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1.

Minimum size for stone masonry


a. 200 mm
b. 300 mm
c. 150 mm
d. 400 mm
2. Mortar ratio for stone masonry
a. 1:3
b. 1:2
c. 1:1
d. 1:4
3. Minimum size for Class “A” stones
a. 300 mm
b. 200 mm
c. 400 mm
d. 500 mm
4. Concrete in the area represented by the cores will be considered if the average strength of the cores is equal
to:
a. At least 75% of and no single core is less than 85% of, the specified strength, fc’
b. At least 85% of and no single core is less than 75% of, the specified strength, fc’
c. Al least equal or exceed of the specified strength fc’ and no single strength test less than 20% of the
specified strength of fc’
d. At least equal of exceed of the specified strength fc’ and no single strength test less than 10% of the
specified strength, fc’
5. Job mix tolerance for Bituminous material
a. ±7%
b. ±2%
c. ±0.4%
d. ±4%
6. Required percent air voids for asphalt mix
a. 2 to 3
b. 3 to 5
c. 4 to 8
d. 4 to 7
7. The proportion of bituminous material, on the basis of total dry aggregate
a. 92 to 95 percent
b. 5 to 8 percent
c. 5 to 10 percent
d. 6 to 12 percent
8. Required sample of asphalt mix per 130 metric ton
a. 70 kg
b. 50 kg
c. 20 kg
d. 40 kg
9. Required sample for steel bars for 10,000 kgs
a. 1.5 m
b. 1.0 m
c. 1.8 m
d. 1.20 m
10. 10 kgs sample for cement represent
a. 1000 bags
b. 2000 bags
c. 1500 bags
d. 500 bags
11. Require plasticity index for aggregate surface course
a. 6
b. 4 to 9
c. 12
d. 10
12. Bituminous material used for treating an aggregate base course before an asphalt mix overlay
a. Seal coat
b. Prime coat
c. Tack coat
d. Any of the above
13. Blue smoke rising from the mix in the truck or in the spreader hopper may indicate
a. Excess asphalt cement
b. Overheated batch
c. Excess moisture content
d. Excess moisture content and asphalt cement
14. Hard blown asphalt is also called
a. Hot asphalt
b. Asphalt cement
c. Oxidized asphalt
d. All of the above
15. Mineral filler for asphalt is passing
a. #40 sieve
b. #200 sieve
c. #100 sieve
d. #60 sieve
16. The following are the responsibility of the materials engineer, except
a. Witness testing of materials
b. Supervise sampling
c. Check and inspect materials logbook
d. Prepare or check concrete design mix
17. Rate of application to use bituminous prime coat
a. 0.9 to 1.8 liters per square meter
b. 0.2 to 0.7 liters per square meter
c. 1.5 to 3.1 liters per square meter
d. 1.0 to 2.0 liters per square meter
18. Sample required for asphaltic materials for 40 metric ton
a. 10 liters
b. 20 liters
c. 5 liters
d. 40 liters
19. Proportion of asphaltic materials to be added to the dry soil – aggregate in asphalt stabilized road mix base
course
a. 6 to 12
b. 4 to 7
c. 3 to 10
d. 5 to 10
20. Minimum soaked CBR for aggregate base course
a. 75%
b. 80%
c. 70%
d. 60%
21. If the maximum required LL for base course is 25. What is for the subbase course?
a. 35
b. 20
c. 25
d. 40
22. Require plasticity index for lime stabilized road mix base course
a. 4 to 6
b. 4 to 10
c. 4 to 7
d. 4 to 8
23. Required maximum mass tolerance for reinforcing steel bars
a. 8
b. 12
c. 6
d. 10
24. Materials smaller than 0.001 mm
a. Clay
b. Colloids
c. Silt
d. Sand
25. In sampling asphalt the following should be observed:
a. Use new clean containers to avoid contamination
b. Seal filled containers with clean, dry tight fitting lids
c. Labels containers clearly and properly
d. All of the above
26. The asphalt penetration test result is 9mm, hence the penetration grade tested is
a. 60 to 70
b. 85 to 100
c. 100 – 120
d. 70 – 80
27. Dowel bars for concrete pavement
a. Plain round bars
b. Deformed bars
c. Square bar
d. Octagonal bars
28.
a. 1 ½”
b. 2 1/2 “
c. 3”
d. 1”
29. Minimum required flexural strength for concrete beam sample for concrete pavement
a. 3.8 MPa
b. 4.5 MPa
c. 4.0 MPa
d. 3.9 MPa
30. Minimum dry compressive strength of asphalt mix
a. 1.5 MPa
b. 1.4 MPa
c. 2.0 MPa
d. 3.0 MPa
31. A 5.00 cubic meter of asphalt mix was loaded by a truck. Upon delivery at site the temperature was 115°C. if
you are the materials engineer of your firm, what will you recommend?
