Dosage Calculation as a single dose four times daily?

Medication Administration a. 220 mg

Pharmacological Agents/Actions b. 98.8 mg
Pharmacological Interactions c. 22.6 mg
Expected Effects/Outcomes d. 65 mg
Adverse Effects/Contraindications and Side
Effects 7. The physician orders Lasix (furosemide) 40 mg p.o.
Pharmacological Pain Management for a client who has fluid volume excess. The
medication label states: Lasix 20 mg per scored
tablet. How many tablet(s) should the nurse
1. A physician has prescribed enteric-coated tablets administer?
for the client. The nurse knows the following is true a. 1⁄2 tablet
about enteric-coated tablets: b. 1 tablet
a. The tablets should be administered with antacids. c. 2 tablets
b. The tablets are designed to carry drugs that may d. 3 tablets
irritate the stomach.
c. The tablets are designed to dissolve in 8. The physician orders gentamicin (Garamycin) for a
the stomach. child weighing 88 lb. If the dose range is 6–7.5
d. The tablets should be crushed. mg/kg/d, and the child is to receive the medication tid,
what is the therapeutic range for a single dose for this
2. The nurse is providing care for a client with mild child?
liver damage due to hepatitis. The nurse is aware that a. 20–40 mg
this client may need reduced dosages of medications b. 50–70 mg
because c. 80–100 mg
a. the client’s kidneys cannot eliminate medications d. 110–130 mg
at the usual rate.
b. the drugs may accumulate in the client’s body and 9. The physician ordered penicillin (Penicillin G)
produce toxicity. 250,000 units intravenously. The nurse has on hand
c. the rate of absorption will increase allowing more penicillin 20,000,000 units in 20 ml. How many ml
of the drug to enter the bloodstream. contains the ordered dose?
d. liver damage may cause drugs to bind to plasma a. 0.25 ml
proteins. b. 4 ml
c. 16 ml
3. Which of the following oral dosage forms should d. 25 ml
not be disrupted?
a. Enteric-coated and sustained-action medications 10. The physician ordered digoxin (Lanoxin) 0.125 mg
b. Sustained-action and intravenous medications p.o. every day. The nurse has digoxin 0.25 mg scored
c. Products containing a wax matrix and tablets. How many tablet(s) should the nurse
subcutaneous medications administer?
d. Enteric-coated tablets and all capsules a. 1⁄2 tablet
b. 1 tablet
4. The physician has ordered nitroglycerin gr 1/200 for c. 11⁄2 tablet
a client experiencing angina. How many milligrams of d. 2 tablets
nitroglycerin (Nitrostat) are in one tablet of gr 1/200?
a. 0.05 mg 11. Which of the following classes of drugs would
b. 0.005 mg most likely predispose a client to digitalis toxicity?
c. 3 mg a. Salicylate analgesics
d. 0.3 mg b. Tetracycline antibiotics
c. Diuretics
5. A client is to receive Synthroid (levothyroxine) 100 d. Barbiturates
g p.o. every day. The medication label states:
Synthroid 0.05 mg per scored tablet. How many 12. The nurse is providing care for a client who is
tablet(s) should the nurse administer? receiving digoxin (Lanoxin). Which of the following
a. 1⁄2 tablet symptoms should the nurse recognize as digoxin
b. 1 tablet (Lanoxin) toxicity?
c. 2 tablets a. Hyperkalemia
d. 3 tablets b. Increased hunger
c. Constipation
6. The physician orders meperidine (Demerol) for a d. Visual disturbances
postoperative client weighing 145 lb. If the
recommended dose for meperidine (Demerol) is 6 13. A client comes to the clinic complaining of
mg/kg/24 hours, how much should be administered unexplained black and blues and bloody appearing
urine. Which type of medication is it most important to
find out if the client is taking?
a. Antibiotic
b. Antipruritic
c. Antianemic
d. Anticoagulant
14. A client was admitted to the hospital with
pneumonia. The physician ordered “Zinacef, (a
second generation cephalosporin) 2 g IV q 8 hour.”
While preparing to administer the first dose of Zinacef,
the nurse notices that this client has a penicillin
allergy. The best action by the nurse is to
a. administer the Zinacef as ordered but watch the
client carefully for any signs of an allergic reaction.
b. ask the pharmacist if another antibiotic can be
substituted for the Zinacef.
c. administer the Zinacef as ordered.
d. hold the Zinacef and notify the physician of the
