Professional Documents
Culture Documents
One of the following is correct regarding the follicular phase of the menstrual cycle :
a) The granulosa cells produce androstenedione & testosterone.
b) The endometrial glands become straight.
c) Oestradiol inhibits the production of LH at the end of the follicular phase.
d) The theca cells produce oestradiol & secrete follicular fluid.
e) The nucleus of the oocyte contains 23 chromosomes.
A patient complains of post coital bleeding & no growth is seen on the cervix per
speculum examination.The best next step should be:
a) Colposcopy.
b) Conization.
c) Pap smear.
d) Culdoscopy.
e) Biopsy.
In an infertile woman, endometrial biopsy reveals proliferative changes.Which
hormone should be preferred?
a) Medroxy progesterone acetate.
b) Desogestrel.
c) Danazol.
d) Cyproterone acetate.
e) None of the above.
Your patient is 43 years old & is concerned that she may be too close to menopause
to get pregnant. You recommend that her gonadotropin levels be tested. Which is the
best day of menstrual cycle to check?
a) Day 3.
b) Day 8.
c) Day 14.
d) Day 21.
e) Day 26.
The following potential treatments culd be used in the initial care of secondary
postpartum haemorrhage except:
a) Methylergonovine maleate (Methergin).
b) Oxytocin injection (Pitocin).
c) Ergonovine maleate (Ergotrate).
d) Prostaglandins.
e) Dilatation & curettage.
Factors that hinder long anterior rotation of the occiput (in occipito-posterior)
include the following except:
a) Weak uterine contractions.
b) Strong uterine contractions.
c) Shape of the pelvis (contracted pelvis).
d) Rigid pelvic floor.
e) Rupture of membrane & drained amniotic fluid.
Regarding engagement of the presenting part , all the following is true except:
a) It is the passage of widest transverse diameter of the presenting part through the
plane of inlet.
b) Can be diagnosed by 2nd pelvic grip.
c) Is commonly delayed with malpresentations.
d) Commonly occurs early with frank breech.
e) Can be assessed by vaginal examination when the occiput is felt at or below the
level of pelvic inlet.
Indications of Cesarean section with placenta previa include all of the following
except:
a) Placenta previa centralis.
b) Placenta previa marginalis anterior.
c) Failure of amniotomy to control bleeding &/or induce contractions.
d) Contracted pelvis.
e) Placenta previa incomplete centralis associated with intra uterine fetal death.
A cystocele:
a) Is always associated with constipation.
b) Contains bladder.
c) Contains rectum.
d) Is best treated by antibiotics.
What is the mean doubling time for serum βhCG levels in early pregnancy?
a) 24 hours.
b) 48 hours.
c) 72 hours.
d) 96 hours.
During labour in left occiput anterior position, the occiput has to rotate to the
symphysis pubis how many degrees (internal rotation)?
a) 45 (1/8th of a circle).
b) 90 (2/8th of a circle).
c) 135 (3/8th of a circle).
d) 180 (4/8th of a circle).
Complete molar pregnancy most commonl;y have which of the following genetic
compositions?
a) 45,XO.
b) 47,XXX.
c) 46,XX.
d) 47,XXXY.
Fertilization of the ovum by a sperm normally occurs in the :
a) Fimbria of the fallopian tube.
b) Isthmus of the fallopian tube.
c) Ampullary region of the fallopian tube.
d) Uterine cornua.
e) Uterine trigone.
What is the mean duration of pregnancy from the first day of the last menstrual
period (LMP)?
a) 240 days.
b) 260 days.
c) 280 days.
d) 300 days.
Enterocele:
a) Is a prolapse of the rectum.
b) Gives an impulse on cough on PV.
c) May resolve spontaneously.
d) Diagnosed by barium enema.
Ectopic pregnancy:
a) Is treated surgically only.
b) Pain is always before vaginal bleeding.
c) Incidence is 1:100 of spontaneous conception.
d) Gives an increased risk of hyperemesis gravidarum.
Uterine prolapse in a surgically fit old aged patient is best treated by:
a) Classical repair with shortening of Machenrodt's ligaments.
b) Vaginal hysterectomy with repair of pelvic floor.
c) Fothergill operation.
d) Le Fort's operation: Partial colpocleisis.
Endometriosis:
a) Is associated with development of endometrial cancer later in life.
b) A well known cause for postmenopausal bleeding.
c) Is associated with subfertility.
d) Benign neoplastic lesion rare to turn malignant.
