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R.A. GAPUZ REVIEW CENTER, CO.

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COMMUNICABLE DISEASE NURSING

Situation: Miss Alicia is positive to syphilis, she goes to the health center for proper
management.
1. This sexually transmitted disease is characterized by:
a. Greenish yellow odorous discharge in females
b. Feeling of dryness and discomfort about the genitals and conjunctivitis
c. Painless chance at site of entry of germ with serious exudates
d. Painful frequent urination and purulent discharge
2. The following facts will guide you in your health teachings except:
a. A pregnant woman can transfer syphilis to her unborn child
b. There is no danger of any complication
c. The community can be protected through the control of prostitution
d. Aside from physical examination, diagnosis of this disease can be confirmed througyh
blood tests.
3. As part of your health teaching, you informed Miss Alicia that syphilis can be transmitted to
another through:
a. sexual contact
b. any of these modes of transmission
c. blood transfusion
d. indirect contact with contaminated articles
4. The incubation period of this disease is:
a. 5 to 10 days b. 5 to 10 months c. 2 to 5 days d. 10 days to 10 weeks
5. Prevention and control of syphilis shall be one of the agenda in your conference with the
midwives. Which of these is not relevant?
a. immunization of contact
b. need to immediately report cases found and their contacts to health authority
c. need for early diagnosis and treatment
d. symptoms of syphilis and its mode of transmission

Situation. Bellinda, a sophomore high school student attended the fiesta of her friend's town.
Two hours after arriving home she woke you because of severe nausea, vomiting, cramps and
prostration.
6. Which of the following food could have caused the food poisoning to Bellinda?
a. non-refrigerated salad c. contact with food handlers hand
b. contaminated bovine d. overheat of salami and ham
7. What organism is produced in the contaminated food?
a. Staphylococcus aureus c. Mycobacterium coli
b. Staphylococcus enterotoxins d. Salmonella typhi
8. Which of the following nursing interventions would you perform to Bellinda?
a. Assess status c. Instill IVF
b. Call the ambulance d. Drink plenty of water
9. A preventive measure in food borne infection is health teaching to food handlers. which topic
would you include in your teaching plan?
a. Food hygiene b. menu planning c. reheat all food d. Food preparation
10. The effective measures to prevent diarrhea are:
1. use of safe water 2. regular physical examination
3. hand washing and proper excreta disposal
 4. regular physical examination
a. 1,2,3 b. 3,4,5 c. 1,3,4 d. 2,3,5

Situation. Your health center is a field training area for nursing students. in a conference with
the students, you discuss Human Immunodeficiency Virus/ Acquired Immune Deficiency
Syndrome (HIV/AIDS).
11. The major route of transmission of HIV to adolescents is:
a. Through contaminated skin piercing equipments' needles and syringes
b. Sexual transmission
c. Through transmission of blood and blood products
d. Transmission from an infected mother to child
12. Which of the following is/are major signs of Pediatric AIDS:
a. chronic diarrhea of more than one month
b. prolonged fever of more than one month
c. weight loss or abnormally slow growth
d. any two of these signs
13. The following sexual practice has a low risk of transmission of HIV:
a. fallatio without condom
b. anal intercourse without a condom
c. wet kissing
d. sharing sex toy or objects that come into contact with body fluids
14. The best method to use in teaching about safe sex is:
a. role play b. lecture discussion c. lecture d. small group discussion
15. Which of the following statements is not correct?
a. Breastmilk is important in preventing intercurrent infection in HIV infected infants ans
children
b. Children who are HIV positive is a treat to other children in the home or school
c. The care of HIV patients is similar to the routine care given to cases of other diseases
d. Not everybody is in danger of becoming infected with HIV through sex

