Professional Documents
Culture Documents
1. UNIVAC is
A) Universal Automatic Computer
B) Universal Array Computer
C) Unique Automatic Computer
D) Unvalued Automatic Computer
6. ASCII and EBCDIC are the popular character coding systems. What does EBCDIC stand for?
A) Extended Binary Coded Decimal Interchange Code
B) Extended Bit Code Decimal Interchange Code
C) Extended Bit Case Decimal Interchange Code
D) Extended Binary Case Decimal Interchange Code
10. A storage area used to store data to a compensate for the difference in speed at which the
different units can handle data is
A) Memory
B) Buffer
C) Accumulator
D) Address
13. CD-ROM is a
A) Semiconductor memory
B) Memory register
C) Magnetic memory
D) None of above
15. Which type of computers uses the 8-bit code called EBCDIC?
A) Minicomputers
B) Microcomputers
C) Mainframe computers
D) Super computer
18. To produce high quality graphics (hardcopy) in color, you would want to use a/n
A) RGB monitor
B) Plotter
C) Ink-jet printer
D) Laser printer
19. What are the stages in the compilation process?
A) Feasibility study, system design and testing
B) Implementation and documentation
C) Lexical Analysis, syntax analysis, and code generation
D) None of the above
21. The main electronic component used in first generation computers was
A) Transistors
B) Vacuum Tubes and Valves
C) Integrated Circuits
D) None of above
27. Which of the following storage devices can store maximum amount of data?
A) Floppy Disk
B) Hard Disk
C) Compact Disk
D) Magneto Optic Disk
28. Which computer was considered the first electronic computer until 1973 when court
invalidated the patent?
A) ENIAC
B) MARK I
C) Z3
D) ABC
29. A physical connection between the microprocessor memory and other parts of the
microcomputer is known as
A) Path
B) Address bus
C) Route
D) All of the above
30. High density double sided floppy disks could store _____ of data
A) 1.40 MB
B) 1.44 GB
C) 1.40 GB
D) 1.44 MB
31. A high quality CAD system uses the following for printing drawing and graphs
A) Dot matrix printer
B) Digital plotter
C) Line printer
D) All of the above
33. The accuracy of the floating-point numbers representable in two 16-bit words of a
computer is approximately
A) 16 digits
B) 6 digits
C) 9 digits
D) All of above
34. In most of the IBM PCs, the CPU, the device drivers, memory, expansion slots and active
components are mounted on a single board. What is the name
of the board?
A) Motherboard
B) Daughterboard
C) Bredboard
D) Fatherboard
35. In most IBM PCs, the CPU, the device drives, memory expansion slots and active
components are mounted on a single board. What is the name of this board?
A) Motherboard
B) Breadboard
C) Daughter board
D) Grandmother board
41. Which of the following produces the best quality graphics reproduction?
A) Laser printer
B) Ink jet printer
C) Plotter
D) Dot matrix printer
47. Today’s computer giant IBM was earlier known by different name which was changes in
1924. What was that name?
A) Tabulator Machine Co.
B) Computing Tabulating Recording Co.
C) The Tabulator Ltd.
D) International Computer Ltd.
48. Before a disk drive can access any sector record, a computer program has to provide the
record’s disk address. What information does this address specify?
A) Track number
B) Sector number
C) Surface number
D) All of above
50. What is the responsibility of the logical unit in the CPU of a computer?
A) To produce result
B) To compare numbers
C) To control flow of information
D) To do math’s works
52. If in a computer, 16 bits are used to specify address in a RAM, the number of addresses will
be
A) 216
B) 65,536
C) 64K
D) Any of the above
54. The terminal device that functions as a cash register, computer terminal, and OCR reader is
the:
A) Data collection terminal
B) OCR register terminal
C) Video Display terminal
D) POS terminal
63. A register organized to allow to move left or right operations is called a ____
A) Counter
B) Loader
C) Adder
D) Shift register
66. A set of information that defines the status of resources allocated to a process is
A) Process control
B) ALU
C) Register Unit
D) Process description
69. When was the world’s first laptop computer introduced in the market and by whom?
A) Hewlett-Packard, 1980
B) Epson, 1981
C) Laplink Traveling Software Inc, 1982
D) Tandy Model-200, 1985
72. How many address lines are needed to address each machine location in a 2048 x 4 memory
chip?
A) 10
B) 11
C) 8
D) 12
78. What type of control pins are needed in a microprocessor to regulate traffic on the bus, in
order to prevent two devices from trying to use it at the same time?
A) Bus control
B) Interrupts
C) Bus arbitration
D) Status
79. Where as a computer mouse moves over the table surface, the trackball is
A) Stationary
B) Difficult to move
C) Dragged
D) Moved in small steps
81. Multi user systems provided cost savings for small business because they use a single
processing unit to link several
A) Personal computers
B) Workstations
C) Dumb terminals
D) Mainframes
82. What are the three decisions making operations performed by the ALU of a computer?
A) Grater than
B) Less than
C) Equal to
D) All of the above
83. The word processing task associated with changing the appearance of a document is
A) Editing
B) Writing
C) Formatting
D) All of above
84. Nepal brought a computer for census of 2028 BS. This computer was of
A) First generation
B) Second generation
C) Third generation
D) Fourth generation
87. The difference between memory and storage is that memory is _____ and storage is __
A) Temporary, permanent
B) Permanent, temporary
C) Slow, fast
D) All of above
91. What is required when more than one person uses a central computer at the same time?
A) Light pen
B) Mouse
C) Digitizer
D) Terminal
92. Which of the following is the first computer to use Stored Program Concept?
A) UNIVAC
B) ENIAC
C) EDSAC
D) None of above
93. The term gigabyte refers to
A) 1024 bytes
B) 1024 kilobytes
C) 1024 megabytes
D) 1024 gigabyte
94. In which year was UK’s premier computing event called ?The which computer? started?
A) 1980
B) 1985
C) 1986
D) 1987
95. Once you load the suitable program and provide required data, computer does not need
human intervention. This feature is known as
A) Accuracy
B) Reliability
C) Versatility
D) Automatic
1-A 2-D 3-D 4-D 5-C 6-A 7-C 8-D 9-C 10-B
11-C 12-C 13-D 14-C 15-C 16-B 17-B 18-B 19-C 20-D
21-B 22-D 23-C 24-B 25-A 26-B 27-B 28-A 29-B 30-D
31-B 32-D 33-B 34-A 35-A 36-D 37-A 38-C 39-B 40-B
41-C 42-B 43-C 44-D 45-C 46-A 47-B 48-D 49-A 50-B
51-D 52-B 53-B 54-D 55-C 56-C 57-C 58-C 59-B 60-B
61-C 62-B 63-D 64-A 65-D 66-D 67-C 68-A 69-B 70-C
71-C 72-B 73-C 74-D 75-B 76-A 77-D 78-C 79-A 80-A
81-C 82-D 83-C 84-B 85-D 86-D 87-A 88-C 89-D 90-D
91-D 92-C 93-C 94-A 95-D 96-B 97-D 98-C 99-C 100-B
COMPUTER NETWORKS
1. If a datagram router goes down then …………..
(A) All packets will suffer
(B) Only those packets which are queued in the router at that time will suffer
(C) Only those packets which are not queued in the router at that time will suffer
(D) No packets will suffer
Answer: B
8. In ……………., each packet of a message need not follow the same path from sender to
receiver.
(A) Circuit switching
(B) Message switching
(C) Virtual approach to packet switching
(D) Datagram approach to packet switching
Answer: D
9. In ………………, each packet of a message follows the same path from sender to receiver.
(A) Circuit switching
(B) Message switching
(C) Virtual approach to packet switching
(D) Datagram approach to packet switching
Answer: A
1. The set of optimal routes from all sources to a given destination from a tree rooted to the
destination is known as ……………..
(A) Binary tree (B) Sparse tree
(C) Sink tree (D) AVL tree
Answer: C
4. In Hierarchical routing for N router subnet, the optimal number of levels is …………..
(A) logN (B) log(N -1)
(C) lnN (D) ln(N-1)
Answer: C
5. The router algorithm takes the decision to changes the route when ……………..
(A) Router changes
(B) Topology changes
(C) User changes
(D) Transmission time does not change
Answer: B
6. If route from router I to router J is computed on line based on the current statistics, then it is
called as ………………..
(A) Dynamic routing (B) Session routing
(C) Temporary routing (D) None of these
Answer: A
7. If the subnet uses virtual circuits internally, routing decisions are made only when a new
virtual circuit is being setup. This is called as……………..
(A) Session routing (B) Circuit routing
(C) Datagram routing (D) Forwarding
Answer: A
10. If router J is on the optimal path from router I to router K, then the optimal path from J to K
also falls along the same route is known as ………………..
(A) Routing principle (B) Optimality principle
(C) Sink tree principle (D) Network principle
Answer: B
1. ……………. do not base their routing decisions on measurements or estimates of the current
traffic and topology.
(A) Non adaptive algorithms
(B) Adaptive algorithms
(C) Static algorithms
(D) Recursive algorithms
Answer: A
2. The method of network routing where every possible path between transmitting and
receiving DTE is used is called ……………
(A) Random Routing (B) Packet Flooding
(C) Directory Routing (D) Message Switching
Answer: B
3. In Hierarchical routing, the routers are divided into what is called as ……………..
(A) Zones (B) Cells
(C) Regions (D) None of these
Answer: C
6. If a router sends every incoming packet out only on those lines that are going approximately
in the right direction is known as ……………..
(A) Random flooding (B) Static flooding
(C) Selective flooding (D) Early flooding
Answer: C
7. In shortest path routing algorithm, the path length is measured based on ……………..
(A) Time delay (B) number of hops
(C) Size of the routers (D) routing table
Answer: B
9. In military applications where large number of routers may be blown to bits at any instant,
we use ……………….
(A) Shortest path first (B) First come first serve
(C) Forwarding (D) Flooding
Answer: D
Answer: D
1. In multicast routing with spanning tree method, a network with n groups, each with an
average of m members, for each group we require ………………..
(A) n pruned spanning trees must be stored for a total of mn trees
(B) m pruned spanning trees must be stored for a total of m trees
(C) n pruned spanning trees must be stored for a total of n trees
(D) m pruned spanning trees must be stored for a total of mn trees
Answer: D
3. A well -defined groups that are numerically large in size but small compared to the network
as a whole are used in …………………..
(A) Unicast routing (B) Multicast routing
(C) Broadcast routing (D) Telecast routing
Answer: B
4. The processes that keep track of hosts whose home is in the area, but who currently visiting
another area is ……………..
(A) Home agent (B) Mobile agent
(C) Foreign agent (D) User agent
Answer: A
5. In ………………. to send a multicast message a host sends it to the core, which then does the
multicast along the spanning tree.
(A) Core based Trees (B) AVL trees
(C) Binary trees (D) Sparse trees
Answer: A
8. In Broadcast routing, if the router does not know anything all about spanning tree……………….
method is preferred.
(A) Reverse Path forwarding (B) Multi-destination
(C) Flooding (D) spanning tree
Answer: A
9. The method of broadcast routing in which each packet contains either a list of destinations or
a bit map indicating the desired destinations is
……………….
(A) Reverse Path forwarding (B) Spanning tree
(C) Multi-destination (D) Flooding
Answer: C
10. Sending a message to a well defined group that are numerically large in size but small
compared to the network as a whole is called ……………….
(A) Unicasting (B) Multicasting
(C) Broadcasting (D) None of these
Answer: B
COMPUTER NETWORKS Interview Questions and Answers :-1. In link state routing, after the
construction of link state packets new routes are computed using …………………
(A) Bellman Ford algorithm (B) DES algorithm
(C) Dijkstra’s algorithm (D) Leaky bucket algorithm
Answer: C
3. In distance vector routing algorithm, each router maintains a separate routing table with the
following entries.
