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I.E.S-(OBJ)-2000 1 of 15
MECHANICAL ENGINEERING
PAPERI
1. Which one of the following sets of the following thermodynamic cycles in
thermodynamic laws/is directly involved this regard
in determining the final properties during 1. Carnot cycle
an adiabatic mixing process? 2. reversible cycle
a. The first and second laws of 3. Irreversible cycle
thermodynamics Which of these cycles could possibly be
b. The second law of thermodynamics executed by the engine?
and steady flow relations a. 1 alone
c. Perfect gas relationship and steady b. 3 alone
flow relations
c. 1 and 2
d. The first law of thermodynamics and
perfect gas relation ship d. None of 1, 2 and 3
2. The air with enthalpy of 100 kJ/kg is 5.
compressed by an air compressor to a
pressure and Y temperature at which its
enthalpy becomes 200 kJ/kg. The loss of
heat is 40 kJ/kg from the compressor as
the air passes through it. Neglecting
kinetic and potential energies, the power The process 12 for steam shown in the
required for an air mass flow of 0.5 kJ/s is given figure is
a. 30 kW a. isobaric
b. 50 kW b. isentropic
c. 70 kW c. isenthalpic,
d. 90 kW d. isothermal
3. Consider the following statements: 6. In which one of the following working
1. The first law of thermodynamics is a substances, does the relation T2 / T1 = (p2 /
law of conservation of energy. p1) 0.286 hold good if the process takes
place with zero heat transfer?
2. Perpetual motion machine of the first
kind converts energy into equivalent a. Wet steam
work. b. Superheat steam
3. A closed system does not exchange c. Petrol vapour and air mixture
work or energy with its surroundings. d. Air
4. The second law of thermodynamics 7. Consider the following statements
stipulates the law of conservation of When dry saturated steam is throttled from
energy and entropy. a higher pressure to a lower pressure, the
Which of these statements are correct? 1. pressure decreases and the volume
a. 1 land 3 increases
b. 2 and 4 2. temperature decreases and the steam
c. 2, 3 and 4 becomes superheated
d. 1, 2 and 3 3. temperature and the dryness fraction
4. A heat engine receives 1000 kW of heat at increase
a constant temperature of 285. C and 4. entropy increases without any change
rejects 492 kW of heat at 5 C. Consider in enthalpy
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Which of these statements are correct? b. 1 and 4
a. 1 and 4 c. 2 and 3
b. 1, 2 and 4 d. 2 and 4
c. 1 and 3 11. The head added to a closed system during
d. 2 and 4. a reversible process is given by Q = T +
8. 10 kg of water is heated from 300 K to 350 T2, where and are constant. The
K in an insulated tank due to churning entropy change of .the system as its
action by a stirrer. The ambient temperature changes from T1 to T2 is equal
temperature is 300 K. In this context, to
match List I with list II and select the a. T2 T1
correct answer :
List I b. T2 T1 / 2 T22 T12 / T1
A. Enthalpy change c. / 2 T22 T12 / 3 T23 T13 / T12
B. Entropy change / kg
C. Availability / kg d. ln T2 / T1 2 T2 T1
D. Loss of availability 12. The internal energy of a gas obeying van
List II a
der Waals equation p 2 v b RT
1. 12.2 kJ/kg v
2. 1968 kJ depends on its
3. 2090 kJ a. Temperature
4. 656 J /kg K b. Temperature and pressure
Codes; c. Temperature and specific volume
A B C D d. Pressure and specific volume
a. 3 1 4 2 13. Consider the following statements:
b. 2 4 1 3 A real gas obeys perfect gas law at very
c. 3 4 1 2 1. high temperatures
d. 2 1 4 3 2. high pressures
9. In which one of the following situations 3. low pressures
the entropy change will be negative? Which of these statements is/are correct?
a. Air expands isothermally from 6 bars a. 1 alone
to 3 bars b. 1 and 3
b. Air is compressed to half the volume at c. 2 alone
constant pressure
d. 3 alone
c. Heat is supplied to air at constant
14. The Clapeyron equation with usual
volume till the pressure becomes three
notations is given by
folds
a. (dT / dP)sat = hfg / Tvfg
d. Air expands isentropically from 6 bars
to 3 bars b. (dP / dT)sat = hfg / Tvfg
10. Consider the following thermodynamic c. (dT / dP)sat = Thfg / vfg
relations: d. (dP/ dT)sat = Thfg / vfg
1. Tds = du + pdv 15. The capacity of an air compressor is
2. Tds = du - pdv specified as 10 m3/min. It means that the
compressor is capable of
3. Tds = dh + vdp
a. supplying 3 m3 of compressed air per
4. Tds = dh vdp
minute
Which of these thermodynamic relations
b. compressing 3 m3 of free air per
are correct?
minute
a. 1 and 3
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c. supplying 3 m3 of compressed air at Which of these statements are correct?
NTP a. 1 and 3
d. compressing 3 m3 of standard air per b. 1 and 2
minute c. 2 and 3
16. A two -stage compressor takes in air at 1.1 d. 2 and 4
bars and discharges at 20 bars. For
maximum efficiency, the intermediate 20. Match List I (Air-fuel ratio by mass) with
pressure is List II (Engine operation mode) and select
the correct answer:
a. 10.55 bars
List I
b. 7.33 bars
A. 10: 1
c. 5.5 bars
B. 16: 1
d. 4.7 bars
C. 35 : 1
17. For the same maximum pressure and heat
input, the most efficient cycle is D. 12.5: 1
a. Otto cycle List II
b. Diesel cycle 1. CI engine part load
c. Brayton cycle 2. SI engine part load
d. Dual combustion cycle 3. SI engine idling
18. Consider the following statements: 4. CI full load
1. Octane rating of gasoline is based on 5. SI full load
iso-octane and iso-heptane fuels which Codes;
are paraffins. A B C D
2. Tetraethyl lead is added to gasoline to a. 3 2 1 5
increase octane number. b. 4 2 1 5
3. Ethylene dibromide is added as c. 3 1 2 4
scavenging agent to remove lead
d. 4 1 2 3
deposits on spark plugs.
21. Consider the following statements:
4. Surface ignition need not necessarily
cause knocking. In down draft carburettor, a hot spot is
formed at the bottom wall which is
Which of these statements are correct?
common for intake and exhaust manifolds.
a. 1, 2, 3 and 4 This helps to
b. 2, 3 and 4 1. improve evaporation of liquid fuel
c. 1 and 4 2. provide higher thermal efficiency
d. 1, 2 and 3 3. reduce fuel consumption
19. Consider the following statements: 4. lower the exhaust gas temperature
1. Recycling exhaust gases with intake Which of these statements are correct?
increases emission of oxides of
a. 1, 2 and 4
nitrogen from the engine.
b. 1, 2 and 3
2. When the carburetor throttle is
suddenly opened, the fuel-air mixture c. 1, 3 and 4
leans out temporarily causing engine d. 2, 3 and 4
stall. 22. In a petrol engine car, which one of the
3. The effect of increase in altitude on following performance characteristics is
carburettor is to enrich the entire part- affected by the front - end volatility of the
throttle operation. gasoline used?
4. Use of multiple venturi, system makes a. Hot starting and vapour lock
it possible to obtain a high velocity air b. Engine warm-up. and spark plug
stream when the fuel is introduced at fouling
the main venturi throat.
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c. Spark plug fouling and hot starting 28. Assertion (A): The CI engine is basically
d. Vapour lock, engine warm-up and more suitable for supercharging than the
spark plug fouling SI engine.
23. In turbo prop, the expansion of gases takes Reason (R): In the CI engine
place approximately supercharging tends to prevent diesel
a. 100% in the turbine knocking.
b. 80% in the turbine and 20% in the a. Both A and R are true and R is the
nozzle correct explanation of A
c. 50% in the turbine and 50% in the b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
nozzle the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. 100% in the nozzle
24. The most commonly used moderator in d. A is false but R is true
nuclear power plants is 29. Assertion (A): With the help of a Bomb
a. heavy water calorimeter, the lower calorific value of a
solid or liquid fuel can be determined, as
b. concrete and bricks the water vapour formed is carried away
c. steel by the exhaust gases.
d. graphite Reason (R): The lower calorific value of a
25. Shielding in a nuclear reactor is generally fuel is the net value of heat available found
done to protect against by subtracting the latent head of the water
a. excess electrons formed and carried away by exhaust gas
from the higher calorific value.
b. X-.rays
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
c. - and -rays correct explanation of A
d. neutron and gamma rays b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
26. Assertion (A): If a cube is placed in a the correct explanation of A
liquid with two of its surfaces parallel to c. A is true but R is false
the free surface of the liquid, then the
pressures on the two surfaces which are d. A is false but R is true
parallel to the free surface, are the same. 30. Assertion (A): The thermal efficiency of
Reason (R): Pascals law states that when Brayton cycle would not necessarily
a fluid is at rest, the pressure at any plane increase with reheat.
is the same in all directions. Reason (R): Constant pressure lines on the
a. Both A and R are true and R is the T-s diagram slightly diverge with increase
correct explanation of A in entropy.
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT a. Both A and R are true and R is the
the correct explanation of A correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
d. A is false but R is true
27. Assertion (A): Catalytic converters for
reduction of oxides of nitrogen in engine d. A is false but R is true
exhaust cannot be used with leaded fuels. 31. Assertion (A): A thermodynamic system
Reason (R): Catalyst will be removed due may be considered as a quantity of
to chemical corrosion by lead salts. working substance with which interactions
of heat and work are studied.
correct explanation of A Reason (R): Energy in the form of work
and heat are mutually convertible.
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
d. A is false but R is true the correct explanation of A
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c. A is true but R is false a. Both A and R are true and R is the
d. A is false but R is true correct explanation of A
32. Assertion (A): All analyses of heat transfer b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
in turbulent flow must eventually rely on the correct explanation of A
experimental data. c. A is true but R is false
Reason (R): The eddy properties vary d. A is false but R is true
across the boundary layer and no adequate 36. Assertion (A): Modem turbines have
theory is available to predict their velocity compounding at the initial stages
behaviour. and pressure compounding in subsequent
a. Both A and R are true and R is the stages.
correct explanation of A Reason (R): Excessive tip leakage occurs
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT in the high pressure region of reaction
the correct explanation of A balding.
33. Assertion (A): The leakage heat transfer b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
from the outside surface of a steel pipe the correct explanation of A
carrying hot gases is reduced to a greater c. A is true but R is false
extent on providing refractory brick lining d. A is false but R is true
on the inside of the pipe as compared to 37. Assertion (A): The air-fuel ratio employed
that with brick lining on the outside. in a gas turbine is around 60 : 1.
Reason (R): The refractory brick lining on Reason (R): A lean mixture of 60 : 1 in a
the inside of the pipe offers a higher gas turbine is mainly used for complete
thermal resistance. combustion.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
c. A is true but R is false c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true d. A is false but R is true
34. Assertion (A): Thermal conductance of 38. Which one of the following pairs of
heat pipe is several hundred times that of features and compressors type is NOT
the best available metal conductor under correctly matched?
identical conditions.
a. Intake and delivery ports compression
Reason (R): The value of latent heat is far is attained by back flow and internal
greater than that of specific heat. compression cylindrical rotor set to
a. Both A and R are true and R is the eccentric casing : Vane compressor
correct explanation of A b. Intermittent discharge requires
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT receiver, produces high pressure, slow
the correct explanation of A speed and lubrication problems :
c. A is true but R is false Reciprocating compressor
d. A is false but R is true c. Continuous flow, radial flow, handles
35. Assertion (A): The efficiency of a pump is large volume, much higher speed and
generally less than that of a turbine. fitted into design of aero- engines:
Centrifugal compressor
Reason (R): Although the losses in the two
types of machines are of the same kind, the d. Successive pressure drops through
losses in pumps are more due to eddies contracting passages, blades are
and turbulence. formed from a number of circular arcs,
axial flow
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1. Forced circulation is always used in c. nozzles do not occupy the complete
high pressure power boilers. circumference leading into the blade
2. Soot blowers are used for cleaning annulus
tube surfaces at regular intervals. d. steam is admitted partially into the
3. Electrostatic precipitator is used to blades directly
remove fly ash from flue gases. 43. Consider the following statements
Which of these statements are correct? regarding a 100% reaction turbine
a. 1, 2 and 3 1. Change in absolute velocity of steam
b. 2 and 3 across the moving blades is zero.
c. 1 and 3 2. Change in absolute velocity of steam
across the moving blades is negative.
d. 1 and 2
3. Enthalpy drop in fixed blades is zero.
40. Once - through boilers operate at
Which of these statements is /are correct?
a. subcritical pressure
a. 1 alone
b. supercritical pressure
b. 2 alone
c. subcritical as well as supercritical
pressure c. 2 and 3
d. critical pressure only d. 1 and 3
41. Match List I (Components) with List II 44. Which one of the following pairs is NOT
(Functions) and select the correct answer: correctly matched?
List I a. Internal efficiency of steam turbine :
Product of stage efficiency and reheat
A. Steam trap factor
B. Fusible plug b. Stage efficiency of a turbine : Ratio of
C. Blow-off cock adiabatic heat drop to the isentropic
D. Feed check valve heat drop per stage
List II c. Dryness fraction of a steam within a
1. Controls steam flow rate stage. : Decreases due to reheating
2. Controls rate of water flow to boiler d. Steam condensation during expansion
through the turbine : Enhances blade
3. Puts off furnace fire when water level
erosion
reaches unsafe limit
4. Removes mud and dirt collected at the
bottom of boiler For supersaturated flow through a steam
nozzle, the
5. Drains off water collected by partial
condensation of steam in pipes 1. enthalpy drop reduces further
Codes; 2. exit temperature increases
A B C D 3. flow rate increases
a. 5 1 4 2 Which of these statements are correct?
b. 1 3 5 4 a. 1, 2 and 3
c. 5 3 4 2 b. 1 and 2
d. 1 2 5 4 c. 2 and 3
42. Partial admission steam turbine refers to d. 1 and 3
the situation where the 46. Velocity triangle for a reaction turbine
a. steam is admitted partially into the stage is shown in the given figure. (AB =
blades through nozzles v1 = absolute velocity at rotor blade inlet;
CB = w1 = relative velocity at rotor blade
b. nozzles occupy the complete
intel; CE = w2 = relative velocity at rotor
circumference leading into the blade
balade exit and CD = CB)
annulus
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n
2 n 1
b.
n 1
n 1
n 1 n
The ratio of reaction force to impulse force c.

2
is n 1
a. CE/CB 2 n
d.
b. CD/CE n 1
c. DE/BD 51. Consider the following statements:
d. AE/AB The volumetric efficiency of a
47. Consider the following statements: reciprocating compressor can be enhanced
1. Throttle governing improves quality of by
steam in the last few stages. 1. heating the intake air
2. Internal efficiency of steam is not 2. decreasing the clearance volume
seriously effected by throttle 3. cooling the intake air
governing. Which of these statements is / are correct?
3. Throttle governing is better than nozzle a. 1 alone
governing.
b. 1 and 2
c. 2 and 3
a. 1, 2 and 3
d. 3 alone
b. 1 and 3
52. Reciprocating compressors are provided
c. 2 and 3 with
d. 1 and 2 a. simple disc/ plate valve
48. Which one of the following statements is b. poppet valve
correct?
c. spring-loaded disc valve
a. Reheat factor is zero if efficiency of
the turbine is close to unity d. solenoid valve
b. Lower the efficiency, higher will be 53. Consider the following statements : In
the reheat factor centrifugal compressors, there is a
tendency of increasing surge when
c. Reheat factor is independent of steam
conditions at turbine inlet 1. the number of diffuser vanes is less
than the number of impeller vanes
d. Availability of reheat is higher at lower
pressure end 2. the number of diffuser vanes is greater
than the number of impeller vanes
49. In a steam power plant, the ratio of the
isentropic heat drop in the prime mover to 3. the number of diffuser vanes is equal
the amount of heat supplied per unit mass to the number of impeller vanes
of steam is known as 4. mass flow is greatly in excess of that
a. stage efficiency corresponding to the design mass flow
b. degree of reaction Which of these statements is/are correct?
c. Rankine efficiency a. 1 and 4
d. relative efficiency b. 2 alone
50. The critical pressure ratio for maximum c. 3 and 4
discharge through a nozzle is given by d. 2 and 4
n 54. In an axial flow compressor design,
n 1 n 1 velocity diagrams are constructed from the
a.
2 experimental data of aerofoil cascades.
Which one of the following statements in
this regard is correct?
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a. Incidence angle of the approaching air d. 1.8m
is measured from the trailing edge of 59. Match List I (Outlet vane angle 3 2) with
the blade List II (Curves labelled 1, 2 and 3 in the
b. is the deviation angle between the given figure) for a pump and select the
angle of incidence and tangent to the correct answer
camber line List I
c. The deflection of the gas stream A. 2 90
while passing through the cascade is
given by 1 2 B. 2 90
d. is the sum of the angle of incidence C. 2 90

and camber less any deviation angle, List II
i.e. i
55. The efficiency of a simple gas turbine can
be improved by using a regenerator,
because the
a. work of compression is reduced
b. heat required to be supplied is reduced
c. work output of the turbine is increased
d. heat rejected is increased
Codes;
56. Which one of the following pairs of
formulae represents the specific speeds of A B C
turbine and pump respectively? (Notations a. 1 2 3
have their usual meanings) b. 1 3 2
a. NQ1/2 / H3/4 and NP1/2 H5/4 c. 2 1 3
b. NQ1/2 / H3/4 and NP1/2 H3/4 d. 3 2 1
c. NP1/2 / H3/4 and NQP1/2 H5/4 60. Consider the following statements
d. NP1/2 / H5/4 and NQ1/2 H3/4 regarding the volute casting of a
57. Consider the following turbines / wheels: centrifugal pump
1. Francis turbine 1. Loss of heat due to change in velocity
is eliminated.
2. Pelton wheel with two or more jets
2. Efficiency of the pump is increased.
3. Pelton wheel with a single jet
3. Water from the periphery of the
4. Kaplan turbine impeller is collected and transmitted to
The correct sequence of these turbines/ the delivery pipe at constant velocity.
wheels in increasing order of their specific Which of these statements are correct?
speeds is
a. 1, 2 and 3
a. 2, 3, 1, 4
b. 1 and 2
b. 3, 2, 1, 4
c. 2 and 3
c. 2, 3, 4, 1
d. 1 and 3
d. 3, 2, 4, 1
61. The cavitations number of any fluid
58. The gross head available to a hydraulic
p p'
power plant is 100 m. The utilized head in machinery is defined (P is
the runner of the hydraulic turbine is 72 m. V 2 / 2
If the hydraulic efficiency of the turbine is absolute pressure, is density and V is
90%, the pipe friction head is estimated to free stream velocity) The symbol p
be denotes
a. 20m a. static pressure of fluid
b. 18m b. dynamic pressure of fluid
c. 16.2m c. vapour pressure of fluid
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d. shear stress of fluid d. vary logarithmically, with radius
62. Consider the following statements,: 66. A composite plane wall is made up of two
A water turbine governor different materials of the same thickness
1. helps in starting and shutting down the and having thermal conductivities of k1
turbo unit. and k2 respectively. The equivalent
thermal conductivity of the slab is
2. controls the speed of turbine set to
match it with the hydroelectric system a. k1 k2
3. sets the amount of load which a b. k1k2
turbine unit has to carry k1 k2
Which of these, statements are correct? c.
k1k2
a. 1, 2 and 3
2k1k2
b. 1 and 2 d.
k1 k2
c. 2 and 3
d. 1 and 3 67. A copper wire of radius 0.5 mm is
insulated with a sheathing of thickness 1
63. Consider the following, statements
mm having a thermal conductivity of 0.5
regarding a torque converter:
W/m -K. The outside surface convective
1. Its maximum efficiency is less than heat transfer coefficient is 10 W/m2 - K. If
that of the fluid coupling. the thickness of. insulation sheathing is
2. It has two runners and a set of raised by 10 mm, then the electrical
stationary vanes interposed between current-carrying capacity of the wire will
them. a. increase
3. It has two runners. b. decrease
4. The ratio of secondary to primary c. remain the same
torque is zero for the zero value of
d. vary depending upon the electrical
angular velocity of secondary.
conductivity of the wire
68. For the fully developed laminar flow and
a. 1 and 2 heat transfer in a uniformly heated long
b. 3 and 4 circular tube, if the flow velocity is
c. 1 and 4 doubled and the tube diameter is halved,
d. 2 and 4 the heat transfer coefficient will be
64. Consider the following statements: a. double of the original value
The reheat cycle helps to reduce b. half of the original value
1. field consumption c. same as before
2. steam flow d. four times of the original value
3. the condenser size 69. Heat transfer by radiation between two
grey bodies of emissivity is proportional to
Which of these statements are correct? (notations have their usual meanings)
a. 1 and 2
a.
Eb J
b. 1 and 3
1
c. 2 and 3
d. 1, 2 and 3 b.
Eb J
65. The outer surface of a long cylinder is 1 /
maintained at constant temperature. The
cylinder does not have any heat source The c.
Eb J
1
2
temperature in the cylinder will
a. increase linearly with radius
d.
Eb J
b. decrease linearly with radius
1
2
c. be independent of radius
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70. Solar radiation of 1200 W/m2 falls Codes;
perpendicularly on a grey opaque surface A B C D
of emissivity 05 If the surface temperature a. 3 1 2 4
is 50C and surface emissive power is 600
W/m2, the radiosity of that surface will be b. 2 1 3 4
a. 600 W/m2 c. 3 4 2 1
b. 1000 W/m2 d. 2 4 3 1
c. 1200 W/m2 74. The Nusselts number is related to
Reynolds number in laminar and turbulent
d. 1800 W/m2 flows respectively as
71. The overall heat, transfer coefficient U for a. Re -1/2 and Re 0.8
a plane composite wall of n layers is given
by (the thickness of the i th layer is ti, b. Re 1/2 and Re 0.8
thermal conductivity of the i th layer is ki, c. Re - 1/2 and Re 0.8
convective, heat transfer coefficient. Is h) d. Re - 1/2 and Re - 0.8
1 75. In respect of free convection over a
a.
1 n ti 1 vertical flat plate the Nusselt number
varies with Grashof number Gr as
h1 i 1 ki hn
n
a. Gr and Gr1/4 for laminar and turbulent
ti
b. h1 hn flows respectively
i 1 ki b. Gr1/2 and Gr1/3 for laminar and
1 turbulent flows respectively
c.
1 n
t c. Gr1/4 and Gr1/3 for laminar and
i hn turbulent flows respectively
h1 i 1 ki
d. Gr1/3 and Gr1/4 for laminar and
1 n ti 1
d. turbulent flows respectively
h1 i 1 ki hn 76. Consider the following conditions for heat
72. The equation of effectiveness = 1 e -NTU
transfer (thickness of thermal boundary
of a heat exchanger is valid (NTU is layer is t velocity of boundary layer is t,
number of transfer units) in the case of and Prandtl number is Pr)
a. boiler and condenser for parallel flow 1. t x x if Pr 1
b. boiler and condenser for counterflow
2. t x x if Pr 1
c. boiler and condenser for both parallel
flow and counterflow 3. t x x if Pr 1
d. gas turbine for both parallel flow and Which of these conditions apply for
counterflow convective heat transfer?
73. Match List I with list II and select the a. 1 and 2
correct answer:
b. 2 and 3
List I
c. 1 and 3
A. Fin
d. 1, 2 and 3
B. Heat exchanger
77. The enthalpies at the beginning of
C. Transient conduction compression, at the end of compression
D. Heisler chart and at the end of condensation are
List II respectively 185 kJ/kg, 210 kJ/kg and 85
1. UA/Cmin kJ/kg. The COP of the vapour compression
refrigeration system is
2. x / 2
a. 0.25
3. hp / kA b. 5.4
4. hL / K c. 4
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d. 1.35 c. Sulphur torch
78. Consider the following statements d. Blue litmus paper
regarding refrigerants: 83. Consider the following statements:
1. Refrigerant NH3 is used in 1. Azeotropes are the mixtures of
reciprocating compressors. refrigerants and behave like pure
2. Refrigerant CO2 is used in substances.
reciprocating compressors. 2. Isomers refrigerants are compounds
3. Refrigerant R -11 is used in centrifugal with the same chemical formula but
compressors. have different molecular structures.
Which of these statements are correct? 3. The formula n + p + q = 2m I used for
a. 1 and 3 unsaturated chlorofluorocarbon
b. 1 and 2 compounds (m, n, p and q are the
numbers of atoms of carbon, hydrogen,
c. 2 and 3 fluorine and chlorine respectively)
d. 1, 2 and 3 Which of the statements are correct?
79. The COP of a heat pump HP and the a. 1 and 3
COP of a refrigerator Ref are related as b. 2 and 3
a. HP + Ref = 1 c. 1 and 2
b. HP - Ref = 1 d. 1, 2 and 3
c. Ref - HP = 1 84. Consider the following statements:
d. HP + Ref = 0 The typical air velocities in the ducts of
80. Consider the following statements: air-conditioning systems are
The pressure in a horizontal capillary tube 1. lower in residential buildings as
of a refrigeration system decreases due to compared to those of public buildings
the 2. higher in residential building as
1. frictional resistance offered by the tube compared to those of public buildings
wall 3. higher in industrial buildings as
2. acceleration of refrigerant in the tube compared to those of public buildings
3. heat transfer from the tube wall 4. equal in all types of buildings
4. decrease in the potential energy Which of these statements s/are correct?
Which of these statements are correct? a. 1 alone
a. 1 and 4 b. 1 and 3
b. 2, 3 and 4 c. 2 and 3
c. 1, 2 and 3 d. 4 alone
d. 1 and 2 85. When warm saturated air is cooled
81. The discharge pressure of the compressor a. excess moisture condenses
in the refrigeration system goes up due to b. excess moisture condenses but relative
the humidity remains unchanged
a. Lower volumetric efficiency of the c. excess moisture condenses and specific
compressor humidity increase but relative humidity
b. Formation of scale in the condenser remains unchanged
c. Large size of the condenser d. specific humidity increases and
relative humidity decreases
d. Undercharge of the refrigerant
86. When d-bulb and wet-bulb temperatures
82. The leakage in a Freon-based refrigeration
are identical, it means that the
system can be detected by using a/an
a. air is fully saturated and dew-point
a. Oxy-acetylene torch
temperature has reached
b. Halide torch
b. air is fully saturated
12 of 15
c. dew-point temperature has reached and 91. If heat and mass transfer take place
humidity is 100% simultaneously the ratio of heat transfer
d. partial pressure of water vapour is coefficient to the mass transfer coefficient
equal to total pressure is a function .of the ratio of
87. Consider the following parameters: a. Schmidt and Reynolds numbers
1. Dry-bulb temperature b. Schmidt and Prandtl numbers
2. Humidity ratio c. Nusselt and Lewis numbers
3. Air velocity d. Reynolds and Lewis numbers
4. Solar radiation intensity 92. An aeroplane travels at 400 km/hr at sea
Which of these parameters are taken into level where the temperature is 15 C. The
account for determining effective velocity of the aeroplane at the same Mach
temperature for human comfort? number at an altitude where a temperature
of - 25 C is prevailing, would be
a. 1 and 2
a. 126.78 km/hr
b. 1 and 4
b. 130.6 km/hr
c. 2, 3 and 4
c. 371.2 km/hr
d. 1, 2 and 3
d. 400.10 km/hr
88. The desirable air velocity in the occupied
93.
zone for comfort for summer air-
conditioners is in the range of
a. 6 - 7 m/minute
b. 4 - 5 m/minute
c. 2 - 3 m/minute
d. 0.5 - 1.5 m/minute
1. The recommended outside air required The plot for the pressure ratio along the
per person for an auditorium is length of the convergent -divergent nozzle
approximately 0.25 m3/min. is shown in the given figure. The sequence
2. Outside air for ventilation purposes of the flow conditions labelled , ,
causes sensible heat load and also and in the figure is respectively
latent heat load. a. supersonic, sonic, subsonic and
3. The sensible heat factor for an supersonic
auditorium is generally kept as 0.7. b. Sonic, supersonic subsonic and
Which of these statements are correct? supersonic.
a. 1 and 2 c. subsonic, supersonic, sonic and
b. 2 and 3 subsonic
c. 1 and 3 d. sonic, sonic supersonic and subsonic
d. 1, 2 and 3 94. If the full-scale turbine is required to work
90. An air-conditioned room of volume 10 m3 under a head of 30 m and to run at 428
has infiltration of air equivalent to 3 air r.p.m., then a quarter-scale turbine model
changes. Density of air is 1.2 kg/m3, tested under a head of 10 m must run at
specific heat Cp is 1 kJ/kg - K and a. 143 r.p.m.
temperature difference between room and b. 341 r.p.m.
ambient air is 20 K. The sensible heat load c. 428 r.p.m.
due to infiltrated air is
d. 988 r.p.m.
a. 60 kJ/hr
95. The dimensionless group formed by
b. l2 kJ/hr wavelength , density of fluid ,
c. 6 kW acceleration due to gravity g and surface
d. 0.2 kW tension , is
13 of 15
a. / 2 g c. 6.0 m
d. 5.12 m
b. / g 2
99. The eye of a tornado has a radius of 40 m.
c. g / 2 If the maximum wind velocity is 50 m/s,
d. / 2 g the velocity at a distance of 80 m radius is
a. 100 m/s
96. Which one of the following sets of
standard flows is superimposed to b. 2500 m/s
represent the flow around a rotating c. 31.25 m/s
cylinder? d. 25 m/s
a. Doublet, vortex and uniform flow 100. If a vessel containing liquid moves
b. Source, vortex and uniform flow downward with constant acceleration g,
c. Sink, vertex and uniform flow then
d. Vertex and uniform flow a. the pressure throughout the liquid mass
97. is atmospheric
b. the pressure in the liquid mass is
greater than the hydrostatic pressure
c. there will be vacuum in the liquid
d. the pressure throughout the liquid mass
is greater than atmospheric
101. Improved streamlining produces 25%
reduction in the drag coefficient of a
torpedo. When it is traveling fully
A float of cubical shape has sides of 10 submerged and assuming the driving
cm. The float valve just touches the valve power to remain the same, the increase in
seat to have a flow area of 0.5 cm2 as speed will be
shown in the given figure. If the pressure a. 10%
of water in the pipeline is 1 bar, the rise of
water level h in the tank to just stop the b. 20%
water flow will be c. 25%
a. 7.5 cm d. 30%
b. 5.0 cm 102. If a bullet is fired in standard air at 15 C
c. 2.5cm at the Mach angle of 30, the velocity of
the bullet would be
d. 0.5 cm
a. 513.5 m/s
98.
b. 585.5 m/s
c. 645.5 m/s
d. 680.5 m/s
103. A stream function is given by (x2 y2).
The potential function of the flow will be
a. 2xy + f(x)
b. 2xy + constant
c. 2(x2 - y2)
d. 2xy + f(y)
A U- tube manometer is connected to a
pipeline conveying water as shown in the 104. The height of a cylindrical container is
given figure. The pressure head of water in twice that of its diameter. The ratio of the
the pipeline is horizontal forces on the wall of the
cylinder when it is completely filled to that
a. 7.12 m
when it is half filled with the same liquid,
b. 6.56 m is
14 of 15
a. 2 d. The hydraulic grade line slopes
b. 3 upwards meeting the energy grade line
c. 3.5 only at the exit of flow
d. 4 108. If laminar flow takes place in two pipes,
having relative rough nesses of 0.002 and
105. 0.003, at a Reynolds number of 1815, then
a. the pipe of relative roughness of 0.003
has a higher friction factor
b. the pipe of relative roughness of 0.003
has a lower friction factor
The velocities and corresponding flow
c. both pipes have the same friction
areas of the branches labelled , , ,
factor
and for pipe system shown in the given
figure are given in the following table d. no comparison is possible due to
inadequate data
109. A pipeline connecting two reservoirs has
its diameter reduced by 20% due to
deposition of chemicals. For a given head
difference in the reservoirs with unaltered
friction factor, this would cause a
reduction in discharge of
a. 42.8%
The velocity V5 would be b. 20%
a. 2.5 cm/s c. 17.8%
b. 5 cm/s d. 10.6%
c. 7.5 cm/s 110. A tank containing water has two orifices of
the same size at depths of 40 cm and 90
d. 10 cm/s
cm below the free surface of water. the
106. A pipe is connected in series to another ratio of discharges through these orifices is
pipe whose diameter is twice and length is
a. 1:1
32 times that of the first pipe. The ratio of
frictional head losses for the first pipe to b. 2:3
those for the second pipe is (both the pipes c. 4:9
have the same frictional constant) d. 16:81
a. 8 111. A Pitot static tube is used to measure the
b. 4 velocity of water using a differential gauge
c. 2 which contains a manometric fluid of
relative density 1.4. The deflection of the
d. 1
gauge fluid when water flows at a velocity
107. Which one of the following statements is of 1.2 m/s will be (the coefficient of the
correct? tube may be assumed to be 1)
a. Hydraulic grade line and energy grade a. 183.5 mm
line are the same in fluid flow
b. 52.4 mm
problems
c. 5.24 mm
b. Energy grade line lies above the
hydraulic grade line and is always d. 73.4 mm
parallel to it 112. The development of boundary layer zones
c. Energy grade line lies above the labelled F Q, R and S over a flat plate is
hydraulic grade line and they are shown in the given figure
separated from each other by a vertical
distance equal to the velocity head
15 of 15
b. Reduction of the boundary layer
thickness
c. Presence of adverse pressure gradient
d. Presence of favourable pressure
Based on this figure, match List I gradient
(Boundary layer zones) with List II (Types
116. When pressure drag over a body is large as
of boundary layer) and select the correct
compared to the friction drag, then the
answer:
shape of the body is that of
List I
a. An aerofoil
A. P
b. A streamlined body
B. Q
c. A two-dimensional body
C. R
d. A bluff body
D. S
117. A circular cylinder of 400 mm diameter is
List II rotated about its axis is a stream of water
1. Transitional having a uniform velocity of 4 m/s. When
2. Laminar viscous sub-layer both the stragnation points coincide, the
3. Laminar lift force experienced by the cylinder is
4. Turbulent a. 160 kN/m
Codes; b. 10.05 kN/m
A B C D c. 80 kN/m
a. 3 1 2 4 d. 40.2 kN/m
b. 3 2 1 4 118. An automobile moving at a velocity of 40
km/hr is experiencing a wind resistance of
c. 4 2 1 3 2 kN. If the automobile is moving at a
d. 4 1 2 3 velocity of 50 km/hr, the power required to
113. A pipe of 20 cm diameter and 30 km over-come the wind resistance is
length transports oil from a tankers to the a. 43.4 kW
shore with a velocity of 0.318 m/s. The b. 3.125 kW
flow is laminar. If = 0.1 N m/s2, the
c. 2.5 kW
power required for the flow would be
d. 27.776 kW
a. 9.25 kW
119. When a cylinder is placed in an ideal fluid
b. 8.36 kW
and the flow is uniform, the pressure
c. 7.63 kW coefficient Cp is equal to
d. 10.13 kW a. 1 sin2
114. In a turbulent boundary layer over the
b. 1 2 sin2
entire length of a plate, the boundary layer
thickness increases with its distance X c. 1 4 sin2
from the leading edge as d. 1 8 sin2
a. X1/2 120. If the upstream Mach number of a normal
b. X1/5 shock occur-ring in air (k = 1.4) is 1.68,
c. X2/5 then the Mach number after the shock is
d. X4/5 a. 0.84
115. Separation of fluid flow is caused by b. 0.646
a. Reduction of pressure in the direction c. 0.336
of flow d. 0.564
I.E.S-(OBJ) 2001 1 of 17
PAPER-I
1. A rectangular tank of square cross-section ratio of the liquid left in the vessel to the
is having its height equal to twice the liquid at static equilibrium condition is
length of any side at the base If the tank is a. 0.2
filled up with a liquid, the ratio of the total b. 0.4
hydrostatic force on any vertical wall to c. 0.5
that at the bottom is
d. 0.75
a. 2.0
6. The shear stress developed in a lubricating
b. 1.5
oil, of viscosity 9.81 poise, filled between
c. 1.0 two parallel plates 1 cm part and moving
d. 0.5 with relative velocity of 2 m/s is
2. Differential pressure head measured by a. 20 N/m2
mercury oil differential manometer b. 19.62 N/m2
(specific gravity of oil is 0.9) equivalent to c. 29.62 N/m2
a 600 mm difference of mercury levels
will nearly be d. 40 N/m2
a. 7.62 m of oil 7. The convective acceleration of fluid in the
x-direction is given by
b. 76.2 m of oil
u v
c. 7.34 m of oil a. u v
x y z
d. 8.47 m of oil
u v
3. A block of aluminium having mass of 12 b.
kg is suspended by a wire and lowered t t t
until submerged into a tank containing oil u v
of relative density 0.8. Taking the relative c. u u u
x y z
density of aluminium as 2 : 4, the tension
in the wire will be (take g = 10 m/s2) u v u
d. u v
a. 12000 N x y z
b. 800 N 8. Match List I (Types of flow) with List II
c. 120 N (Basic ideal flows) and select the. correct
answer :
d. 80 N
List I
4. A barge 30 m long and 10 m wide has a
draft of 3 m when floating with its sides in A. Flow over a stationary cylinder
vertical position. If its centre of gravity is B. Flow over a half Rankine body
2.5 m above the bottom, the nearest value C. Flow over a rotating body
of metacentric height is D. Flow over a Rankine oval
a. 328 m List II
b. 2.78 m 1. source + sink + uniform flow
c. 1.78 m 2. doublet + uniform flow
d. zero 3. source + uniform flow
5. A cylindrical vessel having its height equal 4. doublet + free vortex + uniform flow
to its diameter is filled with liquid and
A B C D
moved horizontality at an acceleration
equal to acceleration due to gravity. The a. 1 4 3 2
2 of 17
b. 2 4 3 1 13. The critical depth of a rectangular channel
c. 1 3 4 2 of width 4.0 m for a discharge of 12 m3/s
d. 2 3 4 1 is, nearly,
9. A glass tube with a 90 bend is open at a. 300 mm
both the ends. It is inserted into a flowing b. 30 mm
stream of oil, S = 0.90, so that one opening c. 0.972 m
is directed upstream and the other is d. 0.674 m
directed upward. Oil inside the tube is 50 14. An open channel flow encounters a
mm higher than the surface of flowing nil. hydraulic jump as shown in the figure. The
The velocity measured by the tube is, following fluid flow conditions are
nearly,
observed between A and B :
a. 0.89 m/s 1. Critical depth
b. 0.99 m/s 2. Steady non-uniform flow
c. 1.40 m/s 3. Unsteady non-uniform flow
d. 1.90 m/s 4. Steady uniform flow
10. At location-I of a horizontal line, the fluid
pressure head is 32 cm and velocity head
is 4 cm. The reduction in area at location II
is such that the pressure head drops down
to zero.
The ratio of velocities at location-II to that
at location-I is
The correct sequence of the flow
conditions in the direction of flow is
a. 1, 2, 3, 4
b. 1, 4, 2, 3
a. 3 c. 2, 1, 4, 3
b. 2.5 d. 4, 2, 3, 1
c. 2 15. Laminar developed flow at an average
d. 1.5 velocity of 5 m/s occurs in a pipe of 10 cm
11. For maximum transmission of power radius. The velocity at 5 cm radius is
through a pipe line with total head H, the a. 7.5 m/s
head lost due to friction hf is given by b. 10 m/s
a. 0.1 H c. 2.5 m/s
b. H/3 d. 5 m/s
c. H/2 16. In a fully-developed turbulent pipe flow,
d. 2H/3 assuming 1/7th power law, the ratio of
12. Two pipelines of equal length and with time mean. velocity at the centre of the
diameters of 15 cm and 10 cm are in pipe to that average velocity of the flow is
parallel and connect two reservoirs. The a. 2.0
difference in water levels in the reservoirs b. 1.5
is 3 m. If the friction is assumed to be
c. 1.22
equal, the ratio of the discharges due to the
larger dia pipe to that of the smaller dia d. 0.817
pipe is, nearly, 17. The pressure drop in a 100 mm diameter
a. 3.375 horizontal pipe is 50 kPa over a length of
10 m. The shear stress at the pipe wall is
b. 2.756
a. 0.25 kPa
c. 2.25
b. 0.125 kPa
d. 1.5
3 of 17
c. 0.50 kPa b. 3 2 4 1
d. 25.0 kPa c. 2 3 4 1
18. The velocity distribution in the boundary d. 3 2 1 4
layer is given as u/us = y/ , where u is the 22. Match List I (Dimensionless numbers)
velocity at a distance y from the boundary with List II (Definition as the ratio of) and
us is the free stream velocity and is the select the correct answer :
boundary layer thickness at a certain List I
distance from the leading edge of a plate.
A. Reynolds number
The ratio of displacement to momentum
thicknesses is B. Froude number
a. 5 C. Weber number
b. 4 D. Mach number
c. 3 List II
d. 2 1. Inertia force and elastic force
19. For the velocity profile u / u = , the 2. Inertia force and surface tension force
momentum thickness of a laminar 3. Inertia force and gravity force
boundary layer on a flat plate at a distance 4. Inertia force and viscous force
of 1 m from leading edge for air A B C D
(kinematic viscosity = 2 105 m2/s)
a. 1 2 3 4
flowing at a free stream velocity of 2 m/s
is given by b. 4 3 2 1
a. 3.16 mm c. 1 3 2 4
b. 2.1 mm d. 4 2 3 1
c. 3.16 m 23. The stream function in a 2-dimensional
flow field is given by = xy.
d. 2.1 m
The potential function is
20. According to Blasius law, the local skin
friction coefficient in the boundary-layer
a.
x 2
y2
over a flat plate is given by 2
a. 0.332/ R e
b.
x 2
y2
b. 0.664/ R e 2
c. xy
c. 0.647/ R e
d. x2y + y2x
d. 1.328/ R e 24. Assertion (A): A convergent-divergent
21. Match List I with List II and select the nozzle may give supersonic or subsonic
correct answer : flow at the exit even if the throat is
choked.
List I
Reason (R): Depending on the back
A. Stokes law
pressure ratio Pb/Po, the divergent part of
B. Bluff body the nozzle may act as a supersonic nozzle
C. Streamline body or a subsonic diffuser.
D. Karman Vortex Street a. Both A and R are true and R is the
List II correct explanation of A
1. Strouhal number b. Both A. and R are true but R is NOT
2. Creeping motion the correct explanation of A
3. Pressure drag c. A is true but R is false
4. Skin friction drag d. A is false but R is true
A B C D
a. 2 3 4 1
4 of 17
25. Assertion (A) : In a pipe line, the nature of c. A is true but R is false
the fluid flow depends entirely on the d. A is false but R is true
velocity. 29. Assertion (A) : With throttle governing of
Reason (R) : Reynolds number depends on a steam turbine, the turbine power is
the velocity, diameter of the pipe and reduced by reduction in the available heat
kinematic viscosity of the fluid. drop together with decrease in the rate of
a. Both A and R are true and R is the steal flow.
correct explanation of A Reason (R) : The pressure and the rate of
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT steam flow are simultaneously decreased
the correct explanation of A with the help of a throttle valve.
26. A capillary tube is inserted in mercury b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
kept in an open container. the correct explanation of A
Assertion (A) : The mercury level inside c. A is true but R is false
the tube shall rise above the level of d. A is false but R is true
mercury outside. 30. Assertion (A) : A Kaplan turbine is an
Reason (R) : The cohesive force between axial flow reaction turbine with its vanes
the molecules of mercury is greater than fixed to the hub.
the adhesive force between mercury and Reason (R) : Water flows parallel to the
glass. axis of rotation of the turbine and a part of
a. Both A and R are true and R is the the pressure energy gets converted to
correct explanation of A kinetic energy during its flow through the
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT vanes.
c. A is true but R is false correct explanation of A
d. A is false but R is true b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
27. Assertion (A) : Reaction blading is
commonly used in intermediate and low c. A is true but R is false
pressure parts of steam turbines. d. A is false but R is true
Reason (R) : Reaction blading gives higher 31. Assertion (A) : Effective temperature, an
efficiency than impulse blading. index of comfort, is defined as that
a. Both A and R are true and R is the temperature of saturated air at which one
correct explanation of A would experience the same feeling of
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT comfort as experienced in the actual
the correct explanation of A environment.
c. A is true but R is false Reason (R) : Comfort does not depend on
humidity and air velocity.
28. Assertion (A) : In conventional impulse correct explanation of A
steam turbine designs, only two rows of
moving blades are used in a Curtis stage. b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
Reason (R) : As the number of rows of
moving blades in a Curtis stage increases, c. A is true but R is false
the effectiveness of the later rows d. A is false but R is true
decreases. 32. Assertion (A) : According to Reynolds
a. Both A and R are true and R is the analogy for Prandtl number equal to unity,
correct explanation of A Stanton number is equal to one half of the
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT friction factor.
the correct explanation of A Reason (R) : If thermal diffusivity is equal
to kinematic viscosity, the velocity and the
5 of 17
temperature distribution in the flow will be b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the same. the correct explanation of A
a. Both A and R are true and R is the c. A is true but R is false
correct explanation of A d. A is false but R is true
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT 36. Assertion (A) : Pressurized water reactor
the correct explanation of A (PWR) nuclear power plants use
c. A is true but R is false superheated steam.
d. A is false but R is true Reason (R) : An increase in the superheat
33. Assertion (A) : Nusselt number is always at constant pressure increases the cycle
greater than unity. efficiency.
Reason (R) : Nusselt number is the ratio of a. Both A and R are true and R is the
two thermal resistances, one the thermal correct explanation of A
resistance which would be offered by the b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
fluid, if it was stationary and the other, the the correct explanation of A
thermal resistance associated with c. A is true but R is false
convective heat transfer coefficient at the d. A is false but R is true
surface.
37. Assertion (A) : The air standard air
a. Both A and R are true and R is the efficiency of the diesel cycle decreases as
correct explanation of A the load, is increased.
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT Reason (R) : With increase of load, cut-off
the correct explanation of A ratio increases.
34. Assertion (A) : If the enthalpy of a closed b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
system decreased by 25 kJ while the the correct explanation of A
system receives 30 kJ of energy by heat c. A is true but R is false
transfer, the work done by the system is 55
kJ. d. A is false but R is true
Reason (R) : The first law energy balance 38. Assertion (A) : Knocking in S.I. engines is
for a closed system is (notations have their due to auto-ignition of the end charge
usual meaning). while knocking in C.I. engines is due to
auto-ignition of the first charge.
E=QW.
Reason (R) : Spark ignition engines
a. Both A and R are true and R is the employ lower compression ratio than
correct explanation of A diesel engines and the fuel used has a
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT calorific value lower than that of diesel oil.
c. A is true but R is false correct explanation of A
d. A is false but R is true b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
35. Assertion (A) : In thermodynamic the correct explanation of A
analysis, the concept of reversibility is that c. A is true but R is false
a reversible process is the most efficient d. A is false but R is true
process.
39. Assertion (A) : The C.I. engine is found to
Reason (R) : The energy transfer as heat be more efficient than an S.1. engine.
and work during the forward process, is
always identically equal to the energy Reason (R) : Modern C.I. engines operate
transfer as heat and work, during the on a dual-cycle, which has an efficiency
reversal of the process. greater than the Otto cycle.
6 of 17
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT 44. Which one of the following sequences
the correct explanation of A indicates the correct order for flue gas flow
c. A is true but R is false in the steam power plant layout?
d. A is false but R is true a. superheater, economiser, air preheater
40. A ship with hull length of 100 m is to run b. economiser, air preheater, superheater
with a speed of 10 m/s. For dynamic c. air preheater, economiser, superheater
similarity, the velocity for a 1 : 25 model d. economiser, superheater, air preheater
of the ship in a towing tank should be 45. Which one of the following statements is
a. 2 m/s not correct?
b. 10 m/s In a fluidized-bed boiler
c. 20 m/s a. the combustion temperatures are
d. 25 m/s higher than those in the conventional
41. A standard 900 V-notch weir is used to boilers
measure discharge. The discharge is Q1 for b. inferior grade of coal can be used
a height H1 above the sill and Q2 is the without slagging problems
discharge for a height H2. If H2/H1 is 4, c. the formation of NOX is less than that
then Q2/Q1 is in the conventional boilers
a. 32 d. the volumetric heat release rates are
b. 16 2 higher than those in the conventional
boilers
c. 16
46. Match list I with list II and select the
d. 8
correct answer:
42. A right circular cylinder is filled with a
List I (Machines)
liquid upto its top level. It is rotated about
its vertical axis at such a speed that half A. Steam engine
the liquid spills out, then the pressure at B. Impulse turbine
the point of intersection of the axis and C. Reaction turbine V
bottom surface is D. Centrifugal compressor
a. same as before rotation List II (Features)
b. half of the value before rotation. 1. Velocity compounding
c. quarter of the value before. rotation 2. Diagram factor
d. equal to the atmospheric pressure. 3. Continuous pressure drop
43. Three immiscible liquids of specific 4. Isentropic efficiency
densities , 2 and 3 are kept in a jar.
The-height of the liquids in the jar and at A B C D
the piezometer fitted to the bottom of the a. 3 4 2 1
jar are as shown in the given figure. The b. 2 1 3 4
ratio H/h is c. 2 4 3 1
d. 3 1 2 4
47. Match List I with List II and select the
correct answer :
List I (Names)
A. Subsonic nozzle
B. Supersonic nozzle
a. 4 C. Subsonic diffuser
b. 3.5 D. Centrifugal compressor
c. 3 List II (Figures)
d. 2.5 1.
7 of 17
intercooling, the expression for total work
of three stage is
n 1
2. 3n p2 n
a. p1v1 1
n 1 p1

