REVISION FOR EK 2115 - OCTOBER SEMESTER 2015

11th DECEMBER 2015 FOR GROUP 2A & 2B

DIPLOMA IN AIRCRAFT MAINTENANCE ENGINEERING

1. Band stop filter

A. attenuates frequencies in a specified narrow band
B. stop frequencies is a narrow band
C. pass all frequencies band

2. What is the function of the filter circuit symbol shown below?

A. Only allows a narrow band of frequency to pass

B. Allows frequencies below a cut-off frequency to pass
C. Allows frequencies above a cut-off frequency to pass

3. A parallel circuit at resonance has

A. Maximum impedance.
B. minimum impedance.
C. zero impedance.

4. A filter with a small bandwidth has

A. low value of Q.
B. high value of Q.
C. Q of zero.

5. A high pass filter has

A. high impedance to low frequency, low impedance to high frequency
B. high impedance to high frequency , low impedance to low frequency
C. high impedance to both high and low frequency
6. A transformer is built with a material having a
A. narrow hysteresis loop
B. wide hysteresis loop
C. high coercive force

7. Flux losses in a transformer can be prevented by

A. the use of primary shielding
B. winding the primary on top of the secondary
C. formatting the core

8. A transformer has 500 turns on the primary and 100 turns on the secondary. When connected to a 100 V
supply, the output is
A. 500 V
B. 20 V
C. 25 V

9. In the previous question, the secondary is connected to a 10 ohm load. The primary current is
A. 10 amps
B. 0.4 amps
C. 2 amps

10. An autotransformer windings are

A. on separate formers
B. connected
C. wired in parallel

11. A 10:1 step up power transformer has 120 V, and 3A flowing through the primary, and 0.285 A flowing
through the secondary what is the efficiency?
A. 90%
B. 95%
C. 85%

12. The phases on a three phase a.c generator are spaced at

A. 90 degrees
B. 180 degrees
C. 120 degrees

13. The voltage output of a shunt generator is control by

A. varying the current at the output
B. varying the resistor in series with the armature
C. varying the field current

14. What is the main disadvantage of a starter generator?

A. will not supply output at low rpm
B. Heavier than like for like
C. Can only be used on piston engines

15. The principal characteristic of a synchronous motor is

A. it rotates of a speed that is synchronized with the applied ac current

1
 B. it must have a synchronized 3 phase supply to operate
C. it rotates at a speed that is synchronized with the applied dc current

16. The speed of a single phase induction motor is dependent on

A. the strength of the field
B. the number of pairs of poles
C. the strength of the armature current

17. The output from a rotating armature AC generator would be taken from
A. the rotor
B. the stator
C. either the rotor or the stator

18. A DC generator armature has 6 poles and is lap wound. The number of brushes required is
A. 6
B. 2
C. 3

19. How are generators rated

A. Impedance at rated voltage
B. Current at rated voltage
C. Watts at rated voltage

20. On a brushless AC generator, the permanent magnet generator output is

A. DC
B. AC
C. Pulsed

21. An AC generator has four poles. To produce a frequency of 400 Hz it must achieve a speed of
A. 6000 RPM
B. 8000 RPM
C. 12000 RPM

22. How many poles do a generator has if it rotates at 8000 RPM and produced a 400 Hz output
A. 6 poles
B. 8 poles
C. 12 poles

23. . How do you reduce ripple on the output of a DC generator?

A. Increase the speed of the armature and add more turns
B. Increase the commutator segments and connect each to a separate parallel winding
C. Decrease the speed of the armature and add more series windings

24. Extra windings in a 3 phase AC generator are to sense

A. overvolt
B. phase shift
C. field oscillations

25. The shunt wound generator is normally started

A. off load

2
 B. on load
C. Either of the above

26. Increasing the load on a permanent magnet generator will

A. reduce the terminal voltage by a large amount
B. reduce the terminal voltage by a small amount
C. increase the terminal voltage by a small amount

27. The series wound generator's terminal voltage will, when below saturation
A. increase with an increase in load
B. decrease with an increase in load
C. decrease with a decrease in rotational speed

28. In a cumulative compound wound generator the

A. series and shunt fields oppose each other
B. series and shunt fields assist each other
C. voltage falls suddenly with an increase in load

29. The shunt wound generator is controlled by a variable resistance in

A. series with the armature
B. series with the field
C. parallel with the field

30. A centrifugal speed switch speed is used

A. to cut out the resistor/inductor circuit on an AC motor
B. to cut out the capacitor circuit on an AC motor
C. to cut out the slow resistor on AC Motor

31. A 3 phase induction motor can be reversed by

A. Isolating one phase
B. Reversing the rotor connection
C. Changing over any two phase

32. An AC motor which rotates at the same speed as the supply frequency is called
A. universal motor
B. an induction motor
C. a synchronous motor