(A) Preferred input line , estimated time
(B) Preferred input line, estimated distance
(C) Preferred output line, estimated time
(D) Preferred output line, router
Answer: C
6. In distance vector routing algorithm, the routing tables are updated …………………
(A) By exchanging information with the neighbours
(B) Automatically
(C) Using the backup database
(D) By the server
Answer: A
8. Which of the following routing algorithm takes into account the current network load.
(A) Broadcast (B) shortest path
(C) Flooding (D) distance vector routing
Answer: D
10. In AODV routing algorithm for MANETs, the route is discovered at time
(A) Only when the network is established
(B) In middle of the transmission
(C) When there is a need for route by the host
(D) When there is no need for route by the host
Answer: C
1. Military vehicles on a battlefield with no existing infrastructure will deploy …………… network.
(A) MANET (B) Cell Network
(C) LAN (D) Wi-Fi
Answer: A
2. The network in which all the nodes are symmetric and there is no central control or hierarchy
is ……………..
(A) MANET (B) Client -Server Technology
(C) Peer-to-Peer (D) None of these
Answer: C
3. What is the type of network in which the topology change from time to time?
(A) Wi-Fi (B) Cell Network
(C) LAN (D) MANET
Answer: D
4. The processes that keep track of all mobile hosts visiting the area is ……………..
(A) Home agent (B) Mobile agent
(C) Foreign agent (D) User agent
Answer: C
5. The hosts which are basically stationary hosts who move from one fixed site to another from
time to time but use the network only when they are physically connected to it are called
…………….
(A) Migratory hosts (B) Stationary hosts
(C) Mobile hosts (D) Random hosts
Answer: A
6. The hosts who compute on the run and want to maintain their connections as they move
around ……………
(A) Migratory hosts (B) Stationary hosts
(C) Mobile hosts (D) Random hosts
Answer: C
7. What is the type of network in which the routers themselves are mobile?
(A) Wide Area Network (B) Mobile Ad hoc Network
(C) Mobile Network (D) Local Area Network
Answer: B
8. What is the routing algorithm used in MANETs?
(A) Shortest Path First
(B) Routing Information Protocol
(C) Distance Vector Protocol
(D) Ad hoc On -demand Distance Vector Protocol
Answer: D
10. If the source deduces the existence of congestion by making local observations, such as the
time needed for acknowledgements to come back is called as ……………..
(A) Explicit feedback algorithm (B) Implicit feedback algorithm
(C) Explicit forward algorithm (D) Implicit forward algorithm
Answer: B
2. The solution to decrease the load on the network when congestion occurs is ……………..
(A) Splitting the traffic over multiple routes
(B) Increasing the transmission power
(C) Usage of spare routers
(D) Denying service to the users
Answer: D
4. In open loop congestion control techniques, the decisions are based on the ……………
(A) Without regard to the current state of the network
(B) With regard to the current state of the network
(C) With regard to the choice of the host
(D) Without regard to the choice of the host
Answer: A
5. In closed loop congestion control techniques, the decisions are based on the ……………..
(A) concept of a feedback loop
(B) Concept of a forward loop
(C) Concept of current state of network
(D) None of these
Answer: A
6. ..………..is used to validate the identity of the message sender to the recipient
(A) Encryption (B) Decryption
(C) Digital certificate (D) None of these
Answer: C
7. When too many packets are present in the subnet, and performance degrades then it leads
to ………………..
(A) Ingestion (B) Congestion
(C) Digestion (D) Diffusion
Answer: B
2. In transport layer, End to End delivery is the movement of data from ……………….
(A) One station to the next station
(B) One network to the other network
(C) Source to destination
(D) One router to another router
Answer: C
5. When routers are being inundated by packets that they cannot handle, they just throw them
away is known as ……………….
(A) Jitter control (B) Random early detection
(C) Choke packets (D) Load shedding
Answer: D
7. When the source host receives the choke packet, then the source ………………
(A) Reduces the capacity of the line
(B) Reduces the line utilization factor
(C) Reduces the traffic generation
(D) Rate reduces the threshold value
Answer: C
8. If the buffer fills and a packet segment is dropped, then dropping all the rest of the segments
from that packet, since they will be useless anyway is called
………………..
(A) Priority dropping (B) Tail dropping
(C) Age based dropping (D) None of these
Answer: B
10. For applications such as audio and video streaming, the variation in the packet arrival times
is called ……………..
(A) Random early detection (B) Jitter
(C) Delay difference (D) Load shedding
Answer: B
4. Sending of a IP packet from host 1 to host 2 where both are of same LAN but the packet is
transferred through different intermediate LANs is called
………………
(A) Tunneling (B) Routing
(C) Diverting (D) Forwarding
Answer: A
6. In ……………….. all frames are given to the computer, not to those addressed.
(A) Promiscuous mode (B) Miscues mode
(C) Normal mode (D) Special Mode
Answer: A
8. In ………………… each packet of a message need not follow the same path From sender to
receiver.
(A) Circuit switching
(B) Message switching
(C) A virtual approach to packet switching
(D) The datagram approach to packet switching
Answer: D
11. The address field of a frame in HDLC protocol contains the address of the ……………… station.
(A) Primary (B) secondary
(C) Tertiary (D) a station
Answer: B
12. In ………………. transmission, the channel capacity is shared by both communicating devices
at all times.
(A) Simplex (B) half-duplex
(C) full-duplex (D) automatic
Answer: C
13. The DNS name space is divided into non overlapping ………………….
(A) Regions (B) blocks
(C) Divisions (D) zones
Answer: D
14. Source routing bridges in the same LANs must have …………… bridge Number.
(A) Same (B) Different
(C) Source (D) Destination
Answer: B
18. In a time division switch, a ……………… governs the destination of a packet stored in RAM.
(A) TDM bus (B) cross bar
(C) Cross point (D) control unit
Answer: D
19. How many cross points are needed in a single stage switch with 40 inputs and 50 outputs.
(A) 40 (B) 50
(C) 90 (D) 2000
Answer: D
20. The …………….. of A TSI controls the order of delivering of slot values that are stored in RAM.
(A) Cross bar (B) cross point
(C) Control unit (D) transceiver
Answer: D
ELECTRONICS & INSTRUMENTATION
Part-1
1. Self generating type transducers are ___________ transducers.
a) Active
b) Passive
c) Secondary
d) Inverse
Ans : (a)
2. The transducers that convert the input signal into the output signal, which is a discrete
function of time is known as ___________ transducer.
a) Active
b) Analog
c) Digital
d) Pulse
Ans : (c)
12. Certain type of materials generates an electrostatic charge or voltage when mechanical
force is applied across them. Such materials are called
a) Piezo-electric
b) Photo-electric
c) Thermo-electric
d) Photo-resistive
Ans : (a)
20. The size of air cored transducers in comparison to the iron core parts is
a) Smaller
b) Larger
c) Same
d) Unpredictable
Ans : (b)
21. The principle of operation of LVDT is based on the variation of
a) Self inductance
b) Mutual inductance
c) Reluctance
d) Permanence
Ans : (b)
23. Which of the following can be measured with the help of piezo electric crystal?
a) Force
b) Velocity
c) Sound
d) Pressure
Ans : (a)
24. S1: Transducer is a device which converts physical into electrical quantity
S2: Transducer is also called as sensor.
a) S1 is true & S2 is false
b) S2 is true & S1 is false
c) Both S1 & S2 are true
d) Both S1 & S2 are false
Ans (b)
31. The transducers which requires an external power and their output is a measure of some
variation such as resistance, inductance, capacitance etc., are called as
a) Active transducer
b) Primary sensor
c) Passive transducer
d) Self generating transducer
Ans : (c)
39. S1: In multimode fiber optics, intensity modulating schemes can be employed.
S2: Schemes using polarizing techniques need birefringent fiber.
a) S1 is true and S2 is false
b) Both S1 and S2 are true
c) S1 is false and S2 is true
d) Both S1 and S2 are false
ans (b)
46. In a graded index fiber, the total reflected light takes a ___________
a) Straight line path
b) Parabolic path
c) Elliptical path
d) Circular path
Ans (b)
Part-2
1. The decibel is a measure of
a) Current
b) Voltage
c) Power
d) Power level
Ans : (d)
4. Fidelity represents
S1: Reproduction of signal
S2: Reproduction of phase relation
a) S1 and S2 are true
b) S1 and S2 are false
c) S1 false and S2 true
d) S1 true and S2 false
Ans : (d)
5. If the current gain of the amplifier is X, its voltage gain is Y, then its power gain will be
a) X/Y
b) X*Y
c) X+Y
d) X-Y
Ans : (b)
8. The amplifier gain varies with frequency. This happens mainly due to
a) Miller effect
b) Presence of external and internal capacitance
c) Logarithmic increase in its output
d) Inter stage transformer
Ans : (b)
9. The outstanding characteristics of a D.C. amplifier is its
a) Ability to amplify Dc and low frequency signals
b) Temperature stability
c) Utmost economy
d) Avoidance of frequency sensitive components
Ans : (a)
12. The improper response time of the amplifier in the biomedical recorders
a) Affects the gain of the amplifier
b) Delays the signals
c) Changes the shape of the waveform of the signal
d) Attenuates the signals
Ans : (c)
13. To reduce common mode interference during recording of bio signals one can
use__________
a) Buffer amplifier
b) Differential amplifier
c) Single ended amplifier
d) Chopper amplifier
Ans : (b)
18. When a number of components are fabricated on same IC chip it is necessary to provide
isolation between two different components for input interconnection is called __________
a) Input amplification
b) Input differentiation
c) Common mode rejection
d) Input isolation
Ans : (d)
25. When the input of differential amplifier V1 = 0, then the differential amplifier is said to be
operated in
a) Common mode
b) Differential mode
c) Non inverting mode
d) Inverting mode
Ans : (c)
26. When either one of the inputs to the differential amplifier is equal to zero then it is said to
be operated in
a) Single ended mode
b) Differential mode
c) Non inverting mode
d) Inverting mode
Ans : (a)
29. Using mechanical chopper we cannot achieve high chopping rates due to their
a) Input impedance
b) Output impedance
c) Response time
d) Inertia
Ans : (d)
31. A _______ is usually a display device used to produce a paper record of analog wave form.
a) Graphic pen recorder
b) Electron microscope
c) X-Y recorder
d) Oscilloscope
Ans : (a)
32. The _________ of a recording system is the magnitude of input voltage required to produce
a standard deflection in a recorded trace.
a) Accuracy
b) Linearity
c) Sensitivity
d) Resolution
Ans : (c)
33. A recorder is said to have good frequency response when the sensitivity of the system is
_________ for all frequencies present in the signal.
a) Unity
b) Zero
c) Infinity
d) Constant
Ans : (d)
34. In phase response of a recorder noise level ___________ with the band width of a system
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Reaches unity
d) Reaches infinity
Ans : (a)
35. Function of microscope is
S1: To magnify object, under observation
S2: To resolve the object
a) S1 is true & S2 is false
b) S2 is true & S1 is false
c) Both S1 & S2 are true
d) Both S1 & S2 are false
Ans : (c)
36. In electron microscope the projection of the motion on a plane normal to magnetic
induction (B) will be a circle of radius (r) =
a) mVsin?+eB
b) mVsin?/eB
c) mVsin?-eB
d) mVsin?*eB
Ans : (b)
40. The shorter wave length of the electron permits the detailed examination of tiny objects
due to reduction of ___________ effects
a) Reflection
b) Diffraction
c) Refraction
d) Polarization
Ans : (b)
43. In X-Y recorders, the self balancing potentiometers plot emf as a function of
a) Another emf
b) Frequency
c) Time
d) Pressure
Ans : (a)
44. In strip chart recorders, the self balancing potentiometers plot emf as a function of
a) Another emf
b) Frequency
c) Time
d) Pressure
Ans : (c)
8. Which of the following is the most preferred way of throwing and handling exceptions?
a. Throw by value and catch by reference.
b. Throw by reference and catch by reference.
c. Throw by value and catch by value
d. Throw the pointer value and provide catch for the pointer type.
15. Which of the STL containers store the elements contiguously (in adjacent memory
locations)?
a. std::vector
b. std::list
c. std::map
d. std::set
18. What is the difference between overloaded functions and overridden functions?
a. Overloading is a dynamic or run-time binding and Overriding is static or compile-time binding
b. Redefining a function in a friend class is called function overriding while Redefining a function
in a derived class is called an overloaded function.
c. Overloading is a static or compile-time binding and Overriding is dynamic or run-time binding
d. Redefining a function in a friend class is called function overloading while Redefining a
function in a derived class is called as overridden function.
