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3 Unit 3:
We are going to give you some suggestions in this section on how to deal with portions of Unit-3. We
would be focusing on the following questions which generally one has in his/her mind when one thinks
about the easiest way to prepare for Unit-3.
Topic-wise suggestion:
This Unit is of critical importance. It contains all the very fundamental concepts of Cell and
Molecular Biology. More over every year, you can find at least 7-8 questions from this Unit. These
questions come in Part A sometimes and Part B at times. The questions will be purely fact-based.
This gives you a chance to easily answer them and score well if the basic concepts are dealt
thoroughly.
To deal with this Unit in a very short period of time, you need to study just the standard books.
Preparation of point wise notes on each topic is very important. This will help you to cover up and
revise the whole unit very easily. This is a Basic Unit to start with. You should keep in mind that
the topics are interlinked.
Which books to follow?
You can follow any standard Book for this Unit. For Additional reference, I will suggest the following
books:
experimental detail which helps to explain and reinforce the concept being explained.
This book offers an exceedingly clear presentation and excellent art program
pertaining to the respective topics of the unit.
Lehninger's Principles of Biochemistry:
o Few topics from this book will allow you to understand the concepts of molecular
biology more precisely.
We need to keep in mind that we have limited time to prepare. So in spite of this unit being very
vast and related to important fundamentals, you need to use your time optimally. If you provide
2hours per day for this Unit for duration of 15 days, it is implied that you will be thorough with
the respective topics of the Unit.
Suggestions:
Do not skip any topic/ sub-topic from this Unit.
Basic concepts of this Unit will be helpful for other units too.
Unit 13 is interrelated to this Unit.
So deal with this Unit thoroughly.
Topic-wise suggestion:
Translation and Gene Regulation:
Both these topics of Unit 3 are very important. You have absolutely no areas to
ignore or skip regarding these topics and sub-topics related to them.
These two topics are to be dealt carefully. Being one of the most important and
fundamental concepts of Molecular Biology, clear conceptual knowledge pertaining to
these topics and sub topics is important.
DNA Replication, Repair and Recombination
Part B
1. In which form of DNA, the number of base pairs per helical turn is 10.5?
a. A
b. B
c. X
d. Z
3. Restriction endonuclease cleaves DNA molecules at specific recognition sites. One such
enzymes has 4 recognition sites on a circular DNA molecule. After complete digestion,
how many fragments would be produced upon reaction with this enzyme?
a. 4
b. 5
c. 3
d. 6
5. The base analog 2-aminopurine pairs with thymine, and can occasionally pair with
cytosine. The type of mutation induced by 2-aminopurine is
a. Transversion
b. Transition
c. Deletion
d. Nonsense
6. A single stranded nick in the parental DNA helix just ahead of a replication fork causes
the replication fork to break. Recovery from this calamity requires
a. DNA ligase
b. DNA primase
c. Site-specific recombination
d. Homologous recombination
8. A change on one locus to another locus of the same gene results in mutation. The 2
copies of mutated same gene is termed as
a. Complementation group
b. Linkage group
c. Duplicate genes
d. Allele
9. During the process of DNA replication, primase uses the following DNA sequence as a
template to make a primer:
5'-GATTCAAGTAGTC-3'
Which of the following is the correct primer sequence synthesized using this template?
a. 5'-GAUUCAAGUAGUC-3'
b. 5'-GATTCAAGTAGTC-3'
c. 5'-CUAAGUUCAUCAG-3'
d. 5'-GACUACUUGAAUC-3'
10. In human beings the inherited autosomal recessive disease xeroderma pigmentosum is
the result of a defect in the
a. SOS repair
b. Repair of ultraviolet light damaged DNA
c. Repair of alkylated DNA Mismatch repair
d. Mismatch repair
a. A.
b. B
c. C
d. D
13. What event(s) can cause a cytosine to become a thymine in the genome?
a. depurination
b. methylation of cytosine followed by deamination
c. exposure to UV light
d. methylation only
14. Which DNA repair mechanism is primarily responsible for correcting apurinic or
apyrimidinic sites?
a. Uracil glycosylase
b. AP endonuclease
c. Homologous recombination
d. Only DNA ligase
15. The name of the strand that is being copied in the direction of the advancing replication
fork and is synthesized almost continuously
a. Okazaki strand
b. Sense strand
c. Antisense strand
d. Leading strand
17. Mutations in homologs of bacterial MutS and MutL in humans cause Bloom's Syndrome
a. Hereditary non-polyposis colon cancer
b. Fanconi's anemia
c. Xeroderma pigmentosum
d. Ataxia telangiectasia
19. In the DNA polymerase reaction, incoming nucleotides are covalently bonded to the
___________ end of the growing DNA chain. Each successive nucleotide is linked to the
growing chain by a _______________ bond.
a. 5'- phosphoester
b. 3'- hydrogen
c. 3'- phosphoanhydride
d. 3'- phosphoester
20. To start a complementary DNA synthesis on a parent strand, DNA polymerase requires a
primer which is
a. protein complex enabling DNA polymerase to access parent DNA strands
b. single nucleotide with a free hydroxyl group at 3'-position
c. short DNA oligonucleotide synthesized on the parent strand
d. short RNA oligonucleotide synthesized on the parent strand
21. During which phase of the cell cycle does DNA replication occurs?
a. G2 Phase
b. Mitosis
c. S Phase
d. G1 Phase
22. The lagging strand is synthesized discontinuously at the replication fork because
a. the lagging strand template is discontinuous.
b. DNA polymerase always falls off the template DNA every ten nucleotides or so.
c. DNA polymerase removes the last few nucleotides synthesized whenever it
stops.
d. DNA polymerase can polymerize nucleotides only in the 5'-to-3' direction.
27. Topoisomerase enzymes are important in the replication of DNA because they
a. anneal Okazaki fragments
b. "proofread" newly synthesized DNA
c. synthesize the RNA primer fragments
d. relax supercoiled DNA
28. The enzyme that synthesizes short stretches of ribonucleic acid (about 10 nucleotides in
length) that are complementary and antiparallel to the DNA template is called:
a. Helicase
b. Single-strand binding protein
c. Primase
d. Ligase
29. What is the one clinical feature shared by disorders caused by defects in DNA repair
mechanisms?
a. Skeletal and limb abnormalities
b. Short stature
c. Mental retardation and development delay
d. Increased risk of cancer
32. A change on one locus to another locus of the same gene results in mutation. The 2
copies of mutated same gene is termed as
a. Complementation group
b. Linkage group
c. Duplicate genes
d. Allele
34. Which molecule serves to destabilize the DNA helix in order to open it up, creating a
replication fork?
a. DNA polymerase
b. single strand binding proteins
c. DNA gyrase
d. DNA helicase
A. 5' to 3'.
B. 3' to 5'.
C. 5' to 2'.
a. both A and B.
b. A, B, and C.
c. Only A
d. neither A, B, nor C.
36. The discovery of Okazaki fragments suggested that DNA synthesis is sometimes
a. semiconservative.
b. discontinuous.
c. continuous.
d. 3' to 5'.
37. In the Meselson-Stahl experiment, which mode of replication can be eliminated based
on data derived after one generation of replication?
a. Conservative
b. semiconservative
c. dispersive
d. all three modes
38. What activity of DNA polymerase I (pol I of Kornberg's enzyme) is responsible for the
removal and replacement of the RNA primer?
a. 5' to 3' polymerase
b. 3' to 5' polymerase
c. 5' to 3' exonuclease
d. Primase
40. Which one of the following does not explain how human cells can apparently replicate
DNA much faster than a bacterium?
a. There is more DNA polymerase in eukaryotes.
b. The eukaryotic DNA polymerase moves much more quickly.
c. DNA synthesis occurs simultaneously at multiple points along the chromosome
in eukaryotes.
d. There are more origins of replication in eukaryotes.
41. The primer required for DNA synthesis is made by the following enzyme:
a. DNA polymerase III
b. Replicase
c. Primase
d. DNA polymerase I
42. Okazaki fragments
a. are synthesized by primase.
b. add nucleotides to the elongating DNA.
c. remove the primer.
d. are formed in the lagging strand.
44. The first nuclear transplant from an animal to an egg that produced a normal adult was
performed on a
a. frog
b. sheep
c. cat
d. dog
45. All of the following were outcomes of Avery's experiment on "the active principle"
except
a. the array of the elements of purified principle agreed closely with DNA and the
principle centrifuged to the same level as DNA.
b. protein digesting enzymes did not affect the sample
c. the extraction of lipids and proteins from the principle only slightly reduced its
activity
d. DNA-digesting enzyme, DNase, destroyed all transcription activity.
