1.

The first sign of Cavernous sinus thrombosis

a. Non reacting pupil
b. VIth nerve palsy
c. Proptosis
d. Colour vision problems

2. Commonest cause of bilateral proptosis in adults is seen in

a. Metastasis
b. Thyrotoxicosis
c. Orbital cellulitis
d. Cavernous haemangioma

3. IOL is contraindicated in cataract due to

a. Reiter’s syndrome
b. Ankylosing spondylitis
c. Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis
d. Fuchs heterochromic iridocylitis

4. A combination of mental retardation and lens subluxation is

found in
a. Airport’s syndrome
b. Marfan’s syndrome
c. Down’s syndrome
d. Homocystinuria

5. When the colour of one iris is different from the other, it is

called
a. Iridoschisis
b. Iridodonesis
c. Heterochromia iridis
d. Heterochromia iridum

6. Cause of Oculosympathetic paralysis

a. Keratoconus
b. Pancoast tumor
c. Eales disease
d. Nystagmius

7. Commonest muscle to get involved in thyroid related

ophthalmopathy
a. Inferior rectus
b. Superior rectus
c. Medial rectus
d. Inferior oblique

8. Vogt’s triad is seen in

a. Keratoconus
b. Post attack of herpes simplex
c. Post attack of acute angle closure glaucoma
d. Pigmentary glaucoma

9. Young man presents with sudden painless loss of vision. On

examination there are no systemic problems. Most probable
diagnosis is
a. Retinal detachment
b. Cataract
c. Eales disease
d. OAG
10. True about Mooren’s ulcer
a. Painless
b. Sudden loss of vision
c. Requires steroids
d. Drug of choice is clindamicin

11. Minimum endothelial cell density (per mm square) in cornea

to maintain corneal transparency is
a. 3000
b. 1000
c. 500
d. 2500

12. Rubeosis iridis is not seen in

a. CRVO
b. Diabetic retinopathy
c. Hypertensive retinopathy
d. Ocular ischaemic syndrome

13. Chorio retinitis is caused by all except

a. Oncocerciasis
b. Cytomegalovirus
c. Toxoplamosis
d. Cryptococcosis

14. Which of them is a symptom of cataract

a. Loss of visual field
b. Circumcorneal congestion
c. Loss of contrast sensitivity
d. Abnormal pupillary reactions

15. Patient presents with IOP of 55mm Hg, deep AC, some cells
and flare, hypermature cataract, and is diabetic. Diagnosis is
a. Angle closure glaucoma
b. Acute anterior uveitis
c. Phacolytic glaucoma
d. Neovascular glaucoma

16. Herpes Zoster ophthalmicus in a 25 yrs old patient is an

indication for
a. ANA for SLE
b. ACE for sarcoidosis
c. ELISA for HIV
d. ANCA for Wegener’s granulomatosis

17. A 40 yrs old rheumatoid arthritis patients presents with

gradual decrease in vision during the past few months. Most
probable diagnosis
a. Age related Macular degeneration
b. Diabetic retinopathy
c. Steroid induced cataract
d. Dry eyes

18. Amaurotic cat’s eye reflex is seen in

a. Retrolental fibroplasias
b. Retinoblastoma
c. Complete retinal detachment
d. All

19. Oculocardioc reflex is seen in which surgery

a. Cararact
b. Keratoplasty
c. Strabismus
d. Glaucoma

20. A constracted pupil responds to accommodation but light

reflex is absunt. It is
a. Adie’s pupil
b. Hutchinson pupil
c. Argyll Robertson pupil
d. Marcus Gunn

21. Which of the following is a cause of sudden blindness in a

quiet eye with normal media and fundus
a. Vitreous haemorrhage
b. Retrobulbar neuritis
c. Iridocyclitis
d. Optic neuritis

22. Patient with 10 yrs of DM loss of vision, he complaints of

NPDR. Most probable cause of loss vision is
a. Vitreous haemorrhage
b. Cystoid macular edema
c. Tractional detachment
d. Neovascular glaucoma
23. Treatment of choice in Elschnia’s peals is
a. Trabeculotomy
b. Goniotomy
c. Nd – YAG capsulotomy
d. Para centesis

24. In the 25th week of her pregnancy patient complaints of

sudden painless loss of vision. Reason
a. Acute angle closure glaucoma
b. Anterior uveitis
c. Exudative retinal detachment
d. Optic neuritis
25. All are true about Xanthelasma except
a. Raised yellow plaques on upper lids
b. Seen in elderly women
c. Associated with hypercholesterolemia
d. Is malignant