19. Which one of the following is not a valid reserved keyword in C++
a. Explicit
b. Public
c. Implicit
d. Private
23. If class A is friend of class B and if class B is friend of class C, which of the following is true?
a. Class C is friend of class A
b. Class A is friend of class C
c. Class A and Class C do not have any friend relationship
d. None of the above
36. The two types of file structure existing in VSAM file are
a. Key sequenced structure, entry sequenced structure
b. Key sequence structure, exit sequenced structure
c. Entry sequence structure, exit sequenced structure
d. None of above
37. How many copies of a class static member are shared between objects of the class?
a. A copy of the static member is shared by all objects of a class
b. A copy is created only when at least one object is created from that class
c. A copy of the static member is created for each instantiation of the class
d. No memory is allocated for static members of a class
38. Which looping process checks the test condition at the end of the loop?
a. for
b. while
c. do-while
d. no looping process checks the test condition at the end
40. Which of the following correctly describes the meaning of ‘namespace’ feature in C++?
a. Namespaces refer to the memory space allocated for names used in a program
b. Namespaces refer to space between the names in a program
c. Namespaces refer to packing structure of classes in a program.
d. Namespaces provide facilities for organizing the names in a program to avoid name clashes.
41. Which of the following correctly describes the meaning of ‘namespace’ feature in C++?
a. Namespaces refer to the memory space allocated for names used in a program
b. Namespaces refer to space between teh names in a program
c. Namespaces refer to space between the names in a program
d. namespaces provide facilities for organizing the names in a program to avoid name clashes
53. Which of the following library function below by default aborts the program?
a. Terminate()
b. end()
c. Abort()
d. exit()
54. If a member needs to have unique value for all the objects of that same class, declare the
member as
a. Global variable outside class
b. Local variable inside constructor
c. Static variable inside class
d. Dynamic variable inside class
55. Value of ix+j, if i,j are integer type and ix long type would be
a. integer
b. float
c. long integer
d. double percision
56. Which of the following below can perform conversions between pointers to related classes?
a. A. cast_static
b. B. dynamic_cast
c. c. static_cast
d. D. cast_dynamic
58. Vtables
a. creates a static table per class
b. creates a static table per object
c. creates a dynamic table per class
d. creates a dynamic table per object
59. When class B is inherited from class A, what is the order in which the constructers of those
classes are called
a. Class A first Class B next
b. Class B first Class A next
c. Class B’s only as it is the child class
d. Class A’s only as it is the parent class
60. Which of the following is the most general exception handler that catches exception of any
type?
a. catch(std::exception)
b. catch(std::any_exception)
c. catch(…)
d. catch()
61. Which of the following is the most general exception handler that catches exception of ‘any
type’?
a. catch(std::exception)
b. catch(std::any_exception)
c. catch(…)
d. catch()
62. In a group of nested loops, which loop is executed the most number of times?
a. the outermost loop
b. the innermost loop
c. all loops are executed the same number of times
d. cannot be determined without knowing the size of the loops
63. What is the Difference between struct and class in terms of Access Modifier?
a. By default all the struct members are private while by default class members are public.
b. By default all the struct members are protected while by default class members are private.
c. By default all the struct members are public while by default class members are private.
d. By default all the struct members are public while by default class members are protected.
68. What defines a general set of operations that will be applied to various types of data?
a. Template class
b. Function template
c. Class template
d. Both a and c above
70. Which of the following functions below can be used Allocate space for array in memory?
a. calloc()
b. malloc()
c. Realloc()
d. both a and b
74. If there is more than one statement in the block of a for loop, which of the following must
be placed at the beginning and the ending of the loop block?
a. parentheses ( )
b. braces { }
c. brackets [ ].
d. arrows < >
75. Which of the following members do get inherited but become private members in child
class
a. Public
b. Private
c. Protected
d. All the above
76. Which looping process is best used when the number of iterations is known?
a. for
b. while
c. do-while
d. all looping processes require that the iterations be known
78. Which of the following is the most common way of implementing C++?
a. C++ programs are directly compiled into native code by a compiler
b. C++ programs are first compiled to intermediate code by a compiler and then executed by a
virtual machine
c. C++ programs are interpreted by an interpreter
d. A C++ editor directly compiles and executes the program
79. Which header file should we include for using std::auto_ptr?
a.
b.
c.
d.
81. What is the implicit pointer that is passed as the first argument for nonstatic member
functions?
a. ‘self’ pointer
b. std::auto_ptr pointer
c. ‘Myself’ pointer
d. ‘this’ pointer
84. Which of the following operators below allow to define the member functions of a class
outside the class?
a. ::
b. ?
c.
d. %
85. Which of the following is not a valid conditional inclusions in preprocessor directives
a. #ifdef
The linked image cannot be displayed. The file may have been moved, renamed, or deleted.
Verify that the link points to the correct file and location.
b. #ifundef
c. #endif
d. #elif
87. If a member needs to have unique value for all the objects of that same class, declare the
member as
a. Global variable outside class
b. Local variable inside constructor
c. Static variable inside class
d. Dynamic variable inside class
89. Which of the following functions below can be used Allocate space for array in memory?
a. calloc()
b. malloc()
c. Realloc()
d. both a and b
90. Which of the following is not a valid conditional inclusions in preprocessor directives
a. #ifdef
b. #ifundef
c. #endif
d. #elif
92. Minimum number of temporary variable needed to swap the contents of 2 variables is:
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 0
95. C++ provides facility to specify that the compiler should match function calls with the
correct definition at the run time. This process is called as
a. Static binding
b. Dynamic Binding
2. A binary search tree whose left subtree and right subtree differ in hight by at most 1 unit is
called ……
A) AVL tree
B) Red-black tree
C) Lemma tree
D) None of the above
5. Which of the following is true about the characteristics of abstract data types?
i) It exports a type.
ii) It exports a set of operations
A) True, False
B) False, True
C) True, True
D) False, False
8. Inserting an item into the stack when stack is not full is called …………. Operation and deletion
of item form the stack, when stack is not empty is called ………..operation.
A) Push, pop
B) Pop, push
C) Insert, delete
D) Delete, insert
9. ……………. Is a pile in which items are added at one end and removed from the other.
A) Stack
B) Queue
C) List
D) None of the above
10. ………… is very useful in situation when data have to stored and then retrieved in reverse
order.
A) Stack
B) Queue
C) List
D) Link list
11. Which data structure allows deleting data elements from and inserting at rear?
A) Stacks
B) Queues
C) Dequeues
D) Binary search tree
12. Which of the following data structure can’t store the non-homogeneous data elements?
A) Arrays
B) Records
C) Pointers
D) Stacks
13. A ……. is a data structure that organizes data similar to a line in the supermarket, where the
first one in line is the first one out.
A) Queue linked list
B) Stacks linked list
C) Both of them
D) Neither of them
16. Which data structure is used in breadth first search of a graph to hold nodes?
A) Stack
B) queue
C) Tree
D) Array
17. Identify the data structure which allows deletions at both ends of the list but insertion at
only one end.
A) Input restricted dequeue
B) Output restricted qequeue
C) Priority queues
D) Stack
20. To represent hierarchical relationship between elements, Which data structure is suitable?
A) Dequeue
B) Priority
C) Tree
D) Graph
21. A directed graph is ………………. if there is a path from each vertex to every other vertex in
the digraph.
A) Weakly connected
B) Strongly Connected
C) Tightly Connected
D) Linearly Connected
22. In the …………….. traversal we process all of a vertex’s descendants before we move to an
adjacent vertex.
A) Depth First
B) Breadth First
C) With First
D) Depth Limited
26. In ……………, search start at the beginning of the list and check every element in the list.
A) Linear search
B) Binary search
C) Hash Search
D) Binary Tree search
30. A graph is said to be ……………… if the vertices can be split into two sets V1 and V2 such there
are no edges between two vertices of V1 or two vertices of V2.
A) Partite
B) Bipartite
C) Rooted
D) Bisects
31. In a queue, the initial values of front pointer f rare pointer r should be …….. and ………..
respectively.
A) 0 and 1
B) 0 and -1
C) -1 and 0
D) 1 and 0
34. The advantage of …………….. is that they solve the problem if sequential storage
representation. But disadvantage in that is they are
sequential lists.
A) Lists
B) Linked Lists
C) Trees
D) Queues
35. What will be the value of top, if there is a size of stack STACK_SIZE is 5
A) 5
B) 6
C) 4
D) None
37. There is an extra element at the head of the list called a ……….
A) Antinel
B) Sentinel
C) List header
D) List head
38. A graph is a collection of nodes, called ………. And line segments called arcs or ……….. that
connect pair of nodes.
A) Vertices, edges
B) Edges, vertices
C) Vertices, paths
D) Graph node, edges
39. A ……….. is a graph that has weights of costs associated with its edges.
A) Network
B) Weighted graph
C) Both A and B
D) None A and B
40. In general, the binary search method needs no more than ……………. comparisons.
A) [log2n]-1
B) [logn]+1
C) [log2n]
D) [log2n]+1
44. Any node is the path from the root to the node is called
A) Successor node
B) Ancestor node
C) Internal node
D) None of the above
48. A …………… is an acyclic digraph, which has only one node with indegree 0, and other nodes
have in-degree 1.
A) Directed tree
B) Undirected tree
C) Dis-joint tree
D) Direction oriented tree
49. …………………. Is a directed tree in which outdegree of each node is less than or equal to two.
A) Unary tree
B) Binary tree
C) Trinary tree
D) Both B and C
53. When new data are to be inserted into a data structure, but there is not available space;
this situation is usually called ….
A. Underflow
B. overflow
C. houseful
D. saturated
54. A data structure where elements can be added or removed at either end but not in the
middle is called …
A. linked lists
B. stacks
C. queues
D. dequeue
56. The way in which the data item or items are logically related defines …..
A. storage structure
B. data structure
C. data relationship
D. data operation
57. Which of the following are the operations applicable an primitive data structures?
A. create
B. destroy
C. update
D. all of the above
58. The use of pointers to refer elements of a data structure in which elements are logically
adjacent is ….
A. pointers
B. linked allocation
C. stack
D. queue
63. The logical or mathematical model of a particular organization of data is called a ………
A) Data structure
B) Data arrangement
C) Data configuration
D) Data formation
64. The simplest type of data structure is ………………
A) Multidimensional array
B) Linear array
C) Two dimensional array
D) Three dimensional array
68. Each node in a linked list has two pairs of ………….. and ……………….
A) Link field and information field
B) Link field and avail field
C) Avail field and information field
D) Address field and link field
69. A …………………… does not keep track of address of every element in the list.
A) Stack
B) String
C) Linear array
D) Queue
73. The logical or mathematical model of a particular organization of data is called a ………
A) Data structure
B) Data arrangement
C) Data configuration
D) Data formation
78. Each node in a linked list has two pairs of ………….. and ……………….
A) Link field and information field
B) Link field and avail field
C) Avail field and information field
D) Address field and link field
79. A …………………… does not keep track of address of every element in the list.
A) Stack
B) String
C) Linear array
D) Queue
92. Which of the following data structure is not linear data structure?
A) Arrays
B) Linked lists
C) Both of the above
D) None of the above
93. The disadvantage in using a circular linked list is …………………….
A) It is possible to get into infinite loop.
B) Last node points to first node.
C) Time consuming
D) Requires more memory space
94. A linear list in which each node has pointers to point to the predecessor and successors
nodes is called as ..
A) Singly Linked List
B) Circular Linked List
C) Doubly Linked List
D) Linear Linked List
95. A ……………….. is a linear list in which insertions and deletions are made to from either end of
the structure.
A) Circular queue
B) Random of queue
C) Priority
D) dequeue
100. A list which displays the relationship of adjacency between elements is said to be
A) Linear
B) Non linear
C) Linked list
D) Trees
SATELLITE COMMUNICATION
1. Which of the following is the first active satellite?
A. Echo I
B. Telstar I
C. Early Bird
D. Sputnik I
8. ___________ is a satellite that rotates around the earth in a low-altitude elliptical or circular
pattern.