47. The fact that some viruses use DNA to direct their heredity was demonstrated by
a. finding radioactive phosphorus from a bacterium in a bacteriophage.
b. finding that radioactive phosphorus from a bacteriophage had mutated in
bacterium.
c. finding radioactive phosphorus from a bacteriophage in a bacterium.
d. finding radioactive sulfur from a bacterium in a bacteriophage.
50. Although the work produced important results, Rosalind Franklin's work was hindered
by the lack of
a. electricity
b. strong x-rays
c. true crystals of DNA
d. thin layer chromatography
52. Which three people were awarded the Nobel Prize for the discovery of the structure of
DNA: the double helix?
a. Francis Crick, James Watson and Rosalind Franklin
b. James Watson, Francis Crick and Maurice Wilkins
c. Maurice Wilkins, Rosalind Franklin and Francis Crick
d. James Watson, Rosalind Franklin and Maurice Wilkins
53. Which of the following reactions is required for proofreading (i.e. correcting replication
errors) during DNA replication by DNA polymerase III?
a. 3' - 5' exonuclease activity
b. 5' - 3' exonuclease activity
c. 3' - 5' endonuclease activity
d. 5' - 3' endonuclease activity
54. How does the mismatch repair system distinguish between the parental (i.e. correct)
DNA strand and the newly synthesised strand containing the mismatched base?
a. Thymine in the parental strand of the helix is methylated at GATC.
b. Thymine in the new strand of the helix is methylated at GATC.
c. Guanine in the parental strand of the helix is methylated at GATC.
d. Guanine in the new strand of the helix is methylated at GATC.
55. What is the name of the DNA repair system in E. coli in which dual incisions are made in
the damaged part of the double helix, and a 12-13 base segment is removed and
replaced with new DNA?
a. Mismatch repair
b. Base excision repair
c. Nucleotide excision repair
d. AP site repair
56. Which of the following is the name of the human genetic disorder resulting from defects
in nucleotide excision repair?
a. Hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal cancer (HNPCC)
b. Xeroderma pigmentosum (XP)
c. Lynch syndrome
d. Diabetes
58. What is the source of the repair template during excision repair?
a. There is none, since repair is by direct reversal.
b. There is none, since repair is bypassed.
c. The strand complementary to the damaged DNA.
d. The sister chromatid of the damaged DNA.
62. Which ONE of the following reactions DOES NOT require the energy of ATP hydrolysis:
a. Formation of the MutS, MutL, MutH complex
b. Photoreactivation of a thymine dimer
c. Binding of RecA to single-strand DNA
d. Unwinding of incised DNA by the UvrD helicase
63. Which one of the following statements regarding the SOS error-prone repair system is
FALSE:
a. Once repair is completed the system turns itself off.
b. Damage that blocks replication and leads to exposure of single-strand DNA
induces the system.
c. RecA must help to cleave LexA and activate the system.
d. This error prone repair system primarily results in frameshift mutations
66. Which statement about Southern blotting and Northern blotting is TRUE?
a. Southern blotting identifies separated RNA while Northern blotting identifies
separated DNA.
b. Both techniques require that the nucleic acids transferred to a filter be double
stranded.
c. Southern blotting requires synthetic oligonucleotides while Northern blotting
requires radioactivity.
d. Neither can be used quantitatively
67. ALL of the following statements about retroviruses and/or retrotransposons are true
EXCEPT:
a. They both use the enzyme reverse transcriptase to copy their RNA genomes into
double stranded DNA.
b. The reverse transcriptase of retroviruses and retrotransposons is structurally
related to the transposase of DNA transposons.
c. Retroviruses are infectious while retrotransposons are endogenous mobile
elements.
d. Short target site duplications are characteristic of both types of elements, as
well as DNA transposons, when they insert into chromosomal DNA.
e. Retroviruses and many retrotransposons have long terminal repeats (LTRs)
flanking their coding regions.
68. Which statement is FALSE about patch recombinants and splice recombinants?
a. Patch recombinants lead to crossover products
b. Splice recombinants contain a region of heteroduplex DNA
c. Both can be formed using either the original Holliday model or the double
strand break repair model
d. In splice recombinants all 4 strands are cut and rejoined
73. ALL of the following are involved in aspects of general (i.e. homologous) recombination
in E. coli EXCEPT:
a. Chi sequence
b. Dam methylase
c. RecA
d. RecBCD
75. All of the following statements about the RecBCD system are true EXCEPT:
a. The proteins in the complex have multiple functions.
b. Chi sequences represent recombination hot spots in the E. coli genome.
c. Chi sequences are under-represented in the E. coli genome, to minimize
recombination.
d. After recognizing a chi sequence, the RecBCD system helps to load RecA onto
single strand DNA.
78. Which ONE of the following statements about the Holliday model for homologous
recombination is FALSE:
a. For recombination to occur, 4 strands of DNA must be cleaved and religated.
b. Branch migration leads to a region of heteroduplex DNA whether or not
recombinants are formed.
c. The Holliday model can be used to explain crossing over in meiosis.
d. The Holliday model usually involves new DNA synthesis.
81. Which of the following situations is LEAST LIKELY to result in a base substitution
mutation?
a. A tautomeric shift during replication
b. An alkylating agent adding an ethyl group at the O-6 position of a guanine
residue
c. A mutase bypassing a DNA lesion.
d. A chromosomal rearrangement leading to an inversion.
82. Sickle cell anemia is caused by a mutation in:
a. the coding region of the beta-globin gene
b. the promoter region of the beta-globin gene
c. the origin of replication nearest to the beta-globin gene
d. the coding region of the alpha-globin gene
84. Which of the following is a biological function of E. coli DNA gyrase (a type II
topoisomerase)?
a. It decreases the number of negative supercoils by increments of 1.
b. It is needed to decatenate (separate) the two circular double stranded DNA
daughter molecules at the end of replication.
c. It is needed to unwind the double stranded DNA by breaking hydrogen bonds
between the base pairs.
d. It can add telomeres to the ends of chromosomes.
85. ALL of the following statements about retroviruses and/or retrotransposons are TRUE
EXCEPT:
a. They both use the enzyme reverse transcriptase to copy their RNA genomes into
double stranded DNA.
b. They primarily utilize host gene products to go from their RNA to DNA form but
use viral/transposon encoded gene products to go from their integrated DNA
forms back to RNA.
c. Retroviruses are infectious while retrotransposons are endogenous mobile
elements.
d. Short target site duplications are characteristic of both types of elements, as
well as DNA transposons, when they insert into chromosomal DNA.
86. Which of the following statements is True about eukaryotic DNA replication?
a. Eukaryotic chromosomes are circular molecules like the E. coli chromosome.
b. Eukaryotic replication does not involve Okazaki fragments.
c. There are multiple origins of replication on a eukaryotic chromosome.
d. Eukaryotes have no requirement for topoisomerases.
89. Of the following statements regarding the dam methylase dependent mismatch
correction system, the ONLY ONE which is TRUE is:
90. (The following five statements are factually accurate.) The earliest step in initiation
from the origin of replication (OriC) in E. coli is:
a. The DnaB helicase unwinding the duplex.
b. Synthesis by DNA Pol III.
c. The DnaA (Initiator Factor Protein) binding four 9-bp repeats on the OriC.
d. Primase synthesizing an RNA primer.
91. "Jumping genes" that have the ability to move within and between chromosomes are
called
a. introns.
b. oncogenes.
c. transposons.
d. retroviruses.
92. A deletion of one base pair that alters the sequence of codons, as the loss of "A" in C-C-
G-T-A-G-C... to form C-C-G-T-G-C... is called a(an)
a. transposon.
b. point mutation.
c. carcinogen.
d. frameshift mutation.
94. An oncogene is
a. a viral gene with no relation to the host cell's genes.
b. a mutated form of a proto-oncogene.
c. a bacterial gene that causes cancer in the host.
d. always seen in human cancer cells.
95. You are more likely to develop some forms of cancer if you:
a. are exposed to higher doses of radiation including X rays.
b. are exposed to carcinogens.
c. have a high incidence of cancer in your family history leading to your hereditary
lineage.
d. All of the choices are correct
96. The ______ are associated with breast cancer as well as a substantial proportion of
ovarian cancers.
a. p53 gene
b. BRCA1 and BRCA2 genes
c. ras oncogene
d. bcl-2 protein
97. The ______ stimulate(s) apoptosis.
a. p53 gene
b. BRCA1 and BRCA2 genes
c. ras oncogene
d. RB tumor-repressor gene
99. Transposons.
a. alter the expression of neighboring genes especially if the transposon is a
regulator gene.
b. have been discovered in corn, fruit flies, bacteria, and humans.
c. compose a significant portion of the human genome.
d. All of the choices are correct.
