NE LIBRARY, MOCK TEST 2 Council of states House of the People

1. Which article of the Indian Constitution deals with Not more than 250 Not more than 552
the suability of the State of India? Not more than 238 Not more than 530
representatives of representative of states
a. Art 100
States and Union plus not more than 2
b. Art 200
Territories nominated Anglo-
c. Art 300 Indians plus X
d. Art 330
2. Which of the following statements are true of Which one of the following will fit in the place
Adjournment Motion? marked 'X'?
1. It is an extraordinary procedure which sets (a) Ministers who are not members of Parliament
aside the normal business of the House. but who have to get themselves elected to either
2. Its main object is to draw the attention of the House of Parliament within six months after
House to a recent matter of urgent public assuming office
importance. (b) Not more than 20 nominated members
3. The RajyaSabha can make use of this (c) Not more than 20 representative of Union
procedure. Territories
4. It must be supported by not less than 50 (d) The Attorney General who has the right to
members for introduction. speak and take part in the proceedings of either
5. It involves an element of censure against House of the Parliament
government. 8. Who among the following have the right to vote in
a. 1,2,4 & 5 the elections to both the LokSabha and the
b. 2,3 and 5 RajyaSabha?
c. 2, 3 & 4 (a) Elected members of the Lower House of the
d. 1, 2 & 4 Parliament
3. The Final work of UPSC in recruitment process is (b) Elected members of the Upper House of the
a. Selection Parliament
b. Appointment (c) Elected members of the Upper House of the
c. Certification State Legislature
d. Placement (d) Elected members of the Lower House of the
4. Constitutional safeguards to civil servants are State Legislature
ensured by: 9. Article 156 of the Constitution of India provides
a. Art 310 that a Governor shall hold office for a term of five
b. Art 311 year from the date on which he enters upon his
c. Art 312 office. Which of the following can be deduced
d. Art 315 from this?
5. The Vote on Account is passed 1. No Governor can be removed from office till
a. After the voting of demands completion of his term
b. Before the general discussion 2. No Governor can continue in office beyond five
c. After the general discussion years
d. Either after the voting of the demands or Codes:
after the general discussion. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
6. Which of the following is/are extra-constitutional (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
and extralegal device(s) for securing cooperation 10. Which one of the following is a part of the
and coordination between the States in India? electoral college for the President but, not the
1. The National Development Council forum for his impeachment?
2. The Governor’s Conference (a) LokSabha
3. Zonal Councils (b) RajyaSabha
4. Inter-State Council (c) State Legislative Councils
Select the Correct Codes: (d) State Legislative Assemblies
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3 11. What is not explicitly stated in the Constitution of
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 4 only India but followed as a convention?
7.
Page 1 of 13
 (a) The Finance Minister is to be a Member of the
Lower House
(b) The Prime Minister has to resign if he loses the
majority in the Lower House
(c) All sections of India are to be represented in
the Councils of Ministers
(d) If both the President and the Vice-President
demit office simultaneously before the end of the
tenure, Speaker of the Lower House of the
Parliament will officiate as the President
12. Which one of the following was not proposed by
the 73rd Constitutional Amendment in the area of
Panchayati Raj?
(a) Thirty percent seats in all elected rural local
bodies will be reserved for women candidates at
all level
(b) The States will constitute their Finance
Commissions to allocate resources to Panchayati
Raj institutions
(c) The Panchayati Raj functionaries will be
disqualified to hold their offices if they have more
than two children
(d) The elections will be held in six months’ time if
Panchayati Raj bodies are superseded or dissolved
by the State government
13. If the Prime Minister of India belonged to the
Upper House of Parliament:
(a) he will not be able to vote in his favour in the
event of a no-confidence motion
(b) he will not be able to speak on the budget in
the Lower House
(c) he can make statements only in the Upper
House
(d) he was to become a member of the Lower
House within six months after being sworn in
14. Given below are two statements, one labelled
asAssertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason
(R).
Assertion (A) : Reservation of thirty-three percent
of seats for women in Parliament and
StateLegislaturedoes not require any
Constitutional amendment.
Reason (R) : Political parties contesting elections
can allocate thirty-three percent of seats they
contest towomen candidates without any
Constitutionalamendment.
In the context of the above two statements which
oneof the following is correct?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Page 2 of 13
15. In the Presidential election in India, every elected
member of the Legislative Assembly of a State
shall have as many votes as there are multiples of
one thousands in the quotient obtained by dividing
the population of the State by the total number of
the elected members of the Assembly. As at
present (2018) the expression “population” here
means the population as ascertained by the:
(a) 1991 Census (b) 1981 Census
(c) 1971 Census (d) 1961 Census
16. Consider the following statements
1. A private member in RajyaSabha cannot initiate
legislation on a subject of national importance.
2. A private member of RajyaSabha can get
alterations passed to legislation introduced in
the LokSabha.
Which of the above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. None
17. Consider the statements
1. Chief Information Commissioner(CIC) has a
term of 5 years or 65 years of age while Chief
Vigilance Commissioner(CVC) has a term of 4
years or 65 years of age.