A. Geosynchronous satellite
B. Nonsynchronous satellite
C. Prograde satellite
D. Retrograde satellite
11. A satellite beam that covers almost 42.4% of the earths surface.
A. Zone beam
B. Hemispheric beam
C. Spot beam
D. Global beam
15. What is a device that detects both vertically and horizontally polarized signals
simultaneously?
A. Orthomode transducer
B. Crystal detector
C. Optoisolator
D. Isomode detector
16. _________ detects the satellite signal relayed from the feed and converts it to an electric
current, amplifies and lower its frequency.
A. Horn antenna
B. LNA
C. Satellite receiver
D. Satellite dish
18. What height must a satellite be placed above the surface of the earth in order for its
rotation to be equal to earth’s rotation?
A. 26,426.4 miles
B. 27,426.4 miles
C. 23,426.4 miles
D. 22,426.4 miles
19. Point on the satellite obits closest to the earth.
A. Apogee
B. Perigee
C. Prograde
D. Zenith
21. What is the local oscillator (mixer) frequency of the satellite with an uplink frequency in GHz
band?
A. 3500 MHz
B. 4500 MHz
C. 2225 MHz
D. 2555 MHz
22. What kind of battery panels are used in some advance satellites
A. Germanium based panels
B. Silicon based panel
C. Galium Phosphate solar panel array
D. Galium Arsenide solar panel array
28. The first Philippine Mabuhay satellite has how many channels?
A. 30
B. 24
C. 48
D. 50
29. The first Philippine Agila I will have how many transponders.
A. 36
B. 48
C. 24
D. 12
30. How may satellite orbital slots are requested by the Philippine Government from ITU?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
39. What is the delay time for satellite transmission from earth transmitter to earth receiver?
A. 0.5 s
B. 1.0 s
C. 5 ms
D. 0.25 ms
42. The radiation patterns of earth coverage antennas have a beamwidth of approximately
A. 21˚
B. 5˚
C. 17˚
D. 35˚
45. What circuit is responsible in activating and deactivating adjacent antenna elements in a
mobile satellite array?
A. Radial divider
B. Divider/combiner
C. Radial combiner
D. Radial multiplexer
46. Most mobile satellite array uses ___________ in transforming 50 to 150 Ω impedance.
A. stub
B. balun
C. quarter-wavelength transformer
D. microstrip tapers.
47. The switching from one element to the other element in a typical mobile satellite array.
A. Series
B. Radial
C. Matrix
D. Shunt
48. A method of multiple accessing where a given RF channel bandwidth is divided inot smaller
frequency band.
A. CDMA
B. ANIK-D
C. TDMA
D. FDMA
49. What is the delay time for satellite transmissions from earth transmitter to earth receiver?
A. 0.5 s
B. 1s
C. 5 ms
D. 0.25 s
50. As the height of a satellite orbit gets lower, the speed of the satellite _________.
A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains the same
D. None of the above
ANSWERS:
1. Sputnik I
2. Telstar
3. Early Bird
4. Telstar I
5. Circular polarization
6. Transponders
7. Privacy
8. Non synchronous satellite
9. Footprint
10. Spot beam
11. Global beam
12. 3.4 to 6.425 GHz
13. Downlink
14. Satellite dish
15. Orthomode transducer
16. LNA
17. Path loss
18. 22,426.4 miles
19. Perigee
20. Footprint
21. 2225 MHz
22. Galium Arsenide solar panel array
23. ion propulsion system
24. Lithium
25. Hydrogen
26. 1979
27. C-band
28. 30
29. 36
30. 6
31. 105.5˚ East
32. 38
33. China Great Wall Industry Corporation
34. 200 dB
35. International Telecommunications Satellite
36. 14/11 GHz
37. Satellite-to-satellite link
38. Cassegrain antenna
39. 0.5 s
40. 500 MHz
41. tunnel diode
42. 17˚
43. 14
44. 11
45. Radial divider
46. quarter-wavelength transformer
47. Shunt
48. FDMA
49. 0.5 s
50. Increases
RADIO RECEIVERS
1. Indicate which of the following statements about the advantages of the phase discriminator
over the slope detector is false:
A. Much easier alignment
B. Better linearity
C. Greater limiting
D. Fewer tuned circuits
ANSWER: C
2. Show which of the following statements about the amplitude limiter is untrue:
A. The circuit is always biased in class C, by virtue of the leak-type bias.
B. When the input increases past the threshold of the limiting, the gain decreases to keep the
output constant.
C. The output must be tuned
D. Leak-type bias must be used
ANSWER: A
7. In a ratio detector
A. the linearity is worse than in phase discriminator
B. stabilization against signal strength variations is provided
C. the output is twice that obtainable from a similar phase discriminator
D. the circuit is the same as in a discriminator, except that the diodes are reversed
ANSWER: A
10. The controlled oscillator synthesizer is sometimes preferred over the direct one because
A. it is a simpler piece of equipment
B. its frequency stability is better
C. it does not require crystal oscillator
D. it is relatively free of spurious frequency
ANSWER: D
11. The frequency generated by each decade in a direct frequency synthesizer is much higher
than the frequency shown; this is done to
A. reduce the spurious frequency problem
B. increase the frequency stability of the synthesizer
C. reduce the number of decades
D. reduce the number of crystals required
ANSWER: A
12. Indicate which of the following circuits could not demodulate SSB:
A. Balance modulator
B. Product modulator
C. BFO
D. Phase discriminator
ANSWER: D
13. If a FET is used as the first AF amplifier in a transistor receiver, this will have the effect of
A. improving the effectiveness of the AGC
B. reducing the effect of negative-peak clipping
C. reducing the effect of noise at low modulation depths
D. improving the selectivity of the receiver
ANSWER: B
14. Indicate the false statement. The superheterodyne receiver replaced the TRF receiver
because the latter suffered from
A. gain variation over the frequency coverage range
B. insufficient gain and sensitivity
C. inadequate selectivity at high frequencies
D. instability
ANSWER: B
17. A receiver has poor IF selectivity. It will therefore also have poor
A. blocking
B. double-spotting
C. diversion reception
D. sensitivity
ANSWER: A
19. The local oscillator of a broadcast receiver is tuned to a frequency higher than the incoming
frequency
A. to help the image frequency rejection
B. to permit easier tracking
C. because otherwise an intermediate frequency could not be produced
D. to allow adequate frequency coverage without switching
ANSWER: D
21. A low ratio of the ac to the dc load impedance of a diode detector results in
A. diagonal clipping
B. poor AGC operation
C. negative-peak clipping
D. poor AF response
ANSWER: C
23. Indicate the false statement. Noting that no carrier is transmitter with J3E, we see that
A. the receiver cannot use a phase comparator for AFC
B. adjacent-channel rejection is more difficult
C. production of AGC is a rather complicated process
D. the transmission is not compatible with A3E
ANSWER: B
24. When a receiver has good blocking performance, this means that
A. it does not suffer from double-spotting
B. its image frequency rejection is poor
C. it is unaffected by AGC derived from nearby transmissions
D. its detector suffers from burnout
ANSWER: B
25. An AM receiver uses a diode detector for demodulation. This enables it satisfactorily to
receive
A. single-sideband, suppressed-carrier
B. single-sideband, reduced-carrier
C. ISB
D. Single-sideband, full-carrier
ANSWER: D
MICROWAVE COMMUNICATION
1. __________ is the progressive decrease of signal strength with increasing distance.
A. Radiation
B. Attenuation
C. Modulation
D. Propagation
4. The antenna separations (in meters) required for optimum operation of a space diversity
system can be calculated from:
A. S = 2λR/L
B. S = 3λR/L
C. S = λR/RL
D. S = λR/L
where R = effective earth radius (m) and L = path length (m)
7. What do you call an attenuation that occurs over many different wavelengths of the carrier?
A. Rayleigh fading
B. Rician fading
C. Wavelength fading
D. Slow fading
10. In microwave transmission using digital radio, what causes most intersymbol interference?
A. Delayed spreading
B. Rayleigh fading
C. Random Doppler shift
D. Slow fading
11. A shipboard equipment which measures the distance between the ship’s bottom and the
ocean floor.
A. Fathometer
B. Echosounder
C. LORAN
D. SONAR
13. At what position is the input signal inserted into a traveling-wave tube?
A. At the cathode end of the helix
B. At the collector
C. At the collector end of the helix
D. At the control grid of the electron gun
17. What is the purpose of the electromagnetic field which surrounds a traveling-wave tube?
A. To accelerate the electron
B. To velocity modulate the electron beam
C. To keep the electrons from spreading out
D. To slow down the signal on the helix
18. Which of the following is used as an oscillator device in the SHF band?
A. Thyratron tube
B. Tunnel diode
C. Klystron tube
D. Both B and C
20. The highest frequency which a conventional vacuum-tube oscillator can generate is not
limited by the
A. Electron transit time
B. Distributed lead inductance
C. Inter-electrode capacitance
D. Degree of emission from the cathode
21. As the electron beam moves through a klystron’s intercavity drift space
A. Frequency modulation at the input cavity creates velocity modulation at the output cavity
B. Velocity modulation at the input cavity creates density modulation at the output cavity
C. Density modulation at the input cavity creates velocity modulation at the output cavity
D. Phase modulation at the input cavity creates velocity modulation at the output cavity.
23. If the instantaneous RF potentials on the two sides of a magnetron cavity are of opposite
polarity, the operation is in the
A. π mode
B. π/2 mode
C. 2π mode
D. π/4 mode
25. What ferrite device can be used instead of duplexer of isolate microwave transmitter and
receiver when both are connected to the same antenna?
A. Isolator
B. Magnetron
C. Simplex
D. Circulator
26. To achieve good bearing resolution when using a pulsed-radar set, an important
requirement is
A. A narrow, antenna-beam width in the vertical plane
B. A narrow, antenna-beam width in the horizontal plane
C. A low repetition rate
D. A high duty cycle
27. When used in conjunction with a radar set, the purpose of an echo box is to provide an
artificial target.
A. Which may be used to tune the radar synchronizer
B. Which may be used to tune the radar receiver
C. To the tone of the pulse repetition
D. Tune the magnetron to the correct frequency
29. Klystron oscillators are most often used in the frequency range of
A. 300 to 3000 MHz
B. 3000 to 30000 MHz
C. 30 to 30000 MHz
D. 10 to 10000 MHz
36. The maximum usable range of the usual radar set (on any particular range setting) is
determined by
A. The width of the transmitted pulses
B. The interval between transmitted pulses
C. The bandwidth of the receiver IF stages
D. The duty cycle
37. A reflex klystron is oscillating at the frequency of its resonant cavity. If the reflector voltage
is made slightly less negative, the
A. Oscillation will cease
B. Output power would increase
C. The frequency will decrease
D. Bunching would occur earlier in time
41. A magnetron is operated at a duty cycle of 0.001. It has a peak power output of 100
kilowatts. Its average power is
A. 10,000 watts
B. 100 watts
C. 1,000 watts
D. 1,000,000 watts
43. If the duration of the radar transmitted pulse, on a particular range of operation, is
increased, the required bandwidth of the receiver’s IF amplifiers
A. Must remain as before
B. Must be increased
C. May be decreased
D. Must be doubled
45. A thin layer of dirt and grime coverts the reflecting surface of the parabolic dish of a radar
set. The particular effect on the performance of the radar will be
A. A decrease in range
B. A reduction in horizontal resolution
C. No noticeable effect
D. A decrease in gain
46. Which of the following permits a microwave signal to travel in one direction with virtually
no loss, but severely attenuates any signal attempting to travel in the reverse direction?
A. Isolator
B. Wave trap
C. Tunnel diode
D. Circulator
48. When it is desired that short-range targets be clearly seen on a pulsed-radar set, it is
important that the receiver and display system have
A. A long time constant
B. Low-pass filters
C. The shortest possible time
D. The restricted high-frequency response
50. Which of the following operating frequencies is used for the modern loran navigational
system?
