Professional Documents
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1. The addition of a catalyst during a chemical reaction 4. When copper is heated with conc. HNO 3 , it
alters which of the following quantities? produces
(1) Cu(NO3)2 and NO
(1) Internal energy
(2) Cu(NO3)2, NO and NO2
(2) Enthalpy
(3) Cu(NO3)2 and N2O
(3) Activation energy (4) Cu(NO3)2 and NO2
(4) Entropy Answer (4)
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AIPMT-2016 (Code-X)
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AIPMT-2016 (Code-X)
13. The correct statement regarding a carbonyl 16. Which of the following is an analgesic?
compound with a hydrogen atom on its alpha-carbon,
is (1) Penicillin
(a) (b) (c) (d) (2) The H – O – H bond angle in H2O is smaller
than the H – N – H bond angle in NH3
(1) (ii) (iii) (i) (v)
(3) The H – C – H bond angle in CH4 is larger than
(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
the H – N – H bond angle in NH3
(3) (iii) (iv) (v) (i)
(4) The H – C – H bond angle in CH4, the H – N – H
(4) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i) bond angle in NH3, and the H – O – H bond angle
Answer (4) in H2O are all greater than 90°
Sol. Fact. Answer (1)
4
AIPMT-2016 (Code-X)
Sol. ∵ G = H – TS C
O CH3
For reaction to be spontaneous, G should be
negative. 25. The product obtained as a result of a reaction of
nitrogen with CaC2 is
Note : G can be negative in option (4) also.
(1) CaCN
22. Natural rubber has
(2) CaCN3
(1) All trans-configuration
(3) Ca2CN
(2) Alternate cis - and trans-configuration
(4) Ca(CN)2
(3) Random cis - and trans-configuration
(4) All cis-configuration Answer (4)
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AIPMT-2016 (Code-X)
27. Which one of the following orders is correct for the 30. Which of the following statements about the
bond dissociation enthalpy of halogen molecules? composition of the vapour over an ideal 1 : 1 molar
mixture of benzene and toluene is correct? Assume
(1) Cl2 > Br2 > F2 > I2
that the temperature is constant at 25°C. (Given,
(2) Br2 > I2 > F2 > Cl2 Vapour Pressure Data at 25°C, benzene = 12.8 kPa,
(3) F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2 toluene = 3.85 kPa)
(4) I2 > Br2 > Cl2 > F2 (1) The vapour will contain a higher percentage of
toluene
Answer (1)
(2) The vapour will contain equal amounts of
Sol. Fact benzene and toluene
28. Equal moles of hydrogen and oxygen gases are (3) Not enough information is given to make a
placed in a container with a pin-hole through which prediction
both can escape. What fraction of the oxygen
escapes in the time required for one-half of the (4) The vapour will contain a higher percentage of
hydrogen to escape? benzene
Answer (4)
1
(1) Sol. The component having higher vapour pressure will
4
have higher percentage in vapour phase.
3
(2) 31. Which of the following has longest C – O bond
8
length? (Free C – O bond length CO is 1.128 Å)
1 (1) [Co(CO)4]
(3)
2
(2) [Fe(CO)4]2–
1
(4) (3) [Mn(CO)6]+
8
(4) Ni(CO)4
Answer (4)
Answer (2)
nO2 MH2 Sol. Due to increase in –ve charge on metal atom bond
Sol. length of C – O bond increases.
nH2 MO2
32. Among the following, the correct order of acidity is
nO2 2 (1) HCIO < HCIO2 < HCIO3 < HCIO4
0.5 32 (2) HCIO2 < HCIO < HCIO3 < HCIO4
(3) HCIO4 < HCIO2 < HCIO < HCIO3
1
nO2 (4) HCIO3 < HCIO4 < HCIO2 < HCIO
8
Answer (1)
29. Lithium has a bcc structure. Its density is
530 kg m–3 and its atomic mass is 6.94 g mol–1. 1 3 5 7
HClO HClO HClO HClO
Calculate the edge length of a unit cell of Lithium Sol.