Situation. Nurisng care of any CD problem primarily focuses on giving comfort to the patient. a
caring behavior is more than a treatment.
16. Nursing care of patients with Diphtheria is provision of absolute rest. Which nursing
intervention must be done to a child with laryngeal diphtheria?
a. ice chips every four to six hours c. cookies for snack
b. small and frequent feeding d. crackers at noon time
17. Nursing care of patients with hepatitis is avoidance of undue exertion. Which one would
you advice your patient to do?
a. Parlor games b. Card games c. Stationary games d. jog little bit
18. Nursing care of patients with malaria includes provision of comfort, avoidance of chills,
proper elimination and accurate medication. Which one below is of highest priority?
a. recording of actions done c. force fluids
b. medicine intake and output d. prevention of spread
19. Nursing care of patients with influenza calls for prevention of complication. chills should be
avoided. You must instruct your patient to do which of the following?
a. change clothes while perspiring c. crude bath
b. keep warm and quiet d. enemas of glycerin
20. Nursing care of patients with measles is avoidance of complication. Which of the following
intervention is done when the child is sensitive to light or photophobia?
a. shut windows and doors c. put lights to dim
b. cover eyes with piece of cloth d. permit to wear smoke glasses
21. The most significant role of the nurse in the treatment of tuberculosis patient is one of the
following:
a. group therapy c. health teaching
b. giving ethambutol d. assisting the physician

Situation. In nursing practice, you are directly involved in providing in providing a safe
environment.
22. A biologically safe environment is free from:
 a. living sources of infection c. dirty treatment instruments
b. harmful microorganism d. corrosive agents to body tissue
23. What is the main goal of hospital against infection?
a. interrupt bacterial growth c. break the chain of infection
b. avoidance of cross infection d. strict observance of asepsis
24. This measure will prevent the spread of infection in hospital wards:
a. increase knowledge of staff on risk factors
b. strict observance of asepsis
c. disinfection of known contaminated instruments
d. prompt reporting of signs of infection
25. The most common infectious agent in the patient's unit is:
a. nosocomial infection
b. Escherichia coli
c. virulent microorganisms
d. introgenic agents

Situation. Pneumonia remains to be one of the leading causes of deaths. hence, this was
discussed in one of the conferences at the RHU.
26. This disease is characterized by:
a. Sudden onset with chills, fever, pleural pain and cough productive of rusty sputum
b. Acute onset with chills, low grade fever, dyspnea and non-productive cough
c. Fever, headache, malaise, anorexia and productive cough
d. Fever, cough, hoarseness and hemoptysis
27. Pneumonia is transmitted through which of these modes:
a. through articles freshly soiled with respiratory discharges
b. by direct oral contact
c. by droplet spread
d. any of these mode of transmission
28. The reservoir of the pathogenic organism causing pneumonia is:
a. air b. infected food c. man d. infected water
29. During home visits and as a preventive measure, the patient and other members of the
family will be advised to:
a. Have the other members of the family imunized
b. Avoiding overcrowding in living and sleeping rooms whenever possible.
c. Properly prepare and cook food for the patient.
d. Boil drinking water if unsafe
30. The following is an appropriate control measures for pneumonia that should be discussed
with the family.
a. concurrent disinfection of discharges from nose and throat
b. isolation of patient for at least 5 days
c. immunization of contacts
d. all of these measures

Situation. Robert is a freshman college student who went home to tell his mother that he is not
feeling well. his mother discovered that Robert had yellowish discoloration of his skin and
sclerae. Robert's mother brought him to the doctor for consultation and was given a diagnosis
of hepatitis B.
31. Robert shared his room with an infected person. which borrowed item of the infected
person could have caused to break the skin of Robert?
a. nail clipper b. food utensils c. toothbrush d. razor blade
32. Robert expresses his concern over the change on skin color. The nurse should recognize
that this color change is a result of:
a. stimulation of the liver to produce an excess quantity of bile pigments
b. the inability of the liver to remove normal amounts of bilirubin from the blood
c. increased destruction of the red blood cells during the acute phase of the disease
d. decreased prothrombin levels, leading to multiple sites of intradermal bleeding
33. Which nutrition regimen should the nurse encourage Robert to follow at home?
a. cheese curls and milk products c. leafy green yellow vegetables
b. meat rich in protein d. foods high in carbohydrate
34. Which of the following health teaching should the nurse include for Robert?
a. isolate self from others c. consult the physician for medication
b. safe sex with one partner d. good personal hygiene and nutrition
35. What is the possible outcome of Hepatitis B of Robert?
a. offspring will be infected c. becomes carrier of the virus
b. shorter lifespan d. unable to get married
36. Which of the following should the nurse do to ensure preventive measure to herself against
hepatitis B?
a. teach isolation technique c. universal precaution at all times
b. burn article of the patient d. practice appropriate hygiene
37. Which of the following interventions would be a priority in the teaching care plan for
Robert?
a. limit the daily amount of alcohol c. take acetaminophen for any
discomfort
b. rest frequently throughout the day d. use of condom during sexual contact

