Professional Documents
Culture Documents
a- Nulliparity.
b- Placenta previa.
c- Foetal malformations.
d- Amniotic fluid abnormalities.
a- Color.
b- Heart rate.
c- Gestational age.
d- Respiratory effort.
A. Epidural analgesia.
B. High assimilation pelvic.
C. Too rigid pelvic door.
D. Well flexed head.
A patient who has been treated for trophoblastic disease is best followed by the use of:
a. MRI.
B. Repeated gonadotrophin titres.
C. Dilatation and curettage.
D. Ultrasound.
Which of the following represents the most common cause for breech presentation at the onset
?of labour
A. Prematurely.
B. Placenta praevia.
C. Multiple pregnancies.
D. Breech presentation at term in a previous pregnancy.
?Which of the followings is not correct regarding human chorine gonadotropin (HCG)
a. Prolongs corpus luteum activity.
b. Its secretion reaches a maximum at 8-10 weeks of gestating .
c. Produced by cytotrophoblast .
d. Its level is abnormally high in trisomy21.
Which of the following terms best describes the pelvic type of small posterior sagittal diameter
?convergent side walls, prominent ischial spines and narrow pubic arch
.a. Android
. b. Gynecoid
.c. Platypelloid
.d. Mixed
Which of the following signs or symptoms are typically seen in the presentation of a partial
?hydatidiform molar pregnancy
.a. Theca lutein cysts
b. Higher than expected β human chorionic gonadotropin (B-HCG) levels
.c. Uterine enlargement in excess of gestational age
.d. None of the above
:Possible effect of occipito –posterior position includes the followings except
.a. Short latent phase
.b. Prolonged active phase
.c. Prolonged second stage
.d. Higher incidence of instrumental deliveries
One of the following is correct regarding the follicular phase of the menstrual cycle :
a) The granulosa cells produce androstenedione & testosterone.
b) The endometrial glands become straight.
c) Oestradiol inhibits the production of LH at the end of the follicular phase.
d) The theca cells produce oestradiol & secrete follicular fluid.
e) The nucleus of the oocyte contains 23 chromosomes.
Compared with normal pregnancy, complete molar pregnancy in its clinical presentation is
associated with greater incidence of the followings except:
a- Vaginal bleeding.
b- Ovarian cysts.
c- Low serum β-human chorionic gonadotropins (β-HCG) levels.
d- Uterine size greater then dates.
a- Bladder injury.
b- Placenta accreta.
c- Recurrent wound infection.
d- Abdominal hernia development.
Toxicity of MgSO4 in cases of pre-eclampsia & eclampsia include the followings except:
Which is the most appropriate management for an asymptomatic woman with 8 weeks of
amenorrhea, a positive pregnancy testy result & strings of copper IUD visible at the cervix:
a- Observation.
b- IUD removed and D&C.
c- Penicillin & IUD removal.
d- IUD removal & transvaginal US.
a- Antepartum haemorrhage,
b- Ruptured uterus.
c- Acute fetal distress.
d- Intra-uterine growth restriction.
Abnormally low levels of B-hCG may be found in which of the following conditions?
A) Multifoetal pregnancy
B) Impending abortion
C) Erythroblastosis foetalis
D) Gestational trophoblastic disease
Which of the following is associated with third and fourth degree lacerations?
A) Multiparty
B) Occiput anterior position
C) Use of mediolateral episiotomy
D) Arrest of second stage of labour
Absolute contraindications of combined oral contraceptive pills include the following except
one:
a) Thrombo-embolic disease.
b) History of thrombo-embolic disease.
c) Coronary heart disease.
d) Age above 35 years.
e) Pregnancy.
A 40 year old woman is hospitalized for hemorrhagic shock her kidney function is normal
what is the most sensitive and reliable clinical criterion for determining severity of volume
loss?
a. Tachycardia.
b. Tachypnea.
c. Oliguria.
d. Hypotension.
Which of the following is first –line treatment in the management of hyperemesis gravidarum?
a. Glucocorticoids.
b. Enteral nutrition.
c. Medical termination of pregnancy.
d. IV hydration & antiemetic.
After birth the following changes occur in the fetus except:
a. Permanent closure of foramen oval.
b. The ductus venous closes.
c. Haemoglobin F is replaced by haemoglobin A.
d. The umbilical vein and artery close.
The total iron needed for expansion of red cell mass during pregnancy is about:
a. 300mg.
b. 100mg.
c. 30mg .
d. None of the above.
A patient sustained laceration of the perineum during delivery it involved the muscles of
perineal body and the anal sphincter .such laceration would be classified as:
a. First degree.
b. Second degree.
c. Third degree.
d. Forth degree.
Methods for ante partum foetal assessment include the followings except:
a. APGAR score.
b. Ante partum fetal heart testing.
c. Modified biophysical profile .
d. Doppler velocimetry.
