DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

T.B.C. : BDMHH-N-NFA Test Booklet Series

Serial No. TEST BOOKLET

.66813 MECHANICAL ENGINEERING
Paper 1 A
1ime Allowed : Two Hours Maximum Marks : 200

INSTRUCTIONS
I. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD
CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR
MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST
BOOKLET.
2. PLEASE NOTE THAT IT IS THE CANDIDATE'S RESPONSffiiLITY TO ENCODE AND FILL
IN THE ROLL NUMBER AND TEST BOOKLET SERIES CODE A, B, C OR D CAREFULLY
AND WITHOUT ANY OMISSION OR DISCREPANCY AT THE APPROPRIATE PLACES
IN THE OMR ANSWER SHEET. ANY OMISSION/DISC REPANCY WILL RENDER THE
ANSWER SHEET LIABLE FOR REJECTION.
3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test
Booklet in the Box provided alongside. DO NOT
write anything else on the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 120 items (questions). Each item comprises four responses (answers),
You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case, you feel that
there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any
case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
5. You have to mark your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See dire<;tions in
the Answer Sheet.
6. All items carry equal marks.
7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet,
you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your
Admission Certificate.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has
concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take
away with you the Test Booklet.
9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10. Penalty for wrong Answers :
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which
a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third (0,33) of the marks a5sigued
to that question will be deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as wrong answer even if one
of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that
question.
(iii) If a question is left blank i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty
for that question.
DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

www.examrace.com
 1. Along the 'triple line' in a pv diagram
showing all three phases of water, which
one of the following statements is
correct?
(a) A substance has the same pressure
and temperature but different
specific volume .
(b) A substance has same temperature
and specific volume but different
pressure
(c) A substance has same specific
volume and pressure' but different
temperature
(d) A substance has same specific
. volume, pressure and temperature
2. internal energy of a system is dependent
on the following aspects :
1. Molecular weight
2. Molecular structure
3. Degree of molecular activity
Which of the above are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2 only
'
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
3. In a cyclic process, the heat- transfer
+30 J, -50 J, -10 J and +60 J. The
net work for the cyclic process is
(a) 30 Nm
(b) 40 Nm
(c) 50 Nm
(d) 60 1\'m
B-DMHHN-NFA -A
4. A researcher claims that he has
developed an engine, which while
working between source and sink
temperatures of 377C and 27C rejects
only 50% of absorbed heat. What will
his engine be ?
(a) An impossible engine
(b) A Stirling engine
(c) A reversible engine
(d) A practical engine
. 5. A reversible engine works between
temperature limits of 260C and 60C.
To improve the performance, we have to
(a) Raise the source temperature to
300C
(b) Lower the sink temperatUre to 30C
(c) fusulate the engine
(d) None of the above
6. In a real gas equation pv = zRT, depend-
ing on the values of pressure and '
temperature of the real gas, the value
of z
(a) Should always be less than 1
(b) May be less than 1, may be greater
than 1 or equal to 1
(c) Should always be greater than 1
(d) Should always be equal to I
2
www.examrace.com
 7. A system executes a cyclic process 10. An amount of 1000 kJ of heat is_added
during which there are two processes as to a system during a constant pressure
given below : vapourization process at a temperature of
227C. The available energy added to
Q2 = 460 kJ, 2Q1 = -100 kJ, and
1 the system, if the temperature of the
1W2 = 210 kJ surroundings is 27C, is

What will be work interaction in process

2w1? (a) 600 kJ

(a) 100 kJ (b) ' kJ-

500

(b) -210 kJ
(c) 400,kJ
(c) 150 kJ
(d) 300 kJ
(d) -150 kJ

8. For the same compression ratio,: the 11. Consider the following statements :
efficiency of an air standard Otto cycle
IS
L In an ideal gas, there are no inter
molecular forces of attraction and
(a) More than the efficiency of an air
repulsion.
standard Diesel cycle .

(b) Less than the efficiency of an air 2. At very low pressure, all gases
standard Diesel cycle t and "apours approach ideal gas
behaviour.
(c) Equal to the efficiency of an au
standard Diesel cycle
.. 3. Enthalpy of an ideal gas depends
(d) None of the above only on temperature.

9. A Camot engine operates between 37C Which of the above statements are
and 347C. If the engine produces correct?
620 kJ of work, the entropy change
during heat addition is (a) I, 2 and 3

(a) I kJ/K
(b) and 2 only
(b) 2 kJ/K
I and 3 only
(c) 3 kJ/K

(d) 4 kJ/K (d) 2 and 3 only

3 A - B-DMHH-N-NFA
www.examrace.com
12. Consider the following statements 14. An Otto cycle has a compression ratio
pertaining to the properties 9f perfect, of 8. If 250 kJ of work is extracted
non reacting gas mixtures : from the cycle, the heat rejected by the
cycle is
I. The total volume of a mixture is the
sum of partial volumes at the same (a) 500 kJ
pressure and temperature.
(b) 44269.kJ
2. The entropy of a mixture of gases
is the same as ihe entropies of ihe
constituents. (c) 3314 kJ

3..The total. pressure of a mixture of (d) 192-69 kJ

gases is the sum of the partial
pressures of the substances.
15. In an engine working on air standard
4. The mole fraction of a mixture of Stirling cycle the temperature at the
gases is equal to both pressure and beginning of isothermal compression is
volume fraction. 127C. The engine thermal efficiency is
50%. The specific heat of air at constant
Which of the above statements is/are volume is Cv. The heat transferred to
correct? the regenerator is

(a) 1,2,.3and4 (a) 200 Cv kJ /kg

(b) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 300 Cv kl!kg

(c) 1, 2 and 4 only

(c) 400 Cv kJ/kg
(d) ':3 and 4 only
(d) 500 Cv kJ/kg

13. An inventor claims to have developed a

refrigeration unit which maintains -1 0C 16. An ideal spark ignition engine has a
in the refrigerator which is kept in a compression ratio of 9. What is its Air
room where the surrounding temperature standard efficiency if ratio of specific
is 25C and which COP 8 5. His heats is 1-5?
claim is
(a) 63%
(a) Valid
(b) 67%
(b) Marginally correct
(c) 700/o
(c) Invalid

(d) None of the above (d) 72%

B-DMHH-N-NFA -A 4
www.examrace.com
17. A Carnot heat pump works between 19. Two identical finite bodies of constant
27C and 327C. What will .be its heat capacity at temperatures T 1 and T2
COP? are available to do work in a heat
\ engine. The final temperature Tr
(a) 009 reached by the bodies on delivery of
maximum work is

(b) 100
(a) Tl = 11 +I;
2
(c) 109

(b) 1f = 1i
(d) 20
(c)
'f' ,'
18. Practically it is not feasible to design an
engine which closely foilows the 'Camot
cycle' for the following reasons :

I. Transfer of heat energy at constant 20. Tht:' mechanical efficiency of a single

temperature is very difficult to cylinder four stroke engine is 80%. If
achieve the frictional power is estimated to be
25 kW, the indicated power will be
2. Isentropic processes are very fast (a) 100 kW
processes
(b) 125 kW
3. It makes use of smaller pressure
ratios (c) 150 kW

(d) 175 kW
.4. Thermal efficiency is not a function
of source and sink temperatures
21. A single cylinder four stroke engine
Which of the above reasons are operating at 80% of mechanical effi-
correct? r ciency develops a brake power of 60 kW.
The indicated power and the power lost
due to friction respectively are
(a) I and 2
(a) 40 kW and 15 kW
(b) 2 and 3
(b) 75 kW and 20 kW
(c) 3 and 4
(c) 40 kW and 20 kW

(d) 4 and I (d) 75 kW and 15 kW

5 A - 8-DMBH-N-NFA
www.examrace.com
22. The following reasons. are mentioned 24. In Diesel engines, the control of black
while recommending supercharging for smoke in exhaust can be achieved by :
the engines used in aeroplanes and sub-
I. Running the engine at lower load.
marines: '
2. Maintaining the injection system
I. More volumetric efficiency, better
perfect.
combustion and increased power
output. 3. Using Diesel fuel of higher Cetane
_number.
2. Higher peak pressure, increased
and smaller size. Which of the above statements are
correct?
Which of the above reasons is/ are
correct? (a) I, 2 and 3

(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 2 and 3 only
(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 25. The source of energy which keeps the
sun shining for billions of years is
23. Consider the following statements (a) Combustion of Hydrogen
regarding supercharging of Diesel
engmes: (b) Nuclear fusion of light elements
'
I. The mechanical efficiency of a (c) Nuclear fission of heavy elements
supercharged Diesel engine is (d) Interaction of currents in the interior
slightly better than that of naturally
of the sun with the galactic
aspirated engine. magnetic field
2. There is reduction in smoke in the
case of supercharged engine in the 26. Which one of the following statements
overload operation. is correct?

3. Increased valve overlap is used in - (a) During heating and humidification

supercharged engine. process, humidity ratio decreases

Which of the above statements are (b) During cooling and dehumidification
correct? process, humidity ratio increases

(c) During cooling and dehumidification

(a) 1; 2 and 3
process, dry bulb temperature
(b) 1 and 2 only mcreases

(c) I and 3 only (d) During heating and. humidification

process, dry bulb , temperature
(d) 2 and 3 only increases

B-DMHH-N-NFA - A 6
www.examrace.com
27. A dimensionless quantity that connects 30. A flat wall with a thermal conductivity
the link between velocity flow field and of 02 kW /mK has its inner and outer
the temperature field is surface temperatures 600C and 200C
respectively. If the heat flux through the
(a) Nusselt number wall is 200 kW /m2; what is the thickness
(b) Prandtl number of the wall?