33. If a heavy mechanical load is removed from a series motor

A. the speed will increase and the armature current decrease
B. the speed decrease as armature current increase
C. the speed increase as the armature current will also increase
34. In a DC shunt motor, if the field resistance is decreased what happen to the BEMF
A. increase
B. decrease
C. remain the same

35. The rotor of a hysteresis motor is

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 A. made from material having large hysteresis loop
B. made from material having narrow hysteresis loop
C. a squirrel cage type

36. Slip on a synchronous motor on start is

A. 0
B. 50
C. 100

37. In a synchronous motor, when the motor is running the slip is

A. 100%
B. 5%
C. 0%

38. The prime advantages of Brushless AC Generator are

A. Less maintenance, better power to weight ratio and output voltage, current and frequency are
controlled by GCU.
B. Frequent maintenance provides better output voltage, current and frequency with APU.
C. Continuous maintenance is required for better output voltage, current and frequency

39. In a two-phase induction motor there are

A. 2 poles
B. 3 poles
C. 4 poles

40. A shaded pole motor has shaded poles to

A. increase efficiency
B. create a rotating field
C. reduce interference

41. The prime mover for Aircraft generator is the

A. Aircraft engine and gearbox.
B. Battery.
C. Ground power unit.

42. The brushes are made from

A. high grade copper.
B. high grade silicon material.
C. high grade carbon material.

43. In an inductive load, the current in the circuit __________ the circuit voltage by 90.
A. Lags
B. Leads
C. inphase

44. Which type of ac generator rotor construction is the best and state the advantages?
A. Cylindrical Rotor provides less windage losses, less susceptible to centrifugal forces and used

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 for high speeds
B. Salient Pole Rotor provides high windage (drag) losses, has more number of poles(heavy) and used for
low speeds.
C. Squirrel cage Rotor provides stable and high speed with various load

45. AC generators are also generally termed as _______________.

A. alternators
B. Exciters
C. Movers

46. The power developed in an inductive load is only ____________ power.

A. Apparent
B. Reactive
C. True

47. Small type Induction motor uses another method of starting by using
A. Squirrel cage rotor.
B. Exciter voltage.
C. shaded pole induct

48. In a shunt motor, if you reverse both field current and armature current, the motor will
A. stop
B. change direction
C. continue to run in the same direction

49. Induction motor rotor is constructed with bars, which runs parallel to axis of rotation and the bars are
connected at each end by the end rings to allow
A. various paths of low resistance through the core material.
B. narrow paths of high resistance through the core material.
C. various paths of high impedance through the core material.

50. How the output frequency of an ac generator can be calculated?

A. Increase speed of rotation or decrease number of pole pairs
B. Decrease speed of rotation or increase number of pole pairs
C. Increase speed of rotation or increase number of pole pairs

51. A high pass filter consists of a

A. capacitor and inductor in series
B. capacitor and inductor in parallel
C. an inductor and a capacitor in parallel

52. Band stop filter

A. attenuates frequencies in a specified narrow band
B. stops frequencies in a narrow band
C. pass all frequencies in that band
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53. A filter with a small bandwidth has a
A. high value of Q
B. low value of Q
C. Q of zero

54. A high pass filter has

A. high impedance to low frequency, low impedance to high frequency
B. high impedance to high frequency, low impedance to low frequency
C. high impedance to both high and low frequency

55. What would you use for the core in a generator current transformer?
A. Air core
B. Laminated core
C. Steel Core

56. To supply a 24 volt output with a transformer with a 5:1 turns ratio, the input required is
A. 120V
B. 4.8V
C. 24V

57. A transformer has 1200 turns primary and 4800 turns secondary. What value of load resistance would be
required to give a reflected impedance of 1000 ohms
A. 1 kohm
B. 4 kohm
C. 16 kohm

58. A near perfect 4:1 step up transformer has it's primary connected to 120VAC, if the secondary is connected
to a load with 1600 ohms resistance what is the current in the primary
A. 1 amp
B. 0.3 amps
C. 1.2 amps

59. Flux losses in a transformer can be prevented by

A. the use of primary shielding
B. winding the primary on top of the secondary
C. laminating the core

60. The line voltage in a wye wound transformer is

A. root 3 / phase voltage
B. the same as phase voltage
C. root 3 x phase voltage

61. A 3-phase star-delta wound transformer gives

A. 90 phase shift
B. no phase shift
C. 30 phase shift

62. A transformer rated at a frequency of 200 Hz

A. may be used at any other frequency

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 B. may only be used at the rated frequency or above
C. may only be used at the rated frequency or below

