Professional Documents
Culture Documents
Part A - PHYSICS
r A
Q.1 The electric field in a region is given by : E = 3 î + By ĵ + Cz 2 k̂ . The SI units of A, B and C are,
x
respectively-
N − m3 N N
(a) , V / m2 , 2 (b) V − m 2 , V / m, 2
C m −C m −C
N−C N − m3 N − C
(c) V / m 2 , V / m, (d) V / m, ,
m2 C m
Ans. [a]
r
Q.2 Find the component of vector A = 2î + 3 ĵ along the direction (î − ĵ) -
1 1 1 1
(a) − (î − ĵ) (b) − (î + ˆj) (c) (î − ĵ) (d) (î + ĵ)
2 2 2 2
Ans. [a]
Q.3 Angular momentum L is given by L = p.r. The variation of log L and log p is shown by-
log L log L
(a) (b)
log p log p
log L log L
(c) (d)
log p log p
Ans. [d]
Q.4 By what velocity a ball be projected vertically upwards so that the distance covered in 5th second is twice of
that covered in 6th second ?
(a) 19.6 m/s (b) 58.8 m/s (c) 49 m/s (d) 65 m/s
Ans. [d]
Q.5 A ball is dropped vertically from a height h above the ground. After touching the ground, it bounces up to a
height h/2. Neglecting the air resistance, its velocity v varies with the height above the ground as-
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v v
h h
(i) height (ii) height
v v
h h
(iii) height (iv) height
Q.6 A uniform rope of mass 0.1 kg and length 2.45 m hangs from a ceiling. The time taken by a transverse wave
to travel the full length of the rope is-
(a) 1.2 s (b) 1.0 s (c) 2.2 s (d) 3.1 s
Ans. [b]
Q.7 The magnitudes of gravitational field at distances r1 and r2 from the centre of a uniform sphere of radius R
and mass M are I1 and I2, respectively. Find the ratio (I1/I2) if r1 > R and r2 < R.
R2 R3 R3 R4
(a) (b) (c) (d)
r1r2 r1r22 r12 r2 r12 r22
Ans. [c]
Q.8 A toy car of mass 2.0 kg is moving towards –ve Y-axis with a velocity of 0.5 m/s. It takes a turn towards
X-axis with a velocity of 0.4 m/s. How much is the change in the linear momentum of the care due to the
turn ?
(a) (0.6î − 1.0ˆj) kg.m/s (b) (0.8î + 1.0ˆj) kg.m/s (c) (0.8î − 1.0 ĵ) kg.m/s (d) (0.8î + 0.6 ĵ) kg.m/s
Ans. [b]
E for 0 ≤ x ≤ 1
Q.9 The potential energy of particle of mass m varies as : U(x) = 0 . The deBroglie wavelength
0 for x > 1
of the particle in the range 0 ≤ x ≤ 1 is λ1 and that in the range x > 1 is λ2. If the total energy of the particle is
2E0, find λ1/λ2.
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 1 / 2 (d) 2/3
Ans. [a]
Q.10 A car moves around a curved road of radius R1 at constant speed v without sliding. If we double the car's
speed, what is the least radius that would now keep the car from sliding ?
(a) 2R1 (b) 4R1 (c) 6R1 (d) R1
Ans. [b]
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Q.11 The figure shows the potential energy function U(x) for a system in which a particle is in one-dimensional
motion. Arrange regions AB, BC, CD and DE according to the magnitude of the force on the particle in
decreasing order.
U(x)
6
5
4
3
2
1
x
O A B C DE
(a) BC, DE, AB, CD (b) BC, AB, CD, DE (c) AB, CD, BC, DE (d) CD, AB, DE, BC
Ans. [d]
Q.12 The figure shows four arrangements of three particles of equal masses. Arrange them according to the
magnitude of the net gravitational force on the particle labeled m, in decreasing order-
m D
D D D
d d d
d
m m m
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(a) (i), (iii) = (iv), (ii) (b) (i) = (iii), (ii), (iv) (c) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) (d) (iv), (iii), (ii), (i)
Ans. [a]
r
Q.13 A point charge +q moves from point P to origin O along the path PQRO in a uniform electric field E . Find
the work done by the field-
Y
r
E
P(2a,b,O)
(4a,O,O)
30º X
O Q
45º
(2a,–b,O) R
Q.14 In a new system of units called star units, 1 kg* = 10 kg, 1 m* = 1 km and IS* = 1 minute, what will be the
value of IJ in the new system ?