(c) Reynolds number' (a) 10 em

(d) Grashof n.umber (b) 20 em

28. The conduction heat diffuses in a (c) 30 em

material when the material has :
(d) 40 em
I. High thermal conductivity

2. Low density 31. Wjlich of the following ihermodynamic

properties are intensive properties ?
3. High specific heat
I. Density
4. High viscosity
2. Entropy
Which of the above are correct ?
3. Viscosity
(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3 (a) 1, 2 and 3

(c) 3 and 4 (b) . 1 and 2 only

(d) 4 and 1 (c) 2 and 3 only

29; In an equation of Fourier Jaw of heat (d) 1 and 3 only

conduction, heat flow through a body per
. . . dT th . 32. In a concentric . double-pipe heat
umt ttme ts Q = -kA-, e negattve exchanger where one of the fluids
dx
undergoes phase change
sign of k in this equation is to. take care
of (a) The two fluids should flow opposite
to each oiher
(a) Decreasing temperature ah;mg the
direction of increasing thickness (b) The two fluids should flow parallel
(b) Increasing temperature along the to each oiher
direction of increasing thickness
(c) The two fluids should flow normal
(c) Constant temperature along the to each other
direction with constant ihickness
(d) The directions of flow of the two
(d) All of the above fluids are of no consequence

7 A - B-DMHH-N-NFA
www.examrace.com
33. The characteristic length for computing
Grashof number in the case of horizontal
cylinder is
(a) The length of the cylinder
(b) The diameier of the cylinder
(c) The perimeter of the cylinder
(d) The radius of the cylinder
34. For which of these configurations Is a
minimum temperature difference required
for natural convection to set in
(a) Fluid near a heated vertical plate
(b) Fluid near a heated plate inclined at
45 to the vertical
(c) Fluid over a heated horizontal plate
(d) Fluid near a heated cylinder
35. A counter flow shell and tube heat
exchanger is used to heat water with
hot exhaust gases. The water. (c =
4180 J/kg K) flows at the rate of 2 kg/s
and the exhaust gases (c = 1000 J!kg K)
flow at the rate of 5 kg/ s. If the heat
transfer surface area is 32 m2 and the
overall heat _transfer coefficient is
200 W/m2K, the NTU of the heat
exchanger is
(a) 45
(b) 2-4
(c) 86
(d) 1 28
B-DMHH-N-NFA -A
36. In a two-fluid heat exchanger, the inlet
and outlet temperatures of the hot fluid
are 65C and 40C respectively. For tlie
cold fluid, these are l5C and 43C. The
heat exchanger is a
'(a) Parallelflow heat exchanger
(b) Counter flow heat exchanger
(c) Mixed flow heat exchanger
(d) Phase-change heat exchanger
3 7. In a double-pipe heat exc.hanger, the cold
fluid is water with inlet temperature
20C and mass flow rate 20 kg/ s and
the hot fluid water inlet temperature
80C and mass flow rate I 0 kg/ s.
Assume that for water Cp = 4 2 kJ I
kgC, independent ()f temperature. What
is the maximum to which
the cold fluid can be heated in a parallel
flow and in a counter flow heat
exchanger?
(a) 80C in both parallel flow
counter flow
(b) 50C in both parallel flow and
counter flow
(c) 40C in parallel flow and 50C in
counter flow
(d) 40C in parallel flow and 80C in
counter flow
8
www.examrace.com
 38. If a body is at 2000 K, the wavelength 41. For a hemispherical furnace with a flat
at which the body emits maximum circular base of diameter D, the view
amount of radiation is factor from the dome to its base is

(a) 1-45 Jlm (a) 05

(b) 145 em (b)

(c) 0345 em
(c) 0

(d) 0345 Jlln

(d) 032

39. An isothermal cubical (1 0 m x 10 m x

10 m) blackbody at 200C is suspended 42. In a vapour compression refrigeration
in air. The total radiation emitted by this system, the high pressure liquid from the
body to its surroundings will .)Je condenser I receiver is cooled below its
/ saturation temperature to
(a) 17029 kW
(a) Reduce the net work per cycle
. (b) 18007 kW
(b) Reduce the net refrigerating effect
(c) 544 kW
(c) Increase the n_et refrigerating effect
(d) 28381 kW
(d) Reduce the pressure on the high
pressure side
40. A 1 m diameter spherical . cavity is
maintained at a uniform temperature of
500 K. The emissivity of the material of
43. Specific humidity is defined as Mass of
the sphere is 05; One 10 mm diameter
hole is drilled. The maximum rate of
radiant energy streaming through the hole (a) . Water vapour contained in air-
will be vapour mixture per kg of dry air

(a) 2782 W (b) Water vapour contained per kg of

air-vapour mixture
(b) 0139W
(c) Dry air contained per kg of air-
(c) 1392 W vapour mixture

(d) 0278 w (d) None of the above

9 A - B-DMHH-N-NFA

www.examrace.com
44. In an ideal Vapour Compression (a) 30
Refrigeration cycle the enthalpy values at
salient points are as follows :
(b) 45
At inlet to compressor : 1500 kJ /kg
(c) 50
At outlet to compressor: 1800 kJ/kg

(d) . 55
At inlet to evaporator 300 kJ/kg

What is the COP of the cycle? 46. The COP of an ideal refrigerator is N.
If the machine is operated as a heat
(a) 3 pump between the same temperature
limits, its COP will be
(b) 4
(a) N -1
(c) 5

(b) N
(d) 6

(c) N + 1
45.
(d) 2N

4 7. An ideal refrigerator based on reversed

Carnot cycle works -23 C and
+27C. What will be the required power
in kW, if a cooling rate of 15 kW is
desired?

(a) 025 kW

(b) 03 kW

In .the figure shown above, E is the heat

(c) 325 kW
engine with efficiency of 0-4 and R is
the refrigerator. If Q, + Q4 = 3Q 1, the
COP of the refrigerator will be (d) 75 kW

B-DMHH-N-NFA -A 10
www.examrace.com
48. Consider the following functions :
I. Minimizing friction
2. Sealing the gas between suction and
discharge ports
3. As a coolant to transfer heat from
the crankcase to the compressor
shell
50. An air-conditioning system operating on
the reversed Carnot cycle is required to
remove heat from the room at a rate of
25 kW to maintain its temperature
constant at 20C. The temperature of
the surroundings being 35C, the power
required to operate this air-conditioning
system will be
(a) 128 kW

4. To dampen the noise generated by (b) 402 kW

moving parts
(c) 512 j(W
Which of the above functions do lubri-
cants in refrigeration systems perform ? (d) i2-80 kW

(a) I, 2, 3 and 4
51. The pressure inside a soap bubble of
(b) I and 2 only 50 mm diameter is 25 N 1m2 above the
atmospheric pressure. The surface
(c) 2 and 3 only tension in soap film would be

(d) 3 and 4 only (a) Q156N/m

(b) 0312 N/m

49. Consider the following statements for
sensible heating. In this process : (c) 0624 N/m

I. Wet bulb temperature increases (d) 0078 N/m

2. Relative humidity decreases
5.2. A Newtonian fluid is one which
3. Vapour pressure remains cpnstant
(a) is viscous but incompressible
Which of the above statements are .
correct? .(b) has a linear relationship between
the shear stress and the rate of
(a) I, 2 and 3 angular deflection

(b) I and 2 only (c) exhibits an increase in Viscosity with

increasing rate of deformation
(c) I and 3 only
(d) exhibits a decrease in viscosity with
(d) 2 and 3 only increasing rate of deformation

11 A - 8-DMHH-N-NFA
www.examrace.com
53. Unlike the viscosity of liquids, the
viscosity of gases increases with
increasing temperature. Th.is is due to
(a) Increased cohesive force between
the molecules
(b) Increased momentum transfer in the
molecules
...
. (c) Decreased momentum transfer m
the molecules :.
(d) Increase in both cohesive force and
momentum trarisfer
56. Which one of the following statements
is correct?
(a) For a floating body, the stable
equilibrium condition exists when
position of metacentre remains
higher than the centre of gravity of
the body
(b) For a floating body, the stable
equilibrium condition exists when
position of metacentre remains
lower than the centre of gravity of
the body

(c) For a floating body, the neutral

54. Manometer ts a device used for equilibrium condition exists when
measuring position of metacentre remains
higher than the centre of gravity of
the body
(a) Velocity at a point in a fluid

(b) Pressure at a point in a fluid (d) For a floating body, the unstable .
equilibrium condition exists when
position of metacentre remains
(c) Discharge of a fluid
higher than the centre of gravity of
. the body
(d) None of the above

55. When a dolphin glides through air, it 57. A 2-D flow field is defined as
-> -> ->
experiences an external pressure of V = i x - j y. The equation of streamline
075 m of mercury. The absolute passing through the point (1, I) is .
pressure on dolphin when it is 5 m below
the free surface of the water is
(a) xy- 1 = 0
(a) 010 N/mm2
(b) xy +I = 0

(c) xy+2=0
(c) lON/mm2

(d) 015 N/mm2 (d) xy-2 = 0

B-DMHH-N-NFA- A 12
www.examrace.com
58. A flownet is a graphical representation 2. Flow separation takes place due to
of streamlines and equipotential lines adverse pressure gradient when
such that these lines divergence angle is large.