client’s allergy to penicillin
15. The physician prescribes an antihypertensive
medication for your client. As a nurse, you would
instruct the client to
a. limit fluid intake to 1200 ml daily.
b. increase activities, but limit foods high in
magnesium.
c. take a laxative along with the antihypertensive
mediation.
d. change positions slowly, and sit up for a few
minutes before rising from a lying position.
16. A client, who is 6-months pregnant, comes to the
physician asking for a prescription for a tetracycline
type medication to treat her acne. Your response
should be
a. “Tetracycline, if taken during pregnancy, may be
deposited in the bones and teeth of the fetus.”
b. “The effect of tetracycline is decreased during
pregnancy.”
c. “Tetracycline may cause renal failure if taken during
pregnancy.”
d. “Taking tetracycline during pregnancy may cause
your teeth to discolor.”
17. You have just finished instructing your client on
measures to help the body fight infections. Which of
the following statements by your client would lead
you to believe he needs additional instruction
regarding the antibiotics?
a. “I will make sure I get adequate rest.”
b. “I know I must continue to eat a balanced diet and
drink lots of fluids.”
c. “I will take my medicine until I no longer have a
fever.”
d. “I will wash my hands often.”
18. The nurse should provide client education as an
integral component of client care. Clients taking
captopril (Capoten) should be informed that they
may experience a common adverse effect of the
angiotension-converting enzyme inhibitors (ACE
inhibitors) such as
a. Persistent cough
b. Increased appetite
c. Hypertension
d. Sedation
19. A client was prescribed both heparin (Calcilean)
and warfarin (Coumadin) by the physician. When
preparing to administer both of these anticoagulants,
what rationale would the nurse consider appropriate?
a. It takes 12–24 hours before the action of oral
anticoagulants is evident.
b. Heparin (Calcilean) is more effective when used
with warfarin sodium (Coumadin).
c. By administering an oral anticoagulant with
heparin (Calcilean), the client needs less frequent
administration of heparin.
d. The client is less likely to experience adverse
effects
20. The nurse needs to administer two types of insulin
to the client. Which of the following is the correct
procedure for mixing two types of insulin in the same
syringe?
a. Withdraw the regular insulin prior to any other
type of insulin.
b. Withdraw the regular insulin after other types of
insulin.
c. Draw each of the insulin medications in a separate
syringe then combine the two.
d. Withdraw one half dose of the regular insulin
prior to the other insulin, and then withdraw the
remaining dose of the regular insulin.
21. A client was diagnosed with a thrombus in her left
leg. The physician has ordered Coumadin (warfarin)
7.5 mg p.o. every day. The client’s prothrombin time
(PT) is 20 and the International Normalized Ratio
(INR) is 2.4. The nurse has Coumadin (warfarin) 5
mg scored tablets. What should the nurse plan to do?
a. Administer 1/2 tablet because the PT and the INR
are in a safe range.
b. Administer one tablet because the PT and the INR
are in a safe range.
c. Administer 11/2 tablets because the PT and the
INR are in a safe range.
d. Do not administer Coumadin because the PT and
the INR are too high.
22. The physician orders digoxin (Lanoxin) 0.25 mg
p.o. every day. The nurse has digoxin 0.125 mg
scored tablets. The client’s serum digoxin level is 1.4
and his potassium level is 4.2. What should the nurse
plan to do?
a. Administer 1⁄2 tablet.
b. Administer 2 tablets
c. Do not administer the digoxin because the client’s
digoxin level is too high.
d. Do not administer the digoxin because the client’s
potassium is too low.
23. If the nurse is to administer both an inhalation
bronchodilator and an inhalation corticosteroid, which
of the following is true?
a. The bronchodilator should be used first. b. The
corticosteroid should be used first.
c. The order of use does not matter.
d. It is a good idea to alternate which product is used
first.
24. When the nurse is monitoring the effects of
bronchodilators, which of the following should be
included?
