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PCM : TEST PAPER
XII – JEE MAINS
MATHEMATICS
SECTION - A
x 2 y2
2. If the chords of contact of tangents from two points (-4, 2) and (2, 1) to the hyperbola 1 are at
a 2 b2
right angle, then the eccentricity of the hyperbola, is
7 5 3
(1) (2) (3) (4) 2
2 3 2
3. The perpendicular bisector of the line segment with endpoints (2, 3, 2) and (-4, 1, 4) passes through the
x 3 y 6 z 1
point (3, 6,1) and has equation of the form where a, b and c are relatively prime
a b c
integers with a > 0. The value of abc (a b c) is equal to
2cos 2 1 tan2 1
4. If cos 1 where 1, 2 (0, ), then the value of 2 is equal to
2 cos 2
tan2 2
2
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
x 3 y 2 z 1
5. Consider the line , then which of the following statement is INCORRECT?
3 1 0
(1) The line is parallel to xy plane (2) The line is perpendicular to z axis
(3) The line passes through point (6, 3, 1) (4) The line intersect the plane x 3y z 3
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JEE-MAINS TEST PAPER
tan 1
t dt
7. Lim 0
has the value
x
x2 1
(1) (2) 0 (3) 1 (4)
2
ex , x0
8. Let f (x) then which of the following statement is INCORRECT?
|1 x |, x 0'
(3) f has one local maxima and one local minima (4) f is decreasing function in (0, 1)
1
9. Let Ai, where i = 1, 2, 3, …….n, be n independent event such that P(Ai ) , then probability that none
i 1
of the events A1,A2 ,.....,An occur is
n n 1 1 1
(1) (2) (3) (4)
n 1 n 1 n 1 n 1
1 1
10. If geometric mean between x and y is G, then value of 2 2 is equal to
G x G y
22
1 3
(1) G2 (2) (3) 2G2 (4)
G2 G2
1 dy
11. If y x2 then is equal to
1 dx
x2
1
x2
1
x2
x ....
2
2xy xy xy 2xy
(1) (2) (3) (4)
2y x2 2y x2 y x2 x2
2
y
12. A flagstaff 5 m high is placed on a building 25m high. If the flag and building both subtend equal angles on
the observer at a height 30m, the distance between the observer and the top of the flag is
5 3 3 2 5 2
(1) (2) 5 (3) 5 (4)
2 2 3 3
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JEE-MAINS TEST PAPER
13. If the pair of tangents are drawn from origin O to the circle x2 y2 6x 8y 21 0, meets the circle A
and B, then the length of AB is
4 17 21
(1) 11 (2) 21 (3) (4)
5 3 5
14. Let a i j, b j k and c k i. If d is a unit vector such that a.d 0 and [bcd] 0 then d is
i j k i j 2k i j k i j 2k
(1) (2) (3) (4)
6 6 6 6
15. If the equation cot 4 (x) 2cosec2 (x) a2 0 has atleast one solution then, sum of all possible integral
values of „a‟ is equal to
(1) 4 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 0
dy 1 y2
16. Consider the differential equation . Also x = 1 at y = 0. Choose the correct
dx 1 y2 cos(y) xy
option?
17. A plane meets coordinate axes at P, Q and R respectively such that position vector of centroid of PQR is
(1)
r 20i j 5k 120
(2) r 20i 8j 5k 120
1 1
18. The 7th term of the series 1 (1 2)2 (1 2 3)2 ........ is equal to
(1 3) (1 3 5)
(1) 16 (2) 18 (3) 20 (4) 22
19. The number of four digit natural numbers which contains exactly two distinct digits, is
20. Negation of the statement “If Amit is eating then Bipin is sleeping” is -
21. Let P { : sin cos 2 cos } and Q { : sin cos 2sin } be two sets. Then :
22. The relation R = {(1, 1), (2,2), (3,3), (1,2),(2,3), (1,3)} on the set A = {1,2,3} is
(1) reflexive but not symmetric (2) reflexive but not transitive
k
k 1 k x
23. If sin 1
(Br ) and A Br , then the value of Lim(1 x)tan is
r 1 2 k r 1 x A 2
2
(1) (2) (3) 0 (4)
2
24. The mean weight of 9 items is 15. If one more item is added to the series, the mean becomes 16. The value
of 10th item is
61 51 31 21
(1) (2) (3) (4)
2 2 2 2
26. If the line contained by the planes 2x y z 3 0 and x y 2z 5 0 is parallel to the plane
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JEE-MAINS TEST PAPER
9
27.
e x
loge (3x 2)
2
(3x 2)
dx is
3
ex loge (3x 2) C (2) ex loge (3x 2) C
3x 2
(1)
1 3
(3) ex loge (3x 2) C (4) ex loge (3x 2) C
3x 2 3x 2
Value 1 2 3 4
Frequency 5 4 0 α
30. If three points A(6, 2), B(4, 0) and C(α, β) are such that | AC CB| | AC CB| is minimum, then the
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JEE-MAINS TEST PAPER
PHYSICS
SECTION - B
31. A particle is projected vertically upwards with speed u in a medium in which the resistance to motion is
proportional to the square of the speed. Initially net force on the particle is two time its weight downwards.