(a) Intersect each other at vanous 3. If the divergence angle is large, a

different angles forming irregular negative pressure is created at the
shaped nets throat which obstructs the flow of
fluid.
(b) Intersect each other orthogonally
Which of the above reasons are
forming curvilinear squares
correct?
,., ) .
(c) Indicate the direction but not magni- (a) I, 2 and 3
tude of vector
(b) I and 2 only
(d) Indicate the direction and magnitude
of vector (c) I and 3 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

59. Which one of the following statements
is correct for the velocity potential ?

61.
(a) Existence of velocity potential is an Vz = 25 m/S
indication of irrotational nature of
/ D 2 =300mm
the flow

(b) The velocity potential automatically

satisfies the continuity equation - V1 =3 m/s

D 1 =450mm

(c) Velocity potential can be defined

only for 2-dimensional flow D 3 =200mm
(d) All of the above

In the above layout of piping, what is the

60. Angle of diverging portion of the venturi- velocity in 200 mm diameter pipe ?
meter is limited to 7, because :
(a) 25 m/s
I. Flow decelerates in the diverging
portion and pressure increases in (b) 555 m/s
the downstream direction. Hence,
the fluid experience an adverse . (c) 725 m{s
pressure gradient, if the divergence
angle is large. (d)- 956 m/s

13 A - B-DMHH-N-NFA
www.examrace.com
62. Bernoulli's equation is applicable between
any two points located in
(a) Rotational flow of an incompressible
fluid
. (b) Irrotational flow of compressible or
incompressible fluid
. (c) Steady, rotational flow of an incom-
pressible fluid
.
(d) Steady, irrotational flow of an
incompressible fluid 65. Consider the
63. Water flows through a smooth circular
pipe of diameter D and length L because
of a pressure difference t'!.P across the
length. The volume flow rate is Q and
the flow is turbulent with Reynolds
number 105. If the pressure difference is
increased to 4 t'!.P the volume flow rate
will be
(a) 2 Q
(b) There is only one normal shock in
the converging part and none in the
diverging part
(c) There is only one normal shock in
the diverging part and none in the
converging part
(d) There are two or more normal
shocks, depending on the pressure
drop, in the diverging part and none
in the converging part
statements
pertaining to boundary layer on 'solid
surfaces:
I. The boundary layer separation takes
place if the pressure gradient ts
zero .
2. The condition of boundary layer
SeparatiOn ay = 0.
. . (au)
IS
y=O

(b) A little more than 2 Q 3. Boundary layer on a flat plate is

laminar if the Reynolds number is
(c) A little less than 2 Q less than 5 x 105 .

(d) 4Q Which of the above statements is/ are

correct?

64. When the pr.essure drop across a (a) I, 2 and 3

converging-diverging nozzle is different
froin the design value for isentropic
(b) I and 2 only
which of the foliov,.ing is possible ?

(a) There is one normal shock in the (c) 2 and 3 only

converging part and one normal
shock in the diverging part (d) I and 3 only

B-DMHH-N-NFA -A 14
www.examrace.com
 '
66. For laminar flow through a round pipe, (c) The friction factor varies inversely
the shear stress with flow Reynolds number

(a) Remains constant over the cross-

(d) No dispersion of die injected into
section
the flow stream
(b) Varies linearly with the radial
distance
69. Laminar flow between closely spaced
(c) Must be zero at all points parallel plates is governed by the
' consideration of which one of the .
(d) Varies parabolically with radial following pair of forces ?
distance
(a) Pressure and inertial forces
67. .
//////// (b) Gravity and inertial forces
Oil
(c) Viscous and inertial forces
Water

/77777 77 (d) Pressure and viscous forces

Consider flow of oil and water through a

70. Across the normal shock, fluid properties
channel; the boundary conditions at the
change in such a manner that the :
interface are

(a) Velocity and shear stress are 1. Velocity of flow is subsonic

continuous
2. Pressure increases
(b). Shear stress is continuous and
velocity is discontinuous
3. Specific volume decreases
(c) Shear stress is zero and velocity is
continuous 4. Temperature decreases
(d) Shear stress is zero
Which of the above are correct ?

68. W'hich one of the following statements is

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
1101 correct in the context of laminar
flow through a pipeline ?
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(a) Shear stress is zero at the centre
and varies linearly with pipe radius (c) 1 and 4 only
(b) Head loss is proportional to square
of the average flow velocity (d) 1, 2 and 3 only

15 A - B-DMHH-N-NFA
www.examrace.com
 71. ln a compressible flow with friction (a) Penstock/Nozzle
choking through a constant area duct
with supersonic flow at inlet, if the pipe (b) Guide vanes/Inlet .of the
'.
rutiner
length is reduced with the same exit
pressure (c) Vanes receiving impact of jet

{a) Exit flow will still be sonic (d) Outlet of the runner /Entrance of
the draft tube
(b) The velocity at exit is subsonic

74. For fully developed laminar flow through

(c) The flow will still be supersonic a circular pipe with Reynolds number Re
the friction factor is
(d) . A shock will appear at the exit
(a) Inversely proportional toRe

72. When a converging-div.,rging nozzle is (b) Proportional to Re

operated at off-design conditions, a
normal shock forms in the diverging (c) Proportional to square of Re
portion. The nozzle can be assumed
to be perfectly insulated from the (d) Independent of Re
surroundings, Then across the shock

{a) The velocity undergoes a jump but 75. Choked flow through an isentropic nozzle
pressure and entropy remam implies :
unchanged
I. Discharge is maximum
(b) The pressure undergoes a jump but
velocity and entropy remain 2. Discharge is zero
unchanged
3. Nozzle exit pressure ,.,; critical
pressure
(c) The velocity and pressure undergo
a jump, but entropy remams
unchanged because there is no heat 4. Mach number at the throat is unity
transfer
Which of the above statements are
correct?
{d) Velocity, pressure and entropy all
undergo a jump
(a) I, 2, 3 and 4

73. Fprmation and collapse of vapour bubbles (b) I, 2 and 3 only

are believed to be the root cause for
cavitations in hydraulic turbines. Most (c) I, 3 and 4 only
favourable condition for the formation of
bubbles is set in the turbines at (d) 2, 3 and 4 only

B-DMHH-N-NFA -A 16

www.examrace.com
76. In a two stage gas turbine plant, with (c) Delivers unit discharge at unit
intercooling and reheating power

(a) Both work ratio and thermal (d) Produces unit power with unit head
efficiency increase available
(b) Work ratio increases but thermal
efficiency decreases 80. Negative slip occurs in reciprocating
pumps, when delivery pipe is
(c) . Therm'a! efficiency increases but
work ratio decreases (a) Long and suction pipe is short and
pump is running at low speed
(d) Both work ratio and thermal
efficiency decrease
(b) Long and suction pipe is short and
pump is running at high speed
77. The ratio of power outlet of the pump to
the power input to the pump is known as (c) Short and suction pipe is long and
pump is running at low speed
(a) Mechanical efficiency
(d) Short and suction pipe is long and
(b) Static efficiency
pump Is running at high speed
(c) Overall efficiency

(d) Manometric efficiency 81. the following statements :

I. The wheel can be operated freely

78. A pump is defined as a device .which m au
converts
2. Pressure at the exit of the nozzle is
(a) Hydraulic energy into mechanical
atmospheric
energy

(b) Mechanical energy into hydraulic 3. Pressure does not vary along the
energy moving vanes

(c) Kinetic energy into mechanical 4. Change in of momentum

energy imparts thrust over moving vanes

(d) None of the above Which of the above statements are

applied to impulse turbine ?
79. The specific speed of a pump is defined
as the speed of the unit of such a size .(a) I, 2 and 3 only
that it
(b) I, 2 and 4 only
(a) Delivers unit discharge at unit head
(c) 3 and 4 only
(b) Requires unit power to develop unit
head (d) 1,. 2, 3 and 4

17 A - B-DMHH-N-NFA

www.examrace.com
82. A water jet 00015 m 2 in area issues
from a with 15 m/ s velocity. It is
made to impinge perpendicular on to a
plate that moves away from the jet with
a velocity of 5 m/s. The force on the
plate due to this impact is
84. A converging-diverging nozzle is operated
at a pressure difference which is not the
design value for isentropic flow. As a
consequence a normal shock is formed
in the diverging portion. ll). this situation
the Mach number at the throat is

(a) 150 N (a) Less than I I

(b) 1470 N (b) More that I

(c) 340 N (c) Exactly 1

(d) 900 N (d) Could be less or more than I

depending on the pressure
difference
83. Consider the following statements with
regard to hydraulic turbines :
85. The air pre-heater of a boil.er is located
between
I. Kaplan turbines are most efficient
at part load operations.
(a) Forced draft fan and furnace

2. If n is the number of jets in a.

(b) Furnace and economizer
Pelton turbine, then the specific
speed is proportional to n 2
(c) Economizer and chimney
3. The flow ratio of Francis turbines
are in the range of 01- 03. (d) Superheater and furnace

Which of the above statements is/are 86. A super critical boiler requires
correct?

