Professional Documents
Culture Documents
Contrast reaction times to different hormones such as epinephrine and norepinephrine and our
reproductive hormones.
Using oxytocin as an example, explain how hormones are not necessarily specific to a singular
target and function.
Contrast the endocrine system's response time to that of the nervous system.
o the nervous system involves quick responses to rapid changes in the external
environment, and the endocrine system is usually slower actingtaking care of the
internal environment of the body, maintaining homeostasis, and controlling reproduction
o Explain the earlier "fight or flight" response to epinephrine and norepinephrine which is
pretty darn quick in conjunction with the nervous system
the two systems are connected. It is the fast action of the nervous system in
response to the danger in the environment that stimulates the adrenal glands to
secrete their hormones. As a result, the nervous system can cause rapid
endocrine responses to keep up with sudden changes in both the external and
internal environments when necessary.
You already investigated the function of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) using Interactions.
Describe the function of corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH) from the hypothalamus.
Explain why CRH levels would be low when ACTH levels are high.
o The release of ACTH is regulated by the corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH) from the
hypothalamus in response to normal physiologic rhythms. A variety of stressors can also
influence its release, and the role of ACTH in the stress response is discussed later in this
chapter.
From your work with Interactions you should already know that T3 and T4 affect metabolism.
With a little help from our text, explain why these are referred to as the "so
called" calorigenic effects. (Remember, search for your key word.
o The thyroid hormones, T3 and T4, are often referred to as metabolic hormones because
their levels influence the bodys basal metabolic rate, the amount of energy used by the
body at rest. When T3 and T4 bind to intracellular receptors located on the mitochondria,
they cause an increase in nutrient breakdown and the use of oxygen to produce ATP. In
addition, T3 and T4 initiate the transcription of genes involved in glucose oxidation.
Although these mechanisms prompt cells to produce more ATP, the process is inefficient,
and an abnormally increased level of heat is released as a byproduct of these reactions.
This so-called calorigenic effect (calor- = heat) raises body temperature.
Interactions Media
Hormone molecules are produced by endocrine cells and released into the bloodstream. Describe
what must happen for hormone molecules to affect target cells.
o Hormones must leave blood stream and attach to target cell receptors
o Chemical nature of the hormone determines how it will interact with the target cell
Hormones are classified as either lipid soluble or lipid insoluble. Name examples of each.
o Lipid-soluble
Steroid hormones
Thyroid hormones
o Lipid-insoluble
Amines
Peptides and proteins
Where are the lipid soluble hormone receptors located? How do lipid soluble hormone molecules
get there?
o Intracellular receptor in the cytoplasm or the nucleus
o Move easily through the lipid membrane
Describe the function of the hormone-receptor complex
o Influences gene activity resulting in DNA transcription and production of mRNA
What is the function of mRNA?
o Leave nucleus and is translated to form a new protein
How do proteins affect cellular activity?
o New proteins can affect
Cell membrane polarity and permeability
Centrioles and mitotic rates
Myosin fibers and contraction rates
Mitochondria and metabolic rates
Lysosome and secretion rates
Lipid insoluble hormone molecules cannot penetrate cellular plasma membranes like lipid soluble
hormones can. How then, do they affect cellular activity?
o Bind to receptors on the plasma membrane
o Sequence of events set off
A series of events occurs following hormone binding to the receptor on the plasma membrane.
Describe the role of the following in this sequence of events.
o G protein
Transforms the signal from the receptor and activates the amplifier enzyme
o Amplifier enzyme, adenylate cyclase
Converts ATP to cyclic AMP
o cAMP (second messenger)
activate kinase proteins
o kinase proteins
cause phosphorylation
o phosphorylated enzymes
affect different regions of the cell
Functions of all of the following
o Hypothalamus
Controls body temperature, thirst, hunger
Regulates sexual behavior, defensive reactions, circadian rhythms, and states of
consciousness
Synthesizes hormones that stimulate or inhibit the secretion of pituitary
hormones
Synthesizes oxytocin and antidiuretic hormones that are stored and released in
the posterior pituitary gland
o Pituitary Gland
Anterior
Human Growth Hormone stimulates nearly all body cells for growth and
metabolism
Thyroid stimulating hormone stimulates the thyroid gland
Follicle stimulating hormone stimulates production of sperm, oocytes,
and estrogen
Luteinizing hormone stimulates production of estrogen, progesterone,
testosterone, and triggers ovulation
Prolactin promotes milk secretion
Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) stimulates the adrenal cortex
Melanocyte stimulating hormone produces darkened skin pigmentation
Posterior
Oxytocin stimulates the contraction of smooth muscle cells during
childbirth and milk ejection
Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) stimulates the conservation of body water
and raises blood pressure by constricting arterioles
o Thyroid Gland
Follicular cells secrete thyroid hormones, T3 and T4, which regulate oxygen use
and metabolic rate, cellular metabolism, and growth and development
Parafollicular cells secrete calcitonin which lowers blood calcium level
o Parathyroid Glands
Produces parathyroid hormone (PTH) which
increases blood calcium and magnesium levels and decreases blood
phosphate levels
increases rate of dietary calcium and magnesium absorption
increase bone resorption by osteoclasts
increases calcium reabsorption and phosphate excretion by kidneys,
promotes formation of hormone calcitriol in kidneys
o Liver
Releases angiotensinogen which, when converted to angiotensin II, promotes
retention of NA+ and water, thereby increasing blood volume and blood pressure
o Kidneys
Releases active form of calcitriol which promotes calcium absorption from food
Also releases erythropoietin which stimulates red bone marrow to increase
production of erythrocytes
Releases enzyme renin which is crucial for formation of angiotensin, a hormone
that promotes an increase in blood volume and pressure
o Small Intestine
Enteroendocrine (S) cells produce secretin which promotes secretion of
bicarbonate ionsvia pancreatic juice and bileinto the intestine to reduce
acidity
Enteroendocrine (CCK) cells produce cholecystokinin which promotes secretion
of pancreatic enzymes, causes ejection of bile from gall bladder, and promotes
the feeling of safety
o Thymus Gland
Produces the following hormones
Thymosin, thymic humor factor, thymic factor, and thymopoietin
All promote the proliferation and maturation of T cells of the immune
system
o Heart
Secretes atrial natriuetic peptide which increases Na+ excretion and water,
thereby reducing blood volume and pressure
o Glands
Produces mineralocorticoids (aldosterone) which increase levels of sodium and
water and decrease levels of potassium in the blood
Produces glucocorticoids which
Increase protein breakdown in muscle fibers
Promote glucose formation in the liver
Provide resistance to stress, depress immune responses
Stimulate anti-inflammatory effects
Adrenal cortex produces androgens which are a source of estrogens after
menopause in females
Adrenal medulla produces epinephrine and norepinephrine that contribute to
the fight or flight response, help in resisting stress, increase blood pressure ,
increase blood flow to the heart, liver, and skeletal muscles, dilates airways to
the lungs, increases blood levels of glucose
o Stomach
Enteroendocrine (G) cells produce gastrin which increases acidity and level of
pepsin in the stomach, relaxes pyloric and ileocecal sphincters, and increases
motility of stomach
o Pancreas
Produces insulin which reduces blood glucose levels
Produces glucagon which increases blood glucose levels
o Ovaries
Produces estrogen and progesterone which help regulate the female
reproductive cycle, regulate oogenesis, maintain pregnancy, promote
development of feminine characteristics
Produces inhibin which inhibits secretion of FSH
Produces relaxin which dilates cervix during childbirth
o Testes
Produces testosterone which regulates spermatogenesis, promotes masculine
development
Produces inhibin which inhibits secretion of FSH
Explain a neuroendocrine reflex.
Neuroendocrine reflexes literally unite the two regulatory systems of the body, the
nervous and endocrine. Classically, a neuroendocrine reflex begins with a stimulus
received by a nervous system receptor. This initiates an action potential to the CNS for
integration and analysis. Typically, the response is directed to the hypothalamus and a
hormone is secreted from neurosecretory cells.
