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For each of the words in Capital letters, choose from among the

answers, the word that is closest in meaning:

1. GAUCHE

(A) grotesque (B)tactful (C) rightful (D)fashionable (E)inane

2. DIATRIBE

(A) medley (B)dilemma (C)afterthought (D)rebuttal (E)praise

3. GAINSAY

(A) estimate (B)corroborate (C)forfeit (D) expend (E)neglect

4. PROLIXITY

(A) Proximity (B) disinclination (C) circuitousness (D) extremity (E)


terseness

5. AVID

(A) veracious (B)forgetful (C)insignificant (D)turgid (E)loath

6. REPINE

(A) endure grudgingly (B)maintain composure (C) express satisfaction


(D)arouse hostility (E) attract attention

7. SALIENCE

(A) insipidity (B)immutability (C)incongruity (D)intransigence


(E)inconspicuousness

8. SEDATE

(A) unify (B)immunize (C)recuperate (D)stimulate (E)injure

9. APATHETIC

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(A) healthy (B)sincere (C)enthusiastic (D)untroubled (E)hasty

10.DISLODGE

(A) restore (B)secure (C)wander (D)transport (E)anticipate

For each of the words in Capital letters, choose from among the
answers, the closest word that has the opposite meaning:

(11) REPUDIATE

(A) hesitant (B) neutrality (C) admit (D) polite (E) incongruity

(12) PRISTINE

(A) genial (B) sullied (C) evident (D) imaginative (E) proximity

(13) CONCEDE

(A) please (B) apathy (C) withstand (D) considerate (E) disguise

(14) PLACATE

(A) enrage (B) administer (C) record (D) variegated (E) fertilize

(15) POPULAR

(A) treacherous (B) glossy (C) vivid (D) multiply (E) uncommon

(16) FELICITOUS

(A) necessary (B) muggy (C) spatial (D) inopportune (E) unnamed

(17) AUSTERE

(A) swindle (B) lavish (C) global (D) myopic (E) nascent

(18) WASTREL

(A) proximity (B) hesitant (C) dottish (D) miser (E) apathy
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(19) TEMPERATE

(A) inordinate (B) resolution (C) ambitious (D) apologize (E) heat

(20) NEBULOUS

(A) restore (B) distinct (C) wander (D) transport (E) anticipate

Read the following text. The passage contains some blank spaces.
Choose the sentence from the list A – I, that best fits in each of the blank
spaces. The numbers in brackets refer to Question numbers.

Observe the dilemma of the fungus; it is a plant, but it is a plant, but is


possesses no chlorophyll. While all other plants put the sun’s energy to work
for them combining the nutrients of ground and air into the body structure
the chlorophyll ___D_____ . It finds it in those other plants which, having
received their energy free from the sun, relinquish it ____G____.

In, this search for energy the fungus has become the earth’s major source
of rot and decay. Wherever you see mold forming on a piece of bread, or a
pile of leaves turning to compost, or a bloom down tree becoming pulp on
the ground, ----A-----. With the fungus action the earth would be poled high
with ____F_____.

In fact, certain plants which contain resigns that are ___I____ specimen
of the redwood, for the instance, can still be found ___B____

A. You are watching a fungus eating


B. Resting on the forest floor centuries after having been brown down,
C. Responsible for the decomposition of much plant life
D. Fungus must look else where form an energy supply
E. Cannot produce their own store of energy.
F. The dead plant life of past centuries
G. At some point in their cycle either to animal or to fungi
H. Fungus is vastly different from other plants.
I. Toxic fungi will last indefinitely.
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The mental health movement in the United States began with a period of
considerable enlightenment. Dorothea Dix was chocked to find the mentally
ill in jails and almshouses and crusaded for the establishment of asylums in
which people could receive humane care in hospital-like environment and
treatment, which might help restore them to sanity. Bu the mid 1800s, 20
states had established asylums, but during the late 1800s and early 1900s, in
the face of economic depression, legislatures were unable to appropriate
sufficient funds for decent care. Asylums became overcrowded and prison-
like. Additionally, patients were more resistant to treatment than the
pioneers in the mental health field had anticipated patients and other. Mental
institutions became frightening and depressing places in which the rights of
patients were all but forgotten.