n 1
3. n p2 3n
b. p1v1 1
n 1 p1

n 1
4. n p2 n
c. p1v1 1
n 1 p1

n 1
5.
3n p2 3n
d. p1v1 1
n 1 p1

A B C D 51. The flaw in the vaneless space between the
impeller exits a diffuser inlet of a
a. 3 4 2 5
centrifugal compressor can be assumed as
b. 1 5 3 4
a. free vortex
c. 3 5 2 4
b. force vortex
d. 1 4 3 5
c. solid body rotation
48. For maximum blade efficiency of a single-
d. logarithmic spiral
stage impulse turbine, the blade speed
ratio, ( is the angle made by absolute 52. Which of the following statement(s) is/are
velocity at inlet) should be relevant to critical flow through a steam
nozzle?
a. cos 2
1. Flow rate through the nozzle is
b. cos 2 / 2 minimum
c. cos / 2 2. Flow rate through the nozzle is
d. 2 / cos maximum
49. The given figure shows the variation of 3. Velocity at the throat is supersonic.
certain steam parameter in case of a simple 4. Velocity at the throat is sonic.
impulse turbine. The curve A-B-C
Select the correct answer using the codes
represents the variation of
given below :
a. 1 alone
b. 1 and 3
c. 2 and 4
d. 4 alone
53. Which portion of the centrifugal
compressor characteristics shown in the
a. pressure in nozzle and blades
figure is difficult to obtain experimentally?
b. velocity in nozzle and blades
c. temperature in nozzle and blades
d. enthalpy in nozzle and blades
50. If n is the polytrophic index of
compression and p2/p1 is the pressure ratio
for a three-stage compressor with ideal
8 of 17
a. RS over the vane is 5 kg/s with a velocity V
b. ST 20 m/s without friction. The angle of
c. TU the vane is
d. UV
54. Consider the following statements
regarding the axial flow in an air
compressor :
1. Surging is a local phenomenon while
stalling affects the entire compressor.
a. Zero
2. Stalling is a local phenomenon while
surging affects the entire compressor. b. 30o
3. The pressure ratio of an axial c. 45o
compressor stage is smaller than that d. 60o
of a centrifugal compressor stage. 58. In a fluid coupling, the torque transmitted
Of these statements is 50 kNm, when the speed of the driving
a. 1, 2 and correct and driven shaft is 900 rpm and 720 rpm
respectively. The efficiency of the fluid
b. 1 and 2 are correct
coupling will be
c. 2 and 3 are correct
a. 20%
d. 1 and 3 are correct
b. 25%
55. The thermal efficiency of a gas turbine
c. 80%
cycle with regeneration in terms of T3
(maximum minimum), temperature), rp d. 90%
(pressure ratio and k ( = Cp/Cv) is given by 59. Consider the following statements
k regarding the fluid coupling :
T1 k 1
a. 1 rp 1. Efficiency increases with increase in
T3 speed ratio.
k
T 2. Neglecting friction the output torque is
b. 1 3 rp k 1 equal to input torque.
T1
3. At the same input speed, higher slip
k 1
T requires higher input torque.
c. 1 3 rp k
T1 Which of these statements are correct?

k 1 a. 1, 2 and 3
T1
d. 1 rp k
b. 1 and 2
T3
c. 2 and 3
56. Consider the specific speed ranges of the
d. 1 and 3
following types of turbines :
60. The level of runner exit is 5 m above the
1. Francis
tail race, and atmospheric pressure is
2. Kaplan 10.3m. The pressure at the exit of the
3. Pelton runner for a divergent draft tube can be
The sequence of their specific speed in a. 5 m
increasing order is b. 5.3 m
a. 1, 2, 3 c. 10 m
b. 3, 1, 2 d. 10.3 m
c. 3, 2, 1 61. Consider the following statements:
d. 2, 3, 1 A surge tank provided on the penstock
57. A symmetrical stationary vane experiences connected to a water turbine
a force F of 100 N as shown in the given 1. helps in reducing the water hammer.
figure, when the mass flow rate of water
2. stores extra water when not needed.
9 of 17
3. provides increased demand of water.
a. 1 and 3
b. 2 and 3
c. 1 and 2
d. 1, 2 and 3
62. If the reciprocating pump having a a. overcome initial inertia
mechanical efficiency of 80% delivers b. overcome initial friction
water at the rate of 80 kg/s with a head of
30 m, the brake power of the pump is c. keep the hydraulic circuit full
a. 29.4 kW d. keep the turbine running at no load
b. 20.8 kW 66. In fluid machinery the relationship
between saturation temperature and
c. 15.4 kW pressure decides the process of
d. 10.8 kW a. flow separation
63. The gross head on a turbine is 300 m. The b. turbulent mixing
length of penstock supplying water from
reservoir to the turbine is 400 m. The c. cavitation
diameter of the penstock is 1 m and d. water hammer
velocity of water through penstock is 5 67. A centrifugal blower delivering Q m3/s
m/s. If coefficient of friction is 0.0098, the against a head of H m is driven at half the
net head on the turbine would be, nearly original speed. The new head and
a. 310 m discharge would be
b. 295m a. H and Q/2
c. 200 m b. H/4 and Q/2
d. 150 m c. H/2 and Q/8
64. Consider the following statements d. H and Q/4
pertaining to a centrifugal pump : 68. The maximum number of jets generally
1. The manometric head is the head is employed in an impulse turbine without jet
developed by the pump. interference is
2. The suction pipe has, generally, a a. 4
larger diameter as compared to the b. 6
discharge pipe. c. 8
3. The suction pipe is provided with a d. 12
foot valve and a strainer.
69. A hydraulic coupling transmits 1 kW of
4. The delivery pipe is provided with a power at an input speed of 200 rpm, with a
foot valve and a strainer. slip of 2%. If the input is changed to 400
Of these statements rpm, the power transmitted with the same
a. 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct slip is
b. 1 and 2 are correct a. 2 kW
c. 2 and 3 are correct b. 1/2 kW
d. 1 and 3 are correct c. 4 kW
65. For a water turbine, running at constant d. 8 kW
head and speed, the operating 70. A plane well of thickness 2L has a uniform
characteristic curves in the given figure volumetric heat source q* (W/m3). It is
show that upto a certain discharge q both exposed to local ambient temperature T
output power and efficiency remain zero. at both the ends (x = L). The surface
The discharge q is required to temperature Ts of the wall under steady-
10 of 17
state condition (where h and k have their b. a = 0.5 and b = 0.4 for heating and b =
usual meaning) is given by 0.3 for cooling
q*L c. a = 0.8 and b = 0.4 for heating and b =
a. Ts T 0.3 for cooling
h
q * L2 d. a = 0.8 and b = 0.3 for heating and b =
b. Ts T 0.4 for cooling
2k
75. For natural convective flow over a vertical
q * L2 flat plate as shown in the given figure, the
c. Ts T
h governing differential equation for
q * L3 momentum is
d. Ts T u u 2u
u v g (T T ) 2
2k
71. A flat plate has thickness 5 cm, thermal x y y
conductivity 1 W/(mK) convective heat If equation is non-dimentionalized by U =
transfer coefficients on its two flat faces of u/U , V = v/U, X = x/L, y = y/L, y/L and
10 W/(m2K) and 20 W/(m2K). The overall T T
heat transfer coefficient for such a flat =
Ts T
plate is
a. 5 W/(m2K) Then the term g (T T ) to
b. 6.33. W/(m2K)
c. 20 W/(m2K)
d. 30 W/(m2K)
72. The efficiency of a pin fin with insulated
tip is
tanh mL
a.
(hA / kP )0.5
tanh mL a. Grashof number
b. b. Prandtl number
mL
mL c. Rayleight number
c. d. Grashof number/(Reynolds number)2
tanh mL
76. The shape factor of a hemispherical body
(hA / kP)0.5
d. placed on a flat surface with respect to
tanh mL itself is
73. A cylinder made of metal of conductivity a. zero
40 W/(mK) is to be insulated with a
b. 0.25
material of conductivity 0.1 W/(mK). If
the convective heat transfer coefficient c. 0.5
with the ambient atmosphere is 5 d. 1.0
W/(m2K), the critical radius of insulation 77. Which one of the following heat
is exchanges is gives parallel straight line
a. 2 cm pattern of temperature distribution for both
b. 4 cm cold and hot fluid?
c. 8 cm a. Parallel flow with unequal heat
capacities
d. 50 cm
b. Counter-flow with equal heat
74. Nusselt number for fully developed
capacities
turbulent flow in a pipe is given by Nu =
CR ae : P br . The values of a and b are c. Parallel-flow with equal heat capacities
d. Counter-flow with unequal heat
a. a = 0.5 and b = 0.33 for .heating and capacities
cooling both
11 of 17
78. In a counter-flow heat exchanger, the hot 83. For a heat pump working on vapour
fluid is cooled from 1100 C to 80 C by a compression cycle, enthalpy value of the
cold fluid which, gets heated from 30 C working fluid at the end of heat addition
to 60 C. LMTD for the heat exchanger is process, at the end of compression process,
a. 20C at the end of heat rejection process, and at
b. 30C. the end of isenthalpic expansion process
are 195 kJ/kg, 210 kJ/kg and 90 kJ/kg
c. 50C respectively. The mass flow rate is 0.5
d. 80C kg/s. Then the heating capacity of heat
79. In a counter-flow heat exchanger, the pump is, nearly
product of specific heat and mass flow rate a. 7.5 kW
is same for the hot and cold fluids. If NTU b. 45 kW
is equal to 0.5, then the effectiveness of
the heat exchanger is c. 52.5 kW
a. 1.0 d. 60 kW
b. 0.5 84. A one ton capacity water cooler cools
water steadily from 35o C to 20o C. The
c. 0.33 specific heat of water is 4.18 kJ/(kg K).
d. 0.2 The water flow rate will be, nearly
80. For flow over a flat plate the a. 13.33 l /hr
hydrodynamic boundary layer thickness is b. 33.3 l /hr
0.5 mm. The dynamic viscosity is 25 106
c. 200 l/hr
Pa s, specific heat is 2.0 kJ/(kg K) and
thermal conductivity is 0.05 W/(m-K). The d. 250 l/hr
thermal boundary layer thickness would be 85. Match List I (Refrigerant) with List II
a. 0.1 mm (Chemical constituent) and select the
correct answer :
b. 0.5 mm
List I
c. 1 mm
A. R 12
d. 2 mm
B. R 22
81. An enclosure consists of four surfaces 1, 2,
3 and 4. The view factors for radiation heat C. R 717
transfer (where the subscripts 1, 2, 3, 4 D. R 113
refer to the respective surfaces) are F11 = List II
0.1, F12 = 0.4 and F13 = 0.25. The surface 1. Trichlorotrifluorethane (CCl2FCClF2)
areas A1 and A4 are 4m2 and 2 m2
respectively. The view factor F41 is 2. Difluoro monochloro methane (CHF2)
a. 0.75 3. Ammonia (NH3)
b. 0.50 4. Difluoro dichloro methane(CCl2F2)
c. 0.25 A B C D
d. 0.10 a. 3 2 4 1
82. The working temperature in evaporators b. 4 2 3 1
and condenser coils of a refrigerator are c. 3 1 4 2
23o C and 27o C respectively. The COP d. 4 1 3 2
of the refrigerator is 0.8 of the maximum 86. In a cooling tower, the minimum
COP. For a power input of 1 kW, the temperature to which water can be cooled
refrigeration effect produced will be is equal to the
a. 4 kW a. dew point temperature of the air at the
b. 5 kW inlet
c. 8 kW b. dry bulb temperature of the air at the
d. 2.5 kW inlet
12 of 17
c. thermodynamic wet bulb temperature Which of these statements are correct ?
of the air at the inlet a. 1 and 2
d. mean of the dew point and dry bulb b. 1, 3 and 4
temperature of the air at the inlet c. 2, 3 and 4
87. Match List I (Expansion device) with List d. 1, 2 and 3
II (Operation) and select the correct
answer : 90. Consider the following statements:
List I When dry bulb and thermodynamic wet
bulb temperatures are same ;
A. Float value
1. humidity ratio is 100%.,
B. Automatic expansion valve
2. partial pressure of water vapour equals
C. Internally equalized thermostatic total pressure.
expansion valve
3. air is fully saturated.
D. Externally equalized thermostatic
expansion valve 4. dew point temperature is reached.
List II Select the correct statement(s) using the
codes given below:
1. constant degree of superheat at
evaporator exit pressure a. 3 alone
2. Constant degree of superheat at b. 1 and 2
evaporator inlet pressure c. 3 and 4
3. Constant level of refrigerant in the d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
evaporator 91. If p is the partial pressure of vapour, p is
4. Constant pressure in the evaporator the partial pressure of vapour for saturated
A B C D air and Pb is the barometric pressure, the
relationship between relative humidity
a. 1 2 4 3
and degree of saturation given by
b. 3 2 4 1
p ps
c. 3 4 2 1 a. b
d. 1 4 2 3 pb pv
88. A solar-absorption refrigeration system p pv
has generator temperature of 87o C, b. b
evaporator temperature of 3o C, pb ps
condenser and absorber temperature of p
c. v
27oC each, then its maximum possible pb
COP is
pv
a. 10.0 d.
ps
b. 9.0
c. 1.80 92. The by-pass factor of single cooling coil in
an air-conditioner is 0.7. The by-pass
d. 1.50 factor if three such cooling coils with the
89. Consider the following statements : same apparatus dew point ate kept one
Subcooling in the condenser of a behind the other, will be
refrigeration system is advisable when a. 0.210
1. expansion value is at a higher elevation b. 0.292
than condenser. c. 0.343
2. there is a large pressure drop in the line d. 0.412
connecting condenser to the expansion
value. 93. Which one of the following statements is
true for air conditioning duct design?
3. the refrigeration effect is to be
increased. a. Static regain method is used when the
duct work is extensive, total pressure
4. the compressor work is to be reduced. drop is low and flow is balanced
13 of 17
b. Static regain method is used, when the 2. hm L/D)
duct work is extensive, total pressure 3. / D
drop is high and flow is unbalanced
4. k / Cp
c. Equal friction method is used, when
the duct work is extensive, total A B C D
pressure drop is low and flow is a. 4 3 2 1
balanced b. 4 3 1 2
d. Equal friction method is used, when c. 3 4 2 1
duct work is extensive, total pressure d. 3 4 1 2
drop is low and flow is unbalanced 97. In the operation of four stroke diesel
94. For an air-conditioned space, RTH = 100 engines, the term squish refers to the
kW, RSHF = 0.75, volume flow rate is a. Injection of fuel in the precombustion
equal to 100 m3/minute and indoor design chamber
specific humidity is 0.01 kg/(kg of dry air).
The specific humidity of supply air is b. discharge of gases from the
precombustion chamber
a. 0.010
c. entry of air. into the combustion
b. 0.0075 chamber
c. 0.005 d. stripping of fuel from the core
d. 0.0025 98. Consider the following statements
95. For an air-conditioning system, the regarding the advantages of fuel Injection
outdoor and indoor design dry bulb over carburetion in S.I. engines:
temperatures are 450 C and 25 C 1. Higher power output and increased
respectively. The space to be air- volumetric efficiency.
conditioned is 20 m 30 m 5 m and
infiltration is estimated to be one air 2. Simple and inexpensive injection
change. If the density and specific heat of equipment.
air are 1.2 (kg of dry air)/m3 and 1.02 kJ/k 3. Longer Ilk of injection equipment.
(kg of dry air)C, then the sensible heat 4. Less knocking and reduced tendency
load due to infiltration is, nearly for back-fire.
a. 122.4 kW Select the correct answer using the codes
b. 61.2 kW given below:
c. 12.24 kW a. 1, 2 and 3
d. 20.4 kW b. 1, 2 and 4
96. Match List I with List II and select the c. 2 and 3
correct answer : d. 1 and 4
(hm mass transfer coefficient, 99. Match List I (Performance Parameter Y)
D molecular diffusion coefficient, with List II (Curves labelled 1, 2, 3, 4 and
L characteristic length dimension, BHP vs. Y) regarding a C.I. engine run
constant speed and select the correct
k thermal conductivity; - density, answer:
Cp specific heat of constant pressure, List I
dynamic viscosity) A. Total fuel consumption rate
List I B. Mechanical efficiency
A. Schmidt number C. Indicated power
B. Thermal diffusivity D. Brake specific fueld consumption
C. Lewis number List II
D. Sherwood number
List II
1. k/ ( Cp D)
14 of 17
a. 1 and 2
b. 1, 3 and 4
c. 2, 3 and 4
d. 1, 2 and 3
102. With respect to I.C. engine emissions,
consider the following statements:
1. Evaporative emissions have no carbon
monoxide and oxides of nitrogen.
2. Blow by emissions are essentially
A B C D carbon monoxide and suspended
particulate matter.
a. 5 3 4 2
3. Exhaust emissions contain 100% of
b. 1 3 4 2
carbon monoxide, 100% of oxides of
c. 5 4 2 3 nitrogen and around 50 - 55% of
d. 1 4 2 3 hydrocarbons emitted by the engine.
100. Match the List I with List II and select 4. There are no suspended particulates in
correct answer : the exhaust.
List I Of these statements
A. Supercharging a. 1 and 4 are correct
B. Morse test b. 1 and 3 are correct
C. Heterogeneous combustion c. 2 and 3 are correct
D. Ignition quality of petrol d. 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
List II 103. A hydrocarbon fueld was burnt with air
1. Multicylinder engine and the Orsat analysis of the dry products
2. C. I .engine of combustion yielded the following data :
3. Calorific value Initial volume of dry gas sample : 100c
Volume after absorption in pipette 1
4. Aircraft engine
containing potassium hydroxide
5. Octane number solution : 89 cc
6. Single cylinder S.I. engine Volume after absorption in pipette 2
A B C D containing solution of pyrogallic
a. 4 1 2 5 acid and potassium hydroxide
: 84 cc
b. 6 3 2 5 Volume after absorption in pipette 3
c. 6 1 5 2 containing cuprous chloride
solution
d. 4 3 5 2 : 82 cc
101. With reference to Turbojet and Rocket The percentage (by volume) of CO2 in the
engines, consider the following statements: dry products was
1. Efficiency of Rocket engines is higher a. 2%
than that of Jet engines. b. 5%
2. Exit velocities of exhaust gases in c. 11%
Rocket engines are much higher than
d. 18%
those in Jet engines.
104. Match list I (Material) with list II (Use)
3. Stagnation conditions exist at the
and select the correct answer:
combustion chamber in Rocket
engines. List I
4. Rocket engines are air-breathing A. Graphite
engines. B. Thorium - 233
Which of these statements are correct? C. Molten Sodium
15 of 17
D. Plutonium-239 a. 0o C
List II b. 50o C
1. Coolant c. 100o C
2. Moderator d. 150o C
3. Fissionable material 108. Match List I (Name of entity) with List II
4. Fissile material (Definition) and select the correct answer :
A B C D List I
a. 1 4 2 3 A. Compressibility factor
b. 2 4 1 3 B. Joule-Thomson coefficient
c. 2 3 1 4 C. Constant pressure specific heat
d. 1 3 2 4 D. Isothermal compressibility
105. The data given in the table refers to an List II
engine based on Carnot cycle, 1 v
1.
where Q1 = Heat received (kJ/min) v T p
Q2 = Heat rejected (kJ/s)
h
W = Work output (kW) 2.
T p
S.No. Q1 Q2 W
1. 1500 16.80 8.20 T
3.
2. 1600 17.92 8.75 p h
3. 1700 19.03 9.30 pv
4.
4. 1800 20.15 9.85 RT
If heat received output will be, nearly by A B C D
the engine is 2000 kJ/minute the work a. 2 1 4 3
a. 9.98 b. 4 3 2 1
b. 10.39 c. 2 3 4 1
c. 11.54 d. 4 1 2 3
d. 10.95 109. If pa and pv denote respectively the partial
106. A system while undergoing a cycle A B pressure of dry air and that of water
C D A has the values of heat and vapour in moist air, the specific humidity
work transfers as given in the table: of air is given by
pv
a.
pa pv
pv
b.
pa
0.622 pv
c.
The power developed in kW is nearly, pa
a. 4.9 0.622 pv
b. 24.5 d.
pa pv
c. 49
110. Consider the phase diagram of a certain
d. 98 substance as shown in the given figure.
107. In a new temperature scale say o, the Match List I (Process) with List II
boiling and freezing points of water at one (Curves/lines) and select the correct
atmosphere are 100o and 300o answer :
respectively. Correlate this scale with the
Centigrade scale. The reading of 0o on
the centigrade scale is
16 of 17
List I (Cycles operating between fixed
temperature limits)
A. Otto cycle
B. Diesel cycle
C. Carnot cycle
D. Brayton cycle
List I List II (Characteristic of cycle efficiency
A. Vaporization )
B. Fusion 1. depends only upon temperature
C. Sublimation limits
List II 2. depends only, on pressure limits
1. FE 3. depends on volume compression
2. EG ratio
3. ED 4. depends on cut-off ratio and volume
compression ratio
A B C
A B C D
a. 1 3 2
a. 3 4 1 2
b. 1 2 3
b. 1 4 3 2
c. 3 2 1
c. 3 2 1 4
d. 3 1 2
d. 1 2 3 4
111. Number of components (C) , phases (P)
and degrees of freedom(F) are related by 114. The temperature-entropy diagram for a
Gibbs-phase rule as steam turbine power plant, operating on
the Rankine cycle with reheat and
a. C P F = 2
regenerative feed heating is shown in the
b. F C P = 2 given figure. If m denotes the fraction of
c. C + F P = 2 steam bled for feed heating, the work
d. P + F X = 2 developed in the turbine per kg steam
112. Consider the following statements : entering the turbine at state 5 is
1. Availability is the maximum
theoretical work obtainable.
2. Clapeyrons equation for dry saturation
is given by
dTs hs h f
(Vs V f )
dQ Ts
3. A gas can have any temperature at
given pressure unlike a vapour which
has a fixed temperature at a given a. (h5 h4) + (1 m) (h3 h1)
pressure.
b. (h5 h4) + (h3 h2) + (1 m) (h2 h1)
4. Joule Thomson coefficient is expressed
c. 2h5 h4 h1 + (1 m) (h2 h1)
as = [s/p]h
d. (h5 h4) + (1 m) (h3 h2)
Of these statements
115. The working temperatures in the
a. 1, 2 and 3 are correct evaporator and condenser coils of a
b. 1, 3 and 4 are correct refrigerator are 30 C and 32 C
c. 2 and 3 are correct respectively. If the actual refrigerator has a
d. 1, 2 and 4 are correct C.O.P of 0.75 of the maximum, the
required power input for a refrigerating
113. Match List I with list II and select the
effect of 5 kW, is, nearly
correct answer :
17 of 17
a. 1.7 kW 3. producer gas has a predominant
b. 2.94 kW component of hydrogen with lesser
c. 3.92 kW proportion of carbon monoxide
d. 4.0 kW 4. Cetane number of fuel used in diesel
engines in India is in the range of 80 to
116. Match List I with List II and select the 90.
correct answer :
Which of these statements are correct ?
List I
a. 1 and 2
A. Air standard efficiency of Otto cycle
b. 1 and 3
B. Morse test
c. 2, 3 and 4
C. Constant volume cycle
d. 1,2, 3 and 4
D. Constant pressure heat addition
119. Consider the following statements :
List II
1. For the combustion of pulverized coal,
1. Mechanical efficiency 5 to 10% excess air is required.
2. Diesel cycle 2. Air contains 21% oxygen by weight.
3. Brake thermal efficiency 3. The flue gases from a coal-fired
4. Otto cycle furnace contain around 70% nitrogen
1 by volume
5. 1 ( 1)
r 4. In the combustion of liquid fuels, the
A B C D number of moles of the reactants.
a. 5 1 4 2 Of these statements
b. 3 5 2 4 a. 1, 2 and 4 are correct
c. 3 5 4 2 b. 1, 3 and 4 are correct
d. 5 1 2 4 c. 2, 3 and 4 are correct
117. Match List I with List II and select the d. 1 and 3 are correct
correct answer: 120. Match List I with List II and select the
List I (Fuels) correct answer :
A. Semi-bituminous coal List I (Process)
B. High-speed diesel oil A. Throttling process
C. Biogas B. Isentropic process
D. LPG C. Free expansion
List II (Characteristics/usages) D. Isothermal process
1. Methane and carbon dioxide List II(Characteristic)
2. Propane and butane 1. No work done
3. Calorific value of 10,600 kCal/kg 2. No change in entropy
4. Power plants 3. Constant internal energy
A B C D 4. Constant enthalpy
a. 3 4 1 2 A B C D
b. 4 3 2 1 a. 4 2 1 3
c. 3 4 2 1 b. 1 2 4 3
d. 4 3 1 2 c. 4 3 1 2
118. Consider the following statements : d. 1 3 4 2
1. motor gasoline is a mixture of various
hydrocarbons.
2. Compressed natural gas is mainly
composed of methane.
I.E.S-(OBJ) 2002 1 of 15
PAPER-I
1. Which of the following is/are related to 5. Volumetric flow rate Q, acceleration due
measure the discharge by a rectangular to gravity g arid head H form a
notch? dimensionless group, which is given by
1. 2/3 Cd. b 2g H2 gH 5
a.
2. 2/3 Cd. b 2g H3/2 Q
Q
3. 2/3 Cd. b 2g H5/2 b.
gH
4. 2/3 Cd. b 2g H1/2
Q
Select the correct answer using the codes c.
given below: g 3H
a. 1 and 3 Q
d.
b. 2 and 3 g2H
c. 2 alone 6. A model test is to be conducted in a water
d. 4 alone tunnel using a 1: 20 moel of a submarine,
2. The critical value of Reynolds number for which is to travel at a speed of 12 km/h
transition from laminar to turbulent deep under sea surface. The water
boundary layer in external flows is taken temperature in the tunnel is maintained, so
as that its kinematics viscosity is half that of
a. 2300 sea water. At what speed is the model test
b. 4000 to be conducted to produce useful data for
the prototype?
c. 5105
a. 12 km/h
d. 3106
b. 240 km/h
3. The boundary layer flow separates from
c. 24 km/h
the surface if
d. 120 km/h
a. du/dy = 0 and dp/dx = 0
7. A model test is to be conducted for an
b. du/dy = 0 and dp/dx > 0
under water structure, which is likely to be
c. du/dy = 0 and dp/dx < 0 exposed to strong water currents. The
d. The boundary layer thickness is zero significant forces are known to be
4. The laminar boundary layer thickness, dependent on structure geometry, fluid
at any point x for flow over a flat plate is velocity, fluid density and viscosity, fluid
given by /x = depth and acceleration due to gravity.
0.664 Choose from the codes given below, which
a. of the following numbers must match for
Re x the model with that of the prototype
1.328 1. Mach number
b.
Re x 2. Weber number
1.75 3. Froude number
c. 4. Reynolds number
Re x
a. 3 alone
5.0 b. 1, 2, 3 and 4
d.
Re x c. 1 and 2
2 of 15
d. 3 and 4 c. Is more severe than an oblique shock
8. During subsonic, adiabatic flow of gases in d. Moves with a velocity equal to the
pipes with friction, the flow properties go sonic velocity
through particular mode of changes. Match 12. Fluid flow machines are using the
List I (Flow properties) with List II (Mode principle of either (i) supplying energy to
of changes) and select the correct answer: the fluid or (ii) extracting energy from the
List I fluid. Some fluid flow machines are a
A. Pressure combination of both (i) and (ii). They are
B. Density classified as
C. Temperature a. Compressors
D. Velocity b. Hydraulic turbines
List II c. Torque converters
1. Increase in flow direction d. Wind mills
2. Decreases with flow direction 13. Consider the following statements:
A B C D 1. Pelton wheel is a tangential flow
impulse turbine
a. 1 1 2 2
2. Francis turbine is an axia flow reaction
b. 2 2 2 1
turbine
c. 2 2 1 2
3. Kaplan turbine is a radial flow reaction
d. 2 1 1 2 turbine
9. Which of the 1llowih statements is/are Which of the above statements is/are
true in case of one-dimensional flow of correct?
perfect gas through a converging-
a. 1 and 3
diverging nozzle?
b. 1 alone
1. The exit velocity is always supersonic
c. 2 alone
2. the exit velocity can be subsonic or
supersonic d. 3 alone
3. If the flow is isentropic, the exit 14. Match List I (Hydraulic Turbine) with List
velocity must be supersonic II (Application Area) and select the correct
answer:
4. If the exist velocity is supersonic, the
flow must be isentropic List I
Select the correct answer using the codes A. Pelton turbine
given below: B. Francis turbine
a. 2 and 4 C. Kaplan turbine
b. 2, 3 and 4 List II
c. 1, 3 and 4 1. Low head, large discharge
d. 2 alone 2. Medium head, medium discharge
10. In a normal shock in a gas 3. High head, low discharge
a. The stagnation density remains the A B C
same on both sides of the shock a. 2 3 1
b. The stagnation density remains the b. 2 1 3
same on both sides of the shock c. 3 1 2
c. The stagnation temperature remains d. 3 2 1
the same on both sides of the shock 15. Efficiency of Pelton wheel shall be
d. The Mach number remains the same maximum if the ratio of jet velocity to
on both sides of the shock tangential velocity of the wheel is
11. A normal shock a. 1/2
a. Causes a disruption and reversal of b. 1
flow pattern c. 2
b. May occur only in a diverging passage
3 of 15
d. 4 H H
b. constant; 3 = constant
16. The maximum efficiency in the case of D2 H N D
Pelton wheel is (angle of deflection of the P H
jet = 180 ) c. constant; 2 2 = constant
QH N D
1 cos
a. NQ1/2 NP1/2
2 d. constant; = constant
1 cos H 3/2 H 3/4
b. 22. The correct sequence of the centrifugal
2
pump components through which the fluid
cos flows is
c.
2 a. Impeller, Suction pipe, foot value and
1 cos strainer, Delivery pipe
d.
4 b. Foot value and strainer, suction pipe,
17. If H is the head available for a hydraulic Impeller, Delivery pipe
turbine the power speed and discharge c. Impeller, Suction pipe, Delivery pipe,
respectively are proportional to Foot value strainer
a. H 1/2 , H 1/2 , H 3/2 d. Suction pipe, Delivery pipe, Impeller,
Foot valva and strainer
b. H 3/2 , H 1/2 , H 1/2
23. A centrifugal pump driven by a directly
c. H 1/2 , H 3/2 , H 1/2 coupled 3kW motor of 1450-rpm speed, is
d. H 1/2 , H 1/2 , H proposed to be connected to another motor
of 2900-rpm speed. The power of the
18. In the phenomenon of cavitations, the motor should be
characteristic fluid property involved is
a. 6kW
a. Surface tension
b. 12kW
b. Viscosity
c. 18kW
c. Bulk modulus of elasticity
d. 4kW
d. Vapour pressure
24. A draft tube is used in a reaction turbine
19. A pump running at 1000 RPM consumers
a. To guide water downstream without
1kW and generates head of 10m of water.
splashing
When it is operated at 2000 RPM, its
power consumption and head generated b. To converter residual pressure energy
would be into kinetic energy
a. 4 kW, 50 m of water c. To convert residual kinetic energy into
pressure energy
b. 6kW, 20 m of water
d. To streamline the flow in the tailrace
c. 3 kW, 30 m of water
25. A hydraulic press has a ram of 20 cm
d. 8kW, 40 m of water
diameter and a plunger of 5cm diameter.
20. A centrifugal pump gives maximum The force required at the plunger to lift a
efficiency when its blades are
weight of 16104 N shall be:
a. Bent forward
a. 256104 N
b. Bend backward
b. 64104 N
c. Straight
c. 4104 N
d. Wave shaped
d. 1104 N
21. In utilizing scaled models in the designing
of turbo machines, which of the following 26. Slowing down of boiler water is the
relationships must be satisfied? process to
H Q a. Reduce the boiler pressure
a. 3
constant; 2 2 = constant b. Increase the steam temperature
ND N D
c. Control the solids concentration in the
boiler water
4 of 15
d. Control the drum level 31. The heat absorbed or rejected during a
27. A device which is used to drain off water polytrophic process is equal to
from steam pipes without escape of steam n
1/2
is called a. Work done

