Professional Documents
Culture Documents
questions 2016
flash memory*
NVRAM?
RAM
ROM
a TFTP server?
6. Which connection provides a secure CLI session with encryption
to a Cisco network device?
a console connection
an AUX connection
a Telnet connection
an SSH connection*
7. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is trying to configure the
switch but receives the error message that is displayed in the
exhibit. What is the problem?
My Switch(config)#?
Switch(config)#?*
MySwitch(config)#?
My(config)#?
Switch#
11. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring
access control to switch SW1. If the administrator uses Telnet to
connect to the switch, which password is needed to access user
EXEC mode?
letmein
secretin
lineconin
linevtyin*
12. After making configuration changes, a network administrator
issues a copy running-config startup-config command in a Cisco
switch. What is the result of issuing this command?
The new configuration will be stored in flash memory.
The new configuration will be loaded if the switch is restarted.*
The current IOS file will be replaced with the newly configured file.
The configuration changes will be removed and the original configuration will be restored.
13. Refer to the exhibit. Which action will be successful?
PC1 can send a ping to 192.168.1.1?.
PC1 can send a ping to 192.168.1.254?.
PC2 can send a ping to 192.168.1.1.*
PC2 can send a ping to 192.168.1.254?.
14. Which IPv4 address can be pinged to test the internal TCP/IP
operation of a host?
0.0.0.0
0.0.0.1
127.0.0.1*
192.168.1.1
255.255.255.255
15. What three application layer protocols are part of the TCP/IP
protocol suite? (Choose three.)
ARP
DHCP*
DNS*
FTP*
NAT
PPP
16. Which two protocols function at the internet layer? (Choose
two.)
ARP
BOOTP
ICMP*
IP*
PPP
17. Which publicly available resources describe protocols,
processes, and technologies for the Internet but do not give
implementation details?
Request for Comments*
IRTF research papers
protocol models
IEEE standards
18. Which address on a PC does not change, even if the PC is
moved to a different network?
IP address
default gateway address
MAC address*
logical address
19. What is the protocol that is used to discover a physical address
from a known logical address and what message type does it use?
ARP, multicast
DNS, unicast
DNS, broadcast
ARP, broadcast*
PING, multicast
PING, broadcast
20. What will happen if the default gateway address is incorrectly
configured on a host?
The host cannot communicate with other hosts in the local network.
The switch will not forward packets initiated by the host.
The host will have to use ARP to determine the correct address of the default gateway.
The host cannot communicate with hosts in other networks.*
A ping from the host to 127.0.0.1 would not be successful.
21. What is an important function of the physical layer of the OSI
model?
It accepts frames from the physical media.
It encapsulates upper layer data into frames.
It defines the media access method performed by the hardware interface.
It encodes frames into electrical, optical, or radio wave signals.*
22. Which procedure is used to reduce the effect of crosstalk in
copper cables?
requiring proper grounding connections
twisting opposing circuit wire pairs together*
wrapping the bundle of wires with metallic shielding
designing a cable infrastructure to avoid crosstalk interference
avoiding sharp bends during installation
23. Which two statements describe the characteristics of fiber-optic
cabling? (Choose two.)
Fiber-optic cabling does not conduct electricity.*
Fiber-optic cabling has high signal loss.
Fiber-optic cabling is primarily used as backbone cabling.*
Multimode fiber-optic cabling carries signals from multiple sending devices.
Fiber-optic cabling uses LEDs for single-mode cab?les and laser technology for multimode
cables.
24. What is contained in the trailer of a data-link frame?
logical address
physical address
data
error detection*
25. What is the auto-MDIX feature on a switch?
the automatic configuration of an interface for 10/100/1000 Mb/s operation
the automatic configuration of an interface for a straight-through or a
crossover Ethernet cable connection*
the automatic configuration of full-duplex operation over a single Ethernet copper or optical
cable
the ability to turn a switch interface on or off accordingly if an active connection is detected
26. Refer to the exhibit. A ping to PC3 is issued from PC0, PC1, and
PC2 in this exact order. Which MAC addresses will be contained in
the S1 MAC address table that is associated with the Fa0/1 port?
It is the IP address of the Router1 interface that connects the company to the Internet.
It is the IP address of the Router1 interface that connects the PC1 LAN to Router1.*
It is the IP address of Switch1 that connects PC1 to other devices on the same LAN.
It is the IP address of the ISP network device located in the cloud.
31. Which of the following are primary functions of a router?
(Choose two.)
packet switching*
microsegmentation
domain name resolution
path selection*
flow control
32. Which two statements correctly describe a router memory type
and its contents? (Choose two.)
ROM is nonvolatile and stores the running IOS.
FLASH is nonvolatile and contains a limited portion of the IOS?.
RAM is volatile and stores the running configuration.*
NVRAM is nonvolatile and stores a full version of the IOS.
ROM is nonvolatile and stores bootup information.*
33. In which default order will a router search for startup
configuration information?
NVRAM, RAM, TFTP
NVRAM, TFTP, setup mode*
setup mode, NVRAM, TFTP
TFTP, ROM, NVRAM
flash, ROM, setup mode
34. What happens when part of an Internet VoIP transmission is not
delivered to the destination?
A delivery failure message is sent to the source host.
The part of the VoIP transmission that was lost is re-sent.
The entire transmission is re-sent.
The transmission continues without the missing portion.*
35. Which three IP addresses are private ? (Choose three.)
10.172.168.1*
172.32.5.2
192.167.10.10
172.20.4.4*
192.168.5.254*
224.6.6.6
36. How many bits make up the single IPv6 hextet :10CD:?
4
8
16*
32
37. What is the effect of configuring the ipv6 unicast-routing
command on a router?
to assign the router to the all-nodes multicast group
to enable the router as an IPv6 router*
to permit only unicast packets on the router
to prevent the router from joining the all-routers multicast group
38. Which group of IPv6 addresses cannot be allocated as a host
source address?
FEC0::/10?
FDFF::/7?
FEBF::/10?
FF00::/8*
39. What is the purpose of ICMP messages?
to inform routers about network topology changes
to ensure the delivery of an IP packet
to provide feedback of IP packet transmissions*
to monitor the process of a domain name to IP address resolution
40. Refer to the exhibit. A technician has configured a user
workstation with the IP address and default subnet masks that are
shown. Although the user can access all local LAN resources, the
user cannot access any Internet sites by using either FQDN or IP
addresses. Based upon the exhibit, what could account for this
failure?
Site 1
Site 2*
Site 3
Site 4
44. Which two notations are useable nibble boundaries when
subnetting in IPv6? (Choose two.)
/62
/64*
/66
/68*
/70
45. A host PC has just booted and is attempting to lease an address
through DHCP. Which two messages will the client typically
broadcast on the network? (Choose two.)
DHCPDISCOVER*
DHCPOFFER
DHCPREQUEST*
DHCPACK
DHCPNACK
46. What is the purpose of the network security accounting
function?
to require users to prove who they are
to determine which resources a user can access
to keep track of the actions of a user*
to provide challenge and response questions
47. When applied to a router, which command would help mitigate
brute-force password attacks against the router?
exec-timeout 30
service password-encryption
banner motd $Max failed logins = 5$
login block-for 60 attempts 5 within 60*
48. A particular website does not appear to be responding on a
Windows 7 computer. What command could the technician use to
show any cached DNS entries for this web page?
ipconfig /all
arp -a
ipconfig /displaydns*
nslookup
49. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator enters these
commands into the R1 router:
R1# copy running-config tftp
Address or name of remote host [ ]?
When the router prompts for an address or remote host name, what
IP address should the administrator enter at the prompt?
192.168.9.254
192.168.10.1
192.168.10.2
192.168.11.252*
192.168.11.254
50. Match the IPv6 address to the IPv6 address type. (Not all
options are used.)
51. What two preconfigured settings that affect security are found
on most new wireless routers? (Choose two.)
broadcast SSID*
MAC filtering enabled
WEP encryption enabled
PSK authentication required
default administrator password*
52. Which type of wireless security generates dynamic encryption
keys each time a client associates with an AP?
EAP
PSK
WEP
WPA*
53. Fill in the blank.
TFTP is a best-effort, connectionless application layer protocol
that is used to transfer files.
54. Which two components are necessary for a wireless client to be
installed on a WLAN? (Choose two.)
media
wireless NIC*
custom adapter
crossover cable
wireless bridge
wireless client software*
55. Consider the following range of addresses:
2001:0DB8:BC15:00A0:0000::
2001:0DB8:BC15:00A1:0000::
2001:0DB8:BC15:00A2:0000::
…
2001:0DB8:BC15:00AF:0000::
The prefix-length for the range of addresses is /60 .
56. Match the phases to their correct stage in the router bootup
process. (Not all options are used.)
Stage 1 – perform the post
Stage 2 – load the bootstrap program
Stage 3 – Locate and load the Cisco IOS
Stage 4 – locate and load the configuration file
HR Switch(config)#?
Switch(config)#?*
HRSwitch(config)#?
HR(config)#?
Switch#
64. After making configuration changes on a Cisco switch, a
network administrator issues a copy running-config startup-config
command. What is the result of issuing this command?
The new configuration will be stored in flash memory.
The new configuration will be loaded if the switch is restarted.*
The current IOS file will be replaced with the newly configured file.
The configuration changes will be removed and the original configuration will be restored.
65. On which switch interface would an administrator configure an
IP address so that the switch can be managed remotely?
FastEthernet0/1
VLAN 1*
vty 0
console 0
66. A technician uses the ping 127.0.0.1 command. What is the
technician testing?
the TCP/IP stack on a network host*
connectivity between two adjacent Cisco devices
connectivity between a PC and the default gateway
connectivity between two PCs on the same network
physical connectivity of a particular PC and the network
67. What is the correct order for PDU encapsulation?
11
12
13*
14
83. A company has a network address of 192.168.1.64 with a subnet
mask of 255.255.255.192. The company wants to create two
subnetworks that would contain 10 hosts and 18 hosts
respectively. Which two networks would achieve that? (Choose
two.)
192.168.1.16/28
192.168.1.64/27*
192.168.1.128/27
192.168.1.96/28*
192.168.1.192/28
84. In a network that uses IPv4, what prefix would best fit a subnet
containing 100 hosts?
/23
/24
/25*
/26
85. Which protocol supports rapid delivery of streaming media?
Transmission Control Protocol
Real-Time Transport Protocol*
Secure File Transfer Protocol
Video over Internet Protocol
86. Why would a network administrator use the tracert utility?
to determine the active TCP connections on a PC
to check information about a DNS name in the DNS server
to identify where a packet was lost or delayed on a network*
to display the IP address, default gateway, and DNS server address for a PC
87. Refer to the exhibit. What is the significance of the asterisk (*) in
the exhibited output?
The asterisk shows which file system was used to boot the system.
The asterisk designates which file system is the default file system.*
An asterisk indicates that the file system is bootable.
An asterisk designates that the file system has at least one file that uses that file system.
88. Which WLAN security protocol generates a new dynamic key
each time a client establishes a connection with the AP?
EAP
PSK
WEP
WPA*
89. Fill in the blank.
Point-to-point communications where both devices can transmit
and receive on the medium at the same time are known as full-
duplex .
90. Match each characteristic to the appropriate email protocol.
(Not all options are used.)
91. A host is accessing a Telnet server on a remote network. Which
three functions are performed by intermediary network devices
during this conversation? (Choose three.)
regenerating data signals*
acting as a client or a server
providing a channel over which messages travel
applying security settings to control the flow of data*
notifying other devices when errors occur*
serving as the source or destination of the messages
92. Refer to the exhibit. Which area would most likely be an
extranet for the company network that is shown?
area A
area B
area C*
area D
93. What is the purpose of having a converged network?
to provide high speed connectivity to all end devices
to make sure that all types of data packets will be treated equally
to achieve fault tolerance and high availability of data network infrastructure devices
to reduce the cost of deploying and maintaining the communication infrastructure*
94. Three office workers are using the corporate network. The first
employee uses a web browser to view a company web page in
order to read some announcements. The second employee
accesses the corporate database to perform some financial
transactions. The third employee participates in an important live
audio conference with other office workers in branch offices. If QoS
is implemented on this network, what will be the priorities from
highest to lowest of the different data types?
audio conference, financial transactions, web page*
financial transactions, web page, audio conference
audio conference, web page, financial transactions
financial transactions, audio conference, web page
95. During normal operation, from which location do most Cisco
switches and routers run the IOS?
RAM*
flash
NVRAM
disk drive
96. A network administrator is making changes to the configuration
of a router. After making the changes and verifying the results, the
administrator issues the copy running-config startup-config
command. What will happen after this command executes?
The configuration will be copied to flash.
The configuration will load when the router is restarted.*
The new configuration file will replace the IOS file.
The changes will be lost when the router restarts.
97. What information does the loopback test provide?
The TCP/IP stack on the device is working correctly.*
The device has end-to-end connectivity.
DHCP is working correctly.
The Ethernet cable is working correctly.
The device has the correct IP address on the network.
98. What is a characteristic of the LLC sublayer?
It provides the logical addressing required that identifies the device.
It provides delimitation of data according to the physical signaling requirements of the
medium.
It places information in the frame allowing multiple Layer 3 protocols to use the same
network interface and media.*
It defines software processes that provide services to the physical layer.
99. What method is used to manage contention-based access on a
wireless network?
CSMA/CD
priority ordering
CSMA/CA*
token passing
100. What happens when a switch receives a frame and the
calculated CRC value is different than the value that is in the FCS
field?
The switch places the new CRC value in the FCS field and forwards the frame.
The switch notifies the source of the bad frame.
The switch drops the frame.*
The switch floods the frame to all ports except the port through which the frame arrived to
notify the hosts of the error.
101. Which destination address is used in an ARP request frame?
0.0.0.0
255.255.255.255
FFFF.FFFF.FFFF*
127.0.0.1
01-00-5E-00-AA-23
102. What is the auto-MDIX feature on a switch?
the automatic configuration of an interface for 10/100/1000 Mb/s operation
the automatic configuration of an interface for a straight-through or a crossover
Ethernet cable connection*
the automatic configuration of full-duplex operation over a single Ethernet copper or optical
cable
the ability to turn a switch interface on or off accordingly if an active connection is detected
103. Which frame forwarding method receives the entire frame and
performs a CRC check to detect errors before forwarding the
frame?
cut-through switching
store-and-forward switching*
fragment-free switching
fast-forward switching
104. What are the two main components of Cisco Express
Forwarding (CEF)? (Choose two.)
adjacency tables*
MAC-address tables
routing tables
ARP tables
forwarding information base (FIB)*
105. Which statement describes the sequence of processes
executed by a router when it receives a packet from a host to be
delivered to a host on another network?