A classic example is "milk let-down." Infant breast suckling stimulates the decrease in
hypothalamic release of prolactin-inhibiting hormone (PIH) and the increase of prolactin-
releasing hormone (PRH). PRH stimulates release of prolactin from the anterior pituitary
which, in turn, promotes milk from lactiferous glands in the breast.
You have already studied that hormones can be either water soluble or lipid soluble.
Steroid hormones fall into the lipid soluble category. Steroid hormones are derived from
cholesterol. Each steroid hormone is unique due to the presence of different chemical
groups attached at various sites on the four rings at the core of its structure. These small
differences allow diverse functions.
Lesson 2: Respiratory System
Interactions Media
"Nose jobs" have become part of our everyday language. The more formal term rhinoplasty,
however, has not. Briefly describe the process and why it is done.
o Why
a plastic surgery procedure for correcting and reconstructing the form, restoring
the functions, and aesthetically enhancing the nose by resolving nasal trauma
(blunt, penetrating, blast), congenital defect,respiratory impediment, or a failed
primary rhinoplasty
o How
Separate the nasal skin and the soft tissues from the osseo-cartilaginous nasal
framework, correcting them as required for form and function, suturing the
incisions, and applying either a package or a stent, or both, to immobilize the
corrected nose to ensure the proper healing of the incision
Again, everyone knows the symptoms of laryngitis. Briefly describe what happens anatomically.
o Inflammation of the vocal cords, the swelling causes distortion of the air flow and
therefore distortion of resulting sounds
Describe these procedures:
o Tracheostomy - Not going into specific detail, what are the general type(s) of reasons for
performing this procedure?
an opening surgically created through the neck into the trachea(windpipe) to
allow direct access to the breathing tube and is commonly done in an operating
room under general anesthesia. A tube is usually placed through this opening to
provide an airway and to remove secretions from the lungs. Breathing is done
through the tracheostomy tube rather than through the nose and mouth. The
term tracheotomy refers to the incision into the trachea (windpipe) that forms
a temporary or permanent opening, which is called a tracheostomy, however;
the terms are sometimes used interchangeably
To bypass an obstructed upper airway
To clean and remove secretions from the airway
To more easily, and usually more safely, deliver oxygen to the lungs
o Tracheal intubation
Tracheal Intubation is the placement of a flexible plastic tube into the trachea to
maintain an open airway It is performed in critically injured, ill or anesthetized
patients.
It is an invasive and extremely uncomfortable medical procedure, intubation is
usually performed after administration of general anesthesia and a
neuromuscular-blocking drug.
o Explain nebulization , including why it is used.
Drug delivery device used to administer medication in the form of a mist inhaled
into the lungs
Commonly used for the treatment of CF, asthma, COPD, and other respiratory
diseases
Describe the structure and function of the pleurae
o parietal pleura
Outer layer that connects to the thoracic wall, the mediastinum, and the
diaphragm
o visceral pleura
The layer that is superficial to the lungs, and extends into and lines the lung
fissures
o pleural cavity
The space between the visceral and parietal layers
o What is pleurisy?
Inflammation of the pleural layers
Occurs when the two layers become red and inflamed, rubbing against each
other everytime your lungs expand to breathe in air
Most commonly caused due to infections such as pneumonia
Interactions Media
What is the reason for our oxygen consumption and carbon dioxide production? Whats gained
out of this process?
o Oxygen is used up and CO2 is generated during the aerobic breakdown glucose and other
fuel molecules in order to produce ATP
What occurs during each of the following processes?
o Ventilation
Moves gases in and out of the lungs
o External Gas Exchange
Movement of gases into and out of the blood (occurs at the lungs)
Blood gases are transported into the lungs (pulmonary circulation)
o Internal Gas Exchange
Movement of gases into and out of the blood (occurs at the tissues)
Blood gases are transported to the organs and tissues throughout the body
(systemic circulation)
Define the following:
o Ventilation
The process of bringing air into and out of the lungs
o Inspiration
Air moves into the lungs
o Expiration
Air moves out of the lungs
Define how lung volume affects pressure and therefore air movement
o Direction of air flow is determined by changing pressures
o Air flows from high to low pressure
Explain what happens to pressure in each of the following situations
o Increasing Volume
Pressure decreases
o Decreasing Volume
Pressure increases
Describe and explain alveolar pressure change as the diaphragm flattens and the intercostal
muscles contract
o Prior to normal inspiration, atmospheric and alveolar air pressures are equal
o Volume of the thoracic cavity increases by increasing length when the diaphragm
flattens and contracts
o Contractions of the external intercostals elevate the ribs and increase volume of the
thoracic cavity by increasing width
o Causes lungs and visceral pleura to be pulled outwards, increasing lung volume
o When atmospheric pressure exceeds alveolar pressure, air moves into the lungs
Why is expiration referred to as a passive process
o Do not require effort
Describe and explain alveolar pressure change as the muscles relax and the lungs recoil
o These both decrease lung volume and increase pressure
Open E-Stax
Describe a pneumothorax.
o A collapsed lung
o Occurs when air leaks into the space between lung and chest wall
o Air pushes on the outside of your lung and makes it collapse, usually only one lobe
collapses
Alveolar fluid surface tension accounts for two-thirds of lung elastic recoil (passive exhaling).
Explain the critical role of surfactant and identify its source. Relate its importance to respiratory
distress syndrome in premature infants.
o Substance composed of phospholipids and proteins that reduces the surface tension of
the alveoli. Roaming around the alveolar wall
o Secreted by type II alveolar cells
o Respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) is a breathing disorder that affects newborns. RDS
rarely occurs in full-term infants. The disorder is more common in premature infants
born about 6 weeks or more before their due dates.
o RDS is more common in premature infants because their lungs aren't able to make
enough surfactant (sur-FAK-tant). Surfactant is a liquid that coats the inside of the lungs.
It helps keep them open so that infants can breathe in air once they're born.
o Without enough surfactant, the lungs collapse and the infant has to work hard to
breathe. He or she might not be able to breathe in enough oxygen to support the body's
organs. The lack of oxygen can damage the baby's brain and other organs if proper
treatment isn't given.
o Most babies who develop RDS show signs of breathing problems and a lack of oxygen at
birth or within the first few hours that follow.
Interactions Media
Describe the respiratory system role with oxygen and carbon dioxide
o Uses up oxygen and generates CO2
o Responsible for the movement of these two metabolic gases
Why is oxygen needed
What generates CO2?
Define the three important continuous physiological processes that are responsible for the
movement and CO2
o Ventilation
o Gas Exchange
o Gas Transport
Explain the correlation between gas pressure and concentration
o With a compartment, gas exerts a pressure that is proportional to the concentration of
that gas
o Bigger concentration, greater pressure
o Move from high to low pressure
Define partial pressure
o The individual pressure that a gas exerts that is proportional to the concentration of that
gas within the mixture
Describe how partial pressure determines movement of specific gas molecules in a mixture
o Gas moves from a higher pressure/concentration to a lower pressure/concentration
Why would oxygen diffuse into this blood while CO2 diffuses out?