(a) Only preheater and superheater

(a) I, 2 and 3

(b) Preheater, . evaporator and super-

(b) I and 2 only heater

(c) I and 3 only (c) Only preheater

(d) 2 and 3 only (d) On! y superheater

B-DMHH-N-NFA -A 18

www.examrace.com
87. The correct sequence of location of (b) High evaporation rate is achieved
equipment in the flue gas path from through forced circulation of water
furnace exit up to chimney is through tubes

(a) Superheater, economizer, air heater, (c) . Enthalpy of evaporation becomes

electrostatic precipitator and induced zero at critical pressure or above
draft fans that

(b) Superheater, economizer, electro-

(d) Flue gas used to run rotary com-
pressor supply high pressure air to
static precipitator, induced draft fans
. and air heater the furnace

(c) Superheater, electrostatic precipi- 90. The effect of considering friction in

tator, economizer, air heater and steam nozzle for the same pressure. ratio
jnduced draft fans leads to

(d) Superheater, electrostatic precipi- (a) Increase in dryness fraction of exit

tator, induced draft fans, economizer steam
and air heater
(b) Decrease in dryness fraction of exit
steam
88. The main advantage of the water tube
boiler over the fire-tube boiler is (c) No change m the quality of exit
steam
(a) The water tube boiler can operate
safely at higher pressure (d) Decrease or increase of dryness
of exit steam depending
upon inlet quality
(b) Soot deposition m the tubes is
avoided
91. In a half-degree reaction Parson's
(c) Corrosion of the tubes is less turbine, operating at design conditions,
the enthalpy drop of steam in .one stage
(d) Fouling of the tubes is reduced of the turbine occurs

(a) Entirely in the fixed blades

89. A super critical boiler consists of only
economizer and superheater and it does (b) Entirely in the moving blades
not have an evaporator because
(c) Half in the fixed blades and half in
(a) Water temperature can be raised to the moving blades
critical temperature m the econo-
mizer itself (d) None of the above

19 A - B-DMHH-N-NFA

www.examrace.com
92. The collection efficiency of cyclone
separators increases with :
I. Decreasing particie size
2. Increasing particle density
3. Decreasing gas velocity
4. Increasing number of gas revolu-
tions
5. Increasing cyclone diameter
Which of the above . statements are
correct?
(a) I, 3 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 2, 4 and 5 only
(d) I, 2, 3, 4 and 5
93. Reheating of steam m a steam 'power
plant:
1. Increases the cycle efficiency
2. Reduces the turbine speed
3. Reduces blade erosion
4. Increases specific output
Which of the above statements are
correct?
(a) I, 2, 3 and 4
(b) I, 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) I, 3 and 4 only
8-DMHH-N-NFA- A
94. Following points express the effect of
keeping high clearance volume for the
cylinders in reciprocating compressor.
Which one of the following points IS
disagreeable ?
(a) By increasing clearance volume
volumetric efficiency decreases
(b) By increasing clearance volume
power consumption increases
(c) By increasing clearance volume
chances of piston striking cylinder
head gets reduced
(d) By increasing clearance volume
. .
maximum compressiOn pressilre
value decreases
95. Consider the following statements :
1. Stalling is the separation of flow
from the blade surface.
2. Surging leads to physical damage
due to impact loads and high
frequency vibration.
3. Mass flow rate is m1mmum if
choking occurs.
Which of the above statements are
correct?
(a) I, 2 and 3
(b) I and 3 only .
(c) I and 2 only
(d) 2 and 3- OJ!IY
20
www.examrace.com
96. Across the nonnal shockwave : (a) I and 3
1. Stagnation pressure decreases
(b) 2 and 3
whereas stagnation temperature
remains constant
(c) I and 4
2.' Mach number before the shock-
wave is always greater than one (d) 2 and 4
and after the shockwave, the Mach
number need not be less than one
_98. What is the power required to drive a
3. Across the shockwave there is a
centrifugal air compressor, when impeller
rise in pressure and temperature
diameter is 045 m and N is 7200 rpm?
4. The product of Mach number
downstream of nonnal shockwave (a) 2878 kW /kg/s
and upstream of nonnal shockwave
is always one (b) 3078 kW/kg/s
Which of the above statements are
correct? (c) 2778 kW

(a) I and 3 (d) 2678 kW/kg/s

(b) 2 and 3

(c) I and 4 99. Cooling of reciprocating compressor

cylinder:
(d) 2 and 4
1. Increases the volumetric efficiency
97. Which of the following statements are
correct? 2. Increases the work input
1. Velocity . compounded impulse
turbine gives less speed and less 3. Decreases the volumetric efficiency
efficiency.
4. Decreases the work input
2. For an ideal centrifugal compressor,
the pressure produced depends on
impeller velocity and diameter. Which of the above statements are
correct?
3. While flowing through the rotor
blades in a gas turbine, the relative (a) I and 2
veloCity of gas continuously
decreases. (b) 2 and 3
4. While flowing through the rotor
blades in an axial flow compressor, (c) 3 and 4
the relative velocity of air
continuously decreases. (d) I and 4

21 A - B-DMHH-N-NFA

- . www.examrace.com
100. In supersonic flow of air, a diverging 102. Statement (I) : A breeder reactor does
passage results in not require moderator.

(a) Increase in velocity and pressure Statement (II) : The parasite absorption
of neutrons is low.
(b) Decrease in pressure and density

(c) Increase in velocity and density 103. Statement (I) : Property tables list
different values of some
(d) Decrease in velocity and pressure properties for a sub-
stance at the same state
Directions : as a result of using
different reference states.
Each of the next Twenty (20) items consists
of two statements, one labelled as the Statement (II) : The reference state
'Statement (I)' and the other as 'Statement chosen is . of no conse-
(II)'. You are to examine these two quence in thermodynamic
statements carefully and select the answers to process calculations as
these items using the codes lii.ven below : long as we use values
from the single consis-
Codes:. . tent set of tables.

(a) Both Statement (I) and Statement

(II) are individually true and State- 104. Statement (I) : In an air-conditioned
ment (II) is the correct explanation room, the reflective
of Statement (I) coating should be on
inside of the window.
(b) Both Statement (I) and Statement
(II) are individually true but Statement (II) : Window pane glass is
Statement (II) is not the correct transparent to solar
explanation of Statement (I) radiation.
(c) Statement (I) is true but Statement
(II) is false 105. Statement (I) : The coefficient of dis-
charge for a mouthpiece
(d) Statement (I) is false but Statement is higher than that of an
(II) is true orifice.

101. Statement (I) :Negative temperatures
are impossible on the
Kelvin scale.
Statement (II) : The Kelvin scale is
thermodynamic tempera-
ture scale.
Statement (II) : The discharge through
an orifice varies as W 12
whereas the discharge
through a mouthpiece
varies as H213 (where H
is. the head causing the
flow in both cases).

B-DMHH-N-NFA -A 22
www.examrace.com
106. Statement (I) : A rocket engme can
operate even in vacuum
and in any fluid medium.
Statement (II) : Rocket engine is a pure
reaction engine which
produces propulsive
thrust..
107. Statement (!) : Both pressure and
temperature across the
112. Statement (I) : In Boiling Water Reactor
normal shock increase.
Statement (II) : The stagnation pressure
across the normal shock
decreases.
108. Statement (I) : When a given body
floats in different liquids,
the volume displaced will
decrease with increase
in the specific gravity of
the fluid.
113. Statement (I) : Modem turbines have
Statement (II) : The weight of the
floating body is equal to
the weight of the volume
displaced.
109. Statement (I) : The vertical. boilers are
used to save the floor
space.
Statement (II) : Horizontal boilers are
more efficient than
vertical boilers.
114. Statement (I) : In CI engines increase .
110. Statement (I) : A small insect can sit on
the free surface of a
liquid though insect's
density is higher than
that of the liquid.
Statement (II) : Liquids have viscosity.
23
111. Statement (I) : An SI engine requires
greater spark .advance at
lower loads.
Statement (II) : Increased dilution by
residual gases at lower
loads reduces the com-
bustion rate.
(BWR) coolant serves
the triple function of
coolant, moderator and
worlcing fluid.
Statement (II) : The steam flowing to the
turbine is produced
directly in . the reactor
core.
velocity compounding at
the initial stages and
pressure compounding in
subsequent stages.
Statement (II) : Excessive tip leakage
occurs m the high
pressure region of'
reaction blading.
of load decreases the
knocking tendency.
Statement (II) : Increase of load m-
creases the temperature
of mixture and thereby
decrease in delay angle.
A-; B-DMilli-N-NFA.
www.examrace.com
115. Statement (I) : In Impulse turbines
pressure change occurs
only in the nozzles of the
machine. The pressure
of liquid does not change
while flowing through the
rotor of the machine.
Statement (II) : The pressure of liquid
changes while it flows
through the rotor of the
machine m Reaction
turbine.
116. Statement (I) : The efficiency of a
boiler is more if it is
provided with mechanical
draught rather than with
natural draught.
Statement (II) : Natural draught is very
costly but highly effi-
cient.
117. Statement (I) : In common rail system,
the nozzle construction
must be closely matched
to ensure equality of fuel
discharge fro!ll cylinder
to cylinder.
Statement (II) : The discharge from the
nozzles is regulated by
the size of orifice and
pressure drop.
BDMHH-N-NFA - A 24
118. Statement (I) : The tertn surge indicates
a phenomenon of instabi-
lity which takes place at
low flow values and
which involves an entire
system including not only
the centrifugal compres-
sor, but also the group of
components traversed by
the fluid upstream and
downstream of it.
Statement (II) : Choking is defined as
separation of fluid from
the rotor blades of
centrifugal compressor.
119. Statement (I) : The four stroke cycle
internal combustion reci-
procating engines run at
higher speeds than the
two stroke cycle engines.
Statement (II) : The separate exhaust
and intake strokes of the
four stroke cycle engines
provide greater opportu-
nity for the dissipation of
heat from critical parts
such as piston.
120. Statement (I) : An impulse turbine can
run without change in its
hydraulic efficiency even
if its casing is damaged.
Statement (II) : An impulse turbine will
not have draft tube.
www.examrace.com
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

25 A - B-DMHH-N-NFA
www.examrace.com
 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

B-DMilli-N-NF A- A 26
www.examrace.com
 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

- I

27 A - B-DMHH-N-NFA
www.examrace.com
 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

B-DMHH-N -NFA- A 28
www.examrace.com
 DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

T.B.C. : B-DMHH-N-NFB Test Booklet Series

Serial No.