38. The incubation period of Diphtheria is:

a. 1-7 days b. 7 to 10 days c. 10 to 14 days d. 14 to 18 days
39. Active immunization against Diphtheria is produced by:
a. Diphtheria toxoid c. Gamma globulin
b. Diphtheria antitoxin d. whole blood
40. The anti-infective agent of choice in the treatment of whooping cough is:
a. Penicillin b. Streptomycin c. Sulfamerazine d. Chloromycetin
41. The duration of the catarrhal stage of whooping cough:
a. 1 to 7 days b. 7 to 14 days c. 14 to 21 days d. 21 to 28 days
42. The most dangerous complication of whooping cough:
a. Bronchopneumonia c. Hernia
b. Malnutrition d. Hemorrhage into the conjunctiva
43. Rabies to man is:
1. caused by neurotropiuc virus 2. transmitted through saliva
3. primarily the disease of warm blooded animals
4. a disease that results to sudden unconsciousness
a. only 1 and 2 b. 1,2 and 3
c. only 2 and 3 d. all of these
44. Rabies is considered:
a. curable if antirabies is given immediately after the first signs appear
b. usually fatal once the symptoms appear
c. 100% mortality as a disease
d. both B and C
45. Schistosomiasis is caused by:
a. a snail b. a fluke parasite c. virus d. rickettsiae
46. The infective stage of Schistosomiasis is during the:
a. pupal stage c. Miracidium stage
b. Cercariae stage d. all of these
47. Of the types of malariae, the most severe is caused by:
a. Plasmodium malariae c. Plasmodium ovale
b. Plasmodium vivax d. Plasmodium falciparum
48. The following diseases are transmitted to man by the bites of vectors, except:
a. malaria b. typhus fever c. Filariasis d. Schistosomiasis

Situation. Maria, 52 years old, was diagnosed as having hepatitis A.

49. The incubation period of the disease is:
a. 15-45 days b. 5-10 days c. 45-50 days d. 10-15
days
50. The following may be used in attempting to control hepatitis A, which measure is most
controversial?
a. using a gown when bathing her c. observe bed pan precaution
b. wearing mask when caring for her d. observe needle precaution
51. Of the following, the most essential elements to be considered in the treatment:
a. bed rest and diet therapy c. diversion therapy and drug therapy
b. drug therapy and diet therapy d. bed rest and diversional therapy
52. the rationale that you can explain to her why pruritus is present:
a. decreased prothrombin synthesis
b. impaired secertions of the conjugated bilirubin
c. stretching of the Glisson's capsule due to inflammation
d. bile salt accumulation in the skin
53. Occurrence of her fever could be rationalized by the:
a. release of pyrogens in inflammatory process
b. stretching of the Glisson's capsule due to inflammation
c. insufficient absorption of fat soluble vit. K
d. impaired secretions of conjugated bilirubin
54. The physician orders eneteric precaution for Maria. in addition to standard precautions the
isolation procedures that must be followed are:
a. a private room is required and the door must be kept closed
b. persons enetring the room must wear gown, gloves and mask
c. gloves and gowns must be worn when handling articles possibly contaminated by
urine or feces
d. gowns and gloves must be worn only when handling the client's soiled linen, dishes
or utensils
55. Maria's daughter states that there is only one bathroom in their house and is worried that
other members of the family could get hepatitis. The nurse's best reply would be:
a. "I suggest you buy a commode exclusively for your mother's use."
b. "There's no problem with your mother sharing the same bathroom with everyone."
c. "Your mother may use the bathroom, but you need to use disposable toilet cover."
d. "It is important that your mother and all family members wash their hands after using
the bathroom."

