Multiple Choice Questions on Mendelian Genetics

1. The innate tendency of offspring to resemble their parents is called

a) varaition
b) heridity
c) inheritance
d) resemblance
2. The tendency of offspring to differ from parents is called
a) varaition
b) heridity
c) inheritance
d) resemblance

3. Who is regarded as the father of genetics?

a) Bateson
b) Morgan
c) Mendel
d) watson
4. Mendels experimental material was
a) Pisum sativum
b) Lathyrus odaratus
c) Oryza sativa
d) Mirabilis jalappa
5. Mendel presented his works in
a) Natural History Society in Russia
b) Natural History Society in America
c) Natural History Society in Brunn
d) Natural History Society in Germany

6. Mendels findings were rediscovered by

a) De vries
b) Correns
c) tschermak
d) all of the above
7. The physical expression or appearance of a character is called as
a) morphology
b) geneoype
c) phenotype
d) ecotype
8. Genotype is the
a) genetic constitution
b) genetic constitution of the phenotype
c) trait expressed
d) expressed genes
9. The alternate forms of a gene is called
a) recessive character
b) dominant character
c) alleles
d) alternative gene
10. If the genotype consists of only one type of allele. It is called
a) homozygous
b) hetreozygous
c) momoallelic
d) uniallelic

11. The number of types of gametes produced by a homozygous individual is

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) many
12. If different alleles are present in the same genotype then it is called
a) homozygous
b) hetreozygous
c) diallelic
d) polyallelic
13. During his experiments, Mendel called genes by the term
a) factors
b) traits
c) characters
d) qualities
14. The number of types of gametes produced by a heterozygous individual is
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) many
15. Mendel was a
a) Austrian biology teacher
b) Austrian monk
c) Austrian scientist
d) Austrian mathematician
Answers
1. b) heridity
2. a) varaition
3. c) Mendel
4. a) Pisum sativum
5. c) Natural History Society in Brunn
6. d) all of the above
7. c) phenotype
8. b) genetic constitution of the phenotype
9. c) alleles
10. a) homozygous
11. a) 1
12. b) hetreozygous
13. a) factors
14. b) 2
15. b) Austrian monk

MCQ on Mendelian Genetics

1. The experimental material garden pea used by Mendel is a
a) cross fertilized crop
b) both self and cross fertilized
c) self fertilized crop
d) may vary with ecotype
2. Mendel emasculated garden pea plant. Emasculation is the
a) removal of flower buds
b) removal of anthers before dehiscence
c) removal of carpels before dehiscence
d) removal of mature flowers
3. Mendels hybridization strategy was use of two plants
a) differing in a pair of contrasting character
b) differing in two pairs of contrasting character
c) differing in many pairs of contrasting character

4. A cross in which parents differ in a single pair of contrasting character is called

a) monohybrid cross
b) dihybrid cross
c) trihybrid cross
d) tetrahybrid cross

5. The hybrid progeny in the first generation is called as

a) F0
b) F1
c) F2
d) F
6. The major reason for the success of Mendelian experiments was
a) Garden pea was true breeding
b) Garden pea was cross breeding
c) Garden pea was heterozygous
d) Garden pea was easily available
7. When alleles of two contrasting characters are present together, one of the character express and
the other remains hidden. This is the
a) law of purity of gametes
b) law of segregation
c) law of dominance
d) law of independent assortment
8. The character that is express in the F1 is called the
a) recessive character
b) dominant character
c) co dominant character
d) none of these
9. The recessive character will express in
a) F1
b) F2
c) both a and b
d) F3 only
10. Monohybrid ratio is
a) 9:3:3:1
b) 9:1
c) 9:3:1
d) 3:1
11. The phenotypic ratio of a monohybrid cross is
a) 3:1
b) 1:2:1
c) 2:1:1
d) 9:3:3:1
12. The genotypic ratio of a monohybrid cross is
a) 3:1
b)1:2:1`
c) 2:1:1
d) 9:3:3:1
13. Which of the following statements are true regarding Law of segregation
a) alleles separate with each other during gametogenesis
b) The segregation of factors is due to the segregation of chromosomes during meiosis
c) Law of segregation is called as law of purity of gametes
d) all of the above
14. F3 generation is obtained by
a) selfing of F1
b) selfing of F2
c) crossing of F1 and F2
d) none of these
15. The crossing of F1 to any one of the parents is called
a) back cross
b) test cross
c) F1 cross
d) all of these
Answers
1.c) self fertilized crop
2. b) removal of anthers before dehiscence
3. a) differing in a pair of contrasting character
4. monohybrid cross
5. b) F1
6. a) Garden pea was true breeding
7. c) law of dominance
8. b) dominant character
9. b) F2
10. d) 3:1
11. a) 3:1
12. b)1:2:1
13. d) all of the above
14. a) selfing of F1
15. a) back cross