o Because the concentrations are different
Contrast External and Internal respiration
o External respiration is the gas exchange that occurs between capillaries and alveoli
o Internal respiration is the gas exchange that occurs between the blood and systemic cell
compartments
Define external respiration
What is the critical function of ventilation
Contrast PO2 in the lungs (alveoli) and in the surrounding blood capillaries
o PO2 in the lungs is high and low in the surrounding blood capillaries
Contrast the PCO2 in the lungs (alveoli) and in the surrounding blood capillaries
o PCO2 in the lungs is low and high in the surrounding blood capillaries
Gas diffusion is dependent upon the partial pressure of gases Explain the movement of the
following gasses between lung alveoli and blood capillaries as a function of their relative partial
pressures in each location
o Oxygen
Moves out of the lungs/alveoli and into the blood
o CO2
Moves into the lungs/alveoli from the blood
Define internal respiration
Contrast the P02 in the blood capillaries and in the cells of the surrounding tissues
o PO2 Is high in the blood capillaries and low in the cells of tissues
Contrast the PCO2 in the blood capillaries and in the cells of the surrounding tissues
o PCO2 is low in the blood capillaries and high in the cells of tissues
Explain the movement of the following gases between blood capillaries and tissue cells as a
function of their relative partial pressures in each location
o Oxygen
Moves into the tissues from the blood
o CO2
Moves into the blood from the tissues
Interactions Media
Summarize blood's role with regard to transporting oxygen and carbon dioxide
o Blood is the medium used for gas transport throughout the body
Contrast the two ways oxygen is transported in blood
o Dissolved in blood plasma
Not very soluble, only a small percentage is transported this way
1.5%
o Bonded to hemoglobin
o 98.5%
Almost all oxygen is transported bound to hemoglobin in RBCs
Hemoglobin consists of four polypeptide chains
Each chain contains an iron bearing heme group that binds to a single oxygen
molecule
Describe the important role of the heme groups within each hemoglobin molecule
Define each of the following
o Deoxyhemoglobin
Hemoglobin without a bonded oxygen
o Oxyhemoglobin
Hemoglobin that is associated with oxygen
What is the oxygen association reaction that occurs in the lungs?
o O2+HB-H --> Hb-O2+H+
What is the oxygen dissociation reaction that occurs at the tissue cells?
o H+ + HB-O2 --> HB-H + O2
Name the factors that affect hemoglobin's saturation with oxygen. Once completely saturated,
the molecule is called oxyhemoglobin
o A greater number of oxygen molecules binding to hemoglobin increases the saturation of
hemoglobin
o Factors that affect this
PO2
PH
PCO2
Temperature
A chemical called BPG
Hemoglobin Type
PO2 is a primary factor influencing the degree of hemoglobin saturation. Explain how PO2 in the
lungs and tissue cells determines whether oxygen binding or dissociation occurs with hemoglobin
o Blood in vessels coming from the lungs is very high in PO2 so saturation is high
o Blood near skeletal muscle is very low in PO2 so saturation is low
Describe the Bohr Effect
o The ability of hemoglobin to carry oxygen in acidic blood is decreased
o Increased metabolic acids enhance dissociation of oxyhemoglobin
In contrast to the Bohr Effect how does elevated pH affect hemoglobin's oxygen affinity?
o Elevated pH increases the affinity of O2 to hemoglobin, therefore lowering the unloading
of O2 to tissue cells
Actively metabolizing cells aerobically use oxygen and produce carbon dioxide. Describe how
increasing levels of blood CO2 affect hemoglobin's oxygen affinity. Where in the body does this
occur?
o Effect of PC02 is similar to the effect of pH
o Carbon dioxide gas is temporarily converted to carbonic acid in the RBCs and then to
hydrogen and bicarbonate ions
o Result of increased carbon dioxide is decreased pH and the Bohr Effect
Explain CO2's effect on oxygen loading in the alveolar spaces
o Decreased CO2 here increases affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen and promotes oxygen
association
Describe how body temperature affects O2 association with hemoglobin
o Limited effect
o Elevated temperatures near metabolically active cells increases thermal motion of
molecules which promotes dissociation of oxygen from hemoglobin
Explain the effect of BPG on O2 association with hemoglobin
o RBCs do not have mitochondria, only use glyclosis to generate ATP
o BPG (byproduct of glycolysis)accumulates in red blood cells in low oxygen situations
o Thyroxine, human growth hormone, epinephrine, norepinephrine, and testosterone can
increase the production of BPG
o Higher BPG levels = increased unloading of O2 from the cells
Name the three ways CO2 can be transported by the blood and the percentage for each
mechanism
o 70% As bicarbonate ions in the plasma
o 23% Bound to hemoglobin
o 7% As a dissolved gas in the plasma
Explain carbaminohemoglobin formation and function
o Some carbon dioxide is bound to hemoglobin this way
o Formed near metabolically active cells, disassociates near lungs
o Diffuses out of blood cell, into plasma, enters alveolar air space
o Formation:
CO2 + Hb --> HB-CO2
Explain bicarbonate ion formation and how it is used to transport carbon dioxide
o Diffuses into blood cells, converted to bicarbonate
o CO2 + H2O --> H2CO3 --> HCO3- + H+
o As levels of CO2 increase, production of bicarbonate ions increases
o Bicarbonate ions diffuse out of the RBC into the plasma
Define the chloride shift and explain why it occurs
o Negatively charged chloride ions move into the cell to balance the movement of the
negatively charged bicarbonate ions out of the cell
o Chloride shift maintains the electrical balance in the red blood cell
Open E-Stax
Breathing!
o Define each of the following breathing patterns:
Eupnea
Quiet breathing
Occurs subconciously
diaphragmatic breathing
Deep breathing
Requires the diaphragm to contract
costal breathing
Shallow breathing
Requires the intercostal muscles to contract
Hyperpnea
Forced breathing
Both inspiration and expiration must occur due to muscle contractions
In addition to the contraction of the diaphragm and intercostal muscles,
other accessory muscles must also contract.
During forced inspiration, muscles of the neck, including the scalenes,
contract and lift the thoracic wall, increasing lung volume. During forced
expiration, accessory muscles of the abdomen, including the obliques,
contract, forcing abdominal organs upward against the diaphragm.
This helps to push the diaphragm further into the thorax, pushing more
air out. In addition, accessory muscles (primarily the internal intercostals)
help to compress the rib cage, which also reduces the volume of the
thoracic cavity
o The rhythmicity area of the medulla oblongata controls the basic rhythm of respiration.
Explain the respiratory function of these parts:
dorsal respiratory group (DRG)
Integrates input from the stretch receptors and the chemoreceptors in
the periphery
ventral respiratory group (VRG) - Remember, quiet expiration is passive so the
VRG does its job outside of this.
Generates the breathing rhythm and integrates data coming into the
medulla
o Explain the respiratory function of these parts of the pons:
apneustic center
a double cluster of neuronal cell bodies that stimulate neurons in the
DRG, controlling the depth of inspiration, particularly for deep breathing
pneumotaxic center
a network of neurons that inhibits the activity of neurons in the DRG,
allowing relaxation after inspiration, and thus controlling the overall rate
o Explain how a central chemoreceptor and a peripheral chemoreceptor work to monitor
blood gas content (note it is NOT oxygen that is being monitored) and how this affects
the brain respiration centers to maintain homeostasis.
A central chemoreceptor is one of the specialized receptors that are located in
the brain and brainstem, whereas a peripheral chemoreceptor is one of the
specialized receptors located in the carotid arteries and aortic arch.
Concentration changes in certain substances, such as carbon dioxide or hydrogen
ions, stimulate these receptors, which in turn signal the respiratory centers of
the brain. In the case of carbon dioxide, as the concentration of CO2 in the blood
increases, it readily diffuses across the blood-brain barrier, where it collects in
the extracellular fluid. As will be explained in more detail later, increased carbon
dioxide levels lead to increased levels of hydrogen ions, decreasing pH.
The increase in hydrogen ions in the brain triggers the central chemoreceptors to
stimulate the respiratory centers to initiate contraction of the diaphragm and
intercostal muscles.
As a result, the rate and depth of respiration increase, allowing more carbon
dioxide to be expelled, which brings more air into and out of the lungs promoting
a reduction in the blood levels of carbon dioxide, and therefore hydrogen ions, in
the blood.
In contrast, low levels of carbon dioxide in the blood cause low levels of
hydrogen ions in the brain, leading to a decrease in the rate and depth of
pulmonary ventilation, producing shallow, slow breathing.
How do these chemoreceptors override our ability to "hold our breath" which
results in rapid carbon dioxide and hydrogen ion accumulation?
o Describe how each of the following contribute to respiratory regulation.
hypothalamic/limbic system stimulation
strong emotions
o Results in increase in respiratory rate
Pain
o Increase?