(a) 2.4 × 10–5 J* (b) 3.6 × 10–4 J* (c) 4.2 × 10–3 J* (d) 4.2 × 10–2 J*
Ans. [b]
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Q.15 A wooden box has a 4 m × 4 m × 10 cm metallic cover (K = 1.26 W/m-ºC). At some instant, the temperature
outside is 40ºC and that inside is 26ºC. Neglecting convection, the amount of heat flowing per second into
the box through the cover is-
(a) 1832 W (b) 2212 W (c) 2822 W (d) 3122 W
Ans. [c]
Q.16 The following figure shows the Maxwell's speed distribution plots at four different temperatures T1, T2, T3
and T4.
dN
dν T1
T2
T3
T4
speed
Which of the following gives the correct relation between temperatures ?
(a) T4 > T3 > T2 > T1 (b) T4 < T3 < T2 < T1 (c) T1 = T2 = T3 = T4 (d) T1 > T2 , T3 < T4
Ans. [a]
Q.17 A thermodynamic state of a given sample of an ideal gas is completely described, if its-
(a) pressure, volume and internal energy are known
(b) pressure, volume, temperature and internal energy are known
(c) pressure, volume and temperature are known
(d) pressure and volume are known
Ans. [d]
Q.18 A cyclic process ABCA on the V-T diagram (shown below) is performed with a constant mass of an ideal
gas.
V C B
T
Which of the following figures corresponds to the same process on a P-V diagram ?
P P A B P P C
A B C B
C C A B A
V V V V
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(a) (i) (b) (ii) (c) (iii) (d) (iv)
Ans. [b]
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Q.19 The ratio of the radii of the nuclei 13Al27 and 52Te125 is-
(a) 13 : 52 (b) 27 : 125 (c) 3 : 5 (d) 14 : 73
Ans. [c]
Q.21 A capacitor is discharged through a resistance in R-C circuit. The variation of logei with time t is shown by a
dotted line in the figure, where i is the discharging current. If the resistance in the circuit be doubled, the
variation of logei with time t would be best represented by the line -
logei
S
Q
P
t
(a) P (b) Q (c) R (d) S
Ans. [b]
Q.22 A container is filled with water (µ = 1.33) upto a height of 33.25 cm. A concave mirror is held 15 cm above
the water level, and the image I of an object O placed at the bottom is formed 25 cm below the water level.
The focal length of the mirror is roughly-
15 cm
25 cm
33.25 cm IO
O
(a) 10 cm (b) 15 cm (c) 20 cm (d) 25 cm
Ans. [c]
Q.23 A current of 4.0 A is present in a wire of cross-sectional area 2.0 mm2. Find the number of free electrons in
each cubic metre of the wire, if the drift velocity is 2.1 × 10–4 m/s.
(a) 6.0 × 1028 m–3 (b) 3.6 × 1029 m–3 (c) 7.0 × 1030 m–3 (d) 8.2 × 1032 m–3
Ans. [a]
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Q.24 Doubly charged Mg24 ions are accelerated to kinetic energy 8 KeV and are projected perpendicularly into a
magnetic field of magnitude 1.2 T. Find the radius of the circle formed by the ions-
(a) 2.4 cm (b) 3.2 cm (c) 4.8 cm (d) 5.3 cm
Ans. [d]
Q.25 When two radiations of wavelengths λ1 and λ2 fall on a metallic surface, they produce photoelectrons with
maximum energies k1 and k2, respectively. Which of the following relations is used to estimate the Planck
constant ?
k1 − k 2 λ1λ 2 k1 + k 2 λ1λ 2
(a) h = (b) h =
c λ 2 − λ1 c λ 2 − λ1
Q.26 Which of the following phenomena establishes the wave nature of particles ?
