Professional Documents
Culture Documents
Contents
No Items pages
03 Examination tips 5
04 Answering Strategy 7
05 Sets of questions 12
06 Scheme 227
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Section B
5 (answer all questions)
30 marks
Section C
Answer question 10
And
Either question 11 or 12
04 Total marks 50 70
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QUESTION
CHAPTER 2005 2006 2007 2008 2009
O A B C O A B C O A B C O A B C O A B C
1 Scientific Investigation
2 Body Coordination 3 1 3 1 5 3 1 4 1
3 Heredity and Variation 4 1 5 3 1 3 4 1
4 Matter and Substance 4 1 4 1 1 3 4 1 1 4 1
5 Energy and Chemical Changes 3 1 3 1 4 1 4 3 1
6 Nuclear energy 2 1 3 1 2 1 2 1 4
7 Light, Colour and Sight 5 1 3 1 5 1 3 1 3 1
8 Chemicals in Industry 2 1 3 2 1 2 2 1
Number of Form 4 Questions 23 2 3 2 24 2 3 1 24 2 2 1 21 2 2 1 24 1 3 2
9 Microorganisms and Their 4 1 5 1 3 1 5 1 4 1
Effect on Living Things
10 Nutrition and Food Production 4 3 1 1 4 3 1 4
11 Preservation and Concervation 5 2 2 1 6 1 2 1 1
of the Environment
12 Carbon Compounds 4 1 4 1 5 1 3 1 3 1
13 Motion 4 1 5 1 5 1 5 1 5 1
14 Food Thecnology and
Production 2 1 3 2 1 2 1 3
15 Synthetic Materials in industry 2 2 2 1 2 1 2
16 Electronics and Information
2 1
and 2 1 3 1 3 3 1
Communication Technology
Number of Form 5 Questions 27 2 2 1 26 2 2 2 26 2 3 2 29 2 3 2 26 3 2 1
TOTAL 50 4 5 3 50 4 5 3 50 4 5 3 50 4 5 3 50 4 5 3
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EXAMINATIONS TIPS
ERRORS IN LANGUAGE
1. Wrong spelling.
2. Repeat answer using different sentence structure.
3. Use of active voice when writing a report .
SUGGESTION TO CANDIDATES
SUGGESTION TO TEACHERS
1. Each step in a scientific investigation should be carried out to ensure a good grasp of
skills pertaining to basic science processes.
2. Ensure all the students are well versed in all topics.
3. Ensure students master the skills of science processes.
4. Use a variety of teaching and learning method.
5. Prepare worksheets which include a lot of stimulus.
6. Expose student to the exam formatted questions from form 1.
7. Increase the number of exercises.
STRATEGIES
1.Student must find/prepare / collect sets of topical objective question from revision
book.
2.Do test and retest until get 85% correct for each topical sets.
3.Practise answering each objective question in 1 minutes 30 seconds.
4.Practise answering high level question using Eliminate method
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ELIMINATE METHOD
EXAMPLE 1
EXAMPLE 2
2.What happens to a person if his thyroid gland secretes excessive hormone into the
blood?
Notes:
Science Process Skills enable students to formulate their questions and find out the answer
systematically.
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Observing
Using the sense of hearing, touch, smell, taste and sight to collect information about an object
or a phenomenon.
Classifying
Using observation to group objects or events according to similarities or differences
Inferring
Using past experiences or previously collected data to draw conclusions and make
explanations of events.
Predicting
Stating the outcome of a future event based on prior knowledge gained through experiences of
collecting data
Communicating
Using words or graphic symbols such as tables, graphs, figures or models to describe an
action, object or event.
Interpreting Data
Giving rational explanations about an object, event or pattern derived from collected data.
Defining Operationally
Defining concepts by describing what must be done and what should be observed
Controlling Variables
Identifying the fixed variable, manipulated variable and responding variable in an
investigation. The manipulated variable is changed to observe its relationship with the
responding variable. At the same time, the fixed variable is kept constant
Hypothesising
Making a general statement about the relationship between a manipulated variable and a
responding variable in order to explain an event or observation. This statement can be tested
to determine its validity.
Experimenting
Planning and conducting activities to test a certain hypothesis. These activities include
collecting, analysing and interpreting data and making conclusions.
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A) Controlled Variable
Examples:
Steps:
Example 1:
Time/minute 0 2 4 6 8 10
Temperature/C 28 48 68 88 102 102
Steps:
a) Manipulated and responding variable given from the title of table are time and
temperature.
b) Time is manipulated variable because time are increase or changes.
c) Temperature is responding variable because changes of temperature
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1.Usually, you need to use your knowledge of scientific facts ,principles and theories to
answer the questions.
2.Your answers should be brief and accurate.
1. This section contains three questions. Question 1 is compulsory and you may choose
either question 2 or 3.
2. Question 1 test the candidates command of scientific skills in experimenting as well
as the ability to make reports.
3. This question begins with a general statement, e.g. Acidic substances have a sour
test. The candidate is required to give a hypothesis based on the statement. Then, the
candidate is required to described the experiment based on the following to test the
hypothesis.
a)Aim of experiment
b)Identification of variables
c)List of apparatus and materials
d)Procedure
e)Tabulation of data
f)Conclusion
4. Questions 2 and 3, are usually short but the candidate is required to use his or
her knowledge and understanding of scientific concepts and theories to answer.
5. In this context, the candidate has to answer the question by drawing and writing a
Short essay following the instruction of the question.
6. All answers must be written in the space provided below each question.
1. The format of question 1 is fixed and the candidate is required to answer it in the
same way as writing a report after an experiment.
2. For question 2 and 3, choose one you are confident in and answer it properly to obtain
maximum marks.
3. To answer this question, identify the key words which usually appear at the
beginning of the question.
4. Key words and the type of answer required are listed below:
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5.Apart from written answer, some questions require the candidate to draw and label
diagrams. In this contex, the diagrams should be clear, clean and of suitable size.
6.Wherever necessary, the workout of the calculation must be clearly shown in the space
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provided.
7.For an essay question which requires a long answer, plan your answer step-by-step and
write in short paragraphs
8.In an essay answer, each sentence should cover only one point in order to get one mark
which is usually allotted.
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9. Which of the following should be done 14. A student takes three petri dishes of
before forming a hypothesis? different sizes. Each petri dish is filled
3
with 30 cm boiling water. After some
I Collecting data time, he found that the volume of the
II Making observation boiling water left in each three petri dishes
III Identifying the problem is different.
IV Planning the investigation
A a conclusion
B a hypothesis
C an observation
D aim of the investigation
A Type of liquid
B Type of objects
C Size of the objects
D Temperature of water
I Drawing
II Predicting
III Controlling variable
IV Identifying problem
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I Sense
II Speech
III Growth
IV Memory and thinking
A I and II only
B I and III only
C II and IV only
D III and IV only
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7. The diagram below shows a neurone. 10 The diagram below shows the three main
groups of neurones.
X Y
A Dendron Myelin sheath Which of the following represents P, Q and
B Myelin sheath Dendron R?
C Dendrite Myelin sheath
D Myelin sheath Dendrite P Q R
A Relay Motor Sensory
8. Neurones can be classified into three main neurone neurone neurone
groups. Which of the following are the B Sensory Relay Motor
main groups of neurones? neurone neurone neurone
C Sensory Motor Relay
I Axon neurone neurone neurone
II Relay D Motor Sensory Relay
III Motor neurone neurone neurone
IV Sensory
11 The diagram below shows a neurone.
A I, II and III only
B I, II and IV only
C I, III and IV only
D II, III and IV only
A A protected.
B Receive nerve impulses and transmit
them.
C Controls all the activities in the
neurone.
D Speeds up the transmission of impulses What is the function of this neurone?
and provide nutrients to axon and A Transmits impulses from the central
dendron. nervous system to effectors.
B Transmits impulses from receptors to
the central nervous system.
C Transmits impulses from effectors to
the central nervous system.
D Processes impulses received from the
sensory neurones and transmits them to
17 the motor neurones.
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12. The diagram below shows a neurone. 17. The diagram below shows the pathway of
impulses in the nervous coordination.
20. Which of the following consists in a 23. The diagram below shows the reflex arc in
reflex? a human knee-jerk.
A I, II and IV only
B I, III and IV only
C II, III and IV only
D I, II, III and IV
A Receptor
spinal cord effector
B Effector
spinal cord receptor
C
Receptor spinal nerves effector
D
Effector spinal nerves receptor
A One
B Two
C Three
D Four
What are P, Q and R represent? 25. The following are true of the hormone,
P Q R except
A Cerebrum Cerebellum Medulla
oblongata A have a few target organs
B Cerebellu Cerebrum Medulla B produce in larger amount
m oblongata C produce by ductless gland
C Cerebellu Medulla Cerebrum D secrete directly into the bloodstream
m oblongata
D Medulla Cerebrum Cerebellum
oblongata 19
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26. The following are true of the pituitary 29 Why the pituitary gland is called the
gland, except master gland of the endocrine system?
A I and II only
B II and III only
What is the function of the label M? C I, II and III only
D I, II and IV only
A Controls the rate of metabolism.
B Conversion of glucose into glycogen.
C Develop of secondary sexual
characteristics.
D Prepares the body for actions during
emergencies.
A Pancreas
B Adrenal glands
C Thyroid gland
D Pituitary gland
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I Units of inheritance.
II Determine the characteristics.
III Thousand of genes in a DNA What is the label P represented?
molecule.
IV Consists of dominant genes and A DNA
recessive genes. B Gene
C Nucleus
A I, II and III only D Chromosome
B I, III and IV only
C II, III and IV only 7. Which of the following are the similarities
D I, II, III and IV between mitosis and meiosis?
3. There are two type of cell division namely I Important for inheritance.
II Each chromosome only double one.
A Gene and mutation. III Same number of times nucleus
B Mitosis and meiosis. divides.
C Dominant and recessive. IV Parent cells divide to produce
D Chromosome and autosome. daughter cells.
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8. Which of the following process will 12 Which of the following shows the
produce the gametes? importance of meiosis?
11 The diagram below shows a phase in 15. Which of the following is a recessive
process meiosis. traits?
A Curly hair
B Black hair
C Left handed
D Free ear lobes
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17. A parents with alleles shown as Cc x cc are 21 The diagram below shows the
crossed. chromosomes in a male and female.
Cc - Curly hair
cc - Straight hair
1
What are the phenotype ratios of the F
generation?
A 1 Cc : 3 cc
B 2 Cc : 2 cc
C 3 Cc : 1 cc
D 4 Cc : 0 cc
A 1 tall : 3 dwarf 22. Which of the following are true about the
B 2 tall : 2 dwarf identical twins?
C 3 tall : 1 dwarf
D 4 tall : 0 dwarf I Sex is same.
II One sperm is involved.
III Two foetuses share the same placenta.
19 If the 22 + X sperm fertilizes an ovum. IV Two foetuses develop in the mother's
What is the sex of the baby? uterus.
A Boy A I, II and III only
B Girl I, III and IV only
B
C Identical twins
C II, III and IV only
D Non-identical twins
D I, II, III and IV
20 If two ova are fertilized by two sperms.
What is the sex of baby? 23 Which of the following disorder is caused
by gene mutation?
A Boy
B Girl A Haemophilia
C Twins that have same sex. B Down's syndrome
D Twins that have same or different sex. C Turner's syndrome
D Klinefelter's syndrome
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24 The down's syndrome disorder caused by 28 If a female who has only one X
the possession of chromosome, she is suffering from
25. Which of the following are the causes of 29 Diabetic patients need to be treated by
mutation? using
I Differentiate individuals.
II Improve product quality.
III Allows selective breeding to be
carried out.
IV For survival when environment
conditions change.
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A Shiny
C B High density
C Dull and brittle
D High tensile strength
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8 The process of separating substances in a 13 The table below shows the information
mixture to obtain a pure substance is about elements W, X, Y and Z. Which of
the following elements are negatively
A filtration charged?
B distillation
C purification Element Number of Number of
D crystallization proton electron
W 18 19
9 What is the boiling point of water if added X 11 9
a bit of salt in the water? Y 13 10
Z 16 17
A 90 0C
B 99 0C
A W and X
C 100 0C
B W and Z
D 105 0C
C X and Y
D Y and Z
10 The table below shows some information
regarding an atom. 14 Isotopes have the
Nucleon number 28 A same chemical and physical properties.
Proton number 15 B different chemical and physical
properties.
How many neutrons does this atom have? C same chemical properties but different
physical properties.
A 13 D different chemical properties but same
B 15 physical properties.
C 28
D 43 15 The nucleus contains
A Mixture of salt and sand. A have low melting and boiling point.
B Mixture of ethanol and water. B may appear in solid, liquid and gas
C To obtain pure water from a salt state.
solution. C insoluble in water but soluble in
D To obtain petroleum fractions from organic solvents.
crude oil. D conduct electricity only when melted
or dissolved in water.
19 Which of the following elements are non-
metals? 23 Why metals have high melting and boiling
points?
A Gold
B Copper A Are good conductors of electricity.
C Bromine B Atoms are held strongly to each other.
D Magnesium C Weak Van der Waals' forces holding
the atom together.
20 Substance P has the following D Oppositely charged are attracted to
characteristic: each other by strong.
Corrosion resistant 24 The proton number enables us to predict
Have low densities
Good heat conductor I the number of protons an element
has.
Which of the following substance could be II the number of electrons an element
P? has.
III the location of an element in the
A Iron Periodic Table.
B Copper
C Sodium A I and II only
D Aluminium B II and III only
C I and III only
21 Which of the following is true? D I, II and III
26 Which of the following is true about the 29 Which of the following elements are not
Elements in Group 1? from group 18?
27 Which of the following is true about the 30 The diagram below shows the location of
elements in Group 18? element P in the Periodic Table.
A Gases
B Very reactive
C Called as halogens
D Have high melting points
A Sulfur
B Carbon
C Copper
D Magnesium
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A Ice melting
B Petrol burning
C Heating iodine crystals The following statement is true about the
D Sugar dissolve in water above reaction, except
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7 The information below shows an equation. 11 The reaction of calcium carbonate
represented by the equation below.
Hydrogen + Nitrogen
Ammonia
Calcium carbonate
Calcium oxide +
Which of the following statement is true Carbon dioxide
regarding the equation?
Which type of chemical reaction can
I The reaction is endothermic. describe equation above?
II The reaction is reversible.
III Releasing heat. A Dissolving
IV It is part of Haber Process. B Combination
C Displacement
A I only D Decomposition
B I, II and III only
C II, III and IV only 12 The information below shows a statement
D I, II, III and IV. about sodium hydroxide and dilute
hydrochloric acid solution.
8. What ratio is require when producing
ammonia from the reaction between Temperature increase when sodium
hydrogen gas and nitrogen gas in the hydroxide and dilute hydrochloric acid
Haber process? solution undergo neutralization.
What observation can be derived from the Bubbles formed and gas X is released from
diagram above if the metal Y is Sodium? the experiment above. Gas X is
X No reaction either hot or cold 18 Carbon have the ability to displace oxygen
water. from the oxides of the following metals
Y No reaction with cold water but except
with hot water.
Z Reacts very fast with water. A Iron oxide
B Zinc oxide
Which of the following arrangement in C Copper oxide
ascending order for their reactivities is D Magnesium oxide
true?
19 Which of the following method is to
A Z, Y, X extracting the metal?
B Y, Z, X
C X, Y, Z I Filtration and evaporation.
D X, Z, Y II Using carbon to reduce the metal.
III Electrolysis of molten ore of metals.
A I only
B I and II only
C II and III only
D I, II and III
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20 Why is the magnesium not using the 23 The diagram below shows the arrangement
carbon reduction method to extract? of apparatus set up study of the process of
electrolysis. After a few minute, there is
A Because the extraction process is low. any result change to be made.
B Because the magnesium obtained is
pure.
C Because magnesium is more reactive
than carbon.
D Because the extraction process requires
a very high temperature and pressure.