103. When chromatin is treated with nonspecific nucleases, what is the length of the
resulting pieces of DNA?
a. random numbers of base pairs
b. about 60 base pairs
c. about 8 base pairs
d. about 200 base pairs
107. A 20 year old man was diagnosed with abnormal form of globin (Hemoglobin
Constant Spring) which is longer than the normal protein, which of the following point
mutation is consistent with the abnormality?
a. UAA->CAA
b. CGA>UGA
c. UAA->UAG
d. GAC-> UAC
108. An 8 year-old boy is treated with Ciprofloxacin for some respiratory infection.
Which of the following enzyme activity is most directly affected by this drug?
a. DNA polymerase
b. Topoisomerase
c. Reverse transcriptase
d. RNA polymerase
110. In which phase of the cell cycle does DNA replication occur?
a. G0
b. G1
c. S
d. G2
111. The enzyme responsible for continuing DNA replication in prokaryotes, once it is
initiated is:
a. DNA polymerase I
b. DNA polymerase III
c. polymerase beta
d. polymerase delta
112. In Pyrimidine Synthesis, Eukaryotes can use uracil to feedback inhibit which of
the following enzymes?
a. Carbamoyl phosphate synthase
b. Aspartate Transcarbamoylase
c. Dihydrooratase
d. Thymidylate synthase
113. A 40-year-old alcoholic comes in with severe pain in his big toe. You decide to
administer Allopurinol to inhibit which of the following enzymes:
a. Xanthine Oxidase
b. Thymidine kinase
c. Adenosine Deaminase
d. Adenine phosphoribosyl transferase
114. Choose the nucleoside analogue used as an anticancer drug out of the
followings
a. Methotrexate
b. 6- Mercaptopurine
c. Vinblastin
d. Cytosine Arabinoside
Part C
116. Denaturation profiles of DNA are shown below. Which of the following
observations are correct?
a. The DNA is single stranded but of different sizes
b. A + T content of A >B >C and the DNA are from complex genomes
c. G + C content of C >B >A in DNA of comparable sizes isolated from simple
genomes
d. G + C content is identical but A + T content in A >B >C in DNA of comparable
sizes isolated from simple genomes
A. There is no difference in the mobility of labeled DNA fragments between the Set 1
and Set 2
B. There is distinct difference in the mobility of the newly synthesized labeled DNA
fragments between Set1 and Set2
C. The mobility of newly synthesized labeled DNA fragments in case of Set 1 is faster as
compared to Set 2
D. The mobility of newly synthesized labeled DNA fragments in case of Set 1 is slower as
compared to Set 2
a. A and B
b. B and C
c. A and D
d. B and D
118. There are many genetic components to the development of cancer. Some of
these involve the enzymes involved in DNA metabolism. In one such disease, Bloom's
syndrome, patients have a dramatically increased risk of cancer. It has been proposed
that the genetic defect is in a helicase. The function of a helicase in the cell is to:
a. allow single strands of DNA to form a duplex
b. ligate DNA aftr mismatches are removed
c. unwind DNA creating single strands
d. alter the activity of DNA polymerase
121. A scientist in the year 2350 is advising the NASA genetic engineering
department concerning its attempt to engineer humans who can better survive the
harsh climate of a planet that has high levels of ultraviolet (UV) light. The NASA
engineers want to incorporate a group of genes that will allow epidermal cells to
produce a light absorbing pigment. Of the following genetic manipulations, which would
be most advantageous in cells in a UV-rich environment?
a. Altering a theoretical human equivalent of the bacterial RecA protein in the cells
to decrease RecA activity
b. Removing intron DNA from the engineered genes
c. Producing genes with a low thymidine content
d. Introducing the engineered genes in an overlapping fashion into the human
genome
C. It is a sigmoidal curve
a. A and C
b. B and D
c. A and D
d. B and C
a. A*A*TTGA*TC
TT AACT AG
b. A*A T T GA*TC
TT A*A*CT AG
c. AATTGATC
TTAACTAG
d. A*A*T T GA*T C
TT A*A*CT A*G
124. Which of the following is True about the DNA Polymerase III holoenzyme of E. coli:
a. The Clamp Loader Complex is present for synthesis of the leading strand
exclusively.
b. The Pol III holoenzyme can synthesize RNA primers.
c. The Pol III holoenzyme is a symmetric dimer.
d. The Pol III holoenzyme contains a Subunit Sliding Clamp to tether the
holoenzyme complex to the DNA, thus giving the polymerase high processivity.
125. Which ONE of the following statements about bacterial conjugation is TRUE:
a. They are mobile genetic elements residing in the genomes of all classes of
organisms
b. They are transposons that behave much like retroviruses and have a retrovirus
like structure
c. The reverse transcriptase makes a cDNA copy of the retrotransposon
d. The retrotransposon RNA is placed into virus particles
127. A 10-year-old Caucasian girl is brought in by her parents for evaluation of a skin
disorder. The child has many freckles on her face, arms, and legs. The parents were told
by previous physicians that she suffers from Xeroderma pigmentosum and that they
should limit her exposure to sun light. What is the most likely etiology of this disorder?
1.b
2.b
3.a
4.b
5.b
6.d
7.b
8.d
9.d
10.b
11.d
12.d
13.b
14.b
15.d
16.d
17.a
18.b
19.d
20.d
21.c
22.d
23.a
24.c
25.a
26.c
27.d
28.c
29.d
30.a
31.b
32.d
33.c
34.d
35.c
36.b
37.a
38.c
39.d
40.b
41.c
42.d
43.c
44.a
45.c
46.d
47.c
48.a
49.b
50.c
51.c
52.b
53.a
54.d
55.c
56.b
57.c
58.c
59.b
60.c
61.d
62.b
63.d
64.a
65.d
66.d
67.b
68.a
69.c
70.c
71.b
72.c
73.b
74.b
75.c
76.c
77.b
78.a
79.b
80.c
81.d
82.a
83.b
84.b
85.b
86.c
87.c
88.b
89.a
90.c
91.c
92.d
93.c
94.b
95.d
96.b
97.a
98.d
99.d
100.d
101.d
102.c
103.a
104.b
105.d
106.c
107.a
108.b
109.d
110.c
111.b
112.a
113.a
114.d
115.a
116.c
117.b
118.c
119.a
120.b
121.c
122.b
123.a
124.d
125.c
126.d
127.b
Protein Synthesis and Processing
Part B
2. Amino acid selenocysteine (Sec) is incorporated into polypeptide chain during translation by
a. Charging of Sec into tRNASer followed by incorporation through serine codon
b. Charging of serine into tRNASer followed by modification of serine into
selenocysteine and then incorporation through serine codon
c. Charging of Sec into tRNAsec and then incorporation through selenocysteine codon
d. Charging of serine into tRNAser, modification of serine into selenocysteine and then
incorporation through a specially placed stop codon
3. All cytosolic proteins have nuclear export signals that allow them to be removed from the
nucleus when it reassembles after
a. Meiosis
b. Mitosis
c. Both meiosis and mitosis
d. DNA replication
5. A gene encoding tRNA undergoes a mutational event in its anticodon region that enables it to
recognize a mutant nonsense codon and permit completion of translation. Such a mutation is
known as
a. Silent mutation
b. Neutral mutation
c. Reversion
d. Nonsense suppressor
7. Proteomics
a. is another term for genomics in humans.
b. is the study of the collection of proteins produced in a particular cell.
c. is the study of proteins produced by a particular gene.
d. proves that a single gene codes for only one protein
8. Of the ____ different possible codons, ____ specify amino acids and ____ signal stop.
a. 20, 17, 3
b. 180, 20, 60
c. 64, 61, 3
d. 61, 60, 1
9. What would be the effect on the primary structure of the coded protein if a single base was
deleted from a messenger RNA transcript?
a. No effect.
b. A single amino acid residue is changed.
c. A complete change in amino acid sequence from the point of the deletion.
d. A premature termination of the chain at the point of mutation.
10. Which of the following proteins involved in peptide initiation and chain elongation is a
GTPase switch?
a. Only EF-Tu
b. Only EF-G
c. Both EF-Tu and EF-G
d. Initiation factor 2
11. Which of the following enzymes involved in ribosomal protein synthesis is a ribozyme i.e. a
catalytic RNA molecule?
a. Amino acyl t-RNA synthase
b. Peptidyl transferase
c. Releasing factors 1 and 2
d. Ribosome recycling factor
12. The major differences between the prokaryotic and eukaryotic protein synthesis
mechanisms are in which part of the process?
a. The initiation of synthesis.
b. The chain elongation process.
c. The chain termination process.
d. None - there are no major differences
13. Proteins directed to which of the following organelles are synthesized by ribosomes
attached to the rough endoplasmic reticulum?
a. nucleus
b. mitochondria
c. lysosomes
d. peroxisomes
14. What directs vesicles packaged in the Golgi cisternae to their appropriate place in the cell?
a. A specific carbohydrate bound to the proteins.
b. A sequence of amino acids within the proteins.
c. Complementary SNARE proteins on the vesicle and its target organelle.
d. Coatomer or clathrin proteins coating the vesicle.