Find the time of ascent of the particle.
u u u u
(1) (2) (3) (4)
4g 2g 8g 6g
32. The rms velocity of smoke particles of mass 5 1017 kg in their Brownian motion at NTP is
(k 1.381023 J / mole)
(1) 1.5 m/s (2) 1.5 cm/s (3) 15 m/s (4) 15 cm/s
33. A person rolls small ball with speed u along the floor from point. A. f x = 3R, determine the required speed
u so that the ball returns to A after rolling on the circular surface in the vertical plane from B to C and
becoming a projectile at C. Neglect friction.
5 3 5
(1) gR (2) gR (3) gR (4) gR
2 2 3
34. The time period of a freely suspended magnet does not depend on :
(1) its length
(2) pole straight
(3) the horizontally component or earth‟s magnetic field
(4) length of suspension wire
35. A particle is moving on straight path. If initial velocity is 8 ms1 and acceleration is 2ms2 then distance
travelled by the particle in initial 5 second will be :
(1) 25 m (2) 12 m (3) 16 m (4) 17 m
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JEE-MAINS TEST PAPER
36. 8 gm O2, 14 gm N2 and 22 gm CO2 is mixed in a container of 10 litre capacity at 27C. The pressure
exerted by the mixture in terms of atmospheric pressure will be :
(1) 1 (2) 3 (3) 9 (4) 12
37. If for a blackbody the graph of change is emissive power at different
temperatures T1, T2 and T3 with wavelength is according to the figure then.
(1) T1 T2 T3 (2) T3 T2 T1
(3) T1 T2 T3 (4) T3 T1 T3
38. A transverse wave it described by equation : y y0sin 2(ft x / 8) then find wave length
10
capacitance F. Which of the following combination will achieve the desired result.
11
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
41. A force F is required to break a copper wire of radius R. The necessary force required to break the copper
42. The time period of a pendulum is 4 sec. When it is placed in a lift accelerating up with 3g then its time
period will be :
43. The work done requires to increase the area of soap film of 10 cm × 6 cm to 10 cm × 11 cm is 3.0 × 10 -4 J.
(1) 5 102 N / m (2) 3102 N / m (3) 1.5 102 N / m (4) 1.2 102 N / m
44. The ratio of velocity of sound in two chamber one is filled with O2 and other is filled with He at same
temperature will be :
21 1 200 8
(1) (2) (3) (4)
200 8 21 1
45. Which one of the following rods of same material will conduct the highest quantity of heat assuming that
their ends are maintained at the same steady temperatures T 1 and T2?
46. A hollow sphere of radius 2R is charged to V volts and another smaller sphere of radius R is charged to
V/2 volts. Then the smaller sphere is placed inside the bigger sphere without changing the net charge on
each sphere. The potential difference between the two spheres would be :
47. Efficiency of carnot engine is 20% If temperature of sink 27C, then the temperature of source will be :
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49. Null point in the galvanometer is obtained when a cell of emf E and internal resistance r is connected
across the length of 22 cm wire of the potentiometer. Now a resistance of 10 is connected across the
terminals of the cell (by closing the key K) and null point is obtained against the length of 20 cm. Then the
internal resistance r of the cell is :
50. The intensity of X-rays from a Coolidge tube is plotted against wavelength as shown in figure. The
minimum wavelength found is C and the wavelength of the Ka lines is K the accelerating voltage is
increased.
51. For the circuit shown in figure. Determine the current in 2 ohm resistance in steady state.
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JEE-MAINS TEST PAPER
52. A nucleus disintegrates into two nuclear parts which have their velocities in the ratio 2 : 1. The ratio of
their nuclear sizes will be :
mv mv
(1) 2tan1 (2) 2tan1
BqR BqR
mv mv
(3) / 2 2tan1 (4) tan1
BqR BqR
55. A inductor of inductance L = 400 mH and three resistance of resistances
R1 4 and R2 2 are connected to a battery of emf E = 10 V as shown
in the figure. The internal resistance of the battery is negligible. The switch
S is closed at time t = 0. What is the potential drop across L as a function of
time?
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JEE-MAINS TEST PAPER
56. A very long uniformly charged nonconducting rod (linear charge density = λ) is moving with a constant
velocity v through the centre of a circular conducting loop as shown. It radius of the loop is r, then induced
emf in loop is :
0vr 0vr 2
(1) (2)
4 4
0vr
(3) (4) zero
2
57. A light ray is incident perpendicular to one face of a 90 prism and is totally internally reflected at the
glass – air interface. It the angle of reflection is 45. We conclude that the refractive index is :
1 1
(1) n (2) n 2 (3) n (4) n 2
2 2
58. For a radio signal to travel 150 km from the transmitter to a receiving antenna, it takes :
(1) 5 104 s (2) 4.5 103 s (3) 5 108 s (4) 4.5 106 s
59. In the Young‟s double slit experiment, when a glass plate ( 1.5) of thickness t is introduced in the path
of one of the interfering beams (wavelength = λ), the intensity at the position where central maxima
occurred previous remains unchanged. The minimum thickness of the glass plate is :
(1) 2 (2) (3) (4)
3 3
60. A sinusoidal voltage of peak value 200 volt is connected to a diode and resistor R
in the circuit shown so that half wave rectification occurs. If the forward
resistance of the diode is negligible compared to R, the rms value of voltage
across R in volts is approximately.