2. CIC presents its annual report to Central
Government while CVC presents its annual
report to President.
Which among the statement is Incorrect?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither
18. Consider the following statements:
The Finance Commission is created
1. By the President of India on the advice of Union
Cabinet
2. Under Art 280
3. To suggest ways and means to augment the
financial resources of the Union and the states
4. To make recommendation to the Prime
Minister defining the principles which should
govern the grants-in-aid of the revenues of the
states out of the Consolidated fund of India.
Choose the correct option:
a. 2, 3 & 4
b. 1, 2 & 3
c. 1, 3 & 4
d. 1 & 2
19. The 42nd Amendment Act 1976 imposed a freeze
on the population figure for readjustment at the
1971 census and has been extended by the 84th
Amendment Act 2001 till 2026. As a result, the
House of the People today represents the
 population figure of the 1971 census. For what 26. Which one of the following is the largest(area
purpose has the freeze on undertaking wise) LokSabha Constituency?
delimitation been extended up to the year 2026? a. Kangra
(a) To enable State Governments to pursue the b. Kachchh
agenda for population stabilisation c. Ladakh
(b) b) To ensure continuity in developmental d. Bhilwara
programmes for periods longer than the interval 27. In case of a deadlock between the two houses of
between successive censuses the Parliament, the joint sitting is presided over by
(c) (c) To avoid unnecessary expenditure that the :
exchequer would incur due to the associated costs a. President
of increased number of people’s representatives in b. Vice President
both the centre and state governments c. Speaker of LokSabha
(d) (d) None of the above d. Member of LokSabha specifically elected for
20. The Constituent Assembly arrived at decisions on the purpose.
the various provisions of the Constitution by: 28. In which areas is concurrent action of LokSabha
a. Majority Vote and RajyaSabha required?
b. Two-thirds majority 1. Removal of CAG
c. Consensus 2. Approval of emergency proclamation
d. Unanimously as decided by the Drafting 3. No Confidence Motion
Committee under B.R.Ambedkar. 4. Constitutional Amendment
21. Who presided over the inaugural meeting of the a. 1 & 2
Constituent Assembly of India? b. 2,3 & 4
a. SachidanandaSinha c. 1,2 & 4
b. BR Ambedkar d. 1, 3 & 4
c. Dr.Rajendra Prasad 29. Parliament is empowered to get all the following
d. C.Rajagopalachari removed except:
22. Which of the following are the principal features of a. CAG
GoI Act of 1919? b. Supreme Court Judges
1. Introduction of Dyarchy in the executive c. Chairman of UPSC
government at the Centre d. High Court Judges
2. Introduction of separate communal electorate 30. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
for muslims a. The Governor can refuse to give his assent to
3. Devolution of legislative authority by the Centre a bill
to the Provinces b. The Governor can reserve the bill for the
4. Expansion and reconstitution of Central and assent of the President
Provincial Legislatures c. The Governor may refuse to invite a leader of
Select the correct code: the Party in VidhanSabha who does not
a. 1, 2 & 3 command the majority in the House
b. 1, 3 & 4 d. The Governor may dismiss the Speaker of the
c. 3 & 4 only VidhanSabha and the Chairman of
d. 1 & 3 Only VidhanParishad.
23. Who proposed the Preamble before the Drafting 31. Who administers the oath of the President of
Committee of the Constitution? India?
a. JL Nehru a. Vice-President
b. BR Ambedkar b. Prime Minister of India
c. BN Rao c. Speaker, LokSabha
d. Mahatma Gandhi d. Chief Justice of India
24. The total number of members in a Legislative 32. The Word ‘Budget’ is mentioned in which of the
Council should not exceed that of a Legislative following Articles of the Constitution:
Assembly by: a. Art 256
a. 1/3 b. Art 112
b. 2/3 c. Art 110
c. 1/2 d. None
d. 1/4 33. Which of the following statements are Incorrect?
25. The Chairman of the Public Accounts Committee of 1. RajyaSabha can reject a Money Bill
the Parliament is appointed by: 2. RajyaSabha can make recommendations on a
a. Prime Minister Money Bill
b. President 3. RajyaSabha cannot reject a Money Bill
c. Finance Minister 4. RajyaSabha should return the Money Bill to the
d. Speaker of LokSabha LokSabha within 14 Days

Page 3 of 13
 5. RajyaSabha can amend a Money Bill 38. Which of the following acts introduced the
6. Select the correct code: principle of election in India
a. 2, 3 & 4 a. Indian councils act of 1861
b. 1, 2 & 5 b. Indian councils act of 1892
c. 1 & 5 c. Indian councils act of 1909
d. 1 Only d. Indian councils act of1919
34. Which of following expenditures are charged upon 39. The CAG of India can removed from the Office only
the Consolidated Fund of India? in like manner and on like grounds as :
1. Allowances of Chairman of LokSabha a. Chairman of UPSC
2. Expenditure relating to the raising of loans and b. Supreme Court Judge
the service and redemption of debt. c. Attorney General of India
3. Pensions of the judges of High Courts. d. Speaker of LokSabha
4. Any sum required to satisfy the award of any 40. Statutory recognition to the portfolio system was
arbitration tribunal. accorded by :