a. Monitor for cyanosis of lips, earlobes, nail beds
and mucous membranes, and monitor theophylline
levels.
b. Be familiar with client’s VS, and monitor their
bowel sounds and respiratory effort.
c. Observe client for cyanosis, rapid respiratory rate,
and monitor magnesium levels.
d. Observe client for adverse effects and ensure that
he uses metered-dose inhalers correctly every
hour.
25. When administering medication using a
metereddose inhaler the nurse should
a. require the client to rinse mouth before using
inhaler.
b. monitor client’s respiratory rate and bowel sounds.
c. observe client’s oral mucosa and tongue for
redness and white patches
d. encourage client to use a hard bristle toothbrush.
26. The bulk-forming laxatives should always be
taken with
a. 30 ml orange juice.
b. 45 ml milk.
c. 4 oz of any liquid.
d. 240–300 ml of water or juice.
27. When administering proton pump inhibitors to a
client, the nurse understands that they act by
a. suppressing gastric acid secretion by inhibiting the
gastric pump in the parietal cells of the stomach.
b. reducing gastric acid production by inhibiting the
leukotriene activity in the stomach.
c. increasing gastric acid secretion by increasing the
gastric pump output.
d. increasing gastric acid production by inhibiting
the gastric pump in the stomach.
28. Client teaching regarding long-term corticosteroid
therapy should include:
a. the need for periodic blood glucose assessment
b. the need to take the medication late in the day to
avoid insomnia
c. the possibility of enhanced wound healing
d. the need for a diet low in iron
29. Clients receiving long-term corticosteroid therapy
may require dietary modifications. Which of the
following statements is true about special diets for
longterm
corticosteroid therapy?
a. A potassium-restricted diet may be needed due to
sodium and water retention.
b. A low-protein, low-carbohydrate diet may be
needed to correct negative nitrogen balance.
c. A potassium-restricted diet may be needed due to
potassium retention.
d. Increased calcium is encouraged to help prevent
osteoporosis.
30. Anatomic and physiological factors that affect
drug absorption in the elderly include
a. Increased rate of passage of drugs through the
lower gastrointestinal tract.
b. Decreased gastric emptying, thus increasing the
time medications remain in stomach.
c. Increased gastric acidity affects the way tablets
dissolve.
d. Thinner skin surface delays absorption of topical
drugs.
31. Factors that may place elderly people at risk for
medication related problems include
a. vision loss, hearing loss, and using the same
pharmacy so accurate profiles may be kept.
b. memory loss, hearing loss, and using the same
pharmacy so that prescriptions errors may be
caught easily.
c. recent memory loss, vision loss, and taking
multiple medications due to chronic health
problems.
d. maintaining accurate profile at the pharmacy,
asking physician for a sample of the prescription to
assess the medications effects, and following the
pharmacist’s instructions.
32. A serious concern in health care is the
development of increasing numbers of antibiotic-
resistant strains of bacteria. To help prevent this
problem, clients should be taught to
a. complete the entire prescription of antibiotics
b. share their antibiotic prescription with other family
members with the same symptoms
c. stop taking their antibiotic medications when they
begin to feel better
d. request a prescription for antibiotics from the
physician when they have a viral infection
33. The nurse monitors the client for adverse effects
of medications. What is a major disadvantage of using
broad-spectrum antibiotics to treat infections?
a. They are only effective against a small number of
microorganisms.
b. They destroy normal flora, enabling superinfections
to develop.
c. They are not effective against viruses.
d. They are more likely to cause an allergic reaction.
34. The nurse receives a medication order with no
route specified. What is the best action by the nurse?
a. Give the medication orally because that is the most
common route.
b. Ask the client how he usually takes the medication.
c. Call the physician to clarify the order.
d. Ask another nurse which route to use.