These conditions continued until after World War II. At that time,
new treatments were discovered for some major mental illnesses therefore
considered untreatable (Penicillin for syphilis of the brain and insulin
treatment for schizophrenia and depressions), and a succession of books,
motion pictures and newspaper exposes called attention to the plight of the
mentally ill. Improvements were made, and Dr. David Vail’s Humane
Practices. Program is a beacon for today. But changes were slow in coming
until the early 1960s at that time, the Civil Rights movement led lawyers to
investigate America’s prisons, which were disproportionately populated by
blacks, and they in turn followed prisoners into the only institution that were
worse than the prisons-the hospital for the criminally insane. The prisons
were filled with angry young men who encouraged by legal support, were
quick to demand their rights. The hospitals for the criminally insane, by
contrast, were populated with people who were considered “crazy” and who
were often kept obediently in their place through the use of server bodily
restraints and large doses of major tranquilizers. The young cadre of public
interest lawyers liked their role in the mental hospitals. The lawyers found
population that was both passive and easy to champion. These were, after
all, people who, unlike criminals, had done nothing wrong. And in many
states, they were being kept in horrendous institutions, an injustice, which
once exposed, was bound to shock the public and, particularly, the judicial
conscience. Patient’s rights group’s successfully encouraged reform by
lobbying in state legislatures.

Judicial interventions have had some definite positive effects, but


there is growing awareness that courts cannot provide the standards and the
review mechanisms that assure good patient care. The details of providing
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day-to day care simply cannot be mandated by a court, so it is time to take
from the courts the responsibility for delivery of mental health care and
assurance of patient right and return it to the state mental health
administrators to whom the mandate was originally given. Though it is
difficult task, administrators must undertake to write rules and standards and
to provide the training and surveillance to assure that treatment is given and
patient rights are respected.

(27) The main purpose of the passage is to

A. discuss the influences of Dorothea Dix on the mental health


movement
B. provide an historical perspective on problems of mental health care
C. increase public awareness of the plight of the mentally ill
D. shock the reader with vivid descriptions of asylums
E. describe the invention of new treatments of mental illness

(28) According to the passage, which of the following contributed to the


deterioration of the asylum system

I. Lack of funds to maintain the asylums


II. Influx of more patients than the system was designed to handle
III. Lack of effective treatments for many mental illnesses.

A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. I an III only
E. I, II and III

(29). It can be inferred from the passage that which of the following factors
contributed to post-was reform of state mental institutions?

I Heightened public awareness of the unacceptable conditions in the


institutions
II. Discovery of effective treatments for illnesses previously
considered
untreatable
III. Attempts by state legislatures to improve conditions in mental
institutions

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A.I only
B.III only
C.I and II only
D.II an III only
E.I,II and III

(30) The author’s attitude towards people who are patients in state
institutions can best be described as

A. inflexible and insensitive


B. detached and neutral
C. understanding and sympathetic
D. enthusiastic and supportive
E. uncaring and unemotional

(31) The passage provides information that would help answer all of the
following questions EXCEPT

A. Who are some people who have had an important influence on the
public health movement in the United States?
B. What were some of mental illness that were considered untreatable
until the 1950s?
C. What were some of the new treatments for mental illness that were
adopted in 1950s?
D. What were some of the most important legal cases that
contributed to the new concern for patient’s rights?
E. What effect did the Civil Rights movement has on the rights of
prisoners?

(32) It can be inferred from the passage that, had the Civil Rights
movement not prompted an investigation of prison conditions.

A. States would never have established asylums for the mentally ill.
B. New treatments for major mental illness would have likely
remained untested
C. The Civil Rights movement in America would have been
politically ineffective
D. Conditions in mental hospitals might have escaped judicial
scrutiny
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E. Many mentally ill prisoners would have been transferred from
hospitals back to prisons
PART II

Q1. Fill in the missing number in the sequence


1 2 5 ?? 27 58

(a) 25 (b) 21 (c) 12 (d) 15 (e) 18

Q2. In the following series, how many Ws are there such that each W is
followed by an F next to it if the F is not followed by a D next to it?

W F W D Q M W F D M F W F F W Q
M W W

F Q W F D F W A M F W F M

(a) 3 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 4 (e) 8

Q3. If FHQWUDO is coded as CENTRAL how will TXLFN be coded?