Endometrial cancer:
a) Occurs in postmenopausal females at the age of approximately 60 years.
b) Never occurs before the age of 40years.
c) More common in smokers.
d) Not related to obesity, diabetes & hypertension.
Most important & common presenting symptom with ectopic pregnancy is:
a) Abdominal pains.
b) Vaginal bleeding.
c) Fever.
d) Nausea & vomiting.
Most important, serious & common cause for accidental haemorrhage is:
a) Sudden premature rupture of membranes.
b) Short umbilical cord.
c) External trauma.
d) Maternal pre-eclampsia,
Cervical cancer:
a) May lead to ureteric obstruction.
b) Unusual to spread to the iliac nodes.
c) Arises from the transformation zone in most cases.
d) More common in virgins.
The most common clinical presentation of polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) is:
a) Hirsutism.
b) Amenorrhea.
c) Infertility.
d) Obesity.
Part of the uterus that forms the lower uterine segment in pregnancy:
a) Cervix.
b) Corpus.
c) Cornua.
d) Isthmus.
Which of the following is the most potent of the naturally occurring estrogens
a) Estriol.
b) Estrone.
c) Estradiol.
d) Ethinyl estradiol.
Vesicular mole:
a) Is not diagnosed by ultrasound.
b) First trimester bleeding is not the presenting symptom.
c) May be complete mole or partial mole with a fetus.
d) Very low B-HCG levels.
Spontaneous fetal movements begin at the gestyational age (weeks) of:
a) 6.
b) 12.
c) 16.
d) 20.
Complications of pre-eclmpsia:
a) Heart failure.
b) Renal failure.
c) Recurrent eclampsia.
d) Polyhydramnios.
Asynclitism:
a) Means increased fetal head flexion.
b) Means 2 parietal bones are on same level.
c) Facilitates engagement.
d) Is more marked with preterm labour.
Metropathia hemorrhagica:
a) Present with minimal vaginal bleeding.
b) Is rare cause of dysfunctional uterine bleeding.
c) Associated with anovulation.
d) Surgery is the main line of treatment.
Intra-uterine insemination:
a) Indicated in cases of azospermia.
b) May be used in cases of unexplained infertility.
c) Ineffective in cases of hostile cervical muscous.
d) Done in early proliferative phase.
Chronic cervicitis:
a) Usually caused by anaerobic organism.
b) May cause subfertility
c) May cause spasmodic dysmenorrhea.
d) Antibiotics are the main line of treatment.
Laproscopy:
a) Is indicated in case of unexplained infertility.
b) Is done only in the immediate post menstrual period.
c) Can accurately diagnose adenomyosis.
d) Not accurate in diagnosis of endometriosis.
Large asymptomatic fibroid of the supra-vaginal portion of the cervix is best treated
by:
a) No treatment.
b) Abdominal hysterectomy.
c) Abdominal myomectomy.
d) Vaginal myomectomy.
Fibroids are:
a) The commonest pelvic tumours in females.
b) Accounting for 80% of all hysterectomies.
c) More common in white race.
d) Most common between women age 20-30 years.
Cystocele:
a) Contains bladder & urethra.
b) Leads to polyuria.
c) Inability to complete micturition is common.
d) Always associated with stress incontinence.
A fundal level higher than calculated gestational age is possibly caused by.
a) Generalized edema.
b) Obesity.
c) Intrauterine growth retardation.
d) Breech presentation.
e) Associated ovarian cyst.
Locked twins:
a) Is a common complication of twin pregnancy.
b) Usually occurs when the 1st twin is cephalic & the 2nd twin is breech.
c) Can only occur when both twins are in transverse lie.
d) Can only occur when the 1st twin is breech & the 2nd twin is cephalic.
e) Disimpaction under anesthesia is always successful.
Factors interfering with long anterior rotation in OP include one of the followings:
a) Good uterine contractions.
b) Early correction of deflexion.
c) Contracted pelvis.
d) Very wide pelvis.
e) Intact membranes.
Cervical dystocia may follow all of the following EXCEPT:
a) Fothergill's operation.
b) Repaeted shirodkar's or McDonald's cerclage.
c) Conization of the cervix.
d) Over cauterisation.
e) Previous IUD insertion.
As regards Vasa Previa:
a) It is common condition.
b) It occurs with circumvallate placenta.
c) It is the only cause of ante partum hemorrahge of fetal origin.
d) The fetal mortality is only 10%.
e) It can be treated in a conservative way.
The risk factors for an ectopic pregnancy include the followings EXCEPT:
a) History of pelvic inflammatory disease.
b) Previous ectopic pregnancy.
c) Use of combined oral contraceptives.
d) Assisted reproductive techniques.
e) Use of IUD as the method of contraception.