35. The physician orders nitroglycerin (Nitro Bid) 0.4

mg SL now. Which of the following options would
indicate that the nurse correctly administered the
medication?
a. Tablet placed under the client’s tongue and client
instructed to allow medication to dissolve.
b. Tablet given to the client with 8 oz of water after
checking BP and heart rate.
c. Tablet given to the client with 4 oz of juice to assist
with masking bitter flavor.
d. Tablet placed under client’s tongue and client
instructed to chew slowly to assist with absorption.

36. When administering intramuscular medication to a

client who is 5 ft 6 in. tall and weighs 118 oz, which
of the following needles should the nurse select?
a. 27 gauge, 1 in.
b. 23 gauge, 2 in.
c. 25 gauge, 11⁄2 in.
d. 22 gauge, 1 in.

37. Which of the following rights do clients have in

regard to medication? The right to
a. know the names of the other clients on the hall.
b. refuse medication and know the names of their
medication.
c. information concerning side effects of the
medications they are taking at home only.
d. know all of the medication that the nurse
administers to all the clients.

38. What direction should the nurse give to a client in

regard to the use of NSAIDs prior to scheduled
surgery?
a. Take as usual as long as recommended dose is not
exceeded.
b. Do not take after midnight the day of surgery.
c. Gradually taper to zero during the week prior to
surgery.
a. Discontinue 7 days prior to elective surgery.

39. The nurse should instruct the client taking an

antilipemic about the regular need for which type of
examination?
a. Colonoscopy
b. Dental
c. Ophthalmic
d. Hearing