Temperature
o Increase in body temp causes increase in respiratory rate
o Define each of the following and describe their significance:
hypercapnia
A condition of abnormally elevated carbon dioxide levels in the blood
Triggers a reflec which increases breathing and access to oxygen
hypocapnia
A state of reduced carbon dioxide in the blood
Results from deep or rapid breathing, known as hyperventilation
Apnea
The cessation of breathing
Can occur during sleep (sleep apnea)
Central (decreased sensitivity to rising CO2 levels)
Obstructive (obstruction in the air passage)
o Explain how and why each of the following occur:
nitrogen narcosis
Anesthetic effect of certain gases at high pressures
Reversible alteration of LOC
Gas dissolving into nerve membranes and causing temporary disruption
of nerve transmissions
Acute mountain sickness
Caused by low oxygen partial pressure at high elevations
CO2 has a high diffusion out and O2 has a low diffusion into the blood
Interactions Media
Chemoreceptors
o Monitor blood gas and pH
o Send sensory signals along glossopharyngeal and vagus nerves to respiratory control
center
Glossopharyngeal nerve
o Sends sensory signals to the respiratory control center
Vagus nerve
o Sends sensory signals to the respiratory control center
Respiratory control center
o Determines the basic rhythmic breathing pattern
o Ventilation rate can be altered by a variety of factors including emotions, voluntary
control from cerebral cortex, blood gas, pH levels, and exercise
o Sends motor signals along the neurons of the spinal nerves to the striated muscles of
inspiration and expiration as well as along the neurons of the vagus and several
sympathetic thoracic nerves to the smooth muscles regulating the lumen diameter of
bronchioles
Intercostal and Phrenic nerves
o Cause intercostal muscles to contract
o Cause diaphragm to contract
Interactions Media
Describe the general functions of digestive system histology (liver and pancreas, too)
o Liver produces bile, which is used to emulsify, or disperse, fat molecules
Hepatocytes, bile duct, hepatic portal vein, hepatic artery, central vein, sinusoids
o Pancreas produces digestive enzymes for carbohydrates, proteins, lipids, and nucleic
acids. Also produces bicarbonate to neutralize gastric acid in the intestine.
Pancreas, duodenum, acinar cells, pancreatic ducts, islets of Langerhans cells
Name the four layers of the GI tract from deep to superficial
o Mucosa
o Submucosa
o Muscularis
o Serosa
What is the function of the enteric nervous system?
o Control digestive activities
What is the function of secrets and bicarbonate?
o Bicarbonate neutralizes acidic chyme from stomach
o Pancreatic enzymes digest carbs, proteins, nucleic acids, and trigylcerides
Describe the primary function of large intestine mucosa?
o To absorb water and secrete mucus
Describe the function of large intestinal mucus?
o Used to lubricate the movement of feces through the organ
Determine blood flow to the hepatic vein
o Blood goes from the hepatic artery and hepatic portal vein, through the sinusoids, to the
central vein
What is the function of bile?
o Used to emulsify, or disperse, fat molecules
o Bile flows into the bile ducts
What is the function of the stratified squamous epithelium that lines the esophagus?
o Protects the esophagus from abrasion from food particles
What is the function of the muscularis layers?
o Provides a propulsive movement that moves food into the stomach
What functions are served by the stomach mucosa?
o Secrete enzymes and gastric acid to promote digestion, hormones to regulate digestive
activities and copious amounts of mucus to provide water for digestion as well as
protection from gastric acid
What is the function of the stomach muscularis?
o Provides movements to mix food and propel the resultant chyme to the small intestine
What is the primary function of the small intestine?
o Primary digestive organ, responsible for most digestion and absorption of nutrients
What is the function of the mucosa?
o Cells of the mucosa secrete mucus and hormones
o Enzymes are embedded in the membranes of the mucosal cells
Interactions Media
Describe the peritoneuma broad serous membranous sac made up of squamous epithelial
tissue surrounded by connective tissue that holds in places the digestive organs within the
abdominal cavity
o parietal peritoneum
lines the abdominal wall
o visceral peritoneum
envelopes the abdominal organs
o peritoneal cavity
the space bounded by the visceral and parietal peritoneal surfaces
A few milliliters of watery fluid act as a lubricant to minimize friction between the
serosal surfaces of the peritoneum
Define retroperitoneal
o during fetal development, certain digestive structures, including the first portion of the
small intestine (called the duodenum), the pancreas, and portions of the large intestine
(the ascending and descending colon, and the rectum) remain completely or partially
posterior to the peritoneum
o Thus, the location of these organs is described as retroperitoneal.
Describe these peritoneal folds:
o greater omentum
apron-like structure that lies superficial to the small intestine and transverse
colon; a site of fat deposition in people who are overweight
o lesser omentum
suspends the stomach from the inferior border of the liver; provides a pathway for
structures connecting to the liver
o mesentery
vertical band of tissue anterior to the lumbar vertebrae and anchoring all of the
small intestine except the initial portion (the duodenum)
o mesocolon
attaches two portions of the large intestine (transverse and sigmoid colon) to the
posterior abdominal wall
What is peritonitis?
o Inflammation of the peritoneum
Interactions Media
Gastric Secretion: Identify the three phases of gastric secretion and using one sentence each,
describe what happens.
o Cephalic Phase
Relatively brief, takes place before food enters the stomach. The smell, taste,
sight, or thought of food triggers this phase.
For example, when you bring a piece of sushi to your lips, impulses from
receptors in your taste buds or the nose are relayed to your brain, which returns
signals that increase gastric secretion to prepare your stomach for digestion.
This enhanced secretion is a conditioned reflex, meaning it occurs only if you like
or want a particular food. Depression and loss of appetite can suppress the
cephalic reflex.
o Gastric Phase
Lasts 3 to 4 hours, and is set in motion by local neural and hormonal mechanisms
triggered by the entry of food into the stomach.
For example, when your sushi reaches the stomach, it creates distention that
activates the stretch receptors.
This stimulates parasympathetic neurons to release acetylcholine, which then
provokes increased secretion of gastric juice.
Partially digested proteins, caffeine, and rising pH stimulate the release of gastrin
from enteroendocrine G cells, which in turn induces parietal cells to increase
their production of HCl, which is needed to create an acidic environment for the
conversion of pepsinogen to pepsin, and protein digestion.
Additionally, the release of gastrin activates vigorous smooth muscle
contractions. However, it should be noted that the stomach does have a natural
means of avoiding excessive acid secretion and potential heartburn. Whenever
pH levels drop too low, cells in the stomach react by suspending HCl secretion
and increasing mucous secretions.
o Intestinal Phase
Has both excitatory and inhibitory elements
The duodenum has a major role in regulating the stomach and its emptying.
When partially digested food fills the duodenum, intestinal mucosal cells release
a hormone called intestinal (enteric) gastrin, which further excites gastric juice
secretion.
This stimulatory activity is brief, however, because when the intestine distends
with chyme, the enterogastric reflex inhibits secretion.
One of the effects of this reflex is to close the pyloric sphincter, which blocks
additional chyme from entering the duodenum.