63. In the shunt generator the field is supplied by

A. a separate supply
B. the armature
C. the load

64. Increasing the speed of an aircraft generator results in an automatic

A. field circuit resistance increase
B. field circuit resistance decrease
C. armature circuit resistance increase

65. Which generators are usually used on aircraft?

A. Series
B. Shunt
C. Compound

66. The phases on a three phase A.C. generator are spaced at

A. 90 degrees
B. 180 degrees
C. 120 degrees

67. To increase the voltage output of a generator you can

A. increase speed
B. decrease speed
C. It is not speed dependant

68. Generator voltage is

A. dependant on speed of rotation
B. independent of speed of rotation
C. not dependant on speed of rotation

69. A generator with more than two phases is known as

A. polyphase
B. delta phase
C. multiphase

70. What are the factors affecting the frequency of an ac generator?

A. Number of turns in the armature coil and rpm
B. Number of pole pairs and rpm
C. Number of turns in the armature coil and number of pole pairs

71. What is the potential between the neutral point and earth in a balanced load 3-phase generator?
A. Equal to line volts
B. Equal to phase volts
C. Zero volts

72. The main advantage of a starter-generator over conventional units is

A. for the same power output there is a weight reduction and the starter drive remains engaged

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 B. for the same power output there is a weight reduction and the drive is constantly engaged
C. it can produce a greater power output

73. The controlling phase on a two phase generator is of a

A. fixed amplitude
B. variable amplitude
C. direct current

74. The output from a generator to a commutator is

A. AC
B. DC
C. pulsed DC

75. In a generator system, a stabilizing winding is used

A. in series with the field to prevent oscillations
B. to prevent voltage overshoot
C. to control output current

76. The stator of a permanent magnet rotor AC generator

A. is wound in series with the field
B. is usually delta wound
C. is usually star wound

77. The line current in three phase delta connection is generator

A. 1.414 times the phase current
B. 1.707 times the phase current.
C. 1.73 times the phase current.

78. If there was a mainly inductive load on an AC generator, the voltage with respect to the current would
A. lead
B. lag
C. be in phase

79. On a brushless AC generator, the permanent magnet generator output is

A. DC
B. AC
C. pulsed

80. The output from a rotating armature AC generator would be taken from
A. the rotor
B. the stator
C. either the rotor or the stator

81. A frequency wild AC generator system has

A. variable voltage and frequency
B. variable frequency only
C. variable voltage only

82. The voltage of an AC generator

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 A. rises to max in one direction, falls to zero and rises in the same direction
B. rises to max in one direction then falls to zero then rises to max in the opposite direction
C. rises to max in one direction and remains

83. In a 3 phase generator with balanced load, the potential between the neutral point and earth is
A. equal to line volts
B. equal to phase volts
C. zero volts

84. How many brushes are used in an 8 pole wave wound machine
A. 2
B. 6
C. 8

85. The type of motor used in a linear actuator is

A. compound
B. series
C. parallel (shunt wound)

86. A centrifugal speed switch is used

A. to cut out the resistor/inductor circuit on an AC motor
B. to cut out the capacitor circuit on an AC motor
C. to cut in the resistor/inductor circuit on an AC motor

87. Disconnecting one of the phases from a 3-phase motor will cause the motor to
A. stop
B. run a 2/3 speed
C. run at the same speed

88. Which of the following applications would require a "continuously rated" motor
A. Flap drive actuator
B. Fuel pump motor
C. Cargo door actuator

89. Back-EMF is the greatest when a motor is

A. at operating speed
B. just starting to rotate
C. under heavy load

90. The speed of a single phase induction motor is dependent on

A. the strength of the field
B. the number of pairs of poles
C. the strength of the armature current

91. An A.C. shunt wound motor sometimes uses a volts dropping resistor. The resistor would be
A. in series with the supply
B. in series with the field
C. in series with the armature

92. Motor slip is

9
 A. the percentage of difference in speeds between the stator and rotor fields
B. a shifting of the MNA of the motor
C. a symptom of a weak field

93. The principal characteristic of a synchronous motor is

A. it rotates at a speed that is synchronised with the applied ac current
B. it must have a synchronised 3 phase supply to operate
C. it rotates at a speed that is synchronised with the applied dc current

94. In a DC motor the interpoles are part of the

A. field
B. rotor assembly
C. stator assembly

95. In a resistive/inductive motor

A. the resistor circuit must be disconnected after starting
B. is less efficient than a capacitor start motor
C. can only be used for light loads

96. What part of a DC motor would you find the poles?

A. brushes
B. stator
C. rotor

97. A 3 phase induction motor can be reversed by

A. isolating one phase
B. reversing the rotor connections
C. changing over any two phases

98. The speed of an AC motor can be affected by the

A. field current
B. pairs of poles
C. armature current
D.
99. In a DC motor the compensating windings are part of the
A. field
B. rotor assembly
C. stator assembly