5. Administrative expenses of the Office of CAG a. Indian councils act of 1892
a. 2 & 5 b. Indian councils act of 1871
b. 1, 2 & 5 c. Indian councils act of 1861
c. 2, 3 & 4 d. Indian councils act of 1882
d. 1, 2 3, 4 & 5 41. Which of the following is not a feature of
35. Which of the following statements are Incorrect? Government of India Act of 1935?
1. Appropriation Bill cannot be amended while the a. Diarchy at the Centre
Finance Bill can be amended. b. All India Federation
2. Finance Bill cannot be amended while c. Provincial autonomy
Appropriation Bill can be amended. d. Dyarchy in the Provinces
3. Same procedure governs both the 42. Itafort in Papumpare District was first excavated in
Appropriation and Finance Bill. the year:
4. Appropriation and Finance Bill are governed by a. 1969
different procedures. b. 1974
5. Appropriation Bill cannot be rejected by the c. 1977
RajyaSabha while Finance Bill can be rejected d. 1979
by it. 43. Tuensang Frontier Division was transferred to
a. 2 & 4 Nagaland on
st
b. 2, 4 &5 a. 1 November 1956
st
c. 1 & 3 b. 1 December 1957
nd
d. 1, 3 & 5 c. 2 November 1956
nd
36. A d. 2 December 1957
List-I ( Terms ) List II( Defined by ) 44. Dophabum is a peak located in
A. Consolidated Fund 1. Art 110 a. West kameng
of India 2. Art 267 b. East Kameng
B. Money Bill 3. Art 266 c. Changlang
C. Annual Financial 4. Art 265 d. Dibang Valley
Statement 5. Art 112 45. DayingEring Committee submitted its report on:
th
D. Contingency Fund a. 4 Jan 1965
th
of India b. 20 Feb 1967
th
c. 6 Dec 1966
st
Codes: A B C D d. 21 Jan 1964
a) 4 1 5 3 46. In which year was the first Election of Panchayats
b) 2 1 5 4 in NEA was held
c) 4 1 5 2 a. 1969
d) 3 1 5 3 b. 1970
37. Which is not correct about President’s ordinance c. 1971
making power? d. 1972
rd
a. It is co-extensive with legislative power of 47. When was the Panchayati Election based on 73
Parliament. Constitutional amendment first held:
nd
b. Laid down in Art 123 a. 2 April 2003
st
c. Shall cease to operate on expiry of six weeks b. 1 December 2002
nd
from the reassembly of the Parliament. c. 2 December 2004
th
d. Cannot be withdrawn at any time by the d. 4 April 2002
President. 48. Who inaugurated Itanagar as the Capital of
Arunachal Pradesh?

Page 4 of 13
 a. B.D Shastri c. 1 & 3 only
b. VV Giri d. All of the above
c. NeelamSanjeeva Reddy 55. Which of the following is the first extinct species
d. KAA Raja which was resurrected in the recent past?
49. Which among the following correctly describes the a. Mammoth
term ‘Ecological Efficiency’? b. Pyrenean ibex
a. Chemical energy converted into biomass from c. Indian Cheetah
one trophic level to another. d. Thylacine
b. Ability of plants to convert solar energy into 56. Consider the following statements
chemical energy. 1. NASA’s parker Solar probe is scheduled for
c. Amount of organic matter stored by launch in 2018 to explore the Sun’s outer
producers. atmosphere.
d. Nutrient availability at the highest trophic 2. The probe will use Mercury’s gravity to
level. gradually bring its orbit closer to the Sun.
50. The ‘Red Data Books’ published by International Select the correct code:
Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural a. 1 only
resources(IUCN) contain list of b. 2 only
1. Endemic plant and animal species present in c. Both 1 & 2
the biodiversity hotspots d. Neither
2. Threatened plant and animal species 57. NASA’s OSIRIS-Rex Mission aims at:
3. Protected sites for conservation of nature and a. To study black holes
natural resources in various countries. b. Study dark matter
Which statements are correct? c. Find earth like planets
a. 1 & 3 d. Collect samples from an asteroid
b. 2 only 58. With reference to Food and Agriculture
c. 2 & 3 Organisation(FAO), consider the following
d. 3 only statements:
51. In which one of the following categories of 1. It is an agency of UN that leads international
protected areas in India are local people not efforts to eliminate hunger and poverty.
allowed to collect and use the biomass? 2. It annually releases the Global Hunger Index.
a. Biosphere reserves 3. India is a member of FAO
b. National parks Which are correct?
c. Wetlands declared under Ramsar convention a. 1 and 2 only
d. Wildlife sanctuaries b. 1 and 3 only
52. Which of the following are correctly paired c. 3 only
1. Annex-I countries : Cartagena protocol d. 1, 2 and 3
2. Certified Emissions Reduction: Nagoya Protocol
3. Clean Development Mechanism: Kyoto protocol 59. N.K.Singh Panel was constituted for
Select the option: a. Reviewing the Fiscal Responsibility and
a. 1 & 2 only Budget Management Act
b. 2 & 3 only b. Revisiting the Defence Procurement Policy
c. 3 only c. Assessing the Basel VI norms to be
d. 1, 2 & 3 implemented across the National Banks.