(a) Millikan oil drop experiment (b) Davisson-Germer experiment
(c) Stern-Gerlach experiment (d) Franck-Hertz experiment
Ans. [b]
Q.27 Find the deBroglie wavelength for a 100 gm bullet moving at 900 m/s-
(a) 3.7 × 10–35 m (b) 7.4 × 10–36 m (c) 7.8 × 10–37 m (d) 8.2 × 10–39 m
Ans. [b]
Q.28 The colours of the rings on a resistor are brown, yellow, green and gold as seen from the left to the right.
The value of the resistance is-
(a) (1.4 ± 0.07) MΩ (b) (2.4 ± 0.05) MΩ (c) (3.4 ± 0.05) MΩ (d) (1.4 ± 0.05) MΩ
Ans. [a]
Q.29 The ammeter, shown below, consists of a 360 Ω coil connected in parallel to a 40 Ω shunt. Find the reading
of the ammeter.
164Ω
A
+ –
40 V
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Q.30 You are given four semiconductors P, Q, R and S with respective band gaps 4 eV, 3 eV, 2 eV and 1 eV for
use in a photodetector to detect λ = 1400 nm. Select the suitable semiconductor-
(a) P (b) Q (c) R (d) S
Ans. [d]
Q.31 When two waves of nearly equal frequencies ν1 and ν2 are produced simultaneously, the time interval
between successive maxima is-
1 1 1 1 1 1
(a) (b) − (c) + (d)
ν1 − ν 2 ν1 ν 2 ν1 ν 2 ν1 + ν 2
Ans. [a]
Q.32 A particle emission line, detected in the light from a star, has a wavelength λdet = 1.1 λ, where λ is the proper
wavelength of the line. What is the star's distance from us ?
(a) 8.6 × 108 ly (b) 1.6 × 109 ly (c) 3.2 × 1010 ly (d) 9.2 × 1011 ly
Ans. [b]
Q.33 For sky wave propagation of 10 MHz signal, what should be the minimum electron density in ionosphere ?
(a) ~1.2 × 1012 m–3 (b) ~106 m–3 (c) ~2.3 × 1014 m–3 (d) ~1022 m–3
Ans. [a]
Q.34 Light from a source located in a medium (refractive index = µ0) enters an optical fibre with core refractive
index µ1 and clad refractive index µ2, as shown in figure. The maximum value of incident angle θ which
would undergo total internal reflection in the fibre is-
µ2
µ0
µ1
θ
µ2 − µ2 µ − µ2
(a) θ = cos −1 1 2
(b) θ = tan −1 1
µ 0 µ0
µ2 − µ2
(c) θ = sin −1 1 2
(d) None of these
µ0
Ans. [c]
Q.35 A cyclotron is opened at an oscillator of 12 MHz and has a dee radius R = 50 cm. What is the magnitude of
the magnetic field needed for a proton to be accelerated in the cyclotron ?
(a) 0.72 T (b) 0.65 T (c) 0.39 T (d) 0.12 T
Ans. [a]
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Q.36 Which of the following expressions represents the relation between orbital magnetic moment and orbital
angular momentum of an electron ?
r 2m e r r r r e r r e r
(a) µ orb = − L orb (b) µ orb = −2m e L orb (c) µ orb = − L orb (d) µ orb = L orb
e 2m e 2m e
Ans. [c]
Q.37 In the following figure, the variation of electric field magnitude E versus time is shown for four uniform
electric fields contained within identical circular regions. Arrange the fields according to the magnitudes of
the magnetic fields they induce at the edge of the region, in decreasing order-
E
S
P
R
Q
t
(a) P, R, Q, S (b) R, P, Q, S (c) Q, R, P, S (d) S, P, Q, R
Ans. [a]
Q.38 In a double slit experiment, the distance between slits is 5.0 mm and the slits are 1.0 m from the screen. Two
interference patterns can be seen on the screen : one due to light of wavelength 480 nm and the other due to
light of wavelength 600 nm. What is the separation on the screen between the third order bright fringes of
the two interference patterns ?
(a) 0.02 mm (b) 0.05 mm (c) 0.07 mm (d) 0.09 mm
Ans. [c]
Q.39 A LED is constructed from a p-n junction based on a certain Ga-As-P semiconducting material whose energy
gap is 1.9 eV. Identify the colour of the emitted light-
(a) blue (b) red (c) violet (d) green
Ans. [b]
Q.40 The binding energy per nucleon in a heavy nucleus is of the order of-
(a) 8 MeV (b) 7 MeV (c) 5 MeV (d) 2 MeV
Ans. [b]
235
Q.41 In the following nuclear reaction, U + n → X + Y + 2n, which of the following pairs cannot represent X
and Y ?