It receives the packet and forwards it directly to the destination host.
It de-encapsulates the packet, selects the appropriate path, and encapsulates the
packet to forward it toward*
the destination host.*
It de-encapsulates the packet and forwards it toward the destination host.
It selects the path and forwards it toward the destination host.
106. Which technology provides a solution to IPv4 address
depletion by allowing multiple devices to share one public IP
address?
ARP
DNS
NAT*
SMB
DHCP
HTTP
107. Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 has two interfaces that were
configured with correct IP addresses and subnet masks. Why does
the show ip route command output not display any information
about the directly connected networks??
The directly connected networks have to be created manually to be displayed in the routing
table.
The routing table will only display information about these networks when the router
receives a packet.
The no shutdown command was not issued on these interfaces.*
The gateway of last resort was not configured.
108. What happens when part of an Internet television transmission
is not delivered to the destination?
A delivery failure message is sent to the source host.
The part of the television transmission that was lost is re-sent.
The entire transmission is re-sent.
The transmission continues without the missing portion.*
109. Which three statements characterize the transport layer
protocols? (Choose three.)
TCP and UDP port numbers are used by application layer protocols.*
TCP uses port numbers to provide reliable transportation of IP packets.
UDP uses windowing and acknowledgments for reliable transfer of data.
TCP uses windowing and sequencing to provide reliable transfer of data.*
TCP is a connection-oriented protocol. UDP is a connectionless protocol.*
110. A user opens three browsers on the same PC to access
www.cisco.com to search for certification course information. The
Cisco web server sends a datagram as a reply to the request from
one of the web browsers. Which information is used by the TCP/IP
protocol stack in the PC to identify the destination web browser?
the destination IP address
the destination port number*
the source IP address
the source port number
111. Which statement is true regarding the UDP client process
during a session with a server?
Datagrams that arrive in a different order than that in which they were sent are not
placed in order.*
A session must be established before datagrams can be exchanged.
A three-way handshake takes place before the transmission of data begins.
Application servers have to use port numbers above 1024 in order to be UDP capable.
112. Which two components are configured via software in order
for a PC to participate in a network environment? (Choose two.)
MAC address
IP address*
kernel
shell
subnet mask*
113. What are three characteristics of multicast transmission?
(Choose three.)
The source address of a multicast transmission is in the range of 224.0.0.0 to 224.0.0.255.
A single packet can be sent to a group of hosts.*
Multicast transmission can be used by routers to exchange routing information.*
Routers will not forward multicast addresses in the range of 224.0.0.0 to 224.0.0.255.*
Computers use multicast transmission to request IPv4 addresses.
Multicast messages map lower layer addresses to upper layer addresses.
114. Which two reasons generally make DHCP the preferred
method of assigning IP addresses to hosts on large networks?
(Choose two.)
It eliminates most address configuration errors.*
It ensures that addresses are only applied to devices that require a permanent address.
It guarantees that every device that needs an address will get one.
It provides an address only to devices that are authorized to be connected to the network.
It reduces the burden on network support staff.*
115. What is the subnet address for the address
2001:DB8:BC15:A:12AB::1/64?
2001:DB8:BC15::0
2001:DB8:BC15:A::0*
2001:DB8:BC15:A:1::1
2001:DB8:BC15:A:12::0
116. Which two tasks are functions of the presentation layer?
(Choose two.)
compression*
addressing
encryption*
session control
authentication
117. What is the purpose of the network security authentication
function?
to require users to prove who they are*
to determine which resources a user can access
to keep track of the actions of a user
to provide challenge and response questions
118. Which type of wireless security makes use of dynamic
encryption keys each time a client associates with an AP?
EAP
PSK
WEP
WPA*
119. Fill in the blank.
During data communications, a host may need to send a single
message to a specific group of destination hosts simultaneously.
This message is in the form of a Multicast message.
120. Match the description with the associated IOS mode. (Not all
options are used.)
121. Launch PT – Hide and Save PT
Open the PT activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and
then fill in the blank.
The Server0 message is . ” winner ”
Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and
then answer the question.
Which IPv6 address is assigned to the Serial0/0/0 interface on RT2?
2001:db8:abc:1::1
2001:db8:abc:5::1 *
2001:db8:abc:5::2
2001:db8:abc:10::15
Updated DIC .2, 2015
1. Three bank employees are using the corporate network. The first employee uses a
web browser to view a company web page in order to read some announcements.
The second employee accesses the corporate database to perform some financial
transactions. The third employee participates in an important live audio conference
with other corporate managers in branch offices. If QoS is implemented on this
network, what will be the priorities from highest to lowest of the different data types?
letmein
secretin*
lineconin
linevtyin
In the encapsulation process, it adds source and destination port numbers to the IP header.
When a packet arrives at the destination host, its IP header is checked by the network layer
to determine where the packet has to be routed.
Its protocols specify the packet structure and processing used to carry the data from
one host to another.*
ISPs use Network Address Translation to change a user IP address into an address
that can be used on the Internet.*
ISPs use Domain Name Service to change a user IP address into a public IP address that
can be used on the Internet.
unique local
site local
global unicast
11010101
11001010*
11011010
11. What is the valid most compressed format possible of the IPv6
address 2001:0DB8:0000:AB00:0000:0000:0000:1234?
2001:DB8:0:AB00::1234*
2001:DB8:0:AB::1234
2001:DB8::AB00::1234
2001:DB8:0:AB:0:1234
12. Refer to the exhibit. What is the maximum TTL value that is
used to reach the destination www.cisco.com?
11
12
13*
14
CRC field
URL filtering
application filtering
16. A network technician is investigating network connectivity from
a PC to a remote host with the address 10.1.1.5. Which command
issued on the PC will return to the technician the complete path to
the remote host?
trace 10.1.1.5
traceroute 10.1.1.5
tracert 10.1.1.5*
ping 10.1.1.5
the latency that is created by the number of network devices that the data is
crossing*
an ohmmeter
wire map*
inductance
flexibility
22. Refer to the exhibit. A ping to PC2 is issued from PC0, PC1, and
PC3 in this exact order. Which MAC addresses will be contained in
the S1 MAC address table that is associated with the Fa0/1 port?
a switching table
25. Which router interface should be used for direct remote access
to the router via a modem?
an inband router interface
a console port
an AUX port*
28. Refer to the exhibit. A TCP segment from a server has been
captured by Wireshark, which is running on a host. What
acknowledgement number will the host return for the TCP segment
that has been received?
2
21
250
306*
2921
Any IPv4 addresses that are assigned to the interface are replaced with an IPv6 address.
DNS address
host IP address
172.16.16.255
172.16.20.255
172.16.19.255*
172.16.23.255
172.16.255.255
10.1.1.128/28
10.1.1.144/28
10.1.1.160/28
10.1.1.128/28
10.1.1.140/28
10.1.1.158/26
10.1.1.128/26
10.1.1.144/26
10.1.1.160/26
10.1.1.128/26
10.1.1.140/26
10.1.1.158/28
33. How many additional bits should be borrowed from a /26 subnet
mask in order to create subnets for WAN links that need only 2
useable addresses?
2
4*
34. A logical topology influences the type of network framing and media access control
that will be used.
Because the IOS includes the login command on the vty lines by default, access to
the device via Telnet will require authentication.*
Access to the vty lines will not be allowed via Telnet by anyone.
Because the login command was omitted, the password cisco command is not applied to
the vty lines.
The current IOS file will be replaced with the newly configured file.
The configuration changes will be removed and the original configuration will be restored.
An ARP request is sent to all devices on the Ethernet LAN and contains the IP address of
the destination host and its multicast MAC address.
When a host is encapsulating a packet into a frame, it refers to the MAC address table to
determine the mapping of IP addresses to MAC addresses.
If no device responds to the ARP request, then the originating node will broadcast the data
packet to all devices on the network segment.
If a device receiving an ARP request has the destination IPv4 address, it responds
with an ARP reply.*
fast-forward switching*
CRC switching
fragment-free switching*
QOS switching
An individual server can have two services that are assigned to the same port number.
An individual server cannot have multiple services running at the same time.
Server security can be improved by closing ports that are associated with unused
services.*
236.17.12.6
236.17.12.10*
arp -a
ipconfig /displaydns*
nslookup
Refer to the exhibit. What is the maximum TIL value that is used to
reach the destination www.cisco.com?
11
12
13*
14
46. Which statement is true about DHCP operation?
When a device that is configured to use DHCP boots, the client broadcasts a
DHCPDISCOVER message to identify any available DHCP servers on the networK.*
A client must wait for lease expiration before it sends another DHCPREOUEST message.
The DHCPDISCOVER message contains the IP address and sub net masK to be assigned,
the IP address of the DNS server, and the IP address of the default gateway.
If the client receives several DHCPOFFER messages from different servers, it sends a
unicast DHCPREOUEST message to the server from which it chooses to obtain the IP
information.
DHCPDISCOVER
DHCPOFFER*
DHCPPREQUEST
DHCPACK
DHCPNACK
secretin
lineconin*
linevtyin
It will give 4 options about ping, the correct one is: The PC2 will be able to ping
192.168.1.1*
55. Which statement best describes the operation of the File Transfer Protocol?
An FTP client uses a source port number of 21 and a randomly generated destination port
number during the establishment of control traffic with an FTP Server.
An FTP client uses a source port number of 20 and a randomly generated destination port
number during the establishment of data traffic with an FTP Server.
An FTP server uses a source port number of 21 and a randomly generated destination port
number during the establishment of control traffic with an FTP client.
56. A client is establishing a TCP session with a server. How is the
acknowledgment number in the response segment to the client
determined?
The acknowledgment number field is modified by adding 1 to the randomly chosen
initial sequence number in response to the client.*
The acknowledgment number is set to 11 to signify an acknowledgment packet and
synchronization packet back to the client.
The acknowledgment number field uses a random source port number in response to the
client.
The acknowledgment number is set to 1 to signify an acknowledgment packet back to the
client.
64. How could a faulty network device create a source of hazard for a user? (Choose
two.)
65. What are three important considerations when planning the structure of an IP
addressing scheme? (Choose three.)
66. What is the metric value that is used to reach the 10.1.1.0 network in the following
routing table entry?
24
90
05
2170112*
67. Which two services or protocols use the preferred UDP protocol for fast
transmission and low overhead? (Choose two)
VoIP*
DNS*
HTTP
FTP
POP3
68. What action does a DHCPv4 client take if it receives more than one DHCPOFFER
from multiple DHCP servers?
It sends a DHCPREQUEST that identifies which lease offer the client is accepting.*
It sends a DHCPNAK and begins the DHCP process over again.
It discards both offers and sends a new DHCPDISCOVER.
It accepts both DHCPOFFER messages and sends a DHCPACK.
69. To what legacy address class does the address 10.0.0.0 belong?
Class B
Class D
Class A*
Class C
Class E
70. What type of communication medium is used with a wireless LAN connection?
radio waves
fiber
microwave*
UTP
71. Which method of IPv6 prefix assignment relies on the prefix contained in RA
messages?
EUI-64
static
SLAAC*
stateful DHCPv6
DNS servers can cache recent queries to reduce DNS query traffic.*
DNS servers are programmed to drop requests for name translations that are not within
their zone.
All DNS servers must maintain mappings for the entire DNS structure.
2001:DB8:BC15
2001:DB8:BC15:A*
2001:DB8:BC15:A:1
2001:DB8:BC15:A:12
74. What are two services provided by the OSI network layer? (Choose two.)
collision detection
The IPv6 DHCP pool configuration has no IPv6 address range specified.
The state is not maintained by the DHCPv6 server under stateless DHCPv6
operation.*
ip address dhcp*
service dhcp
ip helper-address
A DHCP server must be installed on the same LAN as the host that is receiving the IP
address.
The ip address dhcp command was not issued on the interface Gi0/1.
The router does not need to alter the checksum of the IPv4 packets.
The internal hosts have to use a single public IPv4 address for external communication.
The costs of readdressing hosts can be significant for a publicly addressed network.
IPsec*
HTTP
ICMP
DNS
It allows sites to connect multiple IPv4 hosts to the Internet via the use of a single public
IPv4 address.
It allows sites to connect IPv6 hosts to an IPv4 network by translating the IPv6
addresses to IPv4 addresses.*
It allows sites to use private IPv4 addresses, and thus hides the internal addressing
structure from hosts on public IPv4 networks.
R1 Gi0/1.12*
R1 S0/0/0
R2 S0/0/1
R2 Gi0/1.20
inbound
outbound*
computer type
in an IPv4 named standard ACL that has specific UDP protocols that are allowed to be used
on a specific server
in an IPv6 named ACL that permits FTP traffic from one particular LAN getting to another
LAN
in an IPv4 extended ACL that allows packets from a range of TCP ports destined for a
specific network device*
12. Which three values or sets of values are included when creating
an extended access control list entry? (Choose three.)
access list number between 1 and 99
0.0.0.255
0.0.1.255*
0.0.255.255
A single ACL command and wildcard mask should not be used to specify these particular
networks or other traffic will be permitted or denied and present a security risk.
14. The computers used by the network administrators for a school
are on the 10.7.0.0/27 network. Which two commands are needed at
a minimum to apply an ACL that will ensure that only devices that
are used by the network administrators will be allowed Telnet
access to the routers? (Choose two.)
access-class 5 in*
ip access-group 5 out
ip access-group 5 in
17. Refer to the exhibit. How did the router obtain the last route that
is shown?
The ip route command was used.
Another router in the same organization provided the default route by using a
dynamic routing protocol.*
The ip address interface configuration mode command was used in addition to the network
routing protocol configuration mode command.
IPv6 uses the link-local address of neighbors as the next-hop address for dynamic
routes.*
child route
ultimate route
default route
20. Which two factors are important when deciding which interior
gateway routing protocol to use? (Choose two.)
scalability*
ISP selection
speed of convergence*
22. A router has used the OSPF protocol to learn a route to the
172.16.32.0/19 network. Which command will implement a backup
floating static route to this network?
ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.240.0 S0/0/0 200
24. Refer to the exhibit. If RIPng is enabled, how many hops away
does R1 consider the 2001:0DB8:ACAD:1::/64 network to be?
2
3*
Link cost indicates a proportion of the accumulated value of the route to the destination.
