 5 (e) None of these 20
4. Total value of the quantity sold for item C is what per cent 10
of the total value of the quantity sold for item E ? 0
H I J K
(a) 111 (b) 85 (c) 90 Colleges
5. If the price as well as the quantity sold is increased by 20% 6. What is the difference between the total number of students
for item A, what is the total value of quantity sold for item studying in college H and those studying in college K ?
A? (a) 16100 (b) 15800 (c) 16300
(a) ` 48500 (b) ` 49000 (c) ` 42000 (d) 16700 (e) None of these
(d) ` 50400 (e) None of these 7. What is the total number of students studying in all the
colleges together ?
(a) 520900 (b) 520700 (c) 610200
RESPONSE 6. a b c d e 7. a b c d e
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104 SPEED TEST 51
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8. What is the respective ratio of the students from the faculty (a) 634 (b) 654 (c) 658
b
of Science from colleges H and I together to the students (d) 778 (e) None of these
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from the same faculty from colleges J and K together ? 14. What is the approximate average number of teachers teaching
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(a) 43 : 45 (b) 41 : 43 (c) 45 : 43 Economics, History and Biology together ?
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(d) 43 : 41 (e) None of these (a) 400 (b) 420 (c) 450
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9. The number of students from the faculty of Science from (d) 480 (e) 470
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college I are approximately what per cent of the total number
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15. What is the respective ratio of the number of teachers who
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of students studying in that college ? teach Biology and the number of teachers who teach Physics?
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(a) 34 (b) 37 (c) 29 (a) 6 : 7 (b) 4 : 7 (c) 3 : 5
(d) 31 (e) 39 (d) 4 : 5 (e) None of these
10. What is the average number of students from the faculty of
Commerce from all the colleges together ? DIRECTIONS (Q. 16-20) : Study the following table carefully to
(a) 36825 (b) 38655 (c) 35625 answer the questions that follow.
(d) 36585 (e) None of these Number of flights cancelled by five different
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 11-15) : Study the following Pie-chart carefully airlines in six different years
to answer these questions.
Percentagewise Distribution of Teachers who Teach six Different Airline P Q R S T
Subjects Year
Total Number of Teachers = 2000 2005 240 450 305 365 640
Percentage of Teachers 2006 420 600 470 446 258
2007 600 680 546 430 610
Biology English 2008 160 208 708 550 586
12% 7% 2009 140 640 656 250 654
2010 290 363 880 195 483
16. What was the difference between the highest number of

History flights cancelled by airline - Q and the lowest number of
Economics
27%
25% flights cancelled by airline-T out of all the six years ?
(a) 446 (b) 456 (c) 432
17. What was the approximate percentage increase in number
of flights cancelled by airline-S in the year 2008 as compared
Physics Mathematics to previous year ?
15% 14% (a) 127 (b) 27 (c) 150
(d) 45 (e) 117
11. If five-seventh of the teachers who teach Mathematics are 18. What was the average number of flights cancelled by the
female, then number of male Mathematics teachers is airlines P, R, S and T in the year 2008 ?
approximately what percentage of the total number of (a) 551.5 (b) 501 (c) 405
teachers who teach English ? (d) 442.4 (e) None of these
(a) 57 (b) 42 (c) 63 19. In 2010, 40% flights are cancelled by airline-R due to bad
(d) 69 (e) 51 weather and technical fault. How many flights are cancelled
12. What is the difference between the total number of teachers by airline-R due to technical fault ?
who teach English and History together and the total number
(a) 528 (b) 568 (c) 468
of teachers who teach Mathematics and Biology together ?
(a) 146 (b) 156 (c) 180
20. What is the approximate percentage of cancelled flights by
13. If the percentage of Biology teachers is increased by 40 per airlines-P and R in 2007 compared to cancelled flights by
cent and percentage of History teachers decreased by 20 airline-S in 2005 ?
per cent then what will be the total number of Biology and (a) 356 (b) 280 (c) 265
History teachers together ? (d) 340 (e) 314

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SECTION TEST : NUMERICAL ABILITY
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DIRECTIONS (Q.1-10) : What will come in place of question 11. Cost of 12 belts and 30 wallets is Rs 8940. What is the cost of
mark (?) in the following questions ? 4 belts and 10 wallets?
(a) Rs 2890 (b) Rs 2980 (c) Rs 2780
1. 48% of 525 + ? % of 350 = 399 (d) Rs 2870 (e) None of these
(a) 42 (b) 46 (c) 28 12. Ghanshyam purchased an article for Rs 1850. At what price
(d) 26 (e) None of these should he sell it so that 30% profit is earned?
3 4 5 (a) Rs 2450 (b) Rs 2245 (c) Rs 2405
2. of of of 490 = ? (d) Rs 2425 (e) None of the above
7 5 8
(a) 115 (b) 105 (c) 108 13. What is the compound interest accrued on an amount of Rs
(d) 116 (e) None of these 8500 in two years @ interest 10% per annum?
2
(a) Rs 1875 (b) Rs 1885 (c) Rs 1775
3. ? + 17 = 335 (d) Rs 1765 (e) None of these
(a) 46 (b) 42 (c) 1764 14. A train running at the speed of 60 kmph crosses a 200 m long
(d) 2116 (e) None of these platform in 27 s. What is the length of the train ?
4. 125% of 560 + 22% of 450 = ? (a) 250 m (b) 200 m (c) 240 m
(a) 799 (b) 700 (c) 782 (d) 450 m (e) None of these
(d) 749 (e) None of these 15. 10 men can complete a piece of work in 8 days. In how many
days can 16 men complete that work?
28 5 15 6
5. ? (a) 4 days (b) 5 days (c) 6 days
72 256 (13)2 (d) 3 days (e) None of these
16. Find the average of following set of numbers.
27 22 25
(a) (b) (c) 76, 48, 84, 66, 70, 64
115 117 117 (a) 72 (b) 66 (c) 68
(d) (e) None of these 17. If the numerator of a certain fractions increased by 100% and
115
the denominator is increased by 200%; the new fraction thus
6. 18.76 + 222.24 + 3242.15 = ?
(a) 3384.15 (b) 3483.15 (c) 3283.25 4
formed is . What is the original fraction?
(d) 3383.25 (e) None of these 21
7. 784 16 7 = ?
2 3 2
(a) 49 (b) 14 (c) 21 (a) (b) (c)
(d) 7 (e) None of these 7 7 5
3 5 4
8. of 455 + of 456 = ? (d) (e) None of these
2 8 7
(d) 464 (e) None of these 'SIMPLE' be arranged?
9. 1.05% of 2500 + 2.5% of 440 = ? (a) 520 (b) 120 (c) 5040
(a) 37.50 (b) 37.25 (c) 370.25 (d) 270 (e) None of these
(d) 372.50 (e) None of these 19. The ratio of the ages of A and B seven years ago was 3 : 4
10. 4900 28 444 12 = ? respectively. The ratio of their ages nine years from now
(a) 6575 (b) 6475 (c) 6455 will be 7 : 8 respectively. What is Bs age at present ?
(d) 6745 (e) None of these (a) 16 years (b) 19 years (c) 28 years

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106 SPEED TEST 52
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20. The sum of three consecutive odd numbers is 1383. What 31. 4 women and 12 children together take four days to complete
b
is the largest number ? a piece of work. How many days will four children alone take
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(a) 463 (b) 49 (c) 457 to complete the piece of work if two women alone can
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(d) 461 (e) None of these complete the piece of work in 16 days?
(a) 32 (b) 24 (c) 16
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DIRECTIONS (Q. 21-25) : What should come in place of question
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mark (?) in the following number series? (d) 12 (e) None of these
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32. The average of four consecutive odd number A, B, C and D
s
21. 8 52 ? 1287 4504.5 11261.25 16891.875
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respectively is 40. What is the product of B and D?
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(a) 462 (b) 286 (c) 194 (a) 1599 (b) 1591 (c) 1763
m
22. 3 42 504 ? 40320 241920 967680 33. Anu walks 2.31 km in three weeks by walking an equal
(a) 6048 (b) 5544 (c) 4536 distance each day. How many metres does she walk each
(d) 5040 (e) None of these day?
23 403 400 394 382 358 310 ? (a) 110 m (b) 90 m (c) 140 m
(a) 244 (b) 210 (c) 214 (d) 120 m (e) None of these
(d) 256 (e) None of these 34. A man riding a bicycle completes one lap of a square field
24. 7 8 4 13 3 22 ? along its perimeter at the speed of 43.2 km/hr in 1 minute 20
(a) 7 (b) 10 (c) 12 seconds. What is the area of the field?
(d) 14 (e) None of these (a) 52900 sq m (b) 57600 sq m (c) 48400 sq m
25. 250000 62500 12500 3125 625 ? 31.25 (d) Cant be determined
(a) 156.25 (b) 172.25 (c) 125 (e) None of these
(d) 150 (e) None of these 35. On Teachers Day, 4800 sweets were to be equally distributed
1 7 3 5 6 among a certain number of children. But on that particular
26. Out of the fractions , , , and , what is the day 100 children were absent. Hence, each child got four
2 8 4 6 7 sweets extra. How many children were originally supposed
difference between the largest and the smallest fraction? to be there?
7 3 4 (a) 300 (b) 400 (c) 540
(a) (b) (c) (d) 500 (e) Cant be determined.
13 8 7
36. The ratio of the monthly incomes of Sneha, Tina and Akruti
1 is 95:110:116. If Snehas annual income is `3,42,000, what is
6 Akruits annual income?
27. What will come in place of both questions marks(?) in the (a) `3,96,900 (b) `5,63,500 (c) `4,17,600
following equation? (d) `3,88,000 (e) None of these
37. A truck covers a distance of 256 km at the speed of 32 km/hr.
(?)0.6 26 What is the average speed of a car which travels a distance
104 (?)1.4 of 160 km more than the truck in the same time?
(a) 46 kmh1 (b) 52 kmh1 (c) 49 kmh1
(a) 58 (b) 48 (c) 56 (d) 64 kmh 1 (e) None of these
(d) 42 (e) 52 38. In an examination, the maximum aggregate marks is 1020. In
28. The perimeter of a square is thrice the perimeter of a rectanle. order to pass the exam a student is required to obtain 663
If the perimeter of the square is 84 cm and the length of the marks out of the aggregate marks. Shreya obtained 612
rectangle is 8 cm, what is the difference between the breadth marks. By what per cent did Shreya fail the exam?
of the rectangle and the side of the square? (a) 5% (b) 8% (c) 7%
(a) 15 cm (b) 19 cm (c) 10 cm (d) Cant be determined
(d) 8 cm (e) None of these (e) None of these
29. The area of a circle is equal to the area of a rectangle with 39. The average height of 21 girls was recorded is 148 cm. When
perimeter equal to 42 m and breadth equal to 8.5 m. What is the teachers height was included, the average of their
the area of the circle? heights increased by 1 cm. What was the height of the
(a) 116.25 sq m (b) 104.25 sq m (c) 146.25 sq m teacher?
(d) 128.25 sq m (e) None of these (a) 156 cm (b) 168 cm (c) 170 cm
30. The product of 5% of a positive number and 3% of the same (d) 162 cm (e) None of these
number is 504.6 What is half of that number? 40. What would be the area of a circle whose diameter is 35 cm?
(a) 290 (b) 340 (c) 680 (a) 962.5 sq cm (b) 875.5 sq cm (c) 981.5 sq cm
(d) 580 (e) None of these (d) 886.5 sq cm (e) None of these

40. a b c d e
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READING COMPREHENSION - I
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Gandhi. He has rightly been called the Father of the Nation because
DIRECTIONS : Read the following passages carefully and answer
it was he who awakened in the people of this country a sense of
the questions given below it. Certain words are printed in bold to
national consciousness and instilled in them a high sense of
help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.
patriotism without which it is not possible to build a country into
Passage 1 nationhood. By the time the Constitution of India came to be enacted,
We find that today the unity and integrity of the nation is insurgent India, breaking a new path of non-violent revolution and
threatened by the divisive forces of regionalism, linguism and fighting to free itself from the shackles of foreign domination, had
communal loyalties which are gaining ascendancy in national emerged into nationhood and the people of India were inspired by
life and seeking to tear apart and destroy national integrity. We a new enthusiasm, a high and noble spirit of sacrifice and above all,
tend to forget that India is one nation and we are all Indians first a strong sense of nationalism and in the Constitution which they
and Indians last. It is time we remind ourselves what the great framed. They set about the task of a strong nation based on certain
visionary and builder of modern India Jawaharlal Nehru said, cherished values for which they had fought.
Who dies if India lives, who lives if India dies? We must realise, 1. The author has quoted Jawaharlal Nehru to emphasise the
and this is unfortunately what many in public life tend to overlook, point that
sometimes out of ignorance of the forces of history and (a) national interest must enjoy supreme importance
sometimes deliberately with a view to promoting their self- (b) India is going to survive even if the world is under the
interest, that national interest must inevitably and forever prevail spell of destruction
over any other considerations proceeding from regional, linguistic (c) the world will be destroyed if India is on the threshold of
or communal attachments. The history of India over the past destruction
centuries bears witness to the fact that India was at no time a (d) the survival of the world depends only upon the well
single political unit. Even during the reign of the Maurya dynasty, being of India
though a large part of the country was under the sovereignty of (e) None of these
the Mauryan kings, there were considerable portions of the 2. What, according to the author, is the impact of the divisive
territory which were under the rule of independent kingdoms. So forces on our nation?
also during the Mughal rule which extended over large parts of (a) They promote a sense of regional pride.
the territory of India, there were independent rulers who enjoyed (b) They help people to form linguistic groups.
political sovereignty over the territories of their respective (c) They separate groups of people and create enmity among
kingdoms. It is an interesting fact of history that India was forged them.
into a nation, neither on account of a common language nor on
(d) They encourage among people the sense of loyalty to
account of the continued existence of a single political regime
their community.
over its territories but on account of a common culture evolved
(e) They remind us of our national pride.
over the centuries. It is cultural unitysomething more
3. Communal loyalties have been considered by the author as
fundamental and enduring than any other bond which may unite
the people of a country together which has welded this country (a) a good quality to be cherished
into a nation. But until the advent of the British rule, it was not (b) of no consequence to the nation
constituted into a single political unit. There were, throughout (c) a very important aspect for nation-building
the period of history for which we have fairly authenticated (d) a threat to the solidarity of the nation
accounts, various kingdoms and principalities which were (e) None of these
occasionally engaged in conflict with one another. During the 4. Which of the following was instrumental in holding the
British rule, India became a compact political unit having one different people of India together?
single political regime over its entire territories and this led to the (a) A common national language
evolution of the concept of a nation. This concept of one nation (b) A common cultural heritage
took firm roots in the minds and hearts of the people during the (c) The endurance level of the people
struggle for independence under the leadership of Mahatma (d) Fundamentalist bent of mind of the people
(e) None of these
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108 SPEED TEST 53
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5. The passage appears to have been written with the purpose of DIRECTIONS (Qs. 11-13): Choose the word/group of words which
b
(a) giving a piece of advice to politicians of free India
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is most nearly the SAME in meaning as the word given in bold as
(b) assessing the patriotic values and sacrifices made by used in the passage.
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people for Indias freedom 11. awakened
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(c) justifying the teaching of Mahatma Gandhi and its (a) moved (b) segregated
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impact on the people (c) extracted (d) kindled
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(d) giving a historical account of how India evolved as a (e) supported
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(e) None of these (a) maintained carefully
6. History shows that India, which was not a political unit (b) available abundantly
earlier, became so (c) managed tactfully
(a) during the reign of Maurya dynasty (d) accepted happily
(b) during the Mughal rule (e) protected lovingly
(c) after one-national-language policy was adopted 13. authenticated
(d) during the regime of independent rulers (a) established (b) documented
(e) during the British rule (c) hea rsay (d) audited
7. Why do people tend to overlook the paramount importance (e) maintained
of national interest? DIRECTIONS (Qs. 14 & 15) : Choose the word which is most
(A) Because they are unaware of the imperative need of OPPOSITE in meaning of the word given in bold as used in the
the day passage.
(B) Because they give undue importance to their selfish 14. considerable
motives (a) inconsiderate (b) uncountable
(C) Because historical events force them to do so (c) unfathomable (d) irresolute
(e) negligible
(a) Only A (b) Only B
15. deliberately
(c) Only C (d) A and B only
(a) reluctantly (b) unintentionally
(e) B and C only
(c) unauthorisedly (d) wrongly
8. The people of India, as highlighted by the author in the last
(d) notoriously
sentence of the passage, refer to
(a) the people of one unified nation Passage - 2
(b) the subjects of several independent rulers In a reversal of the norm elsewhere, in India policymakers and
(c) the patriots who sacrificed themselves in the freedom economists have become optimists while bosses do the worrying.
struggle The countrys Central Bank has predicted that the countrys
economy is likely to grow at a double digit rate during the next 20-
(d) the people who were instrumental in writing the
30 years. India has the capability with its vast labour and lauded
Constitution entrepreneurial spirit. But the private sector which is supposed to
(e) None of these do the heavy lifting that turns India from the worlds tenth largest
9. Indias insurgence was for economy to its third largest by 2030 has become fed up. Business
(a) breaking the path of non-violence people often carp about Indias problems but their irritation this
(b) having one common national language time has a nervous edge. In the first quarter of 2011, GDP grew at
(c) insisting on a unique cultural identity an annual rate of 7.8 percent; in 2005-07 it managed 9-10 percent.
(d) several independent sovereign rulers The economy may be slowing naturally as the low interest rates
(e) None of these and public spending that got India through the global crisis are
10. Transformation of our country into nationhood was possible belatedly withdrawn. At the same time the surge in inflation caused
by exorbitant food prices has spread more widely, casting doubt
because of
over whether India can grow at 8-10 percent in the medium term
(A) Peoples spontaneously referring to Mahatma Gandhi without overheating.
as the Father of the Nation In India, as in many fast growing nations, the confidence to invest
(B) Peoples sense of national consciousness depends on the conviction that the long term trajectory is intact
(C) Generation of a high sense of dedication to the nation and it is that which is in doubt. Big Indian firms too sometimes
among the people seem happier to invest abroad than at home, in deals that are
(a) A and B only (b) A and C only often hailed as symbols of the countrys growing clout but
(c) B and C only (d) All the three sometimes speak to its weaknesses purchases of natural
(e) None of these resources that India has in abundance but struggles to get out of
the ground. In fact a further dip in investment could be self
GRID 15. a b c d e
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SPEED TEST 53 109
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fulfilling: if fewer roads, ports and factories are built, this will hurt 19. What is the authors main objective in writing the passage?
b
both short term growth figures and reduce the economys long (a) Showcasing the potential of Indias growth potential to
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term capacity. entice foreign investors .
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There is a view that because a fair amount of growth is assured (b) Exhorting India to implement measures to live up to its
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the government need not try very hard. The liberalization reforms potential.
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that began in 1991 freed markets for products and gave rise to (c) Recommending Indias model of development to other
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developing countries
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vibrant competition, at the same time what economists call factor
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markets, those for basic inputs like land, power, labour etc remain (d) Berating the private sector for not bidding for
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unreformed and largely under state control, which creates infrastructure development projects.
difficulties. Clearances today can take three to four years and (e) Criticising the measures taken by India during the global
many employers are keen to replace workers with machines economic crisis.
20. What impact has the GDP growth of 7.8 percent had?
despite an abundance of labor force. This can be attributed to
(1) Indian Industry is anxious about Indias economic
labor laws which are inimical to employee creation and an
growth.
education system that means finding quality manpower a major
(2) India has achieved status as the worlds third largest
problem. In fact the Planning Commission concluded that even economy at present.
achieving 9 percent growth will need marked policy action in (3) Foreign investment in India has drastically increased.
unreformed sectors. Twenty years age it was said that yardstick (a) Only (1)
against which India should be measured was its potential and it (b) All (1), (2) and (3)
is clear that there remains much to do. (c) Only (1) and (3)
16. Which of the following can be said about the Indian (d) Only (1) and (2)
economy at present? (e) None of these
(a) It can comfortably achieve double digit growth rare at 21. Which of the following is most similar in meaning to the
present. word CLOUT given in bold as used in the passage?
(b) High food prices have led to overheating of the (a) Strike
economy. (b) Standing
(c) Citizens are affluent owing to laxity in regulation. (c) Force
(d) Private sector confidence in Indias growth potential (d) Launch
is high. (e) Achieve
22. Which of the following is most opposite in meaning to the
(e) Unreformed sectors are a drag on economic growth.
word MARKED given in bold as used in the passage?
17. Why are employers reluctant to hire Indian labour force?
(a) Decreased
(1) Indias labour force is overqualified for the (b) Ignored
employment opportunities available. (c) Clear
(2) High attrition rate among employees stemming from (d) Assessed
their entrepreneurial spirit. (e) Imperceptible
(3) Labour laws are not conducive to generating 23. What measures do experts suggest be taken to ensure targeted
emploment. economic growth?
(a) Only (3) (a) Loweing of interest rates to help industries hit by
(b) All (1), (2) and (3) recession.
(c) Only (1) and (3) (b) Prolonged financial support for basic input industries.
(d) Only (1) and (2) (c) Incentives to Indian companies to invest in infrastucture.
(e) None of these (d) Formulation of policies and their implementation in factor
18. What is the state of Indias basic input sectors at present? markets
(a) These sectors attract Foreign Direct Investment (e) Stringent implementation of licensing system.
because of their vast potential. Passage - 3
(b) These sectors are lagging as projects are usually In many countries, a combustible mixture of authoritarianism,
awarded to foreign companies. unemployment and youth has given rise to disaffection with
(c) These sectors are stagnating and badly in need of strongmen rulers which has in turn spill over into uprising. Young
reforms. people in these countries are far better educated than their parents
(d) These sectors are well regulated as these are governed were. In 1990 the average Egyptian had 4.4 years of schooling; by
by the State. 2010 the figure had risen to 7.1 years. Could it be that education, by
(e) None of these making people less willing to put up with restrictions on freedom

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110 SPEED TEST 53
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and more willing to question authority, promotes democratization. 25. Which of the following is most similar in meaning to the
b
Ideas about the links between education, Income and democracy word PROMOTES given in bold as used in the passage?
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are at the heart of what social scientists have long studied. Since (a) Up grades (b) Prefers
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(c) Recommends (d) Advocates
rd
then plenty of economists and political scientists have looked for
(e) Publicizes
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statistical evidence of a causal link between education and
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democratization. Many have pointed to the strong correlation that 26. What conclusion can be drawn from the statistics cited about
s
exists between levels of education and measures like the pluralism Egypts education system?
s
.c
of party politics and the existence of civil liberties. The patterns (a) Job prospects have been on the rise in Egypt in recent
o
times.
m
are similar when income and democracy are considered. There are
outliers, of course until recently, many Arab countries managed to (b) Authoritarian leaders have played a vital role in
reforming Egypts education system.
combine energy-based wealth and decent education with
(c) Egypt has one of the youngest and best educated
undemocratic political systems. But some deduce from the overall
demographies in the world.
picture that as China and other authoritarian states get more educated (d) Egypt is likely to be successful vibrant democracy.
and richer, their people will agitate for greater political freedom, (e) There has been a rise in education levels in Egypt in
culminating in a shift to a more democratic form of government. recent times.
This apparently reasonable intuition is shakier than it seems. Critics 27. In the context of the passage which of the following
of the hypothesis point out that correlation is hardly causation. characterize (s) democracies?
The general trend over the past half century may have been towards (1) Active participation of majority of educated citizens in
rising living standards, a wider spread of basic education and more electoral process.
democracy, but it is entirely possible that this is being by another (2) Fast paced economic growth and accountability of those
variable. Even if the correlation were not spurious, it would be difficult in power.
to know which way causation ran. Does more education lead to (3) Better standards of living and access to higher education.
greater democracy? Or are more democratic countries better at (a) All (1), (2) and (3) (b) Only (2) and (3)
educating their citizens? A recent NBER paper compared a group of (c) Only (3) (d) Only (1) and (2)
Kenyan girls in 69 primary school whose students were randomly (e) None of these
selected to receive a scholarship with similar students in schools 28. What according to the author has led to uprisings in
which received no such financial aid. Previous studies has shown authoritarian countries?
that the scholarship programme led to higher test scores and (a) Lack of access to education.
increased the likelihood that girls enrolled in secondary school. (b) Vast numbers of uneducated and unemployable youth.
Overall, it significantly increased the amount of education obtained. (c) Frustration with the existing system of governance.
For the new study the authors tried to see how the extra schooling (d) Unavailability of natural energy resources like coal and
had affected the political and social attitudes of the women in oil.
(e) Governments overambitious plans for development.
question. Findings suggested that education may make people more
29. Which of the following is/are true about China in the context
interested in improving their own lives but they may not necessarily
of the passage?
see democracy as the way to do it. Even in established democracies, (1) Chinas citizens are in favor of a more representative
more education does not always mean either more active political form of government.
participation or greater faith in democracy. Poorer and less educated (2) China has made huge strides in infrastructure
people often vote in larger numbers than their more educated developments.
compatriots, who often express disdain for the messiness of (3) China is in the midst of a political revolution.
democracy, yearning for the kind of government that would deal (a) None (b) Only (1)
strongly with the corrupt and build highways, railway lines and (c) Only (1) and (3) (d) Only (2)
bridges at a dizzying pace of authoritarian China. (e) All (1), (2) and (3)
24. Which of the following most aptly describes the central 30. What does the phrase messiness of democracy convey
theme of the passage? in the context of the passage?
(a) Democratic nations are richer and have a better track (a) Democratic nations are chaotic on account of individual
record of educating their citizens. freedoms.
(b) Education does not necessarily lead to greater (b) Most democratic countries frequently have violent
enthusiasm for a democratic form of government revolts among their citizens.
(c) Educated societies with autocratic form of government (c) The divide between the poor and educated is growing
enjoy a better quality of life than democracies. wider in democracies.
(d) Citizens can fulfill their personal aspirations only under (d) High levels of pollution on account of frantic pace of
a democratic form of government. infrastructure development.
(e) Democracy makes citizens more intolerant as it does (e) Resigned acceptance of intrinsic corruption in the
not restrict personal freedoms education system.

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READING COMPREHENSION - II
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DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-9): Read the following passage carefully 1. Why is the consumer likely to be swept off his feet?
and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases (a) He is easily taken in by the deceptive publicity.
in the passage are printed in bold to help you locate them while (b) He is wooed by the charm of foreign brands readily
answering some of the questions.
available in the market.
In a country where consumers have traditionally had a raw
(c) He is not aware of the Law of Torts as practised abroad.
deal, the Consumer Protection Act was one of the most
progressive acts of legislation introduced in 1986. Before this, a (d) He is not aware of the benefits of the consumer rights.
shop could get away easily with the line goods once sold will (e) The Consumer Protection Act has been implemented and
not be taken back or exchanged or a car parking contractor with he can seek redressal.
park at your own risk. It is not that things have changed now
but at least a legislation is in place and a forum is available to 2. What does lack of... verdicts imply?
seek redressal . One of the basic limitations of this act is its (a) A lack of the basis of the system, trained staff and
mystification and general ignorance. No consumer agency or decisions based on fact
group has made its provisions general, nor has any redressal (b) A paucity of funds, jury and judgement
commission or forum. Restricted as it is by a lack of in frastructure
and personnel and great verdicts to encourage consumers. The (c) A lack of resources, employees and final decision based
legislation is comprehensive. It gives consumers the right to on facts
redress against defective goods, deficient services and unfair (d) Not having the required manpower, economy and
trade practices. Consumer courts must deliver their judgements decisive ruling
within 40 days, but rarely is this deadline adhered to. This
reviewer had a first-hand experience of the chairman of a consumer (e) None of these
court in Delhi who adjourned a case against a foreign airline for 3. Which of the following statements is/are true?
two years on the grounds that he did not have staff to type the A. Girimajis attempt is comprehensive but could have done
orders. His replacement found the backlog so shocking that he with an angle or two more.
dismissed several cases without applying his mind, in the process
working against the interests of consumers. But what is more B. Though the Act allows the consumer to approach the
important is that the law has it that a consumer can approach court on his own, yet a lawyer to represent him is insisted
court on his own without having to pay legal fees. In practice, upon.
this does not happen. The chairperson of the National C. Despite the Act, much remains the same.
Commission, who is a sitting judge, is so attuned to delivering
judgments which can stand scrutiny in a civil court of law that it (a) Only A and C (b) Only A and B
is insisted upon that a consumer must be represented by a lawyer. (c) Only B and C (d) Only B and C
If not, cases are adjourned with impunity and set for another (e) None of these
day. Girimajis attempt is creditable in that it is the first of its kind
and has addressed almost all possible angles. She has discussed 4. What does the author mean by mystification of the Act?
redressals in complaints about housing, basic telephony, rail (a) The mysterious Act is yet to be resolved.
transportation, power supply, life insurance and medical (b) The consumer is wary of the Act.
negligence. There are even tips on how to file a complaint. But it
(c) The Act is not easily accessible.
is mired in the case files of the National/ State Commissions of
the Consumer Forum. A useful dimension would have been a (d) The consumer remains unaware of his rights and
comparison with the Law of Torts practised abroad. It is necessary privileges.
here also, especially in an era of economic liberalisation, when the (e) The plight of the consumer is yet to end.
consumer is like ly to be swept off his feet by free-market forces.
GRID
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112 SPEED TEST 54
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5. Which of the following best describes the judges 11. Attuned
b
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replacement? (a) Brought into harmony
(a) He was partial towards the airline as it was a foreign (b) Adjusted
o
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one. (c) Hazardous
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(b) He never bothered to safeguard the interests of the
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(d) Out of tune
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reviewer. (e) Malpractice
s
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(c) He dismissed cases without even giving a second 12. Adjourned
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thought to what cases came to him. (a) Stopped (b) Postponed (c) Decided
m
(d) He was apathetic and uninterested about the direction (d) Cleared (e) Pended
the case might head in. DIRECTIONS (Qs. 13-15): Select the word which is most OPPOSITE
(e) He passed irrelevant verdicts indifferently. in meaning of the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
6. What does the Act broadly cover? 13. Impunity
(a) It protects the right to redress. (a) Penalised
(b) It is a forum that protects the redresser. (b) Fine
(c) It shields the consumer from deceptive and unfair trade (c) Sentence
practices. (d) Freedom from punishment
(d) It enables the plaintiff to fight his case free of cost. (e) None of these
14. Mired
(e) None of these
(a) Buried (b) Muddy (c) Steeped
7. Which of the following is a limitation of the Act? (d) Free (e) None of these
(a) It does not cover the international law of torts. 15. Redressal
(b) It is not comprehensive with regard to liberal economy. (l) Plea
(c) No forum or commission has come forward to bring it (b) Justice
to light. (c) Sue for compensation
(d) Its red-tapism (d) Not to compensate
(e) Put right
(e) None of these
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 16-23): Read the following passage carefully
8. How has Girimajis attempt been creditable?
and answer the questions given below it. Certain words / phrases
(a) It has given the Act a new dimension.
have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering
(b) She has brought all the loopholes in the Act to the some of the questions.
consumers notice. Amartya Sen wrote about the Indian tradition of skepticism
(c) She has looked at the Act in a very disinterested and and heterodoxy of opinion that led to high levels of intellectual
impersonal manner. argument. The power sector in India is a victim of this tradition at
(d) She has discussed the law in the most explicit manner. its worst. Instead of forcefully communicating, supporting and
(e) Her implicit dialogue with the consumer has made him honestly and firmly implementing policies, people just debate
aware of his rights. them. It is argued that central undertakings produce power at
lower tariffs and must therefore build most of the required extra
9. What is the functionary role of the chairman of the National
capacities. This is a delusion. They no longer have access to
Commission?
low-cost government funds.
(a) To be the titular head of the commission
Uncertainty about payment remains a reason for the
(b) To be accountable to the public
hesitation of private investment. They had to sell only to SEBs
(c) To prevent any dissent arising out of his verdicts and (State Electricity Boards). SEB balance sheets are cleaner after the
Acts securitisation of the Rs 40,000 crore or so owed by SEBs to
(d) To adjourn the cases with impunity central government undertakings, now shown as debt instruments.
(e) None of these But state governments have not implemented agreed plans to
ensure repayment when due. The current annual losses of around
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 10-12): Choose the word which is most SIMILAR
Rs 28,000 crore make repayment highly uncertain. The central
in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage. undertakings that are their main suppliers have payment security
10. Forum because the government will come to their help. Private enterprises
(a) Dias (b) Podium (c) Platform do not have such assurance and are concerned about payment
(d) Stage (e) None of these security, that must be resolved.
GRID 15. a b c d e
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SPEED TEST 54 113
b
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By the late 1990s, improving the SEB finances was 18. Which of the following is the reason for apathy of private
b
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recognised as fundamental to power reform. Unbundling SEBs, investors in power sector?
working under corporate discipline and even privatisation and (a) Their hesitation
o
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not vertically integrated state enterprises, are necessary for (b) Uncertainly of their survival
p
efficient and financially viable electricity enterprises. Since (c) Cut-throat competition
re
(d) Lack of guarantee of timely returns
s
government will not distance itself from managing them,
s
(e) None of these
.c
privatising is an option. The Delhi model has worked. But it
o
receives no public support. 19. What was the serious omission on the part of the State
m
Government?
The Electricity Act 2003, the APRDP (Accelerated Power
(a) Agreement for late recovery of dues
Reform and Development Programme) with its incentives and
(b) Reluctance to repay to private investors as per agreed
penalties, and the creation of independent r egulatory
plan
commissions, were the means to bring about reforms to improve
(c) Non-implementation of recovery due to unplanned and
financial viability of power sector. Implementation has been half-
haphazard polices
hearted and results disappointing. The concurrent nature of
(d) Lack of assurance from private enterprises
electricity in the Constitution impedes power sector improvement.
(e) None of these
States are more responsive to populist pressures than the central
20. Which of the following is/are considered necessary for
government, and less inclined to take drastic action against
electricity thieves. improving performance of electricity enterprises?
(A) Corporate work culture
Captive power would add significantly to capacity. However, (B) Privatisation
captive generation, three years after the Act enabled it, has added (C) Properly integrated state enterprises
little to capacity because rules for open access were delayed.
(a) All the three (b) (a) and (b) only
Redefined captive generation avoids state vetoes on purchase
(c) (a) and (c) only (d) (b) and (c) only
or sale of electricity except to state electricity enterprises.
(e) None of these
Mandating open access on state-owned wires to power
21. The example of Delhi Model quoted by the author
regardless of ownership and customer would encourage
underlines his feelings of
electricity trading. The Act recognised electricity trading as a
A. happiness about its success.
separate activity. A surcharge on transmission charges will pay
B. unhappiness for lack of public support
for cross-subsidies. These were to be eliminated in time. Rules
C. disgust towards privatisation.
for open access and the quantum of surcharge by each state
(a) (a) and (b) only (b) (b) and (c) only
commission (under broad principles defined by the central
(c) (a) and (c) only (d) All the three
commission) have yet to be announced by some. The few who
have announced the surcharge have kept it so high that no trading (e) None of these
can take place. 22. Which of the following was/were not considered as the
instrument(s) to accomplish financial well-being of power
16. The author thinks it appropriate to sector?
(a) discuss any policy in details and make it fool proof (a) The Electricity Act 2003
instead of implementing it hastily.
(b) The APRDP with its incentives and penalties
(b) follow Indian tradition meticulously as skepticism is
(c) Setting up of independent regulatory commissions
essential for major decisions.
(d) States vulnerability to populist pressures
(c) divert our energies from fruitlessly contracting policies
(e) Taking drastic action against electricity thieves.
to supporting its implementation whole-heartedly.
23. Why were the results of the power sector reforms NOT as
(d) intellectual arguments and conceptualisation of every
had been anticipated?
policy is definitely better than its enforcement.
(a) The means to bring about reforms were illconceived.
(e) none of these
(b) The enforcement of the reform means was inadequate
17. Why are the central undertakings not capable of generating
and apathetic.
power at low cost?
(a) Due to paucity of low-cost funds (c) The Act and the reform measures were contradicting
(b) Due to their access to Government funds with each other.
(c) Due to their delusion about government funds (d) The incentives on the one hand and penalties on the
(d) Because of their extra capacities other created dissatisfaction.

GRID
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114 SPEED TEST 54
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DIRECTIONS (Qs. 24-30) : Read the following passage and answer 25. The author thinks that openness in budget is essential as it
b
leads to
.w
the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases are given in
(a) prevention of tax implications
o
hold to bold you to locate them while answering some of the
rd
questions. (b) peoples reluctance to accept their moral duties
p
(c) exaggerated revelation of the strengths and
re
We have inherited the tradition of secrecy about the budget
weaknesses of economy
s
from Britain where also the system has been strongly attacked by
s
(d) making our country on par with Finland
.c
eminent economists and political scientists including Peter Jay.
o
(e) None of these
m
Sir Richard Clarke, who was the originating genius of nearly every
important development in the British budgeting techniques during 26. The author seems to be in favour of
the last two decades, has spoken out about the abuse of budget (a) maintaining secrecy of budget
secrecy: The problems of long-term tax policy should surely be (b) judicious blend of secrecy and openness
debated openly with the facts on the table. In my opinion, all (c) transparency in budget proposals
governments should have just the same duty to publish their (d) replacement of public constitution by secrecy
expenditure policy. Indeed, this obligation to publish taxation (e) None of these
policy is really essential for the control of public expenditure in 27. The secrecy of the budget is maintained by all of the
order to get realistic taxation implications. Realising that following countries except
democracy flourishes best on the principles of open government, A. Finland
more and more democracies are having an open public debate on B. India
budget proposals before introducing the appropriate Bill in the C. United States
legislature. In the United States the budget is conveyed in a (a) Only A (b) Only B (c) Only C
message by the President to the Congress, which comes well in (d) A and C (e) B and C
advance of the date when the Bill is introduced in the Congress. 28. Which of the following statements is definitely TRUE in the
In Finland the Parliament and the people are already discussing in context of the passage?
June the tentative budget proposals which are to be introduced in (a) The British Government has been religiously
the Finnish Parliament in September. Every budget contains a maintaining budget secrecy.
cartload of figures in black and white - but the dark figures represent (b) Budget secrecy is likely to lead to corrupt practices.
the myriad lights and shades of Indias life, the contrasting tones (c) Consulting unjustifiable taxes with public helps make
of poverty and wealth, and of bread so dear and flesh and blood them accept those taxes.
so cheap, the deep tints of adventure and enterprise and mans (d) There should be no control on public expenditure in
ageless struggle for a brighter morning. The Union budget should democratic condition.
not be an annual scourge but a part of presentation of annual (e) None of these
accounts of a partnership between the Government and the people. 29. Sir Richard Clarke seems to deserve the credit for
That partnership would work much better when the nonsensical (a) transformation in the British budgetary techniques.
secrecy is replaced by openness and public consultations, resulting (b) maintenance of secrecy of the British budget.
in fair laws and the peoples acceptance of their moral duty to pay. (c) detection of abuse of transparency in budget.
24. How do the British economists and political scientists react (d) bringing down the tax load on British people.
to budget secrecy? They are (e) None of these
(a) in favour of having a mix of secrecy and openness. 30. From the contents of the passage, it can be inferred that the
(b) indifferent to the budgeting techniques and taxation author is
policies. (a) authoritarian in his approach.
(c) very critical about maintenance of budget secrecy. (b) a democratic person.
(d) advocates of not disclosing in advance the budget (c) unaware of Indias recent economic developments.
contents. (d) a conservative person.

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READING COMPREHENSION - III
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DIRECTION : Read the following passages to answer the given The political benefits of the loan waiver have also been
question bused on it. Some words/phrases are printed in bold to exaggerated since if only a small fraction of farm families benefit,
and many of these have to pay bribes to get the actual benefit, will
help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
the waiver really be a massive vote-winner? Members of joint families
Political ploys initially hailed as master-strokes often end will feel aggrieved that, despite having less than one hectare per
up as flops. The ` 60,000 crore farm loan waiver announced in head, their family holding is too large to qualify for the 100% waiver.
the budget writes off 100% of overdues of small and marginal All finance ministers, of central or state governments, give away
farmers holding upto two hectares, and 25% of overdues of larger freebies in their last budgets, hoping to win electoral regards. yet,
farmers. While India has enjoyed 8%-9% GDP growth for the four-fifth of all incumbent government are voted out. This shows
past few years, the boom has bypassed many rural areas and that beneficiaries of favours are not notably grateful, while those
farmer distress and suicides have made newspaper headlines. not so favoured may feel aggrieved, and vote for the opposition.
Various attempts to provide relief (employment guarantee scheme, That seems to be why election budgets constantly fail to win
public distribution system) have made little impact, thanks to elections in India and the loan waiver will not change that pattern.
huge leakages from the governments lousy delivery systems. 1. Why do economists feel that loan waivers will benefit farmers
in distress?
So, many economists think the loan waiver is a worthwhile
(a) It will improve the standard of living of those farmers
alternative to provide relief. who can afford to repay their loans but are exempted.
However the poorest rural folk are landless labourers who (b) Other government relief measures have proved
get neither farm loans nor waivers. Half of the small and marginal ineffective,
farmers get no loans from banks, and depend entirely on (c) Suicide rates of farmers have declined after the
moneylenders, and will not benefit. Besides, rural India is full of announcement of the waiver.
the family holdings rather than individual holdings and family (d) Farmers will be motivated to increase the size of their
holdings will typically be much larger than two hectares even for family holdings not individual holdings.
dirt-poor farmers, who will, therefore, be denied the 100% waiver. It (e) The government will be forced to re-examine and improve
will thus fail in both economic and political objectives. IRDP loans the public distribution system.
to the rural poor in the 1980s demonstrated that crooked bank 2. What message will the loan waiver send to farmers who have
officials demand bribes amounting to one third the intended repaid loans?
(a) The Government will readily provide them with loans in
benefits. Very few of the intended beneficiaries who merited relief
the future.
received it. After the last farm loan waiver will similarly slow down (b) As opposed to money lenders banks are a safer and
fresh loans to deserving farmers. While overdues to co-operatives more reliable source of credit.
may be higher, economist Snrjit Bhalla says less then 5% of farmer (c) Honesty is the best policy.
loans to banks are overdue ie overdues exist for only 2.25 million (d) It is beneficial to take loans from co-operatives since
out of 90 million farmers. If so, then the 95% who have repaid loans their rates of interest are lower.
will not benefit. They will be angry at being penalised for honesty. (e) They will be angry at being penalised for honesty.
The budget thus grossly overestimates the number of 3. What is the author's suggestion to provide aid to farmers?
beneficiaries. It also underestimates the negative effects of the (a) Families should split their joint holding to take advantage
waiver encouraging wilful default in the future and discouraging of the loan waiver.
fresh bank lending for some years. Instead of trying to reach the (b) The government should increase the reach of the
needy, through a plethora of leaky schemes we should transfer employment guarantee scheme.
cash directly to the needy using new technology like biometric (c) Loans should be disbursed directly into bank accounts
of the farmers using the latest technology.
smart cards, which are now being used in many countries, and
(d) Government should ensure that loans waivers can be
mobile phones bank accounts. Then benefits can go directly to implemented over the number of years.
phone accounts operable only by those with biometric cards, (e) Rural infrastructure can be improved using schemes
ending the massive leakages of current schemes. which were successful abroad.
RESPONSE 1. a b c d e 2. a b c d e 3. a b c d e
GRID
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116 SPEED TEST 55
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4. What was the outcome of IRDP loans to the rural poor? 9. What impact will the loan waiver have on banks?
b
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(a) The percentage of bank loan sanctioned to family (a) Banks have to bear the entire brunt of the write off.
o
owned farms increased. (b) Loss of trust in banks by big farmers.
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(b) The loans benefited dishonest moneylenders not (c) Corruption among bank staff will increase.
p
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landless labourers. (d) Farmers will make it a habit to default on loans
s
(c) Corrupt bank officials were the unintended beneficiaries (e) None of these
s
.c
of the loans. 10. According to the author what is the government's motive in
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(d) It resulted in tne Government sanctioning thrice the sanctioning the loan waiver?
amount for the current loan waiver. (a) To encourage farmers to opt for bank loans from money
(e) None of these. lenders.
5. What are the terms of the loan waiver? (b) To raise 90 million farmers out of indebtedness.
(1) One-fourth of the overdue loans of landless labourers (c) To provide relief to those marginal farmers who have
will be written off. the means to but have not repaid their loans
(2) The ` 60,000 crore loan waiver has been sanctioned for (d) To ensure they will be re-elected
2.25 million marginal farmers. (e) None of these
(3) Any farmer with between 26 per cent to 100 per cent of DIRECTION (Q. 11-13) : Choose the word which is most nearly
their loan repayments overdue will be penalised. the SAME in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the
(a) Only (1) (b) On1y (2) passage.
(c) Both (2) and (3) (d) All (1), (2) and (3) 11. incumbent
(e) None of these (a) mandatory (b) present
6. What is the author's view of the loan waiver? (c) incapable (d) tazy
(a) It will have an adverse psychological impact on those (e) officious
who cannot avail of the waiver. 12. ploys
(b) It is a justified measure in view of the high suicide rate (a) surveys (b) entreaties
among landless labourers. (c) ruses (d) sliders
(c) It makes sound economic and political sense in the (d) assurances
existing scenario. 13. aggrieved
(d) It will ensure that the benefits of India's high GDP are (a) vindicated (b) intimidated
felt by the rural poor. (c) offensive (d) wronged
(e) None of these (d) disputed
7. Which of the following cannot be said about loan waiver? DIRECTIONS (Q. 14 & 15) : Choose the word which is most OPPOSITE
(1) Small and marginal farmers will benefit the most. in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
(2) The loan waiver penalises deserving farmers. 14. plethora
(3) A large percentage ie ninety five per cent of distressed (a) dearth (b) missing
farmers will benefit. (c) superfluous (d) sufficient
(a) Only (3) (b) Both (1) and (3) (e) least
(c) Only (1) (d) Both (2) and (3) 15. merited
(e) None of these (a) ranked (b) unqualified for
8. Which of the following will definitely be an impact of loan (c) lacked (d) inept at
waivers? (e) unworthy of
(1) Family holdings will be split into individual holdings DIRECTIONS (Q. 16-25): Read the following passage to answer
not exceeding one hectare. the given questions based on it, Some words/phrases are printed in
(2) The public distributipn system will be revamped. bold to help you locate them while answermg some of the questions.
(3) Opposition will definitely win the election. The e-waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 2011,
(a) None (b) Only (1) notified by the Ministry of Environmynt and Forests, have the
(c) Both (1) and (2) (d) Only (3) potential to turn a growing problem into a developmental
opportunity. With almost half-a-year to go before the rules take
(e) All (1), (2) and (3)
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SPEED TEST 55 117
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effect, there is enough time to create the necessary infrastructure 17. Which of the following can be one ofthe by-products of
b
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for collection, dismantling and recycling of electronic waste. The effective e-waste management? .
focus must be on sincere and efficient implementation. Only (a) India can guide other countries in doing so.
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decisive action can reduce the pollution and health costs (b) It will promote international understanding.
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associated with India's hazardous waste recycling industry. If (c) It will promote national integration.
re
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India can achieve a transformation, it will be creating a whole (d) It will create a new employment sector.
s
.c
new-employment sector that provides good wages and working (e) It will further empowet judiciary.
o
conditions for tens of thousands. The legacy response of the 18. Which of the following rules has not been indicated in the
m
States to even the basic law on urban waste, the Municipal Solid passage?
Wastes (Management and Handling) Rules has been one of (a) e-waste Rules 20 11
indifference; many cities continue to simply bum the garbage or (b) Pollution Check Rules
dump it in lakes. With the emphasis now on segregation of waste (c) Hazardous Wastes Rules, 2008
at source and recovery of materials. it should be feasible to (d) Municipal Solid Wastes Rules
implement both sets of rules efficiently. A welcome feature of the (e) All these have been indicated
new e-waste rules is the emphasis on extended producer 19. Both sets of rules is being referred to which of the following?
responsibility. In other words, producers must take responsibility (a) Solid wastes and hazardous wastes
for the disposal of end-of-life products. For this provision to (b) e-waste and hazardous waste
work, they must ensure that consumers who sell scrap get some (c) Solid waste and e-waste
form of financial incentive. (d) e-waste and e-production
The e-waste rules, which derive from those pertaining to (e) Solid waste and recycling waste
hazardous waste, are scheduled to come into force on May 1, 20. e-waste rules have been derived from those pertaining to
2012. Sound as they are, the task of scientifically disposing a few (a) Hazardous waste (b) PC waste
hundred thousand tonnes of trash electronics annually depends (c) Computer waste (d) Municipal solid waste
heavily on a system of oversight by State Pollutions Control (d) National waste
Boards (PCBs). Unfortunately, most PCBs remain unaccountable 21. Which of the following will help implement both sets of
and often lack the resources for active enforcement. It must be rules?
pointed out that, although agencies handling e-waste must obtain (a) Employment opportunities
environmental clearances and be authorised and registered by (b) International collaboration
the PCBs even under the Hazardous Wastes (Management, (c) Financial incentive
Handling and Transboundary Movement) Rules 2008, there has (d) Segregation of waste at source
been little practical impact. Over 95 per cent of electronic waste is (e) Health costs
collected and recycled by the informal sector. The way forward is 22. e-waste Rules came/come into force from
for the PCBs to be made accountable for enforcement of the e- (a) 2008 (b) 2009
waste rules and the levy of penalties under environmental laws. (c) 2010 (d) 2011
Clearly, the first order priority is to create a system that will absorb
(e) 2012
the 80,000-strong workforce in the informal sector into the
23. Which of the following best explains the meaning of the
proposed scheme for scientific recycling. Facilities must be created phrase which could only be imagined few years back as
to upgrade the skills of these workers through training and their used in the passage?
occupational health must be ensured. (a) It was doomed.
Recycling of e-waste is one of the biggest challenges today. In (b) It took us few years.
such a time, when globalisation and information technology are (c) It took us back by few years
growing at a pace which could only be imagined few years back, (d) Imagination is better than IT.
e-waste and its hazards have become more prominent over a (e) None of these
period of time and should be given immediate attention. 24. Which of the following is true in the context of the passage?
16. What, according to the passage, is important now for (a) No city dumps its waste in lakes.
e-waste management? (b) Some cities burn garbage.
(a) Making rules (b) Reviewing rules (c) PCBs have adequate resources for'active enforcement.
(c) Implementing rules (d) Notifying rules (d) e-waste was a much bigger chajlenge in the past.
(e) Amending rules (e) None of these

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118 SPEED TEST 55
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25. Which of the following is not true 10 the context of the 27. Turn
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passage? (a) Throw (b) Chance
(c) Send (d) Transform
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(a) Some fonn offmancial incentive is recommended for
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the producers. (e) Rotate
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28. Potential
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(b) Some financial incentive is recommended for the
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consumers. (a) Intelligence (b) Aptitude
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(c) e-waste will be a few hundred thousand tonnes. (c) Possibility (d) Portion
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(e) Will
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(d) The agencies handling e-waste have to obtain
environmental clearances. DIRECTIONS (Q. 29 & 30): Choose the word which is most
(e) Those involved in e-waste management would need to opposite in meaning of the word printed in bold as used in the
upgrade their skills. passage.
29. Feasible
DIRECTIONS (Q. 26-28): Choose the word which is most nearly (a) Unattended (b) Physical
the same in meaning of the word printed in bold, as used in the (c) Practical (d) Unviabie
passage. (e) Wasteful
26. Clearance 30. Indifference
(a) Cleaning (b) Permisssion (a) Interest (b) Difference
(c) Sale (d) Remedy (c) Ignorance (d) Rule-bound
(e) Clarity (e) Insignificance
GRID 30. a b c d e
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SYNONYMS
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DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-25): Select the synonyms of the word given 9. PROTAGONIST
in CAPITAL letters. (a) Talented child (b) Reserved person
(c) Leading character (d) Fearless
1. VICARIOUS
(e) None of these
(a) Ambitious 10. FACTITIOUS
(b) Not experienced personally (a) Humorous (b) Truthful
(c) Nostalgic (c) Artificial (d) Causing fatigue
(d) Vindictive (e) None of these
(e) None of these 11. HOSPITABLE
2. CRAVEN (a) Convivial (b) Liberal
(a) Greedy (b) Cowardly (c) Congenital (d) Welcoming
(c) Flattering (d) Restless (e) None of these
(e) None of these 12. SCARCELY
3. TEPID (a) Hardly (b) Always
(c) Sometimes (d) Frequently
(a) Irreversible (b) Causing fatigue
(e) None of these
(c) Fast moving (d) Lukewarm
13. DISDAIN
(e) None of these (a) Disown (b) Condemn
4. TENUOUS (c) Hate (d) Criticise
(a) Contentious (b) Dark (e) None of these
(c) Slender (d) Malfunctioning 14. ABSURD
(e) None of these (a) Senseless (b) Clean
5. PROBITY (c) Abrupt (d) Candid
(a) Integrity (b) Impudence (e) None of these
(c) Profane (d) Preface 15. PHILANTHROPY
(a) Generosity (b) Perversity
(e) None of these
(c) Perjury (d) Flaunting
6. MUSTY (e) None of these
(a) Certainty (b) Stale 16. MUTUAL
(c) Modern (d) Mysterious (a) Reciprocal (b) Agreed
(e) None of these (c) Common (d) Conjugal
7. ALLEVIATE (e) None of these
(a) To release (b) To lessen 17. WEIRD
(c) To deprive (d) To deceive (a) Beastly (b) Unpleasant
(e) None of these (c) Frightening (d) Unnatural
8. MOROSE (e) None of these
(a) Humble (b) Morsel
(c) Sullen (d) Repugnant
(e) None of these
16. a b c d e 17. a b c d e
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18. PESSIMISTIC (c) Clear (d) Ambiguous
b
(a) Indifferent (b) Ascetic (e) None of these
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(c) Unsettle (d) Not hopeful 30. Friends have always DEPLORED my unsociable nature.
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(e) None of these (a) Deprived (b) Implored
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19. ANALOGOUS (c) Denied (d) Regretted
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(a) Unsuitable (b) Uncritical (e) None of these
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(c) Similar (d) Disproportionate
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31. People fear him because of his VINDICTIVE nature.
(e) None of these
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(a) Violent (b) Cruel
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20. EXAGGERATE
(a) Bluff (b) Overstate (c) Revengeful (d) Irritable
(c) Explain (d) Underestimate (e) None of these
(e) None of these 32. He always has a very PRAGMATIC approach to life.
21. EVIDENT (a) Practical (b) Proficient
(a) Prominent (b) Seen (c) Potent (d) Patronizing
(c) Observed (d) Quite clear (e) None of these
(e) None of these 33. The song had a SOPORIFIC effect on the child.
22. PENALIZE
(a) Soothing (b) Terrific
(a) Persecute (b) Punish
(c) Torture (d) Ruin (c) Supreme (d) Sleep-inducing
23. REMEDIAL 34. His bad behaviour EVOKED punishment.
(a) Punitive (b) Stringent (a) Escaped (b) Called for
(c) Corrective (d) Strict (c) Produced (d) Summoned
24. TRIVIAL 35. The boy said that pain had ABATED.
(a) Unimportant (b) Transparent (a) Reduced (b) Vanished
(c) Important (d) Unexpected (c) Increased (d) Stabilised
25. INCREDIBLE 36. The queen was aware of the INSOLENT behaviour of the
(a) Hard to believe (b) Considerable lords.
(c) Inconsistent (d) Unsatisfactory
(a) Violent (b) Polite
(e) None of these
(e) None of these
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 26-40): Select the synonym of the word (c) Insulting (d) Frivolous
occuring in the sentence in CAPITAL letters as per the context. 37. The newspaper reports were MENDACIOUS
26. After weeks of FRENETIC activity, the ground was ready (a) mischievous (b) truthful
for the big match. (c) provocative (d) false
(a) Strenuous (b) Hurried (e) None of these
(c) Excited (d) Hectic
38. He INDUCES human beings to want things they dont want.
(e) None of these
(a) Influences (b) Dictates
27. The policemen kept on questioning the criminal but failed to
ELICIT the truth. (c) Persuades (d) Appreciates
(a) Evoke (b) Wrest (e) None of these
(c) Obtain (d) Extort 39. His information is not AUTHENTIC.
(e) None of these (a) Real (b) Reliable
28. Teaching in universities is now considered a LUCRATIVE (c) Believable (d) Genuine
job. (e) None of these
(a) Risky (b) Profitable 40. It is the difficulty or SCARCITY of a thing that it makes it
(c) Honourable (d) Undignified precious.
(e) None of these (a) poverty (b) absence
29. His descriptions are VIVID. (c) insufficiency (d) disappearance
(a) Detailed (b) Categorical (e) None of these

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ANTONYMS
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DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-20): Select the antonyms of the word given 11. EXPLOIT
in CAPITAL letters. (a) Utilize (b) Alert
(c) Support (d) Neglect
1. REINFORCING
(e) None of these
(a) contradicting (b) wishing
12. SHARP
(c) jolting (d) forcing
(e) re-inventing (a) Bleak (b) Blunt
2. BEFRIENDED (c) Bright (d) Blond
(a) recoiled (b) killed (e) None of these
(c) accepted (d) mistrusted 13. CONDEMN
(e) ignored (a) Censure (b) Approve
3. FRAIL (c) Recommend (d) Praise
(a) Unhealthy (b) Massive (e) None of these
(c) Rich (d) Robust 14. RELUCTANT
(e) Civilised (a) Avoiding (b) Anxious
4. SPLENDIDLY (c) Refuse (d) Eager
(a) Wisely (b) Unfairly (e) None of these
(c) Rudely (d) Reluctantly 15. SCARCITY
(e) Unimpressively (a) Plenty (b) Prosperity
5. CHARMED (c) Facility (d) Simplicity
(a) Offended (b) Stunned (e) None of these
(c) Repulsed (d) Jealous 16. BLEAK
(e) Outraged (a) Bright (b) Confusing
6. OBLIGATORY (c) Uncertain (d) Great
(a) Doubtful (b) Voluntary (e) None of these
(c) Sincerely (d) Faithfully 17. STERN
(e) None of these (a) Violent (b) Generous
7. OBSCURE (c) Mild (d) Forgiving
(a) Suitable (b) Apt (e) None of these
(c) Thalamus (d) Clear 18. SUPERFICIAL
(e) None of these (a) Profound (b) Difficult
8. REPULSIVE (c) Secretive (d) Mystical
(a) Attractive (b) Colourful (e) None of these
(c) Unattractive (d) Striking 19. ELEGANCE
(e) None of these (a) Balance (b) Indelicacy
9. VITAL (c) Clumsiness (d) Savagery
(a) Trivial (b) Peripheral (e) None of these
(c) Optional (d) Superficial 20. COARSE
(e) None of these (a) Pleasing (b) Rude
10. INHIBIT (c) Polished (d) Soft
(a) Pamper (b) Breed
(e) None of these
(c) Accept (d) Promote
(e) None of these
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DIRECTIONS (Qs. 21-40): Select the antonym of the word (a) Active (b) Lazy
b
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occuring in the sentence in CAPITAL letters as per the context. (c) Strong (d) Resolute
(e) None of these
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21. He is a man of EXTRAVAGANT habits.
rd
(a) Sensible (b) Careful 31. The boy comes of an AFFLUENT family.
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(a) Poor (b) Ordinary
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(c) Economical (d) Balanced
(c) Infamous (d) Backward
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(e) None of these
s
(e) None of these
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22. They employ only DILIGENT workers.
o
32. The young athlete is ENERGETIC enough to run ten
m
(a) Unskilled (b) Lazy thousand meters at a stretch.
(c) Careless (d) Idle (a) inactive (b) dull
(e) None of these (c) gloomy (d) lethargic
23. The characters in this story are not all FICTITIOUS. (e) None of these
(a) Common (b) Factual 33. He has a SECURE position in the entrance examination.
(c) Real (d) Genuine (a) rigid (b) precarious
(e) None of these (c) static (d) secondary
24. He is a GENEROUS man. (e) None of these
(a) Stingy (b) Uncharitable 34. The criminal was known to the police by VARIOUS names.
(c) Selfish (d) Ignoble (a) separate (b) distinct
(e) None of these (c) identical (d) similar
25. The issue raised in the form can be IGNORED. (e) None of these
(a) Removed (b) Considered 35. RECESSION is a major cause of unemployment.
(c) Set aside (d) Debated (a) Education (b) Inflation
(e) None of these (c) Poverty (d) Computerization
26. After swallowing the frog had become LETHARGIC. (e) None of these
(a) Aggressive (b) Dull 36. The accused emphatically DENIED the charge in the court.
(a) Accepted (b) Agreed
(c) Active (d) Hungry
(c) Asserted (d) Affirmed
(e) None of these
(e) None of these
27. Dust storms and polluted rivers have made it HAZARDOUS
37. The three states signed a pact to have COLLECTIVE
to breathe the air and drink the water. economy.
(a) Convenient (b) Risky (a) distributive (b) disintegrative
(c) Wrong (d) Safe (c) individual (d) divided
28. Only hard work can ENRICH our country. 38. The child was ABDUCTED when he was going to school.
(a) Impoverish (b) Improve (a) seized (b) set free
(c) Increase (d) Involve (c) kidnapped (d) ransomed
29. The story you have just told is INCREDIBLE. 39. The government has ENHANCED the tuition fees in schools
(a) Credible (b) Fantastic and colleges.
(c) Probable (d) Believable (a) magnified (b) aggravated
(e) None of these (c) decreased (d) augmented
30. The doctor found the patient INERT. (e) None of these
40. Children ADORE the cricket players.
(a) Discuss (b) Condemn
(c) Benefit (d) Check
(e) None of these


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SENTENCE COMPLETION - I
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DIRECTIONS: Select the correct word or phrase to complete a 8. Of the two assistants we employed last month, I find
grammatical sentence. In case of more than one blank, the different Raman .............. hard working.
(a) most (b) more
words given in the options shall fill in the corrosponding order.
(c) least (d) only
1. As soon as the visitors dishonest purpose was discovered (e) None of these
he was ........ the door. 9. It is earths gravity which .............. people their weight.
(a) show with (b) shown to (a) gives (b) give
(c) shown (d) shown out of (c) giving (d) given
2. As soon as my attention was ........ the dangerous state of 10. Total weight of all the ants in the world is much greater
the staircase, I got it repaired. than ............... .
(a) drawn for (b) drawn upon (a) to all human beings
(c) drawn near (d) drawn to (b) that of all human beings
(e) None of these (c) is of all human beings
3. I wish my brother -........ here to listen to this entertaining (d) that of the all human beings
lecture. (e) None of these
(a) would be (b) has been 11. It is good form to use the name of the person ............... .
(c) is (d) were (a) who are greeting
(e) None of these (b) you are greeting
4. Did you think you ........ somewhere before? (c) which you are greeting
(a) have seen me (b) saw me (d) greeting for you
(e) None of these
(c) had seen me (d) would see me
12. .............. that increasing numbers of compact disc players will
(e) None of these
be bought by consumers in the years to come.
5. Do not force me to ........ you on this issue; I am not at all
(a) They are anticipated
convinced. (b) In anticipation
(a) agree upon (b) concur with (c) Anticipating
(c) join over (d) equate with (d) It is anticipated
6. Having ........ only in salt water before, I found it a little 13. He was frightened ...............
difficult to swim in fresh water. (a) to be killed (b) to being killed
(a) swam (b) swum (c) for being killed (d) of being killed
(c) had swam (d) swimming (e) None of these
(e) None of these 14. Capitalist society .............. profit as a valued goal.
7. If I were you, I ............... be careful with my words. (a) which regards (b) regarding
(a) will (b) would (c) regards (d) was regarded
(c) shall (d) should (e) None of these
(e) None of these 15. The impact of two vehicles can cause a lot of .............. to both.
(a) damage (b) damages
(c) damaging (d) damagings
(e) None of these
RESPONSE
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124 SPEED TEST 58
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16. The conditions necessary .............. this project have not been DIRECTIONS : Select the correct word or phrase to complete a
b
met.
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grammatical and idiomatic sentence.
(a) of completion (b) for the complete of
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24. If you are really not feeling well. you .......... a doctor.
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(c) of complete (d) for the completion of
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(e) None of these (a) should better see (b) may Sec
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17. The weather in the far north is not .............. it is down south. (c) had better see (d) would rather see
s
s
(a) like humid as (b) as humid as (e) None of these
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(c) humid as (d) so humid that
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25. If only I.......... his address, I would most certainly have told
m
(e) None of these you.
18. .............. the reactions of people with amnesia, scientists are (a) know (b) knew
learning about the process of memory of the brain.
(c) had known (d) off
(a) By studying (b) To study
(e) None of these
(c) They study (d) They are studying
(e) None of these 26. The marathon race is intended to test ones endurance
19. After the election .............. a new stage. more...........
(a) the entering nation (a) than his speed (b) than how fast one runs
(b) the nation will enter (c) than ones speed (d) lain off
(c) to enter the nation (e) None of these
(d) will the nation enter 27. She expects me to type the letter in five minutes .......... is
(e) None of these impossible.
20. I hope she ............... . (a) that (b) which
(a) must come (b) should come (c) what (d) but
(c) will come (d) must be coming (e) None of these
(e) None of these
28. If only you had spoken clearly, you
21. An increase in population, without an increase in
(a) would not be misunderstood
economic level, .............. result in a lower standard of
living. (b) would not have been misunderstanding.
(a) tends to (b) tending to (c) would not have been misunderstood.
(c) will tend (d) tends (d) would not have misunderstood.
22. .............. as President, a candidate must win a majority of 29. It is high time that he .......... himself.
votes. (a) had reformed (b) will reform
(a) Elected (b) To be elected (c) has to reform (d) reformed
(c) Having elected (d) Electing (e) None of these
(e) None of these 30. .........., a bus almost ran over him.
23. Encounters between people from different countries can (a) Running across the road
result in misunderstandings .............. different conceptions
(b) Running on the road
about space.
(c) When he ran across the road
(a) because they (b) is because they
(c) is because their (d) of their (d) When he was running through the road.

b b b b b
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SENTENCE COMPLETION - II
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DIRECTIONS: Select the correct word or phrase to complete a 8. His interest in the study of human behaviour is indeed very
grammatical and idiomatic sentence. .........
(a) strong (b) large
1. These essays are intellectually .............. and represent (c) broad (d) vast
various levels of complexity. (e) deep
(a) revealing (b) modern 9. The improvement made by changes in the system was .... and
(c) superior (d) demanding did not warrant the large expenses.
(e) persistent (a) large (b) small
(c) minute (d) marginal
2. The soldiers are instructed to .......... restraint and handle
(e) uncertain
the situation peacefully. 10. He is too ..... to be deceived easily.
(a) exercise (b) control (a) strong (b) modern
(c) enforce (d) remain (c) kind (d) honest
(e) None of these (e) intelligent
3. Since one connot read every book, one should be content 11. There has been a ...... lack of efficiency in all the crucial areas
with making a ........ selection. of the working of Public Sector Undertakings.
(a) positive (b) surprising
(a) normal (b) standard
(c) conspicuous (d) stimulative
(c) sample (d) moderate (e) insignificant
(e) judicious 12. I will be leaving for Delhi tonight and ........... to return by this
4. Some people ........ themselves into believing that they are week end.
indispensable to the organisation they work for. (a) waiting (b) plan
(a) keep (b) fool (c) going (d) likely
(c) force (d) denigrate (e) making
13. Ravis behaviour is worthy of ....... by all the youngsters.
(e) delude (a) trial (b) emulation
5. How do you expect that country to progress when her (c) following (d) exploration
government is corrupt, ..... and still lergely feudal? (e) experiment
(a) devalued (b) dwinding 14. The only way to ...... the country from the evils of
(c) demobilised (d) demeaning communalism is to enforce the rule of law.
(e) None of these (a) eradicate (b) mobilise
(c) extricate (d) purge
6. The truck was ...... the trafic and the policeman asked the
(e) strengthen
driver to move off. 15. Even at the risk of economic loss, he ...... refused to take the
(a) failing (b) obstructing beaten track.
(c) obviating (d) hiding (a) repeatedly (b) stead fastly
(e) disturbing (c) regularly (d) continuously
7. The paternalistic attitude is so ingrained to the (e) None of these
managements that they will have to ........ try to change it. 16. On his sudden demise, may emotions were so complicated
that it was ......... how I felt.
(a) casually (b) slowly
(a) unreasonable (b) impossible
(c) subtly (d) inadvertently (c) inexplicable (d) unimaginable
16. a b c d e
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126 SPEED TEST 59
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17. Two of the fugitives managed to remain free by adeptly 27. I will write a letter to you tentatively ....... the dates of the
b
avoiding the ....... of the police.
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programme.
(a) torture (b) pursuit (a) involving (b) urging
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(c) discovery (d) following (c) guiding (d) indicating
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(e) None of these (e) propagating
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18. Experts fail to understand the ..... behind the decision to
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28. Contemporary economic development differs ....... form the
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move coal by road when there is enough rail capacity in this
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Industrial Revolution of the 19th century.
sector
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(a) naturally (b) usually
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(a) ideology (b) judgement
(c) rationale (d) politics (c) literally (d) specially
(e) logistics (e) markedly
19. Automobile manufacturers are reviving up to launch a 29. The word gharana points to the ...... concepts of stylistic
compaign designed to increase consumer ........ about the individuality and handing down of tradition within family
new emmission control. confines.
(a) production (b) education (a) joint (b) conflicting
(c) capacity (d) knowledge (c) dual (d) contradictory
(e) awareness (e) extraordinary
20. His logic ......... everyone, including the expects. 30. It ws the help he got from his friends which ....... him through
(a) teased (b) defied
the tragedy.
(c) surprised (d) confounded
(e) overwhelmed (a) helped (b) boosted
21. The factory went into a state of suspended ....... today with (c) perked (d) supported
all its workers on strike. (e) sustained
(a) symbiosis (b) animation 31. The criminals managed to escape from the prison even
(c) ways (d) condition through two armed policemen were ....... vigil over them.
(e) mortification (a) taking (b) putting
22. It is not fair to cast ....... on honest and innocent persons. (c) guarding (d) keeping
(a) aspiration (b) aspersions (e) looking
(c) inspiration (d) adulation 32. The speaker did not properly use the time as he went on .....
(e) None of these on one point alone.
23. You must ....... your career with all seriousness. (a) dilating (b) devoting
(a) direct (b) complete
(c) deliberating (d) diluting
(c) follow (d) manage
(e) pursue (e) distributing
24. The villagers .......... the death of their leader by keeping all 33. Ravi had to drop his plan of going to picnic as he had certain
the shops closed. ..... to meet during that period.
(a) announced (b) protested (a) preparations (b) observations
(c) mourned (d) consoled (c) urgencies (d) transactions
(e) None of these (e) commitments
25. These medicines are ........ for curing cold. 34. Even in todays modern society, people ....... god to bring
(a) proper (b) real rains.
(c) effective (d) capable (a) provoke (b) evoke
(e) powerful (c) propitiate (d) superimpose
26. The poor ones continue to ........... out a living inspite of
(e) None of these
economic liberalisation in that country.
35. The good is often ....... with their bones.
(a) find (b) go
(c) bring (d) manage (a) buried (b) covered
(e) None of these (c) exhumed (d) interred
(e) fleshed

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SIMILAR SUBSTITUTION
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DIRECTIONS : In each of these questions, two sentences (I) 6. I. The truck stopped ___________.
and (II) are given. Each sentence has a blank in it. Five words (a), II. We take a ___________ walk every day.
(b), (c), (d) and (e) are suggested. Out of these, only one fits at (a) suddenly (b) long
both the places in the context of each sentence. Option of that (c) short (d) distant
word is the answer. (e) near
1. I. He is__________ with whatever little he has. 7. I. I got the grains ___________ in the machine.
II. I do not have any ___________ for doubting him.
II. They kept the ____________ of the communication
(a) done (b) basis
a secret.
(c) ground (d) crushed
(a) happy (b) matter
(e) tune
(c) gist (d) content
8. I. We were asked to design a ___________ of the dam.
(e) sense
II. This Institute is a ___________ of modern thinking.
2. I. It is hard to believe the ___________ of operations
(a) picture (b) type
involved in this activity. (c) function (d) fabric
II. The map is drawn to a ___________ of 1 inch to 50 (e) model
km. 9. I. Keep a ___________ grip on the railing.
(a) magnitude (b) size II. He was ___________ asleep.
(c) scale (d) proportion (a) fast (b) firm
(e) significance (c) deep (d) strong
3. I. Heavy snow did ___________ the rescue efforts. (e) sure
II. The food was kept in a ___________. 10. I. He asked me to ___________ over the fence.
(a) delay (b) bundle II. We should keep the valuables in the ___________.
(c) basket (d) hamper (a) vault (b) cross
(e) holder (c) safe (d) tie
4. I. They left ___________ after breakfast. (e) locker
II. It is difficult to find a ___________ person for this job. 11. I. He has now become a ___________ to reckon with.
(a) right (b) immediately II. It is better not to use ___________ to prove ones point.
(c) suitable (d) best (a) model (b) force
(e) soon (c) coercion (d) name
5. I. He would always do ___________ was told by his (e) influence
superiors. 12. I. He tried his ___________ best to score distinction in
II. He appeared on stage ___________ a narrator of the this exam.
drama. II. It pays to keep ___________ head in an emergency.
(a) cool (b) utmost
(a) as (b) what
(c) very (d) possible
(c) about (d) whatever
(e) level
(e) always
GRID
11. a b c d e 12. a b c d e
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128 SPEED TEST 60
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13. I. The system is working with ___________ to getting (a) edition (b) volume
b
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things done. (c) channel (d) frequency
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II. ___________ must be commanded and not (e) pitch
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demanded. 20. I. It helps to rinse ones mouth early morning with a
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(a) status (b) relation
___________ of salt and water.
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(c) attitude (d) respect
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II. You can always refer to this reference material to find
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(e) honour
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the ___________ to these problems.
m
14. I. There is a complaint against him that he ___________
the mistakes of his juniors. (a) mixture (b) answers
II. A good thing about this house is that it ___________ (c) liquid (d) fix
the sea. (e) solution
(a) ignores (b) promotes 21. I. Our office decided to organize a party for the
(c) examines (d) overlooks .. couple.
(e) faces II. She him in conversation to while away
15. I. Out of the total loans ___________ by the bank, the some time.
largest share was for infrastructure. (a) new (b) engaged
II. The trees are ___________ throughout the area.
(c) pledged (d) held
(a) disbursed (b) covered
(e) encountered
(c) distributed (d) spanned
22. I. It is required that you fill out these two ..
(e) extended
16. I. Boats take more time going against the ___________ to register for the job.
of the river. II. This subject has many practical ......... in day
II. She keeps herself abreast of ___________ events. to day life.
(a) low (b) latest (a) forms (b) applications
(c) water (d) all (c) relevance (d) statements (e) views
(e) current 23. I. The next .. of this case is after two months.
17. I. While trying to open the door, the ___________ broke. II. After the accident her .. has been affected.
II. It is not difficult to ___________ tricky situations. (a) dates (b) balance
(a) handle (b) knob
(c) evidence (d) health
(c) bracket (d) overcome
(e) hearing
(e) win
18. I. This course teaches you not to ___________ to 24. I. As a last . we had to accept these terms
temptations. and conditions.
II. We hope to increase our ___________ of rice this II. This place has become a good tourist now.
year. (a) resort (b) step
(a) succumb (b) produce (c) attraction (d) spot (e) means
(c) yield (d) share 25. I. The organization decided on an hourly minimum
(e) submit .. of ` 35.
19. I. When you play your radio at high ___________ it II. Will he a war on these fronts to improve
disturbs others. things?
II. We have just received a latest ___________ of this
(a) pay (b) declare (c) pose
encyclopedia.
(d) wage (e) campaign

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CORRECT USAGE OF PREPOSITION
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DIRECTIONS : Select the correct word or phrase to complete a (a) with, than (b) within, to
grammatical sentence. In case of more than one blank, the different (c) within, against (d) on, from
words given in the options shall fill in the corresponding order. (e) None of these
1. The patient was cheered ........ by the news that she was 9. I doubt whether the accommodation in that place is
likely to be discharged in a day or two. adequate........our needs.
(a) on (b) up (a) according to (b) with
(c) out (d) down (c) for (d) against
2. The thieves had driven ten miles before the police caught 10. The teacher warned the students to desist ........making noise.
........them. (a) from (b) about
(a) on with (b) upon (c) with (d) by
(c) up to (d) up with (e) None of these
(e) None of these 11. It was customary ........ devotees going to that temple to take
3. The way he is currying favour ........ his rich neighbour is a bath in the nearby tank first.
sickening. (a) with (b) on
(a) of (b) with
(c) for (d) about
(c) for (d) to (e) None of these
(e) None of these
12. Absorbed ........ his own thought, he paid scant attention to
4. Because of his distrust........ every one, he could never gain
what was happening ........ him.
any good friend.
(a) with, about (b) in, around
(a) by (b) of
(c) by, to (d) of, besides
(c) with (d) in
(e) None of these
(e) None of these
13. Though young, he proved a worthy rival ........ his opponent
5. The new Twenty Point Programme is designed to be a
renewed assault ........ poverty. who had much more experience.
(a) for (b) into (a) to (b) against
(c) on (d) upon (c) for (d) with
6. If you have a good project but are lacking ........finance, you 14. He was of a charitable disposition, but did not like a number
should enter into partnership ........an affluent person. of his relatives trying to live ........ him without trying to earn
their living.
(a) of, with (b) for, with
(a) with (b) near
(c) in, with (d) in, of
(c) off (d) through
(e) None of these
(e) None of these
7. He was operated ........ an abscess in his leg.
15. The by-election, ........ closely fought, resulted ........ a surprise
(a) for (b) against
landslide for the ruling party.
(c) on for (d) on against
(a) if, at (b) since, with
(e) None of these
(c) whether, in (d) though, in
8. Living a simple life ........ ones won resources is preferable
(e) None of these
........ leading a luxurious life on borrowed funds.
RESPONSE
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130 SPEED TEST 61
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16. You cannot be too sensitive........ criticism, if you have chosen 26. His claims of close acquaintance........ the high and the mighty
b
a political career.
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are unbelievable.
(a) about (b) with (a) about (b) towards
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(c) for (d) to (c) with (d) from
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17. ........ we are good friends his views differ ........mine on many
s
27. Compared........China, Indias progress in the agricultural field
s
issues.
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has been commendable.
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(a) Despite, with (b) Because, off (a) against (b) over
m
(c) Although, from (d) Nevertheless, form
(c) towards (d) to
(e) None of these
(e) None of these
18. A peculiar custom prevailing........ Toads is the sacrifice of
28. The court found him guilty and imposed ........ him a fine of
buffaloes on ceremonial occasions.
Rs.500.
(a) over (b) with
(c) by (d) among (a) to (b) for
(e) None of these (c) upon (d) against
19. However poor one may be, one can be happy only if one has (e) None of these
the right attitude to life; happiness lies........ contentment. 29. It is believed that hypertension is most often the cause ........
(a) through (b) in heart attack.
(c) with (d) over (a) towards (b) with
(e) None of these (c) in (d) of
20. Being himself very quick ........ arithmetical calculations, he (e) None of these
did not need a calculator. 30. Ravi was ........ Nagpur ........ 2nd Jan, 67 ........4 in the morning.
(a) ahout (b) for (a) at, on, at (b) in, on, at
(c) over (d) in (c) in, in, about (d) at, at, at
21. Though accused of partiality........ his home team, the umpire 31. .............. a very long time this city has been prosperous.
had a clear conscience and believed in the correctness of (a) Since (b) For
his decisions. (c) From (d) Till
(a) with (b) towards (e) None of these
(c) for (d) against 32. The mother of the dead child was overwhelmed .............
(e) None of these
grief.
22. Though I would not recommend it, I have no objection........
(a) by (b) with
your going to that movie.
(c) from (d) for
(a) for (b) against
(c) to (d) upon (e) None of these
(e) None of these 33. There is no use discussing .............. prohibition.
23. Do not force me to ........ you on this issue; I am not at all (a) on (b) about
convinced. (c) of (d) for
(a) agree upon (b) concur with (e) None of these
(c) join over (d) equate with 34. .............. business, a merger is a combination of two or more
(e) None of these corporations under one management.
24. The court acquited him ........ all the charges. (a) At (b) In
(a) from (b) against (c) The (d) On
(c) for (d) of (e) None of these
(e) None of these 35. How is life enhanced? A beautiful passage from Tagore
25. There is no point in counting........ his support he is comes .............. mind.
notoriously undependable. (a) in (b) to
(a) for (b) on (c) from (d) out
(c) with (d) through
(e) None of these
(e) None of these

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SENTENCE IMPROVEMENT
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DIRECTIONS (Qs.1-20) : Which of the following phrases (a), 8. Belonged to this cadre, you are eligible for facilities such as
(b), (c) and (d) given below each sentences should replace the free air travel and accommodation.
phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically (a) Since you belong to (b) Whoever belongs
correct? If the sentence is correct as it is given and No correction (c) For belonging to (d) To belong in
is required, mark (e) as the answer. (e) No correction required
1. Starting out my own business at this time would affect the 9. The bank has hired a consultant who will look into any issues
financial stability of my family. which arise during the merger.
(a) is looking over (b) will be looked after
(a) Starting up my (b) For starting with
(c) will look out (d) looks down on
(c) To start out mine (d) By starting my
(e) No correction required
10. I had severe doubts about if I successfully run a company,
2. Use a tactic for mixing the inferior with good quality rice is but my father encouraged me.
dishonest and you will lose your license. (a) if I am successful in (b) how should I successfully
(a) Using tacti as (b) Using a tactic like (c) whether I would successfully
(c) To use tactics (d) Used to tactics like (d) that I would succeed to
(e) No correction required (e) No correction required
3. The company will invest more six hundred crores in the 11. As it was a dark and stormy night, Lata was too scared to go
next five years to expand its operations in Britain. home alone.
(a) will future invest (b) has invested more than (a) very scary to (b) much scared to
(c) have invested over (d) will be invested above (c) as scared to (d) to scared too
(e) No correction required (e) No correction required
4. Several of our projects have delayed because the equipment 12. Since it was her engagement party, Riya was dress to kill.
we ordered was delivered late. (a) dresses to kill (b) dressed to kill
(a) have been delayed when (c) dressed to killings (d) dressing to killed
(b) delayed because of (e) No correction required
(c) are delayed since (d) were delayed with 13. Ramesh worries endlessly about his sons future as he was
(e) No correction required so poor in studies.
5. The committee has ruled out the possible raising taxes for (a) worry endless (b) worried endless
this financial year. (c) worried endlessly (d) worries endless
(a) possibly raised (b) possible rise of (e) No correction required
14. Now that the actual criminal had been caught, Kunal was
(c) possibility to raise (d) possibility of raising
happy that he was finally let of the hook.
(a) off the hook (b) of the hookings
6. The company has set up a foundation which helps students
(c) off the hooks (d) of the hooks
who do not have the necessary funds to study ahead. (e) No correction required
(a) further to study (b) of studying more 15. The little boy appeared all of a sudden out of nowhere and
(c) to study onward (d) for higher studies take everyone by surprise.
(e) No correction required (a) took everyone as surprised
7. If this land is used to cultivate crops it will be additionally (b) take everyone with surprised
source of income for the villagers. (c) took everyone by surprises
(a) a source of additional (b) an additionally source (d) took everyone by surprise
(c) an additional source (d) additionally the source (e) No correction required
GRID
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132 SPEED TEST 62
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16. A young and successful executive was travelling down a 23. The course of events made it necessary for Joseph to start working.
b
neighbourhood street, going a bit to fast in his new car. (a) events that were planned.
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(a) a bit too fastly (b) a bit as fast (b) long list of future events.
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(c) a bit to fastly (d) a bit too fast (c) A succession of unexpected events.
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(e) No correction required (d) nature of events that followed after Joseph joined work.
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17. All she could think about was the beautiful dress and how (e) None of these
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she could earn enough money to buy it. 24. The new law on Right to Food Safety will come into force
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(a) All she can think (b) All she could thought next month.
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(c) All she can thought (d) All she can thinking (a) be forced upon the people.
(e) No correction required (b) be associated from next month onwards.
18. He told his employer of his plans to leave the business to (c) be implemented next month.
lead a more leisure life. (d) be withdrawn next month.
(a) more leisurely life (b) many leisurely life (e) be widely rejected next month.
(c) many leisured life (d) more leisurely live 25. When the girl wanted to stay out past midnight, her father
(e) No correction required put his foot down.
19. Padma could convince anyone with her talks as she had the (a) gave in to her request
gift of the gabbing. (b) walked away disapprovingly.
(a) gifting of the gabbing (b) gift of the gab (c) obstructed her from leaving the house.
(c) gifting of the gab (d) gift of the gab (d) requested her to be home on time.
(e) No correction required (e) None of these
20. For countries undergoing a recession, large cuts in public 26. In all likelihood the missing boy has run away to the forest
spending seem to be the ordering of the day. (a) with good intentions (b) there's no chance
(a) be the ordering of days (c) without doubt (d) in most probability
(b) being the order of the day (e) None of these
(c) be the order of the day 27. The parents were completely in the dark concerning their
(d) being the ordering of days daughter's plans.
(e) No correction required (a) ignorant about (b) ashamed of
DIRECTIONS (Qs.21-30) : In each of the following sentences, (c) pretending to be unaware
an idiomatic expression or a proverb is highlighted. Select the (d) unhappy about (e) None of these
alternative which best describes its use in the sentence. 28. I am in touch with the police, and they will be here in ten minutes.
21. The team put their plan into execution the very next day. (a) in communication with
(a) proposed a plan. (b) in close proximity with
(b) discussed their plan. (c) in good terms with (d) familiar with
(c) started thinking about a plan (e) None of these
(d) started carrying out their plan. 29. I stumbled upon some interesting old letters in my
(e) None of these Grandfather's desk.
22. Mrs. Nayak opened the discussion on the alarming rate of (a) deliberately went through
poverty in India. (b) surveyed (c) tripped over
(a) started the discussion. (d) discovered by chance (e) None of these
(b) gave her opinion in the discussion. 30. The secretary made an entry of the arrangement.
(c) did not agree on the discussion. (a) initiated discussion (b) made a record
(d) welcomed the people to the discussion. (c) brought notice (d) showed approval

RESPONSE
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SPOTTING THE ERRORS - I
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DIRECTIONS (Qs.1-41) : Read each sentence to find out whether 10. The agreement on (a)/ which all of us have (b)/ worked so
there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if hard will (c)/ be sign tomorrow (d). No error (e).
any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part 11. Nuclear waste will still being (a)/ radioactive even after twenty
is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (e). (Ignore errors thousand years, (b)/ so it must be disposed (c)/ of very
of punctuation, if any.) carefully. (d)/ No error (e)
1. His proposal had (a) / to be send to (b) / the President of 12. My friend lived at the top (a)/ of an old house (b)/ which attic
the company (c) / for her approval (d). No error (e). had been (c)/ converted into a flat. (d)/ No error (e)
2. Each tuesday evening we visited (a) / the farmers in the 13. A public safety advertising (a)/ campaign in Russia (b)/ hope
area (b) / and held a meeting (c) / to discuss the problems to draw attention (c)/ of pedestrians crossing the road.
they faced (c). No error (e). (d)/ No error (e)
3. Though our training facilities (a) / are limited only a (b) / 14. A cash prize was (a)/ award to the most (b)/ successful salesman
few employees have been (c) / selected for training (d). No of the year (c)/ by the President of the company. (d)/ No error
error (e). (e)
4. During the interview (a) / the panel asked me (b) / several 15. The Renaissance was (a)/ a time to re-awakening (b)/ in both
technical questions (c) / and I answered all of it (d). No the arts (c)/ and the sciences. (4)/ No error (e)
error (e). 16. In times of crisis, (a) / the Bhagavad Gita gives light (b)/ and
5. He decided to work for (a) / an NGO, but most of his (b) / guide to the mind tortured by doubt (c)/ and torn by conflict
classmates opted for high paid (c) / jobs in multinational of duties. (d)/ No Error (e)
companies (d). No error (e). 17. It was not easy for late Raja Ram Mohan Roy (a)/ to root out
6. It is necessarily to maintain (a)/ a record of all transactions the custom of sati (b) / because a majority of (c)/ the educated
(b) / in case the auditors (c)/ want to see it. (d)/ No error (e). class does not support him. (d) / No Error (e)
7. Very few young trainees (a)/ willingly undertake (b)/ a 18. Deplete of the Ozone layer (a) / and the greenhouse effect (b)
posting to a branch (c)/ located in a rural area (d)/ No error / are two long-term effects (c)/of air pollution. (d)/ No Error (e)
(e). 19. Most of the people which (a)/ have been victims (b) / of extreme
8. He has travelled (a)/ all over the world (b)/ yet he speaks violence (c)/ are too frightened to report it to the police. (d)/
(c)/ several languages fluently (d)/. No error (e). No Error (e)
9. A successful company is (a)/ any that makes a good (b)/ 20. The doctor helps (a)/ to reducing human suffering (b)/by
profit and provides (c)/ high returns to its shareholders (d). curing diseases (c)/ and improving health. (d)/ No Error (e)
No error (e).
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134 SPEED TEST 63
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21. The shepherd counted (a) / his sheep and found (b) / that 32. We may have to await for (a) / a new political revival (b) / to
b
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one of (c) / them is missing. (d) / No Error (e) eradicate the (c) / corruption from our economy. (d) / No
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22. The teacher were (a) / impressed by her performance (b) / Error (e)
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and asked her to (c) / participate in the competition. (d) No 33. When she was (a) / in jail (b) / she was debarred to send
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Error (e) (c) / a letter even to her son. (d) / No Error (e)
s
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23. She asked her (a) / son for help her (b) / find a place to bury 34. Despite of the best efforts (a) / put by the doctors (b) / the
.c
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(c) / the gold ornaments (d) No Error (e) condition of the patient (c) / is deteriorating from bad to
m
24. The painter was (a) / ask to paint a (b) / picture of the king, worse. (d) / No Error (e)
(c) / sitting on his throne (d) No Error (e) 35. The militant yielded for (a) / the temptation and fell (b) / into
25. The story was (a) / about how an (b) / intelligent man had the trap (c) / of police. (d) / No Error (e)
saving (c) / himself from being robbed (d) No Error (e) 36. Many people in India (a) / are dying from hunger (b) / but
26. The decline of her moral (a) / was caused by a lot of (b) / government seems (c) / to be ignorant of such crude fact. (d)
factors that were once (c) / fascinating to her. (d) / No Error / No Error (e)
(e) 37. In difficult time (a) she prefers keeping her counsel (b) rather
27. He took me to a restaurant (a) / and ordered for two cups than wandering (c) / here and there for relief. (d) / No Error
(b) / of cold coffee (c) / which the waiter brought in an hour. (e)
(d) / No Error (e) 38. The persons who are (a) / suffering from diabetes are (b) /
28. There are some animals (a) / that can live (b) / both in water advised to substitute (c) / saccharine by sugar. (d) / No Error
an land (c) / without any difficulty. (d) / No Error (e) (e)
29. During his tour (a) / to the south (b) he visited not only to 39. He always says (a) / that he prefers to go (b) / home to stay
Chennai (c) / but also Karnataka. (d) / No Error (e) in (c) / a hotel at night. (d) / No Error (e)
30. The President Mr. Kalam (a) / is much sought after (b) / by 40. Hardly had we settled down (a) / for the rest (b) / when we
school students and (c) / is invited for many functions. were startled by the (c) / strange sound of trumpets. (d) / No
(d) / No Error (e) Error (e)
31. His mother is not well (a) / but he (b) / does not look for her 41. He was able to (a) / free himself with (b) / the debts by (c) /
(c) / properly. (d) / No Error (e) working day and night. (d) / No Error (e)

b b b b b
41. a b c d e
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SPOTTING THE ERRORS - II
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DIRECTIONS : Read each sentence to find out whether there is 11. All three products help wean smokers (a) / from cigarettes by
any error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. providing small doses (b) / of nicotine designed to replace
The number of this part is the answer. If there is no error, the the basic level (c) / of average smoker's day's nicotine
answer is (e). consumption. (d) No error (e)
1. The bankers association (a) / has submitted a memorandum 12. The main lesson is that (a) / the mosquito eradication
(b) / for the fulfilment of (c) / their demands. (d) / No Error campaigns (b) / such as the one the French conducted (c) /
(e) needs to be followed up. ( d) / No error (e)
13. By arresting the local criminals (a) / and encouraging good
2. Five quintals of wooden coal (a) / are (b) / his annual
people, (b) / we can end (c) / hostilities of that area (d) / No
requirement (c) / for the unit. (d) / No Error (e)
error (e)
3. Dickens have (a) / vehemently criticised (b) / the philosophy
14. We admired thre way(a) / he had completed all his work (b) /
(c) in Hard Times. (d) / No Error (e)
and appreciation the method (c) / adopted by him. (d) / No
4. All his money (a) / is spent (b) / and all his (c) / hopes error
ruined. (d) / No Error (e)
15. I was being astonished (a) / when I heard that (b) / he had left
5. This rule may (a) / and ought to be (b) / disregarded for (c) the country (c) / without informing anyone of us . (d) / No.
/ the time being. (d) / No Error (e) error (e)
6. Why come people don't get (a) / what they deserve (b) / 16. The Head of the Department, along with his colleagues (a) /
and why others get what they don't deserve (c) / is a matter are coming to attend (b) / the conference which is (c) /
decided by luck. (d)/No error(e) scheduled this afternoon. (d) / No error (e)
7. The committee is thankful to Mr. Roy (a) / for preparing not 17. Govind loved his Guru immensely (a) / and gave him fullest
only the main report (b) / but also for preparing (c) the loyalty, (b) / yet he had his own (c) / independent way of
agenda notes and minutes. (d) / No error (e) thinking (d) / No error (e)
8. In order to save petrol (a ) / motorists must have to (b) / be 18. In a very harsh tone, (a) / he shouted at his servants (b) / and
very cautious (c) / while driving along the highways. (d) / told them that (c) / he does not need their services (d) ./ No
No error (e) error (e)
9. No country can long endure (a) / if its foundations (b) / 19. This is an important difference in (a) / that it marks the first
were not laid deep (c) / in the material prosperity. (d) / No move towards (b) / an institution for money - earning
error (e) proposition. (c) / No error (d)
10. Due to certain inevitable circumstances (a) / the scheduled 20. The ultimate problem of physics (a)/ is to reduce matter by
programme had to be (b) / post poned indefinite (c) / but analysis (b) / to its lowest condition of divisibility (c) / No.error
(d)
the members could not be informed. (d) / No error (e)
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21. It was astonished (a) / to find that I scarcely had (b) / enough 32. Whether this happens, and whether the BIFR will (a) / once
b
money (c) / to pay the bills. (d) / No error (e) again reconsiger the Sirmour package (b) / are questions
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those will be (c) / answered in the comming months. (d) / No
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22. We can not handle (a)./ this complicated case to day (b) /
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error (e)
unless full details are not given (c) / to us by now. (d) / No
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error (e) 33. We now look forward for (a) / some great achievements (b) /
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which to some extent (c) / can restore the country's prestige
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23. Even after worked in the office (a) / for as many as fifteen
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once again (d) / No error (e)
years, (b) / he still does not understand (c) / the basic
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objectives of the work. (d) / No error (e) 34. Honesty and integrity are (a) / the qualityes which cannot
be (b) / done away with (c) / and hence assume a lot of
24. Neither the earthquake (a) / nor the subsequent fire ( b) /
importance (d) / No error (e)
was able to dampen (c) / the spirit of the residents, (d) / No
error (e) 35. The foreign funds are cheaper than those (a) / available the
domestic market and (b) / the company is competent that (c)
25. Our school is making (a) / every possible effort (b) / to provide
/ it will soon touch its earlier annual turnover, (d) / No error
best facilities (c) / land person attention for each child (d) /
(e)
No error (e)
36. Honesty, integrity and being intelligent (a) / are the qualities
26. Our neighbours had repeated (a) / the same illogical sequence
which (b) / we look for when (c) / we interview applicants (d)
of activites (b) / if we had not brought the (c) /facts to their
/ No error (e)
notice. ( d) / No error (e)
37. Not only the judges acquitted (a) / him of all the charges (b)
27. This has forced them to focus at (a) I how to reach and serve
/ levelled against him, but (c) / also commended all his actions.
their customers, (b) / rather than, say, pumping money (c) /
(d) /No error (e)
into fancy graphics that look good in management meetings.
(d) / No error (e) 38. One of the most effective (a) / solutions is that (b) / she
should work on Sunday (c) / and complete the assignment.
28. The loss of forests thus entail (a) / large social and economic
(d) / No error (e)
costs; (b) the lives of more than one billion people (c) / are
already affected by loss of this forest cover (d) / No error (e) 39. Our system of assigning (a) I different jobs to different people
(b) / should be based on (c) / their strengths and weaknesses
29. Not one of the children (a) / has ever sang (b) / on any
(d) / No error (e)
occasion (c) / in public before. (d) / No error (e)
40. There he stood on the dais, (a) / debunked the manner in
30. Reasonable ambition, if supported (a) / at persistent efforts,
which the company was run ( b) / by the former chairman
(b) / is likely to yield (c) / the desied results. (d) / No error (e)
and managing director, (c) / and promising higher growth
31. I would have lost (a) / my luggage and other belonging (b) / and industry. (d) No error (e)
if I would have left the compartment (c) / and gone out to
fetch drinking water. (d) / No errro (e)

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SPELLING TEST
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DIRECTIONS: Choose the correct spelling of the given word. 11. (a) Entreprenuer (b) Entrepraneur
1. (a) Coimmission (b) Comision (c) Entrapreneur (d) Entrepreneur
(c) Comission (d) Commision (e) None of these
(e) None of these 12. (a) Skillful (b) Skillfull
2. (a) Jewelery (b) Jewellry (c) Skilful (d) Skilfull
(c) Jwellry (d) Jewellery (e) None of these
(e) None of these 13. (a) Varstile (b) Verstile
3. (a) Sattellite (b) Satellite (c) Versatile (d) Vorstyle
(c) Sattelite (d) Satelite (e) None of these
(e) None of these 14. (a) Correspondant (b) Corraspondent
4. (a) Ocasion (b) Ocassion (c) Corraspondant (d) Correspondent
(c) Occasion (d) Occassion (e) None of these
(e) None of these 15. (a) Etiquete (b) Etiquette
5. (a) Comettee (b) Committe (c) Ettiquete (d) Ettiquette
(c) Comittee (d) Committee (e) None of these
(e) None of these 16. (a) Necessary (b) Necesarry
6. (a) Achievment (b) Acheivment (c) Necesary (d) Neccessary
(c) Achievement (d) Achevement (e) None of these
(e) None of these 17. (a) Homeopathy (b) Homoepathy
7. (a) Hetrogenous (b) Hetrogeneous (c) Homiopathy (d) Homoeopathy
(c) Heterogenous (d) Heterogeneous (e) None of these
(e) None of these 18. (a) Lieutinant (b) Lieutenant
8. (a) Foreigner (b) Forienor (c) Leutenant (d) Liutenant
(c) Foriegnor (d) Foreiner (e) None of these
(e) None of these 19. (a) Paralelogram (b) Paralellogram
9. (a) Colaboration (b) Collaberation (c) Parallelogram (d) Parallellogram
(c) Colaberation (d) Collaboration (e) None of these
(e) None of these 20. (a) Milennium (b) Millenium
10. (a) Acurrate (b) Accurate (c) Millennium (d) Milenium
(c) Acurate (d) Accuratte (e) None of these
(e) None of these
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DIRECTIONS (Qs. 21-40) : In each question below a sentence 30. Though the government initiated (a)/ a large sum (b)/ of
b
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with four words printed in bold type is given. These are numbered money in the scheme (c)/ it was a failure (d)/. All correct (e).
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as (a), (b), (c) and (d). One of these four words printed in bold may 31. It is not unusual (a)/for guests of the hotel to carry(b)/
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be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the
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souveniers(c)/ back with them when they return (d)/to their
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sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate homes. All correct (e)
s
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if any. The number of that word is your answer. If all the words
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32. She vested(a)/ her time in chatting(b)/ over the phone and
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printed in bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the ultimately(c)/ ended up not finishing (d)/ her work. All
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context of the sentence, mark (e) i.e. All correct as your answer. correct (e)
21. Under existing (a) / regulations we are not permitted (b) / to 33. She had not eaten(a)/ anything(b)/ for a very long time now
owe (c) / more than a forty percent share (d) / of the family and her stomach(c)/ was groling(d)/ All correct(e)
business. All correct (e). 34. Half of the harm(a)/ that is done in this world(b)/ is due to
22. In case of any land dispute (a) / panchayat officials (b) / will people(c)/ who want to feel important(d)/ All correct(e)
determine (c) / how the property is to be dividend (d) / All 35. Life is like a mirror(a)/ smile at it and its charmeng(b)/
correct (e). frown(c)/ at it and it becomes sinister(d)/ All correct(e)
23. The World Bank has consented (a) / to sanction (b) / the 36. The Whole (a)/ time she walked with her child in her arms
necessary (c) / finance (d) / for the project. All correct (e). the only thing (b)/ that worried (c)/ her was her sons feature.
24. To obtain (a) / a refund you will have to fill (b) / a claim (c) (d)/ All correct (e)
/ with the appropriate (d) / authority. All correct (e). 37. When the young artist returned (a)/ to his village, his family
held a festive (b)/ dinner on its lawn to celebrate his triumpant
25. Experts predict (a) / there will be shortage (b) / of investment
(c)/ homecoming. (d)/ All correct (e)
(c) / in the infrastructure (d) / sector. All correct (c).
38. Had she not suppressed (a)/ all the details of her Companys
26. In order to succeed (a)/ it is crucial (b)/ for an organisation
project (b)/ her Company would have bagged (c)/ the
to constantly (c)/ improve (d)/. All correct (e). contract. (d)/ All correct (e)
27. With some assistance (a)/ from her son she was enable (b)/ 39. She trusted Mira with all her heart (a)/ and thus handled (b)/
to settle (c)/ her debts (d)/ on time. All correct (e). over her lifes (c)/ savings to her instantly. (d)/ All correct (e).
28. We have prepared a detailed (a)/ report giving various (b)/ 40. It is difficullt (a)/ to see the picture (b)/ when you are inside
solutions (c)/ to resort (d)/ the problem. All correct (e). (c)/ the frame. (d)/ All correct (e)
29. RBI has attempted (a)/ to spend (b)/ financial (c)/ awareness
(d) / through this programme. All correct (e).

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ONE WORD SUBSTITUTION
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DIRECTIONS (Qs.1-25) : In each of the following questions, 8. The original inhabitants of a country
out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be (a) Aborigines (b) Citizens
substituted for the given words/sentence. (c) Natives (d) Primitive
(e) None of these
1. List of headings of the business to be transacted at a
9. One desirous of getting money
meeting
(a) Avaracious (b) Voracious
(a) Schedule (b) Agenda (c) Garrulous (d) Greedy
(c) Proceedings (d) Excerpts (e) None of these
(e) None of these 10. Be the embodiment or perfect example of
2. Through which light cannot pass (a) Signify (b) Characterise
(a) Dull (b) Dark (c) Personify (d) Masquerade
(c) Obscure (d) Opaque (e) None of these
(e) None of these 11. Cutting for stone in the bladder
3. Stealing from the writings of others (a) Dichotomy (b) Tubectomy
(a) Copying (b) Reframing (c) Vasectomy (d) Lithotomy
(c) Reproducing (d) Plagiarism (e) None of these
(e) None of these 12. That which makes it difficult to recognise the presence of real
4. Constant effort to achieve something nature of somebody or something
(a) Perseverance (b) Attempt (a) Cover (b) Mask
(c) Enthusiasm (d) Vigour (c) Pretence (d) Camouflage
5. A person not sure of the existence of God 13. Yearly celebration of a date or an event
(a) Theist (b) Atheist (a) Centenary (b) Jubilee
(c) Agnostic (d) Cynic (c) Anniversary (d) Birthday
6. One who deserts his religion 14. One who has suddenly gained new wealth, Power or prestige
(a) Aristocrat (b) Affluent
(a) Deserter (b) Turn-coat
(c) Maverick (d) Parvenu
(c) Fanatic (d) Apostate
(e) None of these
(e) None of these
15. Code of diplomatic etiquette and precedence
7. One who uses fear as a weapon of power
(a) Formalism (b) Statesmanship
(a) Terrorist (b) Militant
(c) Protocol (d) Hierarchy
(c) Extremist (d) Anarchist
(e) None of these
(e) None of these
GRID
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140 SPEED TEST 66
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16. Of outstanding significance 24. One who studies mankind
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(a) Meaningful (b) Ominous (a) Anthropologist (b) Physicist
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(c) Evident (d) Monumental (c) Pathologist (d) Philanthropist
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(e) Rational (e) None of these
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17. One who promotes the idea of absence of government of DIRECTIONS (Qs.26-30) : Choose the one word for the italic
s
any kind, when every man should be a law into himself
s
sentences.
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(a) Anarchist (b) Belligerent
25. An opinion contrary to popular belief
o
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(c) Iconoclast (d) Agnostic
(a) Paradox (b) Orthodoxy
(e) None of these
(c) Hearsay (d) Heresy
18. Land so surrounded by water as to be almost an island
(e) None of these
(a) Archipelago (b) Isthmus
26. Rajesh was a hater of learning and knowledge.
(c) Peninsula (d) Lagoon
(a) misogynist (b) misologist
(e) None of these
19. That which cannot be done without (c) misanthropist (d) bibliophile
(a) Irrevocable (b) Impracticable (e) None of these
(c) Indispensable (d) Impossible 27. The bus has to go back and forth every six hours.
(e) None of these (a) travel (b) run
20. One who travels from place to place (c) cross (d) shuttle
(a) Itinerant (b) Mendicant (e) commute
(c) Journeyman (d) Tramp 28. A man can be sentenced to death for killing another human
(e) None of these being.
21. An act or notion to look back in the past (a) fratricide (b) regicide
(a) Retrospective (b) Postnatal (c) homicide (d) genocide
(c) Retrogressive (d) Primitive (e) None of these
(e) None of these 29. A careful preservation and protection of wildlife is the need
22. Medicine to counteract the effect of a poison of the hour.
(a) Emetic (b) Antidote (a) Embarkment (b) Promotion
(c) Anti-venom (d) Antiseptic (c) Conservation (d) Management
(e) None of these (e) Enhancement
23. A collection of poems 30. The officer was not willing to take a definite stand on that
(a) Pathology (b) Anthology point.
(c) Oncology (d) Pedology (a) vague (b) evasive
(e) None of these (c) ambiguous (d) complex
(e) None of these

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PARA JUMBLES
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DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1 to 5): Rearrange the following five sentences C. The broadbased agitation against SEZs has demonstrated
(A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful the power of popular protest in the State.
paragraph, then answer the questions given below them. D. Those opposed to the projects had questioned the propriety
of the government acquiring large tracts of land and then
A. It will take extraordinary political commitment and liberal selling them to promoters at low prices.
public funding during the 11th Plan for affordable housing E. A coastal State with an area of 3,700 square kilometers and a
to become a credible goal. population of about 1.4 million, Goa has always been extremely
B. The National Urban Housing and Habitat Policy of the sensitive to the impact of unrestrained economic development.
United Progressive Alliance Government seeks to make 6. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence?
access to housing, long acknowledged as a fundamental
(a) A (b) B (c) C
right, a reality for all. (d) D (e) E
C. The task is staggering even if we go by conservative estimates. 7. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence?
D. The housing shortage to be met during the Plan is 26.53 (a) A (b) B (c) C
million units, which include the backlog from the 10th Plan. (d) D (e) E
E. If the existing stock of poor quality dwellings and the 8. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence?
growing urbanizationdriven demand are taken into (a) A (b) B (c) C
account, the real deficit will be even higher. (d) D (e) E
1. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence? 9. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence?
(a) A (b) B (c) C (a) A (b) B (c) C
(d) D (e) E (d) D (e) E
2. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence? 10. Which of the following should be the FIFTH (LAST) sentence?
(a) A (b) B (c) C (a) A (b) B (c) C
(d) D (e) E (d) D (e) E
3. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence?
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 11 to 15): Rearrange the following five sentences
(a) A (b) B (c) C
(A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful
(d) D (e) E
paragraph, then answer the questions given below them.
4. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence?
(a) A (b) B (c) C A. The British government plans to insist that spouses should
(d) D (e) E have to learn English before they are allowed into Britain to
5. Which of the following should be the FIFTH (LAST) join their husbands or wives have run into a barrage of
sentence? opposition and warnings that the idea could breach human
(a) A (b) B (c) C rights laws.
(d) D (e) E B. The responses to an official consultation on the proposal
published on Thursday was more than two to one against the
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 6 to10): Rearrange the following five sentences proposal, with many warning it could break up marriages
(A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) and in the proper sequence to form a because many cannot afford or access English lessons.
meaningful paragraph, then answer the questions given below them. C. Immigration lawyers have told ministers that spouses and
A. The upsurge of public activism against the setting up of fiances should not be barred from joining a partner in the
Special Economic Zones, which eventually forced the State U.K. for language reasons and that the plan could breach the
Government to announce the scrapping of all 15 such human rights convention's guarantees to the right to marry
projects, is an impressive case in point. and have a family life.
B. Early last year, a similar agitation coerced the government into D. The anonymised responses were 68 to 31 against the pre-
calling for a revision of the Goa Regional Plan 2011, a entry english test for spouses.
controversial document that opened up large swathes of land, E. Other immigration organizations said the measure would
including green belts and coastal stretches, for construction. discriminate against those from rural areas in South Asia,
where the opportunities to learn English are limited.
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142 SPEED TEST 67
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11. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence? (C) He rushed to his village and placed his humble offering of
b
(a) A (b) B (c) C milk in a bowl before the snake.
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(d) D (e) E (D) Vishnu Raman was a poor Brahmin and a farmer by profession.
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12. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence? (E) The next day when he returned, he was rewarded with a gold
rd
(a) A (b) B (c) C coin in the bowl he left behind.
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(d) D (e) E (F) Just as he was preparing to lie down he saw a huge cobra
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13. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence? swaying with his hood open.
s
21. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence
s
(a) A (b) B (c) C
.c
(d) D (e) E after rearrangement?
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14. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence? (a) B (b) C (c) E
m
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D (e) F
(d) D (e) E 22. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after
15. Which of the following should be the FIFTH (LAST) rearrangement?
sentence? (a) A (b) D (c) F
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) C (e) E
(d) D (e) E 23. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 16 to 20) : Rearrange the following six sentences rearrangement?
(A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper sequence to from a (a) F (b) D (c) C
meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them. (d) B (e) E
24. Which of the following should be the SIXTH (LAST)
(A) He immediately acknowledged Mohans good work and sentence after rearrangement?
invited him to his home for dinner. (a) D (b) B (c) C
(B) One day a wealthy merchant sent his sons bicycle to the (d) E (e) F
shop for repair. 25. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence
(C) The next day the merchant came to claim the bicycle and after rearrangement?
noticed that it was shiny. (a) E (b) F (c) B
(D) After repairing the bicycle, Mohan cleaned it up and made it (d) A (e) D
look new.
(E) Once upon a time, there was a boy named Mohan who DIRECTIONS (Qs. 26 to 30) : In each of the following items some
worked as an apprentice in a bicycle shop. parts have been jumbled up. You are required to rearrange these parts
(F) Other apprentices in the shop laughed at Mohan for doing which are labelled P, Q, R, S to produce the correct sentence. Choose
unnecessary work. the proper sequence and mark in your Answer Sheet accordingly.
16. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence 26. Feeling flattered by praise of the fox to the piece of cheese
after rearrangement? (P) / the crow began to crow (Q) / it held on its beak (R) /
(a) A (b) B (c) C unmindful of what will / happen (S).
(d) D (e) F The proper sequence should be
17. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after (a) SPRQ (b) QSRP (c) RSPQ
rearrangement? (d) QSPR (e) PQSR
(a) A (b) B (c) C 27. There is that the woman is a kitchen-maid and (P) / the
(d) D (e) E traditional belief (Q) / an instrument of mans pleasure (R) /
18. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after and a child-bearing machine (S).
rearrangement? The proper sequence should be
(a) A (b) B (c) C (a) QPSR (b) RQPS (c) QSPR
(d) D (e) E (d) RSPQ (e) PSRQ
19. Which of the following should be the LAST (SIXTH) 28. The rapid endangerment and death of many minority
sentence after rearrangement? languages not only among logistics and anthropologists
(a) A (b) B (c) D (P) / with issues of cultural identity (Q) / is a matter of
(d) E (e) F widespread concern (R) / but among all concerned (S).
20. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence The proper sequence should be
after rearrangement? (a) PSRQ (b) RQPS (c) RPSQ
(a) B (b) C (c) D (d) QRPS (e) SPQR
(d) E (e) F 29. Violence even before she is born (P) / and can happen
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 21 to 25) : Rearrange the following six throughout a womans life (Q) / against women (R) / takes
sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper sequence to many forms (S).
from a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given The proper sequence should be
below them. (a) RPSQ (b) PQSR (c) RSQP
(d) SQRP (e) QPRS
(A) At first he got scared, but then he thought, I have never 30. I saw two roads covered with the yellow (P) / directions in a
worshipped her; that is why I am not able to get anything forest (Q) / branching in two different (R) leaves of autumn (S).
from my land. The proper sequence should be
(B) One day unable to tolerate the summer heat, he went to rest (a) PQRS (b) PQSR (c) PRSQ
under a big banyan tree. (d) PSRQ (e) QSRP

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IDIOMS AND PHRASES
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DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1 to 36): In each of the following sentences, 10. We should give a wide berth to bad characters.
an idiomatic expression or a proverb is highlighted Select the (a) give publicity to (b) publicly condemn
alternative which best describes its use in the sentence. (c) keep away from (d) not sympathise with
(e) none of these
1. I have a bone to pick with you in this matter. 11. The authorities took him to task for his negligence.
(a) Am in agreement (b) Am angry (a) gave him additional work (b) suspended his assignment
(c) Am indebted (d) Will join hands (c) reprimanded him (d) forced him to resign
(e) None of these (e) none of these
2. The new CM stuck his neck out today and promised 10kgs. 12. In spite of the immense pressure exerted by the militants, the
free wheat a month for all rural families. Government has decided not to give in.
(a) took an oath (b) took a risk (a) accede (b) yield
(c) extended help (d) caused embarrassment (c) oblige (d) confirm
3. Harassed by repeated acts of injustice he decided to put 13. Their business is now on its last legs.
his foot down. (a) About to fructify (b) About to perish
(a) not to yield (b) resign (c) About to produce results
(c) to accept the proposal unconditionally (d) About to take off (e) none of these
(d) withdraw (e) none o fthese 14. He went back on his promise to vote for me.
4. The class could not keep a straight face on hearing the (a) withdrew (b) forgot
strange pronunciation of the new teacher. (c) reinforced (d) supported
(a) remain silent (b) remain serious (e) none of these
(c) remain mute (d) remain disturbed 15. The old beggar ran amuck & began to throw stones at the passerby.
(e) none of these (a) became desperate (b) ran about wildly
5. His speech went down well with the majority of the audience. (c) become annoyed (d) felt disgusted
(a) found acceptance with (e) none of these
(b) was attentively listened to by 16. Turban is in vogue in some communities.
(c) was appreciated by (d) was applauded by (a) in fashion (b) out of use
(e) none of these (c) vaguely used (d) never used
6. Rohit has bitten off more than he chew. (e) none of these
(a) Is trying to do much (b) Is very greedy 17. The old man was cut to the quick when his rich son refused
(c) Is always hungry (d) Has little regard for others to recognise him.
(e) none of these (a) surprised (b) hurt intensely
7. The detective left no stone unturned to trace the culprit. (c) annoyed (d) irritated
(a) took no pains (b) did very irrelevant things (e) none of these
(c) resorted to illegitimate practices 18. I requested him to put in a word for me.
(d) used all available means (a) introduce (b) assist
(e) none of these (c) support (d) recommend
8. He believes in the policy of making hay while the sun shines. (e) none of these
(a) giving bribes to get his work done 19. The dacoit murdered the man in cold blood.
(b) seeking advice from one and all (a) coldly (b) boldly
(c) helping those who help him (c) ruthlessly (d) deliberately
(d) making the best use of a favourable situation (e) none of these
(e) none of these 20. He is always picking holes in every project.
9. His friends advised him to be fair and square in his dealings. (a) creating problems in (b) finding fault with
(a) Careful (b) Considerate (c) suggesting improvement in
(c) Polite (d) Upright (d) asking irrelevant questions on
(e) none of these (e) None of these
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144 SPEED TEST 68
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21. Pt. Nehru was born with a silver spoon in his mouth. 31. The speaker gave a bird's eye view of the political
b
(a) born in a middle class family conditions in the country.
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(b) born in a wealthy family (a) a personal view (b) a general view
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(c) born in a royal family
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(c) a biased view (d) a detailed presentation
(d) born in a family of nationalists
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(e) None of these
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(e) none of these
32. The stunt that I recently attempted was a piece of cake
s
22. The arrival of the mother-in-law in the family proved a rift in
s
(a) The stunt that I recently attempted was enjoyable to watch
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the lute.
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(a) caused unnecessary worries (b) The stunt that I recently attempted was very challenging
m
(b) brought about disharmony (c) The stunt that I recently attempted was celebrated by all
(c) caused a pleasant atmosphere (d) The stunt that I recently attempted turned out to be a failure
(d) brought about a disciplined atmosphere (e) The stunt that I recently attempted was a simple task
(e) none of these 33. The boy broke the window and took to his heels.
23. Having sold off his factory, he is now a gentleman at large.
(a) The boy broke the window and fell on his heels
(a) Has no serious occupation
(b) Is living comfortably (b) The boy broke the window and ran away
(c) Is respected by everybody (c) The boy broke the window with his heels
(d) Is held in high esteem (e) none of these (d) The boy ran into the window
24. Though he has lot of money, yet all his plans are built upon sand. (e) The boy broke the window and robbed a pair of heels
(a) established on insecure foundations 34. I pledged myself to serve the king faithfully.
(b) based on inexperience (c) resting on cheap material (a) I made a mistake by promising to serve the king
(d) resting on immature ideas faithfully
(e) none of these (b) I made a fool of myself in order to serve the king
25. There has been bad blood between the two communities even
before shouting. (c) I boasted about serving the king faithfully
(a) Impure blood (b) Ill feeling (d) I was forcibly made to serve the king
(c) Bloody fights (d) Quarrels (e) I made a solemn and formal promise to serve the king
(e) none of these faithfully
26. The curious neighbors were disappointed as the young 35. There is a crying need for improvements to our public
couple's quarrel was just a storm in a tea cup. transport system.
(a) violent quarrel (b) fuss about a trifle (a) There is an obvious need for improvements to our public
(c) brittle situation (d) quarrel about tea cups transport system
(e) none of these
(b) There is a well documented need for improvements to
27. My father strained every nerve to enable me to get settled in life.
(a) worked very hard (b) spent a huge amount our public transport system.
(c) tried all tricks (d) bribed several persons (c) There is a minor need for improvements to our public
(e) none of these transport system.
28. Madhuri might scream blue murder, but I feel Deepali should (d) There is a serious need for improvements to our public
get the promotion since she is better qualified for the job. transport system.
(a) Someone has been murdered with some blue liquid (e) There is no urgency for improvements to our public
(b) Someone is being murdered and has become blue transport system.
(c) Suffer from persecution complex 36. In an old bookshop I happened to light upon a volume that
(d) Make a great deal of noise and object vehemently
(e) none of these belonged to my grandfather.
29. Why do you wish to tread on the toes? (a) In an old bookshop I happened to discard a volume
(a) To give offence to them that belonged to my grandfather.
(b) To follow them grudgingly (b) In an old bookshop I happened to purchase a volume
(c) To treat them indifferently that belonged to my grandfather.
(d) To be kicked by them (e) None of these (c) In an old bookshop I happened to look for a volume
30. The autographed bat from the famous cricketer Sunil that belonged to my grandfather.
Gavaskar is worth a jew's eye. (d) In an old bookshop I happened to discover by chance
(a) Not a worthy possession
a volume that belonged to my grandfather
(b) unnecessary (c) A costly items
(d) A possession of high value (e) In an old bookshop I happened to reveal a volume that
(e) None of these belonged to my grandfather.