a. Reject the delivered mix
b. Spread little by little and compact
c. Recycle the mix
d. Any of a and c
32. To determine the total thickness composing subbase, base and asphalt surfacing in certain roadway for
designing, the CRB value of ___ will be used.
a. CBR of asphalt surfacing
b. CBR of subbase course
c. CBR of base course
d. CBR of subgrade materials
33. Minimum required compressive strength for loading bearing hollow blocks
a. 10 MPa
b. 8 MPa
c. 9 MPa
d. 6.9 MPa
34. For 5,000 units of hollow blocks. How many samples shall be taken for strength, moisture and absorption
determination
a. 5 units
b. 3 units
c. 6 units
d. 1 unit
35. Hot asphalt is widely known as
a. Blown asphalt
b. Asphalt cement
c. Oxidized asphalt
d. All of the above
36. Sample for CBR determination should be soaked for how many days
a. 5 days
b. 4 days
c. 3 days
d. 2 days
37. To certify that water used in mixing concrete in the field that was found to be clean, clear, odorless and
tasteless is the responsibility of
a. Materials Engineer
b. Project Engineer
c. Material Laboratory Technician
d. Chief of Materials and Quality Control Division
38. In determining the “Gmb” of compacted asphalt mixtures, the result are as follows
Wt. of sample in air = 2050 gms
Wt. of sample in water = 1170 gms
Wt. of sample saturated surface dry = 2050 gms

The bulk specific gravity is


a. 2.324
b. 2.823
c. 2.725
d. 2.627
39. Fine-grained soil smaller than 0.002 mm
a. Silt
b. Clay
c. Colloid
d. Sand
40. The maximum required plasticity index for base course is 6. What is for the subbase course
a. 4 to 9
b. 12
c. 4 to 7
d. 3 to 10
41.