40. Which question should be asked of a young adult

female for whom penicillin has been ordered?
a. Do you drink milk?
b. Are you allergic to shellfish?
c. Do you take birth control pills?
d. Have you ever had vaginitis?
Dosage Calculation Answer (b) is correct. Determine the client’s weight in
Medication Administration kg: 145 lb/2.2 = 65.9 kg, then work the problem. 65.9
Pharmacological Agents/Actions kg x 6 mg = 395.4 mg per 24 hours. Divide 395.4 by 4
Pharmacological Interactions doses per day = 98.8 mg per single dose.
Expected Effects/Outcomes
Adverse Effects/Contraindications and Side 7. Rationale
Effects Correct answer: c.
Pharmacological Pain Management Answer (c) is correct: 40 mg/x tablet = 20 mg/1 tablet
20 x = 40
1. Rationale x = 2 tablets
Correct answer: b.
Answer (b) is correct; the coating prevents the tablet 8. Rationale
from dissolving in the stomach where gastric acid is Correct answer: c.
present and allows these more irritating medications Answer (c) is correct: Determine the client’s weight in
to be carried to the small intestines to dissolve. kg: 88 lb/2.2 kg = 40 kg
Answer (a) is incorrect because the antacids may To determine the range, take the dose range and
change the pH of the stomach to a more neutral or multiply it by the client’s weight: 6 mg x 40 kg = 240
alkaline environment and allow the tablet to dissolve mg/kg/d is the lower range. For the upper range: 7.5
in the stomach. Answers (c) and (d) are incorrect mg x 40 kg = 300 mg/kg/d. To find a single dose,
because the tablet is designed to dissolve in the divide each of the doses by 3 because it was ordered
small intestine, and should never be crushed. tid. 240 mg/3 = 80 mg per dose. 300 mg/3 = 100 mg
per dose. Therefore, the single dose range is 80–100
2. Rationale mg.
Correct answer: b.
Answer (b) is correct because clients with liver 9. Rationale
damage may experience a decrease in the ability to Correct answer: a.
metabolize drugs, thus the drugs accumulate in the Answer (a) is correct:
body and may cause toxicity. Answer (a) does not 250,000 units/x ml = 20,000,000/20 ml
relate to liver failure. Answer (c) is incorrect because 20,000,000x = 5,000,000
absorption occurs prior to metabolism in the liver. x = 0.25 ml
Answer (d) is incorrect because the chemical
properties of a drug are what determine how the drug 10. Rationale
is bound or distributed. Correct answer: a.
Answer (a) is correct: 0.125 mg/x tablet = 0.25 mg/1
3. Rationale tablet
Correct answer: a. 0.25x = 0.125
Answer (a) is correct because enteric-coated and x = 1⁄2 tablet
sustained action drugs should not be divided or
crushed. 11. Rationale
Answers (b), (c), and (d) all have one option that may Correct answer: c.
be disrupted, thus making them the incorrect choice. Answer (c) is correct because many diuretics increase
the excretion of potassium from the body and a
4. Rationale decreased level of potassium increases the risk of
Correct answer: d. digoxin toxicity.
gr 1/200 Answers (a),(b), and (d) do not predispose a client to
x mg = gr 1 digoxin toxicity.
60 m
Answer (d) is correct: 12. Rationale
1 x = 60/200 Correct answer: d.
x = 0.3 mg Answer (d) is correct because it is a common
symptom of digoxin toxicity. Other symptoms include
5. Rationale fatigue, anorexia, blurred or double vision, nausea,
Correct answer: c. confusion, and bradycardia. Answers (a), (b), and (c)
Answer (c) is correct: Change the 100 g to 0.1 mg, are not symptoms of digoxin toxicity.
then set up your ratio.
0.1 mg/x tablet = 0.05 mg/1 tablet 13. Rationale
0.05 x =0.1 Correct answer: d.
x = 2 tablets Answer (d) is correct because a side effect of
anticoagulant therapy is abnormal bleeding, which
6. Rationale can manifest in many ways two of which are as gross
Correct answer: b. blood in the urine and easy bruising.
14. Rationale
Correct answer: d.
Answer (d) is the best answer. Often, a client who has
an allergy to Penicillin will experience an adverse
effect to the cephalosporin class of antibiotics
because they are chemically and pharmacologically
similar. Therefore, for the safety of the client, the
nurse should always call the physician. The answers
of (a), (b), and (c) are not appropriate actions for the
nurse to take with this client situation.
15. Rationale
Correct answer: d.
Answer (d) is correct. Many of the antihypertensive
medications cause orthostatic hypotension.
Therefore, the nurse should instruct the client
regarding sudden movements and about rising
slowing to prevent a decrease in BP and prevent
client injury. Answers (a), (b), and (c) are not
appropriate instructions in regards to medications
for hypertension.
16. Rationale
Correct answer: a.
Answer (a) is correct because the tetracycline
medications are contraindicated during pregnancy
because the drugs may interfere with normal
calcification of temporary and permanent teeth and