36. a b c d e
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CLOZE TEST - I
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DIRECTIONS (Qs.1-34) : In the following passage there are Passage - 2

blanks each of which has been numbered. These numbers are Today, twenty-two years after the bank (9), it has over a
printed below the passage and against each, five words are thousand branches all over the country and the staff (10) about
suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out twenty-three lakh borrowers. We decided to operate (11) from
the approptiate words in each case. conventional banks who would ask their clients to come to their
Passage - 1 office. Many people in rural areas found this (12). Our bank is
When we (1) started thirty years ago in 1977, we did not therefore based on the (13) that people should not come to the
know anything about how to run a bank for the poor. We therefore bank but that the bank should go to the people. Our loans are also
looked at how others ran their operations and (2) from their (14)- we give them for activities for candlemaking to tyre repair. We
mistakes. In Bangladesh, conventional banks and credit co- also keep (15) checks on the borrower through weekly visits. We
operatives always (3) lump sum repayments. This created (4) do this to make certain that the family of the borrower is (16) from
problems because repaying in a lump sum was a mental hurdle the loan.
for borrowers. They tended to delay repayment and get further 9. (a) inaugurated (b) origin
into debt in the (5). In the end they usually (6) totally on the loan, (c) commence (d) existed
which was a loss to the bank. In structuring our own loans, I (e) began
decided to ask for a daily payment, Monitoring repayment was 10. (a) handle (b) assemble
(7) and it filled people with (8) that they could repay their loans. (c) cope (d) interact
1. (a) firstly (b) freshly (e) deal
(c) foremost (d) initially 11. (a) identically (b) differently
(e) recently (c) similar (d) reverse
2. (a) copied (b) observed (e) opposite
(c) learned (d) understood 12. (a) threatening (b) worried
(e) improving (c) upset (d) panicking
3. (a) asked (b) insisted (e) anxious
(c) demanded (d) settled 13. (a) advantage (b) principle
(e) lend (c) discipline (d) opportunity
4. (a) severe (b) no (e) chance
(c) additionally (d) variety 14. (a) diverse (b) worth
(e) plenty (c) vary (d) disburse
5. (a) time (b) process (e) contrast
(c) return (d) event 15. (a) daily (b) consistently
(e) action (c) regular (d) often
6. (a) neglected (b) abandoned (e) frequently
(c) defaulted (d) depended 16. (a) progress (b) benefiting
(e) disappointed (c) serving (d) welfare
7. (a) benefit (b) easier (e) obliged
(c) reckless (d) disorganised Passage - 3
(e) secure The Government seems to be in right earnest to ensure more
8. (a) sense (b) confidence (17) in governance. The Prime Ministers announcement that his
(c) challenge (d) doubt Government is (18) drafting legislation to establish the citizens
(e) believe right to information is indeed welcome. Though the talk on the
right to information is not new, we may (19) the bill to be brought
GRID 16. a b c d e
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146 SPEED TEST 69
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early this time. The previous Government had set up a high-level $ 86 billion. (32) countries have now begun to notice the (33)
b
committee to prepare a draft bill. But nothing has been heard about
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available in Africa. Chinas attitude has (34) the way the world
the matter since, (20) the committee did quite some work. The deals with poor countries. Trade not aid is the new mantra of
o
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issue, however, has come to such a pass that a solution cannot be African nations.
p
(21) further. Sunlight is the best disinfectant, a foreign judge once 25. (a) belonging (b) similarly
re
said, while (22) the unwarranted secrecy in an administrative (c) compared (d) with
s
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system. When those in authority know that people have the right
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(e) like
to ask questions and the government is under the (23) to provide
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26. (a) efforts (b) practices
m
them with answers, (24) of authority, or of public finances, for (c) challenges (d) achievements
personal or party ends is less likely to happen.
(e) attempt
17. (a) strictness (b) rudeness (c) leniency
27. (a) given (b) approved
(d) economy (e) transparency
(c) regular (d) often
18. (a) personally (b) busy (c) not (e) being
(d) reluctantly (e) absolutely 28. (a) grant (b) sanctioned
19. (a) expect (b) wait (c) try
(c) took (d) hired
(d) frustrate (e) appeal
(e) apply
20. (a) even (b) as (c) because
29. (a) goal (b) fund
(d) until (e) though
(c) way (d) skill
21. (a) found (b) expected (c) delayed
(e) dream
(d) looked (e) longed
30. (a) countries (b) others
22. (a) nurturing (b) criticising (c) demanding
(c) abroad (d) neighbours
(d) appreciating (e) upholding
(e) poor
23. (a) pretention (b) affect (c) substance
31. (a) further (b) extra
(d) obligation (e) property
(c) more (d) less
24. (a) misuse (b) governance (c) dishonour (e) high
(d) curbing (e) breach 32. (a) Recently (b) Any
Passage - 4
(c) Friendly (d) Many
Today the economies of African countries are growing at
(e) While
5 per cent every year.
33. (a) differences (b) supply
Rich countries usually help poorer ones (25) African
(c) quantity (d) people
countries through donations and aid. Their (26) are not always
(e) opportunities
successful as loans are (27) not used for the projects for which
34. (a) substitute (b) changed
they are (28). China, however, has found a different (29) to help
(c) exchanged (d) transform
Africa - by trading more with the (30). In 2009 Chinas trade with
(e) convert
African countries was $ 90 billion - (31) than the U.S., which was

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CLOZE TEST - II
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DIRECTIONS : In the following passage there are blanks, each 6. (a) felt (b) said
of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below (c) know (d) accept
the passage, against each, five words are suggested, one of which (e) saw
fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in 7. (a) asks (b) chooses
each case. (c) look (d) find
(e) wish
Passage - 1 8. (a) sure (b) put
Emperor Akbar was fond of (1) tricky questions to Birbal. One (c) shown (d) seen
day he asked Birbal what he would (2) if he were given a choice (e) made
between justice and a gold coin. The gold coin, said Birbal. 9. (a) no (b) rich
Akbar was (3) aback. He had known Birbal for many years and (c) short (d) poor
he knew that Birbal was a just person. Then how could he choose (e) plenty
the gold coin. You would prefer a gold coin to justice ? He 10. (a) but (b) not
asked, incredulously. Yes, said Birbal. The other courtiers were (c) and (d) s o
amazed by Birbals (4) of idiocy. For years they had been trying (e) only
to discredit Birbal in the emperors eyes but without success and Passage - 2
now the man had gone and (5) it himself ! They could not Once upon a time, two friends were (11) through the desert. During
believe their good fortune. I would have been dismayed if even some point of the (12) they had an argument, and one friend slapped
the lowliest of my servants had said this, continued the em- the other one in the face. The one who got slapped was (13), but
peror. But coming from you its shocking - and sad. I did not (6) without saying anything, he wrote in the sand, Today my best
you were so debased ! I never expected this from you. How friend slapped me in the face. They kept on walking (14) they
could you be so shallow ? found an oasis, where they (15) to take a bath. The one, who had
One (7) for what one does not have, Your Majesty ! said Birbal, been slapped, got (16) in the quicksand and started drowning, but
quietly. You have (8) to it that in our country justice is available the friend saved him. After the friend (17) from the near drowning
to everybody. So as justice is already available to me and as Im he wrote on a stone, Today my best friend saved my life. The
always (9) of money I said I would choose the gold coin. The friend who had slapped and saved his best friend asked him, After
I hurt you, you wrote in the sand and (18) you write on a stone,
emperor laughed. He thought to himself, I should have known
why? The other friend (19), When someone hurt us, we should
that Birbal would come up with a witty reply as always. He was
write it down in sand where wind of forgiveness can erase it away.
so pleased with Birbals reply that he gave him (10) one but a But, when someone does something good for us, we must (20) it in
thousand gold coins. stone where no wind can ever erase it.
1. (a) showing (b) asking 11. (a) crawling (b) speaking
(c) naming (d) finding (c) swimming (d) walking
(e) telling (e) dancing
2. (a) look (b) said 12. (a) journey (b) sand
(c) think (d) choose (c) running (d) border
(e) find (e) hunt
3. (a) pushed (b) fallen 13. (a) dead (b) captured
(c) pulled (d) sent (c) presentable (d) missing
(e) taken (e) hurt
4. (a) idea (b) display 14. (a) as (b) until
(c) reply (d) place (c) from (d) with
(e) showing (e) through
5. (a) speak (b) thought 15. (a) decided (b) fell
(c) done (d) create (c) made (d) want
(e) told (e) left
RESPONSE
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148 SPEED TEST 70
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16. (a) home (b) stuck 24. (a) affect (b) ideas (c) practice
b
(c) blended (d) mixed (d) concept (e) procedure
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(e) sitting 25. (a) benefit (b) merit (c) chance
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17. (a) separated (b) leaked (d) basis (e) method
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(c) died (d) recovered 26. (a) unless (b) until (c) executed
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(e) saved (d) provided (e) exercised
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18. (a) so (b) how 27. (a) other (b) any (c) two
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(c) when (d) tomorrow (d) differ (e) after
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(e) now 28. (a) on (b) of (c) often
19. (a) called (b) tell (d) taken (e) off
(c) replied (d) questioned 29. (a) soft (b) more (c) less
(e) asked (d) only (e) hard
20. (a) talk (b) push 30. (a) need (b) equilibrium
(c) engrave (d) add (c) expectation (d) attempt
(e) bury (e) aspects
Passage - 3 Passage - 4
The Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education (RTE) The Bhagavad Gita is a poem of 700 verses which is a part of the
Act, 2009, which came (21) effect in April this year, is meant to Mahabharata. It is the only philosophical song existing in all
transform the education sector and take India closer to the goal of languages. Its popularity and influence have never waned. It (31)
universal schooling. But with admissions to the new academic light and guidance to the troubled mind in times of crisis. It is in
session just (22) the corner, it is fast becoming clear that (23) well the (32) of a dialogue between Arjuna and Krishna on the
intentioned ideas into (24) will take some doing. For a start, the battlefield. Arjunas mind is troubled at the thought of the killings
guidelines for admissions under the RTE prohibit schools from of his friends and relatives. He cannot conceive of any gain. Arjuna
conducting any sort of student profiling. The stress on a random is the (33) of the tortured spirit of man tom by conflicting
yet justifiable admission process means that schools will have to obligations and molalities.
resort to something as quirky as a lottery system. However, leaving The dialogue proceeds and takes upto the higher level of
admission to a good school to pure (25) will only incentivise individual duty and social behaviour, application of ethics to
manipulations, defeating the very essence of RTE. practical life and social outlook that should govern all. An attempt
The main problem facing the education sector is that of a is (34) to reconcile the three paths of human advancement - the
resource crunch. The provisions for ensuring universal access to path of knowledge, the path of action and the path of faith. But
education are all very well, (26) we have the infrastructure in place more (35) is laid on faith. There is a call of action to meet the
first. Brick and mortar schools need to precede open admission obligations of life, keeping in view the spiritual background and
and not the (27) way around. In that sense, legislators assessment the large purpose of the universe.
of ground realities is (28) target when they endorse the closure of 31. (a) provides (b) shines
tens of thousands of low-cost private schools for not meeting the (c) enforces (d) secures
minimum standards of land plot, building specifications and (e) seeks
playground area as laid out in the RTE Act. Instead of bearing 32. (a) programme (b) constitution
down (29) on private schools for failing to conform to abstract (c) part (d) formation
bureaucratic criteria, efforts to bring about universal education (e) form
should focus on upgrading and expanding the existing 33. (a) conceived (b) dream
government school infrastructure to accommodate all. Only then (c) source (d) figures
can we ensure the much needed supply-demand (30) in the (e) symbol
education sector. 34. (a) generated (b) made
21. (a) with (b) for (c) on (c) established (d) coined
(d) into (e) in (e) given
22. (a) around (b) near (c) into 35. (a) important (b) Significant
(d) about (e) reaching (c) declaration (d) emphasis
23. (a) forming (b) translating (c) having (e) blessings
(d) taking (e) framing

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SECTION TEST : ENGLISH LANGUAGE
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DIRECTIONS : Read the following passage carefully and answer or start a manufacturing business. It can help those who have
the questions given below it. Certain words/group of words have found a job and are still nonetheless poor. It gives the victims of
been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering prejudice who would not be hired because of their colour or national
some of the questions. origin a chance to earn a living. The average cost of creating self-
Unemployment is the problem of every modern nation. Even employment is ten, twenty or hundred times lesser than creating
industrialised nations are not able to ensure a job for everyone. industry-based employment. It helps isolated poor people gain self-
Following the conventional strategy of creating employment, confidence step by step.
governments of many developing countries try to attract Obviously self-employment has limits, but in many cases it is
employers (business houses/industrialists) by offering tax the only solution to help those whom economies refuse to hire and
rebates and many other facilities so that they locate their taxpayers do not want to carry on their shoulders. The policy needed
upcoming plants on their soil, and thereby create industrial for the eradication of poverty must be much wider and deeper than
employment. But there is a limit to what industry can bring. the policy for the provision of mere employment. The real eradication
Also, industrial plants often create toxic waste which results in of poverty begins when people are able to control their own fate.
air and water pollution and environmental problems which can Poor people are like bonsai trees. When you plant the best seed of
outweigh whatever employment benefit industrial employment the tallest tree in a flower-pot, you get a replica of the tallest tree,
brings. In addition, they don't bring as substantial relief to the only inches tall. There is nothing wrong with the seed you planted;
dwindling economy of the host country as they seem to promise, only the soil-base that is too inadequate. Poor people are bonsai
as the profits of such foreign investments are carried back to the people. There is nothing wrong in their seeds. Simply, society never
parent company and foreign shareholders abroad. gave them the base to grow on. All it takes to get the poor people
Self-employment has none of these drawbacks. The problem out of poverty is for us to create an enabling environment for them.
is that self-employment is not as obviously glamorous as a shiny Once the poor can unleash their energy and creativity, poverty will
new factory. But profits from self-employment remain in the disappear very quickly.
country where they are produced. It is too small to create DIRECTIONS (Q. 1-3) : Choose the word/group of words which is
environmental hazards. It also puts the poor person in charge of MOST OPPOSITE in MEANING to the word/group of words printed
his or her own working hours and conditions. The hours are in bold as used in the passage.
flexible and can adapt to fit any family situation. It allows people
1. RIGID
to choose between running a business full-time, or part-time when
they face a crisis, or to put their business on hold and work full- (a) Unstructured (b) Flexible
time for a salary. Self-employment is tailor-made for anyone who (c) Soft (d) Gentle
is street-smart and has many acquired and inherited traditional (e) Calm
skills, rather than learning acquired from books and technical 2. STEP BY STEP
schools. This means the illiterate and the poor can exploit their (a) All at once (b) In quick succession
strengths, rather than be held back by their weaknesses. It allows (c) In slow motion (d) In a nutshell
a person to turn their hobbies into gainful employment. It allows (e) Once and for all
individuals who cannot work well in a rigid hierarchy to run their
3. OFFERING
own show.
(a) Stealing (b) Permitting
Financing the poor to start their own little ventures elevates
their sense of pride and self-respect. It offers a way out of welfare (c) Refusing (d) Protesting
dependency, not just to become wage slaves, but to open a store (e) Questioning
RESPONSE 1. a b c d e 2. a b c d e 3. a b c d e
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150 SPEED TEST 71
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DIRECTIONS (Q. 4-15): Choose the word/group of words which 10. Which of the following may be inferred about self-
b
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is MOST SIMILAR in MEANING to the word printed in bold as employment?
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used in the passage. (A) Self-employment slowly but steadily strengthens the
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4. REMAIN economy of the country.
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(a) Left-over (b) Stay (B) Self-employment checks unemployment.
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(C) As a str ategy of providing employment, self-
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(c) Stagnate (d) Continue
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(e) Linger employment is still unexplored.
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5. HIRED (a) Only (B) (b) Only (B) and (C)
(a) Allowed (b) Rented (c) Only (A) (d) Only (A) and (B)
(c) Authorised (d) Employed (e) Only (A) and (C)
(e) Delegated 11. What does the author indicate by the example of a bonsai
tree?
6. LIMIT
(A) When provided the right kind of financial help, poor
(a) Maximum (b) Finish
people in can flourish.
(c) Cap (d) Decrease
(B) The poor people are as capable as the well-to-do class.
(e) Barrier
(C) Conventional (industrial) employment can help the
7. Which of the following is a reason foreign investments do
poor people create their own base.
not strengthen the economies of host nations?
(a) Only (A) (b) Only (B)
(a) The parent company pays all the profit as tax to its
(c) Only (A) and (B) (d) Only (A) and (C)
nation.
(e) Only (B) and (C)
(b) The profit of such enterprises does not remain in the
host nation; rather it goes back to the share holders 12. The author claims that self-employment is "tailor-made" for
and owners of the parent company. people with certain qualities. Which of the following are the
qualities of such people?
(c) The employees of the parent company demand extra
pay from profits that the companies earn from factories (A) They have an unconventional approach to all things.
in another nation. (B) They are street-smart.
(d) The profit earned by such enterprises is too less to (C) They possess many acquired and traditional skills.
provide for anything beyond the salaries of employees. (a) Only (A) (b) Only (C)
(e) None of these (c) Only (B) and (C) (d) Only (A) and (C)
8. What is the tone of the passage? (e) Only (B)
(a) Offensive (b) Satirical 13. Which of the following outweighs the employment benefits
(c) Analytical (d) Humorous that foreign industrialists bring?
(e) Speculative (a) Huge industries set up by them cause environmental
9. Which of the following is an advantage(s) that self- pollution.
employment has over industry-based employment? (b) They employ more number of people belonging to their
(A) The work timings are highly flexible. native nations than the host nations' unemployed.
(B) Starting one's own venture is an easy task and needs (c) They evade many taxes that could be a source of revenue
no investment as financiers are readily available. for the host nation.
(C) Self-employment makes one a master of other people (d) They manufacture products that have no market in the
and thus satisfies their need to control others. host nation.
(a) Only(C) (b) Only (A) (e) They practise discrimination on grounds of gender
when providing employment to host nations' residents.
(c) Only (B) (d) Only (A) and (B)
(e) All (A), (B) and (C)

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SPEED TEST 71 151
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14. Which of the following may be an appropriate title for the 20. Each business activity ___________ employment to people
b
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passage? who would otherwise be unemployed.
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(a) Addressing conventional employment in developed (a) taking (b) finds
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nations (c) creates (d) provides
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(b) Varied strategies and approaches to eradicating (e) given
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poverty
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DIRECTIONS (Q. 21-30) : In the following passage, there are
.c
(c) Limitations of industrial employment blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are
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(d) How is poverty linked to conventional (industrial) printed below the passage and against each five words are
employment? suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the
(e) Role of self-employment in battling unemployment and appropriate word in each case.
eradication of poverty
15. Which of the following is TRUE as per the passage? The latest technology (21) put to use or about to arrive in
(a) Self-employment is beneficial only for developing market must be (22) to all entrepreneurs. The reason is that it may
economies. have an (23) effect on business. Valve radios gave way to transistor
(b) Self-employment is not as glamorous as conventional radios and with micro chips, technology is giving way to digital
(industrial) employment. equipment. Business has (24) the same but the technology has
(c) Finance for poor is readily available in the developed kept changing. A notable feature is that the size of the receivers
nations of the world. decreased (25) so did the use of its material and consequently its
(d) Small-scale industries produce as much toxic waste price. The traditional flour mills are losing business (26) customers
as big industries. now buy flour (27) from the market. As a result of this, the business
is (28). Following the same lines as technology, the social trends
(e) None is true
also go on changing and influence the market. The Indian sarees
DIRECTIONS (Q. 16-20): Pick out the most effective word from are being taken (29) by readymade stitched clothes. Every
the given words to fill in the blank to make the sentence entrepreneur must note such changes in the environment and also
meaningfully complete. the technology and plan in (30)with these to ensure the success of
16. The government is planning to set ___________ family his endeavour.
welfare centres for slums in cities. 21. (a) to (b) needed
(a) another (b) with (c) decided (d) besides
(c) for (d) in (e) being
(e) up 22. (a) hoped (b) welcome
17. Economic independence and education have ___________ (c) released (d) known
women more assertive. (e) aware
(a) prepared (b) made 23. (a) approximate (b) huge
(c) marked (d) resulted (c) uniform (d) excellence
(e) adjusted (e) enormous
18. In the modern world, the ___________ of change and 24. (a) maintained (b) remained
scientific innovation is unusually rapid.
(c) often (d) mentioned
(a) supplies (b) context
(e) become
(c) pace (d) fantasy
25. (a) mainly (b) and
(e) requirement
(c) how (d) also
19. The unprecedented economic growth of China has
(e) some
___________ worldwide attention.
26. (a) reason (b) due
(a) perceived (b) proposed
(c) young (d) as
(c) neither (d) astonished
(e) old
(e) attracted

b b b b b
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152 SPEED TEST 71
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27. (a) knowingly (b) ease 34. It is difficult to work with him because he is one of those
b
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(c) cheap (d) directly persons who think he is always right.
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(e) forcefully (a) think they are always
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28. (a) shrinking (b) blooming
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(b) always thinks he is (c) is always thinking they are
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(c) returned (d) same
(d) always think his (e) No correction required
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(e) small
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29. (a) against (b) to 35. Foreign businesses in developing countries have usually
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(c) over (d) up problems with lack of infrastructure and rigid laws.
(e) for (a) usual problems as (b) usually problems on
30. (a) lines (b) relativity (c) as usual problems like (d) the usual problems of
(c) accordance (d) proper (e) No correction required
(e) toning
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 36-40) : Read each sentence to find out whether
DIRECTIONS (Q. 31-35): Which of the phrases (a), (b), (c) and
(d) given below should replace the phrase given in bold in the there is any grammatical mistake/error in it. The error if any, will be
following sentences to make the sentence grammatically correct? in one part of the sentence. Mark the number of the part with error
If the sentence is correct as it is and there is no correction required as your answer. If there is no error, mark (e).
mark (e) ie No correction required as the answer. 36. The cost of constructing (a) / houses are increased (b) /
31. During the recession many companies will be forced to because of the high (c) / price of cement. (d) / No error (e).
lay off workers.
37. According to the Twelfth (a) / Five Year Plan, India should
(a) have the force to (b) be forced into
(b) / invest one trillion dollars (c) / in infrastructure projects.
(c) forcibly have (d) forcefully
(d) / No error (e)
32. He wanted nothing else expecting to sleep after a Stressful 38. To increase the selling (a) / of products in rural areas (b) / the
day at work. company will hire (c) / over five hundred trainees. (d) / No
(a) nothing better than (b) anything else unless error (e)
(c) nothing but having (d) nothing else than 39. We have spent (a) / most of the profits (b) / that we earn (c)
(e) No correction required / last year on purchasing new computers, (d) / No error (e).
33. Ramesh took charge of the project, within a few days of 40. The Government has (a) / promised to revise (b) / the
having appointed ?
pension scheme for bank (c) / staff since next year. (d) / No
(a) having an appointment(b) being appointed
error (e)
(c) after being appointed (d) appointing

RESPONSE
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COMPUTER FUNDAMENTAL & BINARY SYSTEM
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1. Most of the commonly used personal computers/laptops 9. The display size of a monitor is measured
do not have a command key known as ________. (a) zig-zag
(a) Turnover (b) Shift (c) Alter (b) horizontally
(d) Delete (e) Insert (c) vertically
2. Which of the following is NOT a hardware of a computer? (d) from center to the furthest corner
(a) Monitor (b) Key Board (e) diagonally
(c) Windows (d) Central Processing Unit 10. External devices such as printers, keyboards and modems
(e) Mouse are known as
3. Most of the commonly available personal computers/laptops (a) add-on devices.
have a keyboard popularly known as ________. (b) peripherals.
(a) QWERTY (b) QOLTY (c) ALTER (c) extra hardware devices.
(d) UCLIF (e) None of these (d) PC expansion slot add-ons.
4. Computers send and receive data in the form of ________ (e) special-buys
signals. 11. For a computer to recognize and understnad analog data.
(a) Analog (b) Digital it must first be
(c) Modulated (d) Demodulated (a) sent to a mainframe for interoperation
(e) All of these (b) analyzed by the ALU of the CPU
5. Every component of your computer is either (c) decoded
(a) software or CPU/RAM (d) analyzed for viruses
(b) hardware or software (e) digitized
(c) application software or system software 12. Expansion cards are inserted into
(d) input devices or output devices (a) slots (b) peripheral devices
(e) None of these (c) the CPU (d) the back of the computer
6. The smallest unit of information a computer can understand (e) pegs
and process is known as a_______. 13. The most common pointing input device is the
(a) digit (b) byte (c) megabyte (a) trackball (b) touchpad
(d) kilobyte (e) bit (c) touchscreen (d) mouse
7. A byte can represent any number between 0 and_____ (e) scanner
(a) 2 (b) 255 (c) 256 14. Video controller
(d) 1024 (e) 1025 (a) Controls the resolution of images on screen
8. The most widely used code that represents each character (b) Controls the signals to be sent and received from
as a unique 8-bit code is processor for display
(a) ASCII (c) Handles the entire electronic work behind the formation
(b) Unicode of images on the screen
(c) binary numbering system (d) Is responsible for allocating pixels for formation of
(d) EBCDIC images
(e) ACSII (e) Is responsible for the refresh rate of the screen / monitor
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154 SPEED TEST 72
b
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15. Decimal equivalent of (1111) 24. Which of the following is not an example of hardware?
b
(a) 11 (b) 10 (a) Scanner (b) Printer
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(c) 1 (d) 15 (c) Monitor (d) Mouse
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(e) 13 (e) Interpreter
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16. Which part of the computer helps to store information? 25. The binary system is a number system to the base
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(a) Monitor (b) Keyboard (a) 2 (b) 4
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(c) Disk drive (d) Printer (c) 8 (d) 10
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(e) Plotter (e) 16
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17. Which of the following is the fastest type of computer? 26. A _________ is an electronic device that process data,
(a) Laptop (b) Notebook converting it into information.
(c) Personal computer (d) Workstation (a) computer (b) processor
(e) Supercomputer (c) case (d) stylus
18. How many megabytes make a gigabyte? (e) None of these
(a) 1024 (b) 128 27. Which is the part of the computer system that one can
(c) 256 (d) 512 physically touch ?
(e) 64 (a) data (b) operating system
19. The main system board of a computer is called the (c) hardware (d) software
(a) integrated circuit (b) motherboard (e) None of these
(c) processor (d) microchip 28. Housing all hardware, software, storage, and processing in
(e) None of these one site location is called _________
20. Which of the following can input graphical images and (a) time-sharing
pictures for a computer? (b) a distributed system
(a) Plotter (b) Scanner (c) centralized processing
(c) Mouse (d) Printer (d) A host computer
(e) Keyboard (e) None of these
21. Which of the following categories would include a 29. A computer works on a _________ number system.
keyboard? (a) binary (b) octal
(a) Printing Device (b) Output Device (c) decimal (d) hexadecimal
(c) Pointing Device (d) Storage Device (e) None of these
(e) Input Device 30. The physical components of a computer system is _______
22. The following computers memory is characterised by low (a) Software (b) Hardware
cost per bit stored (c) ALU (d) Control Unit
(a) Primary (b) Secondary (e) None of these
(c) Hard Disk (d) All of these 31. Files deleted from the hard disk are sent to the ______.
(e) None of these (a) recycle bin (b) floppy disk
23. Which of the following is hardware and not software ? (c) clipboard (d) motherboard
(a) Excel (b) Printer driver (e) None of these
(c) Operating System (d) Power Point
(e) CPU

30. a b c d e 31. a b c d e
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OPERATING SYSTEM
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1. Which of the following is NOT a famous operating system? 8. The first computers were programmed using
(a) Windows Vista (b) Mac OS X (c) Linux (a) assembly language (b) machine language
(d) Sun OS (e) Virtual Box (c) spaghetti code (d) source code
2. Window 95, Windows 98 and Windows NT are known as (e) None of these
(a) processors (b) domain names (c) modems 9. The name of the location of a particular piece of data is
(d) operating systems (e) None of these
its_________ .
3. RAM is _________ and ___________.
(a) address (b) mamory name
(a) volatile, temporary
(b) nonvolatile, permanent (c) storage site (d) data location
(c) nonvolatile, temporary (e) None of these
(d) volatile, permanent 10. Applications are often referred to as
(e) None of these (a) data file (b) executable files
4. The __________ indicates how much data a particular stor- (c) system software (d) the operating system
age medium can hold. (e) None of these
(a) access (b) capacity (c) memory 11. A Field is a related group of __________.
(d) storage (e) None of these (a) Records (b) Files (c) Characters
5. What is a file? (d) Cables (e) None of these
(a) A file is a section of main storage used to store data. 12. The process of transferring files from a computer on the
(b) A file is a collection of information that has been given
Internet to your computer is called __________.
a name and is stored in secondary memory.
(a) downloading (b) uploading (c) FTP
(c) A file is the part of a program that is used to describe
what the program should do. (d) JPEG (e) downsizing
(d) A file is another name for floppy disk. 13. Cache and main memory will lose their contents when the
(e) None of these power is off. They are ___________.
6. How is it possible that both programs and data can be stored (a) dynamic (b) static (c) volatile
on the same floppy disk? (d) non-volatile (e) faulty
(a) A floppy disk has two sides, one for data and one for 14. Every computer has a(n) ____________; many also have
programs. __________.
(b) Programs and data are both software, and both can be (a) operating system; a client system
stored on any memory device. (b) operating system; instruction sets
(c) A floppy disk has to be formatted for one or for the (c) application programs; an operating system
other.
(d) application programs; a client system
(d) Floppy disks can only store data, not programs.
(e) operating system; application programs
(e) None of these
7. Two different files can have the same name if 15. An example of a processing device would be _________.
(a) they are in different folders (a) a magnetic ink reader
(b) they are on different drives (b) a tablet PC
(c) Never (c) special function cards
(d) the names are capitalised differently (d) scanners
(e) None of these (e) keyboards
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156 SPEED TEST 73
b
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16. The operating system called UNIX is typically used for 23. After a user has saved and deleted many files, many scat-
b
tered areas of stored data remain that are too small to be
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(a) Desktop computers
(b) Laptop computers used efficiently, causing ___________.
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(c) Super computers (a) disorder (b) turmoil (c) disarray
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(d) Web servers (d) fragmentation (e) None of these
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24. When you instal a new program on your computer,it is typi-
s
(e) All of these
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cally added to the _________ menu.
.c
17. When data changes in multiple lists and all lists are not
(a) All Programs (b) Select Programs
o
updated, this causes
m
(c) Start Programs (d) Desktop Programs
(a) data redundancy (b) information overload
(e) None of these
(c) duplicate data (d) data inconsistency 25. Which of the following contains information about a single
(e) data repetition entity in the database like a person, place, event, or thing?
18. What is a backup? (a) query (b) form (c) record
(a) Restoring the information backup (d) table (e) None of these
(b) An exact copy of a systems information 26. The operating system, that is self-contained in a device and
(c) The ability to get a system up and running in the event resident in the ROM .is
of a system crash or failure (a) Batch Operating System
(d) All of these (b) Real-time Operating System
(e) None of these (c) Embedded Operating System
19. Which process checks to ensure the components of the (d) Mutli-Processor Operating System
computer are operating and connected properly? (e) None of these
(a) Booting (b) Processing (c) Saving 27. If you change Windows 98 to Windows XP, you are actually
(d) Editing (e) Starting performing
20. Physical security is concerned with protecting computer (a) upstart (b) upgrade
hardware from human tempering and natural disasters and (c) update (d) patch
(e) None of these
_________ security is concerned with protecting software
28. Using output devices one can
from unauthorised tampering or damage.
(a) input data (b) store data
(a) data (b) cyber (c) Internet
(c) scan data (d) view or print data
(d) metaphysical (e) publicity (e) None of these
21. Executing more than one program concurrently by one user 29. What happens when we try to delete the files on the floppy?
on one computer is known as (a) The files get moved to the Recycle Bin
(a) multi-programming (b) multi-processing (b) Files on a floppy cannot be deleted
(c) time sharing (d) multi-tasking (c) The files get deleted and can be restored again from
(e) multi-action Recycle Bin .
22. All computers must have (d) The files get deleted and cannot be restored again
(a) a word processing software (e) The file gets copied on the Hard disk
(b) an operating system 30. To be able to boot, the computer must have a(n)
(c) an attached printer (a) Compiler (b) Loader
(d) a virus checking program (c) Operating System (d) Assembler

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MS OFFICE
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1. You Microsoft Word by using _________ button. 9. A partially completed workbook that contains formulas and
(a) New (b) Start (c) Program formatting, but no data is called a
(d) Control Panel (e) None of these (a) Prototype (b) template
2. The justification that aligns text on both margins of a (c) model (d) function
document in Word is (e) None of these
(a) Justify (b) Bold (c) Center 10. Each cell in a Microsoft Office Excel document is referred to
(d) Right (e) Balanced by its cell address, which is the
3. The name of a Microsoft Office Word document is displayed (a) cells column label
in both the ___________ and the taskbar. (b) cells column label and worksheet tab name
(a) menu bar (b) taskbar (c) cells row label
(c) Formatting toolbar (d) Standard toolbar (d) cells row and column labels
(e) title bar (e) cells contents
4. The file that is created through word processing is a 11. Excel is designed to provide visual cues to the relationships
(a) database file (b) storage file between the cells that provide values to the formulas or the
(c) worksheet file (d) document file cells that depend on the formulas by
(e) graphical file (a) Bolding the cell references to match the colour coding
5. When writing a document, you can use the _________ of the borders around the referenced worksheet cells.
feature to find an appropriate word or an alternative word if (b) Highlighting the cell references.
you find yourself stuck for the right word. (c) Colour coding the cell references in the formula to match
(a) dictionary (b) word finder the borders around the referenced worksheet cells.
(c) encyclopedia (d) thesaurus (d) Bolding the cell references.
6. Microsoft Office is an example of a _________. 12. This Excel feature includes functions to calculate an Average,
(a) closed-source software Minimum, Maximum and Count.
(b) open-source software (a) Format (b) Number (c) AutoSum
(c) horizontal-market software (d) Calculate (e) MIN
(d) vertical-market software 13. This is a set of values that you want to chart in Excel.
(e) compiler (a) Object (b) Numbers (c) Data Mart
7. You cannot link Excel worksheet data to a Word document (d) Formulas (e) Data series
___________. 14. The .xls extension is used for ________ files.
(a) with the right drag method (a) Windows (b) Access (c) PowerPoint
(b) with the hyperlink (d) Word (e) Excel
(c) with the copy and paste special commands 15. To copy a cell, you would drag the cell border while
(d) with the copy and paste buttons on the standard simultaneously holding down the Ctrl key when
commands (a) You have one or more cells to copy.
(e) All of these (b) Only some of the cells are visible in the window.
8. In Excel, Charts are created using which option? (c) You dont want to refer to absolute references.
(a) Chart Wizard (b) Pivot Table (d) The distance between cells is short and they are both
(c) Pie Chart (d) Bar Chart visible in the window.
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158 SPEED TEST 74
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16. In Excel, _________ contains one or more worksheets. 23. Using Print Preview is useful when you want to-
b
(a) Template (b) Workbook (c) Active cell
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(a) Colour the document
(d) Label (e) None of these (b) Save the document
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17. Numbers in table columns are usually (c) Delete the document
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(a) right-aligned (b) left-aligned (c) justified (d) Copy the document
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(d) centered (e) None of these
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(e) View how trip document will appear when printed
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18. Office Assistant is
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24. In word, you can change Page Margins by
(a) An application that allows you to take notes and save
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(a) Dragging the scroll box on the scroll bars
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them in file
(b) Deleting the margin boundaries on the Ruler
(b) A button on the standard toolbar that executes the
(c) Dragging the margin boundaries on the Ruler
Save command
(d) Clicking the right mouse button on the Ruler
(c) A collection of Autocorrect options in Word
(d) An animated character that offers help and suggestions (e) None of these
(e) None of these 25. In word, replace option is available on
19. In word, when you indent a paragraph, you (a) File Menu (b) View Menu
(a) push the text in with respect to the margin (c) Edit Menu (d) Format Menu
(b) change the margins on the page (e) None of these
(c) move the text up by one line 26. In Excel, this is a prerecorded formula that provides a shortcut
(d) move the text down by one line for complex calculations
(e) None of these (a) Value (b) Data Series
20. Excel would evaluate the formula, = 20* 10/4 *8 and return (c) Function (d) Field
the answer (e) None of these
(a) 400 (b) 40 27. This is not a function category in Excel
(c) 6.25 (d) 232 (a) Logical (b) Data Series
(e) 600 (c) Financial (d) Text
21. In word, you can use Styles to (e) None of these
(a) Make copies of documents 28. What is the default file extension for all word documents?
(b) Save changes to documents (a) TXT (b) WRD
(c) Delete text in documents (c) FIL (d) DOC
(d) Format your documents
(e) None of these
(e) None of these
29. Text in a column is generally aligned _________
22. In the formula, = B1/B2 + B3, which of the following is the
(a) justified (b) right
correct precedence?
(a) Addition higher precedence than division (c) center (d) left
(b) Equal precedence among the two operators: proceed (e) None of the above
right to left 30. In Excel _________ contains one or more worksheets.
(c) Equal precedence among the two operators proceed (a) Template (b) Workbook
left to right (c) Active cell (d) Label
(d) Division higher precedence than addition (e) None of these
(e) None of these

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COMMANDS AND SHORTCUT KEYS
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1. The quickest and easiest way in Word, to locate a particular 8. ctrl, shift and alt are called ________ keys.
word or phrase in a document is to use the ________ (a) adjustment (b) function
Command. (c) modifier (d) alphanumeric
(a) Replace (b) Find (e) None of these
(c) Lookup (d) Search 9. In page preview mode ________.
(a) You can see all pages of your document
(e) None of these
(b) You can only see the page you are currently working on
2. Which of the following could you do to remove a paragraph
(c) You can only see pages that do not contain graphics
from a report you had written?
(d) You can only see the title page of your document
(a) Delete and edit (b) Highlight and delete
(e) None of these
(c) Cut and paste (d) Undo typing
10. To select or unselect one word to the right
(e) None of these (a) CTRL + SHIFT
3. You click at B to make the text _________. (b) CTRL + SHIFT + UP Arrow
(a) Italics (c) CTRL + SHIFT + Down Arrow
(b) Underlined (d) CTRL + SHIFT + Right Arrow
(c) Italics and Underlined (e) None of these
(d) Bold 11. To maximize or restore a selected window
(e) None of these (a) CTRL + F7 (b) CTRL + F10
4. For creating a document, you use ________ command at (c) CTRL + F8 (d) CTRL + F9
File Menu. (e) None of these
(a) Open (b) Close 12. To Copy a picture of the selected window to the clipboard
(c) New (d) Save (a) ALT + TAB (b) Ctrl + TAB
(e) None of these (c) ALT + Print Screen (d) Both (a) and (b)
5. The shortcut key Ctrl + F in Word is used for (e) None of these
(a) To view document in full view 13. ________ is the key to close a selected drop - down list;
(b) To open the Formula dialog box cancel a command and close a dialog box.
(c) To save the file (a) TAB (b) SHIFT
(d) To open the Find and Replace dialog box (c) ESC (d) F10
6. Which menu is selected to access cut, copy, and paste 14. ________ is the key we use to run the selected command.
commands? (a) SHIFT (b) TAB
(a) File (b) Edit (c) ENTER (d) CTRL
(c) Tools (d) Table (e) None of these
(e) None of these 15. ________ is the function key to display save-as box.
7. To restart the computer ________ key is used. (a) F5 (b) F6
(a) Del + Ctrl (b) Backspace + Ctrl (c) F9 (d) F12
(e) None of these
(c) Ctrl + Alt + Del (d) Reset
(e) None of these
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16. ________ is the combination of keys to switch between 25. To make a copy of the current document to disk
b
(a) Use the save command
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the last four places that you have edited
(a) ALT + CTRL + Z (b) ALT + CTRL + Y (b) This cannot be done
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(c) ALT + TAB + Z (d) ALT + SHIFT + Z (c) Use the duplicate command
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(e) None of these (d) Copy the document
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17. ________ is the Keyboard shortcut key to insert auto sum (e) Use the save as command
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26. Why is the Caps Lock key referred to as a toggle key?
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(a) ALT (b) ALT=
(a) Because its function goes back and forth every time it
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(c) ALT+ (d) ALT
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(e) ALT+CTRL is pressed
18. ________key is the example of Toggle key (b) Because it cannot be used for entering numbers
(a) Alt (b) Shift (c) Because it cannot be used to delete
(c) Control (d) Escape (d) Because it cannot be used to insert
(e) Caps Lock (e) None of these
27. What type of keys are ctrl and shift?
19. > symbol in DOS commands is use to
(a) adjustment (b) function
(a) Compare two values (b) Redirect input
(c) modifier (d) alphanumeric
(c) Redirect output (d) Filter data
(e) None of these
(e) None of these
28. While browsing internet , a keyboard shortcut is used to
20. Pressing CTRL+9 in Excel place a www to the beginning and .com to the end of the
(a) Prints 9 text typed in the Address bar. Which among the following
(b) Prints shortcuts?
(c) Prints 9 followed by spaces (a) ALT + ENTER (b) CNTRL + ENTER
(d) Inserts 9 cells at the current location (c) ALT + SHIFT (d) CNTRL + SHIFT
(e) Hides the current row (e) None of these
21. Which keys enable the input of numbers quickly? 29. Which among the following key is used for checking
(a) ctrl, shift and alt grammar and spelling?
(b) function keys (a) F3 (b) F5
(c) the numeric keypad (c) F7 (d) F2
(d) arrow keys (e) None of these
(e) None of these 30. While working on Microsoft World, which among the
22. To restart the computer the following combination of keys following is the command for Undo?
is used (a) Ctrl +A (b) Ctrl +Z
(a) Del + Ctrl (b) Backspace + Ctrl (c) Ctrl +Y (d) Ctrl +C
(c) Esc + Ctrl (d) Insert + Esc (e) Ctrl +V
(e) Ctrl + Alt + Del 31. Which of the following Key is not found in normal
23. Which key is used to delete one character to the left of the computers / laptops?
current position of the cursor? (a) turn key (b) alt key
(a) Backspace (b) Delete (c) del key (d) shift key
(c) Insert (d) Esc (e) None of these
(e) Ctrl 32. While browsing the internet , which of the following key is
24. _________is the process of carrying out commands. used for full screen view?
(a) Fetching (b) Storing (a) F3 (b) F5
(c) Decoding (d) Executing (c) F11 (d) F9

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SOFTWARES
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1. What kind of software would you most likely use to keep 8. Which of the following is not a common feature of software
track of a billing account? applications?
(a) Word processing (b) Electronic publishing (a) Menus (b) Windows
(c) Spreadsheet (d) Web authoring (c) Help (d) Search
2. _________are graphical objects used to represent commonly 9. A limitation of software that digitizes voice data is that it
used application. (a) is prohibitively expensive.
(a) GUI (b) Drivers (b) must be trained to recognize individual voices.
(c) can only be used on high-end computers.
(c) Windows (d) Application
(d) cannot be used on laptop computers.
(e) Icons
(e) cannot be used on desktop computers
3. In any window, the maximize button, the minimize button
10. Which type of software is distributed free but requires the
and the close buttons appear on users to pay some amount for further use?
(a) The title bar (b) Menu bar (a) freeware (b) shareware
(c) Status bar (d) Ruler bar (c) rentalware (d) public-domain software
(e) Tool bar (e) abandonware
4. Checking that a pin code number is valid before it is entered 11. If employees reside in different parts of the country and
into the system is an example of need to meet monthly, useful computer technology would
(a) error correction (b) backup and recovery be
(c) data preparation (d) data validation (a) video-display software
(e) None of these (b) video digitizing (c) video-conferencing
5. The two major categories of software include (d) video scanning. (e) None of these
(a) operating system and utility 12. Which type of software is used in the design of products,
structures, civil engineering, drawings and map?
(b) Personal productivity and system
(a) CAD programs (b) desktop programs
(c) system and application (c) drawing programs (d) painting-programs
(d) system and utility (e) video/audio-programs
(e) None of these 13. Software applies __________, also called algorithms, to
6. Which is the best definition of a software package? process data.
(a) An add-on for your computer such as additional (a) arithmetic (b) procedures
memory (c) objects (d) rules
(b) A set of computer programs used for a certain function (e) None of these
such as word processing 14. _________ makes it possible for shoppers to make pur-
(c) A protection you can buy for a computer chases using their computers.
(d) The box, manual and license agreement that accompany (a) E-word (b) E-commerce
commercial software (c) E-spend (d) E-business
7. A directory within a directory is called. 15. Application software is designed to accomplish _________.
(a) Mini Directory (b) Junior Directory (a) real-world tasks (b) computer-centric tasks
(c) gaming tasks (d) operating-system tasks
(c) Part Directory (d) Sub Directory
(e) None of these
(e) None of these
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162 SPEED TEST 76
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16. Which is the best definition of a software package? 23. Linux is a type of ________ software.
b
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(a) An add-on for your computer such as additional (a) Shareware (b) Commercial
memory
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(c) Proprietary (d) Open Source
rd
(b) A set of computer programs used for a certain function (e) Hidden type
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such as word processing
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24. A compiler translates a program written in a high-level
(c) A protection you can buy for a computer
s
language into_________
s
(d) The box, manual and license agreement that accom-
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(a) Machine language
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pany commercial software.
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17. What are the two examples of freeware? (b) an algorithm (c) a debugged program
(a) WinZip and Linux (d) Java (e) None of these
(b) Shareware and file sharing 25. The _________ of a system includes the programs or
(c) Microsoft Word and the Google toolbar instructions.
(d) Instant messaging and the Google toolbar (a) hardware (b) icon
(e) Microsoft Power Point and Microsoft Excel (c) information (d) software
18. A sales clerk at a checkout counter scanning a tag on an (e) None of these
item rather than keying it into the system, is using _______. 26. The primary purpose of software is to turn data into _______
(a) input automation (b) item data automation (a) websites (b) information
(c) scanning automation (c) programs (d) objects
(d) source data automation (e) None of these
(e) None of these 27. Which one of the following software applications would be
19. Unauthorised copying of software to be used for personal the most appropriate for performing numerical and statistical
gain instead of for personal backups is called calculations?
(a) program thievery (b) data snatching (a) Database (b) Document processor
(c) software piracy (d) program looting (c) Graphics package (d) Spreadsheet
(e) data looting (e) None of these
20. Which of the following softwares allows the user to move
28. The software that allows users to surf the Internet is called
from page to page on the Web by clicking on or selecting a
a/ an _________
hyperlink or by typing in the address of the destination
page? (a) Search engine (b) Internet Service Provider (ISP)
(a) Web browser (b) Web search engine (c) Multimedia application
(c) Web home page (d) Web service (d) Browser (e) None of these
(e) None of these 29. The ______ of software contains lists of commands and
21. A document that explains how to use a software program is options.
called ______ manual (a) menu bar (b) tool bar
(a) User (b) System (c) title bar (d) formula bar
(c) Software (d) Program (e) None of these
(e) Technical 30. ____ is a procedure that requires users to enter an
22. The process that deals with the technical and management identification code and a matching password.
issues of software development is ______ (a) Paging (b) Logging on
(a) Delivery process (b) Control process (c) Time-sharing (d) Multitasking
(c) Software process (d) Testing process
(e) None of these
(e) Monitoring process

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PROGRAMMING
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1. Which of the following is NOT a computer programming 9. Which of the following is a popular programming language
language? for developing multimedia web pages, websites and web-
(a) C (b) C++ (c) Java based applications?
(d) COBOL (e) Microsoft (a) COBOL (b) Java
2. A compiler translates higher-level programs into a machine (c) BASIC (d) Assembler
language program, which is called (e) None of these
(a) source code (b) object code 10. Compiling creates a(n) ___________.
(c) compiled code (d) beta code (a) program specification
(e) None of these (b) algorithm (c) executable program
3. A program that works like a calculator for keeping track of (d) subroutine (e) None of these
money and making budgets __________.
11. The ___________ manual tells you how to use a software
(a) calculator (b) scholastic (c) keyboard
program.
(d) spreadsheet (e) None of these
(a) documentation (b) programming
4. is the process of finding errors in software code.
(c) technical (d) user
(a) Debugging (b) Compiling
(c) Interpreting (d) Testing (e) None of these
(e) None of these 12. The simultaneous execution of two or more instructions is
5. A ________ contains specific rules and words that express called
the logical steps of an algorithm. (a) sequential access
(a) programming language (b) reduced instruction set computing
(b) programming structure (c) multiprocessing (d) disk mirroring
(c) syntax (d) logic chart (e) None of these
(e) None of these 13. Multiprogramming systems:
6. C, BASIC, COBOL, and Java are example of _________ (a) are easier to develop than single programming systems.
languages. (b) execute each job faster.
(a) low-level (b) computer (c) execute more jobs in the same time period.
(c) system programming (d) use only one large mainframe computer.
(d) high-level (e) None of these (e) None of these
7. The human-readable version of a program is called _______. 14. Codes consisting of bars or lines of varying widths or lengths
(a) source code (b) program code that are computer-readable are known as _________.
(c) human code (d) system code (a) a bar code (b) an ASCII code
(e) None of these (c) a magnetic tape (d) a light pen
8. The method of file organization in which data records in a (e) None of these
file are arranged in a specified order according to a key field 15. A ________ contains specific rules and words that express
is known as the the logical steps of an algorithm.
(a) Direct access method
(a) programming language
(b) Queuing method
(b) programming structure
(c) Predetermined method
(c) syntax
(d) Sequential access method
(e) None of these (d) logic chart (e) None of these
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164 SPEED TEST 77
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16. _________ is a set of keywords, symbols, and a system of 22. A programming language having a ______ is slow in
b
execution
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rules for constructing statements by which humans can
communicate the instructions to be executed by a computer. (a) Interpreter (b) Compiler
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(a) A computer program (c) Assembler (d) Linker
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(b) A programming language (e) none of these
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23. Assembly language is
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(c) An assembler
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(a) Machine Language
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(d) Syntax
(b) High-level programming language
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(e) None of these
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(c) A low-level programming language
17. ________ is the process of finding errors in software code. (d) Language for assembling computers
(a) Compiling (e) None of these
(b) Assembling 24. What is correcting erros in a program called?
(c) Interpreting (a) Compiling (b) Debugging
(d) Debugging (c) Grinding (d) Interpreting
18. A program that converts a high-level language source file 25. A _________ contains specific rules and words that express
into a machine-language file is called a the logical steps of an algorithm.
(a) translator (a) programming language
(b) assembler (b) syntax
(c) programming structure
(c) compiler
(d) logic chart
(d) linker
(e) None of the above 26. Which of the following is a popular programming language
19. Documentation of computer programs is important so that for developing multimedia web pages, websites, and web-
(a) users can learn how to use the program based applications?
(b) other programmers can know how to maintain the (a) COBOL (b) Java
program (c) BASIC (d) Assembler
(c) the programmer can see why the code is written that (e) None of these
way while hunting for sources of error 27. A (n)___is a program that makes the computer easier to use.
(d) All of the above (a) utility (b) application
(e) None of the above (c) operating system (d) network
20. A program that enables you to perform calculations (e) None of these
involving rows and columns of numbers is called a 28. What is used in most programs that is a part of a program
_________. and guides the user through certain steps?
(a) Software (b) Wizard
(a) spreadsheet program
(c) Wiki (d) Language
(b) word processor
(e) None of these
(c) graphics package 29. Structured Query Language (SQL) is used in the following?
(d) window (a) Create Databases (b) Create & Modify Databases
(e) None of the above (c) Create, Modify & Query Databases
21. ______ is a feature for scheduling and multiprogramming (d) Modify Databases (e) None of these
to provide an economical interactive system of two or more 30. Which of the following was used in programming the first
users computers?
(a) Time sharing (b) Multitasking (a) Object code (b) Source Code
(c) Time tracing (d) Multiprocessing (c) Machine Language (d) Assembly Language

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INTERNET AND NETWORKING
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1. Which of the following is a Web browser? (d) keep track of paper-based transactions
(a) Paint (b) Power Point (e) None of these
(c) Fire fox (d) Word 7. Most World Wide Web pages contain commands in the
language _________.
(e) All are Web browsers
(a) NIH (b) URL (c) HTML
2. The Internet allows you to __________.
(d) IRC (e) FTP
(a) send electronic mail
8. Which is the slowest internet connection service?
(b) view Web pages
(a) Digital Subscriber Line
(c) connect to servers all around the world
(b) TI
(d) All of the above
(c) Cable modem
(e) None of these (d) Leased Line
3. Junk e-mail is also called __________. (e) Dial-up Service
(a) spam (b) spoof 9. Computers connected to a LAN (local Area Network)
(c) sniffer script (d) spool can _________.
(e) None of these (a) run faster
4. What is an E-mail attachment? (b) go on line
(a) A receipt sent by the recipient (c) share information and/or share peripheral equipment
(b) A separate document from another program sent along (d) E-mail
with an E-mail message (e) None of these
(c) A malicious parasite that feeds off of your messages 10. A Website address is a unique name that identifies a specific
and destroys the contents __________ on the web.
(d) A list of CC : or BCC : recipients (a) Web browser (b) PDA (c) Website
(e) None of these (d) Link (e) None of these
5. Which of the following are all considered advantages of 11. What does a Web site address uniquely specify?
e-mail? (a) Web browser (b) Web site (c) PDA
(a) Convenience, speed of delivery, generality and (d) Storage (e) Hard-disk
reliability 12. Web pages are saved in __________ format.
(b) Printable, global and expensive (a) http:// (b) HTML (c) DOC
(c) Global, convenience and Microsoft owned (d) URL (e) None of these
(d) Slow delivery, reliable, global and inexpensive 13. What are the two parts of an E-mail address?
(e) None of these (a) User name and street address
6. E-commerce allows companies to ________. (b) Legal name and phone number
(a) issue important business reports (c) User name and domain name
(b) conduct business over the Internet (d) Initials and password
(c) support decision making processes (e) login name and password
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166 SPEED TEST 78
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b
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a(n) windows into the Web are called
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(a) Host (b) E-mail client (a) Hypertext (b) Networks (c) Internet
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(d) Web browsers (e) None of these
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(c) E-mail server (d) Listserv
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(e) None of these 24. A word in a web page that, when clicked, opens another
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document.
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15. Before you can begin using e-mail, you must have a(n)
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(a) anchor (b) URL (c) hyperlink
m
(a) Browser (b) Modem (c) Server (d) reference (e) None of these
(d) Scanner (e) Account
25. A modem
16. Which of the following are tasks thaqt may be comleted
(a) translates analog signals from a computer into digital
when configuring your e-mail client?
signals that can travel along conventional telephone
(a) Provide the IP address of your ISPs mail server lines.
(b) Provide the name fo your e-mail account (b) translates digital signals from a computer into analog
(c) Specify that mail is to be deleted from the host computer signals that, can travel along conventional telephone
after it is downloaded to your computer. lines.
(d) All of these (c) demodulates digital signals from a computer.
(e) None of these (d) modulates signals from an analog telephone line.
17. An educational institution would generally have the (e) None of these
following in its domain name 26. If you are going to a site you use often, instead of having to
(a) .org (b) .edu (c) .inst type in the address every time, you should
(d) .com (e) .sch (a) save it as a file (b) make a copy of it
18. Which of the following is not a term pertaining to the (c) bookmark it (d) delete it
Internet? (e) None of the above
(a) Keyboard (b) Link (c) Browser 27. WWW stands for ________.
(d) Search Engine (e) Hyperlink
(a) World Work Web (b) Wide Work Web
19. Which of the following is used by the browser to connect
(c) Wide World Web (d) World Wide Web
to the location of the Internet resources?
(e) None of the above.
(a) Linkers (b) Protocol (c) Cable
28. A _________ is the term used when a search engine re-
(d) URL (e) None of these
turns a Web page that matches the search criteria.
20. In a web site, the home page refers to
(a) blog (b) hit (c) link
(a) the best page (b) the last page (d) view (e) success
(c) the first page (d) the most recent page 29. The collection of links throughout the Internet creates an
(e) the oldest page interconnected network called the _________.
21. An e-mail address typically consists of a user ID followed (a) WWW (b) Web
by the _________ sign and the name of the e-mail server (c) World Wide Web (d) All of the above
that manages the users electronic post office box. (e) Wide Area Web
(a) @ (b) # (c) & 30. The connection between your computer at home and your
(d) (e) None of these local ISP is called______.
22. A Web __________ consists of one or more Web pages (a) the last mile (b) the home stretch
located on a Web server.
(c) the home page (d) the backbone
(a) hub (b) site (c) story (e) the vital mile
(d) template (e) None of these

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COMPUTER ABBREVIATIONS AND GLOSSARY
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1. ASCII stands for 8. A complete electronic circuit with transistors and other
(a) American Special Computer for Information Interaction electronic components on a small silicon chip is called a (n)
(b) American Standard Computer for Information (a) workstation (b) CPU
Interchange
(c) magnetic disk (d) integrated circuit
(c) American Special Code for Information Interchange
(e) None of these
(d) American Special Computer for Information
9. Which of the following options correctly expresses the
Interchange
meaning of the term PCs?
(e) American Standard Code for Information Interchange
(a) Independent computers for all working staff
2. POST stands for
(b) Personal Computers widely available to individual
(a) Power on Self Test
(b) Program on Self Test workers with which they can access information from
(c) Power on System Test layer systems and increase their personal productivity
(d) Program on System Test (c) Packed computer system formed by joining together
(e) Power Off System Test of various computer terminals
3. Information that comes from an external source and fed into (d) Computer manufactured by the Pentium Company
computer software is called (e) None of these
(a) Output (b) Input 10. Line printer speed is specified in terms of :
(c) Throughput (d) Reports (a) LPM (Line per minute)
(e) None of these (b) CPM (Character per minute)
4. CPU stands for _________ (c) DPM
(a) Computer Processing Unit (d) Any of the above
(b) Central Processing Unit (e) None of these
(c) Computer Protection Unit 11. What does DOS stand for ?
(d) Central Processing Upload (a) Disk Originating System
(e) None of the above (b) Dynamic Operating System
5. Reusable optical storage will typically have the (c) Disk Operating System
acronym _________ (d) Default Operating System
(a) CD (b) DVD (e) None of these
(c) ROM (d) RW 12. What do you understand by the term booting?
(e) None of these (a) The process of starting the computer from the power-
6. OCR stands for _________ off position
(a) Optical Character Recognition (b) Connecting the computer to the electric switch
(b) Optical CPU Recognition (c) Increasing the memory of the computer
(c) Optimal Character Rendering (d) The process of shut down the computer
(d) Other Character Restoration (e) None of these
(e) None of these
13. FAT stands for
7. Passwords enable users to
(a) File Activity Table
(a) get into the system quickly
(b) File Allocation Table
(b) make efficient use of time
(c) File Access Tape
(c) retain confidentiality of files
(d) simplify file structures (d) File Accommodation Table
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168 SPEED TEST 79
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14. The meaning of double-click is 21. Which of the following are called Knowledge Information
b
(a) pushing and releasing the main mouse button twice processing System?
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in rapid succession when the on-tree mouse pointer (a) Fourth Generation Computers
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is positioned over the desired item (b) Fifth Generation Computers
(b) appearance of an icon
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(c) Laptops (d) Servers
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(c) to take a selection from the document and move it to (e) None of these
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the clipboard
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22. What is the correct full form of VLSI?
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(d) All of the above (a) Very Large Scale Integration
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(e) None of these
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(b) Very large Software Integration
15. The term drag and drop means
(c) Very large Scale Implementation
(a) appearance of an icon
(b) used for selecting text (d) Very Large Software Implementation
(c) to move text or an object by positioning the mouse (e) None of these
pointer on the item you want to move, pressing and 23. MPIS stands for
holding the mouse button to drop the object into its (a) Million Instructions Per Second
new location. (b) Million Instructions Per Season
(d) to take a selection from the document and move it to (c) Monthly Instructions Per Second
the clipboard (d) Million Inputs Per Second
16. CXML in computer language stands for 24. LAN speeds are measured in
(a) Commerce Extensible Markup Language (a) BPS (b) KBPS
(b) Complete Extensible Markup Language (c) MBPS (d) MIPS
(c) Comprehensive Extensible Markup Language (e) None of these
(d) Coded Extensible Markup Language 25. Modem speeds are measured in
(e) Centre for Electronic Markup Language (a) BPS (b) KBPS
17. Digital Subscriber Line (DSL) is a technology that (c) MBPS (d) MIPS
(a) increases the digital capacity of the fibre optic (e) None of these
telephone line 26. BPS stands for
(b) decreases the digital capacity of the fibre optic
(a) Bits Per Second (b) Bits Per Season
telephone line
(c) Bytes Per Second (d) Bits Per System
(c) maintains the digital capacity of the fibre optic
telephone line (e) None of these
(d) it has no impact on the digital capacity 27. Zipping a file means
(e) None of these (a) Encrypting the message
18. Handshake in computer language refers to (b) Compressing the message
(a) message exchanged between two network devices to (c) Transfer the message
ensure transmission synchronisation (d) All of the above
(b) an objective based scripting language (e) None of these
(c) a technology to secure communication between a web 28. The BIOS is the abbreviation of
browser and server (a) Basic Input Output System
(d) a software library that manages a set of security (b) Best Input Output System
functions (c) Basic Input Output Symbol
(e) None of these (d) Base Input Output System
19. IMAP in computer language stands for (e) None of these
(a) Internet Message Access Protocol 29. The computer abbreviation KB usually means
(b) Internet Money Access Protocol (a) Key Block (b) Kernal Boot
(c) Intrusion Message Access Protocol (c) Key Byte (d) Kit Bit
(d) Internal Message Access Protocol (e) Kilo Byte
(e) International Marketing Authority Protocol
30. URL stands for
20. What is the fullform of W3C?
(a) Universal Resource List
(a) World Wide Web Consortium
(b) World Wide Web Company (b) Universal Research List
(c) World Wide Web Center (c) Uniform Resource List
(d) World Wide Web Command (d) Uniform Research Locater
(e) None of these (e) Uniform Resource Locater

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SECTION TEST : COMPUTER AWARENESS
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1. Devices that enter information and let you communicate with 10. The three main parts of the processor are _______
the computer are called _______. (a) ALU, Control Unit and Registers
(a) Software (b) Output devices (b) ALU, Control Unit and RAM
(c) Hardware (d) Input devices (c) Cache, Control Unit and Registers
(e) Input/Output devices (d) Control Unit, Registers and RAM
2. In electronic device, operating under the control of (e) RAM, ROM and CD-ROM
information, that can accept data, process the data, produce 11. Which of the following memory chip is faster ?
output and store the results for future use _______ (a) There is no certainty (b) DRAM
(a) Input (b) Computer (c) SRAM
(c) Software (d) Hardware (d) DRAM is faster for larger chips
3. What is the function of the Central Processing Unit of a 12. Which of the following does not relate to Input Unit ?
Computer ? (a) If accepts data from the outside world.
(a) Creates invoices (b) It converts data into binary code that is understandable
(b) Performs calculations and processing by the computer
(c) Deletes Data (d) Corrupts the data (c) It converts binary data into the human readable form
(e) None of these that is understandable to the users.
4. All the characters that a device can use is called its ? (d) It sends data in binary form to the computer for further
(a) Skill Set (b) Character Alphabet processing
(c) Character Codes (d) Keyboard Characters (e) None of these
(e) Character Set 13. Which of the following terms is just the collection of
5. If your computer keeps rebooting itself, then it is likely that networks that can be joined together ?
_______ (a) virtual private network(b) LAN
(a) It has a virus (c) intranet (d) extranet
(b) It does not have enough memory (e) internet
(c) There is no printer 14. Tangible, physical computer equipment that can be seen
(d) There has been a power surge and touched is called _______
(e) It needs a CD-ROM (a) hardware (b) software
6. What does RAM stand for ? (c) storage (d) input/output
(a) Read Access Memory (e) None of these
(b) Read Anywhere Memory 15. Which of the following is the second largest measurement
(c) Random Anything Memory of RAM ?
(d) Random Access Module (a) Terabyte (b) Megabyte
(e) Random Access Memory (c) Byte (d) Gigabyte
7. What type of device is a 3 inch floppy drive ? (e) Mega Hertz
(a) Input (b) Output 16. What resides on the motherboard and connects the CPU to
(c) Software (d) Storage other components on the motherboard ?
(e) None of these (a) Input Unit (b) System Bus
8. What utility to you use to transfer files and exchange (c) ALU (d) Primary Memory
messages ? (e) None of these
(a) Web browsers (b) W W W 17. By firmware we understand _______
(c) Email (d) Hypertext (a) physical equipment used in a computer system
(e) search engines (b) a set of instructions that causes a computer to perform
9. Which unit controls the movement of signals between CPU one or more tasks.
and I/O ? (c) the people involved in the computing process.
(a) ALU (b) Control Unit (d) a set of programs that is pre-installed into the read only
(c) Memory Unit (d) Secondary Storage memory of a computer during the time of manufacturing
16. a b c d e 17. a b c d e
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170 SPEED TEST 80
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18. Supercomputers _______ (a) presentation file (b) information technology
b
(a) are smaller in size and processing capability than (c) program (d) worksheet file
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mainframe computers (e) FTP
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(b) are common in majority of households 29. Which of the following is contained on chips connected to
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(c) contain thousands of microprocessors the system board and is a holding area for data instructions
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(d) are rarely used by researchers due to their lack of and information? (processed data waiting to be output to
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computing capacity secondary storage)
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(e) are of the same size as laptops (a) program (b) mouse (c) Internet
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19. The cost of a given amount of computing power has (d) memory (e) modem
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_______ dramatically with the progress of computer 30. Microsoft's Messenger allows users to
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technology. (a) bypass a browser to surf the Web
(a) stayed the same (b) create a blog
(b) changed proportionally with the economy (c) communicate via direct live communication
(c) increased (d) fluctuated (d) identify and eliminate spam
(e) decreased (e) make graphic presentations
20. The basic computer processing cycle consists of _______ 31. Portable computer, also known as laptop computer, weighing
(a) input, processing and output between 4 and 10 pounds is called
(b) systems and application (a) general-purpose application
(c) data, information and applications (b) Internet (c) scanner
(d) hardware, software and storage (d) printer (e) notebook computer
(e) None of these 32. The main circuit-board of the system unit is the
21. Where are you likely to find an embedded operating system? (a) computer program (b) control unit
(a) on a desktop operating system (c) motherboard (d) RAM
(b) on a networked PC (c) on a network server (e) None of these
(d) on a PDA (e) on a mainframe 33. In modems data transfer rate is measured in
22. An online discussion group that allows direct "live" , (a) bandwidth (b) bits per second
communication is known as (c) bits per minute (d) All the above
(a) Webcrawler (b) chat group (e) None of these
(c) regional service provider 34. A ________ code is used in retail stores to identify
(d) hyperlink (e) e-mail merchandise.
23. Which of the following is a program that uses a variety of (a) mnemonics (b) gray code
different approaches to identify and eliminate spam? (c) machine code (d) universal product code
(a) Directory search (b) Anti-spam program (e) access-3 code
(c) Web server 35. What is the short-cut key to highlight the entire column?
(d) Web storefront creation package (a) Ctrl + Page up (b) Ctrl + Page down
(e) Virus (c) Ctrl + Enter (d) Ctrl + Space bar
24. Connection or link to other documents or Web Pages that (e) Ctrl + C
contain related information is called 36. _________ can be use to send an e-mail to a large group at
(a) dial-up (b) electronic commerce one time.
(c) hyperlink (d) e-cash (a) Group (b) Alias
(e) domain name (c) Mail server (d) List server
25. Which of the following is a programming language for (e) Remote server
creating special programs like applets? 37. To save the current document or to open a previously saved
(a) Java (b) cable document, _________ is used.
(c) domain name (d) Net (a) file menu (b) tools menu
(e) COBOL (c) view menu (d) edit
26. The system unit (e) review menu
(a) coordinates input and output devices 38. Documents of the web that are transported over the Internet
(b) is the container that houses electronic components are called
(c) is a combination of hardware and software (a) web sites (b) web link
(d) controls and manipulates data (c) web pages (d) HTML pages
(e) does the arithmetic operations (e) hypertext
27. System software 39. To organise the bookmarks, _________ can be used.
(a) allows the user to diagnose and troubleshoot the device (a) containers (b) folders
(b) is a programming language (c) structure (d) menus
(c) is part of a productivity suite (e) files
(d) is an optional form of software 40. In a computer system, _________ device is functionally
(e) helps the computer manage internal resources opposite of a keyboard.
28. Computer and communication technology, such as (a) joystick (b) mouse
communication links to the Internet, that provide help and (c) trackball (d) printer
understanding to the end user is known as (e) scanner

GRID
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HISTORY OF BANKING AND ITS DEVELOPMENT
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1. Reserve Bank of India was established on 9. Lead Bank system was started on the recommendations of
(a) April 12, 1932 (b) April 1, 1935 (a) Raja Challaia Committee
(c) May 2, 1943 (d) November 13, 1941 (b) Kelkar Committee
(e) None of these (c) Nariman Committee
2. Reserve Bank of India was nationalised on (d) Malhotra Committee
(a) 21 May, 1948 (b) 13 July, 1951 (e) None of these
(c) 1 January, 1949 (d) 12 October, 1951 10. Lead Bank system was started in
(c) 1969 (d) 1970
3. Six Commercial banks were nationalised by the Government
(e) 1972
on
11. Reserve Bank of India (RBI) follows the Minimum Reserves
(a) April 15, 1980 (b) May 10, 1981
System in issuing currency since
(c) July 21, 1982 (d) May 13, 1984 (a) 1950 (b) 1952
4. The 14 major banks were nationalised by the Government (e) 1951
on 12. Reserve Bank of India started the system of ombudsman to
(a) June 19, 1967 (b) July 19, 1969 resolve grievances of customers in
(c) May 21, 1962 (d) May 12, 1963 (a) 1994 (b) 1995
5. Which of the following is the first commercial bank? (e) 1998
(a) State Bank of India 13. The credit control methods adopted by the Reserve Bank are
(b) Oudh Commercial Bank a (a) Quantitative controls
(c) Union Bank of India (b) Qualitative controls
(d) Indian Bank (c) Fixed controls
(e) None of these (d) Both (a) and (b)
6. State Bank of India was established on (e) None of these
(a) May 2, 1951 (b) June 21, 1952 14. Which of the following Committees were appointed by the
(c) July 1, 1955 (d) August 12, 1956 Government for r estr uctur ing th e Regional Rural
(e) None of these Development Banks?
(a) Bhandar Committee (b) K.Basu Committee
7. NABARD (National Bank for Agriculture and Rural
(c) Raj Committee (d) Both (a) and ((b)
Development) was established in
(e) None of these
(a) 1979 (b) 1980
15. The concept of 'Universal Banking' was implemented in India
(c) 1981 (d) 1982 on the recommendations of:
(e) 1985 (a) Abid Hussain Committee
8. Regional Rural Banks were established on (b) R H Khan Committee
(a) July 3, 1970 (b) April 14, 1971 (c) S Padmanabhan Committee
(c) October 2, 1975 (d) November 23, 1978 (d) Y H Malegam Committee
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172 SPEED TEST 81
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16. Oudh Commercial Bank was established in Which of the following are correct?
b
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(a) 1878 (b) 1879 (a) 1 and 3 (b) only 2
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(c) 1880 (d) 1881 (c) 2 and 3 (d) only 1
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(e) None of these (e) All the above are correct.
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17. Which of the following is the first Private bank established 24. Security printing press was established in 1982 at?
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based on the recommendations of the Narasimhan (a) Kolkata (b) New Delhi
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Committee? (c) Bombay (d) Hyderabad
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(a) UTI Bank Ltd. (b) Union Bank (e) Nasik
(c) Bank of Baroda (d) Dena Bank 25. Six private sector banks were nationalised on April 15, 1980,
(e) None of these whose reserves were more than?
18. In 1993, a Nationalized bank was merged with Punjab National
(a) 100 Crores (b) 200 crores
Bank (PNB), what is the name of that Bank?
(c) 300 crores (d) 400 crores
(a) Bank of Baroda (b) Global Trust Bank
(e) 500 crores
(c) New Bank of India (d) Bank of India
26. Scheduled banks are those?
(e) None of these
(a) Includued in the 2nd schedule of the Banking
19. The biggest commercial bank in India is
Regulation Act-1949
(a) RBI (b) SBI
(c) IDBI (d) Exim Bank of India (b) Includued in the 2nd schedule of the Companies Act-
(e) None of these 1956
20. ICICI is a (c) Includued in the 2nd schedule of the Reserve Bank of
(a) Financial Institution India Act -1934
(b) Rural Development Bank (d) Bank Nationalization Act -1969
(c) Cooperative Bank (e) None of these
(d) Space Research Institute 27. When RBI has decided to circulate 'Plastic Currency Notes'
(e) None of these in the market ?
21. Banking amendment bill reduced SBI holding in its seven (a) July 1, 1999 (b) July 1, 2010
subsidiary banks from (c) July 1, 2011 (d) Sept. 1, 2011
(a) 90% to 75% (e) None of these
(b) 85% to 50% 28. When was addopted, New strategy for Rural Lending :
(c) 75% or more to 51% Service Area Approach ?
(d) 65% or more to 49% (a) April 1, 1989 (b) March 1, 2007
(e) None of these (c) April 1, 2010 (d) April 1, 2011
22. When was paper currency first started in India? (e) None of these
(a) 1810 (b) 1715 29. India Brand Equity Fund' was established in the year:
(c) 1635 (d) 1542 (a) 1992 (b) 1998 (c) 1995
(e) 1902 (d) 1996 (e) 1997
23. Consider the following statements. 30. Which was the first Indian Bank to introduce credit card?
(1) Scheduled Banks are those Banks which are included
(a) State Bank of India
in the Second Scheduled of the Reserve Bank Act, 1934.
(b) Central Bank of India
(2) There are 10 Non-Scheduled commercial Banks
(c) Union Bank of India
operating in the country.
(d) ICICI
(3) Co-operative banks are organized &managed on the
(e) None of these
principle of co-operation, self-help and mutual help.

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RBI & ITS MONETARY POLICIES
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1. The Base rate system was the recommendation of which 9. Which of the following is NOT a function of Reserve Bank
committee? of India ?
(a) Deepak Mohanti (b) Ketan Parikh (c) M. V. Nair (a) Controls the credit operations of banks through
(d) Basel committee (e) None of these quantitative and qualitative tools
2. What was the initial share capital of Reserve Bank of India ? (b) Lender of the last resort
(a) ` 5 Crore (b) ` 10 Crore (c) Holds cash reserves of all the scheduled banks
(c) ` 15 Crore (d) ` 20 Crore (d) Manages Credit Rating of Banks
3. The accounting year of RBI occurs between the months of ? 10. Under minimum reserve system, how much amount Reserve
Bank of India (RBI) was required to keep in gold and foreign
(a) April March (b) March February
exchange reserves ?
(c) July June (d) August July
(a) ` 200 crore (b) ` 220 crore
(e) None of these
(c) ` 222 crore (d) ` 200 crore
4. In which article RBI permitted to the co-operative Banks for
(e) None of these
special Account Supervision?
11. Open market operations of RBI refers to?
(a) Art 30 (b) Art 31 (c) Art 33
(a) buying and selling of shares
(d) Art 32 (e) None of these
(b) auctioning of foreign exchange
5. Original headquarters of RBI were located at
(c) trading in securities
(a) Calcutta (b) Bombay (d) transactions in gold.
(c) Madras (d) New Delhi (e) None of these
(e) None of these 12. Monetary policy in India is formulated and implemented by?
6. On which date, RBI started working ? (a) Government of India
(a) 1 January 1934 (b) 1 January 1935 (b) Reserve Bank of India
(c) 1 April 1935 (d) 31 March 1934 (c) Indian Banks Association
(e) None of these (d) FICCI
7. Which among the following is NOT a subsidiary of RBI ? (e) None of these
(a) National Housing Bank 13. Reserve bank of India follows which system for the issue of
(b) NABARD currency?
(c) Bharatiya Reserve Bank Note Mudran Private Limited (a) Minimum Reserve System
(d) SIDBI (b) Proportionate Reserve System
(e) None of these (c) Both of the above
8. The headquarters of local boards of RBI are located at (d) None of the above
(a) Mumbai, Kolkata, Chennai and New Delhi (e) None of these
(b) Mumbai, Jaipur, Chennai and Mysore 14. Which of the following controls credit creation by the
commercial Banks in India?
(c) Mumbai, Ahmedabad, Chennai and New Delhi
(a) Ministry of Finance (b) Reserve Bank of India
(d) Mumbai, Ahmedabad, Jaipur and New Delhi
(c) Government of India (d) State Bank of India
(e) None of these
(e) None of these
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174 SPEED TEST 82
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15. Note issuing department of Reserve Bank of India should (a) Any Nationalised Bank
b
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always passes the minimum gold stock worth ? (b) Exchange Bank
(a) ` 85 crore (b) ` 115 crore (c) Reserve Bank of India
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(c) ` 200 crore (d) None of above (d) Ministry of Finance
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16. In India which agency is entrusted with the collection of
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25. How many posts of Deputy Governor in Reserve Bank of
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data of capital formation ? India ?
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(a) RBI and CSO (b) RBI and SBI (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3
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(c) RBI and Other Bank (d) CSO and NSSO (d) 4 (e) None of these
(e) None of these 26. Under provisions of which one of the following Act does
17. The Bank rate is the rate at which ? the RBI issue directives to the Banks in India ?
(a) a bank lends to the public (a) RBI Act
(b) the RBI lends to the public (b) Banking Regulation Act
(c) RBI gives credit to the Commercial Banks (c) Essential Commodities Act
(d) the Government of India lends to other countries. (d) RBI and Banking Regulation Act
18. An increase in CRR by the Reserve Bank of India result in ? 27. Which one of the following tools is used by RBI for selective
(a) decrease in debt of the government credit control ?
(b) reduction in liquidity in the economy (a) It advises banks to lend against certain commodities
(c) attracting more FDI in the country (b) It advises banks to recall the loans for advances against
(d) more flow of credit to desired sectors certain commodities
(e) None of these (c) It advises banks to charge higher rate of interest for
19. Which of the following provides the largest credit to advance against certain commodities.
agriculture and allied sectors ? (d) It discourages certain kinds of lending by assigning
(a) Co-operative Banks with RBI higher risk weights to loans it deems undesirable.
(b) Regional Rural Banks (e) None of these
(c) Commercial Banks 28. Under provisions of which one of the following Acts has
(d) Co-operative and Regional Rural Banks the Reserve Bank of India has the power to regulate,
(e) None of these supervise and control the banking sector ?
20. Which of the following is not the quantitative tool of the (a) RBI Act
Reserve Bank of India (RBI) ? (b) Banking Regulation Act
(a) OMO (b) Reserve ratios (c) Negotiable Instruments Act
(c) Rationing of credit (d) Statutory Pre-emptions (d) RBI and Banking Regulation Act
21. Who is the custodian of Indias Foreign Exchange Funds ? 29. Which among the following institutions regulates the
(a) RBI (b) SBI external commercial borrowings ?
(c) Government of India (d) Central Bank (a) SEBI
(e) None of these (b) Ministry of Finance
22. Who published the financial report on currency and finance ? (c) Ministry of Commerce
(a) RBI (b) CSO (c) WTO (d) Reserve Bank of India
(d) NSSO (e) None of these (e) None of these
23. Which of the following rates/ratios is not convered under
30. Which of the following statements is not correct ?
the RBI monetary and credit policy ?
(a) RBI is the Central Bank of the country
(a) Bank rate
(b) RBI is the Banker of the Central and the state
(b) Exchange rate of foreign currencies
Governments
(c) Repo rate
(c) RBI is the custodian of the countrys Foreign Exchange
(d) Reverse repo rate
Reserve
(e) Cash reserve ratio
(d) RBI was established in 1949.
24. Which of the following authority sanctions foreign exchange
(e) None of these
for the import of goods ?

30. a b c d e
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BANKING PRODUCT AND SERVICES
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1. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of Unit 5. Which of the following is the first financial institution of
Banking? India that adopted the Universal Banking System?
(a) They have fast decision making (a) ICICI (b) SBI
(b) The management enjoys more autonomy (c) IDBI (d) HDFC
(c) They have risk diversification (e) All (A), (B) and (C)
(d) All of above are advantages of Unit Banking 6. In which of the following types of banking, there is a direct
(e) None of these execution of transactions between a bank and its consumers?
(a) Retail banking (b) Universal Banking
2. With reference to various types of Banking, what is "Mixed
Banking"? (c) Virtual Banking (d) Unit Banking
(e) None of these
(a) when banks undertake the activities of commercial and
7. Which of the following is not the part of the Scheduled
investment banking together
Banking structure in India?
(b) when banks undertake the activities of wholesale and
(a) Money Lenders
retail banking together
(b) Public Sector Banks
(c) when banks undertake the activities of offline and online
(c) Private Sector Banks
banking together
(d) Regional Rural Banks
(d) when banks undertake the activities of commercial and
(e) State Cooperative Banks
cooperative banking together
8. Small Savings Scheme like national savings certificates,
(e) None of these
Public Provident Fund, Monthly Income Schemes are popular
3. Insurance service provided by various banks is commonly among the salaried people. Which financial institutions
known as .... manage these schemes?
(a) Investment Banking (a) Public Sector Banks (b) Commercial Banks
(b) Portfolio Management (c) Post Offices (d) Co-operative Banks
(c) Merchant Banking (e) None of these
(d) Bancassurance 9. Which of the following is/are the right(s) of customer
(e) Micro Finance towards his banker?
4. Which among the following types of Banking is most helpful (a) To receive a statement of his account from a banker
in cross selling? (b) To sue the bank for any loss and damages
(a) Virtual Banking (c) To sue the banker for not maintaining the secrecy of
(b) Relationship Banking his account
(c) Wholesale Banking
(d) All of the above
(d) Personal Banking
(e) None of these
(e) Corporation Bank
GRID
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176 SPEED TEST 83
b
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10. Which of the following factors is not required to be (c) Unemployed youth
b
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considered to analyze the repayment capacity of a borrower? (d) Orphans
(e) All of the above
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(a) Working capital management
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(b) Personal educational qualifications 16. Which of the following scheme is not meant for investment
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purposes?
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(c) Financial leverage
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(a) National saving certificate
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(d) Interest rate risk management
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(b) Infrastructure bonds
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(e) None of these (c) Mutual funds
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11. Which of the following is a facilitating service of core loan (d) Letter of credit
products of retail banking services? (e) None of these
(a) Current or savings accounts 17. Systematic investment Plans relates to:
(b) Legal services for documentation (a) Mutual Funds
(c) Delivery of loan at promised time period (b) Life Insurance Companies
(d) Flexibility in prepayment of loan (c) Commercial Banks
(d) Post office savings schemes
(e) None of these
(e) None of these
12. Funded Services under corporate banking does not include?
18. Which of the following is an example of cash less purchase?
(a) Working Capital Finance
(a) Debit card
(b) Bill Discounting (b) Credit card
(c) Export Credit (c) ATM withdrawal
(d) Letters of Credit (d) All of the above
13. ''Swabhiman'' Scheme is related- 19. Which one of the following is not an electronic banking
(a) Rich Customers of the Bank delivery channel?
(b) RRBs (a) Mobile Vans
(d) Mobile Phone Banking
(c) To provide basic banking services to bankless villages
(c) Internet Banking
(d) Both (b) and (c)
(d) Tele Banking
(e) None of these (e) ATM
14. A centralized database with online connectivity to branches, 20. Now-a-days Banks are selling third party products. Example
internet as well as ATM-network which has been adopted of third party product is:
by almost all major banks of our country is known as? (a) Mutual funds
(a) Investment Banking (b) Term deposits
(b) Core Banking (c) Credit cards
(c) Mobile Banking (d) All of these
(d) National Banking (e) None of these
21. What are White Label ATMs
(e) Specialized Banking
(a) ATMs set up and run by non-banking entities
15. The Reverse Mortgage scheme is launched to give benefit
(b) ATMs set up and run by banking entities
to which of the following groups of society?
(c) ATMs in rural areas
(a) Persons below 60 yrs
(d) ATMs in Defence areas
(b) Senior Citizens
(e) ATM set up in Uttaranchal

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BANKING TERM/ TERMINOLOGY
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1. What is the full form of FINO, a term we see frequently in 7. IMPS stand for
financial newspapers? (a) Inter-Bank Mobile Payment Service
(a) Financial Investment Network and Operations (b) Inter-Bank Money Payment Service
(b) Farmers Investment in National Organisation (c) Inter-Bank Mobile Payment System
(c) Farmers Inclusion News and Operations (d) Inter-Bank Money Payment System
(e) None of these
(d) Financial Inclusion Network and Operations
8. In a bid to standardise and enhance the security features in
(e) None of these
cheque forms, it has now been made mandatory for banks
2. What does the letter 'L' denote in the term LAF as referred to issue new format of cheques called
every now and then in relation to monetary policy of the (a) CTS-2010 (b) CTS-2011
RBI? (c) CTS-2012 (d) CTS-2013
(a) Liquidity (b) Liability (e) None of these
(c) Leveraged (d) Longitudinal 9. The Four Eyes principle (mentioned by the Reserve Bank
(e) Linear of India) refers to:
3. Which of the following terms is NOT a financial term? (a) Lenders (b) Borrowers
(a) Investment (c) Wealth Managers (d) Micro-Fananciers
(b) El Nino effect (e) None of these
(c) Core banking Solution 10. NRE deposit is
(a) Non Resident External deposit
(d) RTGS
(b) Non Resident Extra deposit
(e) All are financial terms (c) Non Resident Exchange deposit
4. The term 'Smart Money" refers to __________ . (d) Non Refundable External deposit
(a) Foreign Currency (b) Internet Banking (e) Non Resident Extended deposit
(c) US Dollars (d) Travelers' cheques 11. Which of the following is NOT a banking-related term?
(e) Credit Cards (a) SME Finance (b) Overdraft
5. We often come across the term SWIFT in financial (c) Drawing power (d) Sanctioning Authority
newspapers. What is the expanded form of this term? (e) Equinox
(a) Society for Worldwide Interbank Financial 12. What does the acronym LAF stand for?
Telecommunication (a) Liquidity Adjustment Fund
(b) Secure Worldwide Interbank Financial Telecommunica- (b) Liquidity Adjustment Facility
tion. (c) Liquidity Adjustment Finance
(d) Liquidity Adjustment Factor
(c) Society for Worldwide Intr a-bank Finan cial
(e) None of these
Transaction.
13. Which of the following terms is used in Banking Field?
(d) Security for Worldwide Interbank Financial (a) Interest rate swap (b) Input devices
Transaction (c) Sedimentary (d) Zero hour
(e) None of these (e) Privilege motion
6. Many a time we read in financial newspapers about the 14. What is wholesale banking?
performance of the core sectors in the economy. Which (a) It is a bank-to-bank or B2B dealing.
of the following is NOT included in the same? (b) It is a bank-to-customer dealing.
(a) Coal (b) Automobiles (c) It is a bank-to-trustworthy customer dealing.
(c) Steel (d) Cement (d) It is a bank-to-government dealing
(e) Oil & Petroleum (e) None of these
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15. Expand the term ALM as used in Banking/Finance sector ? 22. Hard Currency is defined as currency :
b
(a) Asset Liability Mismatch (a) which can hardly be used for international transactions
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(b) Asset Liability Maturity (b) which is used in times of war
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(c) Asset Liability Management (c) which loses its value very fast
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(d) Asset Liability Manpower (d) traded in foreign exchange market for which demand
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(e) None of these is persistently relative to the supply
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16. Banks are promoting Branch less Banking which means? (e) None of these
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(1) Banks will not reduce number of branches. Number of 23. The terms bull and bear are used in the :
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branches will be restricted and will concentrate on
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(a) Bihar Governments Animal Husbandry Department
specified core business. (b) Income Tax Department
(2) Banks will launch/operate multiple delivery channels (c) CBI
like ATMs, Mobile Banking/Internet Banking etc making (d) Stock Exchange
visit to a branch unnecessary. (e) None of these
(3) Banks will issue only debit or credit cards for daily 24. We read a term 'ECB' in the financial newspapers. What is
financial transactions. Cheques/Cash payment will not the full form of ECB?
be allowed. (a) Essential Credit and Borrowing
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (b) Essential Commercial Borrowing
(c) Only 1 and 2 (d) Only 2 and 3 (c) External Credit and Business
(e) All 1, 2 and 3 (d) External Commercial Borrowing
17. NBFCs are an important part of the Indian financial system. (e) None of these
What is the full form of this term? 25. Green Banking means
(a) New Banking Financial Companies (a) financing of irrigation projects by banks
(b) Non-Banking Financial Companies (b) development of forestry by banks
(c) Neo Banking Financial Confederation (c) financing of environment friendly projects by banks
(d) Non-Banking Fiscal Companies (d) development of Railway by banks.
(e) All of these (e) None of these
18. BCSBI stands for 26. DTAA stands for
(a) Banking Codes and Standards Board of India (a) Direct Tariff Avoidance Agreement
(b) Banking Credit and Standards Board of India (b) Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement
(c) Banking Codes and Service Board of Inida. (c) Direct Taxation Avoidance Agreement
(d) Banking Credit and Service Board of India. (d) Double Tariff Avoidance Agreement
19. What does the term bancassurance mean ? 27. The rate at which the Reserve Bank of India lends to the
(a) Assurance from the bank to its account holder commercial banks in very short term against the backing of
regarding safety of his money the Government securities is known as?
(b) A special product designed by the bank (a) Bank rate (b) Repo rate
(c) Selling of insurance policies by banks (c) Reverse Repo (d) Discount rate
(d) Understanding between banks and insurance (e) None of these
companies 28. A letter of credit (LC) wherein the credit available to the
(e) None of these customer gets reinstated after the bill is paid is known as?
20. What does the circus logo an ATM / debit cards signifies__? (a) Back to back LC (b) Red clause LC
(a) have cash access facility anywhere in India only (c) Back to front LC (d) Revolving LC
(b) have cash access facility outside the India only (e) None of these
(c) have cash access facility in or outside the India 29. Which of the following is not an imperfect note?
(d) have cash access facility in and outside the India (a) Washed note (b) Bleached note
(e) None of these (c) Mutilated note (d) Oiled note
21. The abbreviation IRDA stands for: (e) None of these
(a) Industrial Research and Development Authority of 30. Which of the following is not shown as an asset in the
India balance sheet of a BanK?
(b) Insurance Research and Development Authority of (a) Investment (b) Advances
India (c) Cash Balances with other banks
(c) Insurance Regulation Development Authority of India (d) Borrowings
(d) Industrial Research and Demands Agency
(e) None of these
(e) None of these

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MICRO FINANCE AND ECONOMICS
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1. Which sector of Indian economy contributes longest to Gross 8. The policy of liberalisation, privatisation and globalisation
National Product ? was announced as new economic policy by prime minister-
(a) Primary sector (b) Secondary sector (a) Vishwanath Pratap Singh
(c) Tertiary sector (d) Public sector (b) Rajeev Gandhi
(e) None of these (c) Narsimha Rao
2. The main source of National Income in India is- (d) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
(a) Service sector (b) Agriculture (e) None of these
(c) Industrial sector (d) Trade sector 9. The National Income of India is estimated by-
(e) None of these (a) National Sample Survey Organization
3. Which one of the following is not a tax levied by the (b) Ministry of Finance
government of India ?
(c) Reserve Bank of India
(a) Service tax (b) Education
(d) Central Statistical Organization
(c) Custom duty (d) Toll tax
(e) None of these
(e) None of these
10. Inflation is caused by
4. The most appropriate measure of a countrys economic
(a) Increase in supply of goods
growth is its-
(a) Gross Domestic Product (GDP) (b) Increase in cash with the government
(b) Net Domestic Product (NDP) (c) Decrease in money supply
(c) Net National Product (NNP) (d) Increase in money supply
(d) Per Capita Product (PCP) (e) None of these
(e) None of these 11. Which of the following constitutes the single larges export
5. FEMA (Foreign Exchange Management (Act) was finally item from India ?
implemented in the year (a) Gems and Jewellery
(a) 1991 (b) 1997 (b) Readymade garments
(c) 2002 (d) 2007 (c) Leather and footwear
(e) None of these (d) Chemicals
6. The most common measure of estimating inflation in India (e) None of these
is- 12. In India, which one among the following formulates the fiscal
(a) Price Index policy?
(b) Wholesale Price Index (a) Planning Commission
(c) Consumer Price Index (b) Finance Commission
(d) Price Index of Industrial Goods (c) Finance Ministry
(e) None of these (d) Reserve Bank of India
7. The largest share of Gross Domestic Product (GDP) in India (e) None of these
comes from- 13. In which of the following financial years the devaluation of
(a) Agriculture and allied sectors rupee in India took place twice ?
(b) Manufacturing sectors
(a) 1966-67 (b) 1991-92
(c) Service sector
(c) 1990-91 (d) 1989-90
(d) Defence and Public Administration
(e) None of these
(e) None of these
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14. VAT is imposed- 23. Which of the following is not covered under Bharat
b
Nirman?
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(a) On first stage of production
(b) Directly on consumer (a) Rural Housing
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(c) On all stages between production and final sale (b) Rural Hospitals
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(d) On final stage of production (c) Rural Water Supply
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(e) None of these (d) Rural Electrification
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(e) None of these
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15. Term Balance of payment is used in relation to which of the
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following ? 24. The concept of sustainable development relates to
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(a) Annual sale of a factory (a) Consumption levels
(b) Tax collection (b) Exhaustible resources
(c) Exports and imports (c) Intergenerational equity
(d) None of the above (d) Social Equity
16. The Indian economy can be described as 25. The Rural infrastructure fund set up in 1995 96, is
(a) a backward and stagnant economy maintained by the
(b) a developing economy (a) Reserve Bank of India
(c) an underdeveloped economy (b) State Bank of India
(d) a developed economy (c) NABARD
(e) None of these (d) Regional Rural Bank
17. The slack season in the Indian economy is (e) None of these
(a) Feb-April (b) Mar-April 26. The head office of the National Bank for Agriculture and
(c) Jan-June (d) Sept-Dec Rural Development (NABARD) located in
(e) None of these (a) Lucknow (b) Hyderabad
18. Economic planning is in (c) New Delhi (d) Mumbai
(a) Union list (b) State list (e) None of these
(c) Concurrent list (d) Not any specified list 27. Which of the following has not been a component of the
(e) None of these agriculture strategy that brought about the Green
Revolution ?
19. The multi dimensional poverty index of UNDP includes
(a) Greater intensity of cropping
(a) 8 indicators (b) 10 indicators
(b) Guaranteed maximum prices
(c) 12 indicators (d) 14 indicators
(c) New agricultural technology
(e) None of these
20. Which of the following is responsible for the preparation (d) Package of inputs
and publication of Economic Survey? (e) None of these
(a) Planning Commission 28. Swaroop committee is associated with
(b) NSSO (a) financial products marketing
(c) Ministry of Finance (b) Sugar marketing
(d) RBI (c) Banking
(e) None of these (d) Capital marketing
21. Which one of the following plans is also known as Gadgil (e) None of these
Yojana? 29. Who recommends the MSP and issue prices?
(a) Third Five Year Plan (a) Ministry of agriculture
(b) Fourth Five Year Plan (b) Planning commission
(c) Fifth Five Year Plan (c) Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices
(d) Sixth Five Year Plan (d) NABARD
22. The Rolling Plan for backward countries was suggested by 30. Gray Revolution belongs to
(a) Gunnar Myrdal (b) W.A. Lewis (a) Fish (b) Milk
(c) R. Nurkse (d) A. Samuelson (c) Oil seeds (d) Wool

29. a b c d e 30. a b c d e
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FOREIGN TRADE
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1. Which of the following is a part of capital account? 7. A SEZ cannot be established for
(a) Private capital (b) Banking capital (a) manufacture of goods
(c) Official capital (d) All the above (b) rendering of services
(e) None of these (c) functioning as Free Trade and Warehousing Zone
2. Excise duty exemption on exports is available for duty paid (d) none of the above
on (e) None of these
(a) finished products only 8. Import of capital goods under EPCG scheme is subject to
(b) components only (a) Terms and conditions of agreement
(c) finished products and components (b) Conditions of law of exporting country
(d) imported items (c) Actual user condition
(e) None of these (d) Conditions of law of importing country
3. Export Promotion Capital Goods Scheme allows import of (e) None of these
capital goods 9. The export proceeds shall be realized in
(a) Free of import duty (a) Any foreign currency
(b) With concessional duty of 5 per cent with no export (b) Non- convertible currency
obligation (c) Convertible currency
(c) With concessional duty of 5 per cent with export (d) Home currency only
obligation 8 times the duty saved (e) None of these
(d) With concessional duty of 5 per cent with export 10. The commodities are exported to India by arid and semi-arid
obligation 8 times the import made countries in the middle East ?
(e) None of these (a) Raw wool and carpets
4. The investment in productive assets and participation in (b) Fruits and palm oil
(c) Stones and pearls
management as stake holders in business enterprises is
(d) Perfume and coffee
(a) FDI
(e) None of these
(b) FII
11. The export promotion scheme that enables the post export
(c) Balance of payment
replenishment of duty on inputs used in the export product
(d) SDR
is.
(e) None of these
(a) Replenishment licence.
5. The portfolio investment by foreign institutional investors
(b) Duty remission scheme
is called (c) Duty exemption scheme
(a) FDI (d) Duty free replenishment certificate
(b) FII (e) None of these
(c) Balance of payment 12. The export promotion scheme with the objective to neutralize
(d) SDR the incidence of Customs duty on the import content of the
6. Special Economic Zones are export product is.
(a) situated outside India, but subject to RBI control (a) Export Promotion Capital Goods
(b) treated as foreign territory and not Indian laws (b) Export Credit Guarantee
(c) governed by international and not Indian laws (c) Duty Free Replenishment
(d) prohibited from buying from Domestic Tariff Area (d) Duty Entitlement Passbook
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182 SPEED TEST 86
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13. Eco mark is given to the Indian products that are ? 22. TRIPS and TRIMS are the term associated with ?
b
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(a) pure and unadulterated (a) IMF (b) WTO
(b) rich in proteins
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(c) IBRD (d) IDA
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(c) Environment Friendly (e) None of these
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(d) Economically viable
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23. The apex body of the Foreign Trade is
(e) None of these
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(a) The Central Government
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14. The earlier name of WTO was ? (b) The State Government
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(a) UNCTAD (b) GATT
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(c) The Ministry of Commerce
(c) UNIDO (d) OECD (d) All the above
15. World Development Report is an annual publication of ? 24. The tenure of the Foreign Trade policy is
(a) UNDP (b) IBRD (a) 3 years (b) 5 years
(c) WTO (d) IMF (c) 1 year (d) 7 years
16. India has the maximum volume of foreign trade with ? 25. Which of the followings given countries are the new
(a) USA (b) Japan members of WTO ?
(c) Germany (d) UAE (a) Tajikisthan and Laos
(e) None of these (b) Russia and Vanauto
17. In the last one decade, which one among the following (c) Combodia and Myanmar
sectors has attracted the highest FDI inflows into India ? (d) Kenya and Burundi
(a) Chemicals (b) Services sector (e) None of these
(c) Food processing (d) Telecommunication 26. How many members recently in WTO ?
18. Participatory notes (PNs) are associated with which one of (c) 160 (d) 161
the followings ? (e) None of these
(a) Consolidated food 27. The geographically distributed area or zone where the
(b) Foreign Institutional Investors economic laws are more liberal as compared toother parts of
(c) UNDP the country is called
(d) Kyoto protocal (a) EOU (b) SEZ
(e) None of these (c) AEZ (d) FTZ
19. What is the purpose of India Brand-Equity Fund ? (e) None of these
(a) To promote in bound tourism 28. The EXIM policy 2002-2007 coincides with the
(b) To make Made in India a label of quality (a) 7th Five year plan (b) 8th Five year plan
(c) To organise trade fairs (c) 9th Five year plan (d) 10th Five year plan
(d) To provide venture capitals to IT sector (e) None of these
(e) None of these 29. The area where the goods are permitted to be imported and
20. A trade policy consists of : reexported without any processing in the same form is called
(a) Export-Import policy (a) Export Processing Zone
(b) Licencing policy (b) Free Trade Zone
(c) Dumping (c) Special Economic Zone
(d) Double pricing (d) Agri Export Zone
21. The foreign Trade (Regulation) Rules was passed in the 30. The objectives of import duty is/are
year (a) to raise income for the government
(a) 1991 (b) 1992 (b) to restrict imports
(c) 1993 (d) 1994 (c) to encourage exports
(e) None of these (d) to raise income and restrict imports
(e) None of these

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SOCIO-ECO-POLITICAL ENVIRONMENT OF INDIA
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1. Swabhiman scheme launched in India is associated with 9. Which one of the following scheme subsumed the Valmiki
(a) Rural women rights Awas Yojana ?
(b) Rural old people care (a) Integrated Housing and slum development Programme.
(c) Rural banking (b) Sampoorna Grameen Swarozgar Yojana
(d) Rural food security (c) Rajiv Awas Yojana
(e) None of these (d) Integrated Rural development Programme
2. In which one of the following years the unorganised workers (e) None of these
Social Security Act was passed ? 10. Poverty level in India is established on the basis of-
(a) 2004 (b) 2006 (a) Per capita income in different states
(c) 2008 (d) 2010 (b) House hold average income
(e) None of these (c) House hold consumer expenditure
3. Swadhar is the scheme for (d) Slum population in the country.
(a) unique identification (e) None of these
(b) self employment for males 11. Nirmal Bharat Abhiyan Yojana is associated with-
(c) women in difficult circumstances (a) Development of villages
(d) common home of senior citizens. (b) Community toilets in slum areas
(e) None of these (c) Construction of house far low income groups
4. Twenty Point Economic Programme was first launched in
(d) Development of roads
the year
(e) None of these
(a) 1969 (b) 1975
12. Crop Insurance Scheme in India was started in
(c) 1977 (d) 1980
5. In India disguised unemployment is a prominent feature (c) 1985 (d) 1988
mainly of (e) None of these
(a) Primary sector (b) Secondary sector 13. National Rural Health Mission was launched on-
(c) Tertiary sector (d) Social sector (a) 2004 (b) 2005
6. Golden Quadrangle project is associated with the (e) None of these
development of 14. According to the Integrated child development services
(a) Highways (b) Ports which age group of children are focused ?
(c) Power Grids (d) Tourism Network (a) upto 4 years (b) upto 5 years
(e) None of these (c) upto 6 years (d) upto 8 years
7. Which one of the following is the objective of National Food (e) None of these
Security Mission ? 15. According to the UNDP the human development Ranking
(a) To increase production of rice of India is ?
(b) To increase production of wheat (a) 134th (b) 135th
(c) To increase production of pulses (c) 136th (d) 137th
(d) All the above (e) None of these
(e) None of these 16. The National Mission for Saffron has been launched as a
8. Which of the following is not a measure of reducing inequalities? subscheme of which among the following programmes?
(a) Minimum needs programme (a) National Food Security Mission
(b) Liberalization of economy (b) National Horticulture Mission
(c) Taxation (c) Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana
(d) Land reforms (d) National Cash Crop Programme
16. a b c d e
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17. The Price stabilization fund will support the procurement of (c) make urban people aware about lifestyle diseases.
b
(d) preserve cultural heritage sites.
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1. onion 2. groundnut
3. potato 4. rice (e) None of these
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Select the correct answer using the codes given below. 24. The "Accessible India" campaign is associated with which
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(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only of the following fields?
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(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 4 only (a) Tourism
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(b) Child Education
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(e) None of these
(c) Empowerment of Gram Panchayats
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18. Which of the following schemes has an impact on women
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(d) Physically disabled persons
empowerment?
(e) None of these
1. ICDS 2. ASIDE
25. Which state government has launched "Grama Jyothi"
3. Swadhar 4. Ujjawala Scheme to empower gram panchayats?
Select the correct answer using the codes given below. (a) Telangana (b) Bihar
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1 ,3 and 4 only (c) Odisha (d) Tripura
(c) 2 ,3 and 4 only (d) 1 ,2, 3 and 4 (e) None of these
(e) None of these 26. The campaign "Start-up India, Stand up India" is associated
19. Bringing Green Revolution to eastern India is a sub scheme with which field?
of (a) Food Industry
(a) National Mission on Agriculture Extension and (b) Women Empowerment
Technology (c) Swacch Bharat Mission
(b) National Mission for sustainable agriculture (d) Entrepreneurship
(c) Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana (e) None of these
(d) it is not a subscheme 27. Which Union Ministry of India has recently launched
(e) None of these "Indradhanush" to revamp functioning of Public Sector
20. With reference to Accelerated Irrigation Benefit Program Banks (PSBs)?
(AIBP), consider the following statements. Which of the (a) Ministry of Finance
(b) Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions
statements given above is/are correct?
(c) Ministry of Planning
(a) AIBP aims to start many new minor irrigation projects.
(d) Ministry of Labour and Employment
(b) Under AIBP, states are given loans for minor irrigation (e) None of these
projects. 28. Which scheme of Government of India (GoI) has been
(c) AIBP provide Central Loan Assistance (CLA) to major/ recognised by the Guinness Book of World Records
medium irrigation projects in the country. recently?
(d) Both (a) and (b) (a) Direct Benefit transfer for LPG
(e) None of these (b) Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana
21. Which of the following schemes is/are financed by National (c) Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation
Investment Fund (d) Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana
(a) JNNURM (b) NREGS (e) None of these
(c) AIBP (d) all of the above 29. Which of the following ministry has recently launched the
(e) None of these 'SAMANVAY' portal?
22. The objective of the Green Energy Corridor is to (a) Ministry of Tribal Affairs
(a) create special industrial zones which will be powered (b) Ministry of Rural Development
by renewable energy. (c) Ministry of Panchayati Raj
(b) fund geothermal based energy projects. (d) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
(e) None of these
(c) facilitate the flow of renewable energy into the national
30. The Kudumbashree program by the Kerala government
power grid.
works in the area of
(d) All of the above. (a) reducing maternal mortality
(e) None of these (b) providing micro credit
23. The objective of the recently launched scheme HRIDAY is (c) enhancing entrepreneurship
to (d) providing housing
(a) provide subsidized treatments to heart patients (e) Both (b) and (c)
(b) fund medical facilities in rural areas.