A lower cost indicates a better path to the destination than a higher cost does.*
The OSPFv2 process is enabled on the interface by entering the ospf process area-id
command.
The link interface on each router must be configured with a link-local address.
Routers create a topology of the network by using information from other routers.*
The database information for each router is obtained from the same source.
Paths are chosen based on the lowest number of hops to the designated router.
32. Why would an administrator use a network security auditing
tool to flood the switch MAC address table with fictitious MAC
addresses?
to determine which ports are not correctly configured to prevent MAC address
flooding*
to determine when the CAM table size needs to be increased in order to prevent overflows
An unauthorized user tried to telnet to the switch through switch port Fa0/8.
NAT was enabled on a router, and a private IP address arrived on switch port Fa0/8.
A host with an invalid IP address was connected to a switch port that was previously
unused.
Port security was enabled on the switch port, and an unauthorized connection was
made on switch port Fa0/8.*
The control and management traffic on the error-occurring trunk port is being
misdirected or dropped.*
All traffic on the error-occurring trunk port is being switched correctly regardless of the error.
38. What are two ways of turning off DTP on a trunk link between
switches? (Choose two.)
Change the native VLAN on both ports.
Configure attached switch ports with the dynamic desirable command option.
Configure one port with the dynamic auto command option and the opposite attached
switch port with the dynamic desirable command option.
The native VLAN traffic will be untagged across the trunk link.*
High priority traffic, such as voice traffic, uses the native VLAN.
42. What is the purpose of setting the native VLAN separate from
data VLANs?
The native VLAN is for carrying VLAN management traffic only.
The security of management frames that are carried in the native VLAN can be enhanced.
The native VLAN is for routers and switches to exchange their management information, so
it should be different from data VLANs.
Only devices that are connected to the local switch see the frame.
44. Refer to the exhibit. The partial configuration that is shown was
used to configure router on a stick for VLANS 10, 30, and 50.
However, testing shows that there are some connectivity problems
between the VLANs. Which configuration error is causing this
problem?
A configuration for the native VLAN is missing.
The access list defines the private IP addresses that are to be translated.*
The access list prevents external devices from being a part of the address translation.
The access list permits or denies specific addresses from entering the device doing the
translation.
Each router is responsible for “saying hello” to its neighbors on directly connected networks.
> step 2
Each router builds a Link-State Packet (LSP) containing the state of each directly
connected link > step 3
Each router learns about its own directly connected networks. > step 1
Each router increments the hop count for the destination network. -> NOT SCORED
Each router floods the LSP to all neighbors, who then store all LSPs received in a database
> step 4
Each router uses the database to construct a complete map of the topology and computes
the best > step 5
the source and destination MAC addresses and the incoming port
the source and destination MAC addresses and the outgoing port
53. Refer to the exhibit. How many broadcast and collision domains
exist in the topology?
10 broadcast domains and 5 collision domains
55. Which switching method drops frames that fail the FCS check?
borderless switching
cut-through switching
store-and-forward switching*
1.
What are two features of a link-state routing protocol? (Choose two.)
The database information for each router is obtained from the same source.
Routers send triggered updates in response to a change.*
Routers create a topology of the network by using information from other routers. *
Paths are chosen based on the lowest number of hops to the designated router.
Routers send periodic updates only to neighboring routers.
2.
Fill in the blank.
In IPv6, all routes are level ” 1 ” ultimate routes.
3.
Which switching method drops frames that fail the FCS check?
4.
Which summary IPv6 static route statement can be configured to summarize only the
routes to networks 2001:db8:cafe::/58 through 2001:db8:cafe:c0::/58?
5.
3*
6.
When a Cisco switch receives untagged frames on a 802.1Q trunk port, which VLAN
ID is the traffic switched to by default?
data VLAN ID
native VLAN ID *
unused VLAN ID
management VLAN ID
7.
A college marketing department has a networked storage device that uses the IP
address 10.18.7.5, TCP port 443 for encryption, and UDP port 4365 for video
streaming. The college already uses PAT on the router that connects to the Internet.
The router interface has the public IP address of 209.165.200.225/30. The IP NAT pool
currently uses the IP addresses ranging from 209.165.200.228-236. Which
configuration would the network administrator add to allow this device to be
accessed by the marketing personnel from home?
8.
Which statement describes a route that has been learned dynamically?
9.
A network administrator is explaining to a junior colleague the use of the lt and gt
keywords when filtering packets using an extended ACL. Where would the lt or gt
keywords be used?
in an IPv6 extended ACL that stops packets going to one specific destination VLAN
in an IPv4 extended ACL that allows packets from a range of TCP ports destined for a
specific network device*
in an IPv4 named standard ACL that has specific UDP protocols that are allowed to be used
on a specific server
in an IPv6 named ACL that permits FTP traffic from one particular LAN getting to another
LAN
10
Refer to the exhibit. How did the router obtain the last route that is shown?
The ip address interface configuration mode command was used in addition to the network
routing protocol configuration mode command.
The ipv6 route command was used.
the ip route command was used.
Another router in the same organization provided the default route by using a
dynamic routing protocol.*
11
Refer to the exhibit. A Layer 3 switch routes for three VLANs and connects to a
router for Internet connectivity. Which two configurations would be applied to the
switch? (Choose two.)
(config)# ip routing*
12.
A network contains multiple VLANs spanning multiple switches. What happens when
a device in VLAN 20 sends a broadcast Ethernet frame?
Only devices in VLAN 20 see the frame.*
Devices in VLAN 20 and the management VLAN see the frame.
Only devices that are connected to the local switch see the frame.
All devices in all VLANs see the frame.
13. Match the order in which the link-state routing process occurs on a router. (Not
all options are used.)
Step 1- Each router learns about its own directly connected networks.
Step 2- Each router is responsible for “saying hello” to its neighbors on directly
connected networks.
Step 3- Each router builds a Link-State Packet (LSP) containing the state of each
directly connected link
Step 4- Each router floods the LSP to all neighbors, who then store all LSPs received
in a database
Step 5- Each router uses the database to construct a complete map of the topology
and computes the best
14.
Which two packet filters could a network administrator use on an IPv4 extended
ACL? (Choose two.)
computer type
source TCP hello address
ICMP message type*
destination UDP port number *
destination MAC address
15
Refer to the exhibit. R1 was configured with the static route command ip route
209.165.200.224 255.255.255.224 S0/0/0 and consequently users on network
172.16.0.0/16 are unable to reach resources on the Internet. How should this static
route be changed to allow user traffic from the LAN to reach the Internet?
Add an administrative distance of 254.
Change the destination network and mask to 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0*
Change the exit interface to S0/0/1.
Add the next-hop neighbor address of 209.165.200.226.
16.
How is the router ID for an OSPFv3 router determined?
17.
Two employees in the Sales department work different shifts with their laptop
computers and share the same Ethernet port in the office. Which set of commands
would allow only these two laptops to use the Ethernet port and create violation log
entry without shutting down the port if a violation occurs?
speed of convergence*
scalability*
ISP selection
the autonomous system that is used
campus backbone architecture
19.
ultimate route
child route
default route
20.
What caused the following error message to appear?
An unauthorized user tried to telnet to the switch through switch port Fa0/8.
NAT was enabled on a router, and a private IP address arrived on switch port Fa0/8.
Port security was enabled on the switch port, and an unauthorized connection was
made on switch port Fa0/8.*
Another switch was connected to this switch port with the wrong cable.
A host with an invalid IP address was connected to a switch port that was previously
unused.
21.
Which two statements are characteristics of routed ports on a multilayer switch?
(Choose two.)
In a switched network, they are mostly configured between switches at the core and
distribution layers.*
They support subinterfaces, like interfaces on the Cisco IOS routers.
The interface vlan command has to be entered to create a VLAN on routed ports.
They are used for point-to-multipoint links.
They are not associated with a particular VLAN.*
22.
A network administrator is adding ACLs to a new IPv6 multirouter environment.
Which IPv6 ACE is automatically added implicitly at the end of an ACL so that two
adjacent routers can discover each other?
23. Match the switching characteristic to the correct term. (Not all options are used.)
24.
What does the cost of an OSPF link indicate?
A lower cost indicates a better path to the destination than a higher cost does.*
Cost equals bandwidth.
A higher cost for an OSPF link indicates a faster path to the destination.
Link cost indicates a proportion of the accumulated value of the route to the destination.
25
Refer to the exhibit. The Gigabit interfaces on both routers have been configured with
subinterface numbers that match the VLAN numbers connected to them. PCs on
VLAN 10 should be able to print to the P1 printer on VLAN 12. PCs on VLAN 20
should print to the printers on VLAN 22. What interface and in what direction should
you place a standard ACL that allows printing to P1 from data VLAN 10, but stops the
PCs on VLAN 20 from using the P1 printer? (Choose two.)
outbound*
R2 S0/0/1
R1 S0/0/0
inbound
R1 Gi0/1.12*
R2 Gi0/1.20
26.
On a switch that is configured with multiple VLANs, which command will remove only
VLAN 100 from the switch?
27.
A router needs to be configured to route within OSPF area 0. Which two commands
are required to accomplish this? (Choose two.)
28.
What is a function of the distribution layer?
interconnection of large-scale networks in wiring closets*
network access to the user
fault isolation
high-speed backbone connectivity
29.
A small-sized company has 20 workstations and 2 servers. The company has been
assigned a group of IPv4 addresses 209.165.200.224/29 from its ISP. What
technology should the company implement in order to allow the workstations to
access the services over the Internet?
static NAT
dynamic NAT*
port address translation
DHCP
30.
Which three requirements are necessary for two OSPFv2 routers to form an
adjacency? (Choose three.)
31.
Which three pieces of information does a link-state routing protocol use initially as
link-state information for locally connected links? (Choose three.)
32.
What is a disadvantage of NAT?
The internal hosts have to use a single public IPv4 address for external communication.
There is no end-to-end addressing.*
The costs of readdressing hosts can be significant for a publicly addressed network.
The router does not need to alter the checksum of the IPv4 packets.
33
Refer to the exhibit. The partial configuration that is shown was used to configure
router on a stick for VLANS 10, 30, and 50. However, testing shows that there are
some connectivity problems between the VLANs. Which configuration error is
causing this problem?
34
Refer to the exhibit. R1 has been configured as shown. However, PC1 is not able to
receive an IPv4 address. What is the problem?
35.
What best describes the operation of distance vector routing protocols?
36.
A network administrator is using the router-on-a-stick method to configure inter-
VLAN routing. Switch port Gi1/1 is used to connect to the router. Which command
should be entered to prepare this port for the task?
37.
Which three advantages are provided by static routing? (Choose three.)
38.
When configuring a switch to use SSH for virtual terminal connections, what is the
purpose of the crypto key generate rsa command?
40
The IPv6 DHCP pool configuration has no IPv6 address range specified.
The state is not maintained by the DHCPv6 server under stateless DHCPv6
operation.*
The default gateway address is not provided in the pool.
No clients have communicated with the DHCPv6 server yet.
41.
Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer
the question.
What is the problem preventing PC0 and PC1 from communicating with PC2 and
PC3?
42
Which command will create a static route on R2 in order to reach PC B?
43.
Which problem is evident if the show ip interface command shows that the interface
is down and the line protocol is down?
44.
Which three values or sets of values are included when creating an extended access
control list entry? (Choose three.)
45.
A network administrator is designing an ACL. The networks 192.168.1.0/25,
192.168.0.0/25, 192.168.0.128/25, 192.168.1.128/26, and 192.168.1.192/26 are affected
by the ACL. Which wildcard mask, if any, is the most efficient to use when specifying
all of these networks in a single ACL permit entry?
0.0.0.127
0.0.0.255
0.0.1.255*
0.0.255.255
A single ACL command and wildcard mask should not be used to specify these particular
networks or other traffic will be permitted or denied and present a security risk.
46.
Which kind of message is sent by a DHCP client when its IP address lease has
expired?
47.
What happens immediately after two OSPF routers have exchanged hello packets
and have formed a neighbor adjacency?
48.
What benefit does NAT64 provide?
It allows sites to use private IPv4 addresses, and thus hides the internal addressing
structure from hosts on public IPv4 networks.
It allows sites to connect multiple IPv4 hosts to the Internet via the use of a single public
IPv4 address.
It allows sites to connect IPv6 hosts to an IPv4 network by translating the IPv6
addresses to IPv4 addresses.*
It allows sites to use private IPv6 addresses and translates them to global IPv6 addresses.
49.
What is the purpose of setting the native VLAN separate from data VLANs?
The native VLAN is for routers and switches to exchange their management information, so
it should be different from data VLANs.
A separate VLAN should be used to carry uncommon untagged frames to avoid
bandwidth contention on data VLANs.*
The native VLAN is for carrying VLAN management traffic only.
The security of management frames that are carried in the native VLAN can be enhanced
50.
Which command, when issued in the interface configuration mode of a router,
enables the interface to acquire an IPv4 address automatically from an ISP, when that
link to the ISP is enabled?
ip helper-address
ip address dhcp*
ip dhcp pool
service dhcp
51.
Which statement is correct about IPv6 routing?
52.
A router has used the OSPF protocol to learn a route to the 172.16.32.0/19 network.
Which command will implement a backup floating static route to this network?
53
Refer to the exhibit. How many broadcast and collision domains exist in the
topology?
54.
Which two commands can be used to verify the content and placement of access
control lists? (Choose two.)
show processes
show cdp neighbor
show access-lists*
show ip route
show running-config*
55.
Which type of traffic would most likely have problems when passing through a NAT
device?
IPsec*
DNS
Telnet
HTTP
ICMP
56.
Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer
the question.
NAT works!
Goodjob!
Welldone!*
NAT configured!
57
192.168.0.0/24
192.168.0.0/23
192.168.0.0/22*
192.168.0.0/21
58
NEW QUESTIONS
59. A network technician has been asked to secure all switches in the campus
network. The security requirements are for each switch to automatically learn and
add MAC addresses to both the address table and the running configuration. Which
port security configuration will meet these requirements?
===============================================
60. Which three pairs of trunking modes will establish a functional trunk link between
two Cisco switches? (Choose three.)
access – trunk
===============================================
===============================================
62. Which value represents the “trustworthiness” of a route and is used to determine
which route to install into the routing table when there are multiple routes toward the
same destination?
routing protocol
outgoing interface
metric
administrative distance*
===============================================
63. Which type of router memory temporarily stores the running configuration file
and ARP table?
flash
NVRAM
RAM*
ROM
===============================================
===============================================
Static routes are configured by the use of the global configuration command.