(a) SHEET (b) TRIAL (c) QUICK (d) MIND (e)CIGAR

Q4. Suppose the first and second letters in the word TOTALITARIAN
were interchanged, also the third and fourth letters, the fifth and sixth
etc. Print the letter that would then be the eighth letter counting from
the right.
(a) T (b) I (c) N (d) O (e)
A

Q5. How would the decimal number 348 be represented in a base -6


number System?
(a) 1234 (b) 1433 (c) 1342 (d) 1542 (e)
1654

Q6. What is the largest prime number that can be stored in an 6-bit word
computer?
(a) 51 (b) 61 (c) 65 (d) 57 (e) 67

Q7. If n = 68 x 12 x 51, which of the following is NOT an integer?

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(a) n / 152 (b) n / 144 (c) n /
153
(d) n / 136 (e) n / 102

Q8. Which of the following is a power of 2?

a. 2096 b. 2048 c. 2188


d. 2444 e. 2136

Pick the odd one out

Q9. (a) ORACLE (b) SYBASE (c) INGRESS


(d) DB2 (e) JAVA

Q10. (a) PEOPLE SOFT (b) HTTP (c) WAP


(d) SMTP (e) ARP

Q11. The three numbers in brackets represent the length of the sides of a
triangle. Which of these does not represent a proper triangle?
(a) (7m, 3m, 4m) (b) (4m, 5m, 4m) (c) (4m, 6m, 8m)
(d) (3m, 3m, 3m) (e) (12m, 6m, 8m)

Q12. The three numbers in brackets in each of the following options


represents the number of vertices, the number of edges and the
number of faces respectively. Find out which of these represents a
solid planar cube?
(a) (4,8,8) (b) (8,12,12) (c) (8,12,6) (d) (4,4,6) (e) (12,6,4)

Q13. Which set of data exhibits a higher Standard Deviation?


(a) -3, -3, -3, -3, -3, -3 (b) 3, -3, 3, -3, 3, -3 (c) 3, 0, -3, 3, 0,
-3 (d) 3, 3, 3, 3, 3, 3 (e) 3, 3, 3, 0, 3, 3

The three circles below represent the number of people eating Rice,
Wheat and Corn. Answer the next three questions based on the
diagram

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14
45 49
Rice Wheat
12
16 13

51
Corn

Q14. How many more (or less) people eat Wheat than people who eat Rice?
(a)2 (b)3 (c)1 (d)4 (e)5

Q15. What percentage of people eating Corn also eats Rice but not Wheat?
(a)12.8 (b) 17.4 (c)16.6 (d)18.6 (e)16

Q16. What percentage of total people eats all three items?


(a)9 (b)3 (c)4 (d)5 (e) 6

The figure on the left represents number of dealers for a Company and the
figure on the right depicts region-wise distribution for 1998

140

120 North
12%
100
East
80 8%
Dealers (in "00s)
60 South
55%
40 West
25%
20
0
38881518.doc 1995 1996 1997 1998 1999
Q17. Which year has registered the maximum percentage growth in
dealers?
(a) 1998 (b) 1666 (c) 1994 (d) 1996 (e) 1888

Q18. What is the average number of dealers for 1995-1999?


(a) 7700 (b) 6800 (c) 8800 (d) 4800 (e) 7800

Q19. If 10% of dealers in 1998 left the Company, how many fresh dealers
were made in 1999?
(a) 4500 (b) 4900 (c) 4600 (d) 4400 (e) 5400

Q20. A hypothetical physical quantity is defined as


(Energy X Time X Time) / (Mass X Distance)
In what fundamental units would this quantity be expressed?
(a)Time (b) Power (c) Velocity (d) Distance (e) None

Q21. A can do a job in 6 days and A an B can do it together in 2 days .How


many days will be taken by B to do the job alone?
(a)4 (b)6 (c)8 (d)3 (e)2

Q22. Which of these matrices is singular

12 3 3 5 1 0 10 12
A= B= C= D=
9 2 9 15 0 1 3 4

(a)A (b)B (c)C (d)D (e) None

Q23. Match the following relationships:

(i) Animal – Lion (1) Not a type of


(ii) Bug – Reptile (2) Part of
(iii) Beagle – Dog (3) A type of
(iv) Piston – Engine (4) Superset of
(a) i-3,ii-1,iii-4,iv-2 (b) i-4,ii-1,iii-3,iv-2 (c)i-4,ii-1,iii-2,iv-3
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(d) i-3,ii-2,iii-1,iv-4 (e) i-1,ii-4,iii-3,iv-2

Q24. If @ stands for squaring and + stands for square root what is the value
of
@ @ + (25) - + + @ (16)?
(a)622 (b)623 (c) 621 (d)629 (e)631