2 3
Acidic strength
4
metal (NA = 6.02 × 1023 mol–1)
(1) 352 pm 33. In the reaction
(1) NaNH /liq. NH (1) NaNH /liq. NH
(2) 527 pm H – C CH 2
(2) CH CH Br
3
X 2
(2) CH CH Br
3
Y
3 2 3 2
(3) 264 pm
X and Y are
(4) 154 pm
(1) X = 2-Butyne; Y = 3-Hexyne
Answer (1) (2) X = 2-Butyne; Y = 2-Hexyne
2 6.94 (g / mol) (3) X = 1-Butyne; Y = 2-Hexyne
Sol. 0.53 g / cm3
a3 6.02 1023 mol1 (4) X = 1-Butyne; Y = 3-Hexyne
On solving, a = 352 pm Answer (4)
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AIPMT-2016 (Code-X)
35. Consider the nitration of benzene using mixed conc. (2) The sugar component in RNA is arabinose and
H2SO4 and HNO3. If a large amount of KHSO4 is the sugar component in DNA is ribose
added to the mixture, the rate of nitration will be
(3) The sugar component in RNA is 2-deoxyribose
(1) Slower and the sugar component in DNA is arabinose
(2) Unchanged (4) The sugar component in RNA is arabinose and
(3) Doubled the sugar component in DNA is 2-deoxyribose
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AIPMT-2016 (Code-X)
40. Which of the following statements about hydrogen is Sol. Due to steric hindrance, arising due to presence of
incorrect? bulkier groups at ortho-positions of benzene rings,
the biphenyl system becomes non-planar i.e.,
(1) Hydrogen never acts as cation in ionic salts
optically active.
(2) Hydronium ion, H3O+ exists freely in solution
43. Which of the following statements is false?
(3) Dihydrogen does not act as a reducing agent
(1) Ca2+ ions are important in blood clotting
(4) Hydrogen has three isotopes of which tritium is
the most common (2) Ca2+ ions are not important in maintaining the
regular beating of the heart
Answer (3 & 4)
(3) Mg2+ ions are important in the green parts of
Sol. Fact.
plants
41. Consider the following liquid-vapour equilibrium.
(4) Mg2+ ions form a complex with ATP
Liquid
Vapour Answer (2)
Which of the following relations is correct? Sol. Fact.
44. The ionic radii of A+ and B– ions are 0.98 ×10–10 m
dlnP – Hv
(1) and 1.81 ×10–10 m. The coordination number of each
dT RT ion in AB is
I (2) 44.1 s
I (4) 24.1 s
Answer (4)
CH3
2.303 0.04
(3) Sol. K = log
10 0.03
CH3 2.303 0.124
=
10
O2N
2.303 0.301 10
t1/2 =
(4) 2.303 0.124
I = 24.27 s
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AIPMT-2016 (Code-X)
46. The two polypeptides of human insulin are linked 51. Which of the following is the most important cause of
together by animals and plants being driven to extinction?
(1) Phosphodiester bond (1) Alien species invasion
(2) Covalent bond (2) Habitat loss and fragmentation
48. Which of the following is not a feature of the (4) Barrier methods Prevent fertilization
plasmids?
Answer (3)
(1) Circular structure
Sol. Vasectomy blocks the gamete transport and does not
(2) Transferable affect spermatogenesis.
(3) Single-stranded 53. In a testcross involving F 1 dihybrid flies, more
parental-type offspring were produced than the
(4) Independent replication
recombinant-type offspring. This indicates
Answer (3) (1) Chromosomes failed to separate during meiosis
Sol. Plasmid is extrachromosomal, double stranded (2) The two genes are linked and present on the
circular DNA. same chromosome
49. Which is the National Aquatic Animal of India? (3) Both of the characters are controlled by more
(1) River dolphin (2) Blue whale than one gene
(3) Sea-horse (4) Gangetic shark (4) The two genes are located on two different
chromosomes
Answer (1)
Answer (2)
Sol. River Dolphin is the national aquatic animal of India.
Sol. When two genes in a dihybrid cross are situated on
This mammal can only survive in pure and fresh water.
the same chromosome, the proportion of parental
50. The avena curvature is used for bioassay of gene combinations are much higher than the non-
(1) GA3 (2) IAA parental or recombinant type.
54. A typical fat molecule is made up of
(3) Ethylene (4) ABA
(1) One glycerol and three fatty acid molecules
Answer (2)
(2) One glycerol and one fatty acid molecule
Sol. Bioassay - It is a quantitative and qualitative test used
to determine the nature and function of a biochemical (3) Three glycerol and three fatty acid molecules
by using living material e.g., Avena curvature test (4) Three glycerol molecules and one fatty acid
used as bioassay for auxins. molecule
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AIPMT-2016 (Code-X)
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AIPMT-2016 (Code-X)
(2) Sequoia is one of the tallest trees 68. Name the chronic respiratory disorder caused mainly
by cigarette smoking
(3) The leaves of gymnosperms are not well adapted
to extremes of climate (1) Asthma (2) Respiratory acidosis
(4) Gymnosperms are both homosporous and (3) Respiratory alkalosis (4) Emphysema
heterosporous Answer (4)
Answer (2) Sol. Emphysema is characterised by inflation of alveoli
which is mainly due to chronic cigarette smoking.