ANS: ip route
===============================================
66. Refer to the exhibit. If the switch reboots and all routers have to re-establish
OSPF adjacencies, which routers will become the new DR and BDR?
Router R3 will become the DR and router R1 will become the BDR.
Router R1 will become the DR and router R2 will become the BDR.
Router R4 will become the DR and router R3 will become the BDR.*
Router R1 will become the DR and router R2 will become the BDR.
===============================================
67. What is the purpose of an access list that is created as part of configuring IP
address translation?
The access list permits or denies specific addresses from entering the device doing the
translation.
The access list defines the private IP addresses that are to be translated.*
The access list prevents external devices from being a part of the address translation.
The access list defines the valid public addresses for the NAT or PAT pool.
===============================================
68. The computers used by the network administrators for a school are on the
10.7.0.0/27 network. Which two commands are needed at a minimum to apply an ACL
that will ensure that only devices that are used by the network administrators will be
allowed Telnet access to the routers? (Choose two.)
-ip access-group 5 in
-access-class 5 in*
===============================================
69. While analyzing log files, a network administrator notices reoccurring native
VLAN mismatches. What is the effect of these reoccurring errors?
The control and management traffic on the error-occurring trunk port is being
misdirected or dropped.*
All traffic on the error-occurring trunk port is being switched correctly regardless of the error.
===============================================
70. Which two characteristics describe the native VLAN? (Choose two.)
Designed to carry traffic that is generated by users, this type of VLAN is also known as the
default VLAN.
The native VLAN traffic will be untagged across the trunk link.*
High priority traffic, such as voice traffic, uses the native VLAN.
===============================================
71. Refer to the exhibit. The Branch Router has an OSPF neighbor relationship with
the HQ router over the 198.51.0.4/30 network. The 198.51.0.8/30 network link should
serve as a backup when the OSPF link goes down. The floating static route command
ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 S0/1/1 100 was issued on Branch and now traffic is using the
backup link even when the OSPF link is up and functioning. Which change should be
made to the static route command so that traffic will only use the OSPF link when it
is up?
Add the next hop neighbor address of 198.51.0.8.
Change the administrative distance to 1.
Change the destination network to 198.51.0.5.
Change the administrative distance to 120.*
===============================================
72. Refer to the exhibit. An attacker on PC X sends a frame with two 802.1Q tags on
it, one for VLAN 40 and another for VLAN 12. What will happen to this frame?
SW-A will drop the frame because it is invalid.
SW-A will leave both tags on the frame and send it to SW-B, which will forward it to hosts
on VLAN 40.
SW-A will remove both tags and forward the rest of the frame across the trunk link,
where SW-B will forward the frame to hosts on VLAN 40.*
SW-A will remove the outer tag and send the rest of the frame across the trunk link, where
SW-B will forward the frame to hosts on VLAN 12.
===============================================
73. Which statement is true about the difference between OSPFv2 and OSPFv3?
OSPFv3 routers use a different metric than OSPFv2 routers use.
OSPFv3 routers do not need to elect a DR on multiaccess segments.
OSPFv3 routers do not need to have matching subnets to form neighbor
adjacencies.*
OSPFv3 routers use a 128 bit router ID instead of a 32 bit ID.
===============================================
74. What are two ways of turning off DTP on a trunk link between switches? (Choose
two.)
Change the native VLAN on both ports.
Configure attached switch ports with the nonegotiate command option.*
Configure attached switch ports with the dynamic desirable command option.
Configure one port with the dynamic auto command option and the opposite attached
switch port with the dynamic desirable command option.
Place the two attached switch ports in access mode.*
===============================================
75. Why would an administrator use a network security auditing tool to flood the
switch MAC address table with fictitious MAC addresses?
to determine if the switch is forwarding the broadcast traffic correctly
to determine which ports are functioning
to determine which ports are not correctly configured to prevent MAC address
flooding*
to determine when the CAM table size needs to be increased in order to prevent overflows
===============================================
76. A new network policy requires an ACL to deny HTTP access from all guests to a
web server at the main office. All guests use addressing from the IPv6 subnet
2001:DB8:19:C::/64. The web server is configured with the address
2001:DB8:19:A::105/64. Implementing the NoWeb ACL on the interface for the guest
LAN requires which three commands? (Choose three.)
permit tcp any host 2001:DB8:19:A::105 eq 80
deny tcp host 2001:DB8:19:A::105 any eq 80
deny tcp any host 2001:DB8:19:A::105 eq 80*
permit ipv6 any any*
deny ipv6 any any
ipv6 traffic-filter NoWeb in
ip access-group NoWeb in
===============================================
===============================================
78.
child route
level 1 parent route*
default route
ultimate route
===============================================
79.
Refer to the exhibit. Which type of IPv6 static route is configured in the exhibit?
fully specified static route
recursive static route*
directly attached static route
floating static route
===============================================
80. Which subnet mask would be used as the classful mask for the IP address
192.135.250.27?
255.0.0.0
255.255.0.0
255.255.255.0*
255.255.255.224
===============================================
81. Which subnet mask would be used as the classful mask for the IP address
128.107.52.27?
255.0.0.0
255.255.0.0*
255.255.255.0
255.255.255.224
===============================================
82. Refer to the exhibit. A small business uses VLANs 8, 20, 25, and 30 on two
switches that have a trunk link between them. What native VLAN should be used on
the trunk if Cisco best practices are being implemented?
1
5*
8
20
25
30
======================
83. The buffers for packet processing and the running configuration file are
temporarily stored in which type of router memory?
Flash
NVRAM
RAM*
ROM
======================
off
restrict
protect*
shutdown
======================
85. A standard ACL has been configured on a router to allow only clients from the
10.11.110.0/24 network to telnet or to ssh to the VTY lines of the router. Which
command will correctly apply this ACL?
access-group 11 in*
access-class 11 in
access-list 11 in
access-list 110 in
======================
86. Refer to the exhibit.
What address will summarize the LANs attached to routers 2-A and 3-A and can be
configured in a summary static route to advertise them to an upstream neighbor?
10.0.0.0/24
10.0.0.0/23
10.0.0.0/22
10.0.0.0/21*
======================
87. A security specialist designs an ACL to deny access to a web server from all
sales staff. The sales staff are assigned addressing from the IPv6 subnet
2001:db8:48:2c::/64. The web server is assigned the address 2001:db8:48:1c::50/64.
Configuring the WebFilter ACL on the LAN interface for the sales staff will require
which three commands? (Choose three.)
ip access-group WebFilter in
======================
88. To enable RIP routing for a specific subnet, the configuration command network
192.168.5.64 was entered by the network administrator. What address, if any, appears
in the running configuration file to identify this network?
192.168.5.64
192.168.5.0*
192.168.0.0
No address is displayed.
======================
89. Refer to the exhibit. An ACL preventing FTP and HTTP access to the interval web
server from all teaching assistants has been implemented in the Board Office. The
address of the web server is 172.20.1.100 and all teaching assistants are assigned
addresses in the 172.21.1.0/24 network. After implement the ACL, access to all
servers is denied. What is the problem?
===================
90. Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that the routing tables are up to date and no ARP
messages are needed, after a packet leaves H1, how many times is the L2 header
rewritten in the path to H2?
1
2*
3
4
5
6
===================
91. A router learns of multiple toward the same destination. Which value in a routing
table represents the trustworthiness of learned routes and is used by the router to
determine which route to install into the routing table for specific situation?
Metric*
Colour
Meter
Bread
===================
92. What is the minimum configuration for a router interface that is participating in
IPv6 routing?
Ipv6
OSPF
Link-access
To have only a link-local IPv6 address*
Protocol
===================
93. Which two statements are true about half-duplex and full-duplex
communications? (Choose two.)
===================
===================
95. Which two commands should be implemented to return a Cisco 3560 trunk port to
its default configuration? (Choose two.)
===================
97. What is the effect of issuing the passive-interface default command on a router
that is configured for OSPF?
Routers that share a link and use the same routing protocol
It prevents OSPF messages from being sent out any OSPF-enabled interface.*
All of above
Routers that share a link and use the same routing protocol
===================
===================
99. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has just configured address
translation and is verifying the configuration. What three things can the administrator
verify? (Choose three.)
===================
101. Which two methods can be used to provide secure management access to a
Cisco switch? (Choose two.)
===================
102.
103.
Refer to the exhibit. If RIPng is enabled, how many hops away does R1 consider the
2001:0DB8:ACAD:1::/64 network to be?
3*
104.
Refer to the exhibit. Host A has sent a packet to host B. What will be the source MAC
and IP addresses on the packet when it arrives at host B?
105. Which network design may be recommended for a small campus site that
consists of a single building with a few users?
a network design where the access and distribution layers are collapsed into a single layer
a network design where the access and core layers are collapsed into a single layer
a three-tier campus network design where the access, distribution, and core are all
separate layers, each one with very specific functions
106. Refer to the exhibit. A small business uses VLANs 2, 3, 4, and 5 between two
switches that have a trunk link between them. What native VLAN should be used on
the trunk if Cisco best practices are being implemented?
5*
6
11
107. A router learns of multiple routes toward the same destination. Which value in a
routing table represents the trustworthiness of learned routes and is used by the
router to determine which route to install into the routing table for this specific
situation?
routing protocol
outgoing interface
metric
administrative distance*
108. Which value in a routing table represents trustworthiness and is used by the
router to determine which route to install into the routing table when there are
multiple routes toward the same destination?
administrative distance*
metric
outgoing interface
routing protocol
0.0.0.31
0.0.0.255
0.0.0.127*
0.0.0.63
110. Which three addresses could be used as the destination address for OSPFv3
messages? (Choose three.)
FF02::5*
FF02::6*
FF02::A
2001:db8:cafe::1
FF02::1:2
FE80::1*
111. Refer to the exhibit. What is the OSPF cost to reach the West LAN 172.16.2.0/24
from East?
65*
112. Refer to the exhibit. What is the OSPF cost to reach the R2 LAN 172.16.2.0/24
from R1?
782
74
128
65
off
restrict
protect
shutdown
172.16.20.2
172.16.26.254
172.16.47.254*
172.16.48.5
115. What are two reasons that will prevent two routers from forming an OSPFv2
adjacency? (Choose two.)
one router connecting to a FastEthernet port on the switch and the other connecting to a
GigabitEthernet port
116. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator needs as many switch ports as
possible for end devices and the business is using the most common type of inter-
VLAN method. What type of inter-VLAN interconnectivity is best to use between the
switch and the router if R1 routes for all VLANs?
one link between the switch and the router with the router using three router subinterfaces
one link between the switch and the router with the one switch port being configured in
access mode
three links between the switch and the router with the three switch ports being configured in
access mode
two links between the switch and the router with the two switch ports being configured in
access mode
117. A part of the new security policy, all switches on the network are configured to
automatically learn MAC addresses for each port. All running configurations are
saved at the start and close of every business day. A severe thunderstorm causes an
extended power outage several hours after the close of business. When the switches
are brought back online, the dynamically learned MAC addresses are retained. Which
port security configuration enabled this?
118. Refer to the exhibit. An ACL preventing FTP and HTTP access to the internal
web server from all teaching assistants has been implemented in the Board office.
The address of the web server is 172.20.1.100 and all teaching assistants are
assigned addresses in the 172.21.1.0/24 network. After implementing the ACL,
access to all servers is denied. What is the problem?
119. Refer to the exhibit. A new network policy requires an ACL denying FTP and
Telnet access to a Corp file server from all interns. The address of the file server is
172.16.1.15 and all interns are assigned addresses in the 172.18.200.0/24 network.
After implementing the ACL, no one in the Corp network can access any of the
servers. What is the problem?
120. A company security policy requires that all MAC addressing be dynamically
learned and added to both the MAC address table and the running configuration on
each switch. Which port security configuration will accomplish this?
auto secure MAC addresses
121. Router R1 routes traffic to the 10.10.0.0/16 network using an EIGRP learned
route from Branch2. The administrator would like to install a floating static route to
create a backup route to the 10.10.0.0/16 network in the event that the link between
R1 and Branch2 goes down. Which static route meets this goal?
122. Which highlighted value represents a specific destination network in the routing
table?
172.16.100.64***
management
user-generated
un tagged
tagged
124. Which two statements are correct if a configured NTP master on a network
cannot reach any clock with a lower stratum number?
The NTP master will claim to be synchronized at the configured stratum number.*
An NTP server with a higher stratum number will become the master.
Other systems will be willing to synchronize to that master using NTP.*
The NTP master will be the clock with 1 as its stratum number.
The NTP master will lower its stratum number.
125. A network engineer has created a standard ACL to control SSH access to a
router. Which command will apply the ACL to the VTY lines?
access-group 11 in
access-class 11 in*
access-list 11 in
access-list 110 in
vty lines
VTP domain
loopback address*
default gateway
default VLAN*
IP address*
10.0.0.31
172.16.12.5
172.16.12.33
192.168.1.10
172.16.25.35*
1. Which type of traffic is designed for a native VLAN?
management
user-generated
un tagged
tagged*
An NTP server with a higher stratum number will become the master.
The NTP master will be the clock with 1 as its stratum number.
access-class 11 in*
access-list 11 in
access-list 110 in
VTP domain
loopback address*
default gateway
default VLAN*
IP address*
5. A network administrator configures a router to provide stateful
DHCPv6 operation. However, users report that workstations do not
receive IPv6 addresses within the scope. Which configuration
command should be checked to ensure that statefull DHCPv6 is
implemented?
The dns-server line is included in the ipv6 dhcp pool section.*
The ipv6 nd managed-config-flag is entered for the interface facing the LAN segment.
The ipv6 nd other-config-flag is entered for the interface facing the LAN segment.
A company has an internal network of 172.16.25.0/24 for their employee workstations and a
DMZ network of 172.16.12.0/24 to host servers. The company uses NAT when inside hosts
connect to outside network. A network administrator issues the show ip nat translations
command to check the NAT configurations. Which one of source IPv4 addresses is
translated by R1 with PAT?
10.0.0.31
172.16.12.5
172.16.12.33
192.168.1.10
172.16.25.35*
8. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring a
router as a DHCPv6 server. The administrator issues a show ipv6
dhcp pool command to verify the configuration. Which statement
explains the reason that the number of active clients is 0?
The IPv6 DHCP pool configuration has no IPv6 address range specified.