(i) 141Xe and 93Sr (ii) 139Cs and 95Rb (iii) 156Nd and 79Ge (iv) 141Ba and 92Kr
(a) (iii) and (iv) (b) (i) and (ii) (c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (i) and (iv)
Ans. [a]
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Q.42 Which of the following fusion reactions will not result in the net release of energy ?
(i) 6Li + 6Li (ii) 4He + 4He
(iii) 12C + 12C (iv) 35Cl + 35Cl
(a) (iv) (b) (iii) (c) (i) (d) (ii)
Ans. [a]
Q.43 For a damped harmonic oscillator of mass 250 gm, the values of spring constant (k) and damping constant
(b) are 85 N/m and 70 gm/s, respectively. What is the period of motion ?
(a) 2.5 s (b) 5.0 s (c) 6.25 s (d) 7.2 s
Ans. [b]
πx
Q.44 A string oscillates according to the equation, y = (0.50 cm) sin cos [40πt]. Find the distance between
3
nodes-
(a) 1.5 cm (b) 2.5 cm (c) 3.0 cm (d) 3.5 cm
Ans. [c]
Q.45 Two point sources, which are in phase and separated by distance D = 1.5 λ, emit identical sound waves of
wavelength λ. If a circle with a radius much greater than D, centered on the mid-point between the sources,
what is the number of points around the circle at which the interference is fully constructive ?
(a) 12 (b) 8 (c) 6 (d) 4
Ans. [c]
Q.46 The figure shows the temperature at four faces of a composite slab consisting of four materials S1, S2, S3 and
S4 of identical thickness, through which the heat transfer is steady. Arrange the materials according to their
thermal conductivities in decreasing order -
25ºC 15ºC 10ºC –5ºC –10ºC
S1 S2 S3 S4
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Q.47 The figure shows two identical copper blocks of mass 0.5 kg. When they were not in contact, block L was at
temperature 60ºC and block R was at temperature 20ºC. But, when the blocks bring in contact, they come to
the equilibrium temperature 40ºC. What is the net entropy change of the two block system during the
irreversible process ? (Specific heat of copper = 386 J/kg.K)
L R
(a) 2.4 J/K (b) 3.6 J/K (c) 4.2 J/K (d) 5.2 J/K
Ans. [a]
Q.48 Two parallel large nonconducting sheets with identical (positive) uniform surface charge densities, and a
sphere A with a uniform (positive) volume charge density are arranged as shown in figure. Rank the points
1,2,3 and 4 according to the magnitudes of the net electric field in increasing order-
+ +
+ +
1
+
+
+
2 3 ⊕ 4
+
+
+ +
d d d d
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4 (b) 1, 2, 3 = 4 (c) 1 = 2, 3, 4 (d) 4, 3, 2, 1
Ans. [b]
Q.50 A microscope is focused at a point at the bottom of a beaker containing water. The microscope is then raised
through 3 cm. To what height water must be added into the beaker to bring the point again in focus ?
(a) 15 cm (b) 12 cm (c) 10 cm (d) 8 cm
Ans. [b]
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Part B - CHEMISTRY
Q.51 One mole of compound, A, on heating with excess of conc. HI gave two moles of ethyl iodide. Compound,
A, is -
(a) ethoxy benzene (b) 1,2-dimethoxy ethane
(c) methoxy ethane (4) ethoxy ethane
Ans. [d]
Q.53 Which of the following reactions would provide the best synthesis of butan-2-ol ?
O O
(a) ether H3O+ (b) ether H3O+
MgBr + H MgBr + H
+
(c) ether H3 O (d) CO2(s) H3O+
MgBr + O MgBr +
Ans. [a]
Q.55 What reagent (s) is (are) needed to accomplish the following conversion ?
εt R εt R
?