53. ‘Bluesnarfing’ refers to: d. Facilitating the implementation of the GST.
a. A malicious technique of tricking web users 60. “Annual Greenhouse Gas Bulletin” reports on the
into revealing confidential information. latest trends and atmospheric burdens of
b. Hacking of Bluetooth enabled devices. greenhouse gases. It is issued by:
c. A 4G wireless broadband technology a. Intergovernmental Panel on Climate
developed by the Third generation Change(IPCC)
partnership project(3GPP) b. United Nations Environment Programme
d. Technology developed to harness the c. Greenpeace International
potential of Blue spectrum of wavelength for d. World Meteorological Organization.
deep space exploration. 61. Which of the following groups of gases contribute
54. Which among the following can act as Biomarkers? to the ‘Green House Effect’?
1. Genes a. Ammonia and Ozone
2. Proteins b. Carbon mono-oxide and Sulphur di-oxide
3. Hormones c. Carbon tetrafluoride and Nitrous Oxide
Select the correct code: d. Carbon dioxide and Methane
a. 1 & 2 only 62. Which one of the following is the correct definition
b. 2 & 3 only of ‘Agenda 21’?

Page 5 of 13
 a. It is an action plan of UNO for protecting b. 2 only
human rights. c. Both 1 & 2
b. It is book of 21 chapters on nuclear d. Neither
disarmament. 69. Besides Kaziranga National Park , the Indian one-
c. It is an action plan for the sustainable horned rhinoceros are found in which of the
development. following areas?
d. It is an agenda for the election of the 1. Orang NP
president in the next meeting of SAARC. 2. Pobitara NP
63. Which of the following statements regarding 3. Jaldapara NP
Radioactive pollution are correct? 4. Dudhwa NP
1. It causes genetic changes in the animal genes Choose the correct code:
2. It causes disbalance among different minerals a. 1, 2 & 3
in the soil. b. 2, 3 & 4
3. It hinders blood circulation. c. 1 & 2 Only
4. It causes cancer. d. All of the above
Choose the correct options: 70. Which Organisation publishes the World
a. 1 and 2 Happiness Report?
b. 1 and 4 a. Sustainable Development Solutions Network
c. 1,3 and 4 b. World Bank
d. 2, 3 and 4 c. WHO
64. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly d. UN
matched? 71. Consider the following statements about Barak-8
a. Kyoto Protocol - Carbon Trading Missile:
b. Environmental Impact Assessment - 1. Jointly developed by India and France
Leopold Matrix 2. Long range surface-to-air nuclear capable
c. The Year without Summer - 1816 missile
d. Milankovich Theory - On the origin of 3. Has the capacity to identify and neutralize
species various forms of aerial threats such as rockets,
65. Which of the following statements are true about UAVs, planes, helicopters in a single flight.
Ecosystem? Select the correct code
1. Ecosystem comprises both biotic and abiotic a. 1 & 2 only
components. b. 2 & 3 only
2. Solar radiation is the main driving force of the c. 1 & 3 only
ecosystem. d. All of the above
3. Ecosystem is a closed system. 72. Consider the statements about : Women
4. Ecosystem does not have its own productivity. Transforming India Awards
a. 1 and 2 1. Launched by NITI Aayog in partnership with
b. 2 and 3 World Bank
c. 1 and 3 2. To recognize transformational impact of works
d. 3 and 4 undertaken by women in Indian politics.
66. The Pyramid of energy in any ecosystem is Select the correct code:
a. Always upright a. 1 only
b. Maybe upright or inverted b. 2 only
c. Always inverted c. Both 1 and 2
d. None of the above d. Neither
67. Energy flow in ecosystem is 73. ‘SagarVani’ system released by the Union Ministry
a. Unidirectional of Earth Science is:
b. Bidirectional a. An integrated information dissemination
c. Multi-directional system that will serve the coastal community
d. None of the above regarding their safety.
68. Consider the following statements about the New b. A SONAR system for deep sea mineral
National Medical Commission Bill, 2017: exploration.
1. The government can dictate guidelines for fees c. A language code for Indian Navy to
upto 40% of seats in private medical colleges. communicate more securely.
2. The bill not only has a provision for a common d. None of the above.
entrance exam but also a licentiate(exit) exam 74. Which of the following sections of Indian Penal
that medial graduates have to pass before Code(IPC) prohibits the publication of the identity
practicing or pursuing PG courses. of rape victims?
Select the correct code: a. Section 228A
a. 1 only b. Section 125

Page 6 of 13
 c. Section 302 1. Nilgiri Biosphere reserve was the first biosphere
d. Section 144 reserve in India
75. With reference to the World Monuments Fund 2. Nilgiri BR is the India’s Largest Biosphere
(WMF), consider the following: reserve.