100. An aircraft transformer is needed to step up a voltage. What sort would be used?
A. Air core
B. Laminated core
C. Solid core

101. What is voltmeter used for?

A. To measure the speed of electrons
B. To measure emf's and potential differences

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 C. To measure resistance in the circuit.
102. What is ammeter used for?
A. To measure the emf's and potential differences
B. To measure the current flow
C. To measure the electron leakage

103. What is ohmmeter used for?

A. To measure resistance.
B. To measure the current flow
C. To measure emf's and potential differences
104. The stator speed of an induction motor?
A. Induction motor + rotor speed
B. Induction motor rotor speed
C. Induction motor + 2(rotor speed)
105. The primary winding of a 3 phase-voltage
A. Delta wound
B. Star wound
C. Could be either delta wound or star wound
106. The internal resistance of a battery off load compared to on load is
A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. Same
107. When light hits a photodiode resistance
A. increases
B. decreases
C. stays the same
108. To find the internal resistance of a battery in a circuit of known current
A. use the formula R = V x I
B. find the lost volts of the circuit
C. find the EMF of the circuit
109. The electrolyte level of a ni-cad battery
A. falls during discharge
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 B. falls during charge
C. rises during discharge
110. A thermocouple is basically a type of
A. milliammeter
B. millivoltmeter
C. miliohmeter

111. In a voltaic cell, what is the build-up on the cathode called?

A. Polarization
B. Sulphation
C. Hydration
112. A light / heat sensitive cell is a
A. transducer
B. diode
C. transistor
113. An A.C. shunt wound motor sometimes uses a volts dropping resistor. The resistor would be
A. in series with the supply
B. in series with the field
C. in series with the armature
114. To increase the speed of a shunt motor a resistance is placed
A. in series with the armature
B. in parallel with the field
C. in series with the field
115. A series motor draws a high current on start, and then the current reduces. This is due to
A. the resistance of the field and the armature in series
B. the back EMF
C. the resistance of the field and armature in parallel
116. A DC shunt motor has 28 volts applied. The current taken from the armature of 2 ohms resistance
is 1 amp. The BEMF is
A. 30 V
B. 27 V
C. 26 V
117. In a DC shunt motor, if the field resistance is increased what happens to the back EMF?
A. increases
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 B. decreases
C. remains the same
118. The earth is a reference point and considered being at _volts
A. 0
B. 1
C. -1

119. Sensitive instrument for detecting current is called a

A. Galvanometer
B. Ammeter
C. Ohmmeter
120. On aircraft, Wheatstone bridge circuits are used for the measurement of
A. Temperature, pressure, current flow, potential difference
B. Potential difference, positions, current flow, pressure
C. Pressure, temperature, positions, quantities
121. A starter generator has
A. Low resistance series field and low resistance field
B. Low resistance series field and a high resistance shunt field
C. High resistance series field and a low resistance shunt field
122. Which is incorrect? The size of the generated emf depends on
A. The strength of the magnetic field
B. The linear velocity of the conductor
C. The effective length of the inductor in the field
123. What is the rotating part of the machine in the generator?
A. Magnetism motor
B. Rotor and armature
C. Armature
124. As the loop rotates an emf is induced in
A. one side of the conductor
B. Both sides of the conductor
C. Non
125. A convectional aircraft generator will be
A. delta wound
B. star wound
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 C. series wound
126. Armature reaction in a DC generator causes
A. MNA to move in direction
B. MNA to move in opposite direction
C. GNA to move in opposite direction

127. If there was a mainly inductive load on an AC generator, the voltage with respect to the current would
A. lead
B. lag
C. in phase
128. On a brushless AC generator, the permanent magnet generator output is
A. DC
B. AC
C. pulsed
129. The output from a rotating armature AC generator would be taken from
A. the rotor
B. the stator
C. either the rotor or the stator
130. A frequency wild AC generator system has
A. variable voltage and frequency
B. variable frequency only
C. variable voltage only
131. A DC generator armature has 6 poles and is lap wound. The number of brushes required are
A. 6
B. 2
C. 3
132. In a generator system, a stabilizing winding is used
A. in series with the field to prevent oscillations
B. to prevent voltage overshoot
C. to control output current
133. In a an AC motor, the rotation of the MNA
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 A. is the same as the rotation of the armature
B. is opposite to the rotation of the armature
C. is slightly less speed than the rotation of the armature
134. Form Factor for a sine wave AC output is
A. 0.707
B. 1.414
C. 1.1
135. If the supply to a DC shunts motor was reversed
A. it would rotate in the opposite direction
B. it would fail to run
C. it would rotate in the same direction