26. All are retinal changes in myopia except

a. Anterior staphyloma
b. Foster fuchs spot
c. Posterior staphyloma
d. Temporal crescent

27. All are true about anterior blepharitis except

a. Inflammation of margins of lids
b. Ulcerative blepharitis has small ulcers at the base of eye lashes
c. Treatment requires doxycycline
d. Squamous blepharitis has small scales
28. A diabetic develops severe glaucoma after 20 yrs, on
examination IOP is 50 mm, has corneal edema, new blood vessels
at pupillary margin, cup disc ratio of 0.8, which kind of glaucoma
is it
a. Pigmentary glaucoma
b. Neovascular glaucoma
c. Malignant glaucoma
d. Angle closure glaucoma

29. Microspherophakia is commonly seen in

a. Weil Marchesani syndrome
b. Marfan’s syndrome
c. Homocystinuria
d. Phenylketonuria

30. Sentinel vessels are seen in

a. Pituitary adenoma
b. Pleomorphic adenoma
c. Retinoblastoma
d. Malignant melanoma

31. Malignancies which mimic features of anterior or posterior

uveitis are called
a. Amaurosis
b. Masquerade syndrome
c. Microtropia
d. Opsoclonus
32. Which pair is incorrect
a. Rheumatoid arthritis - dry eye
b. Sarcoidosis - uveitis
c. Myeloid leukemia - chloroma
d. Behcets disease - corneal ulcer

33. Which pair is incorrect

a. HIV – Kaposi’s sarcoma
b. Reiter’s syndrome – Conjunctivitis
c. Tuberculosis - Phlyctenular conjunctivitis
d. Leprosy - Optic neuritis

34. When adhesion of lid to globe takes place it is called

a. Ankyloblepharon
b. Lagophthalmus
c. Symblepharon
d. Blepharophimosis

35. Hirschberg’s test reveals 3 mm temporal displacement of

corneal reflex. What is the diagnosis
a. 3 degree exotropia
b. 3 degree esotropia
c. 21 degree exotropia
d. 21 degrees esotropia

36. Endophthalmitis include all except

a. Vitreous
b. Sclera
c. Uvea
d. Retina

37. Regarding corneal transplantation what is true

a. Whole eye preserved in tissue culture
b. Donor not accepted age > 60 yrs
c. HLA – matching required
d. Specular microscopy is used to count cells

38. A patient presenting with ptosis shows retraction of lids on

chewing cause is
a. Abducens paralysis
b. 3rd N palsy
c. Marcus Gunn phenomenon
d. Aberrant regeneration of 4th nerve

39. Arden index is seen in

a. ERG
b. EOG
c. VER
d. Perimetry

40. Young female presents with unilateral proptosis which

increases on bending forward, no thrill or bruit. Diagnosis
a. Neurofibromatosis
b. Orbital varix
c. A-V fistula
d. Orbital encephalocele

41. Which of the following does not scavenge free radicles in the
lens
a. Vit. A
b. Vit. C
c. Vit. E
d. Catalase

42. All are important causes of childhood blindness in India

except
a. Glaucoma
b. Congenital dacryocystitis
c. Malnutrition
d. Ophthalmia neonatorum

43. Roseola – prominent dilated iris vessels is seen in

a. Tuberculosis
b. Syphilis
c. HIV
d. Leprosy

44. Synchysis refers to:

a. Liquefaction of vitreous
b. Black spots in- front of eye
c. Collapse of vitreous
d. Detachment of vitreous

45. Lisch nodules are seen in:

a. Retinoblastoma
b. Neuroblastoma
c. Neuprfibromatosis
d. Intraocular lymphoma

46. Streak hemorrhage on the optic disc is sign of:

a. Papillitis
b. papilloedema
c. Glaucoma
d. Retrobulbar neuritis

47. Relative afferent papillary defect (RAPD) signifie:

a. Damage to anterior visual pathway
b. Damage to suprageniculate pathway
c. Internal opthalmoplegia
d. Damage to puspillary sphincter

48. Photo opthalmia is caused by:

a. Infrared rays
b. Ultraviolet rays
c. X-rays
d. ß- radiation

49. Most common malignancy of conjunctivia is:

a. Sebaceous cell carcinoma
b. Malignant melanoma
c. Squamous cell carcinoma
d. Basal cell carcinoma

50. Intraocular Pressure measured by Goldmann applanation

tonometer over a thin cornea is:
a. Normal
b. Higher than normal
c. Lower than normal
d. None of the above