Near the end of this reference chapter under "Chemical Digestion" is a paragraph that suggests
there is only one life essential function for the stomach and its not even protein digestion. Explain
why they make this supposition.
o Because without red blood cells and normal neurological functioning, we would die
Hormones regulate several digestive activities. As review, describe each of the following parts of
an endocrine feedback loop.
o Stimulus
A change in body condition
o Production Cell
An endocrine cell that produces a hormone after being affected by a stimulus
o Hormone
The signaling chemical
o Target Cell
A cell receptive to the hormone
o Action
What the cell does when affected by the hormone
o Response
The overall change in controlled body condition as a result of the feedback loop
Describe the two events that stimulate gastrin secretion.
o The filling of the stomach with food (especially proteins)
o Receptors sense distension and the increased gastric pH
o
Describe G cell function
o To secrete gastrin
o G cells are in mucosa of stomach
What are the gastrin target cells and where are they located?
o Gastric mucosa
o Parietal and chief cells
Describe the response of gastric mucosal target cells to gastrin
o Parietal Cells
Produce more HCl
o Chief Cells
Produce more pepsinogen
Describe the stomachs response to increased pepsin and gastric acid.
o The stomachs ability to digest proteins increases
What effects does gastin have on smooth muscle cells of the muscularis?
o Increased gastric motility
o Opening of pyloric sphincter
o Increased gastric emptying
Acidic chyme entering the duodenum is the stimulus.
o Identify the production cells
S cells
o Identify the hormone
secretin
What is the secretin target?
o Pancreatic acinar cells
What is the target response?
o Stimulates the pancreas to produce and deliver more bicarbonate to the small intestine
What is the effect of bicarbonate?
o Buffers acidity of chyme and protects intestinal tissue
Describe the stomach mucosas response to secretin.
o Inhibits gastric acid secretion
o As chyme approaches the small intestine, secretin also targets acid-producing parietal
cells in the gastric mucosa
What stimulates production of cholecystokinin (CCK)?
o Enteroendocrine cells of the intestinal mucosa
Identify CCK tarsecretget cells
o Pancreatic acinar cells and the biliary system
What is the target cell response?
o Delivery of pancreatic lipase and bile is increased to the small intestine
o CCK promotes the digestion of fats in the chyme
How does this endocrine loop address increased chyme fat?
Describe the enterogastric reflex.
o What stimulates the reflex?
Distended duodenum and fatty acids or undigested proteins in the chyme
o What is the CCK target and its response?
Triggers the closing of the pyloric sphincter, thereby inhibiting gastric emptying
High protein and high fat meals stimulate the secretion of CCK and consequently
take longer to digest and empty
o Explain the necessity of the enterogastric reflex
Six general urinary system functions are discussed in this reading. Starting with the first two,
cleansing the blood and ridding the body of wastes, make an itemized list of what this system
does.
o Cleansing the blood
o Ridding the body of wastes
o Regulation of pH
o Regulation of blood pressure
o Regulating the concentration of solutes in the blood (regulating the concentration of
RBCs)
o Production of 85% of erythropoietin (EPO)
What are the potential consequences of urinary system failure?
o If the kidneys fail, these functions are compromised or lost altogether, with devastating
effects on homeostasis.
o The affected individual might experience weakness, lethargy, shortness of breath,
anemia, widespread edema (swelling), metabolic acidosis, rising potassium levels, heart
arrhythmias, and more. Each of these functions is vital to your well-being and survival.
The urinary system, controlled by the nervous system, also stores urine until a
convenient time for disposal and then provides the anatomical structures to transport
this waste liquid to the outside of the body. Failure of nervous control or the anatomical
structures leading to a loss of control of urination results in a condition called
incontinence.
Interactions Media
Interactions Media
What is a nephron?
o The functional unit of the kidney
Identify the two part of a nephron
o The renal corpuscle
o The renal tubule
Where is blood filtered?
o At the renal corpuscle
How/where is the filtrate altered?
o By reabsorption and secretion along the renal tubule
Show
o Filtration direction
o Tubular reabsorption
o Tubular secretion
What is the most common nephron type?
o Cortical nephrons
What is the function of juxtamedullary nephrons?
o Allow kidneys to produce very concentrated urine
The order of flow through a juxtamedullary nephron
o glomerular (Bowmans) capsule
o Proximal convoluted tubule
o Descending limb of the loop of Henle
o Thin ascending limb of the loop of Henle
o Thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle
o Distal convoluted tubule (drains into collecting duct)
Why is fluid flow through a nephron so highly regulated?
o To ensure that appropriate levels of water and solutes are processed by the renal tubules
Describe a glomerulus
o A system of thin wall capillaries that allow filtration from blood into the capsular space
What is the function of a glomerular (Bowmans) capsule?
o A cup-like sac at the beginning of the tubular component of a nephron in the mammalian
kidney that performs the first step in the filtration of blood to form urine
What is the function of the glomerular filtration membrane?
o Renal processing involves the filtration of plasma in the glomerulus. Glomerular filtration
is a process of bulk flow: water and low molecular weight substances move from the
lumen of the capillary, across the filtration membrane, and into Bowmans space.
Tubular Reabsorption
Interactions Media
Open E-Stax
Regulation of body fluid composition is critical to homeostatic maintenance. As youve seen, body
fluids are primarily water. However, there are other molecules dissolved into it. Identify those
molecules.
o Nutrients (glucose and amino acids)
o Gases (carbon dioxide and oxygen)
o Nitrogenous wastes (ammonium, NH4+)
o Electrolytes (hydrogen ions, sodium ions, potassium ions, calcium ions, chloride ions,
bicarbonate, and phosphate)
o Proteins
Identify basic roles of water in the body
o Transportation
o Participation in reactions
o Lubrication
o Temperature regulation
Explain some details about waters transportation role
o Acts as the bodys primary medium for transportation of nutrients, gases, electrolytes,
and nitrogenous wastes
o Blood and lymph act to carry water and its dissolved solutes to and from most cells of the
body
o Cells need these transported substances to perform their functions
Describe waters role in each of the following types of chemical reactions
o Dehydration Synthesis
Combine smaller molecules by removing water from the reactants
o Hydrolysis
Use of water to break up larger molecules
What is the chemical environment for all body reactions?
o All reactions occur within water solutions
o Without water, cells would not be able to build new molecules or get energy from fuel
molecules
Describe how water functions to regulate temperature
o Water can absorb and release large amounts of heat
o Sweating removes excessive heat with water vapor
o Body temperatures above normal are not conducive to maintaining homeostasis
Describe the lubrication role of water and serous membranes
o Water makes up most of the lubricating fluid between moving organs
o Tissues, such as serous membranes, move fluid between organs to reduce damage due
to friction
Explain the correlation between solute concentrations, osmotic pressure, and water movement
o To move water, cells must move solutes first (water follows solutes)
o Increased solutes cause an increase in osmotic pressure and relatively low amounts of
water
o Water flows towards fluids with higher osmotic pressures
Fluid movement is important to its function in many body locations
o How is fluid movement critical for capillary function?
Dissolved substances are exchanged between the blood and bodys cells in the
capillaries via water movement
o How if fluid movement critical for nephron function?
Nephron reclaims water and solutes from the urine and returns these substances
to the blood
As it does this, blood composition and volume are altered
o How is water critical for digestion and absorption?
Mucus, consisting mainly of water, is used in the digestive system via hydrolysis
reactions, to digest food molecules
Water, with other nutrients, is absorbed back into the mucosa
o How is water critical for respiration?
The water in mucus, produced by the respiratory mucosa, has a role in cleaning
air prior to gas exchange in the lungs
Sodium Imbalance
o What causes hyponatremia and what are its consequences?
A lower-than-normal concentration of sodium, usually associated with
excess water accumulation in the body, which dilutes the sodium. An
absolute loss of sodium may be due to a decreased intake of the ion
coupled with its continual excretion in the urine. An abnormal loss of
sodium from the body can result from several conditions, including
excessive sweating, vomiting, or diarrhea; the use of diuretics; excessive
production of urine, which can occur in diabetes; and acidosis, either
metabolic acidosis or diabetic ketoacidosis.
A relative decrease in blood sodium can occur because of an imbalance
of sodium in one of the bodys other fluid compartments, like IF, or from a
dilution of sodium due to water retention related to edema or congestive
heart failure. At the cellular level, hyponatremia results in increased entry
of water into cells by osmosis, because the concentration of solutes
within the cell exceeds the concentration of solutes in the now-diluted
ECF. The excess water causes swelling of the cells; the swelling of red
blood cellsdecreasing their oxygen-carrying efficiency and making
them potentially too large to fit through capillariesalong with the
swelling of neurons in the brain can result in brain damage or even death.
o What causes hypernatremia and what are its consequences?