C=C
O
H H
H H
+
(a) (i) O3 (ii) Zn/H (b) KMnO4, OH , cold
O
(c) CO2H (d) H3O+
Cl
Ans. [c]
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(c) H (d)
+ + NaCl
O Cl OH O
O
Ans. [a]
Q.58 The hydrolysis of which of the following takes the longest time ?
(a) CH3COCl (b) (CH3CO)2O
(c) CH3COOC2H5 (d) CH3CONH2
Ans. [d]
Ans. [c]
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Q.62 An ether solution of benzoic acid (A), aniline (B) and toluene (C) is extracted with aqueous NaOH. The ether
layer will contain what compound (s) after the extraction ?
(a) A (b) A + B (c) B + C (d) A + C
Ans. [c]
I II III IV
(a) I (b) II (c) III (d) IV
Ans. [c]
Q.65 Which of the following compounds reacts faster with sodium methoxide (NaOCH3) :
Cl Cl Cl Cl
O2N
NO2
Cl OCH3
I II III IV
(a) I (b) II (c) III (d) IV
Ans. [a]
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O OH
HCN, NaCN
C6H5 H
(d) C6H H EtOH
H
Ans. [a]
Q.68 Which of the following has maximum number of lone pairs associated with Xe ?
(a) XeF4 (b) XeF6 (c) XeF2 (d) XeO3
Ans. [c]
Q.69 The number of types of bonds between two carbon atoms in calcium carbide is -
(a) one sigma, one pi (b) two sigma, one pi (c) two sigma, two pi (d) one sigma, two pi
Ans. [d]
Q.70 The magnetic moment of transition metal ion is 15 B.M. The number of unpaired electrons present in it
are -
(a) 4 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3
Ans. [d]
Q.72 Which one of the following decides the shapes of orbitals in an energy shell -
(a) Magnetic quantum number (b) Principal quantum number
(c) Azimuthal quantum number (d) Spin quantum number
Ans. [c]
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Q.77 [CO(NH3)3Br] SO4 and [CO(NH3)5SO4] Br are examples of which type of isomerism -
(a) Linkage (b) Geometrical (c) Ionization (d) Optical
Ans. [c]
Q.78 Which of the following ions will exhibit colour in aqueous solution ?
(a) Lu3+ (Z = 71) (b) SC3+ (Z = 21) (c) La3+ (Z = 57) (d) Ti3+ (Z = 22)
Ans. [d]
Q.79 The correct order of C–O bond length among CO, CO32–, CO2 is -
(a) CO < CO2 < CO32– (b) CO2 < CO32– < CO
(c) CO < CO32– < CO2 (d) CO32– < CO2 < CO
Ans. [a]
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Q.83 Analysis shows that a binary compound of X (atomic mass = 10) and Y (atomic mass = 20) contains 50 % X.
The formula of the compound is -
(a) XY (b) X2Y (c) XY2 (d) X2Y3
Ans. [b]
Q.85 If Ksp of Ni(OH)2 is 2.0 × 10–15 M, the molar solubility of Ni(OH)2 in 0.10 M NaOH is -
(a) 2.0 × 10–15 M (b) 2.0 × 10–13 M
(c) 2.0 × 10–11 M (d) 2.0 × 10–9 M
Ans. [b]
Q.86 Above the Boyle temperature, the compressibility factor of the real gases, Z, is -
(a) 1 (b) < 1 (c) > 1 (d) ≤ 1
Ans. [c]
Q.87 The arsenic content of an agricultural insecticide was reported as 28 % AS2O5. What is the percentage of
arsenic in this preparation ?
(a) 16 % (b) 18 % (c) 15 % (d) 20 %
Ans. [b]
Q.88 Calculate the maximum work that can be obtained from the cell
Zn | Zn2+ (1 M) || Ag+ (1 M) Ag
Q.89 Which metal is protected from corrosion by a layer of its own oxide ?