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APPOINTMENT/ ELECTION/ RESIGNATION
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1. Who appointed as chairman of National Book Trust ? 9. Who was on 6 April 2015 re-appointed as the chairman of
(a) Kewal Sharma (b) Dr. Ajay Sharma the IPL governing council?
(c) Baldev Sharma (d) Suresh Mehta (a) Saurav Ganguly (b) Rajeev Shukla
(e) None of these (c) Sunil Gavaskar (d) Sandeep Patil
2. Who appointed as CMD of Small Industries Development (e) None of these
Bank of India ? 10. Who has been appointed as the Chairman of the Public
(a) Sunil Mittal (b) Seema Tuteja Enterprises Selection Board (PESB)?
(c) M. Parasaran (d) Kshatrapati Shivaji (a) Gauri Kumar (b) Atul Chaturvedi
(e) None of these (c) Anshuman Das (d) Ajit Kumar Seth
3. Who appointed as chief of ISROs Space Application Centre? (e) None of these
(a) R. V. Ravindran (b) Arun Mishra 11. Who has been appointed as chairman of Narmada Valley
(c) Tapan Mishra (d) A.S. Kiran Kumar Development Authority (NVDA)?
(e) None of these (a) Rakesh Sahni (b) Pradeep Sharma
4. Who appointed as chief operating officer of Vodafone India? (c) Kiran Takur (d) Navin Chandra
(a) Sunil Mittal (b) Sunil Sood (e) None of these
(c) Naveen Chopra (d) Amrita Paul 12. Who has been appointed as the Election Commissioner of
(e) None of these India recently?
5. Who appointed as Judicial Commissioner to Supreme Court (a) Achal Kumar Jyoti (b) Om Prakash Rawat
Bench of Singapore?
(c) Nasim Zaidi (d) H.S.Brahma
(a) Kannan Ramesh (b) Ravi Chaudhary
(e) None of these
(c) Amar Kumar (d) P. R. Mohan Rao
13. Who has been appointed as the social ambassador of Coca-
(e) None of these
cola India recently?
6. The current Chief Information Commissioner (CIC) of Central
(a) Virat Kohli (b) Sourav Ganguly
Information Commission is
(c) Sachin Tendulkar (d) MS Dhoni
(a) Sushma Singh (b) Sudha Sharma
(e) None of these
(c) Aruna Bahuguna (d) Naina Lal Kidwai
(e) None of these 14. Ram Nath Kovind has been appointed as the Governor of
which state recently?
7. Who appointed as a Chief Justice of Supreme Court of India?
(a) Himachal Pradesh (b) Uttar Pradesh
(a) H.L. Datta (b) R. V. Ravindran
(c) S. Gopalakrishnan (d) M. Parasaran (c) Bihar (d) Rajasthan
8. Who is the National Security Advisor of United States of 15. Who is the chairman of the committee set up to study the
America? status of the Sports Authority of India?
(a) Samantha Power (b) Susane Rice (a) Gopi Chand (b) Baldev Singh
(c) Helen Thomas (d) Hillary Clinton (c) Ashwini Nachappa (d) Jaspal Sandhu
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16. Arun Shrivastava has been Appointed as MD & CEO of (a) Prabhu Dayal Meena
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______ . ? (b) R. Vijay kumar
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(a) Punjab National Bank (c) Vivek Murthy
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(b) Central Bank of India (d) Vijaylaxmi Joshi
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(c) State Bank of India (e) Ashok Lavasa
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24. _____, Secretary in Department of Biotechnologyof India
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(d) Syndicate Bank
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(e) None of These has been elected a Foreign Associate of US National
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17. ____ reelected as president of Wrestling Federation of India Academy of Sciences ?
(WFI) for four years. ? (a) Lalit K. Panwar
(b) T. C. A. Anant
(a) Brijbhushan Sharan Singh
(c) Sunil Arora
(b) Nripendra Mishra
(d) K VijayRaghavan
(c) Gauri Kumar
(e) Anuj Kumar Bishnoi
(d) Ashok Kumar Angurana 25. Loretta Lynch appointed as first black female Attorney
(e) Surjit Kumar Chaudhary General of _____.?
18. ______ Indian Policitcal party elected Sitaram Yechury as (a) UK (b) Spain
fifth general secretary ? (c) France (d) Germany
(a) Bharatiy Janata Party (e) USA
(b) Congress 26. ____ appointed as Director of ISRO Satellite Centre (ISAC),
(c) Communist Party of India (Marxist) Bengaluru ?
(d) AAP (a) Rajeev Gupta
(e) BSP (b) Mayilsamy Annadurai
19. Juha Sipila won General Elections and will be 44th Prime (c) Madhusudhan Prasad
Minister of _____ ? (d) Sanjay Kumar Panda
(a) Ethiopia (b) Spain (e) Sanjay Kumar Panda
(c) France (d) Finland 27. Meenakshi Madan Rai sworn in as first lady judge of High
(e) None of These Court of ____ ?
(a) Sikkim (b) Assam
20. General Muhammadu Buhari of All Progressives Congress
(c) Meghalaya (d) Goa
(APC) party won Presidential Elections of ____ ?
(e) Uttar Pradesh
(a) Syria (b) Libya
28. Mohan Kumar has been appointed India's Ambassador to
(c) Kuwait (d) Qatar
_____ ?
(e) Nigeria (a) Spain (b) UK
21. _____ , Director General of Indian Computer Emergency (c) France (d) USA
Response Team (CertIn) appointed as India's first cyber (e) Germany
security chief as Special Secretary for cyber security for 29. ____ is appointed as Chairperson of Children's Film Society
Prime Minister's Office (PMO). ? of India ?
(a) Gulshan Rai (b) Rajeev Kher (a) Mahesh Kumar (b) Ramesh Khanna
(c) Amitabh Kant (d) Kavery Banerjee (c) Rakesh Khanna (d) Mukesh Khanna
(e) Sudhir Kumar (e) None of These
22. India born Raja Rajeswari swornin as criminal court judge of 30. _____ is appointed as new (20th ) chief election
the ______ ? commissioner of India replacing Hari Shankar Brahma ?
(a) Los Angles (b) New York City (a) Satyanarayan Mohanty
(c) London (d) Paris (b) Nandita Chartterjee
(e) Manhattan (c) Anuj Kumar Bishnoi
23. Indian American _____ appointed as 19th US Surgeon (d) Arun Jha
General. He became youngestever to hold this post ? (e) Nasim Zaidi

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EVENTS/ ORGANISATION/ SUMMITS
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1. Which of the following is the venue for the 11th World Trade 7. Which of the following countries is not a member of Group
Organisation Ministerial conference which will be held in 15 developing countries?
December 2015? (a) Brazil (b) Bolivia
(a) Moscow (b) Bali (c) Malaysia (d) Mexico
(c) Nairobi (d) Sydney (e) None of these
(e) None of these 8. Which one of the followings is not a member country of
2. Currently, India is not a member state to which one of the Southern African Customs Union (SACU)?
following organisations? (a) Botswana (b) Lesotho
1. SAARC 2. ASEAN (c) South Africa (d) Brazil
3. APEC 4. WTO (e) None of these
Chose the correct answer from the codes given below: 9. Which one of the following cities was hosted G-20 Finance
(a) Only 2 (b) Only 2 & 3 Ministerial meeting 2015 that was held in from 09 & 10 teb ?
(c) Only 3 (d) Only 3 & 4 (a) New York (b) London
(e) None of these (c) Moscow (d) Istanbul
3. Which of the following countries will host NATO summit- (e) None of these
2016 nearly after 20 years of hosting first summit? 10. Besides UK, USA, Germany and Japan the G-7 countries
(a) United Kingdom (b) United States includes
(c) Australia (d) Poland (a) Canada, Italy and Netherlands
(e) None of these (b) Canada, France and Russia
4. Which one of the following is not G-4 country? (c) France, Netherlands and Russia
(a) Germany (b) India (d) Canada, France and Italy
(c) Australia (d) Japan (e) None of these
(e) None of these 11. Which of the following describe correctly the Group of Seven
5. Which one of the following is the only African state not a Countries (G-7)?
member of African Union? (a) They are industrialised countries
(b) They are countries who can launch their own satellites
(a) Algeria (b) Morocco
(c) They are developing countries
(c) Cameroon (d) Libya
(d) They are holding Atomic Bomb technology
(e) None of these
(e) None of these
6. Who among the followings is/are members of National
12. The headquarters of the UNESCO is at
Integration Council (NIC) of India?
(a) New York (b) Geneva
1. Union Ministers
(c) Rome (d) Paris
2. Governors of all States
(e) None of these
3. Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha & Rajya Sabha
13. The United Nations Conference on Trade and Development
4. Chief Minister of all States & UTs with Legislature
(UNCTAD) is located at which of the following places?
Chose the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) Vienna (b) Geneva
(a) Only 1, 3 & 4 (b) Only 1, 2 & 4
(c) Rome (d) Paris
(c) Only 1, 2 & 3 (d) 1, 2, 3 & 4
(e) None of these
(e) None of these
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188 SPEED TEST 89
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14. Which of the following cities hosted the BRICS Business (c) Surinam and Guyana
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Council 2015? (d) Columbia and Cyprus
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(a) New Delhi (b) Russia (e) None of these
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(c) Johannesburg (d) Durban 23. The NATO summit 2016 will be held in ?
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(e) None of these (a) Russia (b) USA
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15. The office of the UN General Assembly is in (c) Canada (d) Poland
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(a) Paris (b) New York (e) None of these
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(c) Vienna (d) Zurich 24. The 45th world Economic Forum meeting held on 21 to 24
(e) None of these Jan 2015 in
16. The chairmanship/presidency of the UN Security Council
(a) Switzerland (b) New York
rotates among the Council Members
(c) Durban (d) Paris
(a) every month (b) every 6 months
(e) None of these
(c) every 3 months (d) every year
(e) None of these 25. The 26th APEC summit held on 10-11 Nov. 2014 in
17. Which of the following is not a chief organ of the United (a) Beijing (b) Tokyo
Nations Organisations? (c) Beijing (d) Seal
(a) Security Council (e) None of these
(b) General Assembly
26. The Summit on UN Commission on the status of women
(c) International Labour Organisation
(d) International Court of Justice held on 9-20 March 2015 in
(e) None of these (a) Beijing (b) Geneva
18. The 26th summit 2015 of ASEAN will held in- (c) New York (d) New Delhi
(a) UAE (b) Brunei (e) None of these
(c) Kula Lampur (d) Beijing 27. How many members are associated with BIMSTEC ?
19. which country will organised 4thNuclear Security Summit (c) 9 (d) 10
2016 ? (e) None of these
(a) South Korea (b) Netherlands 28. When was the ADB 2015 Annual meeting held
(c) Germany (d) United States (a) 1 - 3 June 2015 (b) 2 - 4 March 2015
(e) None of these (c) 1 - 3 May 2015 (d) 2 - 5 June 2015
20. In which country the G-20 summit 2014 organised ?
(e) None of these
(a) Mexico (b) South Korea
29. Which country will chair the 2016-BRICS summit ?
(c) Japan (d) Australia
(a) India (b) China
(e) None of these
(c) South Africa (d) Brazil
21. The 41st summit of G-8 was held in ________ .
(a) USA (b) UK (e) None of these
(c) Canada (d) Germany 30. On which date, the therd India-Africa Forum summit will
(e) None of these held ?
22. Which of the following countries became the new members (a) 20 - 25 Oct. 2015 (b) 26 - 30 Oct. 2015
of NAM ? (c) 12 - 17 Oct. 2015 (d) 1 - 5 Oct. 2015
(a) Azerbaijan and Fiji (e) None of these
(b) Syria and Comoras

29. a b c d e 30. a b c d e
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AWARDS AND HONOURS
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1 Who among the following has received Elton John AIDS (c) Gandhi Jayanti
Foundations first ever Award? (d) Pravasi Bhartiya Divas
(a) Bill Gates (b) Hilary Clinton (e) None of these
(c) Carlos Slim (d) Daniel John 8. The award is given for extraordinary act of bravery in the
(e) None of these field of Naval, Air and Army is
2. Jnanpith Award is given for which field? (a) Arjuna Award (b) Paramvir Chakra
(a) Journalism (b) Music (c) Kalinga Award (d) Ashok Chakra
(c) Science (d) Literature (e) None of these
(e) None of these 9. The award is given in the field of agriculture
3. The Bimal Roy Memorial Award is associated with which (a) Bhatnagar Award
of the following fields? (b) Bourlog Award
(a) Cinema (b) Sports (c) Dhanwantari Award
(c) Journalism (d) Science and Technology (d) Kaling Award
4. Sports coaches receive which of the following awards?
10. The award is conferred to journalists aims to providing
(a) Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award financial assistance :
(b) Dronacharya Award (a) Appan Menon Memorial Award
(c) Arjuna Award
(b) Jnanpith Award
(d) None of these
(c) Bhatnagar Award
(e) None of these
(d) Kalinga Award
5. Vishwakarma Rashtriya Puraskar is given by which ministry?
(e) None of these
(a) Ministry of Culture
11. Vachaspati Samman is given in the field of
(b) Ministry of Labour
(a) Sanskrit Literature
(c) Ministry of Minority
(b) Medical Science
(d) Ministry of Rural Development
(e) None of these (c) Indian Philosophy
6. Saraswati Samman is given to which field? (d) Hindi Literature
(a) Sanskrit Literature (e) None of these
(b) Science 12. The National bravery award is also known as :
(c) Literature (a) Bharat Puraskar (b) Hind Puraskar
(d) Social Harmony (c) Bharati Puraskar (d) Rashtriya Puraskar
7. Bharat Ratna, Padma Vibhushan and Padma Shree are given 13. Tansen Samman is conferred in the field of :
on the eve of (a) Music (b) Literature
(a) Republic Day (c) Science (d) Journalism
(b) Independence Day (e) None of these
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190 SPEED TEST 90
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14. Dhyanchand Puraskar conferred in the field of 22. Pulitzer prize was established in
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(c) Science (d) Literature (c) 1922 (d) 1928
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15. Ashoka Chakra is awarded for 23. Which of the following is an award instituted by UNESCO?
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(a) the most conspicuous bravery or self sacrifice on land, (a) Kalinga Award (b) Pulitzer prize
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air or sea but not in the presence of the enemy (c) Stirling prize (d) Pritzker prize
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(b) acts of gallantry in the presence of enemy (e) None of these
(c) gallantry by children 24. Which of the following award is given by World Economic
(d) outstanding contribution to literature Forum?
(e) None of these (a) Crystal Award (b) Kalinga prize
16. Shanthi Swaroop Bhatnagar awards are given for (c) Pulitzer Award (d) Abel prize
(a) exploring new dimensions in creative writing in Indian (e) None of these
languages 25. The Cannes Award is given for excellence in which field?
(b) outstanding contribution to science (a) Films (b) Journalism
(c) creating mass awareness on environmental issues (c) Literature (d) Environment
(d) excellence in film direction (e) None of these
(e) None of these 26. Pulitzer prize is awarded for outstanding work in the field of
17. Manav Seva Award has been instituted in the memory of (a) Science and Technology
(a) Rajiv Gandhi (b) Environmental Studies
(b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad (c) Literature and Journalism
(c) Indira Gandhi (d) International Understanding
(d) Acharya (e) (a), (b) and (c)
(e) None of these 27. Booker prize is given to the field of :
18. B. C. Roy Award is given in the field of (a) Fiction (b) Poetry
(a) Medicine (b) Music (c) Drama (d) Essay
(c) Journalism (d) Environment (e) The count
(e) None of these 28. Magsaysay award is given by
19. The Pampa Prashasti is the highest literacy award given by (a) USA (b) UK
which of the following states? (c) Malaysia (d) Philippines
(a) Karnataka (b) Kerala (e) None of these
(c) Andhra Pradesh (d) Maharashtra 29. The Nobel prize for Economics was instituted in
20. The second highest gallantry award is (c) 1967 (d) 1968
(a) Mahavir Chakra (b) Vir Chakra (e) None of these
(c) Arjuna Award (d) Ashok Chakra 30. Which of the following prizes is also known as the
(e) Vishakhapatnam Alternative Nobel prize?
21. The Academy award is also known as (a) Pulitzer prize
(a) Oscar Award (b) BAFTA Award (b) Magsaysay award
(c) Matthews Award (d) Palm dore (c) Booker prize
(e) None of these (d) Right livelihood award
(e) None of these

29. a b c d e 30. a b c d e
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BOOKS AND AUTHORS
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1. Who is the author of An Uncertain Glory: India and its 8. Name the book authored by Garima Sanjay which highlights
Contradictions? how a man blames the luck or someone for his failures?
(a) Amatya Sen & Michael Bush (a) Yaadein (b) Smritiyan
(b) Amartya Sen & Satya Paul (c) Divine Journey (d) Lucky Me
(c) Amartya Sen & Jean Dreze (e) Man by Nature
(d) Amartya Sen & Zeenat Shaukat
9. Who is the author of Women of Vision?
(e) Amartya Sen & Salman Rushdie
(a) Amish Tripathi (b) Preeti Shenoy
2. Who is the author of Ambedkar Speaks (Triology)?
(a) Dr Dheerendra (b) Dr Satyendra Singh (c) Durjoy Dutta (d) Alam Srinivas
(c) Dr Kiran Yadav (d) Dr Narendra Jadhav (e) Ravinder Singh
(e) Akhilesh Yadav 10. Who is the author of 'The Inheritance of Loss'?
3. Pax Indica is recently authored book by? (a) Anita Desai (b) Amitav Ghosh
(a) Narendra Modi (b) Atal Bihari Vajpayee (c) Aravind Adiga (d) Kiran Desai
(c) Shashi Tharoor (d) A P J Abdul Kalam (e) None of these
(e) None of these 11. Who among the following is the author of Religion, Law &
4. Who is the author of 'What young India wants'? Society - Across the Globe?
(a) Amish Tripati (b) Chetan Bhagat (a) Salman Rushdie (b) Tahir Mahmood
(c) Durjoy Datta (d) Ravinder Singh
(c) Jim Herley (d) Mohd.Raza
(e) None of these
(e) None of these
5. Who is the author of "3 Sections"?
12. Who among the following is the author of How to Get
(a) Arvind Krishna Mehtotra
Filthy Rich in Rising Asia?
(b) Arun Kolatkar
(c) Nissim Ezekiel (a) Mohsin Hamid (b) Tahir Mahmood
(d) Vijay Seshadri (c) Mohd Hamid (d) Mohd.Qazi
(e) Krishna Kumari (e) Mohamed Yusuf
6. Who is the author of "Sahara: the untold story" ? 13. Who has written the book Walking with Lions: Tales from
(a) Aditya Puri a Diplomatic Past?
(b) Kamalesh Chandra Chakrabarty (a) P.Chidambaram (b) K.Natwar Singh
(c) Subrata Roy (c) Sashwant Sinha (d) Jaswant Singh
(d) Tamal Bandyopadhyay (e) Manmohan Singh
(e) Cary Jones 14. A book Fault Lines is written by -
7. Who is the author of The Outsider?
(a) Raghuram Rajan (b) Subba Rao
(a) Jimmy Connors (b) Amartya Sen
(c) Vimal Jalan (d) Montek Singh Ahluwalia
(c) Jean Dreze (d) Zeenat Shaukat
(e) None of these
(e) Salman Rushdie
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192 SPEED TEST 91
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15. Which of the following books has been written by Vikram 23. Which of the following books is written by Sunil Gavaskar?
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(a) My God Died Young (b) A Sense of Time (c) Sunny Days
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(d) A Suitable Boy (e) None of these 24. Which of the following is NOT written by Munshi
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16. Who is the author of the book India 2020? Premchand?
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(a) Nibal Singh (b) R.K.Narayan (a) Gaban (b) Guide
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(c) Sidney Shelton (d) Dr.A.P.J.Abdul Kalam (c) Godan (d) Manasorovar
17. The book My Nation My Life was written by 25. Who is the author of the book Beyond the Lines : An
(a) L.K.Advani (b) T.N.Seshan Autobiography ?
(c) Fervez Musharaf (d) Manmohan Singh (a) General J. J. Singh (b) Kuldip Nayar
(e) None of these (c) Ray Bradbury (d) Khushwant Singh
18. The famous book Anandmath was authored by (e) None of these
(a) Sarojini Naidu 26. Who among the following is the author of the book India
(b) Bankim Chandra Chottapadhya and Malaysia: Intertwined Strands?
(c) Sri Aurobindo (a) Veena Sikri (b) Naveen Bandopadhya
(d) Rabindrnath Tagore (c) Sushma Singh (d) Ravichandran Nayak
19. Who is the author of INDIA : The Future is Now. 27. The Global Competitiveness Report is published from time
(a) Robin Sharma (b) Shashi Tharoor to time by ___?
(c) Amartya Sen (d) Arundhati Roy (a) World Bank (b) International Monetary Fund
(c) Yale University (d) World Economic Forum
(e) None of these
(e) None of these
20. Freedom from Fear is a book written by ?
28. Who is the author of "A Suitable Boy" ?
(a) Benzir Bhutto (b) Corazon Aquino
(a) Amitav Ghosh (b) Arundhati Roy
(c) Aung san suu Kyi (d) Nayantara Seghal
(c) Jhumpa Lahiri (d) Vikram Seth
(e) None of these
(e) None of these
21. Which of the following books was written by Gandhiji ?
29. Who is the author of "Cry, the Peacock" ?
(a) Discovery of India (b) My Experience with Truth
(a) Anita Desai (b) Arundhati Roy
(c) India wins Freedom (d) Freedom at Midnight
(c) Kiran Desai (d) R. K. Narayan
(e) None of these
(e) None of these
22. India of our Dreams is a book written by
30. Who is the author of "The Casual Vacancy" ?
(a) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
(a) Bonnie Wright (b) Daniel Radcliffe
(b) Dr. C. Subramanian
(c) J. K. Rowling (d) Rupert Grint
(c) M.V. Kamath
(e) None of these
(d) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(e) None of these

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SPORTS AND GAMES
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1. With which sport the term Caddie is associated? 9. FINA is governing body of which sports?
(a) Polo (b) Golf (a) Cricket (b) Archery
(c) Bridge (d) Billiards (c) Water polo (d) Polo
2. Champion Trophy is associated with 10. Which of the following trophies is not concerned with
(a) Football (b) Hockey football?
(c) Cricket (d) Chess (a) Durand trophy (b) Rovers cup
(e) None of these (c) Euro cup (d) Ranji trophy
3. Rangaswami Cup is associated with (e) None of these
(a) Wrestling (b) Football 11. Which of the following terms is not associated with the
(c) Hockey (d) Golf game of cricket?
(e) None of these (a) China man (b) Hook
4. Grand Slam is associated with the game of (c) Pull (d) Love
(a) Lawn Tennis (b) Hockey (e) None of these
(c) Football (d) Swimming 12. Which of the following trophies/cups associated with the
(e) None of these game of Hockey?
5. Subroto Cup is associated with (a) Derby (b) Aga Khan Cup
(a) Badminton (b) Cricket (c) Merdeka (d) Vizzy trophy
(c) Chess (d) Football (e) None of these
(e) None of these 13. With which of the following games the term Muzzle is
6. The term Gambit is associated with associated?
(a) Chess (b) Tennis (a) Shooting (b) Football
(c) Basketball (d) Baseball (c) Hockey (d) Badminton
7. Ashes is the term associated with which of the following 14. The Dronacharya Award is given to
sports? (a) Coaches (b) Sportspersons
(a) Cricket (b) Badminton (c) Umpires (d) Sports Editors
(c) Basketball (d) Football (e) None of these
(e) None of these 15. When did the Wimbledon Grand Slam Tennis tournament
8. National Sports day is celebrated on start?
(a) 29th Aug. (b) 4th Dec. (a) 1857 (b) 1877
(c) 14th Nov. (d) 28th Oct. (c) 1897 (d) 1898
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16. Which one of the following games is associated with the 24. Which of the following trophies is NOT associated with
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sultan Azlan Shah Cup? cricket?
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(a) Hockey (b) Football (a) Charminar Challenge Cup
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(c) Cricket (d) Tennis (b) Thomas Cup
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(d) Duleep Trophy
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17. What is the number of players in Polo and Water-polo
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(e) Bruno Soares
respectively?
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25. Cannon, Cue and Pot are three terms associated with:
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(a) 2 and 5 (b) 7 and 9
(a) Billiards, Golf and Shooting
(c) 4 and 7 (d) 6 and 5 (b) Golf Only
(e) None of these (c) Both Billiards and Golf
18. Which of the following terms is used in the game of cricket? (d) Billiards only
(a) Love (b) Scoop (e) Sabine Lisicki
(c) LBW (d) Tee 26. First Olympic Games were held in-
(e) None of these (a) 776 BC. (b) 798 BC.
19. Duleep Trophy is associated with the game of (c) 876 BC. (d) 898 BC.
(a) Hockey (b) Badminton (e) World Football Federation
27. For which game is the Indira Gandhi Gold Cup being
(c) Football (d) Cricket
awarded?
(e) None of these
(a) Womens Hockey
20. Which game is associated with Queensberry rules? (b) Womens Football
(a) Weight lifting (b) Boxing (c) Womens Cricket
(c) Golf (d) Polo (d) Womens Badminton
21. Blue Riband Cup is associated with 28. With which game is Bully associated?
(a) Rugby Football (b) Netball (a) Cricket (b) Football
(c) Horse Racing (d) Chess (c) Golf (d) Hockey
29. Dodge, Goal line, through pass are associated with
22. Hurlington stadium is associated with
(a) Volleyball (b) Cricket
(a) Polo (b) Cricket
(c) Table Tennis (d) Hockey
(c) Boxing (d) Golf (e) Milkha Singh
(e) None of these 30. How long are professional Golf Tour players allotted per
23. Fianchetto is a strategy in the game of? shot?
(a) Football (b) Cricket (a) 25 seconds (b) 45 seconds
(c) Hockey (d) Chess (c) 2 minutes (d) 1 minute
(e) None of these (e) Both (a) and (b)

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SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY
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1. National Biodiversity Conference (NBC)-2015 will be held in 8. Which district has become the first one in India to have high
(a) Gujarat (b) West Bengal speed Rural Broadband Network under National Optical Fibre
(c) Kerala (d) Telangana Network (NOFN)?
(a) 8 trillion km (b) 10 trillion km
(e) None of these
(c) 12 trillion km (d) 14 trillion km
2. GARUDA SHAKTI-III which was conducted at Counter (e) None of these
Insurgency and Jungle Warfare School in Vairengte, Mizoram 9. Which district has become the first one in India to have high
from 09 to 21 Feb 15 was a joint exercise of armies of India speed Rural Broadband Network
and (a) Ajmer of Rajasthan
(a) Vietnam (b) Indonesia (b) Vidisha of Madhya Pradesh
(c) Myanmar (d) Thailand (c) Idukki of Kerala
(e) None of these (d) Hisar of Haryana
(e) None of these
3. In which of the following seas India has building Tsunami
10. What was the theme of Indian Science Congress 2015?
warning device? (a) Science and Technology for Inclusive Development
(a) Arabian Sea (b) South China Sea (b) Science and Technology for Indias Development
(c) Bay of Bengal (d) Indian Ocean (c) Science and Technology for Rural Development
(e) None of these (d) Science and Technology for Human Development
4. According to recent an nouncement of the Indian (e) None of these
government, how many Indian satellites are currently 11. What is the theme of the 2015 Indian Science Congress?
operational? (a) Science and Technology for Sustainable Growth
(b) Science and Technology for Human Development
(a) 23 (b) 25
(c) Ancient Science for Today's Growth
(c) 27 (d) 29 (d) Technology for Better Future
5. Thirty-Metre Telescope,the worlds largest telescope, for 12. Vasant Gowrikar, who passed away recently, was a famous
which India is creating software is located in personality in which field?
(a) Iceland (b) USA (a) Space Science (b) Classical Music
(c) Antarctica (d) Norway (c) Literature (d) Politics
(e) None of these
(e) None of these
13. Which is the largest exported single spice from India?
6. Worlds first gun made from 3D printer technology test-fired (a) Jeera (b) Chilli
successfully in (c) Pepper (d) Cardamom
(a) UK (b) USA (e) None of these
(c) China (d) Japan 14. On which date, National Broadcasting day is observed?
(e) None of these (a) July 23 (b) June 2
7. What is the objective of SMAP Satellite launched by NASA? (c) March 15 (d) January
(a) Observe and measure moisture of soil on Earth. (e) France
15. GAGAN, India's indigenous navigational system is jointly
(b) Detect moisture in atmosphere of Mars.
developed by ISRO and which of the following?
(c) Measure rigidity of rocks on Moon. (a) DRDO (b) HAL
(d) Measure sea level on Earth. (c) AAI (d) CSIR
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b
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launched the IRNSS-ID navigation satellite through the search engine The Find ?
PSLV-C 27. This was the _______ satellite under the Indian
o
(a) Facebook (b) Twitter
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Regional Navigation satellite system (IRNSS) series? (c) orkut (d) Google Plus
p
(a) 1st (b) 2nd
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(e) Edusat
(c) 3rd (d) 4th
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24. National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA)
s
(e) None of these
.c
Curiosity rover was, in March 2015 announced to have
o
17. An ambitious multi-purpose and multi-modal platform
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found evidence of which gas on the surface of mars?
PRAGATI was launched by Prime Minister Narendra Modi.
The PRAGATI Platform integrates which of the following (a) Nitrogen (b) Helium
latest technologies? (c) Hydrogen (d) Carbon dioxide
(a) Geo-Spatial technology (e) Pneumonia
(b) Video-Conferencing 25. India's formally enter into the global market for warships
(c) Digital data Management was marked with the commissioning of an India-built naval
(d) All of the above patrol vessel for Mauritius by Prime Minister Narendra Modi.
(e) None of these What is the name of this first warship to be exported to
18. A tweet-powered service under Prime Minister Narendra India?
Modi's Digital India Initiative. named "Twitter Samvad" was (a) Arihant (b) Barracuda
launched that will provide political content in real time on (c) Centaur (d) Chakra
mobile devices. Twitter Samvad is based on which platform? (e) Banglore
(a) Zip Dial (b) Android
26. The Himalayan peak 5260 has been renamed after which of
(c) Symbian (d) Macintosh
the following mountaineers?
(e) B2B Networks
(a) Bachendri Pal (b) Santosh Yadav
19. Indian Naval Ship (INS) Alleppey which was
decommissioned from the Indian navy on was which (c) Krushnaa Patil (d) Nalini Sengupta
category of naval vessel? (e) Sony
(a) Minesweeper (b) Hospital ship 27. ISRO's PSLV-28 has successfully launched five satellites of
(c) Gunboat (d) Frigate which country?
(e) Ootkamandalam (a) Germany (b) United States
20. Researchers at SASTRA univeristy, Thajavur announced (c) Singapore (d) United Kingdom
to have identified which traditional tropical grass as an eco- (e) Prithvi-3
friendly food preservative? 28. As of July 2015, what is the current nuclear power generation
(a) Carex (b) Darbha capacity in India?
(c) Sedge (d) Gauri (a) 4430 MW (b) 5780 MW
(e) None of these (c) 6020 MW (d) 7040 MW
21. Which indigenously developed Beyond Visual Range (BVR)
(e) None of these
air-to-air missile was successfully test fired at the Integrated
29. Which among the following are the two sites of India's
test range (ITR), chandipur in odisha ?
(a) Nag (b) Prithvi nuclear fuel complex?
(c) Astra (d) Shaurya (a) Hyderabad & Bangalore
(e) all of the above (b) Kudunkulam and Kota
22. Union Minister of Science and Technology and Earth Science (c) Hyderabad and Kota
Dr. Harsh Vardhan on inaugurated Port Blair Magnetic (d) Narora and Hyderabad
Observatory (PBMO) in (e) None of these
(a) Andaman and Nicobar island 30. White-Fi technology, which uses of a Wi-Fi technology
(b) Lakshadweep within the TV unused spectrum is being developed by ___?
(c) Madhya Pradesh (a) Google (b) Microsoft
(d) Arunachal Pradesh (c) Facebook (d) IBM

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CURRENT BANKING
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1. Reserve Bank of India granted 'in-principle' approval to 11 7. A loan scheme named "Saral-Rural Housing Loan"has been
applicants to start payments banks which of the following launched by which of the following private sector bank?
bank is not associated with it? (a) HDFC (b) ICICI
(a) Aditya Birla Nuvo (c) FEDERAL BANK (d) Karnataka bank
(b) Cholamandalam Distribution Services (e) None of these
(c) National Securities Depository Ltd (NSDL) 8. Union Govt. has earmarked how much fund for country's
(d) Cipla public sector banks (PSBs) over a period of four years as
(e) None of these announced by the Finance Ministry ?
2. Which of the following Insurance company has launched (a) 60000 Cr (b) 70000 Cr
its maiden unit linked insurance plan (ULIP) product across (c) 80000 Cr (d) 90000 Cr
the country. (e) None of these
(a) United India Insurance Company Ltd. 9. What is the name of the mobile banking app of Kotak
(b) National Insurance Company Ltd.
Mahindra Bank (KMB), which was launched during July
(c) Agriculture Insurance Company of India
2015 primarily for "un-banked" regions?
(d) LIC
(a) Kotak Bharat (b) Kotak India
(e) None of these
3. Which of the following bank has appointed Kishor Piraji (c) Kotak Rural (d) Kotak Mobile
Kharat as its new Managing Director & Chief Executive (e) None of these
Officer. 10. Through which mutual fund the newly initiated investment
(a) IDBI (b) NABARD of EPFO has been done initially in equities?
(c) HDFC (d) Yes Bank (a) PNB Mutual Fund (b) HDFC Mutual Fund
(e) None of these (c) SBI Mutual Fund (d) BOI Mutual Fund
4. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) suspends licence of seven (e) None of these
non-banking finance companies (NBFCs).Which of the 11. What is the name of the 7-pronged strategy announced by
following is not among them? the Union Finance Ministry on that aims for comprehensive
(a) Religare Finance revamp of public sector banks of the country?
(b) Artisans Micro Finance, (a) Spectrum (b) Indradhanush
(c) Eden Trade & Commerce (c) Pahal (d) Mudra
(d) Shroff Capital & Finance Pvt. Ltd. (e) None of these
(e) None of these 12. Union Government has decided to set up a Bank Board
5. Reserve Bank of India notified the Union Budget-2015-16 Bureau (BBB) to monitor key performance indicators of two
Interest Subvention Scheme (ISS) and asked all banks to dozen public sector banks (PSBs).How many government
provide interest concession of how much percent on short
officials will be appointed in this bureau?
term crop loans of up to 3 lakh rupees.
(a) One (b) Two
(a) 2% (b) 3%
(c) Three (d) Four
(c) 4% (d) 4. 5%
6. Which of the following bank launched two new funds named 13. Which of the following bank has launched the first
IAF and SMILE primarily for small entrepreneurs and start- Contactless Debit, Credit and Multi-Currency Forex Card in
ups. association with VISA payWave in the country.
(a) SIDBI (b) HDFC (a) Yes Bank (b) SBI
(c) NABARD (d) Kotak Mahindra bank (c) Axis Bank (d) IDBI
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14. Negotiable Instruments (Amendment) Bill 2015 was passed 24. Which Indian bank has opened its first branch in China in
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by Lok Sabha to look into the matters related to? recently?
(a) Loan (b) Cheque bounce (a) Axis Bank (b) HDFC Bank
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(c) Money laundering (d) Remittance (c) ICICI Bank (d) Corporation Bank
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15. Which of the following Bank announced to launch 'green
s
25. Which of the following has emerged as the only Indian
s
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bonds' in India for raising funds for investments in bank among the world's 10 biggest consumer financial arms?
o
environmental projects. (a) HDFC (b) SBI
m
(a) HSBC (b) HDFC (c) ICICI (d) Axis
(c) IDBI (d) South Indian Bank (e) None of these
(e) None of these 26. Which bank announced the launch of "Tap n Pay" new
16. Piraji Kharat was appointed as new Managing Director & innovative NFC (Near Field Communication) based
Chief Executive Officer of which bank? contactless payment system?
(a) IDBI (b) Punjab & Sindh Bank (a) Axis Bank (b) HDFC Bank
(c) HDFC (d) Punjab National bank
(c) ICICI Bank (d) Corporation Bank
17. P S jayakumar:and Rakesh Sharma has been appointed MD
(e) None of these
and CEO of which banks respectively?
27. As per the latest data by RBI, which bank has highest non-
(a) Bank of Maharashtra & City Union Bank
performing assets (NPAs) among PSU banks?
(b) Corporation Bank & ICICI Bank
(a) Union Bank of India
(c) Bank of Baroda & Canara Bank
(d) Indian Overseas Bank & IndusInd Bank (b) Central Bank of India
18. The NABARD is planning to organise financial literacy and (c) United Bank of India
awareness programme in which state? (d) Punjab National Bank
(a) Haryana (b) Jharkhand (e) None of these
(c) Odisha (d) West Bengal 28. Which of the following services is not provided at e-lobby ?
19. Which of the following has been named world's largest public (a) Currency Exchange
work scheme? (b) Mega Banker
(a) MGNREGA (b) IRDP (c) Coin Dispenser
(c) JSY (d) IAY (d) Cheque Deposit
20. MUDRA Bank has been set-up with the corpus of .... crore. (e) None of these
(a) ` 20,000 (b) ` 25,000 29. Which associate bank of the State Bank Group announced
(c) ` 50,000 (d) ` 1,00,000 a 10 basis-point cut in the base rate to 10.15% and with thus
(e) None of these became first major to come out with a rate cut in the post-
21. In the 'Tarun' category of MUDRA Bank, what is the loan Budget phase?
limit? (a) State Bank of Bikaner & Jaipur
(a) ` 50,000 (b) ` 1,00,000 (b) State Bank of Hyderabad
(c) ` 5,00,000 (d) ` 10,00,000 (c) State Bank of Mysore
(e) None of these (d) State Bank of Travancore (SBT)
22. 'iWatch' banking is being provided by- (e) None of these
(a) SBI Bank (b) ICICI Bank 30. In a unique experiment State Bank of India (SBI) has recently
(c) HDFC Bank (d) AXIS Bank initiated a new loan collection model that allows borrowers
(e) None of these to pay back on a daily instalment basis. This initiative has
23. Which state has been ranked no.1 in the mutual fund been started primarily to keep bad loans in check. This first-
landscape in the country? of-its-kind loan product offering has been made to which
(a) Karnataka (b) Delhi entity?
(c) Maharashtra (d) West Bengal (a) Olacabs (b) Meru Cabs
(e) None of these (c) Easy Cabs (d) Mega Cabs
(e) None of these

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CURRENT AFFAIRS
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1. Who has been chosen for Bharat Bharti literary award 2014 8. India has decided to boycott the 61st Commonwealth
by Uttar Pradesh Government? Parliamentary Conference (CPC) which is scheduled to be
(a) Kashinath Singh held in which country?
(b) Bhalchandra Nemade (a) Sri Lanka (b) Pakistan
(c) Gayatri Chakravorty (c) Australia (d) India
(d) Ashokamitran (e) None of these
(e) None of these 9. Which country was formally conferred Associate
2. A loan scheme named "Saral-Rural Housing Loan"has been Membership status by European Organisation for Nuclear
launched by which of the following private sector bank? Research (also known as CERN).
(a) HDFC (b) ICICI (a) Iran (b) Pakistan
(c) FEDERAL BANK (d) Karnataka bank (c) South Korea (d) Saudi Arabia
3. PAHAL Scheme is a..? 10. Recently Central government announced 30 per cent income
(a) Cash Transfer Scheme tax rebate for establishment of new manufacturing plants
(b) Agriculture Scheme and machinery in 21 'backward' districts of which state?
(c) Account opening scheme (a) Uttar Pradesh (b) Bihar
(d) Mobile toilet scheme (c) Chhattisgarh (d) Jharkhand
4. Recently India has Signed an MOU with which country for 11. RecentlyIndia imposed Anti-dumping duty on Linen imports
construction of petroleum products pipeline. from which of the following countries?
(a) Bhutan (b) Nepal (a) Japan and China
(c) Myanmar (d) China (b) South and North Korea
(e) None of these (c) China and Malaysia
5. Which of the following state Government has declared state (d) China and Hong Kong
totally digital, thus becoming first state in the country to (e) None of these
achieve it. 12. On the eve of celebration of 69th Independence Day at Red
(a) Kerala (b) Tamil Nadu' Fort Prime Minister Narendra Modi announced a new
(c) Andhra Pradesh (d) Gujarat campaign 'Start-up India; Stand up India'. It is associated
(e) None of these with which of the following sector
6. Which of the following Business Group is going to develop (a) Banking (b) Industry
264 villages in Vijayawada Lok Sabha constituency of (c) Agriculture (d) Insurance
Andhra Pradesh under Sansad Adarsh Gram Yojana(SAGY) (e) None of these
initiative. 13. Central Sector Scheme Nai Manzil is dedicated to the
(a) TATA Trust (b) Mahindra &Mahindra empowerment of which of the following?
(c) Larsen &turbo (d) Reliance (a) Woman (b) Minorities
(e) None of these (c) Handicapped (d) Tribal Areas
7. India has signed a MOU with which of the following country (e) None of these
for full cooperation to tackle the menace of fake Indian 14. YUDH ABHYAS 2015 is a Combined Military Training
currency notes (FICN) smuggling. Exercise of which of the following country?
(a) England (b) Switzerland (a) India-US (b) India- China
(c) Bangladesh (d) Malaysia (c) India- Australia (d) India-Israel
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15. Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) on 10 August 23. Who wins India's first-ever individual medal in the World
b
has fully commissioned and started commercial production Archery Championships on 1st August 2015 ?
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at the first indigenous Titanium Sponge Plant . Where it is (a) Deepika Dasgupta (b) Rajat Chauhan
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situated? (c) Limba ram (d) Rakesh Lamba
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(a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Kerala (e) None of these
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(c) Tamil Nadu (d) Pondicherry 24. The appointment of Arun P Sathe, elder brother of Lok Sabha
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(e) None of these Speaker Sumitra Mahajan, recently came into controversy
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after his appointment as the member of which entity?
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16. Babasaheb Purandare has been conferred with Maharashtra
m
Bhushan Award 2015.He is a? (a) IRDA (b) SEBI
(a) Historian (b) Artist (c) NABARD (d) ICWAR
(c) Script Writer (d) Vocalist (e) None of these
(e) None of these 25. What is the name of the mobile app launched by Union
17. Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna award 2015 will be given to which Telecom minister Ravi Shankar Prasad in Bodh Gaya (Bihar)
of the following sports person? which facilitates easy learning of computers and Internet?
(a) Vishwanathan Anand (a) Darshan (b) Disha
(b) Sania Mirza (c) Drishti (d) Dhanush
(c) Sushil Kumar (e) None of these
(d) Vijay Kumar 26. The NITI Aayog has started an initiative to engage the states
(e) None of these of the Indian Union on six important issues pertaining to
18. Recently launched SBI Buddy is a.? governance and finance. This includes the initiative to prune
(a) m-wallet (b) ATM their administrative structure to improve their efficiency and
(c) M-loan (d) E- money transfer governance. What is the name given to this ambitious
(e) None of these initiative?
19. Which bank launched Smart Vault which is first of its kind (a) NIYATAM (b) Satyam
fully automated digital locker? (c) N governance (d) Kulam
(e) None of these
(a) Canara Bank (b) ICICI Bank
27. Which country became the latest and the 206th member of
(c) Federal bank (d) Bank of baroda
the Olympic family after the International Olympic Committee
(e) None of these
(IOC) approved its inclusion?
20. India Aspiration Fund (IAF) and SIDBI Make In India Loan
(a) South Sudan (b) Angola
For Enterprises (SMILE) are launched by which of the
(c) Rawanda (d) Chad
following bank?
(e) None of these
(a) SIDBI (b) HDFC
28. TPP Nair, SP Misra, Romeo James have been recommended
(c) ICICI (d) Yes Bank
for which of the following Award?
(e) None of these
(a) Dronacharya Award
21. What will be the new name of the Agriculture Ministry as (b) Dhyan Chand Award
proposed by the Prime Minister Narendra Modi in his (c) Padam Bhusan
Independence Day address to the nation on 15 August 2015? (d) Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award
(a) Agriculture and Farmers' Welfare Ministry' (e) None of these
(b) Agriculture and Farmers' Ministry 29. Who of the following will not be conferred with Arjuna
(c) Agriculture and Soil Ministry Award 2015
(d) Agriculture and rural Ministry (a) MR Poovamma (b) Mandeep Jangra
(e) None of these (c) Rohit Sharma (d) Virat Kohli
22. What is the name of the 7-pronged strategy announced by (e) None of these
the Union Finance Ministry on 14 August 2015 that aims for 30. Abhishek Verma clinched gold for India. He is associated
comprehensive revamp of public sector banks of the with which sports event?
country? (a) Baseball (b) Archery
(a) Indradhanush (b) Pahal (c) Shooting (d) Weighlifting
(c) Nischay (d) Mudra (e) None of these
(e) None of these

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SECTION TEST : GENERAL AWARENESS
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1. The world Bank assisted ICDS Systems Strengthening and (a) Only (A) (b) Only (B)
Nutrition Improvement Project(ISSNIP) aims at improving (c) Only (C) (d) Only (A) and (B)
child development and Nutritional outcomes for children
has been launched by which of the following nodal
agencies? 5. On which one of the following issues can SEBI penalize any
company in India?
(a) Ministry of Women and Child Development
(A) Violation of Banking Regulation Act.
(b) Ministry of Health
(B) Violation of foreign portfolio investment guidelines.
(c) Ministry of Rural Development
(C) For violation of Negotiable Instrument Act.
(d) Ministry of Labour Welfare
(a) Only (A) (b) All (A), (B) & (C)
(e) Ministry of Social Welfare
(c) Only (A) & (B) (d) Only (B) & (C)
2. The guidelines for licensing new banks in the private sector
(e) Only (B)
are based on which of th e following committees
recommendations? 6. Government has approved the proposal to amend Securities
and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) Act for providing more
1. Narsimhan Committee
power to the market regulator to control.
2. Kelkar Committee
(a) Insider trading
3. Raghuram Rajan Committee (b) Ponzi schemes
4. Usha Thoral Committee (c) Bear Cartels in Share Market
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 (d) Commodity Exchanges
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 and 4 (e) None of these
(e) 2 and 4 7. By which one of the following pen name, J K Rowling has
3. Which of the following is a sort of Poverty Eradication written a crime novel "The Cuckoo's Calling"?
Programme of the Govt. of India, specially designed for rural (a) Robert Galbraith (b) Robert Brown
areas ?
(c) Joseph Thomson (d) Joseph Galbraith
(a) Self Help Group
(e) None of these
(b) Antodaya Anna Yojana
8. Which of the following best defines a floating-rate bond?
(c) Social Security for Agricultural and Unorganized (a) A bond with a fixed interest rate and has better yield
Labour than varying interest rate bond
(d) Enforcement of Minimum Wages (b) A bond with a fixed interest rate and has lower yield
(e) None of these than varying interest rate bond
4. Indian companies are allowed to arrange funds from sources (c) A bond with a varying interest rate and has better yield
abroad through which of the following means? than fixed interest rate bond
(A) External Commercial Borrowings (d) A bond with a varying interest rate and has lower yield
(B) Foreign Currency Convertible Bonds than fixed interest rate bond
(C) Preference Shares (e) None of these
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9. Which among the following regulate the commodity markets 15. Who among the fallowing is a well known politician and
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in India? also a member of the Lok Sabha?
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1. RBI (a) Sri L K Advani
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(b) Sri Ranjan Mathai
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2. SEBI
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3. Forward Market Commission (c) Sri Mahesh Bhupathi
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Choose the correct option from the codes given below: (d) Ms. Saina Nehwal
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(a) Only 1 & 2 (b) Only 2 & 3 (e) V V S Laxman
(c) Only 1 & 3 (d) Only 3 16. Legislative Assembly of which state adopted a resolution
(e) None of these seeking Union's mediation and Presidential reference to
Supreme Court on Mullaperiyar dam issue?
10. The credit policy of a bank does not consists of?
(a) Goa (b) Tamil Nadu
(a) Lending policies
(c) Kerala (d) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Quality control
(e) Karnataka
(c) Loan product mix
17. The book titled Substance and the Shadow recently released
(d) Advertising of loan products
is a biography of
(e) None of these
(a) Amitabh Bachchan
11. Which among the following banks has launched the 'Tatkal',
(b) Dilip Kumar
scheme that enables the people to transfer money to their
families in their native towns and villages without actually (c) Abdul Kalam Azad
opening an account? (d) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
(a) State Bank of India (e) Narendra Modi
(b) Bank of India 18. NASA has launched Ship-Aircraft Bio-Optical Research
(c) Canara Bank (SABOR) experiment to probe ____?
(d) Union Bank of India (a) Ocean Ecology and Carbon Cycle
(e) None of these (b) Aquatic animal's life style
12. India vision-2020 is prepared by (c) Ocean Minerals
(a) S.C. Gupta Committee (d) Effect of ocean acidification
(b) Panth Committee (e) None of these
(c) Malhotra Commitee 19. "Gyrochronology" is a method for estimating the age of
_____?
(d) Narasimha Committee
(a) Star (b) Planets
(e) Kelkar Committee
(c) Comet (d) Fossils
13. The new fastest train in India traveled for first time between
which stations? (e) Asteroids
(a) Delhi-Agra 20. Which of the following countries will host the 2018 FIFA
World cup?
(b) Delhi-Kota
(a) Argentina (b) Russia
(c) Mumbai-Ahmedabad
(c) Qatar (d) Belgium
(d) Bangalore-Chennai
(e) Germany
(e) Delhi-Kolkata
21. Union Budget is always presented in the month of
14. Mt. Sinha peak is located in?
(a) January (b) March
(a) Australia (b) USA
(c) April (d) December
(c) Antarctica (d) Canada
(e) February
(e) Europe

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SPEED TEST 96 203
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22. Savings bank accounts are opened by 29. Which of the following is the name of the currency of a
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(a) Trading entities, manufacturing entities and individuals country?
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for savings purposes (a) Mexico (b) Peru
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(b) Traders and manufacturers for business purposes (c) Syria (d) Zambia
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(c) Individuals for savings purposes (e) Lira
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(d) Limited companies and partnerships for savings
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30. Dinar is the currency of which of the following countries?
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purposes
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(a) Pakistan (b) Iran
(e) Cooperative banks for savings (c) Ghana (d) South Sudan
23. Reserves which can act as a liquidity buffer for commercial (e) Libya
banks during crisis times are
31. Who is the head of the Rajya Sabha panel on the
(a) CAR (b) CRR constitutional amendment Bill regarding National Goods and
(c) CAR and CRR (d) CRR and SLR Services Tax (GST)?
(e) SLR (a) Swati Maliwal (b) K Chandramouli
24. Which of the following represents correct meaning of (c) Bhanu Pratap Sharma (d) Bhupender Yadav
REPORATE? (e) None of these
(a) Rate on which RBI sells Government Securities to Banks 32. Which among the following is the First city to send its
(b) Rate for borrowing rupees by banks from RBI nomination for inclusion in the 100 Smart Cities Mission?
(c) Rate offered by banks to their prime customers (a) Bangalore (b) Rajkot
(d) Rate applicable for grant of priority sector loans (c) Puducherry (d) Kozhikode
25. Which of the following is not a primary function of a Bank? 33. Which among the following is a correct statement about
(a) Granting Loans Softex?
(b) Collecting Cheques/Drafts of customers (a) It is an annual expo held in New Delhi for promotion of
(c) Facilitating import of goods software export industry in India
(d) Issuing Bank Drafts (b) It is form which software companies need to fill and
submit to RBI when they export software
(e) Selling Gold/Silver Coins
(c) It is a cloud service developed and deployed by NIC
26. Which of the following is not classified as a commercial
bank? (d) All of the above
(a) Public sector bank (e) None of these
(b) Foreign bank 34. Which among the following cities of India will host the final
of the 2016 ICC World T20 tournament?
(c) Private sector bank
(d) Regional rural bank (a) Kolkata (b) Bengaluru
(c) Chennai (d) Mohali
(e) Urban cooperative bank
(e) None of these
27. Which of the following is a mineral?
35. Which among the following are the two sites of India's
(a) Isabgol (b) Camphor
nuclear fuel complex?
(c) Tobacco (d) Nickel
(a) Hyderabad & Bangalore
(e) Jute
(b) Kudunkulam and Kota
28. Which of the following is NOT the name of a country?
(c) Hyderabad and Kota
(a) Congo (b) Ethiopia
(d) Narora and Hyderabad
(c) Paris (d) Uganda
(e) None of these
(e) East Timor

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204 SPEED TEST 96
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36. Which of the following trophies dropped by BCCI for 2015- (c) To focus on desi as well as foreign breeds
b
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16 season? (d) All of the above include in the mandate of RGM
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(a) Ranji Trophy (b) Vijay Hazare (e) None of these
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(c) Deodhar Trophy (d) Duleep Trophy
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39. From which country, Apple has recently introduced "Apple
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(e) None of these Pay", a mobile payments system?
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37. As per recommendations of which committee, BCCI changed (a) United States (b) Britain
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the format of the Deodhar Trophy? (c) France (d) Australia
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(a) Anil Kumble (b) Saurav Ganguly (e) None of these
(c) Ravi Shastri (d) Sachin Tendulkar 40. Which panel has suspended the IPL franchises Chennai
(e) None of these Super Kings and Rajasthan Royals for a period of two years?
38. Which of the following is not a mandate of Rashtriya Gokul (a) Justice Mukesh Moudgil Panel
Mission (RGM)? (b) Justice Lodha Panel
(a) To enhance milk production and productivity of (c) Justice Dattu Panel
indigenous bovines
(d) Justice Krishna Panel
(b) To focus on cattle as well as buffalo
(e) None of these