a. Steam separator 1
b. Steam trap n
b. Work done
c. Pressure reducing valve n 1
d. Injector n
c. Work done
28. Match List I with List II and select the 1
correct answer: 2
List I (Type of Coal) n
d. Work done
A. Lignite 1
B. Anthracite 32. A system comprising of a pure substance
C. Bituminous executes reversibly a cycle 1-2-3-4-1
D. Coke consisting of two isentropic and two
isochoric processes as shown in the Fig. 1.
List II (Coal properties)
1. Artificial fuel derived from coal
2. Contains inflammable gas (volatile
matter) and bums. with flame
3. Very hard and high heating value
4. High ash content and less volatile
matter
Which one of the following is the correct
A B C D
representation of this cycle on the
a. 2 3 4 1 temperature - entropy coordinates?
b. 4 1 2 3 a.
c. 2 1 4 3
d. 4 3 2 1
29. Pressure reaches a value of absolute zero
a. At a temperature of 273 K
b. Under vacuum condition
c. At the earths centre b.
d. When molecular momentum of system
becomes zero
30. A reversible engine operates between
temperatures T1 and T2. The energy
rejected by this engine is received by a
second reversible engine at temperature T2 c.
and rejected to a reservoir at temperature
T3. if the efficiencies of the engines are
same then the relationship between T1, T2
and T3 is given by
T T
a. T2 1 3
2 d.
b. T2 T12 T32
c. T2 T1T3
d. T2
T1 2T3
2
5 of 15
33. With increase of pressure, the latent heat c. 80%
of stream d. 85%
a. Remains same 38. The value of compressibility factor for an
b. Increases ideal gas may be
c. Decreases 1. Less or more than one
d. Behaves unpredictably 2. Equal to one
34. Consider the following statements 3. Zero
regarding the throttling process of wet 4. Less than zero
steam: The correct value (s) is/are given by
1. The steam pressure and temperature a. 1 and 2
decrease but enthalpy remains constant
b. 1 and 4
2. The steam pressure decreases, the
c. 3 only
temperature increases but entropy
remains constant d. 1 only
3. The entropy, specific volume, and 39. Which one of the following functions
dryness frication increases represents the Clapeyron equation
pertaining to the change of phase of a pure
4. The entropy increases but the volume
substance?
and dryness fraction decreases.
Which of the above statements are correct? a. f T , p, h fg
a. 1 and 4 b. f T , p, h fg , v fg
b. 2 and 3
c. 1 and 4 c. f T , p, h fg , s fg
d. 2 and 4 d. f T , p, h fg , s fg , v fg
35. Availability function for a closed system is
expressed as: 40. In an air standard Otto cycle, r is the
volume compression ratio and is an
a. = u + p0 v T0 S
adiabatic index (Cp/Cv), the air standard
b. = du + p0 dv T0 ds efficiency is given by
c. = du + p0 dv T0 ds 1
d. = u + p0 v T0 S a. 1
r 1
36. T ds equation can, be expressed as 1
T dv b. 1
a. Tds Cv dt r
k 1
T c. 1 1
b. Tds Cv dt dv
k r
Tk
c. Tds Cv dt dv d. 1
1
1
T r
2r
d. Tds Cv dt dp
k 41.
37. A reversible heat engine receivers 6 kJ of 1.
heat from thermal reservoir at temperature
800 K, and 8 kJ of heat from another
thermal reservoir at temperature 600 K. if
it rejects heat to a third thermal reservoir at
temperature 100 K, then the thermal
efficiency of the engine is approximately 2.
equal to:
a. 65%.
b. 75%
6 of 15
1 1 1
b. 1 1 .
r 1
1 1
c. 1 1 .
r 1

3.
1 1 1
d. 1 .
r 1
45. Stoichiometric air-fuel ratio by volume for
combustion of methane in air is:
a. 15:1
4. b. 17.16:1
c. 9.52:1
d. 10.58:1
46. Auto ignition time for petrol-air mixture is
minimum when the ratio of actual fuel-air
ratio and chemically correct fuel-air ratio
is
a. 0.8
The correct sequence of the given four
cycles on T-s plane in Figure (1), (2), (3), b. 1.0
(4) is c. 1.2
a. Rankine, Otto, Carnot and Diesel d. 1.5
b. Rankine, Otto, Diesel and Carnot 47. Consider the following statements
c. Ott, Rankine, Diesel and Carnot regarding knock rating of SI engine fuels:
d. Otto, Rankine, Carnot and Diesel 1. Iso-octane is assigned a rating of zero-
octane number
42. The main advantage of a reheat Rankine
cycle is 2. normal heptane is assigned a rating of
hundred octane number
a. Reduced moisture content in L.P. side
of turbine 3. Iso-octane is assigned a rating of
hundred octane number
b. Increase efficiency
4. Normal heptane is assigned a rating of
c. Reduced load on condenser
zero octane number.
d. Reduced load on pump
Which of the above statements are correct?
43. The order of values of thermal efficiency
a. 1 and 2
of Otto, Diesel and Dual cycle, when they
have equal compression ratio and heat b. 2 and 3
rejection, is given by c. 3 and 4
a. otto diesel dual d. 4 and 1
48. In spark ignition engines knocking can be
b. diesel dual otto
reduced by:
c. dual diesel otto a. Increasing the compression ratio
d. otto dual diesel b. Increasing the cooling water
temperature
44. In an air-standard Diesel cycle, r is the
compression ratio, is the fuel cut-off c. Retarding the spark advance
ratio and is the adiabatic index (Cp/Cv). d. Increasing the inlet air temperature
49. The tendency of knocking in CI engine
1 1 reduces by
a. 1 .
r 1 a. High self-ignition temperature of fuel
7 of 15
b. Decrease in jacket water temperature 54. A 0.5 m thick plane wall has its two
c. Injection of fuel just before TDC surfaces kept at 300C and 200C.
d. Decrease in injection pressure Thermal conductivity of the wall varies
linearly with temperature and its values at
50. Consider the following statements relevant
300C and 200C are 25 W/mK and 15
to the ignition system of SI engine:
W/mK, respectively. Then the steady heat
1. Too small a dwell angle will lead to flux through the wall is
the burning of condenser and contact
a. 8 kW/m2
points.
b. 5 kW/m2
2. Too small a dwell angle will result in
misfiring. c. 4 kW/m2
3. Too large a dwell angle will result in d. 3 kW/m2
burning of condenser and contact 55. A 320 cm high vertical pipe at 150 C wall
points. temperature is in a room with still air at
4. Too large a dwell angle will result in 10C. This pipe supplies heat at the rate of
misfiring. 8 kW into the room air by natural
convection. Assuming laminar flow, the
height of the pipe needed to supply 1 kW
a. 1 and 2 only is
b. 2 and 3 a. 10 cm
c. 3 and 4 b. 20 cm
d. 4 and 1 c. 40 cm
51. The volumetric efficiency of a well d. 80 cm
designed S.I. engine is in the range of
56. The average Nusselt number in laminar
a. 40% 50% natural convection from a vertical wall at
b. 50% 60% 180C with still air at 20C is found to be
c. 60% 70% 48. If the wall temperature becomes 30C,
d. 70% 90% all other parameters remaining same, the
52. average Nusselts number will be
a. 8
b. 16
c. 24
d. 32
57. A fluid of thermal conductivity 1.0W/m-K
flows in fully developed flow with
Reynolds number of 1500 through a pipe
Variation of specific fuel consumption of diameter 10 cm. The heat transfer
with fuel-air ratio for spark ignition engine coefficient for uniform heat flux and
is represented by which of the curves uniform wall temperature boundary
shown above? conditions are, respectively
a. Curve 1 W
b. Curve 2 a. 36.57 and 43.64 2
m K
c. Curve 3
W
d. Curve 4 b. 43.64 and 36.57 2
m K
53. For a jet propulsion unit, ideally the ratio
W
of compressor work and turbine work is c. 43.64 2 for both the cases
a. 2 m K
b. 1 W
d. 36.57 2 for both the cases
c. Not related to each other m K
d. Unpredictable 58. Two large parallel grey plates with a small
gap, exchange radiation at the rate of 1000
W/m2 when their emmissivities are 0.5
8 of 15
each. By coating one plate, its emissive is 2. Reynolds and Prandtl number
reduced to 0.25. Temperatures remain 3. Fourier modulus and Biot number
unchanged. The new rate of heat exchange 4. Prandtl number and Grashof number
shall become
A B C D
a. 500 W/m2
b. a. 2 1 4 3
600 W/m2
b. 3 4 1 2
c. 700W/m2
c. 2 4 1 3
d. 800W/m2
d. 3 1 4 2
59. Two long parallel plates of same emissive
62. The insulated tip temperature of a
0.5 are maintained at different
rectangular longitudinal fin having an
temperatures and have radiation heat
excess (over ambient) root temperature of
exchange between them. The radiation
shield of emissive o.25 placed in the 0 is
middle will reduce radiation heat exchange a. 0 tanh ml
to
0
a. 1/2 b.
sin h ml
b. 1/4
c. 3/10 0 tanh ml
c.
d. 3/5 ml
60. Match List I with List II and select the 0
correct answer: d.
cos h ml
List I (Type of radiation)
A. Black body 63. Consider the following statements
pertaining to large heat transfer rate using
B. Grey body
fins:
C. Specular
1. Fins should be used on the side where
D. Diffuse heat transfer coefficient is small
List II (Characteristic) 2. Long and thick fins should be used
1. Emissive does not depend on 3. Short and thin fins should be used
wavelength
4. Thermal conductivity of fin material
2. Mirror like reflection should be large
3. Zero reflectivity Which of the above statements are correct?
4. Intensity same in all directions a. 1, 2 and 3
A B C D b. 1, 2 and 4
a. 2 1 3 4 c. 2, 3 and 4
b. 3 4 2 1 d. 1, 3 and 4
c. 2 4 3 1 64. Using thermal-electrical analogy in heat
d. 3 1 2 4 transfer, match List I (Electrical quantities)
61. Match List I (Type of heat transfer) with with List Il (Thermal quantities) and select
List II (Governing dimensionless the correct answer:
parameter) and select the correct answer: List I
List I A. Voltage
A. Forced convection B. Current
B. Natural convection C. Resistance
C. Combined free and forced convection D. Capacitance
D. Unsteady conduction with convection List II
at surface 1. Thermal resistance
List II 2. Thermal capacity
1. Reynolds, Grashof and Prandtl number 3. Heat flow
9 of 15
4. Temperature A. Hermetically sealed compressor
A B C D B. Semi-hermitically sealed compressor
a. 2 3 1 4 C. Open type compressor
b. 4 1 3 2 D. Expansion device
c. 2 1 3 4 List II (Characteristic)
d. 4 3 1 2 1. Capillary tube
65. Prandtl number of a flowing fluid greater 2. Both compressor and motor enclosed
than unity indicates that hydrodynamic in a shell or casting
boundary layer thickness is 3. Both compressor and motor enclosed
a. Greater than thermal boundary layer in a shell or casing with a removable
thickness cylinder cover
b. Equal to thermal boundary layer 4. Driving motor of enclosed ma shill or
thickness casing and connected to the shaft
c. Greater than hydrodynamic boundary driving the compressor
layer thickness A B C D
d. Independent Of Thermal Boundary a. 1 4 3 2
Layer Thickness b. 2 3 4 1
66. A standard vapour compression c. 1 3 4 2
refrigeration cycle consists of the d. 2 4 3 1
following 4 thermodynamic processes in
69. The ratio of the clearance volume to the
sequence:
displacement volume of a R12
a. Isothermal expansion, isentropic reciprocating compressor is 0.05 Specific
compression, isothermal compression volume at inlet and outlet of compressor
and isentropic expansion are 0.04 and 0.02 m3/kg respectively.
b. Constant pressure heat addition, Volumetric efficiency of the compressor is
isentropic compression, constant a. 95.0%
pressure heat rejection and isentropic
b. 47.5%
expansion
c. 38.0%
c. Constant pressure heat addition,
isentropic compression, constant d. 19.0%
pressure heat rejection and isentropic 70. Consider the following statements in
expansion relation to a convergent-divergent steam
d. Isothermal expansion, constant nozzle operating under choked conditions:
pressure heat addition, isothermal 1. In the convergent portion steam
compression and constant pressure velocity is less than sonic velocity
heat rejection 2. In the convergent portion steam
67. Sub cooling heat exchanger is used in a velocity is greater than sonic velocity
refrigeration cycle. The enthalpies at 3. In the divergent portion the steam
condenser outlet and evaporator outlet are velocity is less than sonic velocity
78 and 182 kJ/kg respectively. The 4. In the divergent portion the steam
enthalpy at outlet of isentropic compressor velocity is greater than sonic velocity
is 230 kJ/kg and enthalpy of sub cooled Which of the above statements are correct?
liquid is 68 kJ/kg. the COP of the cycle is
a. 1 and 3
a. 3.25
b. 1 and 4
b. 2.16
c. 2 and 3
c. 3.0
d. 2 and 4
d. 3.5
71. For maximum discharge through a
68. Match List I with List II and select the convergent nozzle the pressure ratio p2 /p1
correct answer: should be (where n is the isentropic
List I (Refrigeration equipment) expansion index)
10 of 15
2 a. High head, low flow rate
n n 1
a. b. Low head, low flow rate
n 1 c. Low head, high flow rate
n
2 n 1 d. High head, high flow rate
b. 76. Stalling of blades in axial- flow
n 1
n
compressor is the phenomenon of
n 1 n 1 a. Air stream blocking the passage
c.
2 b. Motion of air at sonic velocity
n c. Unsteady, periodic and reversed flow
2 n 1 d. Air steam not able to follow the blade
d.
n 1 contour
72. For a reaction turbine with degree of 77. In a reaction turbine the heat drop is fixed
reaction equal to 50%, (V is the absolute blade is 8 kJ/kg and the total head drop per
steam velocity at inlet and is the angle stage is 20 kJ/kg. The degree of reaction is
made by it to the tangent on the wheel) the a. 40%
efficiency is maximum what the blade b. 66.7%
speed is equal to
c. 60%
a. V cos / 2
d. 25%
b. 2V cos 78. The inlet and exit velocity diagrams of a
c. V cos 2
turbo machine rotator are shown
d. V cos
correct answer:
List I (Equipment)
A. Anticipatory gear The turbo machine is
B. Labyrinth a. An axial compressor with backward
C. Inverted T-attachment curved blades
D. Deaerator b. A radial compressor with backward
List II (Application area) curved blades
1. Sealing system c. A radial compressor with forward
2. Steam power plant curved blades
3. Turbine governing system d. An axial compressor with forward
4. Blades curved blades
A B C D 79. In an axial flow compressor
a. 4 2 3 1 1 exit angle from stator
b. 3 1 4 2 1 inlet angle to rotor
c. 4 1 3 2 2 inlet angle to stator
d. 3 2 4 1
1 = outlet angle from rotor
74. The pressure rise in the impeller of
centrifugal compressor is achieved by The condition to have a 50% degree of
a. Decrease in volume and diffusion reaction is
action a. 1 2
b. Centrifugal action and decrease in b. 2 1
volume
c. 1 2 and 1 2
c. The centrifugal and diffusion action
d. Centrifuga1. And push-pull action d. 1 2 and 1 2
75. Compared to axial compressors centrifugal 80. Brayton cycle with infinite inter cooling
compressors are more suitable for and reheating stages would approximate a
11 of 15
a. Stirling cycle b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
b. Ericsson cycle the correct explanation of A
c. Otto cycle c. A is true but R is false
d. Atkinson cycle d. A is false but R is false
81. Assertion (A): Efficiency of a reversible 85. Assertion (A): Heat transfer at high
engine operating between temperature temperature is dominated by radiation
limits T1 and T2 is maximum. rather than convection.
Reason (R): Efficiency of a reversible Reason (R): Radiation depends on fourth
engine is greater than that of an power of temperature while convection
irreversible engine. depends on unit power.
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A the correct explanation of A
d. A is false but R is false d. A is false but R is false
82. Assertion (A): Specific heat at constant 86. Assertion (A): It is not possible to
pressure for an ideal gas is always greater determine LMTD in a counter flow heat
than the specific heat at constant volume. exchanger with equal heat capacity rates of
Reason (R): Heat added at constant hot and cold fluids.
volume is not utilized for doing any Reason (R): Because the temperature
external work. difference is invariant along the length of
a. Both A and R are true and R is the the heat exchanger.
correct explanation of A a. Both A and R are true and R is the
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT correct explanation of A
the correct explanation of A b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
c. A is true but R is false the correct explanation of A
d. A is false but R is false c. A is true but R is false
83. Assertion (A): The performance of a d. A is false but R is false
simple Rankine cycle is not sensitive to the 87. Assertion (A): In a liquid-to-gas heat
efficiency of the feed pump. exchanger fins are provided in the gas
Reason (R): The net work ratio us side.
practically unity for a Rankine cycle. Reason (R): The gas offers less thermal
a. Both A and R are true and R is the resistance than liquid.
correct explanation of A a. Both A and R are true and R is the
the correct explanation of A b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
84. Assertion (A): A pintle nozzle is d. A is false but R is false
employed to mix the fuel properly even 88. Assertion (A): A hydraulic ram is a device
with the slow air movement available with used to left water from deep walls.
the many open combustion chambers in CI Reason (R): Hydraulic ram works on the
engines. principle of water hammer.
Reason (R): The mixing of fuel and air is a. Both A and R are true and R is the
greatly affected by the nature of the air correct explanation of A
movement in the combustion chamber of b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
CI engines. the correct explanation of A
a. Both A and R are true and R is the c. A is true but R is false
correct explanation of A d. A is false but R is false
12 of 15
89. Assertion (A): COP of heat pump is more b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
than the COP of its refrigerator version. the correct explanation of A
Reason (R): Pumping of heat requires less c. A is true but R is false
work relative to extraction of heat from the d. A is false but R is false
evaporator. 93. Assertion (A): Rankine efficiency would
a. Both A and R are true and R is the approach Carnot cycle efficiency by
correct explanation of A providing a series of regenerative feed
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT heating.
the correct explanation of A Reason (R): With regenerative feed
c. A is true but R is false heating, expansion through the turbine
d. A is false but R is false approaches an isentropic process.
90. Assertion (A): In general, viscosity in a. Both A and R are true and R is the
liquids increases and in gases it decreases correct explanation of A
with rise in temperature. b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
Reason (R): Viscosity is caused by the correct explanation of A
intermolecular forces of cohesion and due c. A is true but R is false
to transfer of molecular momentum d. A is false but R is false
between fluid layers; of which in liquids 94. Assertion (A): The specific speed of a
the former and in gases the later contribute Pelton turbine is low
the major part towards viscosity.
Reason (R): Pelton turbine works under a
a. Both A and R are true and R is the high head and handles low discharge.
correct explanation of A
91. Assertion (A): Stream lines are drawn in d. A is false but R is false
the flow field such that at a given instant
95. The sensing bulb of the thermostatic
of time they are perpendicular to the
expansion valve is located at the
direction of flow at every point in the flow
field. a. Exit of the evaporator
Reason (R): Equation for a stream line in b. Inlet of the evaporator
a two dimensional flow is given by c. Exit of the condenser
Vx dy Vy dx = 0. d. Inlet of the condenser
a. Both A and R are true and R is the 96. Experimental measurements on a
correct explanation of A refrigeration system indicate that rate of
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT heat extraction by the evaporator rate of
the correct explanation of A heat rejection in the condenser and rate of
c. A is true but R is false heat rejection by the compressor body to
environment are 70 kW, 90 kW and 5 kW
d. A is false but R is false
respectively. The power input (in kW)
92. Assertion (A): The mass flow rate through required to operate the system is
a compressor for various refrigerants at
a. 15
same temperature arid pressure is
proportional to their molecular weights. b. 20
Reason (R): According to Avogardos law c. 25
all gases have same number of moles in a d. 75
given volume at same pressure and 97. Ozone depletion by CFCs occurs by
temperature. breakdown of
a. Both A and R are true and R is the a. Chlorine atoms from refrigerant by UV
correct explanation of A radiation and reaction with ozone in
troposphere
13 of 15
b. Fluorine atoms from refrigerant by UV d. Which lies between wet bulb and dew
radiation and reaction with ozone in point temperature of incoming stream
troposphere 102. The latent heat load in an auditorium is
c. Chlorine atoms from refrigerant by UV 25% of the sensible heat load. The value of
radiation and reaction with ozone in sensible heat factor (S H F) is equal to
stratosphere a. 0.25
d. Fluorine atoms from refrigerant by UV b. 0.5
radiation and reaction with ozone in c. 0.8
stratosphere
d. 1.0
98. Maximum possible COP of a solar
103. For an office building the outdoor design
absorption refrigeration system with
conditions are 45C dbt and humidity ratio
generator temperature of 360 K, absorber
of 0.015. The indoor design conditions are
temperature of 300 K, condenser
25C dbt and 0.01 humidity ratio. The
temperature of 300 K and evaporator
supply air state is 15C dbt and 0.007
temperature of 270 K is
humidity ratio. If the supply air flow rate is
a. 9 1000 m3/min and fresh air flow rate is
b. 6 m3/min, room sensible ands room latent
c. 3 head loads are, respectively
d. 1.5 a. 408 kW and 400 kW
99. In case A, moist air is adiabatically b. 408 kW and 150 kW
saturated and in case B, moist air is c. 204 kW and 400 kW
isobaric ally saturated. The saturation d. 204 kW and 150 kW
temperatures in case A and B are
104. Hydrostatic law of pressure is given as
respectively
a. p / z g
a. Dry bulb temperature and wet bulb
temperature b. p / z 0
b. Dew point temperature and wet bulb c. p / z z
temperature d. p / z Constant
c. Wet bulb temperature and dew point
temperature 105. In a pipe-flow pressure is to be measured
at a particular cross-section using the most
d. Wet bulb temperature and dry bulb appropriate instrument. Match List I
temperature (Expected pressure range) with List II
100. In a system: Metabolic rate = M, work (Appropriate measuring device) and select
done by man = W, rate of convective, the correct answer:
radiative and evaporative heat losses = Q List I
and rate of heat storage = S. Then heat
exchange between man and his A. Steady flow with small positive gauge
environment is given by pressure
a. M + W = Q + S B. Steady flow with small negative and
positive gauge pressure
b. M W = Q S
C. Steady flow with high gauge pressure
c. M + W = Q S
D. Unsteady flow with fluctuating
d. M W = Q + S pressure
101. For cooling and dehumidifying of List II
unsaturated moist air it must be passed
over a coil at a temperature 1. Bourdon pressure gauge
a. Of adiabatic saturation of incoming 2. Pressure transducer
stream 3. Simple piezometer
b. Which is lower than the dew point of 4. U-tube manometer
incoming stream A B C D
c. Which lies between dry bulb and wet a. 3 2 1 4
bulb temperature
14 of 15
b. 1 4 3 2
c. 3 4 1 2
d. 1 2 3 4
106. The capillary rise at 20C in clean glass
tube of 1 mm diameter containing water is
approximately
The height of the water retained by the
a. 15 mm darn is 20 m density of water is 1000
b. 50 mm kg/m3. Assuming g as 9.81 m/s2, the
c. 20 mm horizontal force acting on the darn per unit
d. 30 mm length is
107. Pressure drop of water flowing through a a. 1.962 102N
pipe (density 1000 kg/m3) between two b. 2105N
points is measured by using a vertical U- c. 1.962106N
tube manometer. Manometer uses a liquid
with density 2000 kg/m3. The difference in d. 3.924106N
height of man metric liquid in the two 110. The velocity potential of a velocity field is
limbs of the manometer is observed to be given by x 2 y 2 const. its stream
10 cm. the pressure drop between the two function will be given by:
points is: a. 2xy + constant
a. 98.1 N/m2 b. +2xy + constant
b.
981 N/m2 c. 2xy + f(x)
c. 1962 N/m2 d. 2 2xy + f(y)
d. 19620 N/m2 111. A streamline is a line
108. Match List I with List II and select the a. Which is along the path of the particle
correct answer: b. Which is always parallel to the main
List I (Stability) direction of flow
A. Stable equilibrium of a floating body c. Along which there is no flow
B. Stable equilibrium of a submerged d. On which tangent drawn at any point
body gives the direction of velocity
C. Unstable equilibrium of a floating 112. Match List I with List II and select the
body correct answer:
D. Unstable equilibrium of a submerged List I (Example)
body A. Flow in a straight long pipe with
List II (Conditions) varying flow rate
1. Centre of buoyancy below the centre B. Flow of gas through the nozzle of a jet
of gravity engine
2. Met centre above the centre of gravity C. Flow of water through the hose of a
3. Centre of buoyancy above the centre of fire fighting pump
gravity D. Flow in a river during tidal bore
4. Met centre below the centre of gravity List II (Type of flow)
A B C D 1. Uniform, steady
a. 4 3 2 1 2. Non-uniform steady
b. 2 3 4 1 3. Uniform, unsteady
c. 4 1 2 3 4. Non-uniform unseady
d. 2 1 4 3 A B C D
109. A dam is having a curved surface as a. 1 4 3 2
shown in the figure. b. 3 2 1 4
c. 1 2 3 4
15 of 15
d. 3 4 1 2 A B C D
113. Match List I (Type of fluid) with List II a. 3 2 4 1
(Variation of shear stress) and select the b. 1 4 2 3
correct answer: c. 3 4 2 1
List I d. 1 2 4 3
A. Ideal fluid 116. The force of impingement of a jet on a
B. Newtonian fluid vane Increases if
C. Non-new-tonian fluid a. The vane angle. Is increased
D. Bingham plastic b. The vane angle is decreased
List II c. The pressure is reduced
1. Shear stress varies linearly with the d. The vane is moved against the jet
rate of strain 117. Which of the following assumptions are
2. Shear stress does not vary hnea1y with made for denying Bernoullis equation?
the rate of strain 1. Flow is steady and incompressible
3. Fluid behaves like a solid until a 2. Flow is unsteady and compressible
minimum yield stress beyond which it
3. Effect of friction is neglected arid flow
exhibits a linear relationship between
is along a stream line
shear stress and the rate of strain
4. Effect of friction is taken into
4. Shear stress is zero
consideration and flow is along a
A B C D stream line
a. 3 1 2 4 Select the correct answer using the codes
b. 4 2 1 3 given below:
c. 3 2 1 4 a. 1 and 3
d. 4 1 2 3 b. 2 and 3
114. The equation of a velocity distribution c. 1 and 4
over a plate is given by u 2 y y 2 where d. 2 and 4
u is the velocity in m/s at a point y meter 118. While measuring the velocity of air
from the plate measured perpendicularly.
Assuming = 8.60 poise, the shear stress
1.2kg / m3 , the difference in the
at a point 15 cm from the boundary is stagnation and static pressures of a pitot-
static tube was found to be 380 Pa. The
a. 1.72 N/m2
velocity at that location in m/s is
b. 1.46 N/m2
a. 24.03
c. 14.62 N/m2
b. 4.02
d. 17.20 N/m2
c. 17.8
115. Match List I (Fluid parameters) with List
d. 25.17
II (Basic dimensions) and select the
correct answer: 119. The drag force exerted by a fluid on a
body immersed in the fluid is due to
List I
a. Pressure and viscous forces
A. Dynamic viscosity
b. Pressure and gravity forces
B. Chews roughness coefficient
c. Pressure and surface tension forces
C. Bulk modulus of elasticity
d. Viscous and gravity forces
D. Surface tension
120. The hydraulic means depth (where A =
List II area and P = wetted perimeter) is given by
1. M/t2 a. P/A
2. M/Lt2 b. P2/A
3. M/Lt c. A/P
4. L/t d. A/ P
I.E.S-(OBJ) 2003 1 of 16
PAPER-I
1. Consider the following statements A B C D
pertaining to boundary layer : a. 3 1 2 4
1. Boundary layer is a thin layer adjacent b. 1 4 3 2
to the boundary where maximum c. 3 1 4 2
viscous energy dissipation takes place.
d. 1 4 2 3
2. Boundary layer thickness is a thickness
by which the ideal flow is shifted. 4. Consider the following statements:
3. Separation of boundary layer is caused 1. Dimensional analysis is used to
by presence of adverse pressure determine the number of variables
gradient. involved in a certain phenomenon.
Which of these statements are correct? 2. The group of repeating variables in
dimensional is should include all the
a. 1, 2 and 3 fundamental units.
b. 1 and 2
3. Buckinghams theorem stipulates the
c. 1 and 3 number of dimensionless groups for a
d. 2 and 3 given phenomenon.
2. The velocity profile for turbulent layerover 4. The coefficient in Chezys equation
a flat plate is has no dimension
u y Which of these are correct ?
a. sin
U 2 a. 1, 2, 3 and 4
1/7 b. 2, 3 and 4
u y
b. c. 1 and 4
U
d. 2 and 3
2
u y y 5. Match List I (Flow/Wave) with List II
c. 2
U (Dimensionless Number) and select the
3 correct answer :
u 3 y 1 y
d. List I
U 2 2
A. Capillary waves in channel
3. Match List I (Flows Over or inside the B. Testing of aerofoils
Systems) with List II (Type of Flow) and
select the correct answer : C. Flow around bridge piers
List I D. Turbulent flow through pipes
A. Flow over a sphere List II
B. Flow over a long circular cylinder 1. Reynolds number
C. Flow in a pipe bend 2. Froud number
D. Fully developed flow in a pipe at 3. Weber number
constant flow rate 4. Euler number
List II 5. Mach number
1. Two dimensional flow A B C D
2. One dimensional flow a. 5 4 3 2
3. Axis symmetric flow b. 3 5 4 1
4. Three dimensional flow c. 5 4 2 1
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d. 3 5 2 1 venturi depending on the back
6. Consider the following statements : pressure.
1. Complete similarity between model 2. At the throat, sonic conditions exist for
and prototype envisages geometric and subsonic or supersonic flow at the
dynamic similarities only outlet.
2. Distorted models are necessary where 3. A supersonic nozzle discharges fluid at
geometric similarity is not possible due constant rate even if the exit pressure is
to practical reasons. lower than the design pressure
3. In testing of model of a ship, the 4. A normal shock appears in the
surface tension forces are generally diverging section of the nozzle if the
neglected. back pressure is above the design
4. The scale effect takes care of the effect pressure but below a certain minimum
of dissimilarity between model and pressure for venturi operation.
prototype: Which of the statements are correct?
Which of these statements are correct ? a. 1, 2, 3 and 4
a. 1 and 3 b. 1, 3 and 4
b. 1, 2 and 4 c. 2, 3 and 4
c. 2 and 3 d. 1 and 2
d. 2 and 4 10. Two pelton wheels A and B have the same
7. The fluid property that remains unchanged specific speed, and are working under, the
across a normal shock wave is same head. When A produces 400 kW at
1000 rpm. If B produces 100 kW, then its
a. Stagnation enthalpy rpm is
b. Stagnation pressure a. 4000
c. Static pressure b. 2000
d. Mass density c. 1500
8. Match List I (Phenomena) with List II d. 1250
(Causes) and select the correct answer :
11. On the assumption that a double suction
List I impeller is the equivalent of two single
A. Shock wave suction impellers placed back to back, it is
B. Flow separat4on customary to base the specific speed of the
C. V Capillary rise double suction pump on
D. Cavitation a. One half of the total capacity
List II b. Three fourth of the total capacity
1. Surface tension c. Full total capacity
2. Vapour pressure d. Double the total capacity
3. Compressibility 12. Consider the following types of water
4. Adverse pressure gradient turbines
A B C D 1. Bulb
a. 3 1 2 4 2. Francis
b. 4 2 1 3 3. Kaplan
c. 3 4 1 2 4. Pelton
d. 4 1 2 3 The correct sequence of order in which the
operating head decreases while developing
9. Consider the following statements the same power is
pertaining to one-dimensional isentropic
flow in a convergent-divergent passage: a. 4, 2, 3, 1
1. A convergent-divergent passage may b. 3, 4, 1, 2
function as a supersonic nozzle or a c. 2, 1, 4, 3
d. 1, 3, 2, 4
3 of 16
13. Match List I (Type of Pumps) with List II c. 3, 2, 1
(Associated Features) and select the d. 1, 3, 2
correct answer : 16. Euler equation of turbine giving energy
List I transfer per unit mass E0 (where U, Vw, Vr
A. Centrifugal pump and V represent the peripheral, whirl,
B. Gear pump relative and absolute velocities
C. Reciprocating pump respectively. Suffix 1 and 2 refer to the
turbine inlet and outlet respectively) is
D. Turbine pump given by
List II a. E0 = U1Vw1 U2 Vw2
1. Air vessel b. E0 = U1Vr1 U2 Vr2
2. Draft tube c. E0 = U1V1 U2 V2
3. Guide vanes d. E0 = V1Vw1 V2 Vw2
4. Rotary pump 17. The power ratio of a pump and its l/4 the
5. Rotor having blades scale model, if the ratio of the heads is 5 :
A B C D 1, will be
a. 4 2 5 3 a. 100
b. 5 4 1 2 b. 3.2
c. 4 2 3 1 c. 179
d. 5 4 1 3 d. 12.8
14. Match List I (Industrial Needs) with List II 18. Which one of the following graphs
(Type of Pump) and select the correct correctly represents the relations between
answer : Head and Specific speed for Kaplan and
List I Francis turbine?
A. Combustible fluid to be pumped
B. High head but small discharge needed
C. Low head but large discharge needed
D. High head and high discharge needed
List II a.
1. Single stage centrifugal
2. Multi-stage centrifugal
3. Positive displacement
4. Jet pump
A B C D b.
a. 3 2 1 4
b. 4 3 1 2
c. 3 1 4 2
d. 4 3 2 1
15. Consider the following energies associated c.
with a Pelton turbine :
1. Mechanical energy
2. Kinetic energy
3. Potential energy
The correct sequence of energy conversion d.
starting from the entry of fluid is 19. Consider the following statements
a. 1, 2, 3 regarding air vessels provided in,
b. 2, 3, 1 reciprocating pump installations
4 of 16
1. The air vessels are fitted both on 24. In a two-stage compressor with ideal
suction and delivery sides. intercooling, for the work requirement to
2. The air vessels are fitted far from the be minimum, the intermediate pressure pi
pump cylinder. in terms of condenser and evaporator
3. The air vessels save energy by pressure pc and pe respectively is
reducing the friction loss. a. pi = pcpe
Which of these statements are correct? b. pi = pc pe
a. 1, 2 and 3
c. pi = pc /pe
b. 2 and 3
c. 1 and 2 d. pi = pc / pe
d. 1 and 3 25. In a one ton capacity water cooler, water
enters at 30C at the rate of 200 liters per
20. A pump, is installed at a height of 5 m hour. The outlet temperature of water will
above the water level in .the sump. be (sp. heat of water = 4.18 kJ/kg K)
Frictional loss on the suction side is 0.6 m.
If the atmospheric pressure is 10.3 m of a. 3.5C
water and vapour pressure head is 0.4 m b. 6.3C
(abs), the NPSH (Net Positive Suction c. 23.7C
Head) will be d. 15C
a. 3.7 m 26. A refrigerator working on a reversed
b. 4 m Carnot cycle has a C.O.P. of 4. If it works
c. 4.3 m as a heat pump and consumes 1 kW, the
d. 4.6 m heating effect will be
21. Priming is necessary in a. I kW
a. Centrifugal pumps to lift water from a b. 4kW
greater depth c. 5kW
b. Centrifugal pumps to remove air in the d. 6kW
suction pipe and casing 27. Theoretical maximum C.O.P. of a vapour
c. Hydraulic turbine to remove air in the absorption system (where, TG = generator
turbine casing temp, TE = evaporator temp, T0 =
d. Hydraulic turbine to increase the speed environmental temp) is
of turbine and to generate more power TE TG TO
a.
22. An accumulator is a device to store TG TO TE
a. Sufficient quantity of liquid to
compensate the change in discharge TE TO TE
b.
b. Sufficient energy to drive the machine TG TG TO
when the normal energy source does, TG TG TO
not function c.
c. Sufficient energy in case of machines
TE TO TE
which work intermittently to TG TO TE
supplement the discharge from the d.
normal source
TE TG TO
d. Liquid which otherwise would have 28. When a refrigerator system is started from
gone to waste ambient conditions, the evaporator
temperature decreases from ambient
23. The draught in locomotive boilers is
temperature to design value. This period is
produced by
known as a pull-down period. The power
a. Chimney requirement of compressor during pull-
b. Centrifugal fan down
c. Steam jet a. decreases continuously
d. Locomotion b. increases continuously
5 of 16
c. remains constant d. Water inlet temperature is mean of
d. increases and then decreases water outlet temperature and wet bulb
29. Oil separator is NOT required in temperature
refrigeration system if 33. Which of the following properties
a. refrigerant and oil are immiscible at all increase(s) during sensible heating of air-
pressures and temperatures water vapour mixture?
b. refrigerant and oil are immiscible at 1. Relative humidity
condensation pressure and temperature 2. Humidity ratio
c. refrigerant and oil are miscible at all 3. Wet bulb temperature
pressure and temperatures 4. Specific enthalpy of air-vapour
d. refrigerant and oil are miscible at mixture
condensation pressures and Select the correct answer from the codes
temperature given below:
30. If the volume of moist air with 50% a. 1 and 2
relative humidity is isothermally reduced b. 3 only
to half its original volume, then relative c. 2 and 3
humidity of moist air becomes
d. 3 and 4
a. 25%
34. Upon which of the following factors does
b. 60% the effective temperature for human
c. 75% comfort depend?
d. 100% 1. Dry bulb temperature
31. When the wet and dry bulb temperatures 2. Humidity ratio
are identical, which of the following 3. Air velocity
statements is/are true ?
4. Mean radiation temperature
1. Air is fully saturated
Select the correct answer from the codes
2. Dew point temperature is reached given below :
3. Humidity ratio is unity a. 1 and 2
4. Partial pressure of vapour equals total b. 1, 3 and 4
pressure
c. 2, 3 and 4
given below : d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
a. 1 only 35. Moist air enters the cooling coil with mass
flow rate of 10 kgda/s at dry bulb
b. 1 and 2 temperature of 30C and humidity ratio of
c. 3 and 4 0.017 kgw/kgda. It leaves the cooling coil
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4 at dry bulb temperature of 16C and
32. In a cooling tower the sum of range and humidity ratio of 0.008 kgw/kgda. If
approach is equal to twice the wet bulb specific heat of humid air is 1.02 kJ/kgda-
depression. Then K and latent heat of water vapour is 2500
a. Dry bulb temperature is mean of water kJ/kgw. The sensible and latent heat
inlet temperature and wet bulb transfer of cooling coil are, respectively
temperature a. 140 kW and 25000 kW
b. Dry bulb temperature is mean of water b. 142.8 kW and 2.25 kW
outlet temperature and wet bulb c. 142.8 kW and 225 kW
temperature d. 225 kW and 142.8 kW
c. Water inlet temperature is mean of dry 36. An air-conditioned room has length, width
bulb temperature and wet bulb and height of 20 m, 30 m and 4 m
temperature respectively. The infiltration is assumed to
be one air change. The outdoor and indoor
dry bulb temperatures are 40C and 25C
6 of 16
respectively. The sensible heat load due to 2. It acts vertically even when the surface
infiltration is is turned.
a. 734 kW (b) 12.24 kW Which of these is/are correct ?
b. 0.204 kW (d) 10 kW a. Only 1
37. Consider the following statements in b. Only 2
respect of the contraction and expansion c. Both 1 and 2
in. air conditioning ducts : d. Neither 1 nor 2
1. Pressure drop is more in contraction 41. The depth of centre of pressure for a
than in expansion. rectangular lamina immersed vertically in
2. Pressure drop is more in expansion water up to height h is given by
than in contraction. a. h/2
3. Static pressure increases (regain) in b. h/4
expansion.
c. 2h/3
4. Static pressure increases (regain) in
contraction. d. 3h/2
Which of these statements are correct ? 42. The vertical component of force on a
curved surface submerged in a static liquid
a. 1 and 2 is equal to the
b. 1, 2 and 3 a. Weight of liquid column above the
c. 1 and 3 C.G. of the curved surface
d. 2 and 4 b. Weight of liquid above the curved
38. On which, of the following factors does surface
sol-air temperature depend? c. Product of pressure at C.G., multiplied
1. Outdoor air temperature by the area of the curved surface
2. intensity of solar radiation d. Product of pressure at C.G., multiplied
3. Absorptivity of wall by the projected area of the curved
4. Convective heat transfer coefficient at surface
outer surface of wall 43. The point of application of a horizontal
5. Indoor design temperature force on a curved surface submerged in
liquid is
Choose the correct answer from the codes
IG
given below: a. h
a. 1, 2 and 5 Ah
b. 1, 2 and 3 I G Ah
b.
c. 3 and 4 Ah
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4 Ah
c. h
39. Instantaneous cooling loads are NOT equal IG
to instantaneous heat gains because
IG
a. Heat gains are offset by cooling d. Ah
provided by the AC system h
b. Indoor temperatures are tower where A = area of the immersed surface
c. Comfort conditions are maintained in h = depth of centre of surface
the space immersed
d. Of the storage effect in the IG = moment of inertia about centre
construction material of walls and roof of gravity
40. Consider the following statements about 44.
hydrostatic force on a submerged surface :
1. It remains the same even when the
surface is turned.
7 of 16
p 1
t 2
| |2 gz = constant
represents
a. Steady flow energy equation
b. Unsteady irrotational Bernoullis
equation
c. Steady rotational Bernoullis equation
d. Unsteady rotational Bernoullis
equation
To measure the pressure head of the fluid 48. For a circular channel, the wetted
of specific gravity S flowing through a parameter (where R = radius of circular
pipeline, a simple micro-manometer channel, = half the angle subtended by
containing a fluid of specific gravity S1 is the water surface at the centre) is given by
connected to it. The readings are as
a. R/2
indicated in the diagram. The pressure
head in the pipeline is b. 3R
a. h1S1 hS h(S1 S) c. 2R
b. h1S1 hS1 + h(S1 S) d. R
c. hS h1S1 h(S1 S) 49. Consider the following statements:
d. hS h1S1 +h (S1 S) A hydraulic jump occurs in. an open
channel
45. Match List I (Rheological Equation) with
List II (Types of Fluids) and. select the 1. when the Froude number is equal to or
correct answer : less than one.
List I 2. at the toe of a spillway.
A. = (du/dy)n , n = 1 3. downstream of a sluice gate in a canal.
B. = (du/dy)n , n < 1 4. when the bed slope suddenly changes.
Which of these are correct ?
C. = (du/dy)n , n > 1
a. 1, 2, 3 and 4
D. = 0 + (du/dy)n , n = 1
b. 1, 2 and 3
List II
c. 2, 3 and 4
1. Bingham plastic
d. 1 and 4
2. Dilatant fluid
50. An orifice meter with Cd = 0.61 is
3. Newtonian fluid substituted by Venturimeter with Cd = 0.98
4. Pseudo-plastic fluid in a pipeline carrying crude oil, having the
A B C D same throat diameter as that of the orifice.
a. 3 2 4 1 For the same flow rate, the ratio of the
b. 4 1 2 3 pressure drops for the venturimeter and the
orifice meter is
c. 3 4 2 1
a. 0.61 / 0.98
d. 4 2 1 3
b. (0.61)2 / (0.98)2
46. Which one of the following stream
functions is a possible irrotational flow c. 0.98 / 0.61
field ? d. (0.98)2 / (0.61)2
a. = x3y 51. The instrument preferred in the
measurement of highly fluctuating
b. = 2xy
velocities in air flows is
c. = Ax2y2 a. Pitot-static tube
d. = Ax + By2 b. Propeller type anemometer
47. The expression c. Three cup anemometer
d. Hot wire anemometer
8 of 16
52. The friction factor for fully developed 56. Consider the following statements
turbulent flow through a rough circular regarding the fluidized bed combustion
pipe depends on boilers :
a. Reynolds number 1. The combustion temperatures are low,
b. Relative roughness around 900C
c. Reynolds number and relative 2. The formation of oxides of nitrogen is
roughness low.
d. Reynolds number, relative roughness 3. It removes sulphur from coal during
and diameter to length ratio combustion process.
53. In a steady flow of an oil in a pipe in the 4. It requires high quality of coal as fuel.
fully developed laminar regime, the shear Which of these statements are correct?
stress is a. 1, 2, 3 and 4
a. Constant across the pipe b. 1,2 and 3
b. Maximum at the centre and decreases c. 2, 3 and 4
parabolically towards the pipe. wall d. 1 and 4
boundary
57. The correct gas flow path in a typical large
c. Zero at the boundary and increases modern natural circulation boiler is
linearly towards the centre
a. Combustion chamber Reheater
d. Zero at the centre and increases Superheater Economiser Air
towards the pipe wall Preheater I.D. fan Electrostatic
54. Velocity of pressure waves due to pressure precipitator Stack
disturbances imposed in a liquid is equal to b. Combustion chamber Superheater
a. (E/)1/2 Reheater Economiser Air Preheater
b. (E)1/2 Electrostatic precipitator I.D. fan
c. (/E)1/2 Stack
c. Combustion chamber Reheater
d. (1/E)1/2
Superheater Air Preheater
55. Match List I (Boilers) with List Economiser Electrostatic precipitator
II(Type/Description) and select the correct I.D. fan Stack
answer
d. Combustion chamber Superheater
List I Reheater Economiser Air Preheater
A. Lancashire I.D. fan Electrostatic precipitator
B. Benson Stack
C. Babcock and Wilcox 58. Employing superheated steam in turbines
D. Stirling leads to
List II a. Increase in erosion of blading
1. Horizontal straight tube, fire-tube b. Decrease in erosion of blading
boiler c. No erosion in blading
2. Horizontal straight tube, water-tube d. No change in erosion of blading
boiler 59. Steam enters a De laval steam turbine with
3. Bent tube, water-tube boiler an inlet velocity of 30 m/s and leaves with
4. High pressure boiler an outlet velocity of 10 m/s. The work
done by 1 kg of steam is
A B C D
a. 400 Nm
a. 4 2 1 3
b. 600 Nm.
b. 1 4 2 3
c. 800 Nm
c. 4 2 3 1
d. 1200 Nm
d. 1 4 3 2
60. In a 50% reaction stage, absolute velocity
angle at inlet is 450, mean peripheral speed
9 of 16
is 75 m/s and the absolute velocity at the c. is independent of the initial pressure
exit is axial. The stage specific work is and temperature
a. 2500 m2/s2 d. depends only on the condenser
b. 3270 m2/s2 pressure
c. 4375 m2/s2 66. Match List I (Blades) with List II
d. 5625 m2/s2 (Features) and select the correct answer :
61. In a reaction turbine stage enthalpy drop in List I
the stator blades is 4.62 kJ/kg and that in A. Ceramic blades
the rotor blades is 2.38 kJ/ kg. The degree B. Steam turbine blades
of reaction of the stage is C. Alloy steel blades
a. 0.52 D. Compressor blades
b. 0.43 List II
c. 0.34 1. High creep strength
d. 0.26 2. Forged and machined
62. An emergency governor of a steam turbine 3. Precision cast
trips the turbine when 4. Thick at mid chord
1. Shaft exceeds 100% of its rated speed 5. Thin trailing edge
2. Condenser becomes hot due to A B C D
inadequate cooling water circulation
a. 2 1 5 4
3. Lubrication system fails
b. 3 4 5 1
4. Balancing of turbine is not proper
c. 2 4 3 5
given below: d. 3 2 1 5
a. 1, 2 and 3 67. Assertion (A) : Throttling process for real
gases at initial temperature higher than
b. 2, 3 and 4 maximum inversion temperature is
c. 3, 4 and 1 accompanied by decrease in temperature
d. 4, 1 and 2 of the gas.
63. Roots blower is an example of Reason (R) : Joule-Kelvin coefficient J is
a. Reciprocating (positive displacement) given by (T/p)h and should have a
compressor positive value for decrease in temperature
b. Rotary (positive displacement) during throttling process.
compressor a. Both A and R are individually true and
c. Centrifugal compressor R is the correct explanation of A
d. Axial compressor b. Both A and R are individually true but
R is not the correct explanation of A
64. Acoustic velocity in an elastic gaseous
medium is proportional to c. A is true but R is false
a. Absolute temperature d. A is false but R is true
b. Stagnation temperature 68. Assertion (A) : An ideal regenerative
Ranking cycle power plant with saturated
c. Square root of absolute temperature
steam at the inlet to the turbine has same
d. Square root of stagnation temperature thermal efficiency as Carnot cycle working
65. In a regenerative feed heating cycle, the between the same temperature limits.
economic number of the stages of Reason (R) : The change in entropy of
regeneration steam during expansion in the turbine is
a. increases as the initial pressure and equal to the change in entropy of the feed
temperature increase water during sensible heating at steam
b. decreases as the initial pressure and generator pressure.
temperature increase a. Both A and R are individually true and
R is the correct explanation of A
10 of 16
b. Both A and R are individually true but the rate of formation of bubbles is so high
R is not the correct explanation of A that they start to coalesce and blanket the
c. A is true but R is false surface with a vapour film.
d. A is false but R is true a. Both A and R are individually true and
69. Assertion (A) : Octane number is used for R is the correct explanation of A
rating of fuels in spark ignition engine. b. Both A and R are individually true but
Reason (R) : Octane number of a fuel is R is not the correct explanation of A
defined as percentage by volume, of iso- c. A is true but R is false
octane in a mixture of iso-octane and - d. A is false but R is true
methyl naphthalene. 73. Assertion (A) : Decrease of pressure and
a. Both A and R are individually true and increase of temperature of the refrigerant
R is the correct explanation of A in the suction pipeline connecting the
b. Both A and R are individually true but evaporator to the reciprocating compressor
R is not the correct explanation of A reduces the refrigerating capacity of the
system.
Reason (R) : Decrease of pressure and
increase of temperature of the refrigerant
70. Assertion (A) : Power generated by a four in the suction pipeline connecting the
stroke engine working on Otto cycle is evaporator to the compressor reduces the
higher than the power generated by a two volumetric efficiency of the reciprocating
stroke engine for the same swept volume, compressor.
speed, temperature and pressure
a. Both A and R are individually true and
conditions.
Reason (R) : In a four stroke engine one
b. Both A and R are individually true but
cycle is completed in two revolutions.
R is not the correct explanation of A 74. Assertion (A) : For a vertically immersed
surface, the depth of the centre of pressure
is independent of the density of the liquid.
Reason (R) : Centre of pressure lies above
71. Assertion (A) : A counter flow heat the centre of area of the immersed surface.
exchanger is thermodynamically more
efficient than the parallel flow type
Reason (R) : A counter flow heat ex
changer has a lower LMTD for the same
temperature conditions.
R is the correct explanation of A d. A is false but R is true
b. Both A and R are individually true but 75. Assertion (A) : Streamlines can cross one
R is not the correct explanation of A another if the fluid has higher velocity.
c. A is true but R is false Reason (R) : At sufficiently high velocity,
the Reynolds number is high and at
sufficiently high Reynolds numbers, the
72. Assertion (A) : If the heat flux in pool structure of the flow is of turbulent type.
boiling over a horizontal surface is
increased above the critical heat flux, the
temperature difference between the surface
and liquid decreases sharply. b. Both A and R are individually true but
Reason (R) : With increasing heat flux
beyond the value corresponding to the c. A is true but R is false
critical heat flux, a stage is reached when d. A is false but R is true
11 of 16
76. Assertion (A) : After the fluid has re- b. Both A and R are individually true but
established its flow pattern downstream of R is not the correct explanation of A
an orifice plate, it will return to same c. A is true but R is false
pressure that it had upstream of the orifice d. A is false but R is true
plate.
80. Assertion (A) : Multi-stage centrifugal
Reason (R) : Bernoullis equation when pumps are only of the radial flow type.
applied between two points having the
same elevation and same velocity gives the Reason (R) : In a multi-stage centrifugal
same pressure at these points. pump, two or more impellers are keyed to
a single shaft and enclosed in the same
a. Both A and R are individually true and casing, the radial inlet to successive
R is the correct explanation of A impellers being made through guide vanes.
b. Both A and R are individually true but a. Both A and R are individually true and
R is not the correct explanation of A R is the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false b. Both A and R are individually true but
d. A is false but R is true R is not the correct explanation of A
77. Assertion (A) : Aircraft wings are, slotted c. A is true but R is false
to control separation of boundary layer d. A is false but R is true
especially at large angles of attack.
81. Assertion (A) : Large reaction turbines
Reason (R) : This helps to increase the lift have higher overall efficiency than the
and the aircraft can take off from, and land small reaction turbines.
on, short runways.
Reason (R) : The mechanical efficiency of
a. Both A and R are individually true and small reaction turbines is higher than that
R is the correct explanation of A of larger ones.
b. Both A and R are individually true but a. Both A and R are individually true and
R is not the correct explanation of A R is the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false b. Both A and R are individually true but
d. A is false but R is true R is not the correct explanation of A
78. Assertion (A) : Reynolds number must be c. A is true but R is false
same for the model, and prototype d. A is false but R is true
immersed in subsonic flows.
82. Assertion (A) : Impulse staging is
Reason (R) : Equality of Reynolds number commonly employed in high pressure part
for the model and prototype satisfies the and reaction staging in intermediate low
dynamic similarity criteria. pressure parts of the steam turbine.
a. Both A and R are individually true and Reason (R) : The tip leakage across
R is the correct explanation of A moving blades is less in impulse staging as
b. Both A and R are individually true but the pressure drop is small and there can be
R is not the correct explanation of A large pressure drop across fixed blades and
c. A is true but R is false nozzles.
d. A is false but R is true a. Both A and R are individually true and
79. Assertion (A) : A normal shock always R is the correct explanation of A
makes a supersonic flow of a compressible b. Both A and R are individually true but
fluid subsonic, but an oblique shock may R is not the correct explanation of A
not ensure subsonic flow after the shock. c. A is true but R is false
Reason (R) : A normal shock reduces the d. A is false but R is true
stagnation pressure and stagnation 83. Assertion (A) : In constant pressure type
enthalpy considerably whereas the loss at gas turbines, large quantity of air is used,
oblique shock is minimized. in excess of its combustion requirements.
a. Both A and R are individually true and Reason (R) : Excess air is used to
R is the correct explanation of A compensate for inevitable air-loss due to
leakages in the system.
12 of 16
a. Both A and R are individually true and Exhaust emissions vs. Air fuel ratio curves
R is the correct explanation of A for a petrol engine are shown in the above
b. Both A and R are individually true but figure. The curve C represents
R is not the correct explanation of A a. Hydro carbon
c. A is true but R is false b. Carbon dioxide
d. A is false but R is true c. Carbon monoxide
84. A heat, pump for domestic heating d. Oxides of nitrogen
operates between a cold system at 0C and 89. Orsat apparatus is used to determine
the hot system at 60C. What is the products of
minimum electric power consumption if a. All constituents of fuel combustion by
the heat rejected is 80000 kJ/hr? mass
a. 2 kW b. All constituents of fuel combustion by
b. 3 kW volume
c. 4 kW c. Only dry constituents of combustion
d. 5 kW by mass
85. A Carnot refrigerator requires 1.5 kW/ton d. Only dry constituents of combustion
of refrigeration to maintain a region at a by volume
temperature of 30C. The C.O.P. of the 90. Match List (Measuring Appliances) with
Carnot refrigerator is List II (Properties/Composition of Fuel)
a. 1.42 and select the correct answer :
b. 2.33 List I
c. 2.87 A. Hydrometer
d. 3.26 B. Bomb calorimeter
86. In a standard dual air cycle, for a fixed C. Reid bomb
amount of heat supplied and a fixed value D. Orsat apparatus
of compression ratio, the mean effective List II
pressure
1. Vapour pressure
a. Shall increase with increase in rp
(pressure ratio for constant volume 2. Composition of products combustion
heating) and decrease in rc 3. Specific gravity
(constant pressure cut-off ratio) 4. Heating value
b. Shall increase with decrease in rp and A B C D
increase in rc a. 2 1 3 4
c. Shall remain independent of rp b. 3 4 1 2
d. Shall remain independent of rc c. 2 4 3 1
87. Bomb calorimeter is used to determine the d. 3 1 2 4
calorific value of 91. For a simple closed system of constant
a. Solid fuel only composition, the. difference between the
b. Gaseous fuels only net heat and work interactions is
c. Solid as well. as gaseous fuels identifiable as the change in
d. Solids as well as liquid fuels a. Enthalpy
88. b. Entropy
c. Flow energy
d. Internal energy
92. If the performance of diesel engines of
different sizes, cylinder dimensions and
power ratings are to be compared, which
of the following parameters can be used
for such comparison ?
13 of 16
a. Swept volume Which of the above statements is/are
b. Air fuel ratio correct ?
c. Specific brake fuel consumption a. 1 only
d. Volumetric efficiency b. 2, 3 and 4
93. The propulsive efficiency of a turbojet c. 1 and 3
aircraft approaches 100% when the thrust d. 2 and 4
approaches 98. Gas contained in a closed system
a. Maximum consisting of piston cylinder arrangement
is expanded. Work done by the gas during
b. 50% of the maximum
expansion is 50 kJ. Decrease in internal
c. 25% of the maximum energy of the gas during expansion is 30
d. Zero kJ. Heat transfer during the process is
94. Identify the process for which the two equal to
integrals pdv and vdp , evaluated a. 20 kJ
between any two given states give the b. + 20 kJ
same value c. 80 kJ
a. Isenthalpic d. + 80 kJ
b. Isothermal 99. Van der Waals equation of state is given
by (p + a /v2) (v b) = RT. The constant b
c. Isentropic in the equation in terms of specific volume
d. Polytropic at critical point vc is equal to
95. Which one of the following phenomenon a. vc/3
occurs when gas in a piston-in-cylinder b. 2 v
assembly expands reversibly at constant
c. 3 v
pressure?
d. 8a / (27 vc R)
a. Heat is added to the gas
100. Saturated liquid at a high pressure p1
b. Heat is removed from the gas having enthalpy of saturated liquid 1000
c. Gas does work from its own stored kJ/kg is throttled to a lower pressure p2 . At
energy pressure p2 enthalpy of saturated liquid
d. Gas undergoes adiabatic expansion and that of the saturated vapour are 800
96. During steady flow compression process and 2800 kJ/kg respectively. The dryness
of a gas with mass flow rate of 2 kg/s, fraction of vapour after throttling process
increase in specific enthalpy is 15 kJ/kg is
and decrease in kinetic energy is 2 kJ/kg. a. 0.1
The rate of heat rejection to the b. 0.5
environment is 3 kW. The power needed c. 18/28
to drive the compressor is d. 0.8
a. 23 kW 101. Match List I (Terms) with List II
b. 26 kW (Relations) arid select the correct answer :
c. 29 kW List I
d. 37 kW A. Specific heat at constant volume Cv
97. Consider the following statements : B. Isothermal compressibility kT
1. Zeroth law of thermodynamics is C. Volume expansivity
related to temperature. D. Difference between specific heats at
2. Entropy is related to first law of constant pressure and at constant
thermodynamics. volume, Cp Cv
3. Internal energy of an ideal gas is a List II
1. 1/ v v / T p
function of temperature and pressure.
4. van der Waals equation is related to
an ideal gas. 2. T p / T v v / T p
14 of 16
3. T s / T v 3. Incorporation of intercooling process
in a multi-stage compression system
4. 1/ v v / p T increases specific work output but the
A B C D heat input also increases.
a. 3 4 2 1 4. Incorporation of intercooling process
b. 4 1 3 2 in a multi-stage compression system
increases specific work putput, the heat
c. 3 4 1 2
addition remains uncharged.
d. 4 1 2 3
a. 1 and 3
pertaining to the features of a regenerative
steam cycle plant as compared to a non- b. 1 and 4
regenerative plant: c. 2 and 3
1. It increases the cycle efficiency. d. 2 and 4
2. It requires a bigger boiler. 106. Match List I with List II and select the
3. It requires a smaller condenser. correct answer using the codes given
below the Lists :
List I
a. 1, 2 and 3
A. Bell Coleman cycle
b. 1 and 2
B. Stirling cycle
c. 2 and 3
C. Ericsson cycle
d. 1 and 3
D. Diesel cycle
103. For a steady flow process from state 1 to 2,
enthalpy changes from h1 = 400 kJ/kg to h2 List II
= 100 kJ/kg and entropy changes from s1 = 1. One constant pressure, one constant
1.1 kJ/kg-K to s2 = 0.7 kJ/kg-K. volume and two isentropic
Surrounding environmental 2. Two constant pressure and two
temperature is 300K. Neglect changes in isentropic
kinetic and potential energy. The change in 3. Two constant pressure and two
availability of the system is isothermal
a. 420 kJ/kg 4. Two constant volume and two
b. 300 kJ/kg isothermal
c. 180 kJ/kg A B C D
d. 90 kJ/kg a. 2 3 4 1
104. For a heat engine operating on the Carnot b. 1 4 3 2
cycle, the work output is 1/4th of the heat c. 2 4 3 1
transferred to the sink. The efficiency of d. 1 3 4 2
the engine is 107.
a. 20%
b. 33.3%
c. 40%
d. 50% 1.
105. Consider the following statements about
modification in a gas turbine power plant
working on a simple Brayton cycle
1. Incorporation of regeneration process
increases specific work output as well
2.
as thermal efficiency.
2. Incorporation of regeneration process
increases thermal efficiency but
specific work putput remains
uncharged.
15 of 16
3. 2. Sherwood Number
3. Match Number
4. Biot Number
5. Grashoff Number
A B C D
a. 5 1 2 3
The correct sequence of the cycles given in b. 2 1 5 4
the above T-S diagrams is c. 4 2 1 3
a. Vapour compression refrigeration, d. 2 3 5 4
Rankine, Diesel, Otto
112. The velocity and temperature distribution
b. Rankine, Vapour compression in a pipe flow are given by u(r) and T(r). If
refrigeration, Diesel, Brayton um is the mean velocity at any section of
c. Rankine, Carnot, Otto, Brayton the pipe, the bulk mean temperature at that
d. Vapour compression refrigeration, section is
Carnot, Diesel, Otto r0
u (r )T (r )r dr
2
108. The absolute jet exit velocity from a jet a.
engine is 2800 m/s and the forward flight 0
r0
velocity is 1400 m/s. The propulsive u (r ) T (r )
efficiency is b.
0
3r 2r
dr
a. 33.33%
r0
u (r )T (r )dr