136. . Slip on a synchronous motor on start is

A. 0%
B. 50%
C. 100%

137. A shaded pole motor has shaded poles to

A. increase efficiency
B. create a rotating field
C. reduce interference

138. In a 2 phase induction motor the control winding is fed with

A. variable phase AC supply
B. fixed AC supply
C. variable amplitude supply only

139. A 3 phase induction motor can be reversed by

A. isolating one phase
B. reversing the rotor connections
C. changing over any two phases

140. The speed of an AC motor can be affected by the

A. field current
15
 B. pairs of poles
C. armature current

141. An AC motor which rotates at the same speed as the supply frequency is called
A. a universal motor
B. an induction motor
C. a synchronous motor
142. in a DC motor, B-EMF rises if the motor
A. speed rises
B. speed falls
C. load rises

143. The back EMF in a DC motor is

A. equal to the applied EMF
B. less than the applied EMF
C. greater than the applied EMF

144. In a motor, armature reaction causes the MNA to move

A. in the direction of rotation
B. against the direction of rotation
C. to the GNA

145. A circuit with good selectivity will have

A. a large bandwidth
B. a narrow bandwidth
C. a low L/C ratio

146. in a synchronous motor, when the motor is running the slip is

A. 100%
B. 5%
C. 0%

147. In a two-phase induction motor there are

A. 2 poles
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 B. 3 poles
C. 4 poles

148. What part of a DC motor would you find the poles?

A. brushes
B. stator
C. rotor
149. The speed of a single phase induction motor is dependent on
A. the strength of the field
B. the number of pairs of poles
C. the strength of the armature current

150. Motor slip is

A. the percentage of difference in speeds between the stator and rotor fields
B. a shifting of the MNA of the motor
C. a symptom of a weak field

151. The principal characteristic of a synchronous motor is

A. it rotates at a speed that is synchronised with the applied ac current
B. it must have a synchronised 3 phase supply to operate
C. it rotates at a speed that is synchronised with the applied dc current

152. In a DC motor the interpoles are part of the

A. field
B. rotor assembly
C. stator assembly

153. A shunt motor

A. gives constant torque with variations in speed
B. is constant speed
C. has high starting torque

154. A simple basic induction motor has

A. poor starting torque, good running torque
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 B. good starting torque, poor running torque
C. poor starting torque, poor running torque

155. What happens if you reverse the supply to the field and armature of a DC shunt motor?
A. Reverses direction of rotation
B. Continues to rotate in same direction
C. Fails to start
156. Back-EMF is the greatest when a motor is
A. at operating speed
B. just starting to rotate
C. under heavy load

157. Which of the following applications would require a "continuously rated" motor
A. Flap drive actuator
B. Fuel pump motor
C. Cargo door actuator

158. Disconnecting one of the phases from a 3-phase motor will cause the motor to
A. stop
B. run a 2/3 speed
C. run at the same speed

159. The type of motor used in a linear actuator is

A. compound
B. series
C. parallel (shunt wound)

160. Carbon has a

A. negative temperature coefficient
B. positive temperature coefficient
C. temperature coefficient of zero

161. What is function of actuators?

A. Cooling system for aircraft, fuel delivery, propeller feathering
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 B. Cargo door operation, Heat exchanger control flap operating, landing flap operation
C. Gyroscope operation, servo control

162. What is function of control valves?

A. A.Hot&cold air mixing for airconditioning and thermal de-icing, fuel shut off
B. B.Fuel delievery, propeller feathering, de-icing fluid delievery, and hydraulic fluid
C. C.Gyroscope operation, servo control

163. What is function of pumps?

A. Hot&cold air mixing for air conditiong and thermal de-icing, fuel shut off
B. Fuel delievery, propeller feathering, de-icing fluid delievery,and hydraulic fluid
C. Gyroscope operation, servo control

164. How many terminal networks designed in filter circuit?

A. 2
B. 3
C. 4

165. What is not main form of filter circuit?

A. Low pass
B. Bandstop
C. Bandstand

166. A filter that passes all frequency component between some low cut-off frequency Fc1 , and some high
cut-off frequency fc2 and blocks all frequencies below fc1 and above fc2 is called
A. Band Stop filter
B. Band Pass Filter
C. Band Filter

167. Differentiator circuit (CR) consisting of Capacitor C, and Resistor R can be used for _________filter and
with the position of C and R changed into Integrator circuit (RC) it can be used as _______________filter.
A. High pass, low pass
B. Low pass, high pass
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 C. Band pass, bandstop

168. What is low pass filter?

A. Passes all frequencies below cut-off
B. Passes all frequencies above cut-on
C. Passes frequencies within a limited band but blocks all frequencies above and below the band.