I Metal oxides
II Metal chlorides
What kind of error can be derived from the
III Metal sulphides
Metal carbonates diagram above that make no changes of it?
IV
A Current are too little.
A I only
B Terminals were reversed.
B I, II, and III only
C Using powdered lead iodide.
C II, III and IV only
D The carbon rods are not function.
D I, II, III and IV
24 Diagram below shows how an iron nails
22 Diagram below shows the study of
can be electroplated.
electrolysis of copper (II) sulphate solution
with two carbon electrodes.
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25 Which is a primary cell among the 28 Which of the following is good habit when
following? using and disposing equipment that use
chemical reaction as energy sources?
I Dry cell
II Alkaline battery I Take good care of the equipment.
III Silver oxide battery II Disposing the equipment by sending
IV Cadmium battery back to recycling centre.
III Follow the instruction of the
A I only manufacturer of the equipment.
B I, II and III only IV Throwing them together with the
C II, III and IV only household waste.
D I, II, III and IV
A I only
26 An alkaline battery is made up by which of B I, II and III only
the following parts? C II, III and IV only
D I, II, III and IV.
I Metal rod
II Zinc powder 29 The following is the new sources of energy
III Sodium hydroxide solution for equipment, except
IV Mixture of manganese (IV) oxide and
carbon I Wind mill
II Fuel cells
A I only III Bio-diesel fuel
B I, II and III only
C II, III and IV only A I only
D I, II, III and IV B I and II only
C II and III only
D I, II, and III
27 A chemical reaction in green plants has
been represented at the equation below. 30 Among the following, which are the ways
to overcome the worst effect due to
chemical reaction?
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A 25
B 53
C 75
D 83 Which of the following is X, Y and Z?
A Cobalt-60
B Iodine-131
C Carbon-14
D Phosphorus-32
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9 Which of the following radioisotope is 13 The diagram below shows radioactive
injected into a patient's body to detect ,
damage to the thyroid gland? radiation and penetrating through
materials X, Y and Z.
A Iodin-131
B Cobalt-60
C Sodium-24
D Plutonium-238
A X-rays
B Beta radiation
C Alpha radiation Which of the following represents X, Y
D Gamma radiation and Z?
P Q R
A Alpha Beta Gamma
B Beta Alpha Gamma
C Gamma Beta Alpha
D Beta Gamma Alpha
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16 Which of the following statement is the 19 The diagram below shows the process of
usage of radioactive substance? nuclear fission.
I To preserve food.
II Detect brain tumours.
III To detect underground pipe leakages.
IV Diagnose damage to the thyroid gland.
A I only
B I, II and III only
C II, III and IV only
D I, II, III and IV
22 The radioactive substance used in nuclear 26 The diagram below shows the nuclear
reactors are fission of Uranium-235.
A Sodium rods
B Radium rods
C Uranium rods
D Polonium rods
A Cancer growth.
B Fever and cold.
C Destruction of body cell.
D Damage of foetus in a pregnant mother D
body.
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29 Among the following, which is used to 30 The following is a correct way to avoid the
detect a radioactive radiation? negative effect that caused by radioactive
substance, except
I Cloud chamber
II Geiger-Muller tube A Eat and drink around area containing
III Photographic paper radioactive substances.
B Avoid from exposing ourselves to
A I only radioactive substances.
B I and II only C Wear docimeter when handling
C II and III only radioactive substances.
D I, II and III D Stored radioactive substances in a
special containers made of thick lead
or concrete.
CHAPTER 7: LIGHT, COLOUR AND SIGHT
1 The diagram below shows boy P and boy 3 The diagram below shows an object placed
A standing in front of a plane mirror. at a distance less than F.
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5 The diagram below shows ray diagram for 8 Which of the following ray diagram is
a convex lens. correct?
A Between X and O
B Between O and Y
C Between O and Z
D Between X and Y
C
6 The diagram below shows a ray diagram
for a convex lens.
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10 The diagram below shows an object placed 12 The diagram below shows a spectrum
in front of a pin-hole camera which being produced when a ray of white light
consists of three holes. passed through a glass prism.
A I only
B I and II only
C C II and III only
D I, II and III
A I only
11 Which of the following is true about the B I and II only
camera? C II and III only
D I, II and III
I Diaphragm controls the size of the
aperture. 14 Which of the following will happens if the
II Image formed on the film is real, atmosphere of earth is filled with haze
inverted and smaller than the object. particles, dust and gases from exhaust?
III Amount of light that enters the camera
is also controlled by the length of time A The Sun looks red.
the shutter is opened. B The sky looks blue.
C The Sun looks dim.
A I only D The sky looks grey.
B I and II only
C II and III only
D I, II, and III
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15 Which of the following is/are primary 18 Among the following, which is involving
colours? the subtraction of colours?
A I only A I only
B I, II and III only B I and II only
C II, III and IV only C II and III only
D I, II, III and IV D I, II and III
16 The diagram below shows white light 19 The diagram below shows a observer the
passing through a cyan filter. colour of the white object after the filter of
X and Y.
Which of the following colour can A Because the black object refracts all
represents K and L? the colours of the lights shining on it.
B Because the black object scatters all
K L the colours of the lights shining on it.
A Cyan White C Because the black object absorbs all
B White Cyan the colours of the lights shining on it.
C Magenta White D Because the black object reflects all the
D White Magenta colours of the light shining on it.
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21 The diagram below shows the ray box of 24 Alex is wearing a blue shirt enters a room
yellow and cyan shine on a white screen. that illuminated by yellow light. Which of
the following colour will Alex's shirt
appear in the room?
A Red
B Blue
C White
D Black
22 Paper A appears red and Paper B appears 26 Which of the following is the importance
green when it is illuminated by yellow for colour to humans?
light. Which of the following colour is
Paper A and Paper B when illuminated by I Photocopy
red light? II Traffic lights
III Colour printing
Paper A Paper B IV Electrical wiring
Red Red
A A I only
B I, II and III only
B Red Blue
C II, III and IV only
C Red Black I, II, III and IV
D
D Black Red
23 Which of the following colour will 27 Since human eyes cannot see small
observed when pigment red mix with microorganisms. What instrument is
pigment yellow? designed to help us overcome this
problem?
A Red
B Green A Periscope
C Orange B Telescope
D Magenta C Magnifying glass
D Electron microscope
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28 Which of the following is/are function of 29 Which of the following instrument allow a
colours? person observe objects at the surface of the
water in a submarine?
I Give warnings
II Beautify surrounding areas A Telescope
III Present certain information B Periscope
C Plane mirror
A I only D Magnifying lens
B I and II only
C II and III only 30 Which of the following instruments allow
D I, II, and III human to observe object in outer space?
A Periscope
B Electronic microscope
C Astronomical telescope
D Spectacles with convex lenses
A A metallic compound. A
B A mixture of two elements.
C A mixture of two or more non-metals.
D A mixture of a metal and another
metal.
B
2 Which of the following is an alloy?
I Brass
II Bronze
III Pewter C
IV Copper nickel
A I only
B I, II and III only
D
C II, III and IV only
D I, II, III and IV
6 Which of the following is not an alloy 10 Which substance is added to carbon steel
metal property? to avoid corrosion?
A Durable A Tin
B Stronger B Iron
C Rust-proof C Chromium
D More easily shaped D Aluminium
7 The diagram below shows the arrangement 11 Which of the following statement is true
of different atoms found in a substance P. for a superconductor?
9 The information below is describing an 13 Which of the following is true about the
alloy X. alloy making process?
44
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1 The following diseases cannot be treated 5 The graph below illustrates the level of
using antibiotics except... antibodies in the blood of a patient for
immunity of a disease.
A AIDS
B Cholera
C Hepatitis B
D Dengue fever
A Vectors
B Antigens
C Pathogens
D Antibodies
I alcohol
II cheese
III yoghurt
A I only
B I and III only
C II and III only
State the level of immunity that is achieved D I, II, and III
as shown by this graph.
A Fungi
B Viruses
C Bacteria
D Protozoa Which penicillin disc is most effective in
preventing the growth of the bacteria
9. Vaccination can be given to a person for culture?
the prevention of the following infections
except... A P
B Q
I malaria C R
II cholera D S
III hepatitis B
13 The table below shows the different
A I only conditions in test tubes Q, R, S, and T that
B I and II only are used to study the factors that affect
C II and III only bacterial activity.
D I, II, and III
Test pH Nutrie Tempe Moist
10 It is caused by protozoon. tube value nts rature ure
It can cause anaemia. Q 5 Present 4C Present
It causes fever. R 7 Present 37C Absent
S 7 Present 37C Present
The statements listed above describes the
T 7 Present 37C Present
disease called...
46
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15 The diagram below shows an experiment 18 Bacterial activity is affected by the
to study the factors that affect the growth following conditions:
of bacteria.
I light intensity
II the pH value of the medium
III oxygen concentration
A I and II only
B I and III only
C II and III only
D I, II, and III
A budding. A Algae
B conjugation. B Viruses
C binary fission. C Bacteria
D spore formation. D Protozoa
I magnesium
II nitrogen
III ferum
A I only
B I and II only
C II and III only
D I, II and III
50
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18 Which of the food below has the lowest 22 What are the factors that determine the fact
calorific value per unit gram? that men needs more energy than women?
A goitre
B scurvy
C anaemia Why is the bottle wrapped in black paper?
D beri-beri
I To keep the solution warm.
28 What is cholesterol? II To prevent sunlight from reaching the
solution.
A Fat III To prevent the growth of algae in the
B Vitamin solution.
C Mineral salt
D Carbohydrate A I only
B I and II only
29 The information below are the results from C II and III only
an experiment to study the importance of D I, II, and III
plant nutrients.
I Phosphorus
II Sulphur
III Potassium
A I only
B I and II only
C II and III only
D I, II, and III
52
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1 Which of the statements listed below are 5 Which of the statements listed below are
correct measures of preserving and true about conservation and preservation?
conserving the environment?
I Protecting the ecosystem from
I Putting rubbish into recycling bins. destruction.
II Refrain from buying ornaments made II Preventing the depletion of natural
from animal parts. resources.
III Burning fallen dried leaves and III Maintaining the population of
branches of plants. endangered plant and animal species.
A I only A I only
B I and II only B I and II only
C II and III only C II and III only
D I, II, and III D I, II, and III
53
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8 What gas is derived from oil palm fruit 13 What do humans suffer as the effect of the
stalks that are processed in a biogas thinning of the ozone layer in the
digester? stratosphere?
A Butane I Cataracts
B Methane II Cancer
C Nitrogen III Diabetes
D Hydrogen
A I only
9 Identify the materials listed below that can B I and II only
be recycled. C II and III only
D I, II, and III
I Old newspapers
II Aluminium tin cans 14 What happens when there is uncotrolled
III Plastic pails deforestation?
A I only I The destruction of habitats
B I and II only II Landslides
C I and III only III Flooding
D I, II, and III
A I only
10 Why is deforestation carried out? B I and II only
C II and III only
A To produce oil D I, II, and III
B To make furniture
C To produce plastic 15 The molecule of ozone consists of...
D To produce methane gas
A three carbon atoms.
11 Mining activities are carried out by humans B three oxygen atoms.
to obtain... C one carbon atom and two oxygen
atoms.
I coal D one oxygen atom and two hydrogen
II petroleum atoms.
III tin ore
16 How can the pollution from burning fossil
A I only fuels be reduced?
B I and II only
C II and III only I By using an incinerator.
D I, II, and III II By using renewable energy.
III By fixing catalytic converters in
12 Humus is the byproduct of compost from vehicles.
the decomposition of...
A I only
A mineral salts B I and III only
B toxic wastes C II and III only
C domestic wastes D I, II, and III
D chemical substances
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17 The diagram below shows a food web. 21 Which of the fuels listed below is fossil
fuel?
I Tar
II Coal
III Petroleum
A I only
B I and II only
Identify the statements below that are true. C II and III only
D I, II, and III
I Eagles are tertiary consumers.
II Eagles are secondary consumers. 22 What system in the human body is affected
III Paddy is a producer. by too much exposure to the ultraviolet
rays?
A I and II only
B I and III only A Skeletal system
C II and III only B Immune system
D I, II, and III C Nervous system
D Digestive system
18 Which of the cycles below help maintain
the balance in nature? 23 The ozone layer is important due to the
fact that it...
I The water cycle
II The nitrogen cycle A increases the temperature of the earth.
III Food webs B is used by living organisms for
respiration.
A I only C reflects the heat from the earth back
B I and II only into the atmosphere.
C II and III only D reduces the amount of ultraviolet rays
D I, II, and III reaching the earth.
19 What is the gas that is aasociated with the 24 Identify the the effects of global warming
greenhouse effect? from the statements listed below.
1 The elements that are found present in the 5 Excessive saturated fats in a diet needs to
fats molecule are... be avoided because...
I hydrogen A saturated fats are toxic.
II magnesium B saturated fats have a high calorific
III carbon value.
C saturated fats are difficult to digest by
A I and II only enzymes.
B I and III only D saturated fats lead to the deposition of
C II and III only low density cholesterol.
D I, II, and III
6 What process is used to change
2 Palm oil can be used... unsaturated fats to saturated fats?
I as cooking oil A Oxidation
II for manufacturing margarine B Reduction
III for making explosives C Nitrification
D Hydrogenation
A I and II only
B I and III only 7 The harmful effects of low density
C II and III only cholesterol are...
D I, II and III
I they accumulate in the bile duct to
3 The diagram below shows the cross- form bile stones.
section of an oil palm fruit. II they accumulate in the walls of blood
vessels and slow down blood flow.
III they lower blood pressure.
A I only
B I and II only
C II and III only
D I, II, and III
A X only
B X and Y
C X and Z
D X, Y, and Z Name the atom that is marked with the
letter Q.
4 Why oil palm fruits are exposed to very
hot steam during the extraction process? Carbon
A
B Sulphur
A To heat the oil palm fruit. C Nitrogen
B To cook the oil palm fruit. D Phosphorus
C To sterilize the oil palm fruit. 56
D To break down the oil palm fruit.
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9 Addiction to alcohol causes social 13 What are the characteristics of natural
problems such as... rubber?
A I only A I only
B I and II only B I and II only
C II and III only C II and III only
D I, II, and III D I, II, and III
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18 During a washing action, soap molecules 21 Alcohol causes damage to...
act to...
A ears
I increase the surface tension of water. B bone
II attack dirt or grease with its tail. C liver
III remove dirt from clothes. D lungs
A Cotton
B Ammonia
C Common salt
D Hydrochloric acid
I calcium carbonate
Why is common salt added to the mixture
II carbon dioxide
of palm oil and sodium hydroxide
III hydrocarbons
solution?
A I and II only
A To provide salty taste to soap.
B I and III only
B To neutralise the alkali in the mixture.
C I and III only
C To increase the washing ability of
D I, II, and III
soap.
D To lower the solubility of soap in water
and precipitate it out.
58
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26 The difference between organic carbon 29 The diagram below shows the apparatus
compounds and non-organic carbon used in making ethanol using the
compounds is... fermentation process.
A I only
B I and II only
C II and III only
D I, II, and III
59
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1 The picture below shows a lorry 4 The diagram below shows an operational
overloaded with goods. stage in a four-stroke petrol engine.
2 What should be increased in order to 5 What safety features are used in vehicles to
obtain an increase of inertia of a moving reduce the negative effects of inertia?
car?
I Safety seat belts
A Speed of the car. II Automatic airbags
B Power of the engine. III Absorber bumpers
C Distance travelled by the car.
D Number of passengers in the car. A I and II only
B I and III only
3 An object will move in a straight line with C II and III only
constant speed unless it is acted upon by D I, II, and III
external forces. What causes this
phenomenon to happen? 6 The bumper of the car is made of a
material that is easily dented in an
A Energy accident. Why this is done?
B Inertia
C Pressure A To prolong the time of accident.
D Momentum B To reduce the velocity of the car.
C To increase the momentum of the car.
D To conserve the momentum of the car.
60
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12 What is an example of motion that is based 16 The diagram below illustrates the
on the Principle of Conservation of arrangement of four cylinders in the engine
Momentum? of a car.