51. Altitudinal field defect is seen in:

a. Optic neuritis
b. Papilloedema
c. Traumatic optic neuropathy
d. Anterior ischemic optic neuropathy

52. Earliest sign of recurrent ocular herpes simplex infection is:

a. Vesicles on the lids
b. Acute follicular conjunctivitis
c. Punctate epithelial keratitis
d. Dendritic epithelial keratitis

53. Blue sclera may be associated with all except:

a. Marfan’s syndrome
b. Buphtalmos
c. Exophtalmos
d. High myopia

54. The afferent pathway for light papillary reflex is which one of
the following
a. Trigeminal nerve
b. Optic nerve
c. Abducent nerve
d. Ciliary nerve
55. Alteration of 1 mm in axial length of the eye results in
ametropis of how many diaptres
a. 1 D
b. 2 D
c. 3 D
d. 4 D

56. Inverted Purkinje images are seen on

a. Anterior surface of cornea
b. Posterior surface of cornea
c. Anterior surface of lens
d. Posterior surface of lens

57. The corneal abrasion or an ulcer is stained by which one of

the following
a. Rose Bengal dye
b. Fluorescein dye
c. Methylene blue dye
d. Alcian blue dye

58. The most common systemic association of scleritis is which of

the following
a. Ehlers – Danlos syndrome
b. Disseminated systemic sclerosis
c. Rheumatoid arthritis
d. Giant cell arteritis
59. The following structures are not derived from surface
ectoderm
a. Crystalline lens
b. Sclera
c. Corneal epithelium
d. Epithelium of Lacrimal glands

60. The most serious complication of perforating ocular trauma is

which one of the following
a. Loss of vision in traumatized eye
b. Infection
c. Sympathetic ophthalmia
d. Retinal detachment

61. Retinal haemorrhages with white centres seen in SABE are

known as
a. Lisch nodules
b. Foster – Fucus spots
c. Roth’s spots
d. Cerulean dots

62. Krukenberg’s spindle is pigmentation seen on corneal

endothelium
a. Malignant Glaucoma
b. Retinal Detachment
c. Uveitis
d. Pigmentary Glaucoma
63. A young man using glasses for last 10 yrs present with history
of photopsiae and sudden loss of vision in right eye which is the
best examination technique?
a. Cycloplegic refraction
b. Indirect ophthalmoscopy
c. Schiotz tonometry
d. Gonioscopy

64. Crowding phenomena is seen in

a. Myopia
b. Presbyopia
c. Hypermetropia
d. Amblyopia

65. patient trescents with cell flare mutton fat K.Ps best
investigation of choice
a. X-ray sacro-iliac joint
b. Rheumatoid factor
c. Serum ACE level
d. Blood-sugar

66. A Hypertensive patient complains of sudden and painless loss

of vision. On retinal examination , the entire retina is white with a
central red glow coming from fovea .diagnosis is
a. CRAO
b. BRAO
c. CRVO
d. Hypertensive retinopathy
67. Most important factor governing convergence of light rays on
the retina is
a. Axial length
b. Corneal curvature
c. AC depth
d. Lens thickness

68. Surgery for congenital ptosis

a. LPS resection
b. Wedge resection
c. Occlusion
d. Tarsal fracture

69. Which of these field defects is not due to glaucoma?

a. Nasal step
b. Binasal hemianopia
c. Arcuate scotoma .
d. Generalized depression

70. A 7 year old girl is brought in for evaluation of “left lazy eye”
refraction is R eye -0.75 DS, LE + 6.0 DS Treatment of choice
a. Orthoptics
b. Glasses
c. Surgery
d. Glasses followed by occlusion

71. Commonest tumor of the orbit in children

a. Retinoblastoma
b. Rhabdomyosarcoma
c. Neuroblastoma
d. Choroidal melanoma

72. Which stromal dystrophy is autosomal recessive in nature,

spreads to the limbus, has no clear spaces in the middle and has
poor vision at an early age
a. Granular
b. Macular
c. Lattice
d. Fuchs’ Endothelial

73. patient present with bride red conjunctiva serous discharge

and preauricular lymphadenopathy. Many patients have
presented from same community. Diagnosis is
a. entero virus – 70
b. streptococcus
c. adeno virus
d. Chlamydia

74. ‘Hard stop’ on probing is seen in

a. Common canalicular block
b. Lacrimal pump failure
c. Lower canalicular block
d. Nasolacrimal duct block