A. Loran C: 100 kHz
B. Loran D: 10.2 kHz
C. Loran A: 1950 kHz
D. Loran B: 900 kHz
ANSWERS ::
1. Attenuation
2. 8493 km
3. towards the earth
4. S = 3λR/L
5. 10 GHz
6. Sixth
7. Slow fading
8. Slow fading
9. Large reflector
10. Delayed spreading
11. SONAR
12. Is equivalent to an LC resonant circuit
13. ± 2000 Hz
14. All of the above
15. magnetron
16. The absorption of energy by the signal from an electron stream
17. To keep the electrons from spreading out
18. Both B and C
19. 1 to 100 GHz
20. Degree of emission from the cathode
21. Velocity modulation at the input cavity creates density modulation at the output cavity
22. The dimension of each cavity resonator
23. π mode
24. Depends on the formation of charge domain
25. Circulator
26. A narrow, antenna-beam width in the horizontal plane
27. Which may be used to tune the radar receiver
28. A silicon crystal
29. 3000 to 30000 MHz
30. By bunches of electrons passing the cavity grids
31. Ferrite emitter
32. Local oscillator
33. All of these
34. Indicates both the range and azimuth of a target
35. Its physical dimensions
36. The interval between transmitted pulses
37. The frequency will decrease
38. Adjusting the flexible wall of the resonant cavity
39. Reduce interference from the effects of sea return
40. Allow the transmitter and the receiver to operate from a common antenna
41. 100 watts
42. As a second anode and to prevent the build-up of secondary field
43. May be decreased
44. Its resonant cavity
45. No noticeable effect
46. Isolator
47. All of these
48. The shortest possible time
49. Magnetron
50. Loran C: 100 kHz
MICROPROCESSORS
1. The minimum number of transistors required to implement a two input AND gate is
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
Answer: C
4. Because we wish to allow each ASCII code to occupy one location in memory, most memories
are _____ addressable.
A. BYTE
B. NIBBLE
C. WORD (16 bits)
D. DOUBLEWORD (32 bits)
Answer: A
8. We say that a set of gates is logically complete if we can build any circuit without using any
other kind of gates. Which of the following sets are logically complete
A. set of {AND,OR}
B. set of {EXOR, NOT}
C. set of {AND,OR,NOT}
D. None of the above
Answer: C
10. If the number of address bits in a memory is reduced by 2 and the addressability is doubled,
the size of the memory (i.e., the number of bits stored in the memory)
A. doubles
B. remains unchanged
C. halves
D. increases by 2^(address bits)/addressability
Answer : C
12. If m is a power of 2, the number of select lines required for an m-input mux is:
A. m
B. 2^m
C. log2 (m)
D. 2*m
Answer: C
19. Assertion (A): Negative values of incremental operator in DO loop are allowed in Fortran 77
but not in earlier versions of Fortran.
Reason (R): Fortran 77 has better array facilities than earlier versions of Fortran.
A. Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R are correct but R is not correct explanation of A
C. A is correct R is wrong
D. A is wrong R is correct
Answer: B
20. Which of the following is not treated as hexadecimal constant by assembler in 8085?
A. 45 H
B. 6 AFH
C. 234
D. 64 H
Answer: C
30. In a computer the data transfer between hard disk and CPU is nearly the same as that
between diskette and CPU.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
31. The timing difference between a slow memory and fast processor can be resolved if
A. processor is capable of waiting
B. external buffer is used
C. either (a) or (b)
D. neither (a) nor (b)
Answer: C
32. In 8086 the number of bytes which can be addressed directly is about
A. 1000
B. 10000
C. 100000
D. one million
Answer: D
35. Each instruction in assembly language program has the following fields:
Lable field
Mnemonic field
Operand field
Comment field
The correct sequence of these fields is?
A. 1, 2, 3, 4
B. 1, 2, 4, 3
C. 2, 1, 3, 4
D. 2, 1, 4, 3
Answer: A
39. Internet is a worldwide network of computers where most of the information is freely
available.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
40. A 37 bit mantissa has an accuracy of
A. 6 decimal places
B. 8 decimal places
C. 10 decimal places
D. 11 decimal places
Answer: D
41. In a C expression using assignment operators, relational operators and arithmetic operators,
the hierarchy of operations (in the absence of parenthesis)
is
A. assignment, relational, arithmetic
B. relational, assignment, arithmetic
C. arithmetic, assignment, relational
D. arithmetic, relational, assignment
Answer: D
43. Assertion (A): Each memory chip has its own address latch.
Reason (R): ALE signal comes out of microprocessor 8085 and goes to memory chip.
A. Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R are correct but R is not correct explanation of A
C. A is correct R is wrong
D. A is wrong R is correct
Answer: D
47. Which memory has read operation, byte erase, byte write and chip erase?
A. RAM
B. UVEPROM
C. EEPROM
D. both (b) and (c)
Answer: C
49. In 8085
A. P flag is set when the result has even parity
B. P flag is set when the result has odd parity
C. P flag is reset when the result has odd parity
D. P flag is reset when the result has even parity
Answer: A
50. If the sign bit of mantissa is 0 and the exponent is increased from a positive to a more
negative number the result is
A. a larger floating point number
B. a smaller floating point number
C. either (a) or (b) depending on the actual number
D. a negative floating point number
Answer: A
MATERIALS and COMPONENTS
1. The dielectric losses do not depend on frequency.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
3. The rule that resistivity of conductors can be separated into two parts viz. temperature
independent and temperature dependent is known as
A. Matthiessen’s rule
B. Debye rule
C. Curie rule
D. Onne’s rule
Answer: A
4. Above a certain temperature, the specific heat of a metal becomes constant. This
temperature is called
A. Debye temperature
B. Curie temperature
C. Neel temperature
D. Transition temperature
Answer: A
8. In Vander walls crystals, there exists a high degree of stability of the outer electron shell.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
13. In solid insulator materials having only one kind of atom, the types of polarization which
exist are
A. electronic only
B. electronic and ionic
C. electronic, ionic and permanent
D. electronic and permanent
Answer: A
17. The materials which become polarized on the application of mechanical stress are called
piezoelectric.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
18. Which inductor is linear?
A. Air cored
B. Cast iron cored
C. Sheet steel cored
D. Iron alloy cored
Answer: A
20. On the basis of the type of chemical bonds, solids may be classified into
A. ionic crystals
B. ionic and valence crystals
C. ionic crystal, valence crystals and metals
D. ionic crystals, valence crystals, metal and vander wall crystals
Answer: D
23. A vacant electronic state moves in the same direction as would a positive charge carrier.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
24. Piezoelectricity means the slight change in dimensions of a specimen when an electric field
is applied.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
33. When a dielectric material is subjected to alternating field, the absorption of energy by the
material from the field is given by the imaginary part of polarizability.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
34. Which of the following are true for relative dielectric constant?
1. It is dimensionless.
2. It is equal to 1 for vacuum.
3. It is equal to 1 for all substances.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: A
35. Hall effect is observed in a specimen (metal or semi- conductor) when it is carrying current
and is placed in a magnetic field. The resultant electric field inside the specimen is
A. normal to both current and magnetic field
B. in the same direction as current
C. in a direction anti parallel to magnetic field
D. none of the above
Answer: A
42. If the number of atoms per unit volume of a monoatomic gas changes, the dielectric
constant still remains constant.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
45. The elements which become superconducting at extremely low temperatures are
A. good conductors at room temperature
B. ferromagnetic at room temperature
C. relatively poor conductors at room temperature
D. insulators at room temperature
Answer: C
46. Electrical contact materials used in switches, brushes, relay must possess
A. high thermal conductivity and high melting point
B. low thermal conductivity and low melting point
C. high thermal conductivity and low melting point
D. low thermal conductivity and high melting point
Answer: A
2. Work function is the maximum energy required by the fastest electron at 0 K to escape from
the metal surface.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
5. A transistor has a current gain of 0.99 in the CB mode. Its current gain in the CC mode is
A. 100
B. 99
C. 1.01
D. 0.99
Answer: A
14. An intrinsic silicon sample has 1 million free electrons at room temperature. As the
temperature is increased
A. the number of free electrons increases
B. the number of free electrons increases but the number of holes decreases
C. the number of free electrons and holes increase by the same amount
D. the number of free electrons and holes increase but not by the same amount
Answer: C
15. What is the necessary a.c. input power from the transformer secondary used in a half wave
rectifier to deliver 500 W of d.c. power to the load?
A. 1232 W
B. 848 W
C. 616 W
D. 308 W
Answer: A
18. For a NPN bipolar transistor, what is the main stream of current in the base region?
A. Drift of holes
B. Diffusion of holes
C. Drift of electrons
D. Diffusion of electrons
Answer: B
19. Assertion (A): A VMOS can handle much larger current than other field effect transistors.
Reason (R): In a VMOS the conducting channel is very narrow.
A. Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A
C. A is true but R is false
D. A is false but R is true
Answer: C
22. In the sale of diamonds the unit of weight is carat. One carat is equal to
A. 100 mg
B. 150 mg
C. 200 mg
D. 500 mg
Answer: C
24. Permalloy is
A. a variety of stainless steel
B. a polymer
C. a conon-ferrous alloy used in aircraft industry
D. a nickel an iron alloy having high permeability
Answer: D
25. Which of the following could be the maximum current rating of junction diode by 126?
A. 1 A
B. 10 A
C. 20 A
D. 100 A
Answer: A
29. A thermistor is a
A. thermocouple
B. thermometer
C. miniature resistance
D. heat sensitive explosive
Answer: C
30. When diodes are connected in series to increase voltage rating the peak inverse voltage per
junction
A. should not exceed half the breakdown voltage
B. should not exceed the breakdown voltage
C. should not exceed one third the breakdown voltage
D. may be equal to or less than breakdown voltage
Answer: C
31. Hall effect is observed in a specimen when it is carrying current and is placed in a magnetic
field. The resultant electric field inside the specimen is
A. normal to both current and magnetic field
B. in the direction of current
C. antiparallel to magnetic field
D. in arbitrary direction
Answer: A
32. In an ideal diode there is no breakdown, no __________ current, and no forward
__________ drop.
A. reverse, voltage
B. forward, current
C. forward, voltage
D. reverse, current
Answer: A
33. Silicon is not suitable for fabrication of light emitting diodes because it is
A. an indirect band gap semiconductor
B. direct band gap semiconductor
C. wideband gap semiconductor
D. narrowband gap semiconductor
Answer: A
40. When avalanche breakdown occurs covalent bonds are not affected.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
44. For a P-N diode, the number of minority carriers crossing the junction depends on
A. forward bias voltage
B. potential barrier
C. rate of thermal generation of electron hole pairs
D. none of the above
Answer: C
48. The forbidden energy gap between the valence band and conduction band will be least in
case of
A. metals
B. semiconductors
C. insulators
D. all of the above
Answer: A
5. The potential that appears at a point in space due to the current which caused it is called
potential
A. accelerating
B. retardation
C. oscillating
D. lagging the current
Answer: B
7. It is best to use for coupling a coaxial line to a parallel wire transmission line.
A. directional Coupler
B. balun
C. slotted line
D. tee
Answer: B
10. In case of antenna the ratio of the power radiated in the desired direction to the power
radiated in the opposite direction is known as
A. transmission efficiency
B. front to back ratio
C. loss coefficient
D. none of the above
Answer: B
11. The radiation pattern of Hertzian dipole in the plane perpendicular to dipole is a
A. null
B. circle
C. figure of eight
D. none of the above
Answer: C
12. The transmitting antennas for lower frequencies (below 500 kHz) are generally
A. vertical grounded wire type
B. horizontal suspended wire type
C. parabolic reflector type
D. any of the above
Answer: A
13. A satellite that simply reflect back the signals from one region of the earth to the other
region is known as
A. orbiting satellite
B. geostationary satellite
C. active satellite
D. passive satellite
Answer: D
15. Which of the following will increase the antenna radiation efficiency?
A. Use of larger section of conductor
B. Providing insulation on conductor
C. Top loading of antenna
D. Any of the above
Answer: C
18. In case of surface waves the field strength at a point is directly proportional to
A. antenna height
B. wave frequency
C. current of the antenna
D. distance of the point from the antenna
Answer: D
25. The power gain of a half-wave dipole with respect to an isotropic radiator is
A. 2.15 db
B. 3 db
C. 4.15 db
D. 6 db
Answer: A
26. In an impedance smith chart, a clockwise movement along a constant resistance circle gives
rise to
A. decrease in the value of reactance
B. an increase in the value of reactance
C. no change in the reactance value
D. no change in the impedance value
Answer: B
27. When the phase velocity of an EM wave depends on frequency in any medium the
phenomenon is called
A. scattering
B. polarisation
C. absorption
D. dispersion
Answer: B
30. In microwave communication links, when fading due to rain attenuation occurs then
technique adopted for solving the problem would include
A. antenna replacement and feed correction
B. amplitude timing and phase correction
C. polarization shifting and code diversity
D. path diversity and frequency diversity
Answer: D
31. Due to which of the following reasons a lightning conductor on top of a building is made
into a pointed spike?