Retained placenta:
a) Is a condition in which placenta fails to be expelled within 2 hours after delivery.
b) Is a condition in which the placenta fails to be separated from the uterus.
c) Its incidence is about 5% of all pregnancies.
d) Is a condition in which the placenta fails to be expelled within 30 minutes after
delivery.
e) More common to happen when placenta is fundal posterior.
The followings are predisposing factors for rupture uterus at the site of previous scar EXCEPT:
a) Improper hemostasis during previous surgery.
b) Post operative infection.
c) Preterm start of labour.
d) Implantation of placenta over the scar.
e) Use of stimulants in a scarred uterus.
In haemorrhagic shock:
a) Pulse is slow.
b) Patient is apathic & quiet.
c) Superficial veins are collapsed.
d) Respiration is slow & shallow.
e) There is always hemoconcentration.
Regarding the progesterone only pills, one of the followings is not correct:
a) A large proportion of women using it will ovulate.
b) Ideally it should be taken at a fixed time per day.
c) Contra-indicated in lactating women.
d) It affects mainly the cervical mucous.
e) Should be used continuously irrespective of the menstrual cycle.
Hyper prolactinaemia may clinically present by one or more of the followings
EXCEPT:
a) Breast pain & tenderness.
b) Dysmenorrhea.
c) Menstrual disorders.
d) Infertility due to anovulation.
e) Galactorrhea.
Tumour markers are reliable for the diagnosis & follow up of the followings EXCEPT:
a) Choriocarcinoma.
b) Epithelial cancers of the ovary.
c) Dysgerminoma.
d) Endodermal sinus tumours.
e) Metastatic tumours of the ovary.
Luteal phase defect is associated with all of the followings EXCEPT:
a) Short cycles.
b) Hypo prolactinaemia.
c) Biphasic body temperature chart with short luteal phase.
d) Endometrial biopsy.
e) Low midluteal progesterone levels.
Gynecological causes of acute abdominal pain include all of the followings EXCEPT:
a) Disturbed ectopic pregnancy.
b) Acute salpingitis.
c) Rupture corpus luteum.
d) Metropathia hemorrhagica.
e) Red degeneration in a fibroid.
Regarding uterine perforation during D&C one of the followings is not correct:
a) May occur with the use of sound, dilator or curette.
b) Is more liable to occur during evacuation of pregnant uterus.
c) Is more liable to occur in the presence of uterine malignancy.
d) May result in severe bleeding.
e) Always treated conservatively.
A mass protruding from the cervix can be any of the followings EXCEPT:
a) A cervical polyp.
b) An inverted fallopian tube.
c) Endometrial polyp.
d) Products of conception.
e) An inverted uterus.
Causes of recurrent abortion in early pregnancy include all the following EXCEPT:
a) Progesterone insufficiency.
b) Rh incompatibility.
c) Chromosomal anomalies of the fertilized ovum.
d) Submucous fibroid.
e) Anti-phospholipid antibodies.
Clomiphene therapy is most specific for the induction of the ovulation in patients
with:
a. Sheehan's syndrome.
b. Turner's syndrome.
c. Kallmann's syndrome.
d. Hypothalamic hypogonadorophism.
e. Simmond's disease.
Dysfunctional uterine bleeding is most often caused by:
a. Tumours.
b. Endocrine disorders.
c. Inflammation.
d. Pregnancy.
e. Adrenal cortex.
Vaginal bleeding at the time of ovulation is thought to be due to:
a. Increase in progesterone.
b. Decrease in oestrogen.
c. Follicular haemorrahge.
d. Implantation.
e. Passage of ovum.
All of the following factors in this patient's history are risk factors for cervical dysplasia except:
a. Young age at initiation of sexual activity.
b. Multiple sexual partners.
c. Previous history of Chlamydia.
d. Use of Depo-Provera.
e. Smoking.
Warning symptoms that are given to a pregnant lady include the followings
except:
a. Bleeding per vagina.
b. Excessive salivation (ptyalism).
c. Sudden loss of fluid per vagina.
d. Abdominal pain.
e. Leg cramps.
During follow up after evacuating molar pregnancy the best contraceptive is:
a. Combined oral contraceptive pills.
b. Progesterone only pills.
c. Progestin I.M.
d. Subdermal implants.
e. Intraauterine contraceptive device.