(a) Tl (b) Ag (c) Al (d) Au
Ans. [c]
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M
Q.90 The ideal gas equation, PV = nRT, can be written in terms of density, ρ, as ρ/P = . The graph between
RT
ρ/P against P is given by :
P P P P
Ans. [b]
Q.91 When a dilute solution of KNO3 is mixed with a dilute solution of NaBr, the enthalpy change in expected to
be -
(a) Zero, O (b) > O (c) < O (d) All the above
Ans. [a]
Q.93 A compound alloy of copper and gold crystallises in a cubic lattice in which the copper atom occupy the
centres of each of the cube faces and the gold atoms occupy the lattice point. The formula of compound is -
(a) Au3Cu (b) AuCu3 (c) Au2Cu3 (d) Au1Cu2
Ans. [b]
Q.94 What volume of oxygen, at 18ºC and 75º torr, can be obtained from 110 gram of KClO3
(a) 32.6 L (b) 42.7 L (c) 3.26 L (d) 4.27 L
Ans. [a]
Q.95 CsBr crystallizes in a body centred cubic unit lattice with an edge length of 4.287 Å. How many molecules of
CsBr will be present in the unit lattice ?
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
Ans. [a]
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SERIES-A(CODE-05) AMU-2013 EXAMINATION CAREER POINT
Q.96 Arrange the following solutions in the increasing order of their osmotic pressure ?
(i) 34.2 g/l sucrose (M = 342) (ii) 60 g/l urea (M = 60)
(iii) 90 g/l glucose (M = 180) (iv) 58.5 g/l NaCl (M = 58.5)
(a) Sucrose < Urea < Glucose < NaCl (b) Sucrose < Glucose < NaCl < Urea
(c) Sucrose < Glucose < Urea < NaCl (d) NaCl < Urea < Glucose < Sucrose
Ans. [c]
Q.97 The magnitude of the charge on the electron is 4.8 × 10–10 esu. What is the magnitude of the charge on the
proton on the nucleus of helium atom ?
(a) 4.8 × 10–10 esu (b) 9.6 × 10–10 esu
(c) 6. 4 × 10–10 esu (d) 14.4 × 10–10 esu
Ans. [b]
Q.99 100 ml of 0.1 M H2SO4 is mixed with 100 ml of 0.1 NaOH. the normality of the solution obtained is -
(a) 0.4 N (b) 0.05 N (c) 0.04 N (d) 0.2 N
Ans. [b]
[ H 2 O] [ H 2 O]
(c) KC = (d) KC =
[CuO][H 2 ] [H 2 ]
Ans. [d]
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SERIES-A (CODE-05) AMU-2013 EXAMINATION CAREER POINT
Part C - MATHEMATICS
Q.101 Let A ={(x, y) : y = e–x} and B = {(x, y) : y = – x}. Then -
(a) A I B = ϕ (b) A ⊂ B
(c) B ⊂ A (d) A I B = {(0, 1) , (0, 0)}
Ans. [a]
Q.104 Let z be the set of integers. Then the relation R = {(a, b) : 1 + ab > 0} on z is -
(a) reflexive and transitive but not symmetric (b) symmetric and transitive but not reflexive
(c) reflexive and symmetric but not transitive (d) an equivalence relation
Ans. [c]
Q.105 Let L denote the set of all straight lines in a plane. Let a relation R be defined by l1 R l2 if and only if the
straight line l1 is perpendicular to the straight line l2. Then R is -
(a) symmetric (b) reflexive (c) transitive (d) none of these
Ans. [a]
Q.107 The general solution of sin 3x + sin x – 3 sin 2x = cos 3x + cos x – 3 cos 2x is -
nπ π nπ π
(a) + for n integer (b) – for n integer
2 8 2 8
π π
(c) nπ + for n integer (d) nπ – for n integer
8 8
Ans. [a]
3 2
Q.108 The value of tan cos –1 + tan –1 is -
5 3
(a) 18 (b) 2 (c) 9 (d) None of these
Ans. [a]
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SERIES-A (CODE-05) AMU-2013 EXAMINATION CAREER POINT
6i – 3i 1