A. Dust particles may not accumulate
B. Charge per unit area becomes very high for lightening to discharge
C. Rain drops may not collect
D. None of the above
Answer: B
32. The virtual height of an ionospheric layer is __________ true height
A. equal to
B. less than
C. higher than
D. no relation
Answer: C
33. The divergence of a vector is a scalar, while the curl of a vector is another
A. scalar
B. vector
C. unit vector
D. none of the above
Answer: B
34. An open wire transmission line having a characteristic impedance of 600 ohms is terminated
by a resistive load of 900 O. The standing wave ratio will
be
A. 1.5
B. 2.5
C. 3.5
D. 4.5
Answer: A
35. The skip distance is the maximum distance upto which ionospheric reflection is possible.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
40. When a current carrying conductor is brought into magnetic field, the force that moves the
conductor depends upon
A. the value of current
B. the weight of the conductor
C. the direction of the conductor
D. none of the above
Answer: A
42. According to maximum power transfer theorem, the maximum power is absorbed by one
network from another network when
A. the impedance of one of the networks is half that of the other
B. the impedance of one is the complex conjugate of the other
C. the impedance of one is equal to that of the other
D. none of the above
Answer: B
43. The static electric field in a conductor is
A. zero
B. unity
C. infinity
D. none of the above
Answer: A
44. In a perfect conductor the incident and reflected wave combine to produce
A. a stronger incident wave
B. a stronger reflected wave
C. a standing wave which is not progressing
D. none of the above
Answer: C
8. Circular polarization
A. is useful in reducing depolarization effect on received wave
B. involves critical alignment of transmitting and receiving antenna
C. is useful in discrimination between reception of adjacent beams
D. none of the above
Answer: Option A
9. An FM radio receiver which is tuned to a 91.6 MHz broadcast station may receive an image
frequency of __________ MHz.
A. 102.3
B. 113
C. 70.2
D. 80.9
Answer: Option B
14. If output power of a radio receiver is doubled, its volume is increased by __________ dB.
A. 2 B. 3
C. 1 D. -3
Answer: Option B
19. Which of the following does not cause losses in optical fibre cables?
A. Stepped index operation
B. Impurities
C. Microbending
D. Attenuation in glass
Answer: Option A
20. For a low level AM system, the amplifiers modulated stage must be
A. linear devices
B. harmonic devices
C. class C amplifiers
D. non-linear devices
Answer: Option A
21. Assertion (A): In FM the frequency of the carrier is varied by the modulating voltage
Reason (R): FM and PM are two forms of angle modulation.
A. Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R are correct but R is not correct explanation of A
C. A is correct but R is wrong
D. A is wrong but R is correct
Answer: Option B
23. For a given carrier wave, maximum undistorted power is transmitted when value of
modulation is
A. 1
B. 0.8
C. 0.5
D. 0
Answer: Option A
28. An audio signal (say from 50 Hz to 10000 Hz) is frequency translated by a carrier having a
frequency of 106 Hz. The values of initial (without frequency translation) and final (after
frequency translation) fractional change in frequency from one band edge to the other are
A. 200 and 1.01
B. 200 and 10.01
C. 200 and 100.1
D. 200 and 200
Answer: Option A
29. If in a broadcasting studio, a 1000 kHz carrier is modulated by an audio signal of frequency
range 100-5000 kHz, the width of channel is __________ kHz.
A. 5
B. 4.9
C. 995
D. 10
Answer: Option D
35. A zero mean white Gaussian noise is passed through an ideal low pass filter of bandwidth 10
kHz. The output of the samples so obtained would be
A. correlated
B. statistically independent
C. uncorrelated
D. orthogonal
Answer: Option B
37. In case of low level amplitude modulation system, the amplifiers following the modulated
stage must be
A. class C amplifiers
B. linear devices
C. non-linear devices
D. harmonic devices
Answer: Option B
39. In case of frequency modulation, modulating voltage remains constant if the modulating
frequency is lowered, then
A. amplitude of distant sidebands decreases
B. amplitude of distant sidebands increases
C. amplitude of distant sidebands remains constant
D. amplitude of distant sidebands first increases, then decreases
Answer: Option B
41. It is found that a ship to ship communication suffers from fading. This can be avoided by
using
A. space diversity
B. frequency diversity
C. broad band antenna
D. directional antenna
Answer: Option B
45. The maximum power output of a standard A earth station over the total band allocated to
satellite communication is about
A. 0.5 kW
B. 8 kW
C. 20 kW
D. 50 kW
Answer: Option A
47. The characteristic impedance of a twin wire feeder used for TV signals is about
A. 1000 ohm
B. 500 ohm
C. 300 ohm
D. 100 ohm
Answer: Option C
52. One of the advantages of base modulation over collector modulation of a transistor class C
amplifier is
A. improved efficiency
B. better linearity
C. high power output per transistor
D. the lower modulating power requirement
Answer: Option D
53. Full duplex operation-permits transmission in both directions at the same time.
A. True
B. False
Answer: Option A
54. In a TV receiver antenna the length of reflector rod
A. is the same as that of dipole
B. is less than that of dipole
C. is more than that of dipole
D. may be equal, more or less than that of dipole
Answer: Option C
55. The modulation index of an FM is changed from 0 to 1. How does the transmitted power
change?
A. Gets halved
B. Gets doubled
C. Gets increased by 50 percent
D. Remains unchanged
Answer: Option C
57. For a plate-modulated class C amplifier the plate supply voltage is E. The maximum plate
cathode voltage could be almost high as
A. 2E
B. 3E
C. 4E
D. 6E
Answer: Option C
2. A lead compensator
A. speeds up the transient response
B. increases the stability margin
C. increases the stability margin and speeds up the transient-response.
D. none of the above.
Answer: C
5. If any term in the first column of a Routh array becomes zero, then
A. Routh criterion cannot be used to determine stability
B. Routh criterion can be used by substituting a small positive number for zero and completing
the array
C. Routh criterion can be used by substituting a big positive number for zero and completing
the array
D. Routh criterion can be used by substituting a small negative number for zero and completing
the array
Answer: B
9. A conditionally stable system is stable for the value of gain between two critical values. It is
unstable if
A. the gain is increased beyond upper critical value
B. the gain is decreased below lower critical value
C. both (a) and (b)
D. none of the above
Answer: C
13. Nyquist stability criterion uses open loop frequency response characteristics.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
19. Which of the following is used to obtain output position in a position control system?
A. Strain gauge
B. Load cell
C. Synchro
D. Thermistor
Answer: B
21. For a stable system having two or more gain crossover frequencies the phase margin is
measured at the highest crossover frequency.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
22. In a two phasor servomotor, the direction of rotation of the rotating field depends on
A. magnitudes of voltages applied to the two stator windings
B. phase relation of voltages applied to the two stator windings
C. both magnitude and phase relationship of voltages applied to the two stator windings
D. none of the above
Answer: B
23. Gain margin and phase margin can be determined from Bode plots as well as Nyquist plot.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
24. The permanent magnet field system of brushless dc servo- motor is generally on
A. stator
B. rotor
C. partly on stator and partly on rotor
D. either (a) or (b)
Answer: B
25. For any transfer function, the constant phase angle loci are
A. a family of circles
B. a family of straight lines
C. either (a) or (b)
D. neither (a) nor (b)
Answer: A
26. In force current analogy, displacement x is analogous to
A. charge
B. magnetic flux linkage
C. electrostatic energy
D. voltage
Answer: B
27. In Bode plots the frequency at which two asymptotes meet is called corner frequency.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
28.
In Bode plots, frequency is plotted on log scale.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
36. The poles with greater displacement from the real axis correspond to
A. higher frequencies of oscillations
B. stable response
C. lower frequencies of oscillations
D. unbounded output
Answer: A
49. In the field controlled motor the entire damping comes from
A. armature resistance
B. back emf
C. motor friction and load
D. field resistance
Answer: C
50. The addition of a pole to the open loop transfer function pulls the root locus
A. to the right
B. to the left and making the system more stable
C. towards right or left depending on the position of new pole
D. none of the above
Answer: A
OP-AMP
1. A differential amplifier ……………..
1. Is a part of an Op-amp
2. Has one input and one output
3. Has two outputs
4. Answers (1) and (2)
Ans : 4
3. In differential-mode…………….
1. Opposite polarity signals are applied to the inputs
2. The gain is one
3. The outputs are of different amplitudes
4. Only one supply voltage is used
Ans : 1
9. Of the values listed, the most realistic value for open loop voltage gain of an OP
amp is ………..
1.1
2. 2000
3. 80 dB
4. 100,000
Ans : 4
10. A certain OP-amp has bias currents of 50 µA. The input offset current is ……..
1. 700 nA
2. 99.3 µA
3. 49.7 µA
4. None of these
Ans : 1
11. The output of a particular Op-amp increases 8V in 12µs. The slew rate is …….
1. 90 V/µs
2. 0.67 V/µs
3. 1.5 V/µs
4. None of these
Ans : 2
15. A certain noninverting amplifier has Ri of 1 kO and Rf of 100 kO. The closed-loop voltage
gain is ………
1. 100,000
2. 1000
3. 101
4. 100
Ans : 3
16. If the feedback resistor in Q15 (above question) is open, the voltage gain …….
1. Increases
2. Decreases
3. Is not affected
4. Depends on Ri
Ans : 1
17. A certain inverting amplifier has a closed-loop voltage gain of 25. The Op-amp has an open-
loop voltage gain of 100,000. If an Op-amp with an open-loop voltage gain of 200,000 is
substituted in the arrangement, the closed-loop gain ……..
1. Doubles
2. Drops to 12.5
3. Remains at 25
4. increases slightly
Ans : 3
22. The node voltage at the top of the til resistor is closes to ……….
1. Collector supply voltage
2. Zero
3. Emitter supply voltage
4. Tail current times base resistance
Ans : 2
24. The differential voltage gain of a differential amplifier is equal to RC divided by …….
1. r’e
2. r’e/2
3. 2r’e
4. RE
Ans : 3
29. The common-mode voltage gain of a differential amplifier is equal to RC divided by ……..
1. r’e
2. 2r’e
3. r’e/2
4. 2RE
Ans : 4
8. In class A operation, the operating point is generally located ………. of the d.c. load line.
1. At cut off point
2. At the middle
3. At saturation point
4. None of the above
Ans : 2
13. If a transistor is operated in such a way that output current flows for 60o of the input signal,
then it is …………… operation
1. Class A
2. Class B
3. Class C
4. None of the above
Ans : 3
14. If the zero signal dissipation of a transistor is 1W, then power rating of the transistor should
be at least ……………….
1. 5 W
2. 33 W
3. 75 W
4. 1 W
Ans : 4
23. When no signal is applied, the approximate collector efficiency of class A power amplifier is
…….
1. 10%
2. 0%
3. 25%
4. 50%
Ans : 2
24. What will be the collector efficiency of a power amplifier having zero signal power
dissipation of 5 watts and a.c. power output of 2 watts?
1. 20%
2. 80%
3. 40%
4. 50%
Ans : 3
25. The output signal voltage and current of a power amplifier are 5V and 200 mA; the values
being r.m.s. What is the power output?
1. 1 W
2. 2 W
3. 4 W
4. None of the above
Ans : 1
26. The maximum a.c. power output from a class A power amplifier is 10 W. What should be
the minimum power rating of the transistor used ?
1. 10 W
2. 15 W
3. 5 W
4. 20 W
Ans : 4
27. For the same a.c. power output as above, what should be the minimum power rating of
transistor for class B operation?
1. 10 W
2. 4 W
3. 8 W
4. None of the above
Ans : 2
29. The class B push-pull circuit can deliver 100 W of a.c. output power. What should be the
minimum power rating of each transistor?