13 Inertia measures...
A mass
B force
C weight
D momentum What does this arrangement do?
14 The diagram below shows 4 identical tins A Increase the power of the car.
filled with different amounts of sand. The B Produce smoother output of power.
tins are hung from a rod with string. The C Reduce the usage of combustion fuel.
length of the strings are equal. D Complete the combustion of fuel
within the four stroke cycle.
The tins are oscillated simultaneously with 18 The description below occurs during stroke
equal force. Which tin takes the longest X in a four stroke diesel engine.
time to stop oscillating?
Both the inlet valve and the exhaust valve
A W are closed.
B X The piston is moving downward.
C Y
D Z What is X?
21 The diagram below shows the intermesh of The forces acting on pistons P and Q are F1
two gear wheels. and F2 respectively.Identify the statements
below that are true.
A I and II only
B I and III only
When is this position of gear used? C II and III only
D I, II, and III
A When a vehicle is starting from rest.
B When a vehicle is moving up a slope. 25 What is the principle operation of a
C When a vehicle is going down a slope. hydraulic jack based on?
D When a vehicle is travelling at high
speed on a flat road. A Pascal's principle
B Bernoulli's principle
22 What is the shape of vehicles used in C Archimedes' principle
water? D The Principle of Conservation of
Momentum
A Aerofoil
B Cylindrical
C Rectangular
D Streamlined
63
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26 A boy wearing a pair of sport shoes stands 29 The diagram below shows the hydraulic
on a weighing machine. The reading on the brake of a car.
weighing machine is 500 N and the size of
his shoes is 0.025 m2. What is the pressure
exerted on the weighing machine by the
boy?
A 25 N m-2
B 12.5 N m-2
C 10 000 N m-2
D 20 000 N m-2
64
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A Drying
B Cooling
C Deep freezing
D Vacuum packing
A I and II only
B I and III only
C II and III only
What is the most suitable way to process
D I, II, and III
and preserve this drink?
9 Which of the methods listed below can
increase the quality and quantity of food A Cooling
B Dehydration
production?
C Deep freezing
D Pasteurization
I Using modern technology.
II Using quality breeds.
12 Ah Seng wants to export prawns to Japan.
III Educating the farmers.
What method of preservation should be
used to maintain the freshness of the
A I only
prawns?
B I and II only
C I and III only
A Canning
D I, II, and III
B Deep freezing
C Pasteurization
10 The information below are ingredients for
D Vacuum packaging
making biscuits.
13 What method of food preservation listed
Wheat flour
below can help to maintain vitamin
Sugar
contents of food?
Margarine
Ascorbic acid
A Canning
Baking powder
B Dehydration
Salt
C Deep freezing
Vanilla essence
D Vacuum packaging
Which ingredient helps the biscuits to last 14 Which of the chemicals listed below is a
longer? preservative?
I Sulphur Dioxide
A Margarine
II Nitrite
B Ascorbic acid
III Lechitin
C Baking powder
D Vanilla essence I only
A
B I and II only
C I and III only
D I, II, and III
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15 The process of dehydration is... 21 What method of food processing uses
gamma rays?
A adding water to food.
B boiling food at 100C . A Freezing
B Canning
C removing air from food.
C Irradiation
D removing water from food.
D Vacuum packaging
16 Which of the following chemicals is
22 Why is lecithin added to ice cream?
matched correctly to its function?
A To sweeten it.
Chemical Function
B To slow oxidation.
Saccharin Emulsifier
C To remove unwanted colours.
A D To emulsify two substances that
B Monosodium Flavouring generally do not mix.
glutamate
C Boric acid Sweetener 23 What are the effects of consuming too
D Gelatin Preservative much chemical found in food?
A Canning
B Dehydration
C Freeze drying The most suitable way to process this drink
D Pasteurization is by...
20 The increase in food production through
the use of quality breeds... A cooling
B freezing
A do not require irrigation. C freeze drying
B is to carry out photosynthesis at night. D pasteurization
C can increase the lifespan of crops by 10
years.
D can produce higher yields in a shorter
period of time.
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25 The government agency that is 28 What can be done to reduce soil erosion?
responsible for the research to increase the
quantity and quality of palm oil is... I Terracing
II Contour planting
A MPOB III Planting cover crops
B LKIM
C MARDI A I only
D FELDA B I and II only
C II and III only
26 What is the purpose of machinery in the D I, II, and III
agriculture industry?
29 What is the purpose of efficient land
I To increase the quantity of crop yield. management?
II To get the job done faster.
III To reduce the dependency on human I To prevent starvation.
and animal labour. II To prevent soil erosion.
III To avoid the loss of soil nutrients.
A I and II only
B I and III only A I only
C II and III only B I and II only
D I, II, and III C II and III only
D I, II, and III
27 What measures can be taken to maintain
soil fertility? 30 Which of the methods listed below
describes pasteurization?
I By adding fertilizers.
II By cover rotation. I 63C
Heating food at for 30 minutes
III By planting quality breeds. and cooling it quickly.
II Heating food in a pressure cooker at
A I only
120C for 15 minutes.
B I and II only
C II and III only III Heating food at 72C and cooling it
D I, II, and III quickly.
A I only
B I and II only
C I and III only
D I, II, and III
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A Starch
B Polythene
C Polystyrene
D Natural rubber
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16 Which of the listed pairs below represent 20 What are the differences between
the correct pairing of polymers and thermoplastic and thermosetts?
monomers?
Thermoplastic Thermosetts
Polymers Monomers I Soft Hard
Nylon Chloroethene II Able to withstand Cannot withstand
A heat heat
B Perspex Methyl III No cross linkages Cross linkages
metacrylate present
C Polythene Chloroprene
A I only
D Thiokol rubber Propene
B I and II only
C I and III only
17 Which substances listed below is a
D I, II, and III
synthetic polymer?
21 What is true about thermoplastic?
I Protein
II Neoprene
A They can withstand heat.
III Polythene
B They are not good insulators.
C They can be easily moulded into any
A I only
shape many times.
B I and II only
D They consist of long polymer chains
C II and III only
with cross linkages.
D I, II, and III
22 Synthetic rubber is...
18 How do we avoid pollution from used
plastic bags?
I easily oxidize
II able to withstand heat
A Use biodegradable plastic bags.
III good electric insulator
B Bury the plastic bags in the soil.
C Throw the plastic bags into the river.
A I only
D Burn the plastic bags in a rubbish
B I and II only
dump.
C II and III only
D I, II, and III
19 Why thermosetts can only be melted and
moulded once only?
23 Products that are made of a combination of
synthetic rubber and natural rubber
I Because they can withstand heat.
include...
II Because they have long chains in their
polymer molecules.
I bus tryes
III Because they have cross linkages
II shoe soles
between long polymer plastics to
III cushions
prevent sliding.
A I only
A I only
B I and II only
B I and II only
C II and III only
C II and III only
D I, II, and III
D I, II, and III
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I they are able to transmit more I they are able to transmit more
information. information.
II they can carry electrical signals more II they can carry electrical signals more
effectively. effectively.
III they face less interference during III they face less interference during
transmission. transmission.
A diode
B resistor
C inductor
D capacitor
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8 The diagram below shows a satellite 11 The information below is about component
communication system. X of a radio wave.
What is X?
A High frequency
B Very high frequency
C Ultra high frequency
D Super high frequency
The communication is transmitted through
X. X is... 12 The table below shows the components of
an electromagnetic spectrum.
A long waves
B short waves W Microwave X Visible light
C microwaves Y Infrared Z X-ray
D medium waves
Which of the waves listed is radio waves?
9 The diagram below shows a block diagram
for a radio transmission system. A W
B X
C Y
D Z
X Y Z P is...
A Modulator Amplifier Oscillator
Modulator Oscillator Amplifier A oscillator
B
B demodulator
C Oscillator Modulator Amplifier
C amplitude modulation
D Oscillator Amplifier Modulator
D frequency modulation
10 Which of the statement below is true about
microwaves?
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14 The diagram below shows the block 18 The diagram below shows an audio signal
diagram for a radio receiver system. in an oscilloscope.
A 1.8 108 Hz
B 2.0 108 Hz
C 3.6 108 Hz
D 5.0 108 Hz
What is the amplitude of the
17 What contains in the demodulator of a electromagnetic wave?
radio receiver system?
A 2 cm
A A diode and a fixed capacitor. B 3 cm
B A diode and a variable capacitor. C 4 cm
C An inductor and a fixed capacitor. D 6 cm
D An inductor and a variable capacitor.
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20 The diagram below shows sound waves 23 The advantages of using satellites for
produced from a source. communication are...
A I and II only
B I and III only
C II and III only
Which is the wavelength? D I, II, and III
P is a(n)...
A oscillator
B modulator
C tuner circuit
D demodulator
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PAPER 2
1. The diagram below shows an experiment to study the effect of the impurities on the freezing
point of the pure water.
(a) What is the freezing point for the pure water that is added common salt?
[ 1 mark ]
(b) Write down one hypothesis based on the results of this experiment.
[ 1 mark ]
(c) Write down one observation based on the results of this experiment.
[ 1 mark ]
[ 1 mark ]
[ 1 mark ]
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2. The diagram below shows an experiment to determine the mass, volume and the density of
the iron and the cork.
(b) 3
If the cork and the iron are placed in a liquid with a density of 0.56g cm . What will
happen to the cork and iron?
[ 2 marks ]
(c) State one hypothesis for this experiment based on the relationship between the density of
an object and its ability to float on a liquid.
[ 1 mark ]
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3. The diagram below shows an experiment to study the effect of the sprout of seeds.
(a) Write down one inference based on the results of this experiment.
[ 1 mark ]
[ 1 mark ]
[ 1 mark ]
[ 1 mark ]
[ 1 mark ]
[ 1 mark ]
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4. The table below shows the weight of students in class 5B is divided into 5 groups.
[ 1 mark ]
[ 1 mark ]
[ 1 mark ]
5. The diagram below shows an experiment to study the effect of the length of pendulum on the
time for 10 oscillations.
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[ 1 mark ]
(b) Write down one hypothesis based on the results of this experiment.
[ 1 mark ]
[ 1 mark ]
[ 1 mark ]
[ 1 mark ]
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6. The diagram below shows an experiment to study the effect of fixed amount of water heater
and the temperature of the water record in every 3 minutes.
[ 1 mark ]
[ 1 mark ]
(c) State the variable should be fixed in this experiment and explain how it is fixed.
[ 2 marks ]
[ 1 mark ]
7. The diagram below shows an experiment to study the effect of the weight of the load on the
extension of a spring.
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The table below shows the different weight and the extension of spring.
(a) Write down one inference based on the results of this experiment.
[ 1 mark ]
[ 1 mark ]
(ii) Manipulated variable:
[ 1 mark ]
(c) (i) For this part of question, use the graph paper.
Based on the table above plot a graph of load of weight (F) versus extension of spring
(x).
[ 1 mark ]
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[ 1 mark ]
8. The diagram below shows an experiment to estimate the size of a water particle. 200 drops of
water are released from the burette to a container.
(a) Write down the initial reading and final reading of the burette.
(i) The initial reading of burette
[ 1 mark ]
[ 1 mark ]
[ 1 mark ]
(c) If one drop of water can produce 100 droplets of water, what is the volume of one droplet
of water?
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[ 2 marks ]
[ 1 mark ]
(b) 3
When a stone is placed into the water and the level of water become 58 cm . What is the
volume of the stone?
[ 1 mark ]
(c) If the mass of the stone given that is 50 g, calculate the density of the stone.
[ 1 mark ]
(d) 3
A cork with a density of 0.26 cm placed into the cylinder. If given the water with a
mass of 20 g. The cork will sink in the water or float on the water?
[ 2 marks ]
10. The diagram below shows an experiment to study the effect of the impurities on the boiling
point of pure water.
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(a) What is the boiling point for the pure water after added the salt.
[ 1 mark ]
(b) Write down one hypothesis based on the results of this experiment.
[ 2 marks ]
[1 mark ]
[1 mark ]
11. The table below shows the gas pressure and the gas volume.
Pressure Volume
10 50
15 40
20 30
25 20
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Projek Jawab Untuk Jaya 2010
(a) What is the relationship between the pressure and the volume of gas? Explain.
[ 2 marks ]
[ 1 mark ]
[ 1 mark ]
12. A student doing an experiment to confirm his observation of the sugar will dissolve faster in
boiling water.
(a) Write down one inference based on the results of this experiment.
[ 1 mark ]
(b) Write down one hypothesis based on the results of this experiment.
[ 1 mark ]
[ 1 mark ]
[ 1 mark ]
[ 1 mark ]
13. The diagram below shows the steps that involved in a method of scientific investigation.
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(a) Based on the diagram above, complete the blank of step (i) ,(ii) and (iii).
[ 3 marks ]
[ 2 marks ]
(c) State two attitudes and values are needed in a scientific investigation.
[ 2 marks ]
14. The diagram below shows an experiment to study the effect of the lead shots of the test tube.
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[ 1 mark ]
(ii)Manipulated variable
[ 1 mark ]
(iii)Responding variable
[ 1 mark ]
(b) State the aim of experiment based on the results of this experiment.
[ 1 mark ]
(c) Write down one hypothesis based on the results of this experiment.
[ 1 mark ]
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15. The flow chart below shows the steps that involved in a method of scientific investigation.
Identifying the problem Forming a
hypothesis
X Carrying out the
investigation
Collecting data
Conclusion
(a) Based on the diagram above, name the step X and explain this step.
[ 2 marks ]
(b) List two the part that involves in the step of planning the investigation.
1.
2.
[ 2 marks ]
(c) List two things that should contain in a complete experimental report.
1.
2.
[ 2 marks ]
[ 1 mark ]
[1 mark ]
(c) List the entire variable that important in a scientific investigation and explain it.
[3 marks ]
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16 The diagram below shows an experiment to study the effect of the temperature of different
size of container
(a) Write down one hypothesis based on the results of this experiment.
[ 1 mark ]
[ 1 mark]
[ 1 mark]
[ 1 mark]
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17. The diagram below shows an experiment to study the effect of the density on the ability of an
object float or sink in the water.
Substances Observation
Ice
Iron
Cork
(b) Write down one hypothesis based on the results of this experiment.
[ 1 mark ]
[ 1 mark]
[ 1 mark]
[ 1 mark]
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(a) What is the mass of the stone which shows in the diagram (a)?
[ 1 mark ]
[ 1 mark ]
(c) What the final reading of the cylinder is after placed the stone in the water?
[ 1 mark ]
[2 marks ]
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1. The table below shows the reaction time for 10 students from class 5B by measuring the time
taken for each student to buttoning the shirts.
(a) Complete the table below based on the reaction time of the students and placed into 4
groups.
Reaction time Number of
(ms) students in
group
[2 marks ]
[1 mark ]
(d) Based on the receptors that found in (b), what is the function for the receptors?
[ 1 mark ]
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[ 1 mark ]
[ 1 mark ]
[ 2 marks ]
[ 1 mark ]
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[ 1 mark ]
[ 2 marks ]
[ 1 mark ]
[ 2 marks ]
4. The table below shows the reactions of sensory organs to various stimuli.
(a) State the suitable sensory organ that involved in the various stimuli.
[ 3 marks ]
[ 2 marks ]
5. The diagram below shows the main parts of the human brain.
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[ 1 mark ]
(b) Which parts of the human brain are controlled the involuntary actions?
[1 mark ]
[ 2 marks ]
[ 1 mark ]
6. The diagram below shows the main parts of the human brain.
[ 3 marks ]
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[ 1 mark ]
[ 2 marks ]
7. The diagram below shows the cross section of the spinal cord and the nerves connected to it.
[ 3 marks ]
[ 1 mark ]
[ 1 mark ]
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[ 1 mark ]
(b) Name the P and Q.
[ 2 marks ]
[ 2 marks ]
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[ 1 mark ]
[ 2 marks ]
[ 3 marks ]
[ 2 marks ]
(b) Explain the function of the central nervous system and the peripheral nervous system.