a. 35
b. 25
c. 30
d. 20
42. Immediately after the finishing operations have been completed and the concrete has sufficiently set, the
surface of the newly placed concrete shall be cured for a period of
a. 96 hours
b. 48 hours
c. 72 hours
d. 120 hours
43. When the mixed concrete is hauled in non-agitating trucks, the time elapsed from the time water is added to
the mix until the concrete is deposited in place at the site shall not exceed
a. 90 minutes
b. 45 minutes
c. 60 minutes
d. 80 minutes
44. When the mixed concrete is hauled in truck mixers or truck agitators, the time elapsed from the time water
is added to the mix until the concrete is deposited at the site shall not exceed
a. 60 minutes
b. 90 minutes
c. 45 minutes
d. 72 minutes
45. Maximum time required in operating concrete vibrators for compaction in any one location
a. 20 sec
b. 15 sec
c. 25 sec
d. 10 sec
46. Maximum height in dropping concrete to the point of deposit using chute
a. 2.00 m
b. 1.50 m
c. 2.50 m
d. 3.00 m
47. New building code of the Philippines
a. PD 1870
b. PD 1594
c. PD 1096
d. PD 1081
48. Civil Engineering Law
a. R.A. 1080
b. R.A. 554
c. R.A. 544
d. R.A. 344
49. When loads have been arriving at the spreader with the material peaked, or doomed up, and a load
suddenly appears in which the material lies flat, it indicates
a. Cold mixture
b. Excess asphalt
c. Large amount of course aggregates
d. Excess fine aggregates
50. In extraction test of compacted mix the Wt., of the original sample is 850 gms. And the Wt. after extraction is
802 gms. The bitumen content percent by mass of aggregates will be
a. 6 %
b. 5.98 %
c. 5.00 %
d. 8.00 %
51. Minimum time of initial setting of concrete mix as tested by Vicat needle
a. 45 minutes
b. 60 minutes
c. 50 minutes
d. 30 minutes
52. Give an indication of clay contents in soil
a. Liquid limit
b. Shrinkage limit
c. Plasticity index
d. All of the above
53. Minimum cement content per cu.m. for class “P” concrete
a. 10
b. 9.5
c. 11
d. 9
54. Using three (3) concrete cylinder samples in determination of the compressive strength of concrete used in
casting reinforced concrete pipe culvert will represent
a. 50.1 m
b. 25.1 m
c. 30.1 m
d. 20.1 m
55. In placing concrete for slab using buggies the correct method will be
a. Concrete should be dumped into face of previously placed concrete
b. Dump concrete away from previously placed concrete
c. Any of a and b
d. None of the above
56. In job-mix formula, what is the tolerance in grading of aggregates for ½” sieve
a. ±7
b. ±8
c. ±6
d. ±4
57. In job-mix formula for asphalt concrete mix, the tolerance for no. 30 sieve
a. ±4
b. ±2
c. ±7
d. ±5
58. Minimum index of retained strength of compacted asphalt mix
a. 80 %
b. 70 %
c. 90 %
d. 85 %
59. For the thickness determination of compacted asphalt concrete cores shall be done
a. In 9 measurements
b. In 4 measurements
c. In 8 measurements
d. In 6 measurements
60. Required no. of cores on compacted asphalt concrete mix taken for each full days operations
a. At least one, but not more than 3 core
b. At least two, but not more than 6 core
c. At least two, but not more than 4 core
d. At least one, but not more than 6 core
61. If no core was taken at the end of each day’s operation and the project has already been completed
a. A core shall be taken for every 100 lm
b. Three cores shall be taken for every 150 lm
c. 3 core for every 100 lm
d. 2 core for every 100 lm
62. If the bulk specific gravity of asphalt concrete mix core is 2.317. The Wt. of the asphalt mix in air is 2055 gms.
What is the density?
a. 2.32
b. 2.51
c. 2.55
d. 2.35
63. The required speed of roller in compacting asphalt concrete mix
a. 8 kph
b. 5 kph
c. 6 kph
d. 10 kph
64. Minimum required temperature when asphalt mix is placed at site
a. 110°C
b. 107°C
c. 100°C
d. 115°C
65. Initial compaction of asphalt mix is done by
a. Tandem roller not less than 10 tons
b. Pneumatic tired roller not less than 10 tons
c. Sheepsfoot roller not less than 10 tons
d. All of the above
66. After final rolling, the degree of compaction should be checked. The compacted pavement shall have a
density
a. Equal to, or greater than 95% of the laboratory compacted density
b. Equal to, or greater than 97% of the laboratory compacted density
c. Equal to, or greater than 96% of the laboratory compacted density
d. Equal to, or greater than 94% of the laboratory compacted density
67. The control of the temperature during mixing and compaction is of great significance
a. The strength of the resulting pavement
b. The amount of asphalt cement content
c. The amount of aggregate content
d. Proper determination of the method of rolling
68. Calibration of universal testing machine shall be done
a. Once a year
b. Every 6 months
c. Every 4 months
d. Once a month
69. Minimum size of class “B” stone for stone masonry
a. 300 mm
b. 400 mm
c. 800 mm
d. 500 mm
70. Maximum slump for concrete class “A”
a. 2” – 5”
b. 2” – 4”
c. 1” – 2”
d. 4” – 9”
71. Maximum water-cement ratio for concrete class “A”
a. 0.46
b. 0.53
c. 0.55
d. 0.58
72. In a certain soil the LL=30 and PL=45. The plasticity index
a. 15
b. -15
c. Non-plastic
d. None of the above
73. In immersion/compression test the ratio of wet to dry density of the mix
a. Stability
b. Index retained strength
c. Bulk specific gravity
d. Percent compaction
74. Minimum required percent compaction for subbase course
a. 98 %
b. 95 %
c. 100 %
d. 96 %
75. In determining the grade of steel use
a. Tensile strength
b. Yield strength
c. Shear strength
d. Bond
76. The strength of no.5 steel bar that was tested for:
Yield load = 13,000 lbs
Ultimate load = 30,000 lbs
Determine the grade of steel
a. Grade 30
b. Grade 60
c. Grade 40
d. Grade 75
77. Concrete admixtures used when the normal setting time is shortened by the higher temperature, preventing
the formation of cold joint, reduce the incidence of thermal cracking and to maintain concrete workability
during large pours or longs ready-mix hauls
a. Accelerators
b. Retarders
c. Superplasticizers
d. Air retaining admixtures
78. Angular coarse aggregates use for concrete mix will provide more
a. Water content
b. Cement and water
c. Cement and fine aggregates
d. All of the above
79. Required no. of representative core taken from each member of area in-pace that is considered deficient
a. 3
b. 2
c. 1
d. 4
80. Thickness determination of concrete cores shall be done at
a. 4 measurements
b. 9 measurements
c. 6 measurements
d. 8 measurements
81. No. of set of concrete cylinder sample taken for every 75 cu.m. of concrete
a. 1 set
b. 2 set
c. Any of a and b
d. 3 set
82.