The state is not maintained by the DHCPv6 server under stateless DHCPv6
operation.*
ip address dhcp*
service dhcp
ip helper-address
A DHCP server must be installed on the same LAN as the host that is receiving the IP
address.
The ip address dhcp command was not issued on the interface Gi0/1.
The router does not need to alter the checksum of the IPv4 packets.
The internal hosts have to use a single public IPv4 address for external communication.
The costs of readdressing hosts can be significant for a publicly addressed network.
14. Which type of traffic would most likely have problems when
passing through a NAT device?
Telnet
IPsec*
HTTP
ICMP
DNS
It allows sites to connect multiple IPv4 hosts to the Internet via the use of a single public
IPv4 address.
It allows sites to connect IPv6 hosts to an IPv4 network by translating the IPv6
addresses to IPv4 addresses.*
It allows sites to use private IPv4 addresses, and thus hides the internal addressing
structure from hosts on public IPv4 networks.
16. Refer to the exhibit. The Gigabit interfaces on both routers have
been configured with subinterface numbers that match the VLAN
numbers connected to them. PCs on VLAN 10 should be able to
print to the P1 printer on VLAN 12. PCs on VLAN 20 should print to
the printers on VLAN 22. What interface and in what direction
should you place a standard ACL that allows printing to P1 from
data VLAN 10, but stops the PCs on VLAN 20 from using the P1
printer? (Choose two.)
R1 Gi0/1.12*
R1 S0/0/0
R2 S0/0/1
R2 Gi0/1.20
inbound
outbound*
computer type
in an IPv4 named standard ACL that has specific UDP protocols that are allowed to be used
on a specific server
in an IPv6 named ACL that permits FTP traffic from one particular LAN getting to another
LAN
in an IPv4 extended ACL that allows packets from a range of TCP ports destined for a
specific network device*
19. Which three values or sets of values are included when creating
an extended access control list entry? (Choose three.)
access list number between 1 and 99
0.0.0.255
0.0.1.255*
0.0.255.255
A single ACL command and wildcard mask should not be used to specify these particular
networks or other traffic will be permitted or denied and present a security risk.
ip access-group 5 out
ip access-group 5 in
Another router in the same organization provided the default route by using a
dynamic routing protocol.*
The ip address interface configuration mode command was used in addition to the network
routing protocol configuration mode command.
IPv6 uses the link-local address of neighbors as the next-hop address for dynamic
routes.*
child route
ultimate route
default route
ISP selection
speed of convergence*
28. Refer to the exhibit. Which type of IPv6 static route is configured
in the exhibit?
29. A router has used the OSPF protocol to learn a route to the
172.16.32.0/19 network. Which command will implement a backup
floating static route to this network?
ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.240.0 S0/0/0 200
31. Refer to the exhibit. If RIPng is enabled, how many hops away
does R1 consider the 2001:0DB8:ACAD:1::/64 network to be?
3*
A lower cost indicates a better path to the destination than a higher cost does.*
The OSPFv2 process is enabled on the interface by entering the ospf process area-id
command.
The link interface on each router must be configured with a link-local address.
Routers create a topology of the network by using information from other routers.*
The database information for each router is obtained from the same source.
Paths are chosen based on the lowest number of hops to the designated router.
to determine when the CAM table size needs to be increased in order to prevent overflows
Another switch was connected to this switch port with the wrong cable.
An unauthorized user tried to telnet to the switch through switch port Fa0/8.
NAT was enabled on a router, and a private IP address arrived on switch port Fa0/8.
A host with an invalid IP address was connected to a switch port that was previously
unused.
Port security was enabled on the switch port, and an unauthorized connection was
made on switch port Fa0/8.*
The control and management traffic on the error-occurring trunk port is being
misdirected or dropped.*
All traffic on the error-occurring trunk port is being switched correctly regardless of the error.
access – trunk
45. What are two ways of turning off DTP on a trunk link between
switches? (Choose two.)
Change the native VLAN on both ports.
Configure attached switch ports with the dynamic desirable command option.
Configure one port with the dynamic auto command option and the opposite attached
switch port with the dynamic desirable command option.
The native VLAN traffic will be untagged across the trunk link.*
High priority traffic, such as voice traffic, uses the native VLAN.
49. What is the purpose of setting the native VLAN separate from
data VLANs?
The native VLAN is for carrying VLAN management traffic only.
The security of management frames that are carried in the native VLAN can be enhanced.
The native VLAN is for routers and switches to exchange their management information, so
it should be different from data VLANs.
51. Refer to the exhibit. The partial configuration that is shown was
used to configure router on a stick for VLANS 10, 30, and 50.
However, testing shows that there are some connectivity problems
between the VLANs. Which configuration error is causing this
problem?
The access list defines the private IP addresses that are to be translated.*
The access list prevents external devices from being a part of the address translation.
The access list permits or denies specific addresses from entering the device doing the
translation.
53. Which command will create a static route on R2 in order to
reach PC B?
Step 1 – Each router learns about its own directly connected networks.
Step 2 – Each router is responsible for “saying hello” to its neighbors on directly
connected networks.
Step 3 – Each router builds a Link-State Packet (LSP) containing the state of each
directly connected link
Step 4 – Each router floods the LSP to all neighbors, who then store all LSPs
received in a database
Step 5 – Each router uses the database to construct a complete map of the topology
and computes the best
the source and destination MAC addresses and the incoming port
the source and destination MAC addresses and the outgoing port
the source MAC address and the incoming port*
56. Refer to the exhibit. How many broadcast and collision domains
exist in the topology?
58. Which switching method drops frames that fail the FCS check?
borderless switching
cut-through switching
ingress port buffering
store-and-forward switching*
59. Fill in the blank. In IPv6, all routes are level __1__ ultimate routes.
60. Fill in the blank.Static routes are configured by the use of the __ip route__ global
configuration command.
61. Fill in the blank. The OSPF Type 1 packet is the __Hello__ packet.
62. Fill in the blank.The default administrative distance for a static route is __1__ .
64. Refer to the exhibit. A Layer 3 switch routes for three VLANs and connects to a
router for Internet connectivity. Which two configurations would be applied to the
switch? (Choose two.)
65. Refer to the exhibit. R1 was configured with the static route command ip route
209.165.200.224 255.255.255.224 S0/0/0 and consequently users on network
172.16.0.0/16 are unable to reach resources on the Internet. How should this static
route be changed to allow user traffic from the LAN to reach the Internet?
DHCP
74. Which two commands can be used to verify the content and
placement of access control lists? (Choose two.)
show processes show cdp neighbor
show access-lists*
show ip route
show running-config*
192.168.0.0/24
192.168.0.0/23
192.168.0.0/22*
192.168.0.0/21
76. A network technician has been asked to secure all switches in
the campus network. The security requirements are for each switch
to automatically learn and add MAC addresses to both the address
table and the running configuration. Which port security
configuration will meet these requirements?
auto secure MAC addresses
dynamic secure MAC addresses
static secure MAC addresses
sticky secure MAC addresses*
79. Refer to the exhibit. If the switch reboots and all routers have to
re-establish OSPF adjacencies, which routers will become the new
DR and BDR?
Router R3 will become the DR and router R1 will become the BDR.
Router R1 will become the DR and router R2 will become the BDR.
Router R4 will become the DR and router R3 will become the BDR.*
Router R1 will become the DR and router R2 will become the BDR.
80. Refer to the exhibit. The Branch Router has an OSPF neighbor
relationship with the HQ router over the 198.51.0.4/30 network. The
198.51.0.8/30 network link should serve as a backup when the
OSPF link goes down. The floating static route command ip route
0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 S0/1/1 100 was issued on Branch and now traffic is
using the backup link even when the OSPF link is up and
functioning. Which change should be made to the static route
command so that traffic will only use the OSPF link when it is up?
Add the next hop neighbor address of 198.51.0.8.
Change the administrative distance to 1.
Change the destination network to 198.51.0.5.
Change the administrative distance to 120.*
84. Which subnet mask would be used as the classful mask for the
IP address 192.135.250.27?
255.0.0.0
255.255.0.0
255.255.255.0*
255.255.255.224
85. Refer to the exhibit. A small business uses VLANs 8, 20, 25, and 30 on two
switches that have a trunk link between them. What native VLAN should be used on
the trunk if Cisco best practices are being implemented?
1
5*
8
20
25
30
86. The buffers for packet processing and the running configuration
file are temporarily stored in which type of router memory?
Flash
NVRAM
RAM*
ROM
ip access-group WebFilter in
92. Refer to the exhibit. An ACL preventing FTP and HTTP access
to the interval web server from all teaching assistants has been
implemented in the Board Office. The address of the web server is
172.20.1.100 and all teaching assistants are assigned addresses in
the 172.21.1.0/24 network. After implement the ACL, access to all
servers is denied. What is the problem?
inbound ACLs must be routed before they are processed
the ACL is implicitly denying access to all the servers
named ACLs requite the use of port numbers*
the ACL is applied to the interface using the wrong direction
93. Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that the routing tables are up to
date and no ARP messages are needed, after a packet leaves H1,
how many times is the L2 header rewritten in the path to H2?
1
2*
3
4
5
6
96. Which two statements are true about half-duplex and full-duplex
communications? (Choose two.)
Full duplex offers 100 percent potential use of the bandwidth.*
Half duplex has only one channel.
All modern NICs support both half-duplex and full-duplex communication.
Full duplex allows both ends to transmit and receive simultaneously.*
97. Fill in the blank.The acronym describes the type of traffic that
has strict QoS requirements and utilizes a one-way overall delay
less than 150 ms across the network.
__VoIP__
98. Which two commands should be implemented to return a Cisco
3560 trunk port to its default configuration? (Choose two.)
S1(config-if)# no switchport trunk allowed vlan*
S1(config-if)# no switchport trunk native vlan*
S1(config-if)# switchport mode dynamic desirable
S1(config-if)# switchport mode access
S1(config-if)# switchport access vlan 1
103. Match the router memory type that provides the primary
storage for the router feature. (Not all options are used.)
console access –> Not Scored
full operating system –> flash
limited operating system –> ROM
routing table –> RAM
startup configuration file –> NVRAM
0.0.0.0
10.16.100.128*
10.16.100.2
110
791
106. Refer to the exhibit. Host A has sent a packet to host B.
What will be the source MAC and IP addresses on the packet
when it arrives at host B?
113. Refer to the exhibit. What is the OSPF cost to reach the West
LAN 172.16.2.0/24 from East?
65*
114. Refer to the exhibit. What is the OSPF cost to reach the R2
LAN 172.16.2.0/24 from R1?
782
74*
128
65
115. A network administrator is configuring port security on a Cisco
switch. The company security policy specifies that when a violation
occurs, packets with unknown source addresses should be dropped
and no notification should be sent. Which violation mode should be
configured on the interfaces?
off
restrict
protect
shutdown
117. What are two reasons that will prevent two routers from
forming an OSPFv2 adjacency? (Choose two.)
mismatched subnet masks on the link interfaces*
a mismatched Cisco IOS version that is
used use of private IP addresses on the link interfaces
one router connecting to a FastEthernet port on the switch and the other connecting to a
GigabitEthernet port
mismatched OSPF Hello or Dead timers*
120. Refer to the exhibit. An ACL preventing FTP and HTTP access
to the internal web server from all teaching assistants has been
implemented in the Board office. The address of the web server is
172.20.1.100 and all teaching assistants are assigned addresses in
the 172.21.1.0/24 network. After implementing the ACL, access to
all servers is denied. What is the problem?
Inbound ACLs must be routed before they are processed.
The ACL is implicitly denying access to all the servers.
Named ACLs require the use of port numbers.
The ACL is applied to the interface using the wrong direction.
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is attempting to upgrade the IOS system
image on a Cisco 2901 router. After the new image has been downloaded and copied
to the TFTP server, what command should be issued on the router before the IOS
system image is upgraded on the router?
ping 10.10.10.1
dir flash:
ping 10.10.10.2*
copy tftp: flash0:
2.
The ” backbone ” area interconnects with all other OSPF area types.
3
Which address is used by an IPv6 EIGRP router as the source for hello messages?
4
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator issues the show ipv6 eigrp neighbors
command. Which conclusion can be drawn based on the output?
Refer to the exhibit. Which two conclusions can be derived from the output? (Choose
two.)
6
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator attempts to configure EIGRP for IPv6 on a
router and receives the error message that is shown. Which command must be
issued by the administrator before EIGRP for IPv6 can be configured?
7
What two conditions have to be met in order to form a cluster that includes 5 access
points? (Choose two.)
8
Which technological factor determines the impact of a failure domain?
9
Which mode configuration setting would allow formation of an EtherChannel link
between switches SW1 and SW2 without sending negotiation traffic?
SW1: desirable
SW2: desirable
SW1: passive
SW2: active
SW1: on
SW2: on*
SW1: auto
SW2: auto
trunking enabled on both switches
SW1: auto
SW2: auto
PortFast enabled on both switches
10
In a large enterprise network, which two functions are performed by routers at the
distribution layer? (Choose two.)
11
A network engineer is implementing security on all company routers. Which two
commands must be issued to force authentication via the password 1C34dE for all
OSPF-enabled interfaces in the backbone area of the company network? (Choose
two.)
12
When does an OSPF router become an ABR?
13
Which characteristic would most influence a network design engineer to select a
multilayer switch over a Layer 2 switch?
ability to have multiple forwarding paths through the switched network based on VLAN
number(s)
ability to aggregate multiple ports for maximum data throughput
ability to build a routing table*
ability to provide power to directly-attached devices and the switch itself
14
A network designer is considering whether to implement a switch block on the
company network. What is the primary advantage of deploying a switch block?
15
16
What are two differences between the Cisco IOS 12 and IOS 15 versions? (Choose
two.)
Every Cisco ISR G2 platform router includes a universal image in the IOS 12 versions, but
not the IOS 15 versions.
The IOS version 15 license key is unique to each device, whereas the IOS version 12
license key is not device specific.*
The IOS 12 version has two trains that occur simultaneously, whereas the IOS 15 version
still has two trains, but the versions occur in a single sequential order.
The IOS 12 version has commands that are not available in the 15 version.
IOS version 12.4(20)T1 is a mainline release, whereas IOS version 15.1(1)T1 is a new
feature release.*
17
Refer to the exhibit. What are two results of issuing the displayed commands on S1,
S2, and S3? (Choose two.)
18
A remote classroom can successfully access video-intensive streaming lectures via
wired computers. However, when an 802.11n wireless access point is installed and
used with 25 wireless laptops to access the same lectures, poor audio and video
quality is experienced. Which wireless solution would improve the performance for
the laptops?