Partogram:
a. Is used by the patient to record the uterine contractions.
b. Is done before diagnosis of labor.
c. Measures progression of labor.
d. Is of utmost importance in the latent phase.
Clinical examination of normal maternal heart in later pregnancy is likely to show the
following except:
Which of the following is the most common complication of total parenteral nutrition for
hyperemesis gravidarum?
A) Hemothorax
B) Catheter sepsis
C) Brachial plexus injury
D) Foetal subdural hematoma caused by vitamin K deficiency
Which of the following is the most common type of ovarian tumours diagnosed during
pregnancy:
A) Peptostreptococcus
B) Enterococcus
C) Chlamydia trachomatis
D) Clostridia Welchii
The persistence of which of the following is usually incompatible with spontaneous delivery
at term:
A) Occiput-left posterior.
B) Mentum-posterior.
C) Mentum-anterior.
D) Sacrum-posterior.
A) Short stature
B) Buccal smear is chromatin positive
C) Very low urinary estrogen titre
D) High pituitary gonadotrophin titre
A) Esionophilic cytoplasm
B) Vesicular nucleus
C) Many lymphocytes
D) Maturation index 0-70-30
The following subtypes of human papilloma virus (HPV) are linked with invasive carcinoma of
the cervix except:
A) HPV 32
B) HPV 16
C) HPV 18
D) HPV 45
Sheehan's syndrome:
A patient complains of post coital bleeding & no growth is seen on the cervix per speculum
examination.The best next step should be:
a) Colposcopy.
b) Conization.
c) Pap smear.
d) Culdoscopy.
e) Biopsy.
In an amenorrheic patient who has had pituitary ablation for craniopharyngioma, which of
the following regimens is most likely to result in an ovulatory cycle?
a) Clomiphene citrate.
b) Pulsatile infusion of GnRH.
c) Continuous infusion of GnRH.
d) Human menopausal or recombinant gonadotropin.
e) Human menopausal or recombinant gonadotropin followed by hCG.
When the uterus has its cervix presenting at the level of ischial spine it is spoken of as:
a. First degree lumen prolepses.
b. Second degree uterine prolepses.
c. Third degree uterine prolapse.
d. none of above .
A primary goal of therapy for central precocious puberty includes prevention of which of the
following consequences?
a. Short stature.
b. Excessive breast size.
c. Learning disabilities.
d. None of above.
Which of the followings is not correct regarding calcification that occurs in myomas?
a. Due to deposition of calcium salts along the blood vessel .
b. Occurs in recently developed myomas.
c. May be diffuse giving a womb stone appearance on plan x-ray.
d. Is common after menopause .
Your patient is 43 years old & is concerned that she may be too close to menopause to get
pregnant. You recommend that her gonadotropin levels be tested. Which is the best day of
menstrual cycle to check?
a) Day 3.
b) Day 8.
c) Day 14.
d) Day 21.
e) Day 26.
Concerning ovulation:
A patient complains of post coital bleeding and no growth is seen on the cervix per speculum
examination. The best next step should be:
A) Colposcopy
B) Conization
C) Vaginal U/S
D) Culdoscopy
Regarding cervical myomas; patient may present with the followings except:
A) Deep dyspareunia
B) Retention of urine
C) Loin pain
D) Excessive menstrual blood loss
Which of the following is not one of the three treatment options proposed by the Central
Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) for the treatment of bacterial vaginosis in non-
pregnant woman?
A) Aminoglycosides
B) Oral metronidazole
C) Intravaginal clindamycin
D) Intravaginal metronidazole
A) Staphylococcus
B) Tubercular bacilli
C) Gonococcus
D) Diphtheroid
A) Diabetes mellitus
B) Degenerating myoma
C) Senile endometritis
D) Malignancy
A) Thyroid extract
B) Oestrogens
C) Progesterone
D) Dexamethasone
A) Glioma
B) Empty sella syndrome
C) Adrenal tumors
D) Exogenous oestrogens
Plasma gonadotrophin levels are raised in patient with which of the following?
A) Pituitary adenoma
B) Turner's syndrome
C) McCune-Albright syndrome
D) Kallmann's syndrome
The following potential treatments culd be used in the initial care of secondary postpartum
haemorrhage except:
a) Methylergonovine maleate (Methergin).
b) Oxytocin injection (Pitocin).
c) Ergonovine maleate (Ergotrate).
d) Prostaglandins.
e) Dilatation & curettage.
Which of the followings manifestations is most likely encountered during the physical examination of a
patient with endometriosis?
a. Tenderness to lower abdominal palpation.
b. Endocervical polyp during speculum examination.
c. Powder burn lesions on the cervix during speculum examination.
d. Uterosacral ligament nodularity during bimanual examination.
Which of the followings factors decreases the risk for development of leiomyoma?
a. Early menarche.
B. Cigarette smoking.
c. Elevated body mass index (BMI).
d. Polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS).