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IBPS BANK CLERK FULL TEST - 1
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Part-I : Banking Knowledge & General Awareness 7. Which among the following can not be called an ant
inflationary measure?
1. With reference to Domestic Savings in India, the savings (a) Raising the Bank Rates
come from three sources, viz. households, the private (b) Raising the Reserve Ratio Requirements
corporate sector, and the public sector. Which among them (c) Purchase of securities in the Open Markets
holds the maximum share? (d) Rationing of the Credit
(a) Households
(e) None of these
(b) Private Corporate Sector
8. Which of the following is the abbreviated name of the body/
(c) Public Sector
agency set up to boost foreign investments in India?
(d) Private Corporate Sector & Public Sector Combined
(a) FOREX (b) FCCB
(e) None of these
(c) FIPB (d) FEMA
2. The difference between the outflow and inflow of foreign
currency is known as ___: (e) AITAF
(a) Foreign Exchange Reserves 9. Which of the following countries has been selected as the
(b) Current Account Deficit host of Commonwealth Games 2018?
(c) Fiscal Deficit (a) India (b) Australia
(d) Balance of Payments (c) Pakistan (d) South Africa
(e) None of these (e) Sri Lanka
3. Which among the following are the 'Credit-Rating Agencies' 10. Which one of the following was the earliest event to take
of India? place?
1. CRISIL 2. CARE (a) Establishment of LIC
3. ICRA 4. ONICRA (b) Nationalization of SBI
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 3 (c) Enactment of Banking Regulation Act
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) All of them (d) Introduction of First Five Year Plan
(e) None of these (e) Nationalization of SBI Associate Banks
4. Which among the following are the wholly/partly owned 11. Which sector gets 100% maximum limit of FDI.
subsidiaries of the Reserve Bank of India(RBI) ? (a) Public Sector Banking
1. Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation (b) Jute Industry
(DICGC) (c) Communication
2. National Housing Bank (NHB) (d) Real Estate
3. National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (e) None of the these
(NABARD) 12. Which of the following is not a public sector bank in India?
4. Bharatiya Reserve Bank Note Mudran Private Limited (a) Andhra Bank (b) Federal Bank
(BRBNMPL) (c) IDBI Bank (d) Vijaya Bank
(a) 1 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 4 (e) None of these
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) All 1,2,3 and 4 13. The Reserve Bank of India has power to print currency notes
(e) None of these of up to Rs ____?
5. The International Finance Corporation (IFC) is a private (a) 1,000 (b) 5,000
sector funding arm associated with which of the following? (c) 10,000 (d) 15,000
(a) WTO (b) World Bank (e) None of these
(c) United Nation (d) ADB
14. What is the expanded form of the term ALM used in banking
(e) None of these
sector?
6. Which of the following country is not a part of "Regional
(a) Asset Liability Maintenance
Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement" of
(b) Asset Liability Management
ASEAN?
(c) Asset Liability Manipulation
(a) China (b) India
(d) Asset Liability Maximisation
(c) Australia (d) Russia
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206 SPEED TEST 97
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15. Which of the following is not a part of India's Money 24. What does the letter 'S' denote in the term IFSC?
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Market? (a) Subscriber (b) State
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b
(a) Banks (b) Bill Markets (c) System (d) Source
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(c) Call Money Market (d) Indian Gold Council (e) None of these
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(e) None of these
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25. Which of the following is an agricultural product?
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16. A panel of Reserve Bank of India has suggested to set-up (a) Honey (b) Butter
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specialized banks to cater to the low income households and (c) Molasses (d) Ginger
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small businesses. These banks will ensure that every citizen (e) Ethanol
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have a bank account by 2016. The panel was headed by 26. Which of the following States is among the North East States
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(a) Mukul Mudgal (b) Nachiket Mor of India?
(c) Raghuram Rajan (d) Bilal Nazaki (a) Jammu & Kashmir (b) Punjab
(e) None of these (c) Himachal Pradesh (d) Meghalaya
17. In international banking system, what does the TIBOR (e) Rajasthan
stands for ___? 27. Which of the following terms is used in Sports/Games?
(a) Tokyo Interbank Offered Rate (a) Equator (b) Clean-Bowled
(b) Taiwan Interbank Offered Rate (c) Erosion (d) Neap Tide
(c) Thailand Interbank Offered Rate (e) Rotation
(d) Tongling Interbank Offered Rate 28. Which of the following is not the name of a Banking
(e) None of these
Organisation?
18. Consider the following banks:
(a) HDFC (b) IDBI
1. ABN Amro Bank 2. Barclays Bank
(c) YES (d) SEBI
3. Kookmin Bank
(e) ICICI
Which of the following correctly represents their countries
29. Which of the following is the name of a Scientific Instrument?
of origin?
(a) Plasma (b) Pascal
(a) Dutch, USA, Japan (b) Japan, USA, China
(c) Dutch, UK, South Korea (d) Dutch, USA, China (c) Radiation (d) Lactometer
(e) None of these (e) Adrenal Cortex
19. The World Bank has set a new goal of reducing extreme 30. Which of the following terms is used in the game of Chess?
poverty to: (a) Checkmate (b) Hoops
(a) 9 percent by 2020 (c) Stroke (d) Heave
(b) 6 percent by 2015 (c) 3 percent by 2025 (e) Deuce
(d) 0 percent by 2015 (e) None of these 31. Which of the following pairs has been chosen for Bhasha
20. Consider the following statements : Samman award for their work towards the enrichment of
(1) Instant Money Transfer (IMT scheme is launched by Kumauni language?
Bank of India (a) K Meenakshi Sundaram and Acharya Munishwar Jha
(2) It allows withdrawal of funds to individuals from its (b) Charu Chandra Pande and Mathuradutt Mathpal
ATMs without an account in the bank (c) Acharya Munishwar Jha and Mathuradutt Mathpal
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (d) Mathuradutt Mathpal and K Meenakshi Sundaram
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (e) None of these
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 32. Who has been appointed as President of International
(e) None of these Cricket Council (ICC)?
21. Which one of the following does not belong to regulatory (a) Zaheer Abbas (b) Mustafa Kamal
bodies in India? (c) Austin Garden (d) John Shreff
(a) FMC (b) IRDA (e) None of these
(c) PFRDA (d) SEBI 33. Which state has declared June 22 as Snake Bird Day?
(e) None of these (a) Kerala (b) Maharashtra
22. Which one of the following is the special drawing rights (c) Tamil Nadu (d) Karnataka
given by the International Monetary Fund to its member (e) None of these
countries? 34. The Groningen gas field, which is largest natural gas field in
(a) Cold money (b) Hot money Europe, is in which country?
(c) Paper gold (d) Hot cold (a) Brazil (b) Netherland
(e) None of these (c) France (d) Germany
23. In pursuance of which one of the following was the General (e) None of these
Insurance Corporation of India was formed? 35. Hollywood composer, James Horner, who died recently, had
(a) General Insurance Business (Nationalisation) Act, 1972 won two academic awards for his work in which movie?
(b) Insurance Act, 1938 (a) The Karate Kid (b) Aliens
(c) Insurance Amendment Act, 2002 (c) Titanic (d) Avatar
(d) IRDA Act 1999 (e) None of these
(e) None of these
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SPEED TEST 97 207
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b
36. Which one of the following has won the 'Best Welfare 47. 448 16 35 = ?
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Organisation of the Year -2015' award? (a) 850 (b) 890
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(a) NUSI (b) ISRO (c) 950 (d) 980
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(c) CITU (d) INTUC (e) None of these
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(e) None of these 14 25 53
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37. Which country created the world's first highway to protect 48. ?
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24 5 8 9
endangered bees?
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(a) Norway (b) Sweden 9 64
(a) 1 (b)
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(c) Australia (d) Brazil 64 75
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38. Who is the chairman of the committee on innovation and (c) 1 (d) 1
64 75
entrepreneurship set up by NITI Aayog?
(e) None of these
(a) Gayathri Iyar (b) Tarun Khanna 49. 78.45 + 128.85 + 1122.25 = ?
(c) Swati Piramal (d) Vallabh Bansali (a) 1329.55 (b) 1239.55
(e) None of these (c) 1329.45 (d) 1239.45
39. Which organization gives Nansen Refugee Award? (e) None of these
(a) World Bank (b) UNHCR 50. 8729 4376 + 1245 = ? + 2785
(c) WTO (d) UNICEF (a) 2713 (b) 2823
40. Which Indian state has launched the Village Monitoring (e) None of these
Project (VMP) to uplift villagers? 2 5 7
(a) Kerala (b) Maharashtra 51. 17 4 ? 46
5 8 8
(c) Haryana (d) Punjab
3 3
5 5
Part-II : Numerical Ability
2 2
(c) 33 (d) 32
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 41-55): What will come in place of the question 5 5
mark (?) in the following questions. (e) None of these
5 4 11 52. 5616 18 8 = ?
41. of of of 848=? (a) 36 (b) 76
11 5 16
(c) 49 (d) 39
(a) 216 (b) 222
(e) None of these
(c) 208 (d) 212
53. 420 28 288 32 = ?
(e) None of these
42. 1.4% of 750 + 2.2% of 480 = ? (a) 235 (b) 236
(a) 21.06 (b) 21.16 (c) 138 (d) 132
(c) 20.88 (d) 21.18 (e) None of these
(e) None of these 54. 222 ? 516
3 2 (a) 1029 (b) 1024
43. of 116 of 87=? (c) 1124 (d) 1128
4 3
(e) None of these
(a) 31 (b) 27
55. 45% of 660 + 28% of 450 = ?
(c) 29 (d) 26
(a) 413 (b) 428
(e) None of these
44. 6.96 1.2 18.24 7.6 = ? (c) 423 (d) 418
(a) 3.4 (b) 3.14 (e) None of these
(c) 3.04 (d) 3.24 DIRECTIONS (Qs. 5660) : What will come in place of the
(e) None of these question mark (?) in the following number series.
45. 32.25 2.4 1.6 = ? 56. 12 16 24 40 ?
(a) 128.84 (b) 123.84 (a) 76 (b) 72
(c) 112.88 (d) 112.84 (c) 84 (d) 88
46. 136% of 250 + ? % of 550 = 670 57. 9 19 39 79 ?
(a) 64 (b) 55 (a) 139 (b) 129
(c) 56 (d) 65 (c) 159 (d) 149
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208 SPEED TEST 97
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58. 8 17 42 91 ? 69. A DVD player was purchased for Rs. 4,860. At what price
o
(a) 170 (b) 142 should it be sold so that 25% profit is earned?
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b
(c) 140 (d) 172 (a) ` 6,225 (b) ` 6,275
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(e) None of these (c) ` 6,075 (d) ` 6,025
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59. 7 8 18 57 ? (e) None of these
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(a) 244 (b) 174
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(c) 186 (d) 226 70. 65% of a number is more than its th by 140. What is 30%
s
(e) None of these 5
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60. 3840 960 240 60 ? of that number?
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(a) 20 (b) 18 (a) 186 (b) 168
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(c) 12 (d) 22 (c) 164 (d) 182
61. 75% of a number is equal to three seventh of another number. 71. Number obtained by interchanging the digit of a two digit
What is the ratio between the first number and the second number is more than the original number by 27 and the sum
number respectively? of the digits is 13. What is the original number?
(a) 4 : 7 (b) 7 : 4 (a) 58 (b) 67
(c) 12 : 7 (d) 7 : 12 (c) 76 (d) 85
62. A 275 metre long train crosses a platform of equal length in 72. 22 men can complete a job in 16 days. In how many days will
33 seconds. What is the speed of the train in kmph ?
32 men complete that job?
(a) 66 (b) 60
(a) 14 (b) 12
(c) 64 (d) 72
63. What is compound interest accrued on an amount of ` 45,000 (e) None of these
in two years at the rate of 9 p.c.p.a? 73. Mr. Davar spends 38% of his monthly income on food, 25%
(a) ` 8,600 (b) ` 8,565.40 on childrens education and 12% on transport and the
(c) ` 8,464.50 (d) ` 8,540 remaining amount of ` 5,800 he saves. What is Mr. Davars
(e) None of these monthly income?
64. Cost of 18 shirts and 45 trousers is ` 68,400. What is the (a) ` 23,200 (b) ` 24,200
cost of 10 shirts and 25 trousers? (c) ` 23,800 (d) ` 24,400
(a) ` 38,000 (b) ` 36,000 (e) None of these
(c) ` 34,200 (d) ` 36,200 74. A, B, C, D and E are five consecutive odd numbers. Average
(e) None of these of A and C is 59. What is the smallest number?
9 7 5 4 11 (a) 65 (b) 63
65. If the fractions , , , and are arranged in (c) 61 (d) 57
11 9 6 5 13
ascending order, which one will be the fourth? (e) None of these
75. Out of the fractions
9 7
(a) (b) 9 3 6 4 7
11 9 , , , and , which is the largest fraction?
31 17 23 11 25
5 4
(c) (d) 9 3
6 5 (a) (b)
31 17
11
(e) 6 4
13 (c) (d)
66. Simple interest accrued on an amount in 8 years at the rate 23 11
of 12 p.c.p.a. is ` 5,520. What is the principal? (e) None of these
(a) ` 5,750 (b) ` 8,500 76. What will come in place of both the question marks (?) in
(c) ` 5,650 (d) ` 8,250 the following question?
(e) None of these
67. Srikant and Vividh started a business investing amounts of 23 ?
` 1, 85,000 and ` 2, 25,000 respectively, If Vividhs share in ? 92
the profit earned by them is ` 9,000, what is the total profit (a) 56 (b) 54
earned by them together? (c) 44 (d) 46
(a) ` 17,400 (b) ` 16,400 (e) None of these
(c) ` 16,800 (d) ` 17,800 77. The salary of a man increases by 20% every year in the
(e) None of these month of January. His salary was ` 5,000 in the month of
68. Present ages of father and son are in the ratio of 6 : 1
February in year 2009. What will be his salary in the month
respectively. Four years after the ratio of their ages will
of February in the year 2011 ?
become 4 : 1 respectively. What is the sons present age?
(a) 10 years (b) 6 years (a) ` 7,200 (b) ` 6,200
(c) 4 years (d) 8 years (c) ` 7,800 (d) ` 6,800
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SPEED TEST 97 209
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78. The simple interest on a certain principal in 5 years at the 86. In a certain code FINE is written HGPC. How is SLIT written
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rate of 12 p.c. p.a. is ` 1,536. What amount of the simple in that code ?
o
b
interest would one get if one invests ` 1,000 more than the (a) UTGR (b) UTKR
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previous principal for 2 years and at the same rate p.c.p.a.? (c) TUGR (d) RUGT
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(e) None of these
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(a) ` 845.40 (b) ` 614.40
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(c) ` 2,136 (d) ` 1,536 87. If in a certain language LATE is coded as 8 & 4 $ and HIRE
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(e) None of these is coded as 7*3$ then how will HAIL be coded in the same
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79. If 3 men or 9 boys can finish a piece of work in 21 days. In language ?
.c
how many days can 5 men and 6 boys together do the same (a) 7 & 8* (b) &7*8
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piece of work? (c) 7*& 8 (d) 7&*8
(a) 12 days (b) 8 days (e) None of these
(c) 14 days (d) Cannot be determined 88. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so
(e) None of these form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that
80. In a test, Rajesh got 112 marks which is 32 more than the group ?
passing marks. Sonal got 75% marks which is 70 more than (a) Stem (b) Tree
the passing marks. What is the minimum passing percentage (c) Root (d) Branch
of the test? (e) Leaf
(a) 35 (b) 45 89. If Apple is called Orange, Orange is called Peach,
(c) 40 (d) 30 Peach is called Patato, Potato is called Banana,
(e) None of these Banana is called Papaya and Papaya is called Guava,
which of the following grows underground ?
Part-III : Reasoning (a) Potato (b) Guava
81. How many meaningful three letter English words can be (c) Apple (d) Banana
formed with the letters AER, using each letter only once in (e) None of these
each word ? 90. How many such pairs of letters are there in word ENGLISH,
(a) None (b) One each of which has as many letters between its two letters as
(c) three (d) two there are between them in the English alphabets ?
(e) Four (a) None (b) One
82. Each vowel of the word ADJECTIVE is substituted with the (c) Two (d) Three
next letter of the English alphabetical series, and each (e) More than three
consonant is substituted with the letter preceding it. How DIRECTIONS (Qs. 91-95) : In each of the questions below are
many vowels are present in the new arrangement ? given three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I
(a) Four (b) One and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if
(c) Two (d) Three they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read
(e) None of these both of the conclusions and then decide which of the given
83. In a certain code na pa ka so means birds fly very high, conclusions logically follows from the given statements
ri so la pa means birds are very beautiful and ti me ka disregarding commonly known facts.
bo means the parrots could fly. Which of the following is Read the statements and the conclusions which follow it and give
the code for highin that language ? answer
(a) na (b) k a (a) If only conclusion I is true.
(c) bo (d) so (b) If only conclusion II is true.
(e) None of these (c) If either conclusion I or conclusion II is true.
84. If the digits in the number 86435192 are arranged in (d) If neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true.
ascending order, what will be the difference between the (e) If both conclusions I and II are true.
digits which are second from the right and fourth from the 91. Statements :
left in the new arrangement ? All stars are suns.
(a) One (b) Two Some suns are planets.
(c) Three (d) Four All planets are satellites.
(e) None Conclusions :
85. If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the I. Some satellites are stars.
Third, Seventh, Eighth and Tenth letters of the word II. No star is a satellite.
COMPATIBILITY, which of the following would be the last 92. Statements :
letter of that word ? If no such word can be made, give X All curtains are rods.
as your answer and if more than one such word can be Some rods are sheets.
formed, give your answer as Y. Some sheets are pillows.
(a) I (b) B Conclusions:
(c) L (d) X I. Some pillows are rods.
(e) Y II. Some rods are curtains.
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210 SPEED TEST 97
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b
93. Statements : (i) If the first letter is a consonant and the last a vowel, both are
o
All switches are plugs. to be coded as the code of the vowel.
o
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Some plugs are bulbs. (ii) If the first letter is vowel and the last a consonant, the codes
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All bulbs are sockets. for the first and the last are to be interchanged.
o
Conclusions:
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(iii) If no vowel is present in the group of letters, the second and
I. Some sockets are plugs.
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the fifth letters are to be coded as .
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II. Some plugs are switches.
101. BARNIS
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94. Statements :
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All fishes are birds. (a) 9 2 * % # 4 (b) 9 2 4 # * %
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All birds are rats. (c) 9 2 * # % 9 (d) 4 2 * # % 4
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All rats are cows. (e) None of these
Conclusions : 102. DMBNIA
I. All birds are cows. (a) 6 @ 9 % # 2 (b) 2 @ 9 % # 6
II. All rats are fishes. (c) 2 @ 9 % # 6 (d) 2 @ 9 % # 2
95. Statements :
(e) None of these
Some walls are windows.
Some windows are doors. 103. IJBRLG
All doors are roofs. (a) # 8 9 * $ (b) # 8 9 * #
Conclusions : (c) $ 8 9 * # (d) $ 8 9 * $
I. Some doors are walls. (e) None of these
II. No roof is a window. 104. BKGQJN
(a) 9 $ 7 % (b) 9 $ 7 %
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 96-100) : Read the following information (c) 9 1 $ 7 8 % (d) % 1 $ 7 8 9
carefully and answer the questions, which follow : (e) None of these
A - B means A is father of B. 105. EGAKRL
A + B means A is daughter of B. (a) # $ 2 1 * (b) $ 2 1 * 3
A B means A is son of B.
(c) $ 2 1 * # (d) # $ 2 1 #
A B means A is wife of B.
96. How is P related to T in the expression P + S T ? (e) None of these
(a) Sister (b) Wife DIRECTIONS (Qs. 106-110) : Study the following information
(c) Son (d) Daughter carefully to answer these questions.
(e) None of these Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H work for three different
97. In the expression P Q T how is T related to P ? companies namely X, Y and Z. Not more than three persons work
(a) Daughter (b) Sister for a company. There are only two ladies in the group who have
(c) Mother (d) Cant be determined different specialisations and work for different companies. Of the
(e) None of these
group of friends, two have specialisation in each HR, Finance and
98. Which of the following means T is wife of P ?
Marketing. One member is an engineer and one is a doctor. H is
(a) P S T (b) P S T
(c) P S T (d) P + T S an HR specialist and works with a Marketing specialist B who
(e) None of these does not work for company Y. C is an engineer and his sister
99. Which of the following means P is grandson of S ? works in company Z. D is a specialist in HR working in company
(a) P + Q S (b) P Q S X while her friend G is a finance specialist and works for company
(c) P Q + S (d) P Q S Z. No two persons having the same specialisation work together.
(e) None of these Marketing specialist F work for company Y and his friend A who
100. In the expression P + Q T how is T related to P ? is a Finance expert works for company X in which only two
(a) Mother (b) Father specialists work. No lady is a marketing specialist or a doctor.
(c) Son (d) Brother 106. Which of the following combinations is correct ?
(e) None of these (a) C - Z - Engineer (b) E - X - Doctor
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 101-105) : In each question a group of letters (c) H X HR (d) C Y Engineer
is given followed by four combinations of number/symbol (e) None of these
numbered (a), (b), (c) and (d). Letters are to be coded as per the 107. For which of the following companies does C work?
scheme and conditions given below. You have to find out the serial (a) Y (b) X
number of the combination, which represents the letter group. (c) Z (d) Data inadequate
Serial number of that combination is your answer. If none of the
(e) None of these
combinations is correct, your answer is (e) i.e. None of these.
108. Which of the following pairs represents the two ladies in
Letters Q M S I N G D K A L P R B J E the group ?
Number/ 7 @ 4 # % $ 6 1 2 5 * 9 8 3 (a) A and D (b) B and D
Symbol (c) D and G (d) Data inadequate
Conditions : (e) None of these
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SPEED TEST 97 211
a
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b
109. Which of the following represents the pair working in the 115. Problem Figures
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same company ?
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b
(a) D and C (b) A and B
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(c) A and E (d) H and F
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(e) None of these
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110. Who amongst the friends is a doctor ? (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
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(a) H (b) E Answer Figures
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(c) C (d) Either E or C
s
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(e) None of these
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DIRECTIONS (Qs. 111-115) : In each of the questions given
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below which one of the five answer figures should come after the
problem figures if the sequence were continued ? (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
111. Problem Figures
form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the
group?
(a) 56 (b) 35
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e) (c) 49 (d) 42
Answer Figures (e) 51
117. If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word
from the second, the fifth, the seventh and the eighth letters
of the word PHYSICAL, using each letter only once, second
letter of that word is your answer. If more than one such
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e) word can be formed your answer is M. If no such word can
be formed your answer is N.
112. Problem Figures
(a) I (b) A
(c) l (d) M
(e) N
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 118-120) : Study the following paragraph
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e) and answer the questions that follow :
Answer Figures Culture in the literal sense of the term is the art and
manifestation of human intellectual achievement regarded
collectively. It refers to the cumulative deposit of knowledge,
experience, beliefs, values, attitudes, meanings and material
objects and possessions acquired by a group of people in the
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e) course of generations through individual and group striving. The
113. Problem Figures culture of India refers to the religions, beliefs, customs, traditions,
languages, ceremonies, arts, values and the way of life of the
people of India. Heritage on the other hand denotes or relates to
things of special architectural, historical or natural value that are
preserved and sustained as valued objects such as historic
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e) buildings and monuments as valued objects such as historic
Answer Figures buildings and monuments
118. Which of the following conclusion which can be drawn
from the facts stated in the above passage?
(a) Culture is an imaginary term by the people of that
country.
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e) (b) Culture is related with our political activities.
114. Problem Figures (c) Culture is an integrated sense of art, knowledge,
customs, beliefs, languages, values life-styles etc.
(d) Culture is mostly affected with economic activities and
thoughts.
(e) None of these
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e) 119. Which statement strengthens the conclusion of the
Answer Figures paragraph?
(a) Life-style, clothing and fooding is also a part of culture.
(b) Geographical situation does not affect the culture.
(c) Scientific knowledge is also included in culture.
(d) Culture does not affect ones life.
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e) (e) None of these
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212 SPEED TEST 97
a
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b
120. Which statement weakens the conclusion of the paragraph? 131. A single application that combines the major features of
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(a) Our heritage is also a part of our culture. several types of applications is called
o
b
(b) Methods of worship is an important part of culture. (a) integrated software (b) a suite
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(c) Culture is a hypothetical and imaginary term. Which (c) a combo package (d) high-end
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can not be determined by some points. (e) None of these
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132. Which of the following will translate images of text, drawings,
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(d) Culture has an extensive sense which is determined by
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life-style, custums, beliefs, languages, values etc. and photos into digital form
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(a) Digitizer (b) Modem
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(e) None of these
.c
(c) Scanner (d) Keyboard
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Part-IV : Computer Knowledge
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(e) None of these
121. Which of the following is NOT a computer programming 133. What does storage unit provide?
language ? (a) place for typing data
(a) C (b) C++ (b) storage for information and instruction
(c) Java (d) COBOL (c) place for printing information
(e) Microsoft (d) All of the above
122. Text and graphics that have been cut or copied are stored in (e) None of these
an area called the 134. Special effect used to introduce slides in a presentation are
(a) Pasteboard (b) Copyboard called
(c) Clipboard (d) Cuttingboard (a) Effect (b) Custom animation
(e) None of these (c) Transition (d) Animation
123. E-commerce allows companies to (e) Preset Animation
(a) issue important business reports 135. Every component of your computer is either
(b) coduct business over the internet (a) software of CPU/RAM
(c) support decision making processes (b) hardware or software
(d) keep track of paper-based transactions (c) application software or system software
(e) None of these (d) input devices or output devices
124. Sending an E-mail is similar to
(e) None of these
(a) writing a letter
136. A website address is a unique name that identifies a specific
(b) drawing a picture
_________ on the web.
(c) talking on the phone
(d) sending a package (a) Web browser (b) PDA
(e) None of these (c) Website (d) Link
125. A_________ represents approximately one billion memory (e) None of these
location. 137. _________ is the process of finding errors in software code.
(a) kilobyte (b) megabyte (a) Debugging (b) Compiling
(c) gigabyte (d) terabyte (c) Interpreting (d) Testing
126. In DOS, which of the following command is used to delete 138. Which type of software is similar to an accountants
all the files as well as sub-directories of a directory ? worksheet?
(a) Delete (b) Del (a) Word processing (b) Database
(c) Deltree (d) Move (c) Spreadsheets (d) Graphics
(e) None of these (e) File Manager
127. PCM is an example of 139. A terminal that cannot process any information is called
(a) digital to digital (b) digital to analog (a) Direct access terminal (b) Intelligent terminal
(c) analog to analog (d) analog to digital (c) Smart terminal (d) Blind terminal
(e) None of these (e) Dumb terminal
128. How many 30-bit SIMMS are required to populate a bank 140. Coded entries which are used to gain access to a computer
on a 486 system that has a 32-bit data bus ? system are called
(a) 2 (b) 3 (a) Entry codes (b) Passwords
(c) 4 (d) 5 (c) Security commands (d) Codewords
(e) None of these
(e) None of these
129. The ability to easily add additional useres means that a
141. These provide expansion capability for a computer system.
net-work is
(a) scalable (b) dedicated (a) sockets (b) slots
(c) decentralized (d) secure (c) bytes (d) bays
130. The ________ of a system includes the programs or 142. A(n) __________ allows sharing of a broadband Internet
instructions. connection.
(a) hardware (b) icon (a) hub (b) adapter
(c) information (d) software (c) router (d) switch
(e) None of these (e) plug
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SPEED TEST 97 213
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b
143. The clock rate of a processor is measured in- 154. Software you can use to create a budget is called -
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(a) word processing software
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(a) milliseconds
b
(b) Microhertz (b) graphics software
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(c) megabytes or gigabytes (c) utility software
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(d) nanoseconds (d) spreadsheetsofiware
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(e) megahertz or gigahertz (e) None of these
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144. A computer virus normally attaches itself to another
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155. The mouse - usually appears in the shape of an arrow.
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computer program known as a-
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(a) backdoor program (a) indicator (b) marker
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(c) meter (d) pointer
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(b) target program
(c) Trojan horse (e) None of these
(d) host program 156. If a processor has a word size of 32 bits. compared to a
(e) Bluetooth processor with a word size of 16 bits. It can process _____
145. These devices translate data and programs that humans at a time.
can understand into a form that the computer can process. (I) thrice as much (b) half as much
(a) display (b) input (c) a fourth as much (d) the same amount
(c) output (d) pointer (e) twice as much
(e) None of these
157. The most common storage device for the personal computer
146. The amount of time required by a storage device to retrieve
is the_
data and programs is its -
(a) retrieval speed (b) capacity (a) floppy disk (b) USB thumb drive
(c) memory (d) storage (c) zip disk (d) hard disk drive
(e) access speed (e) Pen drive
147. A 32-bit word computer can access _____ bytes at a time. 158. Which device uses a handheld operating system?
(a) 4 (b) 8 (a) APDA (b) A personal computer
(c) 16 (d) 32 (c) A laptop (d) A mainframe
148. A megabyte is actually equal to ______ kilobytes. 159. Numbers and formulae entered in a cell are called
(a) 100 (b) 1000
(a) labels (b) numeric entries
(c) 1024 (d) 1024 1024
(c) intersection (d) text
(e) None of these
149. The main memory of a computer must be large enough to (e) fillers
contain the active parts of - 160. What is software?
(a) the operating system (a) A type of computer code
(b) the applications (b) A computer language
(c) input/output storage and working storage (c) A set of instructions for your computer
(d) All of these (d) A cover for the computer
150. This type of memory improves processing by acting as a
temporary high-speed holding area between the memory Part-V : English Language
and the CPU.
(a) RAM (b) ROM DIRECTIONS (Qs. 161-170) : Read the following passage
(c) cache memory (d) flash memory carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/
(e) EPROM phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate them while
151. The smallest unit in a digital system is a answering some of the questions.
(a) Byte (b) Kilobyte Once upon a time a dishonest king had a man called the
(c) Word (d) Character
Valuer in his court. The Valuer set the price which ought to be
(e) Bit
paid for horses and elephants and the other animals. He also set
152. The computer's processor consists of the following parts _
(a) CPU and Main Memory the price on jewellery and gold, and things of that kind. This man
(b) Hard Disk and Floppy Drive was honest and just, and set the proper price to be paid to the
(c) Main Memory and storage owners of the goods. The king, however, was not pleased with
(d) Operating system and Applications this Valuer, because he was honest. "If I had another sort of a
(e) Control Unit and ALU man as Valuer, I might gain more riches," he thought.
153. __ ports connect special types of music instruments to One day the king saw a stupid, miserly peasant come into
sound cards. the palace yard. The king sent for the fellow and asked him if he
(a) BUS (b) CPU would like to be the Valuer. The peasant said he would like the
(c) USB (D) MIDI position. So the king had him made Valuer. He sent the honest
(e) MINI Valuer away from the palace.
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214 SPEED TEST 97
a
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b
Then the peasant began to set the prices on horses and 164. What can possibly be the moral of the story?
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elephants, upon gold and jewels. He did not know their value, so (a) Slow and steady wins the race
o
b
he would say anything he chose. As the king had made him Valuer, (b) Change is the only permanent thing in life
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the people had to sell their goods for the price he set. By and by (c) An honest answer is the sign of true friendship
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a horse-dealer brought five hundred horses to the court of this
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(d) Haste makes waste
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king. The Valuer came and said they were worth a mere measure (e) No legacy is so rich as honesty
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of rice. So the king ordered the horse-dealer to be given the measure 165. Why did the Ministers laugh at the new Valuer?
s
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of rice, and the horses to be put in the palace stables. (a) As he had sold the king's city at a very low price
.c
The horse-dealer then went to see the honest man who had
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(b) As he had displayed his stupidity by quoting an
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been the Valuer, and told him what had happened. "What shall I abysmally low price on the king's city
do?" asked the horse-dealer. "I think you can give a present to (c) As he had cheated the horse dealer
the Valuer which will make him do and say what you want him to
(d) As he had not claculated the price of the five hundred
do and say," said the man. "Go to him and give him a fine present,
horses correctly
then say to him: "You said the horses are worth a measure of rice
(e) None of these
but now tell what a measure of rice is worth! Can you value that
166. What did the new Valuer do when he got the present from
standing in your place by the king?" If the says he can, go wth
the horse dealer?
him to the king, and I will be there, too."
The horse-dealer thought this was a good idea. So he gave (a) He accepted the present and resigned from his post as
a fine present to the Valuer, and said what the other man had told was requested by the horse-dealer
him to say., The stupid Valuer took the present, and said: "Yes, I (b) He accepted the present and agreed to state the worth
can go before the king with you and tell what a measure of rice is of a measure of rice in the presence of the King
worth. I can value that now." Well, let us go at once," said the (c) He accepted the present and immediately returned the
horse-dealer. So they went before the king and his ministers in horse-dealer's horses
the palace. (d) He refused to accept the present from the horse-dealer
The horse-dealer bowed down before the king, and said: "O and asked him to leave the premises
King, I have learned that a measure of rice is the value of my five (e) None of these
hundred horses. But will the king be pleased to ask the Valuer 167. Which of the following can be said about the old Valuer?
what is the valuer of the measure of rice". The king, not knowing (1) He was honest. (2) He was intelligent.
what had happened, asked, "How now, Valuer, what are five (3) He was revengeful.
hundred horses worth?" "A measure of rice, O King!" said he. (a) Only (1) (b) Only (3)
"Very good, then! If five hundred horses are worth a measure of (c) Only (1) and (2) (d) Only (1) and (3)
rice, what is the measure of rice worth?" "The measure of rice is (e) All the three (1), (2) and (3)
worth your whole city," replied the foolish fellow. 168. What was the worth of a measure of rice according to the
The ministers clapped their hands, laughing, and saying, new Valuer?
"What a foolish Valuer! How can such a man hold that office? We (a) The king's entire city
used to think this great city was beyond price, but this man says (b) The king's life
it is worth only a measure of rice, "Then the king was ashamed, (c) Two horses
and drove out the foolish fellow. "I tried to please the king by (d) Not mentioned in the passage
setting a low price on the horses, and now see what has happened (e) None of these
to me!" said the Valuer, as he ran away from the laughing crowd. 169. Why did the horse-dealer go to meet the old Valuer?
161. Who did the king appoint as the new Valuer?
(a) As the new Valuer had set a very inappropriate price
(a) A minsister (b) A horse merchant
for his five hundred horses
(c) Himself (d) A stingy peasant
(b) As his five hundred horses were stolen from him by
(e) None of these
the king
162. Why was the king not happy with the old Valuer?
(c) As he was a very good friend of the old Valuer
(a) As the Valuer was not good at his work
(b) As he had dishonoured the king (d) As the king head requested him to do so
(c) As the Valuer had been dishonest with the king about (e) None of these
the prices that he set for goods 170. What advice did the old Valuer give to the horse-dealer?
(d) As the king believed that he was not earning much (a) He asked the horse-dealer to inquire with the king about
because of the Valuer's honesty the worth of a measure of rice
(e) None of these (b) He asked the horse-dealer to bribe the new Valuer and
163. Which of the following words can be used to describe the get his horses back
king? (c) He asked the horse-dealer to forget about his horses
(1) Smart (2) Dishonest and go on with his life
(3) Cheat (d) He asked the horse-dealer to publicize his plight and
(a) Only (1) (b) Only (2) thus get his horses back
(c) Only (2) and (3) (d) Only (1) and (3) (e) None of these
(e) All the three (1), (2) and (3)
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SPEED TEST 97 215
a
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b
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 171 to 175): In each of the following sentences, 178. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence
o
after rearrangement?
o
an idiomatic expression or a proverb is highlighted. Select the
b
(a) A (b) B
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alternative which best describes its use in the sentence.
(c) C (d) D
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171. The die is cast and now let us hope for the best.
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(e) F
(a) project is over (b) decision is made
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179. Which of the following should be the LAST (SIXTH)
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(c) death is inevitable (d) cloth has been dyed
sentence after rearrangement?
s
(e) none of these
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(a) A (b) B
.c
172. Pt. Nehru was born with a silver spoon in his mouth.
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(a) born in a middle class family (c) C (d) D
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(b) born in a wealthy family (e) E
(c) born in a royal family 180. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after
(d) born in a family of nationalists rearrangement?
(e) none of these (a) A (b) B
173. The arrival of the mother-in-law in the family proved a rift in (c) C (d) D
the lute. (e) E
(a) caused unnecessary worries
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 181-185) : Which of the phrases (a), (b), (c)
(b) brought about disharmony
and (d) given below each sentence should replace the phrase
(c) caused a pleasant atmosphere
(d) brought about a disciplined atmosphere printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct?
(e) none of these If the sentence is correct as it is given and no correction is
174. The prince did not take after the king. required, mark (e) as the answer.
(a) run after (b) follow 181. As it was already afternoon, Rohan decided to check out of
(c) precede (d) resemble the hotel and go home.
(e) none of these (a) for checking out (b) to checking out
175. Don't lose patience, things will improve by and by. (c) to check outing (d) to checked out
(a) soon (e) No correction required
(b) finally 182. Five people which ignored an evacuation order were trapped
(c) gradually in a mountain region encircled by a wildfire.
(d) unexpectedly (a) who ignored an (b) those ignoring an
(e) none of these
(c) who ignores a (d) that ignored a
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 176-180) : Rearrange the following six (e) No correction required
sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper sequence to 183. Since she was the most popular model on the ramp, she
form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given thought no end to herself.
below them. (a) no ending to herself (b) no ends of herself
(A) The woodcutter thankfully broke off from work and sat down (c) no end of herself (d) no end with herself
to eat the delicious meal that his wife had sent for him. (e) No correction required
(B) He was in a good mood that particular morning and soon
184. The actress says that she is not comfortable walk into the
started singing as he swung his axe at the log of wood in
ramp in designer-wear.
front of him.
(C) After he had eaten his meal and taken rest for a while the (a) to walks on (b) walking down
woodcutter got back to work. (c) walking with (d) walks to
(D) The hours passed and the sun became hotter than ever and (e) No correction required
very soon perspiraton started breaking out on the 185. Not many bank on the power of realism and comedy to make
woodcuter's hands and face. an impression and so, when one does, it makes head truns.
(E) One hot summer's morning a woodcutter was hard at work, (a) making heads turn
chopping wood into small pieces, so that he could sell them (b) make head turnings
in the market. (c) making heads turining
(F) As it neared afternoon, his wife sent their little son to him (d) makes heads turn
with food for the afternoon. (e) No correction required
176. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence
after rearrangement? DIRECTIONS (Qs. 186-190) : In each question below, a sentence
(a) F (b) E with four words printed in bold type is given. These are numbered
(c) D (d) C as (a), (b), (c) and (d). One of these four words printed in bold may
(e) B be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the
177. Which of the following should be the FIRSTsentence after sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or
rearrangement? inappropriate, if any. The number of that word is your answer. If
(a) A (b) B all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also
(c) C (d) D appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (e) i.e., All
(e) E correct' as your answer.
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216 SPEED TEST 97
a
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b
186. The city's fashion-conscious ladies (a)/ came together at a 191. (a) took (b) was
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city hotel to check out an exibition (b)/ by various (c)/ (c) great (d) handle
b
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designers (d)/ and labels. All correct (e)
(e) mended
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187. The ministry's proposal (a)/ for an autonomous (b)/
rd
192. (a) try (b) told
overarching authority (c)/ for higher education and research
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(c) were (d) bent
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was finally approval. (d)/ All correct (e)
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(e) learnt
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188. Silense (a)/ is to retreat (b)/ in wordless prayer, gazing (c)/
.c
193. (a) main (b) exactly
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out the window of your heart, and going for slow
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meandering (d)/ walks in a garden. All correct (e) (c) many (d) because
189. A majority of Army tanks continue to grope (a)/ in the dark, (e) too
stricken (b)/ as they are with an ecute (c) case of night 194. (a) call (b) make
blindness. (d)/ All correct (e) (c) stall (d) go
190. Back home, the ever affable (a)/ Bollywood singer shares (e) visit
the excitement (b) of having (c)/ performed (d)/ at the Royal
195. (a) forcefully (b) hardly
Hall in London. All correct (e)
(c) usually (d) costly
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 191-200) : In the following passage there
(e) truly
are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers
are printed below the passage and against each, five words are 196. (a) ask (b) bring
suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the (c) got (d) throw
appropriate word in each case. (e) create
There was once a gardener who (191) care of the king's 197. (a) party (b) time
garden. In the garden, lived a family of monkeys. Seeing the (c) answer (d) doubt
gardener at work, the monkeys soon (192) to imitate him. As the (e) water
gardener tended the plants and weeded and watered the garden,
198. (a) body (b) many
he was amused to see that the monkeys also did (193) what he
did. The gardener was happy that he had so much unpaid help. (c) lots (d) weight
One day the gardener wanted to (194) a fair in the city. He (e) quantity
had an idea. He called the chief of the monkeys and said to him, "I 199. (a) thrashed (b) saw
have to go out for the day. Can you and your family water my (c) stick (d) pulled
plants like you (195) do? I promise you that if you help me I will (e) splashed
(196) sweets for you from the fair.: The monkeys agreed. But after
200. (a) withered (b) crushed
the gardener had left, they had a (197). How much water were
they to pour for each plant? then one of them said. "For plants (c) killed (d) grew
with big roots, we must pour (198) of water and for the ones with (e) smiled
small roots, we pour only a litle water." So, the monkeys (199) out
each plant and then pushed it back again after looking at the root.
As a result, many plants (200) and died. On his return, the gardener
realized that he had been very foolish to trust a bunch of mere
monkeys to do his job.
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SPEED TEST 97 217
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b
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RESPONSE SHEET
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Test Code : ............................... Time taken : ......................... Date : ..........................
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(a) (b) (c) (d) (e) (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
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1. 51. 101. 151.
o
102.
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2. 52. 152.
3. 53. 103. 153.
4. 54. 104. 154.
5. 55. 105. 155.
6. 56. 106. 156.
7. 57. 107. 157.
8. 58. 108. 158.
9. 59. 109. 159.
10. 60. 110. 160.
11. 61. 111. 161.
12. 62. 112. 162.
13. 63. 113. 163.
14. 64. 114. 164.
15. 65. 115. 165.
16. 66. 116. 166.
17. 67. 117. 167.
18. 68. 118. 168.
19. 69. 119. 169.
20. 70. 120. 170.
21. 71. 121. 171.
22. 72. 122. 172.
23. 73. 123. 173.
24. 74. 124. 174.
25. 75. 125. 175.
26. 76. 126. 176.
27. 77. 127. 177.
28. 78. 128. 178.
29. 79. 129. 179.
30. 80. 130. 180.
31. 81. 131. 181.
32. 82. 132. 182.
33. 83. 133. 183.
34. 84. 134. 184.
35. 85. 135. 185.
36. 86. 136. 186.
37. 87. 137. 187.
38. 88. 138. 188.
39. 89. 139. 189.
40. 90. 140. 190.
41. 91. 141. 191.
42. 92. 142. 192.
43. 93. 143. 193.
44. 94. 144. 194.
45. 95. 145. 195.
46. 96. 146. 196.
47. 97. 147. 197.
48. 98. 148. 198.
49. 99. 149. 199.
50. 100. 150. 200.
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SPEED TEST 97
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IBPS BANK CLERK FULL TEST - 2
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Part-I : Banking Knowledge & General Awareness 6. Which of the following document(s) is/are considered as
1. The banks are required to maintain a certain ratio between officially valid document to satisfy KYC norms for opening
their cash in the hand and totals assets. This is called a Bank account?
(a) Statutory Bank Ratio (SBR) (A) Passport
(b) Statutory Liquid Ratio (SLR) (B) PAN
(c) Central Bank Reserve (CBR) (C) Aadhar number issued by Unique Identification
(d) Central Liquid Reserve (CLR) Authority of India
(e) None of these (a) Only (A) (b) Only (B)
2. As we all know, when we deposit a cheque issued in our (c) Only (A) & (B) (d) All (A), (B) & (C)
name in the bank, the bank always checks if the cheque has (e) Only (B) & (C)
been crossed or not. Why is this done? 7. Which of the following is NOT a Govt. sponsored
(a) It ensures that the money is deposited only in the organization?
account of the person in whose name the cheque has (a) Small Industries Development Bank ofIndia
been drawn. (b) NABARD
(b) It is a process by which the person who has issued the (c) National Housing Bank
cheque comes to know whether the cheque is encashed (d) ICICI Bank
or not. (e) All are Govt. sponsored
(c) The bank insists on it only when the party wants the 8. Which of the following is the apex institution which handles
payment immediately and that too in cash only. refinance for agriculture and rural development in India?
(d) This is the instruction of RBI that all the cheques of (a) RBI (b) SIDBI
the amount of ` 10,000 should be accepted only if they (c) NABARD (d) SEBI
are crossed. (e) None of these
(e) None of these 9. Which of the following services is NOT provided by the
3. Which of the following terms is NOT associated with post offices in India?
banking operations? (a) Savings Bank Scheme
(a) Repo Rate (b) Prime Lending Rate (b) Retailing of Mutual Funds
(c) Equator (d) Corporate Finance (c) Sale of stamps
(e) Cash Reserve Ratio (d) Issuance of Demand Drafts
4. A student has got admission to a foreign university. From (e) Life Insurance cover
where can he/she get the foreign currency ? 10. Which of the following is NOT a part of India's Money
(a) From the Bank of that country only Market?
(b) From the Ministry of Foreign Affairs (a) Bill Market (b) Call Money Market
(c) From office of the Consulate General of that country (c) Banks (d) Mutual Funds
(d) From an authorised foreign exchange dealer (e) Indian Gold Council
(e) From any big five star hotel as many foreigners come 11. Which of the following is the Regulator of the credit rating
to stay there agencies in India?
5. What is the full form the term 'FDIs' as used in economic (a) RBI (b) SBI
world? (c) SEBI (d) SIDBI
(a) Fixed Duration Investments (e) None of these
(b) Financial and Debt Instruments 12. The water purifier Zero-B belongs to
(c) Foreign Deployment Index (a) Ion Exchange (b) Eureka Forbes
(d) Foreign Direct Investments (c) Zeolite India (d) Dabur
(e) Formal Direct Issues (e) None of these
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220 SPEED TEST 98
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13. 'Talk to me.' This is an ad line of 22. The term 'Power of Attorney' refers to:
o
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(a) Listerine (b) Colgate Fresh Energy (a) Power entrusted to a specific person
b
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(c) Airtel (d) Close-UP (b) A mandate to withdraw money from a bank account
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(e) None of these (c) An instrument by which a person is empowered to act
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for another person
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14. 'Paints for dream homes' is a slogan for
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(d) Both (a) and (c)
(a) Asian Paints (b) Nerolac All Scapes
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(c) Dulux Paints (d) Berger Paints
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23. The rate of interest on savings account is determined by:
m
(e) None of these
(a) Concerned bank
15 Entertainment doesn't get bigger than this' is the claim for
(b) RBI
(a) LG Flatron television (b) Philips home theatre
(c) Indian Bank Association
(c) Sony television (d) Star TV
(d) Government of India
(e) None of these
(e) Banking Codes and Standards Board of India
16. Complete this ad with one word: 'The first Indian suiting
24. On which 'Head of Expenses', is the expenses of GOI are the
ever worn came from __________.'
highest?
(a) Raymond (b) Grasim
(a) Food subsidy
(c) Gwalior (d) Graviera (b) Fertilizer subsidy
(e) None of these (c) Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana
17. 'Dettol' is a product of which company? (d) Maintenance of national highways
(a) Procter and Gamble (b) Hindustan Lever (e) Oil subsidy
(c) Johnson & Johnson (d) Reckitt-Beneckiser 25. Zero balance account is permitted for ____.
(e) None of these (a) Salaried class (b) businessmen
18. Which of the following is NOT decided by the Finance (c) Foreign customers (d) Dependents
Minister while presenting Union Budget every year? (e) Senior citizens
(a) Rate of Income Tax 26. RTGS stands for
(b) Expenditure of Defence Services (a) Real Time Gross Settlements
(c) Relief packages to various sections of the society (b) Reduced Time Gross Settlements
(d) Repo & Reverse Repo rates (c) Relative Time Gross Settlement
(e) Revenue Expected from various sources (d) Real Total Gross Securities
19. GNP stands for: (e) Rural Trading Goods Scheme
(a) Group Net Product 27. What does 'Gold Standards' mean? It is a system
(b) Gross National Product where _______ .
(c) Grand Nuclear Process (a) The total currency is backed by gold reserves
(d) Group Networking Process (b) The purity of gold is standardized
(e) Grand National Product (c) The value of ornaments is standardized
(d) IMF quota of member countries is decided
20. Term 'Balance of Payment' for_____.
(a) Diplomatic Relations
28. India follows a system of "fiat money" while issuing
(b) Exports & Imports
currency. Define fiat money?
(c) Annual production in a factory
(a) Currency is backed by Government guarantee
(d) Deficit in Union Budget
(b) Currency is backed by tangible assets
(e) Credit given to consumers (c) Currency is backed by gold reserves
21. Which rates/ratios is not covered under the RBI monetary (d) Currency is backed by budget support
and credit policy?
(a) Bank rate
29. A bank's 'fixed deposit' is also referred to as a
(b) Foreign Exchange rates
(a) term deposit (b) savings bank deposit
(c) Repo rate
(c) current deposit (d) demand deposit
(d) Reverse Repo rate
(e) home savings deposit
(e) Cash reserve ratio
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SPEED TEST 98 221
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30. As per Census 2011, which of the following Indian states (c) Vodafone, Airtel and China mobile
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has the lowest population density?
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(d) Airtel, China mobile and Vodafone
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(a) Nagaland (b) Manipur (e) none of these
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(c) Arunachal Pradesh (d) Himachal Pradesh 39. Who has been voted as best test player of 21st century?
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(e) Meghalaya (a) Kumara Sangakkara (b) Sachin Tendulkar
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31. World Food Day is celebrated every year around the world (c) Adam Gilchrist (d) Ricky Ponting
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(e) none of these
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(a) July 4 40. Who has been appointed as Kerala's brand ambassador for
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(b) October 16 Ayurveda?
(c) Other than those given as options (a) Steffi Graf (b) Venus Williams
(d) August 12 (c) Caroline Wozniacki (d) Martina Navratilova Hide
(e) May 18 (e) none of these
32. The minimum age for becoming a member of Rajya Sabha is
Part-II : Numerical Ability
(c) 30 years (d) 35 years DIRECTIONS (Qs. 41-50): What will come in place of question
mark (?) in the following questions?
(e) 25 years
33. Banks' mandatory lending to farmers for agriculture, micro 3 4 5
41. of of of 1015 = ?
and small enterprises and other weaker sections where in 5 7 12
banks are required to lend up to 40% of the loans is generally (a) 220 (b) 340
described as (c) 240 (d) 145
(a) Para banking (e) None of these
(b) Sub-prime lending 42. 1.5 0.025 + (?)2 = 0.1
(c) Retail lending (a) 0.28 (b) 0.27
(d) Non-priority sector lending (c) 0.25 (d) 0.235
(e) Priority sector lending (e) None of these
34. Which committee was constituted to examine drug approval 43. 1.52 0.0225 ?
procedure?
(a) 0.3375 (b) 3.275
(a) P N Tandon committee
(c) 32.75 (d) 0.0375
(b) V M Katoch committee (e) None of these
(c) Aggarwal committee
44. 0.0289 12 1.5 ?
(d) Pandey committee
(e) none of these (a) 1.36 (b) 2.06
(c) 13.90 (d) 14.80
35. Which state of India is considered as cradle of modern Polo?
(e) None of these
(a) Assam (b) Manipur
45. 125% of 260 + ?% of 700 = 500
(c) Jharkhand (d) Haryana
(a) 32 (b) 56
(e) none of these (c) 23 (d) 46
36. With which country India signed a MoU on the establishment (e) None of these
of the Academic Chair in Ayurveda?
46. 45% of 750 25% of 480 = ?
(a) Thailand (b) China (a) 216 (b) 217.50
(c) Sri Lanka (d) South Korea (c) 245 (d) 236.50
37. As per NSSO report, which state has recorded highest
literacy rate?
47. 758.5 753.8 75?
(a) Mizoram (b) Andhra Pradesh (a) 4.9 (b) 3.6
(c) Kerala (d) Punjab (c) 3.3 (d) 4.7
38. Which one of the following correctly represents the world's 48. 39798 + 3798 + 378 = ?
top three largest mobile operators? (a) 49532 (b) 43984
(c) 43974 (d) 43576
(a) China mobile, Vodafone and Airtel
(e) None of these
(b) Vodafone, China mobile and Airtel
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222 SPEED TEST 98
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7 3 1 58. A man arranges to pay off a debt of Rs 3,600 in 40 annual
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49. 3 7 1 ?
instalments which form an AP. When 30 of the instalments
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11 11 2
b
10 6 are paid, he dies leaving one-third of the debt unpaid. Find
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(a) 13 (b) 14 the value of the first instalment.
11 11
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9 17 (a) 55 (b) 53
(c) 14 (d) 10
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(e) None of these
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(e) None of these
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59. A tank 30 m long, 20 m wide and 12 m deep is dug in a field
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50. 1080 12 10 = ?
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(a) 900 (b) 90 500 m long and 30 m wide. By how much will the level of the
m
(c) 120 (d) 12 field rise, if the earth dug out of the tank is evenly spread
(e) None of these over the field?
51. The number zero (0) is surrounded by the same 2-digit (a) 0.33 m (b) 0.5 m
number on both (left and right) the sides; for example, 25025, (c) 0.25 m (d) 0.4 m
67067, etc. The largest number that always divides such a (e) None of these
number is DIRECTIONS (Qs. 60-64) : Find the next term in the given series
(a) 7 (b) 11 in each of the questions below.
(c) 13 (d) 1001 60. 198, 194, 185, 169, ....
52. The number of 3-digit number exactly divisible by 5 is (c) 9 (d) 92
61. 6, 9, 7, 10, 8, 11, ....
(c) 179 (d) 199 (a) 12 (b) 13
53. If a certain sum of money becomes double at simple interest (e) None of these
in 12 years, what would be the rate of interest per annum ? 62. 5, 6, 8, 9, 11, ....
(a) 15 (b) 12
(a) 8 1 (b) 10
3 (c) 17 (d) 20
(e) None of these
(c) 12 (d) 14
63. 35, 30, 25, 20, 15, 10, ....
(e) None of these
(a) 15 (b) 10
54. Three successive discounts of 10%, 12% and 15% amount
(c) 5 (d) 2
to a single discount of
(e) None of these
(a) 36.28 % (b) 34.68%
64. 0, 2, 6, 12, 20, ....
(c) 37 % (d) 32.68%
(a) 38 (b) 30
(e) None of these
(c) 45 (d) 60
55. The ratio of the prices of two houses A and B was 4 : 5 last
(e) None of these
year. This year, the price of A is increased by 25% and that
of B by ` 50000. If their prices are now in the ratio 9 : 10, the DIRECTIONS (Qs. 65-70): Find out the approximate value which
price of A last year was should replace the question mark (?) in the following questions.
(a) ` 3,60,000 (b) ` 4,50,000 (You are not expected to find out the exact value).
(c) ` 4,80,000 (d) ` 5,00,000 65. 10609 7938.81 ?
(e) None of these
56. During a journey of 80 km a train covers first 60km with a (a) 9200 (b) 81973.
speed of 40 km/h and completes the remaining distance with (c) 8553.3 (d) 8682.7
a speed of 20 km/h. What is the average speed of the train (e) None of these
during the whole journey? 3 ?
(a) 30 km/h (b) 32 km/h 66. (13)2 2197
(c) 36 km/h (d) 40 km/h
(e) None of these 1
(a) 3 (b)
57. An aeroplane takes off 30 minutes later than the scheduled 3
time and in order to reach its destination 1500 km away in (c) 0.5 (d) 4
time, it has to increase its speed by 250 km/h from its usual (e) None of these
speed. Find its usual speed. 67. 18.4% of 656 + 12.7% of 864 = ?
(a) 1000 km/h (b) 750 km/h (a) 253 (b) 231
(c) 850 km/h (d) 650 km/h (c) 211 (d) 241
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SPEED TEST 98 223
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68. (98.4)2 + (33.6)2 = ?
Part-III : Reasoning
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(a) 10812 (b) 18012
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(c) 10910 (d) 18102 81. If football is called cricket, cricket is called basketball
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(e) None of these basketball is called badminton, badminton is called
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69. 8959 ? 4 5 = 26.35 volleyball, volleyball is called hockey and hockey is
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(a) 15 (b) 25 called golf, which of the following games is not played
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(c) 30 (d) 17 using a ball ?
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(e) None of these (a) Volleyball (b) Basketball
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70. 3739 + 164 27 = ? (c) Hockey (d) Cricket
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(a) 10540 (b) 4000 (e) None of these
(c) 8400 (d) 8200 82. If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the
(e) None of these First, Second, Third and Fifth letters of the word
71. Rajeev consistently runs 415 meters every day except on TECHNOLOGY, which of the following would be the third
Sunday when he runs 500 meters. How many kilometers will letter of that word ? If no such word can be made, give X as
he run in two weeks-? (in this question week starts from your answer and if more than one such word can be formed,
Monday)
give your answer as Y.
(a) 5.98 kms. (b) 5.86 kms.
(a) C (b) T
(c) 5.96 kms. (d) 5.88 knis.
(c) N (d) X
(e) None of these
(e) Y
72. Amit got 44 marks in Hindi. 55 marks in Science. 77 marks in
Maths. 79 marks in Social Science and 76 marks in English. 83. If each of the digits in the number 92581473 are arranged in
The maximum marks of each subject are 100. How much ascending order, what will be the difference between the
overall percentage of marks did he get? digits which are fourth from the right and third from the left
(a) 66.2 (b) 64.2 in the new arrangement ?
(c) 72.2 (d) 74.2 (a) One (b) Two
(e) None of these (c) Three (d) Four
(e) None
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 73 - 75) : What will come in place of question
mark (?) in the following number series? 84. In a certain code ja ki mo pe means at a frogs leap, mo la
73. 7 11 19 35 67 (?) ki so means take a leap ahead and re bo ja na means
(a) 121 (b) 153 insects are frogs diet. Which of the following is the code
(c) 141 (d) 133 for at in that language ?
(e) None of these (a) ja (b) pe
74. 5 6 10 19 35 (?) (c) bo (d) re
(c) 60 (d) 70 85. If in a certain language WEAK is coded as 9%2$ and SKIT
(e) None of these is coded as #$7@, then how will WAIT be coded in the
75. 1 3 8 18 35 (?) same language ?
(a) 61 (b) 72 (a) 9267 (b) 9276
(c) 67 (d) 52 (c) 92 @ 6 (d) 9 @ 67
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 76 - 80) : In each of these questions an equation 86. How many meaningful three letter English words can be
is given with a question mark (?) in place of a correct symbol. formed with the letters WNO, using each letter only once in
Based on the values on the right hand side and the left hand side each word ?
of the question mark. you have to decide which of the following (a) None (b) One
symbols will correct in place of the question mark. (c) Two (d) Three
Give answer If in place of question mark (?) (e) Four
following will come 87. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so
(a) > (greater than), form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that
(b) = (equal to) group ?
(c) < (lesser than) (a) Clutch (b) Wheel
(d) (either greater than or equal to) (c) Break (d) Car
(e) (either lesser than or equal to) (e) Gear
76. [(7 3) + 12] ? [ 225 15 ] 88. How many such pairs of letters are there in word SENDING,
77. [( 324 49)]?( 121) each of which has as many letters between its two letters as
78. [(34 (2)2 5]) ? [16 8 + (4 x 4)] there are between them in the English alphabets ?
79. [133 (88 72)] ? [(7)2 3] (a) None (b) One
(c) Two (d) Three
80. 21 3 + (54 9) ? [(160 60) 4) (e) More than three
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224 SPEED TEST 98
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89. Each vowel of the word GLADIOLUS is substituted with 96. In the expression P R S how is P related to S ?
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the next letter of the English alphabetical series, and each (a) Father (b) Grandfather
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b
consonant is substituted with the letter preceding it. How (c) Grandson (d) Sister
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many vowels are present in the new arrangement ? (e) None of these
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(a) Four (b) One 97. Which of the following means S is son-in-law of P?
p
(c) Two (d) Three (a) P + R S (b) P R S
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(e) None of these (c) P + R S (d) P R + S
s
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90. In a certain code THEN is written as VFGL. How is WORD (e) None of these
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98. In the expression P Q + S how is S related to P?
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written in that code ?
m
(a) UQPF (b) YMTB (a) Mother
(c) YMVB (d) VQFP (b) Father
(e) None of these (c) Brother
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 91-95) : In each of these questions a group of
(e) None of these
letters is given followed by four combinations of number/symbol
99. How is P related to S in the expression P R S?
numbered (a), (b), (c) and (d). Letters are to be coded as per the (a) Brother (b) Wife
scheme and conditions given below. You have to find out the serial (c) Son (d) Sister
number of the combination, which represents the letter group. (e) None of these
Serial number of the combination is your answer. If none of the 100. How is S related to P in the expression P + R S?
combinations is correct, your answer is (e) i.e. None of these. (a) Son (b) Daughter
Letters M B D K Q L I R J S N P A E G (c) Daughter- in - law (d) Sister
Number/ (e) None of these
@ 3 7 % * 4 # 1 2 8 5 9 $ 6
Symbol DIRECTIONS (Qs. 101-105) : Study the sets of numbers given
below and answer the questions, which follow :
Conditions :
972 682 189 298 751
(i) If the first letter is a vowel and the last a consonant, both are
101. If one is added to the lowest number and two is added to
to be coded as the code for the consonant.
the highest number, what will be the difference between the
(ii) If the first letter is a consonant and the last a vowel, the
second digit of the smallest number and third digit of the
codes for the first and the last are to be interchanged.
highest number ?
(iii) If no vowel is present in the group of letters, the first and
(a) 5 (b) 7
the last letters are to be coded as .
(c) 9 (d) 8
91. GQRDBN
(e) None of these
(a) * 173 (b) 6*1738 102. If in each number, first and the last digits are interchanged,
(c) 6*1736 (d) 8*1738 which of the following will be the third highest number ?
92. IPEBQS (c) 189 (d) 298
(a) #5$3* (b) #53$*# (e) 751
(c) 5$3* (d) 5$3*# 103. If in each number, all the three digits are arranged in
(e) None of these descending order, which of the following will be the third
93. RMAPSI highest number?
(a) 1@95# (b) 1@951 (a) 972 (b) 682
(c) #@95# (d) #@951 (c) 189 (d) 298
94. AREMQN 104. If in each number, second and the third digits are
(a) 91$@*8 (b) 81$@*8 interchanged, what will be the sum of first digit of the
(c) 81$@*9 (d) 91$@*9 smallest number and last digit of the highest number ?
95. KJBPRD (c) 9 (d) 8
(a) 923517 (b) 723517 (e) None of these
(c) %23519 (d) 2915 105. If one is added to the smaller odd number and one is
(e) None of these subtracted from the higher odd number, which of the
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 96-100) : Read the following information following will be obtained if the second digit of the higher
carefully and answer the questions, which follow : number is subtracted from the second digit of the lower
A B means A is daughter of B,. number so formed ?
A + B means A is wife of B (a) 6 (b) 5
(c) 4 (d) 3
A B means A is father of B
(e) 2
A B means A is son of B.
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SPEED TEST 98 225
a
h
b
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 106-110) : In each of the questions below are 111. Which of the following groups represents the three ladies
o
in the group ?
o
given three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I
b
and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if (a) N, P, L (b) P, L, N
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they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read (c) L, N, O (d) O, P, L
o
rd
both of the conclusions and then decide which of the given (e) None of these
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conclusions logically follows from the given statements 112. Who is married to Q ?
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disregarding commonly known facts. (a) N (b) O
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Read the statements and conclusions which follow it and (c) L (d) Cant be determined
.c
Give answer (a) if only conclusion I is true.
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(e) None of these
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Give answer (b) if only conclusion II is true. 113. Who among the following family members is an architect ?
Give answer (c) if either conclusion I or conclusion II is true. (a) L (b) O
Give answer (d) if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true. (c) P (d) Cant be determined
Give answer (e) if both conclusions I and II are true. (e) None of these
106. Statements : 114. Which of the following is the profession of P ?
No pen is a mobile.
(a) Architect (b) Pilot
Some mobiles are bottles.
(c) Architect or pilot (d) Journalist
All bottles are papers.
(e) None of these
Conclusions :
I. Some papers are pens. 115. How is Q related to O ?
II. All bottles are pens. (a) Father (b) Mother
107. Statements : (c) Mother-in- law (d) Son - in - law
All computers are radios. (e) None of these
All radios are televisions. 116. If in the number 5608391467, the position of the first and the
Some televisions are watches. sixth digits are interchanged, the second and seventh digits
Conclusions : are interchanged and so on upto the fifth and the tenth
I. Some watches are computers. digits. Then which will be the fourth digit from the left end
II Some televisions are computers. after interchange?
108. Statements : (a) 1 (b) 6
Some desks are chairs. (c) 8 (d) 3
Some chairs are doors. (e) None of these
Some doors are walls. 117. What will come next in the following series?
Conclusions : ababcabcdabcdeabcdefabcd
I. Some walls are chairs. (a) g (b) f
II. No chair is a wall. (c) e (d) a
109. Statements :
(e) None of these
All stars are fishes.
Some fishes are moons. DIRECTIONS (Qs. 118-120) : Study the following paragraph
All moons are birds. and answer the questions that follow :
Conclusions : History as a discipline has always attracted the imagination
I. Some birds are fishes. of the students because of its simple, lucid and easy to
II. Some stars are moons. comprehend nature. At the same time it is vast and time consuming
110. Statements : therefore it becomes imperative to plan a comprehensive strategy
All leaves are roots. to ensure a sound preparation. The nature of the subject is itself
All stems are roots. static however the questions asked over the last few years compels
All roots are flowers. us to understand the dynamics of the discipline as well as the
Conclusions : forces, trends and patterns including institutions that have shaped
1. Some flowers are stems. history at any given point of time.
II. Some flowers are leaves. 118. The passage best support the statement that
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 111-115) : Study the following information (a) History has a short and lucid curriculum to study so it
carefully to answer these questions. attracts the students.
A group of people has six family members and an advocate. (b) History has an extensive curriculum and its questions
These are L, M, N, O, P, Q and R and having different professions. are time taking.
Each one of them is a journalist, businessman, architect, doctor (c) History is lucid and easy discipline. So, it does not
and pilot but not necessarily in this order. There are three males
need a comprehensive strategic to ensure a sound
and three females in the family out of which there are two married
preparation.
couples. M is a businessman and is the father of P. N is a housewife
(d) History is an important subject in the examination point
and is daughter-in-law of O. L is neither a pilot nor a journalist. R
of view.
is an advocate. N is not the mother of P and O is not married to M.
No lady is a journalist. (e) None of these
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226 SPEED TEST 98
a
h
b
119. Which of the following assumption which can be implicit in 128. What contains the computer BIOS and maintains its data
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the facts stated in the above passage? with the use of a battery for periods when the system is
o
b
(a) History is an important subject for the competition powered down ?
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points of view. (a) CMOS (b) RAM
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(b) Nature of this subject is static. (c) DRAM (d) CPU
p
(c) A comprehensive strategy is needed to ensure a sound (e) None of these
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preparation of history. 129. In database, a field is a
s
s
(d) History attracts the student with its easy nature. (a) label
.c
(e) None of these (b) table of information
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120. Which of the following is a conclusion which can be drawn (c) group of related records
from the facts stated in the above passage. (d) category of information
(a) History is an easy subject nevertheless students do (e) None of these
not like to opt it as an optional paper. 130. A single click on one of the program icons will bring the
(b) History is a boring and wearisome subject. window up. Which of the following displays programs that
(c) There is not enough study material for the sound are currently running ?
preparation of history. (a) Menu bar (b) Task bar
(d) Questions are not being asked from history in the (c) Title bar (d) Status bar
competitive exams. (e) None of these
(e) None of these 131. The word processing task associated with changing the
appearance of documents is
Part-IV : Computer Knowledge (a) Writing (b) Formatting
121. To prepare a presentation / slide show, which application is (c) Editing (d) Storing
commonly used ? (e) None of these
(a) Photoshop (b) Powerpoint 132. Which part is the brain of the computer
(c) Outlook express (d) Internet explorer (a) CPU (b) Monitor
(e) All correct (c) RAM (d) ROM
122. A device that connects to a network without the use of (e) None of these
cables is said to be 133. Which type of memory is closely related to processor?
(a) distributed (b) wireless (a) Main memory (b) Secondary memory
(c) centralized (d) open source (c) Disk memory (d) Tape memory
123. What is backup ? 134. Computers send and receive data in the form of ______
signals
(a) Adding more components to your network
(a) analog (b) digital
(b) Protecting data by copying it from the original source
(c) modulated (d) demodulated
to a different destination
(e) All of these
(c) Filtering old data from the new data
135. Checking that a pin code number is valid before it is entered
(d) Accessing data on tape
into the system in an example of
(e) None of these
(a) error correction (b) backup and recovery
124. The blinking symbol on the computer screen is called the
(c) data preparation (d) data validation
(a) mouse (b) hand
(e) None of these
(c) light (d) cursor
136. An example of a telecommunications device is a
(e) None of these
(a) keyboard (b) mouse
125. _________. cells involves creating a single cell by
(c) printer (d) modem
combining two or more selected cells. (e) None of these
(a) Formatting (b) Merging 137. In Excel, chart are created using which option?
(c) Embedding (d) Splitting (a) Chart Wizard (b) Pivot Table
(e) None of these (c) Pie Chart (d) Bar Chart
126. The _________, also called the Web, contains billions of (e) None of these
documents. 138. The network connecting several computers all over the world
(a) World Wide Web (b) HTTP is
(c) Web Portal (d) Domain (a) Intranet (b) Internet
(e) None of these (c) ARPnet (d) Network
127. The ________ becomes different shapes depending on the (e) LAN
task you are performing. 139. The keys labelled 0-9 on the keyboard are called
(a) active tab (b) insertion point (a) Function keys (b) Numeric keys
(c) mouse printer (d) ribbon (c) Typewriter keys (d) Special keys
(e) None of these (e) Alpha keys
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SPEED TEST 98 227
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b
140. What characteristic of read-only memory (ROM) makes it 148. What type of software is most useful for the creation of
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useful? brochures. posters, and newsletters?
o
b
(a) ROM information can be easily updated (a) spreadsheet software.
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(b) Data in ROM is nonvolatile, that is, it remains there (b) web authoring software
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even without electrical power (c) multimedia authoring software
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(c) ROM provides very large amounts of inexpensive data (d) desktop publishing software
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storage (e) None of these
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(d) ROM chips are easily swapped between different 149. In order to Sqve an .existing docu-ment with a different
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brands of computers name you need to
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(e) None of these (a) Retype the document and give it a different name
141. Selecting the Zoom command (b) Use the Save as .. command
(a) opens a copy of the document in a different view (c) Copy and paste the original document to a new
(b) prints a copy of the displayed document document and then-save
(c) changes the magnification of the displayed document (d) Use Windows Explorer to copy the document to a
(d) saves a copy of the displayed document different location and-then rename it
142. Name the hardware equpment that a computer is made up of 150. A(n) __ is a program that makes the computer easier to use.
(a) monitor, the central processing unit (CPU), the (a) application (b) utility
keyboard, mouse software, and network (c) network (d) operating system
(b) monitor, the central processing unit (CPU), the (e) None of these
keyboard, mouse, programs and net-work 151. The most important or powerful computer in a typical
(c) monitor. the central processing unit (CPU), the network.
keyboard. mouse, printer and modem (a) desktop (b) network station
(d) monitor, the central processing unit (CPU), the (c) network client (d) network server
keyboard, mouse. applications and network (e) None of these
(e) None of these 152. Arithmetic operations
143. Where are programs and data kept while the processor is (a) involve matching one data item to another to determine
usingthem? if the first item is greater than. equal to. or less than the
(a) Main memory (b) Secondary memory other item
(c) Disk memory (d) Program memory (b) sort data items according to standard. predefined
(e) None of these' criteria in ascending order or de-scending order
144. In order to e-mail a Word document from within Word (c) use conditions with operators such as AND. OR, and
(a) Go to File/Send To/Mail Recipient NOT
(b) Save the file as an email attachment (d) include addition, subtraction, multiplication and
(c) Start Outlook and attach the file while open in Word division
(d) This is an impossible operation (e) None of these
(e) None of these 153. A chat is
145. Hardware includes (a) an Internet standard that allows users to upload and
(a) all devices used to input data into a computer download mes
(b) sets instructions that a computer runs or executes (b) a typed conversation that takes place on a computer
(c) the computer and all the devices connected to it that (c) an online area in which users conduct written
are used to input and output data discussions about a particular subject
(d) all devices involved in processing information (d) the transmission of messages and files via a computer
including the central processing unit memory and network
storage (e) None of these
(e) None of these 154. are lists of commands that appear on the screen.
146. Files deleted from the hard disk are sent to the (a) GUIs (b) Icons
(a) recycle Bin (b) floppy disk (c) Menus (d) Windows
(c) clipboard (d) motherboard (e) None of these
(e) None of these 155. The Internet is
147. The process of a computer receiving information from a (a) a large network of networks
server on the internet is known as (b) an internal communication system for a business
(a) pulling (b) pushing (c) a communication system for the Indian government
(c) downloading (d) transferring (d) All of these
(e) None of these (e) None of thoese
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228 SPEED TEST 98
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b
156. The __ key and the __ key can be used in combination with She would take the banana crop to market and get a good price.
o
other keys to perform shortcuts and special tasks. Over the years the plantation grew and finally after six years
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b
(a) Control. Alt (b) Function, toggle Govind had five litres of dew. He went to the sage who smiled,
.w
(c) Delete. Insert (d) Caps Lock. Num Lock uttered a mantra and sprinkled a few drops of dew on a copper
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(e) None of these vessel. To Govinds dismay, nothing happened. you have cheated
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157. Each __ on a menu perfOl-ms a specific action. me! he shouted at the sage.
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(a) client (b) server The sage however smiled. Govinds wife then came forward
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(c) node (d) command with a box. The sage opened it and revealed stacks of gold coins
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(e) None of these inside. Turning to Govind he said, you worked hard on your
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158. The becomes different shapes depending on the task you land and created a plantation. Your wife sold the produce in the
are performing. market. It was your hard work which created this wealth, not magic.
(a) active tab (b) insertion point If I had told you this earlier, you would not have listened. Govind
(c) mouse pointer (d) ribbon understood the wisdom behind the sages words and worked
(e) None of these even harder from that day on.
159. The __ manual tells,You how to use a software program. 161. Why did Govinds father give him large tracts of land?
(a) documentation (b) programming (a) It was his way of instilling a sense of responsibility in
(c) technical (d) user his son
(e) None of these (b) Govind was his only son and sole heir
160. The feature in Word auto matically corrects certain spelling. (c) To provide Govind with sufficient funds to pursue his
typing, capitalization, or grammar errors. interest of discovering a magic potion
(a) Auto Fix (b) Auto Spell (d) He wanted Govind to continue to look after the tenants
(c) Auto Mark (d) Auto Correct (e) None of these
(e) None of these 162. Which of the following can be said about the sage?
(a) He was cunning and plotted with Govinds wife to cheat
Part-V : English Language him.
(b) He had no magical powers as such and used to swindle
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 161-172) : Read the following passage
people
carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words
(c) He was a good judge of people
have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering
(d) He did not deserve his good reputation
some of the questions.
(e) He was dishonest because he had cheated Govind out
Govinds father was a rich landlord, who was loved and of his gold
respected by all his tenants. When he died, he left large tracts of 163. Why was Govinds wife worried ?
land to Govind. But Govind did not spend a single day looking (a) Govind had no knowledge of farming and could not
after his land. He had a funny idea, that there existed a magic cultivate the land he had inherited from his father
potion which, if it was poured on any object, would turn it into (b) Govind had not friends because he was obsessed with
gold. He spent all his time trying to learn more about this potion. finding a potion which would turn any thing into gold
People took advantage of him and cheated him. His wife grew (c) Govind was only interested in studying under different
anxious. Given the amount of money Govind was spending, she sages and neglected his family duties
was sure that they would soon be paupers. (d) Since Govind had devoted all his time and wealth to
One day, a widely respected sage who had been to the finding a magic potion, they would soon be poor
Himalayas came to their town. Govind asked him about the potion. (e) Govinds experiments to find a magic potion were
To his surprise the sage answered, I have learnt how to brew dangerous
such a potion. But it is a difficult process. Tell me! insisted 164. Why did Govinds wife help him in the fields?
Govind, hardly able to believe his luck. You have to collect the A. To support her husband in his endeavour to find a
dew which settles on the leaves of a banana tree every morning magic potion.
during winter. There is a condition, though. The tree should be B. The sage had advised her to help her husband succeed.
planted and watered regularly with your own hands. Store the C. He needed someone to help him collect the dew.
collected dew in an earthen vessel and when you have five litres, (a) Only (B) (b) Only (A)
bring it to me. I will recite a sacred mantra to transform the dew (c) Both (A) and (B) (d) All (A), (B) and (C)
into the potion. A drop of the potion will be sufficient to change (e) None of these
any object into gold. 165. Why did Govind decide to cultivate a banana crop?
Govind was worried Winter is only for a few months in the (a) The soil of his land was suitable only for cultivating bananas
year. It will take me years to collect the dew. You can plant as (b) It was the most highly priced commodity in the region
many trees as you want, replied the sage. Govind went home (c) It could be grown at any time of the year including winter
and after talking to his wife, began clearing the large fields which (d) His wife pressurised him to do so
has been lying vacant for years. He planted rows of banana (e) The ingredient for the magic potion could only be
saplings. He tended them with great care. His wife helped him too. obtained from a banana tree
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SPEED TEST 98 229
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b
166. What made Govind angry with the sage? 174. Use a tactic for mixing the inferior with good quality rice is
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(a) The sage had conspired with Govinds wife against dishonest and you will lose your license.
o
b
him (a) Using tacti as (b) Using a tactic like
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(b) He had forgotten the magic spell and all Govinds hard (c) To use tactics (d) Used to tactics like
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work was in vain
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(c) He had lost a good deal of money in cultivating 175. The company will invest more six hundred crores in the
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bananas next five years to expand its operations in Britain.
s
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(d) The sage had made a fool of him in front of other (a) will in future invest
.c
villagers
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(b) has invested more than
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(e) None of these
(c) have invested over
167. How did Govind acquire his dream of gold finally ?
(d) will be invested above
(a) The sage gave him gold as a reward for his hard work
was in vain
176. Several of our projects have delayed because the equipment
(b) His wife diligently saved the gold he had received from
his father we ordered was delivered late.
(c) By selling the bananas grown in the plantation (a) have been delayed when
(d) His wife sold bananas at a higher price than others did (b) delayed because of
(e) None of these (c) are delayed since
168. Which of the following is TRUE in the context of the passage? (d) were delayed with
A. Govind was easily fooled by people (e) No correction required
B. Govind was perserving by nature 177. The committee has ruled out the possible raising taxes for
C. The sage had never actually been to the Himalayas this financial year.
(a) Only (A) (b) Both (A) and (B) (a) possibly raised (b) possible rise of
(c) Only (C) (d) Both (A) and (C) (c) possibility to raise (d) possibility of raising
(e) None of these (e) No correction required
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 169-170) : Choose the word which is most DIRECTIONS (Qs. 178-182) : Rearrange the following six
similar in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper sequence
passage. to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given
169. SPEND below them.
(a) pay (b) bought A. The hall was filled with children, teachers, students, family
(c) devote (d) settle members and those who were close to him.
(e) empty B. Normally such ceremonies are attended by important people
170. LYING like industrialists, politicians and VIPs.
(a) sleeping (b) dishonest C. What I saw when I stepped into the hall amazed me.
(c) relaxing (d) remaining D. I went home with the feeling that it was a most unusual oath
(e) untruthful
taking ceremony with only those who were important to
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 171-172) : Choose the word which is most him present.
opposite in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the E. When he was elected President, he invited me to the swearing
passage. in ceremony in the Central Hall of Parliament.
171. DISMAY F. However in this case everyone who attended the ceremony
(a) joy (b) interest seemed to know him personally.
(c) desire (d) humour 178. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after
(e) luck rearrangement ?
172. TENDED (a) A (b) B
(a) negligible (b) watched (c) C (d) D
(c) inclined (d) ignored (e) E
(e) spoil
179. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 173-177) : Which of the following phrases after rearrangement ?
(a), (b), (c) and (d) given below each sentences should replace the (a) B (b) C
phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically (c) D (d) E
correct? If the sentence is correct as it is given and No correction (e) F
is required, mark (e) as the answer. 180. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after
173. Starting out my own business at this time would affect the rearrangement ?
financial stability of my family. (a) A (b) B
(a) Starting up my (b) For starting with (c) C (d) D
(c) To start out mine (d) By starting my
(e) E
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230 SPEED TEST 98
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b
181. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after 191. (a) severe (b) no
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rearrangement ?
o
(c) additionally (d) variety
b
(a) B (b) C (e) plenty
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(c) D (d) E 192. (a) time (b) process
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(e) F (c) return (d) event
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(e) action
sentence after rearrangement ?
s
193. (a) neglected (b) abandoned
s
(a) A (b) B
.c
(c) defaulted (d) depended
o
(c) C (d) D
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(e) disappointed
(e) E
194. (a) benefit (b) easier
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 183-187) : Read each sentence to find out
(c) reckless (d) disorganised
whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it.
(e) secure
The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number
195. (a) sense (b) confidence
of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (e).
(Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.) (c) challenge (d) doubt
(e) believe
183. His proposal had (a) / to be send to (b) / the President of the
company (c) / for her approval (d). No error (e). DIRECTIONS (Qs. 196 to 200): In each of the following sentences,
184. Each tuesday evening we visited (a) / the farmers in the an idiomatic expression or a proverb is highlighted. Select the
area (b) / and held a meeting (c) / to discuss the problems alternative which best describes its use in the sentence.
they faced (c). No error (e). 196. Having sold off his factory, he is now a gentleman at large.
185. Though our training facilities (a) / are limited only a (b) / few (a) Has no serious occupation
employees have been (c) / selected for training (d). No error (b) Is living comfortably
(e). (c) Is respected by everybody
186. During the interview (a) / the panel asked me (b) / several (d) Is held in high esteem
technical questions (c) / and I answered all of it (d). No error
(e) None of these
(e).
197. Though he has lot of money, yet all his plans are built upon
187. He decided to work for (a) / an NGO, but most of his (b) /
sand.
classmates opted for high paid (c) / jobs in multinational
(a) established on insecure foundations
companies (d). No error (e).
(b) based on inexperience
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 188-195) : In the following passage there
(c) resting on cheap material
are blanks each of which has been numbered. These numbers
(d) resting on immature ideas
are printed below the passage and against each, five words are
(e) None of these
suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the
approptiate words in each case. 198. His plan was so complicated that it floored his listeners.
When we 188 started thirty years ago in 1977, we did not (a) entertained
know anything about how to run a bank for the poor. We therefore (b) puzzled
looked at how others ran their operations and 189 from their (c) annoyed
mistakes. In Bangladesh, conventional banks and credit co- (d) encouraged
operatives always 190 lump sum repayments. This created 191 (e) None of these
problems because repaying in a lump sum was a mental hurdle for 199. There has been bad blood between the two communities
borrowers. They tended to delay repayment and get further into even before shouting.
debt in the 192. In the end they usually 193 totally on the loan, (a) impure blood
which was a loss to the bank. In structuring our own loans, I (b) ill feeling
decided to ask for a daily payment, Monitoring repayment was (c) bloody fights
194 and it filled people with 195 that they could repay their loans. (d) quarrels
188. (a) firstly (b) freshly (e) None of these
(c) foremost (d) initially 200. The curious neighbors were disappointed as the young
(e) recently couple's quarrel was just a storm in a tea cup.
189. (a) copied (b) observed (a) violent quarrel
(c) learned (d) understood (b) fuss about a trifle
(e) improving (c) brittle situation
190. (a) asked (b) insisted (d) quarrel about tea cups
(c) demanded (d) settled (e) None of these
(e) lend
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SPEED TEST 98 231
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RESPONSE SHEET
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1. 51. 101. 151.
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102.
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2. 52. 152.
3. 53. 103. 153.
4. 54. 104. 154.
5. 55. 105. 155.
6. 56. 106. 156.
7. 57. 107. 157.
8. 58. 108. 158.
9. 59. 109. 159.
10. 60. 110. 160.
11. 61. 111. 161.
12. 62. 112. 162.
13. 63. 113. 163.
14. 64. 114. 164.
15. 65. 115. 165.
16. 66. 116. 166.
17. 67. 117. 167.
18. 68. 118. 168.
19. 69. 119. 169.
20. 70. 120. 170.
21. 71. 121. 171.
22. 72. 122. 172.
23. 73. 123. 173.
24. 74. 124. 174.
25. 75. 125. 175.
26. 76. 126. 176.
27. 77. 127. 177.
28. 78. 128. 178.
29. 79. 129. 179.
30. 80. 130. 180.
31. 81. 131. 181.
32. 82. 132. 182.
33. 83. 133. 183.
34. 84. 134. 184.
35. 85. 135. 185.
36. 86. 136. 186.
37. 87. 137. 187.
38. 88. 138. 188.
39. 89. 139. 189.
40. 90. 140. 190.
41. 91. 141. 191.
42. 92. 142. 192.
43. 93. 143. 193.
44. 94. 144. 194.
45. 95. 145. 195.
46. 96. 146. 196.
47. 97. 147. 197.
48. 98. 148. 198.
49. 99. 149. 199.
50. 100. 150. 200.
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SPEED TEST 98
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IBPS BANK CLERK MAIN TEST - 3
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Part-I : General Awareness with Special reference 7. "The set of directive principles issued by the Central Bank
of a country or the process adopted by it to control the
to Banking Industry supply of money, availability of money, cost of money and
1. Bank rate is decided by which of the following? rate of interest, etc, in order to bring stability and growth of
(a) RBI (b) Govt. of India the economy" are commonly known as
(c) SEBI (d) IBA (a) Monetary policy of the Central Bank of the country
(e) NABARD
(b) Budget of the Govt.
2. FDI refers to
(a) Fixed Deposit Interest (c) Profit and Loss Account
(b) Fixed Deposit Investment (d) Business Policy of the Bank
(c) Foreign Direct Investment (e) None of the above
(d) Future Derivative Investment 8. As we see every day, many Indian banks are in close
(e) None of these competition to open their branches/offices in various
3. Which of the following terms is used in Banking? countries. What benefit will the Indian economy have if
(a) Epicenter (b) Pascal's Law banks open branches in a foreign country?
(c) Currency (d) Centre of Gravity (A) It will bring substantial economic benefits to India
(e) Latitude and also to the countries where branches will be
4. Teaser Rates are related to which of the following types of opened
loans?
(B) It will help in smooth inflow of FDI, long term capital
(a) Home Loans (b) Personal Loans
inflow and also technical know-how to India
(c) Auto Loans (d) Reverse Mortgage Loans
(e) Crop Loans (C) It will give better opportunities to Indians to visit
5. As we all know, the major source of income of the banks is foreign nations and get better facilities like education,
lending money (providing credit) and earning interest on it. medical treatment etc.
In normal circumstances, the demand of the credit comes (a) Only (A) (b) Only (B)
mainly from which of the following sectors?
(c) Only (C) (d) Only (A) and (B)
(A) Personal Loans
(B) Priority Sector Lending and Bailout Packages (e) All (A), (B) and (C)
(C) Project Finance 9. When the Reserve-Bank says that the Rupee is over-valued,
(a) Only (A) (b) Only (B) it means
(c) Only (C) (d) All (A), (B) and (C) (a) RBI has shortage of hard currency and it has to order
(e) None of these for printing of new notes to the press concerned
6. Many banks have launched/floated their subsidiaries which (b) Rupee is appreciating against other currencies whereas
are fully owned by them. Banks launch subsidiaries normally other currencies are weakening against US Dollar
for which of the following businesses?
(c) Money is locked in banks and people do not have
(A) Home Loan Business
enough to make their day to day purchases. It is a
(B) To sell Insurance Policies strategy which brings the inflation down
(C) To control Online Operations or Internet Banking
(d) More and more people are selling their stocks. As a
business
result stock market may crash, as there is no hard
(a) Only (A) (b) Only (B)
cash for such voluminous transactions
(c) Only (C) (d) All (A), (B) and (C)
(e) None of these
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234 SPEED TEST 99
a
h
b
10. RBI's open market operation transactions are carried out 17. Which car maker was the first to launch a LPG powered car
o
with a view to regulate
o
in India?
b
(a) liquidity in the economy
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(a) Hyundai (b) Maruti
(b) prices of essential commodities
o
(c) Honda (d) Fiat
rd
(c) inflation (e) None of these
p
re
(d) borrowing power of the banks 18. Which company under the brand name "Vardaan" sells low-
s
(e) All of the above
s
priced television sets in the rural and semi-rural markets?
.c
11. The bank rate means (a) Videocon (b) Panasonic
o
m
(a) rate of interest charged by commercial banks from (c) BPL (d) Philips
borrowers
(e) None of these
(b) rate of interest at which commercial banks discounted
19. 'Nobody delivers Kerala better' is the punch line of which
bills of their borrowers
newspaper daily?
(c) rate of interest allowed by commercial banks on their
deposits (a) Malyala Manorama (b) Mathrabhumi
(d) rate at which RBI purchases or rediscounts bills of (c) The Hindu (d) The Week
exchange of commercial banks (e) None of these
(e) None of the above 20. What is the full form of ADAG?
12. What is an Indian Depository Receipt? (a) Additional District Authority Group
(a) A deposit account with a Public Sector Bank (b) Area Development and Group
(b) A depository account with any depositories in India (c) Army Development and Growth
(c) An instrument in the form of depository receipt (d) Anil Dhirubhai Ambani Group
created by an Indian depository against underlying (e) None of these
equity shares of the issuing company
21. 'Your potential, Our Passion' is the punchline of which of
(d) An instrument in the form of deposit receipt issued
the following?
by Indian depositories
(a) Oracle (b) Microsoft
13. An instrument that derives its value from a specified (c) IBM (d) HCL
underlying (currency, gold, stocks etc), is known as (e) None of these
(a) Derivative 22. Which among the following is/are types of Deposit
(b) Securitisation Receipts accounts?
(c) Hedge Fund 1. CASA Account
(d) Factoring 2. Salary Account
(e) Venture Capital Funding 3. Recurring Account
14. Reverse repo means Select the correct option from the codes given below:
(a) injecting liquidity by the Central Bank of a country (a) Only 1 & 2 (b) Only 2 & 3
through purchases of Govt. securities (c) Only 1 & 3 (d) 1, 2 & 3
(b) absorption of liquidity from the market by sale of Govt. (e) None of these
securities
23. When an endorser puts his signature on the back of the
(c) balancing liquidity with a view of enhance economic instrument without writing the name of the endorsee is termed
growth rate as
(d) improving the position of availability of the securities
(a) blank endorsement(b) special endorsement
in the market
(c) conditional endorsement
(d) partial endorsement
15. The stance of RBI monetary policy is
(a) inflation control with adequate liquidity for growth (e) None of these
(b) improving credit quality of the banks 24. When an endorser puts his signature on the back of the
(c) strengthening credit delivery mechanism instrument to pay the amount to, or to the order of a specified
(d) supporting investment demand in the economy person is termed as
(e) None of the above (a) blank Endorsement
16. 'What you dream' is the ad line of which company? (b) general Endorsement
(a) Philips (b) Panasonic (c) partial Endorsement
(c) Electrolux (d) Sony (d) special Endorsement
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SPEED TEST 99 235
a
h
b
25. Deposits made in which among the following does not come 32. SAMANVAY' web portal is related to which of the following
o
area?
o
under Deposit Insurance Scheme?
b
(a) Panchayat (b) Banking
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(a) Regional Rural Banks
(b) Private Banks (c) NRIs (d) Health
o
rd
(c) Non-scheduled Commercial Banks (e) None of these
p
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(d) Primary Agricultural Credit Societies (PACS) 33. Asia's biggest "Multi-Application Solar Telescope (MAST)"
s
(e) None of these was recently inaugurated in which state?
s
.c
26. The funds set aside by the banks as fraction to the loans toi (a) Rajasthan (b) Madhya Pradesh
o
m
cover up losses is called ______? (c) Himachal Pradesh (d) Andhra Pradesh
(a) Provisioning Coverage Ratio (PCR) (e) None of these
(b) Capital Adequacy Ratio (CAR) 34. In which state Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)
(c) Loan to Coverage Ratio on 10 August has fully commissioned and started commercial
(d) Cash Reserve Ratio production at the first indigenous Titanium Sponge Plant.
(e) None of these (a) Kerala (b) Maharashtra
27. What is the maximum amount insured under deposit (c) Tamil Nadu (d) Gujarat
insurance? (e) None of these
(a) ` 1 Lakh (b) ` 2 Lakh 35. Which of the following country has announced to cut
(c) ` 5 Lakh (d) ` 10 Lakh country's greenhouse gas (GHGs) emissions by 26-28 per
(e) None of these cent of 2005 levels by 2030 as part of negotiations on a
28. Which among the following come under Priority Sector global climate deal.
Loans? (a) Japan (b) France
1. Agriculture and Allied Activities (c) Germany (d) Australia
2. Education Loans (e) None of these
3. Retail Trade Loan
36. India has imposed definitive anti-dumping duty for period
Select the correct option from the codes given below:
of five years on Potassium Carbonate imports from Taiwan
(a) Only 1 & 2 (b) Only 2 & 3
and South Korea. In India, anti-dumping duty is imposed
(c) Only 1 & 3 (d) 1, 2 & 3
by which of the following ministry?
(e) None of these
(a) Ministry of Commerce and Industry
29. "Not Negotiable" written on a cheque crossing means
(a) the cheque must be paid into a bank (b) Ministry of Corporate Affairs
(b) the cheque is not presented by anyone other than the (c) Union Finance Ministry.
payee (d) Ministry of Home Affairs
(c) the cheque cannot be paid to any one but the payee (e) None of these
(d) the cheque can be paid to any one 37. Three Indian companies have been named among the world's
(e) None of these 100 most innovative companies by Forbes. Which of the
30. For Mr. Krishan to be "Holder in due course" which among following is not among them?
the following conditions must be satisfied? (a) Hindustan Unilever
1. The negotiable instrument must be in possession of
(b) Sun Pharma Industries
Mr. Krishan
(c) Tata Consultancy Services (TCS)
2. He must be holder of valuable consideration
3. He must become a holder of the negotiable instrument (d) Nastle India
before the date of maturity (e) None of these
4. He must become a holder of the instrument in good 38. Which of the following state Government has declared state
faith totally digital, thus becoming first state in the country to
Choose the correct option: achieve it.
(a) 1 & 4 (b) 3 & 4 (a) Kerala (b) Maharashtra
(c) 2, 3 & 4 (d) All follows (c) Gujarat (d) Andhra Pradesh
31. School Nursery Yojana was launched by which ministry?
39. PACEsetter Fund is being established by India with which
(a) union ministry of agriculture
of the following country?
(b) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.
(a) America (b) Switzerland
(c) Ministry of Commerce and Industry
(c) France (d) Saudi Arabia
(d) Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs
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236 SPEED TEST 99
a
h
b
40. Which sportsperson has been conferred with Arjuna Award 49. ? + 72.64 = 74.64
o
o
2014? (a) 145.28 (b) 2.00
b
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(a) S Dhawan (b) Ravichandran Ashwin (c) 145.28 (d) 147.28
o
(c) SK Raina (d) R. V Uthappa (e) None of these
rd
(e) None of these 50. 6.25 0.0025 = ?
p
re
(a) 1800 (b) 2300
s
s
Part-II : Numerical Ability (c) 1700 (d) 2500
.c
(e) None of these
o
m
DIRECTIONS (Q. 41-50) : What should come in place of the
51. Which is the smallest of the following numbers ?
question mark (?) in the following questions?
1
41. ? 75 (a) 7 (b)
7
(a) 5625 (b) 75
(c) 1500 (d) Cannot be determined 7 1
(e) None of these (c) (d)
7 7
21 7 1 (e) None of these
42. ?
8 72 171 52. In the following number series there is a wrong number.
Find out that number.
9 1
(a) (b) 56, 72, 90, 108, 132
19 3
(a) 72 (b) 132
5 3 (c) 108 (d) 110
(c) (d)
(e) None of these 53. Two equal sums were borrowed at 8% simple interest per
annum for 2 years and 3 years, respectively. The difference
1 2 1
43. 4 6 5 ? in the interests was Rs 56. The sum borrowed were
2 3 3
(a) Rs 690 (b) Rs 700
1 2 (c) Rs 740 (d) Rs 780
(a) 15 (b) 16
54. A machine is sold at a profit of 10%. Had it been sold for Rs
1
(c) 16 (d) 17 80 less, there would have been a loss of 10%. The cost price
2
of the machine is
(e) None of these
(a) Rs 350 (b) Rs 400
44. 792.02 + 101.32 306.76 = ?
(c) Rs 450 (d) Rs 520
(a) 893.34 (b) 1200.10
(c) 997.11 (d) 586.58 (e) None of these
(e) None of these 55. A jar of oil was four fifths full. When six bottles of oil were
45. 300% of 150 = ?% of 600 taken out and four bottles of oil were poured into, it was
(a) 75 (b) 45 three fourths full. How many bottles of oil were contained
by the jar ?
1
(c) 450 (d) 133 (a) 10 (b) 20
2
46. 34.95 + 240.016 + 23.9800 = ? (e) None of these
(a) 299.09 (b) 298.0946 56. During a journey of 80 km a train covers first 60km with a
(c) 298.111 (d) 298.946 speed of 40 km/h and completes the remaining distance with
(e) None of these a speed of 20 km/h. What is the average speed of the train
47. 48.95 32.006 = ? during the whole journey?
(a) 16.089 (b) 16.944 (a) 30 km/h (b) 32 km/h
(c) 16.35 (d) 16.89 (c) 36 km/h (d) 40 km/h
(e) None of these
(e) None of these
48. 3889 + 12.952 ? = 3854.002
(a) 47.95 (b) 47.752 57. An aeroplane takes off 30 minutes later than the scheduled
(c) 47.095 (d) 47.932 time and in order to reach its destination 1500 km away in
(e) None of these time, it has to increase its speed by 250 km/h from its usual
speed. Find its usual speed.
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SPEED TEST 99 237
a
h
b
(a) 1000 km/h (b) 750 km/h 67. 0.0004 0.0001 36. 000009 = ?
o
o
(c) 850 km/h (d) 650 km/h (a) 0.10 (b) 1.45
b
.w
(e) None of these (c) 145 (d) 14.5
(e) 1450
o
58. In an examination 35% of the candidates failed in one subject
rd
and 42% failed in another subject. While 15% failed in both 68. 137% of 12345 = ?
p
re
the subjects. If 2500 candidates appeared at the examination, (a) 17000 (b) 15000
s
how many students passed in either subject but not in both? (c) 1500 (d) 1430
s
.c
(a) 325 (b) 1175 (e) 900
o
m
(c) 2125 (d) 1230 69. 12.25 ? 21.6 = 3545 .64
59. If the length of a certain rectangle is decreased by 4 cm and (c) 15 (d) 13
the width is increased by 3 cm, a square with the same area (e) None of these
as the original rectangle would result. The perimeter of the
70. 3
4096 ?
original rectangle (in centimetres) is :
(a) 44 (b) 46 (a) 16 (b) 26
(c) 48 (d) 50 (c) 18 (d) 24
71. 6 men can complete a piece of work in 20 days. In how many
DIRECTION(Qs. 60-64): What will come in place of the question
days will 8 men complete the same piece of work?
mark (?) in the following number series?
(a) 12 days (b) 14 days
60. 2 9 30 105 ? 2195
(c) 15 days (d) 16 days
(a) 432 (b) 426
(e) None of these
(c) 440 (d) 436
72. What will come in place of both the question marks (?) in
(e) None of these
the following equation?
61. 3 4 12 45 ? 1005
(a) 152 (b) 198 363 (?)
(c) 144 (d) 192 (?) 3
(e) None of these
(a) 43 (b) 33
62. 1 3 9 31 ? 651
(c) 37 (d) 47
(a) 97 (b) 127
(e) None of these
(c) 129 (d) 109
73. Raju decided to marry 3 years after he gets a job. He was 17
(e) None of these
years old when he passed class 12th. After passing class
63. 5 ? 4 7.5 17 45 12th', he had completed his graduation course in 3 years
(a) 3.5 (b) 3 and PG Course in 2 years. He got the job exactly 1 year after
(c) 2.5 (d) 2 completing his PG Course. At what age will he get married?
(e) None of these (a) 27 years (b) 26 years
64. 15 30 ? 40 8 48 (c) 28 years (d) 23 years
(c) 18 (d) 12
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 74 & 75) : What should come in place of
(e) None of these
question mark (?) in the following series?
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 65-70): Find out the approximate value
74. 13 17 25 37 53 73 ?
which should replace the question mark (?) in the following
(a) 101 (b) 105
questions. (You are not expected to find out the exact value.)
(c) 94 (d) 96
65. 953.7 950.9989 95? (e) None of these
(a) 1.9 (b) 3 75. 15 16 18 21 25 30 ?
(c) 2.99 (d) 3.6 (a) 36 (b) 35
(e) 2.7 (c) 37 (d) 38
(e) None of these
3.001
66 10000 of 1891.992 = ? 76. How much distance will a bus cover in 8 hours if it is moving
4.987 with a uniform speed of 37 km/hr. ?
(a) 2500 (b) 1230 (a) 246km. (b) 289km.
(c) 1640 (d) 1525 (c) 296 km. (d) 276 km.
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238 SPEED TEST 99
a
h
b
77. The cost of 36 pens is Rs. 540, How many pens can be 86. In a certain code DISPLAY is written as RHCQZBM. How is
o
o
purchased in Rs. 405? GROUPED written in that code?
b
.w
(a) 24 (b) 29 (a) PSHTEFQ (b) NQFVCDO
(c) 26 (d) 27
o
(c) NQFVEFQ (d) PSHTCDO
rd
(e) None of these
(e) None of these
p
A number when added to (9)2 becomes 192. What is the
re
78.
s
number?
s
.c
(a) 109 (b) 107
o
group?
m
(c) 110 (d) 111
(a) 169 (b) 441
(e) None of these
79. The angles of a triangle are in the ratio of 5 : 6 : 7. respectively. (c) 361 (d) 529
What is the sum of the smallest angle and the largest angle (e) 289
together? 88. Among P, Q, R, T and W each having different weight, T is
(a) 130 (b) 100 heavier than W and lighter than only P. Q is not the lightest.
(c) 110 (d) 140 Who among them is definitely the lightest ?
(e) None of these (a) R (b) W
80. What least number should be subtracted from 536 to make it (c) R or W (d) Data inadequate
a perfect square? (e) None of these
(a) 7 (b) 5
DIRECTIONS (Q. 89-94) : In each question below are three
(c) 23 (d) 18
statements followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III.
(e) None of these You have to take the three given statements to be true even if they
seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then
Part-III : Reasoning decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the
81. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word three given statements disregarding commonly known facts. Then
CHANNEL each of which has as many letters between them decide which of the answers (a), (b), (c), (d) and (e) is the correct
in the word as in the English alphabet? answer and indicate it on the answer sheet.
(a) None (b) One 89. Statements : Some desks are chairs. All chairs are tables.
(c) Two (d) Three Some tables are mats.
(e) More than three Conclusions : I. Some mats are desks.
82. How many meaningful English words can be made with the II. Some tables are desks.
letters ATLE using each letter only once in each word ?
III.Some mats are chairs.
(a) None (b) One
(a) Only I follows (b) Only II follows
(c) Two (d) Three
(e) More than three (c) Only III follows (d) II and III follow
83. In a certain code GROWN is written as 7 @ % 36 and NAME (e) None of the above
is written as 64 # $. How is GEAR written in that code? 90. Statements : All sweets are fruits. No fruit is pencil. Some
(a) 74$@ (b) 7$4@ pencils are glasses.
(c) 7%4@ (d) 7@$4 Conclusions : I. Some glasses are sweets.
(e) None of these
II. Some pencils are sweets.
84. How many pairs of digits are there in the number 6315784
which do not change its, position when the digits are III.No glass is sweet.
rearranged in descending order? (a) Only I follows (b) Only II follows
(a) None (b) One (c) Only III follows (d) either I or III follows
(c) Two (d) Three (e) None of the above
(e) More than three
91. Statements : Some books are flowers. Some flowers are
85. What should come next in the following letter series? chains. Some chairs are hammers.
B D F H J L N A C E G I K M B D F H J LA C E G I K B D F H J
Conclusions : I. Some hammers are flowers.
(a) B (b) L
II. Some chairs are books.
(c) M (d) F
(e) None of these III.Some hammers are books.
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SPEED TEST 99 239
a
h
b
(a) None follows (b) Only I follows 97. If all the alphabets of the series are written in reverse order,
o
then which of the following will be 8th to the right of the 7th
o
(c) Only II follows (d) Only III follows
b
from the left end of the series?
.w
(e) II and III follow (a) A (b) B
o
rd
92. Statements : All roofs are cameras. Some cameras are (c) C (d) D
p
photographs. (e) None of these
re
Some photographs are stores. 98. How many such A's are there in the given arrangement each
s
s
of which is immediately preceded by a 'B' and also
.c
Conclusions : I. Some stores are cameras.
o
immediately followed by a consonant?
m
II. Some stores are roofs. (a) One (b) None
III.Some cameras are roofs. (c) More than three (d) Two
(a) Only I follows (b) Only II follows (e) Three
(c) Only III follows (d) II and III follow 99. How many such D's are there in the given arrangement each
of which is immediately preceded by a consonant and also
immediately followed by a vowel?
93. Statements : Some nails are horses. All horses are tablets. (a) More than four (b) Four
All tablets are crows. (c) Two (d) Three
Conclusions : I. Some crows are nails. (e) One
II. Some tablets are nails. DIRECTIONS (Q. 100-104) : In the following questions, the
III.Some crows are horses. symbols #, %, @, and are used with the following meanings
(a) Only I follows (b) I and II follows illustrated.
P % Q means P is not greater than Q.
(c) I and III follow (d) II and III follow
P Q means P is not smaller than Q.
(e) All I, II and III follow
P # Q means P is neither equal to nor smaller than Q.
94. Statements : All buildings are towers. All towers are
P Q means P is neither equal to nor greater than Q.
roads. All roads are huts.
P @ Q means P is neither smaller than nor greater than Q.
Conclusions : I. Some roads are buildings. In each question, three statements showing relationships have
II. All towers are huts. been given, which are followed by three conclusions I, II and III.
III.All huts are roads. Assuming that the given statements are true, find out which
(a) I and II follow conclusion(s) is/are definitely true.
100. Statements : M K, K T, T J
(b) I and III follow
Conclusions :
(c) II and III follow
I. J # K II. T # M
(d) All I, II and III follow III. M # J
(e) None of the above (a) None is true (b) Only I is true
(c) Only II is true (d) Only III is true
DIRECTIONS (95- 99) : Study the following arrangement
carefully and answer the questions. (e) II and III are true
C E B AC D B C D A C E B E D C A B A D AC E D U B AU B D 101. Statements : F @ T, T % M, M # R
BU Conclusions :
I. R T II. F @M
95. How many such pairs of alphabets are there in the series of
alphabets given in BOLD (D to C) in the given arrangement III. FM
each of which has as many letters between them (in both (a) Only I is true (b) Only II is true
forward and backward directions) as they have between (c) Only III is true (d) either II or III is true
them in the English alphabetical series? (e) II and III are true
(a) Three (b) One 102. Statements : J H, H @ B, B % N
(c) Two (d) None Conclusions :
(e) More than three
I. N H II. N @ J
96. Which of the following is the ninth to the right of the twenty-
III. J B
second from the right end of the given arrangement?
(a) D (b) E (a) I and II are true (b) II and III are true
(c) B (d) C (c) I and III are true (d) All I, II and III are true
(e) U (e) None of the above
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240 SPEED TEST 99
a
h
b
103. Statements : B # T, T K, K % M DIRECTIONS (Qs. 110-112) : Study the following paragraph
o
o
Conclusions : and answer the questions that follow :
b
.w
I. K# B The Government of India is responsible for ensuring the
o
II. M # T defense of India and every part thereof. The Supreme Command of
rd
the Armed Forces vests in the President. The responsibility for
p
III. B # M
re
national defense rests with the Cabinet. This is discharged through
(a) Only I is true (b) Only II is true
s
the Ministry of Defense, which provides the policy framework and
s
.c
(c) Only III is true (d) II and III are true wherewithal to the Armed Forces to discharge their responsibilities
o
m
(e) None of the above in the context of the defense of the country. Ministry of Defense
104. Statements : D % F, F K, K @ R comprises of four Departments viz. Department of Defense (DOD),
Department of Defense Production (DDP), Department of Defense
Conclusions :
Research & Development (DDR&D) and Department of Ex-
I. R % F Servicemen Welfare and also Finance Division
II. R % D 110. Which of the following is a conclusion which can be drawn
III. R@ D from the facts stated in the given passage?
(a) Only I is true (b) Only II is true (a) President of India is responsible for the defense of the
country.
(c) Only III is true (d) I and II are true
(b) The government of India is responsible for defense of
the country and ministry of defense performs the duty
DIRECTIONS (Q. 105-109) : Study the following arrangement with help of its various departments.
carefully and answer the questions given below (c) People of India are themselves responsible four their
M, D, K, R, T, H, W and A are sitting around a circle facing security.
at the centre. D is second to the right of M who is fifth to the left (d) Indians are so bold that there is no need of security.
of T. K is third to the right of R who is second to the right of D. H (e) None of these
is second to the right of W. 111. Which statement strengthens the conclusion of the
105. Who is second to the right of A ? passages?
(a) All ministries of the government co-operate to each
(a) M (b) D
other and prime minister co-ordinates them.
(c) K (d) Data inadequate (b) There are many falts in our defense system which
(e) None of the above come-out time to time.
106. Who is third to the left of M ? (c) Now-a-days the ministry of defense is not working
(a) A (b) T properly consequently internal and external security
is in danger.
(c) H (d) D
(d) People of the country is themselves aware for their
(e) Data inadequate security.
107. Who is fourth to the right of H ? (e) None of these
(a) A (b) T 112. Which statement weakens the conclusion of the passage.
(c) R (d) K (a) President of India is the supreme commander of the
Armed Forces.
(e) None of these
(b) Due to lack of co-ordination ministry of defense is
108. In which of the following combinations is the first person unable to determine the security of people.
sitting between the second and the third person ? (c) Ministry of defense is divided in four various
(a) KMW departments.
(b) MWD (d) Department of defense production provides the social
(c) RHT security to its ex-servicemen.
(e) None of these
(d) TAK
113. The positions of the first and fifth digits in the number
(e) None of the above 53146872 are interchanged. Similarly the positions of the
109. If A and W interchange their positions who will be third to second and the sixth digits are interchanged and so on.
the left of R ? Which of the following will be the fifth digit from the right
(a) M (b) D end after the rearrangement ?
(a) 2 (2) 4
(c) A (d) K
(c) 6 (d) 1
(e) None of these
(e) None of these
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SPEED TEST 99 241
a
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b
114. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so 123. The primary goal of a computer system is to turn data into
o
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form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that (a) ideas (b) suggestions
b
group?
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(c) information (d) reports
(a) Water (b) Juice
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(e) None of these
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(c) Petrol (d) Sugar 124. A word processor would most likely be used to do which of
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(e) None of these the following ?
s
(a) keep an account to money spent
s
115. How many meaningful English words can be made with the
.c
letters EIND using each letter only once in each word ? (b) maintain an inventory
o
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(a) None (b) One (c) type a biography
(c) Two (d) Three (d) do a computer search in the media centre
116. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so 125. The operating system is the most common type of
form a group. Which of the following does not belong to _________ software.
that group? (a) communication (b) application
(a) 343 (b) 64 (c) systems (d) word - processing
(e) 216 126. Choose the web-browser among the following
117. How many such digits are there in the number 586972 each (a) MSN messenger
of which is as far away from the beginning of the number as (b) Yahoo messenger
when the digits are arranged in descending order. (c) Rediffbal. net
(a) None (b) One (d) Netscape Navigator
(e) More than Three 127. Be default, Excel positions text in a cell
118. What should come next in the following number series ? (a) left aligned (b) right aligned
(c) centered (d) justified
98 7654 3218 7654 3217 6543 21
(e) None of these
(1) 9 (2) 8
128. Which one amongst them is not an inter network ?
(c) 7 (d) 6
(a) MAN (b) WAN
(e) None of these
(c) LAN (d) All are internet works
119. In a certain code BRIGHT is written as JSCSGF. How is
(e) None of these
JOINED written in that code?
129. The number of pixels displayed on a screen is known as the
(a) HNIEFO (b) JPKEFO
screen
(c) JPKMDC (d) KPJCDM
(a) resolution (b) colour depth
(e) None of these (c) refresh rate (d) viewing size
120. In a certain code BOARD is written as 51324 and SIDE is (e) None of these
written as 9647. How is BASE written in that code?
130. In order to save a world document as web page you need to
(a) 5397 (b) 5937 (a) put the appropriate graphics and links on the document
(c) 5697 (d) 5297 (b) save the document in simple text format
(e) None of these (c) use your web browser as an editor and save as URL
(d) save as HTML
Part-IV : Computer Knowledge
(e) None of these
121. Which of the following is NOT a hardware of a computer ? 131. Something which has easily understood instructions is said
(a) Monitor to be
(b) Key Board (a) information (b) word processing
(c) Windows (c) user friendly (d) icon
(d) Central Processing Unit (e) None of these
(e) Mouse 132. Which device is used to access your computer by other
122. Tunk e-mail is also called computer or for talk over phone?
(a) spam (b) spoof (a) RAM (b) CD ROM Drive
(c) Modem (d) Hard Drive
(c) sniffer script (d) spool
(e) None of these
(e) None of these
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242 SPEED TEST 99
a
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b
133. Most World Wide Web pages contain commands iin the 141. Copyrighted software that can be used for free is -
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language (a) shareware (b) freeware
b
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(a) NIH (b) URL (c) groupware (d) e-mail
o
(c) HTML (d) IRC (e) None of these
rd
(e) FTP 142. To access properties of an object. the mouse technique to
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134. A compiler translates higher-level programs into a machine use is-
s
s
language program, which is called (a) dragging (b) dropping
.c
(a) source code (b) object code (c) right-clicking (d) shift-clicking
o
m
(c) compiled code (d) beta code (e) None of these
(e) None of these 143. The becomes different shapes depending on the task you
135. Which is the best definition of a software package? are performing.
(a) An add-on for your computer such as additional (a) active tab (b) insertion point
memory (c) mouse pointer (d) Ribbon
(b) A set of computer programs used for a certain function (e) None of these
such as word processing 144. The capability of the operating system to enable two or
(c) A protection you can buy for a computer more than two instructions to execute simultaneously in a
(d) The box, manual and licence agreement that accompany single computer system by using multiple CPUs is
commercial software (a) Multitasking (b) Multiprogramming
(e) None of these (c) Multiprocessing (d) Multi execution
136. Microcomputer hardware consists of three basic categories (e) None of these
of physical equipment 145. All of the following storage media have Read and Write
(a) keyboard. monitor, hard drive, capa bilities except________
(b) system unit, input/output, memory (a) flash memory cards (b) CD ROMs
(c) system unit, input/output, secondary storage (c) hard disk drives (d) floppy disks
(d) system unit, primary storage, secondary storage (e) None of these
(e) None of these 146. A(n) ________is a small group of computers and peripherals
linked together in a small geographic area.
137. The most popular internet activity is
(a) MAN (b) PAN
(a) downloading music
(c) CAN (d) LAN
(b) watching movie trailers
(e) None of these
(c) shopping for books
147. The enables your computer to connect to other computers.
(d) e-mailing
(a) video card
(e) None of these
(b) sound card
138. A ______ contains buttons and menus that provide quick (c) network interface card (NIC)
access to commonly used commands.
(d) controller card
(a) toolbar (b) menu bar (e) None of these
(c) window (d) find 148. What menu is selected to save or save as?
(e) None of these (a) Tools (b) File
139. What is the name for the process that is used to convert a (c) Format (d) Edit
series of instructions, or program, written in a high-level (e) None of these
language into instructions (or a program) that can be run on 149. To make the number pad act as directional arrows you press
a computer? the ________ key.
(a) Assembling (b) Compiling (a) num lock (b) caps lock
(c) Translating (d) Uploading (c) arrow lock (d) shift
(e) None of the above (e) None of these
140. _______ , a printed information, exists in real sense and is 150. In the binary language each letter of the alphabet, each
more permanent from of out put than the output existing on number and each special character is made up of a unique
display device combination of____
(a) Soft copy (b) Carbon copy (a) eight bytes (b) eight kilobytes
(c) Hard copy (d) Desk copy (c) eight characters (d) eight bits
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SPEED TEST 99 243
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b
151. To access a mainframe or supercomputer. users often use a- Part-V : English Language
o
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(a) terminal (b) node
b
DIRECTIONS (161-175) : Read the following passage carefully
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(c) desktop (d) handheld and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases
o
(e) None of these have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering
rd
152. The central processing unit (CPU)- some of the questions.
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(a) contains the electronic circuits that cause processing
Once upon a time there lived a vicious king, Raja Shankara
s
to Occur
s
short-tempered and temperamental. "God I am" he said to his
.c
(b) make the information resulting from processing
o
image as he stared into the mirror everyday, many times a day, He
m
available for use was obsessed with himself. He loved no one but himself. He was
(c) allows data, programs, com-mands, and user responses blinded towards the injustice in his kingdom because he had little
to be entered into a computer time for his subjects. He wasted most of his time in pouring milk
(d) consists of electronic components that store data and honey over himself.
(e) None of these Interruption in his possessed life was dealt with stern
153. __ is when the computer is turned on and the operating reprimanding and sometimes on petty issues he would behead his
system is loading. servants. Provoked by his evil advisor Twishar, he went on with
(a) Booting (b) Flashing his self indulged life, unaware of the plot his very devoted advisor
was planning. A plot to dethrone the king, rule the kingdom with
(c) Tracking (d) Taping
his wicked ways only to harness wealth and the reputation of a
(e) None of these king.
154. A________includes the me name and possibly a directory
One morning the king went on his usual moring horseback
or folder. rounds but returned with a very sad look on his face. He locked
(a) file information packet (b) file button himself inside his platial room only to unlock it at sundown. Just
(c) file directory (d) me specification as the doors creaked open and Raja Shankara emerged from it, his
(e) None of these wife rushed to embrace him. She feared a damaging incident had
155. A(n) ______is text that you want printed at the bottom of occurred.
the page. The king spoke seldom that day and awoke the next day to
(a) header (b) endnote make a proclamation to his servants and subjects. The whole
(c) footnote (d) footer kingdom feared what was in store for them from their angry king.
(e) None of these But to their surprise he said to all gathered, "From now on I will be
a different king. A softer and a patient king."
156. You can use the tab key to
True to his words from that day on, the king had truly turned
(a) move a cursor across the screen
on a new leaf; he cleaned out the corruption and injustice in a
(b) indent a paragraph
tender manner with punishments aimed to renew the person from
(c) move the cursor down the screen within.
(d) Only (a) and (b) One fine day his evil advisor gathered courage to ask the
(e) None of these reason for his paradigm shift. And the king answered. When I
157. A string of eight 0s and 1s is called a______ went on horseback that morning a month ago, I noticed a dog
(a) megabyte (b) kilobyte brutally chasing a cat. The cat managed to sneak into a hole only
(c) gigabyte (d) byte after the dog bit her leg, maiming her for life. soon afterwards, the
(e) None of these dog barked at a farmer who picked up a sharp stone and hit it
straight in the dog's eye. Bleeding profusely, the dog yelped in
158. ________are symbols that represent any character or
pain. As the farmer walked on, he slipped on the edge of the road
combination of characters.
and broke his head.
(a) Playing cards (b) Wildcards
All this happened in a matter of minutes before me and then
(c) Private keys (d) Public keys
I realized that evil begets evil. I thought about it deeply and was
(e) None of these ready to give up my worldly life for the betterment of my subjects.
159. A word in a web page that, when clicked, opens another I wanted to give up the evil in me as I did not want evil to encounter
document. me.
(a) anchor (b) hyperlink Sniggering away the immoral advisor thought what a perfect
(c) reference (d) URL time it was to dethrone the king, because the Raja had grown kind
(e) None of these hearted and patient and would not endeavour a combat. Thinking
160. The __ , also called the Web, contains billions of documents. how he would plan his attack, he stumbled over a step that took
(a) World Wide Web (b) HTTP him hurling down the remaining steps, bringing him to a stop with
(c) Web Portal (d) Domain a crash. He howled in pain only to discover he had broken the
(e) None of these bones in both his legs.
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244 SPEED TEST 99
a
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b
161. How can Raja Shankara be described before his 167. How did Raja Shankara treat all his servants if they
o
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transformation? interrupted him, before he changed into a good person?
b
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(1) He was unjust (a) He treated all his servants with respect
o
(2) He was preoccupied with himself (b) He would scold them and sometimes cut their heads
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(3) He was cruel off over trivial issues
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(a) Only (1) (b) Only (2) (c) He would dismiss them from their duties never to be
s
s
(c) Only (3) (d) Only (1) adn (2) reinstated
.c
o
(e) All the three (1), (2) and (3) (d) He would rob them of all their possessions
m
162. Why was the king not happy with the old Valuer? (e) None of these
(a) As the Valuer was not good at his work 168. What plan did Twishar have with regard to the Raja?
(b) As he had dishonoured the king (a) He planned to take over the Raja's throne through
(c) As the Valuer had been dishonest with the king about devious means
the prices that he set for goods (b) He was a loyal servant to the Raja and always had his
(d) As the king beloeved that he was not earning much best interests in mind
because of the Valuer's honesty (c) He had plans to provoking the Raja into ruling the
(e) None of these kingdom in more wicked ways
163. What proclamation did the Raja make to his subjects? (d) He planned to kill the raja with the help of the Raja's
(a) That he was giving up his throne for the betterment of servants
the kingdom (e) None of these
(b) That his advisor would be the king from then on
169. Why did Twishar think that this was the best time to
(c) That he would be a better king to them than he had dethrone the Raja?
been all this while
(a) As the Raja was sick, aliling and was on his deathbad
(d) That his subjects were not good enough to deserve
(b) As he knew that the Raja had finally lost his mind
better treatment than what was already being meted
out to them (c) As he knew that the Raja had become a soft natured
(e) None of these person and would not attempt to fight.
164. What did Raja Shankara's wife think about the Raja's peculiar (d) As he was sure that he would be able to convince that
behaviour that particular day? people of the kingdom that he Raja had become weak
(a) She was afraid that something really bad had happened (e) None of these
(b) She was afraid that the Raja would beat her up because 170. What did the dog do to the cat?
of his unusual mood (a) The dog chased the cat and sent it in the man'sdirection
(c) She thought that he was in his usual sour mood (b) The dog bit the cat's leg and crippled her for life
(d) She thought that the Raja had received threats to his (c) The dog killed the cat
life from his servants (d) Not mentioned in the passage
165. What was the reason for Raja Shankara's change in
DIRECTIONS (171-173) : Choose the word/group of words which
behaviour?
is most similar in meaning to the word/group of words printed in
(a) His advisor's words had made him realize his mistake
bold as used in the passage.
(b) He had felt bad for a poor family on his tour around his
171. BEGETS
kingdom
(a) produces (b) loses
(c) His wife had betrayed him and hence he was upset
(c) expects (d) avoids
(d) He had realized that doing good to people would bring
(e) calls
good to him
172. STERN
(e) He had realized that evil begets evil.
(a) hard (b) tall
166. What can possibly be the moral of the story?
(c) easy (d) tight
(a) Believe in yourself
(e) severe
(b) Money is not everything in life
173. GATHERED
(c) Don't trust people
(a) partied (b) assembled
(d) Better late than never
(c) dispersed (d) pooled
(e) As you sow so shall you reap
(e) collated
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SPEED TEST 99 245
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b
DIRECTIONS (174-175) : Choose the word/group of words which DIRECTIONS (181-185) : In each question below, a sentence
o
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is most opposite in meaning to the word/group of words printed with four words printed in bold type is given. These are numbered
b
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in bold as used in the passage, as (a), (b), (c) and (d). One of these four words printed in bold may
o
174. PETTY be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the
rd
(a) tremendous (b) huge sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or
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inappropriate, if any. The number of that word is your answer. If
(c) vast (d) important
s
all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also
s
(e) frugal
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appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (e) i.e., 'All
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175. BRUTALLY
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correct' as your answer.
(a) cruelly (b) partly
181. Discussion (a)/ is an exchange of knowledge (b)/ whereas
(c) gently (d) rarely arguement (c)/ is a depiction (d)/ of ignorance. All correct
(e) harmfully (e).
DIRECTIONS (176-180) : Which of the phrases (a), (b), (c) and 182. He was arrested (a)/ for the crime (b)/ and was charged (c)/
(d) given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed with attempt (d)/ to murder. All correct (e)
in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the 183. commit (a)/ yourself to lifelong learning (b)/ as the most
sentece is correct as it is given and no correction is required, valuable (c)/ aset (d)/ you will have is your mind.
mark (e) as the answer. All correct (e)
176. Her entry to the office party was restrict as an official 184. Belive (a)/ that life is worth (b)/ living and your belief will
enquiry had ben constituted against her. create (c)/ the fact. (d)/ All correct (e)
(a) was restricting 185. The best educated (1)/ human bing (2)/ is the one who
(b) is restricted understands (3)/ most about the life in which (4)/ he is
(c) was restricted placed. All correct (e).
(d) is restricting DIRECTIONS (186-195) : In the following passage there are
(e) No correction required blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are
177. Rima was at her wit's end trying to figure out what to buy printed below the passage and against each, five words are
for her frind's birthday. suggested, one of of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out
(a) at her witting end the appropriate word in each case.
(b) at her wit ends Once upon a time, two friends were (186) through the desert.
(c) to her wit's end During some point of the (187) they had an argument, and one
friend slapped the other one in the face. The one who got slapped
(d) so wit's end
was (188), but without saying anything, he wrote in the sand,
"Today my best friend slapped me in the face." They kept on
178. Pritesh while away his time in playing games on the computer walking (189) they found an oasis, where they (190) to take a
instead of studying.
both. The one, who had been slapped, got (191) in the quicksand
(a) whiled away his time and started drowing, but the friend saved him. After the friend
(b) whiled against his time (192) from the near drowning, he wrote on a stone, "The friend
(c) whiling away his time who had slapped and saved his best friend asked him, "After I
(d) while awayed his time hurt you, you wrote in the sand and (193) you write on a stone,
(e) No correction required why?" The other friend (194), "When someone hurts us, we
179. Mohan had make up his mind about going on the world should write it down in sand where winds of forgiveness can
tour all alone. erase it away. But, when someone does something good for us,
(a) made minds we must (195) it in stone where no wind can ever erase it."
(b) make his mind 186. (a) crawling (b) speaking
(c) make up his minding (c) swimming (d) walking
(d) made up his mind (e) dancing
(e) No correction required 187. (a) journey (b) sand
180. She rushed to the station but could find any trace of her (c) running (d) border
daughter there. (e) hunt
(a) not found trace (b) find no trace 188. (a) dead (b) captured
(c) found not trace (d) finding no trace (c) presentable (d) missing
(e) No correction required (e) hurt
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246 SPEED TEST 99
a
h
b
189. (a) as (b) until 197. While the ladies continued their small talk in the drawing
o
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(c) from (d) with room, I felt bored.
b
(e) through (a) whispering (b) backbiting
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190. (a) decided (b) fell (c) gossip (d) light conversation
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(c) made (d) want (e) None of these
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(e) left 198. My car broke down on way to the railway station.
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191. (a) home (b) stuck (a) stopped
s
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(c) blended (d) mixed (b) met with an accident
o
(e) sitting (c) ran out of petrol
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192. (a) separated (b) leaked (d) failed to work
(c) died (d) recovered (e) None of these
(e) saved 199. My father strained every nerve to enable me to get settled
193. (a) so (b) how in life.
(c) when (d) tomorrow (a) worked very hard (b) spent a huge amount
(e) now (c) tried all tricks (d) bribed several persons
194. (a) called (b) tell (e) None of these
(c) replied (d) questioned 200. Madhuri might scream blue murder, but I feel Deepali should
(e) asked get the promotion since she is better qualified for the job.
195. (a) talk (b) push (a) someone has been murdered with some blue liquid
(c) engrave (d) add (b) someone is being murdered and has become blue
(e) bury (c) suffer from persecution complex
(d) make a great deal of noise and object vehemently
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 196 to 200): In each of the following sentences, (e) None of these
an idiomatic expression or a proverb is highlighted. Select the
alternative which best describes its use in the sentence.
196. Mohan always keeps himself to himself.
(a) Is too busy (b) Is selfish
(c) Is unsociable (d) does not take sides
(e) None of these
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SPEED TEST 99 247
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b
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RESPONSE SHEET
o
b
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1. 51. 101. 151.
o
102.
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2. 52. 152.
3. 53. 103. 153.
4. 54. 104. 154.
5. 55. 105. 155.
6. 56. 106. 156.
7. 57. 107. 157.
8. 58. 108. 158.
9. 59. 109. 159.
10. 60. 110. 160.
11. 61. 111. 161.
12. 62. 112. 162.
13. 63. 113. 163.
14. 64. 114. 164.
15. 65. 115. 165.
16. 66. 116. 166.
17. 67. 117. 167.
18. 68. 118. 168.
19. 69. 119. 169.
20. 70. 120. 170.
21. 71. 121. 171.
22. 72. 122. 172.
23. 73. 123. 173.
24. 74. 124. 174.
25. 75. 125. 175.
26. 76. 126. 176.
27. 77. 127. 177.
28. 78. 128. 178.
29. 79. 129. 179.
30. 80. 130. 180.
31. 81. 131. 181.
32. 82. 132. 182.
33. 83. 133. 183.
34. 84. 134. 184.
35. 85. 135. 185.
36. 86. 136. 186.
37. 87. 137. 187.
38. 88. 138. 188.
39. 89. 139. 189.
40. 90. 140. 190.
41. 91. 141. 191.
42. 92. 142. 192.
43. 93. 143. 193.
44. 94. 144. 194.
45. 95. 145. 195.
46. 96. 146. 196.
47. 97. 147. 197.
48. 98. 148. 198.
49. 99. 149. 199.
50. 100. 150. 200.
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SPEED TEST 99
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b
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248
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a
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b
100
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Part-I : Banking Knowledge & General Awareness 8. An ECS transaction gets bounced and you are unable to
1. Currency Swap is an instrument to manage recover your money from your customer. Under which Act
(a) currency risk criminal action can be initiated ?
(b) interest rate risk (a) Indian Penal Code
(c) currency and interest rate risk (b) Negotiable Instruments Act
(d) cash flows in different currencies (c) Criminal Procedure Code
(e) All of the above (d) Payment and Settlements Act
2. Euro Bond is an instrument (e) Indian Contract Act
(a) issued in the European market 9. Which of the following terms is used in Banking Field?
(b) issued in Euro currency (a) Interest Rate Swap (b) Input Devices
(c) issued in country other than the country of the (c) Sedimentary (d) Zero Hour
currency of the Bond (e) Privilege Motion
(d) All of the above 10. 'Eno' is produced by which company?
(e) None of the above (a) Paras Pharmaceuticals
3. Money Laundering normally involves (b) Glaxo SmithKline
(a) placement of funds (b) layering of funds (c) Johnson and Johnson
(d) Ranbaxy Ltd
(c) integration offunds (d) All of (a), (b) and (c)
(e) None of these
(e) None of (a), (b) and (c)
11. 'Boost' is a product of which company?
4. Capital Market Regulator is
(a) Cadbury (b) Vicco
(a) RBI (b) IRDA
(c) Wipro (d) Dabur
(c) NSE (d) BSE
(e) None of these
(e) SEBI
12. The 'Raga' series of watches was launched by which
5. What is the Call Money?
company?
(a) Money borrowed or lent for a day or over night
(a) Titan (b) Timex
(b) Money borrowed for more than one day but upto
(c) Swatch (d) Rado
3 days
(e) None of these
(c) Money borrowed for more than one day but upto
13. Making tomorrow brighter' is the promotional line of which
7 days
major corporate?
(d) Money borrowed for more than one day but upto
(a) ONGC (b) SAIL
14 days
(c) Hewlett-Packard (d) Wipro
(e) None of these
6. Which of the following is the Regulator of the credit rating
14. What is Suzuki Motor Corporation's second global car (the
agencies in India ?
first being Swift) called?
(a) RBI (b) SBI
(a) Swirl (b) Vroom
(c) SIDBI (d) SEBI (c) SX4 (d) MX5
7. Lot of Banks in India these days are offering M-Banking 15. Name the founder of Ranbaxy Laboratories Ltd.
Facility to their customers. What is the full form of 'M' in 'M- (a) Rajendra Prasad Shukla
Banking'
(b) Gurjar Sharan
(a) Money (b) Marginal
(c) Bhai Mohan Singh
(c) Message (d) Mutual Fund (d) Ramakrishna Gupta
(e) Mobile phone (e) None of these
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250 SPEED TEST 100
a
h
b
16. A money deposited at a bank that cannot be withdrawn for 26. What is a Debit Card' ?
o
a preset fixed period of time is known as a __________ .
o
(a) It is a card issued by a Rating Agency
b
(a) Term deposit (b) Checking Account (b) It is a card which can be used for withdrawing cash or
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(c) Savings Bank Deposit (d) No Frills Account making payment even in the absence of any balance in
o
rd
(e) Current Deposit the account
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17. A worldwide financial messaging network which exchanges (c) It is a card which can be used for withdrawing cash or
re
messages between banks and financial institutions is known
s
making payment if there is balance in the account
s
.c
as __________ . (d) It is a card which carries prepaid balance
o
(a) CHAPS (b) SWIFT (e) It is a card which can be used for making STD calls
m
(c) NEFT (d) SFMS 27. Bad advances of a Bank are called __________ .
(e) CHIPS (a) Bad debt (b) Book debt
18. The term 'Smart Money" refers to __________ . (c) Non Performing Asset (d) Out of order accounts
(a) Foreign Currency (b) Internet Banking (e) Overdrawn accounts
(c) US Dollars (d) Travelers' cheques 28. By increasing repo rate, the economy may observe the
(e) Credit Cards following effects __________.
19. Which one of the following is not a 'Money Market (a) Rate of interest on loans and advances will be costlier
Instrument' ? (b) Industrial output would be affected to an extent
(a) Treasury Bills (b) Commercial Paper
(c) Banks will increase rate of interest on deposits
(c) Certificate of Deposit (d) Equity Shares
(d) Industry houses may borrow money from foreign
(e) None of these
countries
20. Which one of the following is a retail banking product ?
(a) Home Loans (b) Working capital finance (e) All of these
(c) Corporate term loans (d) Infrastructure financing 29. Increased interest rates, as is existing in the economy at
(e) Export Credit present will __________.
21. When there is a difference between all receipts and (a) Lead to higher GDP growth
expenditure of the Govt. of India, both capital and revenue, (b) Lead to lower GDP growth
it is called __________ . (c) Mean higher cost of raw materials
(a) Revenue Deficit (b) Budgetary Deficit (d) Mean lower cost of raw materials
(c) Zero Budgeting (d) Trade Gap (e) Mean higher wage bill
(e) Balance of payment problem 30. The Netravali wildlife sanctuary is located in which state?
22. Which of the following is NOT a function of the Reserve (a) Goa (b) Kerala
Bank of India ?
(c) Mizoram (d) Odisha
(a) Fiscal Policy Functions
(e) None of these
(b) Exchange Control Functions
(c) Issuance, Exchange and destruction of currency notes 31. The mobile wallet app "Buddy" launched by which bank
(d) Monetary Authority Functions recently?
(e) Supervisory and Control Functions (a) PNB (b) ICICI
23. Which of the following is NOT required for opening a bank (c) HDFC (d) SBI
account ? (e) None of these
(a) Identity Proof (b) Address Proof 32. Which bank has recently launched Multi Currency
(c) Recent Photographs (d) Domicile Certificate Contactless card in partnership with VISA?
(e) None of these (a) HDFC Bank (b) ICICI Bank
24. With reference to a cheque which of the following is the (c) SBI (d) Axis Bank
drawee bank ? (e) None of these
(a) The bank that collects the cheque
33. Om Prakash Munjal, who passed away recently, was founder
(b) The payee's bank
and the current chairman of__?
(c) The endorsee's bank
(a) Hero Cycles Limited (b) Hindustan Motors
(d) The endorser's bank
(e) The bank upon which the cheque is drawn (c) Apollo Tyres (d) Maruti Udyog
25. Base Rate is the rate below which no Bank can allow their (e) None of these
lending to anyone. Who sets up this Base Rate for Banks? 34. Which state government of India has recently banned on
(a) Individual Banks, Board the use of plastic in the state?
(b) Ministry of Commerce (a) Kerala (b) Gujarat
(c) Ministry of Finance (c) Tripura (d) Odisha
(d) RBI (e) None of these
(e) Interest Rate Commission of India
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SPEED TEST 100 251
a
h
b
35. Which historical monument in India recently got its twitter 45. 3978 + 112 2 = ? 2
o
account? (a) 8400 (b) 8406
o
b
(a) Qutub Minar (c) 8600 (d) 8404
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(b) Taj Mahal (e) None of these
o
(c) Fatehpur Sikri monuments
rd
2
(d) Red Fort, Delhi 46. 103.7 101.3 10?
p
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(e) None of these
(a) 6 (b) 7
s
36. Who is the first recipient of Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam Award,
s
(c) 5 (d) 3
.c
instituted by Government of Tamil Nadu in 2015?
o
(a) Prof. Mustansir Barma (b) N. Valarmathi (e) None of these
m
(c) Jothimani Gowthaman (d) T K Anuradha 47. 7589 ? = 3534
37. Google Inc. will become a wholly-owned subsidiary of (c) 3246 (d) 11023
Alphabet Inc. Who will take over the CEO role at Google? (e) None of these
(a) Mr.Sergey Brin (b) Mr. Larry Page 48. 1225 ? 5
(c) Mr.Sundar Pichai (d) Mr. Saurabh Bansal
(a) 3 (b) 2
(e) None of these
(c) 35 (d) 7
38. Which bank has recently launched its 'Saral-Rural Housing
(e) None of these
Loan' at base rate of 9.70 % for borrowers from the rural
areas? 49. 300 + 102 2 = ?
(a) HDFC (b) SBI (a) 450 (b) 800
(c) ICICI (d) PNB (c) 550 (d) 320
39. To aid digital literacy in Bihar which mobile app has been 5 1.6 2 1.4
launched by Telecom Minister recently? 50. ?
1.3
(a) Khoj (b) Adarsh
(a) 4 (b) 0.4
(c) Roshni (d) Disha
(c) 1.4 (d) 1.2
(e) None of these
(e) None of these
40. Recently, India has decided to boycott which Conference
to be held in Islamabad? 2 1 1
51. 3 7 5 ?
(a) Commonwealth Parliamentary Council 5 5 4
(b) Commonwealth Parliamentary Committee
(c) Commonwealth Parliamentary Conference 3 3
(a) 5 (b) 5
(d) Commonwealth Parliamentary Countries 10 20
(e) None of these
7 11
(c) 5 (d) 5
Part-II : Quantitative Aptitude 10 20
(e) None of these
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 51-61): What will come in place of the question 52. If one-third of a number is 3 more than one -fourth of the
mark (?) in the following questions ? number, then the number is :
41. 3 ? + 30 = 0 (a) 18 (b) 24
(a) 15 (b) 15 (c) 30 (d) 36
(e) None of these
42. 40.83 1.02 1.2 = ? 53. A boy was asked to write 25 9 2 but he wrote 2592. The
(a) 49.97592 (b) 41.64660 numerical difference between the two is:
(c) 58.7952 (d) 42.479532 (a) 0 (b) 3
(e) None of these
1 3 1 22
43. 3 6 1 ? 54. If the two numbers are respectively 20% and 50% of a third
3 7 2 7 number, what is the percentage of the first number to the
22 second ?
(a) 4.4 (b) (a) 10 (b) 20
7
(c) 30 (d) 40
5 (e) None of these
(c) (d) 40.5
22 55. A man gains 10% by selling a certain article for a certain
(e) None of these price. If he sells it at double the price, then the profit made
44. is:
1.5625 ?
(a) 125 (b) 12.5 (a) 120% (b) 60%
(c) 1.05 (d) 1.25 (c) 100% (d) 80%
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252 SPEED TEST 100
a
h
b
56. A, B and C enter into a partnership with investments of DIRECTIONS (Qs. 66-70) : What approximate value should come
o
` 3500, ` 4500 and ` 5500, respectively. In the first six months,
o
in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions?
b
profit is ` 405. What is As share in the profit ?
.w
(You are not expected to calculate the exact value).
(a) ` 200 (b) ` 105
o
66. 3
rd
(c) ` 250 (d) ` 151 860000 ?
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57. A tap can fill a cistern in 8 hours and another tap can empty (c) 110 (d) 125
s
s
it in 16 hours. If both the taps are opened simultaneously, (e) 95
.c
the time taken (in hours) to fill the cistern will be :
o
m
(a) 8 (b) 10 5 1 2
67. 1 5 2 ?
(c) 16 (d) 24 8 3 5
58. Pipes A and B can fill a tank in 5 and 6 hours, respectively. (c) 19 (d) 9
Pipe C can empty it in 12 hours. The tank is half full. All the (e) 21
three pipes are in operation simultaneously. After how much 68. 8769 82 4 ?
time, the tank will be full ?
(a) 27 (b) 44
9 (c) 429 (d) 12
(a) 3 h (b) 11 h
17 (e) 512
69. ? % of 45.999 16% of 83.006 = 116.073
8 13
(c) 2 h (d) 1 h (a) 6 (b) 24
11 17 (c) 19 (d) 30
59. If the sum of the digits of an even number is divisible by 9, 70. 12.998 27.059 17.999 = ?
then that number is always divisible by : (a) 6020 (b) 6320
(a) 24 (b) 12
(c) 6800 (d) 6540
(c) 18 (d) 27
(e) 6150
(e) None of these
71. The area of a circular plot is twice the area of a rectangular
60. A water tank in the form of a cuboid has its base 20 m long,
plot. If the area of the rectangular plot is 11088 sq. metres.,
7 m wide and 10 m deep. Initially, the tank is full but later
what is the perimeter of the circular plot?
when water is taken out of it, the level of water in the tank
reduces by 2 m. The volume of water left in the tank is : (a) 484 metres (b) 572 metres
(a) 1120 m3 (b) 400 m3 (c) 528 metres (d) 440 metres
(c) 280 m 3 (d) 140 m3 (e) None of these
(e) None of these 72. The sum of the two digits of a two-digit number and the
difference between the two digits of the two-digit number is
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 61-65) : Find the next term in the given series
in each of the questions below. 8. What is the two digit number?
(a) 80 (b) 88
61. 41, 31, ?, 17, 11, 5
(a) 19 (b) 21 (3) 44 (d) Cannot be determined
(e) None of these 73. The total number of students studying in a college is 4220.
62. 8, 15, 28, 53, ? If the number of girls studying in the college is 2420, what is
(a) 106 (b) 98 the respective ratio of the number of boys to the number of
(c) 100 (d) 102 girls studying in the college?
(e) None of these (a) 90 : 131 (b) 90 : 121
63. 24, 49, ?, 94, 15, 31, 59, 58 (c) 121 : 70 (d) 121 : 80
(c) 77 (d) 95 74. In how many different ways can the letters of the word
(e) None of these 'SCENIC' be arranged?
64. 5, 10, 13, 26, 29, 58, ?, 122 (a) 120 (b) 720
(a) 60 (b) 61
(c) 60 (d) 360
(c) 111 (d) 91
(e) None of these
(e) None of these
65. 2, 3, 10, 15, 26, ?, 55 75. The cost of 4 bags and 12 purses is ` 1,520, what is the cost
(a) 32 (b) 33 of 10 bags and 30 purses?
(c) 34 (d) 35 (a) ` 3,600 (b) `3,500
(c) `4,000 (d) `3,900
(e) None of these
(e) None of these
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SPEED TEST 100 253
a
h
b
76. The cost of 14 kgs. of rice is ` 672, the cost of 12 kgs. of (c) Corruption is a status symbol in our society.
o
wheat is ` 432 and the cost of 18 kgs. of sugar is ` 504. What (d) Mostly it is found that people themselves incourage
o
b
is the total cost of 20 kgs. of rice, 15 kgs. of wheat and 16 the corruption.
.w
kgs. of sugar? (e) None of these
o
(a) ` 1,898 (b) ` 1,948 82. Which of the following is an inference which can be made
rd
(c) ` 2,020 (d) `1,964
p
from the facts stated in the above passage?
re
(e) None of these (a) Corruption is the consequences of can challenged
s
s
77. Vishvesh sets an alarm in two different clocks. The first authority, asymmetry of power and illiteracy etc.
.c
alarm rings after every 30 minutes and the second alarm (b) People are helpless before the corruption.
o
m
rings after every 90 minutes. If they rang together at 11 p.m., (c) The government should make a strict law against the
when is the earliest they will ring together again? corruption.
(a) 12.30 a.m. (b) 2.00 a.m. (d) People should stir a movement against corruption.
(c) 1.30 a.m. (d) 1.00 a.m. (e) None of these
(e) None of these 83. Which of the following is the most effective statement in
the context of the above passage?
3
78. th of a number is 250 more than 40% of the same number.. (a) Asymmetry of power reduces societal pressure to
5 conform to ethical behaviour and makes it easy to
What is the number? indulge in corruption.
(a) 1250 (b) 1180 (b) Society itself nourishes the corruption.
(c) 1200 (d) 1220 (c) Power is worshiped in our society which increases the
(e) None of these corruption.
79. The respective ratio between two numbers is 4 : 7. If 4 is (d) 90% people are in unorganised sector and they always
added to each of the two numbers, their respective ratio is feel the insecurity of jobs.
3 : 5. What is the larger number? (e) None of these.
(a) 42 (b) 63 84. If + means divided by; means added to; means
(c) 56 (d) Cannot be determined substracted from and means multiplied by; then 26
(e) None of these 15 + 5 4 2 = ?
80. If (17)2 is subtracted from the square of a number, the answer (a) 15 (b) 20
so obtained is 1232. What is the number? .. (c) 25 (d) 18
(c) 37 (d) 39 85. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form
(e) 32 a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group.
Part-III : Reasoning (a) RPN (b) WSU
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 81-83) : Study the following paragraph and (c) HDF (d) LHJ
answer the questions that follow : (e) QMO
In our society, corruption and abuse of office has been 86. In a row of forty students R is the fifth from right end and
aggravated by three factors. First, there is a colonial legacy of there are ten students between R and D. What is Ds position
unchallenged authority and propensity to exercise power from the left end of the row ?
arbitrarily. (a) 26th (b) 23rd
In a society which worships power, it is easy for public (c) 24th (d) 25th
officials to deviate from ethical conduct. Second, there is enormous (e) Data inadequate
asymmetry of power in our society. Nearly 90% of our people are 87. In a certain code ORBITAL is written as CSPHMBU. How is
in the unorganized sector. Quite a number of them lead a precarious CHARGER written in that code ?
existence, depending on subsistence wages with no job security. (a) BIDQSFH (b) BIDSSFH
And nearly 70% of the organized workers with job security and (c) BIDQQDF (d) DIBQSFH
regular monthly wages are employed by the state directly or (e) None of these
through public sector undertakings. Almost all these employees 88. Among A, B, C, D and E each having scored different marks
are 'educated' in a largely illiterate and semiliterate society and in an examination, B scored more than C and E and less than
economically even the lowliest of public servants are better off A and D. Cs marks are not the lowest. Who scored the
than most people in the country. What is more, their employment lowest marks ?
in government comes with all the trappings of power. Such (a) O (b) C
asymmetry of power reduces societal pressure to conform to (c) B (d) Data inadequate
ethical behaviour and makes it easy to indulge in corruption (e) None of these
81. The passage best support the statement that 89. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word
(a) Corruption is a consequence of hundred, gears slavary OVERWHELM each of which has as many letters between
of the country. them in the word as in the English alphabet?
(b) Among the many causes socio-economic disparity is (a) None (b) One
the main cause of corruption. (c) Two (d) Three
(e) More than three
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254 SPEED TEST 100
a
h
b
90. In a certain code BROWN is written as 531 @% and MEAN (a) I and II are true (b) I and III are true
o
is written as 26%. How is ROBE written in that code ? (c) II and III are true (d) All I, II and III are true
o
b
(a) 3@16 (b) 3516 (e) None of the above
.w
(c) 3156 (d) 316 97. Statements : D $ M, M * B, B J
o
(e) None of these
rd
Conclusions : I. J D
p
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 91-93) : Study the following arrangement II. B * D
re
carefully and answer the questions given below : III. J $ M
s
s
(a) I and II are true (b) I and III are true
.c
R5 # 3 $ MD P1 4 FA6 EWJ 2 @ K 8 Q
o
7 % UT I * V9 (c) II and III are true (d) All I, II and III are true
m
91. Which of the following is the seventh to the left of the (e) None of the above
nineteenth from the left end of the above arrangement ? 98. Statements : W K, K F, F $ M
(a) D (b) U Conclusions : I. M K
(c) (d) II. W @ F
(e) None of these III. F @ W
92. What should come next in the following series based on the (a) Only I is true (b) Only II is true
above arrangement ? (c) Only III is true (d) II and III are true
53$ P4F 6WJ 8Q ? (e) None is true
(a) UI * (b) UT * 99. Statements : F @ T, T K, K * D
(c) UIV (d) UTV Conclusions : I. D @ F
(e) None of these II. F @ K
93. How many such vowels are there in the above arrangement III. D @ T
each of which is immediately preceded by a symbol and (a) II and III are true (b) I and III are true
immediately followed by a number ? (c) I and II are true (d) All I, II and III are true
(a) None (b) One (e) None of the above
(c) Two (d) Three
DIRECTIONS (Q. 100-105) : Study the following information
(e) More than three
carefully and answer the questions given below
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 94-99) : In the following questions, the
P, A, D, Q, T, M, R and B are sitting around a circle facing at
symbols , $, *, @ and are used with the following meanings
the centre. D is third to the left of T who is fifth to the right of P. A
illustrated.
is third to the right of B, who is second to the right of D. Q is
P $ Q means P is neither equal to nor greater than Q. second to the left of M.
P Q means P is neither equal to nor smaller than Q. 100. Who is to the immediate right of D ?
P Q means P is neither greater to nor smaller than Q. (a) M (b) Q
P @ Q means P is not smaller than Q. (c) B (d) Data inadequate
P * Q means P is not greater than Q. (e) None of these
In each question three statements showing relationship have been 101. Who is second to the right of M ?
given, which are followed by three conclusions I, II and III. (a) B (b) R
Assuming that the given statements are true, find out which
(c) T (d) Q
conclusion(s) is/are definitely true.
(e) None of these
94. Statements : M @ D, D K, K R
102. Who is second to the left of D ?
Conclusions : I. R $ M
(a) A (b) Q
II. K M
(c) B (d) P
III. K $ M
(e) Data inadequate
(a) Only I is true (b) Only II is true
103. Who is third to the right of P ?
(c) Only III is true (d) Either II or III and I are true
(a) D (b) M
(e) Either II or III is true
(c) R (d) Data inadequate
95. Statements : F * T, T $ N, N @ R
(e) None of these
Conclusions : I. R $ T
104. Which of the following pairs represents the immediate
II. N F neighbours of A ?
III. F $ R (a) PT (b) PB
(a) None is true (b) Only I is true (c) TQ (d) PD
(c) Only II is true (d) Only III is true (e) None of these
(e) II and III are true 105. In which of the following pairs the first person is sitting to
96. Statements : B N, N @ R, F * R the immediate right of the second person ?
Conclusions : I. B M (a) DM (b) BT
II. F * N (c) RA (d) PQ
III. R $ B (e) PA
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SPEED TEST 100 255
a
h
b
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 106-111) : In each of question below are three 112. In a certain code MAIN is written as '9364' and DEAR is
o
written as '8532'. How is MEND written in that code?
o
statements followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III.
b
(a) 9548 (b) 9458
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You have to take the three given statements to be true even if they
seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then (c) 9538 (d) 9528
o
rd
decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the (e) None of these
p
three given statements disregarding commonly known facts. Then 113. In a certain code DREAMING is written as BFSEFMHL.
re
decide which of the answers (a), (b), (c), (d) and (e) is the correct 'How is TREATISE written in that code?
s
s
answer and indicate it on the answer sheet.
.c
(a) USFBDRHS (b) BFSUDTHS
o
106. Statements : All cups are benches. Some benches are drums. (c) BFSUSHRD (d) BDQSDRHS
m
All drums are kites. (e) None of these
Conclusions : I. Some kites are cups.
114. The positions of how many digits in the number 5314697
II. Some kites are benches. will remain unchanged if the digits are rearranged in
III. Some drums are cups. ascending order within the number?
(a) None (b) One
(c) Only II follows (d) Only III follows
(c) Two (d) Three
(e) II and III follow
(e) More than three
107. Statements : Some bikes are cars. Some cars are trains. Some
trains are buses. 115. Among A, B, C, D and E each having different amount of
Conclusions : I. Some buses are cars. money, C has more money than only E. B has more money
than D but less than A. Who among them has the highest
II. Some trains are bikes.
amount of money?
III. Some buses are bikes.
(a) None follows (b) Only I follows (a) B (b) A
(c) Only II follows (d) Only III follows (c) D (d) Data inadequate
(e) I and II follow (e) None of these
108. Statements : All dogs are cats. Some cats are rats. All rats 116. Prakash walked 30 metres towards West, took a left turn and
are mats. walked 20metres. He again took a left turn and walked 30
Conclusions : I. Some mats are cats. metres. He then took a right turn and stopped. Towards
II. Some mats are dogs. which direction was he facing when he stopped?
III. Some rats are cats. (a) South (b) North
(a) Only I follows (b) Only II follows (c) East (d) Data inadequate
(c) Only III follows (d) I and III follow (e) None of these
(e) None of the above 117. How many meaningful English words can be made with the
109. Statements : All pens are sticks. All sticks are rings. All letters RTOU using each letter only once in eachword?
rings are rods. (a) None (b) One
Conclusions : I. Some rings are pens. (c) Two (d) Three
II. Some rods are sticks. (e) More than three
III. Some rods are pens. 118. If 'P' denotes ''; 'Q' denotes ' ', 'R' de notes '' and 'W'
(a) I and II follow (b) I and III follow denotes '+' then-
(c) II and III follow (d) All I, II and III follow 48 Q 12 R 10 P 8 W 4=?
(a) 56 (b) 40
110. Statements : Some tables are chairs. All chairs are houses.
(c) 52 (d) 44
All houses are tents.
(e) None of these
Conclusions : I. All houses are chairs.
II. Some tents are chairs. 119. Which of the following is the middle digit of the second
III. Some houses are tables. highest number among the five three-digit numbers given
below ?
(a) I and II follow (b) I and III follow
(c) II and III follow (d) All I, II and III follow 512 739 428 843 654
(e) None of the above (a) 1 (b) 3
111. Statements : Some boxes are walls. No wall is road. All roads (c) 2 (d) 4
are rivers. (e) 5
Conclusions : I. Some rivers are walls. 120. In a certain code language 'green grass everywhere' is written
II. Some roads are boxes. as 'dik pa sok' and 'cow eats grass' is written as 'nok ta pa'.
III. No wall is river. How is 'cow' written in that code language?
(a) Only I follows (b) Either I or III follows (a) nok (b) ta
(c) Only III follows (d) Only II follows (c) nok or ta (d) Data inadequate
(e) II and III follow (e) None of these
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256 SPEED TEST 100
a
h
b
Part-IV : Computer Knowledge 131. It is better to copy a file from a floppy disk to a hard disk
o
then open the copy on the hard disk because
o
121. A program designed to destroy data on your computer which
b
(a) a floppy disk is easily moved from one computer to
.w
can travel to infect other computers is called a
an other
o
(a) disease (b) torpedo
rd
(c) hurricane (d) virus (b) you can store more on a hard disk
p
(e) None of these (c) the computer cannot open a file stored on a floppy
re
disk
s
122. What is the most common way to get a virus in your
s
(d) reading a hard disk is much faster and safer
.c
computers hard disk ?
o
(a) By installing games from their CDROMS (e) None of these
m
(b) By uploading pictures from mobile phones to the 132. Information on a computer is stored as
computer (a) analog data (b) digital data
(c) By opening e-mails (c) modern data (d) watts data
(d) By sending e-mails (e) None of these
(e) None of these 133. Permanent Memory in computer is called
123. What is the main folder on a storage device called ? (a) RAM (b) ROM
(a) platform (b) interface (c) CPU (d) CD ROM
(c) root directory (d) device driver (e) None of these
(e) None of these 134. ________ are graphical objects used to represent commonly
124. A hard copy of a file created on a computer refers to data used application.
(a) saved on a floppy disk (a) GUI (b) Drivers
(b) printed on a printer (c) Windows (d) Application
(c) backed up on a tape drive (e) Icons
(d) sent as an e-mail 135. A field that uniquely identifies which person, thing, or event
(e) None of these the record describes is a
125. When you quickely press and release the left mouse button (a) file (b) data
twice, you are (c) field (d) key
(a) Primary clicking (e) None of these
(b) Pointing 136. You cannot link Excel worksheet data to a Word document
(c) Double clicking (a) with the right drag method
(d) Secondary clicking (b) with the hyperlink
(e) None of these (c) with the copy and paste special commands
126. Underlined text, such as text and folder names is referred to (d) with the copy and paste buttons on the standard
as a commands
(a) icon (b) hyperlink (e) All of these
(c) menu (d) source drive 137. Which of the following is not a common feature of software
(e) None of these applications?
127. To centre a paragraph using shortcut keys, press (a) Menu (b) Window
(a) CTRL + C (b) CTRL + E (c) Help (d) Search
(c) CTRL + L (d) CTRL + R (e) None of these
(e) None of these 138. In a spreadsheet, a cell is defined as the
128. A series 100 POST error code indicates a problem with the (a) intersection of a table and a tuplet
(a) hard drive (b) ram or rom (b) intersection of a file and a database
(c) system board (d) video adapter (c) intersection of a row and column
(e) None of these (d) intersection of a field and a record
129. Word processing, spreadsheet, and photo-editing are (e) None of these
examples of 139. The particular field of a record that uniquely identifies each
(a) application software record is called the
(b) system software (a) key field (b) primary field
(c) operating system software (c) master field (d) order field
(d) platform software
(e) None of these
(e) None of these
140. _______ represents raw facts, whereas _______ is data
130. Which of the following displays to the right of the space made meaningful.
where the text will be inserted when you type?
(a) Information, reporting (b) Data, information
(a) Screen tip (b) Insertion point
(c) Information, bits (d) Records, bytes
(c) Rulers (d) Office assistant
(e) None of these (e) Bits, bytes
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SPEED TEST 100 257
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141. What part of the computer stores programs and files for 153. The clock rate of a processor is measured in-
o
later use? (a) Milliseconds
o
b
(a) RAM memory (b) hard drive (b) Microhertz
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(c) mother board (d) adapter board (c) Megabytes or Gigabytes
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(e) None of these (d) Nanoseconds
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142. If you are going to a Site you use often, instead of having to (e) Megahertz or Gigahertz
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type in the address every time. You should 154. A computer virus normally attaches itself to another
s
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(a) make a copy of it (b) save it as a file computer program known as a -
.c
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(c) memorise it (d) bookmark it (a) backdoor program (b) target program
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(e) note it in your diary (c) trojan horse (d) host program
143. The most frequently used piece of hardware for inputting (e) bluetooth
data is the 155. These devices translate data and programs that humans
(a) keyboard (b) floppy disk can understand into a form that the computer can process.
(c) cursor (d) software (a) display (b) input
(e) hardware (c) output (d) pointer
144. What does a Browser do ? (e) None of these
(a) Looks through magazines and books in the library 156. The amount of time required by a storage device to retrieve
(b) Reads material really fast data and programs is its -
(c) It wastes your time (a) retrieval speed (b) capacity
(d) It provides help menus (c) memory (d) storage
(e) It is software used to view web pages (e) access speed
145. This is a permanent storage device 157. A 32-bit word computer can access______ bytes at a time.
(a) floppy disk (b) monitor (a) 4 (b) 8
(c) RAM (d) cache (c) 16 (d) 32
(e) hard disk (e) 30
146. The __ may also be called the screen or monitor. 158. A megabyte is actually equal to ______kilobytes.
(a) printer (b) scanner (a) 100 (b) 1000
(c) hard disk (d) software (c) 1024 (d) 1024 1024
(e) display (e) None of these
147. Something which has easily-understood instructions is said 159. The main memory of a computer must be large enough to
to be contain the active parts of -
(a) hyper (c) information (a) the operating system
(d) word processing (e) user friendly (b) the applications
148. The __ settings are automatic and standard. (c) input/output storage and working storage
(a) icon (b) default (d) All of these
(c) CPU (d) peripheral (e) None of these
(e) user friendly 160. This type of memory improves processing by acting as a
149. Th e _____ of a system in cludes th e programs or temporary high-speed holding area between the memory
instructions. and the CPU.
(a) peripheral (b) software (a) RAM (b) ROM
(c) information (d) icon (c) Cache memory (d) Flash memory
(e) hardware (e) EPROM
150. Windows 95, Windows 98, and Windows NT are known as Part-V : English Language
what?
DIRECTIONS (Q. 161-175) : Read the following passage
(a) Processors (b) Domain names
carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/
(c) Modems (d) Operating Systems phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate them while
(e) None of these answering some of the questions.
151. These provide expansion capability for a computer system.
There was a country long time ago where the people would
(a) sockets (b) slots
change a king every year. The person who would become the
(c) bytes (d) bays king had to agree to a contract that he would be sent to an island
(e) None of these after one year of his being a king.
152. A(n) __ allows sharing of a broadband Internet connection. One king had finished his term and it was time for him to go
(a) hub (b) adapter to the island and live there. The people dressed him up in expensive
(c) router (d) switch clothes and put him on an elephant and took him around the cities
(e) plug to say goodbye to all the people. This was a moment of sadness
for all kings who ruled for one year. After bidding farewell, the
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258 SPEED TEST 100
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people took the king to a remote island in a boat and left him there. 162. What would happen to the king once his term of one year
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On their way back, they discovered a ship that had sunk just
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was over ?
b
recently. They saw a young man who had survived by holding on (a) He would be paraded in the cities as a farewell and
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to a floating piece of wood. As they needed a new king, they then be taken to a remote island
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picked up the young man and took him to their country. They
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(b) He would be gifted with expensive clothes and
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requested him to be king for a year. First he refused but later he jewellery
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agreed to be the king. People told him about all the rules and
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(c) He would be sent on an island which required a lot of
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regulations and that how he would be sent to an island after one
.c
work to be done
year.
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(d) He would be asked to buy an elephant and go to the
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After three days of being a king, he asked the ministers if
they could show him the island where all the other kings were remote island himself
sent. They agreed and took him to the island. The island was (e) None of the above
covered with a thick Jungle and sounds of vicious animals were 163. What did the young man notice on his visit to the remote
heard coming out of it. The king went a little bit further to check. island after three days of being king?
Soon he discovered dead bodies of all the past kings. He (a) That the animals on the island were too many to be
understood that as soon as they were left on the island, the wild killed
animals had come and killed them. (b) That the island was very big
The king went back to the country and collected 100 strong (c) That the jungle on the island was full of animals that
workers. He took them to the island and instructed them to clean had killed all the previous kings placed on the island
the jungle, remove all the deadly animals and cut down all excess
(d) That the island was very beautiful and clean
trees. He would visit the island every month to see how the work
(e) Not mentioned in the passage
was progressing. In the first month, all the animals were removed
and many trees were cut down. In the second month, the whole 164. What happened to the island in the first month of the young
island was cleaned out. The king then told the workers to plant kings tenure?
gardens in various parts of the island. He also took with himself (A) The wild animals were removed from the island.
useful animals like chickens, ducks, birds, goats, cows etc. In the (B) The whole island was cleaned.
third month, he ordered the workers to build big houses and (C) Many unnecessary trees were cut down.
docking stations for ships. Over the months, the island turned (a) Only A (b) Only B
into a beautiful place. The young king would wear simple clothes (c) Only C (d) B and C
and spend very little from his earnings as a king. He sent all the (e) A and C
earnings to the island for storage. When nine months passed like
165. What could be said about the island after the young king
this, the king called the ministers and told them: I know that I
had made his servants work on it ?
have to go the island after one year, but I would like to go there
right now. But the ministers didnt agree to this and said that he (a) The dangerous island had been turned to a beautiful
had to wait for another three months to complete the year. place
Three months passed and now it was a full year. The people (b) The island still remained the same despite all the young
dressed up the young king and put him on an elephant to take him kings efforts
around the country to say goodbye to others. However, this king (c) The island was barely tolerable now
was unusually happy to leave the kingdom. People asked him, (d) The island was safe from all types of attacks
All the other kings would cry at this moment. Why is it that you (e) None of the above
are laughing? He replied, Dont you know what the wise people 166. Which of the following describes the young king correctly?
say? They say that when you come to this world as a baby, you (A) He was intelligent
are crying and everyone else is smiling. Live such a life that when (B) He had foresight
you die, you will be smiling and everyone around you will be
(C) He was cunning
crying. I have lived that life. While all the other kings were lost
into the luxuries of the kingdom, I always thought about the future (a) Only A (b) A and B
and planned for it. I turned the deadly island into a beautiful (c) Only C (d) B and C
abode for me where I can stay peacefully. (e) All A, B and C
161. Why did the people of the kingdom change the king every 167. What was the kings request to the ministers after the
year? completion of nine months?
(a) As their first king had invented this system and had (a) That he should not be sent to the island after
recorded it in the form of a contract completion of one year
(b) As they believed that the new king would bring better (b) That he would like to go to the island immediately
ideas to the kingdom. (c) That he should be paid more in order to improve work
(c) As they wanted their king to relax on an island after on the island
one year of hard work (d) That he should be sent to the island after a year
(d) Not mentioned in the passage (e) None of the above
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SPEED TEST 100 259
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168. How did the young king arrange for money on the island? DIRECTIONS (Q. 176-180) : Rearrange the following six
o
o
(a) By selling a large amount of his property sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper sequence
b
(b) By spending all the money derived from his income as
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to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given
a king below them.
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(c) By borrowing money from the ministers and sending it (A) All of a sudden the mother duck saw a fox in the distance,
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to the island was frightened and shouted, Children, hurry to the lake,
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theres a fox !
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(d) By spending very less of his income as a king and
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.c
sending it to the island for storage (B) The mother duck ran, leading the fox away from the lake and
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(e) None of the above as soon as the fox came very close, the mother duck quickly
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169. Why were the people of the kingdom puzzled when the spread her wings and rose up in the air.
young king was taken around the country to say goodbye (C) The ducklings hurried towards the lake and the mother duck
to everyone? began to walk back and forth dragging one wing on the
ground.
(a) As they could not believe that one year had elapsed
(D) A mother duck and her little ducklings were on their way to
so soon
the lake one day.
(b) As they were nor aware that the young king was
(E) The fox stared in disbelief at the mother duck and her
actually a wise sage ducklings as he could not reach the ducklings because they
(c) As the young king was happy to go to the island unlike were in the middle of the lake by now.
the previous kings (F) When the fox saw her he became happy as he thought that
(d) Not mentioned in the passage the mother duck was hurt and couldnt fly and that he could
(e) None of the above easily catch and eat her!
170. What can possibly be the moral of the story? 176. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after
(a) Always put others before yourself rearrangement?
(b) Give respect to others (a) A (b) B
(c) Live in the present and forget about the future (c) C (d) D
(d) Do not put things off until tomorrow (e) E
(e) Always think and plan ahead 177. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence
after rearrangement ?
DIRECTIONS (Q. 171-173): Choose the word/group of words (a) A (b) B
which is most similar in meaning to the word/group of words (c) C (d) D
printed in bold as used in the passage. (e) F
171. CONTRACT 178. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after
(a) work (b) signature rearrangement?
(c) deal (d) temporary (a) A (b) B
(e) get (c) C (d) D
172. BIDDING (e) E
(a) wishing (b) auctioning 179. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence
(c) wasting (d) playing after rearrangement?
(e) talking (a) B (b) C
(c) D (d) E
173. ABODE
(e) F
(a) stop (b) mountain
(c) plenty (d) house sentence after rearrangement?
(e) dwelling (a) A (b) B
DIRECTIONS (Q. 174-175) : Choose the word / group of words (c) D (d) E
which is most opposite in meaning to the word / group of words (e) F
printed in bold as used in the passage. DIRECTIONS (Q. 181-185) : Which of the phrases (a), (b), (c)
174. SURVIVED and (d) given below each sentence should replace the phrase
(a) scratched (b) died printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct?
(c) lived (d) fell If the sentence is correct as it is given and No correction is
(e) suffered required, mark (e) as the answer.
175. VICIOUS 181. As it was a dark and stormy night, Lata was too scared to go
(a) simple (b) small home alone.
(c) tough (d) harmless (a) very scary to (b) much scared to
(c) as scared to (d) to scared too
(e) ferocious
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260 SPEED TEST 100
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b
182. Since it was her engagement party, Riya was dress to kill. 189. (a) lunge (b) visited
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(a) dresses to kill (b) dressed to kill (c) ate (d) stand
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b
(c) dressed to killings (d) dressing to killed (e) pounced
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(e) No correction required 190. (a) walk (b) die
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183. Ramesh worries endlessly about his sons future as he was (c) taste (d) mix
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so poor in studies. (e) reveal
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(a) worry endless (b) worried endless 191. (a) believe (b) thought
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(c) worried endlessly (d) worries endless (c) wished (d) smiled
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(e) No correction required (e) rejoiced
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184. Now that the actual criminal had been caught, Kunal was 192. (a) make (b) let
happy that he was finally let of the hook. (c) pay (d) allow
(a) off the hook (b) of the hookings (e) request
(c) off the hooks (d) of the hooks 193. (a) idea (b) luck
(e) No correction required (c) necklace (d) cry
185. The little boy appeared all of a sudden out of nowhere and (e) presence
take everyone by surprise. 194. (a) opened (b) snatch
(a) took everyone as surprised (c) decorated (d) took
(b) take everyone with surprised (e) ring
(c) took everyone by surprises 195. (a) smiling (b) hurried
(d) took everyone by surprise (c) barking (d) much
(e) No correction required (e) friendly
DIRECTIONS (Q. 186-195) : In the following passage there are DIRECTION (Qs. 196 to 200): In each of the following sentences,
blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are an idiomatic expression or a proverb is highlighted. Select the
printed below the passage and against each, five words are alternative which best describes its use in the sentence.
suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out 196. He went to his friend's house in the evening as was his
the appropriate word in each case. wont.
A lamb was (186) with a flock of sheep one day. She soon (a) as usual (b) as he wanted
found some sweet grass at the (187) of the field. Farther and (c) as his want was (d) as he wanted that day
farther she went, away from the others. She was enjoying herself (e) none of these
so much that she did not (188) a wolf coming nearer to her. 197. Why do you wish to tread on the toes?
However, when it (189) on her, she was quick to start pleading, (a) To give offence to them
Please, please dont eat me yet. My stomach is full of grass. If
(b) To follow them grudgingly
you wait a while, I will (190) much better. The wolf (191) that
(c) To treat them indifferently
was a good idea, so he sat down and waited. After a while, the
(d) To be kicked by them
lamb said, If you (192) me to dance, the grass in my stomach will
(e) None of these
be digested faster. Again the wolf agreed. While the lamb was
dancing, she had a new (193). She said, Please take the bell from 198. He intends setting up as a lawyer in the adjoining district.
around my neck. If you ring it as hard as you can, I will be able to (a) To establish himself (b) To migrate
dance even faster. The wolf (194) the bell and rang it as hard as (c) To join (d) To settle
he could. The shepherd heard the bell ringing and quickly sent (e) None of these
his dogs to find the missing lamb. The (195) dogs frightened the 199. The autographed bat from the famous cricketer Sunil
wolf away and saved the lambs life. Gavaskar is worth a jew's eye.
186. (a) watching (b) laughing (a) Not a worthy possession
(c) willing (d) tiring (b) unnecessary
(e) grazing (c) A costly items
187. (a) height (b) edge (d) A possession of high value
(c) midst (d) first (e) None of these
(e) base 200. The speaker gave a bird's eye view of the political conditions
188 (a) notice (b) trust in the country.
(c) saw (d) worry (a) a personal view (b) a general view
(e) maintain (c) a biased view (d) a detailed presentation
(e) None of these
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SPEED TEST 100 261
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RESPONSE SHEET
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1. 51. 101. 151.
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102.
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2. 52. 152.
3. 53. 103. 153.
4. 54. 104. 154.
5. 55. 105. 155.
6. 56. 106. 156.
7. 57. 107. 157.
8. 58. 108. 158.
9. 59. 109. 159.
10. 60. 110. 160.
11. 61. 111. 161.
12. 62. 112. 162.
13. 63. 113. 163.
14. 64. 114. 164.
15. 65. 115. 165.
16. 66. 116. 166.
17. 67. 117. 167.
18. 68. 118. 168.
19. 69. 119. 169.
20. 70. 120. 170.
21. 71. 121. 171.
22. 72. 122. 172.
23. 73. 123. 173.
24. 74. 124. 174.
25. 75. 125. 175.
26. 76. 126. 176.
27. 77. 127. 177.
28. 78. 128. 178.
29. 79. 129. 179.
30. 80. 130. 180.
31. 81. 131. 181.
32. 82. 132. 182.
33. 83. 133. 183.
34. 84. 134. 184.
35. 85. 135. 185.
36. 86. 136. 186.
37. 87. 137. 187.
38. 88. 138. 188.
39. 89. 139. 189.
40. 90. 140. 190.
41. 91. 141. 191.
42. 92. 142. 192.
43. 93. 143. 193.
44. 94. 144. 194.
45. 95. 145. 195.
46. 96. 146. 196.
47. 97. 147. 197.
48. 98. 148. 198.
49. 99. 149. 199.
50. 100. 150. 200.
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SPEED TEST 100
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Part-I : General Awareness 8. Which bank has been given approval by the SEBI for its
(With Special Reference Banking Industry) right issue?
(a) Karnataka Bank (b) Kerala Bank
1. On which one of the following issues can SEBI penalize any
company in India? (c) Gujrat Bank (d) All of these
(A) Violation of Banking Regulation Act. (e) None of these
(B) Violation of foreign portfolio investment guidelines. 9. Who was the author of Das Capital?
(C) For violation of Negotiable Instrument Act. (a) J.M. Keynes (b) Karl Marx
(a) Only (A) (b) All (A), (B) & (C) (c) James Tobin (d) Adam Smith
(c) Only (A) & (B) (d) Only (B) & (C)
(e) Only (B) (e) None of these
2. Expand the term ALM as used in Banking/Finance sector? 10. Which of the following is not a Central Government tax?
(a) Asset Liability Mismatch (a) Income tax (b) Customs
(b) Asset Liability Maturity (c) Land revenue (d) Corporation tax
(c) Asset Liability Management
(d) Asset Liability Manpower (e) None of these
(e) None of the above 11. Which of the following books has been written by Bill Gates?
3. 'Complete Silence' claims the baseline of (a) Microsoft Secrets (b) The Road Ahead
(a) Samsung washing machines (c) The Elephant Paradigm (d) How Nations Compete
(b) Symphony air coolers
(e) None of these
(c) Daikin air conditioners
12. The expansion for the BIS, in the context of the banking
(d) Crompton Greaves fans
industry is
4. What is an ISO series? (a) Bank for International Settlements
(a) Documentation of production processes (b) Bank for Industrial Settlements
(b) Engineering process flowchart (c) Bank for Industrial Sectors
(c) Quality management and quality assurance standards (d) Bank for International Services
(d) All of the above (e) None of these
(e) None of the above 13. As per the guidelines issued by the SEBI the Permanent
5. The Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce and In- Account Number (PAN) is a must for which of the following?
dustry (FICCI) was founded in 1927 by
(a) Demat Accounts
(a) Birla and Tata (b) Tata and Thakurdas
(c) Thakurdas and Birla (d) Tata and Godrej (b) All Saving Banks Accounts
(e) None of these (c) All Housing Loan Accounts
6. Rituals, Tankers, Gatsby, Aviator, Fugitive and Sidestreet (d) All Current Accounts
are models of (e) None of these
(a) Ray Ban Sunshades 14. Which of the following statement is true?
(b) Trousers by Raymond (a) Banks cannot accept demand and time deposite from
(c) Shirts by Reid & Taylor public.
(d) Panasonic televisions
(b) Banks can accept only demand deposits from public.
(c) Banks can accept only time deposits from public.
7. L'Oreal is a company of
(a) France (b) England (d) Banks can accept both demand and time deposits from
(c) Sweden (d) Japan public.
(e) None of these (e) Banks can accept demand and time deposits only from
government.
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264 SPEED TEST 101
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b
15. Interest payable on saving bank accounts is 21. Which of the following Statements containing results of
o
India's recent Census is NOT correct?
o
(a) not regulated by RBI.
b
(a) Kerala has about 94% literacy, the highest in India.
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(b) regulated by State Governments
(b) The Sex Ratio in India is 940
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(c) regulated by Central Government
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(c) Male literacy is lower than female literacy in seven
(d) regulated by RBI
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most developed states
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(e) regulated by Finance minister.
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(d) Uttar Pradesh is the most populous State in India
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16. Which of the following is the correct statement?
.c
(e) The population of India has increased by 181 million
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(a) State bank of India is the sole authority to issue and during the decade 2001-2011
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manage currency in India. 22. Which of the following is known as cross selling by Banks?
(b) A nationalized bank is the sole authority to Issue and (A) Sale of a debit card to a credit card holder
manage currency in India (B) Sale of Insurance policy to a depositor
(c) A cooperative bank is the sole authority to issue and (C) Issuance of Cash against Cheque presented by a third
manage currency in India. party
(d) RBI is the sole authority to issue and manage currency (a) Only (A) (b) Only (B)
in India. (c) Only (C) (d) Both (A) and (C)
(e) None of these
23. When a bank returns a cheque unpaid. It is called
17. Accounts are allowed to be operated by cheques in respect
(a) payment of the cheque
of
(b) drawing of the cheque
(a) Both Savings bank accounts and fixed deposit accounts
(c) cancelling of the cheque
(b) Savings bank accounts and current accounts (d) dishonour of the cheque
(c) Both Savings bank accounts and loan accounts (e) taking of the cheque.
(d) Both Savings bank accounts and cash accounts only 24. Distribution of Insurance products and Insurance policies
(e) Both Current accounts and fixed deposit accounts by banks as corporate agents is known as
18. Which of the following is correct statement? (a) General Insurance (b) Non-life Insurance
(a) Normally no interest is paid on current deposit (c) Bancassurance (d) Insurance banking
accounts (e) Deposit Insurance
25. What does the letter 'L' denote in term 'LAF' as referred
(b) Interest is paid on current accounts at the same rate as
every now and then in relation to monetary policy of the
term deposit accounts
RBI?
(c) The rate of interest on current account and savings (a) Liquidity (b) Liability
account are the same (c) Leveraged (d) Longitudinal
(d) No interest is paid on any deposit by the bank (e) Linear
(e) Savings deposits are the same as current deposits. 26. POSCO is in the process of establishing its plants in India.
19. The usual deposit accounts of banks are What does the letter 'P'. denote in the name POSCO?
(a) Current accounts, electricity accounts and insurance (a) Popular (b) Pallin
premium accounts (c) Pohang (d) Paradeep
(b) Current accounts, Post office savings bank accounts (e) Petersburg
and term deposit accounts 27. Which of the following is not considered a money market
(c) Loan accounts, savings bank accounts and term instrument?
deposit accounts (a) Treasury bills (b) Repurchase Agreement
(c) Commercial paper (d) Certificate of Deposit
(d) Current accounts, savings bank accounts and term
(e) Shares and bonds
deposit accounts
28. Banks in our country normally publicise that additional
(e) Current bill accounts and term deposit accounts
interest rate is allowed on retail domestic term deposits of
20. Fixed deposits and recurring deposits are (a) Minors (b) Married women
(a) repayable after an agreed period. (c) Senior citizens (d) Govt. employees
(b) repayable on demand (e) Rural residents
(c) not repayable 29. FBTR is a term/ abbreviated name related to the area of
(d) repayable after death of depositors (a) Nuclear power (b) Agriculture
(e) repayable on demand or after an agreed period as per (c) Economy (d) Medical Science
bank's choice. (e) Sports
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SPEED TEST 101 265
a
h
b
30. Interest on savings bank account is now calculated by banks Part-II : Numerical Ability
o
on
o
b
(a) minimum balance during the month DIRECTIONS (Qs. 41-50): What will come in place of the question
.w
(b) minimum balance from 7th to last day of the month mark (?) in the following questions ?
o
rd
(c) minimum balance from 10th to last day of the month
5 4 3
p
(d) maximum balance during the month 41. of of of 222 = ?
re
(e) daily product basis 8 9 5
s
s
31. Which telecom operator has recently launched pan-India (a) 42 (b) 43
.c
o
4G services? (c) 39 (d) 37
m
(a) Vodafone (b) Airtel (e) None of these
(c) BSNL (d) Reliance Geo
42. 56% of 450 + ? = 300
(e) None of these
32. Which bank has signed an agreement with Mudra Bank for (a) 52 (b) 48
refinancing of loans given to small enterprises recently? (c) 42 (d) 56
(a) ICICI (b) Axis Bank (e) None of these
(c) Bank of Maharashtra (d) IDBI
43. 271.5 273.5 27?
(e) None of these
33. Which of the following has tied up with Snapdeal recently (a) 5 (b) 7
to retail their products online? (c) 3 (d) 2
(a) HomeStop (b) Shoppers Stop (e) None of these
(c) Future Group (d) Both a & b 44. 27.06 25 ? = 600
(e) None of these
(a) 76.3 (b) 76.7
34. Who has been chosen for the Bharat Bharti literacy award
(c) 76.5 (d) 76.2
2014?
(a) Govind Mishra (b) Kailesh Bajpai (e) None of these
(c) Kashinath Singh (d) Doodnath Singh 7 4
(e) None of these 45. 4 2 ?
8 13
35. The International Olympic Committee (IOC) has officially
recognized which sport as an Olympic sport recently? 1 1
(a) Floorball (b) Finswimming (a) 11 (b) 11
3 13
(c) Frisbee (d) Fistball
36. Which bank launched Smart Vault which is first of its kind (c) 11 (d) 11
13 8
fully automated digital locker?
(a) Canara Bank (b) ICICI Bank (e) None of these
(c) Federal bank (d) Bank of baroda
1
(e) None of these 46. 84 85 82 8?
37. India Aspiration Fund (IAF) and SIDBI Make In India Loan 83
For Enterprises (SMILE) are launched by which of the (a) 7 (b) 2
following bank? (c) 3 (d) 4
(a) SIDBI (b) HDFC
(e) None of these
(c) ICICI (d) Yes Bank
(e) None of these 47. (a b) ? = b a
38. International Youth Day was recently observed on? (a) 1 (b) 1
(a) 12 August (b) 11 August (c) a (d) a
(c) 13 August (d) 10 August (e) None of these
(e) None of these
39. Which city is host of 2022 Winter Olympic Games? 48. (a + b) = ? ( a b)
(a) Tokyo (b) Beijing (a) 1 (b) a
(c) Pyeongchang (d) Almaty (c) 1 (d) b
40. Which state government in India has instituted youth award 49. |? + 14| = 11
in name of Former President Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam?
(a) 3 (b) 25
(a) Uttar Pradesh (b) Andhara Pradesh (c) 25 (d) 3
(c) Meghalaya (d) Tamil Nadu (e) Either 3 or 25
(e) None of these
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266 SPEED TEST 101
a
h
b
50. 16 + 26 2 =? 58. Fifteen years hence, a man will be four times as old as he
o
was fifteen years ago. His present age is:
o
(a) 84 (b) 44
b
(c) 40 (d) 832 (a) 25 years (b) 20 years
.w
(e) None of these (c) 30 years (d) 45 years
o
rd
51. Which of the following fractions is the least ? (e) None of these
p
59. The floor of a rectangular room is 15 m long and 12 m wide.
re
12 1
(a) (b)
s
119 10 The room is surrounded by a erandah of width 2 m on all its
s
.c
sides. The area of the erandah is :
o
4 7 (a) 124 m2 (b) 120 m2
m
(c) (d)
39 69 (c) 108 m2 (d) 58 m2
52. A number of points are marked on a plane and are connected DIRECTIONS (Qs. 60-64) : Find the next term in the given series
pairwise by a line segment. If the total number of line in each of the questions below.
segments is 10, how many points are marked on the plane ? 60. 2, 4, ?, 16, 32
(a) 4 (b) 10 (a) 6 (b) 10
(c) 5 (d) 9 (c) 8 (d) 12
53. A sum of money becomes eight times in 3 years if the rate is 61. 0, 7, 26, ?, 124, 215
compounded annually. In how much time, the same amount (a) 37 (b) 51
at the same compound interest rate will become sixteen (c) 63 (d) 88
times? (e) None of these
(a) 6 years (b) 4 years 62. 4, 15, 16, ?, 36, 63, 64
(c) 8 years (d) 5 years (a) 25 (b) 30
54. A machine is sold at a profit of 10%. Had it been sold for (e) None of these
` 40 less, there would have been a loss of 10%. What was 63. 1, 8, 9, ?, 25, 216, 49
the cost price ? (a) 60 (b) 64
(a) ` 320 (b) ` 200 (c) 70 (d) 75
(c) ` 225 (d) ` 250 (e) None of these
(e) None of these 64. 336, 210, 120, ?, 24, 6, 0
55. Ram spends ` 3620 for buying pants at the rate of ` 480 (a) 40 (b) 50
each and shirts at the rate of ` 130 each. What will be the (c) 60 (d) 70
ratio of pants to shirts when maximum number of pants are (e) None of these
to be bought ?
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 65-70): Find out the approximate value which
(a) 7 : 2 (b) 7 : 3
is closest to the value that should replace the questions mark (?)
(c) 2 : 7 (d) 4 : 5
in the following questions. (You are not expected to find out the
(e) None of these
exact value.)
56. Two trains each of 120 m in length, run in opposite directions
with a velocity of 40 m/s and 20 m/s respectively. How long 65. 1223.9975 ?
will it take for the tail ends of the two trains to meet each (a) 110 (b) 144
other during the course of their journey ? (c) 34 (d) 12.55
(a) 20 s (b) 3 s (e) 125
(c) 4 s (d) 5 s 66. 503 201 = ?
(e) None of these (a) 101100 (b) 1000000
57. Ramesh is twice as good a workman as Sunil and finishes a (c) 110000 (d) 100003
piece of work in 3 hours less than Sunil. In how many hours (e) 1000103
they together could finish the same piece of work ? 67. 1205 2.5 = ?
1 (a) 3000 (b) 4800
(a) 2 (b) 2 (c) 300 (d) 480
3
(e) 500
2 68. 22020 0.011 = ?
(c) 1 (d) 8
3 (a) 20020 (b) 2002000
(e) None of these (c) 200200 (d) 20002
(e) 2000020
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SPEED TEST 101 267
a
h
b
o
69. 20800 ? 256 64 ? (10)2 (62 )
76.
o
b
(a) 12 (b) 120
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(c) 140 (d) 102 77. [(52 3) 12] ? 196
o
rd
(e) 1020
78. [156 (36 42)] ? [(9)2 2]
p
re
3 1 1 79. [(15 3) + (35 7) ? [(138 - 94) 4
s
70. 1 2 7 ?
s
5 7 3 [(52 (4)2) 5] ? [(52 8 (4 5)]
.c
80.
o
(a) 17 (b) 3
m
(c) 9 (d) 29 Part-III : Reasoning
(e) 25 81. In a certain code language tree is very beautiful is written
71. The height of four boys is recorded as 142 cms., 156 cms., as ka na da ta and this is stong tree is written as na pa sa
162 cms. and 178 cms. What is the average height of all four ka. How is beautiful written in that code language?
boys? (a) da (b) ta
(a) 160 cms. (b) 158.5 cms. (c) sa (d) Data inadequate
(c) 159.5 cms. (d) 162 cms. (e) None of these
82. In a certain code GIVE is written as 51@ and FAIL is
(e) None of these
written as % 219. How is LEAF written in that code?
72. Pratul's monthly income is one-fourth of Manoj's monthly
(a) 52% (b) 92%
income. Manoj's annual income is ` 2.16 lacs. What is (c) 9@2% (d) 91%
Pratul's annual income? (In some cases monthly income and (e) None of these
in some cases annual income are used.) 83. The positions of the first and the sixth digits in the number
(a) ` 54.000 (b) ` 5.4 thousand 5109238674 and interchanged, similarly the positions of the
(c) ` 4.500 (d) ` 45.000 second and the seventh digits are interchanged and so on.
(e) None of these Which of the following will be the third digit from the right
end after the rearrangement?
DIRECTIONS (73-75) : What will come in place of the question (a) 9 (b) 0
mark (?) in the following number series? (c) 6 (d) 3
73. 17 98 147 172 181 (?) (e) None of these
(a) 180 (b) 192 84. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so
(c) 184 (d) 182 form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that
group?
(e) None of these
(a) Wheel (b) Tyre
74. 11 19 31 47 67 (?)
(c) Car (d) Door
(a) 80 (b) 81 (e) Gear
(c) 86 (d) 96 85. In a certain code SUBSTANCE is written as RATRUFDOB.
(e) None of these How is TENTHOUSE written in that code?
75. 748 460 316 244 208 (?) (a) SMDSIFTVP (b) UOFUIDRTN
(a) 180 (b) 190 (c) UOFUIFTVP (d) SMDSIDRTN
(e) None of these DIRECTIONS (86 88): Following questions are based on the
five three digit numbers given below:
DIRECTIONS (76-80) : In each of these questions an equation is 519 364 287 158 835
given with a question mark (?) in place of a correct symbol. 86. If the positions of the first and the third digits within each
Based on the values on the right hand side and the left hand side number are interchanged, which of the following will be the
of the question mark, you have to decide which of the following third digit of the second lowest number?
symbol will come in place of the questionmark. (a) 9 (b) 4
Give answer If in place of question mark (?) following will come (c) 7 (d) 8
(a) > (greater than) (e) 5
87. If the positions of the first and the third digits within each
(b) = (equal to)
number are interchanged, which of the following will be the
(c) < (less than) middle digit of the second highest number?
(d) (either greater or equal to) (a) 1 (b) 6
(e) (either less or equal to) (c) 8 (d) 5
(e) 3
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268 SPEED TEST 101
a
h
b
88. Which of the following is the difference between the second 95. Statements: F R, R M, M S D
o
digits of the highest and the lowest of these numbers?
o
Conclusions: I. D # R
b
(a) 3 (b) 1
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(c) 2 (d) 0 II. D # F
o
(e) None of these
rd
III. M @ F
p
DIRECTIONS (89 93) : Study the following information carefully
re
(a) Only I and II are true
and answer the questions given below:
s
s
(b) Only I and III are true
.c
A, M, P, D, Q, R, W and B are sitting around a circle facing at the
o
centre. D is fourth to the left of A who is third to the right of M. P (c) Only II and III are true
m
is third to the left of Q who is third to the left of M. R is third to the (d) All I, II and III are true
right of W who is second to the right of B.
89. Who is second to the left of D? (e) None of these
(a) W (b) B 96. Statements: V M, M B, B S F
(c) Q (d) Data inadequate
(e) None of these Conclusions: I. F # M
90. Who is third to the left of P? II. B @ V
(a) M (b) D
III. F # V
(c) R (d) Data inadequate
(e) None of these (a) Only I and II are true
91. Who is to the immediate right of Q? (b) Only II and III are true
(a) W (b) D
(c) B (d) Data inadequate (c) Only I and III are ture
(e) None of these (d) All I, II and III are true
92. Which of the following pairs represents the first and second
respectively to the right of W? (e) None of these
(a) DM (b) QB 97. Statements: D # N, N @ B, B F
(c) MR (d) Data inadequate
Conclusions: I. F S D
(e) None of these
93. In which of the following pairs is the second person sitting II. N # F
to the immediate right of the first person?
III N F
(a) MD (b) RM
(c) AB (d) QB (a) Only I is true
(e) None of these
(b) Only II is true
DIRECTIONS (9498): In the following questions, the symbols (c) Only III is true
@, S, , and # are used with the following meaning as
(d) Only either II or III is true
illustrated below:
(e) Only I and either II or III are true
P Q means P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q.
98. Statements: R S T, T # K, K @ M
P S Q means P is neither greater than nor equal to Q.
Conclusions: I. R S M
P @ Q means P is not smaller than Q.
P Q means P is not greater than Q. II. T # M
P # Q means P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q. III. R S K
Now is each of the following questions assuming the given (a) None is true (b) Only I is true
statements to be true. Find which of the three conclusions I, II (c) Only II is true (d) Only III is true
and III given below them is/are definitely true and give your answer (e) Only II and III are true
accordingly.
DIRECTIONS (99 103): Study the following arrangement
94. Statements: W @ T, T M, M S D
carefully and answer the questions given below:
Conclusions: I. W # D
II W @ M W3#R@E JKT4B91 DU81H%AV 5 7MP 2Q66
III. D # T 99. Which of the following is the sixth to the right of the twenty
(a) Only I is true first from the right end of the above arrangement?
(b) Only II is true (a) 8 (b) D
(c) Only III is true (c) P (d) @
(d) Only II and III are true (e) None of these
(e) None of these
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SPEED TEST 101 269
a
h
b
100. How many such vowels are there in the above arrangement 106. Statements :
o
o
each of which is immediately preceded by a symbol and All cycles are tyres.
b
.w
immediately followed by a consonant? Some tyres are wheels.
o
All wheels are buses.
rd
(a) None (b) One
Conclusions :
p
(c) Two (d) Three
re
I. Some buses are tyres.
s
(e) Four
s
II. Some wheels are tyres.
.c
101. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement,
o
IIi. Some buses are cycles.
m
each of which is immediately followed by a number but not
(a) Only I and II follow (b) Only I and III follow
immediately preceded by a number?
(a) None (b) One (c) Only II and III follow (d) All I, II and III follow
(e) more than three 107. Statements :
102. How many such consonants are there in the above Some dogs are cats.
arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a Some cats are horses.
number and immediately followed by a symbol? All horses are tigers.
(a) None (b) One Conclusions :
(c) Two (d) Three
I. Some tigers are cats.
(e) More than three
II. Some horses are dogs.
103. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on
their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. III. Some tigers are dogs.
Which is the one that does not belong to that group? (a) None follows (b) Only I follows
(a) 8 1 D (b) 7 5 (c) Only II follows (d) Only III follows
(c) P 2 7 (d) E J R (e) Only II and III follow
(e) T 4 J 108. Statements :
DIRECTIONS (104108) : In each of the questions below are All ropes are sticks.
given three statements followed by three conclusions numbered Some sticks are hammers.
I, II and III. You have to take the given statements to be true even Some hammers are lakes.
if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read
Conclusions :
all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions
logically follows from the given statements disregarding I. Some lakes are ropes.
commonly known facts. II. Some hammers are ropes.
104. Statements : III. Some lakes are sticks.
All keys are locks. (a) None follows (b) Only I follows
No lock is toy. (c) Only II follows (d) Only III follows
All bags are toys. (e) Only I and III follow
Conclusions :
DIRECTIONS (109 110) : In each of the questions given below
I. No bag is key.
which one of the five answer figures on the right should come
II. Some bags are keys.
after the problem figures on the left, if the sequence were
III. Some toys are keys.
(a) None follows (b) Only I follows continued?
(c) Only II follows (d) Only III follows 109. Problem Figures
(e) Only I and II follow
105. Statements : C C S S =
Z S C = S
Some days are nights.
S Z = C Z
Some nights are months. = = Z Z C
Some months are years.
Conclusions : Answer Figures
I. Some years are nights.
II. Some months are days. = = S S =
III. No year is night. S Z = = Z
(a) Only I follows (b) Only II follows Z S C C S
(c) Only III follows (d) Only either I or II follows C C Z Z C
(e) None of these (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
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270 SPEED TEST 101
a
h
b
110. Problem Figures 114. In a certain code OMNIBUS is written as SUBINMO. How
o
is TROUBLE written in that code?
o
C = = C
b
(a) ELBUORT (b) ELRTBOU
.w
S = C (c) EBOURLT (d) ELBTROU
o
rd
= C = (e) None of these
p
115. How many such pairs of letters arethere in the word
re
Answer Figures
s
CORPORATE each of which has as many letters between
s
.c
D CD D C = them in the word as in the English alphabet?
o
=C = = =C
m
(a) None (b) One
C (c) Two (d) Three
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e) (e) More than three
116. If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 111-113) : Study the following paragraph first, second, fifth, and sixth letters of the word
and answer the questions that follow : 'EDUCATION', which would be the last letter of the word?
Election petitions in India are at present to be filed in the If more than one such word can be formed, give X as the
High Court. Under the Representation of the People Act, such
answer. If
petitions should be disposed of within a period of 6 months. In
actual practice however, such petitions remain pending for years no such word can be formed, give K as your answer.
and in the meanwhile, even the full term of the House expires thus (a) T (b) X
rendering the election petition infructuous. There have been (c) A (d) E
suggestions from other high level committees and eminent persons (e) K
that a separate judicial set-up may be required. The National 117. Rohan walks a distance of 10 km towards North, then turns
Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution (NCRWC)
to his left and walks 20 km. He again turns left and walks 10
recommended that special election benches should be constituted
in the High Courts earmarked exclusively for the disposal of km and then, he takes a right turn and walks 5 km. How far
election petitions. he is from the starting point?
111. Which of the following conclusion which can be drawn (a) 10km (b) 20 km
from the facts stated in the above paragraph? (c) 30 km (d) 25 km
(a) The election commission should itself. make the (e) 15 km
disposal of election disputes.
118. If 'a' means '', 'B' means '', 'A' means ' 'and 'F' means '+',
(b) The election commission should hand-over the
disputes to an authority. then-
(c) The election petitions remain pending for years while 12 B 20 A 4 Q 10 F 30 = ?
it should be disposed within six years. (a) 60 (b) 80
(d) To fast disposal of election petitions a separate judicial (c) 70 (d) 90
set-up should be made or special benches should be (e) None of these
constituted in the High Courts.
(e) None of these 119. The positions of the first and eighth digits of the number
112. Which of the following statement strengthens the 92753481 are interchanged. Similarly, the positions of second
conclusion of paragraph? and the seventh digits are interchanged and so on, which of
(a) Political parties should patch-up the disputes amongst the following will be the fifth digit to the left of the second
them. digit from the right end after the rearrangement?
(b) Election disputes should be disposed the parliament (a) 8 (b) 2
or concerned house of states.
(c) 4 (d) 1
(c) The supreme Court should establish a special judicial
authority for the disposal of election petitions. (e) 3
(d) Existing system is appropriate for the disposal of 120. What should come next in the following letter series?
election-petitions. Z Y X W V U T Z Y X W V U Z YX W V Z Y X W
(e) None of these (a) V (b) Y
113. Which of the following statement weakens the conclusion (c) Z (d) U
of the paragraph?
(e) None of these
(a) The government should follow the high level
committees and eminent persons. Part-IV : Computer Knowledge
(b) The government should follow the recommendation
of NCRWC. 121. Most of the commonly available personal computers /
(c) The new system may be unsuccessful so, the laptops have a keyboard popularly known as
government should continue the existing system. (a) QWERTY (b) QOLTY
(d) Fast disposal of election petitions is necessary. (c) ALTER (d) UCLIF
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SPEED TEST 101 271
a
h
b
122. What are the default file extension for all word documents ? 133. Different applications and documents of windows desktop
o
are represented by
o
(a) WRD (b) TXT
b
(c) DOC (d) FIL (a) Symbols (b) Labels
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(e) None of these (c) Graph (d) Icon
o
rd
123. Manipulating data to create information is known as (e) None of these
p
134. Which of the following operating systems is not owned
(a) feedback (b) programming
re
and licensed by a company?
s
(c) processing (d) analysis
s
(a) Unix (b) Linux
.c
(e) None of these (c) Windows 2000 (d) Mac
o
m
124. A _________ is an organised colection of data about a (e) Windows
single entity. 135. The ability to find an individual item in a file immediately
(a) file (b) library (a) sequential access
(c) database (d) dictionary (b) file allocation table (c) direct access
(e) None of these (d) directory (e) None of these
125. The horizontal and vertical lines on a worksheet are called 136. You can start microsoft word by using _______ button.
(a) cells (b) sheets (a) New (b) Start
(c) blocking (d) gridlines (c) Program (d) Control Panel
126. _________ is when the computer is turned on and the 137. A-contains buttons and menus that provide quick access
operating system is loading. to commonly used commands.
(a) tool bar (b) menu bar
(a) Booting (b) Flashing
(c) window (d) find
(c) Tracking (d) Taping
(e) None of these
(e) None of these
138. GUI stands for
127. To print a document, press ________ then press ENTER (a) Gnutella Universal Interface
(a) SHIFT + P (b) CTRL + P (b) Graphical User Interface
(c) ALT + P (d) ESC + P (c) Graphic Uninstall/lnstall
(e) None of these (d) General Utility Interface
128. Which of the following are valid Min. & Max. zoom sizes in (e) None of these
MS Office 139. A ______ is an example of an input device
(a) 10, 100 (b) 20, 250 (a) keyboard (b) monitor
(c) 10, 500 (d) 10, 1000 (c) Mouse (d) Central Processing Unit
129. If you wish to extend the length of the network without 140. Which of the following peripheral devices displays
having the signal degrade, you would use a information to a user?
(a) repeater (b) router (a) Monitor
(c) gateway (d) switch (b) Keyboard
(e) None of these (c) Secondary storage devices
(d) Secondary storage media
130. Something which has easily understood instruction is said
to be (e) None of these
(a) user friendly (b) information 141. The first computers were programmed using
(c) word processing (d) icon (a) assembly language (b) machine language
(e) None of these (c) source Code (d) object code
(e) spaghetti code
131. The best reason that a computer needs to have a hard disk
142. You organise files by storing them in
is because
(a) archives (b) folders
(a) it can then use the same programs as other computers
(c) indexes (d) lists
(b) it would not work without one
(e) None of these
(c) it can store information when it is switched off
143. In order to create columnar data in Word you need to
(d) it can store information while it is working
(a) Tab consecutively until your cursor reaches the
(e) None of these desired place
132. For creating a document, you use ________ command at (b) Set tabs or use the table menu
file menu. (c) You need to use Excel
(a) New (b) Open (d) Press the space bar until your cursor reaches the
(c) Document (d) Type desired place
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272 SPEED TEST 101
a
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b
144. How many different documents can you have open at 152. Example of non-numeric data is
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anyone time? (a) Employee address
b
(b) Examination score
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(a) No more than three
(c) Bank balance
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(b) Only one
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(d) All of these
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(c) As many as your computer memory will hold (e) None of these
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(d) No more than your Taskbar can display
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153. represents raw facts. whereas is data made meaningful.
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(e) None of these (a) Information reporting (b) Data. information
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145. Hackers (c) Information. bits (d) Records. bytes
(a) all have the same motive (e) Bits. bytes
154. A word in a web page that. when clicked. opens another
(b) break into other people's computers
document
(c) may legally break into computers as long as they do (a) anchor (b) URL
not do any damage (c) hyperlink (d) reference
(d) are people who are allergic to computers (e) None of these
(e) None of these 155. A computer cannot "boot" if it does not have the
146. In page preview mode (a) Compiler (b) Loader
(c) Operating System (d) assembler
(a) You can see all pages of your document
(e) None of these
(b) You can only see the page you are currently working 156. What characteristic of read-only memory (ROM) makes it
(c) You can only see pages that do not contain graphics useful?
(d) You can only see the title page of your document (a) ROM information can be easilyupdated
(e) None of these (b) Data in ROM is nonvolatile. that is. it remains there
even without electrical power
147. What type of computers are client computers (most of the
(c) ROM provides very large amounts of inexpensive data
time) in a client-server system?
storage
(a) Mainframe (b) Mini-computer (d) ROM chips are easily swapped between different
(c) Microcomputer (d) PDA brands of computers
157. Which of the following refers to a small. single-site network?
148. "GUI" stands for
(a) LAN (b) DSL
(a) Gnutella Universal Interface
(c) RAM (d) USB
(b) Graphical User interface (e) CPU
(c) Graphic Uninstall/Install 158. Which keystroke will take you at the beginning or the end
(d) General Utility Interface of a long document?
(e) None of these (a) Ctrl+PageUp and Ctrl+ PageDown
(b) Shift+Home and Shift+End
149. A CPU contains
(c) Ctrl+Home and Ctrl+End
(a) a card reader and a printing device
(d) The only way is by using the . right scroll bar
(b) an analytical engine and a control unit (e) None of these
(c) a control unit and an arithmetic logic unit 159. Coded entries which are used to gain access to a computer
(d) an arithmetic logic unit and a card reader system are called
(e) None of these (a) entry codes (b) passwords
150. Junk e-mall is also called (c) security commands (d) code words
(e) None of these
(a) spam (b) spoof
160. In Word you can force a page break
(c) sniffer script (d) spool
(a) By positioning your cursor at the appropriate place
(e) None of these and pressing the Fl key
151. What type of resource is most likely to be a shared common (b) By using the Insert / Section Break
resource in a computer network? (c) By positioning your cursor at the appropriate place
(a) printers (b) speakers and pressing Ctrl+Enter
(c) floppy disk drives (d) keyboards (d) By changing the font size of your document
(e) None of these
(e) None of these
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SPEED TEST 101 273
a
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b
Part-V : English Language Krishnan. I have come to ask for your help, said Krishnan. Here
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are some ornaments. Please give me a good price for them. Seth
b
DIRECTIONS (Q. 161-175): Read the following passage carefully Ghanshyamdas took the jewellery and examined it carefully. I shall
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and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/ phrases certainly help you, he said. But let me show them to another
o
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have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering goldsmith. Please wait here, I will be right back. He then went out
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some of the questions. with the ornaments. Seth at once rushed to the Palace of the King.
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Long ago there was a poor Brahmin named Krishnan. He He said, A man brought these ornaments to me and asked me to
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could not find enough work to do. Sometimes, he and his family sell them. But they are the ornaments I made for the Prince who is
o
had to go without food. At last Krishnan decided to leave his missing. Who is this man? Where is he?, thundered the King.
m
village in search of work. Early next morning, he left the house. He This rogue must have murdered my little Prince and robbed his
walked the whole day until he came to a thick jungle. He was tired, jewels! He is a Brahmin named Krishnan, your Majesty, replied
thirsty and hungry. While looking around for water to drink, he the goldsmith, and he is there, in my house. The king called for his
found a well. He went to the well and looked in. There he saw a most dreaded soldiers. Arrest the Brahmin who is in the goldsmiths
jaguar, a monkey, a snake and a man. They had all fallen into the house and throw him into the darkest dungeons of the kingdom,
well. O, noble Brahmin, the jaguar called out to him, Please roared the King. The Kings guard stormed into the goldsmiths
help me out, so that I can go back to my family. house and seized Krishnan. Krishnan was thrown into a dark
But you are a jaguar, said Krishnan. How do I know you dungeon to await his execution. He then remembered the words of
will not kill me? Dont be afraid of me, I promise I will not do you Naagesh, the snake. So he called out to him.
any harm, replied the jaguar. Krishnan reached into the well and Suddenly, almost like magic, Naagesh slithered his way
pulled out the jaguar. The jaguar thanked him and said, Im down a narrow window into the dingy cell. O, Lord! hissed
Shersingh. I live in a cave in the mountains. I shall be most delighted Naagesh, how did you manage to get yourself arrested?
if I can repay my debt to you someday. Krishnan then heard the Krishnan cried and then told the snake what had happened. I
monkey calling out to him from the well. The Brahmin at once have a plan, hissed Naagesh. I shall creep into the Queens
pulled the monkey out. The monkey thanked the Brahmin. If you room and bite her, said Naagesh. She will faint. No matter what
are ever in need of food, just drop in at my place below that big they do, she will remain asleep. The poison will remain in her
mountain. Bali is my name. Now the snake called out to him for body until you place your hand on her forehead, explained
help. Help you! exclaimed Krishnan. You are a snake. What if Naagesh. He then left Krishnan and went to the palace. He crept
you bite me? I shall never bite you, said the snake. So Krishnan into the Queens room and bit her. The Queen fainted. The sad
pulled the snake out of the well. The snake said, Remember, if news that the Queen had been bitten by a snake spread all over
you are ever in any difficulty, just call out my name-Naagesh, and the Kingdom. Vaidyas came from far and near, but their medicines
wherever you are, I shall find you. The jaguar, the monkey and had no effect. No one could revive the Queen. Finally, the King
the snake took leave of the Brahmin. But before they left, they declared that anyone who could cure the Queen would be
spoke to him about the man in the well. Please do not help him, handsomely rewarded. Many people went to the palace but all of
said Shersingh. If you do, said Naagesh, you will be in trouble them failed. I can cure the Queen, Krishnan told the guards. At
yourself. As soon as they left, the man in the well began to call once they took him to the Queen. Krishnan sat beside the Queen
out for help. Krishnan felt sorry for the man and pulled him out of and placed his hand on her forehead. Soon, she opened her eyes
the well. Thank you for your kindness, said the man. I am Seth and sat up. The King was overjoyed and shed tears of happiness.
Ghanshyamdas. I am a goldsmith. If you ever need my help, dont He embraced Krishnan and thanked him. Your Majesty, said
hesitate to visit my humble house near the city. The goldsmith Krishnan. I was sent to prison for a crime I did not commit.
then left for home. Krishnan told the King the whole story. The King was fuming
After some time, the Brahmin continued his journey. But he with rage when he heard what the goldsmith had done. He at once
could not find any work. He then remembered Shersingh, Bali, had the goldsmith arrested. The King then presented Krishnan
Naagesh and Seth Ghanshyamdas. He thought it was time to with a large house and a thousand pieces of gold. Krishnan sent
seek their help. He first went to Bali. The monkey was overjoyed for his family and they all lived happily ever after.
to see him. He gave him a warm welcome and offered him some 161. Why did Krishnan decide to leave his village?
really delicious fruits. The Brahmin told him how grateful he was. (a) As he could not find much work in his own willage and
Now Krishnan went to see Shersingh, the jaguar. As soon as his family had to starve sometimes because of it.
Shersingh saw Krishnan coming, he ran out to welcome him. He (b) As his family had requested him to do so.
gave Krishnan a beautiful gold necklace and other precious
(c) As his village people had asked him to leave their village
jewellery. Krishnan thanked Shersingh for the jewellery and
and look for work somewhere else.
departed. His journey had at last brought him luck, he thought. He
(d) As he wanted to search for food in a village different
would be able to sell the ornaments for a good price. But who could
from his own.
help him to sell the ornaments? He then remembered Seth
Ghanshyamdas. He went to him. The goldsmith was glad to see (e) None of the above
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274 SPEED TEST 101
a
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b
162. Why did the jaguar, the monkey and the snake tell Krishnan 168. What did the King do on learning the truth about Krishnan
o
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not to save the man in the well? and Seth Ghanshyamdas?
b
(a) As the man in the well was a goldsmith
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(a) He put Krishnan back in the dungeon as he still held
(b) As the man in the well had cheated the snake, the
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Krishnan responsible for the Princes death
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monkey and the jaguar (b) He called for Krishnans wife and family
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(c) As the man in the well was a thief
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(c) He presented gold to Krishnan and also a house to live in
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(d) As the snake, the monkey and the jaguar hated the man
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(d) He congratulated the snake on his efforts to save
.c
as they had known him for a very long time
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Krishnan
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163. Why was krishnan afraid to save Naagesh from the well?
169. What did the King do to save the Queen after even the
(a) As Naagesh had threatened him with dire
consequences. Vaidyas failed to revive her?
(b) As he thought Naagesh would eat him. (a) He punished the snake for having harmed the Queen
(c) As he thought Naagesh would bite him once he was (b) He announced a reward to anyone who could cure the
out of the well. Queen
(d) As he thought that Naagesh would capture him as soon (c) He immediately called for Krishnan to cure the Queen
as he got out of the well. (d) He asked his guards to immediately look for someone
(e) None of the above. who could cure the Queen
164. Why did Krishnan go to meet Seth Ghanshyamdas? (e) None of the above
(a) As he thought that Seth Ghanshyamdas could help 170. What can possibly be the moral of the story?
him in selling the ornaments gifted to him by Shersingh. (a) Trust oneself before trusting overs
(b) As he knew that Seth Ghanshyamdas had contact with
(b) A good deed never goes in vain
the King which could prove to be beneficial.
(c) As Seth Ghanshyamdas had requested krishnan to sell (c) You cannot change people but you can change yourself
ornaments only to him (d) Try and try until you succed
(d) As Krishnan was extremely fond of Seth Ghanshyamdas (e) One must be the change one wishes to see in this world
(e) None of the above.
DIRECTIONS (Q. 171-173): Choose the word/group of words
165. What did Bali do after seeing Krishnan at his house?
which is most similar in meaning to the word/group of words
(1) He gave Krishnan directions to Shersinghs house. printed in bold as used in the passage.
(2) He welcomed Krishnan to his house. 171. GO
(3) He offered tasty fruits to Krishnan. (a) report (b) live
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) send (d) leave
(c) Only 3 (d) Only 2 and 3 (e) depart
(e) 1 and 3 172. HUMBLE
166. What plan did Naagesh have to save Krishnan from the (a) elegant (b) polite
dungeon? (c) modest (d) real
(a) That he would sneak Krishnan out of the dungeon (e) vast
without anyone noticing 173. SEEK
(b) That he would bite the King and make him unconscious (a) hunt for (b) watch for
(c) That he would bite Krishnan and make everyone believe (c) mention (d) ask for
that he was dead (e) force
(d) That he would enter the Queens chamber and scare DIRECTIONS (Q. 174-175): Choose the word/group of words
her which is most opposite in meaning to the word/group of words
(e) None of the above printed in bold as used in the passage.
167. What did Seth Ghanshyamdas tell the King about Krishnan? 174. CONTINUED
(a) That Krishnan had brought fake ornaments for selling (a) remanded (b) presented
(b) That krishnan was an honest Brahmin who had left his (c) rested (d) carried on
village (e) stopped
(c) That Krishnan had killed the Prince 175. HANDSOMELY
(d) That Krishnan had brought those ornaments for selling (a) Meagrely (b) tidily
which had been made for the missing Prince (c) ugly (d) raggedly
(e) None of the above (e) plenty
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SPEED TEST 101 275
a
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b
183. Had she not suppressed (a)/ all the details of her Companys
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DIRECTIONS (Q. 176-180): Which of the phrases (a), (b), (c)
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project (b)/ her Company would have bagged (c)/ the
b
and (d) given below each sentence should replace the phrase
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contract. (d)/ All correct (e)
printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct?
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184. She trusted Mira with all her heart (a)/ and thus handled
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If the sentence is correct as it is given and no correction is
(b)/ over her lifes (c)/ savings to her instantly. (d)/ All
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required, mark (e) as the answer.
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correct (e).
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176. A young and successful executive was travelling down a
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185. It is difficullt (a)/ to see the picture (b)/ when you are inside
.c
neighbourhood street, going a bit to fast in his new car.
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(c)/ the frame. (d)/ All correct (e)
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(a) a bit too fastly (b) a bit as fast
(c) a bit to fastly (d) a bit too fast DIRECTIONS (Q. 186-195): In the following passage there are
blanks, each of which has been numbered. these numbers are
printed below the passage and against each, five words are
177. All she could think about was the beautiful dress and how
suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the
she could earn enough money to buy it. appropriate word in each case.
(a) All she can think (b) All she could thought
One day a father of a very wealthy family (186) his son on a
(c) All she can thought (d) All she can thinking
trip to the country with the purpose of (187) his son how the poor
people live so he could be thankful for his wealth. They spent a
178. He told his employer of his plans to leave the business to (188) of days and nights on the farm of what would be considered
lead a more leisure life. a (189) poor family. On their (190) from the trip, the father asked
(a) more leisurely life (b) many leisurely life his son, How was the trip?" "It was great, Dad. Did you see
(c) many leisured life (d) more leisurely live how poor people can be?, the father asked. Oh yeah, said the
(e) No correction required son. So what did you (191) from the trip?, asked the father. The
179. Padma could convince anyone with her talk as she had the son answered, I saw that we have one dog and they had four.
gift of the gabbing. We have a pool that (192) in the middle of our garden and they
have a creek that has no end. We have imported lanterns in our
(a) gifting of the gabbing (b) gift of the gab
garden and they have the stars at night. Our patio reaches to
(c) gifting of the gab (d) gift of the gab
the front yard and they have the (193) horizon. we have a small
(e) No correction required piece of land to live on and they have fields that go beyound our
180. For countries undergoing a recession, large cuts in public sight. We have (194) who serve us, but they serve others.
spending seem to be the ordering of the day. We buy our food, but they grow theirs. We have walls around
(a) be the ordering of days our (195) to protect us; they have friends to protect them.
(b) being the order of the day With this the boys father was speechless. Then his son
(c) be the order of the day added, Thanks dad for showing me how poor we are.
(d) being the ordering of days 186. (a) took (b) beat
(e) No correction required (c) drag (d) mould
DIRECTIONS (Q. 181-185): In each question below, a sentence (e) showed
with four words printed in bold type is given. These are numbered 187. (a) presenting (b) requesting
as (a), (b), (c) and (d). One of these four words printed in bold may (c) tell (d) trusting
be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the (e) showing
sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or
188. (a) two (b) couple
inappropriate, if any. The number of that word is your answer. If
(c) much (d) few
all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also
appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (e) ie. All (e) many
correct as your answer. 189. (a) major (b) some
181. The whole (a)/ time she walked with her child in her arms, (c) sorrow (d) very
the only thing (b)/ that worried (c)/ her was her sons (e) astutely
feature. (d)/ All correct (e) 190. (a) lane (b) journey
182. When the young artist returned (a)/ to his village, his family (c) leave (d) return
held a festive (b)/ dinner on its lawn to celebrate his
(e) walking
triumpant (c)/ homecoming. (d)/ All correct (e)
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276 SPEED TEST 101
a
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b
191. (a) reveal (b) think 198. I ran out of money on my European tour.
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(c) saw (d) believe (a) exhausted my stock of
b
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(e) learn (b) did not have enough
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192. (a) stands (b) reaches (c) lost
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(c) swims (d) leak
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(d) carried a lot
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(e) watery
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(e) None of these
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193. (a) more (b) scene
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199. Madhuri might scream blue murder, but I feel Deepali
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(c) whole (d) last
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should get the promotion since she is better qualified for
(e) lucky
the job.
194. (a) servants (b) mother
(c) computers (d) relatives (a) someone has been murdered with some blue liquid
(e) man (b) someone is being murdered and has become blue
195. (a) minds (b) selves (c) suffer from persecution complex
(c) property (d) pillars (d) make a great deal of noise and object vehemently
(e) country (e) None of these
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 196 to 200): In each of the following sentences, 200. In modern democratic societies lynch law seems to have
an idiomatic expression or a proverb is highlighted. Select the become the spheres of life.
alternative which best describes its use in the sentence. (a) law of the mob
196. He resigned the post of his own accord. (b) law of the underworld
(a) which he liked (c) law of the constitution
(b) according to his convenience (d) law of the parliament
(c) voluntarily and willingly (e) None of these
(d) according to his judgement
(e) None of these
197. As a politician he is used to being in the limelight all the
time.
(a) giving speeches
(b) the object of admiration
(c) the centre of attraction
(d) an object of public notice
(e) None of these
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SPEED TEST 101 277
a
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b
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RESPONSE SHEET
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b
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s
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1. 51. 101. 151.
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102.
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2. 52. 152.
3. 53. 103. 153.
4. 54. 104. 154.
5. 55. 105. 155.
6. 56. 106. 156.
7. 57. 107. 157.
8. 58. 108. 158.
9. 59. 109. 159.
10. 60. 110. 160.
11. 61. 111. 161.
12. 62. 112. 162.
13. 63. 113. 163.
14. 64. 114. 164.
15. 65. 115. 165.
16. 66. 116. 166.
17. 67. 117. 167.
18. 68. 118. 168.
19. 69. 119. 169.
20. 70. 120. 170.
21. 71. 121. 171.
22. 72. 122. 172.
23. 73. 123. 173.
24. 74. 124. 174.
25. 75. 125. 175.
26. 76. 126. 176.
27. 77. 127. 177.
28. 78. 128. 178.
29. 79. 129. 179.
30. 80. 130. 180.
31. 81. 131. 181.
32. 82. 132. 182.
33. 83. 133. 183.
34. 84. 134. 184.
35. 85. 135. 185.
36. 86. 136. 186.
37. 87. 137. 187.
38. 88. 138. 188.
39. 89. 139. 189.
40. 90. 140. 190.
41. 91. 141. 191.
42. 92. 142. 192.
43. 93. 143. 193.
44. 94. 144. 194.
45. 95. 145. 195.
46. 96. 146. 196.
47. 97. 147. 197.
48. 98. 148. 198.
49. 99. 149. 199.
50. 100. 150. 200.
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b
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SOLUTIONS
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a
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a
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SOLUTIONS 1
b
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19. (c) First term = 32 1.
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SPEED TEST 1
b
Second term = 33 + 1
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1. (a) A square is a two-dimensional figure consisting of sides Third term = 42 1
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whereas a cube is a three- dimensional figure. Similarly, Fourth term = 43 + 1
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circle is a two-dimensional figure and a sphere is a 20. (b) First term = 23.
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three-dimensional figure.
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Second term = 32
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B R I H Third term = 43
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G T
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Fourth term = 52
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+1 1 21. (d) Second term = 4 First term
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2. (e) Fourth term = 4 Third term
J S C S G F 22. (a) Second term = (First term)2 1
Similarly, Fourth term = (Third term)2 1
23. (e) Second term = (First term)3
J O I N E D Fourth term = (Third term)3.
24. (a) Second term = First term + 1/8 First term.
+1 1
Fourth term = Third term + 1/8 Third term.
25. (e)
J P K C D M 26. (c) 1 and 4 are what happens after a disease. 5 is its
3. (a) The second number is the product of the digits of the symptom but not a definite one. 2 is a probable cause.
first. 27. (c) The first is the force fighting on/in the second.
4. (d) The first is found in the form of the second. 28. (e) More of a test of your English.
5. (c) In first term, two letters are missing between first two 29. (c) Secretly is the opposite of openly, and silently is the
letters while last two are continous but in second term opposite of noisily. Choices a and b are clearly not the
first two letters are continuous and two letters are opposites of silently. (Choice d) means the same thing
missing between last two letters. as silently.
6. (a) The third letter of second term is the next letter 30. (b) A spring forms or has the shape of a coil, and a ring
according to alphabet to the third letter of first term. forms a loop.
7. (a) The letters of each group are in reverse order.
8. (d) First two letters of the first term are in reverse order in SPEED TEST 2
the second term and so are the next two letters.
1. (a) 2 3
9. (b) Fifth and third letters of the first term are first and H J G
second letters of the second term and first two letters 1 3
P Q N
of the first term are third and fourth letters of the second
1 3
term. D E B
10. (a) There is a gap of one letter between third and fourth, 1 3
T U R
fourth and first, and first and second letters of each
1 3
group. K L I
11. (a) The letters in first and second terms are in reverse order 2. (e) Lotus is grown in water (Mud).
of alphabet. 3. (b) P R O B L E M
12. (e) There is a gap of one letter between each corresponding
letters of 'QYGO' and 'SAIQ'
13. (d) There is a gap of three letters between each 2 9 4 8 3 7 5
corresponding letters of 'YAWC' and 'UESG'. B O R E M O E P
14. (c) There is a gap of two letters between the two
consecutive letters of each term. ;
8 4 9 7 5 9 4 7 2
15. (e) First, Second, and third each term is one more than the
L B O R O M E P
square of prime number. Hence the fourth term
= (19)2 + 1 ;
16. (a) First term = (6)2 + 6. 3 8 4 9 4 5 7 2
Second term = (7)2 + 7 E R O L
Third term = (10)2 + 10
Fourth term = (11)2 + 11
17. (d) First term = 32 + 3. 7 9 4 3
Second term = 42 + 4 4. (e)
Third term = 52 + 5 5. (d) River is a water body.
Fourth term = 62 + 6 6. (d) Except 255 all other numbers are one more than perfect
18. (c) First term = 22 1 square.
Second term = 32 + 1 50 = (7)2 + 1, 65 = (8)2 + 1;
Third term = 32 1 170 = (13)2 + 1, 290 = (27)2 + 1
Fourth term = 42 + 1 But, 255 = (16)2 1
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a
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2 101 SPEED TEST
b
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In each pair if first letter is mth from the beginning of
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7. (e) The number 49 is a perfect square of a natural 23. (d)
b
number. alphabet the second letter is mth from end.
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8. (e) Except Brinjal, all others grow underground. 24. (e) In all others,
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9. (d) All others are parts of a car. 1st letter + 1 = 4th letter.
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10. (c) Except 529, all others are perfect squares of even 4th letter + 1 = 2nd letter
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numbers. The number 529 is a perfect square of an odd
and 2nd letter +2 = 3rd letter
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number.
s
.c
196 = 14 14; 256 = 16 16 25. (c) In all others
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4th letter + 1 = 1st letter
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529 = 23 23; 576 = 24 24
324 = 18 18 1st letter + 2 = 2nd letter
2 2 2nd letter + 1 = 3rd letter.
11. (a) R P N 26. (b) All others are synonyms.
4 2 27. (d) All others are synonyms.
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28. (a) All others imply UP.
4 2
H D F 29. (c) Large is an adjective whereas others are noun.
4 2
30. (d) All others are negative.
L H J
4 2
Q M O SPEED TEST 3
12. (b) The number 441 is a multiple of 3
1. (a) 1050 420 168 67.2 26.88 10.752
13. (e) 3 3
P M; E B;
2.5 2.5 2.5 2.5 2.5
3 3
T Q; I F; 0 6 24 60 120 210 ?
2. (e)
3
V Y +6 +18 +36 +60 +90 +126
14. (d) 115 = 5 23 ;
85 = 5 17; +12 +18 +24 +30 +36
95 = 5 19;
? = 210 + 126 = 336
155 = 5 31;
3. (a) The pattern of the series is :
But, 75 = 5 15
19 15 = 4 = 22
One factor of 75 is not a Prime Number.
83 19 = 64 = 43
15. (e) Except number 345, all other numbers are product of 23
119 83 = 36 = 62
and a Prime Number.
631 119 = 512 = 83
115 = 23 5;
? = 631 + 102 = 631 + 100 = 731
161 = 23 7
4. (c) The pattern of the series is :
253 = 23 11;
19 + 1 7 = 19 + 7 = 26
391 = 23 17 26 + 2 7 = 26 + 14 = 40
But 345 = 23 15. 40 + 4 7 = 40 + 28 = 68
The number 15 is not a Prime Number. 68 + 8 7 = 68 + 56 = 124
16. (c) O
2
M
4
Q 124 + 16 7 = 124 + 112 = 236
5. (d) The pattern of the number series is as given below:
H
2
F
4
J 11 1 1 = 10
10 2 2 = 18
T
4
P
2
R 18 3 3 = 51
51 4 4 = 200
2 4 200 5 5 = 995
T R V
? = 995
2 4 6. (b) The pattern of the number series is as given below:
V T X
14 + 10 = 24
17. (c) In all others, 1st letter 1 = 2nd letter, and 2nd letter 24 + 19 (= 10 + 9) = 43
2 = 3rd letter. 43 + 28 (= 19 + 9) = 71
18. (a) Except Diabetes, all others are infectious diseases. 71 + 37 (= 28 + 9) = 108
19. (a) Except Mustard, all others are grains. Mustard is an 108 + 46 (= 37 + 9) = 154
oilseed. 7. (e) The pattern of the number series is as given below:
20 (d) All the numbers are multiples of 5. But 25 is a perfect 144 + 29 = 173
square. 173 33 = 140
21. (d) All others are synonyms 140 + 29 = 169
169 33 = 136
22. (c) All others are synonyms
136 + 29 = 165
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SOLUTIONS 3
b
o
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8. (a) The pattern of the number series is as given below: 25. (e) The letters are in reverse order while one letter is
b
missing between two consecutive letters.
.w
656
24 328 24 352 26. (b) There is a gap of one letter between two consecutive
o
2
rd
letters. Besides, this the letters are capital and lower
p
352 respectively.
re
24 176 24 200
2 27. (b) m m l l
s
s
mmll
.c
200
24 100 24 124 mmll
o
2
m
28. (e) 1, 12, 123, 1234, 12345, 123456, 123456 7
124
24 62 24 86 29. (c) ABCD, ABCDE, ABCDEF, PQRS, PQRST, PQRST U
2
86 30. (e) N + 3 = Q, Q + 3 = Z, Z + 3 = S
24 43 24 67 D 2 = W, W 2 = F, F 2 = V
2
9. (b) The pattern of the number series is as given below: P + 3 = B, B + 3 = R, R + 3 = I Hence, ? = SVI
12 4 30 = 48 30 = 18
18 4 36 = 72 36 = 36 SPEED TEST 4
36 4 42 = 144 42 = 102
102 4 48 = 408 48 = 360
1. (e) E X C U R S I O N
360 4 54 = 1440 54 = 1386
10. (c) 71 78 99 134 183 246
2. (c) G O L D E N
+(7 1) +(7 3) +(7 5) +(7 7) +(7 9)
342 337.5 328.5 315 297 274.5 3. (a)
11. (b) S T R I V E
(4.5 1) (4.5 2) (4.5 3) (4.5 4) (4.5 5) 4. (b) Meaningful words are % TAN and ANT
12. (c) 161 164 179 242 497 1520 C L I E N T
+3 +15 +63 +255 +1023
5. (a)
C E I L N T
(3 4)+3 (15 4)+3 (63 4)+3 (255 4)+3 6. (c) ELAN, LEAN and LANE
13. (b) 3 + 32, 5 + 52, 7 + 72. 7. (b) Meaningful words are % ARE, ART, ATE
14. (a) 92 + 10, (19)2 + 20, (29)2 + 30 8. (a) Given word : A R G U M E N T
15. (e) 100 1.1, 200 2.2, 300 3.3, 400 4.4 Alphabetically the sequence is
16. (b) + 12 02, + 32 22, + 52 42, + 72 62.
17. (e) 3 + 1, 3 + 3, 3 + 5, 3 + 7 ........ A E G M+1 N+1 R+1 T+1 U+1
+1 +1 +1
18. (e) The given series is 2 6
B F H N O S U V
Reqd no. = 50 2 6 = 25 6 = 19
19. (d) (1015 + 1) 2 = 508; 9. (d) New order of letters : GANCARROE
(508 + 2) 2 = 255; (255 + 3) 2 = 129; 10. (c) According to english alphabet, resultant group will be
(129 + 4) 2 = 66.5; (66.5 + 5) 2 = 35.75; as follows:
(35.75 + 6) 2 = 20.875
20. (a) The series is P R I N C E
4, 8, 12, 16, 20 C E I N P R
21. (d) The series is
Only two letters 'I and N' will remain unchanged.
1.1, 2.2, 4.4, 8.8, 17.6
22. (e) The series is 11. (e) Meaningful words are : ROSE, SORE, EROS and ORES.
+112, + 122, + 132, + 142, + 152. 3 15 14 19 20 1 2 12 5
23. (d) The series is abcab, bcabc, cabca. 12. (d) C O N S T A B L E
24. (c) First two letters of each term are in reverse order.
Similarly third and fourth letters are also in reverse order. 13. (c) P H Y S I C A L
Besides this, second letter of the second term is the
next letter after the first letter of the first term. 14. (d) S H I F T E D
Second Method -
15. (b) Meaningful words are : GO and TO
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
16. (a) Meaningful words are : TON, TOE, TEN
D C X W, F E V U, H G T S, ...
J ...
I ...
R Q... 17. (b) According to order of alphabet
1 1
C E F I L M R U
+1 B D E H K L Q T
+1
+1 18. (d) Meaningful word are : TIRE, TIER and RITE.
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4 101 SPEED TEST
b
o
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19. (a) D I S T A N C E 5. (b) As, Similarly,
b
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2 2
N L G I
C J R S B M B F
o
2 2
L N
rd
A Y
B B C F J M R S 2
p
2 R T
X V
re
20. (d) FOLK FKLO EJKN 2
2 C E
s
21. (c) MULE = 1 + 3 + 3 + 2 = 9 A Y
s
2
.c
22. (e) Meaningful words are : TEARS, STARE, RATES and L
2
J E G
o
2
m
ASTER. I
2
G P R
23. (b) Word : WEBPAGE 2
T
2
R Y A
Changed word : 2
2 R T
VFAOBFF E C 2
C E
So, F appears thrice.
6. (a) Going through information provided, we get codes for
24. (c) Words : TIPS, SPIT and PITS.
G 3, R 8, E 1, C 9.
25. (b) SKILL, KILLS Therefore, Greece will be coded as 381191.
26. (c) Original word : 7. (b) CAT SATC & DEAR SEARD
HABITUAL Clearly, the first letter is transferred to last place and S
Changed word : taken its place. In the same way SINGS would be coded
GBAJSVBK as SINGS.
So, fourth from the left is J. 8. (a) PROMISE
27. (c) Word : 1 2 3 4 567
WA LK I N G MISER will be coded as 45672.
Alphabetical order : 9. (d) In the code, night is called sunshine. As we sleep in
A G I K LN W night, the correct answer is sunshine.
So, the positions of K and N remain unchanged. 10. (a) Position of D alphabetically = 4
28. (d) Clearly, we have : Position of F alphabetically = 6
COMPREHENSION (COM) (PREHENS) (ION) Thus D + F = 10 = position of J in alphabet.
COMIONSNEHERP 11. (d) 2 4 7 spread red carpet
The middle letter is the seventh letter, which is S.
29. (d) 2 3 6 dust one carpet
2 3 4 one red carpet