Situation. Glenda, 18 months old is admitted at the pediatric ward due to bronchopneumonia.
admitting orders include oxygen to be administered with mist.
56. Which of the following must be functionally prepared before admitting Glenda to her room?
a. suction machine b. croup tent c. IPPB d. tracheostomy set
57. Which of the following nursing interventions will ensure that the utilization of oxygen and
mist are maximized?
a. regulate the oxygen according to the degree of Dyspnea
b. instruct Glenda to do deep breathing
c. keep the edges of the tent tucked under the bed linen
d. suction her secertion gently
58. How many seconds should the nurse suction secretions of Glenda to prevent hypoxia?
a. 30 b. 20 c. 15 d. 10
59. Which of the following is the rationale for humidifying the oxygen for Glenda?
a. Diminish apprehension
b. Facilitate oxygen transport to the lungs
c. Promote comfort
d. Prevent drying and damage to the mucus membranes
60. Health education in the prevention and control of communicable disease is a vital
component to:
a. help individual cope up with illness c. reduce risk of exposure
b. diminish psychosocial stress d. modify risk behavior
61. One best method to motivate people to participate in health activities for the education of
poliomyelitis and measles is through:
a. comics and newspaper c. television
b. media-mix strategy d. radio
62. The first line of defense of the body against infection is:
a. full immunization c. intact skin
b. physical fitness d. personal hygiene
63. Before starting kindergarted, a child should receive immunization for the folowing diseases:
a. DPT, OPV, measles c. measles, OPV, Rubella
 b. OPV, DPT, Tuberculin test d. OPV, Rubella, Hepa B
64. Nutrition is sometimes neglected due to patient's ability to ask for food. what is your meal
plan for kids with measles
a. ice cream and cookies c. coke and sandwich
b. fluids and crackers d. McDonald's sundae
65. During the convalescent stage of measles the desquamating skin is unsightly. What would
you do to overcome this situation?
a. cover the skin b. rub with olive oil c. scrape the skin d. rub with baby oil
66. Health teachings to prevent spread of Schistosomiasis includes:
1. use of safe water for bathing or washing
2. proper use and maintenance of latrines/water sealed toilets
3. seeding of streams with larivorous fish like tilapia fingerlings
4. use of knee boots in epidemic areas
a. 1,2,3 b. 1,2,4 c. 1,3,4 d. 2,3,4
67. Parasitism can be prevented by developing among children:
a. good eating habits c. habit of taking bath daily
b. good health habits d. skills inusing spoon and fork
68. A 7-day-old child is brought to the health center because of inability to suck since
yesterday. You suspect that this is a case of neonatal tetanus. As you assess the child which of
these questions will you ask the mother in order to confirm your suspicion?
a. All these questions
b. Did the child normally suck and cry 2-4 days before she was brought to the center?
c. Did the child have convulsions?
d. Have you observed stiffness of the child's body?
69. The reservoir of tetanus bacillus is:
a. man b. contaminated soil c. intestines of animals d. all of these
70. Which of these statements about tetanus is wrong?
a. immunity last for 5 months in infants born to immune mothers
b. immunity can be obtained after 2 primary doses of tetanus toxoid in mothers one
month before delivery.
c. recovery from tetanus does not result in solid immunity
d. tetanus bacillus is directly transmitted from man to man
71. Prevention of tetanus neonatorum can be achieved through
a. all of these measures
b. increasing the immunization coverage of women of child bearing age
c. immunizing the newborn
d. increasing the proportion of deliveries attended by the traditional birth attendant
72. If you were to conduct a seminar on the prevention and control of tetanus neonatorum for
new midwives, which of the following should be given emphasis:
a. all these measures
b. methods, equipments and techniques of asepsis in childbirth
c. education of mothers on the practice of asepsis in care of the umbilical stump.
d. education of birth attendants on the practice of strict asepsis in the cutting of the
umbilical cord
73. Screening for HIV should be offered routinely to the following groups:
a. all of these c. babies of women with HIV infection
b. people who feel they are sick d. intravenous drug users seeking treatment
74. A false negative HIV antibody test is possible result. This means that
a. Blood has antibodies when it really does not have them
b. The person is not yet capable of passing the virus to another person
c. the person was not exposed to HIV
d. The test shows that the blood does not hav the antibodies when it really does have
them