A midline cystic mass best represents which of the following vulvar disorders?
a. Gartner duct cyst.
b. Bartholin,s gland cyst .
c. Urethral diverticulum's.
d. Nabothian cyst (follicles)
Which of the followings is generally the treatment of choice for recurrent bartholin gland duct cysts?
a. Systemic antibiotics.
b. 5-percent lidocaine ointment .
c. Bartholin gland duct marsuplalization .
d. Warm compresses and frequent site Baths
The last step in estrogen syntheses requires which of the following enzymes?
a. aromatyase .
b. 5α- reduciase .
c. 21-hydroxylase.
d. 11β – hydroxylase.
The hymen is the partition that remains between which structures?
a. Cloacae membrane and genital tubercle.
b. Sinovaginal bulb and urogenital sinus.
c. unfused cephalad portions of the two mullein ducts .
d. None of the above.
Which of the followings is not correct regarding ovarian hyper stimulation syndrome?
a. Can be diagnosed clinically & by U/S.
b. The ovaries will be very small in size and having unilateral cyst.
c. The patient may need admission to intensive care unit.
d. Patients with PCO have increased risk.
A 25-year –old patient presents for contraceptive counseling she requests that an IUD be
inserted .which of the following is a recognized contraindication to the insertion of an IUD?
a. Pelvic inflammatory disease.
b. Previous pregnancy with an IUD.
c. Cervical conization .
d. Chorio-amnionitis in previous pregnancy.
The characteristic symptoms of early ovarian carcinoma include which of the followings?
a. Pain.
b. Nausea.
c. Uterine bleeding.
d. None of the above.
Factors that hinder long anterior rotation of the occiput (in occipito-posterior) include the
following except:
a) Weak uterine contractions.
b) Strong uterine contractions.
c) Shape of the pelvis (contracted pelvis).
d) Rigid pelvic floor.
e) Rupture of membrane & drained amniotic fluid.
Earliest sign of pre-eclampsia is:
a) Hypertension.
b) Albuminuria.
c) Pedal edema.
d) Excessive weight gain.
e) Scanty liquor.
The patient is 7 weeks pregnant which one of the followings u/s measurements is most useful.
A. Biparietal diameter.
B. Femur length.
C. Placental site
D. Gestational sac size.
E. Abdominal circumference.
The foetus contributes in the production of which of the followings during pregnancy:
A. HCG.
B. hPL
C. Prolactin.
D. Progesterone.
E. Estriol
All of the following would be indications that the patient is receiving too much MgSO4 &
needs her infusion dose lowered except:
a) Hyper-reflexia.
b) Disappearnce of patellar reflexes.
c) Respiratory depression.
d) Somnlence.
e) Slurred speech.
A woman presents with amenorrhea of 2 months duration, lower abdominal pain, facial
pallor, fainting & shock, & β-hCG is positive.The most likely diagnosis is:
a) Ruptured ovarian cyst.
b) Ruptured ectopic pregnancy.
c) Threatened abortion.
d) Septic abortion.
e) Missed abortion.
One of the following statements is correct regarding β-hCG:
a) β-hCG begins to rise 2 weeks after fertilization.
b) β-hCG is measured using antibody radioimmunoassay.
c) The β-subunit is the same as TSH & FSH.
d) β-hCG level continues to rise till the end of pregnancy.
e) β-hCG is a polypeptide protein produced by hypothalamus.
Diabetes in pregnancy may be associated with the following congenital anomalies except:
A. Sacral agenesis.
B- Central nervous system abnormalities.
C. Yellow teeth discoloration.
D. Lower limb hyperplasia.
E. Congenital heart disease.
The total iron needed for expansion of red call mass during pregnancy is about:
A. 750mg.
B. 300ng
C. 100mg
D. 30 mg
E. 15mg
A patient sustained a laceration of the perineum during delivery it involved the muscles of perineal
body and the anal mucosa. Such a laceration would be classified as:
A. First degree.
B. Second degree.
C. Third degree.
D. Fourth degree.
E. Fifth degree.
A cystocele:
a) Is always associated with constipation.
b) Contains bladder.
c) Contains rectum.
d) Is best treated by antibiotics.
In managing patients with heart disease during delivery which of the followings is correct?
A. No pain relief to avoid giving medications during labour.
B. Lithotomy position is prefaced all the time.
C. Low forceps may be used if necessary.
D. Digitalis should be avoided until the foetus is delivered.
E. Caesarean section is the best management option.
What is the relationship of the long axis of the fetus to that of the mother called?
a) Presentation.
b) Lie.
c) Attitude.
d) Posture.
Patients with epidural analgesia during labour are more liable to have an
increased incidence of?
A. Cesarean delivery.
B. Neonatal depression.
C. Prolonged labor.
D. Cerebral palsy.
E. Episiotomy.
Which of the followings is not correct retarding oxytocin?