20
When should EIGRP automatic summarization be turned off?
21
When will a router that is running EIGRP put a destination network in the active
state?
22
Which action should be taken when planning for redundancy on a hierarchical
network design?
23
Fill in the blank. Use the acronym.
Which encryption protocol is used by the WPA2 shared key authentication technique?
” AES ”
24
Refer to the exhibit. When the show ip ospf neighbor command is given from the R1#
prompt, no output is shown. However, when the show ip interface brief command is
given, all interfaces are showing up and up. What is the most likely problem?
R1 has not sent a default route down to R2 by using the default-information originate
command.
R2 has not brought the S0/0/1 interface up yet.
R1 or R2 does not have a network statement for the 172.16.100.0 network.*
The ISP has not configured a static route for the ABC Company yet.
R1 or R2 does not have a loopback interface that is configured yet.
25
26
The local router has formed complete neighbor adjacencies, but must be in a 2WAY state
for the router databases to be fully synchronized.
The neighbor IDs are incorrect. The interfaces must use only IPv6 addresses to ensure fully
synchronized routing databases.
The dead time must be higher than 30 for all routers to form neighbor adjacencies.
There is a problem with the OSPFv3 adjacency between the local router and the
router that is using the neighbor ID 2.2.2.2.*
27
Refer to the exhibit. Which two conclusions can be drawn from the output? (Choose
two.)
28
Refer to the exhibit. Based on the command output shown, what is the status of the
EtherChannel?
The EtherChannel is dynamic and is using ports Fa0/10 and Fa0/11 as passive ports.
The EtherChannel is in use and functional as indicated by the SU and P flags in the
command output.*
The EtherChannel is down as evidenced by the protocol field being empty.
The EtherChannel is partially functional as indicated by the P flags for the FastEthernet
ports.
29
A network engineer is configuring a LAN with a redundant first hop to make better
use of the available network resources. Which protocol should the engineer
implement?
FHRP
VRRP
GLBP*
HSRP
30
Users on an IEEE 801.11n network are complaining of slow speeds. The network
administrator checks the AP and verifies it is operating properly. What can be done
to improve the wireless performance in the network?
Split the wireless traffic between the 802.11n 2.4 GHz band and the 5 GHz band.*
Set the AP to mixed mode.
Change the authentication method on the AP.
Switch to an 802.11g AP.
31
A network administrator is troubleshooting slow performance in a Layer 2 switched
network. Upon examining the IP header, the administrator notices that the TTL value
is not decreasing. Why is the TTL value not decreasing?
32
What is a wireless modulation technique used by 802.11 WLAN standards that can
implement MIMO?
FHSS
OFDM*
BSS
DSSS
33
Which technology is an open protocol standard that allows switches to automatically
bundle physical ports into a single logical link?
Multilink PPP
PAgP
DTP
LACP*
34
A set of switches is being connected in a LAN topology. Which STP bridge priority
value will make it least likely for the switch to be selected as the root?
32768
4096
65535
61440*
35
Which wireless network topology is being configured by a technician who is
installing a keyboard, a mouse, and headphones, each of which uses Bluetooth?
ad hoc mode*
hotspot
mixed mode
infrastructure mode
36
Refer to the exhibit. Which route or routes will be advertised to the router ISP if
autosummarization is enabled?
10.0.0.0/8*
10.1.0.0/16
10.1.0.0/28
10.1.1.0/24
10.1.2.0/24
10.1.3.0/24
10.1.4.0/28
37
When are EIGRP update packets sent?
38
Which requirement should be checked before a network administrator performs an
IOS image upgrade on a router?
39
What method of wireless authentication is dependent on a RADIUS authentication
server?
WPA Personal
WEP
WPA2 Enterprise*
WPA2 Personal
40
A network administrator wants to verify the default delay values for the interfaces on
an EIGRP-enabled router. Which command will display these values?
show running-config
show interfaces*
show ip protocols
show ip route
41
A network administrator in a branch office is configuring EIGRP authentication
between the branch office router and the headquarters office router. Which security
credential is needed for the authentication process?
a randomly generated key with the crypto key generate rsa command
a common key configured with the key-string command inside a key chain*
the username and password configured on the headquarters office router
the hostname of the headquarters office router and a common password
42
Refer to the exhibit. Interface FastEthernet 0/1 on S1 is connected to Interface
FastEthernet 0/1 on S2, and Interface FastEthernet 0/2 on S1 is connected to
Interface FastEthernet 0/2 on S2. What are two errors in the present EtherChannel
configurations? (Choose two.)
43
Which port role is assigned to the switch port that has the lowest cost to reach the
root bridge?
disabled port
root port*
designated port
non-designated port
44
What are two features of OSPF interarea route summarization? (Choose two.)
45
Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer
the question.
46
The metric that will be installed in the routing table for the 10.0.0.0 route will be 65 (64+1).
Interface Fa0/1 is not participating in the OSPF process.
R1 is the distribution point for the routers that are attached to the 10.0.0.4 network.*
R1 is participating in multiarea OSPF.*
The OSPF process number that is being used is 0.
47. Match the CLI command prompt with the command or response entered when
backing up a Release 15 IOS image to an IPv6 TFTP server. (Not all options are used.)
48
A network administrator has configured an EtherChannel between two switches that
are connected via four trunk links. If the physical interface for one of the trunk links
changes to a down state, what happens to the EtherChannel?
49.
Refer to the exhibit. Which destination MAC address is used when frames are sent
from the workstation to the default gateway?
50
Refer to the exhibit. A company has migrated from single area OSPF to multiarea.
However, none of the users from network 192.168.1.0/24 in the new area can be
reached by anyone in the Branch1 office. From the output in the exhibit, what is the
problem?
There are no interarea routes in the routing table for network 192.168.1.0.*
The OSPF routing process is inactive.
The router has not established any adjacencies with other OSPF routers.
The link to the new area is down.
51
What are two requirements when using out-of-band configuration of a Cisco IOS
network device? (Choose two.)
52
For troubleshooting missing EIGRP routes on a router, what three types of
information can be collected using the show ip protocols command? (Choose three.)
53
What are two requirements to be able to configure an EtherChannel between two
switches? (Choose two.)
54. Match each OSPF LSA description with its type. (Not all options are used.)
This type of LSA exists in multi-access & non-broadcast multi-access networks
w/DR => TYPE 2 LSA
This type of LSA describes routes to networks outside of the OSPF AS => TYPE 5
LSA
This type of LSA is flooded only within the area which it originated => TYPE 1 LSA
This type of LSA is used by ABR to advertise networks from other areas => TYPE
3 LSA
55
At a local college, students are allowed to connect to the wireless network without
using a password. Which mode is the access point using?
network
shared-key
open*
passive
56
What are three access layer switch features that are considered when designing a
network? (Choose three.)
57
Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded about network 192.168.1.0 in the R2
routing table?
This network has been learned from an internal router within the same area.
This network was learned through summary LSAs from an ABR.*
This network is directly connected to the interface GigabitEthernet0/0.
This network should be used to forward traffic toward external networks.
58
Which two statements are correct about EIGRP acknowledgment packets? (Choose
two.)
59
An STP instance has failed and frames are flooding the network. What action should
be taken by the network administrator?
60
A network administrator issues the command R1(config)# license boot module c1900
technology-package securityk9 on a router. What is the effect of this command?
The IOS will prompt the user to provide a UDI in order to activate the license.
The IOS will prompt the user to reboot the router.
The features in the Security package are available immediately.
The Evaluation Right-To-Use license for the Security technology package is
activated.*
61
A router has been removed from the network for maintenance. A new Cisco IOS
software image has been successfully downloaded to a server and copied into the
flash of the router. What should be done before placing the router back into service?
Delete the previous version of the Cisco IOS software from flash.
Copy the running configuration to NVRAM.
Back up the new image.
Restart the router and verify that the new image starts successfully.*
62
What are the two methods that are used by a wireless NIC to discover an AP?
(Choose two.)
63
64. Refer to the exhibit. Match the description to the corresponding value used by the
DUAL FSM. (Not all options are used.)
feasible distance to 192.168.11.64 => 660110
new successor to network 192.168.1.0 => 192.168.3.1
destination network => 192.168.11.64
NEW QUESTIONS
65
Refer to the exhibit. Router CiscoVille has been partially configured for EIGRP
authentication. What is missing that would allow successful authentication between
EIGRP neighbors?
The interfaces that will use EIGRP authentication must be specified.
The CiscoVIlle router requires a second keychain to function correctly when using two
interfaces for EIGRP authentication.
The same key number must be used on any EIGRP neighbor routers.
66 Which Cisco IOS Software Release 15.0 technology pack is shipped with a
permanent license on all Cisco ISR G2 devices?
IPBase*
DATA
Unified Communications
Security
New questions:
67. By default, how many equal cost routes to the same destination can be installed
in the routing table of a Cisco router?
2
4***
16
32
=======================
68. What are two reasons to implement passive interfaces in the EIGRP configuration
of a Cisco router? (Choose two.)
=======================================
69. What is a difference between the Cisco IOS 12 and IOS 15 versions?
The IOS 12 version has commands that are not available in the 15 version.
IOS version 12.4(20)T1 is a mainline release, whereas IOS version 15.1(1)T1 is a new
feature release.*
The IOS version 15 license key is unique to each device, whereas the IOS version 12
license key is not device specific.
Every Cisco ISR G2 platform router includes a universal image in the IOS 12 versions, but
not the IOS 15 versions.
=======================================
=======================================
Widgets
Speed Test
Media Prioritization
Bandwidth Prioritization*
=======================================
72. When a Cisco router is configured with fast-switching, how are packets
distributed over equal-cost paths?
on a per-path-load basis
on a per-destination basis*
on a per-interface basis
on a per-packet basis
=======================================
=======================================
74. Which two channel group modes would place an interface in a negotiating state
using PAgP? (Choose two.)
auto *
desirable *
on
passive
active
=======================================
75. What is the purpose of the Cisco PAK?
It is a proprietary encryption algorithm.
It is a compression file type used when installing IOS 15 or an IOS upgrade.
It is a way to compress an existing IOS so that a newer IOS version can be co-installed on
a router.
It is a key for enabling an IOS feature set.*
=======================================
76. What two license states would be expected on a new Cisco router once the
license has been activated? (Choose two.)
License State: On
License State: Active, Registered
License Type: Permanent *
License Type: ipbasek9
License Type: Temporary
License State: Active, In Use *
=======================================
77. If a company wants to upgrade a Cisco 2800 router from IOS 12.4T, what IOS
should be recommended for a stable router platform?
13.1T
12.5T
15.1M *
14.0
=======================================
78. Fill in the blank.
EIGRP keeps feasible successor routes in the “topology” table.
=======================================
79. A network engineer is troubleshooting a newly deployed wireless network that is
using the latest 802.11 standards. When users access high bandwidth services such
as streaming video, the wireless network performance is poor. To improve
performance the network engineer decides to configure a 5 Ghz frequency band SSID
and train users to use that SSID for streaming media services. Why might this
solution improve the wireless network performance for that type of service?
Requiring the users to switch to the 5 GHz band for streaming media is inconvenient and
will result in fewer users accessing these services.
The 5 GHz band has a greater range and is therefore likely to be interference-free.
The 5 GHz band has more channels and is less crowded than the 2.4 GHz band,
which makes it more suited to streaming multimedia. *
The only users that can switch to the 5 GHz band will be those with the latest wireless
NICs, which will reduce usage.
80. What type of OSPF IPv4 route is indicated by a route table entry descriptor of O
E1?
an intra-area route that is advertised by the DR
a summary route that is advertised by an ABR
a directly connected route that is associated with an Ethernet interface
an external route that is advertised by an ASBR*
—
81. Which type of OSPF LSA represents an external route and is propagated across
the entire OSPF domain?
type 1
type 2
type 3
type 4
type 5*
—
82. A network administrator is analyzing the features that are supported by different
first-hop router redundancy protocols. Which statement is a feature that is
associated with GLBP?
It uses a virtual router master.
GLBP allows load balancing between routers.*
It works together with VRRP.
It is nonproprietary.
—
83. A network administrator is analyzing the features that are supported by different
first-hop router redundancy protocols. Which statement describes a feature that is
associated with HSRP?
HSRP uses active and standby routers.*
HSRP is nonproprietary.
It uses ICMP messages in order to assign the default gateway to hosts.
It allows load balancing between a group of redundant routers.
It specifies advanced IP services features such as advanced security and service provider
packages.
It provides regular bug fix maintenance rebuilds, plus critical fix support for network-
affecting bugs.
It provides premium packages and enables additional IOS software feature combinations
that address more complex network requirements.
86. What are two methods to make the OSPF routing protocol more secure? (Choose
two.)
Use only OSPFv3.
Use MD5 authentication. *
When feasible, create a VPN tunnel between each OSPF neighbor adjacency.
Use the enable secret command.
Use the passive-interface command on LAN interfaces that are connected only to
end-user devices.*
88.Which two parameters does EIGRP use by default to calculate the best path?
(Choose two.)
transmit and receive load
delay*
MTU
bandwidth*
reliability
91. An administrator issues the router eigrp 100 command on a router. What is the
number 100 used for?
92. Refer to the exhibit. What are the possible port roles for ports A, B, C, and D in
this RSTP-enabled network?
93.
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring PVST+ for the three
switches.
94. What are two drawbacks to turning spanning tree off and having multiple paths
through the Layer 2 switch network? (Choose two.)
Port security shuts down all of the port that attached devices.
95. Which two conditions should the network administrator verify before attempting
to upgrade a Cisco IOS image using a TFTP server? (Choose two.)
Verify connectivity between the router and TFTP server using the ping command.*
Verify that there is enough flash memory for the new Cisco IOS image using the
show flash command.*
Verify the name of the TFTP server using the show hosts command.
Verify that the TFTP server is running using the tftpdnld command.
Verify that the checksum for the image is valid using the show version command.
96. An EIGRP router loses the route to a network. Its topology table contains two
feasible successors to the same network. What action will the router take?
The router will query neighbors for an alternate route.
The router uses the default route.
The DUAL algorithm is recomputed to find an alternate route.
The best alternative backup route is immediately inserted into the routing table.*
May 6, 2015
98. Refer to the exhibit. Which switch will be the root bridge after the election
process is complete?
S1
S2*
S3
S4
—
99.
Internal routers:
Routers that have all their interfaces in the same area and have identical LSDBs.