b. 40% c.
c. 66.67% 0
2 r03
d. 90% r
2 0
um r02 0
109. The efficiency of jet engine is d. u (r )(Tr )rdr
a. higher at high speeds
b. lower at low speeds 113. For fully-developed turbulent flow in a
pipe with heating, the Nusselt number Nu,
c. higher at high altitudes
varies with Reynolds number Re and
d. same at all altitudes Prandtl number Pr as
110. A metal rod of 2cm diameter has a a. Re0.5 Pr1/3
conductivity of 40 W/m K, which is to be
b. Re0.8 Pr0.2
insulated with an insulating material of
conductivity of 0.1 W/m K. If the c. Re0.8 Pr0.4
convective heat transfer coefficient with d. Re0.8 Pr0.3
the ambient atmosphere is 5 W/m2 K, the 114. Consider the following statements in
critical thickness of insulation will be respect of automobile engine with
a. 1 cm thermosyphon cooling
b. 2 cm 1. Heat transfer from gases to cylinder
c. 7 cm walls takes place by convection and
radiation.
d. 8 cm
2. Most of the heat transfer from radiator
111. Match List I(Process) with List II
to atmosphere takes place by radiation.
(Predominant Parameter Association With
the Process) and select the correct answer 3. Most amount of heat transfer from
using the codes given below the Lists: radiator to atmosphere takes place by
convection.
List I
4. Heat transfer from cylinder waits takes
A. Mass transfer
place by conduction and convection.
B. Forced convection
C. Free convection
a. 1, 2 and 4
D. Transient conduction
b. 1, 3 and 4
List II
c. 2, 3 and 4
1. Reynolds Number
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d. 1 and 2 d.
115. A body at 500 K cools by radiating heat to
ambient atmosphere maintained at 300 K.
When the body has cooled to 400 K, the
cooling rate as a percentage of original
cooling rate is about
a. 31.1
b. 41.5 119. Match List I (Process) with List II (Type)
c. 50.3 for Bell Coleman or Joule or Reverse
d. 80.4 Brayton cycle for gas cycle refrigeration
116. Fraction of radiative energy leaving one and select the correct answer:
surface that strikes the other surface is List I
called A. Compression
a. Radiative flux B. Heat rejection
b. Emissive power of the first surface C. Expansion
c. View factor D. Heat absorption
d. Re-radiation flux List II
117. A finned surface consists of root or base 1. Isobaric
area of 1 m2 and fin surface area of 2 m2. 2. Isothermal
The average heat transfer coefficient for 3. Isentropic.
finned surface is 20 W/m2 K. Effectiveness
4. Isenthalpic
of fins provided is 0.75. If finned surface
with root or base temperature of 50C is A B C D
transferring heat to a fluid at 50C, then a. 3 1 4 2
rate of heat transfer is b. 3 1 3 1
a. 400 W c. 3 2 3 2
b. 800 W d. 3 1 2 2
c. 1000 W 120. Consider the following statements in
d. 1200 W respect of absorption refrigeration and
118. Which one of the following is the p-v vapour compression refrigeration systems :
diagram for air refrigeration cycle? 1. The former runs on low grade energy.
a. 2. The pumping work in the former is
negligible since specific volume of
strong liquid solution is small.
3. The latter uses an absorber while
former uses a generator
4. The liquid pump alone replaces
compressor of the latter.
b. Which of these statements are correct?
a. 1 and 2
b. 1 and 3
c. 1 and 4
d. 2 and 4
c.
I.E.S-(OBJ) 2004 1 of 16
PAPERI
1. A small sphere of outer area 0.6 m2 is given volume to that which it would
totally enclosed by a large cubical hail. have if it were saturated at the same
The shape factor of hail with respect to temperature
sphere is 0.004. What is the measure of the 3. The degree of saturation is defined as
internal side of the cubical hail? the ratio of the specific humidity of a
a. 4 m mixture to the specific humidity of the
b. 5 m mixture when saturated at the same
temperature
c. 6 m
Which of the statements given above are
d. 10 m correct?
2. In a vapour compressor refrigeration a. 1 and 2
system, the compressor capacity is 2100
kj/minute and heat rejection factor is 1.2. b. 2 and 3
What will, respectively be the heat rejected c. 1 and 3
from the condenser and C. O0. P.? d. 1, 2 and 3
a. 5040 kJ/minute and 5 6. Atmospheric air at dry bulb temperature of
b. 2520 kJ/minute and 5 15C enters a heating coil whose surface
c. 2520 kJ/minute and 4 temperature is maintained at 40C. The air
leaves the heating coil at 25C. What will
d. 5040 kJ/minute and 4 be the by-pass factor of the heating coil?
3. Which one of the following statements is a. 0.376
correct?
b. 0.4
In a domestic refrigerator periodic
defrosting is required because frosting c. 0.6
a. causes corrosion of materials d. 0.67
b. reduces heat extraction 7. Velocity of air passing through a
rectangular duct and a circular duct is
c. overcools food stuff same. Which one of the following is the
d. partially blocks refrigerant flow correct expression for the equivalent
4. Air at 35C DBT and 25C dew point diameter of the circular duct in respect of a
temperature passes through the water rectangular duct for the same pressure loss
shower, hose temperature is maintained at per unit length? (a and b are the length and
20C. What is the process involved? breath of the rectangular duct cross-
a. Cooling and humidification section)
b. Sensible cooling ab
a.
c. Cooling and dehumidification ab
d. Heating and humidification 2ab
b.
5. Consider the following statements: ab
1. The specific humidity is the ratio of the 2a
c.
mass of water vapour to the mass of a b
dry air in a given volume of the 2b
mixture d.
ab
2. The relative humidity of the
atmospheric air is the ratio of the 8. Which one of the following statements is
actual mass of the water vapour in a correct?
2 of 16
a. Effective temperature is the index 1
which correlates the combined effects 2 n 1

a.
of air dry bulb temperature, air n 1
humidity and air movement upon n
human comfort 1 n 1
b.
b. The value of effective temperature in n 1
winter and summer should be same for n
human comfort 2 n 1
c.
c. Effective temperature and wet bulb n 1
temperature are one and the same 1
d. The value of effective temperature 1 n 1

d.
should be higher in winter than in n 1
summer for comfort 14. What is the critical pressure ratio for
9. Which of the following are normally isentropic nozzle flow with ratio of
desired comfort conditions in an air specific heats as 1.5?
conditioning system? a. (0.8)3
a. 25C DBT and 50% RH b. (0.8)06
b. 22C DBT and 90% RH c. (l.25)0.33
c. 15C DBT and 75% RH d. (1.25)3
d. 15C DBT and 40% RH 15. Consider the following statements
10. In an air conditioning plant the 1. The speed of rotation of the moving
refrigeration load on the coil is 100 TR. elements of gas turbines is much
The mass and enthalpy of air leaving the higher than those of steam turbines
coil are 420 kg/minute and 40 kJ/kg 2. Gas turbine plants. are heavier and
respectively. What will be the enthalpy of larger in size than steam turbine plants
the air at the inlet to the coil under these
3. Gas turbines require cooling water for
conditions?
its operations
a. 80 kJ / kg
4. Almost any kind of fuel can be used
b. 90 kJ / kg with gas turbines
c. 100 kJ/kg Which of the statements given above are
d. 102.5 kJ/kg correct?
11. If coefficient of contraction at the vena a. 1 and 2
contract a is equal to 0.62, then what will b. 1 and 3
be the dynamic loss coefficient in sudden
c. 1 and 4
contraction in air-conditioning duct?
d. 3 and 4
a. 0.25
16. Which one of the following is the feature
b. 0.375
of pressure compounding (Reteau
c. 0.55 staging.)?
d. 0.65 a. Low efficiency at low rotational speeds
12. An oil of specific gravity 0.9 has viscosity b. High efficiency with low fluid
of 0.28 Stokes at 38C. What will be its velocities
viscosity in Ns/m2.?
c. High efficiency with high fluid
a. 0.2520 velocities
b. 0.0311 d. Low efficiency at high rotational
c. 0.0252 speeds
d. 0.0206 17. In Parsons reaction turbines, the velocity
13. Which one of the following is the correct diagram triangles at the inlet arid outlet are
expression for the critical pressure ratio of which of the following?
a nozzle? a. Asymmetrical
3 of 16
b. Isosceles d. an increase in velocity and pressure
c. Right-angled 22. In which one of the following steam
d. Congruent turbines, steam is taken from various
18. Which one of the following statements is points along the turbine, solely for feed
correct? water heating?
In reciprocating compressors, one should a. Extraction turbine
aim at compressing the air b. Bleeder turbine
a. Adiabatically c. Regenerative turbine
b. Isentropic ally d. Reheat turbine
c. isothermally 23. Which one of the following is the correct
d. polytropically expression for the degree of reaction for an
axial-flow air compressor?
19. In Parsons turbine if () is nozzle angle,
Work input to the rotor
then what is the maximum efficiency of a.
the turbine? Work input to the stage
2 cos Change of enthalpy in the rotor
a. b.
1 cos Change of enthalpy in the stage
2 cos 2 Pressure rise in the rotor