A. Is a nona peptide.
B. Is synthesized in the posterior lobe of the pituitary gland.
C. Receptor concentration in the uterus increases towards the end of pregnancy.
D. Secretion is stimulated by suckling.
E. Has some antidiuretic action.
Cephalopelvic disproportion in the absences of gross pelvic abnormality can be diagnosed by:
A. Ultrasound.
B. A maternal stature of <155 cm.
C. Trial of labour.
D. X-ray pelvimetry.
E. pelvic examination.
A patient at 17 weeks gestation is diagnosed as having an intrauterine fetal death .she returns 5 week
later and has not aborted yet although she has had some occasional spotting. This patient is at
increased risk for:
A. Septic abortion.
B. Recumbent abortion.
C Disseminated intravascular coagulopathy.
D. Future infertility.
E. Ectopic pregnancies.
Which of the followings is not an indication for prenatal diagnosis?
A. Elevated MSAFP.
B. Previous child with cystic fibrosis.
C. Maternal ventricular sepal defect (VSD).
D. Omphalocele detected on second –trimester ultrasound.
E. Paternal age 50 years.
Factors that hinder long anterior rotation of the occiput include the followings except:
A. Epidural anesthesia.
B. High assimilation pelvis.
C. Too lax or too rigid pelvic floor.
D. Corrected deflexion of the head.
E. Early rupture of membranes.
What is the mean doubling time for serum βhCG levels in early pregnancy?
a) 24 hours.
b) 48 hours.
c) 72 hours.
d) 96 hours.
During labour in left occiput anterior position, the occiput has to rotate to the symphysis
pubis how many degrees (internal rotation)?
a) 45 (1/8th of a circle).
b) 90 (2/8th of a circle).
c) 135 (3/8th of a circle).
d) 180 (4/8th of a circle).
Complete molar pregnancy most commonl;y have which of the following genetic
compositions?
a) 45,XO.
b) 47,XXX.
c) 46,XX.
d) 47,XXXY.
Fertilization of the ovum by a sperm normally occurs in the :
a) Fimbria of the fallopian tube.
b) Isthmus of the fallopian tube.
c) Ampullary region of the fallopian tube.
d) Uterine cornua.
e) Uterine trigone.
What is the mean duration of pregnancy from the first day of the last menstrual period (LMP)?
a) 240 days.
b) 260 days.
c) 280 days.
d) 300 days.
Enterocele:
a) Is a prolapse of the rectum.
b) Gives an impulse on cough on PV.
c) May resolve spontaneously.
d) Diagnosed by barium enema.
Ectopic pregnancy:
a) Is treated surgically only.
b) Pain is always before vaginal bleeding.
c) Incidence is 1:100 of spontaneous conception.
d) Gives an increased risk of hyperemesis gravidarum.
Uterine prolapse in a surgically fit old aged patient is best treated by:
a) Classical repair with shortening of Machenrodt's ligaments.
b) Vaginal hysterectomy with repair of pelvic floor.
c) Fothergill operation.
d) Le Fort's operation: Partial colpocleisis.
Concerning ovulation:
A. LH induces theca cell estrogen production.
B. FSH induces a rise in LH receptors.
C. Ovulation occurs 14 hours after LH surge.
D. Sperms are needed to lyse the follicular membrane for ovulation to occur.
E. Ovulation can be confirmed by measurement of LH on day14.
Testicular feminization (androgen insensitivity) syndrome is associated with:
A. Existence of ovarian and testicular tissue.
B. Ambiguous genitalia.
C. 47.xx karyotype.
D. Hypo plastic breast
E. Late onset of gonadal tumours.
Endometrial cancer:
a) Occurs in postmenopausal females at the age of approximately 60 years.
b) Never occurs before the age of 40years.
c) More common in smokers.
d) Not related to obesity, diabetes & hypertension.
Most important & common presenting symptom with ectopic pregnancy is:
a) Abdominal pains.
b) Vaginal bleeding.
c) Fever.
d) Nausea & vomiting.
Most important, serious & common cause for accidental haemorrhage is:
a) Sudden premature rupture of membranes.
b) Short umbilical cord.
c) External trauma.
d) Maternal pre-eclampsia,
Cervical cancer:
a) May lead to ureteric obstruction.
b) Unusual to spread to the iliac nodes.
c) Arises from the transformation zone in most cases.
d) More common in virgins.
Which of the following causes of infertility is generally the most successfully diagnosed &
treated:
a) Ovulation disorders.
b) Tubal obstruction.
c) Endometriosis.
d) Intra-uterine adhesions.
Part of the uterus that forms the lower uterine segment in pregnancy:
a) Cervix.
b) Corpus.
c) Cornua.
d) Isthmus.
Which of the following is the most potent of the naturally occurring estrogens
a) Estriol.
b) Estrone.
c) Estradiol.
d) Ethinyl estradiol.