a. Reject
b. Recoring
c. Remove and replace
d. All of the above
83. Most effective factor for strength of concrete
a. Water-cement ratio
b. Water, cement and fine aggregate
c. Cement plus water
d. Any of the above
84. Asphaltic materials use or treating an existing bituminous material or cement concrete surface with
bituminous materials
a. Prime coat
b. Tack coat
c. Seal coat
d. Any of the above
85. Number of hours of concrete cylinder sample to be submitted to the laboratory before testing
a. 24 hrs
b. 48 hrs
c. 12 hrs
d. 72 hrs
86. Number of hours of Immersion/Compression test that the sample place in water
a. 4 hrs
b. 6 hrs
c. 7 hrs
d. 8 hrs
87. Required weight of sample for testing for coarse aggregates use for concreting
a. 40 kg
b. 50 kg
c. 70 kg
d. 80 kg
88. Required weight of sample testing for fine aggregates use for concreting
a. 70 kg
b. 50 kg
c. 30 kg
d. 40 kg
89.
a. 2000 cu.m
b. 1500 cu.m
c. 1000 cu.m
d. 500 cu.m
90. The design thickness for PCCP is 200mm. The average thickness determination was taken and the result is
170mm. if you are a government materials engineer, what percent of contract price adjustment will you
recommend
a. 70 %
b. No payment
c. 80 %
d. 85 %
91. The deficiency in concrete specimen was found out to be 19.5 percent. What is the adjusted percent of
contract price allowed
a. 80 %
b. 60 %
c. 70 %
d. 50%
92. If there is a strength deficiency in the concrete specimens and it is not feasible or not advisable to obtain
cores from the structure due to structural considerations, or a materials engineer, what will you
recommend?
a. Send letter to your superior for his decision
b. Recommend immediately adjusted price of payment with respect to the deficiency incurred
c. Both a and b
d. Tolerate the strength of deficiency
93. In the construction of a 380 linear meter asphalt road, with a designed thickness of 5cm, a width
requirement of 3.05m and a programmed quantity of bituminous mix of 135 tones, an asphalt core was
taken after each full day’s operation. Results of thickness and density test are as follows:
Paving Paving Length Thickness, Density,
Date represented, m cm gm/cm3
Day 1 120 5.3 2.262
Day 2 140 5.1 2.311
Day 3 120 5.0 2.221
How much is the quantity of bituminous mixture that should be paid
a. 135 tonnes
b. 134.85 tonnes
c. 136 tonnes
d. 135.50 tones
94. The purpose of trial sections before subbase/base construction is started
a. To check the suitability of the materials
b. To check the efficiency of the equipment used
c. Construction method which is proposed to be used
d. All of the above
95. Tolerance of thickness layer for subbase course
a. ±10
b. ±20
c. ±15
d. ±25
96. The moisture content of subbase/base material shall be adjusted prior to compaction by
a. Watering with approved sprinklers mounted on trucks
b. Drying out in order to obtain the required compactions
c. Either a and b
d. Removal and replacing another material
97. Concrete used for thin reinforced sections, railing and for filler in steel grid floors
a. Class “A”
b. Class “P”
c. Class “B”
d. Class “C”
98. Most specifications for concrete exposed to weathering require that water-cement ratio
a. 0.46
b. 0.55
c. 0.53
d. 0.58
99. The process of producing a fill, subgrade, road base or road surface which is capable of withstanding the
existing traffic under all weather and moisture conditions
a. Soil stabilization
b. Use of admixture
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
100. As an experience materials engineer, compacting 6” (15cm) thick layers of soil will require how many passes
a. 10 to 20 passes
b. 8 to 10 passes
c. 15 to 20 passes
d. 15 to 30 passes
101. The significance test of soil, that will determine the potential strength of the soil
a. Grading
b. Soaked CBR
c. Plasticity
d. Abrasion loss
102. The following are the results of the abrasion loss of a certain portion of the coarse of the soil aggregates
after 500 revolution
Wt Original Sample = 5000 gms
Retained in #4 = 1500 gms
Retained in #8 = 400 gms
Retained in #12 = 600 gms
Retained in #16 = 700 gms
Retained in #20 = 1300 gms
Passing in #40 = 500 gms
The percent abrasion loss will be
a. 45 %
b. 40 %
c. 50 %
d. 35 %
103. The allowable tolerance permitted variation from design thickness of layer of aggregate base course
a. ±10 mm
b. ±5 mm
c. ±11 mm
d. ±9 mm
ANSWER KEY:
1 c 21 a 41 c 61 a 81 a 101 b
2 b 22 b 42 c 62 a 82 b 102 c
3 a 23 c 43 b 63 b 83 a 103 a
4 b 24 b 44 b 64 b 84 b
5 c 25 d 45 b 65 b 85 a
6 b 26 b 46 b 66 a 86 a
7 b 27 a 47 c 67 a 87 c
8 c 28 b 48 c 68 a 88 b
9 b 29 a 49 b 69 d 89 b
10 b 30 b 50 b 70 b 90 b
11 b 31 b 51 b 71 b 91 b
12 b 32 d 52 c 72 b 92 b
13 b 33 c 53 c 73 a 93 b
14 c 34 c 54 b 74 c 94 d
15 b 35 b 55 b 75 b 95 b
16 c 36 b 56 a 76 c 96 c
17 d 37 b 57 a 77 b 97 d
18 c 38 a 58 b 78 a 98 c
19 b 39 b 59 b 79 a 99 c
20 b 40 b 60 a 80 b 100 b
1.