Multiple Choice Questions on Mendelian Genetics

1. The crossing of F1 to homozygous recessive parent is called
a) back cross
b) test cross
c) F1 cross
d) all of these
2. The test cross is used to determine the
a) genotype of the plant
b) phenotype of the plant
c) both a and b
d)none of these
3. Monohybrid test cross ratio is
a) 3:1
b) 2:1
c) 1:1
d) 9:3:3:1
4. The cross in which parents differ in two pairs of contrasting characters is called
a) monohybrid cross
b) dihybrid cross
c) trihybrid cross
d) tetrahybrid cross
5. The phenotypic dihybrid ratio is
a) 9:3:2:1
b) 9:3:2:2
c) 1:1
d) 9:3:3:1
6. In Mendels Dihybrid cross, the phenotypic ratio of F2 for a single character is
a) 9:3:2:1
b) 9:3:2:2
c) 3:1
d) 9:3:3:1
7. Which of the following statements is true regarding the law of independent assortment
a) factors assort independent of each other when more than one pair of characters are present
together
b) independent assortment leads to variation
c) independent assortment leads to formation of new combinations of characters
d) all of these
8. The Dihybrid test cross ratio is
a) 9:3:2:1
b) 9:3:2:2
c) 1:1:1:1
d) 9:3:3:1
9. Each gametes carry
a) only recessive allele
b) only dominant allele
c)only one of the alleles
d) all of these
10. Which of the following terms represent a pair of contrasting characters
a) homozygous
b) heterozygous
c) allelomorphs
d) codominant genes
11. The best method to determine the genotype of dominant parent is by crossing it with the
hybrid. This cross is called
a) Back cross
b) test cross
c) selfing
d) cross fertilization
12. The best method to determine the homozygosity and heterozygosity of an individual is
a) self- fertilization
b) back cross
c) test cross
d) inbreeding
13. All of this obeys Mendels laws except
a) Linkage
b) independent assortment
c) dominanace
d) purity of gametes
14. The geometrical device that helps to find out all the possible combinations of male and female
gametes is called
a) Punnete square
b) Bateson square
c) Mendel square
d) Morgan square
15. The title of Mendels paper while presenting at Brunn Natural History Society in 1865 was
a) Laws of inheritance
b) Laws of heridity
c) Experiments on pea plants
d) Experiments in plant hybridization
Answers:
1. b) test cross
2. a) genotype of the plant
3. c) 1:1
4.b) dihybrid cross
5. d) 9:3:3:1
6. c) 3:1
7. d) all of these
8. c) 1:1:1:1
9. c)only one of the alleles
10. c) allelomorphs
11. a) Back cross
12.b) back cross
13. a) Linkage
14. a) Punnete square
15.d) Experiments in plant hybridization

MCQ on Genetics - Model Organisms

1. Hammerlings experimental material to prove nucleus as the physical basis of heredity was
a) Neurospora
b) Amoeba
c) Acetabularia
d) Drosophila

2. Mendels experimental material was

a) Pisum sativum
b) Oryza sativa
c) Vigna sinensis
d) Arabidopsis thaliana

3. Which of the following is called as Drosophila of the plant kingdom

a) Neurospora
b) E.coli
c) Pisum sativum
d) Arabidopsis thaliana

4. The organism used to study DNA replication

a) Neurospora crassa
b) Drosophila melanogaster
c) Escherichia coli
d) Bacillus sublitis

5. Griffiths transformation experiment was carried out using

a) Escherichia coli
b) Bacillus sublitis
c) Diplococcus pneumoniae
d) Salmonella typhimurium

6. Incomplete dominance was first described in

a) Mirabilis jalapa
b) Arabidopsis thaliana
c) Pisum sativum
d) Triticum aestivum

7. Mutation was discovered by Hugo de vries in

a) Pisum sativum
b) Triticum secale
c) Oenothera lamarckiana
d) Mirabilis jalapa

8. The model organism widely used for developmental and toxicological studies
a) Neurospora crassa
b) Drosophila melanogaster
c) Danio rerio
d) Bacillus sublitis