Factors needed for normal sexual differentiations include the followings except:
A. Normal sex chromosomal pattern in the female.
B. Normal sex chromosomal pattern in the male.
C. Normal testicular function for male development.
D. Normal ovarian function sexual differentiation.
E. Responsive male end organs for testicular testosterone.
Factors associated with increased risk for PID include the followings except:
A. Young sexually active women.
B. Women with multiple sexual partners.
C. Use of intrauterine contraceptive device.
D. Use of contraceptive gel-foams.
E. Drug addicts.
Which nerve is most subject to injury as a result of a sacrospinous ligament fixation procedure?
A. Femoral.
B. Common personal.
C. Pudendal.
D. Sciatic.
E. Obturator.
Vesicular mole:
a) Is not diagnosed by ultrasound.
b) First trimester bleeding is not the presenting symptom.
c) May be complete mole or partial mole with a fetus.
d) Very low B-HCG levels.
Spontaneous fetal movements begin at the gestyational age (weeks) of:
a) 6.
b) 12.
c) 16.
d) 20.
Complications of pre-eclmpsia:
a) Heart failure.
b) Renal failure.
c) Recurrent eclampsia.
d) Polyhydramnios.
Asynclitism:
a) Means increased fetal head flexion.
b) Means 2 parietal bones are on same level.
c) Facilitates engagement.
d) Is more marked with preterm labour.
In normal labour of a primigravida:
a) Cervical dilatation & effacement occur simultaneously.
b) Head always engage in 1st stage.
c) Duration of 3rd stage is equal to that in multipara.
d) Rate of cervical dilatation is constant.
Metropathia hemorrhagica:
a) Present with minimal vaginal bleeding.
b) Is rare cause of dysfunctional uterine bleeding.
c) Associated with anovulation.
d) Surgery is the main line of treatment.
Bacterial vaginosis:
a) The organism is a protozoa.
b) Rare form of vaginitis.
c) The vaginal PH < 4.5.
d) Foul odour discharge & increase with intercourse.
Chronic cervicitis:
a) Usually caused by anaerobic organism.
b) May cause subfertility
c) May cause spasmodic dysmenorrhea.
d) Antibiotics are the main line of treatment.
Laproscopy:
a) Is indicated in case of unexplained infertility.
b) Is done only in the immediate post menstrual period.
c) Can accurately diagnose adenomyosis.
d) Not accurate in diagnosis of endometriosis.
Cystocele:
a) Contains bladder & urethra.
b) Leads to polyuria.
c) Inability to complete micturition is common.
d) Always associated with stress incontinence.
A fundal level higher than calculated gestational age is possibly caused by.
a) Generalized edema.
b) Obesity.
c) Intrauterine growth retardation.
d) Breech presentation.
e) Associated ovarian cyst.
The following statements regarding complete hydatidiform moles are correct except:
a) Usually have female karyotype (90%).
b) Clinically evident hyperthyroidism may develop in 7% of cases.
c) In about 25 to 60% of cases the ovaries contain multiple theca-lutein cysts.
d) α-feto-protein is a good marker of disease post-evacuation.
e) Due to absence of fetus, uterine size is always less than the expected period of gestation.
Locked twins:
a) Is a common complication of twin pregnancy.
b) Usually occurs when the 1st twin is cephalic & the 2nd twin is breech.
c) Can only occur when both twins are in transverse lie.
d) Can only occur when the 1st twin is breech & the 2nd twin is cephalic.
e) Disimpaction under anesthesia is always successful.
The risk factors for an ectopic pregnancy include the followings EXCEPT:
a) History of pelvic inflammatory disease.
b) Previous ectopic pregnancy.
c) Use of combined oral contraceptives.
d) Assisted reproductive techniques.
e) Use of IUD as the method of contraception.
Retained placenta:
a) Is a condition in which placenta fails to be expelled within 2 hours after delivery.
b) Is a condition in which the placenta fails to be separated from the uterus.
c) Its incidence is about 5% of all pregnancies.
d) Is a condition in which the placenta fails to be expelled within 30 minutes after delivery.
e) More common to happen when placenta is fundal posterior.
The followings are predisposing factors for rupture uterus at the site of previous scar EXCEPT:
a) Improper hemostasis during previous surgery.
b) Post operative infection.
c) Preterm start of labour.
d) Implantation of placenta over the scar.
e) Use of stimulants in a scarred uterus.
Regarding the progesterone only pills, one of the followings is not correct:
a) A large proportion of women using it will ovulate.
b) Ideally it should be taken at a fixed time per day.
c) Contra-indicated in lactating women.
d) It affects mainly the cervical mucous.
e) Should be used continuously irrespective of the menstrual cycle.
Hyper prolactinaemia may clinically present by one or more of the followings EXCEPT:
a) Breast pain & tenderness.
b) Dysmenorrhea.
c) Menstrual disorders.
d) Infertility due to anovulation.
e) Galactorrhea.
Causes of symmetrical enlargement of the uterus include all of the followings EXCEPT:
a) Localized adenomyosis.
b) Metropathia hemorrhagica.
c) Pyometra.
d) Submucous myoma.
e) Ectopic pregnancy in a rudimentary horn.