1. It is a dedicated fund under UNESCO managed Select the correct code
by the affiliates of UNESCO. a. 1 only
2. Every member country of UNESCO has agreed b. 2 only
to contribute to this fund. c. Both 1 & 2
3. Every year, WMF presents the Hadrian Award d. Neither
to international leaders who have advanced the 81. E-RaKAM is a first-of-its-kind initiative that
preservation of world architecture. 1. Leverages technology to connect farmers of the
Select the correct answer using the codes below. smallest villages to the biggest markets of the world
a. 1 only 2. Establishes grading and standardization centres for
b. 3 only agricultural produce in the remotest locations of the
c. 2 & 3 only country to promote food processing
d. 2 only Which of the above is/are correct?
76. Consider the statements about : Measles and A. 1 only
Rubella B. 2 only
1. Measles are caused by Bacteria and Rubella C. Both 1 and 2
through Virus D. None
2. India, along with ten other WHO member
countries have resolved to eliminate Control 82. The objective of the GST composition scheme is to
rubella/congenital rubella syndrome(CRS) by 1. Reduce duties and taxes on all raw materials to
2022 zero
3. MR Vaccination campaign is targeting the age 2. Maximize the tax on value added to the final
group of 9 months to less than 10 years in a product
phased manner. 3. Reduce the tax compliance cost for small
Select the correct code: businesses
a. 1 & 2 only 4. Charge differential taxes for the same product
b. 2 & 3 only based on different compositions
c. 3 only Select the correct answer using the codes below.
d. None A. 3 only
77. Consider the following statements: B. 1 and 2 only
1. The Belt and Road Initiative(BRI) will connect C. 4 only
three continents D. 1, 2 and 3 only
2. BRI has five maritime and land routes 83. The Amasr Act, 2010 that was recently seen in
3. The two South Asian economic corridors : news concerns
Bangladesh-China-India-Myanmar(BCIM) and A. Preservation of monuments
China-Pakistan-Economic Corridor are part of B. Immigration and refugees in India
the BRI. C. Genetic cleansing of livestock population
Select the correct code D. Prohibited chemicals and weapons
a. 1 & 2 only 84. Which among the following core industries has the
b. 2 & 3 only highest weight in the Index of Industrial
c. 1 & 3 only Production(IIP)?
d. All of the above a. Coal production
78. Recently, the first formal official level discussions b. Petroleum refinery production
of the ‘Quad’, the quadrilateral formation of India, c. Electricity generation
Japan, US and Australia was held at: d. Steel production
a. Tokyo 85. Consider the following statements regarding GDP:
b. New Delhi 1. It is the value added by all the firms in the
c. Washington DC economy
d. Manila
2. It is the final value of goods and services
79. Besides India, Hindi is an official language of which
of the following countries? produced in the economy
a. Bangladesh 3. It is the sum of final consumption and
b. Nepal investment expenditure and net of exports
c. Bhutan and imports
d. Fiji 4. It is the income received by all the factors of
80. Consider the following statements: production

Page 7 of 13
 Select the correct answer using the code given below: a. 1 & 2 only
b. 2 only
a. 1 & 2 only c. 2 & 4 only
b. 1, 2 & 3 only d. All of the above
c. 1, 2 & 4 only 92. Consider the statements:
1. Decrease in consumption expenditure may lead
d. All of the above
to increase in capital accumulation.
86. Consider the following statements:
2. Increase in savings may lead to increase in
1. Base Year prices are used tocalculate the real
capital accumulation.
GDP
3. Increase in savings leads to future economic
2. Base Year prices are used tocalculate the
growth.
nominal GDP
4. Foregone present consumption leads to
Select the correct answer using thecode given below:
increased future consumption.
a. 1 only
Select the correct code:
b. 2 only
a. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
b. 2 & 3 only
d. Neither
c. 1, 2 & 3 only
87. If a country is experiencing recession, then which
d. All of the above
of the following shall be true:
93. Muntra, recently rolled out by the Defense
a. Decrease in real GDP
Research and Development Organization (DRDO) is
b. Decrease in nominal GDP
a/an
c. Decrease in rate of growth of GDP
a. Unmanned remotely operated tank
d. All of the above
b. Stealth land mine
88. Tax revenue collection in the economy mainly
c. Indigenously developed fifth generation
depends on which of the following:
aircraft
1. Nominal GDP
d. Airborne Radar system for fighter planes
2. Real GDP
94. Which one among the following states was first
3. Select the correct answer using the code given
annexed by Lord Dalhousie under the Doctrine of
below:
Lapse?
a. 1 only
a. Nagpur
b. 2 only
b. Jhansi
c. Both 1 & 2
c. Sambalpur
d. Neither
d. Satara
89. The National Income of a country(India) is equal to
95. Royal Asiatic Society was founded by
which of the following:
a. Sir William Jones
a. Gross National Product(GNP)
b. Sir John Marshall
b. Net National Product at Market Prices
c. RD Banerjee
c. Net National Product at Factor Cost
d. Sir William Bentinck
d. Income going to the household sector
96. ‘New Lamps for Old’ was written by:
90. Consider the following statements:
a. Bipin Chandra Pal
1. Net Factor Income from Abroad is equivalent to
b. AurobindoGhosh
net of exports & imports
c. BG Tilak
2. Old Age Pension is not included in the
d. Ashwani Kumar
estimation of National Income
97. Responsivist Class of Leaders belonged to ?
3. Retirement Pension is included in the
a. Gandhians
estimation of National Income
b. No changers
4. Indirect taxes and subsidies are included in
c. Muslim League
national income
d. Swarajists
Select the correct answer using the code given
98. Through which of the following was the partition
below:
of Bengal subsequently annulled?
