Ops Feedback

1- What is the ICAO definition of 'unidentified baggage'?

-Baggage that has been left in the baggage reclaim area and not collected within 24 hours?
-Baggage that has been left in the baggage reclaim area and not collected within 72 hours?
-Baggage at an airport, with or without a baggage tag, which is not picked up by or
identified with a passenger.
-Baggage at an airport, without a baggage tag, which is not picked up by or identified with a
passenger.

2- What is the MDH/A for a Class C aircraft on a circling approach?

(type answer) 600ft

3- Following the 'clean aircraft' concept an aircraft may take off with
-80% of the wing covered in frost
-Snow or slush collected on the elevator
-Frost on the fuselage
-3 to 4 cm of snow on the wings

4-What is the annex number and doc number for the safe transport of dangerous goods by
air?
-Annex 18 and Doc 9284

5-ICAO definition of 'screening'

-Using means to search for weapons and explosives that could cause damage to
aircraft/people
-Baggage put behind a screen
-X-ray for drugs
-Keeping dangerous goods separate from non dangerous goods

6-What is the initial action to be undertaken when a twin engine jet aircraft experiences an
engine fire after V1 before rotation?
-Stabilise AC and climb
-Shutdown engine and operate fire extinguisher handle
-Abandon take off
-Immediately inform ATC

7- What is the definition of frost?

-Clear film that accumulates on the aircraft surfaces when temperatures are below 0'C
-White Crystalline formation that forms on surfaces when the below 0'C
8 -Who is responsible for defining what is a dangerous good and providing updated
instructions on how they should be handled?
-ICAO
-EASA
-Pilot in command
-The operator

9-Which part of the operations manual would contain information on and the wind
limitation for a contaminated runway if any?
- Part A
- Part B
- Part C
- Part D

10- The operator shall prioritise the safety of which of the following when transporting and
handling radioactive products/cargo?
Select 3
The aircraft
The ground staff
The aerodrome buildings
The general public
The flight crew

11-In order for the governing body to grant an operator permission to lease an aircraft from
outside the EU, which of the following conditions must be met?

-Have identified an operational need for the lease for the aircraft and this cannot be met
from within the EU
-The lessor has a certificate of airworthiness from an ICAO member state
- Max 7 months in a 12 month period
*****LEASING rules are different for wet or dry lease in so check the question. I think
theres two in the new bank*****

Wet lease in
1. Valid ICAO AOC
2. Safety standards and air worthiness equivalent.
3. Valid CofA

Dry lease in
1. Operational Need that cannot be satisfied within the EU
2. Not exceed 7 months in a 12 month period
3. Compliant
4. Equipped in accordance with EU Ops

12- Under which certificate can an aircraft be operated for an aircraft under a dry lease?
-The operator
-EASA

13- Following an act of unlawful interference who is responsible for reporting this?
-EASA member state
-The Pilot in command
-The operator
-The last air traffic control unit who had responsible for the aircraft

14-"What precautions must an operator take when they have to transport two pieces of
cargo that could react with one another and cause a fire?" options were
-They should be loaded into a separate compartment.
- They shouldn't be loaded next to each other
- They cannot be transported on the same aircraft

15-Flight duty max per day with/without any extension Type in

13hrs
16- What is the distance prior to threshold at which speed change instructions shall not be
given. 4nm

17- VFR minima below 10000ft Class B

1500 ft from cloud 1000m horizontally 5k vis

18 - How long does an Operator need to hold flight duty records

15 months

19 - Smoke from and immediately obvious source in the cockpit what would you do.
Divert and do nothing else
Isolate services
20 - Smoke from an unidentified source
Divert and at max speed to the nearest suitable airfield
Isolate service plus two other options you could discount.

21 - Distance in minutes 2 aircraft flying at the same flight level at the same Mach number
10min

22 - PIC forgets to turn on the seatbelt sign, what does the senior cabin crew member do?
Suspend all non safety tasks and inform the captain

23 - Min timing separation if a heavy aircraft goes around when a light aircraft is taking off in
the other direction?
2 minutes

24 - Flight duty period in 7 days

60hrs

25 - Quick donning O2 mask at what height?

25,000ft

26 - 10% of pax are required 02 between what heights?

10,000 & 13,000

27 - CAT III B RVR

75m

28 - What would be shown on a Snowtam to represent braking action?

Good/Good/Good
0.37/0.39/0.32
4/5/4
29 - A ridiculous riddle about picking up snow and compacting in in to a ball where it keeps
its shape as a Snowball
Wet Snow
Dry Snow
Compacted Snow

30 - Max daily FDP

13 hrs

31 - ETOPS destination the required minima is?