[2 marks ]
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[1 mark ]
[ 2 marks ]
[ 1 mark ]
(c) Shows the direction of the impulse at the diagram.
[ 2 marks ]
(a) Name the part of human brain that shows at the diagram above.
[ 1 mark ]
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[ 4 marks ]
Stimulus Organ P
Sensory neurone Motor neurone Central nervous
system
Motor neurone Effector Responds
[ 2 marks ]
(b) What type of the action that shows in the flow chart?
[ 1 mark ]
[ 2 marks ]
Eating
Reading
Dancing
Writing
[ 1 mark ]
[ 2 marks ]
(c) List two differences between voluntary actions and involuntary actions.
[ 2 marks ]
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[ 1 mark ]
[ 1 mark ]
[ 2 marks ]
16. The diagram below shows the reflex arc in the withdrawal of hand from a hot object.
[ 3 marks ]
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[ 2 marks ]
(a) Label X.
[ 1 mark ]
[ 1 mark ]
(c) List two differences between the sensory motor and relay motor.
[ 2 marks ]
18. The diagram below shows an impulse pathway when a student accidentally touches a hot pot.
[ 3 marks ]
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[ 1 mark ]
[ 1 mark ]
19. The diagram below shows three people that have different height. The Individual P who has a
normal height.
[ 2 marks ]
[ 1 mark ]
[ 1 mark ]
[ 1 mark ]
20. The diagram below shows a human endocrine gland which located at the base of cerebrum.
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[1 mark ]
[ 1 mark ]
[ 1 mark ]
(d) List down the effect of under secretion and over secretion.
[ 2 marks ]
21. The diagram below shows a human endocrine gland which located in front of the trachea.
[ 1 mark ]
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[ 1 mark ]
[ 1 mark ]
[ 2 marks ]
22. The diagram below shows a human endocrine gland which located on top of the kidneys.
(a) Label P.
[ 1 mark ]
[ 1 mark ]
[ 1 mark ]
[ 2 marks ]
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[ 1 mark ]
[ 2 marks ]
[ 2 marks ]
(a) Label X.
[ 1 mark ]
[ 1 mark ]
[ 1 mark ]
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Stimulant
Depressant
Hallucinogens
[ 1 mark ]
[ 2 marks ]
(c) List two effects of drug abuse on nervous system and body coordination for group
hallucinogens.
[ 2 marks ]
1. The table below shows the height of the students in class 5B.
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[ 1 mark ]
2. The graph below shows the ability to roll the tongue of the students in class 5A.
[ 1 mark ]
[ 2 marks ]
[ 2 marks ]
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[ 1 mark ]
[ 1 mark ]
[ 2 marks ]
[ 1 mark ]
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[ 1 mark ]
[ 1 mark ]
[ 1 mark ]
5. The diagram below shows how two types of twins are formed.
[ 2 marks ]
[1 mark ]
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[ 3 marks ]
6. The diagram below shows the selective breeding of two different types of oil palm.
[ 1 mark ]
[ 2 marks ]
[ 2 marks ]
7. The diagram below shows the chromosome map of a patient that suffers of genetic disease.
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(a) Name the disease that suffers by the patient down's syndrome.
[ 1 mark ]
[ 1 mark ]
[ 1 mark ]
(d) List two possible distinctive physical characteristic of the patient that suffers this disease.
[ 2 marks ]
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[ 1 mark ]
[ 2 marks ]
(c) List down the two characteristic of this type of cell division.
[ 2 marks ]
9. The diagram below shows the inheritance of tallness and dwarfness in plant.
(a) Write down each child's pair of genes in the boxes provides in the diagram.
[ 2 marks ]
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[ 1 mark ]
[ 2 marks ]
[ 2 marks ]
[ 1 mark ]
[ 2 marks ]
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11 The diagram below shows the monohybrid cross between plants. R is gene for red flowers
,and r is gene for white flowers.
(b) 1
What is the phenotype ratio of the red flowers to white flowers in the F generation?
[ 1 mark ]
[ 1 mark ]
[ 1 mark ]
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12 The diagram below shows the chromosome mutations which involve changes in structure of
chromosomes.
[ 4 marks ]
[ 1 mark ]
13 The diagram below shows the relationship among gene, DNA and chromosome.
[ 3 marks ]
[ 1 mark ]
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(c) If the plant has 4 pairs of chromosomes. What is the number of chromosome in its
epidermal cell?
[ 1 mark ]
[ 1 mark ]
[ 2 marks ]
[ 2 marks ]
15 The diagram below shows the phase of cell division in an animal cell.
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[ 1 mark ]
[ 2 marks ]
[ 2 marks ]
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[ 1 mark ]
(b) List down the differences between mitosis and meiosis in term of occurrence of crossing
over and number of times nucleus divides.
[ 2 marks ]
(c) Why is the process crossing over and random distribution of chromosomes occurring
during meiosis?
[ 1 mark ]
[ 1 mark ]
Down's syndrome
Colour blindness
Haemophilia
Klinefelter's syndrome
(a) Which of the disease of mutation that shows at the statement above are under gene
mutation?
[ 2 marks ]
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[ 3 marks ]
[ 1 mark ]
[ 2 marks ]
[ 1 mark ]
(d) What is the difference between this disease and Klinefelter's syndrome?
[ 1 mark ]
19. The diagram below shows the inheritance of the type of hair.
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[ 2 marks ]
[ 1 mark ]
(c) 1
What is the phenotype ratio of curly hair to straight hair in F generation?
[ 1 mark ]
[ 1 mark ]
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[ 3 marks ]
[ 2 marks ]
(c) State two characteristics that are same for the identical twins.
[2 marks ]
21. The diagram below shows the chromosome map of Klinefelter's syndrome.
[ 1 mark ]
[ 1 mark ]
[ 1 mark ]
[ 2 marks ]
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22. The diagram below shows the four groups of thumb prints for the students in class 5E.
(a) Construct a histogram of the number of students against the groups of thumb prints.
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[ 2 marks ]
[ 1 mark ]
(c) List two differences between continuous variation and discontinuous variation.
[ 2 marks ]
[ 4 marks ]
(b) What is the probability of the parents get a colour blindness son?
[ 1 marks ]
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24 The diagram below shows the variation among Vinson family member.
[ 1 mark ]
[ 1 mark ]
[ 1 mark ]
[ 2 marks ]
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Element P Q R
Proton number 6 7 8
Nucleon number 14
Number of
electrons
Number of 7 10
neutrons
[ 1 mark ]
[ 1 mark ]
2. The diagram below shows the arrangement and movement of the particles in the three states of
matter.
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[ 3 marks ]
[ 2 marks ]
[ 1 mark ]
[ 1 mark ]
(ii) non-metal
[ 1 mark ]
(iii) semimetal
[ 1 mark ]
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[ 1 mark ]
Subatomic X Y Z
particles
Charge +1 Neutral -1
Relative atomic 1 1 1/840
mass
Location In the nucleus In the nucleus In the electron
shells around
the nucleus
[ 3 marks ]
[ 1 mark ]
(c) Which of this subatomic particles move in circular orbits around the nucleus?
[ 1 mark ]
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[ 4 marks ]
[ 2 marks ]
6. The diagram below shows the interconversion of the states of matter.
[ 2 marks ]
[ 2 marks ]
[ 1 mark ]
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[ 1 mark ]
[ 3 marks ]
[ 1 mark ]
(a) Label the flow of water at the top and bottom of the condenser.
[ 1 mark ]
[ 2 marks ]
[ 1 mark ]
9. The table below shows the substances and their boiling point.
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[ 1 mark ]
[ 1 mark ]
[ 1 mark ]
[ 1 mark ]
[ 2 marks ]
10. The flow chart below shows purifying salt from a saturated solution of common salt.
Dissolving Process P Process Q Filtration Crystals
[ 2 marks ]
[ 1 mark ]
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[ 1 mark ]
[ 1 mark ]
[ 1 mark ]
[ 1 mark ]
[ 3 marks ]
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[ 2 marks ]
[ 2 marks ]
[ 1 marks ]
13. The table below shows a physical property of atom and ions.
[ 3 marks ]
(b) What are the physical properties of atoms and ions in term of melting point and solubility?
[ 2 marks ]
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[ 1 mark ]
(ii) ST
[ 1 mark ]
[ 1 mark ]
(ii) DE
[ 1 mark ]
[ 1 mark ]
15. The diagram below shows an activity to studying the physical properties of metals.
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(a) What are the physical properties of metal can observe from the activity?
[ 1 mark ]
[ 2 marks ]
[ 2 marks ]
16. The statement below shows the elements of metals and non-metals.
Copper
Sulphur
Sodium
Iodine
Chlorine
[ 1 mark ]
(ii) non-metals?
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[ 1 mark ]
[ 3 marks ]
17. The table below shows the number of protons, electrons and neutron.
[ 1 mark ]
[ 1 mark ]
[ 1 mark ]
[ 2 marks ]
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(a) Which of the following liquid is not a pure substance? Explain your answer.
[2 marks ]
(b) Predict the boiling point and freezing point for the liquid X if liquid X is pure water.
[ 2 marks ]
(c) Name two methods use to purifying the impurities on the liquid Y.
[ 2 marks ]
19. The diagram below shows a difference of properties between metals and non-metals.
[ 2 marks ]
(b) List another three differences between metals and non-metals in term of malleability,
ductility and density.
[ 3 marks ]
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[ 2 marks ]
[1 mark ]
[ 2 marks ]
[ 1 mark ]
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[ 1 mark]
[ 1 mark]
[ 1 mark]
(iv) halogen
[ 1 mark]
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[ 1 mark ]
[ 1 mark ]
[ 1 mark ]
(c) Write down the reason for why is the concentration of copper(II) sulphate solution is
unchanged for the experiment.
[ 2 marks ]
(d) Give one condition that copper is able to electroplate nicely on the iron spoon.
[ 1 marks ]
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2. The diagram below shows a study of the reactivity of three types of metal, X, Y, and Z reacting
with oxygen.
The table below shows the result that derived from experiment above.
Metal Result
X Burns very brightly.
Y Glows brightly and vigorously.
Z Glow with a little dim flame.
(a) State a hypothesis that can be derived from the experiment above.
[ 1 mark ]
[ 1 mark ]
[ 1 mark ]
[ 1 mark ]
(c) State the word equation for reaction between metal and oxygen.
(i) X
[ 1 mark ]
(ii) Y
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[ 1 mark ]
(iii) Z
[ 1 mark ]
(d) Based on the table above arrange the reactivity of metals in descending order.
[ 1 mark ]
(a) Coke, substance X and substance Y are poured into the furnace.
Name the Substance X and Y.
Substance X:
Substance Y:
[ 2 marks ]
(b) What gas is it that blasted into the lower part of furnace?
[ 1 mark ]
(c) What are the products P and Q which are extracted from the base of the furnace?
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Product P:
Product Q:
[ 2 marks ]
(d) Write an equation that related to the diagram above.
[ 1 mark ]
4. The diagram below shows an experiment which is carried out in the laboratory.
[ 1 mark ]
[ 1 mark ]
[ 1 mark ]
(d) Predict the observation which occurs at the anode and cathode.
[ 2 marks ]
(e) What changes will occurs to the concentration of the copper(II) sulphate solution at the end
of the process?
[ 1 mark ]
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[ 1 mark ]
(b) What is the purpose for adding limestone into the blast furnace when extracting the tin
from its ore?
[ 2 marks ]
(c) Write an equation for the reduction reaction that produces molten tin.
[ 1 mark ]
(d) Why aluminium cannot be extracted using carbon in the reduction process?
[ 1 mark ]
(e) Why is carbon usually be used when extraction of metals in the industrial?
[ 2 marks ]
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6. The diagram below shows an arrangement of apparatus to purify a piece of metal. After 15
minutes it doesn't show any result.
(a) State the error that causes no any observation can be making by the diagram above. Draw
the correct arrangement of apparatus that should be set up for experiment above in the
space below.
[ 2 marks ]
(ii) cathode
[ 1 mark ]
(ii) cathode
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[ 2 marks ]
(d) At the end of experiment, what changes will take place at silver nitrate solution?
[ 1 mark ]
7. The diagram below shows a graph of the volume of hydrogen gas produced against time for an
experiment to compare the reactivity of metals X and Y with dilute sulphuric acid.
[ 1 mark ]
[ 1 mark ]
[ 1 mark ]
[ 1 mark ]
[ 1 mark ]
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(d) Based on your opinion, what is the volume of hydrogen gas produced by the metal Y at the
20th minute?
[ 1 mark ]
8. Diagram (a) and (b) shows an experiment to compare the reactivity of metals P and Q with
dilute hydrochloric acid.
[ 1 mark ]
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(b) Write down one inference that can be made from the observation above.
[ 1 mark ]
[1 mark ]
(d) (i)State the relationship between the volume of gas and the reaction time in the first two
minute.
(ii) Guess the volume of gas collected by the seventh minute of metal Q.
[ 2 marks ]
[ 1 mark ]
9. Diagram below shows an arrangement of apparatus to study the production of electrical energy
by a simple cell.
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(a) State which the plates act as the positive and negative terminals.
[ 2 marks ]
[ 1 mark ]
[ 1 mark ]
[ 1 mark ]
[ 1 mark ]
[ 2 marks ]
10. The diagram below shows an arrangement of apparatus of an experiment to study the
production of electricity from chemicals.
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(a) State the voltmeter reading for the lead and copper that shown in diagram above.
[ 1 mark ]
(b) What is the function for dilute hydrochloric acid in this experiment?
[ 2 marks ]
[ 1 mark ]
(d) Guess the readings of the voltmeter when a pair of copper metals is used in the experiment
above.
[ 1 mark ]
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[ 1 mark ]
[ 1 mark ]
(b) Name the parts of the following below according the diagram above.
K:
L:
M:
N:
[4 marks ]
[ 2 marks ]
(d) State two example of chemical cell that is same type of the cell above.
[ 2 marks ]
12. The diagram below shows the arrangement of apparatus of an experiment for the process of
electrolysis.
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[ 1 mark ]
(ii) cathode
[ 1 mark ]
(b) Based on the answer of (a), explain how can this occur?
(i) anode
[ 1 mark ]
(ii) cathode
[ 1 mark ]
(c) How can you identify the answer of (c) in this experiment?
[ 1 mark ]
(d) What is the intensity change for the color of the copper chloride solution while the
experiment proceeds?
[ 1 mark ]
13. The diagram below shows a process which uses electric energy to split up lead bromide.
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[ 1 mark ]
[ 1 mark ]
[ 1 mark ]
[ 1 mark]
(ii) What changes have to make on solid lead bromide in order to conduct electricity?
[ 1 mark]
(d) When the electricity is passed through, what are the ions that present in the molten lead
bromide?
[ 2 marks ]
[ 1 mark ]
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[ 1 mark ]
[ 1 mark ]
14. The diagram below shows an experiment to study the reactivity of metals with oxygen.
[ 1 mark ]
[ 1 marks ]
[ 1 marks ]
[ 1 marks ]
[ 1 mark ]
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[ 1 mark ]
[ 1 mark ]
[ 1 mark ]
[ 1 mark ]
15. The diagram below shows an experiment to study the effect of light on photographic paper.
(a) Draw the result of the photographic paper at the space below and labelled at the specific
part.
[ 2 marks ]
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[ 1 mark ]
[ 1 mark ]
[ 1 mark ]
[ 2 marks ]
[ 1 mark ]
16 The diagram below shows a process that related with light and chemical reaction.
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(a) What type of process can u describes based on the diagram above?
[ 1 mark ]
(b) Based on the answer you given in (a), explain the meaning of process.
[ 2 marks ]
(c) Name the two stages that will involve in the process above.
[ 2 marks ]
[ 1 mark ]
(e) Explain one of the stages based on your given answer in (c).
[ 2 marks ]
1. The diagram below shows two detectors, P and Q which are used to locate the position of
water leakage in an underground pipe by adding some radioactive substance R, to the water.