08 May 2015
100. What is a requirement to configure a trunking EtherChannel between two
switches?
The participating interfaces must be assigned the same VLAN number on both
switches.*
101. What should be installed on a Cisco router as a prerequisite for installing the
Data, Security, and Unified Communications licenses in IOS 15?
NEW QUESTIONS
102. After implementing an IPv6 network, the administrator notices that the OSPFv3
process is not starting on the routers. What could be the problem?
EIGRP for IPv6 supports unequal cost load balancing, but EIGRP for IPv4 does not.
EIGRP for IPv4 supports unequal cost load balancing, but EIGRP for IPv6 does not.
Neither EIGRP for IPv4 nor EIGRP for IPv6 support unequal cost load balancing.
Both EIGRP for IPv4 and EIGRP for IPv6 support unequal cost load balancing.***
It is software that provides the Product Activation Key for the license and important
information regarding the Cisco End User License Agreement.
It is software that comes pre-installed with the software image and contains licenses for the
customer-specified packages and features.
105. While attending a conference, participants are using laptops for network
connectivity. When a guest speaker attempts to connect to the network, the laptop
fails to display any available wireless networks. The access point is probably
operating in which mode?
passive*
mixed
open
active
106. Refer to the exhibit and the following error message from the SwB switch.
Considering that the link between the two switches is good and the correct type,
what could cause this error message?
The SwA port has IEEE 802.1Q trunking enabled and the SwB port has ISL trunking
enabled.
The SwA port is configured as a trunk port and the SwB port is configured as an
access port.*
The IEEE 802.1Q trunking port has a speed mismatch on one of the switches.
Type 1 and type 2 external routes in IPv4 networks are represented in the routing table by
EX1 and EX2, respectively.
The cost of a type 1 route is always the external cost, regardless of the interior cost to reach
that route.
A type 2 route is always preferred over a type 1 route for the same destination.
The difference between type 1 and type 2 is in the way the cost of the route is being
calculated.*
802.11g*
802.11ac
802.11n
802.11ad
109. A company has deployed four 48-port access layer switches to a switch bock.
For redundancy each access layer switch will connect to two distribution layer
switches. Additionally, link aggregation will be used to combine 10 Gbps interfaces
to form 20 Gbps trunk links form the access layer switches to the distribution layer
switches. How many switch ports on the access layer switches will be available in
the switch block to support end devices?
176
184*
188
192
110.
Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1 and R2 are directly connected via their serial
interfaces and are both running the EIGRP routing protocol. R1 and R2 can ping the
directly connected serial interface of their neighbor, but they cannot form an EIGRP
neighbor adjacency.
OSPF authentication is configured in the same way on IPV4 and IPV6 networks
The SPF algorithm chooses the best path based on 30-second updates
112. Refer to the exhibit. If the switch has been configured for PVST+ mode, what
command output would replace the question marks?
pvst
pvst+
rstp
ieee
1. Which statement best describes a WAN?
A WAN interconnects LANs over long distances.*
bandwidth
privacy*
security*
WAN technology
fixed capacity
less flexibility
higher latency*
leased line*
Ethernet WAN*
municipal Wi-Fi
MPLS*
Frame Relay
Ethernet WAN
DSL
Frame Relay*
MetroE*
VPN
VPN appliance
VPN concentrator
12
24*
28
PPPoE
HDLC*
PPP
PPP uses LCPs to establish, configure, and test the data-link connection.*
PPP uses LCPs to agree on format options such as authentication, compression, and
error detection.*
The LCP establishment phase will not start until the bandwidth reaches 70 percent or more.
The PPP link will not be established if more than 30 percent of options cannot be accepted.
enabling traffic from multiple VLANs to travel over a single Layer 2 link
creating one logical link between two LAN switches via the use of multiple physical links
15. The graphic shows two boxes. The first box has the
following output:R1(config)# show running-config
<output omitted>
username r2 password 0 Cisco
!
interface Serial0/0/0
ip address 209.165.200.225 255.255.255.252
encapsulation ppp
ppp authentication chapThe second box has this
output:R2(config)# show running-config
<output omitted>
username r1 password 0 Cisco
!
interface Serial0/0/0
ip address 209.165.200.226 255.255.255.252
encapsulation ppp
ppp authentication chap
Refer to the exhibit.
transport
network
data link*
physical
DSL is faster.
mobile broadband
WiMax
satellite*
DSL*
T1
20. Refer to the exhibit.
that the Dialer1 interface has been assigned an IP address by the ISP router*
that the IP address on R1 G0/1 is in the same network range as the DSL modem
NHRP*
NAT
IPsec
to support basic unencrypted IP tunneling using multivendor routers between remote sites
default routing
24. Refer to the exhibit.
4*
172.16.2.1 to 172.16.3.254
172.16.2.0 to 172.16.3.255*
172.16.2.1 to 172.16.255.255
They should be placed as close as possible to the destination of the traffic to be denied.
Configure Telnet.
Configure 802.1x.
STP
CDP
ARP
supplicant
authenticator*
authentication server
HSRP
RADIUS*
TACACS+*
HIPS
SPAN*
VLAN
FIFO
LLQ*
FCFS
traffic policing
ToS
DSCP
IP precedence
A trust boundary identifies which devices trust the marking on packets that enter a
network.*
A trust boundary only allows traffic to enter if it has previously been marked.
A trust boundary only allows traffic from trusted endpoints to enter the network.
43. A vibration sensor on an automated production line detects
an unusual condition. The sensor communicates with a
controller that automatically shuts down the line and activates
an alarm. What type of communication does this scenario
represent?
machine-to-people
machine-to-machine*
people-to-people
people-to-machine
fog computing*
network connectivity
SaaS
ITaaS
IaaS*
virtualization*
maintaining communication integrity
online collaboration
the FIB
the DSP
the hypervisor
OS/IOS version
connection type*
interface identifier*
cable specification
the number of error messages that are logged on the syslog server
51. Which feature sends simulated data across the network and
measures performance between multiple network locations?
LLDP
IP SLA*
syslog
SPAN
baselining tool
knowledge base
CiscoView
55. Match OoS techniques with the description. (Not all options
are used.)
1. Which circumstance would result in an enterprise deciding
to implement a corporate WAN?
when its employees become distributed across many branch locations*
satellite service*
telephone company*
broadband modem*
core switch
CSU/DSU*
DSL
Frame Relay
MPLS*
VSAT
public infrastructure*
dedicated
circuit-switched
cellular*
DSLAM*
CSU/DSU
access server
12
24*
28
Frame Relay
HDLC*
PPP
12. Which two functions are provided by the NCP during a PPP
connection? (Choose two.)
identifying fault conditions for the PPP link
Neither the link-establishment phase nor the network-layer phase completed successfully.
The NCP will send a message to the sending device if the link usage reaches 70 percent.
The LCP establishment phase will not start until the bandwidth reaches 70 percent or more.
The PPP link will not be established if more than 30 percent of options cannot be accepted.
DSL
WiMax
ADSL
18. What is the protocol that provides ISPs the ability to send
PPP frames over DSL networks?
PPPoE*
CHAP
ADSL
LTE
data plane
security
application policies
4*
They can be configured to filter traffic based on both source IP addresses and source ports.
A router has an existing ACL that permits all traffic from the
172.16.0.0 network. The administrator attempts to add a new
ACE to the ACL that denies packets from host 172.16.0.1 and
receives the error message that is shown in the exhibit. What
action can the administrator take to block packets from host
172.16.0.1 while still permitting all other traffic from the
172.16.0.0 network?
Manually add the new deny ACE with a sequence number of 5.*
Manually add the new deny ACE with a sequence number of 15.
Create a second access list denying the host and apply it to the same interface.
ip access-group 5 out
ip access-group 5 in
so that the attacker can see frames that are destined for other hosts*
31. What are three of the six core components in the Cisco IoT
system? (Choose three.)
fog computing*
wearable technologies
data analytics*
robot guides
smart bandages
DHCP snooping
IP source guard
Dynamic ARP Inspection
LLDP
HSRP
RADIUS*
TACACS+*
message integrity
community strings*
source validation
encryption*
authentication*
CBWFQ*
WFQ
FCFS
FIFO
LLQ*
FCFS
traffic policing
41. Which field is used to mark Layer 2 Ethernet frames for
QoS treatment?
Type of Service field
Priority field*
Version field
A trust boundary identifies which devices trust the marking on packets that enter a
network.*
A trust boundary only allows traffic to enter if it has previously been marked.
A trust boundary only allows traffic from trusted endpoints to enter the network.
fog computing*
network connectivity
a management console*
a dedicated VLAN
46. A network technician made a configuration change on the
core router in order to solve a problem. However, the problem
is not solved. Which step should the technician take next?
Gather symptoms.
47. A user reports that when the corporate web page URL is
entered on a web browser, an error message indicates that the
page cannot be displayed. The help-desk technician asks the
user to enter the IP address of the web server to see if the page
can be displayed. Which troubleshooting method is being used
by the technician?
top-down
bottom-up
substitution
divide-and-conquer*
49. Which IOS log message level indicates the highest severity
level?
level 0*
level 1
level 4
level 7
50. Which symptom is an example of network issues at the
network layer?
A misconfigured firewall blocks traffic to a file server.
Neighbor adjacency is formed with some routers, but not all routers.*
A web server cannot be reached by its domain name, but can be reached via its IP address.
H1 can only ping H2, H3, and the Fa0/0 interface of router R1.
H2 and H3 can ping H4 and H5. Why might H1 not be able to
successfully ping H4 and H5?
Router R1 does not have a route to the destination network.
The connectivity between these two hosts allows for videoconferencing calls.
There are 4 hops between this device and the device at 192.168.100.1.*
The company has direct control over its WAN links but not over its LAN.
Each LAN has a specified demarcation point to clearly separate access layer and
distribution layer equipment.
The LAN may use a number of different network access layer standards whereas the WAN
will use only one standard.
session layer
physical layer*
transport layer
presentation layer
Frame Relay*
DSL
ATM*
cellular
5. Which WAN technology can switch any type of payload
based on labels?
PSTN
DSL
MPLS*
T1/E1
3G/4G cellular
dialup
VSAT*
WiMAX
DSL*
dialup
cable
12
24*
28
unplugged cable
PPP issue*
PPPoE
HDLC*
PPP
PPP uses LCPs to establish, configure, and test the data-link connection.*
PPP uses LCPs to agree on format options such as authentication, compression, and
error detection.*
13. A network administrator is configuring a PPP link with the
commands:
R1(config-if)# encapsulation ppp
R1(config-if)# ppp quality 70
What is the effect of these commands?
The PPP link will be closed down if the link quality drops below 70 percent.*
The NCP will send a message to the sending device if the link usage reaches 70 percent.
The LCP establishment phase will not start until the bandwidth reaches 70 percent or more.
The PPP link will not be established if more than 30 percent of options cannot be accepted.
control by the remote host of the frequency and timing of login events
GSM
CDMA
UMTS
WiMax
cable*
CHAP*
HDLC
Frame Relay
18. What are the three core components of the Cisco ACI
architecture? (Choose three.)
Application Network Profile*
Microsoft hypervisor
supports hosts as GRE tunnel endpoints by installing Cisco VPN client software
21. Refer to the exhibit.
area numbers
hellos
A router has an existing ACL that permits all traffic from the
172.16.0.0 network. The administrator attempts to add a new
statement to the ACL that denies packets from host 172.16.0.1
and receives the error message that is shown in the exhibit.
What action can the administrator take to block packets from
host 172.16.0.1 while still permitting all other traffic from the
172.16.0.0 network?
Manually add the new deny statement with a sequence number of 5.*
Manually add the new deny statement with a sequence number of 15.
Create a second access list denying the host and apply it to the same interface.
Because there are no matches for line 10, the ACL is not working.
The ACL is only monitoring traffic destined for 10.23.77.101 from three specific hosts.
The router has not had any Telnet packets from 10.35.80.22 that are destined for
10.23.77.101.*
named extended*
numbered standard
numbered extended
27. Which IPv6 ACL command entry will permit traffic from any
host to an SMTP server on network 2001:DB8:10:10::/64?
permit tcp any host 2001:DB8:10:10::100 eq 25*
A-B-C-D
C-B-D-A*
B-A-D-C
D-A-C-B
VMware Fusion
VMware ESX/ESXi*
Oracle VM VirtualBox
Configure Telnet.
Configure 802.1x.
LLDP
HSRP
RADIUS*
TACACS+*
SET request
GET response
Trap*
35. Refer to the exhibit.
cisco98765
cisco123456*
cisco654321
TACACS+
802.1X
DHCP snooping
SNMP
38. What network monitoring tool copies traffic moving
through one switch port, and sends the copied traffic to
another switch port for analysis?
802.1X
SNMP
SPAN*
syslog
latency
queuing
jitter*
voice codec
WFQ
FIFO
LLQ*
FCFS
42. Which type of network traffic cannot be managed using
congestion avoidance tools?
TCP
UDP*
IP
ICMP
traffic policing
A trust boundary identifies which devices trust the marking on packets that enter a
network.*
A trust boundary only allows traffic to enter if it has previously been marked.
A trust boundary only allows traffic from trusted endpoints to enter the network.
ToS
DSCP
IP precedence
fog computing*
network connectivity
application enhancement platform
Determine performance on the intranet by monitoring load times of company web pages
from remote sites.
Compare the hit counts on the company web server for the current week to the values that
were recorded in previous weeks.
a structured approach starting with the physical layer and moving up through the layers of
the OSI model until the cause of the problem is identified
an approach that starts with the end-user applications and moves down through the layers
of the OSI model until the cause of the problem has been identified
show ip protocols
show ip sla statistics*
show monitor
knowledge base
baselining tool
protocol analyzer*
R1 will not send critical system messages to the server until the command debug all is
entered.
Knowing the number of connected devices will define how many additional layers will be
added to the three-tier hierarchical network design.
Knowing the number of connected devices will define how many multilayer switches will be
necessary at the core layer.
A high-level redundancy at the access layer may be better implemented if the number of
connected devices is know.
2 Which two statements are true regarding a PPP connection between two Cisco
routers? (Choose two.)
fixed capacity
higher latency*
less flexibility
higher cost
5
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is troubleshooting the OSPF network.
The 10.10.0.0/16 network is not showing up in the routing table of Router1. What is
the probable cause of this problem?
6 The security policy in a company specifies that the staff in the sales department
must use a VPN to connect to the corporate network to access the sales data when
they travel to meet customers. What component is needed by the sales staff to
establish a remote VPN connection?