a. 2, 3 & 4 only
a. Morley Minto Reforms, 1909
b. 1, 2 & 3 only
b. Report on Indian Constitutional Reforms,
c. 1 only
1918
d. All of the above
c. A proclamation of the king made during the
91. Which of the following constitutes Investment in th
coronation Durbar staged at Delhi on 12
the economy:
Dec, 1911
1. Production of consumption goods
d. The Montague Chelmsford Reforms, 1919
2. Production of capital goods
99. The National Pledge is an oath of allegiance to the
3. Production of services
Republic of India. The one who composed it was
4. Buying and selling of shares
a. PydimarriVenkataSubbaRao
Select the correct codes:
Page 8 of 13
 b. BankimchandraChatterji b. 1 & 3 only
c. Rabindranath Tagor c. 2 & 3 only
d. Mahatma Gandhi d. 1, 2, 3 & 4
100.Consider the following statements 106.Which of the following was the committee
1. Butler Committee report – Relationship appointed by the British government to examine
between the Indian states and Paramount the working of ‘Dyarchy’ in India?
power a. Muddiman Commission
2. Hartog Committee report – growth of b. Hartog Commission
education in British India and potentialities of c. Butler Commission
its further progress d. Hunter Commission
Choose the Incorrect statements 107.With reference to Simon Commission consider the
a. 1 only statements:
b. 2 only 1. It recommended the replacement of diarchy
c. Both 1 & 1 with responsible government in the provinces
d. Neither 2. It was boycotted by all political parties in India
101.Which of the following were part of Gandhi Irwin 3. Rabindranath Tagore renounced his knighthood
pact of 1931? to protest against Simon Commission
1. Release of all the political prisoners not a. 1 only
convicted of violence b. 1 & 2 only
2. Public enquiry into police excesses c. 2 & 3 only
3. Suspension of Civil Disobedience Movement d. 1, 2 & 3
a. 1 only 108.Which of the following were the immediate
b. 2 & 3 only reasons behind the launching of Quit India
c. 1 & 3 only movement?
d. 1,2 & 3 1. Failure of round table conferences
102.With reference to the national freedom struggle, 2. Rising prices and war time shortages
what does JatiyaSarkar refer to? 3. Reverses suffered by British in South East Asia
a. An organization that carried out underground a. 1 & 2 only
revolutionary activities b. 1 & 3 only
b. A parallel government formed during Quit c. 2 & 3 only
India movement d. 1, 2 & 3
c. A committee that carried out mass struggle in 109.The System of begar was:
Princely states a) a part of revenue administration
d. An interim government formed after b) an agricultural practise resulting in high
resignation of congress ministries in 1939 yields
103.The ‘Pledge of Independence’ was officially c)a system of forced labour
promulgated during which of the following d) classification of taxes
movements? 110.Which of the following statements regarding the
a. Swadeshi movement, 1905 'Lucknow Pact (1916)' is/are correct?
b. Non Cooperation movement, 1920 1. Congress accepted the separate electorate for
c. Civil Disobedience Movement, 1930 the first time.
d. Quit India movement, 1942. 2. Congress and Muslim league jointly demanded
104.Government of India Act 1935 was the outcome of "Dominion status" for India.
1. Simon Commission Report Select the correct answer using the codes given
2. Nehru Report below:
3. Third Round Table Conference a) Neither 1 nor 2
4. Select the correct answer: b) 1 only
a. 1 only c) 2 only
b. 1 & 3 only d) both 1 and 2
c. 2 & 3 only 111.Who was the viceroy of India during the
d. 1,2 & 3 foundation of Indian National Congress?
105.Which among the following were part of Jinnah’s a) Lord Bentick
fourteen demands? b) Lord Dufferin
1. Separation of Sindh from Bombay c) Lord Dalhousie
2. Separate electorates for Muslims d) Lord Caning
3. Federal constitution with residual power to 112.Anda, harmika, chhatri are parts of which the
provinces following architectural forms?