a. All of the quarters
b. Three quarters
c. Two adjacent quarters
d. Opposite quarters
2. Moisture content determination of soil, gives the following result, weight of container plus wet soil = 120
gm, weight of container = 70 gms weight of container plus dry soil = 108 gms. The moisture content will be
a. 30.20%
b. 31.58%
c. 31.70%
d. 31.90%
3. The weight of air-dried soil is 200 gms. The weight of mass of oven-dried soil is 125 gms. Therefore, the
Hydroscopic Moisture will be
a. 14.29%
b. 15.0%
c. 14.50%
d. 15.50%
4. Not included in liquid limit determination
a. Balance sensitive to 0.1 gm
b. Liquid limit device
c. Extruder
d. Oven with temperature control
5. Liquid limit of unsuitable materials exceed
a. 80%
b. 60%
c. 75%
d. 55%
6. Plastic limit of unsuitable materials exceed
a. 50%
b. 55%
c. 53%
d. 54%
7. Percent compaction of ordinary common soil
a. 90%
b. 95%
c. 85%
d. 100%
8. Weight of compacted soil excavated from pit=450 gm. Weight of sand required to fill the pit = 412 gm. Bulk
density of Sand = 1.45 gm/cc. Water content of soil = 12.5%. Therefore the field density is
a. 1.41 gm/cc
b. 1.50 gm/cc
c. 1.45 gm/cc
d. 1.44 gm/cc
9. Suppose in problem no.8 the laboratory dry density is 1.38 gm/cc. the percent field compaction will be
a. 103.10%
b. 101.15%
c. 100.50%
d. 102.17%
10. If the soil is compacted with higher compactive effort, the curve will move up and to the left. This means
that the
a. Optimum moisture will decrease and maximum dry density will increase
b. Optimum moisture will decrease and the optimum moisture content will increase
c. The maximum dry density will decrease and the optimum moisture content will increase
d. The maximum dry density will decrease and the optimum moisture content will decrease
11. Thus for a given soil with a given amount of compactive effort, there is a water-content at which the weight
of soil grains obtained in a unit volume of the compacted soil mass is maximum. This water content is
a. Minimum moisture content
b. Hydroscopic moisture content
c. Natural water content
d. Optimum water content
12. You are an experience material engineer of your firm. During compaction you found out that soil is too wet.
What economical recommendation will you give
a. Reject the soil
b. Remove and replace the soil
c. Continuous compaction
d. Scarify and dry the soil by exposing it to air under suitable conditions
13. Clays when removed from the borrow pits come out in the form of chunks. If you are the assigned material
engineer in the field, what is the most suitable compacting equipment will you recommend
a. Tandem roller
b. Vibratory roller
c. Pneumatic tired roller
d. Sheep foot roller
14.
a. 10
b. 11
c. 15
d. 12
15. Assume that an A-6 material has 55 percent passing the 0.075mm (no.200) sieve, the liquid limit of 40 and
plasticity index of 25. Then the group index will be
a. 12
b. 10
c. 11
d. 13
16. Assume that an A-2-7 material has 30 percent passing the 0.075mm (no.200), liquid limit of 50, and
plasticity index of 30. Then the group index (GI) will be
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
17. The term “silty” is applied to fine materials having plasticity index of
a. 10 or less
b. 11 or more
c. 12
d. 13
18. The term “clayey” is applied to fine materials having plasticity index of
a. 10
b. 11 or greater
c. 9 or less
d. 10 or less
19. Material passing sieve with 75mm square and retained no. 10 sieve
a. Coarse sand
b. Fine sand
c. Silt-clay
d. Gravel
20. 1.00 km of road embankment spread at 200 mm layer with a width of 10 m. the number of sets of field
density test will be
a. 20
b. 25
c. 30
d. 40
21. The layer used in pavement system to reinforce and protect the subgrade or subbase
a. Basement soil
b. Embankment foundation
c. Embankment
d. Base
22.
