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Question Answer F3

Revalidation of certificates falls under _______ of the STCW ’95. Reg. 1/11

Every master, officer holding a certificate issued under any chapter of the STCW Convention other
than Chapter VI, who is serving at sea or intends to return to sea after a period ashore , shall in order
to qualify for seagoing service shall be required at intervals not exceeding 5 years to: I. meet the
standards of medical fitness particularly eyesight and hearing II. establish continued professional
competence III. have taken all necessary training prescribed by the Administration I & II

Under the STCW Convention for the revalidation of certificates, continued professional competence
is established by: I. approved seagoing service, performing functions appropriate to the certificate
held for a period of at least one year during the preceding five years II. having performed functions
considered to be equivalent to the seagoing experience III. passing an approved test I, II, III

An Operations Manager of a manning agency has been updating himself with approved courses
required under Reg. 1/11 during 5 years, passed an approved test given by PRC. Is he entitled for
revalidation of his certificate? I. yes, because he met the requirements of Reg. 1/11. II. No, because
he has no approved seagoing experience for at least one year during the preceding 5 years: I only

When was the comprised amendment 2 (2001) of the STCW as amended adopted by the maritime
safety committee? December 1998

When did the comprised Amendments 2 (2001) of the STCW code entered into force?
01January2003

As per STCW Code Certificate of Training in PSCRB is mandatory to what seafarers level? all
levels

Which one among the list does NOT belong to the ship onboard organization as per STCW?
Engineering level

Under the STCW as amended, Training for personnel on RO-RO passenger ships as per STCW
(V/2) was implemented on ______________. 01 February 1997

Recognition of Certificates issued by other parties is under what Regulation of the STCW as
amended? Reg I/10

Is SSBT mandatory under the STCW Convention? I. yes, because the Administration has enacted
laws to make it mandatory II. No. because only ARPA and ROP are required under the Convention
I only

The following are among others to be entered in the Oil Record Book for every tanker to be crude oil
washed EXCEPT: quantity of crude oil being washed

Which is NOT appropriate in the following entries in the Oil Record Book with the discharge of
dirty ballast? effluent discharge is less than 15 ppm

Which of the following is/are appropriate entry/entries during accidental discharge of oil in the Oil
Record Book? all of these
Contamination of the surface of the sea with oil residue behind discharging ship depends initially on
the following EXCEPT: viscosity of oil

IOPP certificate must be carried by tankers of at least _______. 150 GRT

IOPP certificate must be carried by ships other than tanker of at least ______. 400 GRT

The instantaneous rate of discharge of oil content of any effluent shall not exceed _____ liters per
mile. 60

Before any ship can discharge any waste from its bilges containing more than 15 ppm of oily
residue, it must comply with the following EXCEPT: must be at least 50 n.m. from the nearest
coast

Before a vessel can pump oily water within a Special Area, it has to comply with the following
conditions EXCEPT: it must be more than 12 miles from the nearest coast

The following operation will be entered in the Oil Record Book for each and everytime any vessel
undertakes them EXCEPT: bunkering, time of operation and quantity

The following can be found as entries in the Oil Record Book for the loading of oil cargo EXCEPT:
quantity and viscosity of oil loaded

The following can be found as entries in the Oil Record Book for unloading of oil cargo EXCEPT:
quantity and viscosity of oil unloaded

Annex 1 of Marpol 73/78 Regulation came into force on ______. Oct. 2, 1983

Marpol 73/78 Annex III entered into force on ______. July 1, 1992

Marpol 73/78 Annex IV entered into force on ______. Sept. 27, 2003

Marpol 73/78 Annex V entered into force on ______. Dec. 31, 1988

Annex VI of Marpol 73/78 concerns _______. Prevention of Air Pollution from Ships

Which of the following is a hazard associated with the water washing of the cargo tanks and slop
tanks containing residues of certain substances which may produce dangerous reaction ? reactivity

Which factor is to be considered in mixing residue /water mixtures containing different substances?
compatibility

Substances which are bio accumulated and liable to produce a hazard to aquatic life or human health
falls under ______. Category A

Substances which are practically non-toxic to aquatic life falls under _____. Category D

What should be the speed of a self-propelled ship move through the water to be considered enroute?
7 knots
What should be the speed of a non-self propelled ship move through the water to be considered
enroute? 4 knots

A vessel can discharge tank washings from noxious liquid substances having complied with the
requirement of at least 12 miles from the nearest land at a depth of: 25 meters

Any violation of the Marpol 73/78 Convention within the jurisdiction of any Party to the Convention
is punishable under the _______. I. law of the Party II. Law of the Flagstate I & II

The pipeline from the suction point in a cargo tank to the shore connection used for loading the
cargo and includes all ship piping, pump and filters is called ______. associated piping

What kind of system is AIS? transponder system

What was the date of implementation of AIS? July 1, 2002

Seen from an operational point of view, how will you describe the AIS? AIS is an automatic
system

The AIS information transmitted by a ship can be divided into how many types? 2

Can AIS with MKD operate as a stand-alone system? Yes

In case of AIS overload, what can you expect? targets far away drop out

How much can the AIS broadcast mode be overloaded without any significant operational effect?
400 – 500%

The dynamic information update rate of AIS depends on ______. ship’s speed

The status information of AIS is updated every ______. 6 minutes

The Pilot plug of AIS is installed ______. on the Pilot’s conning position

When should the AIS transponder normally be activated? always

The AIS transmitted information is divided in how many groups? dynamic data, static data, &
voyage-related data

How is voyage information updated in AIS? manually

The AIS transponder is designed to transmit information ______. automatically

How is the AIS technical status checked? automatically

The Tonnage Certificate indicates _______. measurement tons

In the Zone Chart, green is labeled on the _______ Tropical Zone


The load line mark indicates _______. maximum draft allowable

The IMO International Convention on Loadlines was enacted in ______. 1966

A vessel remains seaworthy and assigned minimum freeboard when loaded to provide: reserve
buoyancy

The maximum permissible mean draft to which subdivision loadlines have been assigned to
passenger ships in accordance with Solas ’74 is called _______. bulkhead draft

When a container dropped by a SAR aircraft to survivors is colored yellow, the contents are ______.
blankets and protective clothing

During inspection the PSCO should further assess whether the ship and/or crew is able to do the
following EXCEPT: perform its daily duties and responsibilities

Which of the following is NOT correct? All of these

The PSCO determines the safe manning of a ship, EXCEPT: the capability to operate equipments
in emergency

Self-activating smoke signals shall emit smoke of a highly visible colour at a uniform rate for a
period of at least _____ when floating in calm water. 15 minutes

Self-activating smoke signals shall continue to emit smoke when fully submerged in water for a
period of ______. 10 seconds

Lifebuoys shall withstand a drop into the water from the height at which it is stowed above the
waterline in the lightest seagoing condition or a height of ______. 30 meters

Buoyant lifelines shall have a diameter of not less than _____. 8 mm

Each lifejacket light shall have a luminous intensity of not less than 0.75 cd in all directions for a
period of at least ______. 8 hours

Rocket parachute flares shall have a burning period of not less than ______. 40 seconds

The burning period of handflares must not be less than ______. 1 minute

Handflares after having been immersed under 100 mm of water continue to burn for a period of
______ 10 seconds

The Solas Protocol 1978 entered into force on ______. May 1, 1981

The Solas Protocol 1988 entered into force on ______. Feb. 3, 2000

As per Solas, fire pumps shall have a capacity to deliver at least ______. 25 cu.mtr/hr

Static information of AIS includes the following EXCEPT: type of cargo whether hazardous or
not
Which of the following does NOT meet the purpose of SOPEP? it must be in the English
language for everybody to understand

When a SAR aircraft drops items in a blue container to survivors, the contents are: food and water

Which need NOT be recorded in the Oil Record Book of a tanker? the method used to determine
the oil content of discharge not exceeding 100 ppm

As per Reg. 26 of Annex I of Marpol 73/78, SOPEP shall be carried to every ship other than oil
tanker of _____ or more. 400 GRT

State acting through the competent international organization shall establish international rules and
standards for the purpose of the following EXCEPT: elimination of pollution of the marine
environment

Tonnage Convention 1969 entered into force on ______. July 18, 1982

Colregs Convention 1972 entered into force on ______. July 15, 1977

Inmarsat C convention 1976 entered into force on ______. July 16, 1979

Salvage Convention 1989 entered into force on _____. July 14, 1996

Prevention of Air Pollution from Ships is contained in ______ of Marpol 73/78. Annex VI

The Prevention of Air Pollution from Ships is adopted in ______. Sept. 1995

An IOPP shall be issued after survey in accordance with Reg. 4 of Annex I of Marpol 73/78 to any
cargo ship of _____ or more. 400 GRT

As per Reg. 26 of Annex I of Marpol 73/78, SOPEP shall be carried to every oil tanker of _____ or
more. 150 GRT

To reduce the oxygen content of the atmosphere in cargo tanks during and after the discharge of
cargo oil in order to eliminate risk of explosion, a system is introduced called: inert gas system

Category C under Reg. 3, Annex II of Marpol 73/78 refers to noxious substances if and when
discharged into the sea from vessels, would present a minor environmental hazard and therefore
requires: special operational measure

Under the U.N. Convention on Conditions for Registration of Ships, the following information shall
be entered in its regiastration, EXCEPT: the name, nationality and address of the owner

The term “jurisdiction in the Convention” should be construed in the light of ______ in force at the
time the Convention is applied or interpreted. international law

In order to obtain the winter freeboard, 1/48th of the summer draft is added to the: summer
freeboard
Which ILO Convention recommendation specified the manner in which articles of agreement are to
be signed and terminated: Seaman’s Articles of Agreement Convention

Which of the following statements is correct concerning the function of ILO? I. workers and
employer’s representative have an equal voice with those on Governments in formulating policies II.
through ratification by member of States, Conventions and Recommendations set by Labor
Standards III. through ratification by member of States, Conventions are intended to create binding
obligations to put their provisions into effect II & III

The minimum sopep requirements for oil dispersant to be carried out for oil spill is: 200 liters

The minimum sopep requirements for oil dispersant to be carried out during bunkering is: 13 liters

The minimum sopep requirements for sawdustto be carried out for oil spill is: 100 kgs

The minimum sopep requirements for waste rags to be carried for oil spill is: 100 kgs

The minimum sopep requirements for absorbent to be carried for oil spill is: 100 kgs

PSCO inspects all ships to carry the following certificates and documents EXCEPT: International
Pollution Prevention Certificates

The following is to be undertaken when a passenger ship is being surveyed for the issuance of
Passenger Ship Safety Equipment Certificate EXCEPT: inspection of steering gear

Passengers ships are surveyed periodically for the following, EXCEPT: cabins

Electrical installation and equipment including emergency electrical power are under: Cargo Ship
Safety Construction Certificate

Passenger ships shall be surveyed periodically every _______. 12 months

Cargo Ship Safety Equipment Certificate shall be issued for a period not exceeding: 2 years

A Cargo Ship Safety Radiotelephony Certificate is valid for: 12 months

Two years is the validity issued for _____. Cargo Ship Safety Equipment Certificate

Which of the following is conducted during annual survey with respect to a Ship Safety onstruction
Certificate? all of these

The following are conducted during annual survey with respect to a Ship Construction Certificate
EXCEPT: steering gear

In order to ensure that the ship is in all respect satisfactory for service, additional inspections are
institutes. Which of the following is carried out? unscheduled inspections

A Cargo Ship Safety Radiotelephony Certificate shall be is valid for _____. 12 months
A vessel structure which gives her watertight integrity, connects hull and binds the whole structure
together are ________. shell plates

Intermediate survey for tankers 10 years of age and over is required under: Reg. 1/10

The contract between the underwriter and assured is called ______. Policy

Which of the following is NOT covered by Hull and Machinery underwriter of the ship? removal of
wreck where compulsory

Which certificate covers the hull, machinery and equipment of a cargo ship and showing that the
ship complies with the cargo ship construction and survey regulations applicable to the ship and
voyage she is engaged on? Cargo Ship Safety Equipment Certificate

The _____ of the cargo can be changed while the vessel is en route to her destination by
endorsement of the Bill of Lading. ownership

An underwriter is liable for ______. loss caused by unavoidable delay due to fog

Average adjuster is a kind of arbitrator whose task is to decide what is and what is not by law or
contract allowable in _______. termination cases

In order to be considered a general average loss is, what would be the precondition for a jettisoned
cargo? loaded in good condition

In relation to P and I insurance, which of the following factors will not influence the premium? the
owner’s nationality

Which of the following maritime lien should be settled first? salvage lien

Which of the following maritime lien should be settle first? crew salary

This extends the underwriter’s liability to cover risks of a kind which are not included within the
meaning of maritime perils: negligence clause

If the collision is caused by force majeure or when the question of blame is in doubt, how are losses
allocated? each must bear her own loss

Claims in respect of expenses reasonably incurred or sacrifices reasonably made by the owner
voluntarily to prevent/minimize pollution damage shall rank _____. equally with other claims
against the fund

This lien against a vessel would be settled FIRST. salvage lien

For a service to be rewarded, the following must be present: danger, voluntaries and success

The term used when separate calculations are to be made for loading and unloading any time saved
in one operation is to be set against any excess time used in the other. to average
There is a loss of ship classification if the ship is a physical total loss, through fire, explosion or
scrapping. Such a loss occurs when _____. The ship sinks in deep waters and not recoverable

Which of the following is FALSE Under the Convention Respecting Assistance and Salvage At Sea?
A tug has the right to remuneration for assistance to or salvage of the vessel she is towing
regardless if she has rendered exceptional service or not

The cost of repairs exceeds the value of the vessel damaged by fire This is an example of ______.
Constructive total loss

A document issued by the port authority detailing the amount of dues paid or payable is: tonnage
dues slip

An insurance memorandum which is usually accompanied by a request for closing instructions so


that the policy can be prepared is called ______. Cover Notes

Which is NOT required to be entered in the Official Logbook? Commencement and termination
of cargo operation

On a voyage charter party, renumeration is calculated by reference to ______. Cargo involved

This is a chartering expression denoting that there is no indemnity payable for gained in loading or
discharging. Free dispatch

To avoid expensive litigation, many C/P contains this clause. Arbitration clause

This is a commission of about 2% of the freight paid to the chatterers on signing bills of lading and
is called _____. Address commission

Hague Rules refer to _______. Vessel’s liability under COGSA

Hague-Visby Rules came into force in: 1968

This clause provides that in ascertaining whether a vessel is constructive total loss, the insured value
be taken as the repaired value and that nothing in respect of the break-up value shall be taken into
account. Devaluation clause

A Bareboat Charter _______. I. is a Contract of Affreightment II. may also be served as a


“hire/purchase contract” I & II

Hamburg Rules was enforced in _______. 1974

The calculation of the charter party payment under a voyage charter is ____. Fixed in proportion
to cargo or in the form of a lump sum for the voyage

After negotiation, a vessel’s owner and a charterer agrees informally to the employment of such
vessel, stating cargo quantity, type, port of loading, laytime, etc. is now a ______. Fixture
The term frequently used when negotiating for chartering a ship as regards rate of loading and
discharge; loading and unloading expenses; appointment of charterer’s or owner’s agents at port of
loading and discharge is called: both ends

In the C/P a �weather working day� comprises 8 hours. How many hours of laytime is used if 4
hours of work have been performed? 12 hours

A Bill of Lading of goods made deliverable to its holder even without endorsement? Bearer B/L

A B/L which is always negotiable is called Order B/L

B/L issued for the consignment of goods on a particular voyage with regular sailing is called
______. Liner B/L

Which of the following would appear in the B/L? Actual date of shipment

On cargo manifest, weight stated is/are: gross and net weight

An official document given by a shipbroker, or an endorsement in a bill of lading, giving the officer
in charge of the ship the authority to deliver goods the freight on which has been paid is called
_______. Freight released

Why is it so important to ensure that the description of the goods in the Bill of Lading is
CORRECT? I. because the issuance of a clean B/L for damaged goods constitutes fraud II. because
the B/L becomes conclusive evidence once it has been endorsed to a third party I & II

Which is a negotiable instrument? Bill of Lading

Which of the following is NOT recorded in the Certificate of Vessel Registry for Philippine flag
vessels? number of crew including Master

______ is a certificate to a cargo ship which is exempt from certain requirements of the regulations
and showing that she complies with the rest of those requirements. qualified cargo ship safety
construction certificate

_______ survey is conducted on every oil tanker of 150 GRT or more at intervals not exceeding 30
months. intermediate

Which type of survey is done to ships in accordance with Reg. I/6 (b) of the Solas Convention?
Intermediate survey

Which type of survey is done to tankers 10 years of age and over required under Reg. I/10 of the
Convention? Intermediate Survey

Officer In Charge of navigational watch on ships of 500 GRT or more shall hold an appropriate
certificate in accordance with _____ of the STCW as amended. Reg. II/1

Passenger ships shall be surveyed periodically every _______. 12 months


Your vessel was issued a temporary certificate of inspection which ____. has the full force of the
regular certificate of inspection

Survey for bilge pumping and drainage arrangement, communication between bridges and engine
room, means of escape is carried out. What certificate is due for renewal? Cargo Ship Safety
Construction Certificate

Certificates and endorsements are contained in which regulation of the STCW Convention?
Regulation I/2