4. One-third muslim representation in the central a) Buddhist stupa
legislature b) Prehistoric rock-cut caves
a. 1, 2 & 4 only c)Dravidian temple

Page 9 of 13
 d) Indo-islamic tomb 2. While Mahavira belonged to a Mahajanapada,
113.which of the following is/are common Buddha was from Sangha
characteristics of Ajanta and Ellora caves? Which of the statements given above is/are
1. They both are rock cut caves. correct?
2. they both have chaityas a) 1 only
3. They both are dedicated to Buddhism only b) 2 only
Select the correct answer using the code given c) Both 1 and 2
below. d) Neither 1 nor 2
A) 2 only 119.With reference to the market control policy of
B) 1 and 3 only AlauddinKhilji, consider the following statements:
C) 1 and 2 only 1. He set up warehouses and stocked them with
D) 1, 2 and 3 foodgrains to be released during famine only
114.Yavanas during the ancient period of Indian history 2. He controlled the prices of horses to ensure
were reasonable supply to the army.
a) visitors from Greece Which of the statements given above is/are
b) goldsmiths during Gupta Period correct?
c) artisans of central India a) 1 only
d) warrior tribes of South India b) 2 only
115.With referene to cultural history of India, c) Both 1 and 2
Dravidastye of temple architecture include which d) Neither 1 nor 2
of the following features? 120.Zabti, dahsala and batai, prevalent during the reign
1. Gopuram of Akbar, were
2. Garbhagriha a) officials in revenue administration
3. Mandapa b) names of silver, lead and copper coins
4. Vimana respectively
Select the correct answer using the code given c) type of trader's guilds
below. d) different systems of revenue administration
a) 1 and 4 only 121.Which of the following is/are the port cities of
b) 2, 3 and 4 only ancient India situated on the Coromandal coast?
c) 1, 2 and 3 only 1. Arikamedu
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 2. Mahabalipuram
116.With reference to the Vedic age, consider the 3. Kaveripattanam
following statements: Select the correct answer using the code given
1. In Rig vedic age, land was held as private below
property. a) 1 and 2 only
2. The king started maintaining a standing army in b) 2 and 3 only
the Rig vedic period c) 3 only
3. Cattle slaughter was prohibited since the d) 1, 2 and 3
beginning of Vedic age. 122.Consider the following statements regarding the
Which of the statements given above is/are reign of Sher Shah Suri:
correct? 1. He is credited with building Grand Trunk Road
a) 1, 2 and 3 2. He extended equal treatment to all subjects
b) 1 only irrespective of the faith they professed
c) 2 and 3 only Which of the statements given above is/are
d) 1 and 2 only correct?
117.which of the followign was not a consequence of a) 1 only
Alexander's invasion of India? b) 2 only
a) Direct contact established between India and c) Both 1 and 2
Greece d) Neither 1 nor 2
b) Establishment of well demarcated Greek empire 123.which of the following animals is/are found on the
in north west India Lion Capital at Sarnath?
c) Expansion of geographcial knowledge of the 1. Tiger
world 2. Horse
d) Facilitated expansion of Mauryan Empire 3. Elephant
118.with reference to Mahajanapadas and sanghas, Select the correct anwer using the code given
consider the following statements: below.
1. While most mahajanapadas were monarchies a) 1 and 2 only
ruled by one king, the sanghas were oligarchies b) 2 and 3 only
ruled collectively by kings c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1 only

Page 10 of 13
124.Gita Govinda, which describes the relationship 3. Bahamani Kingdom acted as a cultural linkage
between krishna and the Gopis of Vrindavan, was between North and South
written by Which of the statements given above is/are
a) Tulsidas correct?
b) Padmavati a) 1 and 2 only
c) Jinasena b) 1 and 3 only
d) Jayadeva c) 2 only
125.With reference to the cultural history of India, the d) 1, 2 and 3
term Pietra-dura refers to
a) a type of miniature painting introduced by 130.With reference to administration in Chola Empire,
Portuguese consider the following statements:
b) a special costume worn by Sufi saints 1. Nadu was the smallest unit of administration
c) an assembly of village enders during the 2. The villages practiced a system of self
sultanate period government
d) a decorative art on wall using semi-precious Which of the statements given above is/are
stone correct?
126.Consider the followign statements regarding King a) 1 only
Harshavardhana b) 2 only
1. He madePataliputra the seat of his capital c) Both 1 and 2
2. He converted to Jainism in the later stages of his d) Neither 1 nor 2
life
3. He abolished the practice of given land grants to 131.With reference to the dynasty of Kushanas in India,
the priests. consider the following statements
Which of the statements given above is/are 1. Their empire was limited only to northwestern
correct? part of India
a) 1 and 2 only 2. Saka era was started under their rule
b) 2 and 3 only 3. They issued gold coins in India for the first time
c) 1 only Which of teh statements given above is/are
d) None correct?
a) 1 and 3 only
127.Which of the following is/are the characteristics of b) 2 only
social life of people during Vedic period? c) 1, 2 and 3
1. The institution of gotra d) 2 and 3
2. Well established ashram system
3. Matriarchal family system 132.The guilds (Shrenis) of ancient India could perform
Which of the statements given above is/are functions related to
correct? 1. Lending and financing
a) 1, 2 and 3 2. Administration and judiciary
b) 1 only 3. Domestic and foreign trade
c) 2 and 3 only Select the correct answer using the code given
d) 1 and 3 only below
128.Which of the following can be inferred from the a) 1 and 3 only
historica evidences availble till date about Indus b) 1 and 2 only
Valley Civilization? c) 2 and 3 only
1. Hierarchy in urban habitation d) 1, 2 and 3
2. Prevalence of long-distance trade
3. Presence of a central authority 133.Inner Line Regulation is a popular term for
Select the correct answer using the code given a) Regulation for the Peace and Good Government
below of Certain Districts on the Eastern Frontier
a) 1 and 2 only b) Bengal Eastern Frontier Act
b) 1, 2 and 3 c) Assam Frontier Regulation
c) 2 and 3 only d) Bengal Assam Frontier Regulation
d) 1 only
134.The Tribal Subcommittee formed in the
129.With reference to Bahamani Kingdom, consider Constituent Assembly is also known as
the following statements: a) Dying Ering Committee
1. Bahamani Kingdom ruled over the Deccan b) Elvin Committee
region c) Bordoloi Committee
2. None of the rulers inducted any Hindu officials d) NEFA committee
in the administration.