a. Not more than 25
b. Not more than 20
c. Not more than 22
d. Not more than 30
23. Plasticity index of selected borrow for topping
a. Not more than 12
b. Not more than 8
c. Not more than 6
d. Not more than 10
24. At least one group of three in-site density tests shall be carried out for each ___ of each layer of compacted
fill
a. 300m2
b. 450m2
c. 330 m2
d. 500 m2
25. roadway embankment in earth material shall be placed in horizontal layer not exceeding ___, loose
measurement and compacted as specified before next layer is placed
a. 150 mm
b. 200 mm
c. 300 mm
d. 250 mm
26. Reduction of voids due to air being forced out of the soil pores
a. Consolidation
b. compaction
c. Permeability
d. Capillarity
27. Initially when the water content is low, the soil is stiff and difficult to compress. This leads to low densities.
As the holding water increases, the soil becomes more workable resulting into higher compacted density
because water act as ____
a. A lubricant
b. A compactor
c. A compactive effort
d. A void reducer
28. In soil subsurface and surface exploration for flood control design of foundation condition, a soil sample
was taken for field and laboratory tests. The tests required for soil was taken except
a. Gradation
b. Abrasions
c. Water content
d. Atterberg limits
e. Specific gravity
f. Compaction
g. Relative density
29.
a. Liquid limit
b. Plastic limit
c. Shrinkage limit
d. Consolidated test
30. For determining the liquid limit, a special standard-cup device is used. All dimensions of the device are
fixed, and the jarring is accomplished by turning the crank at the rate of ___ revolution/sec
a. 3
b. 2
c. 4
d. 5
31. The moisture content when the groove is closed by ___ blows of the cup is defined as the liquid limit
a. 20
b. 25
c. 30
d. 35
32. Required no. of hours in soaking the specimen of soil for CBR determination
a. 72
b. 96
c. 80
d. 48
33. As an experience field material engineer, without the aid of laboratory equipment, it happens that your
sample is hard, what practical method will you used in determining whether your hard sample is soil or rock
a. By pulverizing with a hammer
b. By submerging into the water
c. By cheaping
d. By visualizing
34. In read construction the excavated materials was 705,900m3 and the waste was 505,600m3. How many
grading, compaction, plasticity test are required
a. 134
b. 150
c. 140
d. 146
35. What is the estimated diameter of the soil thread when rolled between the palm of the hand and the glass
plate begin to crumble in plastic limit determination
a. ¼
b. 1/8
c. ½
d. 3/16
36. The following are the simple visual and manual test used for the identification of the grained soils in the
field without the aid of laboratory equipment, except
a. Dispersion
b. Water mobility
c. Plasticity
d. Dry strength
e. Grading
37. An experience field material engineer can easily identify whether the soil sample is plastic without the aid
of laboratory equipment
a. By air drying
b. By heating
c. Sample of moist soil molded and rolled into thin threads without breaking or crumbling
d. By soaking into the water
38. Liquid limit of special fill common materials
a. Not exceeding 25
b. Not exceeding 35
c. Not exceeding 30
d. Not exceeding 20
39. Plasticity index of special fill common materials
a. Not exceeding 12
b. Not exceeding 6
c. Not exceeding 4 to 9
d. Not exceeding 8
40. The following data were obtained from a sieve test on a certain soil
Sieve size 3/8 4 8 20 40 100 200 pan
Wt Retained 0 60.5 75.1 88.5 77.9 161.6 29.0 67.60

The percent finer at sieve no.200 will be


a. 76
b. 46
c. 12
d. 60
41. You are the material engineer of a certain company doing an earth road construction. During the progress
of construction highly organic soil was encountered. What will you recommend to your firm
a. Blend the highly organic soil with granular materials
b. Removed and replaced with more stable materials
c. Covered the highly organic soil with boulders
d. Placed several logs on the highly organic soils
42. Good compaction means, except
a. Subsequent settlement is minimized
b. Stability is increased
c. Resistance to water absorption is decreased
d. Change in moisture content is minimized
43.