17. What is the energy source for transport of molecules into and out of the nucleus?
a. ATP hydrolysis within the cytoplasm.
b. GTP hydrolysis within the cytoplasm.
c. ATP hydrolysis within the nucleus.
d. GTP hydrolysis within the nucleus.
20. Which of the following base analogs or chemicals does not cause transition mutations?
a. 2-Aminopurine (2AP)
b. 5-Bromouracil (5BU)
c. Ethidium bromide (EtBr)
d. Nitrous acid (HNO2)
e. Hydroxylamine (NH2OH)
23. The junction between the two helical portions of tRNA is stabilized by many non-standard
base-base interactions between residues in the
a. helical stems of the D and Anticodon stems.
b. anticodon and CCA ends.
c. loops of the Anticodon and Acceptor stem.
d. loops of the TC and D arms.
e. codon and anticodon segments.
24. The accurate charging of tRNAIle by IleRS with Ile and not Val (50,000:1)
a. requires a two-step editing process.
b. requires the binding of Ile to be 50,000-fold tighter than Val.
c. requires the hydrolysis of 2 ATPs for each Ile charged.
d. requires the presence of a small protein, fidelity-factor.
e. The first and third choices are both correct.
26. Most of the identity elements for correct aminoacylation of tRNAs are found
a. in the anticodon stem and the 3' CCA end.
b. in the T Loop and the D stem and loop.
c. in the anticodon and the acceptor stem.
d. solely in the anticodon.
e. distributed throughout the structure.
27. The molecule possessing the anticodon and which carries amino acids to the site of protein
synthesis is called:
a. A transposon
b. The first-class carrier protein
c. Ribosomal RNA
d. Transfer RNA
e. Messenger RNA
28. The complete set of proteins which can be synthesized by the organism's genome is called
the:
a. Proteome
b. Genomic
c. Proteus
d. Nucleome
e. Ribosome
29. The genetic code is a triplet code, with four bases taken three at a time, giving 64
combinations, enough for 21 amino acids and then some. If it were a duplex code, how many
amino acids could be coded for?
a. 32
b. 16
c. 8
d. 4
e. 2
30. Degeneracy in the genetic code seems wasteful. Of what possible value could degeneracy
be, when it allows or requires more than one possible codon for most amino acids?
a. Degeneracy prevents mutations which might result from changing the second base of
the codon
b. In fact, all codons for a particular amino acid are the same
c. Degeneracy provides protection against some point mutations
d. Degeneracy refers to the fact that there are some codons which do not code for any
amino acid
e. Degeneracy helps to prevent aberrant behavior among teenage biochemists
31. Two of the codons which have traditionally been considered stop signals are now known to
specify placement of unusual amino acids. Which ones?
a. -alanine and -phospholysine
b. Glutamine and carboxyhistidine
c. Asparagine and thiothreonine
d. Selenocysteine and pyrolysine
e. Hydroxyproline and hydroxytryptophan
32. What is the source of energy used by aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase to power the reaction
which attaches an amino acid to its tRNA?
a. CTP
b. cAMP
c. UTP
d. ADP
e. ATP
33. The triplet group of bases which says, 'Put this amino acid here' is called a/an:
a. Codon
b. Anticodon
c. Operator
d. Promoter
e. Initiator
34. During periods of rapid protein synthesis, the mRNA moves rapidly through a group of
protein synthesizing structures called, collectively:
a. Endoplasmic reticulum
b. Golgi apparatus
c. Flagella
d. Polyribosomes
e. Nuclear pores
35. During transcription, movement of the tRNA-polypeptide from the amino acid site of the
ribosome to the peptide site requires a source of energy in the form of:
a. GTP
b. cAMP
c. UTP
d. CDP
e. TTP
36. Protein synthesis is more rapid in organisms in which mRNA has a shorter half life. Protein
synthesis in humans is much slower than that in E. coli. Why would it matter to either organism
whether protein synthesis were rapid or slow?
a. Our cells live in an environment where changes are rapid and dangerous
b. Human cells live in relatively challenging environments
c. Bacteria may need to respond rapidly to changes in their environments, so must
synthesize protein more rapidly
d. Bacteria may need to degrade RNA rapidly
e. Bacterial cells live in relatively safe, unchallenging environments
37. During protein synthesis in prokaryotes, the first amino acid placed in the chain is usually N-
formylmethionine. Speculate on a reason why plain methionine wouldn't work just as well.
a. Perhaps there is not enough non-formylated methionine available
b. N-formylmethionine prevents the 30S subunit from binding prematurely to the 50S
subunit
c. There's really nothing special about N-formylmethionine. N-acetylmethionine could
perform the same function
d. Leucine zippers prevent methionine alone from performing this function
e. N-formylmethionine placed at the beginning of the growing peptide chain may
protect the growing chain during translation
38. EF-Tu is a motor protein which positions aminoacyl-tRNA complexes in the amino acid site of
the ribosome. Its major function in translation is as:
a. A replication factor
b. An elongation factor
c. A transition factor
d. A factory worker
e. A termination factor
39. The anticodon on one tRNA which carries histidine to the site of protein synthesis is CAU.
What was the corresponding set of bases in the gene of the DNA molecule which specified
placement of histidine at that location?
a. AAA
b. GTA
c. GAU
d. CAT
e. CAU
40. What does prokaryotic mRNA have that eukaryotic mRNA doesnt?
a. ATP sequences
b. Termination factors
c. Initiation factors
d. Shine-Dalgarno sequences
e. van der Waals forces
41. How many high-energy phosphate bonds need be broken to power inclusion of a single
amino acid in a polypeptide?
a. Four
b. Three
c. Five
d. Two
e. One
42. Synthesis of both DNA and RNA start at the 5' end of the growing chain, or the 3' end of the
template. Synthesis of protein, however, starts at the 5' end of the mRNA template. Of what
value could this be to the organism?
a. This protects the growing polypeptide chain from hyperthermic denaturation
b. This happens only in prokaryotes; in an organism as complicated as eukaryotes,
protein synthesis can start at either end
c. This makes it possible for transcription to begin while replication is still occurring
d. Information can feed back from protein to modify transcription
e. Translation can begin while transcription is occurring. This gives the organism a quick
start at protein synthesis
43. Creutzfeld-Jacob syndrome, bovine spongiform encephalitis, and scrapie all seem to be
variants of disease related to inappropriate folding of proteins. It seems that some infective
proteins come into contact with normal proteins and induce the normal proteins to go wrong.
What are the protein infective agents called?
a. Hormones
b. Prions
c. Haptoglobins
d. Cytokines
e. Albumins
45. Determination of the primary structure of a peptide was once a laborious activity, requiring
weeks or months of treatment of the peptide with Sanger's reagent, hydrolysis, and paper
chromatographic analysis. The lucky graduate student can now use mass spectrometry to break
a peptide apart and accurately analyze the fragments. The mass spectrometer gives very
accurate information concerning:
a. The charge on individual particles
b. The identity of the amino acids present
c. The number of acidic and basic amino acids present in the polypeptide
d. The molecular weight of fragments of the peptide
e. The ultraviolet absorption spectrum of the peptide
46. Zymogens are inactive precursor molecules, often of extremely active digestive enzymes
which are produced in inactive form and then converted to the active enzyme by removal of a
protein 'keeper.' The type of post-translational modification involved in this case is:
a. Complete hydrolysis
b. Proteolytic cleavage
c. Methylation
d. Phosphorylation
e. Formation of disulfide bonds between cysteine residues of the same or different
chains
47. If you had taken a biochemistry course in the 1960s, you might have learned that 61 of the
64 possible codons actually coded for placement of amino acids, and that there were some
'nonsense' codons which didn"t seem to direct placement of any amino acid. Now, of course, we
know that all the codons are useful. What do those three nonsense codons actually do?