(1) 200 (2) 100
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JEE-MAINS TEST PAPER
CHEMISTRY
SECTION – C
61. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the chirality (optical isomerism) of the cis and trans
isomers of the type [M(aa)2b2] (M stands for a metal, a and b are achiral ligands and aa is a bidentate
ligand?
(1) The trans form is achiral and optically inactive while the cis form is chiral and exists in two
enantiomeric forms.
(2) Both the cis and trans forms are achiral and optically inactive
(3) The trans form is chiral and exists in two enantiomeric forms while the cis form is achiral and
optically inactive
(4) Both the cis and trans forms are chiral, and each exists in two enantiomeric forms
62. Which of the following structure is most stable for (CH3 )PF4 ?
63. In the presence of PbS and ZnS in a mineral, the froth flotation process requires NaCN because :
(1) ZnS goes into the solution as soluble complex [Zn(CN)4 ]2
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(I) [Kr]5s1 (II) [Rn]5f 14 6d17s2 (III) [Ar]3d10 4s2 4p5 (IV) [Ar]3d6 4s2
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1
70. A small particle of mass m moves in such a way that PE mKr 2 , where k is a constant and r is the
2
distance of the particle from origin. Assuming Bohr‟s model of quantization of angular moment and
circular orbit, r is directly proportional to :
71. A 2 m long tube closed at one end is lowered vertically into water until the closed end is flush with the
water surface. Calculate h has as shown in the following figure.
(Barometric pressure = 1 atm = 10 m of hydrostatic water head, temperature = 25C, density of water = 1
72. Gof for the formation of HI(g) from its gaseous elements is – 9.67 kJ/mol at 500K. When the partial
pressure of HI is 10.0 atm and of I2 is 10-3 atm. What must be the partial pressure of hydrogen at this
temperature to reduce the magnitude of G for the reaction to zero?
(1) 103 atm (2) 103 atm (3) 855 atm (4) 10 atm
73. The solubility (S) of a solute in water varies with temperature as follows. S AeH/RT . For which of the
following solute n S vs 1/T plot is : Where H represent the enthalpy of solution?
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74. Which of the following graphs are correct for the given reaction if initial concentration of reactants are
same :
75. Calculate the pH of aqueous solution of 1.0M HCOONH4 assuming complete dissociation
(pKa of HCOOH = 3.8 and pKb of NH4OH = 4.87)
(3) Osmosis will take place from S1 and S2 (4) S1 is hypotonic while S2 is hypertonic
77. 102 mol of Fe2O3 is treated with excess of KI solution in the pressure of dilute H2SO4 , the products are
Fe2 and I2 (g). What volume of 0.1 M Na 2S2O3 will be needed to reduce the liberated I2 (g)?
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78. During the electrolysis, the amount of product liberated at electrode is plotted against charge in Faraday,
The correct graph is :
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
(1) rate k[B2 ]2 (2) rate k[B] (3) rate k[A]2[B]2 (4) rate k[A]2[B]
3n 3n
80. Fe SCNn absorb color because of the complex Fe SCNn only. whereas Fe3 and SCN both
are colourless. In the given table, the equilibrium concentration of Fe3 and SCN and corresponding
absorbance are given
Exp. No. [Fe3 ] [SCN1 ] Absorbance
1 3103 (M) (10 M) 3
2 3103 (M) 0.3
2
10 3 (M)
Considering absorbance proportional to concentration of the complex, the value of n is :
(1) 3 (2) 6 (3) 4 (4) 2
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81. The van der Waal parameters for gases W,X,Y and Z are
W 4 0.027
X 8 0.03
Y 6 0.032
Z 12 0.027
Pt | H2 (g, 0.1bar) | H (aq,103 M) || MnO4 (aq, 0.1M) | Mn2 (aq, 0.01M), H (aq, 0.01M) | Pt
84. Which of the following test will not be given by (squaric acid)
(1) Br2water test (2) 2, 4-DNP test (3) Neutral FeCl3 (4) Tollen‟s test
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(1) (P) II I; (Q) II I; (R) I II ; (S) II I (2) (P) I II; (Q) II I; (R) I II ; (S) II I
(3) (P) I II; (Q) I II; (R) I II ; (S) II I (4) (P) I II; (Q) II I; (R) I II ; (S) I II
86. The conformer of isopentane having maximum torsional and maximum Vander waal strain is
87. Consider the following sequence of reaction and identify the end product (R) :
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
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TEST : ID – 03
DATE :- 06/04/2018
XII # JEE-MAINS
ANSWER & SOLUTION
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JEE-MAINS TEST PAPER
88.
89. Among cellulose, polyvinyl chloride, nylon and natural rubber, the polymer in which the intermolecular
(1) Nylon (2) Poly vinyl chloride (3) Cellulose (4) Natural Rubber
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