VPN appliance
VPN concentrator
VPN client software*
VPN gateway
8 Which three parts of a Frame Relay Layer 2 PDU are used for congestion control?
(Choose three.)
the FECN bit*
the BECN bit*
the C/R bit
the 10-bit DLCI
the Extended Address field
the DE bit*
10 Which WAN technology can serve as the underlying network to carry multiple
types of network traffic such as IP, ATM, Ethernet, and DSL?
MPLS*
ISDN
Ethernet WAN
Frame Relay
11. Match the characteristic to the appropriate authentication protocol. (Not all
options are used.)
Place the options in the following order:
PAP Characteristics
uses two-way handshake
single challenge
weak authentication
clear text passwords
CHAP Characteristics
uses three-way handshake
repeated challenges
strong authentication
encrypted passwords
14.
Refer to the exhibit. Which three steps are required to configure Multilink PPP on the
HQ router? (Choose three.)
15 What are two examples of network problems that are found at the data link layer?
(Choose two.)
16. What is the protocol that provides ISPs the ability to send PPP frames over DSL
networks?
CHAP
ADSL
PPPoE*
LTE
17. What is required for a host to use an SSL VPN to connect to a remote network
device?
18.
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has implemented the configuration in
the displayed output. What is missing from the configuration that would be
preventing OSPF routing updates from passing to the Frame Relay service provider?
19.
20. A company connects to one ISP via multiple connections. What is the name given
to this type of connection?
multihomed
single-homed
dual-multihomed
dual-homed*
21.
Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the output, which two statements about network
connectivity are correct? (Choose two.)
The NCP will send a message to the sending device if the link usage reaches 70 percent.
The PPP link will be closed down if the link quality drops below 70 percent.*
The LCP establishment phase will not start until the bandwidth reaches 70 percent or more.
The PPP link will not be established if more than 30 percent of options cannot be accepted.
802.5
802.11
802.16*
802.3
24. Which three flows associated with consumer applications are supported by
NetFlow collectors? (Choose three.)
accounting*
network monitoring*
error correction
bandwidth regulation
quality of service
billing*
25.
Refer to the exhibit. What kind of NAT is being configured on R1?
NAT overload
dynamic NAT
port forwarding*
PAT
26.
Outside global
– not scored –
Outside local
Inside global
– not scored –
Inside local
27 What is the default location for Cisco routers and switches to send critical logging
events?
syslog server
virtual terminal
console port*
auxiliary port
28 In the data gathering process, which type of device will listen for traffic, but only
gather traffic statistics?
SNMP agent
NetFlow collector*
syslog server
NMS
The combination of LMI status messages and Inverse ARP messages enables the CIR to
be exceeded.
The physical circuits of the Frame Relay network are shared between subscribers
and there may be times when unused bandwidth is available.*
BECN and FECN messages notify the router that the CIR can be exceeded.
Bursting is enabled by the configuration of multiple subinterfaces on one physical interface.
30 Which SNMP message type informs the network management system (NMS)
immediately of certain specified events?
GET response
SET request
GET request
Trap*
The SNMP agent uses the SNMP manager to access information within the MIB.
The MIB structure for a given device includes only variables that are specific to that device
or vendor.
The MIB organizes variables in a flat manner.
The NMS must have access to the MIB in order for SNMP to operate properly.*
It allows sites to connect IPv6 hosts to an IPv4 network by translating the IPv6
addresses to IPv4 addresses.*
It allows sites to connect multiple IPv4 hosts to the Internet via the use of a single public
IPv4 address.
It allows sites to use private IPv4 addresses, and thus hides the internal addressing
structure form hosts on public IPv4 networks.
It allows sites to use private IPv6 addresses and translates them to global IPv6 addresses.
33 What is the expected behavior of an ADSL service?
The user can select the upload and download rates based on need.
The download and upload rates are the same.
The upload rate is faster than the download rate.
The download rate is faster than the upload rate.*
35 A group of Windows PCs in a new subnet has been added to an Ethernet network.
When testing the connectivity, a technician finds that these PCs can access local
network resources but not the Internet resources. To troubleshoot the problem, the
technician wants to initially confirm the IP address and DNS configurations on the
PCs, and also verify connectivity to the local router. Which three Windows CLI
commands and utilities will provide the necesary information? (Choose three.)
tracert
telnet
ping*
netsh interface ipv6 show neighbor
nslookup*
arp -a
ipconfig*
36
Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 was configured by a network administrator to use
SNMP version 2. The following commands were issued:
Why is the administrator not able to get any information from R1?
37 Which broadband technology would be best for a small office that requires fast
upstream connections?
DSL
Cable
fiber-to-the-home*
WiMax
38
Refer to the exhibit. The inside local IP address of PC-A is 192.168.0.200. What will be
the inside global address of packets from PC-A after they are translated by R1?
192.168.0.1
172.16.0.1
209.165.200.225*
10.0.0.1
192.168.0.200
remote access
public
site-to-site*
private
41
Refer to the exhibit. Which three events will occur as a result of the configuration
shown on R1? (Choose three.)
Only traffic that originates from the GigabitEthernet 0/1 interface will be monitored.
Messages that are sent to the syslog server will be limited to levels 3 or lower.*
Messages that are sent to the syslog server will use 192.168.1.5 as the destination IP
address.*
The syslog messages will contain the IP address the GigabitEthernet 0/1 interface.*
Messages that are sent to the syslog server will be limited to levels 3 and higher.
For multiple occurrences of the same error, only the first three messages will be sent to the
server.
Traffic is allocated bandwidth across a single wire based on preassigned time slots.*
Bandwidth is allocated to channels based on whether a station has data to transmit.
Encoding technology provides high data throughput in a minimum RF spectrum by
supporting parallel data transmission.
Data capacity across a single link increases as bits from multiple sources are
transmitted using interleaved slices of time.*
Depending on the configured layer 2 protocol, data is transmitted across two or more
channels via the use of time slots.
43 Which two specialized troubleshooting tools can monitor the amount of traffic that
passes through a switch? (Choose two.)
TDR
DTX cable analyzer
NAM*
digital multimeter
portable network analyzer*
RSA
3DES*
SHA-1
AES
46 What is one advantage to designing networks in building block fashion for large
companies?
CMTS
VPN*
CDMA
IPsec*
DOCSIS
48 A branch office uses a leased line to connect to the corporate network. The lead
network engineer confirms connectivity between users in the branch office, but none
of the users can access corporate headquarters. System logs indicate that nothing
has changed in the branch office network. What should the engineer consider next to
resolve this network outage?
The network technician for the branch office should troubleshoot the switched infrastructure.
The server administrator in the branch office should reconfigured the DHCP server.
The service provider for the branch office should troubleshoot the issue starting
from the point of demarcation.*
The system administartor in the branch office should reconfigure the default gateway on the
user PCs.
49
Refer to the exhibit. Which IP address is configured on the physical interface of the
CORP router?
10.1.1.1
209.165.202.134
10.1.1.2
209.165.202.133*
8
32
24*
16
51 Which network module maintains the resources that employees, partners, and
customers rely on to effectively create, colaborate, and interact with information?
services
access-distribution
data-center*
enterprise edge
52 Which broadband solution is appropriate for a home user who needs a wired
connection not limited by distance?
ADSL
cable*
DSL
WiMax
55 Which type of traffic would most likely have problems when passing through a
NAT device?
DNS
Telnet
HTTP
ICMP
IPsec*
57 What are three benefits of using Frame Relay for WAN connectivity? (Choose
three.)
mature technology*
QoS support using the IP precedence field
integrated encryption
one physical interface that can be used for several circuits*
reasonable cost*
seamless direct connectivity to an Ethernet LAN
interface errors
traffic statistics*
memory usage
CPU usage
packet-switched*
private infrastructure*
public infrastructure
Internet
dedicated
62. An intercity bus company wants to offer constant Internet connectivity to the
users traveling on the buses. Which two types of WAN infrastructure would meet the
requirements? (Choose two.)
cellular*
dedicated
private infrastructure
circuit-switched
public infrastructure*
63 What is used as the default event logging destination for Cisco routers and
switches?
syslog server
terminal line
workstation
console line*
====================
New Questions
64. Refer to the exhibit. H1 can only ping H2, H3, and the Fa0/0 interface of router R1.
H2 and H3 can ping H4 and H5. Why might H1 not be able to successfully ping H4
and H5?
Knowledge base
CiscoView
baselining tool
protocol analyzer*
===============
66. Which structured engineering desing principle ensures that the network reamins
available even under abnormal conditions?
resiliency*
hierarchy
flexibility
modularity
===============
67. Two corporations have just completed a merger. The network engineer has been
asked to connect the two corporate networks without the expense of leased lines.
Which solution would be the most cost effective method of providing a proper and
secure connection between the two corporate networks?
=================
69. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator discovers that host A is having
trouble with Internet connectivity, but the server farm has full connectivity. In
addition, host A has full connectivity to the server farm. What is a possible cause of
this problem?
70. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements describe the results of entering these
commands? (Choose two.)
R1 will not send critical system messages to the server until the command debug all is
entered.
R1 will send system messages of levels 0 (emergencies) to level 4 (warnings) to a
server.*
The syslog server has the IPv4 address 192.168.10.10.*
R1 will reset all the warnings to clear the log.
R1 will output the system messages to the local RAM.
=================
71. What is a Frame Relay feauture that supports the IP address-to-DLCI dynamic
mapping?
FECN
Inverse ARP*
ARP
BECN
=================
72. What term is used to identify the point where the customer network ends and the
service provider network begins?
syslog server
console line*
terminal line
workstation
=================
74. A small remote office needs to connect to headquarters through a secure IPsec
VPN connection. The company is implementing the Cisco Easy VPN solution. Which
Cisco Easy VPN component needs to be added on the Cisco router at the remote
office?
Cisco AnyConnect
Cisco Easy VPN Server*
Cisco Easy VPN Remote
Cisco VPN Client
=================
=================
76. An organization has purchased a Frame Relay service from a provider. The
service agreement specifies that the access rate is 512 kbps, the CIR is 384 kbps,
and the Bc is 32 kbps. What will happen when the customer sends a short burst of
frames above 450 kbps?
The frames are marked with the DE bit set to 1 and are most likely forwarded.
The frames are marked with the DE bit set to 0 and are most likely forwarded.
The frames are marked with the DE bit set to 0 and are allowed to pass.
The frames are marked with the DE bit set to 1 and are most likely dropped.*
=================
77. What is a Frame Relay feature that supports the IP address-to-DLCI dynamic
mapping?
Inverse ARP*
ARP
BECN
FECN
78. An administrator wants to configure a router so that users on the outside network
can only establish HTTP connections to the internal web site by navigating to
http://www.netacad.com:8888. Which feature would the administrator configure to
accomplish this?
port forwarding*
dynamic NAT
NAT overload
static NAT
PAT
79. Which two components are needed to provide a DSL connection to a SOHO? (Choose two.)
85. A network engineer is designing an IPsec VPN between Cisco routers for a
national bank. Which algorithm assures the highest level of confidentiality for data
crossing the VPN?
256bit AES*
SHA-1
3DES
86. By the use of sequence numbers, which function of the IPsec security services
prevents spoofing by verifying that each packet is non-duplicated and unique?
anti-replay protection*
confidentiality
data integrity
authentication
87. A small law firm wants to connect to the Internet at relatively high speed but with
low cost. In addition, the firm prefers that the connection be through a dedicated link
to the service provider. Which connection type should be selected?
leased line*
ISDN
cable
DSL
88. How can an administrator configure a Cisco Easy VPN Server to enable the
company to manage many remote VPN connections efficiently?
by updating the client software in regular intervals
by preconfiguring IPsec parameters when deploying the client solution
by provisioning dedicated bandwidth for VPN connections
by pushing the IPsec security policies to the clients when establishing the tunnel*
90. Which two networking technologies enable businesses to use the Internet,
instead of an enterprise WAN, to securely interconnect their distributed networks?
(Choose two.)
DSL
remote LANs
site-to-site VPNs*
Frame Relay
91. What are two benefits of using SNMP traps? (Choose two.)
They can provide statistics on TCP/IP packets that flow through Cisco devices.
92. A network engineer has issued the show interfaces serial 0/0/0 command on a
router to examine the open NCPs on a PPP link to another router. The command
output displays that the encapsulation is PPP and that the LCP is open. However, the
IPV6CP NCP is not shown as open. What does the engineer need to configure to
open the IPV6CP NCP on the link?
94. What are two advantages of using IPv4 NAT? (Choose two.)
95. Which network design module would not commonly connect to the service
provider edge?
E-Commerce
Enterprise Branch
96. Whichtwo types of devices are specific to WAN environments and are not found
ona LAN?(Choose two.)
97. What is a plausible reason that an employee would become a teleworker for a
company?
to become employed without having to share files or resources
98. Connecting offices at different locations using the Internet can be economical for
a business. What are two important business policy issues that should be addressed
when using the Internet for this purpose? (Choose two.)
WAN technology
bandwidth
security**
privacy
addressing**
99. What is a primary difference between a company LAN and the WAN services that
it uses?
The LAN may use a number of different network access layer standards whereas the WAN
will use only one standard.
Each LAN has a specified demarcation point to clearly separate access layer and
distribution layer equipment.
The company has direct control over its WAN links but not over its LAN.
HDLC
VPN
Frame Relay
PPP*
Point-to-point links are generally the least expensive type of WAN access.
The MAC address is not used in the address field of the point-to-point frame.*
WAN operations focus primarily on the network layer (OSI Layer 3).
DNS servers
telephone company*
satellite service*
103. Which PPP protocol allows a device to specify an IP address for routing over the
PPP link?
CHAP
LCP
PAP
IPCP*
104. In which stage of the troubleshooting process would ownership be researched
and documented?
Update the user and document the problem.
Implement corrective action.*
Gather symptoms.
Isolate the problem.
105. A corporation is searching for an easy and low cost solution to provide
teleworkers with a secure connection to headquarters. Which solution should be
selected?
dial-up connection
the need to check every device and interface on the network and document them
the need to check every possible application problem and document it*
110. What two advantages are associated with Frame Relay WAN technology when
compared with leased lines? (Choose two.)
Dedicated data path between sites
Fixed and dedicated capacity
Flexibility*
Globally unique DLCI for each site
Cost effectieness*
111. Which statement describes an advantage of deploying the Cisco SSL VPN
solution rather than the Cisco Easy VPN solution?