a. These three are the stop codons
b. These are extra codons which may be used in case of mutations
c. In fact, these may be nonsense codons. Their usefulness hasnt been proved
d. These three codons specify isomers of the branched chain amino acids
e. These three codons direct placement of glutamine and asparagines
54. All of the following are post translational modifications of proteins except:
a. Hydroxylation
b. Conjugation
c. Phosphorylation
d. Glycosylation
58. Which one of the following molecules is not a component of the 30 S initiation complex?
a. GTP
b. mRNA
c. Initiation factor 2
d. ATP
60. Triple repeat sequence disease (Expansion of a CAG triplet repeat stretch) occurs in:
a. Alzheimers disease
b. Cystic fibrosis
c. Ataxia telangectasia
d. Huntingtons chorea
61. Golgi complex exports substances from a cell due to the fusion of the membrane saccule
with the cell membrane. The saccule contents flows out. This process is
a. Exocytosis
b. Facilitated diffusion
c. Endocytosis
d. Active transport
e. All answers are false
62. It is known that sequences of nucleotide triplets correspond to sequences of amino acids in
polypeptide. This characteristic of genetic code is named:
a. Collinearity
b. Triplet nature
c. No overlapping
d. Degeneracy
e. Universality
Part C
63. For continuation of protein synthesis in bacteria, ribosomes need to be released from the
mRNA as well as to dissociate into subunits. These processes do not occur spontaneously. They
need the following possible conditions:
A. RRF and EF-G aid in this process
B. An intrinsic activity of ribosomes and an uncharged tRNA are required
C. IF-1 promotes dissociation of ribosomes
D. IF-3 and IF-1 promote dissociation of ribosomes
E. Which of the following sets is correct?
a. A and D
b. A and B
c. A and C
d. B and D
64. Presence of circular mRNAs for a specific protein in a eukaryotic cell reflects a rapid rate
of synthesis of that protein. Following mechanisms are suggested:
A. eIF-4G and PABP promote this process through 5'-3' interaction of mRNA.
B. ribosomes are less active in recognizing circular mRNA.
C. PABP and eIF-4A promote this process.
D. ribosomes can reinitiate translation without being disassembled.
Which of the following is correct?
e. A and D
f. B and D
g. A and C
h. B and C
65. Which of the following statements about antibiotic inhibitors of protein synthesis is correct?
P. Chloramphenicol inhibits peptidyl transferase activity of the large ribosomal subunit in
eukaryotes
Q. Clucloheximide inhibits the peptidyl transferase activity of the large ribosomal subunit in
eukaryotes
R. Puromycin blocks protein synthesis in prokaryotes only
S. Streptomycin inhibits protein synthesis by binding to 30 S ribosomal subunits
a. P, Q
b. Q, R
c. Q, S
d. P,Q, R, S
66. Which of the following occurs when the eukaryotic translational machinery encounters the
UAG codon?
a. The ribosome can recognize the UAG codon as a translational stop codon and does
not allow any tRNA to bind the mRNA
b. The termination factors recognize this codon and translation ends
c. This codon is recognized by the corresponding anti-codon of an empty tRNA molecule
that is not linked to an amino acid
d. The non-recognition of this codon by tRNA ultimately causes the translational
machinery to stop
67. During the synthesis of secretory proteins the following event happens
1. The Signal Recognition Particle (SRP) binds to the signal sequence
2. The 2 parts of the cytosolic ribosome binds to the mRNA
3. Protein synthesis stops
4. The signal sequence is translated
5. The ribosome and protein are transferred to a translocon
6. The secretory protein folds
7. The signal sequence is cleaved by a signal peptidase
8. The SRP binds to its receptor in the Endoplasmic Reticulum membrane
The correct order for these events is
a. 4, 1, 2, 3, 6, 8, 7, 5
b. 2, 4, 1, 3, 8, 5, 7, 6
c. 1, 4, 2, 3, 6, 5, 8, 7
d. 2, 4, 1, 3, 5, 8, 7, 6
68. An mRNA coding for a secretory protein, when translated using free ribosome under in vitro
conditions, resulted in a 40 KDa protein. The same mRNA when translated using the rough
endoplasmic reticulum resulted in a 36 KDa protein. The difference in the molecular weight of
the 2 polypeptides is due to the loss of a
a. 2 KDa peptide from Amino terminus (N) and a 2 KDa peptide from Carboxyl terminus
(C)
b. 1 KDa peptide from Amino terminus (N) and a 3 KDa peptide from Carboxyl terminus
(C)
c. 4 KDa peptide from N terminus
d. 4 KDa peptide from C terminus
69. Which of the following statements about chain termination in peptide synthesis is true?
a. The formation of peptide bonds by the ribosomal mRNA complex continues until a
stop codon on mRNA is reached
b. The formation of peptide bonds by the ribosomal mRNA complex continues until a
tRNA with an anti-codon for UAA, UAG or UGA interacts with the A site on ribosome
c. Peptide bond formation ceases when the ribososme reaches the 5 end of the mRNA
d. In prokaryotes, peptide bond formation ceases when a formyl methionine tRNA
interacts with the A site on the ribosome
70. The polypeptide chain initiation in a prokaryotic cell always begins with the amino acid
formyl-methionine because
I. No peptide bond formation takes place at amino end of methionine as it is formylated
II. Formyl-methionine is available in abundance in bacteria
III. Formyl-methionine can help chain elongation
Out of the above statements:
a. I is correct
b. I and II are correct
c. I and III are correct
d. II and III are correct
71. Stopping mRNA from being continuously translated into protein is an important mechanism
when enough protein product is available. How is this accomplished?
a. Transcribe antisense RNA from ordinarily inactive DNA; this will bind with sense
mRNA and prevent the ribosome from further translating it.
b. Regulator genes produce repressor proteins that physically bind to mRNA and stop its
activity in ribosomes.
c. mRNA contains stop units encoded in its sequence so only a limited number of passes
can be made through ribosomes.
d. The protein products of mRNA translation are feedback repressors that limit
translation.
e. Other genes turn on to produce enzymes that digest the mRNA.
72. Proteins may be separated by a number of techniques, including isoelectric focusing. In
isoelectric focusing, an artificial pH gradient is used in an electrophoresis chamber, and proteins
mixed in the gradient migrate to the regions of their isoelectric points and then stop. Suppose
that you set up a gel containing a mixture of acidic and basic substances ranging in pH from 3 to
10, and that you added a mixture of proteins and allowed them to move to the regions where
they stopped migrating (their isoelectric pH, or pI). If you sliced the gel and found the protein
you were purifying was present in a slice having a pH of 4, you could be pretty confident that
this protein:
a. Contained more acidic amino acids than basic amino acids
b. Contained more basic amino acids than acidic amino acids
c. Contained no basic amino acids
d. Contained no acidic amino acids
e. Contained an equal number of acidic and basic amino acids
73. Protein synthesis begins from transcription. Prednisolone and Hydrocortisone which
increase transcription and protein synthesis were prescribed for patient. What changes will be in
the cell cytoplasm, in case of increasing the amount of functioning of euchromatin:
a. Decreasing of ribosome and polysome
b. Increasing of ribosome and polysome of endoplasmic reticulum
c. Increasing of ribosome and polysome of cytoplasm
d. Decreasing of ribosome only
e. Decreasing of polysome only
1. c
2. d
3. c
4. d
5. d
6. b
7. b
8. c
9. c
10. c
11. b
12. a
13. c
14. c
15. a
16. d
17. b
18. d
19. b
20. c
21. e
22. e
23. d
24. a
25. b
26. c
27. d
28. a
29. b
30. c
31. d
32. e
33. a
34. d
35. a
36. c
37. e
38. b
39. d
40. d
41. a
42. e
43. b
44. c
45. d
46. b
47. a
48. c
49. a
50. c
51. d
52. a
53. b
54. b
55. a
56. d
57. c
58. d
59. c
60. d
61. a
62. a
63. a
64. a
65. c
66. b
67. b
68. c
69. a
70. a
71. d
72. a
73. a
74. b
75. e
Gene Regulation
Part B
3. Which of the following maternal effect gene products regulate production of anterior structures
in Drosophila embryo?
a. Bicoid and Nanos
b. Bicoid and Hunchback
c. Bicoid and Caudal
d. Nanos and Caudal
4. A culture of an E. coli strain that is lysogenic for phage lambda is grown at 32C. Induction of the
prophage from the host chromosome will occur when the culture is exposed to
a. 40C.
b. ultra violet radiation.
c. infra red radiation.
d. wild type E. coli culture
6. Andrew Fire and Craig Mello won a Nobel Prize in 2006 for their work, begun in the late 1990s,
on RNA interference. Which of the following organisms did they work on?
a. E. coli
b. Fruit flies
c. Roundworms
d. Plants
7. The effectors of gene silencing are short double-stranded RNA molecules produced by the
action of the enzyme dicer. Approximately what size are these molecules?
a. 11 bp
b. 22 bp
c. 75 bp
d. 100 bp
10. Histones have very high percent of lysine and arginine residues. For this class of proteins which
of the following reagents would be a suitable choice for generating peptides in the
determination of amino acid sequence of the proteins?
a. Cyanogen bromide
b. Thermolysin
c. Trypsin
d. N-bromosuccinamide
17. The first level of primary control in eukaryotic gene activity is _______ control.
a. feedback
b. translational
c. transcriptional
d. posttranscriptional
18. Which level of primary control in eukaryotic gene activity involves the life span of the mRNA
molecule and the ability of the mRNA to bind to ribosomes?
a. feedback control
b. translational control
c. transcriptional control
d. posttranscriptional control
19. Which level of primary control in eukaryotic gene activity involves processing early RNA
transcripts to mRNA and control of the rate at which mRNA leaves the nucleus?
a. feedback control
b. translational control
c. transcriptional control
d. posttranscriptional control
20. Which level of primary control in eukaryotic gene activity involves changes in the polypeptide
chain before it becomes functional?
a. feedback control
b. translational control
c. posttranscriptional control
d. posttranslational control
23. A form of gene regulation that occurs while RNA is still in the nucleus is
a. differential intron removal and splicing.
b. feedback control.
c. binding of the repressor protein to DNA.
d. enzymatic cleavage of a polypeptide.