Planning minima
Airport Operational Minima
Operational plus 25%
Operational plus 50%

32 - How long can a duty be extended by when there is an augmented crew

3hr
1hr
4hr
2hr

33 - En-Route ETOPS planning minima Precision Approach

+200ft DH / +800m RVR

34 - Where do you find the organisational requirements?

Part ARO
Part ORO
Part LVO
EU OPS
35 - When can you cancel Noise abatement
In safety circumstances. You don't have to tell anyone

36 - RVR on the take-off is not available, what can you do?

Commander can visually assess.
Take off is forbidden

37 - Where do you record your ETOPS alternate as well as the Flight Plan?
Operational flight plan

38 - How long do you keep training records for?

3 Years
As long as they are employed
3 Months
12 Months

39 - How long do you keep Flight Duty and Rest time records?
15 months

40 - How often is recurrent training?

As and when required

41 - ELT should transmit

Simultaneously on 406 and 121.5

42 - Heading West on NAT HLA

Whatever you are cleared for in the NAT Track message.
43 - Contamination on a runway where would you look for information on operating your
aircraft.
Ops Part B

44 - Low Level Windshear is:

I think for take off and final approach

45 - BGS 711493 - Wake Turbulence -

Land beyond touch down of previous aircraft

46 - What is the biggest issue affecting accuracy of compass navigation when conducting
polar navigation at high latitudes?
Convergence of the meridians (only sensible answer for this question)
Theres another question where the only sensible answer is.
The changes in magnetic variation

47 -Thesseloniki Greece
BGS 711409, but it's worded in a much more complicated way.
Something resembling AD2 is an answer.

48 - You are approaching a runway and run into a microburst, experiencing a heading of
30kts. What horizontal wind speed would you expect to experience directly underneath the
microburst.
-30kt headwind
-30kt tailwind
-60kt tailwind
-No horizontal wind

49 - Where would you find information on Commercial Air Transport?

-Part ARA and Part ORO (It had ARA, not ARO in the question, so was a wrong option)
-Part ORO and Part CAT
Notes
ANNEX I Definitions
ANNEX II Part ARO Authority requirements for Air Operations
ANNEX III Part ORO Organisation requirements for Air Operations
ANNEX IV Part CAT Commercial Air Transport
ANNEX V Part SPA Specific Approvals
ANNEX VI Part NCC Non-Commercial Air Operations With Complex Motor-Powered
Aircraft
ANNEX VII Part NCO Non-Commercial Air Operations with Other-Than Complex
Motor-Powered Aircraft
ANNEX VIII Part SPO Specialised Operations

50 - You are flying VFR in controlled airspace. What is the minimum radio requirement?
-Good enough to contact emergency services if needed
-Good enough to remain in contact with ATC

51 - Where would you find information on performance in icing conditions?

-Technical requirements for icing
-Part C
-Flight manual
-ICAO Doc 9284

52 - What do you check to ensure that dangerous goods are safe? (Unsure of wordings or
answers)
-According to technical instructions
-Display labelling clearly
-Check for damaged packaging and leaks
-Confirm paperwork is correct

53 - What is minimum rest at your home base?

-12 hours or preceding duty length, whichever is longer
-12 hours or preceding duty length, whichever is shorter
-10 hours or preceding duty length, whichever is longer
-10 hours or preceding duty length, whichever is shorter

54 - An operator shall ensure that training on the following is provided in the case of LVOs:
-Taxiing, take off, approach, landing, flare and missed approach.
-Taxiing, take off, approach, holding, landing, flare and missed approach.

55 - Which of the following would lead to an intentional ditching?

One engine
Uncontrollable fire and smoke
2 other options which were wrong as you could continue flight safely with both.

56 What are the requirements relating to aircraft over xxxxkg in relation to fuel Jettison?
Climb Gradient of 2.4%
Max landing weight
Climb Gradient of 3.2%

57 - An aircraft over 27,000kg must have:

Maintenance programme, Hazard training, Data Monitoring.
Maintenance programme, a method for Identification of rotable parts, Data Monitoring

58 - A non pressurised aircraft has a max seating config of 12 what are the regulations
relating to AWR?
Something along the lines of that it does not need to due to the seating config being low
I cant remember the correct option but below states:
EU-OPS 1.670 requires that:
(a) An operator shall not operate:
(1) A pressurised aeroplane; or
(2) An unpressurised aeroplane which has a maximum certificated take-off mass of more
than 5 700 kg; or
(3) An unpressurised aeroplane having a maximum approved passenger seating
configuration of more than 9 seats after 1 April 1999, unless it is equipped with airborne
weather radar equipment whenever such an aeroplane is being operated at night or in
instrument meteorological conditions in areas where thunderstorms or other potentially
hazardous weather conditions, regarded as detectable with airborne weather radar, may
be expected to exist along the route.