Situation. The nurse conducts proper assessment of patient and considers existing policies
and guidelines in the provision of treatment
75. The nurse recognizes the following signs and symptoms of chicken pox
a. Rashes which pass through the stages of macules, papules and vesicles and are
more abundant on the face and extremities
 b. Rashes which begin on the head and neck and spreads cephalocaudally
c. Red blotchy rashes which appears on the third day to the seventh day
d. Rashes which begin on the trunk and spread peripherally and are more abundant on
covered parts of the body
76. Chicken pox is contagious
a. after the appearance of the rashes
b. from onset of the catarrhal stage up to the third day of rashes
c. from as early as 1 to 2 days before the rashes appear until the lesions have crusted
d. from the onset of the rashes until the lesions have dried up
77. The following nursing intervention is not appropriate for a child with chicken pox
a. Give aspirin for fever
b. Wash rashes with soap and water to reduce secondary infection
c. Apply calamine lotion to the lesions to decrease pruritus
d. Advise to keep the fingernails short
78. Carol is newly diagnosed leprosy patient who will be treated under the multidrug therapy
(MDT). This therapy consist of the following:
a. Dapsone, Lamprene and Rifampicin
b. Isoniazid, Pyrazinamide and Rifampicin
c. Chloroquine, Primaquine and Lamprene
d. Lamprene, Pyrazinamide and Rifampicin
79. To ensure Carol's compliance to the drug therapy, the nurse should discuss the benefits of
MDT therapy. These includes the following Except:
a. One month after treatment, the patient can no longer transmit the disease to another
person
b. It prevents emergence drug resistance
c. It cuts down the period of transmission of the disease
d. It treats Dapsone resistant cases
80. The supervised dose of the MDT drug is given in the health center
a. twice a month b. daily c. once a week d. once a month
81. in order to prevent Carol to develop deformities, health teaching should include
a. Good rest and sleep c. Regular and high protein diet
b. Regular health check up d. Self care exercise and physical therapy
82. Czarina, a three year old child, is brought to the health center for check up due to fever and
cough. If you suspect a respiratory tract infection, how will you assess a child?
1. ask mother if Czarina had convulsion 3. look and listen for wheezing
2. look and listen for stridor 4. look for chest indrawing
a. 1,2,4 b. 1,2,3,4 c. 1,2,3 d. 1,3,4
83. Which of the following signs will require that Czarina should be admitted in the hospital?
a. severe undernutrition c. measles with dehydration
b. presence of stridor when sleeping d. any of these signs
84. Mother is advised to give home care for Czarina. This means she will do the following,
except:
a. Soothe the throat with simple remedies such as tea with sugar
b. Cough remedies with high doses of anti-histamines may be given for cough
c. Encourage child to take more fluids than she used to drink when she is still well
d. Continue feeding Czarina at home even if she has fever
85. Kussel is a victim of infantile paralysis. He is now hospitalized, which correct attitude must
the nurse demonstrate?
a. discipline b. curiosity c. anxiety d. sympathy
86. Nursing care of Kussel with muscle pain due to polio should be considered. Which of
these should you do?
a. inform him of hospital facilities c. reassure him that he will not be
crippled
b. tell stories about other victims d. explain possible treatment to be done
87. Kussel is complaining of the kind of bed he is using. What would you tell him about his
hard bed and footboard?
a. the hardboard is for arthritis prevention
b. the footboard will establish foot position
c. the plywood under the mattress will help align posture
 d. the foot board will help prevent pressure sores
88. Maximum rests should be given to Kussel. What should the care plan be?
a. bright lights shall be installed c. explain the treatment regimen
b. visit as often as possible d. schedule visit of all personnel
89. One of the most important nursing intervention in acute polio is the observation of vital