169. What is high pass filter?

A. Passes all frequencies below cut-off
B. Passes all frequencies above cut-on
C. Passes frequencies within a limited band but blocks all frequencies above and below the band.

170. What is band stop filter?

A. Block all frequencies with a certain band
B. Block all frequencies
C. Pass all frequencies above cut on

171. To reduce eddy currents in a transformer you would

A. reduce the thickness of laminations in the magnetic core
B. increase the thickness of laminations in the magnetic core
C. reduce the number of turns on the primary winding

172. A transformer has an input of 400V and a ratio of 2:1. If the transformer is delta / star wound, what will
the line voltage output be?
A. 115V
B. 200V
C. 346V

173. A Transformer with 115v primary voltage and a ratio of 5:1 is supplying a landing light (load 24v 45 amps)
is used, what is the current drawn?
A. 205 amps
B. 9 amps
C. 4.5 amps

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174. A Transformer has 4500 secondary turns and 750 primary turns. Its turns ratio is
A. 1:6
B. 6:1
C. 1/6

175. The primary winding of a 3-phase transformer

A. Is delta wound
B. Is star wound
C. Could be either delta or star wound

176. In a transformer, if the rate of change of current increases, the mutual inductance will
A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. Remain the same

177. A 4:1 step down transformer draws 115 V and 1 A. The output power will be
A. 28.5 V at 4 A
B. 28.5 V at 16 A
C. 460 V at 0.25 A

178. The secondary coil of a transformer has 1500 turns and 10 resistance. The primary coil has 1 k
resistance. How many turns does the primary coil have?
A. 15,000
B. 150,000
C. 1,500,000

179. In a star wound primary transformer, how could you wind the secondary winding?
A. Star only
B. Delta only
C. Either delta or star
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180. A step up transformer has
A. one winding
B. two windings
C. three windings

181. In a transformer core loss is 200 W and copper loss is 220W at no load.
What is the core loss at full load?
A. 200 W
B. 220 W
C. 0 W

182. The secondary winding of a transformer has an impedance of 10 ohms and 1500 turns. For the primary
winding to have an impedance of 1 k ohm, how many turns must it have?
A. 15,000
B. 150,000
C. 1,500,000

183. Eddy currents in a transformer core are reduced by

A. Decreasing the thickness of the laminates
B. Increasing the thickness of the laminates
C. Making the core from a solid block

184. 150. Transformer copper loss on full load is 220 Watts. On half load the loss will be
A. A.110 Watts
B. 440 Watts
C. 55 Watts

185. How can it be determined if a transformer winding has some of its turns shorted together?
A. Measure the input voltage with an ohmmeter
B. The transformer will get hot in normal operation
C. The output voltage will be high
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186. The basis for transformer operation in the use of alternating current is mutual
A. Reactance
B. Inductance
C. Capacitance

187. What is the ratio of turns between the primary coil winding and the secondary coil winding of a
transformer designed to triple its input voltage?
A. primary will have three times as many turns as its secondary
B. primary will have twice as many turns as its secondary
C. primary will have one-third as many turns as its secondary

188. Why are the iron cores of most transformer coils laminated?
A. To reduce the effects of eddy currents
B. To increase the core permeability
C. To reduce the core reluctance

189. A transformer should always have its

A. Secondary open circuit or on load
B. Secondary shorted or on load
C. Primary shorted or off load

190. Which of the following would be used to calculate transformer turns ratio?
A. primary turns secondary turns
B. primary turns secondary turns
C. secondary turns primary turns

191. 158. In an A.C circuit, what happens if frequency is reduced?

A. A.Capacitive elements may be damaged
B. Inductive elements may be damaged
C. There will be no effect

192. The voltage in a transformer secondary coil that contains twice as many loops as the primary coil will be
23
 A. less and the amperage greater than in the primary coil
B. greater and the amperage greater than in the primary coil
C. greater and the amperage less than in the primary coil

193. In transformer operation, hysteresis losses are

A. current overcoming coil resistance
B. induced current in the iron core
C. energy wasted in reversing core magnetization

194. A transformer with a 5:1 ratio has a 26V output. What is the input
A. 120 V DC
B. 4.8 V AC
C. 130 V AC

195. Copper losses in a transformer are caused by

A. Cirrculating currents through the transformer
B. The resistance in the windings
C. wasting of the copper wires due to friction

196. In an A.C circuit, what happens if frequency is reduced?

A. Capacitive elements may be damaged
B. Inductive elements may be damaged
C. There will be no effect

197. A Transformer with 115v primary voltage and a ratio of 5:1 is supplying a landing light (load 24v 45 amps)
is used, what is the current drawn?
A. 205 amps
B. 9 amps
C. 4.5 amps