Q.109 If 4 3i – 1 = x + iy, then -
20 3 i
(a) x = 0, y = 1 (b) x = 1, y = 0 (c) x = 1, y = 1 (d) None of the above
Ans. [d]
n
1+ i
Q.110 The smallest positive integer n for which = 1, is -
1 – i
(a) 4 (b) 2 (c) 8 (d) 16
Ans. [a]
Q.112 In a triangle the lengths of the largest and the smallest sides are 10 and 9 respectively. If the angles are in
A.P., then the length of the third side is -
(a) 91 (b) 8 (c) 3 3 (d) 5
Ans. [a]
Q.113 Consider an infinite geometric series with first term a and common ratio r. If its sum is 4 and the second term
3
is , then -
4
1 3 3
(a) a = 2, r = (b) a = 2, r = (c) a = 1, r = (d) none of these
2 8 4
Ans. [c]
Q.114 If p, q are positive real numbers such that pq = 1, then the least value of (1 + p) (1 + q) is -
(a) 4 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) None of these
Ans. [a]
Q.115 If 49n + 16n + p is divisible by 64 for all n ∈ N, then the least negative integral value of p is -
(a) –2 (b) –3 (c) –4 (d) –1
Ans. [d]
n
1 5
Q.116 If the 4th term in the expansion of ax + is , for all x ∈ R, then the values of a and n are -
x 2
1 1
(a) ¸6 (b) 6, (c) 2, 6 (d) None of these
2 2
Ans. [a]
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SERIES-A (CODE-05) AMU-2013 EXAMINATION CAREER POINT
Q.117 Let n be a positive integer. If the coefficients of second, third and fourth terms in the expansion of (1 + x)n
are in A.P., then n =
(a) 2 (b) 6 (c) 7 (d) None of these
Ans. [c]
Q.118 Total number of ways in which five '+' and three '–' signs can be arranged in a line such that no two '–' sign
occur together is -
(a) 10 (b) 20 (c) 15 (d) None of these
Ans. [b]
Q.119 A box contains 2 white balls, 3 black balls and 4 red balls. In how many ways can 3 balls be drawn from the
box, if at least one black ball is to be included in the draw -
(a) 64 (b) 24 (c) 3 (d) 12
Ans. [a]
Q.120 Let P = (–1, 0) \, O = (0, 0) and Q = (3, 3 3 ) be three points. Then, the equation of the bisector of the
∠POQ is -
(a) y = 3 x (b) 3y=x (c) y = – 3 x (d) 3y=–x
Ans. [c]
Q.121 The lines 2x – 3y = 5 and 3x – 4y = 7 are diameters of a circle of area 154 squares unit. Then the equation of
the circle is -
(a) x2 + y2 – 2x + 2y + 47 = 0 (b) x2 + y2 + 2x – 2y – 47 = 0
(c) x2 + y2 – 2x + 2y – 47 = 0 (d) x2 + y2 – 2x – 2y – 47 = 0
Ans. [c]
1
Q.125 The value of λ such that x – 4 = y – 2 = (z – λ) lies in the plane 2x – 4y + z = 7, is -
2
(a) 7 (b) –7 (c) 4 (d) None of these
Ans. [a]
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SERIES-A (CODE-05) AMU-2013 EXAMINATION CAREER POINT
log(1 + ax ) – log(1 – bx )
Q.126 The f(x) = is not defined at x = 0. The value which should be assigned to f at x = 0,
x
so that it is continuous at x = 0 is -
(a) a – b (b) a + b (c) b – a (d) none of these
Ans. [b]
1
f (1 + x ) x
Q.127 Let f : R → R be such that f(1) = 3, and f ' (1) = 6. Then lim =
x →0
f (1)
1
(a) 1 (b) e 2 (c) e2 (d) e3
Ans. [c]
Q.128 If f(x) is differentiable and strictly increasing function, then the value of
f (x 2 ) – f (x)
lim =
x →0 f ( x ) – f ( 0)
(a) – 1 (b) 0 (c) 1 (d) 2
Ans. [a]
Q.129 The angle between the tangents drawn from the point (1, 4) to the parabola y2 = 4x is -
(a) π/2 (b) π/6 (c) π/4 (d) π/3
Ans. [d]