Sol. Sequoia is one of the tallest tree species, known as
red wood tree. 69. Spindle fibres attach on to:
64. Which of the following is not a characteristic feature (1) Kinetochore of the chromosome
during mitosis in somatic cells? (2) Centromere of the chromosome
(1) Disappearance of nucleolus (3) Kinetosome of the chromosome
(2) Chromosome movement (4) Telomere of the chromosome
(3) Synapsis Answer (1)
(4) Spindle fibres Sol. Spindle fibres attach to kinetochores of chromosomes
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AIPMT-2016 (Code-X)
70. In context of amniocentesis, which of the following 74. In meiosis crossing over is initiated at
statement is incorrect? (1) Leptotene (2) Zygotene
(1) It is used for prenatal sex determination. (3) Diplotene (4) Pachytene
(2) It can be used for detection of Down syndrome. Answer (4)
(3) It can be used for detection of Cleft palate. Sol. Leptotene - Condensation of chromatin
(4) It is usually done when a woman is between Zygotene - Synapsis of homologous chromosomes
14 - 16 weeks pregnant. Pachytene - Crossing over
Answer (3) Diplotene - Dissolution of synaptonemal complex
and appearance of chiasmata
Sol. Cleft palate is a developmental abnormality and can
be detected by sonography. Diakinesis - Terminalisation of chiasmata
75. Antivenom injection contains preformed antibodies
Amniocentesis is a foetal sex determination test and
while polio drops that are administered into the body
is banned in India for sex determination to legally
contain
check increasing female foeticides.
(1) Harvested antibodies
71. Stems modified into flat green organs performing the
functions of leaves are known as (2) Gamma globulin
(3) Attenuated pathogens
(1) Phyllodes (2) Phylloclades
(4) Activated pathogens
(3) Scales (4) Cladodes
Answer (3)
Answer (2)
Sol. Oral polio vaccine consists of attenuated pathogen.
Sol. Phylloclades are modified stem, i.e., green flat
76. The taq polymerase enzyme is obtained from
structure as in Opuntia.
(1) Thiobacillus ferroxidans
72. In a chloroplast the highest number of protons are
found in (2) Bacillus subtilis
(3) Pseudomonas putida
(1) Lumen of thylakoids
(4) Thermus aquaticus
(2) Inter membrane space
Answer (4)
(3) Antennae complex Sol. Taq polymerase is thermostable DNA polymerase
(4) Stroma obtained from Thermus aquaticus
73. Nomenclature is governed by certain universal rules. (3) Dominant gene disorder
Which one of the following is contrary to the rules of (4) Recessive gene disorder
nomenclature? Answer (1)
(1) The first word in a biological name represents the Sol. Haemophilia is X-linked recessive gene disorder. It is
genus name and the second is a specific epithet a blood clotting disorder and shows criss-cross
inheritance.
(2) The names are written in Latin and are italicised
(3) When written by hand, the names are to be
Father Mother
underlined
(4) Biological names can be written in any language
Answer (4)
Son Daughter
Sol. Biological names originate from latin language and
printed in italics
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AIPMT-2016 (Code-X)
Sol. The standard petal of a papilionaceous corolla is also Tip of nose consists of elastic cartilage.
called vexillum.
83. Which of the following pairs of hormones are not
79. Which part of the tobacco plant is infected by antagonistic (having opposite effects) to each other?
Meloidogyne incognita?
(1) Insulin - Glucagon
(1) Leaf
(2) Aldosterone - Atrial Natriuretic Factor
(2) Stem
(3) Relaxin - Inhibin
(3) Root
(4) Parathormone - Calcitonin
(4) Flower
Answer (3)
Answer (3)
Sol. Relaxin relaxes the pubic symphysis during
Sol. Meloidogyne incognita cause root knot disease in
parturition while inhibin decreases the secretion of
tobacco plant.
FSH from anterior pituitary.
80. Which of the following statements is wrong for
viroids? 84. Specialised epidermal cells surrounding the guard
cells are called
(1) They are smaller than viruses
(1) Subsidiary cells (2) Bulliform cells
(2) They causes infections
(3) Lenticels (4) Complementary cells
(3) Their RNA is of high molecular weight
Answer (1)
(4) They lack a protein coat
Answer (3) Sol. Few epidermal cells, in the vicinity of the guard cells
become specialised in their shape and size and are
Sol. Viroids have RNA of low molecular weight. known as subsidiary cells.
81. Which of the following statements is not true for
cancer cells in relation to mutations? The stomatal aperture, guard cells and the
surrounding subsidiary cells are together called
(1) Mutations destroy telomerase inhibitor stomatal apparatus.