D E P R E S S I O N
Hence, 2 carpet; 4 red; 7 spread;
E D R P S E I S N O 3 one; 6 dust.
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 12. (b) A person sits on a chair. Since chair is called cot, our
answer is cot.
30. (a) Random, Restaurant, Restrict, Robber, Rocket.
O V E R V I S T
13. (a) $ # % * # +
SPEED TEST 5
1. (c) Second and fourth letters of the word PROSE are moved S O R E
two steps backwards in alphabatical order. Similarly, From above table, SORE is coded as : $ * %
LIGHT can be coded as LGGFT.
14. (a) As,
2. (d) Z = 52 = 26 2
P U L S E and N E W
ACT = 1 2 + 3 2 + 20 2 = 48 [Alphabetical position
numbers has been -1 -1 -1 -1 -1 -1 -1 -1
doubled] O T K R D M D V
BAT = 2 2 + 1 2 + 20 2 = 46 reverse order reverse order
3. (c) Here, 2 A, 3 L, 5 G,, 4 U and 9 T..
D R K T O V D M
Hence, 23549 will be having the code ALGUT. Similarly,
4. (a) RBM STD BRO PUS the cat is beautiful ....(i)
P R O B E S
TNH PUS DIM STD the dog is brown ....(ii)
-1 -1 -1 -1 -1 -1
PUS DIM BRO PUS CUS the dog has the cat ....(iii)
(i) and (ii) STD PUS is O Q N A D R
(ii) and (iii) PUS DIM the dog reverse order
(i) and (iii) PUS BRO the cat R D A N Q O
From (iii), CUS has Hence, required code : RDANQO
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SOLUTIONS 5
b
o
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15. (b) As, 21. (a) As,
b
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R E M I T D 2
F I 2
K
o
and
rd
2
O Q N 2
P
p
3 7
re
Similarly,
and
s
s
.c
2
C O N S U L A C
o
m
2
T V
= % 8 $ 5 22. (b) W R O M B T 7 1 9 4 8 3
Similarly, 23. (b) As,
1
O C E L O T P 1
Q and B C
1 1
I H O N
% = % 7 1 1
N O L M
16. (c) 1 1
K J T S
1 2 3 4 5 4 1 3 5 2
A M O N G N A O G M Similarly,
1 2 3 4 5 4 1 3 5 2 1
M N
S P I N E N S I E P 1
U T
Hence, 1
S T
1 2 3 4 5 4 1 3 5 2 T 1
S
L A M O N O L M N A
24. (b) As,
17. (a) S E A L and D O S E
L O C K
+1 +1 -1 -1
$ 7 5 @ # 8 $ 7 M P B J
Hence, and
S O L D B L O W
+1 +1 -1 -1
C M N V
$ 8 @ #
Similarly,
18. (a) Teacher write on blackboard with chalk, here chalk is
W I N E
called book, hence here the code of chalk is book. +1 +1 -1 -1
19. (e) As,
X J M D
M O T H E R
25. (b) SOLDIER JFSCRNK
+1 +1 +1
+1
O M H U R F +1
1
Similarly, 1
1
A N S W E R 1
+1 +1 Similarly,
N A W T R F GENIOUS PVTHFDM
+1
G R O W W I T H I N +1
+1
20. (a) and 1
= @ % # 1
# + 1
W I N G 1
26. (e) The colour of blood is red and here red means orange.
# =
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6 101 SPEED TEST
b
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7. (c) The only son of Vineets grandfather is Vineets
b
(27-28) : colours of the sky father. The lady is the daughter of Vineets father.
.w
Thus, the lady in the park is the sister of Vineet.
o
8. (a) As X is the son of Ys father and Y is the sister of X and
rd
ki la fa so
thus, he has to be the brother of Y.
p
re
rainbow colours ro ki Father
s
9. (b)
s
.c
Only Daughter
sky high rocket la pe jo
o
m
Monika
the rocket world pe so ne
Mother
27. (d) colours sky high ki la jo
28. (c) The code of the is so. Rahul
D R E A M I N G 10. (a)
29. (e) +1 1 Daizy Binny Aruna
B F S E F M H L (Binnys sister (Binnys sister)
and Chinkys Mother)
Similarly,
T R E A T I S E
+1 1
B F S U D R H S
Chinky
30. (b) A person sits on a chair. Since chair is called cot, our
answer is cot. 11. (d)
Saroj Rajesh
SPEED TEST 6 mother father
1. (c) Clearly, Arun is uncle of the lady in the photograph.
Arun Brother Vani Deepak Ramesh
| Sister-in-law only brother
Son Wife mother lady
|
daugher wife
Mother B
|
A C 12. (c)
2. (a) As mother = Bs sister
Clearly, A can be a neice of B.
3. (b) The only son of Maheshs father is Mahesh himself.
Father of Kamla is Mahesh and Mahesh is father of 13. (c)
Kamla. Mother/Photograph
4. (d) Clearly, the grandson of Anils mother is son of Anil law
h er-in-
and wife of Anils son is daughter in-law of Anil. Thus, Mot
Anil is the father-in-law of the girl.
5. (b) Clearly, from the relationship diagram. Y is the brother- Husband Sister Man Brother Wife Son
in-law of B.
Ne
Married couple
A B
ph
ew
Son
Brother Brother-in-law
Brother
X Y
Brothers For Qs. 14 to 16
6. (c) Womans Mothers husband
(Couples) (Couples)
Roma Mohan Madhu Jeevan
(Couples) (Couples)
Smita Devika Aman Krishna Sunil
Womans father
Womans fathers sister Womans Aunt. Daughter
Anuj Ankur
Since, womans aunt is mans aunt Romila
woman is sister of man. There are in all four married couples.
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SOLUTIONS 7
b
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14. (a) Since, Devika is wife of Aman and Krishna is sister 25. (a) R(+) V() S
b
of Aman, therefore, Krishna is the sister-in-law of
.w
Devika.
o
rd
15. (d) Since, Anuj is son of Krishna and Romila is daughter
T(+)
of Aman and Aman is brother of Krishna, therefore
p
re
Anuj and Romila are cousins. Hence V is the aunt of T.
s
16. (c) Since, Madhu is mother of Krishna who is wife of
s
26. (c) K(+) T()
.c
Sunil. Therefore, Madhu is Sunils mother-in-law.
o
For Qs. 17-20.
m
The information given in the question can be
summarised as: D(+) B M(+)
(Father) Wife (Mother)

For Qs. 27 to 30
E D
Adhir Mishra Mr. & Mrs. Mohan
Married
Urmila Raghu Sumit Roma Roshan Bimla Shilla
Sons (eldest) (youngest)
Wife
C B (Son)
Mr. & Mrs Sharma
Sohan Shivendar
Daughter Son/daughter
Shilla Sandeep Shaifali
F A
Leela (daughter)
17. (c) C is the mother to A and F.
18. (d) Since we do not know whether A is male or female. 27. (b) Sumits mother-in-law = Mrs. Mohan.
19. (d) We cannot tell from the given facts whether A is a male 28. (c) As Sohan is son of Sumit and Sumit is son of Mishra.
or female. The surname of Sohan is Mishra.
20. (b) The two couples in the question are DE (grandmother 29. (a) Leela is the grand daughter of Mr. Sharma. Hence, the
and grandfather) and BC (father and mother). surname of Leela is Sharma.
21. (e) S 30. (d) Shivendar is son of Roma. Therefore, he is grandson
of Romas father.
T() R(+) V() SPEED TEST 7

Hence T is the daughter of S.
1. (c) Clearly, I am to the north of my house.
22. (b) V()
5 N
T() R(+) S 5 W E
23. (d) T(+) R() 5
10
End Point S
V(+) S Starting point

S is either the nephew or niece of T. (My house)
24. (c) T(+) R() T() V(+)() S

2. (b) 70 m
100 m
V(+) S R(+) B' A'
A B
(1) (2) 50 m 10 30 My friend
My self 10
S is nephew or niece of T. Absurd relationship. 20
T() S(+) When my friend reaches on the previous track
(i.e. on B') again, he had travelled a distance of
(30 + 10 + 20 + 10) = 70 m. As I walk with the same speed
R(+) V(+)
(3) as that of my friend I have walked 70m, but on the
S is husband of T. straight track. Now, he is just [100 (30 + 20)] = 50m
We need not go further. from my starting point.
Hence, the distance between us = (70 50) = 20m
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8 101 SPEED TEST
b
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3. (a) Clearly the direction of the hours hand is North-east. 8. (d) Left of Kunal is Atul.
b
North East of Atul is Prashant (obvious from the above
.w
H N diagrams).
2 3 4
o
9. (c) Total distance travelled = 25 + 40 + 60 + 90 = 215 mts.
rd
1 5
p
12 6 M W E 10. (d) West North
re
8 km/h
Rohan
s
s
B A
.c
S
o
m
3 N
1
90 m
W E
4. (b) 3
3
S C D
1 Rahul
Required distance = 3 + 1 = 4 km 10 km/h
South East
5. (a) Here, O is the starting point.
20
Rohan takes the route BADCB at 8 km/hr m/sec.
9
25
4 Rahul takes the route CDABC at 10 km/hr m/sec.
9
3 AB = BC = CD = DA = 90 m.
First time they meet when Rohan travels 120 m and
A O B Rahul travels 150 m.
3 4
For the second time, Rohan is 10 m towards B from C or
Rahul is 80 m towards C from B. Hence on BC at a
Both A and B are 32 42 = 5 km from the starting distance of 10 m from C.
point.
11. (a)
6. (b) Clearly the school is in north-east E
5
School N N S
40
Rams house W E W
Reeta Kavita
S
25
7. (c)
West
Kavitas shadow is right to Reeta i.e., Kavitas shadow
is left to Kavita.
Kavita is facing North.
12. (a) 45+180 = 225 clockwise direction
River is finally flowing in east direction. 270 anticlockwise direction.
For (Qs. 8-9) 225 270 = 45
Prashant 1st ent
vem
Mo
180
30m
45
Initial
Position 45
Nitin Atul
25m 40m Kunal
Mo Fina 2nd
60m vem l Movement
en
t
i.e., 45 anticlockwise from initial position.

Dinesh Hence, the required direction is south-west.
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SOLUTIONS 9
b
o
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13. (d) 50 m 18. (b) P O
b
N
.w
20 m
o
rd
10m
10 km
10 km
30 m P
Bhavika W E
p
Sunaina
50 m Q 100 m
re
s
S
s
6 km
.c
70 m
o
19. (a) 15 m
m
When Bhavika is at P, Sunaina who is walking at the N
same rate will be at Q which is at a distance of 70 m from
Sunainas point of start.
10 m
Required distance between them is PQ W E
PQ = (70 + 50) 100 = 20 m
O
5 km S
14. (c)
N 20. (a) PQ = 10 + 6 = 16 km
A F B 21. (d)
1 km 1 km P
W E
C 2 km E
D 22. (a)
5 km
S N
3 km Q
5 km
P (Starting point) 5 km
W E
Find the distance PB.

By Pythagorus theorem, we have S S
R 5 km
PB2 = PF2 + FB2
PB2 = (4)2 + (3)2 = 25 Obviously, Q lies North of S.
PB = 5 km N
23. (d)
15. (c) M 15 m X D M
W E
20 m
R K
15 m Y S
N 12 m 24. (b) O
Z
XZ = XY + YZ = MN + YZ = 20 m + 12 m = 32 m
30 m
16. (d) C 15 km D
N
12 km
15 m
W E
B 15 km A S
20 m
Obviously, CB = AD = 12 km and B is south of C.

17. (b) B 7 km C
P
15 m
5 km
F OP = 30 m + 20 m = 50 m
8 km
3 km
25. (b) D A 40 m
O
N
E 7 km D
30 m
30 m
W E
A C B
20 m
BF = AB (AE + EF) S
OD = OA + AD = OA + BC
= AB {(AB CD) + EF} = 40 m + 20 m = 60 m
= 8 {(8 5) + 3} = 8 {3 + 3}= 8 6 = 2 km
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10 101 SPEED TEST
b
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26. (d) 21 km 2. (b) Time between 1 p.m. on Tuesday to 1 p.m. on Thursday
b
B C = 48 hrs.
.w
The watch gains (1 + 2) = 3 minutes in 48 hrs.
o
rd
it gains 1 min, in 16 hrs.
5 km
5 km
p
Hence, it will show correct time at 5 a.m. on Wednesday.
re
3. (b) Anuj reached at = 8 : 15 AM
s
s
Time when the other man came = 8:15 + 0:30=8:45 AM
.c
A D
8 km 13 km (who was 40 minutes late)
o
m
We have to find out C to D. scheduled time of meeting = 8:45 0: 40 = 8 : 05 AM
27. (a) N 4. (d) First clock will gain 11 2 minutes in 11 hrs., and second
15 km clock will lose 11 1 minutes in 11 hrs.
Q
Hence difference will be 33 minutes.
P
5. (d) His birthday will be in common date of 15 to 18 and 16
W E 12km to 19 i.e., 17th
18 km
O 6. (b) The heights of A, B, C, D and E in ascending order
is E < D < A < B < C
R
S Clearly, E is the shortest.
let O be the starting point and P, Q and R the positions 7. (a) Position of Kiran from the top = [35 7] + 1 = 29 th
after every movement. Hence, Distance from the starting Position of Sohan from the top = 9th.
point = (18 km 12 km) = 6 km Difference of their positions = 29 9 = 20
Distance of final position R from O = OR = 18 12 = 6 km. Mohans position from top = 9 + 10 = 19th
Hence, Kirans position from Mohan = 29 19 = 10th
28. (b) N For (Qs. 8 to 11)
South West
According to the information provided, the order in which
the boys stand according to their heights is as follows :
W E
East North
S D E C A F B
From the figure, it is clear that S becomes North-east 8. (c) Clearly, form the above diagram, E is between D and C.
in the new figure (dotted line) 9. (b) D is the tallest.
5 km 10. (d) Counting from the shortest, C is the fourth one in the
29. (e) line.
N
2 km 11. (c) Clearly, from the above diagram, B is the shortest.
8 km School 12. (b) Even if we cannot determine the exact sequence of the
5 km
W E weights of the children, we can conclude on the basis
of the information provided that D is the heaviest.
1 km 13. (c) The arrangement in the parking
5 km S
C + S + C + 2S + C + 3S + C + 4S + C + 5S + C +
Remaining distance = 8 (2 + 1) = 5 km 6S + C + 7S + C = 36 vehicles
Hence, the drivers require to travel 5 km towards north in the second half of the row = 18 vehicles
to reach the school again.
C + 7S + C + 6S + 2S = 18 vehicles
30. (c) Hence, no. of scooters= 7 + 6 + 2 = 15
14. (b) After interchanging their positions, position of A from
25 m left = 11
then positions of A form right = 9.
The total no. of people in the row = (9 + 11) 1 = 19.
15 m 15. (a) Clearly, C comes at the second place in the
descending order.
South- west direction 1B
25 m
2 C
3 A Decreasing weights
4E
SPEED TEST 8 5 D
1. (b) Next train for N. Delhi leaves at 8:30 p.m. Since time For (Qs. 16 & 17) :
interval between two trains for N. Delhi is 45 minutes. A The age wise order is as follows :
train for New Delhi has left 15 minutes ago. Gita > Kusum > Arti > Archana > Suman
Time of information = 8:30 45 + 15 = 8 P.M. 16. (b) 17. (c)
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SOLUTIONS 11
b
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18. (b) The order in which the five boys reach the finishing
b
SPEED TEST 9
line is Gaurav, Raj, Mohit, Ashish, Sanchit.
.w
Hence Gaurav won the race. 1. (b) The sitting order of the persons are as follows :
o
E
rd
19. (b) From the information given in the question, the
newspaper was read in the following order
p
N S
re
B, C, E, A, D.
s
Hence B passed the newspaper to C. BEGFDCA W
s
.c
20. (d) There are 18 persons in a row. Thus, A and B are sitting at the extreme ends.
o
2. (c) Clearly, J is sitting in the middle.
m
Previous B M
3. (d) At one end, we have k and at the other end, we have N.
4. (b) Only statement (b) is true.
Present M B 5. (a) The sitting arrangement can be shown as follows:
7th from left 15th from left C
12th from right 4th from right
(Motilals position) B D
21. (d) Positions as given in the question are
E F
A
7th 23rd I
My friend exactly Clearly, F is opposite to B.
in between 6. (b) Sitting arrangement is as follows :
G1 B1 G 2 B 2 G 3 B 3 G 4
6 7th 23rd 15 39th 1st 2 nd 3 rd 4 th 5 th 6 th 7 th
persons persons
The number of boys are less than girls, so we should
My position is 6 + 1 + 15 + 1 + 15 + 1 = 39. begin with girl.
22. (c) According to Pratap: 20, 21 or 22 ...(i) (Qs. 7-10) : Seating arrangement is as follows:
According to his sister: not 22 ...(ii) T
From (i) and (ii), the birthday falls on Apr 20 or 21.
R H
23. (a) R's position = 11th from right
M's position = (11 + 15 + 1) = 27th from right
= (40 27 + 1) = 14th from left D W
24. (a) R = 16th from the right.
w = (16 5) = 11th from the right.
Y
25. (e) Time at which the train arrived = 7 : 14 PM M
But Seema's watch is 6 minutes fast, hence the time in 7. (a) 8. (b) 9. (c) 10. (c)
the Seema's watch = 7 : 20 PM. (Qs. 11-15): Seating arrangement is as follows:
26. (c) 12th 16th
K
R S
J P
22nd
Total number of children in the row = 16 + 22 1 = 37 Q O
27. (d) B > C > D, A, E
28. (a) R < M; Q < R, N; N < M L
M>N / R>Q M
N
29. (e) Total number of boys = 41.
11. (b) 12. (c) 13. (e) 14. (a)
30. (d) Geeta > Shilpa
Deepa > Geeta 15. (d)
Reepa > Gayatri (Qs. 16-20): Seating arrangement is as follows:
J
Fatima is the seniormost
But no other data is there to find who is the juniormost. L O
31. (e) Correct order cant be determined.
32. (c) 3
Q P
Neela
Kamal Sunita
K M
11th 22nd N
(From front) 19th (From front) 16. (e) 17. (c) 18. (d) 19. (a)
So there are seven girls between Kamal and Neela. 20. (b)
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12 101 SPEED TEST
b
o
o
For (Qs. 21 to 25) : Seating arrangement is as follows: 8. (d) Clearly, B and D are the females members in the family.
b
H
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9. (b) From the above table C and D the married couple.
10. (c) A, C and E are the male members in the family.
o
A G
rd
11. (d) D, the wife of the trader C is the doctor in the family.
p
F 12. (c) C is the trader in the family.
re
E
s
For (Qs. 13-16)
s
.c
D From the given facts, we can summarize,
C
o
m
B
21. (a) 22. (b) 23. (e) 24. (c) 25. (d) Friends Game Subjects
For (Qs.25 to 30) A Football Maths, Physics / Accounts
V B Football Maths, Accounts / Physics
S Q C Cricket Chemistry, Biology
D Boxing Maths, Accounts.
R W 13. (c) 14. (d) 15. (a) 16. (d)

For (Qs. 17-21)
T The Organization of the plays will be as follows
P
26. (b) 27. (c) 28. (d) 29. (a) 30. (c) 5th 6th 7th 8th 9th 10th
Mon Tue Wed Thu Fri Sat
SPEED TEST 10
For (Qs. 1 to 5) : D B E C F A
The given information can be summerised in a table 17. (c) The organisation would start from play D which is clear
that follows:
from above.
Students Math Athletics Studies GK Arts 18. (b) E is to be organised on 7th.
Asha 19. (a) The organisation would end with the play A on 10th.
Charu 20. (a) The play B is organised on 6th which is a Tuesday.
Deepa 21. (d) The correct sequence of the plays is DBECFA.
Beena For (Qs. 22-25)
Ela
shows good Teacher Subjects
shows not good A Hindi, Eng, Math
1. (d) From the table above, it is clear that Deepa is good
in Studies, General Knowledge and Arts. B Hindi, Eng, Geo, History, French
2. (b) Clearly, Beena is good in Studies, General Knowledge C Eng, Geo
and Mathematics.
D Math, Hindi
3. (a) Obviously, Asha is good in Studies, Mathematics and
Athletics. E History, French
4. (c) Charu is good in Athletics, General Knowledge and
Mathematics. 22. (c) 23. (d) 24. (c) 25. (b)
5. (d) From the last row of the above table, it is clear that
Ela is good in Studies, General Knowledge and Arts (Qs. 26-30) :
but not in Athletics. The given information can be summarized as follows :
6. (c) A maximum of five cources can be taken History,
Chemistry, Pschycology, Astronomy and
Mathematics. Flights Day
7. (a) There is only one way History and Psychology. Jet Airways Tuesday
For (Qs. 8 to 12)
British Airways Thursday
A
(Farmer) Delta Wednesday
Quantas Saturday
Emirates Monday
Daughter Sons Lufthansa Sunday
Air India Friday
B (Unmarried)
(Teacher)
Husband E (Unmarried) 26. (c) 27. (c) 28. (a)
D C (lawyer)
(Doctor) (Trader) 29. (e) 30. (d)
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SOLUTIONS 13
b
o
o
For questions 21 to 25:
b
SPEED TEST 11
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Employee Department Sport
For questions 1 to 5:
o
A Pers TT
rd
B Admin Football
p
re
Friend Bank Occupation
C Admin Hockey
s
A S Forex
s
D Admin Basketball
.c
B M Agriculture
o
E Mktg Cricket
m
C N Economist
F Pers Volleyball
D L TO
G Mktg LT
E R IT
H Mktg Badminton
F Q Clerk
21. (c) 22. (b) 23. (e)
G P Research 24. (a) 25. (d)
(26-30) : Ascending order of fatness :-
1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (a) Q < T < V < W < R < S/P < P/S
4. (d) 5. (e) Ascending order of height
For questions 6 to 10: V<W< T<S<R< P<Q
26. (c)
Mon P 27. (e) Even all the conditions are not sufficient to find the
thickest.
Tue R
28. (b)
Wed W
29. (d) P or S can come.
Thu V 30. (c) R is 5th from the left in both arrangements.
Fri S
Sat Q SPEED TEST 12
Sun T
1. (b) Area common to singer and poets.
2. (b)
6. (c) 7. (a) 8. (b)
3. (c) Area common to and
9. (c) 10. (e)
4. (b) circle only
For questions 11 to 15: 5. (c) Area not common to rectangle but common to square
and circle.
Friend Shift Day off 6. (a) Area common to Rectangle, Circle, Square.
P II Tuesday 7. (d) Area common to Rectangle and Circle.
8. (a) Only area of square.
Q I Monday 9. (c) Area common to rectangle, square and circle.
R II Wednesday 10. (d) Sun is star. Moon is a satellite.
S I Sunday
Star
T III Friday
V III Thursday Sun
Moon
W I Saturday
11. (c) 12. (d) 13. (a) 11. (a) The required set of students is denoted by region
14. (d) 15. (c) common to any three circle only
For questions 16 to 20: Required number = (13 + 13 + 18 + 18) = 62.
A > D > G ...(ii); C > E > H ...(iii) 12. (a) The required set of students is denoted by regions
D > B > F ...(iv); G > C ...(v); F > G ...(vii) lying inside the circles representing History,
Combining these, we get Mathematics and Science. Required number = (9 +
A > D > B> F> G >C > E > H 14 + 18 + 15 + 16 + 13 + 13 + 20 + 18 + 13 + 16 + 19) = 183.
16. (e) 13. (b) The required set of students is denoted by the regions
common to the circles representing History and
17. (b) A > D > B > F > G. > C , J > E > H
Geography.
18. (a) Required number = (20 + 13 + 12 + 18) = 63.
19. (b) G, C, E and H 14. (b) Number of students who took History
20. (e) = (16 + 12 + 18 + 20 + 18 + 14 + 13) = 111.
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14 101 SPEED TEST
b
o
o
Number of students who took Geography Fingers
b
= (9 + 16 + 13 + 20 + 13 + 12 + 18) = 101.
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Neclaces
Number of students who took science
o
Rings Ears
rd
= (19 + 15 + 18 + 20 + 18 + 16 + 13) = 119.
p
Number of students who took mathematics
re
= (9 + 14 + 13 + 20 + 13 + 15 + 18) = 102.
s
15. (c) both students and teachers are parts of college and is
s
.c
differents. Conclusions :
o
I. True
m
16. (b)
II. Not True
3. (d) Bottles
Cups
Mother Homosapien
Woman Plates
Spoon
17. (b) Home minister is a minister, minister is part of cabinet.
18. (d) All Parrots are birds, but mice is entirely different. or
19. (a) Some professor may be scientist or researcher.
Bottles
20. (c) Men, Rodents are entirely differents, but both are living Cups
beings.
21. (c) Mother and Father are entirely different but both are
parents.
22. (d) Nitrogen is air but ice is differents. Spoon
23. (a) All three items are partly related. Plates
24. (d) Tiger is a Carnivore, while elephants is not.
25. (b) Herring is type of fish, fish belongs to the class of Conclusions :
animals. I. Not True
26. (c) Nurse and Patient are differents but both are parts of II. Not True
Hospitals. Both conclusions form complementary pair.
27. (c) Nose and hand are differents but both are parts of body. 4. (a) Erasers
28. (b) All diamonds rings are rings, all rings are ornaments.
29. (d) Table are furniture but book are differents.
Pens
30. (c) Chess and table tennis are differents but both are indoor
games. Sharpners
SPEED TEST 13 Staples

or
Erasers
Radios
1. (c) Computers Televisions
Pens Sharpners
Phones
Staples
Conclusions :
Conclusions : I. Not True
I. Not True II. Not True
II. True
5. (d) Jungles Bushes
2. (b) Fingers Trees
Neclaces
Hills
Rings
Ears Conclusions :
I. True
or II. True
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SOLUTIONS 15
b
o
o
b
or,
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Grills
o
6. (d) Windows or
rd
Glasses holidays trip vacations
p
re
If neither conclusion I and nor II follow.
s
s
12. (d) According to statement
.c
Grills
o
m
Windows
Glasses
kites bird kites aeroplane

Conclusion-I : False
II: False or
Painters Artists kites bird Aeroplane

7. (d) Painters Artists or
If neither conclusion I and II follows.
Dancers 13. (a) According to statement
Dancers
plastics fibres
metals plastics
II: False
fibres
Buildings or,
plastics
Room metal
8. (b) Cabins
Only conclusion I follows.
14. (a) According to statement
streets
roads
II: True
street highway
Necklace streets
or,
9. (a) Rings Bracelet highway
roads
Hence only conclusion I follow.
Conclusion-I : True 15. (b) According to statement I
II: False Rocks
animals plants plants
Arms
Rocks
Hands Muscles
10. (a) plants
or,
animals
Conclusion-I : True Hence, only conclusion II follows.
II: False
11. (d) According to statement
16. (d) Holiday
Vacation
Holiday
or Trips
Trips
holidays vacation holidays trip Vacation
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16 101 SPEED TEST
b
o
o
Conclusions : 22-23.
b
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Kites Power
o
Birds
17. (d)
rd
p
Kites Birds or
Energies Heat
re
s
s
.c
Aeroplane
Force
o
Aeroplane
m
Conclusions :
Fibres
18. (a)
22. (b) Conclusion I : False

Metals Conclusion II : True
23. (a) Conclusion I : True
Plastics Conclusion II : False
24-25.
Conclusions :
Coin
I. True II. Not True Metals
Rocks Note
19. (b)
Animals Plants
Plastics
OR
Conclusions :
I. Not True II. True Note Metals Coin
20. (b) Institutes
Banks
Plastics
School OR
Academics Note Metals
Win
Conclusions :
I. Not True II. True
21. (d)
Test Exams
Plastics
24. (e) Conclusion I : True
Conclusion II: True
25. (d) Conclusion I : False
Question Conclusion II : False
OR
26. (e)
Test Exams Picture
Symbols
Figures
Question
Graphics
Conclusion I : False Conclusion II : False
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SOLUTIONS 17
b
o
o
OR 28. (a) Hence, only conclusion I follows.
b
Symbols 29. (b) Hence, conclusion II follows.
.w
30. (d) According to statements.
o
Figures
rd
p
re
s
Mails Updates
s
.c
o
m
Chats
Picture
or
Graphics
Conclusion I : True Conclusion II : True Mails
27. (d) Jobs or
Mails
Chats Chats
Hence, conclusion I follows.
SPEED TEST 14
Occupations
Vacancies Bins
OR
Jobs 1. (e) Flowers
Occupations
Handles
Sticks
Vacancies Bins
Conclusion I : False Conclusion II : False
For questions 27 -29 :
According to statements:
or
Flowers Handles
Gliders Airplane Sticks

Conclusions I : True II : Not true
Parachutes Helicopters III : Not true
or 2. (b) Houses
towers
Gliders Airplane windows
temples
Parachutes s
opte r
Helic Houses
or
temples
Gliders Airplane towers

windows
Parachutes Conclusions I : Not true II : True
III : Not true
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18 101 SPEED TEST
b
o
o
3. (c) cots Pens
b
6. (d)
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p
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walls Toys
doors chairs
s
Desks
s
.c
walls
o
doors Roads
m
or Roads
Pens
or
cots
chairs
walls doors
Toys Desks
or Conclusions I : Not true
II : Not true
chairs 7. (c) Bangles
cots
Conclusions I : Not true
II : Not true
III : Not true Table Ring
As conclusions I and III complement to each other. Huts
Ring
4. (d) or
Bangles
trees
fences
gardens stones Table Huts
Conclusions I : True
II : True or Bangles
III : True
5. (a)
Box Leaves Ring
Table Huts
Books II : Not true
Since, conclusion I and II form complementary pair.
Therefore, either (I) or (II) follows.
Jungles
8. (e)
Trees
or Jungles Chairs
Poles
Rooms
Books Conclusions I : True
Leaves
II : True
(Qs. 9-10) House Flats
Box
II : Not true Buildings
III : Not true
Appartment
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SOLUTIONS 19
b
o
o
Flats 16. (d) Conclusions I : Not true
b
II : Not true
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or
17. (b)
o
Circles
rd
Rings ellipse
p
Buildings Appartment
re
House Squares
s
s
9. (b) Conclusions I : Not true
.c
o
II : True
m
10. (d) Conclusions I : Not true
Conclusions I : Not True
II : Not true
(Qs. 11-12) II : True
Rivers 18. (d)
Appar- Bun-
House glows
Canal tment
or
Oceans Bun- Appar-
Seas House glows tment
or
Seas
II : Not True
Oceans
19. (a)
Rivers Canal Gases Liquids
11. (d) Conclusions I : Not true Water
II : Not true
12. (e) Conclusions I : True or
II : True
(Qs. 13-14)
evening
Gases Liquids
Noon
Water
Day Conclusions I : True

Night II : Not True
Noon 20. (b)
or Hours
Seconds
Day
Day Night
evening
or
13. (d) Conclusions I : Not true Hours
II : Not true Seconds
14. (a) Conclusions I : True
II : Not true Day
(Qs. 15-16)
card

papers boards II : True
or papers (21 -22)
boards r s
so
Teachers
fes
o
card Pr
rs
15. (c) Conclusions I : Not true ture
Lec
II : Not true
or
Since conclusions I and II form complementary pair.
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20 101 SPEED TEST
b
o
o
3. (d) Letter series
b
T M E I U F
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Professors
o
Lecturers
rd
Teachers Code 7 $ 2 % 9
p
re
or According to
s
9 $ 2 % 9
s
condition (ii)
.c
s
or
o
ss
m
of
e Teachers, 4. (a) Letter series J T A E R I
Pr Lecturers
Code 3 7 1 2 @ %
21. (a) Conclusions I : True II : Not True
According to
22. (b) Conclusions I : Not True II : True
condition (i) % 7 1 2 @ 3
(23 - 24) : Possible venn diagram are
5. (c) Letter series U K T M I H
Roses Flower Red
Code # 7 $ % 6
or
According to
Red
condition (iii) # 7 $ %
Roses Flower 2 8 % 9 5 6
6. (d)
or R N A X H S
Red Condition (iii) is applicable.
Flowers Red
@ 6 2 + 7 4
7. (a)
23. (d) P S R G F T
24. (a) Condition (i) is applicable.
25. (a) A possible Venn diagram is + 5 9 6 3 %
8. (a)
High
G H X S D G
Hills Condition (ii) is applicable.
9. (a) As, M O D E and D E A F
# 8 % 6 % 6 7 $
Similarly, F O A M
SPEED TEST 15 $ 8 7 #
10. (e) W E A K W H E N
1. (a) Letter series E R W H K A
5 % 9 $ 5 * % 7
Code 2 @ 6 # 1 Therefore,
without H A N K
condition
2 @ 6 # 1
2. (e) Letter series M P E K D U * 9 7 $