The intermediate survey must be conducted ______. during the validity of the IOPP certificate

In Marine insurance, one creditor for another is called _______. subrogation

Which P and I insurance cover covers a financial interest that the shipper may have on the vessel
beyond the insured value? Hull and freight interest

In the event of extraordinary occurrences during a voyage, giving rise to act of general average, what
is drawn up in which cargo owners undertaken to pay their proportionate share in general average?
Average bond

Marine losses are classified as follows: I. total loss: actual, presumed, constructive II. partial loss:
actual, presumed, constructive’ III. total loss: particular average, general average IV. partial loss:
particular average, general average I & IV

This is a form of remedy to a person in certain circumstances, entitling him to enforce the
satisfaction of a claim. Lien

Where the ship is not a total loss in the physical sense, it may have received such damage as
irreparable, or it may be economically impracticable to repair. The common terms used for both
situations are: beyond repair or condemned

What would a ship obtain first if she sustains damage to hull or machinery, even though the damage
is so slight that there appears to be no reason why she could continue her voyage? Certificate of
Seaworthiness

Which of these is included in a dangerous cargo manifest? Cotton

This is gross tonnage less “ deducted spaces “ which are theoretically non-carrying spaces.
Registered tonnage

The term “ Sous Plan “ as used in charter parties means ______. “ under the hook “ and applies to
loading from or discharging into barges or lighters

What is termed as vague expression usually intended to convey that there are no invidious or unusual
terms in the charter party? clean charter

Which of the following is NOT for the charterer’s account under time charter? wages
The age limit requirement for vessels in order to be VAT exempted upon importation is: 15 years
for passenger vessels

The tonnage of vessels that are qualified for VAT exemption on the importations and local purchase
and/or cargo vessels including engine and spare parts of said vessels is: 150 tons and above

Under R.A. 9295, one of the conditions by which the importation of articles is granted exemption
from VAT is that approval must be obtained prior to importation by which government agency?
MARINA

The certificate issued by MARINA to qualified domestic ship operators is ______. Certificate of
Public Convenience

Drydocking of non-classed passenger/passenger cargo ships maybe extended on a monthly basis but
not to exceed _______________. 3 months

When a Phil. Flag vessel engaged in domestic trade, but required to undertake a single foreign
voyage in exceptional circumstances maybe exempted from the requirement of SOLAS 74/78
provided the ship ________. adopts safety requirement which MARINA considers adequate for
the voyage

The authority to operate extended to all types and classes of vessels in the domestic shipping shall be
valid for a period of not more than ______ years. 25

Which government agency prescribes the routes, zones or areas of operations of domestic ship
operators? MARINA

Which government agency sets the safety standards for vessels in the domestic trade in accordance
with applicable conditions and regulations? MARINA

As prescribed by R.A.9295, all domestic ship operators shall have the ________to provide and
sustain safe, reliable, efficient and economic passenger or cargo service, or both. financial capacity

Passenger or cargo rates in the domestic trade as provided for in R.A. 9295 are fixed by Domestic
ship operators

The size of beds in the first class section of inter-island passenger vessels should be at least
________. 6 x 2 ft

The government authority primarily responsible for the enforcement and ensuring that only
competent, properly trained and duly licensed Masters, pilots and seafarers are allowed to board and
man ships of Philippine Registry is _______. Philippine Coast Guard

The manning requirement for tugboats, dredgers and anchor handling vessels engaged in coastwise
voyage between 35 and 100 gross tonnage as required by Chapter XVIII of the PMMRR comprise
________. 2 deck and 2 engine personnel

Category A high speed crafts as defined by Reg. XVII/2 of the PMMRR, are passenger crafts
carrying not more than ______ passengers. 450
Which government authority is primarily responsible for the enforcement of maritime safety rules
and regulations for vessel under the Philippine Registry? Philippine Coast Guard

MARINA serves the maritime industry through the following EXCEPT; Registration and
Enforcement office

MARINA was created and geared towards the following objectives, EXCEPT; to create sub-
agencies for the safe transport of goods and passengers.

Which Certificates is NOT issued by the Phil. Coast Guard? Classification of Hull and Machinery

PPA Memorandum Circular 40-2002 pertains to _______of Harbor Pilots rendering pilotage service
to vessels. Performance

Every ship documented in the Phils. shall be assigned a/an _____________as stipulated in the
revised PMMRR. official number

The minimum safe manning as provided for in Chapter XVII of PMMRR is assessed on a case to
case basis ________. I. upon request of the Company II. upon request of the Master of the
vessel I only

A ship’s homeport as defined by Regulation XV/6 of the PMMRR may be her ___ I. Port of Call II.
Area of operation nearest to where the company’s principal office is located either I or II

The Certificate of Competence (COC) issued to Master Mariners in the Philippines should
demonstrate theory of operation of the ship mainly from a safety and legal points of view. Which of
the following training courses ( in the Philippines ) is not made part of the requirement for COC?
General Management Skills Training

The Certificate of Competence (COC) issued to Master Mariners in the Philippines should
demonstrate theory of operation of the ship mainly from a safety and legal points of view. Which of
the following training courses ( in the Philippines ) is not made part of the requirement for COC?
Practical Shiphandling

How many district office/s is/are there in Luzon? 2

The agency responsible for the markings on loadlines of Philippine-flag vessels is the: Accredited
International Classification Societies

The legal rights of Filipino seafarers come from two primary sources: the POEA Contract of
Employment and the _______. Migrant Workers and Overseas Filipino Act of 1995

The legal rights of Filipino seafarers from two primary sources: the Migrant Workers and Overseas
Filipino Act of 1995 and the _______. POEA Contract of Employment

A shipowner intending to register his ship under Philippine Registry must secure first: Ship’s
Identification Number

Under R.A. 9295, this term means “ the exchange of materials or products within the Philippines “?
Domestic Trade
For tanker vessels of 250-500 GRT that are on limited coastwise operation, the ______ can act a s
Master. Third Mate

The members of the Board of Examiners for Deck and Engine Officers are appointed to their
positions thru the following process: I. The candidate is endorsed by the MMAP or MEOP as the
case may be to PRC, then PRC recommends to the Office of the President of the Philippines for
appointment II. The President of the Philippines appoint directly the member of the Board of
Examiners without benefit of any recommendation from PRC. III. The Chairman of PRC appoints
the member of the Board of Examiners selected from the endorsement of MMAP or MEOP as the
case may be I only

How many toilets and bathrooms are required under MARINA Reg. 65 for Philippine Inter-island
vessels? 1 per 50 passengers separate from men and women/children

The minimum license required for the rank of Master for a Philippine registered passenger vessel
between 1000 – 1599 gross tons, engaged in coastwise trade is: Chief Mate

Chapter XVII of the PMMRR requires that the master of tugboat of between100 and 250 gross
tonnage engaged in coastwise voyage should be at least a licensed ______. second mate or major
patron

Category A high speed crafts as defined by Reg. XVII/2 of the PMMRR are passenger crafts
carrying not more than _______ passengers. 450

The Administration shall require all ships registered in the Philippines except those mentioned in
Chapter I Regulation I/3 of the PMMRR, the following certificates, EXCEPT: Certificate of
Registration

In the revised PMMRR, ships shall be provided with at least two independent means for
communicating orders between navigating bridge and the machinery space or control room, one of
which shall be: engine telegraph

In the revised PMMRR, the tonnage as measured in accordance with the International Tonnage
Convention 1969 and for ships of less than 24 meters in length is called ______. gross tonnage

______ is defined as the policy limiting the right to engage in Philippine Coastwise Trade to be
limited to vessels carrying a certificate of Philippine Registry. Cabotage

Ships engaged in the domestic trade carrying 500 to 2000 passengers and having 12 hours or less
voyage duration shall carry ______. one registered nurse or midwife

The minimum safe manning of ships for which Chapter XVIII of the PMMRR apply, takes
cognizance of which of the following? I. Length and nature of voyage and trading route II.
Construction and technical equipment of ships III. Number, size and type of main propulsion units
and Auxiliary I, II & III

What is the minimum size required before a vessel can be documented? 5 net tons
A shipowner intending to register his ship under Philippine Registry must secure first: Ship’s
Identification Number

In sleeping room for officers where no private sitting room is provided, the floor area per person of
3,000 GRT and above shall not be less than _____. 7.5 sqm

As stipulated in the revised PMMRR, Class C ships are _____. tankers

As stipulated in the revised PMMRR, a Philippine registered vessel shall fly the national flag _____.
at all times

Which among the list are Class C ships as stipulated in the revised PMMRR? tankers

As stipulated in the revised PMMRR, every ship documented in the Philippines shall be assigned
a/an ______. official number

R.A. 8981 provides that “ the Commission shall establish and maintain a high standard of admission
to the practice of all professions and at all times ensure and safeguard the integrity of all licensure
examination “. This is _____. an exercise of the powers and functions of the commission

A partial survey on a passenger ship shall be made: after a repair

Republic Act No. 8981 is otherwise known as _______. The PRC Modernization Act of 2003

______ are field offices which deliver frontline services and are organized into semi-autonomous
units of MARINA. Port District Offices

Republic Act 9295 is also known as the ______. Domestic Shipping Development Act

MARINA serves the maritime industry through the following offices EXCEPT: Board of Marine
Inquiry

MARINA was created under _____. P.D. 474

Category I ships in the interisland are classified as such by MARINA if: travel time between ports
exceed 4 hours

Under MARINA, which formulates, recommends and continuously evaluates and analyzes the
broads policies and guidelines, plans and programs of MARINA for the promotion and development
of the maritime industry? Planning and Policy Office

Under MARINA, which formulates, develops and maintains information systems to support
promotion, development, regulation and supervision activities of the Authority and monitoring
systems on the implementation of plans, programs, policies and guidelines. Management
Information systems Office

Which government agency issues Certificate of Ownership to a Philippine flag vessel? MARINA

Which individualized teaching method makes use of workbooks,teaching ,machines or computers?


Programmed instruction
Which is supportive of the development of creative thinking? Brainstorming technique

Which does NOT go with an integrated teaching strategy? Isolated bits of information

One gives a quiz to his class after teaching a lesson. What does he give? Formative test

Which is (are) NOT supportive of the development of creative thinking? Open classroom
atmosphere

Which term refers to a teacher helping a colleague grow professionally? Technology transfer

For mastery of learning and in line with the Outcome-Based Evaluation model which element should
be present? Construction of criterion-referenced tests

Perrenialism advocates for the development of the cognitive faculties. Which of the following
teacher's objective taps higher mental functioning? Compare and contrast butterflies from
moths.

Which may work against collaborative teaching? "Knee-to-knee" seat arrangement by group

What is an advantage of point system of grading? It is qualitative.

Which is (are) supportive of the development of creative thinking? Authoritarian teacher

Which statement on IQ test is WRONG ? measures fixed potential

If we teach our trainees to think creatively, what do we encourage them to do? Do "outside-the-
box" thinking

What recent educational development relates with perennialism? Individualizing the learning
experience and activities

The variance, standard deviation, and range are all measures of partition values

Which process does NOT form part of creative thinking? Curiosity

For facts to be useful in research, it is best to _____. select, classify, and summarize them

Which question demands the highest level of thinking? How should you present a report in class?

With the gradations of objectives in the affective domain in mind, under what level does "developing
a consistent philosophy of life" fall? Characterization

Which is (are) supportive of the development of creative thinking? Convergent questions

With specific details in mind, which one(s) has (have) a stronger diagnostic value? Restricted and
non-restricted essay test

The concluding part of the three-level approach is the Facts level


Which teaching method is intended primarily for skill and concept mastery by way of practice?
Project

What psychological principle is invoked when a teacher connects the new lesson to the one just
completed so that the student may gain a holistic view of the subject? Conceptualization

Which does NOT hold true to collaborative learning? Success of the group depends on one
diligent student

A Teacher believes that every learner can be helped to achieve his full potential and so functions
effectively in society when we satisfy his needs. On what theory(ies) is the Teacher's belief based?
Cognitive psychology

Which questioning practice will promote more class interaction? Asking rhetorical questions

What functions are associated with the left brain? Verbal, visual, intuitive

The teacher gives indigenous achievement test to his 25 students. The test consists of 50 items. He
wants to classify his students' performance based on the test result. What is the appropriate measure
of central tendency? Mean

Which method is "hands-on,minds-on" learning? Unit method

Which of the following activities is the LEAST brain-compatible? Detecting error in the
computer program

The "mastery learner" learns best from ____. debates

Which items do not affect the variability of test scores? Test items that every examinee gets
correctly

With social development in mind, which is most effective? Puzzle

To develop scientific thinking and problem-solving skills which activity will be most appropriate?
Role play

In the parlance of test construction what does TOS mean? Table of Specifications

I want to diagnose my student's difficulties in written communication skills. Which one should I
use? Short written response

Which role(s) does the teacher play when he sets desirable learning activities for the individual
learner and takes the responsibility of matching available resources with the needs of each learner?
Counselor and consultant of learning

Concurrent validity requires peer consultation

Which of the following has as its strength immediate feedback? Laboratory method
Which instructional material is closest to direct experience? Film showing

Which is a sound classroom management practice? Avoid establishing routines; routines make
your students robots

I want my students to identify the strengths and weaknesses of an event. Which one will I direct
them to use? Compare/Contrast matrix

Which holds true to norm-reference testing? Comparing individual's performance to the average
performance of a group

Which questioning practice promotes more class interaction? Asking rhetorical questions

With the linguistically intelligent group in mind, which activity is least effective? Manipulatives

The "self-expressive learner" learns best from ___. lectures

Student B claims: "I cannot see perfection but I long for it so it must be real." Under which group
can he be classified? Pragmatist

A good classroom manager has "eyes on the back of her head." This means that the effective teacher
_____. gives penetrating looks to his students

Which is a characteristic of developmentally inappropriate practice type of education? Contextual


learning

Below is a list of methods used to establish the reliability of the instrument. Which method is
questioned for its reliability due to practice and familiarity? Test – retest

With individualized teaching strategies as point of reference, which does not belong to the group?
Independent study

Familiarization onboard includes the following EXCEPT: getting used to emergency exits, where
they lead to

Fire fighting exercise is to be held on board the vessel at least _______. monthly

Basically there are three stages in the task of organizing a training program, which of the following
stages is NOT involved? monitoring stage

During abandon ship drill, PSCO should observe the following EXCEPT: sounding the correct
alarm signals

What information must be entered in a Station Bill? duties and station of each person during
emergencies

A fire and boat drill on a tanker shall, by regulation, include _______. all of these

What is the emergency alarm signal as specified in SOLAS? continuous ringing of the alarm bells
Onboard training in the use of davit-launched liferafts shall take place at intervals of not more than
______. 4 months

You are on board a vessel that carries liquefied gas in bulk. The person on watch is required to have
what information about the cargo easily accessible? fire fighting procedures

During an emergency, the Master considers it necessary to order all non-essential personnel off the
ship. Which group, if at all possible, to remain on board and deal with the emergency? the
emergency squad

A passenger vessel must have an emergency squad when ______. the size of the crew permits

At the sound of the lifeboat alarm, the following should be done, EXCEPT: stop working
immediately and secure your working place

Which poses a danger to safety, property and environment? all of these

This is a kind of Terminal Performance Objectives which specify what the Trainee should be able to
apply in their workplace when the training is completed Job Behavior Objectives

This is a particular learning scope for instructional objective which is concerned with how a trainee
controls or moves his body. Psychomotor Objective

This is a particular scope for instructional objective which deals with how a trainee should do about
something in relation to the training program. affective objective

At the lifeboat station, the following shall be done, EXCEPT: help facilitate for the immediate
lowering of lifeboat

A kind of teaching-learning principle where the trainee must proceed step by step and each step must
be known in some way more difficult than the previous step. graduate sequence

In determining training needs which of the following ways is used when the trainor simply lists
down all subjects that may possibly be of help to the personnel concerned? survey

The existing SOLAS Chapter V was written in 1974 and came into force in _______. 1980

When did the SOLAS Chapter V which was written in 1974 came into forc3e? 1980

As per ILO Convention NO. 86 Sec. 9 0f 1990, what is the validity of PEME if not employed
onboard? 3 months

Standards regarding special training requirements for personnel on roro/passenger ships are
contained in _______ of the STCW Convention as amended. Chapter V

Periodic surveys of all oil tankers and every other vessel issued IOPP certificate is required at
intervals not exceeding _______. 5 years

The Master was up for almost 19 hours in a particular 24-hour period due to emergency and
communication with the home office. Which is TRUE in regards to rest period? I. Rest period is not
applicable to the Master II. The Master did not meet the prescribed rest period III. The master should
have met the required rest period if he had 10 hours of rest I only

The user of respiratory equipment consumes air engaged in heavy work _______. about 30 to 35
ltrs/min

The consumption of air for a user of respiratory equipment engaged in heavy work is: about 30 to
35 ltrs/min

Under what chapter of the STCW as amended are the watchkeeping arrangements and principles to
be observed is defined? A – VIII/1

The International Life-Saving Appliance Code was adopted by the Maritime Safety Committee in
June 1996 by its Resolution _______. MSC .48 (66)

The IMO Maritime Safety Committee adopted the International Life-Saving Appliance Code in June
1966 by its Resolution _______. MSC .48(66)

ISPS enhances maritime safety under the SOLAS Convention. It was adopted by IMO in _______.
Dec. 2002