I
56441
TEST BOOKLET
MECHANICAL ENGINEERING
A
Paper-II
Time Allowed : Two Hours Maximum Marks : 200

INSTRUCTIONS
1. IMMEDIATELY AFI'ER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD
CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR
MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST
BOOKLET.
2. Please note that it is the candidate's responsibUity to encode and f'"ill in the Roll
Number and Test Booklet Series Code A, B, C or D carefully and without any
omission or discrepancy at the appropriate places in the OMR Answer Sheet. Any
omission/ discrepancy will render the Answer Sheet liable for rejection.
3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test
Booklet in the Box provided alongside. DO NOT
I
write anything else on the Test Booklet. L---------------1
4. This Test Booklet contains 120 items (questions). Each item comprises four responses
(answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet.
In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which
you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
5. You have to mark your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided.
See directions in the Answer Sheet.
6. All items carry equal marks.
7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the
Test Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions
sent to you with your Admission Certificate.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the
examination has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer
Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet.
9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10. Penalty for wrong answers :
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE:
(i) There are four altematives for the answer to every question. For each question for
which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks
assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as wrong answer even if
one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as
above to that question.
(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be
no penalty for that question.

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

www.examrace.com
 1. In a crank and slotted lever Which of the above statements are
quick-return motion, the distance correct?
between the ftxed centres is
150 mm and the length of the
driving crank is 7 5 mm. The ratio of (a) 1 and 4
the time taken on the cutting and t. :' t.
return strokes is
(b) 1 and 3
(a) 15

(b) 20 (c) 2 and 3

(c) 22 !,
(d) 2 and 4
(d) 293

2. A helical coil spring of stiffness k is 4. Which one of the following

cut to two equal halves and then mechanisms is an inversion of
these are connected in parallel to
support a vibrating mass m. The
double slider-crank chain?
. . ...'
- j

angular frequency of vibration, w,. is

(a) Elliptic trammels-

(a) l (b) Beam engine

(b) (c)
'
Oscillating cylinder. engine

(c) ff (d) Coupling rod of a locomotive

(d) 5. The number of instantaneous

centres of rotation for a 10-link
kinematic chaln is
3. Consider the following statements :

In a slider-crank mechanism, the

(a) 36
slider is at its dead centre position
when the
(b) 90
1. slider velocity is zero
2. slider velocity is maximum (c) 120
3. slider acceleration is zero ' '
4. slider acceleration is maximum (d) 45

)
B-DMHH-N-NFB /54A 2

www.examrace.com
 6. A slider moves with uniform velocity 8. The sensitiveness of a governor is
v on a revolving link of length r defined as
with angular velocity w. The Coriolis
Nl- N2 Nl + N2
acceleration component of a point (a) (b)
on the slider relative to a coincident Nl + N2 Nl -N2
point on the link is equal to
{c) 2 ( N1 + N2) (d) 2 ( Nl- N2)
Nl- N2 Nl + N2
'
(a) wv parallel to the link where N1 and N 2 are the maximum
and the m1n1mum equilibrium
," speeds of the governor respectively.
(b) 2wv perpendicular to the link
9. Which of the following statements
are correct for mating gears with
involute profiles?
{c) wv perpendicular to the link
1. The pressure angle, from the
start of the engagement to
the end of the engagement,
(d) 2wv parallel to the link remains constant.
2. The pressure angle is
maximum at the beginning of
the engagement, reduces to
7. The governor becomes isochronous, zero at pitch point, starts
when decreasing and again becomes
maximum at the end of the
engagement.
(a) F = ar+b 3. The face and flank of the teeth
are generated by a single curve
and the normal to this curve at
any point is tangent to the base
(b) F =ar-b
circle of the gear.
4. The centre distance for a pair
of mating gears can be varied
(c) F = ar 2 + b
within limits without altering
the velocity ratio.
Select the correct answer using the
(d) F = ar
code given below.
(a) 1, 3 and 4
where F is controlling force, r is (b) 1 and 3 only
radius of rotation for governing (c) 2 and 4 only
balls and a, b are constants. (d) 2, 3 and 4

B-DMHH-N-NFB /54A 3 [ P.T.O.

www.examrace.com
 10. Two involute gears are designed to 13. In a locomotive, the ratio of the
mesh for a given centre distance connecting rod length to the crank
and a given angular velocity ratio radius is kept very large in order to
(other than 1). During assembly,
the centre distance has increased {a) minimize the effect of primary
slightly. Then which of the following forces
changes occur?
(b) minimize the effect of
1. Velocity ratio changes
forces
2. Pressure angle changes
(c) have perfect balancing
3. Pitch circle diameter changes
(d) start the locomotive
4. Working depth changes
conveniently
5. Base circle radius changes .

Select the correct answer using the 14. In balancing of single-cylinder

code given below. engine, the rotating unbalance is

(a} 1, 2 and 3 (a} completely made zero and

so also the reciprocating
(b) 2, 3 and 4 unbalance

(c) 2 and 5 (b) completely made zero and

the reciprocating unbalance
(d) 3 and 5
is partially reduced

11. In a governor, if the equilibrium (c) partially reduced and the

speed is constant for all radii of reciprocating unbalance is
rotation of balls, the governor is completely made zero
said to be
(d) partially reduced and so also
(a} stable
the reciprocating unbalance
(b) unstable
15. The first critical speed of an
(c) inertial automobile running on a sinusoidal
road is calculated by (modelling it
(d) isochronous
as a single degree of freedom
system)
12. Critical speed is expressed as

(a} rotation of shaft in degrees (a} resonance

(b) rotation of shaft in radians (b) approximation

(c) rotation of shaft in minutes (c) superposition principle

(d) natural frequency of the shaft (d) Rayleigh quotient

B-DMHH-N-NFB/54A 4

www.examrace.com
 16. The equation of free vibration of 19. Two plates are jointed as shown in
d 2x the figure
a system is - - + 647t 2 x = 0. Its
dt 2
natural frequency would be
p p
(a) 47t Hz

(b) B1t Hz

(c) 647t 2 Hz

(d) 4 Hz
The maximum tensile and shear
..
' 17. Linear vibration analysis has the stresses are 70 Nfmm 2 and
greatest advantage because of 56 Nfmm 2 respective'ly. The plate
is 70 mm wide and 125 mm thick.
(a) Newton's laws of motion What will be the value of l if the
(b) eigenvalue analysis total load carried by the joint
is 85 kN?
(c) Rayleigh quotient

(d) principle of superposition (a) 12639 mm

18. Which of the following are

(b) 8425 mm
responsible for occurrence of
critical or whirling speed of shaft?
(c) 7000 mm
1. Eccentric mounting of the rotor
2. Non-uniform distribution of (d) 42125 mm
rotor material
3. Bending of shaft due to the 20. If a rectangular key of 8 mm width
weight of the rotor and the and 6 mm height and a shaft of
shaft itself diameter 32 mm are made of same
material, then the necessary length
4. Environmental effect such
of the key for equal shear strength
as effect of moisture and
of shaft and key will be (neglecting
temperature
stress concentration on the shaft)
Select the correct answer using the
code given below. (a) 5024 mm

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 55 mm
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
{c) 45 mm
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only

(d) 1 and 3 only (d) 6024 mm

B-DMHH-N-NFB/54A 5 [ P.T.O.

www.examrace.com
 21. Rivets undergo single shear in 23. A truncated conical pivot bearing
has semi-cone angle a and the two
radii are r1 and r2 respectively with
r1 > r2 The coefficient of friction
(a) lap joint and single-cover butt between the sliding surfaces is
joint For an axial thrust load of W kN,
the reduction in torque due to
friction (assuming uniform rate of
(b) single-cover butt joint wear) is
and
double-cover butt joint

(c) lap joint and double-cover butt

joint

(d) lap joint only

22. A multi-disc clutch employs 3 steel 24. Which of the following statements
and 2 bronze discs having outer are correct regarding power
diameter of 300 mm and inner transmission through V-belts?
diameter of 175 mm. If the coefficient
of friction is 025 and axial force on 1. V-belts are used at the high-
each pair of surfaces is 5 kN, then speed end.
the torque transmitted (assuming 2. V-belts are used at the low-
uniform wear) is speed end.
3. V-belts are of standard lengths.

(a) 4166 N m 4. V-angles of pulleys and belts

are standardized .

Select the correct answer using the

(b) 8875 N m code given below.