11. (c) 12. (a) 13. (e)
14. (b) 15. (d)
Code $ 4 2 # 5 16. (b) 2 7 0 5 1 4
According to
condition (i) 4 2 # 5 $ $%L T KQ
condition (ii) is applied
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SOLUTIONS 21
b
o
o
17. (a) 3 6 4 2 7 9 8. (a) New arrangement
b
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H F 3 U 6 G I T P L 8 9 S 2 7 A M K .......
o
H$ Q%
rd
condition (i) is applied
p
12th from left
re
18. (c) 8 7 5 3 0 6
s
+2 1
s
9. (d) L S 8
.c
H%T # L J
o
+2 1
m
condition (ii) is applied A K M
19. (e) 5 9 2 4 7 6 @ +2 1
I F
6 +1 +1
T@Q $%H % G
20. (d) 4 6 8 9 1 0 J +2 1
D
$H J @K F +5 +6 +7
% L
condition (iii) is applied 7
10. (c) 3 +5 +6 +7
21. (a) 2976581 B@$P=B I S A
22. (b) 7 2 6 9 5 3 4 K B @P T $ +5 +6 +7 M
23. (c) 81 3524 6 CTP BK U T ^
24. (e) 4352718 = TPB$ C= 11. (a) D F J T $ # PR ZQ * C MAB @ HK LS + ?
25. (a) 4 3 5 9 7 1 only $ # P is the required answer.
12. (e) * Q Z RP# $ TJ FD C MAB@ HK LS + ?
? + % # $ 13. (d) Number of total symbols = 6; Number of total letters
= 16. Since, all the symbols are denoted by 7 and all
SPEED TEST 16 letters are denoted by 5, sum of the elements of the
3 4
sequence = 6 7 + 16 5 = 122
1. (e) 2 3 # 14. (b) When all the symbols are dropped the series becomes
3 4 as follows:
O I C
D F JT PR ZQ C MAB HK LS
3 4 Now, seventh to the right of twelfth letter from the right
K O 5
3 4
= (12 7 =) 5th letter from the right, i.e., B.
# P I 15. (d) Compare DJ and ?S. D is the first element from left
2 3 end of the series and ? is the first element from right
B $
end. Similarly, J and S are third elements from left
2. (a) 3 3 3 3 and right end respectively. Hence, FT is related
P # 7 @ D
to' + L'.
3 3 3 3
R L I O K 16. (b) D F J T $ #P R ZQ * C M A B @ H K L S + ?
3 3 3 3 ABC DE F G HI JK LMNO P QRS T UV
J 3 2 N C 17. (e) Except it there is only one element between first and
3. (c) 11th to the left of 16th from left means 5th from the left. second letter of each group of words when the position
But the sequence has been reversed. Therefore, required of the letters in the series is taken into consideration.
element will be 5th from right in the original sequence. 18. (c) Eighth element from right = (22 + 1 8 =)15th element
5th from right B from left.
4. (c) Consonant Number Symbol Hence, the required element which is exactly midway
Such combinations are between 5th element from left and 15th element from
R3P , N7O , K5D , Q4 15 5
left, is 10th element from left, i.e., Q.
2
5. (e) Number Symbol Consonant 19. (d) Clearly, the given letters, when arranged in the order 5,
There is no such combination. 1, 2, 3, 4 from the word TRACE.
6. (b) Ninth to the right of the 20th from the right means 11th 20. (b) Clearly the given letters, when arranged in the order 4,
from the right, i.e., M. 5, 2, 3, 1, 6 form the word 'STRAVE'.
Symbol Symbol 21. (d) We have to look for Vowel-Number and Number-Vowel
7. (c) Consonant
sequences.
Such combinations are : J 1 # P 4 E K 3 A D $ R U M 9 N 51 % T V * H 2 F 6
@ F ! : + J C G8QW
4, 3 and 5 are the required numbers.
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22 101 SPEED TEST
b
o
o
(d) 4 + 2 K 51; 4+2=K5=1
b
22. (d) D $ RU M 9 N 5 1 % T V * H 2 (e) 6 + 3 Q 5 ; 6 +2=85=2
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7 elements 7 elements Note that the difference between two successive
o
rd
23. (a) After the changing, the series becomes as follows; elements in 5 is not similar to others.
p
J 1 # P4E K3AD$ RUM9 NWQ8 G6 F 2H 26. (d) After changing the series becomes as follows :
re
* V T % 15 I D 7 1 J P $ 3 E RT 5 M 2 N A4 F H 6 H U9 # VB@ W
s
Now, twenty-second element from the right end is 3.
s
Now, ninth to the right of the eleventh element from the
.c
left (11 + 9 =) 20th element from the left, i.e., G. 27. (c) We have to look for
o
m
24. (b) We have to look for Symbol Consonant Consonant Vowel-number-consonant sequence.
sequence and SymbolConsonantSymbol sequences. M 5TRE 3$ PJ1 7D I 2NA4 F H6 H U9 #VB@W
J I # P 4 E K 3 A D $ R U M 9 N 51 % T V H Only 2 and 4 are such numbers.
2 F6G8QW 28. (e) D2 J
Only T is such a consonant. R +4 P +4 D +4A
25. (e) See the difference between each two successive 3 +4 1 +4 2 +4F
element. +4 E +4 J +4I
(a) A +2 $ 5 E; A+2=$5=E 29. (d) M 5T RE 3 $ PJ 17 D I 2 NA4 F H 6 U9 # VB@ W
(b) % + 2V 5 N; %+2=V5=N 30. (b) Fifth element towards right of the seventeenth element
(c) 2 + 2 F 5 V; 2+2 = F5 =V from the right end implies twelfth element from the right
end. Hence, the required element is 4.
SPEED TEST 17
Solution (1 to 5)
After analysis of the given input and various steps of rearrangement it is clear that words and numbers are being rearranged
alternately. The words get rearranged in alphabetical order while the numbers get rearranged in descending order.
1. (c) input : won 13 now 25 72 please go 47
Step I : go won 13 now 25 72 please 47
Step II : go 72 won 13 now 25 please 47
Step III : go 72 now won 13 25 please 47
Step IV : go 72 now 47 won 13 25 please
Step V : go 72 now 47 please won 13 25
Step VI : go 72 now 47 please 25 won 13
Step VI is last step.
2. (c) Step III : car 81 desk 15 42 39 tall more
Step IV : car 81 desk 42 15 39 tall more
Step V : car 81 desk 42 more 15 39 tall
Step VI : car 81 desk 42 more 39 15 tall
Step VII : car 81 desk 42 more 39 tall 15
Step VII is last steps.
3. (b) Step II : bell 53 town hall near 27 43 12
Step III : bell 53 hall town near 27 43 12
Step IV : bell 53 hall 43 town near 27 12
Step V : bell 53 hall 43 near town 27 12
Step VI : bell 53 hall 43 near 27 town 12
Step VI is last steps.
4. (d) Step II : box 93 25 year end 41 32 value
input :
Hence step II can not determine input.
5. (a) input : paper dry 37 23 height call 62 51
Step I : call paper dry 37 23 height 62 51
Step II : call 62 paper dry 37 23 height 51
Step III : call 62 dry paper 37 23 height 51
Step IV : call 62 dry 51 paper 37 23 height
Step V : call 62 dry 51 height paper 37 23
Step VI : call 62 dry 51 height 37 paper 23
Step VI is last step.
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SOLUTIONS 23
b
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(Sol. 6-10): 16. (c) Step II : 18 task bear cold dish 81 63 31
b
In step I, the word that comes last in the alphabetical order Step III : 18 task 31 bear cold dish 81 63
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comes to the first place, pushing the rest of the line rightward. Step IV : 18 task 31 dish bear cold 81 63
o
Step V : 18 task 31 dish 63 bear cold 81
rd
In step II, the largest number comes at the second place,
Step VI : 18 task 31 dish 63 cold bear 81
p
pushing the line rightward. Thus, words and numbers get
re
arranged alternately till all the words are in reverse Step VII : 18 task 31 dish 63 cold 81 bear
s
alphabetically order and numbers in descending order. 17. (d) Input : 72 59 37 go for picnic 24 journey
s
.c
6. (d) Input: glass full 15 37 water now 85 67 Step I : 24 72 59 37 go for picnic journey
o
Step II : 24 picnic 72 59 37 go for journey
m
Step I : water glass full 15 37 now 85 67
Step III : 24 picnic 37 72 59 go for journey
Step II : water 85 glass full 15 37 now 67
Step IV : 24 picnic 37 journey 72 59 go for
Step III : water 85 now glass full 15 37 67
Step V : 24 picnic 37 journey 59 72 go for
Step IV : water 85 now 67 glass full 15 37 Step VI : 24 picnic 37 journey 59 go 72 for
Step V : water 85 now 67 glass 37 full 15 18. (a) Input : nice flower 34 12 costly height 41 56
Since the arrangement has been done, there will be no Step I : 12 nice flower 34 costly height 41 56
step VI. Step II : 12 nice 34 flower costly height 41 56
7. (d) Step II : ultra 73 12 16 mail sort 39 kite Step III : 12 nice 34 height flower costly 41 56
Step III : ultra 73 sort 12 16 mail 39 kite 19. (d) Step II : 16 victory 19 36 53 store lake town
Step IV : ultra 73 sort 39 12 16 mail kite Step III : 16 victory 19 town 36 53 store lake
Step V : ultra 73 sort 39 mail 12 16 kite Step IV : 16 victory 19 town 36 store 53 lake
Step VI : ultra 73 sort 39 mail 16 12 kite Since the line is already arranged, there will be no fifth
Step VII : ultra 73 sort 39 mail 16 kite 12 step.
Hence, Step VI will be the last but one. 20. (d) We can't work out backward.
8. (d) We can't work backward in an arrangement type. 21. (b) Input : milk pot 18 24 over goal 36 53
9. (c) Step II : tube 83 49 34 garden flower rat 56 Step I : 18 milk pot 24 over goal 36 53
Step III : tube 83 rat 49 34 garden flower 56 Step II : 18 pot milk 24 over goal 36 53
Step IV : tube 83 rat 56 49 34 garden flower Step III : 18 pot 24 milk over goal 36 53
Step V : tube 83 rat 56 garden 49 34 flower Step IV : 18 pot 24 over milk goal 36 53
Step VI : tube 83 rate 56 garden 49 flower 34 Step V : 18 pot 24 over 36 milk goal 53
10. (a) Input : hunt for 94 37 good 29 48 book. Step VI : 18 pot 24 over 36 milk 53 goal
Step I : hunt 94 for 37 good 29 48 book Hence step V is the last but one.
Step II : hunt 94 good for 37 29 48 book 22. (a) Step III : 36 win 44 95 86 ultra box queen
Step III : hunt 94 good 48 for 37 29 book Step IV : 36 win 44 ultra 95 86 box queen
Step IV : hunt 94 good 48 for 37 book 29 Step V : 36 win 44 ultra 86 95 box queen
(Sol. 11-15): Step VI : 36 win 44 ultra 86 queen 95 box
Input : for 52 all 96 25 jam road 15 hut 73 bus stop 38 46 Hence 6 3 = 3 more steps will be required
Step I : all for 52 25 jam road 15 hut 73 bus stop 38 46 96 23. (a) Input : new 22 model 27 pump 38 11 join
Step II : bus all for 52 25 jam road 15 hut stop 38 46 96 73 Step I : 11 new 22 model 27 pump 38 join
Step III : for bus all 25 jam road 15 hut stop 38 46 96 73 52 Step II : 11 pump new 22 model 27 38 join
Step IV : hut for bus all 25 jam road 15 stop 38 96 73 52 46 Step III : 11 pump 22 new model 27 38 join
Step V : jam hut for bus all 25 road 15 stop 96 73 52 46 38 Step IV : 11 pump 22 new 27 model 38 join
Step VI : road jam hut for bus all 15 stop 96 73 52 46 38 25
Step VII : stop road jam hut for bus all 96 73 52 46 38 25 15 SPEED TEST 18
11. (b) Step IV : hut for bus all 25 jam road 15 stop 38 96 73 52
46 Eighth from the right road.
12. (c) 13. (c) 1. (a)
14. (a) Step V : jam hut for bus all 25 road 15 stop 96 73 52 46 38
Sixth from the left is 25 10 5 3 2 + 3 = ?
15. (d) or, ? = 10 5 + 3 2 3
(Sol. 16-23): or, ? = 2 + 6 3 = 5
In step I the least number comes to the left most position,
pushing the rest of the line rightward . In step II the word
2. (b)
that comes last in the alphabetical order shifts to second
from left, pushing again the rest of the line rightward. Similarly,
in step III the second least number shifts to third from left. In 63 24 + 8 4 + 2 3 = ?
step IV the second from last in the alphabetical order comes or, ? = 63 24 8 + 4 2 3
to the fourth position. And this goes on alternately till all the or, ? = 63 3 + 2 3
numbers are arranged in ascending order and the words in or, ? = 66
reverse alphabetical order. 3. (b) 6 4 9 = 15
Step V : jam hut for bus all 25 road 15 stop 96 73 52 46 38 4. (c)
Step VI : road jam hut for bus all 15 stop 96 73 52 46 38 25 5. (a) 6 5 = 30, 30 3 + 1 = 91, 8 7 = 56, 56 3 + 1 =
Step VIII : stop road jam hut for bus all 96 73 52 46 38 25 15 169, 10 7 = 70, 70 3 + 1 = 211
Similarly 11 10 = 110, 110 3 + 1 = 331
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24 101 SPEED TEST
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6. (a) 21. (b) Since, 20 10 = 200, therefore, means
b
, 8 + 4 = 12, therefore, means +.
.w
, 6 2 = 4, therefore, means .
o
rd
and 12 3 = 4, therefore, + means .
Option (a) : 6 20 + 12 + 7 1 = 70
p
Now, given expression
L.H.S. = 6 20 + 12 7 1 = 6 20 + 84
re
= 100 10 1000 + 1000 100 10
= 90 20 = 70 R. H.S.
s
= 100 0 1000 + 10 10 = 0
s
.c
7. (c) , 22. (b) Using the given symbols, we have:
o
m
Given expression = 8 + 7 8 40 2
,
1
Given expression 175 25 5 + 20 3 + 10 =8 + 7 2
5
After conversion 175 25 + 5 20 3 10
= 7 + 100 30 = 77 37 2
= =7 .
8. (a) Using the proper signs, we get 5 5
Given expression = 14 10 + 42 2 8 23. (c) 9 8 + 8 4 9 = 65
= 140 + 21 8 = 153 24. (b) 20 + 12 4 8 6 = 29
9. (c) Using proper notations, we have: 25. (d) 40 + 12 3 6 60 = 4
26. (d) Using the correct symbols, we have
11 Given expression = 24 12 + 18 9 = 288 + 2 = 290.
(a) Given statement is 3 2 + 4 < 9 3 2 or < 1 not true
2 27. (d) Using the proper notations in (4) we get the statement
(b) 3 + 2 + 4 < 18 3 1 or 9 < 5, which is not true. as 2 5 6 + 2 = 6 or 10 6 + 2 = 6 or 6 = 6, which is true.
(c) 3 + 2 4 > 8 4 2 or 1 > 0, which is true 28. (c) Using the proper notations in (3), we get the statement
5 as 5 2 2 < 10 4 + 8 or 5 1 < 18 4 or 5 < 14,
(d) 3 2 4 > 9 3 3 or > 0, which is not true. which is true.
2 29. (a) Using the correct symbols, we have
10. (d) Using the proper notation in (d), we get the statement Given expression
as:
8 8 + 8 8 8 = 64 + 1 8 = 57 36 4 8 4 32 8 4 4 4
11. (c) Using the proper notations in (c), we get the statement = = = = 0.
4x8 2x16 1 32 32 1 0 1
as:- 30. (b) Using the correct symbols, we have
5 2 2 < 10 4 + 8 Given expression = (3 15 + 19) 8 6
or, 5 1 < 18 4 = 64 8 6 = 8 6 = 2.
or 5 < 12 which is true.
12. (b) Using the correct symbols, we have SPEED TEST 19
Given expression = (23 + 45) 12 = 68 12 = 816.
13. (c) Given expression = 32 5 (15 3) 3 1. (b) No of right angles in one hour = 2
= 160 12 3 No of right angles in 24 hours = 24 2 = 48
= 160 36 = 124 = bce 2. (a) Hour hand covers an angle of 360 in 12 hours.
Time taken to cover an angle of 135
14. (c) Given expression = 105 + 56 (20 7/14)
12
= 105 + 56 10 = 151 = 135 =4.5 h Required time = 3 + 4.5 = 7.5 = 7:30
15. (b) Given expression = 105 15 3 = 7 3 = 21 = cb 360
3. (d) Angle made by hour hand for 12 hours = 360
16. (a) Using the proper signs in the given expressions, we 360
get Angle made by hour hand for 1 hour =
12
175 25 + 5 20 3 10 360
= 7 + 5 20 3 10 = 7 + 100 30 = 107 30 = 77 Angle made by hour hand for 6 hours = (6) = 180
12
17. (c) Using the proper signs, we get: 4. (b) In a year, number of weeks = 52 extra day = 1
36 8 4 + 6 2 3 = 36 2 + 3 3 From 2002 to 2008, there are 6 years.
= 36 2 + 9 = 45 2 = 43 So number of extra days = 6 (1) = 6
18. (d) Interchanging (+ and ) and (2 and 4), we get : While 2004 and 2008 are leap years, having one more extra
day apart from the normal extra day.
(1) 4 2 + 3 = 3 or 5 = 3, which is false
Thus, number of extra days = 6 + 1 + 1 = 8
(2) 2 4 + 6 = 1.5 or 6.5 = 1.5, which is false. Out of these 8 extra days, 7 days form a week and so 1 day
10 remains.
(3) 2 + 4 3 = 4 or = 4, which is false. Hence, March 1, 2002 is 1 day less then March 1, 2008 i.e.,
3 it is Friday.
(4) 4 2 + 6 = 8 or 8 = 8, which is true. 5. (c) In one hour, hour hand and minute hand are at right angles 2
19. (d) Using the correct symbols, we have: times.
Given expression = 8 + 36 6 6 2 3 Time = 10 p.m 1 p.m = 9 hr.
No. of times, when both hands are perpendicular to each
=8+633=5
other in 9 hr = 9 2 = 18
20. (b) Using the proper notations in (2), we get the statement 6. (b) Here H 30 = 4 30 = 120 0 .
as 5 2 2 < 10 4 + 2 or 5 < 8 , which is true. (Since initially the hour hand is at 4. H = 4).
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SOLUTIONS 25
b
o
Required angle A = 90 0 and since, H 30 > A so,
o
15. (c) The year 2004 is a leap year. It has 2 odd days.
b
there will be two timings. The day on 8th Feb, 2004 is 2 days before the day on 8th
.w
2 Feb, 2005. Hence, this day is Sunday.
o
Required time T = (H 30 A) minutes past H. 16. (d) Count the number of odd days from the year 2007 onwards
rd
11
from the year 2007 onwards to get the sum equal to 0 odd day.
p
2
re
One timing = (4 30 + 90) minutes past 4 Year 2007 2008 2009 2010 2011 2012 2013 2014 2015 2016 2017
11
s
Odd day 1 2 1 1 1 2 1 1 1 2 1
s
2
.c
= 38 minutes past 4. Or 4 : 38 approx. 17. (b) Each day of the week is repeated after 7 days
11
o
So, after 63 days, it will be Monday.
m
7. (a) Since, in one hour, two hands of a clock coincide only once,
so, there will be value. After 61 days, it will be Saturday.
18. (c) 17th June, 1998 = (1997 years + Period from 1.1.1998 to
2 17.6.1998)
Required time T = (H 30 A ) minutes past H.
11 Odd days in 1600 years = 0
Here H = initial position of hour hand = 3 Odd days in 300 years = (5 3) 1
(Since 3 oclock) 97 years has 24 leap years + 73 ordinary years.
A = required angle = 0 (Since it coincides) Number of odd days in 97 years = (24 2 + 73) = 121 = 2
2 odd days.
T= (3 30 0) minutes past 3 Jan. Feb. March April May June
11
4 (31 + 28 + 31 + 30 + 31 + 17) = 168 days
= 16 minutes past 3. = 24 weeks = 0 odd day
11 Total number of odd days = (0 + 1 + 2 + 0) = 3
8. (b) At 5 oclock, the hands are 25 min. spaces apart. Given day is Wednesday.
To be at right angles and that too between 5.30 and 6, the 19. (d) No. of days between 21st July, 1947 and 21 st July, 1999
minute hand has to gain (25 + 15) = 40 min. spaces = 52 years + 366 days.
55 min. spaces are gained in 60 min. = 13 beap years + 39 ordinary years + 366 days
60 7 = (13 2) odd days + 39 odd days + 2 odd days
40 min. spaces are gained in 40 min . 43 min . = (26 + 39 + 2) odd days = 67 odd years = 4 odd days.
55 11
= (7 4) = 3 days before the week day on 21st July,
7 1999 = Saturday.
Required time = 43 min. past 5
11 20. (b) Next train for N. Delhi leaves at 8:30 p.m. Since time
9. (d) At 4 oclock, the hands of the watch are 20 min. spaces apart. interval between two trains for N. Delhi is 45 minutes.
To be in opposite directions, they must be 30 min. spaces apart. A train for New Delhi has left 15 minutes ago.
Minute hand will have to gain 50 min. spaces Time of information = 8:30 45 + 15 = 8 P.M.
55 min. spaces are gained in 60 min. 21. (b) Time between 1 p.m. on Tuesday to 1 p.m. on Thursday
60 6 = 48 hrs. The watch gains (1 + 2) = 3 minutes in 48 hrs.
50 min. spaces are gained in 50 min . or 54 min . it gains 1 min, in 16 hrs.
55 11 Hence, it will show correct time at 5 a.m. on Wednesday.
6 22. (b) A reverse flow chart will look as follows:
Required time = 54 min. past 4
11 Desk officer - Friday
10. (a) 55 min. spaces are covered in 60 min. Same day
Senior clerk - Friday
60 5 Senior clerks leave -Thursday
60 min. spaces are covered in 60 min. 65 min. Next day
55 11 Inward clerk - Wednesday
Loss in 64 min. 5 16 23. (b) Ashish leaves his house at 6:40 AM.
65 64 min .
11 11 Ashish reaches Kunals house at 7:05 AM.
They finish Breakfast at 7:05 + 0:15 = 7:20 AM.
16 1 8 Thats the time when they leave Kunals house for thier
Loss in 24 hrs. 24 60 min 32 min .
11 64 11 office.
11. (c) 100 years contain 5 odd days. 24. (b) Anuj reached at = 8 : 15 AM
Last day of 1st century is Friday Time when the other man came = 8:15 + 0:30=8:45 AM
200 years contain (5 2) 3 odd days. (who was 40 minutes late)
Last day of 2nd century is Wednesday. scheduled time of meeting = 8:45 0: 40 = 8 : 05 AM
300 years contain (5 3) = 15 1 odd day. 25. (d) First clock will gain 11 2 minutes in 11 hrs., and second
Last day of 3rd century is Monday. clock will lose 11 1 minutes in 11 hrs.
400 years contain 0 odd day. Hence difference will be 33 minutes.
Last day of 4th century is Sunday. 26. (d) 1st of month was Tuesday, hence the date on first Saturday
This cycle is repeated. was 5th.
Last day of a century cannot be Tuesday or Thursday or Hence the other Saturdays of the month are 12, 19, 26.
Saturday. Rama met her brother on 26th.
12. (a) The century divisible by 400 is a leap year. 1
The year 700 is not a leap year. 27. (d) 2 hrs 150 min
2
13. (b) x weeks x days = (7x + x) days = 8x days
1
14. (c) On 31st December, 2005 it was Saturday. Angle covered by hour hand in 1 min =
Number of odd days from the year 2006 to the year 2009 2
= (1 + 1 + 2 + 1) = 5 days Angle covered by hour hand in 2 hrs.
On 31st December 2009, it was Thursday. 1
Thus, on 1st Jan, 2010 it is Friday. = 150 min =150 = 75
2
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26 101 SPEED TEST
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28. (c) Total no. of days between 27.3.1995 7. (d) From both the statements:
b
and 1.11. 1994 = 27 + 28 + 31 + 31 + 29 = 146
.w
B D
Now, 146 is not completely divided by 7. It we have one + 10
o
day more then we have 147 days which is completely divided
rd
by 7. Thus, the days of the week on 1 Nov, 1994 was Left 20th Right
p
re
Monday. But the day will be Tuesday ( We have 146 days)
Ds position from the left end cannot be determined.
s
29. (a) 16 - 1- 1997Thursday.
s
8. (e) From both the statements:
.c
Number of normal year between 1997 and 2000 = 2
o
We know every year has 1odd day.
m
N
Now, number of leap year = 1
K
Leap year has 2 odd days NW NE
odd days = 2 + 2 = 4 4 Jan, 2000 was Tuesday.
30. (b) Day is on 28th Feb = Tuesday W E D
Since, the leap year is excluded
The day is on 28th March = Tuesday SW SE
S
M
SPEED TEST 20
Clearly, Town M is towards South-East direction of Town K.
1. (c) Age of C = Total age age of (A + B + D + E) 9. (d) From both the statements K, M and T are siblings of P.
= Total age 2 Average ages of (A + B) 2 Average ages 10. (c) From I. M
of (D + E) PT
2. (c) From I Thus, it can be found that M is to the north-west of T. So, I
alone is sufficient to answer the question.
From II. M K
Q N T
Thus, it can be deduced that M is to the north-west of T. So,
II alone is also sufficient to answer the question. Thus, the
answer can be found by using either of the statements alone.
W E 11. (e) From I. It is clear that K, D and R are siblings while K and D
are females. But no relation can be found between D and M.
From II. It can be found that Rs father is certainly the father
S-W of K and D as well. Since M is married to Rs father, it means
P H S M is the mother of R.
Thus, after combining I and II, we can definitely say that M
P is to the South-West of Q. is the mother of D. So, both statements I and II are required
From II to answer.
12. (e) Ds position = 15th from right
Q Rs position = (15 10 =) 5th from right
F = (40 5 + 1 = ) 36th from left
13. (c) 20 m
P
Again, P is to the South-West of Q.
30 m
3. (e) From I : K
(+)N M()
From II : F (+) K () D was facing East when he started his journey, from
Combining both: F(+) K() statement I.
N(+) M()
Hence K is the mother of N.
4. (e) Statement II: 30 m
Ranis age = x yrs.
2x + x = 72 3x = 72 x = 24 yrs.
Using this with Statement I, we get 20 m
D was facing East when he started his journey, from statement
24
Age of Nidhi = 3 times younger than Ranis age = = 8 yrs. II.
3 14. (d) From statement I and II.
Both statements I and II are Sufficient.
A
5. (a)
6. (e) Since the ages of none of them is given, no conclusion can be +
drawn through both the statements. B C D
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SOLUTIONS 27
b
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15. (c) From Statement I
b
B D
.w
o
R 10 km S From Right
rd
10 Girls
20th
p
or
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2 km 2 km D B
s
s
T 10 Girls
.c
P 5 km Q
o
North
m
From Right
20th
West East Both statements are not sufficient to answer the
question.
South 22. (e) According to statement I
Town K is in north-west with respect to town D.
Required distance = PT = PQ + QT = (5 + 10) km N
= 15 km From Statements II N-W N-E
K
2 km Q
T
P E
W
2 km 2 km
R 13 km S D
W-S S-E
Require distance = PT = PQ + QT = (2 + 13) km = 15 km S
16. (e) From the both statements According to statement II.
4th Town M is in S-E w.r.t to D
21
R S
15th N
N-W N-E
There are 21 students between R and S. D
17. (d) From the the statements
Suneeta has two children. However, she may have more sons.
18. (c) From Statement I W E
M S-E S-E
H
S
Combining statement I and II
N
K W-N N-E
N
X Y NW NE
From statement II W E D W E
X R SE
SW
S
M S-W S-E
S
Town M is in S-E w.r.t town, K.
Y Both statements required to answer the question
23. (d) From statement I
K and M are sister of T
19. (e) T
20. (a)
21. (d) According to statements I sister sister
D is the 20th from right end.
According to statement (ii) K M
10 girls are in between B and D. From statement II.
Combining statement (i) and (ii). Ts father is husband of Ps mother.
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28 101 SPEED TEST
b
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husband F N >R H
b
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Conclusion : I. H N H >N [not true]
II. F # R F< R [not true]
o
rd
father mother If neither conclusion I not II is true.
p
6. (b) Accordingly,
re
M#T M< T
s
T P
s
T@ K T K
.c
From statements - I and II
o
K$N K N
m
husband M<T K N
Conclusion : I. M # N M<N [not true]
II. K M K > M [not true]
father mother Only conclusion II is true.
brother or sister 7. (c) Accordingly,
T%H T=H
T P
H$W H W
sister sister
T=H W
Conclusion : I. W # T W<T [true]
K M
II. W % T W =T or
Both statements are not sufficient to answer the If either conclusion I or II is true. [true]
question. 8. (a) Accordingly,
24. (b) According to Statement I N K N>K
Arun did not went London on sunday. K# D K<D
According to statement II:- D%M D=M
Aruns brother went London on Friday N> K< D= M
Hence only statement II are sufficient to answer the Conclusion : I. M K M>K [true]
question. II. D N D >N [not true]
25. (e) From statement I Only conclusion I is true.
9. (e) Accordingly,
new good clothes 5 3 9
J$ B J B
From statement II B% R B=R
good clothes are costly 9 6 7 3 R F R> F
Combining statement - I and II J B= R> F
Conclusion : I. F # B F K R > T > L L J L<J
Conclusions:
I. H > L : True hence V S < L < J
II. K > T : Not True Conclusions
2. (e) P = N > D G X = U RJ R<J
Conclusions: J#H J H
I. V N R S Conclusions
Conclusions : I. M # H M H (False)
I. E = S : Not True
II. S N : True II. R H R < H (True)
5. (d) Accordingly, 12. (a) H $ F H F
F@ N F N F@ G F=G
N R N >R G M G M
H@ R H R hence H F = G M
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SOLUTIONS 29
b
o
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Conclusions 5. (c) It is mentioned in the statement that Mr. X has been
b
declared successful in the preliminary screening for
.w
I. H M H M (True)
II. H G H > G ( False) the post of Director of KLM Institute. Therefore, either
o
he will be selected or will not be selected as Director of
rd
13. (d) RJ R J KLM Institute.
p
J T J>T
re
6. (d) II may be an assumption which the professor is
s
T#L T L assuming before passing his statement but it definitely
s
cannot be a conclusion. Hence II does not follow. I
.c
hence R J > T L
o
may or may not be possible. Hence I does not follow.
m
Conclusions 7. (b) It is clear that either there is no facility for health
I. R @ T R T ( False) insurance available or it is available for only affluent
II. J @ L J = L (True) sections. Hence I cannot be definitely concluded. II
14. (a) W@T W T follows from the given statement, as limited resources
of the person suggests that he will go to a hospital
T$K T K
which provides treatment on nominal charges or free.
K F K F 8. (a) Only conclusion I follows. The statement talks about
hence W T K F dedicated ordinary doctros but that in no way infers
Conclusions that extra ordinary specialists are not dedicated to their
profession. So conclusion II follows. I is true in the
I. W $ K W K (True) context of the scenario prevailing in the country.
II. W @ K W = K (False) 9. (c) Either I or II can follow. As the government would be
15. (d) R D ...(i); D > W ...(ii); B W ...(iii) reviewing the diesel prices in light of the spurt in the
None of the inequations can be combined. international oil prices, the gove can either decide to
However, either I (W < R) or III (W R) must be true. increase or keep the price stagnant (increasing subsidy.)
16. (c) H V ...(i); V = M ...(ii); K > M ...(iii) 10. (d) The availability of vegetables is not mentioned in the
Combining these, we get H V = M < K given statement. So, I does not follow. Also, II is not
Hence K > V and I follows. directly related to the statement and so it also does not
Also, M H and II follows. follow. Probably the demand is surpassing the supply.
11. (d) I and II are assumptions and not conclusions.
But H and K can't be compared. Hence III does not follow.
12. (d) The statement does not say why the poor societies
17. (a) K < T ...(i); T B ...(ii); B F ...(iii) suffer. Hence I does not follow. II also does not follow
Clearly, the inequations can't be combined. because the statement merely states a fact; it does not
18. (a) Z < F ...(i); R F ...(ii); D > R ...(iii) look into the merits of the fact.
Clearly, the inequations can't be combined. 13. (c) As Praveen has not yet returned, he might have got
19. (b) M > R ...(i); R = D ...(ii); D N ...(iii) killed or might have survived. Hence (c) is the correct
Combining these, we get M > R = D N option.
I does not follow as M and N can't be related. 14. (b) Nothing has been said in the statements which imply
N R and II follows. that VCRs and being now manufactured indigenously.
M > D and III follows. Therefore, I is invalid. Since import licence on VCRs
20. (b) 21. (d) 22. (e) has been withdrawn, they can be now freely imported.
15. (d) Nothing of the sort can be concluded as given in two
SPEED TEST 22 conclusions on the basis of the statements.
16. (d) Both of the conclusion are invalid.
1. (a) Only conclusion I seems to be reasonable. Considering 17. (b) Unless absolute figures are given, no conclusin of the
the different nature of IT Companies different type I can be made. Since average no. of students per
parameters should be employed for rating. It is not teacher (60) in rural areas is higher than the average
necessary that if separate rating agency is established no. of students per teacher (50) in urban areas, we can
for IT companies the investors will get protection of conclude that more students study with the same
their investment. Therefore, conclusion II does not teacher in the rural areas as compared to those in the
follow. urban areas.
18. (d) This statement does not mention anything about
2. (a) By increasing the manufacturing capacity the Company healthy people. Neither does it mention about evening
"Y" would compete reasonably on the cost front. And, walks. Hence none of the conclusions follows.
as such it can improve the quality of its products. Hence, 19. (a) Only this can balance the equation.
conclusion I follows. Conclusion II seems to be an 20. (e) All the given choices would lead to an increase in the
assumption. number of visits to health facilities.
3. (b) Considering the amount of loss incurred by Public
Sector Units it seems to be true that the Government SPEED TEST 23
did not take care in the matter of investment in the
Public Sector Units. The use of term "only" in the 1. (b) Read the last two sentences of the paragraph.
conclusion I makes it invalid. 2. (b) Read the line-"If the agriculture sector does well and
4. (b) Clearly, only conclusion II follows. It is not clear how world trade conditions improve."
the population of developing countries will not increase 3. (c) The Indian economy depends on agricultural sector
in the future. which depends a lot on monsoon.
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30 101 SPEED TEST
b
o
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4. (c) Process of poverty measurement needs to take into
b
account various factors to tackle its dynamic nature. 3. (a) 1 R
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5. (a) It may not be possible to have an accurate poverty G B
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rd
measurement in India. W Y 2
p
6. (b) Increase in number of persons falling into poverty varies O 3
re
considerably across the country over a period of time. G O
s
7. (c) 8. (e) 9. (c) 10. (b)
s
RW
.c
11. (d) 12. (e)
o
B Y
m
13. (c) The argument boils down to the following, including 4. (a) B & K can't opposite to A
the unstated assumption provided by (c): M & K '' '' to H
Premise: Students get enough reading practice already. B & P '' '' to H
Unstated assumption (c): The reading program From above statements
provides only reading practice. H cant be opposite to B, K, M, P
Conclusion: The reading program is unnecessary. Thus H will in opposite of A.
(a) is not a necessary assumption. The argument is not (Qs. 5-8). Since, there are 64 smaller cubes of equal size, therefore,
concerned with whether improved reading skills would n = no. of divisions on the face of undivided cube = 4
help the students learn history and science. Rather, the 5. (c) no. of cubes with no face coloured = (n 2)3
argument involves whether the new program would = (4 2)3 = 8
help improve reading skills. 6. (d) no. of cubes with one face painted = (n 2)2 6
(b) is not a necessary assumption. The argument is = (4 2)2 6 = 24
that no additional reading practice is needed, regardless 7. (a) Number of cubes with two red opposite faces = 0
of which program provides that practice. (none of the cubes can have its opposite faces
(d) is not a necessary assumption. The argument does coloured)
not aim to compare the importance of one discipline 8. (c) Number of cubes with three faces coloured
over another. = 4(cubes at top corners) + 4(cubes at bottom corners)
14. (a) (a) is the correct choice as the passage says that =8
efficiency is present everywhere, this makes it all 9. (d)
pervading. The passage does not suggest that 10. (d) From figure, 6 is opposite 4
efficiency does not pay or can be more of a torture. 1 is opposite 2
15. (c) Only this follows by combining the two statements. 3 is opposite 5
11. (c) is opposite to =
SPEED TEST 24 will opposite to +
will opposite to
1. (d) 2. (b) 3. (b) hence (a) (b) (d) are not identical.
4. (c) 3 goes in the opposite direction: it talks about the utility 12. (a) When the sheet shown in fig. (X) is folded to from a
of fashion whereas the author does not talk of fashion cube, then the face bearing the dot lies opposite to the
approvingly. shaded face, the face bearing a circle (With + sign
5. (b) Read the last sentence of the paragraph. inside it) lies opposite to a blank face and the remain-
6. (d) 7. (a) 8. (a) 9. (a) ing two blank faces lie opposite to each other. Clearly,
10. (b) 11. (d) 12. (d) 13. (c) the cubes shown in figures (B) and (D) cannot be
14. (d) formed since they have the shaded face adjacent to the
15. (d) The use of word hassle-free suggests that the face bearing a dot and the cube shown in fig. (C) can-
company assumed that people seek convenience and not be formed since it shown all the three blank face
comfort. adjacent to each other. Hence, only the cube shown in
fig.(A) can be formed.
SPEED TEST 25
1. (d) 1 is correct as it clearly shows that 1 and 5 are the top 13. (c) The symbols adjacent to are , , and .
and bottom. 2 and 6 are on the sides of 4. So 2 is opposite Hence, the remaining symbol (?) will be opposite
6. 2 is correct on the same lines. 3 is opposite 4. 3 is to .
correct as I & IV clearly tells that 4 is opposite 3. All the 14. (a) The numbers adjacent to 6 are 2, 3, 4 and 5 (from the
three statements regarding the figure given in the first three figure). Hence, number 1 will be opposite
question are correct. Hence, the answer is (d). to 6.
2. (a) As it is clear from the figure that face 2 is adjacent to
face 3. 15. (a)
2
5
1 4 3
The total no. of all such smaller cubes
6 = 4 2 (layers) = 8.
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SOLUTIONS 31
b
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16. (b) There are 10 cubes. SPEED TEST 27
b
17. (c) The number on the fall opposite to face having 1 is
.w
6 because 3, 2 and 4 are adjacent faces of 6. 1. (a) From problem figure (4) to (5) the lower design is
o
reversed laterally while the other design moves to the
rd
18. (a) The number opposite to 4 is 2 because 5, 1, 6 and 3
are adjacent faces of 4 opposite side. Similar changes would occur from
p
re
19. (a) Bottom face of figure I means opposite face of 5. It will problem figure (2) to (3).
s
be 3 because 4, 1, 6 and 2 are adjaceent faces of 5. 2. (a) Symbol changes positions as shown in both the
s
.c
20. (a) Symbols adjacent to are , , , +. Therefore, diagrams alternately and symbols in place of the sign
o
symbol will be opposite to . remain unchanged in each of the successive figure.
m
SPEED TEST 26
1. (d) The shifting of the elements takes place in such a way
that the change is completed in four steps. So the
change from figure five to six will be similar to the Figure (1) to (2) Figure (2)
change from figure one to figure two. 3. (c) Each symbol of the figure rotates in Anticlockwise and
2. (a) In each step, two pairs of elements get changed, a new symbol replaces the symbol at the top which is
beginning from the upper left and lower right. The inverted alternatively in each of the successive figures.
change takes place in three successive steps. 4. (e) From problem figure (1) to (2), first and second figure
3. (c) The main design rotates respectively through 45 interchange their position and are reversed at the new
clockwise, 180 and 90 anticlockwise after every two positions and at the same time, third figure remains
figures. The shaded leaflet rotates through 45 unchanged. From problem figure (2) to (3), second and
clockwise, 90 clockwise, 135 clockwise, 45 third figures interchange their positions and are
anticlockwise and 90 anticlockwise. reversed at the new position and the figure (1) remain
4. (d) Watch the rotation of each element separetely. The unchanged. The same problem is repeated alternatively.
triangel rotates by 90 ACW and 180. The circle rotates 5. (a) In each step, both the line segments close to the sides
45, 135, 90 CW 45 CW ... C rotates 45, 90, 135, of the hexagon, move to the adjacent sides in a
180 CW. Clockwise. Also the line segments at the corner move
5. (b) In each step elements interchange in pairs while one to the adjacent corner Clockwise and their number
element beginning from one end is replaced by a new increases by one, in the first, third, fifth steps.
one. The line of orientation rotates by 45 ACW. 6. (e) From element I to II the design rotates through 180
6. (d) In each step the elements of the upper row shift from 7. (b) From element I to II the design is mirror image after
left to right in cyclic order while elements of the lower being rotated through 90 clockwise.
row shift from right to left in cyclic order. 8. (c) From element I to II the design is enclosed by another
7. (b) In each step, the whole figure rotates by 45 ACW. The design.
middle element interchanges with elements on either 9. (e) From element I to II the upper design encloses the lower
side alternately while the third element is replaced by a design.
new one. 10. (d) From element I to II the design is divided into four
8. (c) In each step the whole figure rotates by 90 ACW while equal parts and the lower left part becomes shaded.
one of the end elements is replaced alternately on either 11. (c) For the square follow if 1 = 5 then 2 = 6 rule. In alternate
side. steps the lower-row elements go to the upper row and
9. (a) In the first step the elements shift from the upper left to new elements appear in the lower row.
lower right middle left upper right lower left 12. (b)
upper left. In the next step the elements shift one step 13. (b) In each step the corner elements rotate 90 CW and
CW in cyclic order. shift one side ACW alternately. The middle figure
10. (e) In each step the upper element rotates by 90 ACW. rotates 180 and 90 CW alternately.
The lower element gets inverted and a curve is added 14. (e) In alternate steps the upper left shifts to centre lower
to it on the upper side. right upper left. The upper right shifts to right middle
11. (d) In alternate steps the elements shift one-and-a-half sides upper-middle upper right and lower left left
CW while one of the elements beginning from the ACW middle lower middle lower left.
end gets replaced by a new one in each step. 15. (e) In each step the side arrow rotates 90 CW and shifts
12. (b) In each step the whole figure rotates by 90 CW while one side CW. The smaller arrow rotates 45 ACW and
one element is added in each step alternately on CW the larger arrow 45 CW alternately.
and ACW end. SPEED TEST 28
13. (b) In each step the whole figure rotates by 90 ACW and
1. (c) Meaningful words : ARE, EAR
an arc is added on the CW side.
14. (b) In each step the triangles rotate by 90 CW. The shading 2. (d) As L 8 and H 7
of the right triangle changes alternately. The shadings A & I *
of the middle and left triangles change in each step in a
set order. T 4 R 3
15. (a) In each step the quadrilateral rotates by 90 ACW while E $ E $
it shifts half a side CW alternately.
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32 101 SPEED TEST
b
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Similarly, 21. (c) Play A is staged on Wednesday. So plays F, B and D are
b
staged after play A is staged.
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H 7 A &
22. (b) All others are staged one after the other.
o
I * L 8
rd
3. (b) Others relate to parts of tree. 23. (e) Play E is staged on Monday, the first day.
p
4. (d) All others are parts of a car. 24. (c) 25. (d)
re
5. (d) DG, IG and SN
s
26. (a) B 9; A 2; R *; N %; I #; S 4
s
6. (b) 7. (c)
.c
27. (b) D 2; M @; B 9; N %; I #; A 6
o
8. (c) 9. (b) Condition (ii) is applied.
m
10. (e) 11. (a) 28. (c) I $; J 8; B 9; R *; L ; G #
12. (b) 13. (d) Condition (ii) is applied.
14. (c) 15. (d) 29. (c) 30. (c)
16. (a) Some hens are fish. (I-Type) 31. (a)
32. (d) V $ W V < W
W@T W
T H
All fish are birds. (A - Type) hence V < W T H
I + A I-type Conclusions %
Some hens are birds. I. V T V > T ( False)
This is Conclusion I. II. H % W H = W ( False)
17. (c) Both the Premises are Particular Affirmative. No 33. (b) H M H > M
Conclusion follows from Particular Premises. M@ E M E
Conclusions I and II form Complementary Pair. Therefore, E$C E<C
either Conclusion I or II follows. hence] H > M E < C
18. (e) All bats are boys. (A-Type) Conclusions %
I. C @ M C M ( False)
II. H E H > E (True)
34. (e) N @ J N J
All boy are gloves. (A-Type) J%R J R
A + A A type Conclusion. RH R>H
All bats are gloves. hence] N J R > H
This is Conclusion II. Conclusions %
Conclusion I is Converse of this Conclusion. I. R # N R N (True)
19. (d) II. N H N > H (True)
20. (b) Some doctors are nurses. (I-Type) 35. (d) L @ K L K
KA K>A
A$W A<W
hence, L K > A < W
All nurses are patients. (A-Type) Conclusions % I. W $ L W < L ( False)
I + A I -type Conclusion.
II. L # W L W ( False)
Some doctors are patients.
36. (a) 37. (b)
Conclusion II is Converse of this Conclusion. 38. (c) 39. (d)
(Qs. 21-25) : 40. (e)
The given information can be summarized as follows.
Plays Days
A Wednesday
B Friday
C Tuesday
D Saturday
E Monday
F Thursday
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SOLUTIONS 33
b
o
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SPEED TEST 29 11. (e) None of options gives us a four digit perfect square.
b
12. (a) Clearly, 1000 + 1> 1000 1
.w
Hence, the required positive integer is 1.
o
1. (b) 1.5 will lie leftmost on the number line, hence it is the
rd
smallest. 3
13. (a) Number of women = 120 72
p
2. (b) According to the question, 5
re
s
2 3 Number of men = 48
s
the required value = 114 68 = 76 51 25
.c
3 4 number of married persons = 80
o
and the number of unmarried persons = (120 80) = 40
m
3. (d) Let the number be x.
If all the men are assumed to be married, then the number
x x x of married women could be 80 48 32
Now 3 or 3 or x = 36
3 4 12 maximum number of unmarried women
= 72 32 40
4. (d) Clearly, 1 1 7
7
7 7 7 1089 1
14. (a) Number of odd numbered pages = 545
2
1
is the smallest number.. 15. (b) Let p 5, 7,11,13, ............
7
For p = 5, (p2 1) 24
1
5. (c) th part is black. Half of the remaining 2
8 For p = 7, (p 1) 48
1 7 7 For p = 11, 2
i.e. is yellow.. (p 1) 120
2 8 16
For p= 13, (p2 1) 168
7 ...................................................................
Therefore, the part left = ,
16 ...................................................................
...................................................................
1
which is equal to 3 = 3.5 cm. Clearly, all the above numbers are divisible by 24.
2 16. (a) 9 stubs are used to make 1 candle
3.5 1044
Hence, length of the pencil = = 8 cm 1044 stubs will be used to make or 116 candles
7 9
16 17. (c) Let the whole number be x
5 2
According to question
6. (a) 2 9 32 81 2592 .
Difference = 25 92 2592 = 2592 2592 = 0 69
x 20
Hence, the numerical difference is 0. x
7. (b) Let the number of buffaloes be x and number of ducks x2 + 20 x = 69
be y. Then number of legs = 4x + 2y and the number of x2 + 20x 69 =0
heads = x + y x2 + 23x 3x 69 = 0
Now, 4x + 2y = 2(x + y) + 24 x ( x + 23) 3 ( x + 23) = 0 ( x + 23) ( x 3) = 0
or 2x = 24 or x = 12 x = 3 or 23, Hence, 3 is only whole number.
8. (a) The numbers 264, 396, 792, and 6336 are divisible by 18. (b) A clock strikes 4 in 9 seconds.
132. 9
clock strikes 1 in seconds.
9. (c) Let the number be x. 4
112 9
Now, x + 13x = 112 or 14x = 112 or x = 8 clock strikes 12 in 12 seconds
14 4
10. (d) We test i.e., clock strikes 12 in 27 seconds.
19. (c) Given, numbers are 50, 35 and 35.
3600 Now, place value of 3 is 30 and 30 in the numbers 35
400, which is not a perfect cube.
9 and 35 respectivvely.
Sum of the place values = 30 + 30 = 60
3600 20. (b) Below given are those numbers between 500 and 600 in
= 72, which is not a perfect cube.
50 which 9 occurs only once.
3600 509, 519, 529, 539, 549, 559, 569, 579, 589, 590, 591, 592,
12, which is not a perfect cube 593, 594, 595, 596, 597, 598.
300 These are 18 numbers.
3600 21. (c) From the given alternatives,
Now, 8 (2)3 , which is a perfect cube 112 114 = 12768
450
Larger number = 114
Hence, (d) is the correct option.
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34 101 SPEED TEST
b
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22. (a) Out of the given alternatives, 2. (d) Let the number be x.
b
137 139 = 19043 x2 (12)3 = 976
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Required smaller number = 137 x2 = 976 + 1728 = 2704
o
rd
23. (d) Let the numbers be x and (x + 1), x = 2704 52
p
x(x + 1) = 8556 3. (c) 5 chairs + 8 tables = `6574
re
or, x2 + x 8556 = 0 10 chairs + 16 tables = 6574 2 = ` 13148
s
s
or, x2 + 93x 92 x 8556 = 0 4. (b) Let the number be x.
.c
or, (x2 + 93) (x 92) = 0 x2 + (56)2 = 4985
o
m
x = 92 x2 = 4985 3136 = 1849
24. (b) 382 = 1444 x = 1849 = 43
392 = 1521
Required number = 1521 1500 = 21 5. (a) Units digit in (7 4 ) 1 . Therefore, units digit in (7 4 )8
455.8 i..e. 7 32 will be 1. Hence, units digit in

25. (d) Number of pieces = = 53
8.6 (7)35 1 7 7 7 3
26. (c) Amount received by each student
Again, units digit in (3) 4 1
15487
= `204 Therefore, units digit in the expansion of
76
(34 )17 (3) 68 1
1 Units digit in the expansion of
27. (c) 1 of the number = 84
5
(371 ) 1 3 3 3 7
84 5
number = = 105 and units digit in the expanison of (1135 ) 1
4
Hence, units digit in the expansion of
28. (d) A + C = 146
or A + A + 4 = 146 7 35 371 1155 = 3 7 1 1
146 4 1
or A = 71 6. (b,c) Here, 0 0.707
p2 2 2
Required sum = 33 + 34 + 35 + 36 + 37 = 175 1
30. (c) Let total number of goats be x. 2
Then, total number of hens = (90 x)
48 9
So, x 4 + (90 x) 2 = 248 7. (a) 9 lemons cost = 144 paise = cost of 4 mangoes
4x 2x = 248 180 3
68 144
cost of 3 mangoes = 3 108 paise
x= = 34 4
2
= cost of 5 apples
SPEED TEST 30 or cost of 9 oranges = 108 paise
108
cost of one orange = 12 paise
1. (c) Let Farahs age at the time of her marriage be x. 9
9 8. (a) Let x = 1 2 3 4 = 24
Then, (x 8) x Therefore, n = 1 + 24 = 25 = odd
7
Clearly, n is an odd integer and a perfect square.
9x This is true for all values of x (product of any four
x 8 consecutive integers).
7
9. (a) By remainder theorem,
8 7 96 will have the remainder 1 as 9 has the remainder 1.
x 28 years
2
96 7
Farahs present age = 28 + 8 = 36 years Also will have the same remainder as
8
1
Daughters age 3 years ago = 36 3 (1) 6 7
6 which has the remainder equal to 0.
= 3 years 8
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SOLUTIONS 35
b
o
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It means that number of cats must be divisible by 5 and
784 (73 )28 (343)28
b
10. (b) number of dogs must be divisible by 4.
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342 342 342 This condition follow, if cat, C = 15, dog, D = 40
o
rd
or C = 35, D = 20.
(343) 28 In other cases, (1) will not be satisfied.
p
By remainder theorem, will have the same
re
342 If C = 15, D = 40, then 3 + 10 = 13 pets were adopted.
s
If C = 35, D = 20, then 7 + 5 = 12 pets were adopted.
s
128
.c
remainder as i.e. the remainder is 1. But 13 > 12.
o
342 17. (d) 6n2 + 6n = 6(n2 + n) = 6n(n + 1)
m
Alternatively : n(n + 1) is always divisible by 2, as the product of two
consecutive natural numbers is always divisible by 2.
(343) 28 (342 1) 28
(6n2 + 6n) is divisible by 6 and 12.
342 342 Hence, option (d) is correct.
(342)28 28
C1 (342) 27 ... 28C 27 342 1 M
= 18. (d) W , M 10 = W + 5
342 2
Clearly, 1 is the remainder. [where M men, W women]
11. (a) Let the number of students in each row is n and the On solving, we get M = 30, W = 15.
number of row is r. Then the number of students in the M + W = 45.
class will be nr. 19. (b) Let the number of boys = B.
According to the question, 3 2
(n + 4) (r 2) = nr ............(1) B 18 B 24 of class
4 3
and (n 4) (r + 4) = nr ............(2)
Strength of the class = 36
on simplifying equations (1) and (2), we get the system
No. of girls = 36 24 = 12.
of equations
20. (d) Suppose husbands age be H years.
n 2r + 4 = 0
Then wifes age W = H 9
nr4=0
On solving this system, we obtain r = 8; n = 12 H 9
Hence, nr = 96 Sons age S =
2
12. (d) Let each of them had x bullets after division. Then,
total number of bullets they had after using 4 bullets H
Daughters age D =
each (x 4) (x 4) (x 4) 3x 12 3
According to question,
Now, 3x 12 x or x 6
Original no. of bullets = 6 3 = 18 H H 9
7 2H 42 3H 27
13. (b) I is false as sum of two negative integers is always 3 2
negative. H 42 27 69
II is true, as product of two negative integers is always W = 60.
positive. 21. (d) Let the face value of the National Savings Certificates
III is not always true as x y can be positive or negative purchased by Soma in the first year be Rs.x.
according as x > y or x < y. x + (x + 400) + (x + 800) + (x + 1200) + (x + 1600) +
14. (a) Let the number be x. Then, as per the operation (x + 2000) + (x + 2400) + (x + 2800) = 48000
undertook by the student, we have 8x + 11200 = 48000
x 12 8x = 36800 x = 4600
112 x = 660 22. (c) T = P + 4 = 9; N = T 3 = 6.
6
23. (a) Let the Number be N
660 N 765x 42
Hence, the correct answer = 12 122
6 765 is divisible by 17
15. (d) Let the present age of Harry and George be x and y, If N is divided by 17, remainder will be 42 34 = 8.
respectively. 24. (a) From option (a),
Then, 210 2n = 960 1024 2n = 960 2n = 64
n = 6.
1
x y ...........(i) Similarly we can try for options (b) and (c). Hence, any
3 other option does not satisfy the given equation.
1 25. (c) Let the total number of packages be x.
and ( x 5) ( y 5) ...........(ii)
4 2
After uploading x packages remaining packages are
From (i) and (ii), y = 45 years 5
Hence, the required age = (5 + y) = 50 years
2 3
16. (c) Total no. of cats and dogs = 55 .............. (1) x x x
Out of these, 1/5 of cats + 1/4 of dogs had been adopted. 5 5
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36 101 SPEED TEST
b
o
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According to the question, 279 = 31 9 3
b
341 = 31 11
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1
When he uploaded another 3 packages then of 465 = 31 3 5
o
2
HCF (279, 341, 465) = 31
rd
original no. of packages remained.
Capacity of the measuring can be = 31 ml.
p
3x x 3 1x
re
3 x 3 7. (b) H.C.F of co-prime numbers is 1.
s
5 2 5 2 So, L.C.M. = 117/1 = 117.
s
.c
6x 5x = 30 x = 30 8. (a) Required time = LCM of 200, 300, 360, 450 sec
o
Hence, 30 packages were in the van before the first delivery. = 1800 sec.
m
26. (c) Given : Divisor = 2 remainder 9. (c) The LCM of 18, 22, 30 is 990.
Divisor = 2 75 = 150 So, they will meet each other after 990, ie, 16 min and 30
sec.
2
Also, Divisor dividend 10. (d) The required number must be a factor of (11284 7655)
3 or 3629.
3 Now, 3629 = 19 191
dividend 150 225
2 191 is the required number.
27. (a) 24162 = 89x + 43 LCM HCF 2079 27
x = (24162 43) 89 = 271 11. (c) The required number = = = 297
First number 189
28. (c) By actual division, we find that 999999 is exactly divisible 12. (a) Clearly, the required number must be greater than the
by 13. The quotient 76923 is the required number. LCM of 18, 24, 30 and 42 by 1.
29. (b) Clearly, units digit in the given product = units digit in Now, 18 = 2 32
7153 172. 24 = 23 3
Now, 74 gives unit digit 1. 30 = 2 3 5
7153 gives unit digit (1 7) = 7. Also 172 gives unit 42 = 2 3 7
digit 1. LCM = 32 23 5 7 = 2520
Hence, units digit in the product = (7 1) = 7. the required number = 2520 + 1 = 2521
30. (b) The digit in the units place of 251 is equal to the remainder 13. (d) The first number = 2 44 = 88
when 251 is divided by 10. 25 = 32 leaves the remainder 2 HCF LCM 44 264
when divided by 10. Then 250 = (25)10 leaves the remainder The second number = = = 132
88 88
210 = (25)2 which in turn leaves the remainder 22 = 4. Then 14. (d) HCF = 12. Then let the numbers be 12x and 12y.
251 = 2502, when divided by 10, leaves the remainder 42 = 8. Now 12x 12y = 2160 xy = 15
Possible values of x and y are (1, 15); (3, 5); (5, 3); (15, 1)
SPEED TEST 31 possible pairs are (12, 180), (180, 12) and (36, 60), (60,
36)
1. (b) Product of numbers = (LCM HCF) 15. (c) Bells will toll together again at a time, which is obtained
480 second number = 2400 16 by taking L.C.M. of their individual tolling intervals.
second number = 80 L.C.M. of 9, 12 and 15 = 180 min
2. (c) Let numbers be x and y. They will toll together again after 180 min, i.e. 3 hours.
Product of two numbers = their (LCM HCF) Time = 8 + 3 = 11 a.m.
xy = 630 9 16. (b) Since each rod must be cut into parts of equal length
Also, x + y = 153 (given) and each part must be as long as possible, so HCF
should be taken.
since x y = (x y) 2 4xy HCF of 78, 104, 117 and 169 = 13.
78
x y (153) 2 4(630 9) No. of parts from 78cm. rod = 6
13
23409 22680 729 27 104
No. of parts from 104 cm. rod = =8
3. (a) Product of the numbers 13
= HCF LCM = 21 4641 117
= 21 3 7 13 17 No. of parts from 117 cm. rol = 9
13
= 3 7 3 7 13 17
The required numbers can be 169
No. of parts from 169 cm. rod = 13 .
3 7 13 and 3 7 17 = 273 and 357 13
4. (b) Required number = HCF of 108 and 144 = 36 Maximum no. of pieces = 6 + 8 + 9 + 13 = 36
58 609 17. (c) Let the numbers be x and 4x.
5. (c) Required time = LCM of and Then, 84 21 x 4x
57 608
LCM of 58 and 609 1218 or 4 x 2 1764
sec
HCF of 57 and 608 19 or x 2 441 or x = 21
6. (d) To find the capacity we have to take the HCF of 279, 4x = 4 21 = 84
341 and 465. Thus the larger number = 84
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SOLUTIONS 37
b
o
(b) HCF = 22 32
o
18. (b) Let us check each of the options here starting with (a) 28.
b
LCM = 24 35 52 72
.w
13 11 133 11 8 65
(a) 5 (b) 5 Ist number = 23 34 5
o
5 6 30 4 3 12
2nd number = 24 32 52
rd
12 1 observing the above situation, we conclude that the
p
19. (b) 0.1008, 0.1
re
119 10 third number must be
s
4 7
s
0.101 x 22 32 33 7 2 22 35 7 2
.c
0.102 and
39 69 29. (d) Product of numbers = HCF LCM
o
m
1 4800 160
Thus, is the least. The other number = 1600
10 480
4 4 4
2 3 34 2 30. (c) The traffic lights will again change at three different
20. (c) Reciprocal of = road crossings simultaneously after the LCM of 48, 72
3 2 24 3
and 108
34 i.e., after every (432 sec) 7 minutes and 12 seconds, i.e.
(a), (b), (d) are all equivalent to
24 the earliest at 8 : 27 : 12 hours.
21. (c) 1.65m = 165 cm
Required length = LCM of 25 and 165 SPEED TEST 32
= 825 cm = 8.25 m
5 6 7 1190 1190 ?
22. (c) 0.312 , 0.352 , 0.388 1. (a) ? 3094 or, 3094
16 17 18 7225 85
3094 85
5 6 7 or, ? 221
Therefore, 1190
16 17 18 2
2. (a) ? 2 5 5 1 5 1 2 5
29 15 116 45 161
23. (d) = ?=6
12 16 48 48
? 25 ? 5 5 1
161 31 192 3. (a)
Therefore, 4 (a whole number) 36 11 3 18 6 33 18 15 3
48 48 48 6
? 2
161 17 3
And 3 (a whole number)
48 48
1
31 17 17 4. (c) 12 145 6 34 12 145 34
Between and ; is the least fraction. 6
48 48 48
Clearly, the least fraction among the given fractions in 324 18
17 5. (e) 169 25 26 + 7 = (?)2 = 125 = ?2 ? = 125 5 5
options is .
48 6. (e) 16
2
53 169 ?
2
24. (b) Correct asecending order is
2 9 5 8 256 125 + 13 = (?)2
3 13 7 11
144 = (?)2
? = 12
1
25. (a) Let us take a proper fraction, such as . 7. (b) 2 = 15 + 48 + 144 = 207
2 ? 225 2304 12
1 2 3 8. (b)
Now, the new fraction = ? 450 890 685 2025 45
2 2 4 13
3 1 9. (c) ? 6859 4 19 4 23
Thus,
4 2 447
x 10. (e) ? 7 73 26 = 149 73 26 196 14
26. (b) As x is a positive number, we have 1 21
x
x 1 1 x 60 40 20
11. (d) ? 5 5 50
1 1, 1 2 2
x x x 1
x 2 x 3 1 1 12. (d) ? 42 16
1 1
x 3 x 3 x 3 ? = 256
27. (b) LCM of 6, 5, 7, 10 and 12 = 420 seconds 255
2
420 13. (b) ? 3 ? 3
7 minutes . 17 5
60
2 9 16 5
Therefore, in one hour (60 minutes), they will tall 14. (d) ? 80 80 20 100
36
60
together 8 times excluding the one at the start. ? 100 10
7
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38 101 SPEED TEST
b
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93 812 273 = (3)?
o
2 31. (c)
b
15. (a) ? 6 1 2 6= 6 1 2 6 2 6 7 32 3 34 2 33 3 = (3)?
.w
36 38 39 = (3)? or 36 + 8 9 = (3)?
o
184
35 = (3)? or ? = 5
rd
16. (c) 12 26 73 ?
23
p
3 5 2 ?
= 96 26 73 ? = 122 73 = 49 7
re
32. (c) 9 81 27 3
s
17. (b) 169 64 676 + 2 = (?)2 (3)3 (9)5 (3)3 2 = (3)? or (3)3 (3)2 5 (3)6 = (3)?
s
.c
= 169 64 26 + 2 = (?)2 = 171 90 = 81 (3)3 + 10 6 = (3)? or (3)7 = (3)?
o
?=9 ?=7
m
18. (c) 74 676 42 ? 496 33. (e) 81.1 42.7 23.3 = 2?
2? = (23)1.1 (22)2.7 23.3 or 2? = (2)3.3 (2)5.4 23.3
?
74 26 496
= 1428 42 = 34 = (34)2 = 1156 2? = (2)3.3 + 5.4 + 3.3 or 2? = (2)12.0
42 ? = 12
19. (e) 312 49 49 49
20. (e) ?2 = 2 48 8 = 21 + 8 + 49 14 8 34. (a) ? = (49)3 (7)2 = = 2401
7 7
= 14 8 21 + 57 14 8 = 36 = 62 35. (a) 643.1 84.3 = 8?
?=6 (82)3.1 (8)4.3 = 8? 86.2 84.3 = 8?
21. (e) 7365 + 29.16 + ? = 7437.16 86.2 + 4.3 = 8? 810.5 = 8?
? = 10.5
? = 473.16 7394.16
36. (d) 8? = 87 26 82.4
? = 43 = 1849
3 82
756 67 8? = 87 2.4 or 8? = 87 + 2 2.4
22. (b) = 250047 8
804
8? = 86.6 or ? = 6.6
23. (b) 17 51 152 289 37. (a) ? = (31)31 (31) 27
? = (31)31 27
= 17 51 152 17 = 17 51 169 ? = (31)4
= 17 51 13 = 17 8 = 25 = 5 ? = (961)2
24. (d) 217 64 217 8 225 15 2 2 4
12 12
25. (a) 38. (e) = 1
2 4
210.25 21025 145 145
12
2 12
26. (d) 10 100
14.5 + 1.45 = 15.95
100 10000
27. (a) 4 2000 45
64 64
4 16 39. (c) 6? 68 3 = 6? 6? = 65 ?= 5
85 400 63
5 425
6 3 6 4
25
40. (c) 8? 8 64
3 3 6 4
84 = 8 8 8 = 8 85
Clearly, the required least number is 25.
28. (b) Let the number be x. ?=5
Now, according to the question,
x2 (22)3 = 9516 SPEED TEST 33
or, x2 = 9516 + (22)3 = 9516 + 10648 = 20164
x = 20164 142 1. (b) 19.99 9.9 + 99.9 20 10 + 100 = 300, 297 300
29. (a) Let the number be x. 2. (e) ? = 456.675 + 35.7683 67.909 58.876
According to the question. = 456.675 + 2428.98 58.876
(4052 x2) 15 = 41340 = 2885.66 58.876 = 2826.78 2830
41340
4052 x 2 2756 x2 = 4052 2756 = 1296 52
2
45
2
4729
15 2704 2025
3. (c) ? = = 591.125
8 8 8
x = 1296 = 36
30. (a) Number of rows = 34969 4. (b) ? = (12.25)2 625 = (12.25)2 25
= 150.0625 25 = 125.0625
187
34969 5. (e) ? = 572 + 38 0.50 16
1 = 572 + 19 16 = 591 16 = 575
1
249 1056 7 5 13
28
224 6. (a) ?= = 7280
3 2 11
2569
367
2569 7. (b) ? 9 = 6318 26 = 243
243
?= = 27
34969 = 187 9
Hence, the number of rows = 187 ? = (27)2 = 729
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SOLUTIONS 39
b
o
o
78700 24. (a) ? 40 = 8059 7263 = 796
b
8. (c) ? 4 120 = 45 + 480 = 525
.w
1750 796
? 19.9
o
9. (c) ? 78 42 9 129 130 40
rd
1 2 3 1
p
10. (b) 1715 85.75 85 25. (a) 4 ? 4062 5 4062 812.4
re
8 3 5 5
s
812.4
s
561
? 203.1
.c
11. (a) 20 320.5 320
35 4
o
m
12. (d) (15)2 730 225 27 6079 6075 26. (e) ? 3.5 (80 2.5) 3.5 80
1
2.5
3325 152 3.5 32 112
13. (d) Given expression implies ?
25 16 27. (c) 13% of 258 ? = 10
= 133 9.5 = 1263.5 ? = 13% of 258 10
1 2 2 13
14. (e) ? 5 2 3 = 258 10 33.54 10 23.54
5 15 3 100
1 2 4 3 5 4 11 5
10 28. (d) ? 2
5 15 3 5 4 8 5 4 8
3 2 10 15 4 11 8 88 13
3
= 10 10 5 4 5 25 25
15 15
29. (e) ? = 623.15 218.82 321.43 = 623.15 540.25 = 82.9
= 10 + 1 = 11 30. (b) ? 50 = 5437 3153 + 2284 = 7721 3153 = 4568
15. (c) ? = 15 27 88 63 + 255
= 193 + 255 = 62 4568
? 91.36
16. (b) Given expression can be written as 50
2525 0.25 7
? = 883.75 SPEED TEST 34
5
14 57 20 2 3 20 2 1 2 4 1. (a) Assume the third number = x
17. (b) ?
19 70 21 1 10 21 1 1 7 7 According to question
2 280 + x + 178.5 2 = 281 5
500 32 50 162 or, 560 + x + 357 = 1405
18. (e) ? = 160 + 81 = 241
100 100 or, x + 917 = 1405
19. (d) 45316 + 52131 65229 = ? + 15151 or, x = 1405 - 917 = 488
32218 = ? + 15151 2. (b) Age of the fourth friend = 31 4 - 32 3
? = 32218 15151 = 17067 = 124 - 96 = 28 years
184 4 184 4
20. (c) ? 8 3. (a) Required average
400 23 4 23 965 362 189 248 461 825 524 234
100
8
21. (a) ? 4 /3 ?5 / 3 23 128 3808
?3 = 25 27 = 2 12 = 476
8
? = (212)1/3 = 24 = 16 4. (b) 21a + 21b = 1134
22. (b) 16% of 450 ?% of 250 = 4.8 or, 21 (a + b) = 1134
16 ? 1134
450 250 4.8 a+b= 54
100 100 21
72 2.5 ? 4.8 a b 54
Required average = 27
2 2
72 5. (e) Let the first number be = 6x
2.5 ?
4.8 Second number = 3x
and the third number = 2x
72
? 6 According to the question,
4.8 2.5 6x + 3x + 2x = 154 3
23. (e) ? 11 1521 or, 11x = 154 3
? 11 39 154 3
x= 42
11
? 39 11 50
Required difference = 6x 2x = 4x = 4 42 = 168
? (50)2 2500 6. (d)
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40 101 SPEED TEST
b
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7. (c) Average score x
b
17. (a) Let the total journey be x km. Then km at the speed
.w
1 3
= [221 + 231 + 441 + 359 + 665 + 525]
o
6 x
rd
1 of 25 km/hr and km at 30 km/hr and the rest distance
p
4
= [2442] = 407
re
6 x x 5
s
8. (e) Let A = x x x at the speed of 50 km/hr..
s
3 4 12
.c
According to the question
o
x + x +1 + x + 2 + x + 3 + x +4 = 5 48 Total time taken during the journey of x km
m
5x + 10 = 240 x x 5x 18 x 3x
5x = 230 = hrs hrs hrs = hrs hrs
3 25 4 30 12 50 600 100
x = 46
E = 46 + 4 = 50 x 100 1
average speed = 18 x 33 km/hr
A E = 46 50 = 2300 3 3
9. (b) 16a + 16b = 672 600
or, 16 (a + b) = 672 18. (a) Let the total no. of workers be x.
672 Now, 8000 x = 7 12000 + (x 7) 6000
a+b= = 42 42000
16 x 21
a b 42 2000
Required average = = = 21 19. (d) Let the average score of 19 innings be x.
2 2
10. (e) Third number = 290 18x 98
(48.5 2) (53.5 2) Then, x 4 x = 22
19
= 290 97 107 = 86
11. (b) Total age of the family of five members = 24 5 = 120 The average score after 19th innings
Total age of the family of five members before 8 years = x + 4 = 22 + 4 = 26
= 120 5 8 = 120 40 = 80 20. (b) Total weight of 45 students
= 45 52 = 2340 kg
80 Total weight of 5 students who leave
So, Required average age = 16yr
5 = 5 48 = 240 kg
12. (e) x + x + 2 + x + 4 + x + 6 = 4 36 Total weight of 5 students who join
4x + 12 = 144 4x = 144 12 = 5 54 = 270 kg
132 Therefore, new total weight of 45 students
4x = 132 x 33 = 2340 240 + 270 = 2370
4
13. (b) Let the score of Ajay = x 2370 2
New average weight 52 kg
Rahul = x 15 45 3
Manish = x 25 21. (c) Total score of 40 innings = 40 50 = 2000
According to question, x = 63 + 30 Total score of 38 innings = 38 48 = 1824
x = 93 Let the highest score be x and the lowest score be y.
Score of Ajay = 93 Sum of the highest and the lowest score
then Rahul = 93 15 = 78 = x + y = 2000 1824
then Manish = 93 25 = 68 x + y = 176 ...(i)
Total marks of Rahul, Manish and Suresh
and by question, x y = 172 ...(ii)
= 3 63 = 189
Solving (i) and (ii), we get x = 174
Suresh = 189 (78 + 68) = 43
22. (c) Let average cost of petrol per litre be Rs x
Manish + Suresh = 68 + 43 = 111
14. (a) Suppose marks got in ph ysics, chemistry and 12000
mathematics are P, C and M. x
4000 4000 4000
P + C + M = C + 120 7.5 8 8.5
P + M = 120
P M 12000 3 3
60 =
2 1 1 1 10 1 10 2 1 2
15. (c) By Direct Formula : 4000
7.5 8 8.5 75 8 85 15 8 17
2 60 30 2 60 30
Average = 40 km/hr 6120
60 30 90 Rs 7.98 per litre
16. (c) Total of 10 innnings = 21.5 10 = 215 767
Suppose he needs a score of x in 11th innings; then 23. (d) Let the three numbers are x1, x2, x3 and x3 be the largest
215 x
number.
average in 11 innings = 24 or, x = 264 215 Given, average of three numbers = 135
11
x1 + x2 + x3 = 3 135 = 405
= 49
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SOLUTIONS 41
b
o
o
Since, x3 = 180 4. (c) 41% of 601 250.17 = ? 77% of 910
b
x1 + x2 = 225 .......... (i) 246 250 = ? 701
.w
Given x1 x2 = 25 .......... (ii) 701 + 246 250 = ?
o
Solving (i) and (ii), x1 = 125, x2 = 100 700 = ?
rd
Hence, the smallest number = 125 25 = 100 5. (a) 40.005% of 439.998 + ?% of 655.011 = 228.5
p
re
24. (d) Total age of 10 students =12.5 10 = 125 years 40 x
s
Total age of 20 students = 13.1 20 = 262 years 440 655 229
s
100 100
.c
Average age of 30 students 125 262
12.9 years
o
30 655x 655x
176 + 229 176 = 53
m
229
25. (d) Replacing the two numbers and arranging them in 100 100
ascending order, we get 53 100
31, 35, 35, 36, 38, 45, 46, 52, 55, 60 x 8
655
Since no. of observation is even 6. (d) 25% of 84 24% of 85 = ?
N N 21 20.4 = ?
th 1 th 428.4 = ?
2 2
Median = observation 7. (b) 20.06%of 599 + 10.01% of 901 = ?
2
20 10
5th 6th obs. 600 900 ?
= 100 100
2 120 + 90 = ?
38 45 83 ? 210
41.5 8. (a) 14.2% of 5500 + 15.6% of ? = 1795
2 2
26. (b) Total of x and y = 40 2 = 80 15.6
781 ? 1795
x+y+z 80 10 90 100
Average of x, y and z = 30 15.6
3 3 3 ? 1014
27. (a) Sum of 11 numbers = 11 10.9 = 119.9 100
Sum of first 6 numbers = 6 10.5 = 63 1014 100
Sum of last 6 numbers = 6 11.4 = 68.4 ? 6500
15.6
The middle number = Sum of the first six + Sum of the 9. (e) 36% of 245 40% of 210 = 10 ?
the last six Sum of all the 11 88.2 84 = 10 ?
= 63 + 68.4 119.9 4.2 = 10 ?
= 11.5 ? = 10 4.2 = 5.8
28. (a) Sum of 10 numbers = 402
Corrected sum of 10 numbers = 402 13 + 31 18 = 402 1
10. (a) of 3842 + 15% of ? = 2449
2
402
Hence, correct average 40.2 15
10 1921 + x 2449
29. (d) Required average number of microwave 100
42 12 20 10 504 200 704 15
x 2449 1921
= = = 32 100
12 10 22 22
30. (d) Temperature on the fourth day 528 100
x = 3520
= 40.2 4 + 41.3 4 40.6 7 15
= 160.8 + 165.2 284.2 = 41.8C 11. (c) 57% of 394 2.5% of 996
57 2.5
SPEED TEST 35 = 394 996
100 100
= 225 25 = 200
1. (b) 76% of 1285 = 35% of 1256 + ? 12. (a) 40% of 265 + 35% of 180 = 50% of ?
976.6 = 439.6 + ? 976.6 439.6 = ? 265 0.4 + 180 0.35 = ? 0.5
? = 537
2. (b) (21.5% of 999)1/3 + (43% of 601)1/2 = ? 169
106 + 63 = ? 0.5 ? 338
(1000 21.5%)1/3 + (600 43%)1/2 = ? 0.5
(215)1/3 + (258)1/2 = ? 1 1 21 10
(216)1/3 + (256)1/2 = ? 13. (b) 4 3 ? = 20% of 120 ? 120 0.2
5 3 5 3
(6)3 1/3 + (16)2 1/2 = ? 7 2 + ? = 24 ? = 10
6 + 16 = ? 14. (c) 14% of 250 ? % of 150 = 840
? = 22
3. (a) 64.5% of 800 + 36.4% of 1500 = (?)2 + 38 14 150 ?
250 840
516 + 546 = (?)2 + 38 100 100
1062 38 = (?)2 35 1.5 ? = 840
1024 = (?)2 840
(32)2 = (?)2 ?=
35 1.5
? = 32 ? = 16
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42 101 SPEED TEST
b
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18 27.5 24. (b) Population of the town after 2 years
b
15. (b) ? = 609 450
.w
100 100 7 5
= 109.62 + 123.75 = 233.37 233 = 198000 1 1
o
100 100
rd
125 85
16. (c) 3060 ? 408 198000 107 95
p
100 100
re
= = 201267
85 100 100
s
s
3825 408 = ? 25. (b) Total expenditure = 44668 + 56732 = 101400
.c
100
Total percentage expenditure = 100 22 = 78 %
o
3417 100
m
? 101400 100
85 Total amount = = ` 130000
4020 = ? 78
x y 26. (b) 75 % of 16 = 12
17. (d) 500 300 12% of monthly salary = 6567
100 100
5x = 3y 6567 100
5x 100% = = ` 54725
y .... (i) 12
3 27. (d) Total valid votes = 85% of 15200 = 12920
xy 200 Number of valid votes to other candidate
60 xy = 3000
100 100 = 45% of 12920 = 5814
5x 5x 28. (c) If the radius is decreased by r%, then
x 3000 y
3 3 r2 102
Area is decreased by 2r % = 2 10 = 19 %
3000 3 100 100
5x2 = 3000 3 x2 =
5 ve sign show that Area is decreased
x2 1800 29. (b) Let Bs salary be ` 100,
then As salary = ` 125
x 1800 = 2 3 3 10 10
x = 30 2 125 100 25
% lesser = 100 100
185 35 ? 125 125
18. (d) 400 240 1648
100 100 100 1
= 100 20%
? ? 5
740 + 84 = 1648 824 = 1648 30. (b) Let the original price of apple be ` x /dozen
100 100
824 100 4x 54 54 10
? or ? = 50 New price ` = /dozen =
1648 5 4 x x 12
2 50 25 5
19. (b) ? 630
3 100 100 5 1 5 1 5
210 50 25 2 210 54 54
? ? = 52.5 4x x 6 4x 6
100 100 4
20. (b) Number of transferred employees 54 6 4x
4x = 12.96
1225 40 5 5
= 40% of 1225 = 490
100
SPEED TEST 36
x
21. (b) Let the original fraction be .
y 1. (d) Total number of students in the school = 819
x 5x 4 6x 18 x 72 12 Number of girls = 364
Then, 2
y 3y 7 4y 7 y 42 7 Number of boys = 819 - 364 = 455
x Required ratio = 455 : 364 = 5 : 4
22. (c) Let the original fraction be =
y 2
According to the question, 2. (d) Share of Urmila in dividend = 57834 = ` 19278
6
350 3. (b) Let the present ages of Richa and Shelly be
x
100 7 7x 7 x 7 8 8 5x and 8x years.
400 9 According to the question,
y 8y 9 y 9 7 9
100 5 x 10 7
23. (e) Let the maximum aggregate marks = x After 10 years,
8 x 10 10
According to the question,
or, 56x + 70 = 50x + 100 or, 56x 50x = 100 70
40% of x 4% of x = 261
or, 6x = 30
(40 4)
x = 261 30
100 x= =5
261 6
x= 100 = 725 Shelly's present age = 8x = 8 5 = 40 years
36
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SOLUTIONS 43
b
o
o
4. (d) The sum of money is not known. 15. (d) Let the numbers be x and y.
b
.w
5. (a) Let the age of woman be 2x years and that of her x 4
daughter be x years.
o
y 7
rd
According to the question, 7x = 4y ... (a)
p
84
re
x 30 5
2x + x = 2 42 or, 3x = 84 or, x = = 28
s
3 y 30 8
s
Daughter's age = 28 years
.c
8x 5y = 90 ...(b)
o
6. (e) Let Aruns present age be x years. From eqn (b), 32x 20y = 360
m
Then, Deepaks present age = (x + 14) years From eqn (a), 35x = 20y
x 7 5 32x 35x = 360
Then,
x 14 7 7 360
x= 120
84 3
7x 5x 35 49 x 42 y = 210
2
Deepaks present age = 42 + 14 = 56 years 330
Avg = 165
7. (d) Data is given in ratio. So age cant be determined. 2
8. (a) Let number of students in Arts and Commerce were 4x 1 2 3
16. (d) Given the ratio = : : 6 : 8 : 9.
and 5x respectively. Then, 2 3 4
4x 8 520 6
44x 40x = 520 x = 130 1st part = ` 782 = ` 204.
5x 65 11 4 23
Number of students in Arts = 4 130 = 520 17. (b) Let actual distance be x km. Then,
9. (c) Let the original number of boys and girls be 6x and 5x 3
:1 :: 60 : x
respectively. 4
6x 8 11 3 240
Then, x 60 x 80 km
5x 2 7 4 3
78 18. (d) Let A = 2x, B = 3x and C = 4x. Then,
55 x 42 x 56 22 x 6 A 2x 2 B 3x 3 C 4x 2
13 , and
Number of boys = 6 6 + 8 = 44 B 3x 3 C 4x 4 A 2x 1
10. (a) Let Present age of Meena's doughter be x years then A B C 2 3 2
meena age be 8x : : : : 8 : 9 : 24.
B C A 3 4 1
accordig to question 19. (c) Total age of 3 boys = (25 3) years = 75 years
8 x 8 10 56 Ratio of their ages = 3 : 5 : 7.
24 x 10 x 80 24 x = 4 years.
x 8 3 14 3
Age of the youngest boy = 75 years = 15 years
Meena age = 8x = 8 4 = 32 years 15
11. (b) Let the present age of father and son be 17x and 7x 20. (b) Let income of A = ` 3x, income of B = ` 2x
respectively. and expenditure of A = ` 5y,
expenditure of B = ` 3y
17x 6 3
Then, Now, saving = income expenditure
7x 6 1 3x 5y = 2x 3y = 200
21x 17x = 18 6 x = 12 4 =3 x = 2y and y = 200
Fathers present age = 17 3 = 51 years. x = 400
12. (c) Rita : Sita : Kavita As income = ` 1200
7 : 15 21. (c) Since, A : B = 2 : 3 and B : C = 6 : 5
7 : 16 A:B:C=4:6:5
49 : 105 : 240
The ratio of money with Rita, Sita and Kavita is Then, As share 4
750 ` 200
49 : 105 : 240 4 6 5
We see that 49 ` 490 240 ` 2400 22. (c) Let the numbers be 5x and 4x.
13. (a) Iron Copper Now, difference of numbers = 10
Alloy I 8 : 6 14 kg. i.e. 5x 4x = 10 x = 10
Alloy II 36 : 6 42 kg.
44 : 12 56 kg
Larger number = 10 5 = 50
23. (b) Give, Ratio of distribution = 3 : 1 : 5
44 11 Let the share of P, Q and R be 3x, x and 5x, respectively
Ratio of iron to copper = Since, Difference between Qs and Rs share is Rs. 3600.
12 3
1 1 1
5x x = 3600
14. (b) Ratio of sides = : : 6:4:3 x = 900
2 3 4 Ps share = 3 900 = 2700
6 and Qs share = 900
Largest side = 104 cm = 48 cm
Hence, Total of Ps and Qs share
13
= Rs 3600
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44 101 SPEED TEST
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24. (b) Mrs. X spends = Rs 535
80 15 20 20
b
Total cost = 43 shirt + 21 ties = 535 2. (c) C.P. of mixture ` 16
.w
By hit and trial, S = 10, T = 5 80 20
o
Total cost = 43 10 + 21 5 = 535
rd
125
Hence, Ratio of shirts to ties = 10 : 5 = 2 : 1 S.P. of mixed tea = 16 ` 20
p
100
re
a 2
25. (a) Given 3. (b) By the rule of alligation, we have
s
s
b 5
.c
o
2a 2 Cost of Alcohol Cost of Kerosene Oil
m
3 2 3 Rs 3.50 ` 2.50
2a 3b b 5
Consider =
7a 5b 7a 2
5 7 5
cost of
b 5
a mixture
(By putting value of ) ` 2.75
b
19
5 19
39 39
2.75 2.50 = 0.25 3.50 2.75 = 0.75
5
26. (c) Let the numbers be 6x and 13x.
LCM (6x, 13x) = 13 6 x = 312 (given) 0.25 1
Required ratio i.e. 1: 3
312 0.75 3
x x=4 4. (b) In mixture,
13 6
So, the numbers are 24 and 52. Quantity of pure milk 3 0 3 5
Sum of the numbers 24 + 52 = 76
Quantity of water 3.6 3 0.6 1
5a 3b 23
27. (d) We have, Since in every 5 litres of milk, he adds 1 litre of water.
2a 3b 5 In every 25 litres of milk, he adds 5 litres of water.
25a + 15 b = 46a 69b 5. (b) Let C.P. of milk be Re. 1 per litre.
a 84 4 Then, S.P. of 1 litre of mixture = Re. 1.
21a = 84 b
b 21 1 Gain = 20%
28. (b) Let the no. of one rupee, 50 paise and 25 paise coins be 100 5
2x, 3x and 4x respectively. C.P. of 1 litre of mixture = ` 1 ` .
According to question, 120 6
3x 4x By the rule of alligation, we have :
Rs. 2x Rs. 216
2 4 C.P. of 1 litre C.P. of 1 litre
of water of milk
8x 6x 4x
216
4 0 Mean Re. 1
x = 48 price
Number of 50 paise coins = 48 3 = 144 Re. 5
29. (c) Let the ages of two persons be X and Y respectively 6
X 5 X 16 3
and
Y 7 Y 16 5 5 1 5 5
1 = 0 =
On solving we get X = 40, Y = 56. 6 6 6 6
5
30. (b) In the mixture, milk 28 20 litres, and 1 5
7 Ratio of water and milk = : 1: 5.
2 6 6
Water 28 8 litres 6. (a) Out of 10 litre of solution, there is 1 litres of nitric acid
7
and 9 litres of water.
2 liters of water is added, Hence the new ratio of
Let x litres of water be added to the solution so that the
Milk 20 20 diluted solution is of 4% strength.
2 :1
Water 8 2 10 4% of (10 + x) = 1 x = 15.
7. (a) Let C.P. of 1 litre milk be Re. 1.
SPEED TEST 37 50
S.P. of 1 litre of mixture = Re. 1, Gain = %.
1. (a) New % of sugar in (3 + 1) litre solution 3
0.04 3 6
0.03 3% C.P. of 1 litre of mixture = Re. .
(3 1) 7
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SOLUTIONS 45
b
o
o
By the rule of alligation, we have : Alcohol must be added in the ratio of 10 : 75 or 2 : 15
b
Quantity of alcohol to be added in 10 litres
.w
C.P. of 1 litre C.P. of 1 litre
of water of milk
o
2 4
rd
0 Mean Re. 1 10
15 3
p
price
re
Re. 6 100 60
s
13. (b) C. P. of mixture ` 48
s
7
.c
(100 25)
o
1 6 Let x kg be mixed. Then,
m
7 7
40 x 55 16
1 6 48
Ratio of water and milk = : = 1 : 6. 16 x
7 7
8. (b) The first alloy does not have tin. Therefore, quantity of 8x 16[55 48] x 14 kg
5 14. (c) The existing solution has 40% sugar. And sugar is to be mixed;
tin in 2 units of the resulting alloy = so the other solution has 100% sugar. So, by alligation method:
13
Quantity of tin in one unit of the resulting alloy 40% 100%
5 50%
13 5 50% 10%
=
2 26 The two mixtures should be added in the ratio 5 : 1.
9. (b) By the rule of alligation, 300
water concentration, Therefore, required sugar = 1 = 60 gm
5
Original solution Water 15. (b) Gold Copper
4 1
11 19 9
15
6 4
6 (mixture)
Gold : Copper = 6 : 4 = 3 : 2
13
16. (c) Apply the alligation on fracfion of milk in each mixture.
Mixture Water
7 14 2 0
13 143 3
water must be added to the mixture in the ratio 1
3
14 7
: i.e. 2 : 11 1 1
143 13 3 3
2 Ratio of mixture to water = 1 : 1
Quantity of water to be added 55 10 litres
11 Therefore, if there is 60 liture of solution, 60 litres of water
10. (c) Gold Copper should be added.
Type A 14 4 17. (e) Initially water (weight) = 45 gm & milk 15 gm. After added
Type B 7 11 15 gm
Type C 21 15 water the percentage of water
The ratio of the Gold and Copper in the type C weight of water 60
alloy = 7 : 5. = = 100 = 80%
11. (c) C. P. of mixture of 18 kg = 10 45 + 8 50 = ` 850 total weight of mixture 75
S. P. = C. P. + Profit = 850 + 32 = ` 882 18. (a) By the rule of alligation:
S. P. = ` 882 for 18 kg Cost of 1 kg tea of 1st kind
882
S. P. for 1 kg. Rs =` 49
18
12. (d) By the rule of alligation,
Alcohol concentration :
Original mixture Pure alcohol
15% 100%
Required ratio = 750 : 250 = 3 : 1.

25% 19. (d) Let the C.P. of spirit be Re. 1 per litre.
5 5
Spirit in 1 litre mix. of A = litre; C.p. of a litre mix. in A = Re. .
7 7
7
Spirit in 1 litre mix. of B = litre;
10% 13
75%
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46 101 SPEED TEST
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5 11 (25x + 900) = 300 (x+30)
b
C.P. of 1 litre mix. in B = Re. .
275x + 9900 = 300 x + 9000 or 25x = 900
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13
8 8 x = 36 kg.
o
Spirit in 1 litre mix. of C= litre; Mean price = Re. .
rd
13 13 25. (b) Let, weight of sugar costing Rs 5.75 per kg = x kg
p
By the rule of alligation, we have : x 5.75 + 75 4.50 = 5.50 (x + 75)
re
C.P. of 1 litre mixture in A C.P. of 1 litre mixture in B 5.75x + 337.50 = 5.50x + 412.50
s
s
5 7 0.25x = 75
.c
x = 300 kg
o
7 Mean price 13
m
8
13 SPEED TEST 38
1 9
13 91 1. (b) Let S.P. = ` 100. Then, C.P. = ` 96; Profit = ` 4.
1 9
: 7 : 9. Profit % 4.2%
Required ratio
13 13 2. (a) Let the cost of production of the table be ` x.
20. (c) Let the quantity of milk and water be 40 litres and 60 Then, 125% of 115% of 110% of x = 1265
litres, respectively.
125 115 110
( Ratio of milk to water = 2 : 3) x 1265
After removing 50% of solution 100 100 100
Quantity of milk = 20 litres and 253 1265 160
Quantity of water = 30 litres x 1265 x ` 800
Therefore, the concentration of the solution is reduced 160 253
from 40 to 20 i.e. a reduction of 50%. 3. (b) Let C. P. = ` x then profit = S.P. C. P.
3 1 11x
21. (b) Quantity of milk = 45 27 litres x 891 x 891
5 10 10
2 891 10
Quantity of water = 45 18 litres x ` 810
5 11
Let x litres of water be added to make the ratio 9 : 11. 4. (d) C. P. for 50 pencils = ` 100
18 x 11
18 + x = 33 x =15l
100
C. P. for 45 pencils 45 ` 90
27 9 50
22. (c) Ratio of milk in the containers are, = S.P. of 45 pencils
1 3 5 5 3 25 No gain , no loss
5 :4 :5 : : 5. (b) (100 loss) : S1 : : (100 + gain) : S2
6 8 12 6 2 12
(100 12.5) : 420 : : (100 + 12.5) : S2
and the ratio of water in the containers are, 87.5 : 420 : : 112.5 : S2
5 5 7 25 5 35 87.5 S2 = 420 112.5
5 :4 :5 : :
6 8 12 6 2 12 420 1125
Ratio of mixture of milk and water in the containers S2 540
875
1 3 5 5 5 7
= 5 4 5 : 5 4 5 5 1
6 8 12 6 8 12 6. (b) S.P. for 1 egg = ` Rs
10 2
= 106 : 230 = 53 : 115
23. (c) Let the quantity of pure milk be x litres. 100 1 5
C. P. for 1 egg `
If 5 litres of water is added to it, then the cost of (5 + x) (100 20) 2 12
litres = Rs. 3x He bought 12 eggs for 5 rupees.
S.P. of ( 5 + x) litres = Rs. (3x + 15)
Profit = Rs. 15 150 3
7. (b) C.P. for one coconut Rs Rs
Given 20% of 3x = 15 100 2
3x S.P. for one coconut = ` 2
15 x = 25
5 3 1
Profit on one coconut 2 `
The amount of pure milk in the mixture is 25 litre 2 2
24. (c) Let the weight of tea worth Rs 25 per kg = x kg. 1
According to question Profit on 2000 coconut 2000 ` 1000
2
x 25 30 30 8. (a) Let C.P. = Rs 100, then M. P. = ` 150
110% of 30
x 30 S.P. = 70% of 150 = ` 105
110 25x 900 105 100
30 % profit 100 5%
100 x 30 100
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SOLUTIONS 47
b
o
o
9. (b) C.P. of one litre = ` 6 1754 1492
b
After adding water to it 17. (a) Cost price = ` 1623
.w
2
2
o
One has to pay Rs 7.20 for litre of milk. 10500 100 100
rd
3 18. (c) Required amount = = ` 6250
p
120 140
re
2
So S.P. of litre of milk = Rs 7.20 19. (e) 15 pendants + 24 chains
s
3
s
= 3 (5 pendants + 8 chains)
.c
7.20 3 = 3 145785 = ` 437355
o
S.P. of 1 litre of milk Rs ` 10.80
m
2 20. (c) CP = Rs 153, desired gain 20%
SP = 153 1.2 = Rs 183.60
S.P. C.P.
Let the marked price be Rs x
10.80 6 4.80 Then, x 0.85 183.60
Hence gain 100 100
6 6 183.60
= 0.80 100 = 80% x Rs. 216
10. (a) He gives 800 grams but charges the price of 1000 grams 0.85
(1 kg) 21. (e) Applying successive discounts of 10%, 12% and 15%
on every 800 grams, he gains (1000 800) grams i.e. on 100, we get 100 0.9 0.88 0.85 67.32
200 grams. Single discount = 100 67.32=32.68
200 Hence, none of the given options is correct.
His gain % 100% 25% 22. (b) Let the cost price of the machine be Rs x.
800
error 11x
Short cut : Gain % Then, selling price at a profit of 10% = Rs
true weighterror 10
200 9x
100 = 25%. And the selling price at a loss of 10% = Rs
1000 200 10
11. (d) Here, SP1 = SP2 Consequently, we find that
CP1 6 3 11x 9x
140 CP1 = 60CP2 80
CP2 14 7 10 10
3
CP1 8000 ` 2400 x
(3 7) 80 x Rs 400
and CP2 = 8000 2400 = ` 5600 5
23. (b) Let CP be Rs x and SP be Rs y.
12. (b) Let the C.P. of the goods be ` 100
Then, profit = Rs (y x)
Marked price of the goods = ` 120 If SP = 2y, then profit = 3(y x)
Discount = 10% S.P. is 90% of Rs 120 = ` 108 Now, 2 y x 3( y x )
Gain% = (108 100) = 8%.
13. (d) Let his loss = ` x. Then, y = 2x
C.P. = 5000 + x = 5600 2x y x 2x x
3x = 600 x = 200 Now, profit = 100 100 = 100%
x x
C.P. =5000 + 200 = Rs 5200 24. (c) Let CP of 12 pencils = SP of 10 pencils = Re 1
14. (d) Let C.P. = ` x. Then,
1
(100 7) 93 Therefore, CP of 1 pencil = Rs and
S.P. x x 12
100 100
1
93 100 SP of 1 pencil = Rs
Also, x 48 x 10
100 (100 5)
1 1 2 1
93x + 4800 = 105x Profit on one pencil = = Rs
12x = 4800 x = ` 400 10 12 120 60
15. (e) CP of DVD player = ` x
% profit = 1/ 60 100 20%
According to the question, 1/12
22 25. (d) If any two transactions of SP is the same and also gain
x 1 = ` 10980 % and loss % are same then there is always a loss
100
2 2
50 Common gain or loss% 10
x = 10980 = ` 9000 loss % = = 1%
61 10 10
16. (c) 24 bats + 32 sticks = ` 5600 26. (a) Let the cost price of geyser be Rs x. Then
8(3 bats + 4 sticks) = ` 5600 x 1.1 1.15 1.25 = Rs 1265
5600 1265
3 bats + 4 sticks = = ` 700 x Rs.800
8 1.58125
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48 101 SPEED TEST
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27. (a) Money paid to buy watch = Rs. 1950. PTR
b
Money paid as interest of 10% on Rs. 1950 = Rs. 195 Simple =
.w
Total money paid = Rs. 2145 100
o
9535 4 t
rd
Since S.P. = Rs. 2200, therefore the man gained Rs. 55. 1907
p
28. (c) Let the cost price be Rs 100. 100
re
Marked price is Rs 135. 1907 100
s
At 10% discount, the customer has to pay
s
t= = 5 years
.c
= Marked price discount = 135 13.5 = 121.5. 9535 4
o
4. (b) Let the principal be = `100
m
1
% profit = 21.5% = 21 %. 100 8 6
2 Simple interest = = `48
29. (a) S.P. of the 1st chair = Rs. 500 100
Gain = 20% Amount (100 + 48) = `148
When the amount is = `148, the principal = `100
500 100 500 100 When amount = `28046, the principal
C.P. of the 1st chair =
100 20 120
100
1250 = 28046 = `18950
148
3 Simple interest = (`28046 18950) = `9096
S.P. of the 2nd chair = Rs. 500
Loss = 12% PRT
5. (c) Simple interest =
500 100 500 100 100
C.P. of the 2nd chair =
100 12 88 56500 3 12
= = 20340
6250 100
11 Required amount = ` (56500 + 20340) = `76840
Now S.P. of both the chairs = Rs. 1000 8376 100
C.P. of both the chairs 6. (d) Amount invested =
8 6
1250 6250 13750 18750 32500 = ` 17450
P 4 5
3 11 33 33 7. (d) 2000 =
100
32500 500 P = 10000
Net gain = 1000 2
33 33 4
Now, CI = 10000 1 1 = 10000 0.0816 = 816
500 33 500 100
Gain % = 100 = 100
32500 33 32500 1120 8.5 3
8. (a) Amount = 11200 + 11200 2856 = 14056
100 20 100
= 1.5% (To one place of decimal) 9. (b) Ratio of two parts = r2 t2 : r1 t1 = 54 : 50 = 27 : 25
65 13
30. (b) Let x be the selling price of 1 notebook. 2600
Sum lent out at 10% = 27 ` 1350
Selling price of 2 note book = 2x = profit 52
As, we know, profit = selling price cost price 10. (d) It doubles in 10 yrs.
Cost price of 12 note book = 12x 2x = 10 x Then triples in 20 yrs.
11. (b) Suppose the rate of interest = r% and the sum = ` P
2x
Profit ( percentage) = 100 20% P r 4
10x Now, P 600 ;
100
SPEED TEST 39 Pr
or, P 600
25
P R T r
1. (b) Simple Interest = or, P 1 600 ...(1)
100 25
31400 8 12 P r 6
` 30144 And, P 650 ;
100 100
Required amount = ` (31400 + 30144) 3r
or, P 1 650 ...(2)
= ` 61544 50
(26350 21250) 100 Dividing (1) by (2), we have
2. (e) Rate = r
21250 6 1+
25 600 ; or, (25 r ) 2 12
510000 3r 650 50 3r 13
= = 4% 1
127500 50
3. (c) Let the required time = t years or, (50 + 2r) 13 = (50 + 3r) 12
Simple interest = (11442 9535) = `1907 or, 650 + 26r = 600 + 36r; or, 10r = 50
r = 5%
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SOLUTIONS 49
b
o
o
12. (a) Let the sum be ` x. 19. (c) Let one gets = ` x
b
then, second gets = ` (68,000 x)
.w
x 8 4 32 x
Interest = Given : A1 = A2
o
100 100
rd
32 x 68 x x 10 8 (68000 x) 10 6
x (68, 000 x)
p
x 100 100
re
100 100
s
x[100 80] (68, 000 x)[100 60]
s
68 x
.c
When interest is less, the sum is ` x.
100
o
180x
68, 000 x
m
100 340 160
when interest is 340 less, the sum is x = ` 500
68 34x 68000 16 x Rs32,000
13. (b) S. I. = 81 72 = ` 9 second gets = ` 36,000
9 100 4 3 51
T 2 years 20. (b) Interest for one year ` 212.50 1 `
72 25 100 8
14. (a) S.I. for 1 years = ` (1164 1008) = ` 156 Thus in 8 years, the interest is ` 51.
156 2 2 21. (c) Shortcut method :
S. I. for 2 years = ` Rs 208 If borrowed amount be ` M and it is to be paid in equal
3
instalments, then
Principal = ` (1008 208) = ` 800
Now , P = 800, T= 2, S.I. = 208 ra n(n 1)
M na
100 Y 2
100 208
Rate % 13% where Y = no. of instalments per annum
800 2 a = annual instalment
15. (e) Let the principal be ` P. Here, M = 4200, y = 1, r = 10, n = 5, a = ?
P r 2 10a 5(5 1)
720 P = ...(i) 4200 5a
100 100 2
for 5 years.
4200 a 5 1 6a 4200
P r 5
1020 P = ...(ii) a = ` 700
100 22. (d) We need to know the S.I., principal and time to find the
Now, eqn (ii) is divided by eqn (i), we get, rate. Since the principal is not given, so data is
1020 P 5 inadequate.
720 P 2 23. (c) Let the principal be P and rate of interest be R%.
1020 2 2P = 720 5 5P
3P = 3600 2040 = 1560 P R 6
100 6PR 6
1560 Required ratio = 2 : 3.
P= = 520 ` P R 9 9PR 9
3
Rate of interest 100
24. (a) Let the sum be ` x. Then,
520 r 2 x 6 3 x 9 5 x 13 3
720 520 = 8160
100 100 100 100
520 r 2 18 x + 45x + 39x = (8160 100) 102x = 816000
200 =
100 x = 8000.
200 100 25. (b) Let the sum be ` 100. Then,
r= 19.23%
520 2 100 10 1
S.I. for first 6 months = ` Rs. `
1.53 105 20 100 2
16. (b) Let S.I. = ` x = `2500.
100 105 10 1
S.I. for last 6 months = ` ` 5.25.
17. (c) Difference in S.I. P T 100 2
(R1 R 2 )
100 So, amount at the end of 1 year = ` (100 + 5 + 5.25)
= ` 110.25.
P 4 2 Effective rate = ` (110.25 100) = 10.25%.
56 ( R1 R2 = 2)
100 26. (d) Let the rate be R% p.a. Then,
56 100 5000 R 2 3000 R 4
P ` 700 2200
4 2 100 100
18. (a) Rate = 5 paise per rupee = 5%
2200
200 5 7 100R 120R 2200 R 10.
S.I. = ` 70 220
100
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50 101 SPEED TEST
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27. (b) Let the savings be X and Y and the rates of simple 2
b
5
interest be 5x and 4x respectively. 6. (a) Compound interest = 35000 1 35000
.w
100
1 1 1 1 X 4
o
Then, X 5x Y 4x or , = 38587.50 35000 = ` 3587.50
rd
2 100 2 100 Y 5
p
8730 100
i.e., X : Y = 4 : 5.
re
7. (d) Principle = 48500
6 3
28. (a) Let the principal be P, then amount after 12 years = 2P
s
s
.c
2
SI ( 2 P P ) P 6
48500 1 1
o
Compound Interest
100
m
P r t P r 12
Now, I P= = 48500 0.1236 = ` 5994.60
100 100
2 2
100 25 1 r 594.5 r
or r 8 % 8. (a) 594.5 = 5800 1 1 1 1
12 3 3 100 5800 100
29. (b) Let the sum be Rs x r
2
0.1025 + 1 = 1
x 8 (3 2) 100
Now, 56 x = Rs 700
100 2
100 r
10, 000 6 9 1.1025
30. (a) SI Rs 450 10000
12 100 1.1025 10000 = (100 + r)2.
11025 = (100 + r)2.
SPEED TEST 40 105 = 100 + r
2
r = 5%
5 2
1. (a) Required Amount = 15000 1 = ` 16537.50 27
100 9. (d) Compound interest = 7400 1 1
200
Time
Rate 2
2. (b) Compound interestAmount = Principal 1 1 227 227 227 200 200
100 = 7400 1 = 7400
200 200 200
2
8 51529 40000 11529
1250 1 1 = 7400 = 7400
100 40000 40000
= 2132.865 = ` 2132.87
108 108 100 100
1250 T
100 100 r
10. (c) C. I. P 1 1
100
1250 1664
` 208 2
10000 r
4676.25 = 14500 1 1
Time 100
Rate
3. (e) Amount = Principal 1 2 2
100 4676.25 r 4676.25 r
3
1 1 1 1
5 21 21 21 14500 100 14500 100
= 5690 1 = 5690 = `6586.90 2
100 20 20 20 4676.25 14500 r
1
Compound interest = `(6586.9 5690) = `896.9 897 14500 100
30240 100 19176.25 r r
4. (e) Rate 12% 1 1.3225 1
84000 3 14500 100 100
Compound interest
13225 r 115 r r 115
3 1 1 1
12 10000 100 100 100 100 100
= 84000 1 84000
100 r 115 100 r 15
= 118013.95 84000 = ` 34013.95 r = 15%
100 100 100 100
4000 5 2 11. (c) Compound interest accrued half-yearly.
5. (a) Simple interest = = ` 400 R = 20% yearly = 10% half-yearly
100
n = 2 years = 4 half-yearly
Compound interest
n
2 r
5 CI P 1 1
= 4000 1 4000 100
100
4 4
4000 105 105 10 11
= 4000 = 4410 4000 = ` 410 = 10000 1 1 = 10000 1
100 100 100 10
Difference = 410 400 = ` 10
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SOLUTIONS 51
b
o
o
11 11 11 11 10 10 10 10 n
b
= 10000 r
.w
10 10 10 10 Then, 16 x x 1
100
o
14641 1000 4641
rd
= 10000 = 10000 = ` 4641 16 2 n or 2 4 2 n or n 4
p
10000 10000
re
17. (d) Required difference
2 2
s
R 14
s
12. (e) Required difference = P = 985 2
.c
100 100 12 5000 12 2
= 5000 1 5000
o
100 100
m
196
= 985 19.306
10000 28 28
13. (d) Difference in amounts = 2977.54 2809 = ` 168.54 = 5000 1 1200
25 25
Now, we see that ` 168.54 is the interest on ` 2809 in one
year (it is either simple or compound interest because both 784 625
are the same for a year). = 5000 1200 Rs.72
625
168.54 100
Hence, rate of interest = 6% 18. (d) Let the money borrowed be Rs x and the rate of interest
2809
charged = r%
Now, for the original sum,
Time = 2 years
2 2
6 53 x r 2
2809 = x 1 or, 2809 x Now, 4000 =
100 50 100
x
2809 50 50
` 2500
r x = 200000 ............. (i)
53 53 2
r
2
t Again, x 1 x 4200
14. (b) 6632.55 6250 1 100
100
6632.55 51
t
663255 51
t xr 2 2 xr
or, or, 4200
625000 50 625000 50 10000 100
or 20r + 4000 = 4200 [from (i)]
t or r = 10%
132651 51
or,
125000 50 n
r
19. (c) A P 1 ; A = Amount
3 t 100
51 51
or t=3 P = Principal ; r = rate of interest ; n = time
50 50
3
t 3 105
Hence, the time is Required amount 1000
2 2 100
15. (b) Whenever the relationship between CI and SI is asked for 3
years of time, we use the formula: 21 21 21
= 1000
rt 20 20 20
SI = CI
t = Rs 1157.625
r
100 1 1 20. (b) Let the rate of interest be r %.
100
4
5 3 r
150 CI 1
3 2520 100
5 Therefore,
100 1 1 2400 3
100 r
1
100
9261 8000
150 100
8000 r 21
CI = 1 or r = 5%
5 3 100 20
150 100 1261 1261 21. (d) Cash Price (C.P.)= Rs. 39,000
` 157.62 Cash Down Payment (D.P.) = Rs. 17000
5 3 8000 8
Balance Due (B.D) = Rs. 22000
16. (b) Let the sum of money be Rs x.
P = Value of Instalment = Rs. 4800
3 n = No. of Instalments = 5
r
Now, 8x x 1 R = Rate of interest
100
nR (n 1)R
3 1 BD 1 nP
r
or, 1 r (2)3 or 1 2 1200 2400
100 100
5R 4R
Again, let the sum becomes 16 times in n years. 1 22000 = 1 5 4800
1200 2400
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52 101 SPEED TEST
b
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5R 4R 2 2
b
1 11 = 1 12 17640 R R
.w
1200 2400 1 1.1025 1
16000 100 100
o
rd
55R 24R R
11 12 R
p
1200 1200 1 1.05 1.05 1 0.05 R = 5%
re
100 100
s
55R 24R 31R 25. (a) Let A lent Rs. x and B lent Rs. y
s
1 1
.c
1200 1200 1200 Since, A and B together lent out Rs. 81600
o
x + y = 81,600
m
1200
R= 38.71% Now, given (r) Rate = 4%
31
22. (c) Let the amount of each instalment be Rs. x. 4 26
1 r 1
3 100 25
Amount of Rs. 100 for 3 years 5 According to the question, we have
100 1
100 32
x 26 26
21 21 21 9261
= 100 = Rs. y 25 25
20 20 20 80
9261 25
Present value of Rs. due after 3 years = Rs. 100 Investment made by B = 81600 40, 000
80 51
Present value of Rs. x due after 3 years
SPEED TEST 41
100 80 8000x
= x = Rs.
9261 9261 5 10
1. (b) Relative speed = 42 30 = 12 km/hr = 12 m/s
2 18 3
5
Amount of Rs. 100 for 2 years = 100 1 Total length of both the trains 84 60
100 Time =
Relative speed 10
21 21 441 3
= 100
20 20 4
144 3
= 43.2 seconds
400 10
Present value of Rs. x due after 2 years = Rs. x
441 120
Similarly, present value of Rs. x due after 1 year 2. (a) Speed of the train = 24 m/s
5
21 time taken by the train to pass the platform
= Rs. x
20 120 180
= 12.5 seconds
8000 400 20 24
x x x 126100 3. (c) Length of the train = Relative speed time
9261 441 21
8000x + 8400x + 8820x = 126100 9261 5 15 5 48
= (40 25) 48 = 200 m
25220x = 126100 9261 18 18
4. (c) Let the length of the train = x m
126100 9261
x= Rs 46305 x x 100
25220 Then, speed of the train =
15 25
3
r or, 25x = 15x + 1500 or, 10x = 1500
23. (b) Given 8P P 1 x = 150 m
100
Where P = Principal amount, Distance covered 2924
5. (c) Speed of bus = = = 68 kmph.
r = Compound interest rate Time taken 43
r 100% 6. (a) Distance covered = Speed Time = 49 7 = 343km
let the time in which the principal amount becomes 7. (e) Let the distance between the village and the school be
16 times be n xkm.
n According to the question,
100
Then 16P P 1 x x x 2x
100 6 or,, 6 or,, 3x = 6 4
4 2 4
16 2n n 4yrs.
6 4
24. (a) Amount = Rs. 17640, Principal = Rs. 16000 x 8 km
Time = 2 yrs, Rate = R 3
2
8. (a) Speed of train (200 400) 18 = 60 km/hr..
R
17640 = 16000 1 36 5
100
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SOLUTIONS 53
b
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9. (c) Distance covered in 18 seconds 18. (c) After 5 minutes (before meeting), the top runner covers
b
5 2 rounds i.e., 400 m and the last runner covers 1 round
.w
= 90 18 450 m i.e., 200 m.
o
18 Top runner covers 800 m race in 10 minutes.
rd
length of platform = 450 160 = 290 m
p
Total distance
re
(64 48) 60 19. (a) Average speed =
10. (b) Stoppage minutes per hour = Total time
s
64
s
.c
= 15 minutes. 400 4 9 400 4 9
o
480
m
88 96 89 87 360
11. (c) Speed of bus = = 40 km/hr
12 = 40 metres /minutes
Speed of train = 40 9 = 72 km/hr 20. (a) Speed =
750
m / sec 5 m / sec
5 150
72 18
Speed of car = 13 = 52 km/hr 5 km / hr 18 km / hr.
18 5
Distance covered by car = 52 5 = 260 km
21. (a) Let each side of the square be x km and let the average
5 speed of the plane around the field be y km/h. Then,
12. (a) Length of platform = 126 24 300 = 540 meters
18 x x x x 4x
540
Speed of man = = 1.8 meter/second 200 400 600 800 y
5 60
13. (b) Distance = 64 8 = 512 km 25x 4x 2400 4
y 384.
512 2400 y 25
Speed = = 85 km/hr (approx.)
6 Average speed = 384 km/h.
14. (d) Net distance gained by car over the bus 22. (d) Let after t hours they meet then,
= 40 + 60 = 100m, in 20 sec. 3t + 4t = 17.5 t = 2.5
Time = 10 am + 2.5 h = 12 : 30pm
Distance 100
Time = 20 23. (a) Let original speed = S km/h
Relative speed 5 Here, distance to be covered is constant
36 S2
18 20
S2 = 5 m/s = 18 kmph. S 8 (S 5)
3
15. (b) Relative speed of the trains
= (72 54) km/h = 18 km/h 20 100 100
8S S S 25 km / h
5 3 3 4
= 18 m/sec = 5 m/sec. 24. (c) Let the speed of the bus be x km / h.
18 then speed of the car = (x + 25) km / h
Time taken by the trains to cross each other
= Time taken to cover (100 + 120) m at 5 m/sec 500 500
10
220 x x 25
= sec = 44 sec. x2 + 25x 1250 = 0 x = 25
5 Thus speed of the bus = 25 km/h
16. (a) Let the distance be x km. Let speed of train be y km/h. Speed of the car = 50 km/h
Then by question, we have Alternative:
x x 30 Difference in speeds 25 km / hr is in only option (c).
...(i) 25. (a) Distance to be covered by the thief and by the owner is
y 4 y 60
same.
x x 20 Let after time 't', owner catches the thief.
and ...(ii)
y 2 y 60 1
40 t 50 t
On solving (i) and (ii), we get x = 3y 2
Put x = 3y in (i) we get
5 1
3y 1 10t 25 t hr 2 hr
3 y 20 2 2
y 4 2 26. (a) Let the duration of the flight be x hours. Then,
Hence, distance = 20 3 = 60 km. 600 600 600 1200
16 200 200
x 1 x 2x 1
17. (b) Rate downstream = kmph = 8 kmph; x
2 2
16 x (2x + 1) = 3 2x2 + x 3 = 0 (2x + 3) (x 1) = 0
Rate upstream = kmph = 4 kmph. x = 1 hr. [neglecting the ve value of x].
4
1 180 180
Speed in still water = (8 + 4) = 6 km/h. 27. (d) Required difference = 15 km
2 3 4
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54 101 SPEED TEST
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28. (c) Let the husband and the wife meet after x minutes. 4500 1 1 1
b
metres are covered by Pradeep in 60 minutes. 5. (b) In one min, (A + B) fill the cistern th
.w
10 15 6
4500
o
In x minutes, he will cover x metres.
rd
60 In 3 mins, (A + B) fill the cistern = 3 1
th
p
Similarily, 6 2
re
3750
s
1 1
s
In x minutes, his wife will cover x m. Remaining part 1
.c
60 2 2
o
4500 3750
m
Now, x x 726 1
60 60 th part is filled by A in one min.
10
726 60
x 5.28 min 1 1
8250 nd part is filled by A in 10 5min .
2 2
29. (b) Downstream speed = 15 + 5 = 20 km/h. Total time = 3 + 5 = 8 min.
Required distance 20 24 8km. 6. (b) Ratio of times taken by A and B = 100 : 130 = 10 : 13.
60 Suppose B takes x days to do the work.
30. (c) Let the distance travelled during both upward and Then, 10 : 13 : : 23 : x
downward journey be x km.
23 13 299
Total distance covered x x .
Average speed = 10 10
Total time taken
1 10
x x 2 2 28 16 As 1 days work = ; Bs 1 day's work = .
= 20.36 km / h 23 299
x x 28 16 44
1 10 23 1
16 28 28 16 (A + B)s 1 days work = .
23 299 299 13
SPEED TEST 42 A and B together can complete the job in 13 days.
7. (a) Sunil takes 5 days and Pradeep takes 15 days to do the
12 8
1. (c) Number of days = = 24 days work.
12 8
2. (a) In an hour, George and Sonia together can copy 1 1 4 th
In a day they would complete i.e., work.
1 1 7
5 15 15
of a 50-page manuscript. 11
6 8 24 The remaining th work would be completed by
15
7 11
i.e. In an hour they together can copy of the Pradeep in 15 i.e. 11 days.
48 15
100-page manuscript. 8. (a) Let 1 mans 1 days work = x and
i.e. They together can copy a 100-page manuscript in 1 boys 1 days work = y.
48 6 1 1
hours, i.e. 6 hours. Then, 6x + 8y = and 26x + 48y = .
7 7 10 2
1 1 Solving these two equations, we get :
3. (a) As 1 days work = and Bs 1 days work = . 1 1
18 9 x and y .
1 1 1 100 200
(A + B)s 1 days work = . (15 men + 20 boys)s 1 days work
18 9 6
15 20 1
= .
4. (c) Let C completes the work in x days. 100 200 4
1 15 men and 20 boys can do the work in 4 days.
Work done by (A + B) in 1 day =
10 1
9. (a) 1 mans 1 days work = .
1 108
Work done by (B +C) in 1 day =
18 1 2
12 mens 6 days work = 6 .
As 5 days work + Bs 10 days work 9 3
+ Cs 15 days work = 1
or (A + B)s 5 days work + (B + C)s 5 days work 2 1
Remaining work = 1 .
+ Cs 10 days work = 1 3 3
5 5 10 1 1
or 1 18 mens 1 days work = 18 .
10 18 x 108 6
x = 45 days
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SOLUTIONS 55
b
o
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1 15. (b) (A + B)s 5 days work
b
work is done by them in 1 day..
.w
6 1 1 45 9
=5
o
25 20 100 20
rd
1 1
work is done by them in 6 2 days
p
3 3 9 11
re
Remaining work = 1
20 20
s
1
s
10. (c) As one days work = th work
.c
16 11
of the work would be finished by B in
o
m
20
1
Bs one days work th work 11
12
Let the number of days B has worked alone = x days. 20 11days.
Then, 1
As amount of work + Bs amount of work = 1 20
16. (a) 50 men complete 0.4 work in 25 days.
1 1
4 (x 4) 1 Applying the work rule, m1 d1 w 2 m 2 d 2 w1
16 12
we have,
1 x 4 3 50 25 0.6 m 2 25 0.4
1 x 12 4 x 5 days
4 12 4
50 25 0.6
1 1 9 3 or m2 = 75 men
11. (c) (A + B)'s 1 hour's work = 25 0.4
12 15 60 20 Number of additional men required = (75 50) = 25
1 1 8 2 17. (c) Let C completes the work in x days.
(A + C)'s 1 hour's work = 1
12 20 60 15 Work done by (A + B) in 1 day =
10
3 2 17
Part filled in 2 hrs = 1
20 15 60 Work done by (B +C) in 1 day =
18
17 17 As 5 days work + Bs 10 days work + Cs 15 days
Part filled in 6 hrs = 3
60 20 work = 1
or (A + B)s 5 days work + (B + C)s 5 days work
17 3
Remaining part = 1 + Cs 10 days work = 1
20 20
5 5 10
3 or 1 or x = 45 days
Now, it is the turn of A and B and part is filled by 10 18 x
20 1
A and B in 1 hour. 18. (d) In 1 day, work done by 12 men =
18
Total time taken to fill the tank = (6 + 1) hrs = 7 hrs.
6 1
1 1 7 In 6 days, work done by 12 men =
12. (a) Part filled in 7 min. = 7 = 18 3
36 45 20
2
Remaining work =
7 13 3
Remaining part = 1 =
20 20 Now, m1 d1 w 2 m 2 d 2 w1
Part filled by (A + B + C) in 1 min. 2
or 12 18 16 d 2 1
1 1 1 1 3
= = .
36 45 30 60 4 18 2
or d2 9 days
1 16
13. (d) (Man + Son)s one days work =
8 1
1 19. (c) 10 mens 1 days work = ;
Mans one days work = 15
10
1
1 1 1 15 womens 1 days work = .
Sons one days work = 12
8 10 40 (10 men + 15 women)s 1 days work
Son can do it in 40 days.
3 1 1 9 3
14. (d) A can do of the work in 12 days = .
4 15 12 60 20
1 4 1 10 men and 15 women will complete the work in
A can do of the work in 12 days = 2 days 20 2
8 3 8 6 days.
3 3
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56 101 SPEED TEST
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1 1 5 25. (a) Ratio of time taken by A and B = 160 : 100
b
20. (a) Work done by A and B in 5 days = 5 =8:5
.w
10 15 6
Suppose, B alone takes x days to do the job
o
5 1
then, 8 : 5 : : 12 : x
rd
Work remaining = 1
6 6 8x = 5 12
p
re
C alone can do the work in 6 2 = 12 days
5 12 1
s
5 5 2 x= 7 days.
s
Ratio of their share work = : : 3 : 2 :1 8 2
.c
10 15 12
o
Share of wages = ` 225, ` 150, ` 75. 1 1 15 1
m
26. (c) Sons 1 days work = = 7 days
1 3 5 2 2
21. (e) 1 mans 1 days work = .
100 27. (a) If x complete a work in x days. y will do the same task in
1 3x days.
(10 men + 15 women)s 1 days work = . 3x x = 40
6 x = 20
15 womens 1 days work
y will finish the task in 60 days
1 10 1 1 1 (x + y)s 1 days work
= .
6 100 6 10 15 1 1 1
=
1 20 60 15
1 womans 1 days work = .
225 Both of them will complete the work in 15 days.
1 woman alone can complete the work in 225 days. 1 1 1 1
22. (a) Let the number of men originally employed be x. 28. (c) Part filled by (A + B + C) in 1 hour = .
9x = 15(x 6) 5 10 30 3
or x = 15 All the three pipes together will fill the tank in
3 hours.
1
23. (c) In 8 days, Anil does rd work . 1
3 29. (d) Part filled by first tap in one min th
12
1
in 1 day, he does th work. 1
24 Part filled by second tap in one min th
18
1 1
Rakeshs one days work = 60% of = th work . 1 1
24 40 Now, 2 unfilled part = 1
12 18
1 2
Remaining work 1 13
3 3 unfilled part = th
(Anil and Rakesh)s one days work 18
1 1 1 1
= th work th part of tank is filled by second tap in 1min.
24 40 15 18
1 13
Now, th work is done by them in one day.. th part of tank is filled by second tap in 1 min.
15 18
2 2 13
rd work is done by them in 15 10 days 18 min = 13 min.
3 3 18
24. (a) M1 d1 = M2 d2 30. (c) Hint : Let the time be t hours after 1 a.m.
(2 M + 3 B) 10 = (3 M + 2 B) 8
20 M + 30 B = 24 M + 16 B t t 1 t 2
1
4 M = 14 B 4 5 2
7
1M B SPEED TEST 43
2
7 1. (c) Let the age of father and son be 15x years and x years
2M+1B = 2 B 1B respectively.
2
= 7B + 1B = 8 B 15x x
Now, according to the question, 16
7 2
2M + 3 B = 2 B 3B 16 2
2 or, x 2years
= 7 B + 3 B = 10 B 16
Again, Let 8 B can do a work in x days Hence age of the son = 2 years
10 B 10 = 8 B x 2. (b) Average age = 28.5
Total age = 28.5 2 = 57
10 10 25 1
x = = 12 days 5
8 2 2 Daughters age = 57 = 15 years
19
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SOLUTIONS 57
b
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3. (a) Let Sudhas and Neetas present ages be 6x and 7x years 13. (c) Let the present age be x yrs. Then
b
respectively.
.w
1
According to the question. 125% of (x 10) = x, and 83 % of (x + 10) x ...(ii)
3
o
6x 5 5
rd
Now, from eqn (i) and eqn (ii), we get,
7x 5 6
p
1
re
36x 30 = 35x 25 125% of (x 10) = 83 % of (x + 10)
3
s
x=5
s
.c
Sudhas present age = 6 5 = 30 years 5 5
(x 10) (x 10)
o
15 36 12 16 4 6
m
4. (a) Required average age = years
36 12 5 5 50 50
or, x x
540 192 732 4 6 6 4
= years = years = 15.25 years.
48 48 5x 250
5. (a) Let the ages of Swati and Khyati two years ago be 5x and 7x or, x = 50 yrs.
12 12
years respectively. 14. (b) Let the fathers present age be x and sons age be x1 and x2.
According to the question, Now, x = 3(x1 + x2) .....(i)
5x 4 7 Also, x + 5 = 2(x1 + 5 + x2 + 5)
7x 4 9 x + 5 = 2(x1 + x2 + 10) .....(ii)
49x + 28 = 45x + 36 x
4x = 8 x=2 Putting value of (x1 + x2) = from (i) in equation (ii)
3
Khyatis present age = 7x + 2 = 7 2 + 2 = 16 years x
6. (b) Shortcut method : x+5 = 2 10 x = 45
3
5(9 1) 15. (a) Let the present ages of P and Q be 3x and 4x respectively.
Sons age = = 8 yrs After 4 years
(9 4)
Fathers age = 4 8 = 32 yrs 4x 3x = 5
7. (b) Shortcut method : x=5
Ps present age = 3x = 3 5 = 15 years
5(7 1) 5(3 1)
Sons age = = 10 yrs 16. (c) Let the present ages of Rama and Shyama be 4x and 5x years
7 3 respectively,
From the first relationship of ages, if F is the age of the father
then F + 5 = 3 (10 + 5) 4x 5 5
F = 40 yrs 5x 5 6
8. (c) Shortcut method : 25x + 25 = 24x + 30
10(4 1) 10(2 1) x = 30 25 = 5
Daughters age = = 20 yrs Ramas present age = 4 5 = 20 years
4 2
17. (d) Let the mothers age be y years.
1 The age of father = (y + 9) years
9. (e) 10 yrs ago, A was of Bs ago.
2 y
3 The age of son = years
2
AT present, A is of Bs age.
4 y
The age of daughter = 7 years
1 2
10 1 Now according to the given condition,
2
Bs age = 20 yrs
1 3 y
(y + 9) = 3 7
2 4 2
3
As age = of 20 = 15 yrs 3 y 42
4 y+9=
10. (b) Let the age of the daugher be x yrs. 2
Then, the age of the mother is (50 x) yrs. 2y + 18 = 3y 42
5 yrs ago, 7(x 5) = 50 x 5 y = 60 years
or, 8x = 50 5 + 35 = 80 18. (e) Suppose age of Ram = R
x = 10 his sons age = S
Therefore, daughters age = 10 yrs and his fathers age = F
and mothers age = 40 yrs R 2
11. (c) Let the ratio of proportionality be x, then According to question, S and R F
3 5
4x x = 196 or, 4x2 = 196 or, x = 7
Thus, Fathers age = 28 yrs, Sons age = 7 yrs 5R R S F
F and 46
After 5 yrs, Fathers age = 33 yrs. 2 3
Sons age = 12 yrs R + S + F = 46 3
Ratio = 33 : 12 = 11 : 4 R 5R
12. (b) Let x involves in Ratio R 138
Difference in ratios = 8x 3 2
Now, 8x = 24 R = 36
x=3 36
S 12
Thus, Rita's age = 3 3 = 9 years 3
Mother's age = 11 3 = 33 years 5 36
After 3 years the ratio = 12 : 36 = 1 : 3 F 90
2
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58 101 SPEED TEST
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19. (c) Let the ages of Abhay and his father 10 years ago be x and 5x
b
years respectively. Then, SPEED TEST 44
.w
Abhays age after 6 years = (x + 10) + 6 = (x + 16) years.
o
Fathers age after 6 years = (5x + 10) + 6 = (5x + 16) years.
1. (c) Required number of ways
rd
3 = ways of selecting 4 objects out of 6 given objects
(x + 16) = 5x 16 7 (x + 16) = 3 (5x + 16)
p
7
re
6 5
7x + 112 = 15x + 48 = 6C4 = 15
s
2
s
8x = 64 x = 8.
.c
Hence, Abhays fathers present age = (5x + 10) = 50 years. 2. (c) Total no. of unrestricted arrangements = (7 1) ! = 6 !
o
20. (b) Let their present ages be 4x, 7x and 9x years respectively. When two particular person always sit together, the total no.
m
Then, (4x 8) + (7x 8) + (9x 8) = 56 20x = 80 x = 4. of arrangements = 6! 2 5!
Required no. of arrangements = 6! 2 5!
Their present ages are 16 yrs, 28 yrs. and 36 yrs. respectively.
21. (d) 16 years ago, let T = x years and G = 8x years = 5! (6 2) = 5 4 3 2 4 = 480.
After 8 years from now, T = (x + 16 + 8) years and 3. (c) In MATHEMATICS, the consonants M and T are repeated
G = (8x + 16 + 8) years. two times each.
8x + 24 = 3(x + 24) 5x = 48. Also the vowel A is repeated two times.
Since there are four vowels, A, A, E and I; A being repeated,
48
8 88 11 4
T x 8 5
8 years ago, = therefore vowels can be arranged in = 12 ways.
G 8x 8 8 48 424 53 2
8 Now remaining 7 consonants, with M, T being repeated, can
5
22. (d) RQ=RT Q = T. Also, R + T = 50 7
R + Q = 50 be written in = 7 6 5 3 2 = 1260 ways.
So, (R Q) cannot be determined. 2 2
23. (e) Let the ages of father and son be x and (45 x) years Now, four vowels together can take any of the 8 places as
respectively. shown below:
Then, (x 5) (45 x 5) = 34 Total number of ways in which the letters of the word
(x 5) (40 x) = 34 x2 45x + 234 = 0 MATHEMATICS can be arranged such that vowels always
come together = 1260 8 12 = 120960.
(x 39) (x 6) = 0 x = 39 or x = 6. (But x 6 4. (c) There are 8 different letters in the word MATHEMATICS;
Fathers age = 39 years and sons age = 6 years three letters M, A and T being repeated.
24. (a) Let the ages of children be x, (x + 3), (x + 6), (x + 9) The number of ways in which four letters of the word
and (x + 12) years.
Then, x + (x + 3) + (x + 6) + (x + 9) + (x + 12) = 50 MATHEMATICS can be arranged = 8 P4
5x = 20 x = 4. = 8 7 6 5 = 1680
Age of the youngest child = x = 4 years. 6!
25. (b) Anups age = (5 2) years = 3 years. Let Gagans age be x 5. (c) Number of ways = ( T letter comes in two time)
2!
years.
x 6 6 5 4 3 2 1
Then, 3 x 6 = 54 x = 60. = = 360
18 2 1
26. (c) Let the school ages of Neelam and Shaan be 5x and 6x 6. (e) CYCLE whereas C comes two times.
respectively. Then, 5! 5 4 3 2
1 So, arrangements are = = 60 ways
5x 2! 2
3 5 1 5
9 5x = 6x 15 = 15. 5!
1 3 2 7. (e) Required no. of ways = 60
6x 9 2!
2 Total no. of letters in the word is 5; T is repeated twice.
Thus, Shaans age cannot be determined. 8. (c) The committee of 4 persons is to be so formed that it has at
27. (d) Here, Son is c and Father is B. least 1 woman.
Let Cs age be x years. Then, Bs age = 2x years. As age = (2x The different ways that we can choose to form such a
+ 2) years. committee are:
(2x + 2) = 2x + x = 27 5x = 25 x = 5. 6 5 4
Hence, Bs age = 2x = 10 years. (i) 1w. 3 m in 4C1 6C3 = 4 80
28. (d) Let the present ages of the father and son be 2x and x years 3 2 1
respectively. 4 3 6 5
(ii) 2w. 2 m in 4C2 6C2 = 90
Then, (2x 18) = 3 (x 18) x = 36. 2 1 2 1
Required sum = (2x + x) = 3x = 108 years. (iii) 3w. 1 m in 4C3 6C1 = 4 6 = 24
29. (d) Let the ages of Preeti and Sonal 1 year ago be 4x and (iv) 4w in 4C4 = 1
x years respectively. Total no. of different ways in which a committee of 4
Then, [(4x + 1) + 6] [(x + 1) + 6] = 9 3x = 9 x = 3. persons can be formed so that it has at least one woman.
Required ratio = (4x + 1) : (x + 1) = 13 : 4. = 80 + 90 + 24 + 1 = 195
30. (a) Let the present age of the father be x and that of the son be 9. (d) The committee of 4 persons is to be so formed that it has at
x 8 least 2 men. The different ways that we can choose to form
y. Then y such a committee are:
3
6 5 4 3
3x = 8y ...(i) (i) 2m. 2w in 6C2 4C2 = 90
2 1 2 1
x 12 2
Further, y 12 1 x + 12 = 2y + 24 6 5 4
(ii) 3m. 1w in 6C3 4C1 4 80
x 2y = 12 ...(ii)
3 2 1
From eqn (i) and (ii), x = 48, y = 18 6 5
(iii) 4m in 6C4 = 15
sum = 66 yrs. 2 1
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SOLUTIONS 59
b
o
o
Total no. of different ways in which a committee of 4 When 0 does not occur like
b
persons can be formed so that it has at least 2 men. 112, 211, ....., 2 (8 9) = 144 in number.
.w
= 90 + 80 + 15 = 185 Hence, total = 9 + 9 + 144 = 162.
o
10. (e) One girl can be chosen in 4C1 = 4 ways
24. (b) Required number of possible outcomes
rd
and 4 boys can be chosen in 6C4 = 15 ways
= Total number of possible outcomes
p
Total number of ways = 4 15 = 60 ways
re
11. (a) CORPORATION= 11 letters Number of possible outcomes in which all vowels are
s
O comes thrice, R twice. together
s
.c
11! = 6 ! 4 ! 3 != 576
total no. of ways = = 3326400
o
3!2! 25. (d) The required number of ways
m
12. (b) There are seven letters in the word COUNTRY and two = (10 1)(9 1)(7 1) 1 879 .
vowels O and U. Considering two vowels as one unit, total
number of letters will be 5 + 1 = 6. So, number of arrangements 26. (c) Three digit number less then 600 will have first element
= 6! 100, and last element 599. First place will not have digit
Now, the two vowels can be arranged in 2! ways among more than 6, hence, 7 and 9 can not be taken : So, first
themselves. digit can be selected in 4 ways. Second digit can be
Total number of ways = 6! 2! = 1440 selected in 6 ways and since repetition of digits are
13. (c) The word PROBLEM consists of 7 distinct letters. allowed, third digit can also be selected in 6 ways :
Number of arrangements = 7!
= 7 6 5 4 3 2 1 = 5040 So, number of ways are 4 6 6 = 144.
14. (e) There are 6 letter inthe word ATTEND whereas, T comes 27. (b) Selection of 2 members out of 11 has 11C2 number of
two times. ways
11C = 55
6! 720 2
So, required number of ways = 360 28. (b) From each railway station, there are 19 different tickets
2! 2
15. (a) In word offices, there are 7 letters and F comes two times. to be issued. There are 20 railway station
7! 7 6 5 4 3 2! So, total number of tickets = 20 19 = 380.
Required number of ways = = 2520
2! 2! 29. (c) To make a 5 digit number, 0 can not come in the bagining.
16. (e) ARMOUR = 6 letter whereas R repeated twice So, it can be filled in 4 ways. Rest of the places can be
6! 6 5 4 3 2 1 filled in 4! ways. So total number of digit formed = 4 4!
360
2! 2 1 = 2 24 = 96
17. (c) Total number of ways to stand boys and girls together 30. (b) Total no. of digits = 6
= 4! 3! 2! = 4 3 2 3 2 2 = 288 To form a odd numbers we have only 3 choice for the
18. (e) O, A, E S F T W R unit digits.
When the vowels are always together, then treat all Now, Extreme left place can be filled in 6 ways the
the vowels as a single letter and then all the letters middle place can be filled in 6 ways.
can be arranged in 6! ways and also all three vowels Required number of numbers = 6 6 3 = 108
can be arranged in 3! ways. Hence, required no. of
arrangements = 6! 3! = 4320. SPEED TEST 45
5
C2 5 4 10 1. (a) Here, S = {1, 2, 3, 4, ...., 19, 20}.
19. (b) Reqd probability = 7 Let E = event of getting a multiple of 3
C2 7 6 21
= {3, 6, 9, 12, 15, 18}
20. (b) Treat B and T as a single letter. Then the remaining
letters (5 + 1 = 6) can be arranged in 6! ways. Since, O is n(E) 6 3
repeated twice, we have to divide by 2 and the B and T P(E) = .
n(S) 20 10
letters can be arranged in 2! ways.
6! 2!
10 10 2
Total no. of ways 720 2. (c) P (getting a prize) = .
2
(10 25) 35 7
21. (e) If the drawn ball is neither red nor green, then it must be 3. (b) Clearly, there are 52 cards, out of which there are 16
blue, which can be picked in 7C1 = 7 ways. One ball can face cards.
be picked from the total 16 4
(8 + 7 + 6 = 21) in 21C1 = 21 ways. P (getting a face card) = .
52 13
Reqd probability 7 1 4. (c) Here, n(S) = 52.
21 3 There are 26 red cards (including 2 kings) and there are
22. (c) Taking all vowels (IEO) as a single letter (since they 2 more kings.
come together) there are six letters Let E = event of getting a red card or a king.
6! Then, n(E) = 28.
Hence no. of arrangements = 3! 2160 n(E) 28 7
2!
[Three vowels can be arranged 3! ways among P(E) = .
n(S) 52 13
themselves, hence multiplied with 3!.] 5. (b) Total number of balls = (6 + 8) = 14
23. (b) When 0 is the repeated digit like Number of white balls = 8
100, 200, ...., 9 in number
When 0 occurs only once like 8 4
P (drawing a white ball) = .
110, 220, ....., 9 in number 14 7
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60 101 SPEED TEST
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6. (d) Total number of balls = (8 + 7 + 6) = 21. 16. (c) 16 tickets are sold and 4 prizes are awarded. A person
b
Let E = event that the ball drawn is neither blue nor green.
.w
4 1
= event that the ball drawn is red. buys 4 tickets, then required probability =
o
n(E) = 8 16 4
rd
17. (c) Total number of letters = 4
p
8
Total number of vowels = 2 (O and E)
re
P(E) .
21
s
2 1
s
7. (b) Clearly, n(S) = (6 6) = 36.
.c
Required Probability =
Let E = Event that the sum is a prime number. 4 2
o
m
Then, E = {(1, 1), (1, 2), (1, 4), (1, 6), (2, 1), (2, 3), (2, 5), (3, 18. (d) Total no. of case = 63 = 216
2), (3, 4), (4, 1), (4, 3), (5, 2), (5, 6), (6, 1), (6, 5)} Favourable cases = {(1, 1, 1), (2, 2, 2), (3, 3, 3), (4, 4, 4),
n(E) 15 (5, 5, 5), (6, 6, 6)}.
n(E) 15 5 6 1
P(E) Probability =
. 216 36
n(S) 36 12
8. (d) Here S = {HH, HT, TH, TT}. 19. (b) No. of days in leap year = 366
Let E = event of getting at least one head No. of complete week = 52
= {HT, TH, HH} 366 7 gives 2 as remainder
n(E) 3 No. of days left = 2
P(E) .
n(S) 4 2
9. (b) Here S = {TTT, TTH, THT, HTT, THH, HTH, HHT, HHH} Required probability =
7
Let E = event of getting at least two heads 20. (a) Total case = 6 6 = 36
= {THH, HTH, HHT, HHH} Favourable = (1, 6), (2, 5), (3, 4), (4, 3), (5, 2), (6, 1)
n(E) 4 1 6 1
P(E) .
n(S) 8 2 Probability =
36 6
10. (b) When a die is thrown, we have S = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6} 21. (a) Total number of balls = 5 + 7 + 8 = 20
Let E = event of getting a number greater than 4 Probability that the first ball drawn is white
= {5, 6}.
5
C1 1
n(E) 2 1
P(E) . 20
C1 4
n(S) 6 3
11. (a) We know that in a simultaneous throw of two dice, If balls are drawn with replacement, all the four events
n(S) = 6 6 = 36. will have equal probability.
Let E = event of getting a total f 7 Therefore, required probability
= {(1, 6), (2, 5), (3, 4), (4, 3), (5, 2), (6, 1)} 1 1 1 1 1
n(E) 6 1 4 4 4 4 256
P(E) . 22. (b) Let A and B are the event of drawing red and green
n(S) 36 6
12. (c) In two throws of a die, n(S) = (6 6) = 36. respectivley.
Let E = event of getting a sum 9 6c1 2
= {(3, 6), (4, 5), (5, 4), (6, 3)} P (A) = 15c 5
1
n(E) 4 1
P(E) . B 9c1 9
n(S) 36 9 Now, P A 14c1 14
13. (a) In a simultaneous throw of two dice, n(S) = 6 6 = 36.
Let E = event of getting a doublet B
= {(1, 1), (2, 2), (3, 3), (4, 4), (5, 5), (6, 6)} Required probability = P ( A).P
A
n(E) 6 1
P(E) . 2 9
n(S) 36 6 =
14. (d) In a simultaneous throw of two dice, we have 5 14
n(S) = (6 6) = 36. 9
Let E = event of getting a total of 10 or 11 = .
= {(4, 6), (5, 5), (6, 4), (5, 6), (6, 5)} 35
1
n(E) 5 23. (d) The probability of selecting any bag
P(E) . 2
n(S) 36 Now, probability of getting a white ball from the first
15. (a) Total possible outcomes, S ={HHH, HHT, HTH, THT,
1 3 3
TTH, THH, TTT, HTT} and desired outcomes E ={HTH, bag
THT} 2 5 10
n(E) = 2 and n(S) = 8 and probability of getting a white ball from the second
n(E) 2 1 bag 1 2 1
Hence, required probability = P(E) = = 2 6 6
n(S) 8 4
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SOLUTIONS 61
b
o
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Required Probability = The probability that a white ball 49 = 25 + 2 area
b
is drawn either from the first or the second bag
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49 25 24
3 1 7 Area 12cm 2
o
2 2
rd
10 6 15 6. (c) Isoscele Right angled triangle
p
24. (b) Out of 20 consecutive numbers there are 10 even and
re
10 odd a a 2a 20
s
We have to choose 2 numbers out of 20
s
2a 2a 20 A
.c
20 19
o
20 20
Total outcomes = C2 190
m
2 a a 2a
We can odd sum only when one even and one odd is 2 2
added. Ara of Isoceles
No. of ways of choosing 1 even and 1 odd 1 2
Out of 10 even and 10 odd = 10C1 10 C1 = 10 10 = 100 = a B
2 a C
100 10
Required probability = = 1 20
2
190 19 =
25. (b) Here S = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6} 2 2 2
Let E be the event of getting a multiple of 3.
E = {3, 6} 1 400
= 2 4 2 4v
2 1 2
P(E) .
6 3 200 100
=
6 4 2 3 2 2
SPEED TEST 46
100(3 2 2)
1. (a) In a circle, circumference = 2 r = = 300 200 2
9 8
44 = 300 282 = 18 m2
Hence, 44 = 2 r r
2
7. (b) Required area covered in 5 revolutions
44 44
Now, area of circle = r2 154 m 2 22
2 2 = 5 2 rh = 5 2 0.7 2 = 44 m2
7
2. (a) Let the length and breadth of a rectangle are 9 xm and
8. (c) In a triangle,
5 xm respectively.
In a rectangle, area = length breadth 1
720 = 9x 5x Area length of perpendicular base
2
or x2 = 16 x=4
Thus, length = 9 4 = 36 m 1
or 615 length of perpendicular 123
and breadth = 5 4 = 20 m 2
Therefore, perimeter of rectangle = 2(36 + 20) = 112 m
615 2
3. (d) Perimeter of the circle = 2 r 2(18 26) Length of perpendicular = 10 m.
123
22 9. (a) 14 m
2 r 88 r = 14 D C
7
Area of the circle
14 m
22
= r2 14 14 616 cm 2 . 24 m
7
4. (b) Length of the carpet
8100 40 m
Total cost A
= m 180 m. B
Rate / m 45 Area of the shaded portion
Area of the room = Area of the carpet 1 2
14
75 4
= 180 m 2 135 m 2 . = 154 m2
100
10. (a) Circumference of circular bed = 30 cm
Area 135
Breadth of the room = m = 7.5 m. (30)2
Length 18 Area of circular bed
5. (a) In a rectangle, 4
Space for each plant = 4 cm2
(perimeter) 2 Required number of plants
(diagonal) 2 2 area
4
(30)2
(14)2 4 17.89 18 (Approx)
52 2 area 4
4
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62 101 SPEED TEST
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11. (c) 16. (b) Let ABC be the isosceles triangle and AD be the altitude.
b
Let AB = AC = x. Then, BC = (32 2x).
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o
10 W A
rd
15
p
re
s
Let the width of the path = W m
s
x x
.c
then, length of plot with path = (15 + 2W) m
o
and breadth of plot with path = (10 + 2 W) m
m
Therefore, Area of rectangular plot (wihout path) B D C
= 15 10 = 150 m2
and Area of rectangular plot (with path) Since, in an isosceles triangle, the altitude bisects the
= 150 + 54 = 204 m2 base. So, BD = DC = (16 x).
Hence, (15 + 2W) (10 + 2W) = 204 In ADC, AC2 = AD2 + DC2
4W2 + 50 W 54 = 0 x2 = (8)2 + (16 x)2
2W2 + 25 W 27 = 0 32x = 320 x = 10.
(W 2) (W + 27) = 0 BC = (32 2x) = (32 20) cm = 12 cm.
Thus W = 2 or 27 1
with of the path = 2 m Hence, required area = BC AD
12. (a) If area of a circle decreased by x % then the radius of a 2
circle decreases by 1
12 10 cm 2 60 cm 2 .
(100 10 100 x )% = (100 10 100 36)% 2
17. (c) Area of field = 576 km2. Then,
(100 10 64)%
100 80 20% each side of field = 576 24 km
13. (a) Area of the outer rectangle = 19 16 = 304 m2 Distance covered by the horse
= Perimeter of square field
2m = 24 4 = 96 km
distance 96
Time taken by horse = =8h
speed 12
18. (c) Let the length and breadth of the original rectangular
12
2m 2m field be x m and y m respectively.
Area of the original field = x y = 144 m2
15 144
x (i)
2m y
If the length had been 6 m more, then area will be
Area of the inner rectangle = 15 12 = 180 m2 (x + 6) y = 144 + 54
Required area = (304 180) = 124 m2 (x + 6) y = 198 (ii)
14. (a) Radius of a circular grass lawn (without path) = 35 m Putting the value of x from eq (i) in eq (ii), we get
Area = r2 = (35)2
Radius of a circular grass lawn ( with path) 144
6 y 198
= 35 + 7 = 42 m y
Area = r2 = (42)2
Area of path = (42)2 (35)2 144 6y 198
= (422 352) 6y = 54 y= 9 m
= ( 42 + 35) (42 35) Putting the value of y in eq (i) we get x = 16 m
19. (b) Perimeter = Distance covered in 8 min.
22
= 77 7 77 7 1694 m 2 12000
7 8 m 1600 m.
15. (b) Radius of the wheel of bus = 70 cm. Then, 60
circumference of wheel = 2 r = 140 = 440 cm Let length = 3x metres and breadth = 2x metres.
Distance covered by bus in 1 minute Then, 2 (3x + 2x) = 1600 or x = 160.
Length = 480 m and Breadth = 320 m.
66
1000 100 cms Area = (480 320) m2 = 153600 m2.
60
Distance covered by one revolution of wheel 22
20. (c) Length of wire = 2 R 2 56 cm = 352 cm.
= circumference of wheel 7
= 440 cm
352
6600000 Side of the square = cm = 88 cm.
Revolutions per minute 250 4
60 440 Area of the square = (88 88) cm2 = 7744 cm2.
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SOLUTIONS 63
b
o
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21. (a) Let the length of the room be m 2 min 40 sec 2 60 40 120 40 160 sec.
b
.w
Then its, breadth = /2 Circumference of circular field = speed time
o
5000 22 160 3520 m
rd
Therefore,
2 25 circumference
p
Radius of circular field (r) =
re
or 2 = 400 2
s
s
or = 20 m
.c
3520 7
560 m
o
64800 2 22
Also, 2 h 2
m
h
2 240
22
3 h = 270 Area of circular field r2 (560) 2
7
270 270 22
or h 4.5 m 560 560
3 20 60 7
22. (a) In a cube,
= 985600 m2
Area = 6 (side)2
28. (d) Area of rectangle = l b = 240
or 150 = 6 (side)2 Either length or breadth should be clear, then answer can be
side = 25 5m determined.
29. (c) Area of the circle = 39424 sq cm
Length of diagonal = 3 side 5 3 m 22 2
23. (b) Given, playground is rectangular. r2 = 39424 r 39424
7
Length = 36 m, Breadth = 21 m
39424 7
Now, perimeter of playground = 2( 21 + 36) = 114 r2 r2 = 1792 7
Now, poles are fixed along the boundary at a distance 22
3m. r 12544 r = 112 cm 4a = r 4a = 112 a = 28
Area of the square = a2 = (28)2 = 784 sq cm
114 30. (b) From the figure, it is required to find the length CD.
Required no. of poles = 38 .
3 We have CA = LB = 15m
LD = BD LB = 15m
1
24. (d) Area of square (diagonal)2 D
2
1 1 15 m
2
28 28 28 C L
2 2 36 m
15 m
392 cm2 A B
36 m
circumference 44
25. (c) One side of square = 11 cm
4 4 CD = CL2 DL2 362 152 1521 39 cm
Circumference of rectangle = 4 perimeter of square 31. (d) Total area = Area of square + 4 (Area of a semi-circle)
= 4 44 = 176 cm 2 1 2 2
= 2 4 r = (4 + 2 ) m2 radius = 1
width of rectangle 2 2
circumference of rectangle 32. (b) In any quadrilateral,
= length Area of the quadrilateral
2
1
176 = any diagonal (sum of perpendiculars drawn on
51 88 51 37 cm. 2
2 1
Required difference = width side = 37 11 = 26 cm. diagonal from two vertices) = D (P1 P2 )
2
circumference 220 7 1
26. (c) Radius of circle (r) = 35 m. = 23 (17 7) = 12 23 = 276 sq cm
2 2 22 2
22 33. (b) Length of the wire = circumference of the circle
area of circle = r 2 (35)2
7 2 22 42
= 2 42 = 264 cm
= 3850 m2 = area of rectangle 7
Now, perimeter of the rectangle = 264 cm.
Length of rectangle area of rectangle Since, perimeter includes double the length and breadth, while
width finding the sides we divide by double the sum of ratio.
3850 264
= = 77 m. Therefore, length = 6 72 cm
50 2(6 5)
5 264
27. (a) 79.2 km/hr 79.2 22 m/s and breadth = 5 60 cm
18 2(6 5)
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64 101 SPEED TEST
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34. (a) Let the final length of the side of the smaller square be a. or 384 = 6A2
b
Now, a + 10 + 7 = 19 A = 8 cm.
.w
a = 19 17 = 2
Surface area of smaller cube = 6 a 2
o
Area of the smaller square = (2)2 = 4
96 = 6a2
rd
Decrease in the area of the smaller square = 16 4
p
= 12 sq. units. a = 4 mm = 0.4 cm
re
35. (c) Let the breadth be b. Volume of bigger cube
s
So, Number of small cube
s
Then, length = b + 13, Perimeter = 50 = 2(l + b)
.c
2(b + 13 + b) = 50, b = 6 m l = 6 + 13 = 19 m Volume of smaller cube
o
Area = length breadth = 19 (6) = 114 m2
m
(8)3 512
3
8, 000
SPEED TEST 47 (0.4) 0.064
9. (c) Volume of the liquid in the cylindrical vessel
1. (a) Volume of the bucket = volume of the sand emptied = Volume of the conical vessel
Volume of sand = (21)2 36
Let r be the radius of the conical heap. 1 22
= 12 12 50 cm3
1 2 3 7
Then, r 12 21 2 36
3 22 4 12 50
or r2 = (21)2 9 or r = 21 3 = 63 = cm3.
7
2. (a) Let the edge of the third cube be x cm.
Then, x3 + 63 + 83 = 123 Let the height of the liquid in the vessel be h.
x3 + 216 + 512 = 1728 22 22 4 12 50
Then, 10 10 h
x3 = 1000 x = 10. 7 7
Thus the edge of third cube = 10 cm.
3. (b) Area of the inner curved surface of the well dug 4 12 50
or h = 24 cm.
22 10 10
= [2 3.5 22.5] = 2 3.5 22.5 10. (b) Volume of material in the sphere
7
= 44 0.5 22.5 = 495 sq. m. 4 4
= (4)3 (2)3 cm3 56 cm3.
Total cost = 495 3 = ` 1485. 3 3
4. (d) Let the length of the wire be h cm. Let the height of the cone be h cm.
and radius of sphere and wire are R and r respectively.
Then, volume of sphere = volume of wire (cylinder) 1 4
Then, 4 4 h 56
4 4 3 2
3 3
or R3 2
r h or R r h
3 3 4 56
h 14 cm.
4 4 4
or (3)3 (0.1) h 2
3 4
3 11. (d) Volume of sphere = 9 9 9 cm3.
4 (3) 108 3
h 3600 cm = 36 m
3 (0.1) 2 0.03 1
Volume of cone = 9 9 9 cm3.
4 3 3
5. (c) In a sphere, volume r
3 Volume of wood wasted
and surface area 4 r2 4 1
= 9 9 9 9 9 9 cm3 .
3 3
4 3
According to question, r 4 r2 27 = ( 9 9 9) cm3
3
or r = 27 3 = 81 cms
6. (a) Area of the wet surface = [2( b + bh + h) b] 9 9 9
= 2(bh + h) + b Required percentage = 100 %
4
= [2(4 1.25 + 6 1.25) +6 4] m2 = 49 m2. 9 9 9
3
7. (b) Let be the length and b be the breadth of cold
storage. 3
100 % 75%.
=
L = 2B, H = 3 metres 4
Area of four walls = 2[L H + B H] = 108 12. (b) Curved surface area of cylinder = 2 rh
6BH = 108 Surface area of 50 cylindrical pillars = 50 2 rh
L = 12, B = 6, H = 3 Now, Diameter of each cylindrical pillar = 50 cm
Volume = 12 6 3 = 216 m3
8. (c) Let 'A' be the side of bigger cube and 'a' be the side of 50
Radius = = 25 cm = 25 m
smaller cube 2
Surface area of bigger cube = 6 A2 Also, height = 4m
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SOLUTIONS 65
b
o
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Surface area = 50 2 3.14 . 25 4 1 cm3 weighs 10 g. 2618 cm3 will weigh
b
= 314 1 sq m.
.w
2618 10
= 314 sq. m. = kg 26.18 kg
o
Now, labour charges at the rate of 50 paise 1000
rd
per sq. m = 314 .5 = 157.0 ` 157 22. (b) Volume of the steel used in the hemispherical bowl
p
re
13. (c) Let the kerosene level of cylindrical jar be h. 2 22
4.5 3 43 27.125 = 56.83 cm3
s
s
1 2 3 3 7
.c
Now, Volume of conical vessel = r h 23. (d) Volume of the parallelopiped = 5 4 3 = 60 cm3
o
3
Volume of the cube = 4 4 4 = 64 cm3
m
Since, radius (r) = 2 cm and height(h) = 3cm of conical
Volume of the cylinder = 3 3 3 = 27
vessel.
= 84.8 cm3
1
Volume = 4 3 4 4
3 Volume of the sphere (3)3 36 113 cm3
3
Now, Volume of cylinderical jar = r2h
The required decreasing order is D, C, B and A.
= (2)2h
24. (d) Let R be the radius of bigger sphere. Volume of one
=4 h
spheres + Volume of other sphere = Volume of bigger
Now, Volume of conical vessel = Volume of cylindrical
sphere
Jar
4 =4 h 4 3 4 3 4 3
Then, 1 2 R
h = 1cm 3 3 3
Hence, kerosene level in Jar is 1 cm.
4 3 4
14. (a) Let the rise in water level = x m (1 23 ) R3
Now, volume of pool = 40 90 x = 3600 x 3 3
When 150 men take a dip, then displacement of R3 = 9
water = 8m3 1
3600 x 900 R 93
8 x 2 x .33m 25. (b) Given, Diameter of building = 54 cm
150 150
Radius = 27 cm.
x = 33.33 cm Also, given area of the base of the wall = 352 cm2
15. (d) Let edge of the new cube = x cm. Let x be the thickness of the wall
Volume of the newly formed figure (cube) Area of the Base = 2 r x
= sum of volume of smaller cubes. 352 = 2 27 x
i.e. (x)3 = (3)3 + (4)3 + (5)3 = 27 + 64 + 125 = 216
352 7 8 7 56
x = 6 cm x= 2
16. (b) Volume of the spherical ball = volume of the water 2 22 27 27 27
displaced. Hence, thickness of the wall is 2 cm.
4 3
r = (12)2 6.75 SPEED TEST 48
3
144 6.75 3 1
r3 729 r = 9 cm, 1. (c) In a right angled , the length of the median is the
4 2
17. (d) Let x be the length of a side (edge of the cube) 1
Now, x3 = 12 x x2 = 12 length of the hypotenuse . Hence BD AC 3cm.
2
Total surface area = 6x2 = 6 12 = 72 square units 2. (a) D 180 B 180 70 110
18. (b) Let an edge of the cube be acm.
Now, 6a2 = 726 a2 = 121 a = 11m ACD 180 D CAD
Volume of the cube = (11)3 = 1331 m3. 180 110 30 40
19. (c) 1 litre = 1 (dm)3 3. (b) The sum of the interior angles of a polygon of n sides
Length of the cistern = 3m = 30 dm ( 1 m = 10 dm)
Breadth of the cistern = 2m = 20 dm is given by the expression (2n 4)
2
Height of the cistern = 1 m = 10 dm
Volume of the cistern = 30 20 10 = 6000 (dm)3 2n 4 1620
2 180
20. (c) Here r = 8 cm, h = 15 cm 8 2
15 2
17
Curved surface area of the cone 1620 2
2n 4 18
180
r 8 17 136 cm 2 or 2n = 22
1 2 or n = 11
21. (c) Volume of the cone r h 4. (c) Tangent at any point of a circle is to the radius
3 In OPT, OP2=PT2+OT2
1 22 (13)2 = (12)2 + OT2 169 144 = OT2
49 51 2618cm 3 25 = OT2 5 = OT
3 7
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66 101 SPEED TEST
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5. (c) Let the angles of the triangle be 5x, 3x and 2x.
b
Now, 5x + 3x + 2x = 180 AB 32 12 2 2 cm
.w
or 10x = 180 or x = 18
o
or Angles are 36, 54 and 90 AC 4 2 cm
rd
Given is right angled. 13. (d) Let the angles be x and 3x
p
re
6. (c) m ABM = 180 120 = 60 We know, sum of the supplementry angles = 180
s
AMB is a 30 60 90 triangle. x + 3x = 180
s
.c
4x = 180 x = 45
3 3
o
AM = AB = 8=4 3 14. (d)
m
2 2 15. (c) Supplementary angles are pairs of angles whose
1 1 measures upto 180 degrees.
MB = AB = x 8 = 4 Hence, let one angle be x. Since they are equal, the
2 2
other angle is also equal to x.
(AC)2 = (AM)2 + (MC)2 = (4 3 )2 + (4 +7)2 So, x + x = 180 2x = 180
x = 90
= 48 + 121 = 169 ; AC = 169 = 13. 16. (b)
7. (d) A P 1
17. (b) Four right angle + rd right angle
3
10 cm 1
= 4 90 + 90 = 360 + 30 = 390
3
18. (b) Two right angles = 2 90 = 180
B R 1
C Q Half right angles = 90 = 45
ABC and PQR are similar.. 2
Total two right angles and one half right angle
AB Perimeter of ABC AB 36
= 180
PQ Perimeter of PQR PQ 24
45
36 225
or AB 10 15
24
8. (a) For the two similar triangles, we have 19. (a) Five and two-third of a right angle
2
h12 Area of 1st 9 = 5 90 + 90 = 450 + 60 = 510
3
h 22 Area of IInd 16 20. (c) Let the angle be .
h1 : h2 = 3 : 4 According to question
9. (c) Circumcentre of a triangle is the point of the intersection 2
of the perpendicular bisectors of its sides. 90 ...(1)
3
10. (a) We have, x + y + (y + 20) = 180
or x + 2y = 160 ...(i) 1
and 4x y = 10 ...(ii) 180 ...(2)
4
From (i) and (ii), y = 70, x = 20 From eq. (1)
Angles of the triangles are 20, 70, 90. Hence the
triangle is a right angled. 2
90
11. (a) Clearly (x + 1) will be the hypotenuse of the right 3
triangle [ x 0] 3 = 180 2
Now, (x + 1)2 = x2 + (x 1)2 5 = 180 = 36
or x2 + 2x + 1 = x2 + x2 2x + 1 21. (a) Let the angles are x, 2x, 3x and 4x
or x2 4x = 0 or x (x 4) = 0 or x = 4 x + 2x + 3x + 4x = 360
The side of a triangle cannot be equal to zero. 10x = 360
There fore, x = 4 x = 36
Hypotenuse = (4 + 1) = 5 4th angle = 4 x = 4 36 = 144
22. (b)
12. (d)
2 cm
O O
O 5
1 cm 3 cm
3
C B 2 2cm A A B
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SOLUTIONS 67
b
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In OAM 12. (c) Pattern of the series would be as follows
b
52 = 32 + AM2
.w
384 192 96 48 24
25 9 = AM2
o
16 = AM2 2 2 2 2
rd
AM = 4 13. (e) Pattern of the series would be as follows
p
re
Length of chord AB 5 1+1=6
s
= 2 AM = 2 4 = 8 cm 6 2 + 2 = 14
s
.c
23. (a) 2x + 3x = 180 14 3 + 3 = 45
o
5x = 180 45 4 + 4 = 184
m
x = 36 14. (e) Pattern of the series would be as follows
Hence, angles are 72 and 108 respectively. As opposite 8 9 13 22 38
angle of parallelogram are equal. Therefore, measure of
all angles are 72, 108, 72, 108. +(1)2 +(2)2 +(3)2 +(4)2
24. (d) Let the angles be 4x, 3x and 2 x.
4x + 3x + 2x = 180 x = 20 15. (a) Pattern of the series would be as follows
angles are 80, 60 and 40. 6 11 21 41 81
25. (c) Second angle of parallelogram
= 180 45 = 135 +5 +10 +20 +40
Required value 16. (b) The series pattern would be as follows :
= 135 + 2 45 7 13 25 49 97
= 135 + 90 = 225
SPEED TEST 49 +6 +12 +24 +48