IMO adopted the ISPS to enhance maritime safety in _______. Dec. 2002

As provided for in Chapter 4 of the Code on Noise Level on Board ships, what is noise level limit
for a continuously manned machinery space? 90 decibels (A)

The North Pacific Winter Seasonal Zone applied for the period ______. Oct. 16 to April 15

Which of the following period is applied to the North Pacific Winter Seasonal Zone? Oct. 16 to
April 15

The status information of AIS is updated every ______. 6 minutes

AIS updates the status information every _______. 6 minutes

The amendment 2 of the STCW Convention entered into force on ______. Jan. 2003

When did the amendment 2 of the STCW Convention entered into force? Jan. 2003

The validity of PEME if not employed onboard according to ILI Convention is: 3 months

How much can the AIS broadcast mode be overloaded without any significant operational effects?
400-500 %

Guidance regarding fitness for duty preventing fatigue is defined under what Section (chapter) of the
STCW as amended? B-VIII/1

Which of the following concerning the jurisdiction of UNCLOS ’82 in maritime matters is
CORRECT? it establishes the basic features in the implementation of TSS
The following are TRUE regarding PSCO inspections EXCEPT: inspections are carried out
specifically to confirm compliance with the ISM Code

The pipeline from the suction point in a cargo tank to the shore connection used for loading the
cargo that includes all ship piping, pump and filters is called ______. associated piping

AIS standards include the following EXCEPT: transmitter specifications

When was the IMO carriage requirement for AIS according to SOLAS chapter V became effective?
July 1, 2002

The IMO carriage requirement for AIS took effect on _______. July 1, 2002

AIS is required to be carried by IMO with the latest changes to SOLAS Chapter V and became
effective on ______. July 1, 2002

When was ILO Convention NO. 185 adopted? June 2003

The ILO Convention NO. 185 was adopted in ______. June 2003

The OOW was on 12-4 watch. At 0830, it was announced that one crew was missing. The Master
ordered all officers to be on upper decks to pose as lookouts while he reversed the course. The
search was given up at 1900 hrs when darkness set in. Which is TRUE? I. the OOW met the
requirements of rest period II. the OOW did not meet the requirements of rest period III. the OOW
fell short of 1 hour to meet the requirements of rest period I only

Deck hands were on deck works at 0800 hours and a break time from 1200 – 1300 Hours. Earlier
past midnight, the ship docked and the deck crew maneuvered from 0030 – 0230 hours. At 1800 Hrs,
a leak was discovered in Hatch NO. 1 when the ship started to list. Deck hands and Engineers took
part in patching the leak, finished at 2400 hours. Which is TRUE? I. deck hands met the
requirements of rest period II. deck hands did not meet the requirements of rest period III. deck
hands had exactly 10 hours rest period I only

How many loadlines are considered permanent where weather conditions are similar throughout the
year? two

What is the first thing that a Port State Control Team do after having reported to the Master and
informed of their visit? ensure that certificates of those onboard are valid

How are watertight doors classified in SOLAS? Class 3

Watertight doors are classified in SOLAS as ______. Class 3

Seafarers performing support duties on keeping a safe watch are tested by Port State control to
determine _______. their ability to perform standard duties in keeping the ship seaworthy

Which certificate covers the machinery casings? Loadline Certificate

Which organization sponsored and coordinated the development of AIS? IALA


The organization that sponsored and coordinated the development of AIS is the: IALA

As provided for in Chapter 4 of the Code on Noise Levels on Board ships, what is the maximum
acceptable sound pressure levels at which ship personnel entering spaces should be required to wear
ear protection? 85 decibels (A)

Fitness for duty to all persons assigned forming part of a watch shall be provided with 10 hours of
rest in any 24 hours period. Under what Section (Chapter) of the STCW as amended is this? A-
VIII/I

Training of personnel on passenger ship is under what Resolution of STCW Convention? 6

At the time that the Loadline Convention Agreement went into force, pleasure yachts and existing
vessels of ______ were also exempted. 150 GRT

Lifebuoys shall withstand a drop into the water from the height at which it is stowed above the
waterline in the lightest sea condition or a height of ______. 30 meters

The intermediate survey must be conducted _______. during validity of the IOPP certificate

The discharge into the sea of substances in Category D is allowed provided the following are met,
EXCEPT: the effluent is more than 100 ppm

This is known as the 1988 SOLAS Protocol. International Conference on Seafarer's Certificate

Certificates and endorsements are contained in which regulation of the STCW Convention?
Regulation I/2

Under the Lisbon Rules on Collision, which of the following is FALSE? in the event of a vessel
being a total loss, the claimant shall be entitled to damages equal to the original price of the vessel

As per IMO Convention, what is the validity of PEME if not employed on board? 3 months

Seagoing service according to STCW Convention means ______. service onboard relevant to the
issue of a certificate or other qualifications

According to STCW Convention, seagoing service means ______. service onboard relevant to the
issue of a certificate or other qualifications

The ILO Convention for Medical Care and sickness Benefits was adopted in ______. 1969

The SOLAS Protocol 1978 entered into force on ______. May 1, 1981

The use of portable electric lights on petroleum product tankers are allowed on which of the
following conditions? they can be used only when the tank is gas free

The user of respiratory equipment consumes air engaged in heavy work _______. about 30 to 35
ltrs/min

If the user of a respiratory equipment consumes 30 to 35 ltrs/min, he is engaged in: heavy work
The objective/s of AIS is/are the following: security of navigation

AIS updates every ______. 2 seconds

As provided for in Chapter 4 of the Code on Noise Level on Board Ships, what is the noise level
limit for navigating bridge and chart room? 65 decibels (A)

Which of these statements is TRUE? pre-sea medical examination is more stringent than periodic
medical examination

The North Pacific Winter Seasonal Zone applied for the period: October 16 to April 15

The Master was for almost 19 hours in a particular day due to an emergency and communication
with the home office. Which is TRUE to rest period? I. Rest period is not applicable to the Master II.
The Master did not meet the rest period III. The Master should have met the rest period if he had 10
hours of rest I only

Which regulation of SOLAS are passengers and other ships of 3,000 GRT and upwards are obliged
to carry voyage data recorders (VDR)? Reg. V/20

In the use of simulators, what is mandatory in the context of STCW Convention? I. Radar II. Arpa
III. Ship Simulator and Bridge Teamwork I & II

ILO Convention NO. 185 was adopted in June 2003 and went into force on ______. Feb. 9, 2005

Which of the following statements is TRUE? I. there is no need to familiarize on the location of fire
alarm signals under shipboard familiarization II. safety and emergency procedures are required
under shipboard familiarization III. any crew who just boarded the vessel must familiarize on the
location of fire alarm signals under shipboard familiarization I & II

The following should be observed by the PSCO in determining safe manning of a ship EXCEPT:
the capability to operate equipments in case of an emergency

AIS standards include the following EXCEPT: Transmitter specifications

The periodical inspection in connection with the ship’s Loadline Certificate is held: 3 months after
the anniversary date of the completion of initial survey

Each inflatable liferafts on vessels on international voyage shall have a carrying capacity of NOT
less than _____. 6% nor more than 25 persons

The loadline zone for ships over 100 GRT in the Baltic is always ______. summer

Ships over 100 GRT in the Baltic have a loadline zone for _______. summer

The Carriage of Grain Cargo in Bulk come under what international Regulations? SOLAS 74,
Chapter VI

With regards to OPA 90, what type of vessel shall carry approved VRP? vessels carrying oil cargo
VRP should be carried on board by _______. vessels carrying oil cargo

For a more detailed inspection, PSCO checks the following EXCEPT: competency of officers and
crew on board

All life saving appliances on all ships shall not be damaged in stowage throughout the temperature
range _______. -30 deg C to + 65 deg C

EDCS means ______ Electronic Data Collection System

EDCS was implemented on ______. July 1, 2000

What is the period of validity of a Cargo Ship Safety Equipment? 2 years

In controlling abandon ship drills, PSCO checks that each survival craft be in a state of continuous
readiness so that 2 crew members can carry out preparations for embarking and launching in less
than ______. 5 minutes

SBT shall be provided to ______ of 40,000 tons deadweight and above. existing crude oil tanker

Which of the following vessels whose deadweight is 40,000 and above shall carry SBT? existing
crude oil tanker

Liferaft shall be so constructed that when it is dropped into the water from a height of _________,
the liferaft and its equipment will operate satisfactorily. 18 meters

Marpol 73/78 regulates _______ from offshore platforms. displacement water discharge

Ship’s name shall be printed in each of the following EXCEPT: portable fire extinguishers

In each of the following, ship’s name shall be printed EXCEPT: portable fire extinguishers

Category C under Reg. 3, Annex II Marpol 73/78 refers to noxious substance if and when discharged
into the sea from vessels, would present a minor environmental hazard and therefore justify the
application of ________. special operational matters

Does the definition of an Oil Tanker apply to a Gas Carrier? yes, when carrying ecven a part cargo
of oil in bulk

What is the minimum bursting pressure for each cargo hose assembly? at least 600 PSI

The IMO carriage requirement for AIS became effective with the latest changes to SOLAS _______
on July 1, 2002. Chapter V

The conduct of underwater inspection is specified in the _______. Class Survey Report

In which of the following is the underwater inspection specified? Class Survey Report
The Pollution Prevention Regulations state that the ship’s oily bilge slops may be pumped in port if
the _______. discharge is led to a slop barge or shore side tank

Ship’s oily bilge slops may be pumped in port if the _______. discharge is led to a slop barge or
shore side

The bolt circle diameter of a standard pipeline to enable pipes of reception facilities to be connected
for residue from machinery bilges is _______. 183 mm

Historically, the regulation of safety and pollution prevention in international shipping has
developed through three stages. Which of these is not part thereof? compliance with the rules

Noxious liquid substances which when discharged at sea from tank cleaning or deballasting
operations would present a recognizable hazard to marine resources or human health is categorized
______. Category D

Under the Hague Rules, the principal obligations of carriers can be summarized as follows
EXCEPT: make the ship ready in accordance with the terms of the charter party

Under the Hague Rules, the principal obligation/s of carriers is/are: all of these

Which of the following is drawn up in amplification of a contract in order to lay down rights and/or
obligations between contracting parties? back letter

A shipping term in a fixture note, Ex. means _______. excluding

The clause that provides the ascertaining whether a vessel is constructive total loss, the insured value
taken into account as the repaired value and that nothing in respect of the break up value shall be
taken into account is ______. devaluation clause

In ascertaining whether a vessel is constructive total loss, the insured value taken into account as the
repaired value and that nothing in respect of the break up value shall be taken into account, which of
the following clause provides it? devaluation clause

The laytime that occurs where both loading and discharging operations are considered for the
purpose of laytime calculations is called ______. reversible laytime

Where both loading and discharging operations are considered for the purpose of laytime
calculations, this laytime is called _______. reversible laytime

The term used when negotiating for chartering a ship as regards rate of loading and discharge;
loading and unloading expenses; appointment of charterer’s or owner’s agents at port of loading and
discharging is called: both ends

The total loss presumed after a reasonable lapse of time on a missing ship is called: presumed
overall loss

The charter party stipulates a Weather Working Day of two 8-hours shifts. Under these terms how
many hours of laytime will comprise sixteen working hours? 24 hours
A Weather Working Day of two 8-hours shifts is stipulated in the charter party. Under these terms
how many hours of laytime will comprise sixteen working hours? 24 hours

Why is it so important that the description of the goods in the Bill of Lading is CORRECT? I.
because the carrier may not be able to collect the correct freight II. because the issuance of a clean
B/L for damaged goods constitute a fraud II only

An ordinary or accidental expense incurred during the voyage in order to preserve the cargo, and all
damages or deterioration suffered from the departure to port of destination and to the cargo from the
port of loading to the port of consignment is called ______. averages

This lien against a vessel should be settled FIRST. salvage lien

Which of the following lien against a vessel should be settled first? salvage lien

Under time charter, the master is primarily concerned with ______. requisition, provision and
drydock

What is done to amplify a contract in order to lay down rights and/or obligations between both
contracting parties? back letter

What can happen to a shipowner if a stowaway is successful in escaping from the ship? the owner
has no responsibility

If a stowaway is successful in escaping from the ship, what can happen to the shipowner? the owner
has no responsibility

Which of the following categories of laytime depends upon the custom of the port at which cargo
operations are being performed, or on the speed at which the ship can load or discharge? indefinite
laytime

Who has the authority to order a general average act? Master

As Master, you wanted to dismiss a 3rd Engr who committed 5 major offenses and communicated
this to the company. However, the company said the 3rd Engr. cannot be dismissed. Which of the
following statements is FALSE? I. the company has the right to dismiss any of the crew II. the
Master has the right to dismiss any of the crew III. the Master and the company have the right to
dismiss any of the crew I & III

Brokers who have been specifically appointed by large importers or exporters in order to take up the
space required for their shipments are called ______. chartering agents

An underwriter is liable for _______. loss caused by unavoidable delay due to fog

This is a non-negotiable document where the named consignee or his authorized agent takes delivery
of the goods subject to proof of identity without the need of presenting such document. waybill

The laytime that occurs where both loading and discharging operations are considered for the
purpose of laytime calculation is called ______. reversible laytime
Where the ship is not a total loss in the physical sense, it may have receive such damage is
irreparable, or it may be economically impracticable to repair. The common term used for both
situations is _______. beyond repair or condemned

The term used where the ship is not a total loss in the physical sense, it may have receive such
damage is irreparable, or it may be economically impracticable to repair is ______. beyond repair or
condemned

Non-classed ships scheduled drydocking may be extended but not to exceed ______. 3 months

What clause relates to a vessel with liberty to sail without pilots, to sail at any port for any
reasonable purpose, to tow and to be towed and assist vessel in distress? deviation clause

Which of the following relates to a vessel with liberty to sail without pilots, to sail at any port for
any reasonable purpose, to tow and to be towed and assist vessel in distress? deviation clause

Hamburg Rules was enforced in ______. 1974

When did the Hamburg Rules came into effect? 1974

Expenses incurred by or on behalf of the assured for the safety of subject matter insured, other than
general average and salvage charges are called _______. particular charges

What do you call the expenses incurred by or on behalf of the assured for the safety of the subject
matter insured other than general average charges? particular charges

What expenses are incurred by or on behalf of the assured for the safety of the subject matter insured
other than general average? particular charges

Under a voyage charter party, remuneration is calculated by reference to _______. cargo involved

A negotiated charter is a ______. fixture

Under time charter, when a vessel is delivered, a certificate of delivery is drawn up which contains
the following EXCEPT: date and place of delivery

When a ship is delivered under time charter, a certificate of delivery is drawn up which contains the
following EXCEPT: date and place of delivery

This is a phrase in connection with maritime transportation which refers to dangers, incident to
roadsteads where vessels ride at anchor. It is a state peril in Bills of Lading and charter parties.
Danger of Roads

This refers to dangers, incident to roadstead where vessels ride at anchor. It is a state peril in Bills of
Lading and charter parties. Danger of Roads

All non-containerized foreign cargoes imported, exported or transshipped through a government-


owned wharf shall be charged _______. wharfage fee
Non-containerized foreign cargoes imported, exported or transshipped through a government-owned
wharf shall be charged _______. wharfage fee

Foreign cargoes which are not containerized, imported , exported or transshipped through a
government-owned wharf shall be charged _______. wharfage fee

In a fixture note, D/P means ______. documents against payment

When a vessel can be ready to load at short notice where a reasonable dispatch may be expected is
called _______. prompt ship

The Hague-Visby Rules apply to _________________. bill of lading

The term “Contract of Carriage” as defined by the Hague-Visby Rules applies only to: contracts of
carriage covered by a bill of lading

The acronym COGSA is directly associated with the _______________. Hamburg Rules

The term “carriage of goods” as defined in the Hague-Visby Rules covers the period from the
____________________. Time when the goods are loaded on to the time they are discharged from
the ship.

Basically, a bill of lading is a _____________. formal receipt issued and signed by a carrier
acknowledging that goods have been received for the purpose of shipment.

Electronic bills of lading was introduced to contemporary shipping by the _______. CMI Rules

The term “allision” as it relates to marine accidents refers to __________. collisions between ships
and other structures, such as piers and bridges

The liability provisions relating to collision are applicable where a vessel, by her conduct, has
caused damage to: I. another vessel; II. persons or property on board; III. persons or property on
board even though no collision has taken place I, II, & III

The phrase “where a vessel by her conduct” as it relates to the liability provisions relating to
collision, means: I. the execution or non-execution of a maneuver II. non-observance of the
regulations I & II

Collisions can involve three types of possible liability for the shipowner or master. Which one of the
following is not classified as a liability? Physical

This is a term that refers to all unlawful or injurious acts done or committed on the sea or on
navigable waters connected with the sea. Tort

If an alien stowaway is discovered aboard your vessel, his name must be placed on the: separate
passenger list marked stowaways

It is the responsibility of the Master to ensure that ______________. temporary personnel and
visitors are advised of emergency stations
The York-Antwerp Rules 1974 as amended in 1990, states that “except as provided by the numbered
Rules, general average shall be adjusted according to the ________Rules. Lettered Rules

Which of the following provisions relates to Rule A of the York-Antwerp Rules 1974 as amended in
1990? There is a general average act when, and only when, any extraordinary sacrifice or
expenditure is intentionally and reasonably made

Which of the following provisions relates to Rule B of the York-Antwerp Rules 1974 as amended in
1990? General average sacrifices and expenses shall be borne by the different contributing interests

Which of the following provisions relates to Rule C of the York-Antwerp Rules 1974 as amended in
1990? Only such losses, damages or expenses which are the direct consequence of the general
average act shall be allowed as general average

Which of the following provisions relates to Rule E of the York-Antwerp Rules 1974 as amended in
1990? The onus of proof is upon the party claiming in general average to show that the loss or
expense claimed is properly allowable as general average

Rule I of the York-Antwerp Rules 1974 as amended in 1990 relates to: Jettison of Cargo

Rule II of the York-Antwerp Rules 1974 as amended in 1990 relates to: Damage by Jettison &
Sacrifice for the common safety

Rule VI of the York-Antwerp Rules 1974 as amended in 1990 relates to: Salvage

Rule X of the York-Antwerp Rules 1974 as amended in 1990 relates to: Expenses at Port of Refuge,
etc.