An abnormal increase of blood sodium. It can result from water loss from the
blood, resulting in the hemoconcentration of all blood constituents.
Hormonal imbalances involving ADH and aldosterone may also result in
higher-than-normal sodium values
Potassium Imbalance
o What causes hypokalemia and what are its consequences?
An abnormally low potassium blood level. Similar to the situation with
hyponatremia, hypokalemia can occur because of either an absolute
reduction of potassium in the body or a relative reduction of potassium in
the blood due to the redistribution of potassium. An absolute loss of
potassium can arise from decreased intake, frequently related to
starvation. It can also come about from vomiting, diarrhea, or alkalosis.
Some insulin-dependent diabetic patients experience a relative reduction
of potassium in the blood from the redistribution of potassium. When
insulin is administered and glucose is taken up by cells, potassium
passes through the cell membrane along with glucose, decreasing the
amount of potassium in the blood and IF, which can cause
hyperpolarization of the cell membranes of neurons, reducing their
responses to stimuli.
o What causes hyperkalemia and what are its consequences?
An elevated potassium blood level, also can impair the function of skeletal
muscles, the nervous system, and the heart. Hyperkalemia can result from
increased dietary intake of potassium. In such a situation, potassium from
the blood ends up in the ECF in abnormally high concentrations. This can
result in a partial depolarization (excitation) of the plasma membrane of
skeletal muscle fibers, neurons, and cardiac cells of the heart, and can also
lead to an inability of cells to repolarize. For the heart, this means that it
wont relax after a contraction, and will effectively seize and stop pumping
blood, which is fatal within minutes. Because of such effects on the nervous
system, a person with hyperkalemia may also exhibit mental confusion,
numbness, and weakened respiratory muscles.
Chloride Imbalance
o What causes hypochloremia and what are its consequences?
Lower-than-normal blood chloride levels, can occur because of defective
renal tubular absorption. Vomiting, diarrhea, and metabolic acidosis can also
lead to hypochloremia.
o What causes hyperchloremia and what are its consequences?
Higher-than-normal blood chloride levels, can occur due to dehydration,
excessive intake of dietary salt (NaCl) or swallowing of sea water, aspirin
intoxication, congestive heart failure, and the hereditary, chronic lung
disease, cystic fibrosis. In people who have cystic fibrosis, chloride levels in
sweat are two to five times those of normal levels, and analysis of sweat is
often used in the diagnosis of the disease.
Describe bicarbonate ions primary role
o Second most abundant anion in the blood
o Principal function is to maintain the bodys acid-base balance by being part of buffer
systems
Calcium Imbalance
o What causes hypocalcemia and what are its consequences?
abnormally low calcium blood levels, is seen in hypoparathyroidism, which
may follow the removal of the thyroid gland, because the four nodules of the
parathyroid gland are embedded in it
o What causes hypercalcemia and what are its consequences?
Abnormally high calcium blood levels, is seen in primary
hyperparathyroidism. Some malignancies may also result in hypercalcemia
Phosphate Imbalance
o What causes hypophosphatemia and what are its consequences?
Abnormally low phosphate blood levels, occurs with heavy use of antacids,
during alcohol withdrawal, and during malnourishment. In the face of
phosphate depletion, the kidneys usually conserve phosphate, but during
starvation, this conservation is impaired greatly
o What causes hyperphosphatemia and what are its consequences?
Abnormally increased levels of phosphates in the blood, occurs if there is
decreased renal function or in cases of acute lymphocytic leukemia.
Additionally, because phosphate is a major constituent of the ICF, any
significant destruction of cells can result in dumping of phosphate into the
ECF
Summarize the water regulatory roles of the following hormones
o Aldosterone
Conserve and increase water levels in the plasma by reducing excretion of
sodium, and thus water, from the kidneys
o Angiotensin II
Causes vasoconstriction and an increase in systemic blood pressure
Increases the glomerular filtration rate, also signals an increase in the release
of aldosterone
Increases water levels in the plasma
o PTH, Calcitriol, and Calcitonin
PTH is released from the parathyroid gland in response to a decrease in the
concentration of blood calcium
Activates osteoclasts to break down bone matrix and release inorganic
calcium-phosphate salts
PTH also increases gastrointestinal absorption of dietary calcium by
converting vitamin D into calcitriol (active form of vitamin D)
PTH raises blood Ca levels by inhibiting the loss of Ca through the kidneys
PTH also increases the loss of phosphate through the kidneys
Calcitonin is release from the thyroid gland in response to elevated blood
levels of calcium. The hormone increases the activity of osteoblasts, which
remove calcium from the blood and deposit it into the bony matrix
The following were briefly addressed within our Interactions animation but let's take a closer
look. Briefly define each of the following conditions, explain how they occur, and, if provided,
what the consequences are.
o metabolic acidosis
Occurs when the blood is too acidic (pH below 7.35) due to too little bicarbonate,
a condition called primary bicarbonate deficiency. At the normal pH of 7.40, the
ratio of bicarbonate to carbonic acid buffer is 20:1. If a persons blood pH drops
below 7.35, then he or she is in metabolic acidosis. The most common cause of
metabolic acidosis is the presence of organic acids or excessive ketones in the
blood
o metabolic alkalosis
The opposite of metabolic acidosis. It occurs when the blood is too alkaline (pH
above 7.45) due to too much bicarbonate (called primary bicarbonate excess).
A transient excess of bicarbonate in the blood can follow ingestion of excessive
amounts of bicarbonate, citrate, or antacids for conditions such as stomach acid
refluxknown as heartburn. Cushings disease, which is the chronic
hypersecretion of adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH) by the anterior pituitary
gland, can cause chronic metabolic alkalosis. The over-secretion of ACTH results
in elevated aldosterone levels and an increased loss of potassium by urinary
excretion. Other causes of metabolic alkalosis include the loss of hydrochloric
acid from the stomach through vomiting, potassium depletion due to the use of
diuretics for hypertension, and the excessive use of laxatives.
o respiratory acidosis
Occurs when the blood is overly acidic due to an excess of carbonic acid,
resulting from too much CO2 in the blood. Respiratory acidosis can result from
anything that interferes with respiration, such as pneumonia, emphysema, or
congestive heart failure.
o respiratory alkalosis
Occurs when the blood is overly alkaline due to a deficiency in carbonic acid and
CO2 levels in the blood. This condition usually occurs when too much CO2 is
exhaled from the lungs, as occurs in hyperventilation, which is breathing that is
deeper or more frequent than normal. An elevated respiratory rate leading to
hyperventilation can be due to extreme emotional upset or fear, fever,
infections, hypoxia, or abnormally high levels of catecholamines, such as
epinephrine and norepinephrine. Surprisingly, aspirin overdosesalicylate
toxicitycan result in respiratory alkalosis as the body tries to compensate for
initial acidosis
Discuss both respiratory and metabolic compensation for acidosis and alkalosis.
o Respiratory compensation for metabolic acidosis increases the respiratory rate to drive
off CO2 and readjust the bicarbonate to carbonic acid ratio to the 20:1 level. This
adjustment can occur within minutes. Respiratory compensation for metabolic alkalosis is
not as adept as its compensation for acidosis. The normal response of the respiratory
system to elevated pH is to increase the amount of CO2 in the blood by decreasing the
respiratory rate to conserve CO2. There is a limit to the decrease in respiration, however,
that the body can tolerate. Hence, the respiratory route is less efficient at compensating
for metabolic alkalosis than for acidosis.
o Metabolic and renal compensation for respiratory diseases that can create acidosis
revolves around the conservation of bicarbonate ions. In cases of respiratory acidosis, the
kidney increases the conservation of bicarbonate and secretion of H+ through the
exchange mechanism discussed earlier. These processes increase the concentration of
bicarbonate in the blood, reestablishing the proper relative concentrations of
bicarbonate and carbonic acid. In cases of respiratory alkalosis, the kidneys decrease the
production of bicarbonate and reabsorb H+ from the tubular fluid. These processes can
be limited by the exchange of potassium by the renal cells, which use a K+-H+ exchange
mechanism (antiporter).