(common diagram)
30. Unlike prokaryotes, the control of transcription by eukaryotes is designed to react to change by
a. changing
b. ignoring change
c. remaining constant
d. changing the environment
31. A form of binding motif containing a nearly identical sequence of 60 amino acids in many
eukaryotes is the
a. homeodomain motif
b. zinc finger motif
c. leucine zipper motif
d. universal motif
32. Which of the following does not occur in the function of the catabolite activator protein (CAP) of
E. coli?
a. Cyclic-AMP binds to the CAP protein.
b. The protein changes shape.
c. Space is increased by the binding of tryptophan.
d. Helix-turn-helix motifs are enabled to bind to the DNA.
35. Small signal molecules that regulate transcription are not known to:
a. cause activator proteins to bind DNA sites.
b. cause repressor proteins to bind DNA sites.
c. directly bind to DNA sites.
d. prevent activator proteins from binding to DNA sites.
36. Transcription of the lactose operon in E. coli is stimulated by:
a. a mutation in the repressor gene that strengthens the affinity of the repressor for the operator.
b. a mutation in the repressor gene that weakens the affinity of the repressor for the operator.
c. a mutation in the repressor gene that weakens the affinity of the repressor for the inducer.
d. binding of the repressor to the operator.
37. Protein amino acid side chains can hydrogen bond in the major groove of DNA, and discriminate
between each of the four possible base pairs. In which one of the following groups of amino
acids can all three members potentially be used in such DNA-protein recognition?
a. Ala, Asn, Glu
b. Arg, Gln, Leu
c. Asn, Gln, Trp
d. Asn, Glu, Lys
38. The DNA binding motif for many prokaryotic regulatory proteins, such as the lac repressor, is:
a. helix-turn-helix.
b. homeobox.
c. homeodomain.
d. leucine zipper.
39. Protein structural motifs often have general functions in common. Which one of the following
motifs is known to be involved in protein dimer formation, but not in direct protein-DNA
interactions?
a. -barrel
b. helix-turn-helix
c. homeodomain
d. leucine zipper
40. Which of the following statements about regulation of the lac operon is true?
a. Glucose in the growth medium decreases the inducibility by lactose.
b. Glucose in the growth medium does not affect the inducibility by lactose.
c. Glucose in the growth medium increases the inducibility by lactose.
d. Its expression is regulated mainly at the level of translation.
41. The binding of CRP (cAMP receptor protein of E. coli) to DNA in the lac operon:
a. assists RNA polymerase binding to the lac promoter.
b. is inhibited by a high level of cAMP.
c. occurs in the lac repressor region.
d. occurs only when glucose is present in the growth medium.
42. Consider the lac operon of E. coli. When there is neither glucose nor lactose in the growth
medium:
a. CRP protein binds to the lac operator.
b. CRP protein displaces the Lac repressor from the lac promoter.
c. repressor is bound to the lac operator.
d. RNA polymerase binds lac promoter and transcribes the lac operon.
44. The tryptophan operon of E. coli is repressed by tryptophan added to the growth medium. The
tryptophan repressor probably:
a. binds to RNA polymerase when tryptophan is present.
b. binds to the trp operator in the absence of tryptophan.
c. binds to the trp operator in the presence of tryptophan.
d. is a DNA sequence.
45. Which one of the following statements about the transcription attenuation mechanism is true?
a. In some operons (e.g., the his operon), attenuation may be the only regulatory mechanism.
b. Sequences of the trp operon leader RNA resemble an operator.
c. The leader peptide acts by a mechanism that is similar to that of a repressor protein.
d. The leader peptide gene of the trp operon includes no Trp codons.
46. Which of the following statements is true of the attenuation mechanism used to regulate the
tryptophan biosynthetic operon in E. coli?
a. Attenuation is the only mechanism used to regulate the trp operon.
b. One of the enzymes in the Trp biosynthetic pathway binds to the mRNA and blocks translation
when tryptophan levels are high.
c. The leader peptide plays a direct role in causing RNA polymerase to attenuate transcription.
d. Trp codons in the leader peptide gene allow the system to respond to tryptophan levels in the
cell.
48. RecA protein provides the functional link between DNA damage and the SOS response by
displacing the LexA protein from its operator sites on the SOS genes. RecA does so by:
a. associating with polymerase holoenzyme to help it remove LexA from operator.
b. bending LexA operator DNA to force dissociation of LexA repressor.
c. binding to LexA protein to weaken directly its affinity for operator sites.
d. causing self-cleavage of LexA, thus inactivating its binding to operator.
49. Which one of the following statements about eukaryotic gene regulation is correct?
a. Large polycistronic transcripts are common.
b. Most regulation is positive, involving activators rather than repressors.
c. Transcription and translation are mechanistically coupled.
d. Transcription does not involve promoters.
51. Which one of the following types of eukaryotic regulatory proteins interact with enhancers?
a. Basal transcription factors
b. Coactivators
c. TATA-binding proteins
d. Transactivators
52. Which one of the following is not involved in steroid hormone action?
a. Cell surface receptors
b. Hormone-receptor complexes
c. Specific DNA sequences
d. Transcription activation and repression
53. Which one of the following classes is expressed in the unfertilized egg and is involved in
directing the spatial organization of the Drosophila embryo early in development?
a. Gap genes
b. Homeotic genes
c. Maternal genes
d. Segment polarity genes
54. Which one of the following classes of genes is involved in specifying the localization of organs in
the Drosophila embryo?
a. Gap genes
b. Homeotic genes
c. Maternal genes
d. Segment polarity genes
57. When tryptophan is present in the medium, the transcription of tryptophan producing genes in
E. coli is stopped by a helix-turn-helix regulator binding to the
a. Trp repressor
b. Trp operon
c. Trp promoter
d. Trp operator
58. When a homeodomain binds to DNA, the actual binding portion of the homeodomain is
a. A leucine zipper
b. Zinc fingers
c. The histidine
d. A helix-turn-helix
59. The assembly of transcription factors on a promoter begins some 25 nucleotides upstream
where it binds to a start _______ sequence.
a. ATAT
b. AATT
c. TTAA
d. TATA
60. The assembly of transcription factors on a promoter begins some 25 nucleotides upstream
where it binds to a start _______________ sequence.
a. Trp operon
b. Trp promoter
c. Trp repressor
d. Trp polymerase
62. In the zinc fingers motif, the spacing of the helical segments is performed by
a. beta sheets
b. helical clusters
c. zinc atoms
d. gamma helices
63. Translation repressor proteins may shut down translation of processed mRNA transcripts by
a. binding with the poly-A tail
b. resetting the reading frame
c. excising a short sequence of nucleotides
d. excising a short sequence of nucleotides
64. In many animals, the genes that regulate the development of stem cells are activated
a. Once
b. Only twice
c. Up to 10 times
d. Over a hundred times
65. In order for a gene to be transcribed, RNA polymerase must have access to the DNA helix and be
able to bind to the genes
a. Activator
b. Regulator
c. Promoter
d. Operator
66. In the function of the lac operon in E. coli, the lac genes are transcribed in the presence of
lactose because
a. RNA polymerase binds to the operator
b. the repressor cannot bind to the promoter
c. an isomer of lactose binds to the repressor
d. CAP does not bind to the operator
68. The most common form of gene expression regulation in both bacteria and eukaryotes is
a. Translational control
b. Transcriptional control
c. Post-transcriptional control
d. Post-translational control
69. In eukaryotes, many genes may have to interact with each other, requiring more interacting
elements than can fit around a single promoter. This physical limitation is overcome by
a. alternating promoters and operators
b. placing promoters on both sides of each gene
c. distant sites in a chromosome controlling transcription of a gene
d. having factors on one chromosome control genes on another gene
72. Enzymes that are found in cells at essentially the same level in cells under all growth conditions
are called _____________ enzymes
a. Primary
b. Constitutive
c. Chemostatic
d. Irrepressible
73. During allosteric, or feed back, inhibition
a. transcription of mRNA specific for the enzymes involved in the pathway is repressed by the
pathway's end product
b. the pathway's end product represses the activity of the first enzyme in the pathway