Q.130 The difference between the greatest and the least values of the function
π π
f(x) = sin 2x – x on – , is -
2 2
(a) π (b) 3 – π/3 (c) – 3 + π/3 (d) None of these
Ans. [a]
( x 2 – 1)
Q.131 ∫x 3
2x 4 – 2x 2 + 1
dx =
1 2 1 1
(a) – 2– 2
+ 4 +c (b) log (2x4 – 2x2 + 1) + c
2 x x 2
1 2 1
(c) 2– 2
+ 4 +c (d) None of these
2 x x
Ans. [c]
π
Q.132 ∫ sin x[f (cos x)]dx =
–π
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SERIES-A (CODE-05) AMU-2013 EXAMINATION CAREER POINT
Q.134 The area bounded by the curves y = ex, y = e–x, the ordinates x = 0 and x = 1 is given by -
(a) e + e–1 – 2 (b) e – e–1 (c) e + e–1 (d) e + e–1 + 2
Ans. [a]
2
dy dy
Q.136 A solution of the differential equation – x + y = 0 is -
dx
dx
(a) y = 2x (b) y = – 2x (c) y = 2x – 4 (d) y = 2x + 4
Ans. [c]
Q.137 If â and b̂ are unit vectors such that â + 3 b̂ is perpendicular to 7 â – 5 b̂ , then the angle between â and b̂
is -
π
(a) (b) π/6 (c) 2π/3 (d) None of these
3
Ans. [a]
Q.138 The unit vector perpendicular to vectors î + ĵ and î – ĵ forming a right handed system is -
(a) k̂ (b) 2k̂ (c) – k̂ (d) None of these
Ans. [c]
→ → → → →
Q.139 Let a = î + ĵ + k̂ , b = î – ĵ + k̂ and c = î – ĵ – k̂ be three vectors. A vector v in the plane of a
→ → 1
and b , whose projection on c is , is given by -
3
(a) 3î + ĵ – 3k̂ (b) 3î – ĵ + 3k̂ (c) 3î + ĵ + 3k̂ (d) – 3î + ĵ + 3k̂
Ans. [b]
Q.140 Max z = x + y
Subject to y ≤ |x| – 1
y ≤ 1 – |x|
x, y ≥ 0
The Max z =
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) –1
Ans. [b]
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SERIES-A (CODE-05) AMU-2013 EXAMINATION CAREER POINT
Q.141 Max z = 2x + 3y
Subject to y ≤ x – 1
y≥x+1
x, y ≥ 0
The max z
(a) is 2 (b) is 3 (c) does not exist (d) is 10
Ans. [c]
Q.142 For any two events A and B, which of the following result does not hold true in general -
(a) P (A ∪ B) = P(A) + P(B) – P(A ∩ B) (b) P(A) = P(A ∩B) + P (A ∩ B )
(c) P(B) = P(A ∩ B) + P( A ∩ B) (d) P(A ∪ B) = P(A) + P(B)
Ans. [d]
Q.143 A fair die is rolled. The probability that the first time 1 occurs at the odd throw is -
5 6 1 31
(a) (b) (c) (d)
11 11 6 36
Ans. [b]
α 0 1 0 2
Q.144 If A = and B = , then value of α for which A = B is
1 1 5 1
(a) α = 1 (b) α = – 1 (c) α = 4 (d) No real value of α
Ans. [d]
x 3 7
Q.145 The number of positive roots of the equation 2 x 2 = 0 is -
7 6 x
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 0
Ans. [b]
cos θ – sin θ
Q.146 If A = , then A3 =
sin θ cos θ
– cos 3θ – sin 3θ cos 3θ – sin 3θ
(a) (b)
sin 3θ cos 3θ
– sin 3θ cos 3θ
cos 3θ – sin 3θ – cos 3θ sin 3θ
(c) (d)
sin 3θ cos 3θ – sin 3θ – cos 3θ
Ans. [c]
sin θ cos α sin(α + γ )
Q.147 The value of sin β cos β sin(β + γ ) is -
sin δ cos δ sin( γ + δ)
(a) sin α sin β sin δ (b) cos α cos β cos δ (c) 1 (d) 0
Ans. [d]
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SERIES-A (CODE-05) AMU-2013 EXAMINATION CAREER POINT
Q.148 The numbers of real tangents that can drawn from (1, 1) to the circle x2 + y2 – 6x – 4y + 4 = 0, is -
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 0 (d) 3
Ans. [c]
Q.150 If P is a point (x, y) and P1 = (3, 0), P2 = (–3, 0) and 16x2 + 25y2 = 400, then PP1 + PP2 =
(a) 8 (b) 10 (c) 5 (d) 4
Ans. [b]
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