discolor developing teeth of the fetus. The drug may
also interfere with bone growth of the fetus. Answers
(b) and (c) are incorrect.
Answer (d) is incorrect because the medication
affects the developing teeth of the fetus and children
younger than 8 years of age, not the adult.
17. Rationale
Correct answer: c.
Answer (c) is correct. The question is asking how the
nurse would know the client needs additional
instruction or that the client does not understand. If
the client thinks he should stop taking his antibiotics
when he no longer has a fever, then he needs
additional education.
Answers (a), (b), and (d) are all good measures to
help fight or prevent infection, therefore, these do not
indicate he needs more instruction.
18. Rationale
Correct answer: a.
Answer (a) is correct. A persistent cough is a common
adverse effect of ACE Inhibitors. Answers (b), (c), and
(d) are not common adverse effects of ACE Inhibitors.
19. Rationale
Correct answer: a.
Answer (a) is correct. In many situations the client is
receiving heparin intravenously and the physician
prescribes the addition of Coumadin for several days
prior to discontinuing the heparin. For oral
anticoagulants, their effect is usually not evident for
12–24 hours after therapy has begun. Therefore, the
client is receiving the heparin while the effects of the
Coumadin are beginning to become evident. After the
laboratory work shows evidence that the oral
anticoagulants are effective, then the physician will
discontinue the heparin therapy. Answers
(b),(c), and (d) are not correct.
20. Rationale
Correct answer: a.
Answer (a) is correct. The nurse withdraws the
regular (clear) insulin first so as to not contaminate
the regular insulin vial with the other types of insulin.
Answers (b) and (d) risk the chance to contaminate
the regular insulin vial. Answer (c) indicates that the
nurse is wasting time and supplies, as well as the
insulin syringes do not have a detachable needle,
thus, the nurse can not add solution from one syringe
to another syringe.
21. Rationale
Correct answer: c.
Answer (c) is correct. The PT and the INR values are
in a normal range for a client who is receiving oral
anticoagulant therapy. Therefore, you need to
determine the dose the nurse will administer. 7.5
mg/x tablet _=5 mg/1 tablet
5x = 7.5
x = 11⁄2 tablet
22. Rationale
Correct answer: b.
Answer (b) is correct. The serum digoxin level of 1.4
is within normal limits for a client taking digoxin
(0.8–2.0). The potassium level of 4.2 is within normal
limits (3.5–5.3). Therefore, you need to determine the
dose the client will receive.
0.25 mg/x tablet = 0.125 mg/1 tablet
0.125x = 0.25
x = 2 tablets
23. Rationale
Correct answer: a.
Answer (a) is correct. The nurse should administer
the bronchodilator inhaler first so that the medication
can dilate the bronchioles prior to the administration
of the inhalation corticosteroid medication. It is best to
wait 5–10 minutes after the administration of the
bronchodilator inhaler before administering any other
inhaled medications.
24. Rationale
Correct answer: a.
Answer (a) is correct. When the nurse is monitoring
the effects of medications, the S&S of the disorder
that these medications are treating are included in the
assessment. With bronchodilators, the S&S of the
disorder are respiratory system related. Theophylline
is a medication that promotes bronchodilation, and
the physician often orders serum theophylline levels
to be drawn.
Answers (b) and (c) have distracters such as bowel
sounds and magnesium levels which are not
associated with monitoring the effects of
bronchodilators.
Answer (d) is incorrect because the nurse would not
administer the inhaler every hour as this would be an
overdose.
25. Rationale
Correct answer: c.
Answer (c) is correct. Some of the inhaled
medications are steroids and may cause irritation or
oral candidiasis.
Answer (a) would not be the best answer, although
there may be situations where the nurse may need
the client to rinse their mouth before using the inhaler.
Answer (b) is incorrect because the bowel sounds are
not a component of this assessment. Answer (d) is
incorrect because if there is a situation that may
cause oral irritation, the client should be instructed to
use a soft bristle toothbrush.
26. Rationale
Correct answer: d.
Answer (d) is correct. The nurse should administer a
bulk-forming laxative with 240–300 ml of water or
juice to prevent gastrointestinal obstruction.
Answers (a), (b), and (c) are not enough volume.
27. Rationale
Correct answer: a.
Answer (a) is the correct action of medications in the
drug classification of proton pump inhibitors. Answer
(b) is incorrect because leukotriene activity is not an
action of these medications. Answers (c) and (d) are
incorrect because gastric acid is decreased, not
increased with this classification.
28. Rationale
Correct answer: a.