c. all of the above apply to feedback inhibition
d. more than one of the above, but not all, apply to feedback inhibition
78. In Escherichia coli, which effect in a cell is the result of enzyme repression?
a. The enzymes required for maltose utilization are synthesized in the cell only when maltose is
present in the medium
b. During synthesis of the enzymes required for tryptophan utilization, transcription of the trp
operon may begin, but transcription is terminated before the structural genes are transcribed
c. The enzymes for utilization of lactose are made only when lactose is present in the medium
d. All of the above
79. When E. coli is grown in a medium that contains both glucose and lactose, the glucose will be
used first. Often, as the glucose becomes exhausted in the medium, there will be a pause in
growth before lactose utilization begins. This phenomenon results in a/an _________ growth
curve
a. Diauxic
b. Dimorphic
c. One-step
d. Synchronous
80. When E. coli is grown in a medium that contains both glucose and lactose, the glucose will be
used first. This phenomenon is called
a. The lactose effect
b. The glucose effect
c. All of the above
d. More than one of the above, but not all
82. Which of the following terms refers to a system in which gene expression is not induced unless
the cell density reaches a sufficiently high level?
a. Gene induction
b. Feedback regulation
c. Attenuation
d. Quorum sensing
87. Which of the following involve negative control of transcription through a repressor protein:
a. enzyme repression
b. enzyme induction
c. transcriptional activator
d. alternative sigma factor
e. a and b
89. In which medium would the level of an enzyme of arginine biosynthesis be the lowest:
a. glucose+salts
b. lactose +salts
c. glucose +salts +tryptophan
d. arginine+salts
92. Number of gene segments encoding the heavy chain of antibodies are
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
95. The gene for heavy chain of immunoglobulins in human is located in chromosome number
a. 12
b. 14
c. 18
d. 16
96. The gene for heavy chain of immunoglobulins in mouse is located in chromosome number
a. 12
b. 14
c. 18
d. 16
98. For gene rearrangement all the following statements are correct except
a. segments of DNA move from one location to another in the genome so that different proteins are
produced
b. different antibodies are examples of different products of the same gene as a result of gene
rearrangement
c. the different segments are present on the same strand of DNA
d. It can result in production of an antibody containing 3 variable regions and one constant region
103. All the following are examples of regulated expression elements except
a. Hormone response element
b. Upstream element
c. enhancers
d. silencer
106. Processing of the primary transcript involves all the following except
a. RNA splicing
b. addition of a cap
c. addition of a poly (A)
d. Removal of poly (G)
119. Which of the following is a difference between inducible versus repressible operons?
a. In an inducible operon, the inducer binds to the regulator protein.
b. In a repressible operon, the corepressor-regulator complex binds to the operator.
c. In a repressible operon, all the structural gene products have related functions.
d. In an inducible operon, RNA polymerase binds to the promoter.
121. The portion of the Drosophila body plan which will produce the wing is called:
a. telson
b. dorsal
c. abdomen
d. thorax
e. neurectoderm
122. Which of the following, first discovered through mutagenesis studies in Drosophila,also
function in the development of mammals like ourselves?
a. hedgehog
b. homeobox genes
c. the Wnt family
d. the Toll signaling pathway
e. all of the above
123. Which of the following is false about the E. coli Lac operon?
a. It is polycistronic
b. It is an example of negative control
c. The presence of lactose acts as an inducer
d. The repressor binds to the promoter
124. Which of the following events would occur at the E. coli lac operon when the glucose
concentration of the growth medium is low and the lactose concentration is high?
a. The lac repressor protein will bind to the operator sequence.
b. Ribosomes will stall during translation of the first 13 amino acids.
c. The transcribed RNA will form a cAMP-dependent stem-loop structure to terminate transcription.
d. The catabolite gene activator protein (CAP), bound with cAMP, will stimulate binding of RNA
polymerase to the promoter.
Part C
126. Bacteriophage has two modes in its life cycle, lytic and lysogenic. In the lysogenic mode, the
expression of all phage genes is repressed while expression of repressor gene switches between
on and off position depending upon concentration of the repressor. The following statements are
made:
A. Repressor may act both as positive regulator and a negative regulator
B. Expression of repressor gene, cI is independent of the expression of cII and cIII genes
C. Mutations of cI gene will cause it to form clear plaques on both wild type E. coli and E. coli (+)
D. Mutation at operators, OL and OR will allow the phage to act as a virulent phage.
The correct statements are
a. A and B
b. B and C
c. C and D
d. D and A
127. The lac operon in E. coli is controlled by both the lac repressor and the catabolite
activation protein CAP. In an invivo experiment with lac operon, the following observation were
made
A. cAMP levels are high
B. B Repressor is bound by allolactose
C. CAP is interacting with RNA Polymerase
Which of the following conclusions is most appropriate based on the above observations?
a. Glucose and lactose are present
b. Glucose is present and lactose is absent
c. Both are absent
d. Glucose is absent and lactose is present
128. Why lysogenic cycle is more beneficial to a virus than lytic cycle under certain
circumstances?
a. The lysogenic cycle prevents local extinction of the host while still retaining its infection potential
b. By integrating with the bacterial chromosomes, the genetic instructions for the virus become
refreshed after one or more replication events during binary fission
c. Lysogenic infection cycles donot harm their host cells, so they can produce virus particles
indefinitely
d. Lysogeny causes more mutations to occur in the virus, creating more variants upon which natural
selection can operate.
129. Lac repressor inhibits expression of genes in lac-operon whereas purine biosynthesis is
repressed by the Pur repressor. The two proteins have 31% identical sequences and have
similar three-dimensional structures. The gene regulatory properties of these proteins differ in
relation to
1) binding of small molecules to the repressor.
2) presence of recognition sites on the genome.
3) oligomeric nature of the repressor.
4) DNA binding property.
The correct statements are
a. A and B
b. A, B and C
c. A and C
d. B, C and D
130. Two E. coli cultures A and B are taken. Culture A was earlier grown in the presence of
optimum concentration of gratuitous inducer IPTG. Both the cultures are now used to inoculate
fresh medium containing sub-optimal concentration of gratuitous inducer. It was observed that
culture B was unable to utilize lactose, whereas culture A did so efficiently. The reason behind
this is
a. Pretreatment with IPTG has resulted in a mutation as a result of which lac operon is
constitutively expressed
b. IPTG has made the cell membrane more porous to small molecules and so lactose is taken up
more efficiently by A as compared to B.
c. In culture A, lactose permease was induced to a high level, during pretreatment with IPTG,
which allowed the preferential uptake of lactose.
d. In culture A, IPTG activated a receptor which bound lactose more efficiently, thereby triggering a
signal.
131. It has been observed that in 5-10% of the eukaryotic mRNAs with multiple AUGs, the
first AUG is not the initiation site. In such cases, the ribosome skips over one or more AUGs
before encountering the favorable one and initiating translation. This is postulated to be due to
the presence of the following consensus sequence (s):
1) CCA CC AUG G
2) CCG CC AUG G
3) CCG CC AUG C
4) AAC GG AUG A
Which of the following sequence sets related to the above postulations is correct?
a. A and B
b. A and C
c. C and D
d. B and D
132. Presence of circular mRNAs for a specific protein in a eukaryotic cell reflects a rapid rate
of synthesis of that protein. Following mechanisms are suggested:
A. eIF-4G and PABP promote this process through 5'-3' interaction of mRNA.
B. ribosomes are less active in recognizing circular mRNA.
C. PABP and eIF-4A promote this process.
D. ribosomes can reinitiate translation without being disassembled.
Which of the following is correct?
a. A and D
b. B and D
c. A and C
d. B and C
133. In eukaryotic chromatin, 30 nm fiber (solenoid) can open up to give rise to two kinds of
chromatin. In one type (A), the promoter of a gene within the open chromatin is occupied by a
nucleosome whereas in the other (B), the promoter is occupied by histone H1. The following
possibilities are suggested.
A. The gene in (A) is repressed.
B. The gene in (B) is repressed.
C. The gene in (A) is active.
D. The gene in (B) is active.
Which of the following sets is correct?
a. A and D
b. A and B
c. B and D
d. C and D
134. cAMP signalling plays a very important role in the development and differentiation of
Dictyostelium discoideum. This morphogen' is synthesized by different adenyl cyclases
expressed at different stages of its life cycle. The following statements (A to D) refer to the
effect of mutations in different adenyl cyclase genes:
A) aca deficient cells can be allowed to aggregate by exposing them to
pulses of cAMP.