Page 11 of 13
 135.With reference to the Modern History of and continental plate
Arunachal Pradesh, consider the following c) It is formed by excessive rainfall in the tropical
objectives of Nehru-Elwin Plan region
1. Tribals were to develop according to their own d) it is formed due to convection caused by high
traditions and customs and nothing should be insolation
imposed on them
2. Imposition of developmental schemes should be 140 Consider the following statements regarding
pushed tactically Equatorial type of Climate:
3. The rights of thetribals in forests and land 1. There is uniformity of temperature throughout the
should be respected. year
Which of the statements above is/are correct 2. It is characterized by high annual rainfall
a) 1 and 2 only Which of the statements given above is/are correct
b) 1 and 3 only a) 1 only
c)2 and 3 only b) 2 only
d) 1, 2 and 3 c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
136.Consider the following statements with reference 141 With reference to El-Nino, consider the following
to the Agency Councils in Modern History of statements
Arunachal Pradesh 1. It is an extension of the cold equatorial current
1. It was constituted in accordance with NEFA 2. It results in the distortion of equatorial
Panchayat Raj Regulation of Bordoloi Committee atmoshperic circulation
Recommendation 3. it results in irregularities in the evaporation of sea
2. Vice Presidents of ZillaParishads were members water
of the Council Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
3. The Chief Minister presided over the meetings a) 1 only
of the Council b) 2 and 3 only
4. Five year plans and annual plans approach for c) 1 and 3 only
development of NEFA was considered by the d) 1, 2 and 3
Council 142 This climate is characterized by warm moist summers
a) 1, 2, and 3 and cool dry winters. The climate is modified strongly
b)2, and 3 by maritime influence. There is rain every month. It is
c) 2 and 4 only found in both Northern as well as southern
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 hemisphere.
137 The Aral Sea is bordered by which of the following Which among the following is best described by the
countries? above passage
1. Turkmenistan a) China type climate
2. Uzbekistan b) Siberian type climate
3. Kazakhstan c) Laurentian type climate
Select the correct answer using the code given below d) Mediterranean type climate
a) 1 and 2 only 143 Which one of the following is related to the
b) 2 and 3 only formation of crust, mantle and core?
c) 1 and 3 only a) Differentiation
d) 1, 2 and 3 b) Degassing
138 Consider the following statements: c) Photosynthesis
1. The variation in length of days and nights during d) Solar Winds
the year occurs due to the elliptical nature of 144 The primary agent responsible for the process of
earth'sorbit of revolution mass movement is
2. During the summers in the northern hemisphere, a) Waves
the daylight increases towards pole b) Running water
Which of teh statements given above is/are correct? c) Gravity
a) 1 only d) Wind
b) 2 only 145 with reference to earthquakes, hypocenter refers to
c) Both 1 and 2 a) the point on the earth's surface which experience
d) Neither 1 nor 2 the seismic waves first
139 Which of the following is correct regarding the b) the point where P waves and S waves meet
process of formation of Inter Tropical Convergence c) the point where the energy is released
Zone (ITCZ) d) the point on earth where earthquake waves are
a) It is dynamically produced due to the rotation of not experienced
the earth
b) It is formed by convergence of an oceanic plate

Page 12 of 13
146
Which of the following countries are landlocked?
1. Colombia
2. Bolivia
3. Paraguay
4. Venezual
Select the correct answer using the code given below
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c)2 and 4 only
d) 1, 3 and 4 only
147 Rakhine state of Myanmar borders which of the
following countries?
1. China
2. India
3. Bangladesh
Select the answer using the code given below
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
1 only
148 Which of the following atmoshperic layers exhibit
increase in temperature with increasing altitude?
1. Troposphere
2. Stratosphere
3. Mesosphere
4. Thermosphere
Select the correct answer using the code given below
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 and 4 only
c) 1, 2 and 3 only
d)2, 3 and 4 only
149 Which of the following statements regarding Itafort
are correct:
1. The fort is completely built of red bricks
2. It is a fortified area of an irregular shape, enclosed
by natural ridges
3. Three gates at Eastern, Southerna dn Western
directions have been found
Select the answer using the code given below
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1, 2 and 3
d)1 and 3 only
150 With reference to the traditional political institutions
of Arunachal Pradesh, Gambo refers to
a) head or a leader or an influential person among
Adis of Mechuka
b) Warrior clans of Subansiri valley
c) village spirit of the Monpas
d)Priests of the Akas

Page 13 of 13