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[1 mark]
(c) Explain how can Q enable us to detect the position of the leakage in the underground
pipe?
[1 mark]
(d) Why radioactive substance emitting gamma radiation is not added to the water?
[1 mark]
2. The diagram below shows the deflection of the radiations when passed through an electric
field. Radioactive substance placed in container P emits radioactive radiation X, Y and Z.
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[1 mark]
[1 mark]
[1 mark]
[1 mark]
[1 mark]
3. The equation below shows the process of nuclear reaction between hydrogen isotopes.
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1
2
1 H 3
1 H 0n
+ +X
[1 mark]
(b) What is X?
[1 mark]
[1 mark]
(d) State a place where the above process is happening most of the time.
[1 mark]
(a) The above process shows the decay of the radioactive atom. Why?
[1 mark]
(b) List three types of radioactive radiations that are emitted during the process of
radioactive decay.
1.
2.
3.
[1 mark]
(c) Which radiation will be deflected, if the above radioactive are radiated through an
electric field?
[1 mark]
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(d) Which radiation can go through it, if the above radioactive radiations are blocked by
a sheet if aluminium?
[1 mark]
(e) Name two characteristics of atom X and Y compared to the original radioactive atom.
1.
2.
[1 mark]
(a) (i) What type of radioactive radiation used in the diagram above?
[1 mark]
[1 mark]
(iii) State the use of the radioactive radiation as shown in the diagram above?
[1 mark]
[1 mark]
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[1 mark]
(c) Name the radioactive substance is used for detecting the effectiveness of fertilizers in the
field of agriculture.
[ 1 mark]
6. The diagram below shows the use of radioactive substance to check the thickness of
aluminium produced in an aluminums factory.
[1 mark]
(b) If the reading of the counter is within the range of 500 to 600, the thickness of the
aluminums will be accepted. State the inference can you make if the reading of the
counter
(i) is less than 500?
[1 mark]
[1 mark]
(c) The radioactive substance stored in a lead container. Give one reason.
[1 mark]
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(d) (i) The worker handling the radioactive substance is required to wear badge X for safety
precaution. What is X?
[1 mark]
(ii) How do identify whether that a worker been exposed to radioactive radiation?
[1 mark]
7. The diagram below shows the use of radioactive substance to check the thickness of
aluminium produced in an aluminium factory.
[1 mark]
(b) If the reading of the counter is within the range of 500 to 600, the thickness of the
aluminium will be accepted. State the inference can you make if the reading of the
counter
(i) is less than 500?
[1 mark]
[1 mark]
(c) The radioactive substance stored in a lead container. Give one reason.
[1 mark]
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(d) (i) The worker handling the radioactive substance is required to wear badge X for safety
precaution. What is X?
[1 mark]
(ii) How do identify whether that a worker been exposed to radioactive radiation?
[1 mark]
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[1 mark]
[1 mark]
(d) Draw a complete ray diagram to show how the image is produced, if the convex lens is
replaced with a concave lens of the same focal length,
[2 marks ]
2. The diagram below shows a convex lens and F is its focus point. An object X is placed
between F and 2F of the lens.
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[1 mark]
[2 marks ]
[1 mark]
(d) If object X is moved slightly further away from the lens, what will happen to the size of
the image?
[1 mark]
3. The diagram below shows a ray of white light projected onto a coloured screen through a
coloured filter.
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(a) Complete the table below to show the colours that appear on the screen.
Filter Screen The colour of
colours colours light that
appears on the
screen
Green Blue
Blue Magenta
Red Yellow
[3 marks ]
(b) Write down one inference that can be made from the above observation.
[2 marks ]
4. The diagram below shows the overlapping of lights from torches K, L and M on a white
manila card. Torches K, L and M will produce red, blue and green light respectively when
switched on.
[1 mark]
(b) Name the light that is formed on spot P when any two of the lights from torches K, L and
M are switched on.
[1 mark]
(c) (i) Which torches that need to switch on if spot P appear cyan?
[1 mark]
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[1 mark]
(d) (i) What colour will spot P appear if only torch L is switched on and the white manila
card is replaced by a yellow manila card?
[1 mark]
[1 mark]
[1 mark]
(c) Steven leaves a cinema hall after watching a movie film and the iris adjusts to the
situation when Steven steps out of the hall into the open bright daylight. Explain.
[1 mark]
(d) Make a comparison on how the eye and the camera focus on an object to produce a sharp
image.
[2 marks]
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1. The below diagram X and Y show the structures of an alloy and a pure metal.
[1 mark]
(ii) an alloy?
[1 mark]
(b) Alloys are harder and stronger than pure metals. Explain.
[1 mark]
(c) (i) Name an alloy that can be formed from copper, antimony and tin.
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[1 mark]
[1 mark]
[1 mark]
2. The diagram below shows an experiment carried out to compare the formation of rust by pure
iron and an alloy of iron.
(a) Predict the observation of both types of iron nails after three days.
[ 1 mark]
(b) Write down one inference can be made based on your answer in (a)?
[1 mark]
[1 mark]
[1 mark]
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[1 mark]
[1 mark]
3. The diagram below shows an experiment carried out to compare the hardness of an alloy with
a pure metal.
(b) State the relationship between the depth of dent and the hardness of the material tested.
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[1 mark]
[1 mark]
[1 mark]
(e) Draw pattern formed by the constituent atoms for copper and bronze.
Copper Bronze
[1 mark]
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(a) Based on the above diagram, what is the main gas pollution?
[1 mark]
[1 mark]
[1 mark]
(d) Suggest one way to reduce the pollution of the area in the above diagram.
[1 mark]
CHAPTER 9 : MICROORGANISMS AND THEIR EFFECTS ON LIVING THINGS
1. The table shows results from the experiment to study the effects of pH level on bacterial
growth.
(a) State one hypothesis based on the observation from the table above.
[ 1 mark ]
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(b) Draw a graph to illustrate the relationship between the size of the bacteria colony and
the pH value based on the table above.
[ 2 marks ]
(c) Based on the graph from part (b) state the optimum pH value for bacterial growth.
[ 1 mark ]
[ 1 mark ]
2. The diagram below shows an experiment carried out to study the effect of penicillin on
bacterial growth.
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Three penicillin discs X1, X2, and X3, with different concentrations are placed on the
37C
nutrient agar surface. The petri dish is incubated upside down at . After two days, a
clear area is formed around each disc. The diameter of the clear area is measured and
recorded in the table below:
Penicillin disc X1 X2 X3
Diameter of the 1.5 2.4 2.0
clear area/cm
(a) Based on the table above, state the disc that has the highest concentration of penicillin.
[ 1 mark ]
[ 1 mark ]
(c) What is the method to fix the controlled variable in this experiment?
[ 1 mark ]
(d) Penicillin is an antibiotic. Based on this experiment, give the operational definition of
antibiotic.
[ 1 mark ]
3. The table below shows the results of an experiment to study the effects of temperature on
bacterial growth.
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(a) What is the hypothesis that can be stated from the table above?
[ 1 mark ]
(b) (i) Illustrate a graph to show the relationship between the size of bacterial colony and
temperature for the table above.
(ii) What is the size of the bacterial colony that can be predicted at
80C ?
[ 4 marks ]
4. The graph below shows the change in the amount of antibodies in the body of a person
injected with a vaccine twice.
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[ 1 mark ]
[ 1 mark ]
(c) State the process that happens in the body after vaccination.
[ 2 marks ]
[ 1 mark ]
(e) Name the type of immunity obtained from the graph above.
[ 1 mark ]
5. The table below shows an immunization programme of an infant.
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Age Immunization
After birth BCG
Hepatitis B (first dose)
1 month Hepatitis B (second dose)
3 months Poliomyelitis (first dose)
Triple Antigen (first dose)
4 months Poliomyelitis (second dose)
Triple Antigen (second dose)
5 months Poliomyelitis (third dose)
Triple Antigen (third dose)
Hepatitis B (third dose)
9 months Measles
18 months Triple Antigen (booster)
[ 1 mark ]
(b) What type of immunity is obtained from the immunization programme shown in the
table above?
[ 1 mark ]
(c) (i) How many times of injection the immunization for Hepatitis B is given?
(ii) Why is it necessary for the immunization in 2(c)(i) be given more than once?
[ 2 marks ]
(d) Which of the immunization in the table above is given to prevent the infection of TB?
[ 1 mark ]
(e) State the diseases that can be prevented through the Triple Antigen immunization.
[ 1 mark ]
(f) Why are there more than one immunization given to the infant?
[ 1 mark ]
6. The diagram below shows part of nitrogen cycle.
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(a) Complete the nitrogen cycle by stating the substances labelled P, Q, and R in the
diagram.
[ 3 marks ]
(b) In what form the nitrate must take to be absorbed by the plants?
[ 1 mark ]
[ 2 marks ]
[ 1 mark ]
(e) The microorganism that carries out process X is found in certain plants. State the part
of the plant that contains this microorganism.
[ 1 mark ]
(f) What is an example of a chemical fertilizer that is used by farmers to increase the
nitrate content of soil?
[ 1 mark ]
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(a) Name the category of the microorganisms by completing the table below.
Microorganisms Categories
W
X
Y
Z
[ 4 marks ]
[ 2 marks ]
[ 2 marks ]
(d) Name the microorganism that can produce its own food. Why?
[ 2 marks ]
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8. The diagram below shows the apparatus used in the study of the effect of antibiotics on
bacterial growth.
Three penicillin discs P, Q, and R of different concentrations and a tetracycline disc S were
placed on the surface of the nutrient agar containing bacteria culture. The petri dish was
37C
kept at a temperature of . After five days, a clear area was observed around each disc
and the diameter of each area was measured and recorded as shown in the table below.
Discs P Q R S
Diameter of 1.6 2.5 2.0 0.8
clear area (cm)
[ 1 mark ]
[ 1 mark ]
[ 1 mark ]
(d) Name the fixed variable in this experiment and how to make it constant.
[ 2 marks ]
[ 1 mark ]
(f) What is the percaution that should be taken when carrying out this experiment?
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[ 1 mark ]
9. The diagram below shows the activity of decomposing bacteria at different temperatures in
food P.
(a) What is the range of temperature where bacteria grow and reproduce fast in food P.
[ 1 mark ]
(b) State a range of temperature that is suitable to keep food P for long and in good
condition.
[ 1 mark ]
(c) 4C
The temperature in most refrigerators is .Why is meat unsuitable to be kept at this
temperature for more than 5 days?
[1 mark ]
35C
(ii)
[2 marks ]
(e) Calculate the number of bacteria produced from one bacterium after 5 hours, if the
bacterium reproduces every 30 minutes.
[2 marks ]
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[ 1 mark ]
(b) Name the place that a female mosquito lays her eggs.
[ 1 mark ]
[ 1 mark ]
[ 2 marks ]
(e) What is the microorganism carried by mosquitoes and the disease it causes?
[ 2 marks ]
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[ 2 marks ]
CHAPTER 10 : NUTRITION AND FOOD PRODUCTION
1. The graph below shows the average consumption of calories by people from countries P and Q.
(a) Which country's population would have lower risk of suffering from arteriosclerosis?
Why?
[ 2 marks ]
[ 2 marks ]
(c) What is the consumption of sugar (g) by the population from country Q? (Calorific value
of carbohydrates: 16.7 kJ)
[ 2 marks ]
(d) What are the reasons that the population from country Q is more likely to suffer from
dental caries?
[ 2 marks ]
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2 The table below shows the energy content of five common types of daily food. The columns P.
Q, R, and S show the percentage of four classes of food in each type of food.
Food Ener P Q R S
s gy (%) (%) (%) (%)
(kJ/1
00 g)
Beef 1 400 23.0 55.0 - 20.0
Butte 3 200 0.6 17.0 - 83.0
r
Milk 290 3.1 90.0 4.7 3.5
Potat 370 2.0 82.0 16.0 -
oes
Tuna 700 18.0 70.0 - 12.0
[ 2 marks ]
(b) Study the table above carefully and identify the letters that represents fats and
carbohydrates. Provide a reason for each choice.
Fats -
Reason:
Carbohydrates -
Reason:
[ 4 marks ]
(c) State the two types of food that is suitable for an adult doing heavy work.
[ 2 marks ]
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3. The diagram below shows the instrument used to measure the energy content in food.
[ 1 mark ]
(b) Label the place where food is placed inside the instrument with the letter 'F'.
[ 1 mark ]
(c) What is the gas that passes through tube P and its purpose?
[ 2 marks ]
[ 1 mark ]
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4. The diagram below shows apparatus used in the experiment to study the nutrients required for
plant growth.
[ 3 marks ]
[ 1 mark ]
(c) State two observations that can be noted on boiling tube Y after 5 days.
[ 2 marks ]
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[ 1 mark ]
5. The diagram below shows a simple apparatus used in the laboratory to calculate the calorific
value of food.
[ 1 mark ]
(b) What are the fixed and responding variables for the calorific values of different types of
food using the same appartus?
[ 2 marks ]
(c) Calculate the calorific value of groundnuts if the mass of groundnuts used is 10 g, mass
30C
of water used is 10 g, and temperature at the beginning of the experiment is at the
end of experiment is
85C .
[ 2 marks ]
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6. Table 1 below shows the types of food consumed by a student for breakfast. Table 2 that
follows shows the calorific values for three different types of food groups.
Table 1
Types of Quantity (g) Quantity of food groups (g)
food
1 glass of 100 g 29.0 g protein
milk 41.2 g carbohydrates
29.8 g fat
2 pieces of 200 g 200 g carbohydrates
bread
1 tablespoon 30 g 30 g carbohydrates
of jam
Table 2
Food group Calorific value (kcal)
1 gramme carbohydrates 4
1 gramme fat 9
1 gramme protein 4
(a) Based on the table above, calculate the total calorific value of the food consumed by the
student.
[ 1 mark ]
(b) Is the food eaten for breakfast a balance diet? Give reasons for your answer.
[ 2 marks ]
(ii) vitamin A?
[ 2 marks ]
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(d) What happens when an individual consumes an excessive amount of carbohydrates over
a long period of time? Give reasons for your explanation.
[ 2 marks ]
7. The information below is a report from an agriculture officer after his investigation regarding
complaints from a group of dairy farmers.
[ 1 mark ]
[ 2 marks ]
(c) What is the compound that is present in the body of the cows?
[ 1 mark ]
[ 1 mark ]
[ 1 mark ]
8. The table below shows the calorific values of a few types of food.
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(a) Based on the table shown above, calculate the total calories consumed by a student
according to the amount of food consumed by completing the table below.
Types of Quantity Calculation of calorific values (kJ)
food consumed (g)
White 150
bread
Tea with 100
milk
Fried 75
potatoes
Fried 150
chicken
Butter cake 120
Total
[ 5 marks ]
(b) Name the type of food that gives the most amount of energy.
[ 1 mark ]
(c) Identify if the student is consuming a balaced diet. Give explanation for your answer.
[ 2 marks ]
(d) A nutritionist suggested that the student should include vegetables and fruits in his diet.
What are the two classes of food that is found in vegetables and fruits.
[ 2 marks ]
(e) If the student continues to consume this type of food for 15 years, what are the two types
of diseases he is most likely to suffer from.
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[ 2 marks ]
(a) Complete the diagram above using the words provided below:
Producer Primary consumer
Secondary consumer
[ 3 marks ]
[ 1 mark ]
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[ 2 marks ]
(d) Describe what happens when water rich in minerals flows into the pond.
[ 2 marks ]
[ 1 mark ]
[ 1 mark ]
(c) (i) Name the chemical substance that causes layer X to become thinner?
(ii) Identify one item that used daily by humans that contains this ubstance.
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[ 2 marks ]
(ii) Name the ray from the sun that can pass through layer X.
[ 2 marks ]
[ 2 marks ]
3. The diagrams below show three daily activities carried out by humans.
(a) What are the three activities shown in the diagrams above?
[ 3 marks ]
(b) Name the type of pollution that is caused by activities shown in (i) and (ii).