Gynecological causes of acute abdominal pain include all of the followings EXCEPT:
a) Disturbed ectopic pregnancy.
b) Acute salpingitis.
c) Rupture corpus luteum.
d) Metropathia hemorrhagica.
e) Red degeneration in a fibroid.
Regarding uterine perforation during D&C one of the followings is not correct:
a) May occur with the use of sound, dilator or curette.
b) Is more liable to occur during evacuation of pregnant uterus.
c) Is more liable to occur in the presence of uterine malignancy.
d) May result in severe bleeding.
e) Always treated conservatively.
A mass protruding from the cervix can be any of the followings EXCEPT:
a) A cervical polyp.
b) An inverted fallopian tube.
c) Endometrial polyp.
d) Products of conception.
e) An inverted uterus.
Clomiphene therapy is most specific for the induction of the ovulation in patients with:
a. Sheehan's syndrome.
b. Turner's syndrome.
c. Kallmann's syndrome.
d. Hypothalamic hypogonadorophism.
e. Simmond's disease.
All of the following factors in this patient's history are risk factors for cervical dysplasia except:
a. Young age at initiation of sexual activity.
b. Multiple sexual partners.
c. Previous history of Chlamydia.
d. Use of Depo-Provera.
e. Smoking.
A 16 yr old primigravida at term, not in labour, has a sudden onset of continuous lower
abdominal pain, rapid pulse, no fetal heart tones, low BP and a tender uterus. The most
likely diagnosis is?
a. Abruptio placentae.
b. Placenta praevia.
c. Amniotic fluid embolism.
d. Perforation of the uterus by hydatidiform mole.
e. Supine hypotensive syndrome.
Warning symptoms that are given to a pregnant lady include the followings except:
a. Bleeding per vagina.
b. Excessive salivation (ptyalism).
c. Sudden loss of fluid per vagina.
d. Abdominal pain.
e. Leg cramps.
During follow up after evacuating molar pregnancy the best contraceptive is:
a. Combined oral contraceptive pills.
b. Progesterone only pills.
c. Progestin I.M.
d. Subdermal implants.
e. Intraauterine contraceptive device.
Which of the followings is not correct regarding magnesium sulfate used for cases of
pregnancy induced hypertension?
a. It is given to cases of imminent eclampsia
b. The aim is reduction of blood pressure.
c. Acts as CNS depressant.
d. Toxicity should be checked before giving the next does.
e. Should be continued for about 24 hours after delivery.
In diagnosis of pregnancy, all of the followings are true EXCEPT:
a) Frequency of micturition starts early in pregnancy.
b) Breast changes are all reversible by the end of pregnancy.
c) Nausea and vomiting start 4-6 weeks after the missed period.
d) Beta hCG can be detected in the blood 1 week before the missed period.
e) Beta hCG can be detected in urine few days after the missed period.
Pigmentation of the skin of cheeks and a part of the nose during pregnancy is called:
a) Striae gravidarum.
b) Linea nigra.
c) Chloasma.
d) Melasma.
e) None of the above.
During the return visits of antenatal care, all of the followings are true EXCEPT:
a) The patient is asked about any complaints.
b) The patient is asked about warning symptoms.
c) The fundal level should be measured and recorded at each visit after 12 weeks.
d) Blood pressure should be measured and recorded every visit.
e) Ultrasonography should be done every other visit.
During pregnancy, diet alone does NOT provide the requirements of:
a) Iron.
b) Calcium.
c) Magnesium.
d) Vitamin c.
e) Folic acid.
The recommended daily dose of folic acid during the preconceptional period and early
pregnancy is:
a) 10 μg
b) 40 μg
c) 100 μg
d) 400 μg
e) 1000 μg
Differential diagnosis of tubal ectopic pregnancy includes all of the following EXCEPT:
a) Abortion.
b) Acute salpingitis.
c) Hemorrhage in a corpus luteum cyst.
d) Cystitis.
e) Other causes of ante partum hemorrhage.
Regarding management of placenta previa, all of the followings are true EXCEPT:
a) Cases presenting with severe bleeding require immediate CS.
b) Active management is indicated after 37 weeks.
c) Cases presenting with persistent moderate bleeding require active management.
d) Oxytocin may be given before amniotomy to avoid inertia.
e) Amniotomy helps to control bleeding.
Which of the following does NOT contribute to increased perinatal morbidity and
mortality in pregnancies complicated by diabetes.
a) Birth injuries.
b) Neonatal hyperglycemia.
c) Respiratory distress syndrome.
d) Neonatal hypocalcaemia.
e) Neonatal hyperbilirubinemia.
A woman is classified as a nulligravida if she has:
a) Never been pregnant.
b) Had one abortion.
c) Had one pregnancy.
d) Never delivered a full term baby.
e) Never delivered a live-born baby.
