ATOMIC STRUCTURE

1. Which statement about the numbers of protons, electrons and neutrons in an atom is always correct?

A. The number of neutrons minus the number of electrons is zero.

B. The number of protons plus the number of neutrons equals the number of electrons.

C. The number of protons equals the number of electrons.

D. The number of neutrons equals the number of protons.

(Total 1 mark)
2. (a) Explain why the relative atomic mass of argon is greater than the relative atomic mass of potassium,
even though the atomic number of potassium is greater than the atomic number of argon.

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(1)
+
(b) Deduce the numbers of protons and electrons in the K ion.

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(1)
+
(c) Deduce the electron arrangement for the K ion.

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(1)
(Total 3 marks)
28 29 30 30
3. Silicon has three stable isotopes, Si, Si and Si. The heaviest isotope, Si, has a percentage abundance
of 3.1 %. Calculate the percentage abundance of the lightest isotope to one decimal place.

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(Total 2 marks)
4. Identify a radioactive isotope of carbon and state one of its uses.

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(Total 1 mark)
35 37
5. Which statements about the isotopes of chlorine, 17 Cl and 17 Cl , are correct?

I. They have the same chemical properties.

II. They have the same atomic number.

III. They have the same physical properties.

A. I and II only

B. I and III only

C. II and III only

D. I, II and III
 (Total 1 mark)
6. In the emission spectrum of hydrogen, which electronic transition would produce a line in the visible region
of the electromagnetic spectrum?

A. n = 2 →n = 1

B. n=3→n=2

C. n=2→n=3

D. n=∞→n=1
(Total 1 mark)
85 87
7. Rubidium contains two stable isotopes, Rb and Rb. The relative atomic mass of rubidium is given in
Table 5 of the Data Booklet.

(a) Calculate the percentage of each isotope in pure rubidium. State your answers to three significant
figures.

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(2)
(b) The percentage of each isotope can be checked experimentally using a mass spectrometer.
A vaporized sample of pure rubidium is ionized and then accelerated in a mass spectrometer. Outline
how the use of a magnetic field and a detector in the mass spectrometer enables the percentages of the
two isotopes to be determined.

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(3)
87
(c) State the number of electrons and the number of neutrons present in an atom of Rb.

Number of electrons:

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Number of neutrons:

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(2)
(Total 7 marks)
8. Consider the relative abundance of the isotopes of element X.

Isotope Relative abundance (%)

24 80
X
25 10
X
26 10
X
What is the relative atomic mass of X?
 A. 24

B. 25

C. Between 24 and 25

D. Between 25 and 26
(Total 1 mark)
24
9. Which of the following is an isotope of 12 Mg?

24 2
A. 12 Mg

26
B. 12 Mg

42
C. 13 Mg

26
D. 13 Mg

(Total 1 mark)
10. Which describes the visible emission spectrum of hydrogen?

A. A series of lines converging at longer wavelength

B. A series of regularly spaced lines

C. A series of lines converging at lower energy

D. A series of lines converging at higher frequency

(Total 1 mark)
11. (a) Define the term relative atomic mass (Ar).

(1)
(b) Relative atomic masses are obtained using a mass spectrometer. Draw a simple annotated diagram of
the mass spectrometer.
(5)
(Total 6 marks)
63 65
12. The relative atomic mass of naturally occurring copper is 63.55. Calculate the abundances of Cu and Cu
in naturally occurring copper.
(Total 2 marks)
63 65
13. A sample of element X contains 69 % of X and 31 % of X. What is the relative atomic mass of X in this
sample?

A. 63.0

B. 63.6

C. 65.0

D. 69.0
(Total 1 mark)
31 3
14. How many electrons does the ion 15 P contain?

A. 12

B. 15

C. 16
 D. 18
(Total 1 mark)
2+
15. What is the electron arrangement of the Mg ion?

A. 2,2

B. 2,8

C. 2,8,2

D. 2,8,8
(Total 1 mark)
16. Draw and label an energy level diagram for the hydrogen atom. In your diagram show how the series of lines
in the ultraviolet and visible regions of its emission spectrum are produced, clearly labelling each series.

(Total 4 marks)
63 2+ 65 +
17. Which statement about the species Cu and Cu is correct?

A. Both species have the same number of protons.

B. Both species have the same number of electrons.

C. Both species have the same number of neutrons.

D. Both species have the same electron arrangement.

(Total 1 mark)
18. Which statement about the isotopes of an element is correct?

A. They have the same mass number.

B. They have a different atomic number.

C. They have the same chemical properties.

D. They are located in different places in the periodic table.

(Total 1 mark)
19. Iron has three main naturally occurring isotopes which can be investigated using a mass spectrometer.

The first stage in the operation of the mass spectrometer is vaporization. The iron is then ionized.