Rule XV of the York-Antwerp Rules 1974 as amended in 1990 relates to: Loss of freight

The Hamburg Rules relates to ___________. Carriage of Goods by Sea

In general practice ship owners do not deal directly with his underwriters, but negotiates through
____________ to effect hull insurances. Insurance brokers

In actual practice, as a measure in determining when the vessel is a constructive total loss, it is
common for insurance policies to provide for the _____________ value, to be substituted for the
repaired value insured

When an assured wishes to claim for constructive total loss of her vessel that run aground, it is
necessary for her to tender notice of _________to her insurers. abandonment

The Hague Rules relates to _______. Owner’s Cargo liability under Bills of Lading

Which of the following protection risks is caused by P & I? I. Liabilities relating to death & personal
injury II. Liabilities relating to wreck removal & pollution I & II

In relation to P & I Insurance, which of the following premiums are fixed? Premium for a vessel
entered for charterers account
How often are the P & I Club’s Statutes & Rules revised? annually

What should the master do when a defect in the ship is discovered? He should initiate corrective
actions

When should the Master release the cargo to the consignee without the production of the Bills of
Lading? When owners have given the master explicit permission

Risks covered by P & I: I. Protection Risks, personal injury claims II. Protection Risks, Vessel &
other Property III. Indemnity Risks I,II & III

Which P & I Insurance cover, covers a financial interest that the shipper may have on the vessel
beyond the insured value? Hull & Freight Interest

Which P & I Insurance cover, covers physical damage to or loss of vessel & equipment? Hull &
Machinery

Under the “CMI Rules for the Electronic Transfer of Rights to Goods in Transit (1990)”, EDIS
means _____. Electronic Data Interchange

Under the “CMI Rules for the Electronic Transfer of Rights to Goods in Transit (1990)”, this means
any technically appropriate form which the parties may agree for securing the authentication and
integrity of a transmission. Private key

The ownership of a consignment of timber is in dispute. At discharging port, a holder of one original
Bill of Lading requests the cargo. Should the Master deliver the cargo to this person? I. Yes, the
Master is bound to deliver the cargo II. No, the Master should request the surrender of all original
Bills of Lading II only

During the sea voyage from Durban to Kobe the vessel experienced weather up to force 10 in the
Beaufort Scale. The floating pontoons in TD NO. 2 broke its lashings & caused considerable damage
to general cargo stowed in TD NO. 2. Is the ship liable for the damage to the cargo? I. The ship is
liable in view of the carrier’s obligation to exercise that the cargo is carried w/o being damaged II.
The ship is not liable as the lashings used to secure the pontoons broke because they were old & in
the master’s view should have been replaced long time ago. I only

In most cases the resettlement of refugees rescued at sea is arranged through the auspices of w/c UN
agency? UNHCR

This is a note by the marine insurance broker to the insured after the original ship has been initiated
for the total sum required. It has no legal force until the policy has been issued Cover note

This clause in a policy provides that in the event of actual or constructive total loss, no claim shall be
made by the underwriters for freight whether notice of abandonment has been given or not. freight
abandonment clause

Which maritime lien can be placed against a vessel? cargo or freight

Which is levied on ships usually by scale of tonnage toward the maintenance of lights, beacons,
buoys, etc. is called: light dues
Which of the following can lead to unlimited liability? willful misconduct, gross negligence and
violation of safety regulations

Lien of cargo for freight arises when: the freight is due on delivery of cargo

Lien on cargo for demurrage exist: when the contract of affreightment expressly gives one

Lien on cargo by the shipowner cannot be effected: when the ship is under demise charter

Salvage means: work performed by a sailor under a written salvage agreement

The right to salvage can rise only on maritime property. Which is FALSE? vessels used in
navigation, her cargo equipment and wreckage

Which is NOT a recognized subject of salvage according to maritime laws on salvage? Personal
Effects

Which of the following is NOT valid for a salvage award? the salvor has an official duty to render
assistance

There is no limit to the kind of service that may qualify for salvage reward but who renders the
service must be: a volunteer

Which of the following is TRUE? The master and crew of a ship in distress can: not claim
remuneration as salvor

Which of the following statement is TRUE? A person who renders service in order to preserve
himself or his property that is in danger: has no right to be paid salvage remuneration

A ship has been aground and towed into port, found out to have suffered so much damages that she
is considered a total loss. Which principle of salvage has NOT been attained yet. the service must be
successful

In practice, salvage remuneration is paid out of the value of the property saves. The court usually
awards: There is no fix proportion for the award and guidance is sought from other salvage cases of
similar circumstances

The appointment between the owner, the Master and Crew in service of salving another ship is
determined by the: Flagstate of the vessel

Under what circumstances is the administration of any country NOT allowed to conduct
unscheduled inspection of the ships? the Master has a Certificate of Compliance with ISM Code

The following certificates are issued bye the Classification Societies EXCEPT: Derrating Certificate

Safe Berth or Safe Port in a charter party mean: safe can safely approach, use and leave such berth
or port at no risk
_________ is a type of survey that includes inspection of items relating to the particular certificate to
ensure they are fit for the service for which the ship is intended? Periodic Survey

_________ is a type of survey that involves inspection of specified items. Intermediate Survey

________ is a type of survey that involves a general inspection of the item relating to the particular
certificate for which the ship is intended for. annual survey

Which certificate covers electrical installation and equipment including emergency electrical
powers? Cargo Ship Safety Construction Certificate

You are on general cargo ship told to prepare survey of anchor cables and compass. Which
certificate is being renewed? Cargo Ship Safety Construction Certificate

Which certificate covers the lifesaving apparatus of vessels? Cargo Ship Safety Equipment
Certificate

The difference between the light displacement and the displacement at any draught: deadweight at
the draught

Under UNCLOS 1982, which Article requires that every state shall effectively exercise its
jurisdiction and control in administrative, technical and social matters over ships flying its flag?
Article 94

_________ is a clause that places the duty of the assured to take reasonable measures to avert or
minimize losses and ensure that the right against third parties are properly preserved. Bailic Clause

_________ is a clause in a charter party that reads “ warranty free of any claim based upon loss of or
frustration of the insured voyage or adventure caused by arrest or detention. Frustration Clause

On general cargo ship, there is often a danger of one commodity causing damage to another,
underwriter are not liable for the resulting loss except in circumstances where due to marine peril has
caused damage to one commodity and the other has suffered direct consequences. The damage to the
second commodity is called: Sympathetic Damage

_________ is a clause that provides general average and salvage shall be adjusted according to the
law of the place where the adventure ends, or according to York –Antwerp Rules if the contract of
affreightment so provides. General Average Clause

In general this refers to a table of charges. In particular, it is a list of duties chargeable on goods. It is
also the list of current freight rates issued by a Liner Conference Tariff

These are the seamen engaged on temporary basis to man a ship which has to be shifted from one
part of a port to another part of the same port Riggers

Under these terms, when grain is bought, the seller guarantees the condition on arrival; hence
seawater damage en route is at his own risk. Rye terms

In order for a jettisoned deck cargo to be considered a general average loss, the precondition is:
cargo is carried by established custom
This is a clause in the charter party where the charterer reserves the right to cancel the charter if the
ship fails to arrive on a specified day at a named port ready to load: cancellation clause

This is a chartering expression denoting that there is no indemnity payable for gained in loading or
discharging: free dispatch

What would be the course of action to be taken by the vessel if she is hired under a voyage charter
party and was instructed to proceed immediately to a named port: proceed to the port with all
reasonable speed

If the intention is for Sundays and holidays are not to count as laydays even if they were used for
working agreement between the master and the charterer, how is it termed in the charter party?:
Sundays and holidays excepted

Many charter parties contain this clause in order to avoid expensive litigation: arbitration clause

This is a kind of freight due to the ship by the terms of the B/L As distinct from the freight due in
accordance with the terms of the charter party: bill of lading freight

While abroad, the services of a registered cargo surveyor cannot be obtained, what can a master do if
it is imperative that a cargo survey should be carried out? request the services of 2 other shipmasters
who are disinterested parties

For vessel not complying with time charter speed, a charter may claim against the charter hire. This
is called: under-performance claim

This is a clause in a C/P to prove that a clause was due to an accident from natural causes, but
without human intervention and could have not been prevented by any amount of care and foresight:
Act of God

This is a term used to denote a bill of lading issued for a consignment of goods shipped by trading
vessels especially built to the freight line service with regular sailing liner bill of lading

The government authority primarily responsible for the enforcement and ensuring that only
competent, properly trained and duly licensed masters, pilots and seafarers are allowed to board and
man ships of Philippine registry is _______. PCG

All non-containerized foreign cargoes imported, exported or transshipped through a government-


owned wharf shall be charged _______. wharfage fee on the basis of the total metric or revenue
tonnage

Non-containerized foreign cargoes imported, exported or transshipped through a government-owned


wharf shall be charged _______. wharfage fee on the basis of the total metric or revenue tonnage

The Training Record Book of Deck Cadets has been developed and published by the: International
Shipping Federation

Yachts/pleasure crafts staying at a registered marina that comply with PPA rules on private ports
shall not be liable to payment of: domestic dockage fee
Vessels exempted from paying ______ are yachts/pleasure crafts staying at a registered marina that
comply with PPA rules on private ports. domestic dockage fee

The Training Record Book of Deck Cadets has been developed and published by the: International
Shipping Federation

Idle vessels occupying dockside berth at any government port despite a shifting order from the Port
Manager to give way to an incoming vessel shall be charged of 300% of dockage fee for foreign
vessels

How much shall idle ships be charged occupying dockside berth at any government port despite a
shifting order from the Port Manager to give way to incoming vessel? 300% of dockage fee for
foreign vessels

Which of the following are idle ships charged occupying dockside berth despite of a shifting order
by the Port Manager to give way to an incoming vessel? 300% of dockage fee for foreign vessels

Dockage at berth is charged at any port of call per GRT per calendar day or fraction thereof provided
that a maximum 0f 50,000 GRT shall be used, at a government port US$ 0.039/GRT; at a private
port officially registered with PPA US$ 0.020/GRT or fraction thereof to: I. vessels engaged in
foreign trade II. vessels engaged in barter trade III. vessels engaged in domestic trade I & II

Chapter XVIII of the PMMRR requires that the Master of fishing vessels engaged in coastwise
voyage 150 t0 250 gross tonnage should at least be a licensed _______. Minor Patron

Under Phil, regulations the scheduled dry docking of classed ships may be extended to a period not
exceeding ______. 6 months

Classed ships under Philippine regulations may extend its dry docking for a period not exceeding
_______. 6 months

Yachts/pleasure crafts from 6 GRT to 100 GRT calling at government ports shall be liable to the
payment of domestic dockage fee at ______. P40.00 per calendar day

How much dockage fee shall yachts/pleasure crafts from 6 GRT to 100 GRT calling at government
ports are charged? P40.00 per calendar day

Category A high speed crafts as defined by Reg. XVII/2 of the PMMRR, are passenger crafts
carrying not more than _________ passengers. 450

Which law created the Philippine Ports Authority? P.D.857

The law creating the Philippine Ports Authority was ______. P.D. 857

This is gross tonnage less ‘deducted spaces’ which are theoretically non-carrying spaces. registered
tonnage

Gross Tonnage less ‘deducted spaces’ which are theoretically non-carrying spaces is: registered
tonnage
Chapter XVIII of the PMMRR requires that the master of a cargo vessel engaged in coastwise
voyage of 500 to 999 GRT should at least be a licensed ______. Second Mate

Which of the following are categorized as Category 2 under Philippine regulations? vessels whose
travel time between ports is less than 4 hours

The distance between the waterline and the top of the keel is the _______. moulded draft

As defined in the PMMRR, the tonnage measured in accordance with the International Tonnage
convention 1969 and for ships of less than 24 meters in length is called: gross tonnage

The Training Record Book shall be used by Deck Cadets for attaining experience in applying the
knowledge provided in college and covers required training for: Officer In Charge of Navigational
Watch

Deck Cadets use the Training Record Book for attaining experience in applying the knowledge
provided in college and covers required training for ______. Officer In Charge of Navigational
Watch

To which of the following that dockage at berth is charged, that berth at any port of call per GRT per
calendar day or fraction thereof provided that a maximum of 50,000 GRT shall be used, at a
government port US$ 0.039/GRT, at a private port officially registered with PPA US$ 0.020/GRT or
fraction thereof: I. vessels engaged in foreign trade II. vessels engaged in barter trade III. vessels
engaged in domestic trade I & II

Under MARINA, all STCW certificates shall have 5 years validity period. MARINA may issue a
provisional certificate with a validity period of not more than year in cases such as, EXCEPT: loss
of eyesight

Which of the following PPA MC covers Guidelines and Documentation of Domestic Container
Cargoes at South Harbor, Manila? NO. 4 – 2003

Which document is issued by the port authority detailing the amount of dues paid or payable?
Tonnage Dues Slip

Under R.A. 8981, the PRC is a _______. 3-man commission

The PRC under R.A. 8981 is a _______. 3-man commission

Non-classed ships scheduled drydocking may be extended but not to exceed ______. 3 months

Under Philippine regulations, which of the following falls under Category 2? vessels whose travel
time between ports is less than 4 hours

Which of the following vessels falls under Category under Philippine regulations? those with less
than 4 hours travel time between ports

Vessels for drydocking or repair at any duly authorized drydocking shipyard facilities shall be
exempted from _______. dockage/usage fee
Which of the following is a vessel not charged when drydocking or having repair at any duly
authorized drydocking shipyard facilities? dockage/usage fee

A vessel is not charged ______ during drydocking or undergoing repairs at any authorized shipyard
facilities. dockage/usage fee

MARINA M.C. 1-75 mandates that ______. all vessels entering and leaving port or harbor of
Philippine jurisdiction shall submit to MARINA a copy of Cargo Manifest of all cargoes on board

Which of the following is mandated by MARINA M.C> 1-75? all vessels entering port or harbor of
Philippine jurisdiction shall submit to MARINA a copy of Cargo Manifest of all cargoes on board

Pursuant to Reg. I/6 of the PMMRR, the inspection of firefighting and lifesaving appliances shall be
done _______. annually

According to Philippine regulations, the inspection of firefighting and lifesaving appliance shall be
done ______. annually

The minimum safe manning as provided for in Chapter XVIII of PMMRR is assessed on a case to
case basis _______. I. upon request of the company II. upon request of the vessel subject to approval
of the Company III. upon request of the Master I only

MARINA Circular NO. 171 mandates that all Masters and Chief Mates employed on Philippine flag
vessels of less than 500 GRT plying domestic trades must take recurrency training every _______. 3
years

The recurrency training which MARINA mandates under Circular NO. 171 for Masters and Chief
Mates employed on Philippine Flag vessels of less than 500 GRT plying the Domestic trades must
take place every _______. 3 years

This is the proper agency tasked to impose administrative fines/fees for violation of the International
Convention on STCW as amended. Board of Marine Deck Officers/Engine Officers

Which of the following is tasked to impose administrative fines/fees for violation of the International
Convention on STCW as amended? Board of Marine Deck Officers/Engine Officers

A passenger/cargo or cargo vessel intended to ply Philippine waters and shall be classified by a
government recognized classification society prior to its operation in domestic shipping shall not
exceed ________ from the date of launching. 15 years

In domestic trade where a ship has a voyage duration of over 12 hours, how many passengers are
there on board if there is one medical practitioner and one paramedic onboard? over 2,000

In domestic trade where a ship has a voyage duration of 12 hours and there are over 2,000
passengers on board, which of the following shall she carry? one medical practitioner and one
paramedic

The Administration requires all ships registered in the Philippines except hose mentioned in Chapter
I, Reg. I/3 of the PMMRR, the following certificates EXCEPT: Certificate of Registration
Which of the following agencies manages the port district? Port Management Services

Port Districts are managed by _______. Port Management Services

Pursuant to MARINA M.C. 152, passenger/passenger cargo classed ships shall be drydocked twice
within a period of ________. 5 years

Passenger/passenger cargo classed ships are required under MARINA M.C. 158 to be drydocked
twice within a period of _______. 5 years

Which of the following agencies manages the port district? Port Management Services

Port Districts are managed by _______. Port Management Services

Pursuant to MARINA M.C. 152, passenger/passenger cargo classed ships shall be drydocked twice
within a period of ________. 5 years