Q25. A sequence is defined recursively as


f(0) = -1; f(1) = 1
f(n) = f(n-1) + f(n-2)
What will be the value of f(5)?
(a)4 (b)5 (c)2 (d)3 (e)1

Q26. What curve best suits the following data:

X Y
0.99 0.00001
10.04 1.02
99.98 1.997
1000 3.0
9990 4.004

(a) y = logn x (b) y = log10 x (c) y = ex (d) y = -log10 x (e) y =


- ex

Q27. A Two-dimensional array X(9,7) is stored linearly column-wise in a


computer's memory. Each element requires 2 bytes for storage of the
value. If the first byte address of X (1,1) is 3000, what would be the
last byte address of X (8,5)?
(a) 3243 (b) 3543 (c) 3087 (d) 3452 (e) 4321

Q28. Of the four straight lines A, B, C, D find out which pair forms an
orthogonal set

A: 3x+4y-7 = 0, B: y = -x, C: 4x = 3y+5, D: y = 7x+3


(a) AC (b) AD (c) BC (d) AB (e)BD

Q29. Evaluate the expression

M (737,5) + R (5.8) + T (7.7) - R (3.4) where

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M stands for Modulo arithmetic, R stands for Round-off operation and
T stands for Truncation Operation
(a) 11 (b)13 (c) 12 (d)15 (e)16

Q30. Three independent mechanisms A, B and C have been incorporated


for fuel saving in a car producing respectively 30%, 20% and 10%
efficiency. Assuming that they operate independently, what is the net
fuel efficiency achieved?
(a) 45% (b) 54% (c) 64% (d) 49.6% (e) 44%

Q31. The hourly declination of moon for a given day is as follows:

Hour Declination
2 8o 6’ 43.5”
3 7o 53’ 6.1”
Find the declination of the moon at hour 4.

(a) 8o 22’ 13.5” (b) 7o 56’ 54.5” (c) 9o 46’ 33.5”(d) 7o16’ 12.5” (e) 7o
39’ 28.7”

Q32. What equation best describes the curve shown below:


Y

0 X

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(a)y = tan x (b) y + 3 = x(c)y + x = 0 (d) y = Cos x (e) y = x + 3

Q33. The temperature at Kolkata is given by the function: -t2/6+4t+12


where t is the elapsed time since midnight. What is the percentage rise
(or fall) in temperature between 3.00 PM and 9.00 PM?
(a)28 % (b) 33% (c) -43% (d) -34.7% (e) -44%

Q34. An aircraft takes off from A (72o N Lat, 40o E Long) at 2.00 AM local
time to B (32o N Lat, 50o W Long). If the flying time is 11 hours what
is the local time of landing at B?
(a) 5.40 AM (b) 4.00 AM (c) 7.00 AM (d) 7.40AM (e) 8.00AM

Q35. Fill in the last row of the following Truth Table:

A 0 0 0 0 1 1 1 1
B 0 0 1 1 0 0 1 1
C 0 1 0 1 0 1 0 1
(A ∩ B ) ∪
C

Interpret the resulting bit pattern as an integer in an 8-bit computer and


write the decimal value.
(a) 88 (b) 87 (c) 86 (d) 89 (e) 76

Q36. A file is transferred from one location to another in 'buckets'. The size
of the bucket is 10 kilobytes. The bucket gets filled at the rate of
0.0001 kilobytes per millisecond. The transmission time from sender
to receiver is 10 milliseconds per bucket. After the receipt of the
bucket the receiver sends an acknowledgement that reaches sender in
100 milliseconds. Assuming no error during transmission, write a
formula to calculate the time taken in seconds to successfully
complete the transfer of a file of size N kilobytes.
(a) 10.011 N(b) 10.11 N (c) 11.01 N (d) 11.011 N(e) 10.101 N

Q37. The productivity of a group of workers is given by the function


P(N) = 4000 √N, where N is the total strength. Find the percentage
change in productivity if the strength of the group is increased by 1%.
(a) 0.5% (b) 0.25% (c) 0.75% (d) 1% (e) 2%
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Q38. A power cable is to be run from a power plant on the bank of a river 900
meters wide to a factory that is located 3000 meters downstream on the
opposite bank. If the cost of laying cable under water is Rs. 5 per meter
and that of laying overhead on land is Rs. 4 per meter, find the point
downstream where the cable is to cut across the river.
(a) 450 (b) 1800 (c) 2800 (d) 2100 (e) 2700