Answer (a) is correct because an adverse effect of
corticosteroid therapy is hyperglycemia. Answer (b) is
incorrect because it is generally recommended that a
client on longterm corticosteroid therapy take their
medication early in the day to help prevent insomnia.
Answer (c) is incorrect because one of the adverse
effects is delayed wound healing and masking of
infections. Answer (d) is incorrect because
there are no recommendations to decrease iron
intake.
29. Rationale
Correct answer: d.
Answer (d) is correct. Clients on long-term
corticosteroid therapy are at risk for osteoporosis due
to an increased excretion of calcium. Therefore,
calcium supplements are very important.
Answers (a), (b), and (c) are incorrect as the client
may need a high-carbohydrate, high-protein diet and
foods high in potassium to maintain adequate
nutrition.
30. Rationale
Correct answer: b.
Answer (b) is correct. In older adults gastric emptying
is slowed and takes a longer time, therefore the
medication remains in the stomach longer. Answers
(a) and (c) are incorrect due to drugs taking longer to
absorb in older adults, and gastric acid production is
decreased in the older adult. Answer (d) is incorrect
because thinner skin surfaces actually increase
absorption of topical medications.
31.
Rationale
Correct answer: c.
Answer (c) is correct. These changes may occur in
the
older adult and many older clients are on eight or
more
medications per day. Answers (a) and (b) are
incorrect,
even though the cognitive and sensory changes are
possible,
using the same pharmacy for all the prescriptions
helps prevent medication related problems. Answer
(d)
is incorrect because these are examples of methods
that
help prevent medication related problem.
32.
Rationale
Correct answer: a.
Answer (a) is correct. Nurses should instruct clients to
complete the entire course of therapy of antibiotics.
Answer (b) is incorrect. Clients should be instructed
not
to share any of their medications with another
individual.
Answer (c) is incorrect. Clients should be instructed
to take the full course of therapy and not to stop
taking
their antibiotics when they feel better. Answer (d) is
incorrect. Antibiotics are not the correct treatment for
viral infections.
33.
Rationale
Correct answer: b.
Answer (b) is correct. Broad-spectrum antibiotics may
destroy normal flora in the client’s mouth and
gastrointestinal
tract, causing oral candidiasis and diarrhea.
Answer (a) is incorrect. Broad-spectrum antibiotics
are
effective against a large number of organisms.
Answer (c)
is not the best answer to the question because
antibiotics
are not effective against viruses. Answer (d) is not
accurate
information.
34.
Rationale
Correct answer: c.
Answer (c) is correct. The nurse should always call
the physician to verify the route. Answers (a), (b), and
(d) are incorrect and do not constitute safe nursing cataracts so regular eye examinations are
practice. recommended.
35. Antilipemics are not known to affect the large bowel,
Rationale teeth, or hearing.
Correct answer: a. 40.
Answer (a) is correct. The order is for the tablet to be Rationale
administered SL (sublingual). Answers (b), (c), and Correct answer: c.
(d) Answer (c) is correct. Penicillin can inhibit the
indicate that the client is to swallow the medication. effectiveness
36. of oral contraceptives so a backup form of birth
Rationale control
Correct answer: d. Answer (d) is correct. The client is is needed when taking penicillin.
5 ft 6 in. tall and only
weighs 118 lb, which indicates that the client is
probably
slender without excess body fat. A 22-gauge needle is
the
normal size gauge for medications that are not
viscous,
and a 1-in. needle should be the correct length for the
client’s body built. Answer (a) is incorrect because the
27
gauge is too small for an intramuscular injection.
Answer
(b) is incorrect because the length of 2 in. is too long
for
this client’s height and weight indicators. Answer (c) is
incorrect because the gauge is too small for an
intramuscular
injection and the length is too long for this client’s
height and weight indicators.
37.
Rationale
Correct answer: b.
Answer (b) is correct. Clients have the right to know
the
names, doses, adverse effects, contraindications,
indications,
etc. of all their medications and they have the right
to refuse medication. Answer (a) is incorrect because
it
violates client confidentiality in most institutions.
Answer
(c) is incorrect only because it indicates “at home
only” in
the answer. Answer (d) is incorrect because it violates
the
rights of other clients.
38.
Rationale
Correct answer: d.
Answer (d) is correct. NSAIDs should be discontinued
1 week prior to elective surgery because of their
anticlotting
effect.
39.
Rationale
Correct answer: c.
Answer (c) is correct. An association has been found
between the use of antilipemics and the development
of