Passenger/passenger cargo classed ships are required under MARINA M.C. 158 to be drydocked
twice within a period of _______. 5 years

Under the Domestic Shipping ACT, a Filipino who intends to import vessel/s with a minimum of
150 GRT and/or spare parts shall be exempted from the payment of all import duties and taxes for a
period of _______. 20 years

Under R.A. 8981, the chairperson of the Philippine Regulation Commission: I. shall be at least 40
years old II. has had at least 5 years of executive and management experience neither I nor II,

MARINA serves the maritime industry through the following offices EXCEPT: Maritime Regional
Office

The maritime industry is served by MARINA through the following offices EXCEPT: Maritime
Regional Office

Dockage at berth is charged to which of the following, that berth at any port of call per GRT per
calendar day or fraction thereof provided that a maximum of 50,000 GRT shall be used, at a
government port US$ 0.030/GRT; at a private port officially registered with PPA US$ 0.020/GRT or
fraction thereof. I. vessels engaged in foreign trade II. vessels engaged in barter trade III. vessels
engaged in domestic trade I & II

As stipulated in the revised PMMRR, ships not classed shall be dry docked every: 2 years

Which of the following PPA M.C. covers the ‘Regulation on the Proper Marking and Labeling of
Dangerous Cargoes? NO. 25 – 2002

The Regulation on the Proper Marking and Labeling of Dangerous Cargoes is embodied in PPA
M.C. NO. 25 - 2002

PPA M.C. NO. 25 – 2002 covers the ______. Regulation on the Proper Marking and Labeling of
Dangerous Cargoes
Which of the following M.C. created the Qualification Document Certificate? M.C. 164

If a Philippine flag vessel becomes involved in a collision, a report must be made out to the
________ upon arrival in a Philippine port. PCG

A report must be made to the _______ upon arrival in a Philippine port if a Philippine flag vessel is
involved in a collision. PCG

To which government agency should you submit a report upon arrival in a Philippine port if your
vessel which flies a Philippine flag is involved in a collision? PCG

Ships are fined during Marpol inspection by PSCO because _______. oil film is found on shipside
near the bilge discharge manifold

All vessels over 500 GRT should carry radar. This recommendations comes from: RCH Code

Radar is a requirement on vessels of 500 GRT and above. This recommendations is under: RCH
Code

All tankers under OPA 90 are required to carry on board spill recovery equipment of sufficient
capacity to _______. accomodate oil spill on deck

Recurrency training of Masters and Chief Officers engaged on ships below 500 GRT in the domestic
trade is embodied in MARINA _______. M.C. 171

Masters and Chief Officers engaged on ships below 500 GRT in the domestic trade are required to
have a recurrency training embodied in MARINA _______. M.C. 171

For ships below 500 GRT engaged in the domestic trade, Masters and Chief Officers are required to
have a recurrency training under MARINA ______. M.C. 171

Under R.A. 8544, a chairperson of the PRC is appointed by the President of the Philippines. Which
of the following statement is correct? must be a former member of any board of PRC

_______ refers to the territorial jurisdiction under the control, supervision or ownership of the
Philippine Ports Authority Port Zone Limits

Which of the following refers to the territorial jurisdiction under the control, supervision or
ownership of the Philippine Ports Authority? Port Zone Limits

The territorial jurisdiction under the control, supervision or ownership of the PPA is referred to as
_______. Port Zone Limits

Which of the following agencies is responsible for the markings on loadlines of Phil. Flag vessels?
Accredited International Classification Societies

Art. 19 Sec. 17 of ITU Radio Rules allocated additional call signs to the phils. which of the
following call sign is assigned? 4DA-4IZ
A Phil. Flag vessel which is not normally engaged in international voyage but which is required to
undertake a single voyage in exceptional circumstances may be exempted from the requirements of
SOLAS 74/78 provided the ship__________. adopts safety requirements that MARINA considers
adequate for the voyage.

What Section of R.A. 8544 defines the grounds for suspension and revocation of COR and COC?
Section 24

I.T.U. Radio Reg. 12-1-1 provides that every ship while at sea, shall maintain a continuous watch on
VHF DSC channel 70, in accordance with the requirement of Reg. 7.1.2, she must be fitted with
_____________. GMDSS

What survey is required of a ship which includes inspection of equipment to ensure that the ship is
complying with the requirements of the PMMRR/97? Renewal Survey

Regulation ¼ PArt. 93 of PMMRR/97, defines which of the following routes? short international
voyages

What is the tonnage of vessels that are qualified for exemption from VAT on the importations and
local purchase of passenger and/or cargo vessels including engine and spare parts of said vessels?
150 tons and above

The Certificate of Competence (COC) issued to Master Mariners in the Philippines should
demonstrate theory of operation of the ship mainly from a safety and legal points of view. Which of
the following training courses (in the Philippines) is not made part of the requirement for COC?
Practical Ship handling

The Certificate of Competence (COC) issued to Master Mariners in the Philippines should
demonstrate theory of operation of the ship mainly from a safety and legal points of view. Which of
the following training courses (in the Philippines) is not made part of the requirement for COC?
Personnel Management

The Certificate of Competence (COC) issued to Master Mariners in the Philippines should
demonstrate theory of operation of the ship mainly from a safety and legal points of view. Which of
the following training courses (in the Philippines) is not made part of the requirement for COC?
General Management Skills Training

The Certificate of Competence (COC) issued to Master Mariners in the Philippines should
demonstrate theory of operation of the ship mainly from a safety and legal points of view. Which of
the following training courses (in the Philippines) is not made part of the requirement for COC?
Computer Literacy

To be exempted from VAT upon importation, the age limit requirement is: 15 years for passenger
vessels

For non-classed passenger/passenger cargo ships dry docking maybe extended on a monthly basis
but not to exceed _______________. 3 months
If a Phil. Flag vessel engaged in domestic trade is required to undertake a single foreign voyage in
exceptional circumstances may be exempted from the requirement of SOLAS 74/78 provided the
ship ________. adopts safety requirement which MARINA considers adequate for the voyage

Agency which prescribes the routes, zones or areas of operations of domestic ship operators is
________. MARINA

All domestic ship operators shall have the ________to provide and sustain safe, reliable, efficient
and economic passenger or cargo service, or both. financial capacity

The size of beds in the first class section of inter-island passenger vessels should be at least
________. 6 x 2 ft

Tugboats, dredgers and anchor handling vessels engaged in coastwise voyage between 35 and 100
gross tonnage as required by Chapter XVIII of the PMMRR have a manning requirement which
comprises ________. 2 deck and 2 engine personnel

High speed crafts under Category A as defined by Reg. XVII/2 of the PMMRR, are passenger crafts
carrying not more than ______ passengers. 450

Which of the following certificates is NOT issued by the Phil. Coast Guard? Classification of Hull
and Machinery

MC 40-2002 of PPA pertains to _______of Harbor Pilots rendering pilotage service to vessels.
Performance

Ships documented in the Phils. shall be assigned a/an _____________as stipulated in the revised
PMMRR. official number

Master Mariners in the Philippines are issued COCs that should demonstrate theory of operation of
the ship mainly from a safety and legal points of view. Which of the following training courses ( in
the Philippines ) is not made part of the requirement for COC? General Management Skills Training

Master Mariners in the Philippines are issued COCs that should demonstrate theory of operation of
the ship mainly from a safety and legal points of view. Which of the following training courses ( in
the Philippines ) is not made part of the requirement for COC? Practical Shiphandling

Filipino seafarers have legal rights coming from two primary sources: the POEA Contract of
Employment and the _______. Migrant Workers and Overseas Filipino Act of 1995

To register his ship under Philippine Registry the ship owner must secure first: Ship’s Identification
Number

Tanker vessels of 250-500 GRT that are on limited coastwise operation, which of the following can
act as Master? Third Mate

There are how many toilets and bathrooms are required under MARINA Reg. 65 for Philippine
Inter-island vessels? 1 per 50 passengers separate from men and women/children
For the rank of Master for a Philippine registered passenger vessel between 1000 – 1599 gross tons
engaged in coastwise trade the minimum license required is: Chief Mate

PMMRR Chapter XVII requires that the master of tugboat of between100 and 250 gross tonnage
engaged in coastwise voyage should be at least a licensed: second mate or major patron

The policy limiting the right to engage in Philippine Coastwise Trade to be limited to vessels
carrying a certificate of Philippine Registry is called _______. Cabotage

Vessels engaged in the domestic trade carrying 500 to 2000 passengers and having 12 hours or less
voyage duration shall carry ______. one registered nurse or midwife

The minimum size required before a vessel can be documented in the Philippines is: 5 net tons

The floor area per person of 3,000 GRT and above for officers shall not be less than: 7.5 sqm

A Philippine registered vessel shall fly the national flag _____. at all times

Field offices which deliver frontline services and are organized into semi-autonomous units of
MARINA are the _______. Port District Offices

The maritime industry is served by MARINA through the following offices EXCEPT: Board of
Marine Inquiry

Which formulates, recommends and continuously evaluates and analyzes the broad policies and
guidelines, plans and programs of MARINA for the promotion and development of the maritime
industry? Planning and Policy Office

Which formulates, develops and maintains information systems to support promotion, development,
regulation and supervision activities of the Authority and monitoring systems on the implementation
of plans, programs, policies and guidelines. Management Information systems Office

Motivation is defined ______. factors that cause, channel and sustain’s people’s behaviour

When a trainee values and appreciates a training program he has attended, this is called: attitude
objective

Through which level of the organization are data transmitted? lateral relationship

Assessment is BEST defined by maritime assessors as: the process of obtaining and comparing
evidence of competence with the required standards

In order to supply human resources, the management must understand the organization’s: strategy

The human resource management must understand the company’s _______ in order to supply
human resources. strategy

Managers who respond to pressure for change by denying that they exist are responding in a
_______ way. destructive
Any manager who responds to pressure for change by denying that they exist are responding in a
_______ way. destructive

The main objective of a prudent mariner is _______. to ensure that the ship reaches its destination
safely and efficiently

A prudent mariner’s main objective is _______. to ensure that the ship reaches its destination safely
and effectively

What the trainee should be able to apply in their workplace when the training is completed is called
______. Job Behavior Objectives

Lifeboat alarm is _______. seven short sound signals followed by a long sound signal

Abandon ship signal is ______. seven short sound signals followed by one long sound signal

After teaching a lesson, one gives quiz to his class. What is this? Formative Test

Which of the following quiz is given after teaching a lesson? Formative Test

Which of the following Terminal Performance Objectives specify what the trainee should be able to
value and appreciate when the training is completed? attitude objective

When a training is completed, the trainee should be able to value and appreciate which of the
following terminal performance objectives? attitude objectives

Onboard training in the use of davit-launched liferafts shall take place at intervals of not more than
_______. 4 months

Training onboard in the use of davit-launched liferafts shall take place at intervals of not more than
_______. 4 months

In determining training needs, which of the following ways is used when the trainor simply lists
down all subjects that may possibly of help to the personnel concerned? survey

Which of the following is used in determining training needs when the trainor simply lists all down
the subjects that may possibly of help to the personnel concerned? survey

The variance, standard deviation, and range of a process are all measures of: partition values

Managers respond in a _______ way when they respond to pressure for change and deny that they
exist. destructive

In a matrix structure, _______ are created as the need for them arises. project teams

Which are created in a matrix structure as the need arises? project teams

Which is/are not supportive of the development of creative thinking? open classroom atmosphere
Onboard training in the use of davit-launched liferafts shall take place at intervals of not more than
______. 4 months

Training in the use of davit-launched liferafts onboard shall take place at intervals of not more than
_______. 4 months

What is the basis of a manager making a choice of objectives? effectiveness

The basis of a manager making a choice of objectives is _______. effectiveness

An accurate perception of the operational and environmental conditions affecting the vessel during a
specific period of time is called ______. situational awareness

Which role does the teacher play when he sets desirable learning activities for the individual learner
and takes responsibility of matching available resources with the needs of each learner? counselor
and consultant of learning

In order to make Onboard Pollution Training to work it is important _______. it is continuous and
stresses safe and pollution free operations

Which of the following has its strength immediate feedback? laboratory method

Which teaching method is intended primarily for skill and concept mastery by way of practice?
project

The teaching method intended primarily for skill and concept mastery by way of practice is
________. project

Which questioning practice will promote more class interaction? asking rhetorical questions

Which of the following will promote more class interaction? asking rhetorical questions

What the trainee will do at the end of the training that he cannot do before is called: behavioral
objective

Which of the following objectives will a trainee to at the end of the training that he cannot do
before? behavioral objective

For facts to be useful in research, it is best to ______. select, classify and summarize them

In order for facts to be useful in research, it is best to _______. select, classify and summarize them

A passenger vessel must have an emergency squad when _______. the size of the crew permits

When can a passenger vessel required to have an emergency squad? when the size of the crew
permits

A thorough investigation would include all of the following, EXCEPT: identify the symptoms

Making a thorough investigation would include the following EXCEPT: identify the symptoms
Basically there are three stages in the task of organizing a training program. Which of the following
is NOT involved? monitoring stage

Which of the following is NOT involved in the task of organizing a training program? monitoring
stage

In developing the curriculum of a training program, which of the following Job Objectives come
FIRST? determine program structure

The following is/are part/s of the rational process. identifying the symptoms of the problem

Which of the following is/are part/s of the rational process? identifying the symptoms of the
problem

Which is NOT within the scope of organizing a training program? monitoring stage

Which of the following is part of organizing a training program? all of these

The trainee must exhibit a performance when assessment takes place at the end of the training
program. This is called ______. Terminal Performance Objective

The performance exhibited by the trainee during assessment at the end of the training program is
called _______. Terminal Performance Objective

This is a particular scope for instructional objective which deals with how a trainee should know
about something in relation to the training program. affective objective

An instructional objective which deals with how a trainee should know about something in relation
to the training program is ______. affective objective

Which of the following is NOT required under shipboard familiarization? location of fire alarm
signals

Shipboard familiarization requires the following EXCEPT: location of fire alarm signals

Human resource management does not deal with _______. production

Human resource management deals with the following EXCEPT: production

Expectations and desired outcomes which reflect the philosophy, broad direction and general
purposes of an education/training system is called _______. education aims

What would you call the expectations and desired outcomes reflecting the philosophy, broad
direction and general purpose of an education system? educational aims

The 4 basic steps in planning are ________. set goals, examine resources, identify aids and barriers,
develop course of action
Which of the following is NOT a component of an instructional objective? indicate desired terminal
behavior

What particular scope of instructional objective deals with how a trainee should know about
something in relation to the training program? affective objective

A thorough investigation should include all of the following aspects EXCEPT: identifying the
symptoms

Which statement is primarily used as base line data from which the more specific instructional
objective can be developed? Educational Objective

A superior’s rating of subordinates is the MOST frequently used _______. appraisal approach

A superior rates a subordinate by the MOST commonly used _______. appraisal approach

The ______ involved with the principle of respect for persons include taking them seriously. criteria

Which implies that we determine the extent of some characteristics associated with something, e.g. a
person or an object? measurement

That we determine the extent of some characteristics associated with something, e.g. a person or an
object implies _______. measurement

When we determine the extent of some characteristics associated with something, e.g. a person or an
object implies ________. measurement

Goals and actions refer to the management function of _______. planning

The correct action of three crewmembers discovering a fire is: one reports the fire, the other fights
the fire, the other secures the place

What would be the correct action of three crewmembers discovering a fire? one reports the fire, the
other fights the fire, the other secures the place

If three crewmembers discover a fire, what would be their BEST action? one reports the fire, the
other fights the fire, the other secure the place

Accomplishment of objective is a measure of a/an _______. managerial performance

The measure of an accomplishment of objective is a/an _______. managerial performance

If the objective of a training is accomplished, this measure is _______. managerial performance

Which of the following types of tests is considered less objective? Essay Type

PRC uses a “Multiple Choice Type” test in the licensure examination. Which of the following is the
LEAST likely reason why PRC uses this type of test? It is a type that requires extended answers
with “open-minded” questions
Which of the following would BEST define the term “Assessment” from the point of view of
maritime assessors? It is the process of obtaining and comparing evidence of competence with the
standards

Which describes the necessary checks and balances in the assessment system. verification

Some of assessor’s pitfalls are the following EXCEPT: lack of certain standards

In assessment, the major strength of using historical evidence is the _____ of the evidence available.
I. Quantity II. Quality both I & II

Individualized teaching method that makes use of workbooks, teaching machines or computers is
_______. Programmed instruction

Development of creative thinking is supported by Brainstorming technique

The following go with an integrated teaching strategy EXCEPT: Isolated bits of information

If you give a quiz to your class after teaching a lesson. What do you give? Formative test

The following are supportive of the development of creative thinking EXCEPT Open classroom
atmosphere

This refers to a teacher helping a colleague grow professionally? Technology transfer

For mastery of learning and in line with the Outcome-Based Evaluation model which element should
be present? Construction of criterion-referenced tests

Which of the following teacher's objective taps higher mental functioning? Compare and contrast
butterflies from moths.

Which of the following works against collaborative teaching? "Knee-to-knee" seat arrangement by
group

The advantage of point system of grading is: It is qualitative.