Regarding engagement of the presenting part, all the following is true EXCEPT:
a) Is passage of widest transverse diameter of the presenting part through the plane of the inlet.
b) Always takes place during the second stage of labor.
c) Is commonly delayed with malpresentations.
d) Commonly occurs early with frank breech.
e) Can be assessed by PV.
The station at which the lowermost part of presenting part lies at the level of the ischial
spines is defined as:
a) -2.
b) -1 .
c) 0 .
d) +1 .
e) +2 .
Factors favoring long anterior rotation in case of occipito posterior include all of the
following EXCEPT:
a) Well flexed head.
b) Wide pelvic cavity.
c) Strong uterine contractions.
d) Rotation by forceps.
e) Elastic pelvic floor muscles.
With multifetal pregnancy, there is a higher incidence of all of the following EXCEPT:
a) Precipitate labor.
b) Preeclampsia.
c) Malpresentations.
d) Postpartum hemorrhage.
e) Polyhydramnios
A 23 years old patient, 4th G, p2, presents with mild vaginal bleeding and suprapubic
colics following a period of 2 months amenorrhea. She has no fever. PV examination
reveals a closed cervix. Pregnancy test is positive. The most likely diagnosis is:
a) Threatened abortion.
b) Inevitable abortion.
c) Missed abortion.
d) Septic abortion.
e) Isthmic incompetence.
Polycystic ovarian disease is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT:
a) Elevated LH level.
b) Elevated testosterone levels.
c) Oligohypomenorrhea or amenorrhea.
d) Dyspareunia.
e) Insulin resistance & hyperinsulinemia.
Clomiphene citrate:
a) Is a non steroidal agent.
b) Regarding benefits versus risks, its empirical use is justified.
c) Increases prolactin level.
d) Serious side effects are commonly encountered.
e) May be used to treat ovarian cysts.
Regarding cervical polyps all the following are correct EXCEPT one:
a) May cause post coital bleeding.
b) The most common type is mucous polyps.
c) Usually they arise from the cervical canal.
d) They are usually pre cancerous.
e) Cervical polyps should be subjected to histopathological examination.
A classical C.S.
a) Should be considered in cases of breech fetus
b) Is performed when large fibroids occupying the upper segments of the uterus
c) Is performed through a transverse incision in the upper segment of the uterus
d) Is performed in most cases of placenta pravia
e) Scar is liable to rupture after 30 weeks gestation
All the following are causes of bilateral LL edema during prenancy except:
a-Twins
b-Renal failure
c-Preeclampsia
d-Deep venous thrombosis
e-Allergic reaction
The last menstrual period was June 30, the expected date of delivery (EDD) is approximately:
a- March 23.
b- April 7.
c- March 28.
d- April 23.
e- March 7.
:The greatest diameter of the fetal head is
.a- Occipitofrontal
.b- Occipitomental
.c- Suboccipit bregmatic
.d- Bitemporal
.e. Biparietal
A primpara is in labor and an episiotomy will be cut, compared with a midline episiotomy,
: an advantage of medio-lateral episiotomy is
.a- Ease of repair
.b- Fewer break downs
.c- Less extension of the incision
.d- Lower blood of the incision
.e- Less dyspareunia
A patient sustained laceration of the perineum during delivery, it involved the muscles of
perincal body but not the anal sphineter. Such a laceration would be classified as:
.a- First degree
.b- Second degree
.c- Third degree
.d- Forth degree
.e- Fifth degree
Repetitive late decelerations most commonly indicate:
.a- Fetal academia
.b- Fetal hypoxia
.c- Fetal sleep state
.d- Fetal efforts of maternal sedation
.e- Rapid cervical dilatation
The Bishop score is used to predict:
.a- The state of the fetus at the time of delivery
.b- The success rate of the induction of the labor
.c- The fetal condition in the uterus
.d- The maternal well being in labor
.e- The maternal well being postpartum
Which of the followings is not a presumptive symptom/sign of pregnancy?
.a- Cessation of menstruation
.b- Nausea & vomiting
.c- Breast changes
.d- Quickening
.e- Darking of the skin on the palms of the hands
Immediate therapy for infants with suspected meconium should routinely include :
.a- Corticosteroid
.b- Antibiotics
.c- Sodium bicarbonate
.d- Clearing of the airway
.e- Giving O2 under positive pressure
Which type of myoma should be removed in infertile women to increase their pregnancy
rates?
.a- Intramural
.b- Subserosal
.c- Submucosal
.d- Broad ligamental
.e- Parasitic
Ovarian dysgenesis is associated with the elevation of which of the following hormones ?