B) acb deficient cells would form normal fruiting bodies and the spores can
germinate when exposed to favourable conditions.
C) acg deficient cells develop normally and the spores germinate in the
spore head itself.
D) spores formed from the acg deficient cells will germinate irrespective of
the osmotic conditions.
Which of the above statements are correct?
a. A and D
b. A only
c. A and B
d. C and D
135. In cells that have not been previously exposed to lactose, how does lactose enter the
cells to induce lac operon?
a. IPTG would induce the expression instead of lactose
b. Lactose would enter by diffusion across the membrane without the need for permease
c. Some other transport protein facilitates the entry of lactose
d. Basal level of expression of lac operon, leading to a low level of synthesis of permease
136. A loss-of-function mutation in the gene that encodes the Catabolite Activator Protein
(CAP) of E. coli would have what effect on expression of the lac operon?
a. Expression would be very high in the presence of lactose and off in its absence, regardless of the
presence or absence of glucose
b. Expression would be low in the presence of lactose and off in its absence, regardless of the
presence or absence of glucose
c. Expression would be low in the presence of glucose and very high in absence of lactose
d. Expression would be off in the presence of glucose and low in its absence, regardless of the
presence or absence of lactose
137. Regarding the lac operon, if lactose is present, which of the following occurs?
a. Lactose binds to the operator preventing the promoter from attracting RNA polymerase and
preventing transcription.
b. Lactose bind to RNA polymerase, which then binds to the promoter and transcribes the needed
genes.
c. Lactose binds to the repressor, which does not bind to the operator, and RNA polymerase
transcribes the needed genes.
d. Lactose binds to the operon, which attracts RNA polymerase, then transcription of the needed
genes occurs.
138. The universal regulatory mechanism in eukaryotes for controlling gene expression
includes
a. control of the processing of mRNA after it is transcribed from DNA but before it leaves the
nucleus, and control of the rate it leaves the nucleus.
b. control of mRNA in the cytoplasm after it leaves the nucleus, including changes to mRNA before
translation begins.
c. control of polypeptides after they have been synthesized but before they are functional.
d. All of these mechanisms are used; there is no single universal mechanism.
139. Human red blood cells can live from two to four months without a nucleus and yet they
continue to synthesize hemoglobin. This
a. means that the necessary mRNAs are able to persist all this time.
b. suggests that there is a low level of ribonucleases to degrade the mRNA.
c. means that both the necessary mRNAs must persist and there must be a low level of
ribonucleases present.
d. still requires DNA coding, although the nuclear membrane is gone, there must be chromatin
spread throughout the red blood cell.
141. Housekeeping genes in bacteria are commonly expressed constitutively, but not all of
these genes are expressed at the same level (the same number of molecules per cell). The
primary mechanism responsible for variations in the level of constitutive enzymes from different
genes is that:
a. all constitutive enzymes are synthesized at the same rate, but are not degraded equally.
b. their promoters have different affinities for RNA polymerase holoenzyme.
c. some constitutively expressed genes are more inducible than others.
d. some constitutively expressed genes are more repressible than others.
142. The diagram below represents a hypothetical operon in the bacterium E. coli. The
operon consists of two structural genes (A and B), which code for the enzymes A-ase and B-ase,
respectively, and also includes P (promoter) and O (operator) regions as shown.
When a certain compound (X) is added to the growth medium of E. coli, the separate enzymes A-
ase and B-ase are both synthesized at a 50-fold higher rate than in the absence of X. (X has a
molecular weight of about 200.) Which of the following statements is true of the operon
described above?
a. All four genes (A, B, O, and P) will be transcribed into an mRNA that will then be translated into
four different proteins.
b. The 5' end of the messenger from this operon will correspond to the right end of the operon as
drawn.
c. The repressor for this operon binds just to the right of A.
d. When RNA polymerase makes mRNA from this operon, it begins RNA synthesis just to the left of
gene A.
143. The diagram below represents a hypothetical operon in the bacterium E. coli. The
operon consists of two structural genes (A and B) that code for the enzymes A-ase and B-ase,
respectively, and also includes P (promoter) and O (operator) regions as shown.
When a certain compound (X) is added to the growth medium of E. coli, the separate enzymes A-
ase and B-ase are both synthesized at a 50-fold higher rate than in the absence of X (which has a
molecular weight of about 200). Which one of the following statements is true of such an
operon?
a. Adding X to the growth medium causes a repressor protein to be released from the O region.
b. Adding X to the growth medium causes a repressor protein to bind tightly to the O region.
c. Synthesis of the mRNA from this operon is not changed by the addition of compound X.
d. The mRNA copied from this operon will be covalently linked to a short piece of DNA at the 5' end.
145. Match the protein or structural feature on the left with one appropriate description on
the right.
1) ____ activator (a) a positive regulator
2) ____ helix-turn-helix (b) a negative regulator
3) ____ leucine zipper (c) facilitates transcription only when bound to a signal
4) ____ repressor (d) a DNA-binding structural motif found in many prokaryotic regulatory
proteins
5) ____ zinc finger (e) a structural feature involved in protein-protein interactions between
some regulatory protein monomers
(f) a protein that dissociates from DNA when bound to a signal molecule
(g) a DNA-binding structural motif found in many eukaryotic regulatory
proteins
a. 1a; 2d; 3e; 4b;5 g
a. 1a; 2e;3 b; 4d; 5g
b. 1e; 2b;3 g;4 d; 5a
c. 1g; 2b; 3d; 4a;5 b
148. A gap gene mutation might cause which of the following defects in the embryonic body
plan?
a. Every other segment would be missing, resulting in T1, T3, A2, A4, etc. but no T2,A1, A3, and so
on.
b. Segments A2 through A6 would be missing, but the rest of the pattern is essentially normal.
c. No segmentation would be evident.
d. Patterning within each segment would be abnormal, causing for example denticle belts to form
across the entire segment.
e. The identity of one or more segments would be transformed to that of a different segment, such
that the T3 leg would transformed to a T2 leg.
149. The activation of zygotic hunchback expression by Bicoid protein illustrates what
principle in the establishment of positional information in embryos?
a. The mother can influence development through the packaging of materials into the egg.
b. A gradient of a protein can activate a gene in a discrete region of an embryo through a threshold
effect.
c. The identity of segments in the embryo is a reflection of their position in the embryo.
d. A cascade of gene activations occurs in the syncitial blastoderm.
e. Genes are activated or repressed by the binding of transcription factors to their regulatory
regions.
150. The adult body plan of Drosophila is based on reiterating structures called segments;
segment precursors (parasegments) are first positioned at the cell-by-cell level by which group
of genes?
a. maternal genes such as bicoid
b. gap genes such as Kruppel
c. pair-rule genes such as even-skipped
d. segmentation genes such as engrailed
e. homeotic genes such as antennapedia
151. Mutations in homeotic genes can lead to what type of developmental defect?
a. The anterior portion of the embryo does not develop.
b. Several adjacent segments will be missing from an otherwise intact embryo.
c. The embryo will develop with every other segment failing to form.
d. Segment and compartment boundaries will fail to form.
e. The development of segments will be changed wholesale from their normal identity to that of a
different segment.
Answer key Gene Regulation
1. b
2. c
3. b
4. b
5. b
6. c
7. b
8. b
9. d
10. c
11. d
12. d
13. b
14. a
15. d
16. b
17. c
18. b
19. d
20. d
21. d
22. c
23. a
24. d
25. c
26. b
27. d
28. d
29. b
30. c
31. a
32. c
33. d
34. d
35. c
36. b
37. d
38. a
39. d
40. a
41. a
42. c
43. b
44. c
45. a
46. d
47. b
48. d
49. b
50. c
51. d
52. a
53. c
54. b
55. c
56. d
57. c
58. d
59. d
60. c
61. c
62. a
63. d
64. a
65. c
66. c
67. c
68. b
69. c
70. c
71. d
72. b
73. d
74. b
75. d
76. a
77. c
78. c
79. a
80. d
81. d
82. d
83. b
84. a
85. c
86. a
87. e
88. a
89. d
90. a
91. d
92. d
93. c
94. a
95. b
96. a
97. a
98. d
99. c
100. a
101. c
102. d
103. b
104. d
105. a
106. d
107. b
108. d
109. a
110. b
111. a
112. a
113. a
114. d
115. d
116. b
117. b
118. a
119. b
120. a
121. d
122. e
123. d
124. d
125. a
126. b
127. d
128. a
129. a
130. c
131. a
132. a
133. a
134. a
135. d
136. b
137. c
138. d
139. c
140. d
141. b
142. d
143. a
144. d
145. a
146. a
147. a
148. b
149. b
150. c
151. e