Which of the followings is not correct regarding magnesium sulfate used for
cases of pregnancy induced hypertension?
a. It is given to cases of imminent eclampsia
b. The aim is reduction of blood pressure.
c. Acts as CNS depressant.
d. Toxicity should be checked before giving the next does.
e. Should be continued for about 24 hours after delivery.
Pigmentation of the skin of cheeks and a part of the nose during pregnancy is called:
a) Striae gravidarum.
b) Linea nigra.
c) Chloasma.
d) Melasma.
e) None of the above.
During the return visits of antenatal care, all of the followings are true EXCEPT:
a) The patient is asked about any complaints.
b) The patient is asked about warning symptoms.
c) The fundal level should be measured and recorded at each visit after 12 weeks.
d) Blood pressure should be measured and recorded every visit.
e) Ultrasonography should be done every other visit.
During pregnancy, diet alone does NOT provide the requirements of:
a) Iron.
b) Calcium.
c) Magnesium.
d) Vitamin c.
e) Folic acid.
The recommended daily dose of folic acid during the preconceptional period and
early pregnancy is:
a) 10 μg
b) 40 μg
c) 100 μg
d) 400 μg
e) 1000 μg
Differential diagnosis of tubal ectopic pregnancy includes all of the following EXCEPT:
a) Abortion.
b) Acute salpingitis.
c) Hemorrhage in a corpus luteum cyst.
d) Cystitis.
e) Other causes of ante partum hemorrhage.
Regarding management of placenta previa, all of the followings are true EXCEPT:
a) Cases presenting with severe bleeding require immediate CS.
b) Active management is indicated after 37 weeks.
c) Cases presenting with persistent moderate bleeding require active management.
d) Oxytocin may be given before amniotomy to avoid inertia.
e) Amniotomy helps to control bleeding.
Regarding engagement of the presenting part, all the following is true EXCEPT:
a) Is passage of widest transverse diameter of the presenting part through the plane of the inlet.
b) Always takes place during the second stage of labor.
c) Is commonly delayed with malpresentations.
d) Commonly occurs early with frank breech.
e) Can be assessed by PV.
The station at which the lowermost part of presenting part lies at the level of the
ischial spines is defined as:
a) -2.
b) -1 .
c) 0 .
d) +1 .
e) +2 .
Factors favoring long anterior rotation in case of occipito posterior include all of
the following EXCEPT:
a) Well flexed head.
b) Wide pelvic cavity.
c) Strong uterine contractions.
d) Rotation by forceps.
e) Elastic pelvic floor muscles.
A 23 years old patient, 4th G, p2, presents with mild vaginal bleeding and
suprapubic colics following a period of 2 months amenorrhea. She has no fever.
PV examination reveals a closed cervix. Pregnancy test is positive. The most
likely diagnosis is:
a) Threatened abortion.
b) Inevitable abortion.
c) Missed abortion.
d) Septic abortion.
e) Isthmic incompetence.
Clomiphene citrate:
a) Is a non steroidal agent.
b) Regarding benefits versus risks, its empirical use is justified.
c) Increases prolactin level.
d) Serious side effects are commonly encountered.
e) May be used to treat ovarian cysts.
Regarding cervical polyps all the following are correct EXCEPT one:
a) May cause post coital bleeding.
b) The most common type is mucous polyps.
c) Usually they arise from the cervical canal.
d) They are usually pre cancerous.
e) Cervical polyps should be subjected to histopathological examination.
A classical C.S.
a) Should be considered in cases of breech fetus
b) Is performed when large fibroids occupying the upper segments of the uterus
c) Is performed through a transverse incision in the upper segment of the uterus
d) Is performed in most cases of placenta pravia
e) Scar is liable to rupture after 30 weeks gestation
All the following are causes of bilateral LL edema during prenancy except:
a-Twins
b-Renal failure
c-Preeclampsia
d-Deep venous thrombosis
e-Allergic reaction
One of the following pelvis is characterized by absence of single alum of the sacrum:
a- Roberts pelvis
b-Naegles pelvis
c-Rachitic pelvis
d-Osteomalatic pelvis
e-Flat pelvis
The last menstrual period was June 30, the expected date of delivery (EDD) is
approximately:
a- March 23.
b- April 7.
c- March 28.
d- April 23.
e- March 7.
Immediate therapy for infants with suspected meconium should routinely include :
a- Corticosteroid.
b- Antibiotics.
c- Sodium bicarbonate.
d- Clearing of the airway.
e- Giving O2 under positive pressure.