[ 1 mark ]
(c) Name two gases released by the activity done in (i) and state their effects on aquatic
organisms.
[ 3 marks ]
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[ 1 mark ]
4. The diagram below shows apparatus used to study the interaction between organisms.
(a) (i) Which airtight jar containing the grasshopper would die first?
[ 2 marks ]
(b) State one precaution that should be taken into consideration when conducting this
experiment.
[ 1 mark ]
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(c) What is the role of the plant in airtight jar Q to maintain a balanced ecosystem?
[ 1 mark ]
(d) (i) Would the same results be obtained if this experiment is conducted in a dark room?
[ 2 marks ]
(a) What are the five sources of pollution shown in the diagram above?
[ 5 marks ]
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(b) List the three pollutants that are released from the chemical factory.
[ 3 marks ]
[ 2 marks ]
6. The diagram below shows that the balance in nature can be maintained by various natural
cycle.
[ 1 mark ]
[ 3 marks ]
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[ 1 mark ]
(d) What is the simplest carbon compound that is released from the factory?
[ 1 mark ]
(e) State the effects on the environment when there is no control of process R.
[ 2 marks ]
[ 2 marks ]
[ 1 mark ]
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[ 2 marks ]
(d) State two natural processes that can increase the level of nitrates in the soil.
[ 1 mark ]
(e) State one human activity that causes nitrogen levels in the soil to decrease.
[ 1 mark ]
(f) A farmer uses urea to fertilize his farm excessively. What is the effect of this activity on
the balance of nature?
[ 1 mark ]
8. The table below shows the number of patients suffering from three types of diseases in area P
in 1990 and 1993. During this period, the number of people living in this area doubled.
(a) (i) What are two human activities that might cause the migration of people to this area?
(iii) State one method each to overcome the problems stated in part (a)(ii).
[ 6 marks ]
(b) What are the two pollutants found in the air in area P?
[ 2 marks ]
(c) What is the type of pollution and its source that causes a rise in cholera cases in area P?
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[ 2 marks ]
1. The diagram below shows the interchangibility between polymers and monomers.
(a) What are two examples of natural polymers and identify the monomer that forms them?
[ 2 marks ]
[ 2 marks ]
[ 1 mark ]
(ii) What synthetic rubber that is similar to natural rubber and can be vulcanized?
[ 2 marks ]
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2. The diagram below shows the process involved in the production of vulcanized rubber and latex
paste.
(a) What is substance W that is added to latex to speed up the process of coagulation?
[ 1 mark ]
(b) If substance W is not added to latex, the latex still coagulates after one day. Explain your
observation.
[ 2 marks ]
(c) Name substance Y that is added to latex to prevent the coagulation process so that the latex
can be concentrated into latex paste.
[ 1 mark ]
[ 1 mark ]
(e) Name one product Z that is made from vulcanized rubber. What are two characteristics of
vulcanized rubber that is suitable for producing product Z?
[ 2 marks ]
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3. The diagram below shows the apparatus used to prepare alcohol in the laboratory.
[ 1 mark ]
(b) What is the enzyme that is produced by P? State its function in the fermentation process.
[ 2 marks ]
[ 1 mark ]
[ 1 mark ]
(e) What are the two characteristics that the flame produced if alcohol is burned?
[ 2 marks ]
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4. The diagram below shows the apparatus used in the laboratory during the preparation of soap.
(a) What vegetable oil and alkali that can be used in the preparation of soap?
[ 2 marks ]
(b) State the role of concentrated alkali in the process of producing soap.
[ 2 marks ]
(c) What is the purpose of adding common salt to the mixture in this process?
[ 1 mark ]
[ 1 mark ]
(e) Illustrate a structure of the soap molecule and identify the part that is soluble in:
(i) water
(ii) grease
[ 2 marks ]
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[ 1 mark ]
[ 1 mark ]
(c) In the large scale preparation of the oil, identify the step after the filtration step.
[ 1 marks ]
[ 3 marks ]
(e) The diagram below shows the structure of an oil palm fruit.
(i) Identify the three parts of the fruit in the diagram above.
[ 3 marks ]
(ii) What part of the fruit produces a lot of liquid L?
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[ 1 mark ]
CHAPTER 13 : MOTION
1. The diagram below shows a load, WN placed on the piston of syringe P. Load FN is placed on
the piston of syringe Q to balance the motion. The value of load F is recorded and the cross-
sectional area of syringe Q is measured. The experiment is repeated by using syringe Q with
different cross-sectional areas.
The table below shows the data obtained from the experiment.
Cross-sectional area 0.02 0.04 0.06 0.08 0.10
2
of syringe Q/m
Load F/N 11 23 32 44 55
(a) State the characteristic of liquid X that enables it to be used in the experiment.
[ 1 mark ]
[ 1 mark ]
(c) (i) Draw a graph of load F against the cross-sectional area of syringe Q based on the table
shown above.
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(ii) Determine the pressure transmitted through the liquid from the graph in part (c)(i).
[ 3 marks ]
2. The diagram P below shows an experiment to study the effect of force produced by a wooden
block when it is dropped from different heights where identical wooden blocks X, Y, and Z are
dropped onto the rods placed on the surface of the plasticine.
The diagram Q below shows the depth of the rods entering the plasticine caused by wooden
blocks X, Y, and Z.
[ 1 mark ]
[ 1 mark ]
(c) Based on the observation in the experiment, give one inference that can be derived from
this experiment.
[ 1 mark ]
(d) Identify the wooden block that will produce the largest momentum just before colliding
with the plasticine.
[ 1 mark ]
[ 1 mark ]
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3. The diagram below shows a ticker tape that has been obtained from the movement of a trolley
on a tilted platform. The trolley took 6 seconds to go from the top of the platform to the bottom.
The table below shows data about the ticker tape above.
Section of the 1 2 3 4
ticker tape
Length of
section/cm 2.0 _____ 4.0 5.0
(a) Determine the length of Section 2 of the ticker tape and record it in the table above.
[ 1 mark ]
[ 2 marks ]
(c) Based on the graph in part (b), identify the type of movement made by the trolley.
[ 1 mark ]
(d) Section 5 of the ticker tape follows section 4 also represents a 1 second interval. State
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your prediction for the length of Section 5 in cm, based on the diagram above.
[ 1 marks ]
4. The diagram below shows the arrangement of an apparatus to study the motion of a trolley
down a runway.
The ticker timer is connected to a 50 Hz alternating current power pack. The diagram below
shows the ticker tape obtained from the experiment.
(a) A student observed the dots made on the ticker tape. He made a conclusion that the trolley
moved at uniform velocity. State a reason for his conclusion.
[ 1 mark ]
(b) The ticker tape shows 5 ticks when the trolley moved from X to Y.
(i) State the definition of 'tick'.
[ 3 marks ]
(c) The trolley moves down the runway with uniform acceleration. Mark the dots shown on
the ticker tape in the diagram below.
[ 1 mark ]
(d) The tape chart below shows the motion of a trolley down a runway. What is the motion of
the trolley?
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[ 1 mark ]
5. The diagram below shows a ship floating in water that sails without sinking.
(a) (i) What is the upward force that acts on the ship?
(ii) What is the principle that describes the action of the upward force?
[ 2 marks ]
The diagram below shows the level of the ship in fresh water.
(b) (i) On the diagram above, indicate the level of the ship if it sails in sea water.
[ 2 marks ]
[ 1 mark ]
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(d) The body of a ship is marked with horizontal lines to indicate the maximum permissible
load in a ship when it sails in different regions and seasons. Give the name of this
horizontal line.
[ 1 mark ]
6. The diagram below shows an object placed on top of a car that travels at uniform velocity.
(a) The driver pressed the break pedal when a man was crossing the road.
(i) What is the effect on the object on top of the car?
[ 2 marks ]
(b) What are the two safety features that can be used in a car to reduce the negative effects of
inertia during an accident?
[ 2 marks ]
(c) The shape of a car is designed to reduce air resistance. In what way a car is shaped?
[ 1 mark ]
(d) A car does not use spark plugs. State the type of engine used in this car.
[ 1 mark ]
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(a) Indicate the level of water in tubes P, Q, and R in the diagram above.
[ 2 marks ]
[ 1 mark ]
(c) (i) State the reason for the water to rise in tubes A, B, and C.
[ 1 mark ]
(ii) Indicate the level of water in tubes A, B, and C.
[ 2 marks ]
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[ 2 marks ]
(ii) The structure of a four stroke petrol engine is similar to that of a four stroke diesel
engine expect that it contains Q instead of P. Name Q.
[ 2 marks ]
(c) State the number of revolutions that is made by the crankshaft in a complete stroke cycle.
[ 1 mark ]
(d) Why does the car engine normally consists of four cylinders?
[ 1 mark ]
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Name of food X Y Z
Method of food
processing
[ 3 marks ]
[ 1 mark ]
(c) State the difference between the methods used in processing foods Y and Z.
[ 5 marks ]
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3. The diagram below shows the food label for Tijace tomato sauce.
(a) State the two information that should be on this food label to fulfil all the conditions of the
Food Regulations 1985.
[ 2 marks ]
(b) State the action that can be taken by consumers if the information on a food label is not
complete.
[ 1 mark ]
[ 2 marks ]
[ 2 marks ]
4. The table below shows types of food that is processed using a particular method of food
processing.
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[ 1 mark ]
[ 4 marks ]
[ 1 mark ]
[ 1 mark ]
[ 1 mark ]
(ii) What is the benefit of method Z?
[ 1 mark ]
5. The diagram below shows four ways of increasing the quality and quantity of food
production.
(a) Modern technology such as genetic engineering increases the quality of food produce. In
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[ 1 mark ]
[ 3 marks ]
(c) (i) What are two government agencies that are involved in agricultural research?
[ 4 marks ]
(d) What type of education and guidance can the Ministry of Agriculture provide for
farmers?
[ 1 mark ]
(a) Based on the Food Act 1983 and Food Regulations 1985, list all of the missing
information from the food label shown above.
[ 3 marks ]
(b) (i) What is the most important data needed in part (a) when buying this bread?
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[ 1 mark ]
(ii) Give one reason for your answer in part (b)(i).
[ 1 mark ]
(c) If this bread is consumed in excess for 2 years, state the effect of it on consumer's health.
[ 1 mark ]
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[ 8 marks ]
[ 3 marks ]
[ 3 marks ]
[ 3 marks ]
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1. The diagram below shows part of the set-up of an experiment to study the relationship
between the wavelength and frequency of radio waves. Radio waves produced by an
oscillator circuit is connected to an oscilloscope.
The diagram below illustrates the wavelength of the radio wave on the screen of the
oscilloscope when its frequency is 1.5 x 108 Hz.
(a) In what way are the radio waves produced by the circuit shown in diagram P?
[ 1 mark ]
[ 1 mark ]
(c) The experiment is repeated by varying the variable capacitor. The table below shows the
results of this experiment.
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[ 1 mark ]
(ii) Illustrate the graph of the wave length against frequency based on the table above.
[ 2 marks ]
2. The diagram below shows the block diagram for a radio transmission system.
[ 2 marks ]
(b) The radio transmits amplitude modulated frequency waves. Illustrate the wave that is
transmitted by the aerial.
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[ 2 marks ]
[ 1 mark ]
(d) What is the difference between the waves transmitted through the aerial in comparison to
the waves that enter the microphone?
[ 1 mark ]
3. The diagram below shows a simple radio receiver circuit used to receive frequency modulated
radio broadcasting.
[ 1 mark ]
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[ 1 mark ]
(ii) In what way the waves changes when passed through the capacitor?
[ 1 mark ]
(iii) Illustrate the waves that pass through X.
[ 1 mark ]
[ 1 mark ]
(ii) What is the function of the electronic component in box Y?
[ 1 mark ]
4. The diagram below shows two earth satellite stations and a communication satellite.
[ 1 mark ]
(b) (i) What type of electromagnetic wave that is transmitted from the earth satellite station?
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[ 1 mark ]
(ii) State a reason for your answer in part (b)(i).
[ 1 mark ]
[ 1 mark ]
(ii) What is the minimum number of satellites to enable communication around the
world?
[ 1 mark ]
(iii) Illustrate the arrangement of satellites that allows communication around the world.
[ 1 mark ]
(a) What component of the electromagnetic spectrum has the longest wavelength?
[ 1 mark ]
(ii) Calculate the wavelength when the frequency of X is 1.5 x 109 Hz. (The velocity of
the electromagnetic wave is 3 x 108 ms-1)
[ 3 marks ]
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(ii) Audio signals are combined with X and Y before they are transmitted. Name Y.
[ 2 marks ]
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SCHEME
CHAPTER 1
1B 2C 3C 4A 5D 6D 7D 8D 9A 10 B
11 B 12 B 13 C 14 C 15 C 16 B 17 B 18 C 19 B 20 B
21 D 22 B 23 A 24 B 25 B 26 B 27 D 28 C 29 30
CHAPTER 2
1C 2B 3A 4D 5A 6A 7C 8D 9C 10 C
11 B 12 C 13 A 14 B 15 C 16 D 17 A 18 D 19 B 20 D
21 B 22 A 23 A 24 D 25 B 26 D 27 B 28 B 29 D 30 D
CHAPTER 3
1D 2D 3B 4A 5B 6D 7 B 8B 9B 10 D
11 D 12 B 13 C 14 D 15 C 16 D 17 B 18 C 19 B 20 A
21 D 22 D 23 A 24 B 25 D 26 D 27 D 28 C 29 A 30 D
CHAPTER 4
1A 2A 3A 4D 5C 6D 7C 8C 9D 10 A
11 B 12 D 13 B 14 C 15 C 16 D 17 D 18 A 19 C 20 D
21 A 22 C 23 B 24 C 25 B 26 D 27 A 28 C 29 D 30 C
CHAPTER 5
1C 2B 3C 4C 5B 6A 7C 8D 9C 10 A
11 D 12 A 13 B 14 B 15 C 16 B 17 B 18 D 19 C 20 C
21 D 22 A 23 C 24 C 25 B 26 D 27 D 28 B 29 A 30 C
CHAPTER 6
1C 2C 3D 4D 5A 6A 7B 8D 9A 10 B
11 D 12 A 13 C 14 D 15 B 16 D 17 C 18 B 19 C 20 B
21 D 22 C 23 D 24 D 25 B 26 A 27 B 28 D 29 B 30
CHAPTER 7
1B 2D 3B 4C 5B 6A 7B 8B 9B 10 C
11 D 12 D 13 B 14 A 15 B 16 D 17 C 18 A 19 B 20 C
21 D 22 C 23 C 24 D 25 D 26 C 27 D 28 D 29 B 30 C
CHAPTER 8
1D 2D 3C 4B 5B 6D 7B 8B 9B 10 C
11 B 12 C 13 C 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
CHAPTER 9
1B 2C 3B 4C 5C 6C 7D 8C 9A 10 C
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11 D 12 C 13 C 14 D 15 C 16 D 17 C 18 A 19 B 20 A
21 C 22 D 23 C 24 D 25 C 26 B 27 D 28 D 29 B 30 D
CHAPTER 10
1C 2D 3B 4B 5A 6D 7C 8A 9B 10 B
11 D 12 C 13 B 14 B 15 D 16 B 17 D 18 C 19 A 20 D
21 D 22 B 23 D 24 C 25 D 26 C 27 A 28 A 29 D 30 C
CHAPTER 11
1B 2C 3D 4B 5D 6D 7C 8B 9D 10 B
11 D 12 C 13 B 14 D 15 B 16 C 17 B 18 D 19 B 20 C
21 C 22 B 23 D 24 D 25 26 27 28 29 30
CHAPTER 12
1B 2A 3C 4C 5D 6D 7B 8B 9B 10 C
11 D 12 B 13 D 14 B 15 A 16 B 17 D 18 C 19 C 20 D
21 C 22 B 23 A 24 A 25 A 26 C 27 D 28 C 29 B 30 C
CHAPTER 13
1B 2D 3B 4D 5A 6A 7A 8D 9C 10 A
11 D 12 A 13 A 14 D 15 B 16 B 17 C 18 A 19 C 20 D
21 D 22 D 23 C 24 B 25 A 26 D 27 B 28 D 29 D 30 B
CHAPTER 14
1C 2D 3B 4B 5B 6D 7C 8D 9B 10 B
11 D 12 B 13 C 14 B 15 D 16 B 17 C 18 C 19 B 20 D
21 C 22 D 23 D 24 D 25 A 26 D 27 D 28 D 29 C 30 C
CHAPTER 15
1B 2B 3D 4D 5A 6A 7D 8D 9C 10 C
11 C 12 C 13 C 14 D 15 B 16 B 17 C 18 A 19 B 20 C
21 C 22 C 23 B 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
CHAPTER 16
1 B 2 C 3 B 4 B 5 C 6 D 7 D 8 C 9 C 10 C
11 A 12 A 13 D 14 C 15 D 16 D 17 A 18 C 19 A 20 D
21 B 22 D 23 D 24 D 25 B 26 B 27 B 28 C 29 A 30 B
SCHEME PAPER 2
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1.
a) -3C
b) The added of the salt will affect the freezing point of the pure water
c) The freezing point of water that added salt is -3C
d) (i) Quantity of the salt added
(ii) Freezing point of the pure water
2.