198. A Transformer has 4500 secondary turns and 750 primary turns. Its turns ratio is
A. 1:6
B. 6:1
C. 1/6
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199. A transformer is built with a material having a
A. narrow hysteresis loop
B. wide hysteresis loop
C. high coercive force

200. An autotransformer windings are

D. on separate formers
E. connected
F. wired in parallel

201. What voltage can the neutral line carry in a star transformer?
G. Combined line voltages
H. Zero voltage
I. Phase voltage

202. A transformer to supply a 24V load with a 5:1 turn's ratio will have what primary supply?
A. 120 VDC
B. 48 VAC
C. 4.8 V

203. A transformer has 2000V, 500 turns on the primary and 50 turns on the secondary. What would be the
line voltage if the transformer were Delta/Star connected?
A. 200V
B. 346V
C. 450V

204. Eddy current losses in a transformer are

A. current
B. current flow induced into the core
C. hysteresis losses

205. A 3-phase star-delta wound transformer gives

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 A. 90 phase shift
B. no phase shift
C. 30 phase shift

206. An aircraft transformer is needed to step up a voltage. What sort would be used?
A. Air core
B. Laminated core
C. Solid core

207. In a 4:1 step-up transformer, 120V is applied to the primary, and the load on the secondary is 1600 Ohms.
What is the current in the primary?
A. 0.075A
B. 1.2A
C. 3A

208. A 10:1 step up power transformer has 120 V, and 3A flowing through the primary, and 0.285 A flowing
through the secondary what is the efficiency?
A. 90%
B. 95%
C. 85%

209. Aircraft autotransformers are of what type

A. Open core
B. Twin core
C. Laminated core

210. Decreasing the field current in a shunt motor will

A. increase speed and decrease torque
B. increase speed and increase torque
C. decrease speed and increase torque

211. 223. How many mechanism are used on DPST

A. one

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 B. two

C. not mentioned

212. Fault diverters are basically

A. circuit breaker

B. fast switches

C. fuses

213. In a single bus-bar system there will be complete shut down when

A. two or more faults occur simultaneously

B. fault occurs on the bus itself

C. fault occurs on neutral line

214. Oil switches are employed for

A. Low voltage circults

B. all circults

C. high voltages and large currents circuit

215. Bus coupler is very essential in arrangement

A. main and transfer bus

B. double bus, double breaker

C. all of that above

216. How to classify switches?

A. arrangement of their contacts

B. number of holes and poles

C. range of voltage of current for operation

217. What is the meaning the number of separated switches controlled by a single physical actuator?

A. number of terminals

B. number of wires

C. number of poles

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218. How many pair of contacts a single-throw switch has?

A. two pairs

B. one pair

C. no pair

219. What is not true in the statements?

A. In the simplest case, a switch has two conductive pieces.

B. When the contacts are contacted to flow the currents, it called `open'

C. The terms of pole and throw are also used to describe switch contact variations.

220. What is the abbreviation of SPDT?

A. Single pole single throw

B. Single pole Double transform

C. Single pole Double throw

221. Normally how many states are in switch?

A. two

B. one

C. three

222. What is the true statement in below statements?

A. An ideal switch would have no voltage drop when closed

B. Switches are only operated for driving mechanism remotely

C. Ideal switche has so accurate solution in circuit that it is used on large networks of switch

223. Which device is not electrical switch?

A. circuit breaker

B. toggle switch

C. capacitor

224. How to turn-on and turn-off the toggle switch?

A. by rotating

B. by pusing

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 C. by fliping

225. Which part does not use switch on below statements?

A. computer keyboard

B. bending machine

C. heating process

226. Thermostat is operated by process of

A. pressure

B. current

C. heat

227. Find the process that is not used to operate switch

A. current

B. frequency

C. voltage

228. The switch operated by pushing is called

A. momentary

B. toggle

C. microswitch

229. The two conductive pieces which switch has is called

A. gap

B. contacts

C. diode

230. What is purpose of a switch?

A. To smoothen the curent

B. Interrupt the flow of current to the component it controls.

C. Combine the electrons leaving the circuit

231. Which switch was 1 of the most popular type of switch in aircraft in the past few years?

A. Rotary switch

B. Toggle switch

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 C. Rocker switch

232. Precision switches generally known by the trade name

A. Microswitch

B. AP switch

C. Rotary switch

233. What is the characteric of precision switch?

D. Required strong force to operate.

E. Required only a slight movement to operate

F. Required current flow

234. What kind of switch can control a high current?

A. Solenoid

B. Relay

C. Solenoid and relay

235. How many types in exterior lights in aircraft lighting system?

A. 3

B. 4

C. 5

236. In general, increasing the cross sectional area of an electrical cable

A. enables it to carry more current

B. enables it to carry more voltage

C. increases its resistance

237. The line voltage from a generator with a delta type connection will be
A. higher than the phase voltage
B. lower than the phase voltage
C. the same as the phase voltage
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238. On a linear actuator, the field cut-off coil will be energized when
A. the actuator is running
B. the actuator is not running
C. only as the actuator commences movement