1. 20 W
2. 40 W
3. 10 W
4. 80 W
Ans : 1
30. What turn ratio (Np/Ns) of transformer is required to match 4 O speaker to a transistor
having an output impedance of 8000 O?
1. 2
2. 7
3. 3
4. None of the above
Ans : 2
31. A transformer coupled class A power amplifier has a load of 100 O on the secondary. If the
turn ratio is 10:1, what is the value of load appearing on the primary?
1. 5 kO
2. 20 kO
3. 100 kO
4. 10 kO
Ans : 4
32. Power amplifiers generally use transformer coupling because transformer permits……..
1. Cooling of the circuit
2. Impedance matching
3. Distortionless output
4. Good frequency response
Ans : 2
39. If the gain versus frequency curve of a transistor amplifier is not flat, then there is
distortion.
1. Amplitude
2. Intermodulation
3. Frequency
4. None of the above
Ans : 3
11. When a multistage amplifier is to amplify d.c. signal, then one must use …….. coupling
1. RC
2. Transformer
3. Direct
4. None of the above
Ans : 3
16. If a three-stage amplifier has individual stage gains of 10 db, 5 db and 12 db, then total gain
in db is ……….
1. 600 db
2. 24 db
3. 14 db
4. 27 db
Ans : 4
17. The final stage of a multistage amplifier uses ………………
1. RC coupling
2. Transformer coupling
3. Direct coupling
4. Impedance coupling
Ans : 2
19. RC coupling is not used to amplify extremely low frequencies because ………
1. There is considerable power loss
2. There is hum in the output
3. Electrical size of coupling capacitor becomes very large
4. None of the above
Ans : 3
21. The lower and upper cut off frequencies are also called ………………… frequencies
1. Sideband
2. Resonant
3. Half-resonant
4. Half-power
Ans : 4
28. The total gain of a multistage amplifier is less than the product of the gains of individual
stages due to …………
1. Power loss in the coupling device
2. Loading effect of the next stage
3. The use of many transistors
4. The use of many capacitors
Ans : 2
30. If the power level of an amplifier reduces to half, the db gain will fall by …….
1. 5 db
2. 2 db
3. 10 db
4. 3 db
Ans : 4
32. An amplifier receives 0.1 W of input signal and delivers 15 W of signal power. What is the
power gain in db?
1. 8 db
2. 6 db
3. 5 db
4. 4 db
Ans : 1
33. The power output of an audio system is 18 W. For a person to notice an increase in the
output (loudness or sound intensity) of the system, what must the output power be increased
to?
1. 2 W
2. 6 W
3. 68 W
4. None of the above
Ans : 3
34. The output of a microphone is rated at -52 db. The reference level is 1V under specified
conditions. What is the output voltage of this microphone under the same sound conditions?
1. 5 mV
2. 2 mV
3. 8 mV
4. 5 mV
Ans : 4
36. The number of stages that can be directly coupled is limited because ……..
1. Changes in temperature cause thermal instability
2. Circuit becomes heavy and costly
3. It becomes difficult to bias the circuit
4. None of the above
Ans : 1
39. The bandwidth of a single stage amplifier is …………. that of a multistage amplifier
1. More than
2. The same as
3. Less than
4. Data insufficient
Ans : 1
2. The phase difference between the output and input voltages of a CE amplifier is ………………..
1. 180o
2. 0o
3. 90o
4. 270o
Ans : 1
4. When an a.c. signal is applied to an amplifier, the operating point moves along …………….
1. dc. load line
2. ac. load line
3. Both d.c. and a.c. load lines
4. None of the above
Ans : 2
5. If the collector supply is 10V, then collector cut off voltage under d.c. conditions is ………….
1. 20 V
2. 5 V
3. 2 V
4. 10 V
Ans : 4
8. The point of intersection of d.c. and a.c. load lines is called ……………..
1. Saturation point
2. Cut off point
3. Operating point
4. None of the above
Ans : 3
9. The slope of a.c. load line is ……………… that of d.c. load line
1. The same as
2. More than
3. Less than
4. None of the above
Ans : 2
10. If a transistor amplifier draws 2mA when input voltage is 10 V, then its input impedance is
………..
1. 20 kΩ
2. 2 kΩ
3. 10 kΩ
4. 5 kΩ
Ans : 4
11. When a transistor amplifier is operating, the current in any branch is ……………
1. Sum of a.c. and d.c.
2. a.c. only
3. d.c. only
4. Difference of a.c. and d.c.
Ans : 1
12. The purpose of capacitors in a transistor amplifier is to ………………
1. Protect the transistor
2. Cool the transistor
3. Couple or bypass a.c. component
4. Provide biasing
Ans : 3
13. In the d.c. equivalent circuit of a transistor amplifier, the capacitors are considered
……………..
1. Short
2. Open
3. Partially short
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
16. If the power and current gains of a transistor amplifier are 16500 and 100 respectively, then
voltage gain is ………
1. 165
2. 165 x 104
3. 100
4. None of the above
Ans : 1
17. If RC and RL represent the collector resistance and load resistance respectively in a single
stage transistor amplifier, then a.c. load is ……..
1. RL + RC
2. RC || RL
3. RL – RC
4. RC
Ans : 2
18. In a CE amplifier, the phase difference between voltage across collector load RC and signal
voltage is ………..
1. 180o
2. 270o
3. 90o
4. 0o
Ans : 4
19. In the a.c. equivalent circuit of a transistor amplifier, the capacitors are considered ………….
1. Short
2. Open
3. Partially open
4. None of the above
Ans : 1
20. In a single stage transistor amplifier, RC and RL represent collector resistance and load
resistance respectively. The transistor sees a d.c. load of ………..
1. RC + RL
2. RC || RL
3. RL
4. RC
Ans : 4
23. In order to get more voltage gain from a transistor amplifier, the transistor used should
have …………..
1. Thin base
2. Thin collector
3. Wide emitter
4. None of the above
Ans : 1
25. The purpose of emitter capacitor (i.e. capacitor across RE) is to ……….
1. Avoid voltage gain drop
2. Forward bias the emitter
3. Reduce noise in the amplifier
4. None of the above
Ans : 1
29. The radio wave picked up by the receiving antenna is amplified about …….. times to have
reasonable sound output
1. 1000
2. A million
3. 100
4. 10000
Ans : 2
31. The d.c. load of a transistor amplifier is generally ………….. that of a a.c. load
1. The same as
2. Less than
3. More than
4. None of the above
Ans : 3
32. The value of collector load RC in a transistor amplifier is ………… the output impedance of
the transistor.
1. The same as
2. Less than
3. More than
4. None of the above
Ans : 2
33. A single stage transistor amplifier with collector load RC and emitter resistance RE has a d.c.
load of ……….
1. RC
2. RC || RE
3. RC – RE
4. RC + RE
Ans : 4
35. A single stage transistor amplifier with no load sees an a.c. load of ……..
1. RC + RE
2. RC
3. RC || RE
4. RC/RE
Ans : 2
36. The output power of a transistor amplifier is more than the input power because the
additional power is supplied by …………
1. Transistor
2. Biasing circuit
3. Collector supply VCC
4. None of the above
Ans : 3
37. A transistor converts ……………
1. dc. power into a.c. power
2. ac. power into d.c. power
3. high resistance into low resistance
4. none of the above
Ans : 1?
39. For highest power gain, one would use …………….. configuration
1. CC
2. CB
3. CE
4. none of the above
Ans : 3
6. For faithful amplification by a transistor circuit, the value of VBE should ………. for a silicon
transistor
1. Be zero
2. Be 0.01 V
3. Not fall below 0.7 V
4. Be between 0 V and 0.1 V
Ans : 3
7. For proper operation of the transistor, its collector should have …………
1. Proper forward bias
2. Proper reverse bias
3. Very small size
3. None of the above
Ans : 2
8. For faithful amplification by a transistor circuit, the value of VCE should ……….. for silicon
transistor
1. Not fall below 1 V
2. Be zero
3. Be 0.2 V
4. None of the above
Ans : 1
9. The circuit that provides the best stabilization of operating point is …………
1. Base resistor bias
2. Collector feedback bias
3. Potential divider bias
4. None of the above
Ans : 3
10. The point of intersection of d.c. and a.c. load lines represents …………..
1. Operating point
2. Current gain
3. Voltage gain
4. None of the above
Ans : 1
12. The zero signal IC is generally ……………… mA in the initial stages of a transistor amplifier
1. 4
2. 1
3. 3
4. More than 10
Ans : 2
13. If the maximum collector current due to signal alone is 3 mA, then zero signal collector
current should be at least equal to ………..
1. 6 mA
2. 3 mA
2. 3 mA
1. 1 mA
Ans : 3
14. The disadvantage of base resistor method of transistor biasing is that it …………
1. Is complicated
2. Is sensitive to changes in ß
3. Provides high stability
4. None of the above
Ans : 2
15. The biasing circuit has a stability factor of 50. If due to temperature change, ICBO changes
by 1 µA, then IC will change by …………
1. 100 µA
2. 25 µA
3. 20 µA
4. 50 µA
Ans : 4
16. For good stabilsation in voltage divider bias, the current I1 flowing through R1 and R2
should be equal to or greater than
1. 10 IB
2. 3 IB
3. 2 IB
4. 4 IB
Ans : 1
17. The leakage current in a silicon transistor is about ………… the leakage current in a
germanium transistor
1. One hundredth
2. One tenth
3. One thousandth
4. One millionth
Ans : 3
19. For proper amplification by a transistor circuit, the operating point should be located at the
………….. of the d.c. load line
1. The end point
2. Middle
3. The maximum current point
4. None of the above
Ans : 2
23. The purpose of resistance in the emitter circuit of a transistor amplifier is to ………….
1. Limit the maximum emitter current
2. Provide base-emitter bias
3. Limit the change in emitter current
4. None of the above
Ans : 3
27. In a base resistor method, if the value of ß changes by 50, then collector current will change
by a factor ………
1. 25
2. 50
3. 100
4. 200
Ans : 2
28. The stability factor of a collector feedback bias circuit is ……….. that of base resistor bias.
1. The same as
2. More than
3. Less than
4. None of the above
Ans : 3
29. In the design of a biasing circuit, the value of collector load RC is determined by …………
1. VCE consideration
2. VBE consideration
3. IB consideration
4. None of the above
Ans : 1
30. If the value of collector current IC increases, then the value of VCE …………
1. Remains the same
2. Decreases
3. Increases
4. None of the above
Ans : 2
32. The stabilisation of operating point in potential divider method is provided by ……….
1. RE consideration
2. RC consideration
3. VCC consideration
4. None of the above
Answer: 1
34. When the temperature changes, the operating point is shifted due to …….
1. Change in ICBO
2. Change in VCC
3. Change in the values of circuit resistance
4. None of the above
Ans : 1
35. The value of stability factor for a base resistor bias is …………
1. RB (ß+1)
2. (ß+1)RC
3. (ß+1)
4. 1-ß
Ans : 3
37. A silicon transistor is biased with base resistor method. If ß=100, VBE =0.7 V, zero signal
collector current IC = 1 mA and VCC = 6V , what is the value of the base resistor RB?
1. 105 kO
2. 530 kO
3. 315 kO
4. None of the above
Ans : 2
38. In voltage divider bias, VCC = 25 V; R1 = 10 kO; R2 = 2.2 V ; RC = 3.6 V and RE =1 kO. What is
the emitter voltage?
1. 7 V
2. 3 V
3. 5 V
4. 8 V
Ans : 4
40. In voltage divider bias, operating point is 3 V, 2 mA. If VCC = 9 V, RC = 2.2 kO, what is the
value of RE ?
1. 2000 O
2. 1400 O
3. 800 O
4. 1600 O
Ans : 3
TRANSISTORS
1. A transistor has …………………
1. One pn junction
2. Two pn junctions
3. Three pn junctions
4. Four pn junctions
ANS : 2
24. The input impedance of a transistor connected in …………….. arrangement is the highest
common emitter
common collector
common base
none of the above
ANS : 2
25. The output impedance of a transistor connected in ……………. arrangement is the highest
1. common emitter
2. common collector
3. common base
4. none of the above
ANS : 3
26. The phase difference between the input and output voltages in a common base
arrangement is …………….