9. Temin and Baltimore discovered reverse transcriptase in

a) retro virus
b) T2 phages
c) Rouxs sarcoma virus
d) herpes virus

10. The concept of pure line put forward by Johannsen was based on his experiments on
a) Pisum sativum
b) Phaseolus vulgaris
c) Vigna sinensis
d) Arabidopsis thaliana

11. The mitotic crossing over was reported in the fungus

a) Aspergillus niger
b) Penicillium notatum
c) Aspergillus nidulans
d) Sacharomyces cerviseae

12. Tetrad analysis confirmed the occurrence of crossing over during tetrad stage. This was first
reported in
a) Neurospora
b) E.coli
c) Pisum sativum
d) Arabidopsis thaliana

13. Creighton and McClintock provided cytological evidence for crossing over based on
experiments in
a) maize
b) rice
c) pea
d) Arabidopsis

14. Sex determination in plants was extensively investigated in

a) Pisum sativum
b) Phaseolus vulgaris
c) Melandrium
d) Arabidopsis thaliana

15. The most widely used model for studying developmental biology and neurology

Model Organism

a) Escherichia coli
b) Saccharomyces cervisae
c) Caenorhabditis elegans
d) Neurospora crassa

Answers:
1-c
2-a
3-d
4-c
5-c
6-a
7-c
8-c
9-c
10-b
11-c
12-a
13-a
14-c
15-c

Useful Posts:
Notes: Model Organisms

Multiple Choice Questions on DNA

1. Who introduced the term Nucleic Acid?
a) Meisher
b) Robert Brown
c) Lipmann
d) Altmann

2. Hereditary information is indicated by

a) Sequence of nucleic acids
b) Position of nucleic acid
c) Number of nucleic acid
d) All of these

3. The strongest evidence that DNA is the genetic material comes from
a) The finding DNA is not present in the cytoplasm
b) The fact that chromosome are made of DNA
c) Studies of Bacterial transformation
d) The knowledge that DNA is present in the nucleus

4. Who among the following scientists developed cytochemical technique for the detection of
DNA?
a) Feulgen and Rossenbeck
b) Watson and Crick
c) Beadle and Tatum
d) Knoll and Ruska

5. Which of the following scientists demonstrated that DNA A=T and G=C?
a) Griffth
b) Meselson and Stahl
c) Hershey and Chase
d) Chargaff

6. Which ratio is constant for DNA?

a) A+G / T+C
b) A + T / G+ C
c) A+ C/ U+G
d) A+ U/ C+G

7. The dye involved in Feulgen reaction to stain DNA is

a) Janus green B
b) Basic Fuchsin
c) Neutral Red
d) Haemoxylin

8. If 30% of an organisms DNA is thymine, then

a) 70% guanine
b) 20% is guanine
c) 30% adenine
d) both b and c

9. Hydrogen bonds between cytosine and guanine are

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

10. Nucleotide arrangement in DNA can be seen by

a) Light microscope
b) Electron microscope
c) X-Ray crystallography
d) Ultracentrifuge

Answers

1. d) Altmann

2. a) Sequence of nucleic acids

3. c) Studies of Bacterial transformation

4. a) Feulgen and Rossenbeck

5. d) Chargaff

6. a) A+G / T+C
7. b) Basic Fuchsin

8. d) both b and c

9. c) 3

10. c) X-Ray crystallography

Learn more: MCQ on DNA

MCQ on Evolution

1. A species inhabiting different geographical areas is known as

a) sympatric
b) allopatric
c) sibling
d) biospecies

2. According to De Vries theory, evolution is

a) jerky
b) discontinuous
c) continuous and smooth
d) both a and b

3. Mutation may be described as

a) Continuous genetic variation
b) Phenotypic change
c) Discontinuous genetic variation
d) change due to hybridisation

4. The theory of use and disuse was given by

a) Stebbins
b) Lamarck
c) Aristotle
d) Vavilox

5. The evolution of a species is based upon sum total of adaptive changes preserved by
a) natural selection
b) isolation
c) speciation
d) human conservation
6. Genetic drift is on account of
a) variations
b) mutation
c) increase in population
d) decrease in population

7. According to Neo- Darwinism, natural selection operates through

a) Fighting between organisms
b) Variations
c) Killing weaker organism
d) Differential reproduction

8. Sympatric speciation develops reproductive isolation without

a) Geographic barrier
b) barrier to mating
c) barrier to gene flow
d) genetic change

9. Quick change in phenotypes in a small band of colonisers is called

a) Founder effect
b) Genetic bottle neck
c) Genetic grift
d) Gene flow

10. Genetic drift is found in

a) Small population with or without mutated genes
b) large population with random mating
c) plant population
d) animal population

11.Which is related to reproduce isolation

a) genetic isolation
b)temporal isolation
c) behavioural isolation
d) all of these.