59 - What DG are forbidden to be taken on aircraft except with special authority from the
National Authority?
Liquid Explosives
Solid Explosives
Infected Livestock

60 - ETOPS question with lots of confusing Blurb. They tell you it has a 180min auth and ask
for the TO alt flying time.
Im told the answer is 120min but I cant be sure

61 - ICAO Commercial air transport Definition

Air transport services available to the general public for the transportation of passengers,
mail and/or freight for remuneration. Includes air taxis and commercial business flights.

62 - Requirements for ACAS:

a. MCTOM . 5,700kg and MOPSC > 19
b. Variations on the above including 5,000kg and MOPSC of 9.

63 What is the below Label? CARGO AIRCRAFT ONLY

64 - When conducting LVO, which of the following are important

-The requirement to monitor the Actual Navigation Performance (ANP) of the aircraft
throughout the approach.
-The requirement for correct seating and eye height for the Pilot Flying (PF).
-The requirement for both pilots to look out at DH.

65 - Which of the following is correct regarding equipment approval?

a. Accurate time pieces need not be approved.
b. Child restraints need to be approved.
c and d. Other irrelevant ones

66 - You are in a piston aircraft and the carburettor catches fire after start. Your actions are:
-Carry out the 'engine fire on the ground' drills immediately.
-Select mixture to off and vacate the aircraft immediately.
-Select mixture to off, open the throttle and use the extinguisher.
-Leave the engine running and check to see if the fire continues.

67 - Graph in the worksheet of Y-Axis Pressure Altitude, X-Axis Cabin Pressure, diagonal lines
of cabin differential. You wish to maintain a maximum of 2 bar/PSI (can't remember which)
cabin differential, what is the maximum Pressure Altitude you can operate at if you wish to
stay below 10,000ft cabin alt?

Simple graph which yields 15,750 ft on the Y-Axis (I did this to the mm!)
-12,000 ft
-14,000 ft
-15,100 ft

68 - 'Differences' training should take in to account:

- Two options with 'additional' training.
- Two options with refresher training.
Notes:
Differences = Additional training to operate a different variant. Variants are broadly similar
bit have some significant differences that justify time in the simulator or aircraft.
Familiarisation training = purely knowledge based training. When two variants of the same
type have very similar equipment and handling characteristics.

69 - Number of radios required for IFR Flight. **Really unsure about these theres a few
questions and they change VFR and IFR***
- 2 radios and required minimum nav equipment
-1VOR,1ADF,1DME

70 - What is the minimum number of inexperienced crew permissible on a flight?

-1
-35% rounded up to the nearest whole person.
-3
-2

71 - An aircraft should be able to transmit on:

-112.5 MHz
-406 MHz
-Something weird
-121.5 MHz

72 - The appointment of a chief cabin crew member which boiled down to

-The most senior cabin crew member
-The cabin crew member chosen by the commander
-The cabin crew member chosen by the operator

73. Who conducts checks and corrective actions following failure of compliance after a ramp
inspection?
-ICAO
-Operator
-EASA
-Authority

74. Who approves non approved people to conduct work for an operator?
-ICAO
-Operator
-State Authority
-Contractor

75. Youre on approach and windshear has been forecast at the threshold. What do you do?
-Increase Speed
-Hold
-Reduce Speed

76. Definition of a Microburst

-Wind emanating only from a thunderstorm
-Wind accelerated in a vertical direction
-Wind accelerated in a horizontal direction
-Wind accelerated in a horizontal and vertical direction.

77. Which of the following would have a VOR referenced to True North
-West Atlantic
-Northern Canada
-Scotland

78. The requirements for senior cabin crew are?

12 months and conduct an operators check
1 year and conduct a training course and check
Another answer
Another answer

79. What would you do when a laptop with a lithium battery catches fire?
-Place in a fire retardant bag
-Extinguish with Water
- Use the appropriate fire extinguisher

80. What do you have to do when carrying lithium batteries.

Not sure of the wording or answers but I think you have to isolate the contacts to prevent a
short circuit.

SlushWater-saturated snow which, with a heel-and-toe slap-down motion against the

ground, will be displaced with a splatter; specific gravity: 0.5 up to 0.8
Wet SnowSnow which, if compacted by hand, will stick together and tend to or form a
snowball; specific gravity: 0.35 up to but not including 0.5.
Dry SnowSnow which can be blown if loose or, if compacted by hand, will fall apart again
upon release; specific gravity: up to but not including 0.35.
Compacted SnowSnow which has been compressed into a solid mass that resists further
compression and will hold together or break up into lumps if picked up; specific gravity: 0.5
and over.