(2) Mutations inactivate the cell control
85. Fertilization in humans is practically feasible only if
(3) Mutations inhibit production of telomerase
(1) The ovum and sperms are transported
(4) Mutations in proto-oncogenes accelerate the cell simultaneously to ampullary - isthmic junction of
cycle the fallopian tube
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AIPMT-2016 (Code-X)
86. Which one of the following is the starter codon? 90. Gause’s principle of competitive exclusion states that
(1) UGA (2) UAA (1) Competition for the same resources excludes
species having different food preferences
(3) UAG (4) AUG
(2) No two species can occupy the same niche
Answer (4) indefinitely for the same limiting resources
Sol. AUG is the start codon. (3) Larger organisms exclude smaller ones through
UAA, UAG and UGA are stop codons. competition
87. A river with an inflow of domestic sewage rich in (4) More abundant species will exclude the less
organic waste may result in abundant species through competition
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AIPMT-2016 (Code-X)
94. Mitochondria and chloroplast are 98. Identify the correct statement on inhibin
(a) semi-autonomous organelles (1) Is produced by granulose cells in ovary and
inhibits the secretion of FSH
(b) formed by division of pre-existing organelles and
(2) Is produced by granulose cells in ovary and
they contain DNA but lack protein synthesizing
inhibits the secretion of LH
machinery
(3) Is produced by nurse cells in testes and inhibits
Which one of the following options is correct? the secretion of LH
(1) (b) is true but (a) is false (4) Inhibits the secretion of LH, FSH and Prolactin
(2) (a) is true but (b) is false Answer (1)
Sol. Inhibin is produced by granulosa cells in ovary and
(3) Both (a) and (b) are false
has direct effect on the secretion of FSH.
(4) Both (a) and (b) are correct 99. It is much easier for a small animal to run uphill than
Answer (2) for a large animal, because
(1) Smaller animals have a higher metabolic rate
Sol. Mitochondria and chloroplast are semi-autonomous
organelles which contains DNA, RNA, ribosomes (2) Small animals have a lower O2 requirement
(705) etc. (3) The efficiency of muscles in large animals is less
than in the small animals
95. Photosensitive compound in human eye is made up of
(4) It is easier to carry a small body weight
(1) Opsin and Retinal
Answer (1)
(2) Opsin and Retinol Sol. Basal metabolic rate is inversely proportional to body
(3) Transducin and Retinene size. So smaller animals have a higher metabolic rate.
100. A tall true breeding garden pea plant is crossed with
(4) Guanosine and Retinol
a dwarf true breeding garden pea plant. When the F1
Answer (1) plants were selfed the resulting genotypes were in the
ratio of
Sol. Photosensitive pigment rhodopsin in human eye is
made up of opsin protein and retinal [aldehyde form of (1) 1 : 2 : 1 : : Tall heterozygous : Tall homozygous
vitamin A (Retinol)] : Dwarf
(2) 3 : 1 : : Tall : Dwarf
96. Chrysophytes, Euglenoids, Dinoflagellates and Slime
moulds are included in the kingdom (3) 3 : 1 : : Dwarf : Tall
(4) 1 : 2 : 1 : : Tall homozygous : Tall heterozygous
(1) Protista (2) Fungi
: Dwarf
(3) Animalia (4) Monera Answer (4)
Answer (1) Sol. Parents - TT × tt
(Tall) (Dwarf)
Sol. All single celled eukaryotes like chrysophytes
[diatoms and desmids], Euglenoids [Euglena], F1 generation Tt (Heterozygous tall)
Dinoflagellates and slime moulds are included in
kingdom -Protista. On selfing
97. The primitive prokaryotes responsible for the
production of biogas from the dung of ruminant Pollen T t
animals, include the egg
T TT Tt
(1) Thermoacidophiles (2) Methanogens (Tall) (Tall)
F2 generation
(3) Eubacteria (4) Halophiles Tt tt
t (Tall) (dwarf)
Answer (2)
Phenotypic ratio = 3 : 1 [Tall : Dwarf]
Sol. Methanogens are obligate anaerobic ancient and
primitive bacteria. They are involved in Genotypic ratio
methanogenesis. 1 : 2 : 1 [Homozygous tall : Heterozygous tall : Dwarf]
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AIPMT-2016 (Code-X)
101. Depletion of which gas in the atmosphere can lead to 106. Lack of relaxation between successive stimuli in
an increased incidence of skin cancers sustained muscle contraction is known as
(1) Ozone (2) Ammonia (1) Fatigue (2) Tetanus
(3) Nitrogen, nickel, phosphorus 110. Water vapour comes out from the plant leaf through
the stomatal opening. Through the same stomatal
(4) Boron, zinc, manganese opening carbon dioxide diffuses into the plant during
Answer (3) photosynthesis. Reason out the above statements
using one of following options :
Sol. None of the option is correct w.r.t. question statement.
The option (1) seems to be more appropriate. (1) Both processes can happen together because the
diffusion coefficient of water and CO2 is different
105. Reduction in pH of blood will
(2) The above processes happen only during night
(1) Reduce the blood supply to the brain time
(2) Decrease the affinity of hemoglobin with oxygen (3) One process occurs during day time, and the
other at night
(3) Release bicarbonate ions by the liver
(4) Both processes cannot happen simultaneously
(4) Reduce the rate of heart beat
Answer (1)
Answer (2)
Sol. Diffusion of water vapour and CO2 are independent
Sol. Reduction in pH of blood favours the dissociation of process. Their diffusion depends on the difference in
oxyhemoglobin. their partial pressure.