12. In which condition gene ratio remains constant in a species?

a) gene flow
b) mutation
c) random mating
d) sexual selection

13. Lamarck theory of organic evolution is usually known as

a) Natural selection
b) Inheritance of acquired characters
c) Descent with change
d) continuity of fermplasm

14. Which one is used for knowing whether or not a population is evolving?
a) Degree of evolution
b) Genetic drift
c) Proportion between acquired variations
d) Hardy Weinberg equation

15. Balancing selection is concerned with successful reproduction of

a) Homozygous recessives
b) homozygous indivduals
c) heterozygous individuals
d) all of the above
Learn more:
Multiple Choice Questions on Evolution
Multiple Choice Quiz on Origin of Life
Multiple Choice Questions on Geological time Scale
Multiple Choice Questions on Human Evolution
Answers:
1-b
2-d
3-c
4-b
5-b
6-d
7-d
8-a
9-a
10-a
11-d
12-c
13-b
14-d
15-c

Multiple Choice Questions on Evolution

1. Evolution is

a) Progressive development of Race

b) History and development of race along with variations
c) History of race
d) Development of race
2. The first organisms were
a) Chemoautotrophs
b) Autotrophs
c) Eukaryotes
d) Chemoheterotrophs

3. Theory of inheritance of acquired characters was given by

a) Wallace
b) Darwin
c) De Vries
d) Lamarck

4. Which one of the following is a living fossil?

a) Cycas
b) Moss
c) Saacharomycetes
d) Spirogyra

5. Basic principles of embryonic development were pronounced by

a) Von Baer
b) Haeckel
c) Morgan
d) Weismann
6. Which of the following amino acids was not found to be synthesised in Millers Experiment?
a) Alanine
b) Glycine
c) Asparatic acid
d) Glutamic acid
7. Two Zoogeographical regions, separated by high mountain ranges, are
a) Oriental and Australian
b) Nearctic and Palaearctic
c) Palaearctic and Oriental
d) Neotrophical and Ethiopian
8. Origin of species was written by
a) Oparin
b) Lamarck
c) Weismann
d) Darwin
9. Praying mantis is a good example of
a) Camouflage
b) Mullerian mimicry
c) Warning colouration
d) Social insects
10. Continuity of germplasm theory was given by
a) De Vries
b) Darwin
c) Weismann
d) Lamarck
Learn more
MCQ on Evolution (Set 1)
MCQ on Evolution (Set 2)
Answers
1. b) History and development of race along with variations
2. d) Chemoheterotrophs
3. d) Lamarck
4. a) Cycas
5. a) Von Baer
6. d) Glutamic acid
7. c) Palaearctic and Oriental
8. d) Darwin
9. a) Camouflage
10. c) Weismann

Multiple Choice Questions on Evolution

16. The first domesticated animal by primitive man was
a) Cat
b) Dog
c) Horse
d) Cow
17. Which of the following is an example of living fossils?

a) Pinus
b) Riccia
c) Ginkgo
d) Gnetum
18. First life on earth was
a) Cyanobacteria
b) Autographs
c) Chemoheterotrophs
d) Photoautotrophs
19. Most abundant organic compound on earth is
a) Protein
b) Cellulose
c) Steroids
d) Lipids
20. Which is not a vestigial organ of man?
a) Nails
b) Third molar
c) Coccyx
d) Segmented muscles of abdomen
21. Genetic drift operates only in
a) Large populations
b) Smaller populations
c) Island populations
d) Mendealian populations
22. The animals of cold countries have relatively shorter and poorly developed ears, eyes, hairs
and other phenotypic characters. This is known by which law?