ELT
CAT.IDE.A.280 Emergency locator transmitter (ELT)
(a) Aeroplanes with an MOPSC of more than 19 shall be equipped with at least:
(1) two ELTs, one of which shall be automatic, or one ELT and one aircraft localisation means
meeting the requirement of CAT.GEN.MPA.210, in the case of aeroplanes first issued with
an individual CofA after 1 July 2008; or
(2) one automatic ELT or two ELTs of any type or one aircraft localisation means meeting the
requirement of CAT.GEN.MPA.210, in the case of aeroplanes first issued with an individual
CofA on or before 1 July 2008.
(b) Aeroplanes with an MOPSC of 19 or less shall be equipped with at least:
(1) one automatic ELT or one aircraft localisation means meeting the requirement of
CAT.GEN.MPA.210, in the case of aeroplanes first issued with an individual CofA after 1 July
2008; or
(2) one ELT of any type or one aircraft localisation means meeting the requirement of
CAT.GEN.
MPA.210, in the case of aeroplanes first issued with an individual CofA on or before 1 July
2008.
(c) An ELT of any type shall be capable of transmitting simultaneously on 121,5 MHz and 406
MHz.

Fuel Policy

See CAT.OP.MPA.150 Fuel policy

EASA OPS
CAT.OP.MPA.150 Fuel policy
(a) The operator shall establish a fuel policy for the purpose of flight planning and in-flight
replanning to ensure that every flight carries sufficient fuel for the planned operation and
reserves to cover deviations from the planned operation. The fuel policy and any change to
it require prior approval by the competent authority.
(b) The operator shall ensure that the planning of flights is based upon at least:
(1) procedures contained in the operations manual and:
(i) data provided by the aircraft manufacturer; or
(ii) current aircraft-specific data derived from a fuel consumption monitoring system; and
(2) the operating conditions under which the flight is to be conducted including:
(i) aircraft fuel consumption data;
(ii) anticipated masses;
(iii) expected meteorological conditions; and
(iv) air navigation services provider(s) procedures and restrictions.

Pilot Seat
EASA OPS

ORO.FC.235 Pilot qualification to operate in either pilots seat

(a) Commanders whose duties require them to operate in either pilot seat and carry out the
duties
of a co-pilot, or commanders required to conduct training or checking duties, shall complete
additional training and checking as specified in the operations manual. The check may be
conducted together with the operator proficiency check prescribed in ORO.FC.230(b).
(b) The additional training and checking shall include at least the following:
(1) an engine failure during take-off;
(2) a one-engine-inoperative approach and go-around; and
(3) a one-engine-inoperative landing.
(c) In the case of helicopters, commanders shall also complete their proficiency checks from
leftand
right-hand seats, on alternate proficiency checks, provided that when the type rating
proficiency check is combined with the operator proficiency check the commander
completes
his/her training or checking from the normally occupied seat.
(d) When engine-out manoeuvres are carried out in an aircraft, the engine failure shall be
simulated.
(e) When operating in the co-pilots seat, the checks required by ORO.FC.230 for operating
in the
commanders seat shall, in addition, be valid and current.
(f) The pilot relieving the commander shall have demonstrated, concurrent with the
operator
proficiency checks prescribed in ORO.FC.230(b), practice of drills and procedures that would
not,
normally, be his/her responsibility. Where the differences between left- and right-hand
seats
are not significant, practice may be conducted in either seat.
(g) The pilot other than the commander occupying the commanders seat shall demonstrate
practice of drills and procedures, concurrent with the operator proficiency checks
prescribed in
ORO.FC.230(b), which are the commanders responsibility acting as pilot monitoring. Where
the
differences between left- and right-hand seats are not significant, practice may be
conducted in
either seat.

Recurrent Training

ORO.FC.230 Recurrent training and checking

(a) Each flight crew member shall complete recurrent training and checking relevant to the
type or
variant of aircraft on which they operate.
(b) Operator proficiency check
(1) Each flight crew member shall complete operator proficiency checks as part of the
normal crew complement to demonstrate competence in carrying out normal, abnormal
and emergency procedures.(2) When the flight crew member will be required to operate
under IFR, the operator proficiency check shall be conducted without external visual
reference, as appropriate. (3) The validity period of the operator proficiency check shall be
six calendar months. For operations under VFR by day of performance class B aeroplanes
conducted during seasons not longer than eight consecutive months, one operator
proficiency check shall be sufficient. The proficiency check shall be undertaken before
commencing commercial air transport operations
(c) Line check (1) Each flight crew member shall complete a line check on the aircraft to
demonstrate competence in carrying out normal line operations described in the operations
manual. The validity period of the line check shall be 12 calendar months.(2)
Notwithstanding ORO.FC.145(a)(2), line checks may be conducted by a suitably qualified
commander nominated by the operator, trained in CRM concepts and the assessment of
CRM skills.