Low carb diets force the body to metabolize fats for energy and ketones are produced as a by-
product. If you look back, increased blood ketones is in the acidosis list in OpenStax. This is called
ketoacidosis.
o From what you know, how would the urinary, respiratory, and buffer systems attempt to
compensate for this imbalance?
Respiratory rate would increase to dispel more carbon dioxide from the blood
Increased secretion of hydrogen ions into the blood and increased reabsorption
of bicarbonate ions into the blood
Define gametogenesis
o The production of gametes, or sex cells
What cells are gametes?
o Sperm cells, produced by the male
o Secondary oocytes, produced by the female
What are the two cell division processes that occur during the cell cycle?
o Mitotic cell division
o Meiotic cell division
Define the cell cycle
o an orderly sequence of events by which a somatic cell duplicates its contents and divides
Iin two
Identify the two primary parts of the cell cycle
o Interphase
o Mitotic (M) phase
What's happening during cellular interphase?
o A state of high metabolic activity,
o Where the cell does most of its growing
o Consists of three phases
G1
S
G2
Describe cellular events during G1?
o Metabolically active
o Duplicates organells and cystolic components
Describe S phase activities?
o Centrosomes, structures that build mitotic spindles, are replicated during the S phase
o DNA is replicated, doubling the original number of 46
Describe how DNA replication begins during the S phase
o The double helix partially uncoils, and the two strands disconnect at the points where
hydrogen bonds connect base pairs
o Each exposed base of the old DNA strand then pairs with the complementary base of a
free nucleotide
o A new DNA molecule develops as chemical bonds form between neighboring nucleotides
o Uncoiling and complementary base pairing will continue until both originial DNA strands
are joined with newly formed complementary DNA strands
o As a result, the original DNA molecule has become two identical DNA molecules
Describe how new DNA strand forms and ultimately produce two identical DNA molecules
What happens during the G2 phase of interphase?
o Cell growth continues
o Enzymes and other proteins are synthesized in preparation for cell division
What is produced by the mitotic (M) phase of the cell cycle?
o Two genetically identical cells from one parent cell
What is the function of mitotic cell division?
o It is the basis of tissue growth and regeneration, and the proliferation of stem cells that
later give rise to gametes
Define the two mitotic cell processes
o Mitosis, which is nuclear division
o Cytokinesis, which is cytoplasmic division
What happens to cellular DNA during the four stages of mitosis?
o The distribution of two sets of DNA into two separate nuclei
Describe events during prophase
o Chromatin fibers condense into paired sister chromatids
o Nucleolus and nuclear envelope disappear
o Each centrosome moves to an opposite pole of the cell
o Mitotic spindle appears
Describe events during metaphase
o Centromeres of chromatid pairs line up at the equatorial plane
Describe events during anaphase
o Centromeres split
o Sister chromatids separate and identical chromosomes mote to opposite poles of the cell
Describe cytokinesis
o A contractile ring forming a cleavage furrow around the center of the cell appears
o The contractile ring constricts, dividing cytoplasm into separate and equal portions
Describe events during telophase
o Nucleolus and nuclear envelope reappear
o Chromosomes resume chromatin form
o Mitotic spindle disappears
o Contractile ring of cytokinesis continues to constrict the center of the cell until Iit pinches
the cell in two
Meiosis is a cell division that creates "daughter cells" that are different from the parent cell.
Explain.
o Daughter cells only have 1 set of genetic information
Somatic cells are "body cells", those other than reproductive. Contrast the chromosomes of
somatic cells and gametes
o Gametes are haploid with (n) amount of chromosomes
o Somatic cells are diploid with (2n) amount of chromosomes
o n = 23 chromosomes in humans
Contrast meiotic and mitotic cell divisions. How do they differ as processes and how are their
products different?
o Meiosis consists of two divisions, thereby producing four cells
o The daughter cells are haploid and genetically unlike in meiosis
o Mitosis
Mitosis & cytokinesis
o Meiosis
Meiosis & cytokinesis
Meiosis involves two cell divisions call Meisosis I and Meissis II. Meiosis I is mechanically similar to
mitosis with two notable exceptions:
o What is synapsis?
Sister chromatids of each pair of homologous chromosomes pair off
o What is crossing over?
Parts of non-sister chromatids of two homologous chromosomes may be
exchanged with one another
Describe a meiotic difference that occurs during Metaphase I
o Homologous pairs of chromosomes line up, not just the chromosomes individually
During interphase, the DNA has replicated so the chromosomes that appear during prophase are
actually doubled. The structure they form is called a tetrad. During mitotic anaphase, the tetrad
splits moving a copy of each homologous chromosome to each daughter cell. This produces two
daughter cells identical to each other and identical to the parent cell. This ISNT what happens in
Anaphase I of meiosis, however. Explain.
o The daughter cells produced are not identical to each other and not identical to the
parent cell, because the chromosomes moved contain different combinations of genetic
information
Explain why the daughter cells produced by Meiosis I are haploid.
o Because the chromatids of each chromosome do not separate. Instead, entire
chromosomes move to opposite poles of the cell. This results Iin daughter cells with half
the number of chromosomes
Why is the chromatic activity of anaphase II similar to the activity in mitotic anaphase?
o Centromeres of sister chromatids split and mote to opposite poles of the cell
Describe the chromosome complement of the meiotic daughter cells
o All 4 daughter cells have haploid numbers of chromosomes with possible genetic
differences
The meiotic cells after Meiosis I contain both copies of one chromosome. These are called sister
chromatids.
Define spermatogenesis
o The formation of spermatozoa
Where does this process occur?
o In the seminiferous tubules of the testes
Describe the developmental events of the spermatogonia cells
o At puberty, the spermatogonial cells are influenced by FSH and start to undergo
maturation to spematozoa
Describe development of a primary spermatocyte
o Develop from the spermatogonia under the influence of FSH and testosterone
Describe how two secondary spermatocytes are formed
o These result from the first meiotic division of the primary spermatocyte in whichch the
number of chromosomes is halved
Describe how spermatids are formed
o Spermatids result from meiosis II division of the secondary spermatocytes. All secondary
spermatocytes are haploid and have the same number of chromosomes
Describe spermiogenesis
o Maturation of the haploid spermatids into spermatozoa. This process includes
morphological and biochemical changes of the spermatids.
Define oogenesis
o Production of female gametes
Where does the process occur?
o Ovaries
When do oogonia cells develop?
o Prior to birth
Describe production of oogonia cells
o Prior to birth, stem cells in the ovaries undergo mitotic cell division to give rise to
oogonia. All oogonia enter meiosis, giving rise to primary oocytes whichch are arrested in
prophase I of meiosis. At birth, the ovaries do not have any stem cells or oogonia, only
primary oocytes.