a) Copes law
b) Dollos law
c) Bergmanns law
d) Allens law

23. Phenomenon of Industrial melanism demonstrates

a) Geographical isolation
b) Natural Selection
c) Reproductive isolation
d) Induced mutation
24. Convergent evolution is illustrated by
a) Rat and Dog
b) Bacterium and Protozoan
c) Starfish and Cuttle fish
d) Dogfish and Whale
25. Correct order is
a) Paleozoic-> Mesozoic-> Coenozoic
b) Archaeozoic-> Coenozoic ->Paleozoic
c) Coenozoic ->Paleozoic-> Archaeozoic
d) Mesozoic-> Archaeozoic-> Coenozoic
Learn more:
MCQ on Evolution (Questions 1-15)
MCQ on Geological Time Scale
Answers
16. b) Dog
17. c) Ginkgo
18. c) Chemoheterotrophs
19. b) Cellulose
20. a) Nails
21. b) Smaller populations
22. d) Allens law
23. b) Natural Selection
24. d) Dogfish and Whale
25. a) Paleozoic-> Mesozoic-> Coenozoic (Refer:Geological Time Scale)

Class 12 Biology - MCQ on Evolution

1. The first cells like structures evolved in
a) Ocean
b) Air
c) Land
d) Desert

2.The approximate time when life originated dates back to

a) 200-300 million years
b) 3000-4000 million years
c) 4000-5000 million years
d) 500-1000 million years

3. The first anaerobic photoautotrophs originated--- million years ago

a) 1000-2000
b) 3300-3500
c) 3600-4200
d) 4000-4200

4. Eukaryotes with a nucleus evolved ---million years ago

a) 2200
b) 3800
c) 4500
d) 1600

5. Solar system originated from Solar Nebula--- billion years ago

a) 1.6
b) 3.6
c) 4.6
d) 5.7

6. Life originated about 3.6 billion years ago in the

a) Precambrian era
b) Cambrian era
c) Silurian era
d) Mesozoic era

7. In primitive earth, energy was formed from

a) Lightning
b) Volcanic eruption
c) UV light
d) All of these

8. Protenoid microspheres could produce an isolating membrane if---- is added to the aqueous
solution:
a) Lipids
b) Nucleic acid
c) Proteins
d) Polysaccharides

9. Which of the following gases provided the carbon skeleton of living things during the origin of
life?
a) Water vapour
b) Methane
c) Nitrogen
d) Ammonia

10. Angiosperms (Flowering plants) originated in

a) Devonian period
b) Jurassic period
c) Cretaceous period
d) Triassic

Learn more:
MCQ on Evolution
MCQ on Geological Time Scale
Multiple Choice Questions on Evolution
Answers
1. a) Ocean
2. b)3000-4000 million years
3. b)3300-3500
4. d) 1600
5. c) 4.6
6. a) Precambrian era
7. d) All of these
8. a) Lipids
9. b) Methane
10. c) Cretaceous period

Multiple Choice Questions on Evolution - Geological Time Scale

1. During which geological period did the earth become oxygen rich?
a) Orosirian period
b) Ediacaran period
c) Devonian period
d) Ordovician period

2. The first green plants and fungi appeared on land during which period?
a) Ediacaran period
b) Devonian period
c) Orosirian period
d) Ordovician period

3. Flowering plants first appeared during........... Period?

a) Jurassic period
b) Carboniferous period
c) Cretaceous period
d) Silurian

4. The present epoch in the Earths age is known as

a) Holocene
b) Miocene
c) Pleistocene
d) Pliocene

5. The rise of human civilization is the main characteristics of.............

a) Holocene
b) Pleistocene
c) Pliocene
d) miocene

6. Which geological period in the age of earth is also known as the Age of Fish?
a) Orosirian period
b) Devonian period
c) Ediacaran period
d) Ordovician period

7. As per the latest radiometric dating, what is the age of the earth?
a) 4 billion years
b) 4.54 billion years
c) 4.45 billion years
d) 4.64 billion years

8. During which period in the age of earth did terrestrial life was well established?
a) Pleistocene period
b) Jurassic period
c) Carboniferous period
d) cretaceous

9. First birds and lizards appeared on Earth during ......... period?

a) Jurassic period
b) Carboniferous period
c) Pleistocene period
d) cretaceous

10. Angiosperm originated during

a) upper cretaceous
b) lower Jurassic
c) mid cretaceous
d) carboniferous

11. During evolution the first multicellular organism appeared during

a) 1 billion years ago
b) 2 billion
c) 600 million
d) 200 millions

12. Maximum diversity of reptiles was during

a) Jurassic
b) Ordovician
c) Triassic
d) Cretaceous

Answers:

1-a
2-d
3-c
4-a
5-a
6-b
7-b
8-c
9-a
10-c
11-a
12-d