(a) 1 and 3 only

(c) 109375 N m (b) 2 and 4 only

(c) 2, 3 and 4

(d) 59375 N m (d) 1, 3 and 4

B-DMHH-N -NFB/54A 6

www.examrace.com
 25. Pressure angle of involute gears does 27. If the centre distance between a pair
not exceed 25, since of spur gears in mesh is 240 mm
and the pinion moves five times
faster than the gear, then the pitch
(a) this will lead to unwanted
circle diameters of pinion and gear
radial force
respectively are

(b) the number of teeth to avoid (a) 40 mm and 200 mm

undercutting will be very high (b) 80 mm and 400 mm

(c) 60 mm and 300 mm

(c) no cutters are available
I
(d) 50 mm and 250 mm
(d) gears will become too small
28. The diameter of a solid shaft made
of mild steel, rotating at 250 r.p.m.
26. Consider the following statements : is 45 mm. The shaft is designed to
transmit 50 kW. What will be the
factor of safety if the ultimate shear
In the case of involute gears in
stress at yield is 427 N/mm 2 ?
contact
(a) 6
1. the motion is one of pure 5
(b)
rolling
(c) 4
2. pressure angle does not
change during contact (d) 3

3. velocity ratio does not change 29. The bending moment (M} and twisting
moment (T) at four particular
4. output torque of the driven sections P, Q, R and S along the
gear changes length of a shaft are as follows :

Which of the above statements are Section p Q R s

correct? M (Nm) 10 40 20 15
T (N m) 45 30 50 40

Which section is to be considered

{a) 1 and 2 for designing the shaft?

{b) 2 and 4 (a) P

(b) Q
(c) 2 and 3
(c) R

(d) 3 and 4 (d) s

B-DMHH-N-NFB /54A 7 [ P.T.O.

www.examrace.com
 30. If 1J and m represent the maximum
tension and mass per unit length of
a belt, then the maximum permis-
sible speed of the belt is given by
(a)
f1i (b)
33. When a shaft rotates in anti-
clockwise direction at high speed in
a bearing, it will
(a) move towards right of the
be.aring making metal to metal
contact

(c)
V3m
{2T; (d) tf (b) have contact at the lowest
point of the bearing

31. The efficiency of a power screw is (c) move towards left of the
maximum , when the lead (helix) bearing making metal to metal
angle is contact

7l <I> (d) move towards left of the

(a} 2 2
bearing making no metal to
metal contact
7l
(b) --<I>
2
34. The load on a gear tooth is 50 kN. If
7l <I> the gear is transmitti ng a torque of
(c)
4 2 6000 N m, the diameter of the gear
is approxima tely (consider pressure
(d) .!!. - <I>
angle as 20' and cos 20' 094)
4
(a) 05 m
where <I> is friction angle.
(b) 075 m
32. Consider that a wire rope is
subjected to the following stresses : (c) 1 m

1. Direct stress on account of (d) 025 m

axial force
2. Bending stress 35. In a particular applicatio n, the shaft
is subjected to bending loads and
3. Stress due to acceleratio n of also large axial loads. The bearing
the moving mass suitable for supportin g such a shaft
Which of the above are correct? is

(a) 1 and 2 only (a) thrust bearing

(b) 1 and 3 only (b) tapered roller bearing

(c) 2 and 3 only (c) ball bearing

(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) spherical roller bearing

B-DMHH- N-NFB/54 A 8

www.examrace.com
 36. A hole of diameter 35 mm is to be 39. Which of the following figures may
punched in a sheet metal of represent Mohr's circle?
thickness t and ultimate shear
strength 400 MPa, using punching
force of 44 kN. The maximum value
oft is

(a) 05 mm

(b) 10 mm

;I
(c)

(d)
1 mm

2 mm
(b)

0
37. Two principal tensile stresses of
magnitudes 40 MPa and 20 MPa
are acting at a point across two
perpendicula r planes. An oblique (c)
plane makes an angle of 30 with
the major principal plane. The
normal stress on the oblique plane
is

(a) 866 MPa

(b) 1732 MPa (d)

(c) 350 MPa

(d) 600 MPa

38. The state of stress at a point under

plane stress condition is 40. If Mohr's circle is drawn for the shear
stress developed because of torque
Oxx = 60 MPa, Oyy = 120 MPa
applied over a shaft, then the
and = 40 MPa maximum shear stress developed
will be equal to
The radius of Mohr's circle
representing the given state of (a) diameter of the Mohr's circle
stress in MPa is
(b) radius of the Mohr's circle
(a) 40
(c) half of the radius of the
(b) 50
Mohr's circle
(c) 60
(d) 1414 times radius of the
(d) 120 Mohr's circle

B-DMHH-N -NFB/54A 9 [ P.T.O.

www.examrace.com
 41. The modulu s of rigidity and the bulk Which of the above stateme nts
modulu s of a materia l are found as are correct ?
70 GPa and 150 GPa respecti vely.
Then (a) 1 and 2

1. elastici ty modulu s is 200 GPa (b) 1 and 3

2. Poisson 's ratio is 022 (c) 1 and 4

3. elastici ty modulu s is 182 GPa (d) 3 and 4

4. Poisson 's ratio is 03 43. A steel rod, 2 m long, is held betwee n

two walls and heated from 20 c
Which of the above stateme nts are to 60 c. Young's modulu s and
correct ? coeffici ent of linear expans ion of the
rod materia l are 200 x 10 3 MPa and
lOx 10-6 f"Cresp ectively . The stress
(a) 1 and 2
induced in the rod, if walls yield by
02 mm, is
(b) 1 and 4
(a) 60 MPa tensile

(c) 2 and 3 (b) 80 MPa tensile

(c) 80 MPa compre ssive

(d) 3 and 4
(d) 60 MPa compre ssive

42. Consid er the following stateme nts : 44. A tension membe r of square cross-
section of side 10 mm and Young's
1. Cross-s ection of a membe r of modulu s E is to be replace d by
truss experie nces uniform anothe r membe r of square cross-
stress. section of same length but Young's
modulu s E/2. The side of the new
2. Cross-s ection of a beam square cross-s ection, require d to
experie nces minimu m stress. mainta in the same elongat ion
under the same load, is nearly
3. Cross-s ection of a beam
(a) 14 mm
experie nces linearly varying
stress.
(b) 17 mm
4. Cross-s ections of truss (c) 8 mm
membe rs experie nce only
compre ssive stress. (d) 5 mm

B-DMH H-N-NF B /54A 10

www.examrace.com
 45. An aluminium bar of 8 m length and
a steel bar of 5 mm longer in length
are kept at 30 c. If the ambient
temperature is raised gradually, at
what temperature the aluminium
bar will elongate 5 mm longer than
the steel bar (the linear expansion
coefficients for steel and aluminium
are 12 x 10-6 ;oc and 23 x w- 6 ;oc
respectively)?
47. A beam of length L and flexural
rigidity EI is simply supported at
the ends and canies a concentrated
load W at the middle of the span.
Another beam of identical length L
and flexural rigidity EI is fixed
horizontally at both ends and
carries an identical concentrated
load W at the mid-span. The ratio of
central deflection of the first beam
to that of the second beam is

li (a) 507 c
(a) 1
(b) 690 c
(c) 1437 c (b) 2

(d) 337 c
(c) 025
46. The part of the shear force diagram
for a beam is shown in the figure
(d) 4
14 kN

48. A bar of rectangular cross-section

(b x 2b) and another bar of circular
cross-section (diameter= d) with
the same length, are made of same

IE---- 7 m ---)It material, and are subjected to same

bending moment and have the
same maximum bending stress
-6kN developed. The ratio of weights of
If the bending moment at B is rectangular bar and circular bar
- 9 kN m, then the bending moment will be
at Cis
(211)1/3
(a) 40 kN m (a) (b) .J1t
311

(b) 58 kN m

(c) 116kNm
(3)2/3
(c) .J3ii (d)
(d) -80kN m 2 (11)1/ 3

B-DMHH-N-NF B/54A 11 [ P.T.O.

www.examrace.com
 49. A shaft of diameter 8 em is subjecte d 51. Two concentr ic springs, having same
to a bending moment of 3000 N m number of turns and free axial
and a twisting moment of 4000 N m. length, are made of same material .
The maximu m normal stress One spring has mean coil diameter
induced in the shaft is equal to of 12 em and its wire diameter is
10 em. The other one has mean
coil diameter of 8 em and wire
250
(a) MPa diameter of 06 em. If the set of
1t
springs is compres sed by an axial
load of 2000 N, the loads shared by
the springs will be

(b) 500 MPa

1t (a) 12455 N and 7545 N

(b) 13914 Nand 6086 N

(c) 1575 MPa
1t
(c) 11000 N and 9000 N

(d) 14728 N and 5272 N

315
(d) MPa
1t

52. A rod of length l tapers uniforml y

50. A close-coi led helical spring of
10 active turns is made of 8 mm
diameter steel wire. The mean coil
diameter is 10 em. If G = 80 GPa for
the material of spring, the extensio n
of spring under a tensile load of
200 N will be nearly
from a diameter D at one end to a
diamete r D/2 at the other end and
is subjecte d to an axial load P.
A second rod of length l and of
uniform diameter D is subjecte d to
the same axial load P. Both the rods
are of same material with Young's
modulus of elasticity E. The ratio of
extensio n of the first rod to that of
the second rod is

(a) 40 mm
(a) 4

(b) 45 mm
(b) 3

(c) 49 mm (c) 2

(d) 53 mm (d) 1

B-DMHH -N-NFB/ 54A 12

www.examrace.com
 53. If a thin-walle d cylinder with closed
hemispher ical ends with thickness
12 mm and inside diameter of
1250 mm is to withstand a
pressure of 15 MPa, then the
maximum shear stress induced is
55. What is the slenderne ss ratio of a
4 m column with fixed ends if its
cross-sect ion is square of side
40mm?