.a- Pituilary Gonadtropins
.b- Estradiol
.c- Estriol
.d- Pregnandiol
.e- Progesterone
Anomalies of the uterus can be associated with the followings except :
.a- Urinary tract abnormalities
.b- Recurrent pregnancies loss
.c- Preterm labor
.d- Malpresentations
.e- Polycystic ovary
A sample of cervical mucus is taken on day 12 of the menstrual cycle. The mucus is thin,
clear, & stretchy . It is placed on a slide and allowed to air dry . when placed under
microscopic, What would you expect:
.a- Calcium citrate
b- Clear fields, devoid of bacteria
.c- Thick mucus with background bacteria
.d- A fern pattern characteristic of estrogen
.e- Clearly defined para- basal cells
?Which of the followings is the best method to predict the occurrence of ovulation
.a- Thermogenic shift in basal body temperature
.b- LH surge
.c- Endometrial decidulaization
.d- Profuse, thin, acellular cervical mucous
.e- Mittelschmerz
:Raised FSH levels are found in all of the following conditions except
.a- Postmenopausal women
.b- Turner's syndrome
.c- Women on Combined Oral Contraceptive pills
.d- Gonadal dysgenesis
.e- Peri-menopausal women who had hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo- oophorectomy
? The test which involves postcoital study of cervical mucus near the time of ovulation is
.a- Rubin test
.b- Novak test
.c- Bonney test
.d- Sims-Huhner test
.e- Marshall- Marchetti test
a. IV magnesium sulphate.
b. Diazepam.
c. Delivery.
d. IV hydralazine.
e. IV labetalol.
Gestational diabetes is associated with an increased risk of all the following, except:
a. Cesarean section.
b. Shoulder dystocia.
c. Foetal macrosomia.
d. Intrauterine foetal death.
e. Intrauterine growth restriction.
A 21-year-old partient is considering epidural analgesia. She would like to know which of
the followings is increased in patients with epidural analgesia:
a. Cesarean delivery.
b. Neonatal depression.
e. Prolonged labour.
d. Cerebral palsy.
e. Episiotomy.
The infant of a diabetic mother has an increased risk off the followings except;
a. Neonatal jaundice.
b. Macrocytic anaemia.
c. Hypocalcaemia.
d. Cardiomegaly.
e. Erb's palsy.
Which of the followings is not correct regarding external cephalic version (ECV) of
breech:
a. Usually is carried out before 37 weeks gestation.
b. Is associated with an increased risk of placental abruption.
c. Is associated with about a 1% risk of fetal mortality.
d. Can significantly reduce the incidence of caesarean section.
e. Should ideally be performed under general anaesthesia.
Indications of vertical LUS incision (Kronig's incision) include the followings except:
a. Constriction ring.
b. Varicose veins in the broad ligaments.
c. Head deeply engaged in the pelvis.
d. Microcephalus.
e. Some cases of PTL.
Patient complains of post coital bleeding and no growth is seen on the cervix per
speculum examination. The best next step should be:
a. Colposcopy
b. Conization.
c. Vaginal U/S.
d. Culdoseopy.
e. Iodine test.
Tumor markers are reliable for the diagnosis and follow up of the following Except:
a. Choriocarcinoma.
b. Embryonal carcinoma. .
c. Dysgerminoma.
d. Endodermal sinus tumours.
e. Metastatic tumours to the ovary.
Regarding uterine perforation during D & C which of the followings is not correct?
a. May occur with the use of sound, dilator or curette.
b. Is more liable to occur during evacuation of a pregnant uterus.
c. Is more liable to occur in the presence of uterine malignancy.
d. May result in intestinal injury.
e. Always treated conservatively if suction cannula was used.
Indications of hysteroscopy include all of the followings except:
A. Habitual abortions.
b. Resection of Submucous myoma.
c. Removal of extrauterine IUD.
d. Diagnosis of intrauterine synaechiae.
e. Irregular uterine bleeding.
Which off the followings is the most certain method to determine that ovulation has
occurred?
a. Basal body temperature.
b. Pregnancy.
c. Increase in LH.
d. Thick cervical mucus.
e. Endometrial biopsy.
Factors needed for normal sexual differentiation include the followings except :
a. Normal sex chromosomal pattern in the female.
b. Normal sex chromosomal pattern in the male.
e. Normal testicular function for male development.
d. Normal ovarian function for female sexual differentiation.
e. Responsive male end organs for testicular testosterone.
Factors associated with increased risk for PID include the followings except:
a. Young, sexually active women.
b. Women with multiple sexual partners.
c. Use of intrauterine contraceptive device
d. Use of contraceptive gel-foams.
e. Drug addicts.
Which of the followings is not associated with vulvar ulcer?
a. Syphilis.
b. Tuberculosis.
c. Herpes simplex virus type 2.
d. HPV.
e. Behcet's disease.
Which DOES NOT increase the failure rate of external cephalic version in breech presentation?
a) Polyhydramnios.
b) Ritodrine infusion.
c) Short cord.
d) Hydrocephalus.
e) Frank breech.
A) Foetal distress
B) Hypernatremia
C) Amniotic fluid embolism
D) Dysfunction labour
A) Being localized
B) Being bilateral
C) Associated with local tenderness
D) Being situated in the midline