16
AIPMT-2016 (Code-X)
Sol. The term ecosystem was coined by A.G. Tansley. r = Intrinsic rate of natural increase
116. Which of the following is required as inducer(s) for the K = carrying capacity
expression of Lac operon?
(1) Galactose N K N
when 1 then 0
K K
(2) Lactose
(3) Lactose and Galactose
dN
therefore 0
(4) Glucose dt
17
AIPMT-2016 (Code-X)
119. Which one of the following statements is not true? 124. Which one of the following statements is wrong?
(1) Exine of pollen grains is made up of sporopollenin (1) Cellulose is a polysaccharide
(2) Pollen grains of many species cause severe
(2) Uracil is a pyrimidine
allergies
(3) Glycine is a sulphur containing amino acid
(3) Stored pollen in liquid nitrogen can be used in the
crop breeding programmes (4) Sucrose is a disaccharide
(4) Tapetum helps in the dehiscence of anther
Answer (3)
Answer (4)
Sol. Glycine is simplest amino acid in which 'R' is replaced
Sol. Tapetum provides nourishment to developing pollen by H(Hydrogen).
grain.
125. Proximal end of the filament of stamen is attached to
120. In bryophytes and pteridophytes, transport of male
the
gametes requires:
(1) Insects (2) Birds (1) Connective
(3) Flattened structures of Opuntia 126. Which of the following is not required for any of the
techniques of DNA fingerprinting available at present?
(4) Pitcher of Nepenthes
(1) Zinc finger analysis
Answer (4)
Sol. Pitcher of Nepenthes is modified leaf. (2) Restriction enzymes
122. Which one of the following cell organelles is enclosed (3) DNA-DNA hybridization
by a single membrane?
(4) Polymerase chain reaction
(1) Chloroplasts (2) Lysosomes
Answer (1)
(3) Nuclei (4) Mitochondria
Answer (2) Sol. A zinc finger is a small protein structural motif that
characterised by the co-ordination of one or more Zn
Sol. Nuclei, mitochondria and chloroplasts are double ions in order to stabilise the folds.
membrane bound organelles. Lysosomes are single
membrane bound organelle. 127. Which one of the following characteristics is not
shared by birds and mammals?
123. Analogous structures are a result of
(1) Convergent evolution (1) Breathing using lungs
18
AIPMT-2016 (Code-X)
131. One of the major components of cell wall of most fungi (c) Phenylketonuria is an autosomal recessive gene
is disorder.
(1) Peptidoglycan (2) Cellulose (d) Sickle cell anaemia is an X-linked recessive gene
(3) Hemicellulose (4) Chitin disorder.
Answer (4) (1) (b) and (d) are correct
Sol. Cell wall of most fungi is made up of chitin. (2) (a), (c) and (d) are correct
132. A complex of ribosomes attached to a single strand
(3) (a), (b) and (c) are correct
of RNA is known
(1) Polymer (4) (a) and (d) are correct
19
AIPMT-2016 (Code-X)
V E1 5 1 6 3
2 F 8 F
E2 5 1 4 2
139. When a metallic surface is illuminated with radiation
(1) 20% (2) 75% of wavelength , the stopping potential is V. If the
same surface is illuminated with radiation of
(3) 80% (4) 0%
V
Answer (3) wavelength 2, the stopping potential is . The
4
threshold wavelength for the metallic surface is
1 2
Sol. Initial energy stored = (2 F) V
2 5
(1) 5 2)
Energy dissipated on connection across 8 F 2
1 C1C2 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
= 2 C C V
1 2 Answer (3)
1 2 F 8 F 2
= 2 10 F V
Sol. Einstein P.E. equation
Case-I
1 2
= (1.6 F) V
2 hc hc
eV …(1)
1.6 0
% loss of energy = 100 80%
2
Case-II
137. To get output 1 for the following circuit, the correct
choice for the input is V hc hc
e
A 4 2 0
B Y
C
4hc 4hc
(1) A = 1, B = 0, C = 0 eV 2 …(2)
0
(2) A = 1, B = 1, C = 0
Equation (1) – (2)
(3) A = 1, B = 0, C = 1
(4) A = 0, B = 1, C = 0 hc 2hc 4hc hc
Answer (3) 0 0
A hc 3hc
Sol. B
Y = (A + B).C 0
C
To get Y = 1, C should be 1. 0 = 3
138. A potentiometer wire is 100 cm long and a constant 140. Two non-mixing liquids of densities and n(n > 1)
potential difference is maintained across it. Two cells are put in a container. The height of each liquid is h.