b. c.
1 cos2 Pressure rise in the stage
Isentropic work
2 cos 2 d.
Actual work
c.
1 cos 24. Assertion (A): A simple or elementary
cos
2 carburetor provides progressively rich
d.
1 2 cos2 mixture with increasing air flow.
Reason (R): The density of the air tends to
20. What is the value of the reheat factor in increase as the rate of air flow increases.
multi-stage turbine? a. Both A and R are individually true and
a. 1.03 to 1.04 R is the correct explanation of A
b. 1.10 to 1.20 b. Both A and R are individually true but
c. 0.90 to 1.00 R is not the correct explanation of A
d. 1.20 to 1.25 c. A is true but R is false
21. d. A is false but R is true
25. Assertion (A): In lumped heat capacity
systems the temperature gradient within
the system is negligible.
Reason (R): In analysis of lumped capacity
systems, the thermal conductivity of the
system material is considered very high
A compressible fluid flows through a irrespective of the size of the system.
passage as shown in the above diagram.
The velocity of the fluid at the point A is a. Both A and R are individually true and
400 m/s. R is the correct explanation of A
Which one of the following is correct? b. Both A and R are individually true but
At the point B, the fluid experiences
a. an increase in velocity and decrease in
pressure d. A is false but R is true
b. a decrease in velocity and increase in 26. Assertion (A): Sub cooling of refrigerant
pressure liquid increases the coefficient of
performance of a refrigeration cycle.
c. a decrease in velocity and pressure
4 of 16
Reason (R): Sub cooling reduces the work 30. Assertion (A): For higher specific speeds
requirement of a refrigeration cycle. radial flow pumps have the greatest
a. Both A and R are individually true and efficiency.
R is the correct explanation of A Reason (R): Pumps having larger
b. Both A and R are individually true but discharge under smaller heads have higher
R is not the correct explanation of A specific speeds.
c. A is true but R is false a. Both A and R are individually true and
d. A is false but R is true R is the correct explanation of A
27. Assertion (A): A circular plate is b. Both A and R are individually true but
immersed in a liquid with its periphery R is not the correct explanation of A
touching the free surface and the plane c. A is true but R is false
makes an angle with the free surface d. A is false but R is true
With different values of , the position of 31. Assertion (A) : The volute casing of a
centre of pressure will be different. centrifugal pump helps in creating the high
Reason (R): Since the centre of pressure is velocity head necessary for enabling water
dependent on second moment of area, with flow upwards to a higher level.
different values of, second moment of Reason (R): The water flows through a
area for the circular plate will change. diverging passage in the volute chamber.
a. Both A and R are individually true and a. Both A and R are individually true and
R is the correct explanation of A R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are individually true but b. Both A and R are individually true but
R is not the correct explanation of A R is not the correct explanation of A
d. A is false but R is true d. A is false but R is true
28. Assertion (A): In a supersonic nozzle, with 32. Which one of the following correctly
sonic condition at the throat, any reduction defines 1 K, as per the internationally
of downstream pressure will not be felt at accepted definition of temperature scale?
the inlet of the nozzle. a. 1/100th of the difference between
Reason (R): The disturbance caused normal boiling point and normal
downstream of supersonic flows travels at freezing point of. water
sonic velocity which cannot propagate b. 1/273. 15th of the normal freezing
upstream by Mach cone. point of water
a. Both A and R are individually true and c. 100 times the difference between the
R is the correct explanation of A triple point of water and the normal
b. Both A and R are individually true but freezing point of water
R is not the correct explanation of A d. 1/273. 15th of the triple point of water
c. A is true but R is false 33. In a steady-flow adiabatic turbine, the
d. A is false but R is true changes in the internal energy, enthalpy,
29. Assertion (A): For the same power, the kinetic energy and potential energy of the
rotor of an impulse turbine need not be as working fluid, from inlet to exit, are -100
large as that of a reaction turbine. kJ/kg, -140 kJ/kg, -10 kJ/kg and 0 kJ/kg
Reason (R): In the case of a reaction respectively. Which one of the following
turbine, water has to be admitted to the gives the amount of work developed by the
runner around its entire circumference. turbine?
a. Both A and R are individually true and a. 100 kJ/kg
R is the correct explanation of A b. 110 kJ/kg
b. Both A and R are individually true but c. 140 kJ/kg
R is not the correct explanation of A d. 150 kJ/kg
c. A is true but R is false 34. An ideal gas undergoes an isothermal
d. A is false but R is true expansion from state R to state S in a
5 of 16
turbine as shown in the diagram given d. 0.0341 kW
below: 38. Two reversible engine operate between
thermal reservoirs at 1200 K, T2 K and 300
K such that 1st, engine receives heat from
1200 K reservoir and rejects heat to
thermal reservoir at T2 K, while the 2nd
engine receives heat from thermal
reservoir at T2 K and rejects heat to the
thermal reservoir at 300 K. The efficiency
The area of shaded region is 1000 Nm. of both the engines is equal
What is the amount is turbine work done What is the value of temperature T2?
during the process? a. 400 K
a. 14,000 Nm b. 500 K
b. 12,000 Nm c. 600 K
c. 11,000 Nm d. 700 K
d. 10,000 Nm 39. A perfect gas at 27C was heated until its
35. 170 kJ of heat is supplied to a system at volume was doubled using the following
constant volume. Then the system rejects three different processes separately
180 kJ of heat at constant pressure and 40 1. Constant pressure process
kJ of work is done on it. The system is
2. Isothermal process
finally brought to its original state by
adiabatic process. If the initial value of 3. Isentropic process
internal energy is 100 kJ, then which one Which one of the following is the correct
of the following statements is correct? sequence in the order of increasing value
a. The. highest value of internal energy of the final temperature of the gas reached
occurs at the end of the constant by using the above three different
volume process processes?
b. The highest value of internal energy a. 1-2-3
occurs at the end of constant pressure b. 2-3-1
process c. 3-2-1
c. The highest value of internal energy d. 3-1-2
occurs after adiabatic expansion 40. A system undergoes a process during
d. Internal energy is equal at all points which the heat transfer to the system per
36. An insulated box containing 0.5 kg of a degree increase in temperature is given by
gas having Cv = 0.98 kJ/kg. K falls from a the equation
balloon 4 km above the earths surface. dQ / dT = 2.0 kJ/C. The work done by the
What will be the temperature rise of the system per degree increase in temperature
gas when the box hits the ground? is given by the equation
a. 0 K dW/dT = 2 - 0.1 T, where T is in C. If
b. 20 K during the process, the temperature of
c. 40 K water varies from 100C to 150C, what
will be the change in internal energy?
d. 60 K
a. 125 kJ
37. In a heat engine operating in a cycle
between a source temperature of 606C b. - 250 kJ
and a sink temperature of 20C, what will c. 625 kJ
be the least rate of heat rejection per kW d. 1250 kJ
net output of the engine? 41. One kg of air is subjected to the following
a. 0.50kW processes:
b. 0.667 kW 1. Air expands isothermally from 6 bar to
c. 1.5 kW 3 bar.
6 of 16
2. Air is compressed to half the volume at 46. Which of the following action(s)
constant pressure. . increase(s) the knocking tendency in the SI
3. Heat is supplied to air at constant. engine?
volume till the a. Increasing mixture strength beyond
4. pressure becomes three fold equivalence ratio () = 1.4
In which of the above processes, the b. Retarding the spark and increasing the
change in entropy will be positive? compression ratio
a. 1 and 2 c. Increasing the compression ratio and
b. 2 and 3 reducing engine speed
c. 1 and 3 d. Increasing both mixture strength
beyond equivalence ratio () = 1 .4 and
d. 1, 2 and 3
the compression ratio
42. What will be the loss of available energy
47. Which of the following feature(s) is/are
associated with the transfer of 1000 kj of
used in the combustion chamber design to
heat from constant temperature system at
reduce SI engine knock?
600 K to another at 400 K when the
environment temperature is 300 K? a. Spark plug located away from exhaust
value, wedge shaped combustion
a. 150 kJ
chamber and short flame travel
b. 250 kJ distance.
c. 500 kJ b. Wedge shaped combustion chamber
d. 700 kJ c. Wedge shaped combustion chamber
43. The variation of saturation pressure with and short flame travel distance
saturation temperature for a liquid is 0.1 d. Spark plug located away from exhaust
bar/K at 400 K. The specific volumes of value, short flame travel distance and
saturated liquid and dry saturated vapour side value design
at 400 K are 0 251 and 0.00 1 rn3/kq.
48. Which of the following factor(s)
What will be the value of latent heat of
increase(s) the tendency for knocking in
vaporization using Clausius Clayperon
the C.I. engine?
equation?
a. Increasing both the compression ratio
a. 16000 kJ/kg
and the coolant temperature
b. 1600 kJ/kg
b. Increasing both the speed and the
c. 1000 kJ/kg injection advance
d. 160 kJ/kg c. Increasing the speed, injection advance
44. Which one of the following represents the and coolant temperature
condensation of a mixture of saturated d. Increasing the compression ratio
liquid and saturated vapour on the
49. Match List I (SI. Engine Operational
enthalpy-entropy diagram
Mode) with List II (Air fuel Ratio by
a. A horizontal line Mass) and select the correct answer:
b. An inclined line of constant slope List I
c. A vertical line A. Idling
d. A curved line B. Cruising
45. For a two-stage reciprocating air C. Maximum power
compressor, the suction pressure is 1.5 bar
D. Cold starting
and the delivery pressure is 54 bar. What is
the value of the ideal intercooler pressure? List II
a. 6 bar 1. 4:1
b. 9 bar 2. 10 : 1
c. 27.75 bar 3. 12.5 : I
4. 16 : 1
d. 9/ 2 bar
5. 14.8:1
7 of 16
Codes; 1350 m/s. What is the propulsive
A B C D efficiency of the unit?
a. 2 4 3 1 a. 90%.
b. 5 4 1 3 b. 66 .66%
c. 2 3 5 1 c. 50%
d. 5 3 1 4 d. 33.33%
50. Consider the following statements for a 54. What is the ratio of displacement thickness
multi-jet carburetor: to momentum thickness for linear velocity
1. Acceleration jet is located just behind distribution over a flat plate?
the throttle value a. 1.5
2. Idle jet is located close to the choke b. 2.0
3. Main jet alone supplies petrol at 2. 2.5
normal engine speeds 3. 3.0
Which of the statements given above are 55. Consider the following statements
correct? regarding laminar sublayer of boundary
a. 1, 2 and 3 layer flow
b. 1 and 2 1. The laminar sublayer exists only in a
c. 2 and 3 region that occurs before the formation
of laminar boundary layer
d. 1 and 3
2. The laminar sublayer is a region next
51. The stoichiometric air/fuel ratio for petrol to the wall where the viscous force is
is 15 : 1. What is the air/fuel ratio required predominant while the rest of the flow
for maximum power? is turbulent
a. 16 : 1 - 18:1 3. The laminar sublayer occures only in
b. 15:1 turbulent flow past a smooth plate
c. 12 : 1 - 18 : 1 Which of the statements given above is/are
d. 9 : 1 - 11 : 1 correct?
52. Consider the following statements with a. 1, 2 and 3
reference to supercharging of IC. engines b. 1 and 2
1. Reciprocating compressors are c. only 2
invariably used for high degree of d. 1 and 3
supercharging
56. Match List I (Flow Depth) with List II
2. Rotary compressors like roots blowers (Basic Hydraulic Condition Associated
are quite suitable for low degree of Therewith) and select the correct answer
supercharging
List I
3. Axial flow compressors are most
commonly employed for supercharging A. Conjugate depth
diesel engines used in heavy duty B. Critical depth
transport vehicles C. Alternate depth
4. Centrifugal compressors are used for D. Normal depth
turbo -charging List II
Which of the statements given above are 1. Uniform flow
correct? 2. Same specific energy
a. 1 and 2 3. Minimum specific energy
b. 2 and 3 4. Same specific force
c. 1 and 4 5. Same bed slope
d. 2 and 4 A B C D
53. The relative jet exit velocity from a rocket a. 3 5 4 2
is 2700 m/s. The forward flight velocity is
b. 2 4 1 3
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c. 4 3 2 1 b. 10 m/s
d. 5 4 1 2 c. 25 m/s
57. A 40 mm diameter 2m long straight d. 250 m/s
uniform pipe carries a steady flow of water 62. Match List I (Type of Model) with List II
(viscosity 1 .02 centipoises) at the rate of Transference Ratio for Velocity) and select
3.0 liters per minute. What is the the correct answer:
approximate value of the shear stress on List I
the internal wall of the pipe?
A. Reynolds model
a. 0.0166 dyne/cm2
B. Froude model
b. 0.0812 dyne/cm2
C. Weber model
c. 8.12 dyne/cm2
D. Mach model
d. 0.9932 dyne/cm2
List II
58. Which one of the following is the correct
expression for the area of flow for a 1. Kr /
circular channel? (Where = half the
angle subtended by Water surface at the
2. r / r lr
centre and R = radius of the circular 3. r / r lr
channel)
sin 2 4. g r lr
a. R 2 2
2 (where symbols g, , , and k have their
sin 2 usual meanings and subscript r refers to

b. R 2 the ratio)
2
Codes;
c. 2 R 2 2 sin 2 A B C D
d. 2R2 ( - sin 2) a. 3 1 2 4
59. A 1.0 m long model of a ship is towed at a b. 3 4 2 1
speed pf 81 cm/s in a towing tank. To what c. 2 1 3 4
speed of the ship, 64m long does this d. 2 4 3 1
correspond to?
63. An aircraft is flying at a speed of 800 km/h
a. 7.20 m/s at an altitude, where the atmospheric
b. 6.48 m/s temperature is - 20C. What is the
c. 5.76 m/s approximate value of the Mach number of
d. 3.60 m/s the aircraft?
60. In a flow condition where both viscous and a. 0.653
gravity forces dominate and both the b. 0.697
Froude number and the Reynolds number c. 0.240
are the same in model and prototype; and, d. 0.231
the ratio of kinematic viscosity of model to
64. In a perfect gas having ratio of specific
that of the prototype is 0.0894.What is the
heats as 1.4 what is the strength of a
model scale ?
normal shock with upstream Mach number
a. 1 : 3.3 equal to 5.0?
b. 3.3 :1 a. 27
c. 5 : 1 b. 28
d. 1 : 5 c. 29
61. A ship whose full length is 100 m is to d. 24
travel at 10 m/s For dynamic similarity,
65. Which one of the following statements is
with what velocity should a 1 : 25 model
relevant to the specific speed of a
of the ship be towed?
centrifugal pump?
a. 2 m/s
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a. Head developed is unity and discharge c. long suction pipes coupled with a low
is unity delivery head
b. Head developed is unity and power d. long suction pipes coupled with
absorbed is unity medium delivery head
c. Discharge is unity and power absorbed 70. A centrifugal pump operating at 1000 rpm
is unity develops a head of 30 m. If the speed is
d. Each of head developed, power increased to 2000 rpm and the pump
absorbed and discharge is equal to operates with the same efficiency, what is
unity the head developed by the pump?
66. A centrifugal pump needs 1000 W of a. 60 m
power when operating at 1500 rpm. What b. 90 m
is the power requirement if the speed of c. 120 m
the pump is increased to 3000 rpm? d. 150 m
a. 2000 W
71. What is the range of the speed ratio for
b. 4000 W Kaplan turbine for its most efficient
c. 6500 W operation?
d. 8000 W a. 0.10 to 0.30
67. Two centrifugal pumps have impellers b. 0.43 to 0.65
with outer dimensions of each equal to c. 0.85 to 1.20
twice the inner dimensions. The inner
d. 1.40 to 2.00
diameter of the second impeller is three
times the inner diameter & the first one. 72. Match List I (Type of Model) with List II
What is the speed ratio N2/N1 of pumps, if (Liquid Handled) and select the correct
the pumps are required to develop the answer:
same man metric head to Start delivery of List I
water? A. Closed impeller pump
a. 9 B. Semi-open impeller pump
b. 4 C. Open impeller pump
c. 1/2 List II
d. 1/3 1. Sandy water
68. Water is required to be lifted by a 10 kW 2. Acids
pump from a depth of 100 m. If the pump 3. Sewage water
is unable to lift the water, then which one
Codes;
of the following is correct?
A B C
a. A greater capacity pump has to be used
a. 1 3 2
b. A lager diameter delivery pipe has to
be used b. 3 1 2
c. A larger diameter suction pipe has to c. 2 3 1
be used d. 1 2 3
d. A multistage pump has to be used 73. An impulse turbine operating with a single
69. Which one of the following is correct? nozzle has a special speed of 5. What will
be the approximate specific speed of the
In positive displacement pumps, the slip
turbine if the turbine is operated with one
can sometimes be negative when the actual
more additional nozzle of the same size?
discharge is greater than the theoretical
discharge. This happens in a. 4
a. small suction pipes coupled with a low b. 6
delivery head c. 7
b. small suction pipes coupled With a d. 10
medium delivery head 74. Two centrifugal pumps A and B
operate at their maximum efficiencies at
10 of 16
1000 rpm and 500 rpm respectively. List II
Against the same delivery head, pump A 1. Francis turbine
discharge 1 m3/s and pump B discharge 4 2. Pelton wheel
m3/s respectively. What is the ratio of
specific speeds (Ns)A : (Ns)B? 3. Kaplan turbine
a. 1 : 2 Codes;
b. 1 : 1 A B C D
c. 1 : 4 a. 1 2 3 1
d. 4 : 1 b. 1 2 3 2
75. Match list I (Specific Speed) with List II c. 2 3 1 3
(Expression / magnitude) and select the d. 2 2 1 3
correct answer: 78. Which one of the following statements is
List I correct?
A. Specific speed of turbine When a fluid passes from the inlet to exit
B. Specific speed of pump of the rotor in a centrifugal pump,
tangential momentum
C. Specific speed of pelton wheel
a. increases and energy increases
D. Specific speed of Francis turbine
b. decreases and energy increases
List II
c. remains unchanged and energy
1. N Q / H 3/4 decreases
2. N P / H 5/4 d. increases and energy remains
unchanged
3. 50 250
79. A Francis turbine is coupled to an
4. 10 50
alternator to generate electricity with a
Codes; frequency of 50 Hz. If the alternator has 12
A B C D poles, then the turbine should be regulated
a. 3 4 1 2 to run at which one of the following
b. 3 2 1 4 constant speeds?
c. 2 1 4 3 a. 250 rpm
d. 1 2 4 3 b. 500 rpm
76. Which one of the following pairs is not c. 600 rpm
correctly matched? d. 1000 rpm
a. Centrifugal pump : Rotating blades in 80. Consider the following statements
the motor create centrifugal head regarding waste heat boilers
b. Reciprocating pump: Positive 1. Waste--heat boilers placed in the path
displacement pump of exhaust gases
c. Turbine pump : Centrifugal pump with 2. These are fire tube boilers
guide vanes 3. The greater portion of the heat transfer
d. Gear pump : Gear teeth work like in such boilers is due to convection
rotating blades to create centrifugal Which of the statements given above are
head correct?
77. Match List I (Flow Parameter) with List II a. 1, 2 and 3
(Type of Turbine) and select the correct b. 1 and 2
answer:
c. 2 and 3
List I
d. 1 and 3
A. High head
B. Axial flow regarding performance of turbojet engines
C. Mixed flow
D. High specific speed
11 of 16
1. The thrust decreases, at higher altitude c. 1 and 3
due to reduced density of air and d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
consequently lower mass flow of air. 84. Which one of the following orders is the
2. At subsonic speeds, the effect of correct order of passing the flue gases
increased velocity is to increase the air through the different absorbents (in the
flow and the thrust increases flasks) during analysis in Orsat apparatus?
3. The relative velocity of jet with respect a. Potassium hydroxide solution
to the medium decreases at higher alkaline solution of pyrogallic acid
speeds which tends to reduce the thrust cuprous chloride solution
4. For turbojet engine the thrust of. jet at b. Potassium hydroxide solution
subsonic speeds remains relatively cuprous chloride solution alkaline
constants solution of pyrogallic acid
Which of the statements given above are c. Alkaline solution of pyrogallic acid
correct? cuprous chloride solution potassium
a. 1, 2, 3 and 4 hydroxide solution
b. 1 and 3 d. Cuprous chloride solution
c. 1, 2 and 4 potassium hydroxide solution
d. 2, 3 and 4 alkaline solution of pyrogallic acid
82. Consider the following statements for 85. An engine using octaneair mixture has
NOx emissions from I.C. engines N2, O2 CO2, CO and H2O as constituents
in the exhaust gas. Which one of the
1. Formation of NOx depends upon following can be concluded?
combustion temperature
a. Supply mixture is stoichiometric
2. Formation of NO depends upon type of
coolant used b. Supply mixture has incomplete
combustion
3. Exhaust gas recirculation is an
effective means for control of NOx c. Supply mixture is rich
4. Activated Platinum is used for d. Supply mixture is lean
reduction of NOx 86. Which one of the following statements is
Which of the statements given above are correct?
correct? In CANDU type nuclear reactor
a. 1 and 2 a. natural uranium is used as fuel and
b. 1, 2 and 3 water as moderator
c. 2 and 4 b. natural uranium is used as fuel and
heavy water as moderator
d. 1 and 3
c. enriched uranium is used as fuel and
83. Consider the following statements Exhaust water as moderator
emissions of carbon monoxide from spark
ignition engine are. d. enriched uranium is used as fuel and
heavy water as moderator
1. mainly fuelair mixture strength
dependent 87. Match List I (Material) with List II
(Application) kind select the correct
2. in the range of zero to 10% answer:
3. measured with the help of an List I
instrument working on the principle of
nondispersive infrared analysis A. Plutonium239
4. controlled by the use of a two way B. Thorium232
catalytic convertor C. Cadmium
Which of the statements given above are D. Graphite
correct? List II
a. 1 and 4 1. Fertile material
b. 2 and 3 2. Control cods
12 of 16
3. Moderator for causing the reduction in heat leakage
4. Fissile material from the insulated pipe?
Codes; a. 10 cm
A B C D b. 15 cm
a. 4 3 2 1 c. 19.5 cm
b. 2 1 4 3 d. 20 cm
c. 2 3 4 1 92. Match List I (Heat Exchanger Process)
d. 4 1 2 3 with List II (Temperature Area Diagram)
and select the correct answer:
correct? List I
The curve for unsteady state cooling or A. Counter flow sensible heating
heating of bodies is B. Parallel flow sensible heating
a. parabolic curve asymptotic to time axis C. Exaporating
b. exponential curve asymptotic to time D. Condensing
axis List II
c. exponential curve asymptotic both to 1.
time and temperature axis
d. Hyperbolic curve asymptotic both to
time and temperature axis
89. What will be the geometric radius of heat 2.
transfer for a hollow sphere of inner and
outer radii r1 and r2?
a. r1r2
b. rr r2
c. r2 / rr 3.
d. r2 rr
90. A composite wall is made of two layers of
thickness 1 and 2 having thermal
conductive K and 2K and equal surface 4.
areas normal to the direction of heat flow.
The outer surfaces of the composite wall
are at 100C and 200C respectively. The
heat transfer takes place only by
conduction and the required surface
5.
temperature at the junction is 150 C.
What will be the ratio of their thicknesses
1 : 2?
a. 1 : 1
b. 2 : 1
Codes;
c. 1 : 2
A B C D
d. 2 : 3
a. 3 4 1 2
91. A hollow pipe of 1 cm outer diameter is to
be insulated by thick cylindrical insulation b. 3 2 5 1
having thermal conductivity 1 W/mk. The c. 4 3 2 5
surface heat transfer coefficient on the d. 4 2 1 5
insulation surface is 5 W/m2K. What is the 93. Nusset number for a pipe flow heat
minimum effective thickness of insulation transfer coefficient is given by the
13 of 16
equation NuD = 4.36. Which one of the a. Thermal boundary layer does not exist
following combinations of conditions do b. Viscous boundary layer thickness is
exactly apply for use of this equation? less than the thermal boundary layer
a. Laminar flow and constant wall thickness
temperature c. Viscous boundary layer thickness is
b. Turbulent flow and constant wall heat equal to the thermal boundary layer
flux. thickness
c. Turbulent flow and constant wall d. Viscous boundary layer thickness is
temperature greater than the thermal boundary layer
d. Laminar flow and constant wall heat thickness
flux 97. Match List I (Surface with Orientations)
94. Match List I (Process) with List II with List II (Equivalent Emissivity) and
(Predominant Parameter Associated with select the correct answer:
the Flow) and select the correct answer: List I
List I A. infinite parallel planes
A. Transient conduction B. Body 1 completely enclosed by body 2
B. Mass transfer but body 1 is very small
C. Forced convection C. Radiation exchange between two small
D. Free convection gray bodies
List II D. Two concentric cylinders with large
lengths
1. Sherwood Number
E. List II
2. Mach Number
1. 1
3. Biot Number
4. Grashof Number 1
2.
1 1
5. Reynolds number 1
Codes; 1 2
A B C D 1
3.
a. 1 3 5 4 1 A1 1
1
b. 3 1 2 5 1 A2 2
c. 3 1 5 4 4. 12
d. 1 3 2 5
Codes;
A B C D
correct? The nondimensional parameter
known as Stanton number (St) is used in a. 3 1 4 2
a. forced convection heat transfer in flow b. 2 4 1 3
over flat plate c. 2 1 4 3
b. condensation heat transfer with d. 3 4 1 2
laminar film layer 98. Two spheres A and B of same material
c. natural convection heat transfer over have radii 1m and 4m and temperature
flat plate 4000 K and 2000 K respectively. Which
d. unsteady heat transfer from bodies in one of the following statements is correct?
which internal temperature gradients The energy radiated by sphere A is
cannot be neglected a. greater than that of sphere B
96. In a convective heat transfer situation b. less than that of sphere B
Reynolds number is very large but the c. equal to that of sphere B
Prandtl number is so small that the product
d. equal to double that of sphere B
Re Pr is less than one. In such a
condition which one of the following is
correct?
14 of 16
99. For n opaque plane surface the irradiation, 4d
c.
radiosity and emissive power are 4d h
respectively 20, 12 and 10 W/m2.
2d
What is the emissivity of the surface? d.
2d h
a. 0.2
103.
b. 0.4
c. 0.8
d. 1.0
100. Two long parallel surfaces, each of
emissivity 0.7 are maintained at different
temperatures and accordingly have
radiation exchange between them. It is A hemispherical surface 1 lies over a
desired to reduce 75% of this radiant heat horizontal plane surface 2 such that
transfer by inserting thin parallel shields of convex portion of the hemisphere is facing
equal emissivity (0.7) on both sides. What sky. What is the value of the geometrical
would be the number of shields? shape factor?
a. 1 a. 1/4
b. 2 b. 1/2
c. 3 c. 3/4
d. 4 d. 1/8
101. The earth receives at its surface radiation 104. A heat engine with 30% efficiency drives a
from the sun at the rate of 1400 W/m2. The refrigerator of COP. 5.0. What would be
distance of centre of sun from the surface the net heat input to the engine for each
of earth is 1.5 1011 m and the radius of MW of heat removed in the refrigerator?
sun is 7.0 108 m. What is approximately a. 66 67 kJ
the surface temperature of the sun treating b. 600 kJ
the sun as a black body?
c. 666.67 kJ
a. 3650 K
d. 6600 kJ
b. 4500 K
105. Mercurywater manometer has a gauge
c. 5800 difference of 500 mm (difference in
d. 6150 K elevation of menisci). What will be the
102. difference in pressure?
a. 0.5 m
b. 6.3 m
c. 6.8 m
d. 7.3 m
106.
What is the value of the shape factor F12 in

a cylindrical cavity of diameter d and
height h between bottom face known as
surface 1 and top flat surface known as
surface 2?
2h The balancing column shown in the above
a.
2h d diagram contains 3 liquids of different
d densities 1, 2 and 3. The liquid level of
b. one Limb is h1 below the top level and
d 4h
15 of 16
there is a difference of h relative to that in orifices issuing two horizontal jets in the
the other limb. same vertical plane. The vertical distance
What will be the expression for h? between the centers of orifices is 1 .5 m
1 2 and the jet trajectories intersect at a point
a. h 0.5 m below the lower orifice. What is the
1 3 1 approximate height of water level in the
2 3 tank above the point of intersection of
b. h
1 3 1 trajectories?
a. 1.0 m
1 3
c. h b. 2.5 m
2 3 1
c. 0.5 m
1 2 d. 2.0 m
d. h
2 3 1 111. The components of velocity in a. two
107. A circular annular plate bounded by two dimensional frictionless incompressible,
concentric circles of diameter 1.2 m and flow are u t2 + 3y and V = 3t + 3x. What is
0.8 m is immersed in water with its plane the approximate resultant total acceleration
making an angle of 45 with the at the point (3, 2) and t = 2?
horizontal. The centre of the circles is a. 5
1.625 m below the free surface. What will b. 49
be the total pressure force on the face of
c. 59
the plate?
d. 54
a. 7.07 kN
b. 10.00 kN 112. The stream function = x3 y3 is
observed for a two dimensional flow field.
c. 14.14 kN What is the magnitude of the velocity at
d. 18.00 kN point (1, -1)?
108. A plate of rectangular shape having the a. 4.24
dimensions of 0.4 m x 0.6 m is immersed b. 2.83
in water with its longer side vertical. The
total hydrostatic thrust on one side of the c. 0
plate is estimated as 18.3 kN. All other d. - 2.83
conditions remaining the same, the plate is 113. Which one of the following statements is
turned through 90 such that its longer side correct?
remains vertical. What would be the total Irrigational flow is characterized as the
force on one face of the plate? one in which
a. 9.15 kN a. the fluid flows along a straight line
b. 18.3 kN b. the fluid does not rotate as it moves
c. 36.6 kN along
d. 12.2 kN c. the net rotation of fluid particles about
109. An open rectangular box of base 2m 2m their mass centers remains zero
contains a liquid of specific gravity 0.80 d. the streamlines of flow are curved and
up to a height of 2.5m. If the box is closely spaced
imparted a vertically upward acceleration 114. A 20 cm diameter 500 m long water ripe
of 4.9 m/s2, what will the pressure on the with friction factor ut = 0025, leads from a
base of the tank? constant-head reservoir and terminates at
a. 9.81 kPa the delivery end into a nozzle discharging
b. 19.62 kPa into air. (Neglect all energy losses other
c. 36.80 kPa than those due to pipe friction). What is
the approximate diameter of the jet for
d. 29.40 kPa maximum power?
110. A constanthead water tank has, on one a. 6.67 mm
of its vertical sides two identical smell
b. 5.98 mm
16 of 16
c. 66.7 mm 4. Flow stagnation pressure
d. 59.8 mm Codes:
115. Which of the following functions represent A B C D
the velocity potential in a two-dimensional a. 1 3 2 4
flow of an ideal fluid? b. 4 3 2 1
1. 2x + 3y c. 1 2 3 4
2. 4x2 - 3y2 d. 4 2 3 1
3. cos (x - y) 119. Match List I (Variables in Laminar
4. tan-1 (x/y) Boundary Layer Flow over a Flat Plate Set
Select the correct answer using the codes Parallel to the Stream) with List II
given below (Related Expression with usual notations)
a. 1 and 3 and select the correct answer using the
b. 1 and 4 codes given below:
c. 2 and 3 List I
d. 2 and 4 A. Boundary layer thickness
116. The pressure drop for a relatively low B. Average skin--friction coefficient
Reynolds number flow in a 600 mm, 30m C. Shear stress at boundary
long pipeline is 70 kPa. What is the wall D. Displacement thickness
shear stress? List II
a. 0 Pa 1. 1.729 / Ux / v
b. 350 Pa
2. 0.332 U 2 / Ux / v
c. 700 Pa
d. 1400 Pa 3. 5 / vx / U
117. A pitot--static tube (C = 1) is used to 4. 0.864 v / Ux
measure air flow. With water in the
differential manometer and a gauge 5. 1.328 / UL / v
deterrence of 75 mm, what is the value of Codes;
air speed if p 1.16 kg/m3? A B C D
a. 1.21 m/s a. 3 5 4 2
b. 16.2 m/s b. 2 4 1 3
c. 5.6 m/s c. 3 5 2 1
d. 71.2 m/s d. 5 4 1 2
118. Match List I (Measuring Devices) with 120. A flat plate, 2m 0.4m is set parallel to a
List II (Measured Parameter) and select uniform stream of air (density 1.2kg/m3
the correct answer using the codes given and viscosity 16 centistokes) with its
below: shorter edges along the flow. The air
List I velocity is 30 km/h. What is the
A. Pitot tube approximate estimated thickness of
B. Micro--manometer boundary layer at the downstream end of
the plate?
C. Pipe bend meter
a. 1.96 mm
D. Wall pressure tap
b. 438 mm
List II
c. 13.12 mm
1. Flow static pressure
d. 9.51 mm
2. Rate of flow (indirect)
3. Differential pressure
I.E.S- (OBJ) 2005 1 of 13
PAPER-II
1. When can a piezometer be not used for 5. How is the best hydraulic channel cross-
pressure measurement in pipes? section defined?
a. The pressure difference is low a. The section with minimum roughness
b. The velocity is high coefficient.
c. The fluid in the pipe is a gas b. The section that has a max urn area of
d. The fluid in the pipe is highly viscous a given flow
2. Which phenomenon will occur when the c. The section that has a minimum wetted
value at the discharge end of a pipe perimeter
connected to a reservoir is suddenly d. The section that has maximum wetted
closed? area
a. Cavitation 6. Consider the following statements:
b. Erosion In the case of convergent nozzle for
c. Hammering compressible flow,
d. Surging 1. No shock wave can occur at, any
pressure ratio.
3. For linear distribution of velocity in the
boundary layer on a flat plate, what is the 2. No expansion wave can occur below a
ratio of displacement thickness (*) to the certain pressure ratio.
boundary layer thickness ()? 3. Expansion wave can occur below a
certain pressure ratio.
1
a. 4. Shock wave can occur above a certain
4
pressure ratio.
1
b. Which of the following statements given
3 above are correct?
1 a. 1 and 2
c.
2 b. 3 and 4
1 c. 1 and 3
d.
5 d. 2 and 4
4. Consider the following statements: 7. Which one of the following is the
1. For achieving dynamic in model condition for stable equilibrium for a
studies on ships, Froude numbers are floating body?
equated. a. The met center coincides with the
2. Reynolds number should be equated centre of gravity
for studies on an aerofoil for dynamic b. The met centre is below the centre of
similarity. gravity
3. In model studies on a spillway, the c. The met centre is above the centre of
ratio of width to height is equated for gravity
kinematics similarity. d. The centre of buoyancy is below the
What of the statements given above are centre of gravity
correct? 8. Which of the following assumptions
a. 1,2 and 3 /conditions are true in the case of Rayleigh
b. 1 and 2 flow?
c. 2 and 3 1. Perfect gas.
d. 1 and 3 2. Constant area duct.
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3. Steady one-dimensional real flow. c. 0.45 kW
4. Heat transfer during the flow. d. 0.2 kW
Select the correct answer using the code 13. On which factor(s), does the, heat lost by
given below: the human body in the process of radiation
a. 1,2 and 3 depend?
b. 2,3 and 4 a. Temperature only
c. 1, 3 and 4 b. Temperature and air motion
d. 1, 2 and 4 c. Temperature and relative humidity
9. If the cross-section of a nozzle is d. Relative humidity and air motion
increasing in the direction of flow in 14. Which one of the following statements is
supersonic flow then in the downstream correct?
direction The optimum effective temperature for
a. Both pressure and velocity will human comfort is:
increase a. Higher in winter than that in summer
b. Both pressure and velocity will b. Lower in winter than that in summer
decrease c. Same m winter and summer
c. Pressure will increase but velocity will d. Not dependent on season.
decrease
15. Which one of the following causes lift on
d. Pressure will decrease but velocity will an Immersed body in a fluid stream?
increase
a. Buoyant forces
10. The entropy of a mixture of ideal gases is
b. Resultant fluid force on the body
the sum of the entropies of constituents
evaluated at: c. Dynamic fluid force component
exerted on the body parallel to the
a. Temperature and pressure of the
approach velocity
mixture
d. Dynamic fluid force component
b. Temperature of the mixture and the
exerted on the body to the approach
partial pressure of the constituents
velocity
c. Temperature and volume of the
mixture 16. If for a flow a stream function exists and
satisfies the Lap lace equation, then which
d. Pressure and volume of the mixture one of the following is the correct
11. A passive method to keep the house statement?
comfortably warm by solar conditioning in a. The continuity equation is satisfied and
cold climatic condition is to paint the : the flow is irrigational
a. Eastern wall of the house by black b. The continuity equation is satisfied and
paint on its outer side the flow is rotational
b. Eastern wall of the house by back c. The flow is irrigational but does not
paints on its inner side satisfy the continuity equation
c. Southern wall of the house by black d. The flow is rotational
paint on its outer side
17. When a vertical cylindrical vessel
d. Southern wall of the house by black containing water is rotated about Its axis,
paint on its inner side. then the free surface of water becomes:
12. An air-conditioned room of volume 10 m3 a. A cycloid of revolution
has infiltration of air equivalent to 3 air
changes per hour. Density of air is 1.2 b. An ellipsoid of revolution
kg/m3, specific heat cp is 1 kJ/kg K and c. A hyperboloid of revolution
temperature difference between room and d. A parabolic of revolution
ambient air is 20 K. What is the sensible 18. Which one of the following Statements is
heat load due to infiltrated air? comet?
a. 60 kJ/hour The pressure centre is:
b. 12 kJ/hour a. The centroid of the pressure prism
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b. A point on the line of action of the 23. Which one of the following turbines
resultant force exhibits a nearly constant efficiency over a
c. At the centroid of the submerged area 60% to 140% of design speed?
d. Always above the centroid of the area a. Pelton turbine.
19. b. Francis turbine
c. Deriaz turbine
d. Kaplan turbine
24. When a hydraulic turbine is operated, it is
found that it has a high design efficiency
and this efficiency remains constant over a
wide range of regulation from the design
Which one of the following expresses the condition. What is the type of this turbine?
isentropic efficiency of the compression a. Pelton
process in terms of enthalpy changes as b. Francis
indicated in the figure given above? c. Kaplan
a. H s / H d. Propeller
25. The function of which of the following
b. H / H s
hydraulic devices is analogous to that of
c. H H s / H the flywheel of a reciprocating engine and
an electric storage battery?
d. H H s / H s
a. Hydraulic ram
20. While flowing through the rotor blades in b. Hydraulic accumulator
an axial flow air compressor, the relative c. Hydraulic intensifier
velocity of air:
d. Hydraulic jack
a. Continuously decreases
26. The Eulers equation of motion is a
b. Continuously increases statement of:
c. First increases and then decreases a. Energy balance
d. First decreases and then increases b. Conservation of momentum for an in
21. Consider the following properties of a viscid fluid
fluid: c. Conservation of momentum for an
1. Viscosity incompressible flow
2. Surface tension d. Conservation of momentum for a real
3. Capillarity fluid
4. Vapour pressure 27. Why is compounding of steam turbines
Which of the above properties can be done?
attributed to the flow of jet of oil in an a. To improve efficiency
unbroken swam? b. To reduce the speed of rotor
a. 1 only c. To reduce exit losses
b. 2 only d. To increase the. turbine output
c. 1 and 3 28. Consider the following, statements:
d. 2 and 4 Which of the following increase the work
22. Why is a minimum of Net Positive Suction ratio in a simple gas turbine plant?
Head required for a hydraulic pump? 1. Heat exchanger
a. To prevent cavitations 2. Inter cooling
b. To increase discharge 3. Reheating
c. To increase suction head Select the correct answer using the code
d. To increase efficiency given below:
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
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c. 1 and 3 d. None of the above.
d. 1, 2 and 3 33. Which of the following are intensive
29. For centrifugal compressors which one of properties?
the following is the relationship between 1. Kinetic Energy
pressure coefficient p , slip factor s , 2. Specific Enthalpy
work input factor w and isentropic 3. Pressure
4. Entropy
efficiency a ?
Select the correct answer using the code.
s w given below:
a. p
a a. 1 and 3
w b. 2 and 3
b. p c. 1, 3 and 4
s a
d. 2 and 4
c. p s w a
34. In a Brayton cycle, what is the value of
optimum pressure ratio for maximum net
d. p s a
w work done between temperatures T1 and
T3, where T3 is the maximum temperature
30. Which one of the following statements is and T1 is the minimum temperature?
not true for a supercritical steam
generator? T 1
a. It has a very small drum compared to a a. rp 3
conventional boiler T1
1
b. A supercritical pressure plant has T 2
higher efficiency than a sub critical b. rp 3
pressure plant T1