What is a primordial follicle?
o An oogonium and the single layer of cuboidal follicular cells surrounding it
Describe primary oocyte development
o Oogonia stem cells develop into primary oocytes and enter prophase I during fetal
development
Oogonia cells begin prophase I during fetal development. This division, however, is stopped prior
to birth. When is meiosis I completed?
o After puberty
Following puberty, each month a primary oocyte is stimulated to complete the first meiotic
division. Describe this development.
o During the first meiotic division, the follicular cells surrounding the primary occyte
increase in number
o Just before ovulation, the primary oocyte completes the first meiotic division forming a
haploid (n) secondary oocyte and a smaller haploid (n) first polar body
Describe secondary oocyte formation within a "graffian" follicle.
o Has 23 sister chromatids, and therefore 46 DNA molecules
o Begins second meiotic division but pauses in metaphase II
What is the function of the first polar body?
o May complete meiosis II and produce two polar bodies, which degenerate
o To take up a smaller amount of cytoplasm and allow the secondary oocyte to take up the
majority of the cytoplasm
Describe what happens to the secondary oocyte
o Begins the second meiotic division but pauses in metaphase II
o Carried down the uterine tube, toward the uterus
The secondary oocyte is suspended within meiosis II. Describe the development of this cell with
and without fertilization
o If a sperm cell penetrates the secondary oocyte, meiosis II resumes
o Penetration of the secondary oocyte by sperm triggers the completion of the second
meiotic division. This division produces
A haploid (n) ovum, containing the majority of the cytoplasm
A haploid (n) second polar body containing very little cytoplasm, which
degenerates
o Without fertilization, the secondary oocyte is shed during menstruation
If fertilization occurs, a second polar body is formed which then degenerates. What is the
function of the polar body?
o Same as the first polar body
Describe zygote formation.
o When the nucleus of the ovum fuses with the nucleus of the sperm, a diploid (2n)
nucleus is formed and the cell is then known as a zygote
o The zygote Iis the first embryonic stage
o The zygote contained 46 DNA molecules, 23 from the ovum and 23 from the sperm
Corpus cavernosum
o Anterior side of the shaft
Corpus spongosum
o Distal end of the shaft
Glans penis
o Uncircumcised tip of the penis
What is cryptorchidisim and its treatment?
o Clinical term used when one or both of the testes fail to descend into the scrotum prior
to birth
o Medical treatment
Human chorionic gonadotropin or gonadotropin-releasing hormone treatment
o Surgical treatment
Define fertilization
o The process by which the two gametes from the parents fuse their genetic material to
form a new individual (zygote)
Where does fertilization occur?
o Uterine tube
Describe sperm movement relative to the corona radiate and the zona pellucida
o Penetration of the secondary oocyte occurs in the corona radiate
o Penetrated secondary oocyte enters the area of the zona pellucida
What role do digestive enzymes have in this process?
o Glycoprotein in the zona pellucida triggers the release of digestive enzymes
o These enzymes digest a path of the sperm to reach the plasma membrane of the
secondary oocyte
Define syngamy
o First sperm to penetrate the entire zona pellucida fuses with the secondary oocyte
How is polyspermy prevented?
o Changes in the membrane of the secondary oocyte triggered by syngamy
When is meiosis II completed?
o After a sperm penetrates the cell, the secondary oocyte completes meiosis II
What is the purpose of the polar body?
o To take up excess genetic material
Define the embryonic period
o The first through eighth weeks after fertilization
Define each of the following:
o Cleavage
Mitotic cell division
o Blastomeres
Each of the beginning cells
A cell formed by cleavage of a fertilized ovum
o Morula
A solid ball of blastomeres
Blastocyst forms from this
glycogen
o Blastocyst
Days 5-9
Blastula in which some differentiation of cells has occurred
Day 5, morula sheds the zone pellucida and becomes the blastocyst
o How long does it take for the morula to reach the uterus?
4 or 5 days (reaches by day 4 or 5)
o Contrast the inner cell mass and the trophoblast cells
Trophoblast cells make up the outer layer
o When does the blastocyst implant into the endometrium?
By day six
Implantation
o Normally, the blastocyst will implant in the posterior wall of the uterine body (fundus).
This places the placenta in the deep position allowing embryonic and fetal growth in the
outward direction.
What is sperm capacitation and what are its essential functions?
o It is when fluids in the female reproductive tract prepare the sperm for fertilization
o Also called priming
o Fluids improve the motility of the spermatozoa
o They also deplete cholesterol molecules embedded in the membrane of the head of the
sperm, thinning the membrane in such a way that will help facilitate the release of the
lysosomal (digestive) enzymes needed for the sperm to penetrate the oocytes exterior
once contact is made
o If the sperm reaches the oocyte before capacitation is complete, they will be unable to
penetrate the oocytes thick outer layer of cells
What are teratogens? Identify a few teratogens and their potential consequences
o Teratogen
Any environmental agent (biological, chemical, or physical) that causes damage
to the developing embryo or fetus
Alcohol
Mental retardation
Fetal alcohol syndrome
Abnormal cranial features
Poor judgement, poor impulse control, higher rates of ADHD, learning
issues, and lower IQ scores
Smoking
Nicotine travels through the placenta to the fetus
Developing baby experiences decreased oxygen levels
Results in premature birth, low birthweight infants, and SIDS
Drugs & Medications (even OTC)
Babies can be born with heroin addictions
Radiation, viruses (HIV and herpes), and rubella
Genetics: Lesson 8
Nature vs Nurture: Craig Venter was a leading researcher on this project. What is his take on the
relative importance between genetics and environmental influence? How does the colon cancer
gene bear this out as a good example?
o He cites the example of colon cancer, which is often associated with a defective "colon
cancer" gene.
o Even though some patients carry this mutated gene in every cell, the cancer only occurs
in the colon because it is triggered by toxins secreted by bacteria in the gut. Cancer,
argues Venter, is an environmental disease. Strong support for this viewpoint appeared
last year in the New England Journal of Medicine.
o Researchers in Scandinavia studying 45,000 pairs of twins concluded that cancer is largely
caused by environmental rather than inherited factors, a surprising conclusion after a
decade of headlines touting the discovery of the "breast cancer gene," the "colon cancer
gene," and many more
Environmental Effect - Genotype is only one factor in determining phenotype. Research how
environmental factors affect final phenotype, too. (pull up a search bar in OpenStax and look for
"affected by the environment")
o Radiation, certain viruses, or exposure to tobacco smoke or other toxic chemicals can
result in mutations
Autosomal Dominant - Explain why neurofibromatosis will be passed on 50% of the time when
one parent has the genetic disorder, even though s/he has a heterozygous genotype, and the
other parent is completely normal.
Autosomal Recessive - Explain how/why cystic fibrosis can occur in the offspring of two parents
that do not express the genetic disorder. (Within context of your explanation, teach the term
carrier.)
X-Linked Dominant- Why is vitamin D-resistant rickets passed from an affected father to ALL of his
daughters but none of his sons?
X-Linked Recessive - Explain how a mother can be heterozygous for color blindness yet not be
personnally affected by the disorder but has a 50% chance of her sons being color blind and 0%
chance of her daughters expressing the disorder.
o Her daughters will receive one good allele from the father, and will therefore be
heterozygous and fine or homozygous (if a good allele is also inherited from the mother)
o The sons will only have an X from the mother, therefore 50% of them will inherit the
faulty gene and therefore express it
Incomplete Dominance - Explain this inheritance pattern with a child having wavy hair when
neither parent did.
o When the offspring represent a phenotype that is between one parent's homozygous
dominant and the other parent's homozygous recessive
Polygenic Inheritance - Inherited traits that are not controlled by simply one gene, but rather by
the combined effects of two or more. This is actually the case for MOST human traits. Examples
include skin color, hair color, eye color, height, metabolism rate, and body build.
o Type O is not codominant, however. Explain its inheritance pattern relative to the other
two types within this muliple allele trait.
o A and B are codominant because IaIb genotypes have AB blood and express both
antigens equally
Recessive Lethal - Explain how Tay-Sachs is an example of this inheritance pattern. How does such
a condition remain in the gene pool? Why doesn't it simply die out?
o In recessive lethal inheritance patterns, a child who is born to two heterozygous (carrier)
parents and who inherited the faulty allele from both would not survive. An example of
this is TaySachs, a fatal disorder of the nervous system. In this disorder, parents with
one copy of the allele for the disorder are carriers. If they both transmit their abnormal
allele, their offspring will develop the disease and will die in childhood, usually before age
5.
o It doesn't die out because parents can also have heterozygous offspring that will simply
continue to carry the disease
Chromosome Number
o Down's Syndrome (trisomy 21) is also a genetic disorder although not caused by a specific
trait allele. Explain the causal genetics behind this disorder.
o If homologous chromosomes fail to separate during meiosis I, the result is two gametes
that lack that chromosome and two gametes with two copies of the chromosome.
o If sister chromatids fail to separate during meiosis II, the result is one gamete that lacks
that chromosome, two normal gametes with one copy of the chromosome, and one
gamete with two copies of the chromosome.