0 .5
a) (i) = 0.25 gcm-3
2
6
(ii) = 2.0 g cm-3
3
b) The cork float on the liquid / the iron sink in the liquid
c) An object which is less denser than a liquid will float on the surface liquid
3.
a) The seeds will sprout if have oxygen, water and the suitable temperature
b) (i) type and size of the seeds used
(ii) Sprout of the seeds
(iii) Different factor given (presence or absence water oxygen and temperature.
c) (i) the seeds in test tube B will not sprout
(ii) Because the layer of oil isolation the seeds with the oxygen
4.
a) Build a histogram
b) 32
c) 50-54
12
d) x100 37.5%
32
5.
a) 9.90s, 15.65s, 19.50s
b) The shorter the length of pendulum, the more time used for 10 oscillation
c) (i) The angle of the oscillation
(ii)The time used for 10 oscillations
(iii)The length of pendulum
6.
a) The temperature increase based on the increase in the time
b) The temperature increase if the amount of heater supply increase
c) The mass or volume of water.
d) The temperature of every 3 minutes will decrease
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7.
a) The extension of the weight load increase will cause the extension of the spring
increase
b) (i) Extension of spring
(ii)weight of load
c) (i) a graph weight vs extension
(ii) There are positive or direct relationship between the weight of load and the
extension of spring
8.
a) (i) 3.8 cm3
(ii) 4.8 cm3
b) 200 drops = 1cm3
1 drop = 0.005cm3
c) 5 x 10-5 or 0.00005
9.
a) 50 cm3
b) 8cm3
c) 6.25gcm-3
d) The cork will float on the water because the water with a density of 4.0
10.
a) 102C
b) The added of the salt will affect the boiling point of the pure water
c) (i) Boiling point of the pure water
(ii) Quantity of salt added
11.
a) There are a negative relationship between the pressure of gas and the volume of gas.
The higher the pressure of gas the lower the volume of gas
b) (i) Amount of gas
(ii)volume of gas
(iii)pressure of gas
12.
a) Time used to dissolves the sugar depend on the temperature of the water
b) The higher temperature of water, the less time is used to dissolves the sugar
c) (i) volume of water and amount of sugar
(ii)temperature of water
(iii)time is used to dissolves
13.
a) (i) identifying the variables
(ii) planning the investigation
(iii) collecting data
b) Avoid misconception and misinterpretations, think critically and creatively
c) Being fair and just, being objective
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14.
a) (i) volume of water, the size of the test tube
(ii)number of lead shots
(iii)the depth of test tube sink in water
b) To study how the depth of water in which the test tubes sink in the water is depends on
the number of lead shots
c) The more of number of lead shots the depther the test tube will sink in the water.
15.
a) Planning this investigation is a scientific process used to examine the effect of
changing one variable on another variables
b) Control variables, determine the procedure
c) The aim of the experiment, operational definition.
1.
a) Reaction time number of student in group
10 - 49 2
50 - 99 3
100 - 149 4
150 - 199 1
2.
a) Two neurons
b) Motor neuron, sensory neuron
c) Receptor - sensory neuron - motor neuron - effector
d) The leg is straighted automatically
3.
a) motor neuron
b) transmits impulses from the central nervous system to effectors
c) myelin sheath
d) speeds up the transmission of impulses, and a fatty structure which protects axon.
4.
a) Reaction sensory organ involved
Feel cold skin
Sharp smell of sour nose
Sweet taste tongue
Movie is see eyes
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5.
a) Plays role in controlling movement, maintaining balance and keeping posture.
b) Cerebellum
c) Voluntary action is an action which is controlled under conscious control. Example of
voluntary action is writing
d) Injuries to cerebrum can cause a loss os memory and senses.
6.
a) P : medulla oblongata Q : cerebellum R : cerebrum
b) Controls voluntary actions, reasoning, learning, memory and intelligence
c) Heartbeat, peristalsis
7.
a) Motor neuron, relay neuron, sensory neuron
b) Synapse
c) To allow the impulse to flow in one direction only
8.
a) Endocrine glands are ductless glands which secrete hormones directly into the
bloodstream
b) Thyroid gland and pancreas
c) P : stimulate many other endocrine glands and stimulates growth
Q : conversion of glucose into glycogen
9.
a) Proprioceptor
b) Coordinates the movement and maintain balance
c) Muscles, tendons, ligaments
10.
a) X : spinal cord Y : spinal nerves
b) Central nervous system : control of the nervous system
Peripheral nervous system : consist of nerves that enter and leave the brain and spinal
cord
c) Coordinates the body activities by sending message in the form of impulse in response
to stimuli
11.
a) X : dendrite Y : spinal nerves
b) Name the neuron that shows at the diagram
c) Diagram of impulse from left to right
12.
a) Cerebrum
b) P : thought and reasoning Q : movement of limbs
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R : sight S : hearing
13.
a) Ears, skin
b) Voluntary action
c) Reading and writing
14.
a) Voluntary action is an action which is under conscious control
b) Breathing, sneezing
c) Voluntary action involuntary action
Controlled by cerebrum controlled by medulla oblongata
Action under conscious control action not under conscious control
15.
a) Pancreas
b) Insulin
c) Conversion of glucose into glycogen in the liver
d) Low blood glucose level and weakness
16.
a) P : Effector Q : motor neuron R : sensory neuron
b) Receptor --- sensory neuron --- relay neuron --- motor neuron --- effector
17.
a) X : cell body
b) The nucleus controls all the activities in the neuron
c) Relay neuron sensory neuron
The length of dendron long
The length of axon short
18.
a) X : Relay neuron Y : effector Z : receptor
b) Help us to avoid serious injuries
c) The people will not be able withdrawal he fingers immediately
19.
a) Q : Gigantism R : dwarfism
b) Growth hormone
c) Stimulates growth
d) Pituitary gland
20.
a) Pituitary gland
b) Produces hormones which stimulate many other endocrine gland
c) Growth hormone
d) Under secretion : dwarfism : over secretion
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21.
a) Thyroxin gland
b) Thyroxin
c) Control the rate of metabolism
d) Sensitivity to cold, simple goiter
22.
a) Adrenal glands
b) Adrenaline
c) Prepares the body for actions during emergencies
d) Chromic fatigue, cushings syndrome
23.
a) Located at each side of the uterus
b) Estrogen, progesterone
c) Estrogen : development of female secondary sexual
Progesterone : regulate the menstrual cycle and play an important role in preparing
the body for pregnancy
24.
a) Scrotums
b) Protect the testes
c) Testosterone
d) Development of male secondary sexual charactreristics
e) Underdevelopment of secondary sexual aharacteristics.
25.
a) Drugs are chemical substances which can affect our nervous system
b) Nicotine, cocaine
c) Impair muscular coordination, distort perceptions.
1.
a) Draw a histogram
b) Continuous variation
c) There is a complete range of measurements from one extreme to another
Has a normal distribution
2.
a) Discontinuous variation
b) Type of hair and blood group
c) Genetic and environmental
3.
a) Identical twins
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b) Fertilization
c) Contain exactly the same genetic information / have the identical sex and other similar
characteristics
d) Identical sex, boy or girl
4.
a) Meiosis
b) Crossing over
c) Crossing over is a process occurring during meiosis in which a pair of homologous
chromosomes exchange genetic material
d) No
e) Two
5.
a) Twins P : identical twins Twins Q : non-identical twins
b) Two fetuses develop in mothers uterus at the same time
c) In terms of identical twins non-identical twins
Number of ovum involved one two
Sex of twin same might be same or fifty
Genetic information same different
6.
a) Selective breeding is the crossing of two parents each with some good traits so as
produce offspring that process the good traits of both parents
b) Paddy or papaya
c) Improve the nutritional values / lower import and higher will help to boost the
economy of the country
7.
a) Downs syndrome
b) Chromosome mutation
c) 21
d) Short necks / flat cheeks
8.
a) Meiosis
b) Ovaries and testes
c) Divides into four daughter cells, only half the chromosome number of parents cell.
9.
a) Bb , Bb, Bb, Bb
b) Tallness
c) Left-handed, straight hair
10.
a) Process X is meiosis
Process Y is fertilisation
b) Boy
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11.
a) RR, Rr, Rr, rr
b) 3:1
c) Red flowers
d) A person who has two identical genes for a characteristics
12.
a) W : deletion X : duplication Y : inversion
Z : attachment to a different chromosome
b) Chromosome mutations refer to changes in the structure or number of chromosomes
and the such changes occur as a result of errors in cell division.
13.
a) X : gene Y : DNA Z : chromosome
b) Genes are units of inheritance that determine the characteristics of an individual.
c) 8
14.
a) Gene mutations
b) Colour-blindness / albinism
c) Mutation is a change which occurs spontaneously on genes or chromosomes. There
are two types of mutations, namely chromosome mutation and gene mutation
15.
a) Mitosis
b) Divides into two identical cells exactly the same number and kind of chromosomes as
parent cell
c) Centromere splits, each chromatid is now a chromosome. The chromosome are pulled
to the apposite poles at the cell. This is called polarization.
16.
a) Parent cell divide to produce daughter cells
Important for inheritance
Each chromosome only double once
17.
a) Color blindness and hemophilia
b) Produce an individual with characteristics that are different form the rest
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18.
a) Turners syndrome
b) Fails to develop normal secondary sexual characteristic and sterile
c) Female
d) Tuners syndrome has only one sex chromosome and klinefelters syndrome have three
sex chromosome
19.
a) P : Cc Q : Cc R : Cc S : Cc
b) Straight hair
c) 4 : 0
d) Discontinuous variation
20.
a) Identical twins non-identical twins
Number of zygote formed one two
Genetic information same different
21.
a) Chromosome mutation
b) Males
c) Klineefelters syndrome is caused by the presence of three sex chromosomes
d) Radioactive gamma lays and toxic chemicals
22.
a) Histogram for number of students vs group of thumb prints
b) Discontinuous variation
c) Continuous variation discontinuous variation
Quantitative characters qualitative characters
Influenced by genetic factors influenced by genetic factors
Environmental factors
23.
a) Gametes : X baby : XY phenotype : boy
With normal color vision, color blindness boy
b) 25 %
24.
a) Family tree
b) Discontinuous variation
c) Certain characteristics can be passed down from one generation to another
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1.
a) P : Anode
Q : Cathode
b) (i) Increase
(ii) Copper
(iii) Become thinner
c) This is because the copper at the anode dissolves to form copper ions, but copper ions
are also deposited at the anode.
d) Rotating the spoon at the uniform rate
2.
a) Metals with different reactivitys show different reactivitys show different reaction
with oxygen.
b) (i) Oxygen gas
(ii) Activity of the reaction
(iii) type of metal
c) (i) X + oxygen ------ oxide of X
(ii) Y + oxygen ------- oxide of Y
(iii) Z + oxygen ------ oxide of Z
d) Y, X , Z
e) X : Aluminium Y : Magnesium Z : Copper
3.
a) X : Tin ore / cassiterite
Y : Limestone
b) Hot air
c) Product P : Molten slag
Product Q : Molten tin
d) Calcium carbonate ------- calcium oxide + carbon dioxide
4.
a) Electroplating
b) The copper piece is the anode and the iron nails is the cathode
c) To transfer electric current from copper piece to the iron nail.
d) At the anode, copper piece dissolve in the copper sulphate solution and become copper
ions.
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At the cathode, copper ion in the copper sulphate solution are discharge and become
copper atoms which are attached on the iron nail
e) The concentration of the blue copper sulphate solution will remains unchanged.
5.
a) Cassiterite
b) Limestone is used to absorb and removes the impurities in the ore
c) Tin oxide + carbon ------ tin + carbon dioxide
d) Because aluminium is more reactive than carbon
e) Carbon is cheap and able to get it easily.
6.
a) Ampere
b) (i) Impure silver
(ii) pure silver
c) (i) Silver piece will become thinner
(ii) Silver piece will become thicker
d) No changes
7.
a) Metal X reacts faster with dilute sulphuric acid than metal Y.
b) (i) Type of metal
(ii) Reactivity
(iii) Concentration and volume of dilute sulphuric acid
c) Metal X
d) 25 cm3.
8.
a) Displacement reaction
b) Aluminium sulphate and hydrogen gas
c) Aluminium + Dilute sulphuric acid ----- Aluminium sulphate + Hydrogen
d) Can test by a glowing splint. The hydrogen gas that release from the test tube will
make a pop sound.
9.
a) Positive terminal : Copper plate
Negative terminal : zinc plate
b) The zinc plate become thinner
Produce gas bubble at positive terminal
c) Terminal negative : Zinc atoms - electron ---- zinc ions
Positive terminal : Hydrogen ions + electrons ---- hydrogen atoms
d) The flow of electron through the outside circuit from the cathode to the anode
produces electric current.
10.
a) 1.2 V
b) Used as an electrolyte
c) Voltmeter reading
d) 0V
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11.
a) ( i ) K
(ii) N
b) K : Carbon rod
L : mixture of manganese (IV) oxide and carbon
M : Ammonium chloride paste
N : Zinc container
c) None rechargeable
Corrosion of the zinc casing results in leaked of the electrolyte
d) Nickel-cadmium cell
Lead- acid accumulator
12.
a) (i) Gas bubbles are produced
(ii) A reddish brown metal is deposited at the cathode
b) (i) Chlorine gas is produced
(ii) The brown metal deposit is copper
c) Tested with litmus paper, it bleaches litmus paper
d) The density changes for color of the solution gradually decrease.
13.
a) Electrolysis
b) (i) Carbon
(ii) P
c) (i) this because the ions in the solid lead bromide are strongly attracted to each other
by their electrostatic charges.
(ii) Heat the solid so that it melts into liquid
d) Lead ions and bromide ions
e) (i) Bromine
(ii)Brown pungent gas
f) Lead
1.
a) P - The Geiger Muller tube
Q - The scaler / rate meter / loud speaker
b) Substance R = Na-24
c) It will show a higher reading. It will be louder than normal
d) Gamma radiation will penetrate through the pipe
2.
a) (i) X : Beta particle
(ii) Y : Gamma radiation
(iii) Z : Alpha particle
b) (i) Radiation Y is not depleted
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(ii) It is neutral
c) X is lighter than Z
d) (i) Lead
(ii) Radioactive radiation cannot penetrate the lead container
3.
a) Nuclear fusion
b) Nuclear energy
c) Hydrogen bomb
d) The sun
4.
a) Radioactive atoms contain unstable nuclei
b) Alpha radiation, beta radiation, and gamma radiation
c) Alpha and beta radiation
d) Gamma radiation
e) Smaller and more stable
5.
a) (i) Gamma radiation
(ii) the radioactive radiation has high penetrating power
(iii) the radioactive radiation is used to detect to content level in the bottle
b) (i) it is the Geiger Muller counter
(ii) To record the rate of radioactive
c) Phosphorus-32
6.
a) Beta
b) (i) The aluminium is thicker than the acceptable thickness
c) To prevent radioactive radiation from being radiated in all directions
d) (i) a docimeter
(ii) The photographic film on the docimeter turns black
1.
a) Draw a light ray with image are real, inverted and diminished
b) Real, inverted and diminished
c) Camera
d) Draw a light ray with image are virtual, not inverted and diminished
2.
a) The point on the principle axis where parallel rays of light will converge after passing
through the lens
b) Image are real, inverted and more than object ( draw a light ray )
c) 1.6 cm
d) Decrease
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3.
a) Filter color screen color the color of light on the screen
Green blue black
Blue magenta blue
Red yellow red
b) The color that appears on the screen is the result of the subtraction of light by the
coloured filter and coloured screen.