c. The feed pressure required is very
T 2 1
high, almost 1.2 to 1.4 times the boiler c. rp 3
pressure T1
d. As it requires absolutely pure feed 2 1
water, preparation of feed water is T
d. rp 3
more important than in a sub critical
T1
pressure boiler
35. A Bell-Coleman air refrigeration cycle
31. For a real thermodynamic cycle, which
works as a reversed :
one of the following is correct?
a. Sterling cycle
a. ds 0 b. Otto cycle
dQ c. Diesel cycle
b.
T
0
d. Brayton cycle
dQ 36. Which one of the following cycles has the
c. 0
T highest thermal efficiency for given
maximum and minimum cycle
d. ds 0 temperatures?
32. The equation relating the following a. Brayton cycle
measurable properties : (i) the slope of b. Otto cycle
saturation pressured temperature line, (ii) c. Diesel cycle
the latent heal, and (iii) the change In
d. Sterling cycle
volume during phase transformation; is
known as: 37. An engine produces 10 kW break power
while working with a brake thermal
a. Maxwell relation
efficiency of 30%. If the calorific value of
b. Joules equation the fuel used is 40,000 kJ/kg, then what is
c. Clapeyron equation the fuel consumption?
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a. 1.5 kg/hour b. 2 only
b. 3.0 kg/hour c. 2 and 3
c. 0.3. kg/hour d. 3 only
d. 1.0 kg/hour 42. Consider the following statements:
38. A 40 kW engine has a mechanical 1. Supercharging increases the power
efficiency of 80%. If the frictional power output and increases the volumetric
is assumed to be constant with load, what efficiency.
is the approximate value of the mechanical 2. Supercharging is more suitable for S.I.
efficiency at 50% of the rated load? engines than C.I. engines.
a. 45% 3. The limit of supercharging for an S.I.
b. 55% engine is set by knock while that for a
c. 65% C.I. engine is set by thermal loading.
d. 75% Which of the statements given above are
39. Match List I (S.I. Engine Operating Mode) correct?
with List II (Approximate A/F Ratio) and a. 2 and 3
select the correct answer using the code b. 1,2 and 3
given below the Lists: c. 1 and 3
List I d. 1 and 2
A. Cold Start 43. Which one of the following cannot be
B. Idling controlled by a three-way catalytic
C. Cruising converter?
D. Maximum Power a. HC emission
List II b. CO emission
1. 10:1 c. NOx emission
2. 16:1 d. SPM emission
3. 13:1 44. The discharge of hydrocarbons from petrol
4. 4:1 automobile exhaust is minimum when the
vehicle is:
5. 20:1
a. Idling
A B C D
b. Cruising
a. 4 3 2 1
c. Accelerating
b. 2 1 5 3
d. Decelerating
c. 4 1 2 3
45. Weight percentage of which one of the
d. 2 3 5 1
following is determined by proximate
40. The knocking tendency in compression analysis of coal?
ignition engines increases with:
a. Fixed carbon, volatile matter, moisture
a. Increase of coolant water temperature and ash
b. Increase of temperature of inlet air b. All solid and gaseous components
c. Decrease of compression ratio c. All solid & gaseous components
d. Increase of compression ratio except volatile matter
41. Which of the following cannot be caused d. Fixed carbon and volatile matter
by a hot spark plug? 46. Which one of the following fuels can be
1. Pre-ignition obtained by fermentation of vegetable
2. Post-ignition matter?
3. Detonation a. Benzene
4. Run-on-ignition b. Diesel
Select the correct answer using the code c. Gasoline
given below: d. Alcohol
a. 1 and 4
6 of 13
47. For which of the following, reasons, do 2
a. p
the indirect injection diesel engines have Va
higher specific output compared to direct 1
injection diesel engines? Vj
1. They have lower surface to volume 2
ratio. b. p
Vj
2. They run at higher speeds. 1
3. They have higher air utilization factor. Va
4. They have lower relative heat loss. 2
c. p
Select the correct answer using the code V
given below: a 1
Vj
a. 1 and 2
2
b. 2 only d. p
c. 2 and 3 Vj
1
d. 3 and 4 Va
48. Which one of the following statements is (Where Vj = velocity of jet relative to
not correct for a regenerative steam cycle? plane, Va = velocity of the plane)
a. It increases the thermodynamic 52. A nuclear unit becoming critical means:
efficiency a. It is generating power to rated capacity
b. It reduces boiler capacity for a given b. It is capable of generating power much
output more than the rated capacity
c. It reduces temperature stresses in the c. There is danger of nuclear spread
boiler due to hotter feed
d. Chain reaction that causes automatic
d. The efficiency increases with increased splitting of the fuel nuclei has been
number of feed heaters established
49. Which one of the following is the correct 53. Assertion (A): For a mixture of solid,
statements? liquid and vapour phases of a pure
The degree of reaction of an impulse substance in equilibrium the number of
turbine: independent intrinsic properties needed is
1. Is less than zero equal to one.
2. Is greater than zero Reason (R): The three phases can coexist
3. Is equal to zero only at one particular pressure.
4. Increases with steam velocity at the a. Both A and R are individually true and
inlet R is the correct explanation of A
50. Which one of the following is the correct b. Both A and R are individually true but
statement? R is not the correct explanation of A
To get supersonic velocity of steam at c. A is true but R is false
nozzle exit with a large pressure drop d. A is false but R is true
across it, the duct must: 54. Assertion (A): Thermodynamic work is
a. converge from inlet to exit path-dependent except for an adiabatic
b. diverge from inlet to exit process.
c. first converge to the throat and then Reason (R): is always possible to take a
diverge till exit system from a given initial state to any
d. remain constant in cross-section final state by performing adiabatic work
only.
51. Which one of the following is the correct
expression for the propulsion efficiency of a. Both A and R are individually true and
a jet plane (neglecting the mass of fuel)? R is the correct explanation of A
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d. A is false but R is true Reason (R): In these conditions the mass
55. Assertion (A): An adiabatic process is flow through the nozzle is minimum.
always a constant entropy process. a. Both A and R are individually true and
Reason (R): In an adiabatic process there R is the correct explanation of A
is no heat transfer. b. Both A and R are individually true but
a. Both A and R are individually true and R is not the correct explanation of A
R is the correct explanation of A c. A is true but R is false
b. Both A and R are individually true but d. A is false but R is true
R is not the correct explanation of A 60. Assertion (A): Throttle governing is used
c. A is true but R is false only are small steam turbines.
d. A is false but R is true Reason (R): At part loads, the efficiency
56. Assertion (A): A vane type rotary of stream turbine reduces considerably
compressor is a rot dynamic machine. with throttle governing.
Reason (R): A rot dynamic machine is a. Both A and R are individually true and
one in which a fluid flows freely through R is the correct explanation of A
the rotating part of the machine. b. Both A and R are individually true but
R is not the correct explanation of A 61. Assertion (A): In multi-stage
c. A is true but R is false compressors, the polytropic efficiency is
d. A is false but R is true always greater than the isentropic
57. Assertion (A): The buoyant force for a efficiency.
floating body passes through the centroid Reason (R): Higher the pressure rations,
of the displaced volume. the greater is the polytropic efficiency.
Reason (R): The force of buoyancy is a a. Both A and R are individually true and
vertical force & equal to the weight of R is the correct explanation of A
fluid displaced. b. Both A and R are individually true but
R is not the correct explanation of A 62. A 4-stroke diesel engine, when running at
c. A is true but R is false 2000 rpm has an injection duration of 1.5
d. A is false but R is true ms. What is the corresponding duration of
58. Assertion (A): Gas and stream nozzles are the crank angle in degrees?
shaped at inlet in such a way that the a. 18
nozzle converges rapidly over the first b. 9
portion of its length. c. 36
Reason: This shape is provided so that d. 15
velocity at inlet to the nozzle is negligibly 63. A reversible engine operates between
small in comparison with the exit velocity. temperatures 900 K & T2 (T2 < 900 K), &
a. Both A and R are individually true and another reversible engine between T2 &
R is the correct explanation of A 400 K( T2 > 400K) in series. What is the
b. Both A and R are individually true but value of T2 if work outputs of both engine
R is not the correct explanation of A are equal?
c. A is true but R is false a. 600K
d. A is false but R is true b. 625K
59. Assertion (A): A correctly designed c. 650K
convergent divergent nozzle working at d. 675K
designed conditions is always choked.
8 of 13
64. Match List I with List II and Select the b. Economizer boiler drum water wall
correct answer using the code given below super heater turbine
the Lists: c. Economizer water walls boiler
List I drum super heater turbine
A. Critical point d. Economizer water walls super
B. Sublimation heater turbine
C. Triple point 68. What does the reversed ideal sterling cycle
D. Melting consist of?
List II a. Two reversible isothermal processes
and two reversible adiabatic processes
1. All the three phases-solid, liquid and
vapour co-exists in equilibrium b. Two reversible isothermal processes
and two reversible isochoric processes
2. Phase change form solid to liquid
c. Two reversible isobaric processes and
3. Properties of saturated liquid and
two reversible adiabatic processes
saturated vapour are identical
d. Two reversible adiabatic processes and
4. Heating process where solid gets
two reversible isochoric process
directly transformed to gaseous phase
69. Change in internal energy in a reversible
A B C D
process occurring in a closed system is
a. 2 1 4 3 equal to the heat transferred if the process
b. 3 4 1 2 occurs at constant:
c. 2 4 1 3 a. Pressure
d. 3 1 4 2 b. Volume
65. A plane wall is 25 cm thick with an area of c. Temperature
1 m2, and has a thermal conductivity of 0.5 d. Enthalpy
W/mk. If a temperature difference of
70. In a poly tropic process, the term
60C is imposed across it, what is the heat
flow? n p1v1 p2 v2
is equal to:
a. 120W 1 n 1
b. 140W a. Heat absorbed or rejected
c. 160W b. Change in internal energy
d. 180W T
66. Which of the following are boiler c. Ratio of 1
T2
mountings?
d. Work done during polytrophic
1. Fusible plug
expansion
2. Blow-off cock
71. A closed system undergoes a process 1-2
3. Steam trap for which the values of Q1-2 and W1-2 are
4. Feed check valve +20 kJ and +50 kJ, respectively. If the
Select the correct answer using the code system is returned to state, 1, and Q2-1 is
given below: 10 kJ, what is the value of the work W2-1?
a. 1, 2 and 3 a. +20kJ
b. 2, 3 and 4 b. 40kJ
c. 1, 3 and 4 c. 80 kJ
d. 1, 2 and 4 d. + 40kJ
67. Which one of the following .is the correct 72. Change in enthalpy .in a closed system is
path of water flow through various equal to the heat transferred, if the
components of boiler of a modern thermal reversible process takes place at constant:
power plant? a. Temperature
a. Economizer boiler drum water b. Internal energy
walls boiler drum super heater c. Pressure
turbine
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d. Entropy b. I T0 S system S surrounding
73. A Carnot engine operates between 27C
and 327C. If the engine produces 300 kJ c. I T0 S system S surrounding
I T
of work, what is the entropy change during
heat addition? d. 0 S system S surrounding
a. 0.5 kJ/K 78. Air-conditioning has to be done for a hail
b. 1.0 kJ/K whose RSH = 50 kW and RLH = 50 kW.
c. 1.5 kJ/K There are no other sources of heat addition
d. 2.0 kJ/K or leakages. What is the value of the
74. Which one of the following is the steady RSHF?
flow energy equation for a boiler? a. 0.25
v12 v2 b. 0.5
a. h1 h2 2 c. 0.75
2 gJ 2 gJ
d. 1.00
b. Q h2 h1 79. In order to have a low bypass factor of a
v2
v 2 cooling coil, the fin spacing and the
c. h1 1
Q h2 2
number of tube rows should be:
2 gJ 2 gJ
a. Wide apart and high, respectively
d. Ws h2 h1 Q b. Wide apart and low respectively
75. A gas is compressed in a cylinder by a c. Close and high respectively
movable piston to a volume one-half of its d. Close and low, respectively
original volume. During the process, 300 80. Air at dry bulb temperature of 35C and
kJ heat left the gas and the internal energy
dew point temperature of 25C passes
remained same. What is the work done on through an air washer whose temperature
the gas? is maintained at 20C. What is the nature
a. 100 kNm of the process involved?
b. 150 kNm a. Cooling and humidification
c. 200 kNm b. Sensible cooling
d. 300 kNm c. Heating and dehumidification
76. Which of the following is/are reversible d. Cooling and dehumidification
process (es)?
81. When the wet bulb and dry bulb
1. Isentropic expansion temperatures are equal, which of the
2. Slow heating of water form a hot following statements is/are correct?
source 1. Air is fully saturated.
3. Constant pressure heating of an ideal 2. Dew point temperature is reached.
gas form a constant temperature source
3. Partial pressure of vapour equals to the
4. Evaporation of a liquid at constant total pressure.
temperature
4. Humidity ratio is 100%.
Select the correct answer using the code a. 1 and 2
given below:
b. 1 only
a. 1 only
c. 1,2 and 3
b. 1 and 2
d. 2 and 3
c. 2 and 3
82. For an air-conditioned space, RTH = 100
d. 1 and 4 kW, RSHF = 0.75, volume flow rate = 100
77. The irreversibility is defined as the m3/min, and indoor design specific
difference of the maximum useful work humidity is 0.01 kg/kg of dry air. What is
and actual work: I = W max, useful W actual. the specific humidity of the supply air?
How can this be alternatively expressed?
a. 0.010
a. I T0 S system S surrounding b. 0.0075
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c. 0.005 c. Hydrogen is evaporated in ammonia
d. 0.0025 d. Ammonia evaporated in hydrogen
83. Match List I with List II and select the 88. A reversed Carnot cycle working as a heat
correct answer using the code given below pump has a COP of 7. What is the ratio of
the Lists: minimum to maximum absolute
List I temperatures?
A. Degree of saturation a. 7/8
B. Dry bulb temperature b. 1/6
C. Wet bulb temperature c. 6/7
D. Dew point temperature d. 1/7
List II 89. A refrigerator works on reversed Carnot
1. Measure of latent enthalpy of moist air cycle producing a temperature of 40C.
Work done per TR is 700 kJ per ten
2. Measure of total enthalpy of moist air
minutes. What is the value of its COP?
3. Measure of the capacity of air to
a. 3
absorb moisture
b. 4.5
4. Measure of sensible enthalpy of moist
air c. 5.8
A B C D d. 7.0
a. 2 1 3 4 90. A refrigerator based on reversed Car not
cycle works between two such
b. 3 4 2 1
temperatures that the ratio between the low
c. 2 4 3 1 and high temperature is 0.8. If a heat pump
d. 3 1 2 4 is operated between same temperature
84. Which one of the following is responsible range, then what would be its COP?
for the operation of a thermostatic a. 2
expansion value? b. 3
a. Pressure changes in evaporator c. 4
b. Temperature changes in evaporator d. 5
c. Degree of superheat in evaporator 91. The values of enthalpy at the beginning of
d. Degree of sub cooling in evaporator compression, at the end of compression
85. A refrigeration plant uses a condenser with and at the end of condensation are 85
heat rejection ratio of 1.2. If the capacity kJ/kg, 185 kJ/kg and 210 kJ/kg,
of the plant is 210 kJ/min, then what is the respectively. What is the value of the COP
value of the COP of the refrigeration of the vapour compression refrigeration
point? system?
a. 3 a. 0.25
b. 5 b. 5.4
c. 7 c. 4
d. 9 d. 1.35
86. Which is the most suitable type of air 92. In a 0.5 TR capacity water cooler, water
refrigeration system for supersonic planes enters at 30C and leaves at 15C. What is
with Mach Number 3 or above? the actual water flow rate?
a. Boot-strap a. 50 litres/hour
b. Simple evaporative b. 75 litres/hour
c. Regenerative c. 100 litres/hour
d. Boot-strap evaporative d. 125 litres/hour
87. In an Electrolux refrigerator: 93. What is the shape factor of a hemispherical
a. Ammonia is absorbed in water body placed on a flat surface with respect
b. Ammonia is a absorbed in hydrogen to itself?
a. Zero
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b. 0.25 c. 3 and 4
c. 0.5 d. 1 and 2
d. 1.0 98. A Pelton wheel with single jet rotates at
94. In a vapour compression refrigeration 600 rpm. The velocity of the jet from the
plant, the refrigerant leaves the evaporator nozzle is 100 m/s. if the ratio of the vane
at 195 kJ/k and the condenser at 65 kJ/kg. velocity to jet velocity is 0.44, what is the
For 1 kg/s of refrigerant, what is the diameter of the Pelton wheel?
refrigeration effect? a. 0.7 m
a. 70 KW b. 1.4 m
b. 100 KW c. 2.1 m
c. 130 KW d. 2.8 m
d. 160 KW 99. A power plant, which uses a gas turbine
95. Consider the following statements: followed by steam turbine for power
1. In a carburetor the throttle valve is generation is called:
used to control the fuel supply. a. Topping cycle
2. The fuel level in the float chambers is b. Bottoming cycle
to be about 4 to 5 mm below the orifice c. Brayton cycle
level of main jet. d. Combined cycle
3. An idle jet provides extra fuel during 100. In a radial blade centrifugal compressor,
sudden acceleration. the velocity of blade tip is 400 m/s and slip
4. An idle jet provides extra fuel during factor is 0.9. Assuming the absolute
sudden acceleration richer with fuel. velocity at inlet to be axial, what is the
Which of the statements given above are work done per kg of flow?
correct? a. 36 kJ
a. 2 and 4 b. 72 kJ
b. 1 and 3 c. 144 kJ
c. 1,2 and 3 d. 360 kJ
d. 2,3 and 4 101. What should be the ratio of blade speed of
96. Which one of the following is the correct jet speed for the maximum efficiency of a
statements? Pelton wheel?
For a given centrifugal pump, 1
a.
a. The discharge varies directly as the 4
speed 1
b.
b. The head varies inversely as the speed 2
c. The power varies as the square of the 3
speed c.
4
d. The discharge varies as the square of d. 1
the speed
102. Which of the following types of turbine
97. Which of the following combustion is/are suitable for tidal power plants?
chamber design features reduce (s)
knocking in S.I. engines? 1. Tubular turbine
1. Spark plug located near the inlet valve. 2. Kaplan turbine
2. T-head 3. Bulb turbine
3. Wedge shaped combustion chamber 4. Francis turbine
4. Short flame travel distance Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
Select the correct answer using the code
given below: a. 1 only
a. 1 and 3 b. 1 and 3
b. 3 only c. 2 and 4
12 of 13
d. 4 only d. Product of emissive power of surface
103. If is the blade angle at the outlet, then and
the maximum hydraulic efficiency of an 109. In amass transfer process of diffusion of
ideal impulse turbine is: hot smoke in cold air in a power plant, the
1 cos temperature profile and the concentration
a. profile will become identical when:
2
a. Prandtl No. = 1
1 cos
b. b. Nusselt No. 1
2
c. Lewis No. = 1
1 sin
c. d. Schmilt No. = 1
2
110. Which one of the following numbers
1 sin represents the ratio of kinematics viscosity
d.
2 to the thermal diffusivity?
104. Which one of the dimensionless numbers a. Grash off number
identifies the compressibility effect of a b. Prandtl number
fluid?
c. Mach number
a. Euler number
d. Nusselt number
b. Froude number
111. After expansion from a gas turbine, the hot
c. Mach number exhaust gases are used to heat the
d. Weber number compressed air from a compressor with the
105. A U-tube open at both ends and made of 8 help of a cross flow compact heat
mm diameter glass tube mercury up to a exchanger of 0.8 effectiveness. What is the
height of 10 cm in both the limbs. If 19 number of transfer units of the heat
cm3 of water is added to one of the limbs, exchanger?
what is the difference in mercury levels in a. 2
the two limbs at equilibrium? b. 4
a. 4.5 mm c. 8
b. 1.0 mm d. 16
c. 2.8 mm 112. A thin flat plate 2m2m is hanging freely
d. 3.2 mm in air. The temperature of the surroundings
106. A 4-row velocity compounded steam is 25C. Solar radiation is falling on one
turbine develops total 6400 kW. What is side of the plate at the rate of 500 W/m2.
the power developed by the last row? What should be the convective heat
a. 200 kW transfer coefficient is W/m2C, if the
b. 400 kW temperature of the plate is to remain
constant at 30C?
c. 800 kW
a. 25
d. 1600 kW
b. 50
107. Which one of the following is the fire-tube
boiler? c. 100
a. Babcock and Wilcox boiler d. 200
b. Locomotive boiler 113. In order to achieve maximum heat
dissipation, the fin should be designed in
c. Sterling boiler
such a way that:
d. Benson boiler
a. It should have maximum lateral
108. Intensity of radiation at a surface in surface at the root side of the fin
perpendicular direction is equal to:
b. It should have maximum lateral
a. Product of emissive of surface and 1/ surface towards the tip side of the fin
b. Product of emissive of surface and c. It should have maximum lateral
c. Product of emissive power of surface surface near the centre of the fin
and 1/
13 of 13
d. It should lave. minimum lateral surface sectional area, length 1 metre and thermal
near the centre of the fin conductivity as 100 W/mK. What is the
114. A composite hollow sphere with steady temperature difference between the two
internal heating is made of 2 layers of ends of the cylindrical bar?
materials of equal thickness with thermal a. 80C
conductivities in the ratio of 1:2 for inner b. 100C
to outer layers. Ratio of inside to outside c. 120C
diameter is 0.8. What is ratio of
d. 160C
temperature drop across the Inner and
outer layers? 118. Heat is conduced through a 10 cm thick
wall at the rate of 30 W/m2 when the
a. 0.4
temperature difference across the wall is
b. 1.6 10C. What is the thermal conductivity of
c. 2 in 0.8 the wall?
d. 2.5 a. 0.03 W/mK
115. Up to the critical radius of insulation: b. 0.3 W/mK
a. Added insulation increases, heat loss c. 3.0 W/mK
b. Added insulation decreases heat loss d. 30.0 W/mk
c. Convection heat loss is less than 119. Match List I with List II and select the
conduction heat loss correct answer using the code given below
d. Heat flux decreases. the Lists:
116. Match List I (Governing Equations of Heat List I
Transfer) with List II (Specific Cases of A. Radiation heat transfer
Heat Transfer) and select the correct B. Conduction heat transfer
answer using the code given below:
C. Forced convection
List I
D. Transient heat flow
d 2T 2dT
A. 0 List II
dr 2 r dr 1. Fourier number
2T 1T 2. Wien displacement law
B.
x 2 t 3. Fourier law
4. Stanton number
d 2T 1dT
C. 0 A B C D
dr 2 r dr
a. 2 1 4 3
d 2 b. 4 3 2 1
D. 2
m 2
dx c. 2 3 4 1
List II d. 4 1 2 3
1. Pin fin 1-D case 120. Heisler charts are used to determine
2. 1-D conduction in cylinder transient heat flow rate and temperature
3. 1-D condition in sphere distribution when:
4. plane slab a. Solids posses infinitely large thermal
(Symbols have their usual meaning) conductivity
A B C D b. Internal conduction resistance is small
and convective resistance is large
a. 2 4 3 1
c. Internal conduction resistance is large
b. 3 1 2 4
and the convective resistance is small
c. 2 1 3 4
d. Both conduction and convention
d. 3 4 2 1 resistance are almost of equal
117. 6.0 kJ of condition heat transfer has to take significance
place in 10 minutes from one end to other
end of a metallic cylinder of 10 cm2 cross-
I.E.S-(OBJ) 2006 1 of 14
PAPER-I
1. If Ns1 is the specific speed of a pump 4. In an axial flow impulse turbine, energy
handling larger discharges at low heads transfer takes, place due to
and Ns2 is that of a pump handling low a. Change in relative kinetic energy
discharges at high heads, then which one
b. Change in absolute kinetic energy
of the following is correct ?
c. Change in pressure energy
a. Ns1 > Ns2
d. Change in energy because of
b. Ns1 < Ns2
centrifugal force
c. Ns1 = Ns2
5. Consider the following:
d. All the above three are possible under
1. Superheater
different situations
2. Economizer
2. Consider the following statements in
respect of impulse steam turbines 3. Air pre-heater
1. Blade passages are of constant cross- 4. Condenser
sectional area. Which of the above improve overall steam
2. Partial admission of steam is power plant efficiency?
permissible. a. Only 1, 2 and 3
3. Axial thrust is only due to change in b. Only 2 and 3
flow velocity of steam at inlet and c. Only 1 and 4
outlet of moving blade.
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
correct ? 6. Consider the following:
a. 1, 2 and 3 1. Injector
b. Only 1 and 2 2. Economizer
c. Only 2 and 3 3. Blow-off cock
d. Only 1 and 3 4. Steam stop valve
3. Consider the following statements Which of the above is/are not boiler
mountings ?
1. Forward swept blade impeller is used
in draft fans. a. Only 1
2. Forward swept blade impeller is used b. Only 1 and 2
in room air- conditioners. c. 1, 2 and 3
3. Radial tipped blade impeller is used in d. 2 and 4
draft fans. 7. In a steam nozzle, to increase the velocity
4. Forward swept blade impeller is used of steam above sonic velocity by
in exhaust fans expanding steam below critical pressure
Which of the statements given above is/are a. A vacuum pump is added
correct ? b. Ring diffusers are used
a. Only 1 c. Divergent portion of the nozzle is
b. Only 2 and 3 necessary
c. Only 4 d. Abrupt change in cross-section is
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4 needed
2 of 14
8. Wilson line is associated with which one Select the correct answer using the code
of the following ? given below :
a. Total steam consumption with respect a. Only 3
to power output: b. Only 1 and 2
b. Supersonic flow o steam through a c. Only 2 and 3
nozzle
d. 1, 2 and 3
c. Nozzle flow with friction
13. In a centrifugal compressor, how can the
d. Supersaturated flow of steam through a pressure ratio be increased ?
nozzle
a. Only by increasing the tip speed
9. Which one of the following expresses the
b. Only by decreasing the inlet
maximum blade efficiency of a Parsons
temperature
turbine ?
c. By both a. and b.
2 cos 2
a. d. Only by increasing the inlet
1 cos 2 temperature
cos 2 14. The power required to drive a turbo-
b.
1 2 cos 2 compressor for a given pressure ratio
cos decreases when
c.
1 cos 2 a. Air is heated at entry
cos b. Air is cooled at entry
d.
2 c. Air is cooled at exit
where is the jet angle at the entrance. d. Air is heated at exit
10. When is the greatest economy obtained in 15. In an axial flow compressor, when the
a regenerative feed heating cycle ? degree of reaction is 50%, it implies that
a. Steam, is extracted from only one a. Work done in compression will be the
suitable point of a steam turbine least
b. Steam is extracted only from the last b. 50% stages of the compressor will be
stage of a steam turbine ineffective
c. Steam is extracted only from the first c. Pressure after compression will be
stage of a steam turbine optimum
d. Steam is extracted from several places d. The compressor will have symmetrical
in different stages of steam turbines blades
11. In a reaction turbine the enthalpy drop in a 16. In case of liquids, what is the binary
stage is 60 units. The enthalpy drop in the diffusion coefficient proportional to?
moving blades is 32 units. a. Pressure only
What is the degree of reaction ? b. Temperature only
a. 0.533 c. Volume only
b. 0.284 d. All the above
c. 0.466 17. A copper block and an air mass block
d. 1.875 having similar dimensions are subjected to
symmetrical heat transfer from one face of
12. Which of the following can be the
each block. The other face of the block
cause/causes of an air-cooled compressor
will be reaching to the same temperature at
getting overheated during operation ?
a rate
1. Insufficient lubricating oil.
a. Faster in air block
2. Broken valve strip.
b. Faster in copper block
3. Clogged intake filter.
c. Equal in air as well as copper block
3 of 14
d. Cannot be predicted with the given b. Schmidt number
information c. Lorenz number
18. The equation of effectiveness d. Lewis number
= 1 eNTU for a heat exchanger is valid 24. Match List - I with List - II and select the
in the case of correct answer using the code given below
a. Boiler and condenser for parallel flow the Lists :
b. Boiler and condenser for counterflow List - I
c. Boiler and condenser for both parallel A. Radiation heat transfer
flow and counterflow B. Conduction heat transfer
d. Gas turbine for both parallel flow and C. Forced convection
counterflow
D. Transient heat flow
19. Thermal diffusivity of a substance is
List - II
a. Inversely proportional to thermal
1. Biots number
conductivity
2. View factor
b. Directly proportional to thermal
conductivity 3. Fouriers law
c. Directly proportional to the square of 4. Stanton number
thermal conductivity A B C D
d. Inversely proportional to the square of a. 4 3 2 1
thermal conductivity b. 2 1 4 3
20. Air can be best heated by steam in a heat c. 4 1 2 3
exchanger of
d. 2 3 4 1
a. Plate type
25. Match List - I with List - II and select the
b. Double pipe type with fins on steam correct answer using the code given below
side the Lists :
c. Double pipe type with fins on air side List - I (Phenomenon)
d. Shell and tube type A. Transient conduction
21. A metal plate has a surface area of 2m2, B. Forced convection
thickness 10 mm and a thermal
C. Mass transfer
conductivity of 200 W/mk. What is the
thermal resistance of the plate ? D. Natural convection
a. 4 104 K/W List - II (Associated Dimensionless
Parameter)
b. 2.5 103 K/W
1. Reynolds number
c. 1.5 105 K/W
2. Grashoff number
d. 2.5 105 K/W
3. Biot number
22. Which one of the following expresses the
4. Mach number
thermal diffusivity of a substance in terms
of thermal conductivity (k), mass density 5. Sherwood number
() and specific heat (c) ? A B C D
a. k2c a. 3 2 5 1
b. l/kc b. 5 1 4 2
c. k/c c. 3 1 5 2
d. c/k2 d. 5 2 4 1
23. What is the ratio of thermal conductivity to 26. Which one of the following is the correct
electrical conductivity equal to ? statement ?
a. Prandtl number
4 of 14
A nuclear fission is initiated when the c. Should be much below the critical
critical energy as compared to neutron temperature of the refrigerant
binding energy atoms is d. Could be of any value as it does not
a. less affect the COP
b. same
c. more
d. exactly two times
27. What is the flash point of a liquid fuel ?
a. The temperature at which the fuel
ignites spontaneously with a bang
b. The temperature at which the fuel 31.
emits vapours at a rate which produces The figure given above depicts saturation
an inflammable mixture with air dome for water on the temperature-entropy
c. The temperature at which the fuel plane. What is the temperature difference
ignites with a clearly visible flash T shown on a typical isobar line known
d. The temperature at which the fuel as ?
ignites without a spark a. Degree of wet bulb depression
28. What is the function of heavy water in a b. Degree of saturation
nuclear reactor ? c. Degree of subcooling
a. It serves as a coolant d. Degree of reheat
b. It serves as a moderator 32. What does application of centrifugal air
c. It serves as a coolant as well as a compressors lead to?
moderator a. Large frontal area of aircraft
d. It serves as a neutron absorber b. Higher flow rate through the engine
29. Consider the following statements : c. Higher aircraft speed
1. The gases measured directly by Orsat d. Lower frontal area of the aircraft
apparatus from a flue gas sample are
CO2, O2 and N2.
indicating a comparison between rocket
2. Bomb calorimeter measures higher and jet propulsion systems :
calorific value of fuel at constant
1. Both rocket and jet engines carry the
pressure.
fuel and oxidant.
3. For burning 1 kg of fuel (carbon) to
2. Rockets do not employ compressor or
carbon monoxide, the stoichiometric
propellor.
quantity of air required is 8/3 kg.
3. Rockets can operate in vacuum also.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct ? 4. Rockets can use solid fuels and
oxidants.
a. Only 1
b. Only 2
correct?
c. Only 3
a. 1, 2, 3 and 4
d. 1, 2 and 3
b. Only 1 and 2
30. In a vapour compression refrigeration
c. Only 2, 3 and 4
cycle for making ice, the condensing
temperature for higher COP d. Only 1, 3 and 4
a. Should be near the critical temperature 34. What is the purpose of employing
of the refrigerant supercharging for an engine ?
b. Should be above the critical a. To provide forced cooling air
temperature of the refrigerant b. To raise exhaust pressure
5 of 14
c. To inject excess fuel for coping with b. Mixture of normal heptane and iso-
higher load octane
d. To supply an intake of air at a density c. Alpha methyl naphthalene
greater than the density of the d. Mixture of methane and ethane
surrounding atmosphere
39. For the same indicated work per cycle,
35. Consider the following statements : mean speed and permissible fluctuation of
1. Supercharging increases the power speed, what is the size of flywheel
output of an engine. required for a multi-cylinder engine in
2. Supercharging increases the brake comparison to a single-cylinder engine?
thermal efficiency considerably. a. Bigger
3. Supercharging helps scavenging of b. Smaller
cylinders. c. Same
Which of the statements given above are d. Depends on thermal efficiency of the
correct ? engine
a. Only 1 and 2 40. Consider the following statements :
b. Only 2 and 3 1. For a Diesel cycle, the thermal
c. Only 1 and 3 efficiency decreases as the cut off ratio
d. 1, 2 and 3 increases.
36. Where does mixing of fuel and air take 2. In a petrol engine the high voltage for
place in case of diesel engine ? spark is in the order of 1000 V.
a. Injection pump 3. The material for centre electrode in
spark plug is carbon.
b. Injector
c. Engine cylinder
correct ?
d. Inlet manifold.
a. Only 1
37. Consider the following statements :
b. Only 1 and 2
1. In the SI engines detonation occurs
c. Only 2 and 3
near the end of combustion whereas in
CI engines knocking occurs near the d. 1, 2 and 3
beginning of combustion. 41. Consider the following statements :
2. In SI engines no problems are Volumetric efficiency of a reciprocating
encountered on account of pre-ignition. air compressor increases with
3. Low inlet pressure and temperature 1. increase in clearance ratio
reduce knocking tendency in SI 2. decrease in delivery pressure
engines but increase the knocking
3. multistaging
tendency in CI engines.
correct ?
correct ?
a. Only 1 and 2
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. Only 2 and 3
b. Only 1 and 2
c. Only 3
c. Only 2 and 3
d. 1, 2 and 3
d. Only 1 and 3
42. What is the preferred intercooler pressure
38. The tendency of petrol to detonate in terms
for a two stage air compressor working
of octane number is determined by
between the suction pressure ps and the
comparison of fuel with which of the
delivery pressure pd ?
following?
a. (ps + pd)/2
a. Iso-octane
b. (pd ps)/2
6 of 14
c. (ps pd)1/2 b. 2 0, 2 = 0
d. (ps pd)1/4 c. 2 = 0, 2 0
43. Consider the following statements : d. 2 0, 2 0
In order to prevent detonation in a spark- 47. In a two-dimensional incompressible
ignition engine, the charge away from the steady flow, the velocity component u =
spark plug should have Aex is obtained. What is the order
1. low temperature component v of velocity ?
2. low density a. v = Aexy
3. long ignition delay b. v = Aey
Which of the statements given above is/are c. v = Aexy + f(x)
correct ? d. v = Aeyx + f(y)
a. Only 1 48. For a steady two-dimensional flow, the
b. Only 2 scalar components of the velocity field are
Vx = 2x; Vy = 2y, Vz = 0. What are the
c. Only 3
components of acceleration ?
d. 1, 2 and 3
a. ax = 0, ay = 0
44.
b. ax = 4x, ay = 0
c. ax = 0, ay = 4y
d. ax = 4x, ay = 4y
regarding a path line in fluid flow:
1. A path line is a line traced by a single
The energy grade line (EGL) for steady
particle over a time interval.
flow in a uniform diameter pipe is shown
above. 2. A path line shows the positions of the
same particle at successive time
Which of the following items is contained
instants.
in the box ?
3. A path line shows the instantaneous
a. A pump
positions of a number of particles,
b. A turbine passing through a common point, at
c. A partially closed valve some previous time instants.
d. An abrupt expansion Which of the statements given above are
45. A compound pipeline consists of two correct?
pieces of identical pipes. The equivalent a. Only 1 and 3
length of same diameter and same friction b. Only 1 and 2
factor, for the compound pipeline is L1
c. Only 2 and 3
when pipes are connected in series, and is
L2 when connected in parallel. What is the d. 1, 2 and 3
ratio of equivalent lengths L1/L2 ? 50. A beaker of water is falling freely under
a. 32 : 1 the influence of gravity. Point B is on the
surface and point C is vertically below B
b. 8 : 1
near the bottom of the beaker. If P is the
c. 2 : l pressure at point B and P the pressure at
d. 2 :1 point C, then which one of the following is
correct ?
46. For irrotational and incompressible flow,
the velocity potential and stream function a. PB = PC
are given by and , respectively. b. PB < PC
Which one of the following sets is correct? c. PB > PC
a. 2 = 0, 2 = 0
7 of 14
d. Insufficient information to determine place, what does an absolute pressure of
any of the above 380 mm of Hg correspond to ?
51. A homogeneous solid of any arbitrary a. 320 mm of Hg vacuum
shape floats upright in a homogeneous b. 382 of Hg vacuum
liquid with immersed volume V and is in
c. 62 mm of Hg vacuum
stable equilibrium. If the solid is
overturned and made to float upside down d. 62 mm of Hg gauge
in a different homogeneous liquid with 56. A manometer is made of a tube of uniform
exactly same volume V above the liquid bore of 0.5 cm2 cross-sectional areas, with
surface, then the equilibrium one limb vertical and the other limb
a. Would be stable inclined at 30 to the horizontal. Both of
its limbs are open to atmosphere and,
b. Would be neutral
initially, it is partly filled with a
c. Would be unstable manometer liquid of specific gravity 1.25.
d. May or may not be stable If then an additional volume of 7.5 cm3 of
52. A 25 cm long prismatic homogeneous water is poured in the inclined tube, what
solid floats in water with its axis vertical is the rise of the meniscus in the vertical
and 10 cm projecting above water surface. tube?
If the same solid floats in some oil with a. 4 cm
axis vertical and 5 cm projecting above the b. 75 cm
liquid surface, what is the specific gravity
c. 12 cm
of the oil ?
d. 15 cm
a. 0.60
57. A vertical clean glass tube of uniform bore
b. 0.70
is used, as a piezometer to measure the
c. 0.75 pressure of liquid at a point. The liquid has
d. 0.80 a specific weight of 15 kN/m3 and a
53. A semi-circular plane area of diameter 1 surface tension of 0.06 N/m in contact
m, is subjected to a uniform gas pressure with air. If for the liquid, the angle of
of 420 kN/m2. What is the moment of contact with glass is zero and the capillary
thrust (approximately) on the area about its rise in the tube is not to exceed 2 mm,
straight edge ? what is the required minimum diameter of
the tube ?
a. 35 kNm
a. 6 mm
b. 41 kNm
b. 8 mm
c. 55 kNm
c. 10 mm
d. 82 kNm
d. 12 mm
54. A horizontal oil tank is in the shape of a
cylinder with hemispherical ends. If it is 58. When the pressure on a given mass of
exactly half full, what is the ratio of liquid is increased from 3.0 MPa to 3.5
magnitude of the vertical component of MPa, the density of the liquid increases
resultant hydrostatic thrust on one from 500 kg/m3 to 501 kg/m3. What is the
hemispherical end to, that of the horizontal average value of bulk modulus of the
component? liquid over the given pressure range ?
a. 2/ a. 700 MPa
b. /2 b. 600 MPa
c. 500 MPa
c. 4/(3)
d. 250 MPa
d. 3/4
59. Assertion (A) : Nozzle control governing
55. The standard atmospheric pressure is 762
cannot be used in reaction steam turbines.
mm of Hg. At a specific location, the
barometer reads 700 mm of Hg. At this Reason (R) : In reaction steam turbines,
full admission of steam must take place.
8 of 14
a. Both A and R are individually true and Reason (R) : An adiabatic process which
R is the correct explanation of A. resists the exchange of energy to the
b. Both A and R are individually true but surroundings may have irreversibility due
R is not the correct explanation of A. to friction and heat conduction.
c. A is true but R is false a. Both A and R are individually true and
R is the correct explanation of A.
60. Assertion (A) : Fire tube boilers do not
R is not the correct explanation of A.
operate at high pressures while water tube
boilers operate at high pressures. c. A is true but R is false
Reason (R) : Due to high temperature of d. A is false but R is true
flue gases, fire tubes may fail due to creep. 64. Assertion (A) : At very high densities,
a. Both A and R are individually true and compressibility of a real gas is less than
R is the correct explanation of A. one.
b. Both A and R are individually true but Reason (R) : As the temperature is
R is not the correct explanation of A. considerably reduced, the molecules are
brought closer together and thermonuclear
attractive forces become greater at
d. A is false but R is true pressures around 4 MPa.
61. Assertion (A) : The internal energy a. Both A and R are individually true and
depends on the internal state of a body, as R is the correct explanation of A.
determined by its temperature, pressure
and composition.
Reason (R) : Internal energy of a substance
does not include any energy that it may
possess as a result of its macroscopic d. A is false but R is true
position or movement. 65. Which one of the following is used to
a. Both A and R are individually true and bring down the speed of an impulse steam
R is the correct explanation of A. turbine to practical limits ?
b. Both A and R are individually true but a. A centrifugal governor
R is not the correct explanation of A. b. Compounding of the turbine
c. A is true but R is false c. A large flywheel
d. A is false but R is true d. A gear box
62. Assertion (A) : The change in availability 66. Consider the following for a steam turbine
of a system is equal to the change in the power plant:
Gibbs function of the system at constant 1. Reduction in blade erosion.
temperature and pressure.
2. Increase in turbine speed.
Reason (R) : The Gibbs function is useful
3. Increase in specific output.
when evaluating the availability of systems
in which chemical reactions occur. 4. Increase in cycle efficiency.
a. Both A and R are individually true and Which of the above occur/occurs due to
R is the correct explanation of A. reheating of steam?
b. Both A and R are individually true but a. Only 1
R is not the correct explanation of A. b. 1 and 2
c. A is true but R is false c. 1, 3 and 4
d. A is false but R is true d. 2 and 3
63. Assertion (A) : All constant entropy 67. Consider the following features for a gas
processes are adiabatic, but all adiabatic turbine plant :
processes are not isentropic. 1. Intercooling
2. Regeneration
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3. Reheat d. Degree of reaction
Which of the above features in a simple 72. Consider the following statements :
gas turbine cycle increase the work ratio? For a large aviation gas turbine, an axial
a. 1, 2 and 3 flow compressor is usually preferred over
b. Only 1 and 2 centrifugal compressor because
c. Only 2 and 3 1. the maximum efficiency is higher.
d. Only I and 3 2. the frontal area is lower.
68. Which of the following parameters 3. the pressure rise per stage is more.
decrease across a normal shock wave? 4. the cost is lower.
1. Mach number Which of the statements given above are
2. Static pressure correct ?
3. Stagnation pressure a. 1 and 4
4. Static temperature b. Only 1 and 2
Select the correct answer using the codes c. 1, 2 and 3
given below : d. 2, 3 and 4
a. Only 1 and 3 73. What are the general comfort conditions in
b. Only 2 and 4 an air-conditioning system ?
c. 1, 2 and 3 a. 20C DBT, 80% RH
d. 2, 3 and 4 b. 24C DBT, 60% RH
69. When are shock waves formed in air c. 25C DBT, 40% RH
compressors ? d. 25C DBT, 100% RH
a. Mach number < 0.9 74. The heat load from the occupants in air-
b. Mach number > 0.9 conditioning load calculation is a source
of:
c. Mach number = 2
a. Sensible heat only
d. Mach number changes suddenly from
one value to another b. Latent heat only
70. Which of the following statements are c. Both sensible and latent heat
correct for multistaging in a reciprocating d. None of the above
air compressor ? 75. What is the sensible heat factor during the
1. It decreases the volumetric efficiency. heating and humidification process equal
2. The work done can be reduced. to ?
3. A small high-pressure cylinder is H1 H 2
a.
required. H 3 H1
4. The size of flywheel is reduced. H 2 H1
b.
Select the correct answer using the codes H 3 H1
given below :
H1 H 2
a. 1, 2 and 3 c.
H1 H 2
b. 2, 3 and 4
c. 1, 3 and 4 H 3 H1
d.
d. 1, 2 and 4 H 2 H1
71. What is the ratio of the isentropic work to Where, H1 = Total heat of air entering the
Eulers work known as ? heating coil
a. Pressure coefficient H2 = Total heat of air leaving the heating
coil
b. Slip factor
H3 = Total heat of air at the end of the
c. Work factor
humidification
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76. What is Sol-air temperature ? 2. Isobaric process
a. It is equal to the sum of outdoor air 3. Isochoric process
temperature, and absorbed total 4. Isenthalpic process
radiation divided by outer surface
A B C D
convective heat transfer coefficient
a. 1 3 2 4
b. It is equal to the absorbed total
radiation divided by convective heat b. 2 4 1 3
transfer coefficient at outer surface c. 1 4 2 3
c. It is equal to the total incident radiation d. 2 3 1 4
divided by convective heat transfer 80. A thermoelectric engine which consists of
coefficient at outer surface two dissimilar electric conductors
d. It is equal to the sum of indoor air connected at two junctions maintained at
temperature and absorbed total different temperatures, converts
radiation divided by convective heat a. Electric energy into heat energy
transfer coefficient at outer surface
b. Heat energy into electric energy
77. Which type of valves is generally used in
reciprocating refrigerant compressors ? c. Mechanical work into electric energy
a. Mushroom valve d. Electric energy into mechanical work
b. Puppet valve 81.
c. Plate valve
d. Throttle valve
pertaining to duct design :
1. Aspect ratio of ducts should be high.
2. In the equal friction, method of design,
use of dampers cannot be eliminated
by any means.
Which one of the following is the correct
3. The static regain method is not suitable
sequence of the three processes A, B and C
for long ducts.
in the increasing order of the amount of
4. The velocity reduction method is work done by a gas following ideal-gas
employed only in simple systems. expansions by these processes ?
Which of the statements given above are a. A-B-C
correct ?
b. B-A-C
a. 1 and 2
c. A-C-B
b. 3 and 4
d. C-A-B
c. 1 and 3
82. A Carnot refrigerator has a COP of 6.
d. 2 and 4 What is the ratio of the lower to the higher
79. Match List - I with List - II and select the absolute temperatures ?
correct answer using the code given below a. 1/6
the Lists :
b. 7/8
List - I (Apparatus)
c. 6/7
A. Separating calorimeter
d. 1/7
B. Throttling calorimeter
83. A heat source H1 can supply 6000 kJ/min
C. Sling psychrometer at 300C and another heat source H2 can
D. Gas thermometer supply 60000 kJ/min at 100C. Which one
List - II (Thermodynamic process) of the following statements is correct if the
surroundings are at 27C ?
1. Adiabatic process
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a. Both the heat sources have the same 1. It is useful to estimate properties like
efficiency enthalpy from other measurable
b. The first heat source has lower properties.
efficiency 2. At a change of phase, it can be used to
c. The second heat source has lower find the latent heat at a given pressure.
efficiency 3. It is derived from the relationship
d. The first heat source produces higher p s