(i) Explain why the iron is ionized.

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 (2)
(ii) Explain why a very low pressure is maintained inside the mass spectrometer.

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(1)
(Total 3 marks)
20. A sample of iron has the following isotopic composition by mass.

Isotope 54 56 57
Fe Fe Fe
Relative abundance / % 5.95 91.88 2.17
Calculate the relative atomic mass of iron based on this data, giving your answer to two decimal places.

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(Total 2 marks)
31
21. How many protons, neutrons and electrons are present in each atom of P?

Protons Neutrons Electrons

A. 16 15 16
B. 15 16 15
C. 15 31 15
D. 16 31 16
(Total 1 mark)
22. Which is correct for the following regions of the electromagnetic spectrum?

Ultraviolet (UV) Infrared (IR)

A. high energy short wavelength low energy low frequency
B. high energy low frequency low energy long wavelength
C. high frequency short wavelength high energy long wavelength
D. high frequency long wavelength low frequency low energy
(Total 1 mark)
23. (i) Describe and explain the operation of a mass spectrometer.
(5)
(ii) State three factors that affect the degree of deflection of ions in a mass spectrometer.
(3)

(iii) Strontium exists as four naturally-occurring isotopes. Calculate the relative atomic mass of strontium
to two decimal places from the following data.

Isotope Percentage abundance

Sr-84 0.56
Sr-86 9.90
Sr-87 7.00
Sr-88 82.54
(2)
(Total 10 marks)
24. What is the atomic number of a neutral atom which has 51 neutrons and 40 electrons?
 A. 40

B. 51

C. 91

D. 131
(Total 1 mark)
25. What is the relative atomic mass of an element with the following mass spectrum?

A. 24

B. 25

C. 26

D. 27
(Total 1 mark)
26. Which is the correct definition of the mass number of an atom?

A. The total mass of neutrons and protons in the nucleus of the atom

B. The total mass of neutrons, protons and electrons in the atom

C. The number of protons in the nucleus of the atom

D. The total number of neutrons and protons in the nucleus of the atom
(Total 1 mark)
27. The table below shows the number of protons, neutrons and electrons present in five species.

Species Number of protons Number of neutrons Number of electrons

X 6
Y 7
Z 7
W 8
Q 8
Which two species are isotopes of the same element?
8 6
7 7
7 8
8 8
10 8

A. X and W

B. Y and Z
 C. Z and W

D. W and Q
(Total 1 mark)
28. Which species have the same number of electrons?
2–
I. S
–
II. Cl

III. Ne

A. I and II only

B. I and III only

C. II and III only

D. I, II and III
(Total 1 mark)
29. Which gives the correct order of these processes in a mass spectrometer?

A. ionization deflection acceleration

B. ionization acceleration deflection

C. acceleration ionization deflection

D. deflection acceleration ionization

(Total 1 mark)
30. Describe the emission spectrum of hydrogen. Outline how this spectrum is related to the energy levels in the
hydrogen atom.

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(Total 3 marks)
31. Which species has 54 electrons and 52 protons?
128 2
A. 52 Te

132 2
B. 54 Xe

132 2
C. 54 Xe

128 2
D. 52 Te

(Total 1 mark)
32. What is the correct sequence for the processes occurring in a mass spectrometer?

A. vaporization, ionization, acceleration, deflection

B. vaporization, acceleration, ionization, deflection

 C. ionization, vaporization, acceleration, deflection

D. ionization, vaporization, deflection, acceleration

(Total 1 mark)
33. (a) List the following types of electromagnetic radiation in order of increasing wavelength (shortest first).

I. Yellow light

II. Red light

III. Infrared radiation

IV. Ultraviolet radiation

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(1)
(b) Distinguish between a continuous spectrum and a line spectrum.

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(1)
(c) The thinning of the ozone layer increases the amount of UV-B radiation that reaches the Earth’s
surface.

Type of Radiation Wavelength / nm

UV-A 320–380
UV-B 290–320
Based on the information in the table above explain why UV-B rays are more dangerous than UV-A.