4.
a) White
b) Secondary color
c) (i) K and L
(ii) Red
d) (i) Black
(ii) Blue light is absorbed by the yellow card
5.
a) P : Cornea Q : Irish R : Retina
b) P : Help to focus light onto the retina by refracting light rays that pass through it.
c) Irish muscle will contract to reduce the size of the pupil so that the amount of light
entering the eye is reduced
d) The eyes focuses by changing the thickness of the lens while the camera focuses by
moving the lens nearer or further from the film.
1.
a) (i) Diagram Y
(ii) Diagram X
b) The atom of the second metal prevents the layers of sliding atoms in the first metal
from sliding over each other easily
c) (i) Pewter
(ii) 96% tin, 3% copper and 1% antimony
(iii) For making drinking mugs and vases, to make ornaments.
2.
a) The iron nails become brown in color while there was no change to the steel nail.
b) The iron nail turned rusty whole the steel nail did not
c) (i) Type of nail
(ii) Condition of the nails after the three days
(iii) Sodium chloride solution/test tube
d) Alloys can prevent corrosion or rusting
3.
a) Copper : 1.5 cm Bronze : 1.1 cm
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4.
a) Carbon dioxide
b) Global warning / green house effect
c) When carbon dioxide increase with atmosphere, carbon dioxide gas absorbs heat from
the radiation of sunlight and heat is reflected back to earth. The trapping of this heat
causes the increase of the earth temperature.
d) Fixing a catalytic converter in the exhaust pipes of vehicles / using lead free petrol.
1.
a) The most bacteria colony is observed at the pH value = 7
b)
c) pH = 7
d) pH = 6 : 8
2.
a) X2
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b) Penicillin kills bacteria. The higher the concentration of the penicillin, more bacteria
are killed
c) The size of penicillin disc / number of days
d) Antibiotic is a chemical that consists of fungi or bacteria that kills specific
microorganisms
3.
a) There is bigger and more bacterial colony when the temperature is increased after 24
hours.
b) (i) the graph size of bacteria colony vs temperature
(ii) 35C
(iii) 3
4.
a) A suspension containing weakened or dead pathogens of a particular disease
b) Cholera / hepatitis / TB
c) The white blood cells (lymphocytes) are stimulated to produce antibodies
d) To increase the number of antibodies to exceed the immunity level
e) Active acquired immunity
5.
a) Immunization is a process where a person is given vaccination to help him acquire
immunity from a particular disease
b) Acquired immunity
c) (i) 3 times
(ii) The first dose is given to stimulate the body to produce antibodies immediately
but the level of antibodies produced is insufficient. By giving the second, third and
booster dose, the level of antibodies would increase to exceed the minimum level of
immunity required to fight diseases.
d) BCG
e) Tetanus
f) Each vaccination is given to prevent specific types of disease only
6.
a) P : Plant protein Q : Ammonium compound R : Nitrate
b) Ions
c) W : Denitrification X : Nitrogen fixation
d) Nitrifying bacteria
e) Root nodules
f) Ammonium nitrate
7.
a) W : Viruses X : Bacteria Y : Protozoa Z : Algae
b) W : Influenza X : Cholera Y : Malaria
c) W has no nucleus X has a nucleus
W contain either DNA or RNA where X contain both
W is smaller in sized compare to X.
d) Bacteria because it contains chlorophyll which enables it to carry out photosynthesis
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8.
a) Q
b) Penicillin Q
c) Fungus
d) Temperature : incubate at 37 C.
e) Kills the bacteria / prevents the growth of the bacteria
f) Wash hands before and after the experiment / sterilize the apparatus inside an
autoclave.
9.
a) 20C - 40C
b) -20C - 0C / more than 100C
c) More bacteria are produced making the meat not suitable to be eaten
d) (i) Spore formation
(ii) Binary fission
e) In 1 hour, 22 = 4 bacteria are produced
In 1 hour, 210 = 1024 bacteria are produced
10.
a) Larva
b) In stagnant water
c) An animal that carries pathogens from one organism to another
d) (i) Clear the surrounding areas around and inside the house to prevent mosquitoes
from hiding / spraying insecticide to kill mosquitoes
(ii) Rearing fish in ponds to feed on P / spreading a layer of oil on the surface of
water to prevent P from breathing
e) Protozoa, malaria / virus, dengue fever
f) When a mosquito bites an infected person and then bites a healthy person.
1.
a) P because their diet contains less amount of meat, fats and oil
b) Fibres and proteins
c) 17.6 kJ of energy is released by 1 g of carbohydrate
2200 kJ of energy is released by
2200 17.6 = 125 g of sugar
d) Because their diet contains more sugar and less vegetables.
2.
a) (i) Milk
(ii) Butter
b) Column S - fats
Reason : highest percentage for butter
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Column R - Carbohydrates
Reason : it is found in milk and potatoes but not in beef, tuna and butter
c) Butter and beef
3.
a) Bomb calorimeter
b) Refer diagram of bomb calorimeter
c) Oxygen, to help in the oxidation of the food
d) The temperature of the water increase
4.
a) (i) the nutrient contents of Knops culture solution
(ii) the growth rate of maize seedling such as the length of roots and stem, the
size of the leaves.
(iii) The original size of the maize seedling
b) To provide oxygen to the roots so that they would not rot
c) Stunted growth and the size of the leaves is small and the color of the leaves is yellow
d) To be used as a comparison in the results of the experiment
5.
a) The amount of energy released when 1 gram of food is completely burned
b) Fixed variables : volume of water / mass of food
Responding variables : increase in temperature, amount of energy released
10 (85 35)
c) 4.2 0.23kJg 1
(1000 10)
6.
a) 1469 kilocalories
b) No, because it does not contain fruits and vegetables that provides vitamins
c) (i) kwasyiorkor
(ii)Night blinders
d) Obesity becomes a problems because excessive carbohydrates would be changed into
fat to be stored in the body
7.
a) The nitrogen cycle
b) The root nodules of clover plants contain nitrogen nitrogen fixing bacteria that convert
nitrogen gas into nitrates
c) Proteins
d) Nitrates
e) Ammonium sulphate/ ammonium nitrate
8.
a) Type of food quantity (g) Calorific value
White bread 150 1701.0
Tea with milk 100 50.0
Fried potatoes 75 1792.5
Fried chicken 150 2445.0
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1.
a) (i) secondary consumer
(ii) Producer
(iii) Primary consumer
b) Produces food and oxygen
c) Water plants ----- prawn ----- small fishes
d) It causes eutrophication. Algae that blooms rapidly on water surface prevents sunlight
from reaching the base of the pond. This results in the death of water plants and finally
the death of other aquatic organisms.
2.
a) The ozone layer
b) 15 39 km
c) (i) Chlorofluorocarbon
(ii) Coolants in air conditioners and refrigerators / aerosol
d) (i) ozone hole
(ii)ultraviolet rays
e) Skin cancer, cataracts
3.
a) (i) Burning of fossil fuels
(ii) Open burning of rubbish
(iii) Throwing rubbish into recyling bins
b) Air pollution
c) Sulphur dioxide and oxides of nitrogen
d) To conserve and preserve environment
4.
a) (i) Jar P
(ii) The grasshopper in jar Q gets the oxygen from plant that produces it through
photosynthesis
b) To make sure that both jars P and Q are airtight
c) The plant absorbs carbon dioxide released by the grasshopper to enable it to perform
photosynthesis to supply oxygen to the grasshopper
d) (i) No
(ii) The grasshopper in jar Q would die first because the plant is competing with it to
use the oxygen supply.
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5.
a) Disposal of industrial waste
Disposal of sewage
Spraying of pesticides and herbicides
Exhaust smoke from aero planes
Smoke and heat from chemical factories
b) Ashes, soot and sulphur dioxide
c) Pollutants can damage body tissues and affect vision
6.
(a) Carbon cycle
b) P - photosynthesis Q - respiration R combustion
c) Maintains the level of carbon dioxide in the environment
d) Carbon dioxide / carbon monoxide
e) Depletion of natural resources and air pollution
7.
a) X : Ammonium compound Y : Nitrates
b) Decomposition
c) (i) Nitrogen fixing bacteria
(ii) Bacteria P changes nitrogen in the atmosphere to nitrates. Nitrates are directly
used by plants to produced proteins.
d) Nitrification and nitrogen fixation
e) Farming
f) Water pollution causes the death of aquatic organisms.
8.
a) (i) opening up of forest lands for development // industrialisation
(ii)loss of habitat // air pollution
(ii) replanting the same type of trees // using alternative energy sources
b) Carbon dioxide / carbon monoxide / sulphur dioxide / oxides of nitrogen
c) Water pollution through the improper disposal of sewage
9.
a) Driving a car that emits excessive exhaust fumes
Washing with detergents that pollute water sources
Throwing rubbish such as empty cans and boxes indiscriminately
Smoking cigarettes
b) Exhaust fumes contain gases such as carbon dioxide, sulphur dioxide, oxides of
nitrogen, and carbon particles that pollute the air. These gases add to the greenhouse
effect and indirectly cause global warming. They also play a part in the formation of
acid rain.
Oil and detergent flow into the river and pollute the water. These result in the death of
aquatic organism
Rubbish pollutes the surroundings and give off foul smells. They become breeding
grounds for vectors.
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1.
a) Starch is the polymer formed from glucose monomers / proteins is the polymer from
amino acid monomers
b) X : polymerization Y : depolymerization
2.
a) W is formic acid
b) The action of bacteria on latex produces and acid can coagulate latex
c) Y is ammonia solution
d) X is sulphur
e) Vulcanized rubber is used to make tyres because it is strong and can withstand heat.
3.
a) P is yeast
b) Zymase enzyme is produced by yeast to change glucose to ethanol.
c) Ethanol
d) Distillation
e) Alcohol burms with a blue flame and does not produce any ash
4.
a) Palm oil and sodium hydroxide
b) Alkali acts as a catalyst to speed up the hydrolysis of oil molecules and then fuses with
fatty acids to form soap
c) Common salt lowers the solubility of soap in water and precipitates the soap out
d) The filtrate produces bubbles in water and is smooth
5.
a) Sterilization
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CHAPTER 13 : MOTION
1.
e) Starch is the polymer formed from glucose monomers / proteins is the polymer from
amino acid monomers
f) X : polymerization Y : depolymerization
2.
f) W is formic acid
g) The action of bacteria on latex produces and acid can coagulate latex
h) Y is ammonia solution
i) X is sulphur
j) Vulcanized rubber is used to make tyres because it is strong and can withstand heat.
3.
f) P is yeast
g) Zymase enzyme is produced by yeast to change glucose to ethanol.
h) Ethanol
i) Distillation
j) Alcohol burms with a blue flame and does not produce any ash
4.
f) Palm oil and sodium hydroxide
g) Alkali acts as a catalyst to speed up the hydrolysis of oil molecules and then fuses with
fatty acids to form soap
h) Common salt lowers the solubility of soap in water and precipitates the soap out
i) The filtrate produces bubbles in water and is smooth
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5.
f) Sterilization
g) To destroy microorganisms in oil palm fruit.
h) Purification
i) (i) Raw palm oil
(ii) Vitamin E and A
j) (i) X : mesocarp Y : endocarp Z : kernel
(ii) Mesocarp and kernel
1.
a) X : Freeze drying
Y : vacuum packaging
Z : Irradiation
b) Food is kept in the freezing compartment of the refrigerator at -18C
c) Food Processing method Y Food processing method Z
Air is sucked out from the plastic food is radiated with gamma rays
Aerobic microorganism die microorganism are killed by gamma rays
2.
a)
Chemical used in food Examples Used in Functions
processing
Preservative Boric acid Fish ball Prevents food from spoiling
Flavoring Monosodium Soups Makes food tastier
glutamate and
sauces
Sweetener Palm sugar Cakes Sweetens food
Emulsifier Lecithin Ice emulsifies two substances that
cream cannot be mixed
Antioxidant Tocopherol Butter Prevents the oxidation of food
(vitamin E) and
biscuits
3.
a) Net weight, name and address of manufacturer
b) Report to the District Health Office or consumer association
c) Starch and benzoic acid
d) Function of starch : Prevents the separation of fluid parts of food
Function of benzoic acid : Prevents food from spoiling by impeding the growth and
reproduction of microorganism
4.
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a) To kill microorganisms and parasite, to enables easy food digestion and to enable food
to last longer
b) W : Freezing X : Refrigeration Y : Dehydrationj
Z : Pasteurization
c) At low temperature, the interaction between enzyme and microorganism is not active
d) To maintain freshness and nutrients in the food
e) (i) Heating at 63 C for 30 minutes or at 72 C for 15 second and is immerdiatly
cooled
(ii) To main tain taste and nutrients in the food, especially vitamins
5.
a) The removal of a gene or section of a DNA molecule with the desired characteristics
from the cell of an organism and transferring it into a completely different organism
can produce the desired characteristics
b) Good resistance to diseases or pests, fast ripening of fruits and abundant harvest
c) (i) MARDI, MPOB
(ii) MARDI - Jalomas sweet potatoes
MPOB - Tenera oil palm species
6.
a) Berat bersih, alamat pengeluar, tarikh luput
b) (i) the expiry date
(ii) if the expiry date is over, the bread is then not safe for consumption and cause
diseases
c) Obesity
1.
Names of Types of Monomers One use of plastic
plastic plastic
Perspex Thermoplastic Methyl Making transparent roof
metacrylate
Epoxyl glue Thermosetts Amide Making glue and electric insulator
Polypropene Thermoplastic
polystyrene Thermoplastic Styrene Making food packaging containers
2.
a) P : Nylon
Q : Neoprene rubber
R : Butyl rubber
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1.
a) Oscillating electric charges between the variable capacitor and the inductor
b) 1.5 cm
c) (i) wavelength of the radio wave
(ii) graph wavelength vs frequency
2.
a) (i) Oscillator
(ii) Radio waves
b)
c) Transistor
d) Frequency of the wave transmitted is higher
3.
a)
4.
a) To receive. Amplify and transmit information
b) (i) Microwave
(ii) It has the highest frequency that enables it to travel far and is not scrattered by the
particles in the atmosphere
c) (i) It appears stationary in the same spot in the sky
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(ii) 3 satellites
(iii)
5.
a) X / Radio wave
b) (i) Radio wave
(ii) 0.2 m
c) (i) carrier wave
(ii) Modulator
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SCIENCE
KERTAS 1
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SCIENCE
KERTAS 2
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1. This question paper consists of three sections. Section A, Section B and Section C
Kertas soalan ini mengandungi tiga bahagian: Bahagian A, Bahagian B dan Bahagian
C
4. The diagrams in the questions provided are not drawn to scale unless stated
Rajah yang mengiring soalan tidak dilukis mengikut skala kecuali dinyatakan
The marks allocated for each sub-part of a question are shown in bracket
Markah yang diperuntukkan bagi setiap ceraian soalan ditunjukkan dalam kurungan
5. If you wish to change your answer, neatly cross out the answer that you have done.
Then write down the new answer
Sekiranya anda hendak menukar jawapan, batalkan dengan kemas jawapan yang
telah dibuat. Kemudian tulis jawapan yang baru
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Section A
Bahagian A
[ 20 marks/markah ]
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