power v T T V
84. According to the Clapeyron equation, Which of the statements given above are
which one of the following gives the slope correct ?
of the saturated liquid pressure
a. 1, 2 and 3
temperature curve dp/dT? (suffix f and g
denote saturated liquid and saturated b. Only 1 and 2
vapour respectively) c. Only 1 and 3
a. u g u f / vg v f d. Only 2 and 3
88. A 12 cm diameter straight pipe is laid at a
b. h
g h f / vg v f uniform downgrade and flow rate is
maintained such that velocity head in the
c. u g u f / T vg v f pipe is 0.5 m. If the pressure in the pipe is
observed to be uniform along the length
d. h
g h f / T vg v f when the down slope of the pipe is 1 in 10,
85. Which one of the following is the what is the friction factor for the pipe ?
characteristic equation of a real gas? a. 0.012
a. (p + a/v2) (vb) = RT b. 0.024
b. (p a/v2) (v + b) = RT c. 0.042
c. pv = RT d. 0.050
d. pv = nRT 89. A venturimeter in an oil (sp. gr. 0.8) pipe
86. is connected to a differential manometer in
which the gauge liquid is mercury (sp. gr.
13.6). For a flow rate of 0.16 m3/s, the
manometer registers a gauge differential of
20 cm. The oil-mercury manometer being
unavailable, an air-oil differential
manometer is connected to the same
venturimeter. Neglecting variation of
discharge coefficient for the venturimeter,
what is the new gauge differential for a
flow rate of 0.08 m3/s ?
a. 64 cm
Which one of the following is correct for
b. 68 cm
the process 1-2 shown above ?
c. 80 cm
a. The partial pressure of water vapour in
air remains constant d. 85 cm
b. Specific humidity of air remains 90. How are the velocity coefficient Cv, the
constant discharge coefficient Cd, and the
contraction coefficient Cc of an orifice
c. Enthalpy of air remains constant
related?
d. Dry bulb temperature of air remains
a. Cv = CcCd
constant
b. Cc = CvCd
pertaining to the Clapeyron equation : c. Cd = CcCv
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d. CcCvCd = 1 c. Inviscid and rotational
91. Which one of the following statements is d. Viscous and irrotational
correct ? While using boundary layer 96. It is observed in a flow problem, that
equations, Bernoullis equation pressure, inertia and gravity forces are
a. can be used anywhere important. Then, similarity requires that
b. can be used only outside the boundary a. Reynolds and Weber numbers be equal
layer b. Mach and Froude numbers be equal
c. can be used only inside the boundary c. Euler and Froude numbers be equal
layer
d. Reynolds and Mach numbers be equal
d. cannot be used either inside or outside
97. In a normal shock in a gas
the boundary layer
a. Both the downstream flow and the
92. The velocity distribution in the boundary
upstream flow are supersonic
layer over a flat plate, set parallel to the
direction of an incompressible free stream, b. Only the upstream flow is supersonic
is given by one-sixth power law of the c. The downstream flow is sonic
form u/U = (y/)1/6. What is the ratio of d. The upstream flow is subsonic
displacement thickness to boundary layer
98. The pressure drop in a pipe flow is directly
thickness ?
proportional to the mean velocity. It can be
a. 1 : 8 deduced that the
b. 1 : 7 a. Flow is laminar
c. 7 : 72 b. Flow is turbulent
d. 3 : 8 c. Pipe is smooth
93. An open channel of symmetric right- d. Pipe is rough
angled triangular cross- section is
99.
conveying a discharge Q. Taking g as the
acceleration due to gravity, what is the
critical depth ?
1/3
Q2
a.
g
1/3
2Q 2
b.
g
1/5
A circular jet of water impinges on a
Q 2
vertical flat plate and bifurcates into two
c. circular jets of half the diameter of the
g
original. After hitting the plate
1/5
2Q 2 a. The jets move at equal velocity which
d.
g is twice of the original velocity
94. In M-L-T system, what is the dimension of b. The jets move at equal velocity which
specific speed for a rotodynamic pump ? is 3 times of the original velocity
a. L3/4 T3/2 c. Data given is insufficient to calculate
velocities of the two outgoing jets
b. M1/2 L1/4 T5/2
d. The jets move at equal velocity which
c. L3/4 T3/2 is equal to the original velocity
d. L3/4 T3/2 100. It is recommended that the diffuser angle
95. In the boundary layer, the flow is should be kept less than 18 because
a. Viscous and rotational a. Pressure decreases in flow direction
b. Inviscid and irrotational and flow separation may occur
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b. Pressure decreases in flow direction a. 1 and 4
and flow may become turbulent b. Only 2 and 3
c. Pressure increases in flow direction c. 1, 2 and 3
and flow separation may occur
d. 2, 3 and 4
d. Pressure increases in flow direction
106. Which of the following advantages is/are
and flow may become turbulent
possessed by a Kaplan turbine over a
101. A converging diverging nozzle is Francis turbine ?
connected to a gas pipeline. At the inlet of
1. Low frictional losses.
the nozzle (converging section) the Mach
number is 2. It is observed that there is a 2. Part load efficiency is considerably
shock in the diverging section. What is the high.
value of the Mach number at the throat ? 3. More compact and smaller in size.
a. < 1 Select the correct answer using the codes
b. Equal to I given below
c. > 1 a. Only 1
d. l b. Only 1 and 2
102. Which one of the following is measured by c. Only 2 and 3
a rotameter? d. 1, 2 and 3
a. Velocity of fluids 107. Effective temperature depends on dry bulb
b. Discharge of fluids temperature, and
c. Viscosity of fluids a. Wet bulb temperature only
d. Rotational speed of solid shafts b. Relative humidity
103. In a jet pump c. Specific humidity
a. Kinetic energy of fluid is converted d. Wet bulb temperature and air motion
into potential energy 108. A human body feels comfortable when the
b. Energy of high velocity stream is heat produced by the metabolism of
converted into pressure energy human body is equal to
c. Energy of high pressure fluid is a. Heat dissipated to the surroundings
converted into energy of low pressure b. Heat stored in the human body
fluid c. Sum of a. and b.
d. Potential energy of fluid is converted d. Difference of a. and b.
into kinetic energy
109. In a vapour compression refrigeration
104. Which of the following water turbines plant, the enthalpy values at different
does not require a draft tube ? points are :
a. Propeller turbine 1. Enthalpy at exit of the evaporator =
b. Pelton turbine 350 kJ/kg
c. Kaplan turbine 2. Enthalpy at exit of the compressor 375
d. Francis turbine kJ/kg
105. Which of the following water turbines 3. Enthalpy at exit of the condenser = 225
maintain a high efficiency over a long kJ/kg
range of the part load ? The refrigerating efficiency of the plant is
1. Francis turbine 0.8. What is the power required per kW of
cooling to be produced?
2. Kaplan turbine
a. 0.25 kW
3. Pelton turbine
b. 4.0 kW
4. Propeller turbine
c. 12.5 kW
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below d. 11 kW
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110. Thy bulb temperature and wet bulb c. Absorber only
temperature is 25C each, and velocity of d. Condenser and absorber
air passing over human body is 6 m/min. If
116. Where an air refrigeration cycle is
velocity increases to 20 m/min, then which
generally employed?
one of the following is correct?
a. Domestic refrigerators
a. The effective temperature decreases
b. Commercial refrigerators
b. The effective temperature remains the
same c. Air-conditioning
c. The effective temperature increases d. Gas liquefaction
d. The change in effective temperature 117. A heat pump is used to heat a house in the
cannot be estimated with the given winter and then reversed to cool the house
information in the summer. The inside temperature of
the house is to be maintained at 20C. The
111. The wet bulb depression is zero, when
heat transfer through the house walls is 7.9
relative humidity is equal to :
kJ/s and the outside temperature in winter
a. 100% is 5C.
b. 60% What is the minimum power
c. 40% (approximate) required to drive the heat
d. Zero pump?
112. Atmospheric air at 35C and 60% RH can a. 40.5 W
be brought to 20C and 60% RH by: b. 405 W
a. Cooling and dehumidification process c. 42.5 W
b. Cooling and humidification process d. 425 W
c. Adiabatic saturation process 118. The leaks in a refrigeration system Freon
d. Sensible cooling process are detected by :
113. Consider the following statements : a. A halide torch, which on detecting
produces greenish flame light
Air washer can work as
b. Sulphur sticks, which on detecting give
1. Humidifier only
the smoke
2. Dehumidifier only
c. Using reagents
3. Filter only
d. Sensing reduction in pressures.
119. What is the value of the shape factor of
correct ?
two infinite parallel surface separated by a
a. Only I distance d ?
b. Only 2 and 3 a. 0
c. Only 1 and 3 b.
d. 1, 2 and 3 c. 1
114. For small installations of refrigeration d. d
systems (up to 35 kW), which type of
120. If the temperature of a solid state changes
condenser is used ?
from 27C to 627C, then emissive power
a. Shell and tube type changes which rate
b. Shell and coil type a. 6 : l
c. Double tube type b. 9 : 1
d. Air cooled type c. 27 : 1
115. In a vapour absorption refrigerator, heat is d. 81 : 1
rejected in :
a. Condenser only
b. Generator only
I.E.S. (OBJ) - 2007 1 of 14
PAPERI
1. For a fluid having Prandtl number equal to b. 11/48
unity, how are the hydrodynamic boundary c. 24/11
layer thickness , and the thermal
d. 11/24
boundary layer thickness t related ?
6. Match List - I with List - II and select the
a. = t correct answer using the code given below
b. > t the lists
c. < t List - I (Non-dimensional Number)
d. t = 1/3 A. Grashof number
2. If, in a pump, the discharge is halved, then, B. Stanton number
assuming that the speed remains C. Sherwood number
unchanged, what would be the ratio of the D. Fourier number
heads H1/H2?
List-II (Application)
a. 1/ 3 1. Mass transfer
b. 2/3 2. Unsteady state heat conduction
c. 3
0.25 3. Free convection
3 4. Forced convection
d. 05
Codes;
3. For calculation of heat transfer by natural
convection from a horizontal cylinder, A B C D
what is the characteristic length in Grashof a. 4 3 1 2
number? b. 3 4 1 2
a. Diameter of the cylinder c. 4 3 2 1
b. Length of the cylinder d. 3 4 2 1
c. Circumference of the base of the 7. Usually fins are provided to increase the
cylinder rate of heat transfer. But fins also act as
d. Half the circumference of the base of insulation. Which one of the following
the cylinder non-dimensional numbers decides this
4. Which one of the following non- factor?
dimensional numbers is used for transition a. Eckert number
from laminar to turbulent flow in free b. Biot number
convection? c. Fourier number
a. Reynolds number d. Peclet number
b. Grashof number 8. What is the expression for the thermal
c. Peclet number conduction resistance to heat transfer
d. Rayleigh number through a hollow sphere of inner radius r1
5. For steady, uniform flow through pipes and outer radius r2, and thermal
with constant heat flux supplied to the conductivity k?
wall, which is the value of Nusselt
a.
r2 r1 r1r2
number? 4 k
a. 48/11
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4 k r2 r1 2. Effectiveness
b.
r1r2 3. Nusselt number
r2 r1 4. Eddy diffusivity
c. Codes;
4 k r1r2
A B C D
d. None of these
a. 3 1 2 4
9. A composite wall having three layers of
thickness 0.3 m, 0.2 m and 0.1 m and of b. 2 4 3 1
thermal conductivities 0.6, 0.4 and 0.1 W/ c. 3 4 2 1
mK, respectively, is having surface area 1 d. 2 1 3 4
m2. If the inner and outer temperatures of
13. Throttle governing, in steam turbines
the composite wall are 1840 K and 340 K,
respectively, what is the rate of heat a. Leads to significant pressure loss
transfer? b. Increases the efficiency
a. 150 W c. Increases heat losses
b. 1500 W d. Decreases steam temperature
c. 75 W 14. An open cycle constant pressure gas
d. 750 W turbine uses a fuel of calorific value
40,000 kJ/kg, with air fuel ratio of 80 : 1
10. For conduction through a spherical wall
and develops a net output of 80 kJ/kg of
with constant thermal conductivity and
air. What is the thermal efficiency of the
with inner side temperature greater than
cycle?
outer wall temperature, (one dimensional
heat transfer), what is the type of a. 61%
temperature distribution? b. 16%
a. Linear c. 18%
b. Parabolic d. None of the above
c. Hyperbolic 15. Consider the following statements in
d. None of the above respect of gas turbines:
11. A wall of thickness 0.6 m has width has a A gas turbine plant with reheater leads to a
normal area 1.5 m2 and is made up of 1. Considerable improvement in the work
material of thermal conductivity 0.4 output.
W/mK. The temperatures on the two sides 2. Considerable improvement in the
are 8000 C and 1000 C. What is the thermal efficiency.
thermal resistance of the wall?
a. 1 W/K correct?
b. 1.8 W/K a. 1 only
c. 1 K/W b. 2 only
d. 1.8 K/W c. Both 1 and 2
12. Match List - I with List - II and select the d. Neither 1 nor 2
correct answer using the code given below
the lists:
Diesel knock can be reduced by
List-I
1. Increasing the compression ratio.
A. Heat Exchangers
2. Increasing the engine speed.
B. Turbulent flow
3. Increasing the injection retard.
C. Free convection
4. Decreasing the inlet air temperature.
D. Radiation heat transfer
List-II
correct?
1. View factor
3 of 14
a. 2 and 4 only a. Efficiency of the Carnot cycle for
b. 1, 2 and, only thermal power plant is high and work
ratio is also high in comparison to the
c. 1 and 3 only
Rankine cycle
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
b. Efficiency of the Carnot cycle is high
17. Which one of the following is correct? and work ratio is low in comparison to
When a real gas undergoes Joule - the Rankine cycle
Thomson expansion, the temperature c. Efficiency of the Carnot cycle is low
a. may remain constant. and work ratio is also low in
b. always increases. comparison to the Rankine cycle
c. may increase or decrease. d. Both the cycles have same efficiencies
and work ratio
d. always decreases.
21. Which property of mercury is the main
18. Which one of the following is correct? For
reason for its use in barometers?
the same net power output
a. High density
a. the turbine used in gas turbine power
plants is larger than that used in steam b. Negligible capillarity effect
power plants c. Very low vapour pressure
b. the turbine used in gas turbine power d. Low compressibility
plants is smaller than that used in 22. If the relationship between the shear stress
steam power plants and the rate of shear strain (du/dy) is
c. the same turbine can be used for both expressed as = (du/dy)n, then the fluid
plants with exponent n > 1 is known as which
d. None of the above one of the following?
19. Match List - I with List -II and select the a. Bingham plastic
correct answer using the code given below b. Dilatant fluid
the lists c. Newtonian fluid
List - I (Prime Mover) d. Pseudo plastic fluid
A. High speed diesel engine 23. What are the dimensions of kinematic
B. IC engine having expansion ratio viscosity of a fluid?
greater than compression ratio a. L T -2
C. Pulse jet engine b. L2 T-1
D. Gas turbine with multistage c. M L-1 T-1
compression and multistage expansion
d. M L-2 T-2
List -II (Air Standard Cycles)
24. The pressure difference of two very light
1. Atkinson cycle gases in two rigid vessels is being
2. Dual combustion (limited pressure) measured by a vertical U-tube water filled
cycle manometer. The reading is found to be 10
3. Ericsson cycle cm. What is the
4. Lenoir cycle 25. A circular plate 15 m diameter is
Codes; submerged in water with its greatest and
least depths below the surface being 2 m
A B C D and 075 m respectively. What is the total
a. 3 1 4 2 pressure (approximately) on one face of
b. 2 4 1 3 the plate?
c. 3 4 1 2 a. 12 kN
d. 2 1 4 3 b. l6 kN
20. Which one of the following statements is c. 24 kN
correct? d. None of the above
4 of 14
26. Whenever a plate is submerged at an angle 32. For maximum blade efficiency (utilization
with the direction of flow of liquid, it is factor), what is the work (J/kg) done in a
subjected to some pressure. What is the single stage 50% reaction turbine?
component of this pressure in the direction (where u = mean peripheral speed of the
of flow of liquid, known as? rotor in m/s)
a. Stagnation pressure a. 2 u2
b. Lift b. 11u2
c. Drag c. u3
d. Bulk modulus d. u2
27. Which one of the following is the correct 33. Which one of the following is the correct
statement? Performance of mechanical statement?
draft cooling tower is superior to natural
Specific speed of a fluid machine
draft with
a. refers to the speed of a machine of unit
a. increase in air wet bulb temperature
dimensions
b. decrease in air wet bulb temperature
b. is a type-number representative of its
c. increase in dry bulb temperature performance
d. increase in recirculation of air c. is specific to the particular machine
28. Resultant pressure of the liquid in case of d. depends only upon the head under
an immersed body acts through which one which the machine operates
of the following?
34. Which one of the following accessories is
a. Centre of gravity connected to the steam supply pipe line to
b. Centre of pressure maintain constant pressure?
c. Metacentre a. Pressure reducing valve
d. Centre of buoyancy b. Steam separator
29. A hydrometer weighs 003 N and has a c. Steam trap
stem at the upper end which is cylindrical d. Injector
and 3 mm in diameter. It will float deeper
35. Which one of the following fittings is
in oil of specific gravity O75, than in
mounted on the boiler to put off the fire in
alcohol of specific gravity 08 by how
the furnace, when water level falls to an
much amount?
unsafe limit?
a. 10.7 mm
a. Feed check valve
b. 43.3
b. Safety valve
c. 33 mm
c. Fusible plug
d. 36 mm
d. Blow off cock
30. Which one of the following pumps is not a
36. The combustion analysis carried out by the
positive displacement pump?
Orsat Apparatus renders which one of the
a. Reciprocating pump following?
b. Centrifugal pump a. The percentage composition by weight
c. Vane pump on the dry basis
d. Lobe pump b. The percentage. composition by
31. The overall efficiency of a pelton turbine volume on the dry basis
is 70%. If the mechanical efficiency is 85 c. The percentage composition by weight
%, what is its hydraulic efficiency? on the wet basis
a. 82.4% d. The percentage composition by
b. 59.5% volume on the wet basis
c. 72.3%
d. 81.5%
5 of 14
37. Which one of the following boiler a. Maximum efficiency but very less
accessories does not need flue-gas for its specific work output
operation? b. Maximum efficiency and very high
a. Economizer specific work output
b. Preheater c. Minimum efficiency and very less
c. Injector specific work output
d. Super heater d. Minimum efficiency but very high
specific work output
38. Consider the following statements in
respect of axial flow air compressors: 43. Which of the following techniques are
employed for control of reciprocating
1. An axial flow air compressor is often
compressors?
described as a reversed reaction
turbine. 1. Throttle control
2. With 50% degree of reaction, the 2. Clearance control
velocity diagrams are symmetrical 3. Blowing air to waste
Which of the statements given above is/are Select the correct answer using the code
correct? given below
a. 1 only a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 2 only b. 1 and 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2 c. 2 and 3 only
d. Neither 1 nor 2 d. 1 and 3 only
39. In a subsonic diffuser 44. Match List - I with List - II and select the
a. Static pressure increases with Mach correct answer using the code given below
number the lists
b. Mach number decreases with List - I (Name of Equipment)
increasing area ratio A. Fan
c. Static pressure decreases with Mach B. Blower
number C. Centrifugal air compressor
d. Area ratio decreases in the flow D. Axial flow air compressor
direction
List - II (Pressure Ratio)
1. 1.1
correct when saturation pressure of water
vapour increases? 2. 2.5
a. Saturation temperature decreases 3. 4
b. Enthalpy of evaporation decreases 4. 10
c. Enthalpy of evaporation increases Codes;
d. Specific volume change of phase A B C D
increases a. 2 1 3 4
41. Blade erosion in steam turbines takes place b. 1 2 3 4
a. Due to high temperature steam c. 1 2 4 3
b. Due to droplets in steam d. 2 1 4 3
c. Due to high rotational speed 45. Stalling phenomena in an axial flow
d. Due to high flow rate compressor stage is caused due to which
one of the following?
42. Use of maximum pressure ratio,
corresponding to maximum to minimum a. Higher mass flow rate than the
cycle temperature ratio in case of Joule designed value
cycle gives which one of the following? b. Lower mass flow rate than the
designed value
6 of 14
c. Higher mass flow rate or non- a. Curve A is for gray body, Curve B is
uniformity in the blade profile for black body, and Curve C is for
d. Lower mass flow rate or non- selective emitter
uniformity in the blade profile b. Curve A is for selective emitter, Curve
46. In a multi-stage axial flow compressor B is for black body, and Curve C is for
with equal temperature rise in all stages, gray body
the pressure ratio in the subsequent stages c. Curve A is for selective emitter, Curve
a. Remains constant B is for gray body, and Curve C is for
black body
b. Increases gradually
d. Curve A is for black body, Curve B is
c. Decreases
for gray body, and Curve C is for
d. Increases rapidly selective emitter
47. Consider the following statements in 51. What is the basic equation of thermal
respect of gas turbines: radiation from which all other equations of
1. Supersonic flow leads to decrease in radiation can be derived?
efficiency. a. Stefan - Boltzmann equation
2. Supersonic flow leads to decrease in b. Plancks equation
flow rate.
c. Wiens equation
d. Rayleigh Jeans formula
correct?
a. 1 only
correct?
b. 2 only
For a hemisphere, the solid angle is
c. Both 1 and 2 measured
d. Neither 1 nor 2 a. in radian and its maximum value is .
48. The concentration of pressure pulses b. in degree and its maximum value is
created by an object moving at Mach 180.
number of 0.5 is
c. in steradian and its maximum value is
a. Larger ahead of the object 2.
b. Larger behind the object d. in steradian and its maximum value is
c. Uniform within Mach cone .
d. Uniform outside Mach cone 53. For the radiation between two infinite
49. In a hydraulic coupling, what is the ratio of parallel planes of emissivity 1 and 2
speed of the turbine runner to that of the respectively, which one of the following is
pump impeller to maintain circulatory the expression for emissivity factor?
motion of oil? a. 1 2
a. < 1
1 1
b. = 1 b.
1 2
c. > 1
1
d. Can be any value c.
1 1
50.
1 2
1
d.
1 1
1
1 2
54. What is the radiation intensity in a
Consider the diagram given above. Which particular direction?
one of the following is correct? a. Radiant energy per unit time per unit
area of the radiating surface
7 of 14
b. Radiant energy per unit time per unit 59. Assertion (A): The power transmitted
solid angle per unit area of the through a pipe is maximum when the loss
radiating surface of head due to friction is equal to one-third
c. Radiant energy per unit time per unit of total head at the inlet.
solid angle per unit projected area of Reason (R): Velocity is maximum when
the radiating surface in the given the friction loss is one-third of the total
direction head at the inlet.
d. Radiant energy per unit time per unit a. Both A and R are individually true and
projected area of the radiating surface R is the correct explanation of A.
in the given direction b. Both A and R are individually true but
55. A refrigerating machine having coefficient R is not the correct explanation of A.
of performance equal to 2 is used to c. A is true but R is false
remove heat at the rate of 1200 kJ/min.
What is the power required for this
machine? 60. Assertion (A): Blood is a Newtonian fluid.
a. 80kW Reason (R): The rate of strain varies non-
linearly with shear stress for blood.
b. 60kW
c. 20 kW
d. 10 kW
56. When the Brayton cycle working in the R is not the correct explanation of A.
pressure limits of P1 and P2 is reversed and
operated as a refrigerator, what is the ideal
value of COP for such a cycle? d. A is false but R is true
61. Assertion (A): Runaway speed of a turbine
p2 / p1
1
a. 1
is the speed under maximum head at full
1 gate opening when the load is
b.
p2 / p1
1 disconnected suddenly.
1
Reason (R): The various rotating
1 components of the turbine are designed to
c.
p2 / p1
1 /
1 remain safe at the runaway speed.
d. None of the above
57. The throttling of certain gases may be used
for getting the refrigeration effect. What is
the value of Joule-Thomson coefficient ()
for such a throttling process? c. A is true but R is false
a. = 0 d. A is false but R is true
62. Assertion (A): Though head is added
b. = 1
during a polytrophic expansion process for
c. < 1 which > n > 1, the temperature of the gas
d. > 1 decreases during the process.
58. A heat pump works on a reversed Carnot Reason (R): The work done by the system
cycle. The temperature in the condenser exceeds the heat added to the system.
coils is 27 C and that in the evaporator a. Both A and R are individually true and
coils is - 23 C. For a work input of 1 kW, R is the correct explanation of A.
how much is the heat pumped?
a. 1 kW R is not the correct explanation of A.
b. 5 kW c. A is true but R is false
c. 6 kW d. A is false but R is true
d. None of the above
8 of 14
63. A Carnot engine uses nitrogen as the a. Ammonia
working fluid ( = 14). The heat supplied b. Freon 12
is 52 kJ and adiabatic expansion ratio 32
c. Helium
1. The receiver temperature is 295 K.
d. Water
What is the amount of heat rejected?
68. Which p v diagram for steam illustrates
a. 11kJ
correctly the isothermal process undergone
b. 13 kJ by wet steam till it becomes superheated?
c. 26 kJ a.
d. 28 kJ
64.
b.
Thermodynamic cycle shown above on the c.