75. Posterior staphyloma is seen in

a. Digenerative myopia
b. Scleromalacia perforans
c. Glaucoma
d. Trauma

76. Patient is hit with a tennis ball in the eye and has
enophthalmos, diplopia and anaesthesia over eyelid. Diagnosis
a. Macular edema
b. Uveitis
c. Blow out fracture
d. Rosette cataract

77. Patient has 6/18 vision but pinhole vision improves to 6/6
diagnosis is
a. CRVO
b. Cataract
c. Myopia
d. Retinal detachment

78. Neuroparalytic keratitis is seen in injury to

a. Optic nerve
b. Oculomotor nerve
c. Facial nerve
d. Trigeminal nerve

79. Watered silk appearance of fundus is seen in

a. Myopia
b. Astigmatism
c. Hypermetropia
d. Presbyopia

80. A 55 years old patient with Irvine Gass syndrome has

a. Retinitis with bright light
b. ipsilateral optic atrophy, contralateral disc edema
c. CME after cataract surgery
d. Angle closure glaucoma

81. On retinoscopy at 67 cms refraction is +1.5 he is

a. Myopic
b. Hypermetropic
c. Astigmatic
d. Emmetropic

82. Regarding occurrence of sympathetic ophthalmitis, all of the

following are true except
a. It almost always follows a perforating wound
b. Wounds in the ciliary region are more prone it
c. More common in adults than in children
d. Less common when actual suppuration develops in the injured
eye
83. A salmon colored lesion in the cul-de-sac usually means
a. Lymphoma
b. Haemangioma
c. Graves ophthalmopathy
d. Trauma

84. Vascular congestion over insertions of the rectus muscles

(particularly lateral rectus) is seen in
a. Lymphoma
b. Haemangioma
c. Graves ophthalmopathy
d. Trauma

85. The cranial nerve with the longest intra caranial course is
a. VI nerve
b. V nerve
c. IV nerve
d. VII nerve

86. A 25 year old executive presents with metamorphopsia in his

right eye. On examination the fundus shows a shallow
detachment at the macula. The fluorescein angiography shows a
smoke stack sign. Which of the following management should be
given?
a. Topical antibiotic corticosteroid combination
b. Systemic corticosteroid for two week and then taper
c. Pulsemethy prednisolone for three days and then pater
d. Just wait and watch for spontaneous recovery

87. Commonest site for a foreign body to lodge is in:

a. Cornea
b. Limbus
c. Conjuctiva
d. Superior sub-tarsal sulcus

88. Treatment of accommodative squint in children is by

a. Surgery
b. Convergence exercises
c. Occlusion
d. Refractive error correction

89. All are true about Arcus Senilis except:

a. Universally present in elderly
b. Due to hypercholesterolemia
c. Lipid infiltration of cornea
d. Begins as a crescentric gray line

90. Fortification spectra (Teichopsia) are present in

a. Diplopia
b. Amblyopia
c. Migraine
d. Color Blindness

91. Fluctuating ptosis and diplopia is the presenting feature in

a. Sympathetic Ophthalmitis
b. Angle closure glaucoma
c. High myopia
d. Myasthania gravis

92. Patient present with painless round firm swelling in the upper
lid and associated Acne Rosacea likely diagnosis is:
a. Stye
b. Cyst of Moll
c. Chalazion
d. Cyst of Zeis

93. Royal Air Force (RAF) ruler is used to measure

a. Near point of accommodation and convergence
b. Squint
c. Glaucoma
d. IOL power calculation

94. Weiss ring is seen in

a. Trauma to lens
b. Uveitis
c. Posterior vitreous detachment
d. Sympathetic ophthalmitis

95. Amsler’s grid is used in testing for

a. Keratoconus
b. Age related macular degeneration
c. Epiphora
d. Uveitis

96. The graph of movement of the eye is called

a. Electro retinogram
b. Electroencephalogram
c. Electronystagmogram
d. Electrooculogram

97. D- shaped pupil is seen in

a. Anterior uveitis
b. Irododilysis
c. Chorio-retinitis
d. Marcus gunn pupil

98. Shaffer’s sign is seen in a

a. Open angle glaucoma
b. Trachoma
c. Steven Johnson syndrome
d. Retinal detachment

99. Pulsating exophthalmos is seen in

a. Blow out fracture
b. Carotido – cavernous fistula
c. Orbital varix
d. Dermoid cyst

100. CSME is seen in

a. Hypertensive retinopathy
b. Diabetic retinopathy
c. Glaucomatous field defects
d. Sympathetic ophthalmitis