(a) 100

(a) 195 MPa

(b) 50
;I
{b) 3905 MPa

(c) 160
(c) 7812 MPa

(d) 173
(d) 905 MPa

54. A 4 m long solid round bar is used as
a column having one end fixed and
the other end free. If Euler's critical
load on this column is found as
10 kN and E = 210 GPa for the
material of the bar, the diameter
of the bar is
56. A cantilever beam, 2 m in length, is
subjected to a uniformly distribute d
load of 5 kNJm. If E =200 GPa
and I = 1000 em 4 , the strain energy
stored in the beam will be

(a) 7Nm
(a) 50 mm

(b) 12 N m
(b) 40 mm

(c) 8 Nm
(c) 60 mm

(d) 45 mm (d) 10 N m

B-DMHH- N-NFB/54 A 13 [ P.T.O.

www.examrace.com
 57. Conside r the following stateme nts 59. Cast iron possess ing which one
in connec tion with the phase of the following metallo graphic
diagram s : structu res is best suited for
dampin g capacity in enginee ring
1. Phase diagram s of binary applica tions?
alloys change by the presenc e
of other alloying elemen ts.

2. Tie-line constru ction and lever (a) Excess cement ite

rule are used to determ ine the
phase compos itions.

3. Time-te mperat ure transfo rma- (b) Carbon in temper form 4

tions can be studied with the
help of phase diagram s.

Which of the above stateme nts (c) Silicon carbide in flake

are correct? structu re

(a) 1 and 2 only (d) Sphero idal form of graphit e

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only 60. Jominy end-qu ench test is carried

out to determ ine
(d) 1, 2 and 3

(a) recrysta llizatio n temper arure of

58. Eutecto id reaction occurri ng at steel
727 c with 077% c is

(a) austeni te --> ferrite + pearlite (b) glass transiti on temper ature of
a materia l
(b) austeni te -->ferrite + martens ite

(c) austeni te -->ferrite + cement ite (c) hardena bility of steel

(d) austeni te -->mart ensite

+ bainite (d) hardne ss of steel

B-DMH H-N-NF B/54A 14

www.examrace.com
 61. Consider the following statements in Which of the above statements
connection with thermoplastics : are correct?

1. They are long-chain molecules (a) 1, 2 and 3 only

held together by van der Waals'
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
forces.
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
2. They cannot be resoftened
once they have set and (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
1. hardened.
63. In hot die forging, thin layer of
3. They are highly plastic and are
material all around the forging is
easy for shaping.
(a) gutter space, which fills up hot
4. Some commercial thermo-
gases
plastics are polyethylene,
polystyrene and PVC. (b) flash, the width of it is an
indicator of the pressure
Which of the above statements developed in the cavity
are correct?
(c) coining, which indicates the
quality of the forging
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) cavity, which is filled with hot
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only impurities in the material

(c) 2, 3 and 4 only 64. Which drill is good for inverted

drilling operation?
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (a) Oil-hole drill

(b) Straight-flute drill

62. Consider the following statements :
(c) Taper-shank drill
Machine tool beds are made using
(d) High-helix drill
grey cast iron due to
65. In wire-drawing operation, the
1. high tensile strength and
maximum reduction per pass for
ductility perfectly plastic material in ideal
2. high compressive strength and condition is
damping property (a) 68%
3. castability and low cost of (b) 63%
production
(c) 58%
4. machinability and low material
cost (d) 50%

B-DMHH-N-NFB /54A 15 [ P.T.O.

www.examrace.com
 66. In the process of metal rolling 68. Consider the following statements for
operation, along the arc of contact an induction furnace :
in the roll gap there is a point called
the neutral point, because 1. High-frequen cy current is
(a) on one side of this point, the
generally used for the furnace
working.
work material is in tension and
on the other side, the work 2. There is less loss of alloying
material is in compression elements due to oxidation.
(b) on one side of this point, the
3. Pronounced stirring action of
work material has velocity
molten metal occurs inside the
greater than that of the roll
furnace.
and on the other side, it has
velocity lesser than that of the 4. Slag cover is essential for the
roll efficient working of the furnace.
(c) on one side of this point, the
Which of the above statements
work material has rough are correct?
surface finish and on the other
side, the work material has (a) 1, 3 and 4 only
very fine finish (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) at this point there is no (c) I, 2 and 3 only
increase in material width, but (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
on either side of neutral point,
the material width increases 69. The proportion of acetylene and
67. The process of impregnation in oxygen used in gas welding is
powder metallurgy technique is (a) 2 : 1
best described by which of the (b) 1: 1
following?
(c) 1:2
(a) Mter sintering operation of
powder metallurgy, rapid (d) 3: 4
cooling is performed to avoid
thermal stresses 70. In liquid-state welding process, the
zones formed are
(b) Low melting point metal is
filled in the pores of a sintered (a) gas-shielded zone, fusion zone
powder metallurgy product and unaffected original base
(c) Liquid oil or grease is filled in
metal zone
the pores of a sintered powder (b) liquid zone, fusion zone and
metallurgy product heat-affected unmelted zone
(d) During sintering operation of (c) liquid-shield ed zone, gas-
powder metallurgy, rapid shielded zone and flux-metal
heating is performed to avoid reactive zone
sudden produce of high (d) fusion zone, heat-affected
internal pressure due to unmelted zone and unaffected
volatilization of lubricant original base metal zone

B-DMHH-N -NFB/54A 16

www.examrace.com
71. A simple turning operation is carried
out on a lathe machine at constant
spindle speed. What will happen
after a few turning passes?
(a) Cutting velocity will increase
and surface finish improves
(b) Cutting velocity will decrease
and surface finish deteriorates
(c) Cutting velocity will increase
and chattering occurs
(d) Cutting velocity will decrease
and chattering reduces
72. A milling cutter having 8 teeth is
rotating at 150 r.p.m. If the feed
per tooth is 01 mm, the table speed
in mm per minute is
(a) 70
(b) 120
75. Consider the following statements
(c) 125
(d) 187
74. In a plunge grinding operation, the
workpiece is 10 mm wide, the wheel
is of 20 em diameter and 2 em wide.
The wheel speed is 3000 r.p.m. and
the table speed is 25 m/min. If the
depth of cut is 002 mm, grain
density is 250 fern 2 and the
grinding forces are 20 N tangential
and 38 N thrust, the specific energy
is
{a) 75-4 x 10 4 Nfmm 2
(b) 7-54 x 10 4 N/mm 2
(c) 75-4 x 10 6 N/mm 2
(d) 754x10 6 Nfmm 2
with reference to grinding wheel
characteristics :

73. Consider the following statements 1. Aluminium oxide and silicon

regarding milling machine : carbide are used for making
the grinding wheels.
1. In the vertical milling machine,
it is possible to machine 2. Rubber bonds are used for
dovetail recesses. making flexible wheels.
2. In universal milling machine, 3. The grade of a wheel is
the worktable can be swivelled. determined by the strength of
the bonding materials.
3. In rotary milling machine,
motion imparted to work is 4. Negative rake angles are used
rotary. for grinding of high-strength
materials.
4. Planer milling machine is
provided with several horizontal Which of the above statements
and vertical heads. are correct?
Which of the above statements
(a) 1, 2 and 3
are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4

B-DMHH-N-NFB/54A 17 [ P.T.O.

www.examrace.com
76. In NC machines, slides are positioned 79. The fatigue failure of a tool is due to
by hydraulic ram and are influenced
by
(a) abrasive friction, cutting fluid
and chip breakage
(a) length of stroke and mass to be
displaced
(b) variable thermal stresses,
(b) feed and spindle speed chip breakage and variable
dimensions of cut
(c) length of stroke and feed
(c) abrasive friction, chip breakage
(d) spindle speed and mass to be and variable dimensions of cut
displaced
(d) chip breakage, variable
77. Which one of the following thermal stresses and cutting
statements is correct about an fluid
oblique cutting?