temperature entropy diagram pertains to
which one of the following?
a. Stirling cycle
b. Ericsson cycle
c. Vapour compression cycle d.
d. Brayton cycle
65. Selection of .a refrigerant for a vapour-
compression system depends on which
among the following?
a. Toxicity 69. Consider the following statements
b. Environmental effect 1. A gas with a compressibility factor
c. Saturation pressure temperature more than 1 is more compressible than
relationship a perfect gas.
d. All of the above 2. The x and y axes of the compressibility
chart are compressibility factor on y-
66. Which of the following are intensive axis and reduced pressure on x-axis.
properties?
3. The first and second derivatives of the
1. Kinetic energy pressure with respect to volume at
2. Thermal conductivity critical points are zero.
3. Pressure Which of the statements given above is/are
4. Entropy correct?
Select the correct answer using the code a. 2 and 3 only
given below b. 1 and 3 only
a. 1 and 2 c. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2 and 3
c. 2, 3 and 4 70. Which one of the following relationships
d. 1, 3 and 4 defines the Helmholtz function F?
67. Which one of the following is the fluid a. FH + TS
whose properties in all its three phases are b. F = H - TS
made use of in thermodynamics? c. F = U - TS
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d. F = U + TV d. 300 kJ/kg
71. Consider the following statements in 75.
respect of the Clausius-Clapeyron
equation:
1. It points to one possible way of
measuring thermodynamic
temperature.
2. It permits latent heat of vaporization to Consider the four processes A, B, C and D
be estimated from measurements of shown in the graph given above:
specific volumes of saturated liquid, Match List - I with List - II and select the
saturated vapour and the saturation correct answer using the code given below
temperatures at two nearby pressures. the lists:
3. It does not apply to changes from solid List - I (Processes shown in the graph)
to the liquid phase and from solid to A. A
the vapour phase.
B. B
C. C
correct?
D. D
a. 1, 2 and 3
List - II (Index n in the equation pvn =
b. 1 and 2 only
Const)
c. 2 and 3 only
1. 0
d. 1 and 3 only
2. 1
72. Assigning the basic dimensions to mass,
3. 1.4
length, time and temperature respectively
as M, L, T and (Temperature), what are 4.
the dimensions of entropy? Codes;
a. M L T-2 A B C D
b. M L2 T-1 -1 a. 4 2 3 1
c. M L2 T-2 -1 b. 1 2 3 4
d. M L3 T2 -1 c. 1 3 2 4
73. Which thermodynamic property is d. 4 3 2 1
evaluated with the help of Maxwell 76. Which one of the following is correct?
equations from the data of other The cyclic integral of (Q - W) for a
measurable properties of a system? process is
a. Enthalpy a. positive
b. Entropy b. negative
c. Latent heat c. zero
d. Specific heat d. unpredictable
74. A fluid flowing along a pipe line 77. Which one of the following is correct on
undergoes a throttling process from 10 bar the basis of the second law of
to 1 bar in passing through a partially open thermodynamics?
valve. Before throttling, the specific
volume of the fluid is 0.5 m3/kg and after a. For any spontaneous process, the
throttling is 2.0 m3/kg. What is the change entropy of the universe increases
in specific internal energy during the b. S = qrev / T at constant temperature
throttling process? c. Efficiency of the Stirling cycle is more
a. Zero than that of a Carnot cycle
b. 100 kJ/kg d. E = q + w
c. 200 kJ/kg (the symbols have their usual meaning)
10 of 14
78. An insulated tank initially contains 0.25 kg a. 0.6
of a gas with an internal energy of 200 b. 0.65
kJ/kg. Additional gas with an internal
c. 0.7
energy of 300 d/kg and an enthalpy of 400
Id/kg enters the tank until the total mass of d. 0.75
gas contained is 1 kg. What is the final 82. If B is the centre of buoyancy, G is the
internal energy (in Id/kg) of the gas in the centre of gravity and M is the metacentre
tank? of a floating body, the body will be in
a. 250 stable equilibrium if
b. 275 a. MG = 0
c. 350 b. M is below G
d. None of the above c. BG = 0
79. Match List - I with List - II and select the d. M is above G
correct answer using the code given below 83. The metacentric height of a passenger ship
the lists is kept lower than that of a naval or a
List - I (Type of Thermometer) cargo ship because
A. Mercury-in-glass a. Apparent weight will increase
B. Thermocouple b. Otherwise it will be neutral
equilibrium
C. Thermistor
c. It will decrease the frequency of
D. Constant volume gas
rolling
List - II (Thermometric Property)
d. Otherwise it will sink and be totally
1. Pressure immersed
2. Electrical resistance 84. An open circular cylinder 12 m high is
3. Volume filled with a liquid to its top. The liquid is
4. Induced electric voltage given a rigid body rotation about the axis
of the cylinder and the pressure at the
Codes;
centre line at the bottom surface is found
A B C D to be 0.6 m of liquid. What is the ratio of
a. 1 4 2 3 volume of liquid spilled out of the cylinder
b. 3 2 4 1 to the original volume?
c. 1 2 4 3 a. 1/4
d. 3 4 2 1 b. 3/8
80. Which one of the following statements is c. 1/2
correct? d. 3/4
a. Compressibility factor is unity for ideal 85. Which one of the following is the correct
gases statement?
b. Compressibility factor is zero for ideal Streamline, path line and streak line are
gases identical when the
c. Compressibility factor is lesser than a. flow is steady
unity for ideal gases b. flow is uniform
d. Compressibility factor is more than c. flow velocities do not change steadily
unity for ideal gases with time
81. A wooden rectangular block of length l is d. flow is neither steady nor uniform
made to float in water with its axis
86. In a cylindrical vortex motion about a
vertical. The centre of gravity of the
vertical axis, r1 and r2 are the radial
floating body is 0.15 l above the centre of
distances of two points on the horizontal
buoyancy. What is the specific gravity of
plane (r2 > r1). If for a given tangential
the wooden block?
fluid velocity at r1, the pressure difference
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between the points in free vortex is one-
half of that when the vortex is a forced
one, then what is the value of the ratio
(r2/r1)?
a. 3/ 2
b. 2 A cylindrical object is rotated with
c. 3/2 constant angular velocity about its
d. 3 symmetry axis in a uniform flow field of
an ideal fluid producing streamlines as
2 2 shown in the figure given above. At which
87. The relation 0 for an
x 2 y 2 point(s), is the pressure on the cylinder
irrotational flow is known as which one of surface maximum?
the following? a. Only at point 3
a. Navier-Stokes equation b. Only at point 2
b. Laplace equation c. At points 1 and 3
c. Reynolds equation d. At points 2 and 4
d. Eulers equation 91. Which one of the following statements is
88. Which one of the following stream correct for reciprocating air compressor?
functions is a possible irrotational flow a. Its volumetric efficiency increases with
field? increasing clearance ratio
a. y 2 x 2 b. Its volumetric efficiency increases with
increasing pressure ratio
b. Ax 2 y 2
c. Its volumetric efficiency does not vary
c. A sin xy with change in clearance ratio and
pressure ratio
d. Ax By 2
d. Its volumetric efficiency decreases
89. Match List - I with List -II and select the with increasing clearance ratio and
correct answer using the code given below pressure ratio, both
the lists 92. Piston compression rings are made of
List - I (Condition) which one of the following?
A. Existence of stream function a. Cast iron
B. Existence of velocity potential b. Bronze
C. Absence of temporal variations c. Aluminium
D. Constant velocity vector d. White metal
List - II (Regulating Fact) 93. Which one of the following
1. Irrotationality of flow thermodynamic processes approximates
the steaming of food in a pressure cooker?
2. Continuity of flow
a. Isenthalpic
3. Uniform flow
b. Isobaric
4. Steady flow
c. Isochoric
Codes;
d. Isothermal
A B C D
94. For a conventional S.I. engine, what is the
a. 4 3 2 1
value of fuel-air ratio in the normal
b. 2 1 4 3 operating range?
c. 4 1 2 3 a. 0.056 0.083
d. 2 3 4 1 b. 0.083 0.56
90. c. 0.0056 0.83
12 of 14
d. 0.056 0.83 The turbine of the turbo-prop engine as
95. The Cetane number of automotive diesel compared to that of the turbojet engine is
fuel used in India is in which one of the a. similar
following ranges? b. smaller
a. 3040 c. bigger
b. 4150 d. unpredictable
c. 51 60 100. Which one of the following automobile
d. 61 70 exhaust gas pollutants is a major cause of
96. The delay period in CI engine depends photochemical smog?
upon which of the following? a. CO
a. Temperature and pressure in the b. FK
cylinder at the time of injection c. NOx
b. Nature of the fuel mixture strength d. SOx
c. Relative velocity between the fuel 101. The Orsat apparatus, which gives
injection and air turbulence pressure of volumetric percentage of four constituents
residual gases of diy flue gas, is arranged for absorption
d. All of the above of three gases and the fourth content being
97. Match List - I with List -II and select the obtained by difference.
correct answer using the code given below Match List - I with List -II and select the
the lists correct answer using the code given below
List - I (SI Engine Operational Mode) the lists:
A. Idling List - I (Gases)
B. Cruising A. Carbon dioxide
C. Maximum Power B. Carbon monoxide
D. Cold starting C. Oxygen
List-II (A/F Ratio Supplied by the D. Nitrogen
Carburetor) List - II (Solution for Absorption/By
1. 3 difference)
2. 10 1. By difference
3. 13 2. Caustic soda
4. 16 3. Pyrogallic acid
5. 20 4. Cuprous chloride
Codes; Codes;
A B C D A B C D
a. 2 4 5 1 a. 2 1 4 3
b. 4 5 3 2 b. 4 3 2 1
c. 2 4 3 1 c. 2 3 4 1
d. 4 5 3 1 d. 4 1 2 3
98. What is the main objective of 102.
supercharging of the engine?
a. To reduce the mass of the engine per
brake power
b. To reduce space occupied by engine
Which one of the following is represented
c. To increase the power output of engine by the molecular structure of the paraff1n
d. All of the above family of hydrocarbon fuel given above,
99. Which one of the following is correct? for an IC engine?
13 of 14
a. Ethane List -II (Variable to be measured)
b. Propane 1. Discharge
c. Butane 2. Rotational speed
d. Hexane 3. Velocity fluctuations
103. Uranium 238 is represented as 92U238. 4. Stagnation pressure
What does it imply? Codes;
a. It has 92 protons and 146 neutrons A B C D
b. It has 146 protons and 92 electrons a. 4 3 2 1
c. It has 92 protons and 238 neutrons b. 3 4 2 1
d. It has 92 neutrons and 238 protons c. 4 3 1 2
104. For a pure substance, what are the d. 3 4 1 2
numbers of the thermodynamic degree of
108. An orifice meter, having an orifice of
freedom for saturated vapour and
diameter d is fitted in a pipe of diameter D.
superheated vapour, respectively?
For this orifice meter, what is the
a. 1 and 1 coefficient of discharge Cd?
b. 1 and 2 a. A function of Reynolds number only
c. 2 and 1 b. A function of d/D only
d. 2 and 2 c. A function of d/D and Reynolds
105. One kg of ice at 0C is completely melted number
into water at 0C at 1 bar pressure. The d. Independent of d/D and Reynolds
latent heat of fusion of water is 333 kJ/kg number
and the densities of water and ice at 0C
109. The velocity of a water stream is being
are 9990 kg/m3 and 9160 kg/m3,
measured by a L-shaped Pitot-tube and the
respectively. What are the approximate
reading is 20 cm. Then, what is the
values of the work done and energy
approximate value of velocity?
transferred as heat for the process,
respectively? a. 196 m/s
a. - 94 J and 333.0 kJ b. 20 m/s
b. 94 J and 333.0 kJ c. 98 m/s
c. 333.0 kJ and - 94 J d. 20 cm/s
d. None of the above 110. Which one of the following conditions will
linearize the Navier Stokes equations to
106. Velocity for flow through a pipe, measured
make it amenable for analytical solutions?
at the centre is found to be 2 m/s.
Reynolds number is around 800. What is a. Low Reynolds number (Re << 1)
the average velocity in the pipe 9 b. High Reynolds number (Re >> 1)
a. 2 m/s c. Low Mach number (M << 1)
b. 17 m/s d. High Mach number (M >> 1)
c. 1 m/s 111. The head loss in turbulent flow in pipe
d. 05 m/s varies
107. Match List - I with List-II and select the a. Directly as the velocity
correct answer using, the code given below b. Inversely as the square of the velocity
the lists c. Inversely as the square of the diameter
List - I (Measuring Instrument) d. Approximately as the square of the
A. Hot-wire anemometer velocity
B. Pitot-tube 112. A ships model, with scale 1 : 100, has a
C. V-notch weir wave resistance of 10 N at its design
D. Tachometer
14 of 14
speed. What is the corresponding a. N
Prototype wave resistance in kN? b. N2
a. 100 c. N3
b. 1000 d. N4
c. 10000 117. The vanes of a centrifugal pump are
d. Cannot be determined because of generally
insufficient data a. Radial
113. In a fluid machine, the relevant parameters b. Curved backward
are volume flow rate, density, viscosity,
c. Curved forward
bulk modulus, pressure difference, power
consumption, rotational speed and d. Twisted
characteristic dimension. Using the 118. The use of a draft tube in a reaction type
Buckingham pi () theorem, what would water turbine helps to
be the number of independent non- a. Prevent air from entering
dimensional groups?
b. Increase the row rate
a. 3
c. Convert the kinetic energy to pressure
b. 4 energy
c. 5 d. Eliminate eddies in the downstream
d. None of the above 119. Consider the following statements:
114. Across a normal shock wave in a 1. The phenomenon of lift produced by
converging-diverging nozzle for adiabatic imposing circulation over a doublet in
flow, which of the following relations are a uniform flow is known as Magnus
valid? effect.
a. Continuity and energy equations, 2. The path-deviation of a cricket ball
equation of state, isentropic relation from its original trajectory is due to the
b. Energy and momentum equations, Magnus effect.
equation of state, isentropic relation Which of the statements given above is/are
c. Continuity, energy and momentum correct?
equations, equation of state a. 1 only
d. Equation of state, isentropic relation, b. 2 only
momentum equation, mass
c. Both 1 and 2
conservation principle
d. Neither 1 nor 2
correct about the Fanno flow? 120. The specified speed (NS) of a water turbine
is expressed by which one of the following
a. For an initially subsonic flow, the
equations?
effect of friction is to decrease the
Mach number towards unity N p
a. Ns
b. For an initially supersonic flow, the H 5/4
effect of friction is to increase the N p
Mach number towards unity b. N s
H 3/4
c. At the point of maximum entropy, the
Mach number is unity N Q
c. Ns
d. Stagnation pressure always increases H 5/4
along the Fanno line N Q
116. The power absorbed by a hydrazine pump d. N s
H 3/4
is directly proportional to which one of the
following?
(Where N is the rotational speed of the
pump)
I.E.S (OBJ) 2008 1 of 14
PAPER-I
1. In an open U tube containing mercury, 2. Cooling and dehumidification
kerosene of specific gravity 0-8 is poured 3. Cooling and humidification
into one of its limbs so that the length of
4. Heating and humidification
column of kerosene is about 40 cm. The
level of mercury column in that limb is Code:
lowered approximately by how much? A B C D
a. 2.4 cm a. 2 1 4 3
b. 1.2 cm b. 4 3 2 1
c. 3.6 cm c. 2 3 4 1
d. 0.6 cm d. 4 1 2 3
2. Which one of the following is correct? The 5. Which one of the following is correct? On
capillary rise on depression in a small psychrometric chart, the constant wet. bulb
diameter tube is temperature lines coincide with
a. directly proportional to the specific a. constant relative humidity lines
weight of the fluid b. constant enthalpy lines
b. inversely proportional to the surface c. constant dew point temperature lines
tension d. constant volume lines
c. inversely proportional to the diameter
6. Which one of the following is correct? In a
d. directly proportional to the surface area sensible heating or cooling process
3. What is the pressure inside a soap bubble, a. dry bulb temperature remains constant
over the atmospheric pressure if its
b. wet bulb temperature remains constant
diameter is 2 cm and the surface tension is
N c. the humidity ratio remains constant
0.1 ? d. the relative humidity remains constant
m
a. 0.4 N/m2 7. Which one of the following is correct?
Equal friction method of designing ducts is
b. 4.0 N/m2 preferred
c. 40.0 N/m2 a. when system is balanced
d. 400. N/m2 b. when system is not balanced
4. Match List I with List II and select the c. only for return ducts
the lists: d. for any system
List I 8. Which non-dimensional number relates the
thermal boundary layer and hydrodynamic
(Devices) boundary layer?
A. Cooling tower a. Rayleigh number
B. Air coolers b. Peclet number
C. Evaporator coil c. Grashof number
D. Air cooled condenser d. Prandtl number
List II 9. Match List I with List II and select the
(Process undergone by air) correct answer using the code given below
1. Heating the lists:
2 of 14
List-I d. loge 2 : loge 3
(Application) 13. In which one of the following materials, is
A. Gas to liquid. the heat energy propagation minimum due
to conduction heat transfer?
B. Space vehicle
a. Lead
C. Condenser
b. Copper
D. Air pre-heater
c. Water
List-II
d. Air
(Type of Heat Exchanger)
1. Compact
2. Shell and Tube the lists:
3. Finned tube List I
4. Regenerative A. Heat transfer through solid
Code : B. Heat transfer from hot surface to
A B C D surrounding fluid
a. 2 4 3 1 C. Heat transfer in boiling liquid
b. 3 1 2 4 D. Heat transfer from one body another
c. 2 1 3 4 body separated in space
d. 3 4 2 1 List II
10. Which one of the following is correct? 1. Radiation heat transfer
Fins are used to increase the heat transfer 2. Fouriers law of heat conduction
from a surface by 3. Convection heat transfer
a. increasing the temperature difference 4. Newtons law of cooling
b. increasing the effective surface area Code:
c. increasing the convective heat transfer A B C D
coefficient
a. 3 1 2 4
d. none of the above
b. 2 4 3 1
11. The value of thermal conductivity of
c. 2 1 3 4
thermal insulation applied to a hollow
spherical vessel containing very hot d. 3 4 2 1
W 15.
material is 0.5 . The convective
mK
heat transfer coefficient at the outer
surface of insulation is 10 W/m2 K. What
is the critical radius of the sphere?
a. 0.1 m
b. 0.2 m
A wall as shown above, is made up of two
c. 1.0 m layers (A) and (B). The temperatures are
d. 2.0 m also shown in the sketch. The ratio of
12. A composite wall of a furnace has 2 layers thermal conductivity of two layers is
of equal thickness having thermal kA
2
conductivities in the ratio of 3 : 2. What is kB
the ratio of the temperature drop across the
two layers? What is the ratio of thickness of two
layers?
a. 2 : 3
a. 0.105
b. 3 : 2
b. 0.213
c. 1 2
c. 0.555
3 of 14
d. 0.840 Reason (R): The distance of the
16. What is the critical radius of insulation for centre of pressure from the free surface of
a sphere equal to? the liquid for a vertical surface submerged
in a liquid is independent of the density of
W
k thermal conductivity in
the liquid.

mK 21. A rectangular plate 0.75m x 2.4 m is
h heat transfer coefficient in W immersed in a liquid of relative density

m2 K 0.85 with its 0.75 m side horizontal and
a. 2kh just at the water surface. If the plane of
plate makes an angle of 600 with the
b. 2k/h
horizontal, what is the approximate
c. k/h pressure force on one side of the plate?
d. 2kh a. 7.80 kN
b. 15.60 kN
Directions : Each of the following four (4) items c. 18.00 kN
consists of two statements, one labelled as the d. 24.00 kN
Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (RY Yu 22. The stream function in a flow field is
are to examine these two statements carefully and
given by = 2xy. In the same flow field,
select the answers to these items using the codes
what is the velocity at a point (2, 1)?
given below:
a. 4 unit
Codes:
b. 5.4 unit
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R
is the correct explanation of A c. 1.73 unit
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is d. 4.47 unit
not the correct explanation of A 23. A steady, incompressible flow is given by:
(c) A is true but R is false u = 2x2 + y2 and v = - 4xy
(d) A is false but R is true What is the convective acceleration along
x-direction at point (1, 2)?
a. ax = 6unit
17. Assertion (A): In the boundary layer b. ax = 24 unit
concept, the shear stress at the outer edge c. ax = 8 unit
of the layer is considered to be zero. d. ax = -24 unit
Local velocity is almost equal to velocity 24. Which one of the following is correct? For
in potential flow. flow of an ideal fluid over a cylinder, from
18. Assertion (A): A normal shock wave can the front stagnation point,
occur at any section in a convergent- a. pressure first decreases then increases
divergent nozzle.
b. velocity first decreases then increases
Reason (R): A normal shock wave occurs
c. pressure remains the same
only when the flow of the fluid is
supersonic and the subsequent flow after d. velocity remains the same
the shock is subsonic. 25. Two flows are specified as
19. Assertion (A): Non-metals are having A. u y, v = - (3/2)x
higher thermal conductivity than metals. B. u = xy2, v = x2y
Reason (R): Free electrons in the metals Which one of the following can be
are higher than those of non metals. concluded
20. Assertion (A): The centre of pressure for a a. Both flows are rotational
vertical surface submerged in a liquid lies b. Both flows are irrotational
above the centroid (centre of gravity) of
the vertical surface. c. Flow A is rotational while flow B is
irrotational
4 of 14
d. Flow A is irrotational while flow B is d. 30 C
rotational 31. Two polytropic processes undergone by a
26. Which one of the following is correct? In perfect gas are shown below in the
the flow past bluff bodies pressure-volume co-ordinates.
a. pressure drag is smaller than friction
drag -
b. friction drag occupies the major part of
total drag
c. pressure drag occupies the major part Which representation shows correctly the
of total drag above processes on the temperature -
d. pressure drag is less than that of entropy co-ordinates ?
streamlined body
27. Which one of the following is correct? In a
fully developed region of the pipe flow,
a. the velocity profile continuously a.
changes from linear to parabolic shape
b. the pressure gradient remains constant
in the downstream direction
c. the pressure gradient continuously
changes exceeding the wall shear stress
in the downstream direction
d. the pipe is not running full
28. A balloon which is initially collapsed and b.
flat is slowly filled with a gas at 100 kPa
so as to form it into a sphere of 1 m radius.
What is the work done by the gas in the
balloon during the filling process?
a. 428.9 kJ
b. 420.9 kJ
c. 416.9 kJ
d. 418.9 kJ
29. An ideal gas at 27 C is heated at constant c.
pressure till its volume becomes three
times. What would be then the temperature
of gas?
a. 81 C
b. 627 C
c. 543 C
d. 327 C
30. A 4 kW, 20 litre water heater is switched d.
on for 10 minutes. The heat capacity C, for
water is 4 kJ/kg K. Assuming all the
electrical energy has gone into heating the
water, what is the increase of the water 32. A Carnot engine operates between 327 C
temperature? and 27C. If the engine produces 300 kJ of
a. 15 C work, entropy change during heat what is
the addition?
b. 20C
a. 0.5 kJ/K
c. 26 C
b. 1.0 kJ/K
5 of 14
c. 1.5 kJ/K b. Q = Q1 - Q2, H = H1 - H2
d. 2.0 kJ/K c. Q = Q1 = Q2, H = H1 = H2
33. Which of the following statements is d. Q = Q1 + Q2, H = H1 = H2
correct? 38. Why is multi-staging in centrifugal pumos
a. The increase in entropy is obtained used?
from a given quantity of heat transfer a. For high flow rate
at a low temperature.
b. For high head
b. The change in entropy may be
c. For high speed
regarded as a measure of the rate, of
the availability of heat for d. For high efficiency
transformation into work. 39. Consider the following statements in
c. The entropy represents the maximum respect of Kaplan Turbine:
amount of work obtainable per degree 1. It is a reaction turbine.
drop in temperature 2. It is a mixed flow turbine.
d. All of the above 3. It has adjustable blades.
34. What is the loss of avai1able energy Which of the statements given above are
associated with the transfer of 1000 kJ of correct?
heat from a constant temperature system at
a. 1, 2 and 3
600 K to another at 400 K when the
environmental temperature is 300 K? b. 2 and 3 only
a. 150 kJ c. 1 and 3 only
b. 250 kJ d. 1 and 2 only
c. 166.67 kJ 40. Which one of the following is correct?
d. 180 kJ If the number of jets in a Peltron turbine is
n, then the specific speed is
35. Why is an air vessel used in a
reciprocating pump? a. n2
a. To obtain a continuous supply of water b. n
at uniform rate c. n1/2
b. To reduce suction head.. d. independent of n
c. To increase the delivery head 41. Which one of the following is correct?
d. To reduce cavitation A turbine pump is basically a centrifugal
36. Centrifugal pumps have which of the pump equipped additionally With
following advantages? a. backward curved blades
1. Low initial cost b. vaned diffusion casing
2. Compact, occupying less floor space c. inlet guide blades
3. Easy handling of highly viscous fluids d. adjustable blades
Select the correct answer using the code 42. What does Eulers equation of turbo
given below: machines relate to ?
a. 1, 2 and 3 a. Discharge and power
b. 1 and 2 only b. Discharge and velocity
c. 1 and 3 only c. Head and power
d. 2 and 3orily d. Head and velocity
37. Two pumps can operate independently at 43. Which one of the following is correct?
heads H1, H2 and discharge Q1, Q2,
respectively; If the pumps are connected in A nydraulic coupling
parallel, then what are the resulting a. connects two shafts rotating at about
discharge (Q) and head (H)? the same speed
a. Q = Q1 + Q2, H = H1 + H2
6 of 14
b. connects two shafts running at b. Low pressure ratio, low mass
different speeds flow
c. is used to augment the torque to the c. High pressure ratio, high mass flow
driven shaft d. Low pressure ratio, high mass flow
d. is used to connect the centrifugal pump 50. Which one of the following is correct? In
and its electrical motor for efficient ideal regenerative cycle the temperature of
operation steam entering the turbine is same as that
44. Why are surge tanks used in a pipe line? of
a. To reduce frictional loss in pipe a. water entering the turbine
b. To ensure uniform flow in pipe b. water leaving the turbine
c. To relieve the pressure due to water c. steam leaving the turbine
hammer d. water at any section of the turbine
d. To reduce cavitation 51. Which one of the following is correct? In a
45. Which one of the following is correct? gas turbine cycle with regeneration,
Water-tube boilers are preferred for a. pressure ratio increases
a. high pressure and high output b. work output decreases
b. high pressure and low output c. thermal efficiency increases
c. low pressure and high output d. heat input increases
d. low pressure and low output 52. Consider the following statements
46. Which one of the following is correct? For pertaining to specific speed of turbo
incompressible flow a diverging section machines:
acts as a diffuser for upstream flow which 1. Specific speed varies with shape of the
is runner and other parts of the machine.
a. subsonic only 2. Machines with highen specific speeds
b. supersonic only are limited to low heads.
c. both subsonic and supersonic 3. Specific speed is dimensionless and 18
d. sonic independent of variation of type of
fluid used.
47. Given,
s = stage efficiency
correct?
n = nozzle efficiency a. 1, 2 and 3
b = blade efficiency. b. 1 and 2 only
Which one of the following is correct? c. 2 and 3 only
a. n = nn d. 1 and 3 only
b. b = sn 53. In which one of the following processes, in
c. b x b x s = 1 a dosed system the thermal energy
d. s = bn transferred to a gas is completely
converted to internal energy resulting in an
48. Which one of the following types of increase in gas temperature?
impeller vanes are most commonly used in
centrifugal type compressors? a. Isochoric process
a. Forward curved b. Adiabatic process
b. Radial c. Isothermal process
c. Backward curved d. Free expansion
d. Tangential 54. Which one of the following expresses the
reversible work done by the system
49. A centrifugal compressor is suitable for (steady flow between states 1 and 2?
which of the following?
a. High pressure ratio, low mass flow
7 of 14
2 Carbon-monoxide
a. p dv Hydrogen, and
1
Sulphur
2
b. v dp What is the amount of oxygen (in kg)
1 required for complete combustion of each
2
one of the above respectively?
c. p dv a. 1, 8, 8/3, 4/7
1 b. 4/7, 1, 8, 8/3
2 c. 8/3, A./7, 8, 1
d. v dp
1
d. 8, 1, 4/7, 8/3
55. The change In specific entropy of a system 60. Consider the following nuclear fuels:
undergoing a reversible process is given 1. Pu239
by 2. U235
s2 - s1 (cp - cv) In (v2/v1). 3. U233
This is valid for which one of the 4. Th232
following? What is the correct sequence of the above
a. Adiabatic process undergone by an nuclear fuels in order of increasing half
ideal gas life?
b. Isothermal process undergone by an a. 1-2-3-4
ideal gas b. 1-3-2-4
c. Polytropic process undergone by a real c. 2-4-3-1
gas
d. 4-1-2-3
d. Isobaric phase change from liquid to
vapour 61. Which one of the following statements is
correct?
56. Which one of the following is correct? The
specific volume of water when heated The mass defect is
from 00C a. a characteristic of certain elements
a. first increases and then decreases b. a term used to prove the relationship
b. first decreases and then increases between mass and energy
c. increases steadily c. a measure of fission energy
d. decreases steadily d. the difference between mass of the
nucleus and sum of the masses of the
57. Which one of the following is correct? At nucleons
critical point the enthalpy of vaporization
is 62. Uranium 238 is represented by 99U238.
What does it represent?
a. dependent on temperature only
a. 92 neutrons and 238 protons
b. maximum
b. 92 protons and 238 neutrons
c. minimum
c. 92 neutrons and 146 protons
d. zero
d. 92 protons and 146 neutrons
58. Which one of the following set of
materials is most commonly used in 63. Match List I with List II and select the
catalytic converters for CI engines? correct answer using the code given below
lists
a. Platinum, palladium and rhodium
List I
b. Palladium, rhodium and ruthenium
(Law)
c. Rhodium, ruthenium and platinum
A. Fouriers Law
d. Ruthenium, platinum and palladium
B. Stefan Boltzmann Law
59. Consider the following:
C. Newtons Law of Cooling
Carbon
8 of 14
D. Ficks Law 1. Vapour pressure of water at 373
List II K is 101.5 X 103 N/m2.
(Effect) 2. Capillary height in cm for water in
contact with glass tube and air is (tube
1. Mass transfer
dia)/0.268.
2. Conduction
3. Blood is a Newtonian fluid.
3. Convection
4. Radiation correct?
Code: a. 1 only
A B C D b. 1 and 3
a. 3 1 2 4 c. 1 and 2
b. 2 4 3 1 d. 2 only
c. 3 4 2 1 68. What is the unit of dynamic viscosity of a
d. 2 1 3 4 fluid termed poise equivalent to?
64. Two walls of same thickness and cross a. dyne/cm2
sectional area, have thermal conductivities b. gms/cm
in the ratio 1: 2. If same temperature
c. dyne s/cm2
difference is maintained across the two
faces of both the walls, what is the ratio of d. gm-cm/s
heat flow Q1/Q2 ? 69. What is the pressure difference between
a. 1/2 inside and outside of a droplet of water?
b. 1 a. 2/d
c. 2 b. 4/d
d. 4 c. 8/d
65. A fin of length l protrudes from a surface d. 12/d
held at temperature T0; it being higher than where is the surface tension and d is
the ambient temperature Ta The heat the diameter of the droplet.
dissipation from the free end of the fin is
stated to be negligibly small. What is the 70. The lower portion of a U-tube of uniform
bore having both limbs vertical and open
dT to atmosphere, is initially filled with a
temperature gradient at the tip
dx x l liquid of specific gravity 3S. A lighter
of the fin? liquid of specific gravity S is then poured
a. Zero into one of the limbs such that the length
of column of lighter liquid is X. What is
T T
b. 0 l the resulting movement of the meniscus of
l the heavier liquid in the other limb?
c. h T0 Ta a. X
T1 Ta b. X/2
d. c. X/3
T0 Ta
d. X/6
66. Which one of the following is correct? The
effectiveness of a fin will be maximum in 71. How is the difference of pressure head,
an environment with h measured by a mercury-oil differential
manometer expressed?
a. free convection.
Sg
b. forced convection a. h x 1
c. radiation S0
d. convection and radiation b. h x S g S0
67. Consider the following statements related
to the fluid properties:
9 of 14
c. h x S 0 S g where I = Moment of inertia of the
plan of the floating body at the water
Sg surface
d. h x 1 V = Volume of the body submerged in
S0
water
where x = manometer reading; Sg and S0 BG = Distance between the centre of
are
gravity (G) and the centre of buoyancy
the specific gravities of mercury and oil, (B).
respectively. 76. Stability of a floating body can be
72. What is the vertical component of pressure improved by which of the following?
force on submerged curved surface equal 1. Making its width large
to?
2. Making the draft small
a. Its horizontal component
3. Keeping the centre of mass low
b. The force on a vertical projection of
the curved surface 4. Reducing its density
c. The product of the pressure at centroid Select the correct answer using the code
and surface area given below
d. The gravity force of liquid vertically a. 1, 2, 3 and 4
above the curved surface up to the free b. 1, 2 and 3 only
surface c. 1 and 2 only
73. What is the depth of centre of pressure of a d. 3 and 4 only
vertical immersed surface from free 77. The distance from the centre of buoyancy
surface of liquid equal to? to the meta-centre is given by I/Vd, where
IG Vd is the volume of fluid displaced. What
a. h
Ah does I represent ?
I A a. Moment of inertia of a horizontal
b. G h section of the body taken at the surface
h
of the fluid
IG h
c. h b. Moment of inertia about its vertical
A centroidal axis
Ah c. Polar moment of inertia
d. h
IG d. Moment of inertia about its horizontal
(Symbols have their usual meaning) centroidal axis
74. What is buoyant force? 78. What acceleration would cause the free
surface of a liquid contained in an open
a. Lateral force acting on a submerged tank moving in a horizontal track to dip by
body 450?
b. Resultant force acting on a submerged a. g/2
body
b. 2g
c. Resultant force due to water on a body
c. g
d. Resultant hydrostatic force on a body
due to fluid surrounding it d. (3/2)g
75. How is the metacentric expressed? height, 79.
GM
a. GM = BG-(I/V)
b. GM = (V/I)- BG
c. GM = U/V)-BG
d. GM = BG- (V/I) The temperature distribution curve for a
heat exchanger as shown in the figure
10 of 14
above (with usual notations) refers to b. 1 and 2
which one of the following? c. 3 and 4
a. Tubular parallel flow heat exchanger d. 4 only
b. Tube in tube counter flow heat 83. Schmidt number is ratio of which of the
exchanger following?
c. Boiler a. Product of mass transfer coefficient
d. Condenser and diameter to diffusivity of fluid
80. The NTU (Number of Transfer Units) in b. Kinematic viscosity to. Thermal
a heat exchanger is given by which one of diffusivity of fluid
the following? c. Kinematic viscosity to diffusion
UA coefficient of fluid
a.
Cmin d. Thermal diffusivity to diffusion
coefficient of fluid
UA
b. 84. What is the equivalent emissivity for
Cmax
radiant heat exchange between V a V
UA small body (emissivity = 0.4) in a very
c.
E large enclosure (emissivity = 0.5)?
Cmax a. 0.5
d.
Cmin b. 0.4
A = Heat exchange area c. 0.2
U = Overall heat transfer coefficient d. 0.1
C = Heat capacity 85. The heat exchange between a small body
having emissivity 1 and area A1 and a
E = Effectiveness
large enclosure having emissivity 2 and
81. A sphere, a cube and a thin circular plate, area A2 is given by:

all made of same material and having same
mass are initially heated to a temperature q1 2 A11 T14 T24
of 2500 C and then left in air at room
temperature for cooling. Then, which one What is the assumption for this equation?
of the following is correct? a. 2=1
a. All will be cooled at the same rate b. 2 = 0
b. Circular plate will be cooled at lowest c. A1 is very small as compared to A2
rate d. Small body is at centre of enclosure
c. Sphere will be cooled faster 86. For simple vapour compression cycle,
d. Cube will be cooled faster than sphere enthalpy at suction = 1600 kJ/kg, V
but slower than circular plate enthalpy at discharge from the compressor
82. Natural convection heat transfer 1800 kJ/kg, enthalpy at exit from
coefficients over surface of a vertical pipe condenser = 600 kJ/kg. What is the COP
and vertical flat plate for same height and for this refrigeration cycle?
fluid are equal. What is/are the possible a. 3.3
reasons for this? b. 5.0
1. Some height c. 4
2. Both vertical d. 4.5
3. Same fluid 87. Match List I with List II and select the
4. Same fluid flow pattern correct answer using the code given below
Select the correct answer using the code the lists:
given below List-I
a. 1 only (Cycle)
11 of 14
A. Air refrigeration 92. Which of the folio wing properties
B. Vapour compression refrigeration decrease(s) with sensible heating of air-
water vapour mixture?
C. Vapour absorption refrigeration
1. Relative humidity
D. Steam jet refrigeration
2. Humidity ratio
List-II
3. Specific enthalpy of air-vapour
(Equipment)
mixture
1. Absorber
4. Wet bulb temperature
2. Flash chamber
Select the correct answer using the code
3. Turbine given below
4. Compressor a. 1 only
Code: b. 1 and 3
A B C D c. 2 and 3
a. 3 2 1 4 d. 2 and 4
b. 1 4 3 2 93. Consider the following statements
c. 3 4 1 2 regarding psydnometric processes:
d. 1 2 3 4 1. Sensible heating is a process in which
88. What is an azeotrope? moisture content remains unchanged.
a. A non-halogenic refrigerant 2. In the dehumidification process the
b. A refrigerant dissolved in alcohol dew point temperature remains same.
c. A mixture of refrigerants without 3. The process of adding moisture at
phase separation constant dry bulb temperature is
known as pure humidification process.
d. An eco-friendly refrigerant
89. Which one of the following is correct? correct?
Environmental protection agencies advise
against the use of chlorofluorocarbon a. 1 and 2
refrigerants because these react with b. 1 and 3
a. water vapour and cause acid rain c. 2 and 3
b. plants and cause green house effect d. 1 only
c. oxygen and cause its depletion 94. Consider the following statements:
d. ozone layer and cause its depletion In a psychrometric chart
90. What is hunting of thermostatic expansion 1. vertical lines indicate wet bulb
valve? temperature.
a. A variation of evaporator load with 2. horizontal lines indicate relative
degree of super heat humidity.
b. A variation in pressure of the 3. sensible heating or cooling is
evaporator with variation of load represented by an inclined line.
c. Alternate overfeeding and starving of Which of the statements given above is/are
refrigerant flow in the evaporator correct?
d. This is not used in connection with a. 1 only
expansion valve b. 2 only
91. On a psychrometric chart, what does a c. 3 only
vertical downward line represent? d. 1, 2 and 3
a. Adiabatic saturation 95. Which one of the following is correct?
b. Sensible cooling During sensible cooling of moist air, its
c. Dehumidification relative humidity
d. Humidification a. increases
12 of 14
b. does not change 1. Decrease in compression ratio
c. decreases 2. Exhaust gas recirculation
d. affects specific humidity 3. Use of 5% lean mixture
96. Which gas power cycle consists of four 4. Use of oxidation catalysts in exhaust
processes during which work alone is manifold
transferred during two processes and heat Select the correct answer using the code
alone is transferred during the other two given below:
processes?
a. 1 and 2 only
a. Atkinson cycle
b. 1 and 3 only
b. Carnot cycle
c. 1, 2 and 4
c. Diesel cycle
d. 2 and 4 only
d. Otto cycle
102. Which one of the following is correct?
97. The suction pressure is 1 bar and delivery
A nuclear reactor is said to be critical
pressure is 125 bar. What is the ideal
when
intermediate pressure at the end of first
stage for a 3-stage air compressor? the neutron population in the reactor core
is
a. 25 bar
a. rapidly increasing leading to the point
b. 5 bar
of explosion
c. 10 bar
b. decreasing from a specific value
d. 20 bar
c. reduced to zero
98. In a SI engine, combustion stage I takes 1
d. constant
ms and combustion stage II takes 1.5 ms
when the engine runs at 1000 rpm. If stage 103. In an experiment, the following shear
I time duration is independent of engine stress-time rate of shear strain values are
speed what will be the additional spark obtained for a fluid:
advance necessary when the engine speed Time rate of shear : 0 2 3 4
is doubled? strain (1/s)
a. 0 Shear stress (kPa) : 0 1.4 2.6 4
b. 6 How can the fluid be classified?
c. 12 a. Newtonian fluid
d. 24 b. Bingham plastic
99. For minimizing knocking tendency is SI c. Pseudo plastic
engine, where should the space plug be d. Dilatant
located?
104. A gas turbine plant working on Joule cycle
a. Near inlet valve produces 4000 kW of power. If its work
b. Away from both the valves ratio is 40%, what is the power consumed
c. Near exhaust valve by the compressor?
d. Midway between inlet and exhaust a. 2000 kW
valves b. 4000 kW
100. The three way catalytic converter cannot c. 6000 kW
control which one of the following? d. 8000 kW
a. HC emission 105. What is the ratio of the static enthalpy rise
b. co emission in the rotor to the static enthalpy rise in the
c. NOx emission stage of an axial flow compressor defined
d. PM emission as?
101. Oxides of nitrogen in the engine exhaust a. Power input factor
can be reduced by which of the following b. Flow coefficient
methods?
13 of 14
c. Temperature coefficient 110. An incompressible fluid flows
d. Degree of reaction radially outward from a line source in a
steady manner. How does the velocity in
106. The volute casing of a centrifugal pump
any radial direction vary?
has which of the following functions?
a. r
1. Eliminating loss of head due to change
in velocity after exit from impeller. b. r2
2. Directs the flow towards the delivery c. 1/r2
pipe d. 1/r
3. Converts a part of the velocity head to 111. Consider the following statements:
pressure head 1. The friction factor in laminar flow
4. Gives a constant velocity of flow through pipes is independent of
Select the correct answer using the code roughness.
given below: 2. The friction factor for laminar flow
a. 1, 2 and 4 through pipes is directly proportional
to Reynolds number.
b. 2 and 3 only
3. In fully turbulent flow, through pipes,
c. 1 and 4 only
friction factor is independent of
d. 2 and 4 only Reynolds number.
107. Which one of the following statements is Which of the statements given above are
not correct in respect of hydraulic correct?
turbines?
a. 1, 2 and 3
a. (Speed) is proportional to (1/Diameter)
b. 1 and 3 only
b. (Power) is proportional to (Speed)3
c. 2 and 3 only
c. (Power) is proportional to (Head)3/2
d. 1 and 2 only
d. (Speed) is proportional to (Head)1/2
112. What is hydraulic diameter used in place
108. A velocity field is given by u = 3xy and of diameter for non-circular ducts equal
3

v x 2 y 2 . What is the relevant
2
to?
a. A/m
equation of a streamline?
b. 4A/m
a.
dx

x2 y 2 c. A/(4m)
dy xy d. 4m/A
dx 3 xy where A area of flow and m = perimeter.

b. 113. The velocity distribution in a turbulent
dy x2 y 2
boundary layer is given by u/U = (y/)1/7.
dx 2 xy What is the displacement thickness *?

c.
a.
dy x2 y 2
b. /7
dx x y c. (7/8)
2 2
d. d. /8
dy 2 xy
114. For hydraulically most efficient symmetric
109. For steady incompressible flow, if the u-
trapezoidal section of an open channel,
component of velocity is u = Aex, then
which one of the following is the false
what is the v-component of velocity?
characterization?
a. Aey
a. Wetted perimeter is minimum for a
b. A exy given area of flow section
c. -Aexy b. Hydraulic radius is half the flow depth
d. -Aex
14 of 14
c. Width at top liquid is twice the List I
hydraulic depth (Dimensionless number)
d. Discharge is maximum for given area A. Euler number
of flow, bed slope and roughness
B. Weber number
115. The power consumed per unit length in
C. Mach number
laminar flow for the same discharge, varies
directly as Dn where D is the diameter of D. Froude number
the pipe. What is the value of n? List II
a. 1/2 (Nature of forces involved)
b. -1/2 1. Surface tension
c. -2 2. Gravity
d. -4 3. Pressure
116. The velocity profile in a laminar boundary 4. Elastic
layer is given by u/U = Y/. The ratio of Code:
momentum thickness to displacement A B C D
thickness for the boundary is given by
which one of the following? a. 3 1 4 2
a. 2 : 3 b. 3 4 1 2
b. 1 : 2 c. 4 1 2 3
c. 1 : 6 d. 4 2 1 3
d. 1 : 3 119. Which one of the following is correct?
117. Match List I with List II and select the In a normal shock wave in one
correct answer using the code given below dimensional flow
the lists: a. the entropy remains constant
List I b. the entropy increases across the shock
(Variable) c. the entropy decreases across the shock
A. Dynamic Viscosity d. the velocity, pressure and density
B. Moment of momentum increase across the shock
C. Power 120. Consider the following statements for
compressible flow through a varying area
D. Volume modulus of elasticity passage:
List II 1. For a convergent nozzle, if the exit
(Dimensional Expression) pressure is less than critical, external
1. ML2T-3 flow will not be isentropic.
2. ML-1T2 2. Supersonic-subsonic - diffuser would
3. ML-1T-1 appear similar to nozzle and works
without irreversibility.
4. ML2T-2
5. ML2T-1 correct?
Code: a. 1 only
A B C D b. 2 only
a. 1 4 2 3 c. Both 1 and 2
b. 3 5 1 2 d. Neither 1 nor 2
c. 1 5 2 3
d. 3 4 1 2
the lists:

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The ratio of reaction force to impulse force c.

d. is the sum of the angle of incidence C. 2 90

T1 Which of these statements are correct?

is called a. Work done

which correlates the combined effects 2 n 1

d. The value of effective temperature 1 n 1

2 cos 2 Pressure rise in the rotor

What is the value of the shape factor F12 in

Thermodynamic cycle shown above on the c.

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