a. 85%
b. 75%
c. 93%
d. 80%
44. In applying load on the penetration piston in CBR determination, the rate of penetration is approximately
a. 1.5mm per minute
b. 1.30mm per minute
c. 1.27mm per minute
d. 1.0mm per minute
45. The required area for the construction of control strips and determination of target density
a. 550 m2
b. 335 m2
c. 400 m2
d. 500 m2
46. The group index number is a measure of the relative supporting power of the subgrade soil. Thus a high
number will require
a. Lesser depth of base and surface
b. Greater depth of base and surface
c. Lesser permeability
d. Lesser capillarity
47. Soil sieves will not give information
a. Size of grains
b. Size distribution
c. Soil classification
d. Mass weight passing
48. All tests for determination of consistency limits of soil are on the fraction of soil passing the ___ sieve
A. No.30
B. No.40
C. No.20
D. No.8
49. The degree of compaction in the field can be verified by
a. Field density test
b. Job density test
c. Any of a and b
d. None of the above
50. Unsuitable materials, material other than suitable material such as
a. Highly organic soil such as peat and muck
b. Soil with a natural water content exceeding 100%
c. Soil with a very low density, 800 kg/m3 or lower
d. All of the above
51.
a. Not exceeding 150 mm
b. Not exceeding 200 mm
c. Not exceeding 300 mm
d. Not exceeding 250 mm
52. Minimum percent compaction requirement of fill material above MLLW
a. 100%
b. 85%
c. 95%
d. 90%
53. All boring on soil survey along new route of road to be constructed shall generally carried to depth of at
least
a. 1.50m below the proposed grade line
b. 1.00m below the proposed grade line
c. 2.00m below the proposed grade line
d. 2.50m below the proposed grade line
54. Location of borings on the new proposed road shall be taken
a. Along the proposed center line
b. Along the side of the road
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
55. Minimum depth of borings on bridge project below the river bed in ordinary soil
a. 10m
b. 20m
c. 15m
d. 25m
56. Minimum depth of boring below the lowest part of foundation on building project
a. 5.00m
b. 9.00m
c. 6.00m
d. 7.00m
57. Maximum depth of exploration below subgrade level on road construction, for areas of light cut and fill
where there are no special problem
a. 2.00 m
b. 2.50 m
c. 1.50 m
d. 1.60 m
58. Piles shall be used only in places where the minimum penetration of ___ in firm material can be obtained
a. 4.00m
b. 5.00m
c. 3.00m
d. 4.50m
59.
a. 5.00 mm
b. 6.00 mm
c. 7.00 mm
d. 8.00 mm
60. Soil sample obtained on borings for flood control and drainage project shall be tested for the following
laboratory test, except
a. Atterberg limits
b. Natural water content
c. Specific gravity
d. Sieve analysis
e. Moisture density relationship
61. Minimum number of borings for building exceeding three storeys
a. 4
b. 5
c. 10
d. 8
62. Minimum depth of borings for bridge in bedrocks
a. 2.00 m
b. 3.00 m
c. 1.5 m
d. 2.50 m
63. Minimum number of borings for an active slide for floord control and drainage project
a. 2.0
b. 1.0
c. 3.0
d. 4
64. Liquid limit is either
a. Greater than plastic limit
b. Equal to the plastic limit
c. Lesser to the plastic limit
d. All of the above
65. Maximum size of special fill common material
a. 2”
b. 3”
c. 1 ½”
d. 2 ½”
66. Physical properties of soil that gives an indication of clay contents
a. Liquid limit
b. Plasticity index
c. Shrinkage limit
d. Plastic limit
67.
a. Mass % of coarse aggregate
b. Gradation
c. Soaked CBR value
d. Plasticity index
68. Increments of loads applied in load test
a. Not to exceed 25% of proposed safe load
b. Not to exceed 20% of proposed safe load
c. Not to exceed 15% of proposed safe load
d. Not to exceed 10% of proposed safe load
69. Minimum weight of soil sample taken from boring in road construction for CBR test
a. 100 kg
b. 50 kg
c. 15 kg
d. 20 kg
70. Minimum CBR required for base course
a. 100
b. 95
c. 80
d. 85
71. Maximum plasticity index for base course
a. 8
b. 6
c. 7
d. 5
72. Maximum thickness of any one layer in spreading and compacting base and subbase course
a. 150 mm
b. 200 mm
c. 100 mm
d. 300 mm
73. 300 mm thickness of base and subbase course will be spread and compiled into
a. One-layer
b. Two-layer
c. Two-or more layers
d. Three-layers
74. Plasticity index for aggregate surface course
a. 6
b. 12
c. 4-9
d. 15
75.