are connected in series first to support one another A solid cylinder of length L and density d is put in
and then in opposite direction. The balance points are this container. The cylinder floats with its axis vertical
obtained at 50 cm and 10 cm from the positive end and length pL (p < 1) in the denser liquid. The
of the wire in the two cases. The ratio of emf’s is density d is equal to
20
AIPMT-2016 (Code-X)
Answer (3) 143. At what height from the surface of earth the
Sol. gravitation potential and the value of g are –5.4 × 107
J kg–2 and 6.0 ms–2 respectively? Take the radius of
A earth as 6400 km
(1) 1600 km
(1–p)L d
(2) 1400 km
PL
(3) 2000 km
(4) 2600 km
n
Answer (4)
Weight of cylinder = Th1 + Th2
GM GM
ALdg = (1 – P) LAg + (PLA) ng Sol. V g 2
(R h ) (R h )
d = (1 – P)Pn
= – P + nP |V |
Rh
g
= + (n – 1)P
7
=n – 1P 5.4 10
Rh
6.0
141. Out of the following options which one can be used
to produce a propagating electromagnetic wave? 9 × 106 = R + h
Sol. Q at bt 2 l2 2 = l11
145. The intensity at the maximum in a Young's double
dQ
I a 2bt slit experiment is I0. Distance between two slits is
dt d = 5, where is the wavelength of light used in
a the experiment. What will be the intensity in front of
Current will exist till t
2b one of the slits on the screen placed at a distance
a D = 10 d?
t 2b
P ∫ I 2R dt ∫ (a 2bt ) R dt
2
I0
0 0 (1)
4
a
2b 3
I0
∫ (a 4b 2t 2 4abt )R dt (2)
2
4
0
a
I0
(3)
⎡ t3 t 2 ⎤ 2b a 3R 2
⎢a 2t 4b 2 4ab ⎥ R
⎣ 3 2 ⎦0 6b (4) I0
21
AIPMT-2016 (Code-X)
(1) 0.5 × 107 m–1 (2) 0.25 × 107 m–1 Answer (1)
(3) 2.5 × 107 m–1 (4) 0.025 × 104 m–1
Sol. Ncos
Answer (2) N
Nsin
Sol. RH = 107m–1 fLcos
Last line n2 = , n1 = 2 fL
1 mg
⎛1 ⎞
RH ⎜ 0 ⎟
⎝ 4 ⎠
4 Vertical equilibrium
= m 0.25 107 m1
107 Ncos = mg + fLsin
147. The ratio of escape velocity at earth (ve) to the mg = Ncos – fLsin …(1)
escape velocity at a planet (vp) whose radius and
mean density are twice as that of earth is Horizontal equilirbium
(1) 1: 2 2 (2) 1 : 4 mv 2
Nsin + fLcos …(2)
(3) 1: 2 (4) 1 : 2 R
Answer (1) Eqn(2) v 2 sin s cos
8 Eqn(1) Rg cos s sin
Sol. v e 2qR R G
3
sin s cos
ve R v Rg cos sin
s
vp Rp
tan s
1 Rg
= 1 s tan
2 2
148. A long solenoid has 1000 turns. When a current of 150. The magnetic susceptibility is negative for
4 A flows through it, the magnetic flux linked with (1) Paramagnetic material only
each turn of the solenoid is 4 × 10–3 Wb. The self-
inductance of the solenoid is (2) Ferromagnetic material only
(1) 3 H (2) 2 H (3) Paramagnetic and ferromagnetic materials
(3) 1 H (4) 4 H (4) Diamagnetic material only
22
AIPMT-2016 (Code-X)
a sin = n
t
n = 1, asin 30° =
v ∫ adt t 2iˆ t 3 jˆ
0 a = 2
P F v 2t t 2 3t 2 t 3 1st secondary maximum
2t 3 3t 5 3
a sin 1
153. From a disc of radius R and mass M, a circular hole 2
of diameter R, whose rim passes through the centre
is cut. What is the moment of inertia of the 3 3
remaining part of the disc about a perpendicular sin 1
2a 4
axis, passing through the centre?
(1) 13MR2/32 (2) 11MR2/32 3
sin1
(3) 9MR2/32 (4) 15MR2/32 4
23
AIPMT-2016 (Code-X)
I i L
A D
X
L/2 L
0Ii 2 0IiL Lmin = 50 cm
(1) (2)
2 3
So other lengths for resonance are 3Lmin, 5Lmin,
0IiL 2 0Ii 7Lmin, etc.
(3) (4)
2 3 150 cm, 250 cm, 350 cm, etc.