END OF PART II

PART III

Read the following passages and answer questions under each passage

(1) Mr. Ramachandran must accommodate seven tour group passengers in


two four-person cabins on the luxury liner ‘ The Southern Princess’. Each
passenger in a cabin must be able to converse with at least one other
passenger, though not necessarily in the same language

A, a Tamilian, also speaks Kannada and Malayalam


B and F are Malayalam and speak only that language.
C, a Tamilian, also speaks Kannada
D and G are Kannadigas and speak only Malayalam
E, a Tamilian, also speaks Malayalam
Malayalis are to share rooms with Kannadigas

1. Which combination of passengers in one of the cabins will result in a


rooming arrangement that satisfies all conditions for both cabins?

(A) B, C, F

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(B) D, E, G
(C) A, D, E, G
(D) C, D, E, G
(E) A, B, C, F

2. Which CANNOT be true, given the conditions as stated?

(I) C cannot room with A


(II) A cabin containing three persons must include A
(III) E must always room with a Malayali

(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) I and III only
(D) II and III only
(E) I, II and III

3. How many combinations of cabin mates satisfy all conditions?

(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) 6

4. If E objects to sharing a cabin with A, with whom can Mr.


Ramachandran place him in order to arrive at an arrangement that
satisfies all conditions?

(I) D and G, with no fourth cabin mate


(II) B and F with no fourth cabin mate
(III) C, D and G

(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) I and III only
(D) II and II only
(E) Neither I, II nor III

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(2) Seven kabbadi players are to be awarded their titles for winning a Inter-
University kabbadi match at a special dinner. The players will be seated on
the dais along one side of a single rectangular table.

Amit and Gurcharan have to leave the luncheon early and so must be seated
at the extreme right end of the table, which is closest to the exit.

Bhaskar will receive the most valuable kabbadi player’s trophy and so must
be in the center chair to facilitate the presentation.

Chandrashekhar and Dilip, who were bitter rivals for the position of center
during the entire kabbadi season, dislike one another and should be seated as
far apart as is convenient.

Ebrahim and Feroze are best friends and want to sit together.

1. Which of the following may not be seated at either end of the table?

(A) Chandrashekhar
(B) Dilip
Gurcharan
(C) Feroze
(D) Amit

2. Which of the following pairs may not be seated together?

(A) Chandrashekhar and Feroze


(B) Bhaskar and Dilip
(C) Ebrahim and Amit
(D) Gurcharan and Dilip
(E) Ebrahim and Chandrashekhar

3. Which of the following pairs may not occupy the seats on either side of
Bhaskar?

(A) Feroze and Dilip


(B) Dilip and Ebrahim
(C) Ebrahim and Gurcharan
(D) Feroze and Chandrashekhar
(E) Ebrahim and Chandrashekhar

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4. If neither Ebrahim nor Dilip is seated next to Bhaskar, how many different
seating arrangements are possible?

(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5

(3) During the Vedic period, in ancient India, only two forms of marriage
were recognized. In Dhrushtanaya marriages, several brothers marry a single
woman, while in Purdanneva marriages, several sisters marry a single man.

Historical records have revealed that all members of a given married group
are regarded as the parents of any children of the marriage. Marriage
between male and female children of the same parents if forbidden.

Erava is a son of Asurya


Gushni is a daughter of Barade
Furtila s a daughter of Chiri
Erava, Furtila, Munar and Nagru have a daughter, Haravi
Erava and Furtila have the same paternal grandmother, Qurati
Asurya and Barade are the only grandfathers of Harava, Chiri, Jariva,
Karava, and Larasik are the only grandmothers of Harava
No one has married more than once; all children were born in wedlock

1. Gushni is a sister of:

(A) Nagru only


(B) Munar only
(C) Erava
(D) Furtila
(E) Erava or Furtila, but not both.

2. Nagru is a sibling of

I. Munar only
II. Munar and Erava
III. Munar and Furtila

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(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) III only
(D) II or III, but not both
(E) Neither I, II nor III

3. One of Qurati’s children may be

(A) Asurya
(B) Chiri
(C) Jariva
(D) Karava
(E) Munar

4. Which of the following is an offspring of a Purdanneva marriage

(A) Haravi
(B) Erava
(C) Asurya
(D) Barade
(E) Jariva

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