Which of the following supportive of the development of creative thinking? Authoritarian teacher

On IQ test which of the following is WRONG ? measures fixed potential

Which of the following are steps of the goal-oriented instructional model arranged in order? pre-
assessment, specification of objectives, instruction, evaluation

What do we encourage our trainees to think creatively? Do "outside-the-box" thinking

The recent educational development relating with perenialism is: Individualizing the learning
experience and activities

The following are processes of creative thinking EXCEPT: Curiosity


To be useful in research, it is BEST to _____. select, clasify, and summarize them

Which of the following questions demands the highest level of thinking? How should you present a
report in class?

With objectives in the affective domain in mind, under what level does "developing a consistent
philosophy of life" fall? Characterization

Which of the following is supportive of the development of creative thinking? Convergent questions

Which of the following has a stronger diagnostic value? Restricted and non-restricted essay test

Which is the concluding part of the three-level approach? Facts level

The teaching method intended primarily for skill and concept mastery by way of practice is
_______. Project

When a teacher connects the new lesson to the one just completed so that the student may gain a
holistic view of the subject, what psychological principle is invoked? Conceptualization

Which of the following is FALSE on collaborative learning? Success of the group depends on one
diligent student.

On what theory is a teacher’s belief based that every learner can be helped to achieve his full
potential and functions effectively in society when we satisfy his needs? Cognitive psychology

Which will promote more class interaction? Asking rhetorical questions

The functions that are associated with the left brain are _______. Verbal, visual, intuitive

When a teacher gives indigenous achievement test to his 25 students, consisting of 50 items, and
wants to classify his students' performance based on the test result, what is the appropriate measure
of central tendency? Mean

The LEAST brain-compatible is ______. Detecting error in the computer program.

Which of the following will a "mastery learner" learns best from? debates

Which does not affect the variability of test scores? Test items that every examinee gets correctly

Which is most effective with social development in mind? Puzzle

In developing scientific thinking and problem-solving skills, which activity will be most
appropriate? Role play

What does TOS in test construction mean? Table of Specifications

To diagnose student's difficulties in written communication skills. Which should be used? Short
written response
The role(s) that a teacher play when he sets desirable learning activities for the individual learner and
takes the responsibility of matching available resources with the needs of each learner is/are:
Counselor and consultant of learning

What does concurrent validity require? peer consultation

Which has its strength immediate feedback? Laboratory method

The instructional material closest to direct experience is _______. Film showing

A sound classroom management practice is _______. Avoid establishing routines; routines make
your students robots.

Students shall identify the strengths and weaknesses of an event. What shall they use?
Compare/Contrast matrix

Which of the following is TRUE to norm-reference testing? Comparing individual's performance to


the average performance of a group.

Which promotes more class interaction? Asking rhetorical questions

Which activity is LEAST effective with the linguistically intelligent group in mind? Manipulatives

For a "self-expressive learner" it is best to learn from ___. lectures

Under which group does a student belong when he claims: "I cannot see perfection but I long for it
so it must be real." ? Pragmatist

What would this mean when it is said that a good classroom manager has "eyes on the back of her
head."? gives penetrating looks to his students

The characteristic of developed, mentally inappropriate practice type of education is: Contextual
learning

Which does NOT belong to the group in individualized teaching strategies? Independent study

Which of the following is NOT included in familiarization onboard? getting used to emergency
exits, where they lead to

The emergency alarm signal as specified in SOLAS is _______. continuous ringing of the alarm
bells

You are on watch on LPG vessel that carries liquefied gas in bulk. You are required to have what
information about the cargo easily accessible? fire fighting procedures

Which of the following poses a danger to safety, property and environment? all of these

What kind of Terminal Performance Objectives which specify what the Trainee should be able to
apply in their workplace when the training is completed. Job Behavior Objectives
Which is a particular learning scope for instructional objective which is concerned with how a
trainee controls or moves his body? Psychomotor Objective

To determine training needs. which of the following ways is used when the trainor simply lists down
all subjects that may possibly be of help to the personnel concerned? survey

For mastery of learning in line with the Outcome-Based Evaluation model, which element should be
present? construction of criterion-reference tests

Seafarer’s Medical Examination Certificate is valid for 2 years as per ILO convention in 1946. What
ILO Convention NO. is this? 073

As per ILO Convention NO. 86 Sec. 9 of 1990. What is the validity of PEME if not deployed on
board? 1 year

The validity of Pre-Employment Medical Examination Certificate if not deployed is 90 days. This
under what ILO Convention? ILO NO. 86 Sec. 9

The comprised amendment 2 (2001) of the present STCW Code adopted by the Maritime Safety
Committee on ____________. December 1998

The comprised Amendment 2 (2001) of the STCW Code was entered into force on _____________.
01 January 2003

Which among the stated grouping does NOT belong to the ship onboard organization? Engineering
Level

As per STCW Code Amendment 2 (2001). Certificate of Training in PSCRB is mandatory to what
seafarers Level? All Levels

Under the STCW Code as amended the training of personnel on Ro-Ro Passenger ships [ V2 ] was
implemented on _____________. 01 Februa1997

Under the STCW Code as amended the training of personnel on Passenger ships other than Ro-Ro
ships [ V3 ] was implemented on __________. 01 January 1999

Recognition of Certificates issued by other parties is under WHAT Regulations of the STCW as
amended ? Reg. 1/10

An International Pollution Prevention Certificates for the carriage of Noxious Liquid Substances in
Bulk issued to vessels is valid for a period of; 5 Years

As per Advisory to Shipping NO. A-35-2004, mandatory use of the EDCS was implemented on July
1, 200.What does EDCS means? Electronic Data Collection System

What is the measured overall size of a ship which is determined in accordance with the provisions of
the International Tonnage Convention(69)? Gross Tonnage

The Plimsoll line is in the same level of ___________ in the load line markings. Summer waterline
After deducting non-earning spaces from your Gross tonnage of your vessel will obtain your
__________. Registered Tonnage

As per SOLAS Regulation, the capacity rate of ships emergency fire pumps shall be _________. 25
cuM/hour

As per SOLAS Regulation, the minimum Fuel supply for fast Rescue Boat shall last for
____________. 4 hours

To obtain the lifeboat capacity, the average weight of a person in the calculation shall be
___________per person. 75 kgs.

____________ is a routine measure comprising an area within the defined limits where the ships
must navigate with particular caution and within which the direction of Traffic flow is
recommended. Precautionary area

As per MARPOL Regulation “New Tanker” means a tanker with a building contract after
_________. June 1, 1979

What annex of the New MARPOL Regulation prohibits discharging any kind of pollutant to the sea?
Annex VI

The ISPS Code was Adopted by Contracting Government with Part “A” & “B”. The mandatory
requirements & guidance is under the provisions of _______ of the SOLAS as amended. Chapter
XI-2

What does ISPS code stands for? International and Port Facility

The compliance of ISPS Code will become mandatory on __________as per provisions of Chapter
V and XI of SOLAS as Amended. 01July2004

What does A15 stands for as per SOLAS as amended. Automatic Identification System

Who is given the authority to carry out assessment for a certification as required by Chapter XI-2 of
SOLAS as amended of the ISPS Code? Recognized Security Organization

Under which of the following International Conventions is the ISPS Code a part of? SOLAS

What was the first ILO Resolution to Internationally Standardized the Seafarers Identity Document?
ILO NO. 108

ILO Convention No.185 was adopted in June 2003 to replace ILO Convention No.: NO. 108

When was ILO Convention NO. 185 adopted ? June 2003

What ILO Convention that was adopted to replace ILO Convention NO. 108? ILO NO. 185

ILO Convention NO. 185 was adopted in June 2003. It was ratified by member states to go into
force on______________. February 9, 2005
The Carriage of Grain Cargo in Bulk come under what International Regulations? SOLAS 74,
Chapter V1

Which one among the list, is one of the minimum requirements in IMO Grain Cargo Rules? any
shifting of grain must not result in a list of not more than 12 °.

Which among the following list of ship that does not require an International Load line Certificate?
Ships built before 21July1968 and less than 150 GRT.

When was the implementation period for SOLAS vessels required to carry AIS Class A equipment?
July 1, 2004

Under SOLAS Regulation, all ships fitted with AIS shall maintain its operation: at all times

What is the Resolution of the positioning system required for AIS as per IMO Performance Standard
1/10,000th of a minute of an arc

Under Chapter 111 of SOLAS 74, the Maritime Safety adopted the International Life-Saving
Appliance Code on_______________. June 1996

Under Chapter 111 of SOLAS Regulation, the amendments of the LSA Code was entered into force
on ________________. July 1, 1998

Under SOLAS 74 as amended, what chapter requires the provisions for International Standards for
Life Saving Appliances? Chapter 111

What ILO Convention refers to the development of guidelines and standard format of working
arrangements and hours of works and rest of seafarers? NO. 180

Seafarers Hour’s of work and Manning of Ships Convention is also known as; ILO Convention NO.
180

Under Article 5 of ILO Convention NO. 180.The maximum hours of work in any 24 hrs. period shall
not exceed 14 hrs

Under Article 5 of ILO Convention NO. 180.The minimum hours of rest for any 24 hrs. period shall
not exceed 10 hrs

Fitness for duty was established and enforce under Regulation __________ of STCW 78 as
amended. VIII/1

Under IMDG Code Class 6 is poisonous substance

Under the New Regulation. What does SOLAS Chapter XI-1 deals with? Special measures to
enhance Maritime Safety

Under the New Regulation. What does SOLAS Chapter XI-2 deals with? Special measures to
enhance Maritime Safety
As per new SOLAS Regulation. Every life craft shall be constructed to be capable of withstanding
exposure in all sea conditions for how many days? 30 days

Chapter V of SOLAS Regulation deals with: Safety of Navigation

ILO Convention NO. 180 provides the instruction in respect of seafarers Hours or rest and the
Manning of Ships. When and was this adopted by the ILO? 1966,Geneva

What is the gross tonnage of your ship if the total volume of all enclosed spaces is 45,000 M3 and
value of K1 as tabulated in appendix 2 of the International Convention on Tonnage Measurement of
Ships is 0.2931? 13,189.5 GT

If the gross tonnage of you ship is 34,500 Ton. What is the total volume of all enclosed spaces if the
value of K1 as tabulated in appendix 2 of the International Convention on tonnage Measurement of
Ships is 0.30237? 114,125.04 M3

The International Convention on Tonnage Measurements of Ships (1969), came into force on
___________. 1971

The International Convention on Tonnage Measurement of Ships (1969), applies to ____________.


new ships

The Convention on the High Seas (Geneva,1958) comprises ____________. Freedom of Navigation

The Convention on the High Seas (Geneva,1958) comprises ____________. All these freedoms can
be exercised under the Convention

Article 90 of the United Nations on the Law of the Sea,1982 is about _________. Right of
Navigation

What particular Article of the United Nation Convention on the Law of the Sea, 1982 requires that
“Every State shall effectively exercise its and control in administrative, technical and social matters
over ships flying its flag”? Article 94

Chapter IV of the International Conference on Salvage (1989) is about Salvage “Claims and
Actions”. What is NOT a condition for a salvage claim? the salvors must save or attempt to save
any life in peril

Who is considered competent to pronounce the withdrawal of a master’s certificate as stipulated in


the Convention on the High Seas 1958? The state that issued the certificate

This is known as the 1988 SOLAS protocol. International Conference on seafarer’s certificate

Prevention of Pollution by Sewage and Prevention of Pollution by Garbage were addressed by


__________. MARPOL 78 Protocol

Any overloaded ship maybe detained without prejudice to any legal proceedings until she
_________. ceases to be overload
This is the type of survey as defined by the Harmonized system of Ship Survey and Certification
1988 that involves a general inspection of the items they have been maintained and satisfactory for
the service for which the ship is intended. Annual Survey

At present, the international load line certificate assigned to vessels, complies with the convention of
___________. 1966

Gross Tonnage indicates the vessel’s __________ volume in cubic feet

The weight of the cargo inside the box as stated in the manifest is _____________. gross weight

The jurisdictional power of coastal states is regulated by what treaty? UNCLOS ’82

This supplement a SOLAS cargo ship safety equipment certificate. Record of Equipment Form E

As stated in Section II, Article 3 of the Geneva Convention (1958), what is considered as the normal
base for measuring the breadth of the territorial sea along the coast? low-water line

The Amendment to STCW 1978 Convention adopted in 1991 relates to: Adoption of the global
maritime distress and safety system

Most provisions reflected in the UN Convention of the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS) require that all
flag states “ take account of”, “give effect to”, or “implement” the relevant rules and standards
developed by the __________. International Maritime Organization

What treaty regulates the jurisdictional power of Coastal States? UNCLOS/82

International Conventions concerned with maritime law will normally NOT be made by which of the
following organization? World Trade Organization (WTO)

What makes the OPA-90 different from other internationally recognized laws? The possibility of
unlimited liability

With regards to OPA-90, what may be the consequences of unlimited liability? That the P & I will
only cover US$500 +200 million and additional expenses

With regards to OPA-90, what can lead to “unlimited liability”? willful conduct, gross negligence
violation of federal safety

OPA-90 is applicable to which of the following vessels? All types of vessels

With regards to OPA-90, what type of vessel shall carry approved VRP? vessels carrying oil cargo

What does VRP means? vessel response plan

Are there any exception from OPA-90? Yes, transit passage through U.S. waters to a non U.S. port

With regards to OPA-90 Notification requirements. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
Notify as soon as you have knowledge of a spill, or threat of a spill
What is OOPT as described by OPA-90? An emergency team that is drilled in pollution prevention
tasks

With regards to OPA-90, what is the main purpose of the Oil Transfer Procedure Safety meeting?
To coordinate operation, safety and emergency routines

What is the top priority if an incident occurs in the U.S. waters as required by OPA-90? Safety of
Ship and crew

The training and drills of OPA-90 as regards to Shipboard Emergency Drills must be carried out at
least _________. once a month

With regards to training and drills requirement of OPA-90,COTP can request ____. unannounced
drills at anytime

With regards to SOPEP, what is a risk profile? It is the total amount of risk factors related to your
vessels.

A disabled vessel is in danger of grounding. The Master agrees to salvage services in accordance
with Lloyd’s Standard Form of Salvage Agreement. Which of the following is true? The salvage
service is on a “no cure – no pay” basis

A legal claim placed on a ship, its equipment or cargo for the satisfaction of a debt or a fulfillment of
a duty is termed ________. Maritime lien

MV “Ramona” has been chartered to the Indian Steamship Company. The Indian Steamship agrees
to pay all expenses and employ and pay the crew, what type of charter party is involved? Bareboat
Charter Party

The owners of MV “Far Suez” agree to a charter party with the Kawasaki Shipping Co. The owners
stipulate in the charter party that the regular Master must be employee as the vessel’s Master for the
entire life of the contract. What kind of charter party has been concluded? Time Charter

A vessel is under time charter. The Master responsibility is __________________. to the owner of
the vessel for administration and to the charterer for cargo operation and schedule

A vessel has a charter party in which the charterer assures no responsibility for the operation of the
vessel but pays stevedoring expense. What is the name of the charter party? Voyage

“Dead Freight” is the charge for the: difference in the amount of cargo loaded and the amount of
cargo discharged

The difference in the amount of cargo loaded and the amount of cargo booked, through no fault of
the vessel is known as _________. Dead freight

A rider clause in the charger party requires a vessel’s owner to pay dispatch money when the vessel
_________. loads and discharges its cargo in less time than specified

The time allowed in a charter party for loading and discharging cargo is referred to as: laydays
A charterer is unable to complete the loading of a vessel during the laytime specified in the
governing charter parts. Under this circumstances, the__________. vessel’s owner can collect
demurrage

The charterer has completed loading the vessel in 3 days instead of the 5 days agreed in the charter
parts. As a consequence, the _______________. charterer may receive dispatch money

When the vessel’s owners deliver the vessel to the charterers at a specified date & time, the owner’s
are said to be ________the vessel. tendering

A vessel enroute to Durban, Africa from Antwerp, Belgium makes an unscheduled call at Las
Palmas. What term is used to denote the voluntary departure from the planned route Deviation

While enroute from Japan to Long Beach a fire has damaged 50 cartons of canned sardines on a ship
loaded with general cargo. This claim would come under ______. Particular Average

A vessel while enroute to a dry dock sand. Under these circumstances, the vessel’s owner can claim
_____________. Actual total loss

A vessel has been damaged by fire. The survey showed that the cost of repairs will exceed the value
of the repaired vessel. This is an example of ____________. a constructive loss

The Hamburg Rules relates to ___________. Carriage of Goods by Sea

Under the ?CMI Rules for the Electronic Transfer of Rights to Goods in Transit (1990)?, EDI means
_____. Electronic Data Interchange

Under the “CMI Rules for the Electronic Transfer of Rights to Goods in Transit (1990)”, this means
any technically appropriate form which the parties may agree for securing the authentication and
integrity of a transmission. Private key

Rule I of the York-Antwerp Rules 1974 as amended in 1990 relates to ________. Jettison of Cargo

Rule II of the York-Antwerp Rules 1974 as amended in 1990 relates to ________. Damage by
Jettison & Sacrifice for the common safety

Rule VI of the York-Antwerp Rules 1974 as amended in 1990 relates to ________. Salvage

Rule X of the York-Antwerp Rules 1974 as amended in 1990 relates to ________. Expenses at Port
of Refuge, etc.