Answer (4) 158. The molecules of a given mass of a gas have r.m.s.
velocity of 200 ms–1 at 27°C and 1.0 × 105 Nm–2
Sol. FLoop FBA FCD pressure. When the temperature and pressure of the
gas are respectively, 127°C and 0.05 × 105 Nm–2,
⎡ ⎤ the r.m.s. velocity of its molecules in ms–1 is
0 iIL ⎢ 1 1 ⎥
⎢ ⎥
2 ⎢ L 3L ⎥ 400 100 2
⎣2 2 ⎦ (1) (2)
3 3
2 0 iI
3 100
(3) (4) 100 2
156. A black body is at a temperature of 5760 K. The 3
energy of radiation emitted by the body at
wavelength 250 nm is U1, at wavelength 500 nm is Answer (1)
U2 and that at 1000 nm is U3. Wien's constant, Sol. vrms = 200 ms–1, T1 = 300 K, P1 = 105 Nm –2
b = 2.88 × 10 6 nmK. Which of the following is
correct?
3RT
v rms T2 = 400 K, P2 = 0.05 × 105 N/m2
(1) U3 = 0 (2) U1 > U2 M
24
AIPMT-2016 (Code-X)
Ri 192
10
I 10 A–2
Output current IC
103 Current amplification = 0.96
Input current IB
160. If the magnitude of sum of two vectors is equal to 1 mA
the magnitude of difference of the two vectors, the IB
0.96
angle between these vectors is
V VL
(1) 90° (2) 45° Av L = 4
Vin IB Ri
(3) 180° (4) 0°
IC2 RL
Ap 3.84
Answer (1) IB2Ri
163. A gas is compressed isothermally to half its initial
Sol. | A B | | A B |
volume. The same gas is compressed separately
cos = 0 = 90° through an adiabatic process until its volume is again
161. A astronomical telescope has objective and eyepiece reduced to half. Then
of focal length 40 cm and 4 cm respectively. To view (1) Compressing the gas through adiabatic process
an object 200 cm away from the objective, the will require more work to be done
lenses must be separated by a distance (2) Compressing the gas isothermally or
(1) 46.0 cm (2) 50.0 cm adiabatically will require the same amount of
(3) 54.0 cm (4) 37.3 cm work
(3) Which of the case (whether compression
Answer (3)
through isothermal or through adiabatic process)
Sol. requires more work will depend upon the
atomicity of the gas
50 cm
(4) Compressing the gas isothermally will require
200 cm more work to be done
Answer (1)
Objective Sol. P
1 1 1
v u f
Adiabatic
1 1 1
Isothermal
v 200 40
1 1 1 5 1 1
v 40 200 200 50
v = 50 v v V
For normal adjustment = L = v + fe = 54 cm. 2
164. A long straight wire of radius a carries a steady
162. A npn transistor is connected in common emitter
current I. The current is uniformly distributed over its
configuration in a given amplifier. A load resistance of
cross-section. The ratio of the magnetic fields B and
800 is connected in the collector circuit and the
voltage drop across it is 0.8 V. If the current a
B at radial distances and 2a respectively, from
amplification factor is 0.96 and the input resistance 2
the axis of the wire is
of the circuit is 192 , the voltage gain and the
power gain of the amplifier will respectively be 1
(1) (2) 1
2
(1) 3.69, 3.84 (2) 4, 4
1
(3) 4, 3.69 (4) 4, 3.84 (3) 4 (4)
4
25
AIPMT-2016 (Code-X)
Loop-1 Sol. v = At + Bt 2
dx
a I a2 At Bt 2
B12 0 dt
2 a2 4 dx = (At + Bt2)dt
0 I 2
B1 …(1) ⎡ At 2 Bt 3 ⎤
4a x⎢ ⎥
⎣⎢ 2 3 ⎥⎦
1
Loop-2
A B
(4 1) (8 1)
B2.22a = 0I 2 3
0I 3 7
A B
B2 …(2) =
2 3
4a
1
(4) A b and c; B b and c; C b and d; 2
D a and d (3) v x –1 (4) v x
26
AIPMT-2016 (Code-X)
F mgh
Sol. tan Sol. mLf
mg 4
x 4Lf 4 3.4 105
Kq
2
l 2 h 136 km
2 g 10
2
2
x mg 2 x q 171. A uniform circular disc of radius 50 cm at rest is free
l F q
4 x to turn about an axis which is perpendicular to its
2 plane and passes through its centre. It is subjected
2
Kq x mg to a torque which produces a constant angular
2
x mg 2l acceleration of 2.0 rad s–2. Its net acceleration in
ms–2 at the end of 2.0 s is approximately
q2 x3
(1) 7.0 (2) 6.0
q x3/2
(3) 3.0 (4) 8.0
3/2
dq d ( x ) dx
Answer (4)
dt dx dt
m
dq 1/2
x v
0.5
dt
Sol.