The most common cause of perinatal death in mono-amniotic twin is :
a- Cord entrapment.
b- Cord prolapse.
c- Twin transfusion syndrome.
d- Lethal congenital anomalies.
e- Placenta abruption.
In Turner's syndrome:
a- A chromosomal structure of 45 XY is characteristic.
b- Secondary amenorrhea is usual.
c- Ovaries are streak.
d- The ovaries are multicystic.
e- Phenotypically are male.
A sample of cervical mucus is taken on day 12 of the menstrual cycle. The mucus is
thin, clear, & stretchy . It is placed on a slide and allowed to air dry . when placed
under microscopic, What would you expect:
a- Calcium citrate.
b- Clear fields, devoid of bacteria
c- Thick mucus with background bacteria.
d- A fern pattern characteristic of estrogen.
e- Clearly defined para- basal cells.
Which of the followings is the best method to predict the occurrence of
ovulation?
a- Thermogenic shift in basal body temperature.
b- LH surge.
c- Endometrial decidulaization.
d- Profuse, thin, acellular cervical mucous.
e- Mittelschmerz.
Raised FSH levels are found in all of the following conditions except:
a- Postmenopausal women.
b- Turner's syndrome.
c- Women on Combined Oral Contraceptive pills.
d- Gonadal dysgenesis.
e- Peri-menopausal women who had hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo- oophorectomy.
The test which involves postcoital study of cervical mucus near the time of ovulation is ?
a- Rubin test.
b- Novak test.
c- Bonney test.
d- Sims-Huhner test.
e- Marshall- Marchetti test.
The patient is 8 weeks pregnant, which one off the following U/S measurements as most
useful:
a. Biparietal diameter.
b. Femur length.
c. Placental site.
d. Crown Rump length.
e. Abdominal circumference.
For patients with three consecutive spontaneous in the second trimester the most
useful investigation is:
a. Chromosomal analysis.
b. Hysterosalpingogram
c. Endometrial biopsy.
d. Post coital test.
e. Prolactin level.
Which of the followings is not correct regarding external cephalic version (ECV)
of breech:
a. Usually is carried out before 37 weeks gestation.
b. Is associated with an increased risk of placental abruption.
c. Is associated with about a 1% risk of fetal mortality.
d. Can significantly reduce the incidence of caesarean section.
e. Should ideally be performed under general anaesthesia.
Bacteriuria in pregnancy:
a. Is associated with lower socioeconomic status.
b. Affects 15% of women.
c. If left untreated, will progress to symptomatic infection in about 75% of women.
d. Should be treated with tetracycline.
e. Is associated with increased risk of anaemia.
Patient complains of post coital bleeding and no growth is seen on the cervix per
speculum examination. The best next step should be:
a. Colposcopy
b. Conization.
c. Vaginal U/S.
d. Culdoseopy.
e. Iodine test.
Tumor markers are reliable for the diagnosis and follow up of the following
Except:
a. Choriocarcinoma.
b. Embryonal carcinoma. .
c. Dysgerminoma.
d. Endodermal sinus tumours.
e. Metastatic tumours to the ovary.
Which off the followings is the most certain method to determine that ovulation
has occurred?
a. Basal body temperature.
b. Pregnancy.
c. Increase in LH.
d. Thick cervical mucus.
e. Endometrial biopsy.
Factors needed for normal sexual differentiation include the followings except :
a. Normal sex chromosomal pattern in the female.
b. Normal sex chromosomal pattern in the male.
e. Normal testicular function for male development.
d. Normal ovarian function for female sexual differentiation.
e. Responsive male end organs for testicular testosterone.
Luteal phase cervical mucus changes include the followings except:
a. Scanty.
b. Thick-viscid.
c. Absent leucocytes.
d. Negative Ferning test.
e. Negative Spinnbarkeit test.
Factors associated with increased risk for PID include the followings except:
a. Young, sexually active women.
b. Women with multiple sexual partners.
c. Use of intrauterine contraceptive device
d. Use of contraceptive gel-foams.
e. Drug addicts.
All the following statements, about genuine stress incontinence in the female, are
correct EXCEPT:
a) It occurs transiently during pregnancy.
b) It is more common in parous women.
c) It can be corrected surgically.
d) Urodynamic studies are usually normal.
The shape of the hymenal opening in normal individuals include the following
EXCEPT:
a) Annular
b) Crescentric
c) Septate
d) Cribriform
e) Segmoid
Which DOES NOT increase the failure rate of external cephalic version in breech
presentation?
a) Polyhydramnios.
b) Ritodrine infusion.
c) Short cord.
d) Hydrocephalus.
e) Frank breech.