signs. What is the goal of monitoring vital signs?
a. so that doctors won't leave c. to determine impending death
b. for everyday to be exercised d. to watch for possible cranial involvement
90. Sonny, 8 years old was discharged from hospital after treatmenbt of a seizure disorder. In a
follow up visit to Sonny, Mrs. J, his mother expressed fears for Sonny might have another
seizure episode. In response to this situation you will:
1. encourage Mrs. J to vent her fears and concerns
2. tell Mrs. J that she just have to accept Sonny's condition and limitation
3. assist Mrs J in learning to understand and cope with Sonny's condition and limitation
4. have to provide necessary care for Sonny yourself
a. 1,2 b. 1,3 c. 2.4 d. 3,4
91. If a dog bites a person it should be
a. leashed and observed for 10 days
b. killed immediately
c. none of these
d. brought to the veterinarian examination to determine the presence of rabies in the
blood
92. Dandy, 59 y/o lady is admitted due to pneumonia. She complains of pain in the chest
when coughing. What action should the nurse take to be of assistance to Dandy?
a. encourage her to cough, then give her pain medication as ordered
b. turn Ms. Dandy to the unaffected lung then ask her to cough
c. splint the patient's chest while she coughs
d. recognize that the patient is too sick to cough at this time
93. Upon discharge, which of the following health teaching of the nurse to Dandy would be
inappropriate?
a. avoid exposure to draft c. maintain the usual daily exercise
b. maintenance of hygiene d. avoid fatigue
94. Which of the following manifestations, if reported by a patient, should the nurse recognize
as supporting a diagnosis of meningitis?
a. Pain with neck flexion c. tingling of the lips
b. drooling of saliva d. weakness of the legs
95. The long term follow up care plan for six months old infant who is being treated for acute
meningitis would include which of the following interventions?
a. Pneumogram c. CSF culture
b. Audiology testing d. Electroencephalogram
96. All of the following are part of the nurse's role in infection control, except:
a. recognizing the signs and symptoms of infection
b. collecting specimens of drainage from infected wounds
c. deciding upon the appropriate antibiotic to be administered to the client
d. supporting the client's body defense mechanisms
97. Which of the following actions by a nurse would be least likely to result in client comfort
when attending an STD clinic?
a. addressing the client by name
b. standing with your arms crossed as you talk with the client
c. making eye contact appropriate for the client's culture
d. asking the nature of the problem in an area that maintain privacy
98. Secondary prevention of STDs would include:
a. educating teenagers about the risks of sexual relationships
b. using condoms to prevent transmission of STDs
c. Preventing complications of STDs
d. Encouraging infected persons to notify their sexual partners
99. A client with viral hepatitis has no appetite and food makes him nauseated. Which of the
following nursing interventions are appropriate?
a. explain that high fat diets are usually better tolerated
 b. encourage foods high in protein
c. explain that the majority of calories need to be consumed in the evening hours
d. monitor for the fluid and electrolyte imbalance
100. All but one are the best means for providing complete bedrest for the child
a. feeding the client c. providing quiet diversion
b. giving sedation d. giving complete physical care
101. When the health care worker is washing his/her hands, which of the following
observations made by the nurse would indicate that the worker understands the principle or
proper handwashing?
a. washed hands prior to removing gloves
b. washing hands for 5 seconds
c. rinses hands with fingers pointed up
d. removes rings before washing
102. When counseling a group of young men about STDs, the nurse would state
a. "Latent syphilis is detected by physical examination."
b. "Tertiary syphilis accurs in less than 5% of patient."
c. "Repeated exposure is needed for syphilis to develop."
d. "If left untreated, syphilis will ultimately produce systemic symptoms."