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(3)
(Total 5 marks)
MARKS
1. C
[1]
2. (a) argon has a greater proportion of heavier isotopes / OWTTE /
argon has a greater number of neutrons; 1
(b) 19 protons and 18 electrons; 1
(c) 2, 8, 8; 1
2 2 6 2 6
Accept 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p .
[3]
3. 2809 = 3.10 × 30 + 28x + 29(96.9 – x);
28
% Si = (93 + 2810.1 – 2809) = 94.1 %; 2
Award [2] for correct final answer.
[2]
14
4. C and radiocarbon dating/(tracer in) medical/scientific tests;
11
C and (tracer in) medical/scientific tests; 1 max
 [1]
5. A
[1]
6. B
[1]
85
7. (a) (let x = fraction of Rb)
( x  85)  [(100  x)  87]
100 = 85.47;
85 87
Rb = 76.5 % and Rb = 23.5 %; 2
Award [2] for correct final answer.
(b) the (vaporized) ions are deflected by the (external) magnetic field;
85 87
the Rb /lighter ions are deflected more than the Rb/heavier
ions / OWTTE;
Allow deflection depends on mass to charge ratio or momentum
of ions.
the ions are detected by conversion into an electrical current / OWTTE;
the ratio of the intensity of the peaks in the spectrum is equal to
the ratio of the ions in the sample / the ratio of the height of the
85 87
peaks due to Rb and Rb will be 76.5:23.5 / OWTTE; 3 max
If atoms/elements used instead of ions, penalize only once.
Allow the use of sample or isotopes instead of ions.
(c) 37 (electrons);
50 (neutrons); 2
[7]
8. C
[1]
9. B
[1]
10. D
[1]
12
11. (a) average mass of isotopes of an element compared to (1/12 g of) C / average
mass of an atom relative to C–12 having a mass of exactly 12 / OWTTE;
Allow element instead of atom.
Must refer to average mass and C–12. 1
(b) Diagram of mass spectrometer containing in the correct sequence:
vaporization/vaporized sample;
ionization/electron gun;
acceleration/oppositely charged plates;
deflection/magnetic field;
detection;
Award [3] for 5 correct labels, [2] for 3–4 correct labels, [1] for 2 correct labels.
Award [1] for correct order for at least 4 correct labels.
Award [1] for diagram, which must at least show ionization (e.g. electron
beam), acceleration (e.g. charged plates) and deflection (e.g. magnetic
field) even if these are incorrectly labelled. 5
[6]
12. 63x + 65(1 – x) = 63.55;
(or some other mathematical expression).
63 65
Cu = 72.5 % and Cu = 27.5 %;
63 65
Allow Cu = 0.725 and Cu = 0.275.
Award [2] for correct final answer. 2
[2]
13. B
[1]
14. D
[1]
15. B
[1]
16.

showing y-axis labelled as energy/E / labelling at least two energy levels;

showing a minimum of four energy levels/lines with convergence;
showing jumps to n = 1 for ultraviolet series;
showing jumps to n = 2 for visible light series;
Must show at least two vertical lines per series to score third and fourth mark
but penalize once only.
For third and fourth marks if transition not shown from higher to lower
energy level penalize only once. 4
[4]
17. A
[1]
18. C
[1]
19. (i) ions/particles accelerated by electric field;
ions/particles deflected by magnetic field;
Award [1 max] for acceleration and deflection of ions without
reference to fields. 2
(ii) prevents collisions / avoid false readings due to presence of other particles; 1
[3]
(54  5.95)  (56  91.88)  (57  2.17)
20. 100 ;
55.90;
Award [2] for correct final answer.
Answer must be to 2 d.p. 2
[2]
21. B
[1]
22. A
[1]
23. (i) a vaporized sample must be used;
bombarded with (high energy) electrons to form positive ions;
accelerated by passing through an electric field;
deflected by passing through a magnetic field;
 detected by producing a current;
Award [2 max] if just the words vaporization, ionization, acceleration,
deflection and detection are used with no explanation. 5
(ii) (size of the positive) charge (on the ion);
mass (of the ion);
strength of the magnetic field;
velocity/speed (of the ions) / strength of electric field;
m/z scores the first two marking points. 3 max
[(0.56  84)  (9.90  86)  (7.00  87)  (82.54  88)]
(iii) Ar = 100 ;
= 87.71;
Award [1 max] if answer not given to two decimal places.
Award [2] for correct final answer.
–1
Apply –1(U) if answer quoted in g or g mol . 2
[10]
24. A
[1]
25. A
[1]
26. D
[1]
27. D
[1]
28. A
[1]
29. B
[1]
30. series of lines/lines;
electron transfer/transition between higher energy level to lower energy level /
electron transitions into first energy level causes UV series / transition into second
energy level causes visible series / transition into third energy level causes
infrared series;
convergence at higher frequency/energy/short wavelength;
Allow any of the above points to be shown on a diagram. 3
[3]
31. A
[1]
32. A
[1]
33. (a) IV < I < II < III/
ultra violet radiation < yellow light < red light < infrared radiation; 1
(b) A continuous spectrum has all colours/wavelengths/frequencies whereas
a line spectrum has only (lines of) sharp/discrete/specific colours/
wavelengths/frequencies; 1
(c) UV-B radiation has shorter wavelength;
hence, has higher energy;
increases risk of damage to skin cells / OWTTE / causes cancer; 3
[5]