(a) Direction of chip flow velocity 80. In accelerated tool life tests, the three
is normal to the cutting edge of main types of quick and less costly
the tool tool life testing are

(b) Only two components of (a) extrapolation on the basis of

cutting forces act on the tool steady wear; conventional
measurement of flank and
(c) Cutting edge of the tool is crater wear; comparative
inclined at an acute angle to performance against tool
the direction of tool feed chipping

(d) Cutting edge clears the width (b) measurement of abrasive wear;
of the workpiece multi-pass turning; conven-
tional measurement of diffusion
wear
78. A toothpaste tube can be produced
by
(c) extrapolation on the basis
(a) solid forward extrusion of steady wear; multi-pass
turning; taper turning
(b) solid backward extrusion
(d) comparative performance
(c) hollow backward extrusion against tool chipping; taper
tuming; measurement of
(d) hollow forward extrusion abrasive wear

B-DMHH-N-NFB/54A 18

www.examrace.com
 81. In an orthogona l turning process, (c) at very low feed rates and/ or
the chip thickness = 032 mm, when there is large difference
feed= 02 mm/rev. Then the cutting between the coefficients of
ratio will be static and dynamic friction at
the slider and guideway
(a) 26
interfaces
{b) 32 (d) at very low feed rates and large
difference in coefficient of only
(c) 1-6 dynamic friction at headstock
spindle and bed of machine
(d) 18 tool

82. In an orthogona l cutting operation, 84. Consider the following reasons for
shear angle = 113 1", cutting force using non-conve ntional machining
= 900 N and thrust force = 810 N. processes :
Then the shear force will be approxi-
1. High-stren gth alloys
mately (given sin1131' = 02)
2. Complex surfaces
(a) 650 N
3. High accuracies and surface
(b) 720 N finish
Which of the above are correct?
(c) 620 N
(a) 1 and 2 only
(d) 680 N
(b) 1 and 3 only
83. The stick-slip motion is found to (c) 2 and 3 only
occur in machine tool slides under
certain conditions which are {d) 1, 2 and 3

(a) at very high feed rates andfor 85. Exponenti al smoothen ing methods
when there is small difference are best suited under conditions
between the coefficients of when
static and dynamic friction at
the slider and guideway (a) forecasting horizon is relatively
interfaces large

(b) at very high feed rates and (b) forecasting for large number
when there is small difference of items
between the coefficients of (c) available outside informatio n is
static and dynamic friction at
more
the headstock spindle and bed
of machine tool (d) All of the above

B-DMHH- N-NFB/54 A 19 [ P.T.O.

www.examrace.com
86. The correct sequence of increasing (c) moderate stock-out cost, high
production volume is stock-out cost and low stock-
out cost
(a) batch, job, flow and mass
(d) stock-out costs whose sequence
(b) mass, flow, batch and job depends on other factors also

(c) job, flow, mass and batch

90. Materials requirement planning is
(d) job, batch, mass and flow driven by
I
(a) master production schedule
87. The data for break-even analysis
(b) total quality measurement
of a product are given as-fixed
cost is I' 10,000; variable cost (c) overall production planning
is I' 10/unit; selling price is
(d) overall inventory planning
I' 15/ unit. The break-even volume
is
91. A microprogrammed control unit
(a) 2000
(a) is faster than hardwired
(b) 2500 control unit
(b) facilitates easy implementation
(c) 3500
of new instructions
(d) 4000 (c) is useful when very small
programs are to be run
88. Bushes are generally provided in a
(d) usually refers to the control
jig to
unit of microprocessor
(a) locate the job
92. Preparing a magnetic disk for data
(b) guide the tool
storage is called
(c) hold the job (a) booting

(d) All of the above (b) formatting

(c) debuffing
89. In ABC inventory control of spare
(d) buffing
parts, the items A, B and C
respectively refer to
93. The time for which a piece of
(a) high stock-out cost, moderate equipment operates is called
stock-out cost and low stock-
(a) seek time
out cost
(b) effective time
(b) low stock-out cost, moderate
(c) access time
stock-out cost and high stock-
out cost (d) real time

8-DMHH-N-NFB /54A 20

www.examrace.com
 94. The addressing mode used in the 97. In a FORTRAN program
instruction PUSH B is
(a) direct (a) all statements must be
numbered
(b) register
(b) the numbered statements
(c) register indirect
must be referred
(d) immediate
(c) the statements referred must
be numbered
95. Index register in a microproces sor is
used for (d) all statements must be referred

(a) direct addressing

98. In C language, i + + means
(b) address modification
(a) i =i +I

(c) pointing to the stack (b) i =i - 1

(d) loop execution (c) i = i +2

(d) i = i - 2
96. In the FORTRAN program

M=O 99. Which header file should be included

to use functions like malloc( ) and
DO lOOI =I, 2 calloc( )?
DO 200J= I, 2
(a) dos.h
M=M+I+J
200 CONTINUE (b) stdlib.h
100 CONTINUE
(c) memory.h
STOP
END (d) string.h

the value of M in the end will be 100. Program status word (PSW) contains
various status of
(a) 10
(a) program
(b) 11
(b) CPU

(c) 12 (c) ALU

(d) 14 {d) register

B-DMHH-N -NFB/54A 21 [ P.T.O.

www.examrace.com
Directions : 102. Statement (I) :
Each of the following twenty (20) items In case of partial balancing of
consists of two statements, one labelled locomotives, the maximum
as 'Statement (!)' and the other as magnitude of the unbalanced force
'Statement (II)'. You are to examine these perpendicula r to the line of stroke
two statements carefully and select the is called hammer blow and this
answers to these items using the code has to be limited by proper choice
given below. of the balancing mass and its
radial position. /
Code:
Statement (II) :
(a) Both Statement (I) and
The effect of hammer blow is to
Statement (II) are individually
cause variation in pressure
true and Statement (II) is
between the wheel and the rail,
the correct explanation of
and it may sometimes cause the
Statement (I)
lifting of wheels from the rails.
(b) Both Statement (I) and
Statement (II) are individually
true but Statement (II) is not 103. Statement (I) :
the correct explanation of
In interference fit, the outer
Statement (I)
diameter of the inner cylinder will
(c) Statement (I) is true but be more than the inner diameter of
Statement (II) is false the hollow outer cylinder.

(d) Statement (I) is false but Statement (II) :

Statement (II) is true These fits are recommende d for
two parts frequently dismantled
101. Statement (I) : and assembled.
When a flat-faced follower is used,
it would be preferable to provide
an offset in the plane perpen- 104. Statement (I) :
dicular to the plane of rotation of
the cam. In short open-belt drives, an idler
pulley is used in order to increase
Statement (II) : the angle of contact on the smaller
Because of the offset, the follower pulley for higher power
is made to rotate continuously transmission .
about its axis which in turn avoids
Statement (II) :
jamming of the follower in its
guide while moving up or down, The idler pulley facilitates
reduces the wear of the follower changing the speed of the driven
flat surface and distributes the shaft, while the main or driving
wear uniformly. shaft runs at constant speed.

B-DMHH-N- NFB /54A 22

www.examrace.com
 105. Statement (I) : 109. Statement (!) :
Worm and worm wheel drive can Cobalt exhibits hexagonal close-
be reversible. packed structure below 420 'C.
Statement (II) : Statement (II) :
If the friction angle is more than Structure of cobalt changes to
the lead angle, the drive will be face-centred cubic structure
reversible. above 420 'C.
1
110. Statement (I) :
106. Statement (!) : Melting point of alloy containing
In die casting process, molten 62% tin and 38% lead is 327 'C.
metal is injected at high pressure Statement (II) :
into a metallic die.
Low melting point of this alloy
Statement (II) : enables delicate parts of metal to
In this die casting process, some be soldered.
excess metal as required than
filling the mold is also forced into
111. Statement (!) :
the parting plane.
Salts like sodium chloride, sodium
hydroxide when added to water to
use as quenching media, cooling
107. Statement (I) : rate of quenching media will be
increased.
!-sections are best suited for
carrying bending load in one Statement (II)
lateral direction.
When salts are added to water,
Statement (II) : during quenching, distortion and
crack appearance in the quenched
In the zone, in the vicinity of steel components reduces.
neutral axis of !-beams, !-section
has the least material.
112. Statement (I) :
In drawing process, cross-section
of round wire is reduced by pulling
108. Statement (I) :
it through a die.
Cast iron is good in compression.
Statement (II) :
Statement (II) :
Bundle drawing produces wires
It is extensively used in members that are polygonal in cross-section
of the truss. rather than round.

B-DMHH-N-NFB/54A 23 [ P.T.O.

www.examrace.com
113. Statement (I) :
For high extrusion pressure, the
initial temperature of billet should
be high.
Statement (II)
As the speed of hot extrusion is
increased, it may lead to melting of
alloy constituents.
114. Statement (I) :
For casting of metal like
magnesium, top gating is not
used.
Statement (II) :
The gases will escape resulting in
early cooling of metal.
115. Statement (I) :
Cupola is used in cast
foundry.
Statement (II)
Basic fumaces are used
melting low-grade steel.
116. Statement (I) :
In powder cutting process, iron
powder is injected into the oxygen
jet while the cutting is proceeding.
Statement (II) :
In this process of powder cutting,
iron gets oxidized by the oxygen jet
and produces additional heat for
preheating of metal.
B-DMHH-N-NFB I 54A
117. Statement (I) :
In sand molding process, pouring
time depends on materials being
cast, complexity of casting, section
thickness and size.
Statement (II) :
In order to maintain optimum
pouring time, thickness of casting
is the important factor. '
118. Statement (I) :
The length of the oxidizing flame is
smallest compared to neutral or
reducing flame.
Statement (II) :
Due to extra oxygen available, the
combustion is faster producing
smaller length of flame.
119. Statement (I) :
iron Lead screw is used instead of the
feed rod to produce sufficiently
accurate threads.
Statement (II) :
for
Lead screw provides more
accurate movement to the
carriage.
120. Statement (I) :
In the manufacture of gears by
extrusion, the outside surface of
the material is hard and smooth.
Statement (II) :
The material in this process
passes through one hot and
smooth die.
24
www.examrace.com
 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

B-DMHH-N-NFB/54A 25 [ P.T.O.

www.examrace.com
 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

'

B-DMHH-N-NFB/54A 26

www.examrace.com
 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

***
B--DMHH-N-NFB/54A 27 BS4-71*

www.examrace.com