1. 180o
2. 90o
3. 270o
4. 0o
ANS : 4
27. The power gain in a transistor connected in ……………. arrangement is the highest
1. common emitter
2. common base
3. common collector
4. none of the above
ANS : 1
28. The phase difference between the input and output voltages of a transistor connected in
common emitter arrangement is ………………
1. 0o
2. 180o
3. 90o
4. 270o
ANS : 2
29. The voltage gain in a transistor connected in ………………. arrangement is the highest
1. common base
2. common collector
3. common emitter
4. none of the above
ANS : 3
30. As the temperature of a transistor goes up, the base-emitter resistance ……………
1. decreases
2. increases
3. remains the same
4. none of the above
ANS : 1
31. The voltage gain of a transistor connected in common collector arrangement is ………..
1. equal to 1
2. more than 10
3. more than 100
4. less than 1
ANS : 4
32. The phase difference between the input and output voltages of a transistor connected in
common collector arrangement is ………………
1. 180o
2. 0o
3. 90o
4. 270o
ANS : 2
33. IC = ß IB + ………..
1. ICBO
2. IC
3. ICEO
4. aIE
ANS : 3
34. IC = [a / (1 – a )] IB + ………….
1. ICEO
2. ICBO
3. IC
4. (1 – a ) IB
ANS : 1
35. IC = [a / (1 – a )] IB + […….. / (1 – a )]
1. ICBO
2. ICEO
3. IC
4. IE
ANS : 1
38. A transistor is connected in CB mode. If it is not connected in CE mode with same bias
voltages, the values of IE, IB and IC will …………..
1. remain the same
2. increase
3. decrease
4. none of the above
ANS : 1
41. The arrow in the symbol of a transistor indicates the direction of ………….
1. electron current in the emitter
2. electron current in the collector
3. hole current in the emitter
4. donor ion current
ANS : 3
44. The most commonly used semiconductor in the manufacture of a transistor is ………….
1. germanium
2. silicon
3. carbon
4. none of the above
ANS : 2
3. If the arrow of crystal diode symbol is positive w.r.t. bar, then diode is ………….. biased.
1. forward
2. reverse
3. either forward or reverse
4. none of the above
ANS: 1
8. An ideal crystal diode is one which behaves as a perfect ……….. when forward biased.
1. conductor
2. insulator
3. resistance material
4. none of the above
ANS: 1
9. The ratio of reverse resistance and forward resistance of a germanium crystal diode is about
………….
1. 1 : 1
2. 100 : 1
3. 1000 : 1
4. 40,000 : 1
ANS: 4
11. If the temperature of a crystal diode increases, then leakage current ………..
1. remains the same
2. decreases
3. increases
4. becomes zero
ANS: 3
12. The PIV rating of a crystal diode is ………….. that of equivalent vacuum diode
1. the same as
2. lower than
3. more than
4. none of the above
ANS: 2
13. If the doping level of a crystal diode is increased, the breakdown voltage………….
1. remains the same
2. is increased
3. is decreased
4. none of the above
ANS: 3
15. When the graph between current through and voltage across a device is a straight line, the
device is referred to as ……………….
1. linear
2. active
3. nonlinear
4. passive
ANS: 1
16. When the crystal current diode current is large, the bias is …………
1. forward
2. inverse
3. poor
4. reverse
ANS: 1
19. When a crystal diode is used as a rectifier, the most important consideration is ………..
1. forward characteristic
2. doping level
3. reverse characteristic
4. PIC rating
ANS: 4
20. If the doping level in a crystal diode is increased, the width of depletion layer………..
1. remains the same
2. is decreased
3. in increased
4. none of the above
ANS: 3
23. The doping level in a zener diode is …………… that of a crystal diode
1. the same as
2. less than
3. more than
4. none of the above
ANS: 3
26. In the breakdown region, a zener didoe behaves like a …………… source.
1. constant voltage
2. constant current
3. constant resistance
4. none of the above
ANS: 1
32. Mains a.c. power is converted into d.c. power for ……………..
1. lighting purposes
2. heaters
3. using in electronic equipment
4. none of the above
ANS: 3
33. The disadvantage of a half-wave rectifier is that the……………….
1. components are expensive
2. diodes must have a higher power rating
3. output is difficult to filter
4. none of the above
ANS: 3
34. If the a.c. input to a half-wave rectifier is an r.m.s value of 400/√2 volts, then diode PIV
rating is ………………….
1. 400/√2 V
2. 400 V
3. 400 x √2 V
4. none of the above
ANS: 2
37. The PIV rating of each diode in a bridge rectifier is ……………… that of the equivalent centre-
tap rectifier
1. one-half
2. the same as
3. twice
4. four times
ANS: 1
38. For the same secondary voltage, the output voltage from a centre-tap rectifier is …………
than that of bridge rectifier
1. twice
2. thrice
3. four time
4. one-half
ANS: 4
42. The ……………….. filter circuit results in the best voltage regulation
1. choke input
2. capacitor input
3. resistance input
4. none of the above
ANS: 1
43. A half-wave rectifier has an input voltage of 240 V r.m.s. If the step-down transformer has a
turns ratio of 8:1, what is the peak load voltage?
Ignore diode drop.
1. 27.5 V
2. 86.5 V
3. 30 V
4. 42.5 V
ANS: 4
3. Thermal runaway is not possible in FET because as the temperature of FET increases
A. the mobility decreases
B. the transconductance increases
C. the drain current increases
D. none of the above
5. A differential amplifier has a differential gain of 20,000 . CMRR=80 dB. The common mode
gain is given by
A. 2
B. 1
C. 1/2
D. 0
7. An OPAMP has a slew rate of 5 V/µ S .The largest sine wave O/P voltage possible at a
frequency of 1MHZ is
A. 10 volts
B. 5 volts
C. 5/3 volts
D.5/2 volts
9. A differential amplifier is invariably used in the i/p stage of all OP-AMPs. This is dome
basically to provide the OP-AMPs with a very high
A.CMRR
B. bandwidth
C. slew rate
D. open-loop gain
10. The effective channel length of a MOSFET in a saturation decreases with increase in
A. gate voltage
B. drain voltage
C. source voltage
D. body voltage
12. In a p-n junction diode under reverse bias , the magnitude of electric field is maximum at
A. the edge of the depletion region on the p-side
B. the edge of the depletion region on the n-side
C. the p-n junction
D. the center of the depletion region on the n-side
15. A constant current signal across a parallel RLC circuits gives an o/p of 1.4v at the signal
frequency of 3.89KHZ and 4.1KHZ .At the frequency of 4KHZ,the o/p voltage will be
A.1 v
B. 2v
C.1.4v
D.2.8v
16. Class AB operation is often used in power large signal) amplifiers in order to
A. gets maximum efficiency
B. removes even harmonics
C. overcome a crossover distortion
D. reducing collector dissipation
18. If =0.98 ,Ico=6µA and Iβ=100µA for a transistor,then the value of Ic will be
A.2.3mA
B.3.2mA
C.4.6 mA
D.5.2mA
20. Most of the linear ICs are based on the two-transistor differential amplifier because of its
A. input voltage dependent linear transfer characteristic
B. high voltage gain
C. high input resistance
D. high CMRR
22. A dc power supply has no-load voltage of 30v,and a full-load voltage of 25v at full-load
current of 1A.Its output resistance & load regulation ,respectively are
A. 5 Ω & 20 %
B. 25 Ω & 20 %
C. 5 Ω & 16.7 %
D. 25 Ω & 16.7 %
23. The current gain of a bipolar transistor drops at high frequencies because of
A. Transistor capacitances
B. High current effects in the base
C. Parasitic inductive elements
D. The early effect
26. A 741-type OP-AMP has a gain-bandwidth product of 1MHz.A non-inverting amplifier using
this op-amp & having a voltage gain of 20db will exhibit -3db bandwidth of
A. 50 KHz
B. 100 KHz
C. 1000/17 KHz
D. 1000/7.07 KHz
27. An amplifier using an op-amp with slew rate SR=1v/µsec has a gain of 40db.if this amplifier
has to faithfully amplify sinusoidal signals from dc to 20 KHz without introducing any slew-rate
induced distortion, then the input signal level must not exceed
A. 795mV
B. 395mV
C. 795 mV
D. 39.5mV
28. In the differential voltage gain & the common mode voltage gain of a differential amplifier
are 48db &2db respectively, then its common mode rejection ratio is
A.23dB
B.25dB
C. 46dB
D. 50dB
29. Generally, the gain of a transistor amplifier falls at high frequencies due to the
A. Internal Capacitance of the device
B. Coupling capacitor at the input
C. Skin effect
D. Coupling capacitor at the output
30. An amplifier without feedback has a voltage gain of 50,input resistance os 1 KΩ & Output
resistance of 2.5KΩ.The input resistance of the current-shunt negative feedback amplifier using
the above amplifier with a feedback factor of 0.2 is
A. 1/11KΩ
B. 1/5KΩ
C. 5KΩ
D. 11KΩ
31. The action of JFET in its equivalent circuit can best be represented as a
A. Current controlled Current source
B. Current controlled voltage source
C. Voltage controlled voltage source
D. voltage controlled current source
32. Three identical amplifiers with each one having a voltage gain of 50,input resistance of 1KΩ
& output resistance of 250, are cascaded. The open circuit voltage gain of combined amplifier is
A. 49dB
B. 51dB
C. 98dB
D. 102dB
34. In a full-wave rectifier using two ideal diodes, Vdc & Vm are the dc & peak values of the
voltage respectively across a resistive load. If PIV is the peak inverse voltage of the diode, then
the appropriate relationships for this rectifier is.
A. Vdc = Vm/π, PIV=2Vm
B. Vdc = 2Vm/π, PIV=2vm
C. Vdc = 2Vm/π, PIV=Vm
D. Vdc = Vm/π, PIV=Vm
37. The most commonly used amplifier in sample & hold circuits is
A. A unity gain non-inverting amplifier
B. A unity gain inverting amplifier
C. An inverting amplifier with a gain of 10
D. An inverting amplifiers with a gain of 100
39. Introducing a resistor in the emitter of a common amplifier stabilizes the dc operating point
against variations in
A. Only the temperature
B. only the β of the transistor
C. Both Temperature & β
D. None of the above
49. Which of the following amplifier circuit using junction transistor has the best gain?
A. Common base
B. Common emitter
C. Common collector
D. All have the same gain
Answer: B
7. Digital computers are more widely used as compared to analog computers, because they are
(a) less expensive
(b) always more accurate and faster
(c) useful over wider ranges of problem types
(d) easier to maintain.
Ans:c
8. Most of the digital computers do not have floating point hardware because
(a) floating point hardware is costly
(b) it is slower than software
(c) it is not possible to perform floating point addition by hardware
(d) of no specific reason.
Ans:a
10. (1(10101)2 is
(a) (37)10
(b) ( 69)10
(c) (41 )10
(d) — (5)10
Ans:a
11. The number of Boolean functions that can be generated by n variables is equal to
(a) 2n
(b) 22 n
(c) 2n-1
(d) — 2n
Ans:b
12. Consider the representation of six-bit numbers by two’s complement, one’s complement, or
by sign and magnitude: In which representation is there
overflow from the addition of the integers 011000 and 011000?
(a) Two’s complement only
(b) Sign and magnitude and one’s complement only
(c) Two’s complement and one’s complement only
(d) All three representations.
Ans:d
16. Among the logic families, the family which can be used at very high frequency greater than
100 MHz in a 4 bit synchronous counter is
(a) TTLAS
(b) CMOS
(c)ECL
(d)TTLLS
Ans:c
18. An OR gate has 6 inputs. The number of input words in its truth table are
(a)6
(b)32
(c) 64
(d) 128
Ans:c
24. Assuming 8 bits for data, 1 bit for parity, I start bit and 2 stop bits, the number of characters
that 1200 BPS communication line can transmit is
(a)10 CPS
(b)120 CPS
(c) 12CPS
(d) None of the above.
Ans:c
25. Indicate which of the following three binary additions are correct?
1.1011 + 1010 = 10101
II. 1010 + 1101 = 10111
III. 1010 + 1101 = 11111
(a) I and II
(b) II and III
(c) III only
(d) II and III