Rule XV of the York-Antwerp Rules 1974 as amended in 1990 relates to ________. Loss of freight

Which Chapter of SOLAS 74/78 was expanded to accommodate the ISPS Code? Chapter XI

ISPS Code stands for _____________. International Ship & Port Facility Security Code

When is the periodical inspection in connection w/ the Ship’s Loadline Certificate held? Within
three months of the anniversary date of the completion of the initial Survey
This is gross tonnage less “deducted spaces” which are theoretically non-earning spaces. Registered
tonnage

The loadline mark indicates the vessel’s ___________. PL

What do the letter marked on each side of the ring of the Plimsoll mark of a ship signify? Initials of
the loadline assigning authority

If a vessel of 100 meters or less in length is routed from Ireland to Newfoundland in winter, what
loadline markings will apply? W.N.A. marks

What documents is issued to the owner when her ship has been surveyed and duly marked
application and payment of fees have been done? W.N.A marks

When a ship has been surveyed & duly marked, there shall be issued to the owner, on his application
& on payment of fees, a document which is called ____________. Loadline Certificate

Regulation 7 of the new chapter IV of SOLAS makes it a requirement for ships to carry a/an
_____________. Emergency position indicating radio beacons

The concept of Port State Control is enshrined in Chapter I, part B, regulation 19 of the
__________Convention as amended. SOLAS 1974

What IMO convention requires all ships to carry “Minimum Safe Manning Document?” SOLAS 74

A SOLAS Certificate issued to a vessel w/ a capacity to carry 12 passengers, after inspection &
survey that certifies that the ship has been surveyed in accordance w/ the requirements of regulation
1/7 of the convention as regards the structure, main & auxiliary machinery, boilers, water tight
subdivision arrangements & loadlines. Passenger Ship Safety Certificate

The exact & complete identification of all cargo on board must be found on the __________. Cargo
Manifest

A phrased used in connection w/ maritime transportation w/c refers to dangers incident to roadsteads
where vessels ride at anchor. It is a state peril in bills of lading & charter parties. Danger of Roads

In general practice ship owners do not deal directly with his underwriters, but negotiates through
____________ to effect hull insurances. Insurance brokers

In actual practice, as a measure in determining when the vessel is a constructive total loss, it is
common for insurance policies to provide for the _____________ value, to be substituted for the
repaired value. insured

When an assured wishes to claim for constructive total loss of her vessel that run aground, it is
necessary for her to tender notice of _____________to her insurers abandonment

A charter party clause w/c refers to the maximum & minimum amount of fuel remaining on board on
delivery & redelivery of a vessel. Bunker clause

The Hague Rules relates to _______. Owner’s Cargo liability under Bills of Lading
Cargo contaminated due to failure to provide clean holds prior to loading is an example of : lack of
due diligence

P & I Insurance is basically ____________. a third party liability insurance

Which of the following protection risks is caused by P & I? I. Liabilities relating to death & personal
injury II. Liabilities relating to wreck removal & pollution Both I & II

In relation to P & I Insurance, which of the following premiums are fixed? Premium for a vessel
entered for charterers account

How often are the P & I Club’s Statutes & Rules revised? annually

What are the owners of ship’s entered in a P & I Insurance called? members

Which of the following statements regarding P & I Insurance is incorrect? P & I Insurance includes
strike insurance.

In relation to P & I Insurance, which of the following factors will not influence the premium? The
owners nationality

What should the master do if a surveyor or lawyer acting for cargo interests requests access to the
vessel? Contact P & I Insurance correspondent & wait for advice

What should the master do when a defect in the ship is discovered? He should initiate corrective
actions

Is it the master’s responsibility to ensure that the cargo is carried carefully? Yes

When should the Master release the cargo to the consignee w/o the production of the Bills of
Lading? When owners have given the master explicit permission

What should the master do if an injured person’s life is in danger? Consider diverting the ship
nearest suitable port to obtain proper medical treatment

Why should stowaway be guarded on board the ship? To prevent them from escaping the ship, as
owners maybe liable to pay heavy fines if they succeed

What can happen to a ship owner if a stowaway is successful in escaping the ship? The owner has
no responsibility

P & I Insurance means: Protection & Indemnity Insurance

P & I Insurance covers: Third party liabilities

Which of the following is NOT covered by P & I Insurance against liabilities arising, in direct
connection w/ the operation of the vessel? ship chandlers
Risks covered by P & I: I. Protection Risks, personal injury claims II. Protection Risks, Vessel &
other Property III. Indemnity Risks I,II & III

Which P & I Insurance cover, covers a financial interest that the shipper may have on the vessel
beyond the insured value? Hull & Freight Interest

Which P & I Insurance cover, covers physical damage to or loss of vessel & equipment? Hull &
Machinery

To “indemnify” is to: compensate

Whenever pollution occur the vessel’s staff & the master should evaluate the situation & determine
how best to limit the pollution & contain the spill. The action to be taken should be referred to I.
Vessel Response Plan II. SOPEP, for details I and/or II

Why is it so important to ensure that the description of the goods in the Bill of Lading is correct? I.
Because the issuance of a clean B/L for damaged goods constitute a fraud II. Because the B/L
becomes conclusive evidence once it has been endorsed to a third party. both I & II

Why is it so important to ensure that the description of the goods in the Bill of Lading is correct? I.
Because the shipper would otherwise not be able to collect the letter of credit II. Because the B/L
becomes conclusive evidence once it has been endorsed to a third party II only

Why is it so important to ensure that the description of the goods in the Bill of Lading is correct? I.
Because the carrier may not be able to collect freight II. Because the issuance of a clean B/L for
damaged goods constitute a fraud II only

The ownership of a consignment of timber is in dispute. At discharging port, a holder of one original
Bill of Lading requests the cargo. Should the Master deliver the cargo to this person? I. Yes, the
Master is bound to deliver the cargo II. No, the Master should request the surrender of all original
Bills of Lading II only is correct

The ownership of a consignment of timber is in dispute. At discharging port, a holder of one original
Bill of Lading requests the cargo. Should the Master deliver the cargo to this person? I. Yes, if the
shipper agrees II. Yes, if owners have been paid freight I & II are both incorrect

During the sea voyage from Durban to Kobe the vessel experienced weather up to force 10 in the
Beaufort Scale. The floating pontoons in TD NO. 2 broke its lashings & caused considerable damage
to general cargo stowed in TD NO. 2 Is the ship liable for the damage to the cargo? I. The ship is
liable in view of the carrier’s obligation to exercise that the cargo is carried w/o being damaged II.
The ship is not liable as the lashings used to secure the pontoons broke because they were old & in
the master’s view should have been replaced long time ago. I is correct

A few days after departure from Abidjan on a voyage to Rotterdam the vessel’s officers discovered a
stowaway hiding in the port lifeboat. Which of the following information should the master ask from
the stowaway? Place of birth of the stowaway

A few days after departure from Abidjan on a voyage to Rotterdam the vessel’s officers discovered a
stowaway hiding in the port lifeboat. Which of the following information should the master ask from
the stowaway? Date of birth of the stowaway
A few days after departure from Abidjan on a voyage to Rotterdam the vessel’s officers discovered a
stowaway hiding in the port lifeboat. Which of the following information should the master ask from
the stowaway? Name of his parents

A few days after departure from Abidjan on a voyage to Rotterdam the vessel’s officers discovered a
stowaway hiding in the port lifeboat. Which of the following information should the master ask from
the stowaway? Place & Date of birth of his parents

A few days after departure from Abidjan on a voyage to Rotterdam the vessel’s officers discovered a
stowaway hiding in the port lifeboat. Which of the following information should the master ask from
the stowaway? His postal & residential address

What is the correct treatment that should be given to the stowaway when he is in the custody of the
vessel? Contact w/ the ship’s crew must be kept to the minimum throughout the entire voyage

In most cases the resettlement of refugees rescued at sea is arranged through the auspices of w/c UN
agency? UNHCR

Whenever a collision w/ another vessel occurs all actions should be focused on I. Saving life II.
Securing the vessel & her cargo Both I & II is correct

Your vessel collided w/ another vessel. Which of the following sequence of actions should the
Master do FIRST? Establish contact w/ another vessel

Your vessel collided w/ another vessel. Which of the following sequence of actions should the
Master give first priority? Establish damage extend on own vessel

This is note by the marine insurance broker to the insured after the original ship has been initiated
for the total sum required. It has no legal force until the policy has been issued. Cover note

This is customary charge in certain North African ports for the use of jetty & usually levied on the
net register tonnage of the ship. Accostage

This is a term used in the coal trade in earning the margin of profit that a merchant puts on his
setting price. Fittage

Hamburg Rules was enforced in ________. 1974

This clause in a policy provides that in the event of actual or constructive total loss, no claim shall be
made by the underwriters for freight whether notice of abandonment has been given or not. freight
abandonment clause

abandonment notice clauses. A cargo exception would appear on w/c of the following? Bill of
Lading

Republic Act 9295 is also known as The Domestic Shipping Act of 2004

What is the Domestic Shipping Act of 2004? R.A. 9295


At present, there are how many classification societies accredited by MARINA? four

The Domestic equivalent of the STCW being implemented by MARINA is called: Qualification
Documents certificate

Under the present system, what gov’t agency is conducting the Licensure Examination of Major &
Minor Patron? MARINA

The issuance of License of the Philippine domestic Harbor Pilots is under the jurisdiction of:
MARINA

What gov’t agency conducts the Licensure Examination of the Harbor Pilots? MARINA

Which of the following agencies is responsible for the markings on loadlines of Phil. Flag vessels?
Accredited International Classification Societies

Art. 19 Sec. 17 of ITU Radio Rules allocated additional call signs to the Phils. Which of the
following call sign is assigned? 4DA-4IZ

Under which of the following circumstances would a ship Master effect the filing of sea protest?
when there is heavy weather and there is suspicion damage on vessel or cargo

A Phil. Flag vessel which is not normally engaged in international voyage but which is required to
undertake a single voyage in exceptional circumstances may be exempted from the requirements of
SOLAS 74/78 provided the ship________________. adopts safety requirements that MARINA
considers adequate for the voyage.

What Section of R.A. 8544 defines the grounds for suspension and revocation of COR and COC?
Section 24

Cancellation of special Dispensation of Certificates issued by PRC is under the Provision of Section
____________ of the R.A. 8544? 24

Which of the following Government Agency issues a Certificate of Ownership to a Phil. Flag vessel?
MARINA

What is the period of validity of Deratting Certificate issued locally? 6 months

I.T.U. Radio Reg. 12-1-1 provides that every ship while at sea , shall maintain a continuous watch on
VHF DSC channel 70, in accordance with the requirement of Reg. 7.1.2, she must be fitted with
_____________. GMDSS

Station Pursuant to Reg. 1/6 Par. 1 of PMMRR, the inspection of firefighting and lifesaving
appliances shall be done Annually

What survey is required of a ship which includes inspection of equipment to ensure that the ship is
complying with the requirements of the PMMRR/97? Renewal Survey

Regulation ¼ PArt. 93 of PMMRR/97, defines which of the following routes? short international
voyages
As stipulated in PMMRR/97, ship not class shall be dry docked every ______. 2 years

Under P.D. 97. How many port of entries are there in the Philippines? 21

Under the new Phil. Maritime Regulation. How many Port District office do we have in the
Philippines? 5

Which among the following list of Phil. Government agency govern the administration of our local
ports? PPA

The Phil. Maritime area of responsibility is under what loading Zone? Tropical

Which of the following types of sea craft listed which is governed only by MARINA circulars and
exempted from the effect of the PMMRR 97? Motorized boats and outriggers

Per ___________ of the PMMRR 97, ships carrying 500 or more passengers and with travel time
exceeding 12 hours, shall identify a cabin which can be converted into an emergency isolation room
when need arises. Reg. 1/11

The AIS and SSO training and its accreditation is being administer by what Phil. Gov’t agency?
MARINA

A vessel exhibiting Quarantine signals shall not be approach with other vessels within a minimum of
_______ meters. 200

Which among the following list of PMO’s does NOT belong to the jurisdiction of PDO Southern
Mindanao? ILIGAN

Which among the following list of PMO’s belong to the jurisdiction of PDO Northern Mindanao?
ILIGAN

Which among the following list of PMO’s belong to the jurisdiction of PDO Southern Luzon?
BATANGAS

Which one among the following list of PMO’S does NOT belong to the jurisdiction of PDO
Northern Luzon? BATANGAS

How many Port District Office in Luzon Island? 2

When was the Cebu Port Authority created into Law? 26 June 1992

What Law created the Philippine Port Authority? PD 857

Which of the following list of MARINA circulars provides the provision for the issuance of
Qualification Documentation Certificates issued to Domestic seafarers. M.C. 164

The issuance of SRIB is mandated by which MARINA circular? M.C. 163


The New Seafarer Identity Document is under the provision of which among the listed ILO Reg.
No.? ILO 185

Which of the following list of MARINA circulars provides the provision for the issuance of
Accreditation of Maritime Training Centers offering courses under the ISPS code? M.C. 185

The provisions for the rules on the Accreditation of Maritime Training Centers in the conduct of
Training for Domestic Seafarers is under what MARINA circular? M.C. 174

Which of the following list of MARINA circular mandates that all Masters and Chief Mates
employed or to be employed on ship’s below 500 GRT and engaged in domestic traders must take
recurrency Training every three years? M.C. 171

MARINA Circular NO. 171 mandated that all Masters and Chief Mates employed in the Philippines
Flag vessels of less than 500 GRT and flying domestic trades must take recurrency training every
________. 3 yrs.

Enacted into law by PReg. Gloria Macapagal-Arroyo in May 2004 was the Republic Act 9295,
otherwise known as the “Domestic Shipping Act of 2004.” Which of the following statement is one
of the declared policy of the state which is embodied in this law? All these statements are part of
declared policy of the state

Which of the following statements is one of the declared policy of the state which is embodied in
this law? All these statements are part of the declared policy of the state

Which of the following statements is one of the declared policy of the state which is embodied in
this law? All these statements are part of the declared policy of the state

For the purpose of R.A. 9295 this term means “the sale, barter or exchange of goods within the
Philippines.” Domestic trade

For the purpose of R.A. 9295 this term means “the exchange of materials or products within the
Philippines.” Domestic trade

For the purpose of R.A. 9295 this term means “the license or authority issued by MARINA to a
domestic ship operator to engaged in domestic shipping.” Certificate of Public Convenience

For the purpose of R.A. 9295 this term means “ the overhaul, refurbishment, renovation,
improvement of all types of ships.” ship repair

For the purpose of R.A. 9295 this term means, “the design, construction, launching and outfitting of
all types of ships. Shipbuilding

Which of the following “investment incentives” is provided in R.A. 9295 to insure the continued
viability of domestic shipping? All these exemptions are provided as investment incentive under
R.A. 9295

Which of the following ?investment incentives? is provided in R.A. 9295 to insure the continued
viability of domestic shipping? All these exemptions are provided for in R.A. 9295 as investment
incentive
The importation of the articles under Section 4 (a) and (b) of R.A. 9295 shall be granted exemption
from VAT subject to which of the following conditions? All these conditions are allowed under
R.A. 9295

What is the age limit requirement for vessels in order that it will be exempted from VAT upon
importation? 15 years for passenger vessels

What is the tonnage of vessels that are qualified for exemption from VAT on the importations and
local purchase of passenger and/or cargo vessels including engine and spare parts of said vessels?
150 tons and above

Under the investments incentives provision of R.A. 9295, one of the conditions by which the
importation of articles is granted exemption from VAT is that approval must be obtained prior to
importation by which gov’t agency? MARINA

Under the provisions of R.A. 9295, no franchise, certificate or any other form of authority to carry
cargo or passenger in the domestic trade shall be granted to vessels unless the vessel is
_______________ owned by domestic ship owners or operators

Under the provisions of R.A. 9295, no foreign vessel shall be allowed to transport passengers or
cargo between ports or place within the Philippine territorial waters, except upon the grant of special
permit by the _________. MARINA

What kind of certificate is issued by MARINA to qualified domestic ship operators? Certificate of
Public Convenience

Authority to operate extended to all types and classes of vessels in the domestic shipping shall be
valid for a period of not more than _________ 25 years

Who prescribes the routes, zones or areas of operations of domestic ship operators? MARINA

Who sets the safety standards for vessels in the domestic trade in accordance with MARINA

As prescribed by R.A. 9295, all domestic ship operators shall have the _______ to provide and
sustain safe, reliable, efficient and economic passenger or cargo service, or both. financial capacity

Who fixes the passenger or cargo rates in the domestic trade as provided for in R.A. 9295?
Domestic ship operators

Refusal to accept or carry any passenger or cargo without just cause is punishable under what section
and chapter of R.A. 9295? Section 16, Chapter VI

Failure to obtain or maintain adequate insurance coverage is punishable under what section and
chapter of R.A. 9295? Section 16, Chapter VI

Failure to meet or maintain safe manning requirement is punishable under what section and chapter
of R.A. 9295? Section 16, Chapter VI
Which one among the following Marine Memo Circular created the Qualification Documentation
Certificate? MC 164

The Phil. Seafarers Record Identification Book Creation was under what MARINA Memo Circular?
MC 163

The Phil. National Standard for Watchkeeping and Certification is under MARINO. Which issues a
Documents for competent domestic seafarers working abroad Local traders? This Certificate is
called _________. Qualification Documentation Certificate