a. 25
b. 12
c. 20
d. 15
76. Maximum abrasion loss of coarse aggregate portion on base course
a. 50
b. 45
c. 40
d. 55
77. Maximum plasticity index for subbase course
a. 6
b. 12
c. 8
d. 4.9
78. Maximum liquid limit for subbase course
a. 12
b. 25
c. 35
d. 20
79. Maximum abrasion loss for coarse aggregate portion for subbase course
a. 40%
b. 45%
c. 50%
d. 55%
80. Required minimum percent compaction for subbase course
a. 100%
b. 95%
c. 90%
d. 96%
81. Minimum required soaked CBR for subbase course
a. 50%
b. 25%
c. 30%
d. 40%
82. The California Bearing Ratio (CBR) can be calculated by dividing the corrected loads by the standard loads
multiplying by 100. At a 100” (2.54m) penetration, the standard load is
a. 5.0 mpa
b. 6.9 mpa
c. 5.5 mpa
d. 4.5 mpa
83.
a. 10.3 mpa
b. 11.00 mpa
c. 10.50 mpa
d. 11.50 mpa
84. The binder material for granular materials usually consist of the following except
a. Clay
b. Silt-clay
c. Limestone dust
d. Slags
85. In construction of control and determination of target density. The members of in-place density tests taken
at randomly selected sites within the control strip will be
a. 20
b. 18
c. 15
d. 25
86. In Construction of control strips and Determination of Target density a new control strip maybe ordered or
requested to construct when, except
a. If the mean density of the control strip is less than 98 percent of the density of laboratory compacted
specimen
b. Ten (10) days of production have been accepted without construction of new control strip
c. There is a reason to believe that a control strip is not representative of the mass at being placed
d. All of the above
87. The layer used in the pavement system between the subgrade and the base course
a. Embankment foundation
b. Embankment
c. Surfacing
d. Subbase
88. Assume that an A-2-7 material has 30 percent passing the 0.075mm (no.200) sieve, liquid limit of 50 and
plasticity index of 30. Then the group index (GI) will be
a. 3
b. 1.0
c. 5
d. 4
89. Assume that an A-4 material has 60 percent passing the 0.075mm (no.200) sieve, liquid limit of 25 and
plasticity index of 1. Then the group index (GI) will be:
a. 3
b. -1.0
c. 0
d. 5
90.
a. 70.5%
b. 80.5%
c. 75.5%
d. 80%
91. In California Bearing Ratio determination the corrected load at 0.200 inch penetration result is 1,255psi. the
percent CBR will be
a. 83.67%
b. 81.50%
c. 83.20%
d. 82.50%
92. You are the Materials Engineer of your firm. It so happen that in the preparation of the as-stake plans it was
found out that there was an increase and new additional items of work from the original quality control
program as submitted. What will you recommend
a. Maintain the old submitted quality control program
b. Revised the quality control program
c. Delete the increase and the new additional item
d. Any of the above
93. In –situ density test means
a. Compaction test
b. Job density test
c. Moisture density relation test
d. Compaction by vibration
94. In laboratory compaction test, the wet density is 2049 kg/m3, the percent water content is 4.2%. the dry
density will be
a. 2048 kg/m3
b. 1966 kg/m3
c. 1942 kg/m3
d. 1950 kg/m3
95. In laboratory compaction test, the dry density is 1940 kg/m3, the percent water content is 13.40%. the wet
density will be
a. 1966 kg/m3
b. 2049 kg/m3
c. 2200 kg/m3
d. 2250 kg/m3
96. Compaction curve produce in the laboratory compaction curve means
a. Flow curve
b. Moisture-density curve
c. Optimum moisture curve
d. Flow line
ANSWER KEY:
1 d 21 d 41 b 61 b 81 b
2 b 22 d 42 c 62 b 82 b
3 a 23 c 43 c 63 b 83 a
4 c 24 d 44 c 64 d 84 d
5 a 25 b 45 b 65 b 85 b
6 b 26 b 46 b 66 b 86 d
7 b 27 a 47 c 67 c 87 d
8 a 28 b 48 b 68 a 88 a
9 d 29 d 49 c 69 b 89 c
10 a 30 b 50 d 70 c 90 a
11 d 31 b 51 c 71 b 91 a
12 d 32 b 52 d 72 a 92 b
13 d 33 b 53 b 73 c 93 b
14 b 34 a 54 c 74 c 94 b
15 b 35 b 55 b 75 a 95 c
16 b 36 d 56 b 76 a 96 b
17 a 37 c 57 c 77 b 97
18 b 38 b 58 c 78 c 98
19 d 39 a 59 a 79 c 99
20 a 40 c 60 e 80 a 100