So, the above series is progressing of double
121 117 108 92 67 31 differences.
1. (a)
2 2 2 2 2 17. (d) The series pattern would be as follows :
2 3 4 5 6 5 6 10 19 35
50 26 14 8 5 3.5
2. (b) 2 2 2 2
(1) (2) (3) (4)
2+1 2+1 2+1 2+1 2+1 18. (a) The series pattern would be as follows :
3 23 43 63 83 103 8 1+1=9
3. (c) 9 2 + 2 = 20
+20 +20 +20 +20 +20 63 4 + 4 = 256
19. (e) The series pattern would be as follows :
748 737 715 682 638 583
4. (e) 11 13 16 20 25
11 22 33 44 55
1 9 25 49 81 121 169 +2 +3 +4 +5
20. (c) The series pattern would be as follows :
5. (d)
608 304 152 76 38
12 32 52 72 92 112 132
6. (b) 36 20 12 8 6 5 2 2 2 2
2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 21. (d) The series is based on the following pattern:
2 3 + 5 = 11
7. (c) 668 656 632 584 448 296 11 4 6 = 38
12 24 48 96 192 38 5 + 7 = 197
2 2 2 2
197 6 8 = 1174 ; not 1172
8. (e) 1 121 441 961 1681 2601 1174 7 + 9 = 8227
8227 8 10 = 65806
12 112 212 312 412 512 Clearly, 1172 is the wrong number and it should be
replaced by 1174.
9. (d) 9 49 201 1009 4041 20209 80841 22. (a) The series is based on the following pattern :
5 4 4 5 5 4 4 5 5 4 4 5
16 + 12 = 17; not 19
10. (a) 31 35 44 60 85 121 17 + 22 = 21
2 2 2 2 2 21 + 32 = 30
2 3 4 5 6
30 + 42 = 46
11. (d) Pattern of the series would be as follows 46 + 52 = 71
7 9 12 16 21 71 + 62 = 107
Clearly, 19 should replaced by 17.
+2 +3 +4 +5
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68 101 SPEED TEST
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23. (d) The series is based on the following pattern : 117 + 4 12 = 117 + 48 = 165
b
7 + 9 = 16
.w
165 + 5 12 = 165 + 60 = 225
9 + 16 = 25
o
16 + 25 = 41 4. (e) The pattern of the number series is :
rd
17 + 13 = 17 + 1 = 18
p
25 + 41 = 66; 68 18 + 23 = 18 + 8 = 26
re
41 + 66 = 107 26 + 33 = 26 + 27 = 53
s
s
66 + 107 = 173 53 + 43 = 53 + 64 = 117
.c
o
Clearly, 68 should be replaced by 66 117 + 53 = 117 + 125 = 242
m
24. (c) The series is based on the following pattern
5. (a) The pattern of the number series is :
4 .5 = 2
1 1 1
2 1.5 = 3 ; not 3.5
4 4 2
3 2.5 = 7.5
7.5 3.5 = 26.25 1 1 3
26.25 4.5 = 118.125 2 4 4
Clearly, 3.5 should be replaced by 3. 3 1
25. (b) The series is based on the following pattern: 1
16 0.25 = 4 4 4
4 0.50 = 2 1 1
2 0.75 = 1.5 1 1
4 4
1.5 1.00 = 1.5 ; not 1.75 3 1
? 1 2
1.5 1.25 = 1.875 4 4
Clearly, 1.75 should be replaced by 1.5. 6. (c) The pattern of the number series is :
26. (c) The series is 4 + 1 15 = 19
1 + 2, 2 + 3, 3 + 4, 4 + 5, 5 + 6
The wrong number is 18. 19 + 2 15 = 49
It should be 6 2 + 3 = 15 49 + 3 15 = 94
27. (e) The series is 1.5 94 + 4 15 = 154
The wrong number is 366 154 + 5 15 = 229
It should be 243 1.5 = 364.5
28. (a) The series is 7. (a) The pattern of the number series is :
6 + 42, 5 + 30, 4 + 20, 3 + 12, 2 + 6, 1 1
The wrong number is 3674 1
2 2
It should be 1220 3 + 12 = 3672
29. (b) The series is (2)3, (3)3, (4)3, (5)3, (6)3, (7)3, 1 1
1 1
The wrong number is 218 2 2
It should be (6)3 = 216 1 1
30. (d) The series is + (7)2, + (6)2, + (5)2, + (4)2, + (3)2 1 2
2 2
The wrong number is 102.
It should be 68 + (6)2 = 104 1 1
?=3+ 3
2 2
SPEED TEST 50
8. (d) The pattern of the number series is :
101 + 2 = 103
1. (b) The pattern of the number series is : 103 4 = 99
353 + 1 = 354 99 + 6 = 105
354 3 = 351 105 8 = 97
351 + 5 = 356
356 7 = 349 97 + 10 = 107
346 + 9 = 358 9. (b) The pattern of the number series is :
219 3 = 216 = 63
2. (c) The pattern of the number series is : 344 219 = 125 = 53
1 + 22 = 1 + 4 = 5 408 344 = 64 = 43
5 + 23 = 5 + 8 = 13 ? = 408 + 33
13 + 24 = 13 + 16 = 29 = 408 + 27 435
29 + 25 = 29 + 32 = 61 10. (a) The pattern of the number series is :
7 + 3 = 10
61 + 26 = 61 + 64 = 125
10 + 12 (= 2 3) = 16
3. (e) The pattern of the number series is : 16 + 12 (= 2 6) = 28
45 + 1 12 = 45 + 12 = 57 28 + 24 (= 2 12) = 52
57 + 2 12 = 57 + 24 = 81
81 + 3 12 = 81 + 36 = 117 52 + 48 (= 2 24 ) = 100
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SOLUTIONS 69
b
o
o
11. (a) 1 1 = 1 23. (a)
b
12=2
.w
6
23=6
o
2 8 12 20 30 42 56
rd
6 4 = 24
p
+4 +6 +8 + 10 + 12 + 14
re
24 5 = 120
12. (b) 8 7 = 1 = 13 8 is written in place of 6.
s
s
16 8 = 8 = 23
.c
24. (e)
o
43 16 = 27 = 33 60
m
107 43 97 43 32 16 24 65 210 945 5197.5
232 107 = 125 = 53 0.5 1.5 2.5 3.5 4.5 5.5
13. (c) 4 13 17 26 30 39 65 is written in place of 60.
25. (d)
(+9) (+4) (+9) (+4) (+9) 193
7 13 25 49 97 194 385
14. (c) 982 977 = 5
977 952 = 25 +6 + 12 + 24 + 48 + 96 + 192
952 827 = 125 194 is written in place of 193
827 822 = 5 26. (a) The series is based on the following pattern :
822 ? = 25
? = 822 25 16 + 12 = 17; not 19
= 797 17 + 22 = 21
21 + 32 = 30
15. (c) 1 8=8 30 + 42 = 46
8 9 = 72 46 + 52 = 71
72 8 = 576 71 + 62 = 107
576 9 = 5184 Clearly, 19 should replaced by 17.
5184 8 = 41472 27. (d) The series is based on the following pattern :
16. (e) The series is as follows: 7 + 9 = 16
64 + 5 = 69; 9 + 16 = 25
69 + 5 = 74; 16 + 25 = 41
74 + 5 = 79 25 + 41 = 66; 68
54 5 = 49; 41 + 66 = 107
49 5 = 44 66 + 107 = 173
Clearly, 68 should be replaced by 66
17. (b) The series is as follows:
32 16 24 60 210 945 5197.5
2 +8 28. (e)
Hence, ? = 1012 2 + 8 = 514 0.5 1.5 2.5 3.5 4.5 5.5
29. (a) The series is
18. (c) The series is as follows: 200, 100, 50, 25, 12.5, 6.25, ......
1, 3, 5, 7, 9, 11 30. (c) The series is
Hence, ? = 75 7 = 525 1.5, 2, 1.5, 2, 1.5, 2, .....
19. (a) The series is as follows:
1 1 1 SPEED TEST 51
, 1, 1 , 2, 2 , 3
2 2 2 1. (d) Total value of the quantity sold for item D
1
Hence, ? = 78 2 = 195 40 150 12.5 90
2 = 100 = 60 11.25 100 = ` 67500
20. (a) This is a series of prime numbers : 100 100
21. (d) 2. (e) Average price per kg. of items A, B and C
155 17.5 10 7.5 35
3601 3602 1803 604 154 36 12 = = ` 11.667 10.50 (approx)
=
3 3
3. (a) Total value of quantity sold for item E = 15 25 100 = 37500
1+1 2+2 3+3 4+4 5+5 6+6
Total value of quantity sold for item F
154 is written in place of 155. = 10 35 100 = 35000
22. (b) Required ratio = 37500 : 35000 = 15 : 14
45 4. (e) Total value of the quantity sold for item C
4 12 42 196 1005 6066 42511 = 45 100 7.50 = 33750
Total value of the quantity sold for item E
= 22.5 100 15 = 33750
33750
42 is written in place of 45. Required percentage = 100 100%
33750
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70 101 SPEED TEST
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5. (d) Required price 16. (e) Required difference = 680 258 = 422
b
120 17.5 120
.w
= 20 100 = 2400 21 = ` 50400 550 430
100 100 17. (b) Required percentage = 100 27%
o
430
rd
6. (d) Total number of students studying in college H
= 51.2 + 40 + 36.5 = 127.7 thousand 160 708 550 586
p
18. (b) Required average = 501
re
Total number of students studying in college K. 4
s
= 30 + 56 + 25 = 111 thousand 19. (a) Number of flights cancelled by airline R in 2010 due to
s
.c
Required difference = (127.7 111) thousand
880 60
o
= 16.7 thousand = 16700 technical fault = 528
m
7. (b) Total number of students studying in all the colleges together 100
= [(51.2 + 40 + 36.5) + ( 65 + 50 + 33) 600 546
+ (44 + 30 + 60) + 30 + 56 + 25)] thousand 20. (e) Required percentage = 100
365
(127.7 + 148 + 134 + 111) = 520.7 thousand = 520700
8. (c) Number of students from the faculty of science from college 1146
= 100 314 (approx.)
H and I together = 40 + 50 = 90 365
Number of students from the faculty of science from college
J and K together = 30 + 56 = 86 SPEED TEST 52
90 45
Required ratio = 45 : 43
86 43 1. (a) 48 % of 525 + ? % of 350 = 399
9. (a) Number of students from the faculty of science from college 48 ?
I = 50 525 350 399
Total number of students from college I = 65 + 50 + 33 = 148 100 100
25200 + ? 350 = 399 100
50
Required percentage = 100 33.78% 34% (approx.) ? 350 = 39900 25200 = 14700
148
10. (e) Average number of students from the faculty of commerce 14700
?= 42
from all the colleges together. 350
36.5 33 60 25
= thousand 3 4 5
4 2. (b) ? of of of 490
154.4 7 5 8
= thousand = 38.625 thousand = 38625
4 3 4 5
11. (a) Required percentage ? 490
7 5 8
5 14 2 14 ? = 35 3 = 105
2000 1 2000
7 100 7 100 100
=
7
100 = 3. (d) ? 17 2 335
2000 140
100 ? 289 335
80
= 100 57% ? 335 289 46
140
? = 46 46 = 2116
12. (d) Total number of teachers who teach English and History
4. (a) ? = 125% of 560 +22% of 450
7 27
together = 2000 680 125 22
100 ? 560 450
Total number of teachers who teach Mathematics and Biology 100 100
14 12 70000 9900
together = 2000 = 520 ?
100 100 100
Required difference = 680 520 = 160 ? = 700 + 99 = 799
13. (e) Total number of Biology and History teachers 28 5 15 6
12 100 40 27 100 20 5. (c) ? 2
= 2000 2000 7 256 (13) 2
100 100 100 100
140 90
12 140 27 80 ?
= 2000 2000 49 16 169
100 100 100 100
= 336 + 432 = 768 50 25
14. (b) Required average ?
234 117
2000 25 27 12 6. (b) ? = 18.76 + 222.24 + 3242.15
100 1280 ? = 3483.15
= = 420
3 3 7. (d) ? = 784 16 7
12 2000 784
100 12 ? 7
15. (d) Required ratio = 4 :5 16
15 2000 15
? = 49 7 = 7
100
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SOLUTIONS 71
b
o
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3 5 16. (d) Let sum of money x be lent out at 12%
b
8. (c) ? of 455 of 456 Remaining money lent out at 12.5%
.w
7 8 = 2500 x
o
rd
3 5 x 12 1 (2500 x) 12.5 1
? 455 456 306
p
7 8 Now,
100 100
re
? = 195 + 285
s
12x + 312.5 .125x = 306
s
? = 480
.c
.0059 = 6.5
9. (b) ? = 1.05% of 2500 + 2.5% of 440
o
6.5
m
1.05 2.5 x= = 1300 `
? 2500 440 .005
100 100
So, Money lent out 12% = 1300 `
2625 1100
? x
100 100 17. (a) Let the original fraction be .
y
3725
? 37.25 x 200 4 x 4 3 2
100
10. (b) ? = 4900 28 444 12 y 300 21 y 21 2 7
? = 175 37 18. (e) The word SIMPLE consists of 6 distinct letters
? = 6475 Number of arrangements = 6!
11. (b) Cost price of (12 belts + 30 wallers) = ` 8940 = 6 5 4 3 2 1 = 720
Cost price of 3 (4 belts + 10 wallets) = ` 8940 19. (d) Let the present age of A = x and B = y years
8940 According to first condition
Cost price of 4 belts + 10 wallets = = ` 2980
3 x 7 3
12. (c) Cost price of an article = ` 1850 4 x 28 3 y 21 4 x 3 y 7 ........ (i)
y 7 4
For 30% profit, selling price of this article
According to second condition
130
= 1850 = ` 2405 x 9 7
100 8x 72 7 y 63
13. (e) Compound Interest after two years y 9 8
2 7y 8x = 9 ......... (ii)
10
= 8500 1 8500
8 x 6 y 14
100
11 11
7 y 8x 9
= 8500 8500 y 23 years.
10 10
= 10285 8500 = ` 1785 20. (e) x + (x + 1) + (x + 2) = 1383
14. (a) Let length of the train be x m 3x + 3 = 1383 3x = 1380
5 50 1380
Speed of the train be 60 km/h = 60 m/s x= 460
18 3 3
x 200 Largest number = x + 2 = 462
Then, 27 21. (b) 8 6.5 = 52
50
3 52 5.5 = 286
3( x 200) 286 4.5 = 1287.
27 22. (d) 3 14 = 42
50 42 12 = 504
3x + 600 = 1350
3x = 1350 600 504 10 = 5040
3x = 750 5040 8 = 40320.
750 23. (c) 403 3 = 400
x 250 m 400 6 = 394
3
15. (b) Suppose 16 men can complete the same work in x days 394 12 = 382
Then, Men days 382 24 = 358
358 48 = 310
10 8
16 x 310 96 = 214 .
16 : 10 : : 8 : x +5 9
16 x = 10 8
24. (d) 7 8 4 13 3 22 14
10 8
x 5 days 3 7 11
16
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72 101 SPEED TEST
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25. (a) 250000 4 = 62500 or, 4x = 160 12 = 148
b
62500 5 = 12500
.w
148
12500 4 = 3125 or, x 37
o
3125 5 = 625 4
rd
Numbers are A = 37, B = 39, C = 41, D = 43
p
625 4 = 156.25
re
Product of B and D = 39 43 = 1677.
156.25 5 = 31.25.
s
33. (a) 2.31 km = 2.31 1000 = 2310 m
s
.c
7 Total number of days = 3 7 = 21
o
26. (b) Largest fraction =
2310
m
8 110 m.
Distance covered by Anu each day =
1 21
Smallest fraction = 5
2 34. (b) 43.2 m/hr = 43.2 = 12 m/s
18
7 1 7 4 3 Total distance covered = 12 80 = 960 m.
Difference = .
8 2 8 8 Perimeter of the square = 960 m.
27. (e) (?)0.6 (?)1.4 = 26 104 Side of the square = 240 m.
or, ?2 = 2704 Area = (240)2 = 57600 sqm.
or, ? = 52. 35. (b) Let the number of children be x.
28. (a) Perimeter of the square = 84 cm Now, according to the question
Perimeter of the rectangle = 28 cm
Perimeter of the rectangle = 2(1 + b) 4800
100 (x 4) 4800
or, 2(8 + b) = 28 cm x
or, b = 14 8 = 6 cm.
Breadth of the rectangle = 6 cm 48
or, 1 (x 4) 48
84 x
Side of the square = = 21 cm or, (48 x)(x + 4) = 48x
4
Difference = 21 6 =15 cm. or, x2 + 4x 192 = 0
29. (e) Perimeter of the rectangle = 42 m or, (x + 16)(x 12) = 0
2(l + b) = 42 m x = 12 sweets
or, l + 8.5 = 21m 4800
or, l = 12.5 m. Number of students = 400 .
Area of the rectangle = 12.5 8.5 = 106.25 sq.m. 12
Area of the circle. = 106.25 sq.m. 342000
30. (d) Let the positive number be x. 36. (c) Sneha's monthly income = 28500
12
5x 3x
Then, 504.6 28500
100 100 Akruti's monthly income = 116 34800
95
5 3 Akruti's annual income = 417600.
x x 504.6
100 100 256
504.6 100 100 37. (b) Time taken by the truck = 8 hr.
or, x
2 32
15 Distance covered by the car = (256 + 160) = 416 km.
x = 580. Time = 8 hr.
31. (b) Two women alone can complete a piece of work in 16
days. 416
Speed of the car = 52 km / hr.
Four women can complete the same work in 8 days. 8
Since 12 children can complete the work in
663 612
4 8 4 8 38. (a) Required percentage = 100 5% .
8 days. 1020
8 4 4 39. (c) Sum of the heights of all the girls = 148 21 = 3108 cm
12 8 Sum of the heights of the teacher and all the girls = 149
Four children can complete the work in 24 22 = 3278 cm.
4
days. Teacher's height = 3278 3108 = 170 cm.
32. (d) Let the four odd consecutive numbers be x, x + 2, x + 4 40. (a) Radius = 17.5 cm.
and x + 6. 22
Also, A = x, B = x + 2, C = x + 4 and D = x + 6. Area of the circle = 17.5 17.5 962.5 sq cm.
7
4x + 12 = 4 40
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SOLUTIONS 73
b
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SPEED TEST 53 9. (e) 10. (c) 11. (b) 12. (b)
b
.w
13. (a) 14. (d) 15. (d)
o
1. (a) 16. (c) The author wants us to stop debating and implement
rd
2. (c) They are responsible for national disintegration. policies.
p
3. (d) They are harmful to national integrity. 17. (c) Stated in the first paragraph.
re
4. (b) India was forged into a nation on account of a common 18. (d) Uncertainty about payment is mentioned, hence option
s
s
culture evolved over the centuries. (d).
.c
5. (a) The author wants India to remain as an ideal nation
o
19. (b) Refer to the second paragraph. State governments
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and the passage has certainly a message behind it. have not implemented agr eed plans to ensure
6. (e) 7. (b) 8. (a) repayment when due...
9. (e) Indias insurgence stood for gaining freedom by 20. (a) All the factors are mentioned in the passage.
adopting the path of non-violent struggle. 21. (a) Refer to the third paragraph. The Delhi model has
10. (c) 11. (d) 12. (e) worked. But it receives no public support.
13. (a) 14. (e) 22. (d) Clearly, populist measures would go against financial
15. (b) wellbeing.
16. (a) Option (c) can be rejected as it is out of the context. 23. (d) It is stated in the passage that the enforcement of the
Option (d) is also not true as they like to invest abroad reforms was inadequate.
than in India. Option (e) is true in parts. Only option 24. (c) Eminent British economists and political scientists have
which is in sync with major portion of passage is (a). strongly attacked the tradition of budget secrecy.
17. (a) Other options are not mentioned in the passage. 25. (e) It leads to the control of public expenditure in order to
18. (c) Last part of the passage chiefly describes it. Other set realistic taxation implications.
options show these sectors in positive light which is 26. (b) He has presented the example of both the open budget
against passage content. system and the secret budget system, practised by
19. (b) Option (B) is true in its completeness, encompassing various countries and has looked into all their aspects.
the whole of the passage. But other options are true in 27. (d) 28. (e)
parts only. Option (E) is false in parts. 29. (a) Sir Richard Clarke was the originating genius of nearly
20. (c) Both (1) and (3) are directly mentioned in passage. every important development in the British budgeting
Statement 2 is just not true. techniques during the last two decades.
21. (c) Meaning of Clout is force. 30. (b)
22. (e) Marked means distinguished and different.
Imperceptible is that cannot be distinguished or SPEED TEST 55
percepted.
23. (d) Option (D) can be related to the experts as mentioned 1. (b) 2. (e) 3. (c) 4. (c)
in the passage. 5. (b) 6. (a) 7. (b) 8. (d)
24. (d) Option (D) has plenty of illustrations, references and 9. (d) 10. (d) 11. (e) 12. (c)
structure to support it in the passage. Other options 13. (c) 14. (a) 15. (b) 16. (c)
like E and B are true but not the central theme of the 17. (d) 18. (b) 19. (e) 20. (a)
passage. Option (A) and (C) are not true. 21. (d) 22. (e) 23. (e) 24. (b)
25. (d) PROMOTES means to advocate a particular cause. 25. (a) 26. (b) 27. (d) 28. (b)
26. (e) A rise from the 4% level to 7% says that there is rise in 29. (b) 30. (a)
education in Egypt.
27. (a) All of the options are mentioned in one or other part of SPEED TEST 56
the passage.
28. (c) First line of the passage is self explanatory. 1. (b) The word ' vicarious' means 'Endured or done by one
29. (b) Only option which can be linked with the passage is 1.
person substituting for another' which is nearest in
Their people will agitate for greater political freedom,
meaning to phrase 'Not experienced personally' which
culminating in a shift to a more democratic form of
is option (b), therefore, (b) is the correct answer. The
government.
other 3 words have following meanings: Ambitious -
30. (c) Option A is wrong as this is not intended from the use
strongly desirous; Nostalgic - homesickness; Vindictive
of this phrase. Last part of passage has this phrase
- vengeful.
and poor-rich divide has been discussed their in voting
2. (b) The word 'craven' means 'cowardly, contemptibly timid
pattern or why rich people even educated do not vote.
pusillaninuous which is nearest in meaning to cowardly'
Option (D) is out of the context. Option E can also be
which is option (b), therefore, (b) is the correct answers.
rejected as corruption is not the issue here.
3. (d) The word ' Tepid' means moderately warm; Luke warm
which is nearest in meaning to 'Lukewarm' which is option
SPEED TEST 54
(d), therefore, (d) is the correct answer. The other 3 words
have following meanings: Irreversible - uncapable of
1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (d) 4. (d) being changed; Causing fatigue - something that leads
5. (c) 6. (c) 7. (e) 8. (d) to mental exertion; Fast moving - speedy.
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74 101 SPEED TEST
b
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4. (c) The word 'Tenuous' means thin or slender in form which 20. (b) Thw word exaggerate means amplify, inflate, elaborate
b
is nearest in meaning to 'slender' which is option (c), etc. which is similar in meaning to overstate.
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therefore, (c) is the correct answer. The other three words 21. (d) The word evident means obvious, clear, tangible,
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have followings meanings: Contentious - quarrelsome; distinct etc. which is nearest in meaning to quite clear.
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Dark - little as no light; Malfunctioning - to fail to
22. (b) The word penalize means inflict a penalty on, which
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function.
s
5. (a) The word 'probity' means integrity or uprignt ness, is quite similar in meaning to punish.
s
.c
honesty' which is nearest in meaning to integrity which 23. (c) The word remedial means aimed at solving a problem
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is option (a), therefore, (a) is the correct answer. The which is similar in meaning to corrective.
other 3 words have following meanings: Impudence - 24. (a) The word trivial means not worth considering,
in solence; Profane - irreligious; Preface - an
introductory past. insignificant etc., which is similar in meaning to
6. (b) The word 'Musty' means absolute, out dated or stale unimportant.
food' which is nearest in meaning to 'stale' which is 25. (a) The word Incredible means beyond belief,
option (b), therefore, (b) is the correct answer. The other unbelievable, unimaginable etc. which is similar in
3 words have following meanings: Certainty - something
meaning to hard to believe.
certain; Modern - not ancient or remote; Mysterious -
implying or suggesting a mystery. 26. (d) The word frenetic means wildly excited or active,
7. (b) The word 'Alleviate' means 'to diminish or lessen ' which energetic, hectic, fast and furious etc.
is nearest in meaning to 'lessen' which is option (b), 27. (c) The word elicit means draw out, extract, obtain,
therefore, (b) is the correct answer. The other three provoke etc.
words have following meanings: To release - to free
from confinement; To deprive - to remove from the 28. (b) The word Lucrative means gainful, remunerative, well-
possession; To deceive - delude, to be unfaithful to. paid which is most similar in meaning to profitable.
8. (c) Morose means depressed and pessimistic. Some more 29. (c) Vivid means presented in very clear/distinct way. From
synonyms are : Cantankerous, gloomy, in a bad mood, the options detailed is the other option which can
mournful, moody, splenetic.
replace but only if 'clear' as option is not available.
9. (c) Protagonist means person who takes the lead or the
central figure of the narrative. Some more synonyms Also 'detailed' can be confusing as well. So it is not the
are: Central character, Prime mover, Exponent, Hero, best choice. Ambiguous is opposite for the Vivid.
Exemplar, Mainstay. 'Categorical' is without any condition.
10. (c) Factitous means unnatural, false or artificial so in the 30. (d) Deplore means to disapprove /to condemn /to regret.
given option artificial would be the right synonym of
Deprive means lack of something. Implored is to beg
factitious. Other synonyms : false, artificial, sham.
11. (d) The word hospitable means genial, welcoming, impatiently. Deny is to refuse. So clear choice is
congenial, friendly, convivial, but welcoming is the most 'regretted' as this is direct meaning of the word.
suitable word. 31. (c) Vindictive is revengeful. Other options like violent and
12. (a) The word scarcely means hardly, barely, almost not, cruel can be actions of revenge but not the right answer
only just. as synonym. Irritable is not correct clearly.
13. (c) The word disdain means contempt, scorn, disrespect, 32. (a) Pragmatic is practical. Pragmatic is replacing 'practical'
dislike. From the given options hate is the most suitable in English usage for common use.
word. 33. (d) Soporific means sleep inducing. It can not be replaced
14. (a) The word absurd means stupid not logical and with other options. There is not much use of context in
sensible which is nearest in meaning to senseless. these types of words which have direct meaning with
15. (a) The word philanthropy means the practice of helping so clear options.
the poor and those in need especially by giving money. 34. (b) Evoke means to 'call for' or 'to rise by a reason'. From
Hence generosity (willing to give somebody money, the options, (b) is the direct meaning of the word.
gifts etc) is nearest in meaning to it. 35. (a) Abate is to reduce but not to completely remove. So
16. (a) The word mutual is used to describe feelings that two Vanished as answer is rejected. Increased is just the
or more people have for each other equally. Hence, opposite in sense. Stabilized is to remain at same status
reciprocal is similar word in meaning to it. or as it is.
17. (d) The word weird means very strange or unusual and 36. (c) Insulting behavior is insolent behavior. Violent behavior
difficult to explain which is similar in meaning to can not be counted as disrespectful it is extreme
unnatural. one.Yes; disrespect can be a reason for violent behavior.
18. (d) The word pessimistic means bleak, distrustful, 37. (d) Mendacious is intentionally untrue or false. Options
hopeless, depressed etc. which is nearest in meaning are not confusing either.
to not hopeful. 38. (c) Induces means persuades, insist and provoke.
19. (c) The word analogous means like, equivalent, related 39. (d) Authentic means genuine, real, valid and dependable.
etc. which is nearest in meaning to similar. 40. (c) Scarcity means insufficiency, shortage, lack, dearth or
paucity.
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SOLUTIONS 75
b
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SPEED TEST 57 28. (a) Enrich is making richer /more valuable/more
b
meaningful/more nourished. The opposite of this word
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1. (a) 2. (e) 3. (d) 4. (e) is to make poor - impoverished.
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5. (c) 29. (a) Credible is loyal or believable or something in which
p
6. (b) The word obligatory means compulsory, mandatory, faith can be reposed. Incredible is just opposite of the
re
required whose opposite is optional or voluntary. word. Although from the options Believable is close
s
but not the best one to choose. If credible is not in the
s
7. (d) The word obscure means unclear whose opposite is
.c
clear. options then this is the best among the rest.
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8. (a) The word repulsive means repellent, nasty whose 30. (a) Inert is without motion. From the options active is clear
opposite is attractive. choice. As Lazy is similar in meaning.While Resolute
9. (a) The word vital means essential, urgent while trivial (Firm) is irrelevant in context. Strong does not mean
means insignificant. activeness or motion. He has very strong emotions for
10. (d) The word inhibit means hinder, hold back whose her.
opposite word is encourage or promote. 31. (a) Affluent is extra rich. If richness is a scale then Affluent
11. (c) The word exploit means treat unfairly, utilize, misuse is on one end and poor is on the other. Ordinary lies in
or take advantage of which is opposite in meaning to between the two. Backwardness is just the result of
support. poorness. So 'poor' is the best option.
12. (b) The word sharp means razor-edged, fierce, shrill etc. 32. (d) Energetic is full of activity and lethargic means
which is opposite in meaning to blunt. inactivity/slowness/ laziness/dull. Gloomy is sadness.
13. (d) The word condemn means censure, criticize, blame 33. (b) Here secure means to make safe and precarious is having
etc. which is opposite in meaning to praise. a sense of insecurity. So it can be a proper antonym for
14. (d) The word reluctant means timid, resistant, opposed the word from the available options.
etc. which is opposite in meaning to eager. 34. (d) 'Various' word derives from the variety. Variety is range
15. (a) The word scarcity means shortage, lack, paucity, of choices and similarity is opposite of it.
meagreness, dearth etc. Its opposite word is plenty in 35. (b) Recession means depression, slump, downturn,
the given options. collapse, decline so its antonym can be inflation, boom,
16. (a) The word bleak means bare, exposed, denuded, dim rise increase.
etc which is quite opposite in meaning to bright. 36. (d) Denied means deprive, starve, unused, shorn of so its
17. (d) The word stern means serious, austere, unforgiving, antonym can be affirmed, avowed, confirmed, declared,
harsh etc. Its opposite word will be forgiving. stated.
18. (a) The word superficial means shallow, casual, hasty, 37. (c) Collective means together, mutually, group, joint or
trivial, silly, inane etc. which is opposite in meaning to cooperative so its antonym can be individual, single or
profound. alone.
19. (a) The word elegance means grace, stylishness, charm, 38. (b) Abducted means kidnap, snatch or seize so its antonym
cleverness which is opposite in meaning to balance. can be set free, release or freedom.
20. (d) The word coarse means ugly, rough, ill-mannered, 39. (c) Enhanced means increase, augment, boost or amplify
rude, crude etc. which is opposite in meaning to soft so its antonym can be decreased, reduce or lessen.
from the given options. 40. (b) Condemn. Adore means esteem, respect and admire so
21. (c) The word extravagant means prodigal, lavish, costly its antonym can be disapprove, criticize, revile, attack
etc. which is opposite in meaning to the word or condemn.
economical.
22. (b) The word diligent means industrious, hard-working, SPEED TEST 58
rigorous etc. which is opposite in meaning to the word
lazy. 1. (c) shown
23. (c) The word fictitious means fake, spurious etc. Its 2. (d) drawn to
opposite word will be genuine or real. Certain Verbs, Nouns, Adjectives, and Participles are
24. (b) The word generous means liberal, charitable, always followed by certain Prepositions.
benevolent etc. Hence, uncharitable is the opposite 3. (d) were
word. The Past Subjunctive were is used after tile verb wish,
25. (b) Ignored is to overlook /to avoid /not considered/set to indicate a situation, which is contrary to fact or unreal;
aside. If something is ignored then it can be removed. as in, I wish I were a millionaire.
So 'remove' gives the same sense as 'ignored'. 4. (c) had seen me
26. (c) Lethargic is slow/lazy/inactive/dull. Active is antonym. 5. (c) concur with
Aggressive is second best option. Hungry is to make a 6. (b) swum
guessing student go on sense of the sentence and The Past Participle swum is to be used and not the
deviate from the right answer. past tense swam.
27. (d) Hazardous is harmful/perilous/marked by danger/risky; The Past Participle represents a completed action or state
opposite for it is 'safe'. Other options are not confusing of the thing spoken of.
so it is easy to answer. 7. (b) The sentence gives a condition, so the principle clause
will use would not will.
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76 101 SPEED TEST
b
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8. (b) Since there is a comparison between two, a comparative 28. (b) would not have been misunderstood.
b
degree verb must be used. 29. (d) reformed.
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9. (a) Gravity is the singular subject which will have the present 30. (c) When he ran across the road
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indefinite verb i.e., verb + s/es form. The past tense is needed here as the sentence indicates.
p
10. (b) Since a comparison is being made there must be a subject
re
in both parts of sentence devided by than. There must SPEED TEST 59
s
be that in the second part therefore, (d) is incorrect
s
.c
because of incorrect usage of article the. 1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (e) 4. (e) 5. (c)
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11. (b) There is no need for who or which (both of which are 6. (b) 7. (c) 8. (e) 9. (d) 10. (e)
incorrect whom will be the right pronoun) the clause 11. (c) 12. (b) 13. (b) 14. (d) 15. (b)
follows the subject person directly and need not be 16. (c) 17. (b) 18. (c) 19. (e) 20. (c)
connected through a pronoun. 21. (b) 22. (b) 23. (e) 24. (c) 25. (c)
12. (d) It is a passive voice sentence and the phrase before 26. (c) 27. (d) 28. (e) 29. (c) 30. (e)
that should be a complete passive form of verb and not
31. (d) 32. (c) 33. (e) 34. (b) 35. (d)
a gerund.
13. (d) of is the preposition used with frightened.
14. (c) Capitalist society is the singular subject and the statement SPEED TEST 60
made is a dictum, so pesent infinitive tense will be used.
1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (a)
15. (a) The use of the word here is as a noun not as a verb thus
5. (a) 6. (c) 7. (c) 8. (e)
damage will be the right answer.
9. (a) 10. (a) 11. (b) 12. (e)
Tip : A sentence of form this can cause, will always be
13. (d) 14. (d) 15. (e) 16. (e)
followed by a noun.
17. (a) 18. (c) 19. (b) 20. (e)
16. (d) The right expression is conditions necessary for, since
21. (b) Engaged is the word which fits in both the sentences.
the gap is followed by, this. complete should be used in
In the first sentence it means that couple has made on
the noun form and not adjective so it will be completion agreement or a pledge to get married and in statement
of this. II it means occupy the attention or efforts of (a person
17. (b) The right use is as + adjective + as or persons).
18. (a) There cannot be a subject in the first part of the sentence 22. (b) Option (b) is correct. Application in the first statement
as the same subject is given on the second part so (c) means a written request for employment. In the II
and (d) are eliminated. To study is the infinitive verb statement application means the act of putting to a
which will not be used here, because it suggests the special use or means the act of putting to a special use
action which is the affect and not the cause. e.g. To gain or purpose.
something you have to lose something else. 23. (e) hearing
By studying is the right answer because this gives the Statement I - an instance or a session in which testimony
cause for the verb in the latter part of the sentence. and arguments are presented, especially before an
19. (b) In the given sentence there is no subject or verb, so the official, as a judge in a lawsuit.
added phrase should be of the form subject + infinitive Statement II - the act of perceiving sound.
verb. 24. (a) resort
20. (c) Modals such as must or should cannot be used with Statement I - to have recourse for use help, or
hope. accomplishing something of ten as a final available
21. (a) There must be the preposition to to connect the verb option or resource.
tend with the noun result, (b) is not correct because Statement II - a place to which people frequently or
first form of verb should be used and not continuous generally go for relaxation or pleasure.
since its a simple statement made suggesting no action 25. (d) Statement I - salary
taking place at the current moment. Statement II - to carry on (a bottle, war, conflict,
22. (b) The subject of the sentence is candidate, but in the first argument, etc).
part there is no subject, it should be passive or have an
active subject. (b) is the only option with passive verb. SPEED TEST 61
23. (d) because cannot be used as the conjunction in this
sentence because for the sentence to be complete it 1. (b) up
should be followed by an of, i.e., because of their, since 2. (d) up with
this is not the option of their is the most appropriate 3. (b) with
use. 4. (b) of
24. (c) had better see 5. (c) on
25. (c) had known 6. (c) inwith
26. (c) than ones speed. 7. (c) on for
Here than, used as a preposition, as; 8. (b) withinto
I need more than fifty rupees for this magazine. 9. (c) for
27. (b) which 10. (a) from
11. (c) for
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SOLUTIONS 77
b
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12. (b) in around 18. (a) Replace leisure by the adverbial word leisurely
b
13. (a) to 19. (b) The phrase gift of the gab means to have a talent for
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14. (c) off speaking.
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15. (d) Though in 20. (c) The phrase the order of the day means common,
p
16. (d) to popular or suitable at a particular time. For example :
re
17. (c) Although from Pessimism seems to be the order of the day.
s
18. (d) among
s
21. (d) started carrying out their plan.
.c
19. (b) in 22. (a) started the discussion.
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20. (d) in 23. (c) A succession of unexpected events.
21. (b) towards 24. (c) be implemented next month
22. (c) to 25. (b) Idiom put your foot down means : to be very strict in
23. (c) concur with
opposing what somebody wishes to do.
24. (d) of
26. (d) In most probability
25. (b) on
26. (c) with 27. (a) ignorant about
27. (d) to 28. (a) in communication with
28. (c) upon 29. (d) discovered by chance
29. (d) of 30. (b) made a record.
30. (a) atinat
In is used with names of countries and large towns, at is SPEED TEST 63
more often used when speaking of small towns and
villages. 1. (b) Sent is the third form of verb send in passive voice.
31. (b) In the perfect continuous tense only for and since 2. (e)
are used. since is used to suggest a particular time 3. (a) Replace though by As to express cause and effect
in past and for is used to suggest a time period, a in the sentence.
long time suggest a time period so for will be the 4. (d) Use and I answered properly to express cause and
answer. effect in the sentence.
32. (b) With is used with overwhelmed 5. (c) Apply the adverb highly before the adjective paid.
33. (b) Preposition about is used before the word 6. (a) Replace adverb necessarily by adjective necessary.
prohibition. 7. (e)
34. (b) This will be the right preposition. 8. (c) Use conjunction and/therefore in place of yet.
35. (b) The right usage is comes to mind. 9. (b) Any shows uncertainty of selection. So, use one
instead of any.
SPEED TEST 62 10. (d) Use third form of verb signed in passive voice.
11. (a) Here, Nuclear waste will still remain/be .... should be
1. (a)
used.
2. (b)
12. (c) Here, whose attic had been should be used. Whose is
3. (a)
used to say which person or thing you mean.
4. (b)
Look at the sentence :
5. (d)
6. (d) It is the house whose door is painted red.
7. (c) 13. (c) Here, subject i.e. A public safety advertising campaign
8. (a) is singular. Hence, hopes to draw attention ... should
9. (e) be used here.
10. (c) 14. (b) Look at the structure of the sentence in Passive Voice
11. (e) Here, too is used as emphatic word. Lata was so scared of Past Simple.
that she could not go home alone. Hence, no correction Subject + was/were + V3 (Past Participle)
is required. Hence, awarded to the most .... should be used.
12. (b) The structure of sentence is subject + was/were + third 15. (b) Here, a time of reawakening .... should be used.
form of verb + object. Thus, Riya was dressed to kill. 16. (c) Here, and guidance to the mind tortured by doubt
13. (c) The given sentence is the statement of simple past should be used.
tense. Hence it should be worried instead of worries. Look at the sentence:
14. (a) The phrase let off means to give them only a light All activities take place under the guidance of an
punishment. experienced tutor.
15. (d) It should be took instead of take. 17. (d) Here, Past Simple i.e. the educated class did not support
16. (d) Replace to by too to make a correct phrase a bit too him .... should be used as the sentence shows past
fast which means slightly or to a small extent. time.
17. (e) The word think about refers to consider. Hence no 18. (a) Here, Depletion (Noun) of the Ozone layer .... should
correction is required. be used.
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78 101 SPEED TEST
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19. (a) Here, Most of the people who should be used. Who is 19. (d) : Replace 'for' by 'of
b
used to show which person or people you mean. 20. (e) : no error
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Look at the sentence: 21. (c) : Replace 'enough' by 'any'
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The people who called yesterday want to buy the 22. (c) : Remove 'not'
p
house. 23. (a) : Add 'having' after 'after'
re
20. (b) Here, in reducing human suffering .... should be used. 24. (c) : Replace 'was able to ' by 'could'
s
s
21. (d) Since the sentence begins in past tense. It should end 25. (d) : Replace 'for' by 'to'
.c
in past tense also since it the subject is singular the 26. (a) : Replace 'had' by 'would have'
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verb will also be singular. Hence them is missing 27. (c) : Replace 'pumping' by 'pump'
should be them was missing. 28. (a) : Replace 'ential' by 'entails'
22. (a) The teacher that is the subject is singular so were 29. (b) : Replace 'sang' by 'sung'
will be replaced with was. 30. (b) : Replace 'at' by 'with'
23. (b) Son for help her should be son to help her. 31. (c) : Replace 'would have' by 'had'
24. (b) The verb ask will be in the past tense it will become 32. (c) : Replace 'those' by 'which'
asked. 33. (a) : Replace 'for' by 'two'
25. (c) Saving will be replaced with past tense of the verb 34. (d) : Add 'they' before 'assume'
Save that is saved because it is preceded by had. 35. (b) : Add 'which are' before 'available'
26. (a) Change decline of to decline in.
36. (a) : Replace 'being intelligent' by 'intelligence'
27. (b) Delete for after order.
37. (a) : The correct form is 'The judges not onlyacquitted
28. (c) Place on before land.
38. (e) : No error
29. (c) Delete to before Chennai.
39. (b) : The correct form is ' different people diferentjobs .'
30. (d) Replace for by to.
40. (d) : Replace 'promising' by 'promissed'. 366 (c): Replace
31. (c) Change look for by look after.
32. (a) Delete for after await. 'done' by 'made'
33. (c) debarred from sending is correct.
34. (a) Do not use of with despite. Despite means inspite of. SPEED TEST 65
35. (a) Change it to yielded to
36. (b) dying of hunger is correct. 1. (a) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (d)
37. (c) Change than by to. 6. (c) 7. (d) 8. (a) 9. (d) 10. (b)
38. (d) Change by to for. 11. (d) 12. (c) 13. (c) 14. (d) 15. (b)
39. (b) Change to stay in by rather than stay in. She prefers 16. (a) 17. (d) 18. (b) 19. (c) 20. (c)
to write rather than to speak on telephone.
21. (e)
40. (c) Change startled by to startled at.
22. (d) Use divided instead of dividend.
41. (b) Change with to from.
23. (a) Use agreed properly for consented.
SPEED TEST 64 24. (b) Use file instead of fill.
25. (c) Apply funds for investment.
1. (d) Replace their by its. The bankers association 26. (e)
collective noun so pronoun its singular. 27. (b) Use able instead of enable.
2. (b) Replace are by is. five quintals refers a definite 28. (d) Use overcome instead of resort.
quantity (as collective noun) so verb will be singular. 29. (b) Use spread instead of spend.
3. (a) Replace have by has. Dickens is the name of a person.
30. (a) Use spent properly for initiated.
4. (d) Insert are after hopes. Hopes is plural, so verb will
be plural. 31. (c) The correct spelling is souvenirs which mean memento,
5. (a) Place be after may. reminder, memorial etc.
6. (d) : Remove' a matter' 32. (a) It should be wasted instead of vested.
7. (c) : Remove' for preparing' 33. (d) It should be griping which means a sudden strong pain
8. (b) : Either' must' or' 'have to' alone should be used in stomach.
9. (c) : Raplace' were' by 'are' . 34. (e) No correction is required.
10. (c) : Replace' indefinite' by , indefinitely' . 35. (b) The correct spelling is charming.
11. (d) : Replace' days' by daily' . 36. (d) It should be here was her sons future.
12. (d) : Replace' needs' by' need'
37. (c) The correct spelling should be triumphant.
13. (d) : Replace' of' by in'
38. (a) The word suppressed should be replaced by revealed
14. (c) : Replace' appreciating' by' appreciated
15. (a) : Remove' being' or leaked in the sentence.
16. (b) : Replace 'are' by 'is' 39. (b) It should be handed over which means the act of
17. (d) : Remove 'independent' moving power or responsibility from one person to
18. (d) : Replace 'does' by 'did' another.
40. (a) The correct spelling is difficult.
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SOLUTIONS 79
b
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SPEED TEST 66 32. (e) Piece of cake means something easy to do. Therefore,
b
option (e) is the correct choice.
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1. (b) 2. (d) 3. (d) 4. (b) 33. (b) Took to ones heels means to run away. Therefore,
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5. (c) 6. (d) 7. (a) 8. (a) option (b) is the correct choice.
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9. (a) 10. (c) 11. (d) 12. (d) 34. (e) To pledged means to make a promise. Therefore, option
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13. (c) 14. (d) 15. (c) 16. (d) (e) is the correct choice.
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17. (a) 18. (c) 19. (c) 20. (a) 35. (d) Crying need means a definite or desparate need for
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21. (a) 22. (b) 23. (b) 24. (a)
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someone or something.
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25. (d) 26. (b) 27. (d) 28. (c) Therefore, option (d) is the correct choice.
29. (c) 30. (b)
36. (d) Light upon means to arrive at something by chance.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct choice.
SPEED TEST 67
Sol: (Qs. 1-5): Clearly C must be followed by D, which must be SPEED TEST 69
further followed by the E as E reitrates the housing shortage and
says that the real deficit will be even higher. D and E provide the 1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (a)
statistical proof of the staggering task mentioned in C. So this 5. (b) 6. (c) 7. (b) 8. (b)
leads us to two options (b) and (d). Among them (b) seems to be 9. (e) 10. (a) 11. (b) 12. (e)
more appropriate as B again emphasises on but is being said is A 13. (b) 14. (a) 15. (c) 16. (b)
and also that B cannot be the concluding statement of the 17. (e) 18. (b) 19. (a) 20. (e)
paragraph. Hence, ABCDE gives the correct arrangement. 21. (c) 22. (b) 23. (d) 24. (a)
1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (d) 25. (e) 26. (a) 27. (d) 28. (b)
5. (e) 29. (c) 30. (a) 31. (c) 32. (d)
Sol. For (Qs.6-10) : The arrangement EABDC is correct. 33. (e) 34. (b)
The paragraph is clearly taking about Goa state and hence E has
to be opening sentence is the paragraph. This is followed by A SPEED TEST 70
where the phrase, is an impressive case in point, which is an
example of what is being said in E. A is followed by E as a similar 1. (b) 2. (d) 3. (e) 4. (b)
agitation mentioned in B refers to the public activism mentioned
5. (c) 6. (c) 7. (a) 8. (d)
in A. B is further followed by D and C.
9. (c) 10. (b) 11. (d) 12. (a)
6. (e) 7. (a) 8. (b) 9. (d)
13. (e) 14. (b) 15. (a) 16. (b)
10. (c)
17. (d) 18. (e) 19. (c) 20. (c)
Sol For. (Q.11-15): The required arrangement is ABDCE.
A is the opening sentence as is clear from the given options. A is 21. (d) into 22. (a) around
followed by B as the proposal mentioned in B is reffering to 23. (b) translating 24. (c) practice
whatever has been talked in A. B is followed by D as D continues 25. (c) chance 26. (d) provided
to talk about the response mentioned in B. Also note that B 27. (a) other 28. (e) off
mentions a 2 : 1 response against the proposal which is also clear 29. (e) hard 30. (b) equilibrium
by the 68 : 31 mentioned in D. D is followed by C and C is followed 31. (a) provides 32. (e) form
by E. The other immigration organizations mentioned in E clearly 33. (e) symbol 34. (b) made
states that the previous sentence must have a statement from 35. (d) emphasis
some other organization, which is the immigration lawyers as
mentioned in C. SPEED TEST 71
11. (a) 12. (b) 13. (d) 14. (c)
15. (e) 16. (e) 17. (b) 18. (e)
1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (b)
19. (a) 20. (c) 21. (a) 22. (b)
5. (d) 6. (c) 7. (b) 8. (c)
23. (c) 24. (d) 25. (d) 26. (d)
27. (a) 28. (a) 29. (a) 30. (d) 9. (b) 10. (d) 11. (c) 12. (c)
13. (a) 14. (e) 15. (b) 16. (e)
SPEED TEST 68 17. (b) 18. (c) 19. (e) 20. (d)
21. (e) 22. (d) 23. (e) 24. (b)
1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (a) 4. (b) 25. (b) 26. (d) 27. (d) 28. (a)
5. (c) 6. (a) 7. (d) 8. (d) 29. (c) 30. (c) 31. (e) 32. (a)
9. (d) 10. (c) 11. (c) 12. (b) 33. (c) 34. (a) 35. (d)
13. (b) 14. (a) 15. (b) 16. (a) 36. (b) substitute has for are.
17. (b) 18. (d) 19. (c) 20. (b) 37. (b) replace should by will.
21. (b) 22. (b) 23. (a) 24. (d)
38. (a) sale should come in place of selling
25. (b) 26. (b) 27. (a) 28. (d)
29. (a) 30. (d) 31. (b) 39. (c) earned.
40. (d) replace since with from.
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80 101 SPEED TEST
b
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SPEED TEST 77
b
SPEED TEST 72
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1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (b) 1. (e) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (d)
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5. (b) 6. (e) 7. (b) 8. (a) 5. (a) 6. (d) 7. (a) 8. (d)
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9. (b) 10. (b) 11. (d) 12. (a)
9. (b) 10. (c) 11. (d) 12. (c)
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13. (d) 14. (c) 15. (d) 16. (c)
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13. (c) 14. (a) 15. (c) 16. (d)
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17. (e) 18. (a) 19. (b) 20. (b)
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21. (e) 22. (b) 23. (e) 24. (e) 17. (a) 18. (a) 19. (d) 20. (a)
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25. (a) 26. (b) 27. (c) 28. (d) 21. (a) 22. (a) 23. (c) 24. (b)
29. (a) 30. (b) 31. (a) 25. (c) 26. (a) 27. (a) 28. (b)
29. (c) 30. (c)
SPEED TEST 73
SPEED TEST 78
1. (e) 2. (d) 3. (a) 4. (b)
5. (b) 6. (b) 7. (a) 8. (b)
1. (c) 2. (d) 3. (a) 4. (b)
9. (a) 10. (b) 11. (c) 12. (b)
5. (a) 6. (b) 7. (c) 8. (e)
13. (c) 14. (e) 15. (b) 16. (e)
17. (d) 18. (d) 19. (a) 20. (b) 9. (c) 10. (e) 11. (a) 12. (b)
21. (d) 22. (b) 23. (d) 24. (a) 13. (c) 14. (b) 15. (e) 16. (a)
30. (c) 31. (c) 32. (b) 33. (d) 17. (b) 18. (a) 19. (d) 20. (c)
34. (d) 35. (c) 21. (a) 22. (b) 23. (a) 24. (c)
25. (e) 26. (c) 27. (d) 28. (b)
SPEED TEST 74 29. (d) 30. (c)
1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (e) 4. (d) SPEED TEST 79

5. (d) 6. (a) 7. (d) 8. (a)
9. (b) 10. (b) 11. (b) 12. (d) 1. (e) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (b)
13. (e) 14. (e) 15. (a) 16. (b) 5. (c) 6. (a) 7. (c) 8. (d)
17. (a) 18. (d) 19. (a) 20. (a) 9. (b) 10. (b) 11. (c) 12. (a)
21. (d) 22. (d) 23. (e) 24. (c) 13. (b) 14. (a) 15. (c) 16. (a)
25. (c) 26. (c) 27. (b) 28. (d) 17. (a) 18. (a) 19. (a) 20. ( a)
29. (a) 30. (b) 21. (b) 22. (a) 23. (a) 24. (c)
25. (a) 26. (a) 27. (b) 28. (a)
SPEED TEST 75 29. (a) 30. (e)
1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (d) 4. (c) SPEED TEST 80