Situation. Janet, age 28, is the wife of an AIDS client who died one year ago. She has just
been told that she has HIV infection and is devastated by the news.
103. Janet says to the nurse, "Why me? Why am I being punished for my husband's sins?
How could God do this to me! it's not fair!" This reaction is one of:
a. depression b. denial c. bargaining d. anger
104. The nurse's therapeutic response would be:
a. "Perhaps a clergy can help you understand what is happening to you. Would you like
me to arrange for that?"
b. "It must be really frustrating for you now. How can I best help you?"
c. "Looking at the illness as punishment is a negative attitude. Maybe a positive outlook
will help you accept it."
d. "I have often asked the same questions. There are many innocent victims of AIDS it
isn't fair."
105. The nurse taught Janet about the development of AIDS. Which of the following
statements indicates that the patient has understood the instruction?
a. "I can expect to develop AIDS in a short time."
b. "I can expect to remain healthy for a number of years."
c. "I can expect that i can recover fully from this infection."
d. "I can expect that the course of AIDS will be predictable."
106. Janet starts to lose weight, and she has persistent fever and sorethroat. She has not told
her parents about the illness. Her mother, concerned about her health status, asks the nurse,
"What is wrong with my daughter?" Which of the following would be your best response?
a. "What has your daughter told you about her illness."
b. "Do you have any idea about what your daughter's diagnosis may be?"
c. "Your daughter is seriously ill and will need your care and support."
d. "You'll have to ask your daughter, I cannot discuss her diagnosis with you."
107. Janet had a tuberculin skin (PPD) test 48 hours ago. Which of the following findings, if
identified at Janet's injection site, indicates the need for further observation?
a. maculopapular rash of 5 mm c. skin induration of 5 mm
b. ecchymotic area of 10 mm d. reddened circle of 10 mm
108. One moring, the nurse observes Janet to be in a depressed mood. The nurse asks her,
"What are you thinking about?" This communication technique is:
a. focusing b. reflecting c. seeking validation d. giving
broad opening
109. Janet states, "I don't understand how Zidovudine works. Will it stop the HIV infection?"
The nurse's best response is
a. "The medication helps to slow the process but won't cure or stop it totally."
b. "The medication blocks the reverse transcriptase, the enzyme needed for the HIV
replication."
c. "Don't you know? There isn't any medication to stop or cure HIV."
 d. "No, it won't stop the infection. In fact sometimes the HIV can become immune to the
drug itself."
110. Janet who has Kaposis sarcoma has all of the following nursing diagnosis. To which one
should the nurse give priority?
a. Altered thought process related to lesion.
b. Altered health maintenance related to non compliance.
c. Defensive coping related to loss of boundaries.
d. Hopelessness related to inability to control disease process.
111. "I am going to die soon, there is no use taking these medications," says Janet to the
nurse. The appropriate nursing diagnosis is:
a. hopelessness b. self esteem c. moderate enxiety d. social isolation
112. Ted's chest x-ray film indicates pulmonary tuberculosis. The physician orders sputum
specimen for acid fast bacilli. The nurse knows that additional teaching is necessary when the
client states that the specimen must be:
a. coughed up from deep within the lungs
b. collected in the morning
c. refrigerated until brought to the laboratory
d. brought to the clinic as soon as possible after collection
113. Ted is being treated on an outpatient basis. The nurse should expect that the physician
should order a diet that:
a. includes liquid protein supplement
b. has frequent small high calorie meals
c. is low in calories but high in carbohydrates
d. contains food high in calories and low protein
114. When teaching Ted about recovery from tuberculosis, the nurse should reinforce that the
treatment measure with the highest priority is:
a. having sufficient rest c. changing the current lifestyle
b. getting plenty of fresh air d. consistently taking prescribed medication
115. A client comes to the STD clinic because a sexual partner was recently diagnosed as
having gonorrhea. The health history reveals that the client has engaged in receptive anal
intercourse. The nurse should assess the client for:
a. melena b. constipation c. anal itching d. ribbon shaped stools
116. A young male client comes to the clinic complaining of sorethroat and rash. Because of
the client's active sexual history, serologic test is performed to confirm the diagnosis of syphilis.
The symptoms indicate that the client's syphilis can be classified as
a. latent b. primary c. secondary d. tertiary
117. To limit the spread of Syphilis and to treat those with the disease, the sexual contacts of
the client with secondary syphilis must be investigated to locate those who may have infected
the client or been infected during sexual relations with the client. The nurse should ask the
client about sexual contacts during the past:
a. 21 days b. 30 days c. 3 months d. 6 months
118. The physician diagnoses a client with late stage (tertiary) syphilis. When obtaining a
health history, the nurse recognizes that the statement by the statement by the client that
would most support this diagnosis would be:
a. "I noticed a wart on my penis."
b. "I have sores all over my mouth."
c. "I've been losing a lot of hair lately."
d. "I'm having trouble keeping my balance."
119. When caring for a client with malaria, the nurse should know that
a. Seizure precaution must be followed.
b. Peritoneal dialysis is usually indicated.
c. Isolation is necessary to prevent cross infection.
d. Nutrition should be provided between paroxysms
120. During an AIDS education class, the client states, "Vaseline works great when I use
condoms." The nurse recognizes that this statement indicates:
a. an understanding of safer sex
b. the ability to assume self responsibility
c. ignorance concerning the transmission of HIV
d. A lack of information concerning correct use of condom