239. An aircraft battery on charge from the aircraft generators causes

A. internal resistance of the battery to decrease in sympathy with the decreasing charging current
B. battery voltage to increases to nominal voltage and the charge current decreases
C. battery voltage to decrease to zero until it is fully charged

240. An advantage of a star connected generator over a delta connected generator is

A. a balance load is guaranteed
B. two potentials are available
C. the line and phase voltages are equal

241. Generator brushes are normally made of

A. carbon
B. brass
C. steel

242. As the generator load is increases (within its rated capacity), the voltage will
A. remain constant and the amperage output will decrease
B. decrease and the amperage output will increase
C. remain constant and the amperage output will increase

243. The quill drive on an aircraft generator

A. makes possible the use of roller bearings at the drive end
B. damps out vibrations
C. damps out any commutator ripple

244. The exciter winding in a brushless AC generator is supplied with electrical power from
A. permanent magnets
B. the busbar
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 C. a rotating generator integrally mounted on the same shaft as the AC windings

245. An AC generator's frequency will

A. always be constant regardless of the generators drive speed
B. vary with changes in field strength
C. be proportional to the RPM at which it is driven

246. A frequency wild AC generator is used for

A. instruments and navigation
B. de-icing loads
C. any AC load

247. Which of the following is not one of the purposes of interpoles in a generator?
A. Reduce field strength
B. Overcome armature reaction
C. Reduce arcing at the brushes

248. To reverse the direction of a series motor

A. the direction of the current through the field is reversed
B. a second series field is fitted
C. the direction of the current through the field and the armature is reversed

249. How many cycles of AC voltage are produced in a six-pole alternator of the revolving-field type, with
each revolution of the rotor?
A. Four
B. Six
C. Three

250. The variable frequency output from an AC generator is used for

A. supplying non-inductive loads
B. the AC supply instead of using inverters
C. driving AC operated instruments

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251. The current consumed by a DC starter motor will
A. remain relatively constant over the starting speed range
B. increase as the engine speed increases
C. decrease as the engine speed increases

252. How are generators rated?

A. Impedance at rated voltage
B. Amperes at rated voltage
C. Watts at rated voltage

253. In a single phase AC generator, frequency is determined by

A. the generator speed
B. controlling the current flow through the voltage field windings
C. the number of pairs of poles

254. What polarity do interpoles take in a DC motor?

A. The same as the next main pole behind in the direction of rotation
B. Either, provided they lay on the MNA
C. The same as the next main pole ahead in the direction of rotation

255. On a typical AC generator the output is taken

A. direct from the rotor via slip rings
B. direct from the exciter
C. direct from the stator windings

256. Since electrical supplies taken from a bus-bar are in parallel, isolating some of the services would
A. reduce the current consumption from the bus-bar
B. increase the current consumption from the bus-bar
C. not affect the current consumption, it would reduce the voltage

257. What is the principal advantage of the series-wound dc motor?

A. Low starting torque
B. Suitable for constant speed use
C. High starting torque
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258. An aircraft transformer is needed to step up a voltage. What sort would be used?
A. Air core
B. Laminated core
C. Solid core

259. What is the meaning of DPDT Switch?

A. Double pole double throw
B. Double pole single throw
C. Single pole double throw

260. What does this symbol represent?

A. Ground
B. Chassis Ground
C. Signal Ground

261. The value of the deflection on the galvanometer _____ directly as the velocity of relative motion of the
coil and the magnet
A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. No change

262. Inserting the North Pole of the magnet gives an opposite deflection to that when the ______ is inserted
A. North Pole
B. South Pole
C. No pole

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263. The use of a more powerful magnet gives a _____ deflection
A. Weaker
B. No change
C. Stronger

264. If the coil is replaced by one having a greater number of turns a _____ deflection is obtained.
A. Lesser
B. No change
C. Greater

265. To find the direction of the induced emf what rule is used?
A. Ohm's law
B. Flemming's right hand rule
C. Flemming's left hand rule

266. What is the function of commutator?

A. To transfrer voltage from the rotating loop to internal circuit
B. To transfer current from the rotating loop to external circuit
C. To transfer current from the rotating loop to internal circuit

267. What is the rotating component, which carries the loops and commutator is called?
A. Rotor
B. Motor
C. Armature

35