In the area of management what does MIS stands for? Management Information System

In the area of management what does DSS stands for? Decision Support System

An MIS is not effective unless: The value of its output exceeds its cost

In the area of management what does EDP stands for? Electronic Data Processing

Which of the following is of the definition of MIS? It provides accurate and timely information

The psychological mechanism of blaming difficulties on someone or something else is called


_________. Projection

When an organization implements an MIS, operating managers suffers anxiety from: loss of control
of information

By including operations managers in decisions regarding the disposition of information and possible
job modification an organization is attempting to facilitate ________. Participation

Career management is ultimately the responsibility of the __________. individual

Basically there are three stages in the task of organizing a training program. Which of the following
stages is NOT involved? Monitoring Stage

If you are the Curriculum Developer and Director of a training program, which of the following
General Job Objectives should come FIRST? Establish behavioral or learning objectives for
programs

If you are the Curriculum Developer and Director of a training program, which of the following Job
Objectives should come FIRST? Determine program structure

In determining training needs which of the following techniques is used to measure knowledge,
skills, or even attitudes? Testing

In determining training needs which of the following ways is used when the trainor simply lists
down all subjects that may possibly be of help to the personnel concerned? Survey

The two general criteria in prioritizing training needs and problems are importance and urgency. The
first priority is given to: I. training needs which are both urgent and important; II. training needs
which are urgent but relatively less important I only
Statements of expectations and desired outcomes which reflect the philosophy, broad direction and
general purposes of an education/training system is called ________. Education Aims

Statements primarily used as a point of departure for base line data from which the more specific
instructional objective can be develop are termed _________. Educational Objectives

This term states a goal and what behavioral performance or activity the trainee will be doing when
he has achieved the goal of a particular educational objective. Instructional objective

A well-written instructional objective should have three components. Which of the following is NOT
one of these components? Indicate desired terminal behavior

There are three learning scope for instructional objectives. Which of the following objectives is NOT
part of these learning scope? Enabling Objectives

This is a particular learning scope for instructional objectives which deals with what a trainee should
know, understand or comprehend. Cognitive Objective

This is a particular learning scope for instructional objective which deals with how a trainee should
about something in relation to the training program. Affective Objective

This is a particular learning scope for instructional objective which is concerned with how a trainee
controls or moves his body. Psychomotor Objective

A subdivision of Instructional Objectives where the trainees must exhibit a performance when
assessment takes place at the end of the training program Terminal Performance Objective

This is a kind of Terminal Performance Objectives which specify what the trainee should be able to
value and appreciate when the training program is completed Attitude Objective

This is a kind of Terminal Performance Objectives which specify what the trainee should be able to
know and understand when the training program is completed. Knowledge Objective

This is a kind of Terminal Performance Objectives which specify what the trainee should be able to
do and perform when the training program is completed. Skills Objective

This is a kind of Terminal Performance Objectives which specify what the trainee should be able to
apply in their workplace when the training is completed. Job Behavior Objectives

This is a kind of Terminal Performance Objectives which specify what the trainee should redound to
organization when the training is completed. Ultimate Values Objectives

This is a kind of training objective, which consists of small bits of learning. It tells explicitly what
the trainee will do at the end of the training that he could not do before. Behavioral Objective

A kind of teaching- learning principle where the trainee must see why he should study something.
perceived purpose
A kind of teaching- learning principle where the trainee must proceed step by step and each step
must be in some way more difficult than the previous step. graduated sequence

A kind of teaching- learning principle where the trainees should be given the opportunity to learn in
the way best suited to him. Individual differentiation

Which of the following is FALSE about organizational charts? All organizations utilize such charts

Which of the following is a DISADVANTAGE of organizational charts? They do not clearly show
an organization’s informal relationships

Organization by _______ brings together in one department all those engaged in one related
activities. Function

In a matrix organization _________are permanent. functional departments

In a matrix structure, ______ are created as the need for them arises. project teams

Which of the following is a DISADVANTAGE of a matrix organization? Members require some


expertise in interpersonal relations

A ________is the means by which data are transmitted across the levels of the organization. lateral
relationship

Management experts believed that efficient and effective organizations had a hierarchical structure
called __________. Bureaucracy

The main purpose in providing crew members with a station card is to _________. specify their
duties

The Certificate of Competence (COC) issued to Master Mariners in the Philippines should
demonstrate theory of operation of the ship mainly from a safety and legal points of view. Which of
the following training courses (in the Philippines) is not made part of the requirement for COC?
Practical Ship handling

The Certificate of Competence (COC) issued to Master Mariners in the Philippines should
demonstrate theory of operation of the ship mainly from a safety and legal points of view. Which of
the following training courses (in the Philippines) is not made part of the requirement for COC?
Personnel Management

The Certificate of Competence (COC) issued to Master Mariners in the Philippines should
demonstrate theory of operation of the ship mainly from a safety and legal points of view. Which of
the following training courses (in the Philippines) is not made part of the requirement for COC?
General Management Skills Training

The Certificate of Competence (COC) issued to Master Mariners in the Philippines should
demonstrate theory of operation of the ship mainly from a safety and legal points of view. Which of
the following training courses (in the Philippines) is not made part of the requirement for COC?
Computer Literacy
Which of the following types of tests is considered less objective? Essay Type

PRC uses a “Multiple Choice Type” test in the licensure examination. Which of the following is the
LEAST likely reason why PRC uses this type of test? It is a type that requires extended answers
with “open-minded” questions

Which of the following would BEST define the term “ Assessment” from the point of view of
maritime assessors? It is the process of obtaining and comparing evidence of competence with the
standards

When a vessel is detained in isolation until free from any contagious diseases among the crew, this
period is called: Quarantine

______ describes the necessary checks and balances in the assessment system. verification

In accordance with the STCW Code, a person conducting in-service assessment on board shall have
an appropriate level of knowledge and understanding of the ______ to be assessed. competence

Some of assessor’s pitfalls are the following EXCEPT: lack of certain standards

In assessment, the major strength of using historical evidence is the _____ of the evidence available.
I. Quantity II. Quality both I & II

Seafarer’s Medical Examination Certificate is valid for 2 years as per ILO convention in 1946. What
ILO Convention NO. is this? 073

As per ILO Convention NO. 86 Sec. 9 of 1990. What is the validity of PEME if not deployed on
board? 1 year

The validity of Pre-Employment Medical Examination Certificate if not deployed is 90 days. This
under what ILO Convention? ILO NO. 86 Sec. 9

The comprised amendment 2 (2001) of the present STCW Code adopted by the Maritime Safety
Committee on ____________. December 1998

The comprised Amendment 2 (2001) of the STCW Code was entered into force on _____________.
01 January 2003

Which among the stated grouping does NOT belong to the ship onboard organization? Engineering
Level

As per STCW Code Amendment 2 (2001). Certificate of Training in PSCRB is mandatory to what
seafarers Level? All Levels

Under the STCW Code as amended the training of personnel on Ro-Ro Passenger ships [ V2 ] was
implemented on _____________. 01 Februa1997

Under the STCW Code as amended the training of personnel on Passenger ships other than Ro-Ro
ships [ V3 ] was implemented on __________. 01 January 1999
Recognition of Certificates issued by other parties is under WHAT Regulations of the STCW as
amended ? Reg. 1/10

An International Pollution Prevention Certificates for the carriage of Noxious Liquid Substances in
Bulk issued to vessels is valid for a period of; 5 Years

As per Advisory to Shipping NO. A-35-2004, mandatory use of the EDCS was implemented on July
1, 200.What does EDCS means? Electronic Data Collection System

What is the measured overall size of a ship which is determined in accordance with the provisions of
the International Tonnage Convention(69)? Gross Tonnage

The Plimsoll line is in the same level of ___________ in the load line markings. Summer waterline

After deducting non-earning spaces from your Gross tonnage of your vessel will obtain your
__________. Registered Tonnage

As per SOLAS Regulation, the capacity rate of ships emergency fire pumps shall be _________. 25
cuM/hour

As per SOLAS Regulation, the minimum Fuel supply for fast Rescue Boat shall last for
____________. 4 hours

To obtain the lifeboat capacity, the average weight of a person in the calculation shall be
___________per person. 75 kgs.

____________ is a routine measure comprising an area within the defined limits where the ships
must navigate with particular caution and within which the direction of Traffic flow is
recommended. Precautionary area

As per MARPOL Regulation “New Tanker” means a tanker with a building contract after
_________. June 1, 1979

What annex of the New MARPOL Regulation prohibits discharging any kind of pollutant to the sea?
Annex VI

The ISPS Code was Adopted by Contracting Government with Part “A” & “B”. The mandatory
requirements & guidance is under the provisions of _______ of the SOLAS as amended. Chapter
XI-2

What does ISPS code stands for? International and Port Facility

The compliance of ISPS Code will become mandatory on __________as per provisions of Chapter
V and XI of SOLAS as Amended 01July2004

What does A15 stands for as per SOLAS as amended. Automatic Identification System

Who is given the authority to carry out assessment for a certification as required by Chapter XI-2 of
SOLAS as amended of the ISPS Code? Recognized Security Organization
Under which of the following International Conventions is the ISPS Code a part of? SOLAS

What was the first ILO Resolution to Internationally Standardized the Seafarers Identity Document?
ILO NO. 108

ILO Convention No.185 was adopted in June 2003 to replace ILO Convention No.: NO. 108

When was ILO Convention NO. 185 adopted ? June 2003

What ILO Convention that was adopted to replace ILO Convention NO. 108? ILO NO. 185

ILO Convention NO. 185 was adopted in June 2003. It was ratified by member states to go into
force on______________. February 9, 2005

The Carriage of Grain Cargo in Bulk come under what International Regulations? SOLAS 74,
Chapter V1

Which one among the list, is one of the minimum requirements in IMO Grain Cargo Rules? any
shifting of grain must not result in a list of not more than 12 °.

Which among the following list of ship that does not require an International Load line Certificate?
Ships built before 21July1968 and less than 150 GRT.

When was the implementation period for SOLAS vessels required to carry AIS Class A equipment?
July 1, 2004

Under SOLAS Regulation, all ships fitted with AIS shall maintain its operation: at all times

Under Chapter 111 of SOLAS 74, the Maritime Safety adopted the International Life-Saving
Appliance Code on_______________. June 1996

Under Chapter 111 of SOLAS Regulation, the amendments of the LSA Code was entered into force
on ________________. July 1, 1998

Under SOLAS 74 as amended, what chapter requires the provisions for International Standards for
Life Saving Appliances? Chapter 111

What ILO Convention refers to the development of guidelines and standard format of working
arrangements and hours of works and rest of seafarers? NO. 180

Seafarers Hour’s of work and Manning of Ships Convention is also known as; ILO Convention NO.
180

Under Article 5 of ILO Convention NO. 180.The maximum hours of work in any 24 hrs. period shall
not exceed 14 hrs

Under Article 5 of ILO Convention NO. 180.The minimum hours of rest for any 24 hrs. period shall
not exceed 10 hrs
Fitness for duty was established and enforce under Regulation __________ of STCW 78 as
amended. VIII/1

Under IMDG Code Class 6 is poisonous substance

Under the New Regulation. What does SOLAS Chapter XI-1 deals with? Special measures to
enhance Maritime Safety

Under the New Regulation. What does SOLAS Chapter XI-2 deals with? Special measures to
enhance Maritime Safety

Every life craft shall be constructed to be capable of withstanding exposure in all sea conditions for
how many days? 30 days

Chapter V of SOLAS Regulation deals with: Safety of Navigation

ILO Convention NO. 180 provides the instruction in respect of seafarers Hours or rest and the
Manning of Ships. When and was this adopted by the ILO? 1966 Geneva

What is the gross tonnage of your ship if the total volume of all enclosed spaces is 45,000 M3 and
value of K1 as tabulated in appendix 2 of the International Convention on Tonnage Measurement of
Ships is 0.2931? 13,189.5 GT

If the gross tonnage of you ship is 34,500 ToNo. What is the total volume of all enclosed spaces if
the value of K1 as tabulated in appendix 2 of the International Convention on tonnage Measurement
of Ships is 0.30237? 114,125.04 M3

The International Convention on Tonnage Measurements of Ships (1969), came into force on
___________. 1971

The International Convention on Tonnage Measurement of Ships (1969), applies to ____________.


new ships

The Convention on the High Seas (Geneva,1958) comprises ____________. Freedom of Navigation

The Convention on the High Seas (Geneva,1958) comprises ____________. All these freedoms can
be exercised under the Convention

Article 90 of the United Nations on the Law of the Sea,1982 is about _________. Right of
Navigation

What particular Article of the United Nation Convention on the Law of the Sea, 1982 requires that
“Every State shall effectively exercise its and control in administrative, technical and social matters
over ships flying its flag”? Article 94

Chapter IV of the International Conference on Salvage (1989) is about Salvage “Claims and
Actions”. What is NOT a condition for a salvage claim? the salvors must save or attempt to save
any life in peril
Who is considered competent to pronounce the withdrawal of a master�s certificate as stipulated
in the Convention on the High Seas 1958? The state that issued the certificate

This is known as the 1988 SOLAS protocol. International Conference on seafarer’s certificate

Prevention of Pollution by Sewage and Prevention of Pollution by Garbage were addressed by


__________. MARPOL 78 Protocol

Any overloaded ship maybe detained without prejudice to any legal proceedings until she
_________. ceases to be overload

This is the type of survey as defined by the Harmonized system of Ship Survey and Certification
1988 that involves a general inspection of the items they have been maintained and satisfactory for
the service for which the ship is intended. Annual Survey

At present, the international load line certificate assigned to vessels, complies with the convention of
___________. 1966

Gross Tonnage indicates the vessel’s __________ volume in cubic feet

The weight of the cargo inside the box as stated in the manifest is _____________. gross weight

The jurisdictional power of coastal states is regulated by what treaty? UNCLOS ’82

This supplement a SOLAS cargo ship safety equipment certificate. Record of Equipment Form E

As stated in Section II, Article 3 of the Geneva Convention (1958), what is considered as the normal
base for measuring the breadth of the territorial sea along the coast? low-water line

The Amendment to STCW 1978 Convention adopted in 1991 relates to: Adoption of the global
maritime distress and safety system

Most provisions reflected in the UN Convention of the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS) require that all
flag states “ take account of”, “give effect to”, or “implement” the relevant rules and standards
developed by the __________. International Maritime Organization

What treaty regulates the jurisdictional power of Coastal States? UNCLOS/82

International Conventions concerned with maritime law will normally NOT be made by which of the
following organization? World Trade Organization (WTO)

What makes the OPA-90 different from other internationally recognized laws? The possibility of
unlimited liability

With regards to OPA-90, what may be the consequences of unlimited liability? That the P & I will
only cover US$500 +200 million and additional expenses

With regards to OPA-90, what can lead to “unlimited liability”? willful conduct, gross negligence,
violation of federal safety
OPA-90 is applicable to which of the following vessels? All types of vessels

With regards to OPA-90, what type of vessel shall carry approved VRP? vessels carrying oil cargo

What does VRP means? vessel response plan

Are there any exception from OPA-90? Yes, transit passage through U.S. waters to a non U.S. port

With regards to OPA-90 Notification requirements. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
Notify as soon as you have knowledge of a spill, or threat of a spill

What is OOPT as described by OPA-90? An emergency team that is drilled in pollution prevention
tasks

With regards to OPA-90, what is the main purpose of the Oil Transfer Procedure Safety meeting?
To coordinate operation, safety and emergency routines

What is the top priority if an incident occurs in the U.S. waters as required by OPA-90? Safety of
Ship and crew

The training and drills of OPA-90 as regards to Shipboard Emergency Drills must be carried out at
least _________. once a month

With regards to training and drills requirement of OPA-90,COTP can request ____. unannounced
drills at anytime

With regards to SOPEP, what is a risk profile? It is the total amount of risk factors related to your
vessels.

A disabled vessel is in danger of grounding. The Master agrees to salvage services in accordance
with Lloyd’s Standard Form of Salvage Agreement. Which of the following is true? The salvage
service is on a “no cure – no pay” basis

A legal claim placed on a ship, its equipment or cargo for the satisfaction of a debt or a fulfillment of
a duty is termed ________. Maritime lien

MV “Ramona” has been chartered to the Indian Steamship Company. The Indian Steamship agrees
to pay all expenses and employ and pay the crew, what type of charter party is involved? Bareboat
Charter Party

The owners of MV “Far Suez” agree to a charter party with the Kawasaki Shipping Co. The owners
stipulate in the charter party that the regular Master must be employee as the vessel’s Master for the
entire life of the contract. What kind of charter party has been concluded? Time Charter

A vessel is under time charter. The Master responsibility is _____________. to the owner of the
vessel for administration and to the charterer for cargo operation and schedule

A vessel has a charter party in which the charterer assures no responsibility for the operation of the
vessel but pays stevedoring expenses. What is the name of the charter party? Voyage
“Dead Freight” is the charge for the: difference in the amount of cargo loaded and the amount of
cargo discharged

When deck cargo is loaded it is important to: maintain access to moorings

Containers may NOT contain: livestock

The final valve between the ship's side and the onshore terminal is called the: Manifold Valve

Prior to entering a space the oxygen level should be shown to be at least: 20%

The principal reason for cargo segregation is to keep apart cargo that should not be mixed

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