1
v 1
2
x Angular acceleration = 2 rad s–2
169. A particle moves so that its position vector is given Angular speed = t = 4 rad s–1
by r cos t x sin t y, where is a constant. ac = r2 = 0.5 × 16 = 8 m/s2
Which of the following is true? at = r = 1 rad/s
(1) Velocity and acceleration both are parallel to r
a ac2 at2 82 12 8 m/s2
(2) Velocity is perpendicular to r and acceleration
172. What is the minimum velocity with which a body of
is directed towards the origin
mass m must enter a vertical loop of radius R so
(3) Velocity is perpendicular to r and acceleration that it can complete the loop?
is directed away from the origin
(1) 2gR
(4) Velocity
and acceleration both are perpendicular
to r
(2) 3gR
Answer (2)
(3) 5gR
Sol. r cos t x sin t y,
⇒ v.r 0
(4) gR
dr
v sin t x cos t y
dt Answer (3)
2
a cos t x sin t y r Sol. v min 5 gR
2 2
170. A piece of ice falls from a height h so that it melts 173. A small signal voltage V(t) = V0sint is applied
completely. Only one-quarter of the heat produced is across an ideal capacitor C
absorbed by the ice and all energy of ice gets (1) Over a full cycle the capacitor C does not
converted into heat during its fall. The value of h is consume any energy from the voltage source
[Latent heat of ice is 3.4 × 105 J/kg and g = 10 N/kg] (2) Current I(t) is in phase with voltage V(t)
(1) 544 km (2) 136 km (3) Current I(t) leads voltage V(t) by 180°
27
AIPMT-2016 (Code-X)
Answer (1) ⎡ ⎤
⎢ ⎥
⎢ 1 ⎥
Sol. Current leads voltage by phase (90) 40 ⎢
2
⎢ 402 ⎛⎜ 340 20 103 1 ⎞ ⎥⎥
⎜ ⎟⎟
Power consumed = 0. ⎢ 340 50 10
6 ⎥
⎣ ⎝ ⎠⎦
174. A uniform rope of length L and mass m1 hangs 100 1
vertically from a rigid support. A block of mass m2 is = 40 2
2 1600 [6.8 58.8]
attached to the free end of the rope. A transverse
pulse of wavelength 1 is produced at the lower end
2000
of the rope. The wavelength of the pulse when it = 0.46 W = 0.51 W
1600 2704
reaches the top of the rope is 2. The ratio 2/1 is
176. An electron of mass m and a photon have same
m1 m2 energy E. The ratio of de-Broglie wavelengths
(1) m2 associated with them is (c being velocity of light)
1
m2
(2) ⎛ E ⎞2
m1 (1) ⎜
⎝ 2m ⎟⎠
m1 m2 1
m1 1 ⎛ 2m ⎞ 2
c ⎜⎝ E ⎟⎠
(3)
(4) m2
1
Answer (1) 1⎛ E ⎞2
c ⎜⎝ 2m ⎟⎠
(4)
v ⎛ T⎞
Sol. ⎜v ⎟ Answer (4)
f ⎝ ⎠
h hc hc
2 v2 Sol. e ,p , E
2mE E p
1 v 1
m1,L
T2 e h E
T1 p 2mE hc
m2
(m1 m2 )
1 E
m2
c 2m
175. An inductor 20 mH, a capacitor 50 F and a resistor
40 are connected in series across a source of emf 177. When an -particle of mass m moving with velocity
V = 10sin340t. The power loss in A.C. circuit is v bombards on a heavy nucleus of charge ‘Ze’, its
(1) 0.67 W distance of closest approach from the nucleus
depends on m as
(2) 0.76 W
(3) 0.89 W 1
(1)
m
(4) 0.51 W
Answer (4) 1
20 mH (2)
Sol. L C 50 F R 40 m2
2
(3) m
2 2
2 ⎛E ⎞ ⎛ 10 ⎞
Pav Iv R ⎜⎜ v ⎟⎟ R ⎜ ⎟ 1
⎝ Z ⎠ ⎝ 2⎠ (4)
m
28
AIPMT-2016 (Code-X)
Answer (4)
16 104
Sol. Initial kinetic energy = potential energy at closest v2 16 10 2
0.01
approach
Speed v2 = 2ats
1 2Ze 2
mv 2
2 40 r0 v2 = 2at 4r
1
r0 v2 16 102
m at
8r 8 3.14 6.4 102
178. A refrigerator works between 4°C and 30°C. It is
required to remove 600 calories of heat every second
in order to keep the temperature of the refrigerated 0.1 m/s2
space constant. The power required is [Take 1 cal =
180. The angle of incidence for a ray of light at a
4.2 joules)
refracting surface of a prism is 45°. The angle of
(1) 23.65 W prism is 60°. If the ray suffers minimum deviation
(2) 236.5 W through the prism, the angle of minimum deviation
and refractive index of the material of the prism
(3) 2365 W respectively, are
(4) 2.365 W
Answer (2) (1) 30; 2
29