5. (d) 6. (b) 7. (c) 8. (c)
9. (b) 10. (d) 11. (b) 12. (c) 1. (e) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (d)
13. (c) 14. (c) 15. (d) 16. (a) 5. (a) 6. (e) 7. (d) 8. (c)
17. (b) 18. (e) 19. (c) 20. (e) 9. (c) 10. (a) 11. (c) 12. (c)
21. (c) 22. (e) 23. (a) 24. (d) 13. (c) 14. (a) 15. (d) 16. (b)
25. (e) 26. (a) 27. (c) 28. (b) 17. (d) 18. (c) 19. (b) 20. (a)
29. (c) 30. (b) 31. (a) 32. (c) 21. (d) 22. (b) 23. (b) 24. (c)
25. (a) 26. (c) 27. (e) 28. (e)
SPEED TEST 76
29. (d) 30. (c) 31. (e) 32. (c)
33. (b) 34. (d) 35. (d) 36. (d)
1. (e) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (c)
5. (a) 6. (a) 7. (d) 8. (b) 37. (a) 38. (c) 39. (b) 40. (d)
9. (b) 10. (b) 11. (c) 12. (a)
13. (b) 14. (d) 15. (c) 16. (b)
17. (a) 18. (a) 19. (c) 20. (a)
21. (a) 22. (c) 23. (a) 24. (e)
25. (d) 26. (c) 27. (d) 28. (d)
29. (a) 30. (b)
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SOLUTIONS 81
b
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SPEED TEST 81
b
SPEED TEST 83
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1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (b) 6. (c) 1. (c) They have risk diversification Due to small size and
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due to unit structure; the decision making in unit banks
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7. (d) 8. (c) 9. (c) 10. (c) 11. (d) 12. (b)
is very fast. The management in unit banks enjoy more
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13. (d) 14. (d) 15. (b) 16. (d) 17. (a) 18. (c)
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autonomy and more discretionary powers. However,
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19. (b) 20. (a) 21. (c) 22. (d) 23. (d) 24. (d) due to single units, the risk is not distributed or
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diversified.
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25. (b) 26. (c) 27. (b) 28. (a) 29. (d) 30. (b)
2. (a) when banks undertake the activities of commercial and
investment banking together
SPEED TEST 82
3. (d)
4. (b) Relationship banking is a banking system in which
1. (a) On the recommendation of Deepak Mohanti Committee banks make deliberate efforts to understand customer
the Base Rate System introduced in July 2010. needs and offer him products accordingly.
2. (a) 5. (a) Universal banking is a one-stop shop of financial
3. (c) The accounting year of RBI starts the month between products and services. The Industrial Credit and
July-June. Investment Corporation of India Limited (ICICI) is the
4. (a) In Article-30, RBI permitted to the co-operative Bank first financial institution of India that adopted the
for special account supervision. Universal banking system. It was set up in January
1955 as a joint stock company with support from the
5. (a) 6. (c) 7. (d)
Government of India, the World Bank, the
8. (a) 9. (d) 10. (a) Commonwealth Development Finance Corporation, and
11. (c) Open market operations of RBI refers to trading in other foreign institutions.
securities. 6. (a) When there is a direct execution of transactions between
12. (b) Monetary policy in India is formulated and implemented a bank and its consumers, rather than with corporations
by RBI. or other banks, then this type of banking system is
13. (a) Reserve Bank of India follows minimum reserve system known as Retail banking.
for the issuing of currency. 7. (a) 8. (c) 9. (d)
10. (b) 11. (a) 12. (d)
14. (b) RBI controls credit creation by the Commercial Bank in
India. 13. (c) To provide basic banking services to bankless villages
14. (b) 15. (b) 16. (d) 17. (a)
15. (b) Note issuing department of RBI should always possess
18. (d) 19. (a) 20. (a)
the minimum gold stock worth ` 115 crore.
21. (a) RBI has given nod to Muthoot Finance to set up White
16. (b) RBI and CSO in India is entrusted with the collection of Label ATMs .ATMs set up and run by non-banking
data of capital formation. entities are called White Label ATMs (WLAs) .
17. (c) The Bank rate is the rate at which RBI gives credit to
the commercial Banks. SPEED TEST 84
18. (b) An increase in CRR by the RBI results in reduction in
liquidity in the economy. 1. (e) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (e) 5. (a) 6. (b)
19. (c) Commercial Banks provide the largest-credit to 7. (a) 8. (a) 9. (c) 10. (a) 11. (e) 12. (b)
agriculture and allied sectors. 13. (a) 14. (a) 15. (c) 16. (b) 17. (b) 18. (a)
20. (c) 19. (c) 20. (d) 21. (c) 22. (d) 23. (d) 24. (d)
21. (a) RBI is the custodian of Indias foreign exchange funds. 25. (c) 26. (b) 27. (b) 28. (d) 29. (c) 30. (d)
22. (a) RBI publishes the financial report on currency and
finance. SPEED TEST 85
23. (b) 1. (c) Tertiary sector of Indian economy contributes largest
24. (c) RBI sanctions foreign exchange for the import of goods. to the Gross National Product.
25. (d) There are 4 posts of deputy Governor in Reserve Bank 2. (a) Service sector is the main source of National Income in
of India. India.
26. (d) 27. (b) 28. (b) 3. (d) Toll tax is not a tax levied by the government of India.
29. (d) RBI regulates the external commercial borrowings. 4. (d) The most appropriate measure of a countrys economic
growth is its per capita product.
30. (d) All the statements given above are correct except that,
5. (c) Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEMA) was finally
RBI was established in 1949.
implemented in the year 2002.
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82 101 SPEED TEST
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6. (b) The most common measure of estimating inflation in Infrastructure projects. The Fund is maintained by the
b
India is WPI. National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development
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7. (c) The largest share of Gross Domestic product in India (NABARD). Domestic commercial banks contribute to
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comes from service sector. the fund to the extent of their shortfall in stipulated
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8. (c) LPG was announced as new economic policy by priority sector lending to agriculture.
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Narsimha Rao. 26. (d) The head office of the National Bank for Agriculture
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9. (d) The national income of India is estimated by CSO. and Rural Development (NABARD) is located in
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10. (d) Inflation is increase in the prices of commodities. It is Mumbai. It helps farmers access timely and adequate
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caused due to decrease in supply and increase in credit.
demand of commodities. So when money supply in the 27. (b) Guranteed maximum prices have not been a component
economy increases it means people have more of the agriculture strategy that brought about the Green
purchasing capacity and thus demand increases which Revolution. The strategy aimed at increasing the yield
results in inflation . of crops using fertilizer, pesticides and high yielding
11. (d) varities in agriculture.
12. (c) Finance Ministry formulates the fiscal policy in India. 28. (a) The Committee on Investor Awareness and Protection
13. (b) The devaluation of rupee in India took place twice in chaired by Shri D Swaroop, Chairman, Pension Fund
the financial year 1991-92. Regulatory and Development Authority is associated
14. (c) VAT is imposed on all stages between production and with the financial products marketing.
final sale. 29. (c) CACP was set up in 1985 and recommends for MSP,
15. (c) Balance of payment is used in terms of Exports and issue prices as well as procurement prices.
Imports. 30. (d)
16. (b) The Indian Economy can be described as a developing
economy. SPEED TEST 86
17. (c) The slack season in the Indian economy is Jan- June.
18. (c) The Concurrent List or List-III is a list of 47 items given 1. (d) Capital account is classified into 3 parts in India-
in Part XI of the Constitution of India, concerned with private, banking and official capital.
relations between the Union and States. Economic 2. (c)
planning is specified in Concurrent list. 3. (c) Export Promotion Capital Goods scheme allows import
19. (b) The multi dimensional poverty index of UNDP includes of capital goods, with concessional duty of percent
10 indicators. with export obligation on 8 times the duty saved.
20. (c) Ministry of Finance is responsible for the preparation 4. (a) The investment in productive assets and participation
and publication of Economic Survey. in management as stake holders in business enterprises
21. (a) The Third Five-Year Plan is also called Gadgil Yojana. is foreign direct investment.
The aim of this plan was to make the economy 5. (b) The portfolio investment by foreign institutional
independent and to reach self active take off position. investors is called foreign institutional investment.
It was named after the then deputy chairman of the 6. (b) 7. (d) 8. (c) 9. (c)
Planning Commission Dr. D R Gadgil. 10. (b) Fruits and palm oils are exported to India by arid and
22. (a) The Rolling Plan for backward countries was semi-arid countries in the Middle East.
suggested by Gunnar Myrdal. He was a Swedish Nobel 11. (b) The export promotion scheme that enables the past
Laureate, economist, sociologist, and politician. export replenishment of duty on inputs used in the
23. (b) Rural hospitals are not covered under the Bharat export product is Duty remission scheme.
Nirman. Bharat Nirman is an Indian business plan for 12. (a) Canada has replaced Italy as the importer of bauxite
creating basic rural infrastructure. It comprises projects from India.
on irrigation, roads (Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak
13. (c) Eco Mark is given to the Indian products for
Yojana), housing (Indira Awaas Yojana), water supply
Environment Friendly purpose.
(National Rural Drinking Water Programme),
electrification (Rajiv Gandhi Grameen Vidyutikaran 14. (b) The Earlier name of WTO was GATT before 1995.
Yojana) and telecommunication connectivity 15. (b) World Development Report is an annual publication of
24. (c) Sustainable development is the development that meets IBRD.
the needs of the present without compromising the 16. (a) India has the maximum volume of foreign trade with
ability of future generations to meet their own needs. USA.
Sustainable development is a case of intergenerational 17. (b) In the last decade, services sector has attracted the
equity in respect of use of natural resources. highest FDI inflows into India.
25. (c) The rural infrastructure fund was set up by the 18. (b) Participatory notes (PNs) are associated with Foreign
Government in 199596 for financing ongoing rural Institutional Investors (FIIs).
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SOLUTIONS 83
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19. (b) The purpose of India Brand Equity Fund to make Made The Swadhar Scheme purports to address the specific
b
in India a label of quality. vulnerability of each of group of women in difficult
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20. (a) A trade policy consists of Export-Import policy. circumstances through a Home-based holistic and
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21. (c) integrated approach.
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Ujjawala is a comprehensive scheme for the prevention
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22. (b) TRIPS and TRIMS are the terms associated with WTO.
of trafficking, rescue and rehabilitation of women and
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23. (c)
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child victims of trafficking for commercial sexual
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24. (b)
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exploitation in India. ICDS is well known. So, except
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25. (a) Tajikisthan and Laos became the new members of WTO. ASIDE, all others have an impact on women
26. (d) There are total 161 members recently in WTO. empowerment.
27. (b) 28. (d) 29. (b) 30. (d) 19. (c) Bringing Green Revolution to Eastern India (BGREI), a
sub-scheme of Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojna (RKVY) is
SPEED TEST 87 being implemented in seven eastern states namely
Assam, Bihar, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, Odisha, West
1. (c) Swabhiman scheme is associated with Rural Banking Bengal and eastern Uttar Pradesh from 2010-2011 to
in India. address the constraints limiting the productivity of rice
based cropping systems. Under this scheme, various
2. (c) The unorganised workers social security Act was activities like cluster demonstrations of improved
passed in 2008. package of practices, assets building, site specific
3. (c) Swadhar scheme launched for the women in difficult activities and marketing support are being undertaken.
circumstances. 20. (c) Accelerated Irrigation Benefits Programme (AIBP)
4. (b) Twenty point Economic programme was first launched provide Central Loan Assistance (CLA) to major/
in 1975. medium irrigation projects in the country, with the
5. (a) The disguished unemployment is 9 prominent feature objective to accelerate the implementation of those
mainly of primary sector. projects which were beyond resource capability of the
6. (a) Golden Quadrangle project is associated with Highways states or were in advanced stage of completion. So, its
development. not about minor irrigation projects or new projects, but
those in advanced state of completion.
7. (d) All the above given statements is the objective of
21. (e) The Government of India constituted the National
National Food security Mission.
Investment Fund (NIF) into which the proceeds from
8. (b) Liberalization of Economy is not a measure of reducing disinvestment of Central Public Sector Enterprises were
inequalities. to be channelized. The corpus of the fund was to be of
9. (a) Valmiki Awas Yojana subsumed Integrated Housing permanent nature and the same was to be
and slum development programme. professionally managed in order to provide sustainable
10. (c) Poverty level in India is established on the basis of returns to the Government, without depleting the
house hold consumer expenditure. corpus. NIF was to be maintained outside the
11. (b) Nirmal Bharat Abhiyan Yojana is associated with Consolidated Fund of India. Earlier 75% of the annual
community toilets in slum areas. income of the Fund was used to finance selected social
sector schemes.
12. (c) Crop Insurance scheme in India was started in 1985.
But this was later changed. Now NIF donot finance
13. (b) National Rural Health Mission was launched on 2005. social sector schemes. Hence none is the correct
14. (c) ICDS programme focused on the age group of children answer. Now, money from the NIF is used for
upto 6 years. 22. (c) The aim of the 'green energy corridor' project to facilitate
15. (c) According to the Human development report by UNDP the flow of renewable energy into the national grid.
the Ranking of India is 136th in the world. The 'green energy corridor' is aimed at synchronizing
16. (c) electricity produced from renewable sources, such as
solar and wind, with conventional power stations in
17. (d) The National Food Security Mission (NFSM) during
the grid.
the 12th Five Year Plan will have five components (i)
NFSM- Rice; (ii) NFSM-Wheat; (iii) NFSM-Pulses, (iv) 23. (d) The National Heritage Development and Augmentation
NFSM-Coarse cereals and (v) NFSM-Commercial Yojana (HRIDAY) seeks to preserve and rejuvenate
the rich cultural heritage of the country. HRIDAY seeks
18. (b) ASIDE - Assistance to States for Developing Export
to promote an integrated, inclusive and sustainable
Infrastructure and other Allied Activities. The objective
development of heritage sites, focusing not just on
of the scheme is to involve the states in the export
maintenance of monuments but on advancement of the
effort by providing financial assistance for the creation
entire ecosystem including its citizens, tourists and
of critical infrastructure for the development and growth
local businesses.
of exports.
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84 101 SPEED TEST
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24. (d) State through concerted community action under the
b
leadership of Local Self Governments. It is built
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25. (a) To empower gram panchayats, the Telangana Chief
around three critical components - 1. micro credit,
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Minister Mr. K. Chandrasekhar Rao launched a flagship
rd
programme "Grama Jyothi" at Gangadevipally, a village 2. entrepreneurship and 3. empowerment. The
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in Warangal district. The purpose of the scheme is to Kudumbashree initiative has succeeded in addressing
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the basic needs of the less privileged women, thus
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strengthen villages in areas viz. water and sanitation,
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providing them a more dignified life and a better future.
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health and nutrition, education, social security and
Literal meaning of Kudumbashree is prosperity (shree)
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poverty eradication, natural resources management,
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agriculture and infrastructure. It will ensure inclusive of family (Kudumbam).
and holistic development of villages through people's
participation in planning and collective decision- SPEED TEST 88
making. Each village will be allocated Rs.2 crore to Rs.6
crore depending on their population. 1. (c) Union Ministry of Human Resource Development on 2
March 2015 appointed Baldev Sharma as chairman of
26. (d) On 69th Independence Day, Prime Minister Mr.
National Book Trust (NBT). He is a former Panchajanya
Narendra Modi announced a new campaign "Start-up
editor. He replaced A. Sethumadhavan
India, Stand up India" to encourage entrepreneurship
among the youth of India. The campaign will also 2. (d) Kshatrapati Shivaji was on 27 February 2015 appointed
promote bank financing for start-ups and offer as the chairman and Managing Director (MD) of Small
incentives to boost entrepreneurship and job creation. Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI). Shivaji
was appointed on deputation basis for a period of three
27. (d) To improve credit and minimising the political years. Shivaji, a 1986 batch IAS officer, is currently the
interference in the functioning of Public Sector Banks principal secretary Finance Department in Maharashtra
(PSBs), the Union Finance Minister Mr. Arun Jaitley government.
has launched a seven pronged plan called
Indradhanush Mission. The seven shades of 3. (c) Eminent scientist Tapan Mishra was on 20 February
Indradhanush mission viz. appointments, de-stressing 2015 appointed as th e chief of ISROs Space
PSBs, capitalisation, empowerment, framework of Applications Centre (SAC) at Ahmedabad, Gujarat. He
accountability and governance reforms in PSBs. The succeeded A. S. Kiran Kumar, who was appointed as
plan includes a capital infusion of ` 20,000-crore and chairman of the Indian Space Reaserch Organization
also hiring private sector executives for the first time to (ISRO) on 12 January 2015. Tapan Mishra was lead
run public sector lenders. designer for the development of C-band Synthetic
Aperture Radar (SAR) of Indias RISAT-1 He also led
28. (a) The Direct Benefit Transfer for LPG (DBTL) or Pahal the development of scatterometer payload of Ocean
Scheme has been acknowledged by the Guinness Book sat-2 satellite that was launched in 2009.
of World Records for being the largest cash transfer
4. (c) Naveen Chopra was appointed as the chief operating
program (households).Till date, 13.9 crore LPG
officer of Vodafone India. He succeeded Sunil Sood
consumers have joined the PAHAL scheme. The
who was elevated to post of Managing Director and
consumers who joined the PAHAL scheme will get the
Chief Executive officer in the company.
LPG cylinders at market price and receive LPG subsidy
(as per their entitlement) directly into their bank 5. (a) Indian origin Lawyer Kannan Ramesh was on 27
accounts. The Pahal Scheme was launched in 54 February 2015 appointed as Judicial Commissioner to
districts on November 15, 2014 and in remaining districts Singapores Supreme Court bench. He will serve the
of the country from January 1, 2015. office for two years. As a lawyer Ramesh specializes in
legal cases related to insolvency and restructuring
29. (b) Ministry of Rural Development The Union Minister of dispute resolution, and international arbitration.
Rural Development, Mr. Birender Singh Chaudhary
launched the web portal 'SAMANVAY' to monitor 6. (a) The CIC of India is Sushma Singh.
progress and implementation of the Sansad Adarsh 7. (a) H.L. Datta appointed as the Chief Justice of Supreme
Gram Yojana (SAGY) for development of Gram Court of India.
Panchayats.The purpose of this portal is to help 8. (b) Susane Rice is the National Security Advisor of the
Member of Parliament's (MPs) to utilise relevant US.
schemes in the planning and implementation of SAGY. 9. (b)
Beside, the web portal, 'Panchayat Darpan' magazine
10. (d) Former Cabinet secretary Ajit Kumar Seth has been
also launched to monitor the progress of the SAGY. It
appointed as the Chairman of the Public Enterprises
will act as a mirror of all the development activities in
Selection Board (PESB). He replaces Atul Chadurvedi.
the village panchayats.
Ajit Kumar Seth, a 1974-batch IAS officer of Uttar
30. (c) Kudumbashree was launched by the Government of
Pradesh cadre, completed his extended tenure of four
Kerala in 1998 for wiping out absolute poverty from the
years at the Cabinet secretariat on June 2015.
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SOLUTIONS 85
b
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11. (a) Rakesh Sahni has been appointed as Chairman of 2. (b) Only 2 & 3
b
Narmada Valley Development Authority on July 14,
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3. (a) Poland will host the 2016 NATO Summit. NATO is a
2015. Sahni retired as an IAS officer after serving the summit meeting that is regarded as a periodic
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post of Chief Secretary of States. However, post opportinity for Heads of state and Heads of Goverment
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retirement, he served as the Chairman of MP Electricity of NATO countries.
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Regulatory Commission. 4. (a) The G4 nations include India, Brazil, Germany and
s
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12. (b) Mr. Om Prakash Rawat, a former Madhya Pradesh cadre
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Japan.
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IAS officer, has been appointed as the new Election 5. (b) The African Union is a union consisting of 54 African
m
Commissioner of India. Mr. Nasim Zaidi is the current states. The only all-African state not in the AU is
Chief Election Commissioner and Election Commissioner Morocco. Morocco left AUs predecessor, the
other than Mr. Om Prakash Rawa is Mr. Achal Kumar Organisation of African Unity in 1984, when majority
Jyoti. of the member countries supported the Sahrawi Arab
13. (b) Former Indian Cricketer Saurav Ganguly appointed as Democratic Republic, resulting on SADR admission to
the social ambassador of Beverage Maker Coca Cola the AU.
India and signed a 3-year contract uptil 2017. Under his 6. (a) National Integration Council set up in early 1960s by
contract's stipulations, in addition to cricket association, Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru, the NIC held its first
Ganguly will lead Coca-Cola's football programmers and meeting in 1962. Currently chaired by Prime Minister
run various football activities. He replaced Sachin Manmohan Singh, the NIC has 147 members including
Tendulkar who's contract ended in 2014. Coca Cola is Union Ministers, leaders of Opposition in the Lok
the official partner of FIFA Under 17 World Cup football Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, Chief Ministers of all the
in 2017. States and Union Territories with Legislature.
14. (c) Mr. Ram Nath Kovind has been appointed as the 7. (b) The Group of 15 (G-15) is an informal forum set up to
Governor of Bihar. He succeeded Governor of West foster cooperation and provide input for other
Bengal Mr. Keshri Nath Tripathi, who was holding an international groups, such as the World Trade
additional charge of Bihar. Organization and the Group of Eight. It was established
15. (c) Ashwini Nachappa is the chairman of the eight-member at the Ninth Non-Aligned Movement Summit Meeting
committee formed by sports ministry to study the status in Belgrade, Yugoslavia, in September 1989, and is
of the Sports Authority of India training centres around composed of countries from Latin America, Africa, and
the country and recommend measures for their smooth Asia with a common goal of enhanced growth and
running. (SAI). The committee comprises Ashwini prosperity. The G-15 focuses on cooperation among
Nachappa (chairperson), Gopi Chand, Jaspal Sandhu, developing countries in the areas of investment, trade,
Malav Shroff, Bhogeshwar and technology. Membership has since expanded to
Barua, K.P. Mohan, Baldev Singh and Neena P. Nayak. 18 countries, but the name has remained unchanged.
Committee has been asked to visit at least a couple of Chile, Iran and Kenya have since joined the Group of
centres in each region, study the issues involved and 15, whereas Yugoslavia is no longer part of the group;
give their recommendations. The committee has to Peru, a founding member-state, decided to leave the G-
submit its report to the government within three months. 15 in 2011.
16. (d) Arun Shrivastava has assumed charge as managing 8. (d) The Southern African Customs Union (SACU) consists
director and chief executive officer of Syndicate Bank of Botswana, Lesotho, South Africa and Swaziland. The
on May 15. Prior to joining the Bank, Arun was executive SACU secretariat is located in Windhoek, Namibia.
director of Bank of India, looking after finance, strategy SACU was established in 1910, making it worlds oldest
and planning, large corporate and mid corporate custom union.
business, corporate debt restructuring, project finance 9. (d) Stanbul was the venue for G-20 ministerial meeting 2015.
and syndication, credit monitoring and asset recovery, 10. (d) Group of Seven (G7), international organization officially
publicity and public relations portfolios of Bank. established in 1985 to facilitate economic cooperation
17. (a) 18. (c) 19. (d) 20. (e) 21. (a) 22. (b) among the world's largest industrial nations; summit
23. (c) 24. (d) 25. (e) 26. (b) 27. (a) 28. (c) meetings of the member nations began in 1975.
29. (d) 30. (e) Members are Canada, France, Germany, Great Britain,
Italy, Japan, and the United States.
SPEED TEST 89 11. (a)
12. (d) Located on the Place de Fontenoy, in Paris, the main
1. (c) The 11th WTO ministerial conference will be held in building which houses the Headquarters of UNESCO
Nairobi, Kengs from December 15-18. The ministerial was inaugurated on 3 November 1958. The Y-shaped
conference is the highest decision making body of the design was invented by three architects of different
159 member WTO which meet at least once in every nationalities under the direction of an international
two years. committee.
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86 101 SPEED TEST
b
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13. (b) The United Nations Conference on Trade and 2. (d) The Jnanpith award is a literary award which along
b
Development (UNCTAD) was established in 1964 as a with the Sahitya Akademi Fellowship is one of the two
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permanent intergovernmental body.UNCTAD is the most prestigious literary honours in the country. The
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principal organ of the United Nations General Assembly award was instituted in 1961. Any Indian citizen who
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dealing with trade, investment, and development issues. writes in any of the official languages of India is eligible
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The organization's goals are to: "maximize the trade, for the honour.
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investment and development opportunities of 3. (a) The Bimal Roy Memorial Society has been conferring
.c
developing countries and assist them in their efforts to Bimal Roy Memorial Emerging Talent awards to honours
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integrate into the world economy on an equitable emerging talents from the Indian film industry including
basis."The primary objective of UNCTAD is to formulate artist, technicians, directors, musicians etc. Film Maker
policies relating to all aspects of development including Shivendra Singh Dungarpur has been selected for this
trade, aid, transport, finance and technology. The years award. Post recipients of the awards include
conference ordinarily meets once in four years; the Ritupprno Ghosh, Ashutosh Gowarikar, Shoojit Sircar
permanent secretariat is in Geneva. among others.
4. (b) Dronacharya award is an award presented by the
14. (b) Moscia and Ufa, Russia the venue for the BRICS government of India for excellence in sports coaching.
Business Council 2015. The award comprises bronze statue of Dronacharya, a
15. (b) The General Assembly is located at United Nations scroll of honour and a cash component of ` 500,000.
Headquarters in New York. The United Nations General The award was instituted in 1985. The last recipient of
Assembly is one of the six principalorgans of the United the award is Raj Singh for wrestling in the year 2014.
Nations and the only one in which all member nations 5. (b) The Vishvakarma Rashtriya puraskar and National
have equal representation. Its powers are to oversee Safety awards scheme was launched in 1965 by ministry
the budget of the United Nations, appoint the non- of labour to motivate the brilliant workers and industrial
permanent members to the Security Council, receive units who deliver their best to curb mishaps and
reports from other parts of the United Nations and make increase in the industrial (occupational) safety measures
recommendations in the form of General Assembly and work for the promotion of the interests of both the
Resolutions. It has also established a wide number management and labour.
ofsubsidiary organs. 6. (c) The Saraswati Samman is an annual award for
16. (a) outstanding prose or poetry literary works in any Indian
language. It was instituted in 1991 by the K. K. Birla
17. (c) Foundation. The award contains ` 10 lakh, a citation
18. (d) The 26th ASEAN summit will be held in Langkawi, Kuala and a plaque. Candidates are selected from literary works
Lumpur. published in the previous ten years by a panel that
19. (d) includes scholars and former award winners.
7. (a)
20. (a) The G-20 Summiti organised in Brisbane, Australia.
8. (b) The Param Vir Chakra is Indias highest military
21. (d) The 41st G-8 summit Elmau, Germany on June7-8, 2015. decoration awarded for the highest degree of valour or
22. (a) Azerbaijan and Fiji became the new members of NAM. self-sacrifice in the presence of the enemy. It can be
23. (b) The NATO summit 2016 will be held in Warshaw, awarded to officers or enlisted personnel from all
Poland. branches of the Indian military and can be, and often
has been, awarded posthumously.
24. (a) The 45rd WEF meeting held in Switzerland. 9. (b) In order to recognize a scientist, who provides a
25. (a) breakthrough for agriculture through a new insight that
26. (c) UNcommission on the status of women held in Beijing. has created high potential value for the future, the
27. (d) There are 10 members associated with BIMSTEC. Norman Borlaug Award has been constituted. The
nominations for the awards are for a scientist(s) of any
28. (c) The Asian Development Bank (ADB) 2015 meeting held discipline of agricultural and allied sciences. The award
from 1-3 May, 2015. would be of ` 10 lakh in cash.
29. (a) India will chair the BRICS Summit from February 2016 10. (a) The Appan Menon Memorial Award consisting of a
to December 2016. grant of ` 1 lakh is given each year to a professional
30. (b) The third commit in rotation banks scheduled to be journalist working in the area of world affairs or
held in New Delhi, India from 26-30 of 2015. development news with an Indian perspective.
11. (b)
SPEED TEST 90 12. (a) National Bravery award also known as Bharat Puraskar
for Indian Children is given each year by Government
1. (b) The former secretary of US, Hilary Clinton has been of India and Indian Council for Child Welfare (ICCW)
to Indian children for meritorious acts of bravery against
conferred Elton John AIDS Foundations first ever award
all odds. The award is given to around 24 children below
for her effort to spread awareness about HIV/AIDS.
the age of 16.
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SOLUTIONS 87
b
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13. (a) Tansen Samman is conferred in the field of music which 29. (b) Merlin award is given to the Magicians who contribute
b
carries a cash prize of ` 2 lakh and a citation. significantly in the stage magic shows and creation of
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14. (b) Dhyan Chand award is Indias highest award for lifetime magic in the world. This award was created by Tony
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achievement in sports and games. The award is named Hassini and his International Magicians Society.
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after the legendary Indian hockey player Dhyan Chand 30. (d) Right Livelihood prize is considered to be the
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and was initiated in 2002. The award carries a cash alternative to Nobel prize. This is also an annual prize
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prize of ` 5 lakh, a plaque and a scroll of honour. which is given to individuals who have done something
.c
15. (a) exemplary to solve some of the most pressing issues in
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16. (b) The Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar award for Science and the world.
Technology (SSB) is an award in India given annually
by the CSIR. It is named after the founder Director of SPEED TEST 91
the CSIR and carries an award money of ` 5 lakh each.
17. (a) 1. (c) The book presents the booming maintenance of the
18. (a) Bidhan Chandra Roy Award was instituted in 1976 in worlds largest democracy and achievements of India
memory of B. C. Roy by Medical Council of India. The since independence.
Award is given annually in th e categories of 2. (d) Ambedkar Speaks (Trilogy) is authored by Dr. Narendra
Statesmanship of the Highest Order in India, Medical Jadhav.It is an attempt to develop a comprehensive
man-cum-Statesman, Eminent Medical Person, Eminent bibliography on the speeches delivered by Ambedkar.
person in Philosophy and Eminent person in Arts. It is 3. (c)
presented by President of India in New Delhi on July 1, 4. (b) 'What Young India Wants' is the only non-fiction book
the National Doctors Day. by Chetan Bhagat, author of five novels. It is a
19. (a) Pampa Prashasti is the highest literary honour conferred compilation of his speeches and essays. It has various
by the Karnataka government on a litterateur for his/ topics ranging from Indian society, Indian politics and
her lifetime contribution to Kannada literature. The young Indians.
award is named after Adikavi Pampa of 10th Century. 5. (d) Vijay Seshadri ; It won the 2014 Pulitzer Prize for poetry.
The award carries award money of ` 3 lakh and a 6. (d) Tamal Bandyopadhyay ;"Sahara: the untold story"
citation. details the beginnings and the current day working of
20. (a) The Maha Vir Chakra is the second military decoration the secretive Sahara India Parivar.
in India and is awarded for acts of conspicuous 7. (a) 8. (b)
gallantry in the presence of the enemy, whether on land, 9. (d) A pictorial coffee table book by Alam Srinivas was
at sea or in the air. The medal may be awarded launched on 24 June 2013 in Mumbai by former Bombay
posthumously. High Court Chief Justice C S Dharmadhikari.
21. (a) The Academy award is also known as the Oscar award 10. (d) Kiran Desai ;The Inheritance of Loss won the 2006
which is presented for various categories in the Film Man Booker Prize and the National Book Critics Circle
industry. It was first given in 1929. Fiction Award.
22. (a) The Pulitzer Prize is a U.S. award for achievements in 11. (b) 12. (a) 13. (b)
newspaper and online journalism, literature, and musical
14. (a) 15. (d) 16. (d)
composition. It was established in 1917 and
17. (a)
administered by Columbia University in New York City
by provisions in the will of American publisher Joseph 18. (b) Anand Math is a 1952 Hindi patriotic-historical film
Pulitzer. directed by Hemen Gupta, based on Anandamath,
the famous Bengali novel written by Bankim Chandra
23. (b) (a) The Kalinga Prize for popularization of Science is an
Chattopadhyay in 1882. The novel and film are set in
international distinction instituted by UNESCO. It was
the events of the Sannyasi Rebellion, which took place
started in 1951 by donation from Mr Bijoyanand Patnaik,
in the late 18th century in eastern India, especially
founder and president of the Kalinga Foundation Trust in
Bengal.
India.
19. (b) 20. (b) 21. (b)
24. (a) The World Economic Forum gives Crystal award to
those artists who have improved the state of the world 22. (c) 23. (c) 24. (b)
through their art. 25. (b)
25. (a) 26. (c) 27. (a) 26. (a) The Vice President of India Shri M. Hamid Ansari
28. (d) Ramon Magsaysay award is given annually to those released a book titled India and Malaysia: Interwined
Asian people who have contributed extraordinary Strands authored by former diplomat Smt Veena Sikri.
service in their respective fields. This award is given The book offers a panoramic yet in-depth historical
by Philippine in the memoir of Philippine President analysis of the inter-linkages between India and
Ramon Magsaysay. He is considered to be one of the Malaysia, which are a microcosm of the much larger
great examples of integrity, courage, and idealistic relationship between South Asia and South East Asia,
democrat. as these have evolved more than two millennia.
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88 101 SPEED TEST
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27. (d) The Global Competitiveness Report is a yearly report 14. (a) The Dronacharya award is presented by Indian
b
published by the World Economic Forum. The report Government to people showing excellence in sports
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assesses the ability of countries to provide high levels coaching. B.I. Fernandez is the first foreign Coach who
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of prosperity to their citizens. This in turn depends on was awarded by Dronacharya Award in 2012.
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how productively a country uses available resources. 15. (b)
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Since 2010, Switzerland has led the ranking as the most 16. (a) The Sultan Azlan Shah Cup is an annual international
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competitive economy in the world India is at 60th
.c
mens field hockey tournament held in Malaysia.
position.
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17. (c)
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28. (d) Vikram Seth ;It was published in 1993. 18. (c) LBW or Leg Before Wicket is a term used in cricket to
29. (a) Anita Desai ;It is the winner of the Sahitya Akademi denote a criterion for a wicket to become out.
Award. 19. (d) The Duleep Trophy is a domestic first-class cricket
30. (c) competition played in India between teams representing
geographical zones of India. The competition is named
SPEED TEST 92 after Kumar Shri Duleepsinhji.
20 (b) The Marquess of Queensberry rules is a code of
1. (b) In golf, a caddy or caddie is the person who handles a generally accepted rules in the sport of boxing.
golf players bag and clubs, and gives also some 21. (c) 22. (a)
insightful advice and moral support to him. 23. (d) In chess the fianchetto is a pattern of development
2. (c) The ICC Champions Trophy is a One Day International wherein a bishop is developed to the second rank of
(ODI) cricket tournament organised by the International the adjacent knight file, the knight pawn having been
Cricket Council (ICC). It is second in importance only moved one or two squares forward.
to the Cricket World Cup. 24. (b) Charminar Challenge Cup, Rohinton Baria Trophy and
3. (c) Duleep Trophy are associated with cricket while the
4. (a) The four Grand Slam tournaments, also called Majors, Thomas Cup is associated with badminton.
are the most important annual tennis events. The Grand 25. (c)
Slam itinerary consists of the Australian Open in mid 26. (a) The Olympic Games were a series of athletic
January, the French Open in May/June, Wimbledon in competitions among representatives of city-states and
June/July, and the US Open in August/September. one of the Panhellenic Games of Ancient Greece. They
5. (d) Subroto Cup Football Tournament is an inter-school were held in honor of Zeus, and the Greeks gave them
football tournament in India, named after the Indian Air a mythological origin. The first Olympics is traditionally
Force Air Marshal Subroto Mukerjee. Subroto Cup is dated to 776 BC.
conducted by the Indian Air Force, with support from 27. (a) Indira Gandhi gold cup is associated with hockey while
Indias Ministry of Youth Affairs & Sports. Indira Gandhi cup is associated with Boxing.
6. (a) A Gambit is a term associated with the game of Chess. 28. (d)
Gambit is a chess opening in which a player sacrifices 29. (d) Dodge, Goal line, through pass, are some terms
material, usually a pawn, with the hope of achieving a associated with the game of Hockey.
resulting advantageous position. 30. (b)
7. (a) The term ashes is associated with cricket.
8 (a) National Sports Day is celebrated on 29th August in SPEED TEST 93
the memory of the great hockey player Major Dhyan
Chand. 1. (c) The second edition of National Biodiversity Conference
9. (c) FINA or Fdration Internationale de Natation or will be held in Kerala in February 2015.
International Swimming Federation is the International 2. (b) The exercise aimed at building and promoting positive
Federation (IF) recognized by the International Olympic military to military relations between the armies of India
Committee (IOC) for administering international and Indonesia. It included sharing of experience in
competition in Aquatics. counter terrorism and conduct of joint counter
10. (d) Ranji Trophy is associated with cricket and not football. insurgency training.
The Ranji Trophy is a domestic first-class cricket 3. (b) With an aim of avoiding a repeat of the 2004 catastrophe,
championship played in India. The competition is India is building Tsunami warning device in the South
named after England and Sussex cricketer Kumar Shri China Sea, which is likely to operate in the next 10
Ranjitsinhji. months.
11. (b) China man is a left-arm unorthodox spin bowling in 4. (c) According to the Indian government, 27 Indian
cricket, Hook and Pull are two specific styles of batting. satellites are currently operational. Out of these, 11 are
12. (b) communication satellites, 12 are earth observation
13. (a) Shooting satellites, 3 are navigational satellites and 1 is MOM.
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SOLUTIONS 89
b
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5. (b) Thirty-Metre Telescope is located in the Hawaii islands decided to name it "Mount Nalini" to salute her efforts
b
of the USA. to inculcate the thrill of mountaineering in youngsters
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6. (b) The first gun of the world made out of 3D printer since 1970.
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technology was fired successfully in US. It is available 27. (d) ISRO's Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV) C-28
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at 8000 US Dollars. successfully put five satellites of United Kingdom into
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7. (a) SMAP (Soil Moisture Active Passive) Satellite is a three- designated orbits. For this mission, ISRO had used high-
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end XL version of PSLV as it was its biggest and
.c
year mission which will measure the amount of moisture
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in soil. It will help to monitor drought, predict floods, heaviest commercial launch with overall lift-off mass of
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assist crop productivity, weather forecasting and all 5 satellites was 1,440 kg.
linking water, energy and carbon cycles. 28. (b) Nuclear power generation in India is currently at 5,780
8. (b) A light-year is a unit of distance. It is the distance that MW from 21 operational reactors. This capacity is
light can travel in one year. Light moves at a velocity of expected to increase to 10,080 MW on progressive
about 300,000 kilometers (km) each second. So in one completion of projects under commissioning/
year, it can travel about 10 trillion km. construction by 2019, according to the government.
9. (c) Idukki district of Kerala has become first district in India 29. (c) India already has one nuclear fuel complex at
to have high speed Rural Broadband Network i.e. Hyderabad. Another nuclear fuel complex is coming up
National Optical Fibre Network (NOFN) Internet in Kota in Rajasthan.
connectivity. NOFN is the largest rural connectivity 30. (b) Microsoft has been developing White-fi technology.
project of its kind in the world. White-fi is a term being used to describe the use of a
10. (d) The 102nd session of Indian National Congress was Wi-Fi technology within the TV unused spectrum, or
held at Mumbai University. The theme was Science TV white space.
and Technology for Human Development.
11. (b) The theme of the Indian Science congress 2015 is SPEED TEST 94
Science and Technology for Human development.
12. (a) Vasant Gowrikar was a space veteran and eminent 1. (d) These 11 entities/Individuals are Aditya Birla Nuvo,
scientist. He was the chief of Indian Space Research Airtel M Commerce Services, Cholamandalam
Organisation in 1991-1993. His contribution to Indian Distribution Services, Department of Posts, Fino
space technology is immeasurable. Gowrikar was the PayTech, National Securities Depository Ltd (NSDL),
recipient of Padma Shri in 1984 and Padma Bhushan in Reliance Industries, Tech Mahindra, Vodafone m-pesa
2008. (Entities) and Dilip Shanghvi and Vijay S. Sharma
13. (b) Chilli India is the world's largest producer, consumer (Individuals)
and exporter of chilies in the world. India also has the 2. (d) Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC) has launched
largest area under chilies in the world. Chilies are the its maiden unit linked insurance plan (ULIP) product
most common spice cultivated in India. Indian Chilli is across the country. It provides dual benefits of risk
mainly exported to USA, Sri Lanka, Bangladesh, the cover and investment opportunity in market to the
Middle East and the Far East. policy holder and also provides option of partial
14. (a) July 23 Every year July 23 is observed as National withdrawal under this plan.
Broadcasting day. On this day in 1927, Indian 3. (a) Industrial Development Bank of India (IDBI) has
Broadcasting Company (IBC) began organized radio appointed Kishor Piraji Kharat as its new Managing
broadcasting from Bombay station. In India, radio Director & Chief Executive Officer. He had earlier
broadcasting began during the British rule in 1923 under assumed post of executive director of Union Bank of
the imitative of the Radio Club of Bombay. India
15. (c) Union Government has launched GPS-Aided Geo 4. (d) On 17 August the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) suspends
Augmented Navigation (GAGAN) system, for aviation licence of seven non-banking finance companies
navigation. It is jointly developed by Indian Space (NBFCs).It includes Religare Finance, Artisans Micro
Research Organisation (ISRO) and Airports Authority Finance, Eden Trade & Commerce, RCS Parivar Finance,
of India (AAI). It will provide augmentation service for Nott Investments, Dewra Stocks & Securities, Swetasree
GPS over the India, Bay of Bengal, South-east Asia Finance.
and Middle East along with expansion up to Africa.
5. (a) The government in the Budget for 2015-16 proposed to
16. (d) 17. (d) 18. (a) 19. (a) 20. (b) 21. (c)
implement interest subvention scheme in the 2015-16
22. (a) 23. (a) 24. (a) 25. (b)
fiscal for short-term crop loans up to 3 lakh rupees.
26. (d) Ms. Nalini Sengupta, a veteran mountaineer, will have
the honour of a Himalayan peak 5260 named after her. 6. (a) The two funds were launched by Union Finance
This was announced by the trekkers of the Giripremi Minister Arun Jaitley. The total corpus for India
Mountaineering Institute after they conquered Peak Aspiration Fund (IAF) is Rs. 2,000 crore while the corpus
5260 in the Hamta Pass region of the Himalayas and for SMILE fund is Rs. 10,000 crore.
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90 101 SPEED TEST
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7. (b) The scheme is new home loan proposition of the bank 19. (a) MGNREGA India's rural employment guarantee
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with special interest rate to cater people from rural areas programme, the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural
including women borrowers as well as from weaker Employment Guarantee Scheme (MGNREGA), has been
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sections. ranked as the world's largest public works one, a World
p
Bank report said. MGNREGA is providing social security
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8. (b) The basic purpose of capital infusion is to adequately
net to almost 15 per cent of the country's population.
s
capitalise all the banks to keep a safe buffer over and
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above the minimum norms of Basel III. India's mid-day meal scheme has been classified as
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biggest school feeding programme, benefitting 105
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9. (a) Kotak Bharat" is the 'inclusive digital banking' app
million beneficiaries. The World Bank ranked the Janani
launched by KMB that is primarily targetted to benefit
Suraksha Yojna with 78 million beneficiaries as the top-
customers in the under-banked and un-banked regions,
most social security programme with conditional cash
who can access its services in their preferred language.
transfers. Also, it ranked the Indira Gandhi National
10. (c) EPFO's investment in equities is being routed through Old Age Pension Scheme as the second-largest
exchange traded funds (ETFs) managed by SBI Mutual unconditional cash transfer social security progamme
Fund. To start with, EPFO will invest 75% in SBI Nifty in the world.
ETF and 25% in SBI Sensex ETF.
20. (a) 21. (d) 22. (c) 23. (c) 24. (c) 25. (a)
11. (b)
26. (c) 27. (b) 28. (a) 29. (d) 30. (a)
12. (a) The BBB will be a body of 'eminent' professionals and
shall consist of only one government official. It will be
SPEED TEST 95
six members body with at least 3 former bankers, 2
professionals and secretary, department of financial
services representing government. 1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (a) 6. (a)
13. (c) Axis Bank has launched the first Contactless Debit, 7. (c) 8. (b) 9. (b) 10. (b) 11. (d) 12. (a)
Credit and Multi-Currency Forex Card in association 13. (b) 14. (a) 15. (b) 16. (a) 17. (b) 18. (a)
with VISA payWave in the country. Axis Bank will offer
19. (b) 20. (a) 21. (a) 22. (a) 23. (b) 24. (b)
a contactless debit/credit cards to its 1.7 million premium
customers which also enables withdrawal of 15 25. (b) 26. (a) 27. (a) 28. (b) 29. (d) 30. (b)
currencies via Multi-Currency Forex facility.
14. (b) SPEED TEST 96
15. (a) Announcement was done by the HSBC chairman in a
Ficci event held on 3 August 2015. Green Bond is a 1. (a) The ` 2893 Crore project launched by Ministry of
debt instrument with which a bond issuer gets capital Women and Child Development aims at improving child
while the investors receive fixed income in the form of development. The world Bank is supporting this project
interest. initially with a loan of $ 106 million.
16. (a) Industrial Development Bank of India (IDBI) has 2. (b) The Narsimhan Committee and the Raghuram Rajan
appointed Kishor Piraji Kharat as its new Managing Committee issued guidelines for licensing new banks
Director & Chief Executive Officer. in the private sector.
17. (c) Union government has appointed two private sector 3. (b) 4. (e) 5. (d)
banking professionals as Managing Director (MD) and 6. (b) The SEBI amendment ordinance was promulgated to
Chief Executive Officer of Bank of Baroda (BoB) and the SEBI Act, as a part of efforts to crack down Ponzi
Canara Bank. schemes.
18. (c) The National Bank for Agriculture and Rural 7. (a) The Cuckoo's Calling is a 2013 crime fiction novel by
Development (Nabard) would organise a massive JK Rowling, published under the pseudonym "Robert
financial literacy and awareness drive on July 12 Galbraith".
coinciding with the bank's 34th Foundation Day. The
awareness drive to be conducted across 27 districts of 8. (d) Floating rate bonds have variable interest rate and
Odisha, is aimed at making people at grassroots level protect investors against a rise in interest rates (which
aware of the latest schemes launched by Government have an inverse relationship with bond prices) . They
of India on financial inclusion and social security.The also carry lower yields than fixed notes of the same
awareness would centre on schemes like Pradhan maturity.
Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY), Pradhan Mantri Bima 9. (d) Commodity markets in India are regulated by Forward
Suraksha Yojana (PMBSY), Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Markets Commission (FMC) headquartered at Mumbai.
Yojana (PMJJY) and Atal Pension Yojana (APY). 10. (d)
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SOLUTIONS 91
b
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11. (b) SBI has launched 'Tatkal', a scheme that targets the 34. (a) The 2016 ICC World T20 tournament is scheduled to
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urban poor, with the USP being that customers can be held in India from March 11 to April 3, 2016. It will be
transfer money to their families in their native towns hosted in eight citiesacross India viz. Bengaluru,
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and villages without actually opening an account. Chennai, Dharamshala, Kolkata, Mohali, Mumbai,
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Nagpur and New Delhi. Kolkata's Eden Gardens,
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12. (a)
theoldest cricketing venue of India, will host the final
s
13. (a) The first trial run of the India's fastest train was
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performed on Delhi-Agra route. The train with maximum of this tournament.
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35. (c) Hyderabad and Kota India already has one nuclear fuel
m
speed of 160 km/hour surpassed highest speed of 150
km/hour of Bhopal Shatabdi. complex at Hyderabad. Another nuclear fuel complex
14. (c) The United States has named a mountain in Antarctica is coming up in Kota in Rajasthan.
after Indian-American scientist Akhouri Sinha. 36. (d) The BCCI's domestic programme will start with the Ranji
15. (a) 16. (c) 17. (b) Trophy from October 1, 2015. In all 900 matches will be
played and the 2015-16 season will end with the Irani
18. (a) NASA has kicked off field campaign to probe Ocean
Cup match scheduled to be held from March 6, 2016.
Ecology, Carbon Cycle. The Ship-Aircraft Bio-Optical
But, the inter-zonal cricket tournament, Duleep Trophy
Research (SABOR) experiment is an effort to advance
dropped for 2015-16 season due to packed schedule.
space-based capabilities for monitoring microscopic
plants that form the base of the marine food chain. For 37. (a) As per Anil Kumble-led technical committee
three weeks, NASA's SABOR experiment will bring recommendations, BCCI changed the format of the
together marine and atmospheric scientist to tackle the Deodhar Trophy, an inter- zonal one day tournament.
optical issues associated with satellite observations of Deodhar Trophy will have four 50-overs matches across
phytoplankton. Phytoplankton, tiny ocean plants that five days between January 24-28, 2016. It will be played
absorb carbon dioxide and deliver oxygen to Earth's on a 3-team format that consists of the champion team
atmosphere, play a major role in the global cycling of of the Vijay Hazare tournament and 2 other teams which
atmospheric carbon between the ocean and the will be selected by the Senior National selectors.
atmosphere. 38. (c) The key mandates of the Rashtriya Gokul Mission
19. (a) Gyrochronology is a method for estimating the age of a include: 1. Enhance milk production and productivity
low-mass star like Sun from its rotation period. of indigenous bovines 39 elite desi breeds such as Gir,
Sahiwal, Rathi, Deoni and Red Sindhi will be the focus.
20. (b) The 2018 FIFA World Cup will be the 21st FIFA world
The scheme will cover 13 indigenous buffalo breeds
cup, an international men's football tournament that is
too. 3. Genetic upgradation of nondescript cows by
scheduled to take place in 2018 in Russia.
cross-breeding with Indian elite breeds will also be done
21. (e) 22. (c) 23. (d) 24. (b) 25. (c)
4. Rs. 105 crore disbursed since September 2014
26. (e) 27. (d) 28. (c) 29. (e) 30. (e)
39. (b) On 14th July, Apple introduced "Apple Pay" a mobile
31. (d) Mr. Bhupender Yadav is the chairman of the Rajya payments system in Britain, which is set to offer service
Sabha committee on the constitutional amendment Bill in 250,000 sites. However it was launched for the first
regarding National Goods and Services Tax (GST). time in United States nine month ago. It facilitates
32. (c) Union Territory of Puducherry has nominated its capital costumers to make contactless payments to their
city for inclusion in the 100 Smart Cities Mission purchase.
launched on June 25. With this, it is first city to send its 40. (b) Justice Loda panel appointed by Supreme Court has
nomination. suspended two top Indian Premier League teams for
33. (b) It is form which software companies need to fill and two years over a corruption scandal.Chennai Super
submit to RBI when they export software The SOFTEX Kings and Rajasthan Royals have been found guilty in
is an RBI form available online. It requires companies an illegal betting and match-fixing probe. The panel
to submit contracts and statements- of-work with every also suspended Royals co-owner Raj Kundra and
invoice. This form helps RBI to monitor inward and Gurunath Meiyappan of Super Kings from all cricket-
outward remittances in the software business. related activities for life.
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92 101 SPEED TEST
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SPEED TEST 97 : IBPS CLERK FULL TEST - 1
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Answer Key
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1 (a) 21 (d) 41 (d) 61 (a) 81 (c) 101 (a) 121 (e) 141 (b) 161 (d) 181 (e)
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2 (b) 22 (c) 42 (a) 62 (b) 82 (c) 102 (d) 122 (c) 142 (c) 162 (d) 182 (a)
s
3 43 (c) 63 (c) 83 (a) 103 (c) 123 (b) 143 163 (c) 183 (c)
s
(d) 23 (a) (e)
.c
4 (d) 24 (c) 44 (a) 64 (a) 84 (d) 104 (a) 124 (a) 144 (c) 164 (e) 184 (b)
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5 (b) 25 (d) 45 (b) 65 (c) 85 (b) 105 (b) 125 (c) 145 (b) 165 (b) 185 (d)
6 (d) 26 (d) 46 (e) 66 (a) 86 (e) 106 (d) 126 (c) 146 (e) 166 (b) 186 (b)
7 (c) 27 (b) 47 (d) 67 (b) 87 (d) 107 (a) 127 (d) 147 (a) 167 (c) 187 (d)
8 (c) 28 (d) 48 (c) 68 (b) 88 (b) 108 (c) 128 (c) 148 (c) 168 (a) 188 (a)
9 (b) 29 (d) 49 (a) 69 (c) 89 (d) 109 (e) 129 (a) 149 (d) 169 (a) 189 (c)
10 (c) 30 (a) 50 (e) 70 (b) 90 (e) 110 (b) 130 (d) 150 (a) 170 (e) 190 (e)
11 (b) 31 (b) 51 (b) 71 (a) 91 (c) 111 (a) 131 (a) 151 (e) 171 (b) 191 (a)
12 (b) 32 (a) 52 (d) 72 (e) 92 (b) 112 (d) 132 (c) 152 (e) 172 (b) 192 (e)
13 (c) 33 (a) 53 (e) 73 (a) 93 (e) 113 (c) 133 (b) 153 (d) 173 (b) 193 (b)
14 (b) 34 (b) 54 (b) 74 (d) 94 (a) 114 (d) 134 (d) 154 (d) 174 (b) 194 (e)
15 (d) 35 (c) 55 (c) 75 (d) 95 (d) 115 (e) 135 (b) 155 (d) 175 (d) 195 (c)
16 (b) 36 (a) 56 (b) 76 (d) 96 (a) 116 (c) 136 (c) 156 (e) 176 (a) 196 (b)
17 (a) 37 (a) 57 (c) 77 (a) 97 (d) 117 (b) 137 (d) 157 (d) 177 (e) 197 (d)
18 (c) 38 (b) 58 (d) 78 (e) 98 (e) 118 (c) 138 (c) 158 (a) 178 (b) 198 (c)
19 (a) 39 (b) 59 (e) 79 (e) 99 (c) 119 (a) 139 (e) 159 (a) 179 (c) 199 (d)
20 (c) 40 (a) 60 (e) 80 (c) 100 (b) 120 (c) 140 (b) 160 (c) 180 (d) 200 (a)
Hints & Solutions

1. (a) On average, households accounted for nearly 75% of gross
domestic savings during the period 1980-81 to 2011-12. 116 3 87 2
43. (c) ?
Savings of the private corporate sector accounted for 15 4 3
per cent of total savings on an average between 1980-81
and 2011-12. The public sector accounted for 10 per cent = 87 58 = 29
of total savings on average between 1980-81 and 2011-12.
2. (b) Current Account Deficit 6.96 18.24
44. (a) ?
5. (b) The International Finance Corporation (IFC) is an 1.2 7.6
international financial institution which offers investment,
advisory and assessment management service to encourage = 5.8 2.4 = 3.4
private sector development in developing countries. The 45. (b) ? = 32.25 2.4 1.6 = 123.84
IFC is a member of the World Bank Group and it
headquartered in Washington D C. 250 136 550 ?
6. (d) The Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership 46. (e) 670
100 100
comprises China, India, Australia, New Zealand, Japan and
South Korea apart from the 10-member ASEAN. Recently, 340 + 5.5 ? = 670
India overcame resistance from China to become part of
this regional trading bloc.
5.5 ? = 670 340 = 330
7. (c) The (c) is correct option. This is because Purchase of
securities in the Open Markets would lead to more liquidity
330
? 60
system and more liquidity means more money will chase 5.5
the same goods.
448
11 4 5 47. (d) ? 35 980
41. (d) ? 848 212 16
16 5 11
750 1.4 480 2.2 14 25 125 225 75 11
42. (a) ? 100 100
48. (c) ?
120 72 192
=
64
1
64
= 10.50 + 10.56 = 21.06
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SOLUTIONS 93
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49. (a) ? = 78.45 + 128.85 + 1122.25 = 1392 . 55 62. (b) Speed of the train
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50. (e) 5598 = ? + 2785 Length of train and platform
= Time taken to cross each other
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? = 5598 2785 = 2813
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p
275 275 550 18
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87 37 375 m/sec. kmph = 60 kmph
51. (b) ?
s
33 33 5
s
5 8 8
.c
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Time
3219 375 Rate
m
? 63. (c) CI P 1
100
1
40 8
3219 1875 1344 2
? 9
40 40 45000 1 1 = 45000 [(1.09)2 1]
100
168 3
? 33 = 45000 0.1881 = ` 8464.50
5 5 64. (a) If the cost of 1 shirt be ` x and that of 1 trousers be ` y,
5616 then
52. (d) ? 39 18x + 45y = 68400
18 8
Dividing both sides by 9, we have
420 288 2x + 5y = 7600
53. (e) ? 135
28 32 Multiplying both sides by 5
54. (b) 484 ? 516 10x + 25y = 38000
9 7
? 516 484 32 65. (c) 0.82; 0.78
11 9
? 32 32 1024
5 4
660 45 450 28 0.83; 0.8
55. (c) ? 6 5
100 100
= 297 + 126 = 423 11
0.85
56. (b) The pattern of the number series is: 13
12 + 22 = 16
7 4 9 5 11
16 + 23 = 24 Clearly,
24 + 24 = 40 9 5 11 6 13
40 + 25 = 72 SI 100 5520 100
66. (a) Principal = = ` 5750
57. (c) The patern of the number series is : Time Rate 8 12
9 + 10 = 19 67. (b) Ratio of the profit of Srikant and Vividh
19 + 20 = 39 = 185000 : 225000 = 37 : 45
39 + 40 = 79 Sum of the ratios = 37 + 45 = 82
79 + 80 = 159 Total profit earned
58. (d) The pattern of the number series is:
82
8 + 32 = 17 = 9000
17 + 52 = 42 45
42 + 72 = 91 = ` 16400
91 + 92 = 172 68. (b) Fathers present age = 6x years
59. (e) The pattern of the number series is: Son's present age = x years
7 1+1=8 After four years
8 2 + 2 = 18 6x 4 4
18 3 + 3 = 57
x 4 1
57 4 + 4 = 232 6x + 4 = 4x + 16
60. (e) The pattern of the number series is:
3840 4 = 960 12
2x = 12 x 6
960 4 = 240 2
240 4 = 60 Sons present age = 6 years
60 4 = 15
100 Profit%
69. (c) SP CP
x 75 3 3x 3y 100
61. (a) y
100 7 4 7
125
x 3 4 4 = ` 4860 = ` 6075
100
y 7 3 7
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94 101 SPEED TEST
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70. (b) Let the number be x. 78. (e) Case I
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x 65 2x 13 x 2x S.I. 100 1536 100
140 140 Principal = = = ` 2560
o
100 5 20 5 Time Rate 5 12
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Case II
p
13x 8 x x
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140 140 Principal Time Rate
20 4
s
S.I. =
s
x = 4 140 = 560 100
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560 30 3560 2 12
m
30% of 560 168 = = ` 854.40
100 100
71. (a) Let the original number be 10x + y where y > x. 79. (e) 3 men 9 boys
10y + x 10x y = 27 1 man 3boys
9(y x) = 27 5 man + 6 boys
yx=3 ....(i) (5 3 + 6) boys = 21 boys
and x + y = 13 ....(ii) 9 21
From equations (i) and (ii), M1D1 = M2 D2 9 days
D2 =
21
y = 8 and x = 5 80. (c) Let the total marks of the exam be x.
Original number = 58 Passing marks = 112 32 = 80
72. (e) M1D1 = M2D2
22 16 = 32 D2 x 75
80 70 150
22 16 100
D2 = = 11 days 150 100
32 x 200
73. (a) Davars total expenditure percentage 75
= (38 + 25 + 12) % = 75 % If the minimum Pass percentage is y, then
Savings percentage = 25% y% of 200 = 80 y = 40
If this monthly salary be ` x, then 81. (c) Meaningful words : ARE, EAR, ERA
x 25 82. (c) A D J E C T I V E
5820
100 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
x = ` (4 5800) = ` 23200 B C I F B S J U F
74. (d) Let the smallest odd number A be x
x + x + 4 = 2 59 83. (a) na pa ka so birds fly very high
2x = 118 4 = 114 ri so la pa birds are very beautiful
ti me ka bo the parrots could fly
114
x 57 Thus high is coded as na.
2 84. (d) 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
75. (d) Decimal equivalent of each fraction : Difference = 8 4 = 4
9 3 85. (b) 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13
= 0.29 ; = 0.18 CO M PA T I B I L I T Y
31 17
Meaningful word LI M B
6 4 7
= 0.26; = 0.36; = 0.28 2 2
23 11 25 86. (e) As F H I G
4 2 2
The largest fraction = N P E C
11
Similarly,
23 ?
76. (d) 2 2
? 92 S U L J
(?)2 = 23 92 2 2
I K T R
23 23 4
= 2 23 = 46 87. (d) As L 8 and H 7
77. (a) Tricky Approach A & I *
Man's salary in the month of February, 2011 T 4 R 3
2 E $ E $
20
= 5000 1+ Similarly,
100
H 7 A &
6 6 I * L 8
= 5000 = ` 7200
5 5
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SOLUTIONS 95
b
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88. (b) Others relate to parts of tree. 98. (e) P S P is wife of S.
b
89. (d) Since potato is called Banana. Thus, Banana grows S T S is son of T.
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underground. T is either father-in-law or mother-in-law of P.
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90. (e) EI, EG, GI and NL.
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P S P is son of S.
91. (c) Some suns are planets.
p
S T S is daughter of T
re
Therefore, T is father of P.
s
s
P S P is father of T.
.c
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P + T P is daughter of T
m
All planets are satellites. T S T is son of S.
(I + A I-type)
Some suns are satellites.
Conclusions I and II form Complementary Pair. 99. (c) P + Q P is daughter of Q.
Therefore, either I or II follows. Q S Q is father of S.
92. (b) All curtains are rods. Therefore, P is sister of S.
P Q P is son of Q.
Q S Q is wife of S.
Therefore, P is son of S.
P Q P is son of Q.
Some rods are sheets. Q + S Q is daughter of S.
(A + I No Conclusion) Therefore, P is grandson of S.
93. (e) Some plugs are bulbs
100. (b) P + Q P is daughter of Q.
Q T Q is wife of P.
101. (a) B 9; A 2; R *;N %; I #; S 4
All bulbs are sockets. 102. (d) D 2; M @; B 9; N %; I #; A 6
(I + A I-type) Condition (i) is applied.
Some plugs are sockets. 103. (c) I $; J 8; B 9; R *; L ; G #
Conclusion I is Converse of thi3s Conclusion. Condition (ii) is applied.
Conclusion II is Converse of the first Premise. 104. (a) B 9; K ; G $; Q 7; J ; N %
94. (a) All fishes are birds. (conversion) Condition (iii) is applied.
105. (b) E ; G $; A 2; K 1; R *; L 3
Condition (ii) is applied.
For (Qs. 106-110): Given information can be tabulated as follows
All birds are rats.
(A + A A-type) Person Sex Company Specialisation
All fishes are rats. A Male X Finance
All birds are rats. (conversion) B Male Z Marketing
C Male Y Engineer
D Female X HR
E Male Y Doctor
All rats are cows. F Male Y Marketing
(A + A A-type) G Female Z Finance
All birds are cows. H Male Z HR
This is Conclusion I.
95. (d) Some windows are doors. Thus, G is a sister of C.
111. (a) The movement and other changes in designs can be
shown as :
All doors are roofs. 1 to 2 2 to 3
(I + A I-type)
Some windows are roots.
96. (a) P + S P is daughter of S.
S T S is father of T. N N
Therefore, P is sister of T.
97. (d) P Q P is wife of Q. These two steps are repeated alternately.
Q T Q is father of T. 112. (d) In the subsequent figures respectively one, two
T is child of P and Q. zero............ curve(s) is/are added and curves move
The sex of T is not known. along the line segment and get reversed in each
T is either son or daughter of P. subsequent figure.
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96 101 SPEED TEST
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113. (c) In the subsequent figures one design is left intact while 147. (a) Some 64 bit processors have the option of loading data
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other three designs are inverted. from memory 64 bits (or 8 bytes) at a timeinstead of 32
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114. (d) In the subsequent figures the star moves three steps in bits (4 bytes) at a time. Thus it's possible for data access
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clockwise direction inside the hexagon after every two to be twice as fast if the computer's mother board and
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figures. The equal sign moves respectively one and memory supports it.
s
two step(s) in clockwise direction along the sides of 148. (c) 1024 Kilobytes in a Megabyte.
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the hexagon. The design C moves in and out the 149. (d) All of these
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hexagon in the subsequent figures and moves 150. (a) RAM
respectively two and one step(s) in clockwise direction.
151. (e) A bit is a binary digit, the smallest increment of data on
In other words, this problem is based on the rule (1)
a computer. A bit can hold only one of two values: 0 or
= (5) and hence (2) = (6).
1, corresponding to the electrical values of off or on,
115. (e) In the subsequent figures respectively two and three respectively. Because bits are so small, you rarely work
designs change size alternately in a set order. with information one bit at a time.
116. (c) The number 49 is a perfect square of a natural number. 152. (e) A CPU is also called the processor and it is the main
component of the computer.
117. (b) 1 3 3 4 5 6 7 8
A CPU has the following main parts:
P H Y S 1 C A L
ALU (Arithmetic and Logical unit): This unit of the
Meaningful word HAIL CPU is capable of performing arithmetic and logical
118. (c) Obviously option (c) may be the conclusion of the operations.
passage. Because the passage also talks about the Memory Unit: A processor has its own memory inside
literal the actual sense of culture. it in the shape of small cells. Each memory cell is called
119. (a) Option (a) have the same summary hense it strengthens a "Register". Registers are used to carry data
the conclusion of the passage. temporarily for performing operations.
120. (c) Option (c) has the opposite sense of the passage. Thus Control Unit : This unit of the processor controls all
it weakens the conclusion of the passage. the activities of the processor and also controls the
input and output devises of the computer.
141. (b) an opening in a computer where you can insert a printed
circuit board. Slots are often called expansion slots 153. (d) The MIDI port (musical instrument digital interface) is
because they allow you to expand the capabilities of a a special serial port that connects the computer to
computer. The boards you insert in expansion slots are musical instruments and music synthesizers. MIDI
called expansion boards or add-on boards. ports are used to connect different types of musical
instruments and equipment to sound cards to interface
142. (c) A router is a device that forwards data packets across
with computer programs or other sound generating
computer networks. Routers peform the data "traffic
devices.
directing" functions on the Internet. A router is a
microprocessor-controlled device that is connected to 154. (d) spreadsheet software
two or more data lines from different networks. 155. (d) pointer
143. (e) Clock speed is usually measured in MHz (megahertz, 156. (e) twice as much
or millions of pulses per second) or GHz (gigaherts, or 157. (d) hard disk drive
billions of pulses per second). 158. (a) A PDA
174. (c) A Trojan horse, or Trojan, is software that appears to 159. (a) Numbers and formulae entered in a cell are called labels
perform a desirable function for the user prior to run or or cell content.
install, but (perhaps in addition to the expected 160. (c) A set of instructions that cause a computer to perform
function) steals information or harms the system. one or more tasks. The set of instructions is often called
145. (b) input a program or, if the set is particularly large and complex,
146. (e) access speed a system.
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SOLUTIONS 97
b
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b
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Answer Key
o
(b) (a) (d) (a) (a) (a) (d) (c)
rd
1 26 51 76 101 126 151 176
p
2 (a) 27 (a) 52 (b) 77 (b) 102 (b) 127 (a) 152 (d) 177 (d)
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3 (c) 28 (a) 53 (a) 78 (a) 103 (a) 128 (a) 153 (b) 178 (e)
s
s
4 (d) 29 54 (d) 79 (c) 104 (d) 129 (b) 154 (a) 179 (a)
.c
(a)
o
5 (d) 30 (c) 55 (a) 80 (c) 105 (c) 130 (d) 155 (a) 180 (c)
m
6 (d) 31 (b) 56 (b) 81 (a) 106 (d) 131 (b) 156 (a) 181 (e)
7 (d) 32 (c) 57 (b) 82 (c) 107 (b) 132 (a) 157 (d) 182 (d)
8 (c) 33 (e) 58 (c) 83 (b) 108 (c) 133 (a) 158 (c) 183 (b)
9 (d) 34 (b) 59 (b) 84 (b) 109 (a) 134 (b) 159 (d) 184 (e)
10 (e) 35 (b) 60 (b) 85 (e) 110 (e) 135 (d) 160 (b) 185 (a)
11 (c) 36 (a) 61 (c) 86 (d) 111 (c) 136 (d) 161 (b) 186 (d)
12 (a) 37 (a) 62 (b) 87 (d) 112 (b) 137 (a) 162 (c) 187 (c)
13 (b) 38 (a) 63 (c) 88 (d) 113 (a) 138 (b) 163 (d) 188 (d)
14 (c) 39 (b) 64 (b) 89 (e) 114 (d) 139 (b) 164 (e) 189 (c)
15 (a) 40 (a) 65 (a) 90 (b) 115 (e) 140 (b) 165 (e) 190 (a)
16 (c) 41 (d) 66 (c) 91 (a) 116 (b) 141 (c) 166 (b) 191 (a)
17 (d) 42 (c) 67 (b) 92 (c) 117 (c) 142 (c) 167 (c) 192 (b)
18 (d) 43 (a) 68 (a) 93 (d) 118 (b) 143 (a) 168 (a) 193 (c)
19 (b) 44 (a) 69 (d) 94 (b) 119 (c) 144 (a) 169 (c) 194 (b)
20 (b) 45 (e) 70 (d) 95 (e) 120 (e) 145 (c) 170 (d) 195 (b)
21 (b) 46 (b) 71 (a) 96 (c) 121 (b) 146 (a) 171 (a) 196 (a)
22 (d) 47 (d) 72 (a) 97 (d) 122 (b) 147 (c) 172 (d) 197 (d)
23 (a) 48 (c) 73 (e) 98 (b) 123 (b) 148 (d) 173 (a) 198 (b)
24 (a) 49 (b) 74 (c) 99 (a) 124 (d) 149 (b) 174 (b) 199 (b)
25 (a) 50 (e) 75 (a) 100 (e) 125 (b) 150 (b) 175 (a) 200 (b)
Hints & Solutions

23. (a) Rate of interest on Saving Bank Account is decided 36. (a) India and Thailand inked an MoU on the establishment
and reviewed periodically by the concerned bank. It of the 'Academic Chair' in Ayurveda. According to
can be varied by the bank. which the Central Council for Research in Ayurveda
26. (a) RTGS stands for Real Time Gross Settlements. It is a Sciences will set up a Chair at Rangsit University in
Thailand to undertake academic and research activities
fund transfer mechanism where transfer of money takes in Ayurveda.
place between banks instantly. 38. (a) As per the latest data published by World Cellular
27. (a) It is a monetary standard under which the basic unit of Information Service, China mobile, Vodafone group and
currency is equal in value to and exchangeable for a Airtel are the world's top three largest mobile operators
specified amount of gold. The gold standard does not globally. Bharti Airtel has become the third-largest
exist any more. mobile operator in the world in terms of subscribers.
28. (a) 'Fiat money' is a currency, which is issued by a Airtel mobile network covers over 1.85 billion people
government and is the legal tender in the country. It is and carried over 1.23 trillion minutes of calls and over
333 petabytes of data in 2014-15.
not backed by a physical commodity. All currencies are 39. (b) Former Indian skipper Sachin Tendulkar has been voted
fiat money as they are not backed by either gold or silver. the 'Best Test player' of the 21st century in an online
34. (b) The committee under former secretary (health research) poll conducted by Cricket Australia's website. Tendulkar
V M Katoch was formed to suggest how India could got the highest number of votes to emerge on top of
reduce its dependence on China for bulk drugs. The the list of the 100 best Test players since 2000, in a poll
Committee was asked to examine the validity of the conducted by cricket.com.au. Sri Lanka's Kumara
scientific and statutory basis adopted for approval of Sangakkara received second highest votes, followed
new drugs without clinical trials. Outline appropriate by Adam Gilchrist and Ricky Ponting.
measures to bring about systemic improvements in the 40. (a) Steffi Graf Tennis legend Steffi Graf was appointed the
Ayurveda brand ambassador of Kerala. The Kerala
processing and grant of statutory approvals. Suggest tourism department was given sanction to sign an
steps to institutionalise improvements in other agreement with Graf to become Ayurveda brand
procedural aspects of functioning of the CDSCO. ambassador as part of the department's 'Visit Kerala
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98 101 SPEED TEST
b
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Scheme'. The 46-year-old Graf, who retired in 1999, 1.25 4x 9
b
married former World number one men's tennis player
.w
Andre Agassi in October 2001. 5x 50,000 10
5x = 4,50,000
o
50x 45x 450000
rd
3 4 5 3 4 5 1015 x = 90,000
41. (d) of of of 1015 = 1015 145
p
5 7 12 5 7 12 7 Hence, the price of A last year was
re
4x = Rs 3,60,000
s
(c) 1.5 0.025 (?)2 (?) 2
s
42. 0.1 0.1 1.5 0.025 Totaldistance
.c
56. (b) Average speed =
o
Total time
(?) 2
m
0.1 0.0375 ? .0625 0.25
80 80
= = = 32 km/h
43. (a) 1.52 0.0225 2.25 0.15 0.3375 60 20 2.5
45. (e) 125% of 260 + ?% of 700 = 500 40 20
?% of 700 = 500 125% of 260 57. (b) Let the usual speed of the aeroplane be x km/h.
?% of 700 = 175 1500 1 1500
Then,
175 100 x 2 (x 250)
? 25 Solving, we get x = 750 km/h
700 58. (c) Sum of 40 instalments = S40 = 3600 = 20 (2a + 39d)
46. (b) 45% of 750 25% of 480 or 2a + 39d = 180 ...(i)
45 750 25 480 Sum of 30 instalments = S30 = 2400 = 15 (2a + 29d)
= 337.5 120 217.5 or 2a + 29d = 160 ...(ii)
100 100
From (i) and (ii), we get a = 51 and d = 2
47. (d) 758.5 753.8 75(8.5 3.8) 754.7 The value of first instalment = ` 51
48. (c) 39798 + 3798 + 378 = 43974 59. (b) Volume of the earth taken out = 30 20 12 = 7200 m3
Field
7 3 1 40 80 3 160 6 470 m
49. (b) 3 7 1 = 14
30 m
11 11 2 11 11 2 11 11
1080
50. (e) 1080 12 10 9 30 m
12 10
51. (d) First start with the option (d). 20 m
1001 25 = 25025
1001 67 = 67067 etc.
Thus 1001 is the largest number which divides the 470 m 30 m
numbers of the type 25025, 67067 etc. Tank
52. (b) A three digit number to be exactly divisible by 5 must Area of the remaining portion (leaving the area of dug
have either 0 or 5 at its units place. out portion)
Such numbers will be 100, 105, 110, ..........., 995. = 470 30 + 30 10 = 14100 + 300 = 14400 m3
First term = 100, last term = 995 Let h be the height to which the field is raised when the
Let the required number be n. earth dug out is spread.
To find the value of n, we may use the following formula Then, 14400 h = 7200
of arithmetic progression, h = 0.5 m
Tn = a + (n 1) d.......... (1) 198 194 185 169 144
Where d = common difference = 5 60. (b)
2 2 2 2
Tn = 995 2 3 4 5
a = 100 61. (c) The first, third, fifth .... and second, fourth .... terms
Hence from (1) are groups of consecutive natural numbers.
995 = 100 + (n 1) 5 5n = 900 5 6 8 9 11 12
n = 180 62. (b)
Digits to be used = 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9. +1 +2 +1 +2 +1
53. (a) Let the principal be P, then amount after 12 years = 2P 63. (c) The series progress with a difference of 5.
SI ( 2 P P ) P 0 2 6 12 20 30
64. (b)
P r t P r 12 +2 +4 +6 +8 +10
Now, I P=
100 100 65. (a) 10609 7938.81
100 25 1
or r 8 %
12 3 3 10609 103, by long division method, as below:
54. (d) Applying successive discounts of 10%, 12% and 15% 103
on 100, we get 100 0.9 0.88 0.85 67.32 10 10609
Single discount = 100 67.32=32.68 100
55. (a) Let the prices of two houses A and B be Rs 4x and 203 609
Rs 5x, respectively for the last year. 609
Then, the prices of A this year = Rs (1.25 4x) and that 0
of B = Rs (5x + 50,000) Also, 7938.81 89.1 , by long division method, as
This year, Ratio of their prices = 9 : 10 below:
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SOLUTIONS 99
b
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80. (c) LHS = 7 + 6 = 13
89.1
b
RHS = 100 4 = 25
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8 7938.81 LHS < RHS
o
64 81. (a) Since Badminton is not played by using a ball and also
rd
169 1538
called Volleyball. So, Volleyball is required answer.
p
1521
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1781 1781 82. (c) T E C H N O L O G Y
s
1781
s
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
.c
0
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m
Hence 103 89.1 = 9177.3 9200 Word formed CE N T
66. (c) Let x be there in place of question mark. 83. (b) Arranging the number in ascending order, we get
3 x x 1 23 45 78 9
So, (13)2 2197 (169)3 2197 4th number (Right) = 5
x
4826809 = 2197, taking log10 on both the sides 3rd number (left) = 3 Difference = 5 3 = 2
x log10 (4826809) = log10 2197 84. (b) Ja Ki mo pe at a frog's leap
1 take a leap ahead
x 6.68366 = 3.34183 x 0.5 mo la Ki so
2
67. (b) 18.4% of 656 + 12.7% of 864 = 0.184 656 + 0.127 864 re bo Ja na insects are frog's diet
= 120.704 + 109.728 = 230.432 231 Thus, at is coded as pe.
68. (a) (98.4)2 + (33.6)2 = 9682.56 + 1128.96 = 10811.52 10812
69. (d) Let there be x in place of question mark 85. (e) As W 9 and S #
E % K $
8959 8959
So, 26.35 x 17 I 7
x 4 5 26.35 20 A 2
70. (d) ? = 3739 + 164 27 = 3739 + 4428 8200 K $ T @
71. (a) Required distance covered = 2(6 415 + 500) metre Thus, W 9
= 2(2490 + 500) metre = 5980 metre = 5.98 km
72. (a) Total marks obtained by Amit A 2
= 44 + 55 + 77 + 79 + 76 = 331 I 7
331 T @
Required percentage = 100 = 66.2
500 86. (d) Meaningful words formed NOW, OWN and WON
73. (e) The pattern of the number series is: 87. (d) All others are parts of a car.
7 2 3 = 11 88. (d) DG, IG and SN
11 2 3 = 19 1
89. (e) G F
19 2 3 = 35
35 2 3 = 67 1
L K
67 2 3 = 134 3 = 131 1
A B
74. (c) The pattern of the number series is: 1
5 + 12 = 6 D C
6 + 22 = 10 1
I J
10 + 32 = 19
1
19 + 42 = 35 O P
35 + 52 = 35 + 25 = 60 1
L K
75. (a) The pattern of the number series is: 1
1+2=3 U V
3 + (2 + 3) = 8 1
S R
8 + (2 + 3 + 5) = 18 2
90. (b) As, T V
18 + (2 + 3 + 5 + 7) = 35
2
35 + (2 + 3 + 5 + 7 + 9) = 61 H F
76. (a) LHS = 21 + 12 = 33 2
RHS = 15 + 15 = 30 E G
2
LHS > RHS N L
77. (b) LHS = (18 7) = 11 Similarly,
RHS = 121 = 11 W
2
Y
78. (a) LHS = (34 4) 5 = 150 2
RHS = (16 8 + 16) = 16 (8 + 1) = 144 O M
LHS > RHS R
2
T
79. (c) LHS = 133 16 = 117 2
RHS = 49 3 = 147 D B
LHS < RHS
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100 101 SPEED TEST
b
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91. (a) G P R P is father of R.
b
R S R is wife of S.
.w
Q * Therefore, S is son-in-law of P.
o
98. (b) P Q P is daughter of Q.
rd
R 1
Q S Q is wife of S.
p
D 7
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Therefore, S is father of P.
s
99. (a) P R P is son of R.
s
B 3
.c
R S R is father of S.
o
N Therefore, P is brother of S.
m
Condition III is applied. 100. (e) P R P is wife of R.
92. (c) R S R is father of S.
I
The sex of S is not clear.
P 5 S is either son or daughter of P.
E $ 101. (a) Lowest number = 189 + 1 = 190
B 3 Highest number = 972 + 2 = 974
difference = 9 4 = 5
Q * 102. (b) Interchanging the digits of given number we get
S 279, 286, 981, 892 and 157.
Condition I is applied. 3rd highest number = 286 or 682
103. (a) Arranging all three digits of given number in
93. (d) R # descending order, we get
M @ 972, 862, 981, 982 and 751.
3rd highest number = 972
A 9
104. (d) Interchanging 2nd and 3rd digits of given number, we
P 5 get 927, 628, 198, 289 and 715.
S Smallest number = 198
I 1 Highest number = 927
Condition II is applied. Sum =1 + 7 = 8
105. (c) Smaller number = 189 + 1 = 190
94. (b) A 8 Higher number = 751 1 = 750
Difference = 9 5 = 4
R 1 106. (d) No pen is a mobile. (conversion)
E $
M @
Q * Some mobiles are bottles.

E+I O-type of conclusion
N 8 Some bottles are not pens.
Condition I is applied. Some mobiles are bottles. (conversion)
95. (e) K
J 2 All bottles are papers.
I+A I-tpye of conclusion
B 3 Some mobiles are papers.
P 5 107. (b) All computers are radios. (conversion)
R 1
D All radios are televisions.
Condition III is applied. A+A A-type of conclusion
96. (c) P R P is son of R. All computers are televisions.
R S R is daughter of S. Conclusion II is Converse of this Conclusion.
Therefore, P is grandson of S. 108. (c) Conclusion I and II from Complementary Pair. Therefore,
97. (d) P + R P is wife of R. either Conclusion I or II follows.
R S R is son of S. 109. (a) Some fishes are moons. (conversion)
Therefore, P is daughter-in-law of S.
P R P is father of R.
R S R is son of S.
Therefore, S is wife of P. All moons are birds.
P + R P is wife of R. I+A I-type of conclusion
R S R is father of S. Some fishes are birds.
Therefore, S is child of P. Conclusion I is Converse of this Conclusion.
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SOLUTIONS 101
b
o
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110. (e) All leaves are roots. (conversion) 146. (a) Recycle Bin
b
147. (c) Downloading
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148. (d) Desktop publishing software
o
149. (b) Use the Save as.. command
rd
All roots are flowers. 150. (b) utility
p
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A+A A-tpye of conclusion 151. (d) network server
s
All leaves are flowers. 152. (d) include addition, subtraction, multiplication and
s
.c
Conclusion II is Converse of this Conclusion. division
o
All stems are roots. (conversion) 153. (b) a typed conversation that takes place on a computer
m
154. (a) GUIs
155. (a) a large network of networks
156. (a) Control, Alt
All roots are flowers. 157. (d) command
A+A A-type of conclusion 158. (c) mouse pointer
All stems are flowers. 159. (d) user
Conclusion I is Converse of this Conclusion. 160. (b) Auto Spell
For (Qs. 111-115) : The given information can be tabulated as 161. (b) Refer to the Ist sentence of para 1 Govinds father
follows ........................ left large tract of land to Govind.
162. (c) Refer to the 3rd sentence of para 2 To his
Pers on S ex Relations hip Profes sion surprise.................into gold.
L Female W ife of M A rchitect 163. (d) Refer to the last two sentences of para 1 of the passage.
164 (e)
Father of P. Business man 165. (e) Refer to the sixth sentence of para 2 of the passage
M M ale Husband of L. You have..................during winter.
166. (b) Refer to the third last sentence of para 3 of the passage.
Son of Q and O. 167. (c) Refer to the ninth sentence She would take................a
Female Daughter-in-law of good price of the para 3 of the passage.
N Hous ewife 168. (a) Refer to the third last sentence people
O and Q.
took.............cheated him of the para 1 of the passage.
O Female W ife of Q Pilot 169. (c) The word spend (verb) means to pay out, to employ
P M ale Son of M and L. Journalis t (labour, time etc.) on some objects. For instance,
How do you spend your leisure-time?
Grandfather of P. Doctor Similarly, the word devote (verb) means to give time and
Q M ale Husband of Q. energy to something. For instance,
He is devoted to his studies.
Father of M . Thus, spend and devote are synonymous.
170. (d) The word lie (verb) means to be at rest. For instance,
R A dvocate
She is lying on the bed.
Two married couples : LM and QO. Similarly, the word remain (verb) means continue to
116. (b) According to question stay. For instance,
Twenty pens were distributed and the remaining were
9146756083
returned.
117. (c) ab, abc, abcd, abcde, abcdef, abcd e Thus, lying and remaining are synonymous.
118. (b) Clearly option (b) is best support by the passage. 171. (a) The word dismay (noun) means feeling of fear and
119. (c) The passage provides the facts about the preparation discouragement. For instance,
of history. Hence option (c) is the assumption which They were struck with dismay at the news.
can be implicit in the facts of the passage. While, the word joy (noun) means feeling of happiness.
120. (e) Obviously. None of the given option is conclusion Thus, both are antonyms.
172. (d) The word tend (verb) means look after. For instance,
which can be drawn from the facts of the passage. The nurse tended the injured persons.
141. (c) Zoom command changes the magnification of the While, the word ignore (verb) means take no notice of.
displayed document. For instance,
142. (c) Monitor, The Central Processing Unit (CPU), Keyboard, Raman ignored the advice of his elders.
mouse, printer and modem are the type of hardware Thus, both are antonyms.
while Software, Application are the type of software. 183. (b) Sent is the third form of verb send in passive voice.
143. (a) Main memory (ROM) holds the program and data when 185. (a) Replace though by As to express cause and effect
the CPU process. in the sentence.
144. (a) Go to File/Send To /Mail Recipient 186. (d) It should be and I answered all of them to properly
145. (c) The computer and all the devices connected to it that express cause and effect in the sentence.
are used to input and outpur data. 187. (c) Apply the adverb highly before the adjective paid.
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102 101 SPEED TEST
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Answer Key
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rd
1 (a) 26 (a) 51 (d) 76 (c) 101 (d) 126 (d) 151 (c) 176 (c)
p
2 (c) 27 (b) 52 (c) 77 (d) 102 (b) 127 (a) 152 (a) 177 (e)
re
3 (c) 28 (c) 53 (b) 78 (d) 103 (a) 128 (c) 153 (a) 178 (a)
s
s
.c
4 (a) 29 (c) 54 (b) 79 (e) 104 (b) 129 (a) 154 (c) 179 (d)
o
5 (d) 30 (d) 55 (d) 80 (a) 105 (c) 130 (d) 155 (d) 180 (b)
m
6 (d) 31 (d) 56 (b) 81 (c) 106 (b) 131 (c) 156 (d) 181 (c)
7 (a) 32 (d) 57 (b) 82 (c) 107 (a) 132 (c) 157 (d) 182 (e)
8 (e) 33 (a) 58 (b) 83 (b) 108 (a) 133 (c) 158 (b) 183 (d)
9 (b) 34 (a) 59 (d) 84 (b) 109 (b) 134 (b) 159 (b) 184 (a)
10 (e) 35 (b) 60 (d) 85 (e) 110 (d) 135 (b) 160 (a) 185 (b)
11 (d) 36 (b) 61 (e) 86 (c) 111 (c) 136 (b) 161 (e) 186 (d)
12 (c) 37 (c) 62 (c) 87 (b) 112 (c) 137 (d) 162 (d) 187 (a)
13 (a) 38 (d) 63 (b) 88 (c) 113 (a) 138 (a) 163 (c) 188 (e)
14 (a) 39 (c) 64 (a) 89 (b) 114 (d) 139 (b) 164 (a) 189 (b)
15 (a) 40 (b) 65 (e) 90 (d) 115 (b) 140 (c) 165 (e) 190 (a)
16 (d) 41 (e) 66 (b) 91 (a) 116 (c) 141 (b) 166 (e) 191 (b)
17 (b) 42 (d) 67 (c) 92 (c) 117 (c) 142 (c) 167 (b) 192 (d)
18 (d) 43 (c) 68 (a) 93 (e) 118 (d) 143 (c) 168 (a) 193 (e)
19 (a) 44 (d) 69 (d) 94 (a) 119 (e) 144 (a) 169 (c) 194 (c)
20 (d) 45 (a) 70 (a) 95 (a) 120 (a) 145 (a) 170 (b) 195 (c)
21 (b) 46 (d) 71 (c) 96 (b) 121 (c) 146 (d) 171 (a) 196 (c)
22 (c) 47 (b) 72 (b) 97 (c) 122 (a) 147 (c) 172 (e) 197 (d)
23 (a) 48 (a) 73 (b) 98 (d) 123 (c) 148 (b) 173 (b) 198 (a)
24 (b) 49 (e) 74 (e) 99 (c) 124 (c) 149 (a) 174 (d) 199 (a)
25 (b) 50 (d) 75 (a) 100 (a) 125 (c) 150 (d) 175 (c) 200 (d)
Hints & Solutions

22. (c) Chitra Ramakrishna was appointed as the Managing 29. (c) Simon Taufel has been the five-time ICC umpire of the
Director and CEO of the National Stock Exchange (NSE) year from 2004-2008. He will be the third Australian to
on April 1, 2013. do so.
23. (a) N R Wasan replaced S C Sinha to become the Director- 41. (e) ? 75
General of the National Investigation Agency (NIA), Squaring on both the sides, we get
on April 9, 2013. ? = 75 75 = 5625
24. (b) Abdul Rahim Rather is also a senior National 21 7 1
Conference leader. He has been elected as the new 42. (d) ?
8 72 171
Chairman of the Empowered Committee of State Finance
Ministers on Goods & Services Tax( GST). 21 7 1 3
or ? =
25. (b) Former vice-chancellor of Jamia Milia Islamia was 8 72 171 19
appointed as the the new Lieutenant-Governor of Delhi. 1 2 1
He replaced Tajendra Khanna. 43. (c) ? 4 6 5
2 3 3
26. (a) Anand defeated Fabiano Caruna from Italy. This was
his first win of the year. 3 4 2 9 1
(4 6 5) 15 16
27. (b) The 19 year old Apurvi beat Pooja Ghatkar of 6 6 2
Maharashtra by 0.2 points with a 10.7 last slot. 44. (d) ? = 792.02 + 101.32 306.76 = 586.58
28. (c) The AIFF overturned their earlier decision to exonerate 45. (a) 300% of 150 = ? % of 600
Mohan Bagan and slapped a fine of Rs 2 crore on them. or , ? of 600 = 45000 or, ? = 75
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SOLUTIONS 103
b
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46. (d) 34.95 + 240.016 + 23.9800 = 298.946 58. (b) Using Venn Diagram
b
47. (b) 48.95 32.006 = ?
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or, ? = 48.95 32.006 = 16.944
o
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48. (a) 3889 + 12.952 ? = 3854.002 35-15 15 42-15
p
or ? = 3889 + 12.952 3854.002 = 47.95 =20 =27
re
49. (e) ? + 72.64 = 74.64 or ? = 74.64 72.64 = 2.00
s
s
.c
50. (d) 6.25 0.0025 = ? or ? Failed in only the Failed Failed in only the
6.25 2500
o
first subject in both second subject
m
0.0025
the subjects
51. (d) Clearly, 1 1 7
7 Thus, percentage of students who passed in both
7 7 7 subjects
= 100 [(35 15) + (42 15) + 15] = 100 (35 + 42 15)
1
is the smallest number.. = 100 (62) = 38%
7 and percentage of students who failed in both subject
52. (c) The series progresses with following rule : = 15%
+ 16, + 18, + 20, + 22. Therefore, the percentage of students who passed in
So, original series will be 56, 72, 90, 110, 132 either subject = 100 (38 + 15) = 100 53 = 47%
Hence, 108 is the wrong number. Hence, required no. of students who passed in either
53. (b) Let the sum be Rs x 47
x 8 (3 2) subject but not in both = 2500 = 1175
Now, 56 x = Rs 700 100
100 59. (d) Let the length and breadth of the rectangle be x and
54. (b) Let the cost price of the machine be Rs x. y cm, respectively.
Then, (x 4) (y + 3) = xy 3x 4y = 12 ... (i)
11x
Then, selling price at a profit of 10% = Rs Also, (x 4) = (y + 3) [sides of square]
10 xy=7 ... (ii)
9x From (i) and (ii),
And the selling price at a loss of 10% = Rs x = 16 and y = 9
10 Perimeter of the original rectangle = 2(x + y) = 50 cm
Consequently, we find that 60. (d) The series is 1 + 1 7, 2 + 2 6, 3 + 3 5...
11x 9x 61. (e) The series is 1 + 12, 2 + 22, 3 + 32.., ...
80 62. (c) The series is 1 + 2, 2 + 3, 3 + 4, ...
10 10
63. (b) The series is 0.5 + 0.5, 1 + 1, + 1.5 + 1.5, ....
x 64. (a) The series is 2, 4, + 5, ....
80 x Rs 400
5 65. (e) 963.7 950.9989 95?
55. (d) Let the capacity of the jar be of x bottles. or 95? 953.7 0.9989
since 6 bottles were taken out from jar and 4 bottles of
oil poured into it 2 bottles were taken out or 95? 9527 or , ? = 2.70
Therefore, we have 3.001
66. (b) 1000 of 1891.992 = ?
4 3 4.987
x 2 x
5 4 3
or ? = 100 of 1900 = 100 + 1140 = 1230
5
4 3 67. (c) ? = 0.0004 0.0001 36.000009 = 4 36.000009 154
x x 2 x = 40
5 4 68. (a) ? =137% of 12345 = (100+ 37)% of 12345
12345 + 4570 17000
Total distance 69. (d) 12.25 ? 21.6 = 3545.64
56. (b) Average speed =
Total time 3545.64
?= 13.4 13
80 264.6
80
= = 32 km/h 70. (a) ? = 3
60 20 2.5 4096
40 20 = 16 16 16 16
3
57. (b) Let the usual speed of the aeroplane be x km/h. 71. (c) M1D1 = M2D2
1500 1 1500 6 20 = 8 D2
Then,
x 2 (x 250) 6 20
Solving, we get x = 750 km/h D2 = = 15 days
8
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104 101 SPEED TEST
b
o
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363 ?
b
72. (b)
.w
? 3
o
?2 = 363 3 = 121 32 = 112 32
rd
? = 11 3 = 33 Pencil
p
re
73. (b) Raju's age at the time of marriage Sweets
s
= 17 + 3 + 2 + 1 + 3 = 26 years
s
.c
74. (e) The pattern of the number series is: 90. (d)
o
13 + 1 4 = 17
m
Fruits Glasses
17 + 2 4 = 25
25 + 3 4 = 37
37 + 4 4 = 53
53 + 5 4 = 73
73 + 6 4 = 97
75. (a) The pattern of the number series is:
15 16 18 21 25 30 36
Sweets
+3 +5 +6 or sses
+1 +2 +4 Gla Pencil
76. (c) Distance covered by the bus = speed time
= 37 8 = 296 km Fruits
77. (d) Rs. 540 36 pens
II. False. From both figures it is clear that either I or III
36 follows.
Rs. 405 405 = 27 pens
540
78. (d) Let the number be x.
x + 92 = 192
r
x = 192 81 = 111 Books mme
79. (e) 5x + 6x + 7x = 180 91. (a) Chair Ha
18x = 180 Flowers
180
x= 10
18 Fl
ow
Sum of the smallest and the largest angles er
= 12x = 12 10 = 120 s
80. (a) 232 = 529 or Books
r
242 = 576
mme
Required number = 536 529 = 7 Ha
Chair
Mats
I. False II. False III. False
Chair
89. (b) Desks Cameras Photo
92. (c) Stores
Tables
Roofs
eras
Chair Cam Pho
Desks to
or Roofs
les or
Tab
Mats
Store
I. False II. True III. False I. False II. False III. True
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SOLUTIONS 105
b
o
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b
5 8 6 9 7 2
.w
Crows 117. (c)
o
9 8 7 6 5 2
rd
Tablets
p
118. (d) 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 1
re
s
8 7 6 5 4 3 2 1
s
.c
93. (e) Nails Horses
7 6 5 4 3 2 1
o
m
6 5 4 3 2 1
119. (e) B R I G H T
+1 1
I. True II. True III. True J S C S G F

120. (a) B O A R D
Huts 5 1 3 2 4
Road S I D E
Towers
9 6 4 7
Therefore,
Buildings B A S E
94. (a)
5 3 9 7
141. (b) freeware
142. (c) right-clicking
143. (c) mouse pointer
144. (a) multitasking
I. True II. True III. False 145. (a) flash memory cards
110. (b) Since the passage talks about the defense system of 146. (d) LAN
our country and role of the government option (b) may 147. (c) network interface card (NIC)
be a conclusion of the passage. 148. (b) file
149. (a) num lock
111. (a) Obviously option (a) strengthens the conclusion of
150. (d) eight bits
the passage.
151. (c) desktop
112. (b) Option (b) has the opposite sense. Thus it weakens
152. (a) contains the electronic circuits that cause processing
the conclusion of the passage.
to occur
113. (a) According to question
153. (a) booting
154. (c) file directory
6 8 7 2 5 3 1 4
155. (d) footer
5th from right 156. (d) only 1 and 2
157. (d) byte
114. (d) Except sugar, all others are liquid.
158. (b) wildcards
115. (b) Meaningful Word DINE
159. (b) hyperlink
116. (c) Except 75, all other numbers are perfect cubes. 160. (a) world wide web
343 = 7 7 7
64 = 4 4 4
27 = 3 3 3
216 = 6 6 6
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106 101 SPEED TEST
b
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b
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Answer Key
o
1 (d) 26 (c) 51 (e) 76 (b) 101 (c) 126 (b) 151 (b) 176 (d)
rd
p
2 (c) 27 (c) 52 (d) 77 (a) 102 (d) 127 (b) 152 (c) 177 (a)
re
3 (d) 28 (c) 53 (a) 78 (a) 103 (b) 128 (c) 153 (b) 178 (c)
s
s
4 (e) 29 (a) 54 (d) 79 (c) 104 (e) 129 (a) 154 (e) 179 (e)
.c
o
5 (a) 30 (e) 55 (a) 80 (d) 105 (e) 130 (e) 155 (b) 180 (d)
m
6 (d) 31 (d) 56 (b) 81 (b) 106 (c) 131 (d) 156 (e) 181 (e)
7 (e) 32 (c) 57 (c) 82 (a) 107 (a) 132 (b) 157 (a) 182 (b)
8 (c) 33 (a) 58 (d) 83 (a) 108 (d) 133 (b) 158 (c) 183 (c)
9 (a) 34 (b) 59 (c) 84 (e) 109 (d) 134 (e) 159 (d) 184 (a)
10 (b) 35 (a) 60 (a) 85 (a) 110 (c) 135 (e) 160 (a) 185 (d)
11 (a) 36 (b) 61 (c) 86 (d) 111 (c) 136 (e) 161 (d) 186 (e)
12 (a) 37 (c) 62 (d) 87 (a) 112 (a) 137 (b) 162 (a) 187 (b)
13 (a) 38 (a) 63 (d) 88 (e) 113 (e) 138 (c) 163 (c) 188 (a)
14 (c) 39 (c) 64 (b) 89 (e) 114 (c) 139 (a) 164 (e) 189 (e)
15 (c) 40 (a) 65 (d) 90 (c) 115 (b) 140 (b) 165 (a) 190 (c)
16 (a) 41 (e) 66 (e) 91 (c) 116 (b) 141 (b) 166 (e) 191 (b)
17 (b) 42 (a) 67 (d) 92 (a) 117 (c) 142 (d) 167 (b) 192 (d)
18 (e) 43 (e) 68 (a) 93 (b) 118 (e) 143 (a) 168 (d) 193 (a)
19 (d) 44 (d) 69 (c) 94 (d) 119 (b) 144 (e) 169 (c) 194 (d)
20 (b) 45 (d) 70 (b) 95 (c) 120 (c) 145 (e) 170 (e) 195 (c)
21 (a) 46 (e) 71 (c) 96 (b) 121 (d) 146 (e) 171 (c) 196 (a)
22 (a) 47 (b) 72 (a) 97 (b) 122 (c) 147 (e) 172 (a) 197 (a)
23 (d) 48 (d) 73 (b) 98 (e) 123 (c) 148 (b) 173 (e) 198 (a)
24 (e) 49 (e) 74 (d) 99 (a) 124 (b) 149 (b) 174 (b) 199 (d)
25 (d) 50 (a) 75 (e) 100 (a) 125 (c) 150 (d) 175 (d) 200 (b)
Hints & Solutions

41. (e) 3 ? + 30 = 0 2
10? 105
30
? 10
3 c
42. (a) ? = 40.83 1.02 1.2 = 49.97592 105 2
ab a bc 1010
1 3 1 22 47. (b) ? = 7589 3534 = 4055

43. (e) ? = 3 6 1
3 7 2 7
1225 35
48. (d) ? = 7
10 45 3 22 5 5
2.44
3 7 2 7 49. (e) ? = 300 + (100 2) = 300 + 200 = 500
44. (d) 1.5625 1.25 5 1.6 2 1.4 8 2.8 5.2
50. (a) ? 4
45. (d) 3978 + 112 2 = ? 2 1.3 1.3 1.3
? = (3978 +224) 2 = 8404
2 1 1 2 1 1
51. (e) 3 7 5 = (3 + 7 5) + =
2 5 5 4 5 5 4
46. (e) 103.7 101.3 10?
8 4 5 7
5 5
3.7 1.3 2 20 20
10 10? [ a b ac ab c
]
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SOLUTIONS 107
b
o
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52. (d) Let the number be x. 61. (c) This is a series of prime number
b
.w
62. (d) Let x = 8
x x x
then 15 = 2x 1 = y
o
Now 3 or 3 or x = 36
rd
3 4 12 28 = 2y 2 = z
p
53 = 2z 3 = m
re
53. (a) 25 92 32 81 2592 .
s
Next term in the pattern should be 2m 4 = 2 x 53 4
s
Difference = 25 92 2592
.c
= 102
o
= 2592 2592 = 0 63. (d) It is a combination of two series, namely
m
Hence, the numerical difference is 0. 24, 49, 94; and 15, 31, 59, 58
54. (d) Let the third number be 100. Then, the first and second The two series correspond to
numbers will be 20 and 50, respectively. x, (2x + 1), (4x 1), (4x 1), (4x 2)
20 Hence the missing term is
Required % = 100 40 4 24 1 = 95
50
64. (b) Add 3 after doubling the previous number.
55. (a) Let the cost price of an article be Rs 100 65. (d) The series exhibits the pattern of n2 + 1, n2 1,
then, S.P. = 100 + 10 = Rs 110 alternatively, n taking values 1, 2.............
If S.P. = 2 110 = Rs 220 66. (e) Let x be there in the question mark.
(220 100) So, 3
860000 x x3 860000
then, profit % = 100 = 120%
100
Taking log10 on boths the sides 3log10x = 5.9345
56. (b) Ratio of investment log x = 1.9782, Taking antilog we get x 95
= 3500 : 4500 : 5500 = 35 : 45 : 55 = 7 : 9 : 11 [log x is nearly 2 so, x will be near to but less than 100]
Since, Ratio of investment is same as ratio of profit.
5 1 2 13 16 12
Ratio of profit = 7 : 9 : 11 67. (d) 1 5 2
8 3 5 8 3 5
Now, profit = ` 405
7 15 13 40 16 12 24 195 640 288
As share = 405 = `Rs 105
105 =
27 120 120
1123
1 1 1 = 9.35 9.
57. (c) Part of the tank filled in one hour = 120
8 16 16
Hence, the tank will be filled in 16 hours. 8769 8769
68. (a) 8769 82 4 = 26.73 27
58. (d) Part of the tank filled by the three pipes working 4 82 328
69. (c) Let x be there in place of question mark so, x% of
1 1 1 17
simultaneously in one hour is = 45.999 16% of 83.006 = 116.073.
5 6 12 60
x 16
We take 46 83 116
60 100 100
i.e. it takes hours to fill up the tank completely..
17 x 0.46 13.28 = 116
or x 6.11 = 116
1 x = 18.98 19.
Now, of the tank is filled with all the pipes open,
2 70. (b) 12.998 27.059 17.999
60 1 13 Can be taken as near to 13 27 18 6318
simultaneously together in = 1 hours 71. (c) r2 = 2 11088
17 2 17
59. (c) Any even number is given by 2n for all n Z, where Z 22
r 2 = 2 11088
is a set of integers. This is divisible by 9 if it form 9 2n 7
= 18n, which is divisible by 18.
2 11088 7
For example, number 36 is even and sum of digits r2 = 7056
22
(3 + 6) is 9, which is divisible by 9. Hence, the number
36 is divisible by 18. r= 7056 = 84 metre
60. (a) Volume of water left in the tank = bh 22
= 20 7 (10 2) = 1120 m3 Circumference = 2 r = 2 84 = 528 metre
7
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108 101 SPEED TEST
b
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72. (a) x + y = 8 80. (d) Let thenumber be x
b
x2 172 = 1232
.w
x y 8
x2 = 1232 + 289 = 1521
o
2 x 16
rd
x = 1521 = 39
p
x=8
re
81. (b) Clearly option (b) is best supported by the passage.
y=0
s
82. (a) The given passage talks about the cause of corruption
s
Two digit number = 80
.c
and option (a) also has the same sense. Hence, it may
73. (b) Required ratio
o
be the inference.
m
= (4220 2420) : 2420
83. (a) Obviously, option (a) is the most effective statement in
= 1800 : 2420
the context of the given passage.
= 90 : 121
84. (e) According to the question, after interchanging the
74. (d) The word SCENIC consists of 6 letters in which C comes
symbols, equations becomes
twice.
26 + 15 5 4 2 = 26 + 3 8 = 29 8 = 21
6! +4 +2 +2 +2 +2
Number of arrangements =
2! R P N W S U H D F L H J Q M O
85. (a)
6 5 4 3 2 1 2 +2 +2 +2 +2
= 360
2 So, RPN is different from other four.
75. (e) 4x + 12y = 1520 Left 10 students 5th Right
Multiplying both sides by 2.5, D R
86. (d)
10x + 30y = 1520 2.5 40 students
= ` 3800 So, Ds position from the left end of the row
76. (b) C.P. of 20 kg of rice = 40 (10 + 1 + 5 ) + 1 = 41 16 = 25 th
672 R I R
=` 20 87. (a) O B T L
14
= ` 960 +1 +1 1 +1 +1
C.P. of 15 kg of wheat +1 +1
C P M
432 S H
=` 15
12 Similarly,
= ` 540 H E
C A G R
C.P. of 16 kg of sugar
504 1
+1 +1 +1 +1
=` 16 +1 +1
18
= ` 448 B I D Q S F H
Total cost price 88. (e) According to the question, Scored order among the
= ` (960 + 540 + 448) students = A > D or D > A > B > C > E
= ` 1948 So, E student is the lowest marked student.
77. (a) Required time = LCM of 30 and 90 minutes
= 90 minutes 89. (e) O V E R W H E L M
Required answer
= 11 pm + 90 minutes = 12.30 a.m. So, such number of pairs are OR, EH, LM, MR.
78. (a) Let the number be x 90. (c) B R O W N and M E A N
3 2
x x 250 5 3 1 @ % 2 6 %
5 5
x = 250 5 = 1250 R O B E
79. (c) Let the numbers be 4x and 7x
3 1 5 6
4x 4 3 91. (c) According to the question, in the above arrangements
7x 4 5 seventh to the left of the nineteenth from the left is .
21x + 12 = 20x + 20 92. (a) According to the question, in the above arrangements
x = 20 12 = 8 following series is progressing (+ 2) and ( + l)step in his
Larger number group and next group comes (+ 3) step,
= 7x = 7 8 = 56 So, next series comes in the group is U I *.
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SOLUTIONS 109
b
o
o
93. (b) According to the question, in the above arrangements III. D @ T D T (True)
b
one vowel is immediately preceded by a symbol and
.w
Hence, conclusion II and III are true from the given
immediately followed by a number, Vowel is A6 statements.
o
rd
For Q.No.94-99 For Q. 100-105.
p
P$Q P<Q Sitting arrangements of 8 persons would be as follows :
re
s
PQ P>Q D
s
.c
P Q P=Q M Q
o
P@Q P Q
m
P*Q P Q
B P
94. (d) Given statements, M@D M K,
D K D = K, K R K >R
Conclusions : T A
I. R $ M R < M (True) R
II. K M K= M (True)
100. (a) From the above arrangements, M is to the immediate
III. K $ M K < M (True)
Hence, only either II or III and I is true from the given right of D.
statements. 101. (c) From the above arrangements, T is second to the right
95. (c) Given statements F*T F< T,, of M.
T$N T < N, N@ R N R 102. (d) From the above arrangements, P is second to the left of
Conclusions : D.
I. R $ T R < T (False) 103. (b) From the above arrangements, M is third to the right of
II. N F N>F (True) P.
III. F $ R F < R (False) 104. (e) From the above arrangements, P and R are the immediate
Hence, only conclusion II is true from the given neighbours of A.
statements. 105. (e) From the above arrangements, in the following pairs, P
96. (b) Given statements, B N B> N, is immediate to the right of A.
N@ R N R, F * R, F R For Q. No. 106-111.
Conclusions : 106. (c) According to the question, Venn-Diagram is
I. B R B > R (True)
II. F * N F N (False)
Dr
III. R $ B R < B (True)
um
cups Drums
Hence, only I and III conclusion are true from the given
s
or cups
statements.
tes
Ki
Benches
s
ite
97. (b) Given statements, D $ M D< M, Benches

K
M*B M < B, B J B =J
Conclusions : Conclusions :
I. J D J > D (True) I. Some kites are cups. (False)
II. B @ D B D (False) II. Some kites are benches. (True)
III. J @ M J M (True) III. Some drums arecups. (False)
Hence, only I and III conclusion are true from the given So, only conclusion II follows, given statements.
statements. 107. (a) According to the question, VennDiagram is
98. (e) Given statements, W K W =K,
KF K >F, F $ M F<M
Conclusions :
I. M K M > K (False) Bikes Cars Trains Buses
II. W @ F W F (False)
III. F @ W F W (False)
Hence, any conclusion is not true from the given Cars
statements.
99. (a) Given statements, F @ T F T, Bikes
or
T K T =K, K * D K<D
Conclusions : Buses
I. D @ F D F (False) Trains
II. F @ K F K (True)
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110 101 SPEED TEST
b
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111. (c) According to the question, Venn-Diagram is
b
Cars
.w
o
rd
Bikes
Boxes
p
Walls Roads
re
s
s
or Rivers
.c
Trains
o
Buses
or
m
Conclusions :
I. Some buses are cars. (False) Boxes Walls Roads
II. Some trains are bikes. (False)
III. Some buses are bikes. (False) Rivers
So, none conclusion follows given statements.
108. (d) According to the question, Venn-Diagram is Conclusions :
I. Some rivers are walls. (False)
II. Some roads are boxes. (False)
Rats III. No wall is river. (True)
Dogs Rats
or Dogs So, only conclusion III follows given statements.
ts
Ma 112. (a) M A I N D E A R
ts
Cats Ma Cats
9 3 6 4 8 5 3 2
Conclusions :
I. Some mats are cats. (True) Therefore,
II. Some mats are dogs. (False) M E N D
III. Some rats are cats. (True)
So, conclusion I and III follow given statements. 9 5 4 8
109. (d) According to the question, Venn-Diagram is 113. (e) D R E A M I N G
+1 1
B F S E F M H L
Pins
Similarly,
Sticks T R E A T I S E
Rings
Rods
+1 1
Conclusions :
I. Some rings are pens. (True) B F S U D R H S
II. Some roads are sticks. (True)
III. Some roads are pens. (True)
So, all I, II, III conclusions follow, given statements. 114. (c) 5 3 1 4 6 9 7
110. (c) According to the question, Venn-Diagram is
1 3 4 5 6 7 9
115. (b) C > E, A > B > D
Now, A > B > D > C > E
Tables
es
Chairs 116. (b) N

Hous
30 m
ts
Ten
W E
20 m
Conclusions :
I. All houses are chairs. (False) S
II. Some tents are chairs. (True)
III. Some houses are tables. (True) 117. (c) Meaningful words
So, conclusion II and III follow given statements. TOUR, ROUT
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SOLUTIONS 111
b
o
o
118. (e) 48 Q 12 R 10 P 8 W 4 = ? 164. (e) Refer to the fourth sentence that in the first
b
.w
? = 48 12 10 8 + 4 month.......trees were cut down.......of the fourth para
? = 4 10 8 + 4 of the passage.
o
rd
? = 40 8 + 4 = 36 165. (a) Refer to the last sentence I turned the deadly
p
island..............a beautiful abode.......peacefully of the
re
119. (b) Second Highest Number
s
sixth para of the passage.
s
.c
7 39 166. (e) From reading the passage thoroughly we come to the
o
m
conclusion that the king was intelligent, foresight and
120. (c) green grass everywhere dik pa sok cunning as he made deadly island a beautiful place to
live in with all luxuries of the kingdom.
cow eats grass nok ta pa
167. (b) Refer to the sentence that I know.......complete the
The code for 'cow' is 'nok' or 'ta' year of the statement made by king in the fourth para
151. (b) An opening in a computer where you can insert a printed of the passage.
circuit board. Slots are often called expansion slots are 168. (d) Refer to the second last sentence of the fourth para
often called expansion slots because they allow you to that he sent all the.......for storage.......of the passage.
expand the capabilities of a computer. The boards you 169. (c) Refer to the third sentence that however, the king.......leave
insert in expansion slots are called expansion boards the kingdom.......of the last para of the passage.
or add-on boards. 170. (e) The moral of the story is Always think and plan
152. (c) A router is a device that forwards data packets across ahead.
computer networks. Routers per form the data "traffic 171. (c) The word contract means agreement. Compact, bond,
directing" functions on the Internet. A router is a deal, bargain etc. are the most similar word in meaning.
microprocessor-controlled device that is connected to 172. (a) The word bidding means order, command, wish, desire,
two or more data lines from different networks. request, direction etc. Hence wishing is most similar in
153. (b) Clock speed is usually measured in MHz (megahertz, meaning of the given word.
or millions of pulses per second) or GHz (gigahertz, or 173. (e) The word abode means house, dwelling, residence and
billions of pulses per second). habitation etc.
154. (e) A trojan horse, or Trojan, is software that appears to
174. (b) The word survived means remained alive, lived,
perform a desirable function for the user prior to run or
endured etc. Hence died is the most opposite word in
install, but (perhaps in addition to the expected
meaning.
function) steals information or harms the system.
175. (d) The word vicious means brutal, savage, dangerous,
155. (b) input
cruel etc. Its opposite word will be gentle, kindly,
156. (e) access speed
harmless etc.
157. (a) some 64 bit processors have the option of loading data
from memory 64 bits (or bytes) at a time instead of 32 176-180. Sentences are re-arranged in order as DACFBE. A mother
bits (4 bytes) at a time. Thus it's possible for data access duck is the clue and qualifier of a sentence which is
to be twice as fast if the computer's motherboard and followed by A, C, F and finally B and E.
memory supports it. 181. (e) Here, too is used as emphatic word. Lata was so scared
158. (c) 1024 kilobytes in a megabyte that she could not go home alone. Hence, no correction
159. (d) All of these is required.
160. (a) RAM 182. (b) The structure of sentence is subject + was/were + third
161. (d) The reason behind the question is not mentioned in form of verb + object. Thus, Riya was dressed to kill.
the passage. 183. (c) The given sentence is the statement of simple past
162. (a) Refer to the second sentence of the first para of the tense. Hence it should be worried instead of worries.
passage that the king had to agree to a contract....... 184. (a) The phrase let off means to give them only a light
being a king. punishment.
163. (c) Refer to the sentence that the island was covered....... 185. (d) It should be took instead of take.
discovered dead bodies.......past kings of the second
last sentence of the third para of the passage.
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112 101 SPEED TEST
b
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Answer Key
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rd
1 (d) 26 (c) 51 (b) 76 (b) 101 (b) 126 (a) 151 (a) 176 (d)
p
2 (c) 27 (e) 52 (c) 77 (c) 102 (c) 127 (b) 152 (a) 177 (e)
re
s
3 (c) 28 (c) 53 (b) 78 (b) 103 (b) 128 (c) 153 (b) 178 (a)
s
.c
4 (c) 29 (d) 54 (b) 79 (c) 104 (b) 129 (d) 154 (c) 179 (b)
o
5 55 80 105 155
m
(c) 30 (c) (a) (b) (d) 130 (a) (c) 180 (c)
6 (a) 31 (b) 56 (c) 81 (d) 106 (a) 131 (b) 156 (b) 181 (d)
7 (a) 32 (d) 57 (b) 82 (b) 107 (b) 132 (a) 157 (a) 182 (c)
8 (a) 33 (b) 58 (a) 83 (b) 108 (a) 133 (d) 158 (c) 183 (a)
9 (b) 34 (c) 59 (a) 84 (c) 109 (e) 134 (a) 159 (b) 184 (b)
10 (c) 35 (c) 60 (c) 85 (a) 110 (a) 135 (c) 160 (c) 185 (a)
11 (b) 36 (b) 61 (c) 86 (e) 111 (d) 136 (b) 161 (a) 186 (a)
12 (a) 37 (a) 62 (d) 87 (d) 112 (c) 137 (a) 162 (e) 187 (e)
13 (a) 38 (a) 63 (b) 88 (c) 113 (c) 138 (b) 163 (c) 188 (b)
14 (d) 39 (b) 64 (c) 89 (c) 114 (a) 139 (a) 164 (a) 189 (d)
15 (d) 40 (d) 65 (c) 90 (b) 115 (e) 140 (a) 165 (d) 190 (d)
16 (d) 41 (d) 66 (a) 91 (a) 116 (d) 141 (a) 166 (e) 191 (e)
17 (b) 42 (b) 67 (d) 92 (a) 117 (d) 142 (b) 167 (d) 192 (a)
18 (a) 43 (a) 68 (b) 93 (c) 118 (b) 143 (b) 168 (c) 193 (c)
19 (d) 44 (c) 69 (a) 94 (c) 119 (a) 144 (c) 169 (b) 194 (a)
20 (a) 45 (e) 70 (e) 95 (d) 120 (c) 145 (b) 170 (b) 195 (c)
21 (c) 46 (d) 71 (c) 96 (d) 121 (a) 146 (a) 171 (b) 196 (c)
22 (e) 47 (b) 72 (a) 97 (e) 122 (c) 147 (c) 172 (c) 197 (c)
23 (d) 48 (c) 73 (d) 98 (c) 123 (d) 148 (b) 173 (d) 198 (a)
24 (c) 49 (e) 74 (e) 99 (a) 124 (c) 149 (c) 174 (e) 199 (d)
25 (e) 50 (e) 75 (b) 100 (c) 125 (a) 150 (a) 175 (a) 200 (a)
Hints & Solutions

5 4 3 48. (c) a b ? ( a b)
41. (d) ? 222 37
8 9 5 or a b x.( a b)
42. (b) Let the number be x [Put x replacing ? (question mark)]
56 or a + b = x. (a + b)
450 x 300 or x = 300 252 = 48 or x = 1
100
49. (e) |? + 14| = 11 or ? + 14 = 11 or 11
43. (a) (27)1.5 (21)3.5 (27) ? ? = 25 or 3
50. (e) 16 + 26 2 = 16 + 52 = 68
?=5 a x a y a(x y)
12 1
44. (c) Let the number be x. 51. (b) 0.1008, 0.1
119 10
27.06 25 x = 600
or, x = 676.5 600 = 76.5 4 7
0.102 and 0.101
39 30 45 1 39 69
45. (e) ? 11
8 13 4 4 1
Thus, is the least.
1 1 10
46. (d) 84 3
85 2
84 3 5 2
?=4 84 52. (c) Let there be n points marked on the plane.
8 8
47. (b) (a b) . x = b a Total number of line segments = n C 2 =10
Put x replacing ? (question mark)
n(n 1)
or [ (a b) x] [a b] or (a b) x a b 10 or n 2 n 20 0
2
a b or (n 5)(n 4) 0 or n = 5 [n = 4 is rejected]
or x 1
a b
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SOLUTIONS 113
b
o
The terms exhibit the pattern 21, 22, 23 and so on.
o
53. (b) Let the sum of money be ` x. 60. (c)
b
61. (c) Try the pattern n 3 1, n = 1, 2, .......
.w
3
r 62. (d) Pattern is 22, 42 1,42 , 62 1, 62 and so on.
Now, 8x x 1
o
100 63. (b) Can you see that the pattern is
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12, 23, 32, 43, 52, 63, 72
p
3
re
r r 64. (c) Note that
or, 1 (2)3 or 1 2 0 = 13 1 6 = 2 3 2
s
100 100
s
.c
24 = 33 3
Again, let the sum becomes 16 times in n years. Then,
o
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n 65. (c) ? 1223.9975 34
r 66. (a) ? = 503 201 = 101103 101100
16 x x 1
100 67. (d) ? = 1205 2.5 = 482 480
68. (b) ? = 22020 0.011 = 2001818 2002000
16 2 n or 2 4 2 n or n 4
54. (b) Let the cost price of machine be ` 100 69. (a) ? 20800 144 12
SP of machine at a profit of 10% = ` 110
8 15 22 176
SP of machine at a loss of 10% = ` 90 70. (e) ? 25.14 25
If SP is (110 90) = ` 20 less then CP = ` 100 5 7 3 7
71. (c) Required average height
Therefore, if SP is ` 40 less, then
142 156 162 178 638
100 159.5 cm
CP = 40 ` 200 4 4
20
55. (a) Let us work with the options. 72. (a) Manoj's monthly income
For (a), total cost = 7 480 2 130 3620 = 2.16 100000 = ` 18000
For (b), total cost = 7 480 3 130 3750 12
For (c), total cost = 2 480 7 130 1870 Pratul's monthly income
Hence, option (a) is correct. 1
56. (c) Relative speed of the trains = (40 + 20) = 60 m/s = 18000 = ` 4500
4
Distance = (120 + 120) = 240 m Pratul's annual income
Time taken by trains to cross each other completely
= 12 4500 = ` 54000
240 73. (d) The pattern of the number series is:
= 4s
60 17 + 92 = 17 + 81 = 98
Larger the no. of cogs (tooth of wheel) of wheel, 98 + 72 = 98 + 49 = 147
lesser will be that no. of revolution made by it. 147 + 52 = 147 + 25 = 172
57. (b) Let Sunil finishes the job in x hours. 172 + 32 = 172 + 9 = 181
x 181 + 12 = 181 + 1 = 182
Then, Ramesh will finish the job in hours.
2 74. (e) The pattern of the number series is:
11 + 8 = 19
x
We have, x 3 x 6 19 + 12 (= 8 + 4) = 31
2 31 + 16 (= 12 + 4) = 47
Therefore, Sunil finishes the job in 6 hours and Ramesh 47 + 20 (= 16 + 4) = 67
in 3 hours.
67 + 24 (= 20 + 4) = 91
1 1 1
Work done by both of them in 1 hour = 75. (b) The pattern of the number series is:
6 3 2 748 460 = 288
They together finish the piece of work in 2 hours. 460 316 = 144
58. (a) Let the present age of the man = x years 316 244 = 72
Now, (x + 15) = 4 (x 15)
or 3x = 75 or x = 25 years 244 208 = 36 ? = 208 18 = 190
59. (a) Area of the outer rectangle = 19 16 = 304 m 2 76. (b) L.H.S. = (16 8) = 8
2m R.H.S. = 100 36 64 = 8
Verandah L.H.S. = R.H.S.
52 3
77. (c) L.H.S. = 13
12
12
2m 2m R.H.S. = 196 = 14
78. (b) L.H.S. = 156 (6) = 156 + 6 = 162
15 Floor of room R.H.S. = 81 2 = 162
2m 15 35
79. (c) L.H.S. = = 5 + 5 = 10
3 7
Area of the inner rectangle = 15 12 = 180 m2 R.H.S. = (138 94) 4 = 44 4 = 11
Required area = (304 180) = 124 m2
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114 101 SPEED TEST
b
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80. (b) L.H.S. = (52 16) 5
= $ @
b
= 36 5 = 180
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(94 98) : #
R.H.S. = 25 8 20
o
= 200 20 = 180
rd
94. (c) W @ T W T
p
81. (d) treeis very beautiful ka na da ta
re
TM T M
s
this is strong tree na pa sa ka
s
M$D M < D Therefore, W T M < D
.c
The code for beautiful is either da or ta. Conclusions
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82. (b) G I V E F A I L I. W # D W D : Not True
II. W @ M W M : Not True
5 1 @ % 2 1 9 III. D # T D T : True
95. (d) F R F R
Therefore, L E A F
R M R M
9 2 % M$D M D
83. (b) 3 8 6 7 4 5 1 0 9 2 Therefore, F= R M D
Conclusions
3rd from right I. D # R D > R : True
84. (c) All others are parts of a Car. II. D # F D > F : True
85. (a) S U B S T A N C E III. M @ F M F : True
96. (d) V M V M
1 +1 +1 M B M B
B$ F B F
R A T R U F D O B Therefore, V M B F
Similarly, Conclusions
T E N T H O U S E I. F # M F > M : True
II. B @V B V : True
1 +1 +1 III. F #V F V : True
97. (e) D # N D>N
S M D S I F T V P N@B N B
86. (e) 519 915; 364 463;
287 782; 158 851; B F B F
835 538 Therefore, D> N B = F
Second lowest number Conclusions
538 83 5 I. F$ D F D : True
87. (d) Second highest number II. N# F N > F : Not True
581 158 III. N F N = F : Not True
88. (c) Highest number 835 N is either greater than or equal to F. Therefore, either I
Lowest number 158 or II is true.
Required difference 53=2
(89 93) : Sitting arrangement 98. (c) R $ T R T
D T# K T>K
M W K@M K M
Therefore, R < T > K M
R Q Conclusions
I. R $ M R M : Not True
P B
II. T# M T > M : True
A
89. (c) Q is second to the left of D. III. R$ K R < K : Not True
90. (b) D is third to the left of P. 99. (a) 21st from the right end is B and sixth to the right of B
91. (a) W is to the immediate right of Q. is 8.
92. (a) D and M are the first and second respectively to the Trick : Required answer = 21 6 = 15th from the right,
right of W. i.e., 8.
93. (c) B is sitting to the immediate immediate right of A.
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SOLUTIONS 115
b
o
o
Symbol Vowel Consonant Some cats are tigers.
100. (c)
b
Conclusion I is Converse of it.
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Such combinations are: 108. (a) All ropes are sticks.
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@EJ ; %AV
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101. (b) Number Symbol Number Some sticks are hammers.
s
A + I No Conclusion
s
.c
There is only one such combination: Q $ 6 109. (e) The following changes occur in the subsequent figures.
o
(1) to (2) (1) to (3)
m
102. (c) Number Consonant Symbol
Such combinations are:
1H % ; 2 Q $
1 3
103. (b) 8 1 D
1 2 These two steps are continued in the subsequent
7 5
figures alternately.
P
1
2
3
7 110. (a) The following changes occur in the subsequent figures:
(1) to (2) (2) to (3)
1 3
E J R
1 3
T 4 J
(104 110).
(i) All petals are trees Universal Affirmative (A-type).
(ii) Some days are nights Particular Affirmative (I-type). These two steps are continued in the subsequent
(iii) No lock is toy Universal Negative (E-type). figures alternately.
(iv) Some locks are not toys Particular Negative (O-type)
111. (d) The given passage talks about the disposal of election
104. (b) All keys are locks.
petitions. It also gives the resolution of the disposal of
the election petition. While option (d) also have the
same sanse, Hence it may be a conclusion.
No lock is toy.
112. (c) Obviously, option (c) strengthens the conclusion of
A + E E-type of Conclusion
the passage.
No key is toy.
All bags are toys. 113. (c) The summary of option (c) opposes the conclusion of the
passes. Thus it weakens the conclusion of the passage.
114. (a) The code has been generated by writing the letters in
reverse order OMNIBUS SUBINMO
No toy is lock.
A + E E-type of Conclusion Therefore, TROUBLE ELBUORT
No bag is lock.
All bags are toys. 115. (e) 3 15 18 16 15 18 1 20 5
C O R P O R A T E
No toy is key.
A + E E-type of Conclusion
No bag is key. 116. (d) 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
This is Conclusion I. E D U C A T I 0 N
105. (d) All the three Premises are Particular Affirmative (I-type).
No Conclusion follows from the two Particular Premises. Meaningful word DATE
Conclusions I and III from complementary pair. C 20 m B
Therefore, either I or III follows. 117. (d)
106. (a) Some tyres are wheels.
10 m 10 m
All wheels are buses. E

5 km D A
I + A I-type of Conclusion
Some tyres are buses. Required distance = AE = AD + DE = 20 km + 5 km = 25 km
Conclusion I is Converse of it. 118. (b) 12 B 20 A 4 Q 10 F 30 = ?
Conclusion II is Converse of the second premise. ? = 12 20 4 10 + 30
107. (b) Some cats are horses. ? = 12 5 10 + 30 ? = 90 10 = 80
119. (a) 1 8 4 3 5 7 2 9
All horses are tigers.
I + A I-type of Conclusion 5th of the left of 2
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116 101 SPEED TEST
b
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120. (c) Z Y X W V U T 159. (b) A password is a string of characters that people can
b
Z Y X W V U use to log on to a computer and access files, programs,
.w
Z Y X W V and other resources. Passwords help ensure that people
o
Z Y X W do not access the computer unless they have been
rd
authorized to do.
p
Z Y X
re
160. (c) A page break is used to start next page at current
141. (a) The first computers were programmed using assembly
s
position. By positioning cursor at appropriate place and
s
language.
.c
press Ctrl + Enter or select Page Break from Insert menu.
142. (b) Folder is collection of organized files. A folder is a
o
161. (a) Refer to the sentence He could not find.........in search
m
container that helps you to organize your files. Every of work.
file on your computer is stored irra folder, and folders 162. (e) Refer to the sentence Please do not help him..........of
can also hold other folders. the second para of the passage.
143. (b) In order to create columnar data in word you need to set 163. (c) Refer to the sentence You are...........bite me?........of
tabs or use the table menu. Table contain columns to the second para of the passage.
arrange the data in columnar form. 164. (a) Refer to the sentence He would be.......Ghanshyamdas
144. (c) Unlimited document can be open at one time till computer .......of the third para of the passage.
memory will hold the document. 165. (d) Refer to the sentence, He gave him........delicious
145. (b) Hackers mostly refer to computer criminals. Hackers are fruits........of the third para of the passage.
people who are breaking into computers using programs 166. (e) Refer to the sentence I shall creep........bite her........
to get unauthorised access. hand on her forehead of the fourth para of the passage.
146. (a) To see how the print copy will look like before you print 167. (d) Refer to the sentence, A man brought .......prince who
it, Page preview is to get an idea of the document how it is missing........of the third para of the passage.
appears before you actually print it out. Print preview is 168. (c) Refer to the sentence He at once........pieces of gold
typically located on the file menu for a program. of the second last sentence of fourth para of the
147. (c) A network architecture that distributes intelligence and passage.
responsibilities at several levels, with some machines 169. (b) Refer to the sentence Finally, the king
designated as servers to serve the needs of client declared........handsomely rewarded of the fourth para
machines. A server can be a mainframe, minicomputer, of the passage.
or personal computer that operates in a time sharing 170. (b) The moral of the story can possibly be A good deed
mode to provide for the needs of many clients. Client never goes in vain.
machines are complete, standalone PC or micro 171. (b) The word live is most similar in meaning to the word
computers that optimize the user interface. go in the context of the passage.
148. (b) "GUI" stands for graphical user interface. 172. (c) The word modest is a synonym of humble, while other
149. (c) A CPU consists of control unit, arithmetic logical unit words are plain, simple, ordinary and unpretentious.
and main memory unit. 173. (d) The most similar word is ask for in the context of the
150. (a) Spam is unsolicited commercial junke mail sent to large passage.
number of email address. 174. (e) The word stopped is most opposite in meaning like
151. (a) Printer can be shared by one or more computer at a time break off.
in computer network (LAN), while keyboard, speakers, 175. (a) The word meagerly is the antonym of the word
floppy disk drive are not shared by computer network handsomely in the context of the passage.
at a time. 176. (d) Replace to by too to make a correct phrase a bit too
152. (a) Employee address is alphanumeric data (alphabets and fast which means slightly or to a small extent.
numeric) while examination score and bank balance are 177. (e) The word think about refers to consider. Hence no
the numeric data. correction is required.
153. (b) Data is raw facts that computer organize to make 178. (a) Replace leisure by the adverbial word leisurely.
meaningful information. The computer converts the data 179. (b) The phrase gift of the gab means to have a talent for
in to information by processing it. speaking.
154. (c) A hyperlink (or link) is a reference to a document that 180. (c) The phrase the order of the day means common,
the reqader can directly follow or that is followed popular or suitable at a particular time. For example :
automatically. A hyperlink points to a whle document Pessimism seems to be the order of the day.
or to a specific element within a document. 181. (d) It should be here was her sons future.
155. (c) A computer cannot "boot" if it does not have the 182. (c) The correct spelling should be triumphant.
operating system. 183. (a) The word suppressed should be replaced by revealed
156. (b) ROM-Read only memory is a non-volatile memory used or leaked in the sentence.
store the data. Non-volatile mean that data is remains in 184. (b) It should be handed over which means the act of
memory if the power is turned off. moving power or responsibility from one person to
157. (a) Computer connected through LAN (Local area Network) another.
to form a small, single site (Location) network which 185. (a) The correct spelling is difficult.
share information or peripheral equipments. LAN is
networks usually confined to a geographic area.
158. (c) Ctrl + Home and Ctrl + End key used to go at the
beginning and at the end of long document.

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5. CODING - DECODING 9-10 36. RATIO & PROPORTION 73-74

6. BLOOD RELATION 11-12 37. ALLIGATION AND MIXTURE 75-76

9. SITTING ARRANGEMENT 17-18 40. COMPOUND INTEREST 81-82

12. VENN DIAGRAMS 23-24 43. PROBLEM BASED ON AGES 87-88

13. SYLLOGISM - I 25-26 44. PERMUTATION & COMBINATION 89-90

14. SYLLOGISMS - II 27-28 45. PROBABILITY 91-92

68. IDIOMS AND PHRASES 143-144 87. SOCIO-ECO-POLITICAL

101 SPEED TEST - SOLUTIONS 1-116

5 3 1 (a) rope (b) loop (c) cowl

RESPONSE 16. a b c d e 17. a b c d e 18. a b c d e 19. a b c d e 20. a b c d e

RESPONSE 16. a b c d e 17. a b c d e 18. a b c d e 19. a b c d e 20. a b c d e

(a) 246 (b) 238 (c) 236

16. a b c d e 17. a b c d e 18. a b c d e 19. a b c d e 20. a b c d e

16. a b c d e 17. a b c d e 18. a b c d e 19. a b c d e 20. a b c d e

16. a b c d e 17. a b c d e 18. a b c d e 19. a b c d e 20. a b c d e

16. a b c d e 17. a b c d e 18. a b c d e 19. a b c d e 20. a b c d e

16. a b c d e 17. a b c d e 18. a b c d e 19. a b c d e 20. a b c d e

16. a b c d e 17. a b c d e 18. a b c d e 19. a b c d e 20. a b c d e

16. a b c d e 17. a b c d e 18. a b c d e 19. a b c d e 20. a b c d e

16. a b c d e 17. a b c d e 18. a b c d e 19. a b c d e 20. a b c d e

5 (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)

11. a b c d e 12. a b c d e 13. a b c d e 14. a b c d e 15. a b c d e

GRID 21. a b c d e 22. a b c d e 23. a b c d e 24. a b c d e 25. a b c d e

GRID 22. a b c d e 23. a b c d e 24. a b c d e 25. a b c d e 26. a b c d e

GRID 17. a b c d e 18. a b c d e 19. a b c d e 20. a b c d e 21. a b c d e

16. a b c d e 17. a b c d e 18. a b c d e 19. a b c d e 20. a b c d e

10. a b c d e 11. a b c d e 12. a b c d e 13. a b c d e 14. a b c d e

16. a b c d e 17. a b c d e 18. a b c d e 19. a b c d e 20. a b c d e

16. a b c d e 17. a b c d e 18. a b c d e 19. a b c d e 20. a b c d e

RESPONSE 16. a b c d e 17. a b c d e 18. a b c d e 19. a b c d e 20. a b c d e

GRID 21. a b c d e 22. a b c d e 23. a b c d e 24. a b c d e 25. a b c d e

11. a b c d e 12. a b c d e 13. a b c d e 14. a b c d e 15. a b c d e

9. a b c d e 10. a b c d e 11. a b c d e 12. a b c d e 13. a b c d e

RESPONSE 7. a b c d e 8. a b c d e 9. a b c d e 10. a b c d e 11. a b c d e

GRID 12. a b c d e 13. a b c d e 14. a b c d e 15. a b c d e

RESPONSE 7. a b c d e 8. a b c d e 9. a b c d e 10. a b c d e 11. a b c d e

GRID 12. a b c d e 13. a b c d e 14. a b c d e 15. a b c d e

(d) (e) None of these

17. Which number is on the face opposite to 1 ?

RESPONSE 11. a b c d e 12. a b c d e 13. a b c d e 14. a b c d e 15. a b c d e

GRID 16. a b c d e 17. a b c d e 18. a b c d e 19. a b c d e 20. a b c d e

Problem Figures Answer Figures

(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)

(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)

(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)

(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)

(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)

(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)

(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)

(a) (b) (c) (d) (e) ?

GRID 11. a b c d e 12. a b c d e 13. a b c d e 14. a b c d e 15. a b c d e

? (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)

(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)

(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)

13. a b c d e 14. a b c d e 15. a b c d e 16. a b c d e 17. a b c d e

26. a b c d e 27. a b c d e 28. a b c d e 29. a b c d e 30. a b c d e

34. a b c d e 35. a b c d e 36. a b c d e 37. a b c d e 38. a b c d e

16. a b c d e 17. a b c d e 18. a b c d e 19. a b c d e 20. a b c d e

2 8. Given, n = 1 + x, where x is the product of four consecutive