Professional Documents
Culture Documents
1
Zaporozhye State Medical University , Ukraine, Edited by Rag@Puja 3rd course
2009-10
Grreddy836@gmail.com grreddy836@yahoo.com
10. Which one of the following is TRUE for a drug whose elimination
from plasma shows zero-order kinetics?
A. The half-life of the drug is proportional to the drug concentration
in plasma
B. The amount eliminated per unit time is constant
C. The rate of elimination does not depend on the
plasma concentration
D. Elimination involves a rate-limiting enzymatic reaction operating
at its maximal velocity
E. A plot of drug concentration versus time is a straight line
28. You are planning to infuse a drug IV at a constant amount per unit
time (rate). It has a first order elimination rate constant (kel) of
0.35/h. No loading dose will be given. Approximately how long will it
take for blood levels to reach steady state after the infusion begins?
A. 0.7 hours
B. 1.2 hours
C. 9 hours
D. 24 hours
E. 36 hours
29. Two drugs act on the same tissue or organ via activation of
different receptors, resulting in effects that are qualitatively the
opposite of one another. What is the type of drug antagonism?
A. Chemical
B. Physiologic
C. Dispositional
D. Pharmacologic
E. Competitive
40. The patient was given a drug ―A‖. After a few days the effect of
the drug singnificanty dropped and for restoring of the initial effect
it was necessary to increase the drug‘s dose. What is the name of this
phenomenon?
A. Cumulation
B. Tachyphylaxis
C. Dependence
D. Tolerance
E. Idiosyncrasy
42. A patient who was been suffering from cardiac insufficiency for
several months has been taking digoxin on an outpatient basis. At a
certain stage of treatment there appeared symptoms of drug overdose.
What phenomenon underlies the development of this complication?
A. Tachyphylaxis
B. Sensibilization
C. Functional cumulation
D. Habituation
E. Material cumulation
43. A 36 y.o. man has a craniocerebral trauma. Objectively: diminished
breath sounds, thready pulse, and no reflexes. What way of pyracetam
introduction will be the most appropriate in this case?
A. Inhalation
B. Subcutaneous
C. Rectal
D. Intravenous
E. Peroral
44. A patient, who has been treating with Clophelinum (Clonidine) due
to arterial hypertension, has taken an alcoholic drink that has caused
the sharp inhibition of the CNS. What is the name of this interaction?
A. Potentiation
B. Summation
C. Cumulation
D. Intoxication
E. Idiosyncratic reaction
48. Indicate the number of introduction of a drug per day if its half-
life period (T1/2) is 20 hours:
A. 2 times a day
B. 3 times a day
C. 4 times a day
D. Once daily
E. Every 12 hours
51. The patient suffering from epilepsy had been receiving daily 0,2 g
of phenobarbitale continuously. Recently attacks became more frequent,
suppressed mood is observed. Which process became the cause of
deterioration of the patient‘s state?
A. Liver monooxygenase enzymes system induction.
B. Liver monooxygenase enzymes system inhibition.
C. Lipolysis activation.
D. Gluconeogenesis activation.
E. Glycolysis inhibition.
53. A stenocardia attack happened with a 48 y.o. man. The doctor has
prescribed him a pill of nitroglycerine sublingually. Why has the
doctor chosen a sublingual method of the medicine administration?
A Bad intestinal absorption
B Drug elimination by gastric juice
C Effect develops faster
D. It is activated by saliva
E. Only because it damages the liver
57. How can the fact that for tuberculosis treatment the isoniazide
doze is selected individually with the obligatory control of
concentration of the medication in urine after its first application
be explained?
A.Development of haemolytic anaemias
B.Hyperglycemia after drug administration
C.Development of renal insufficiency
D.Irritating effect of the drug
E.Genetically caused methylation of the drug
74. What drugs from the group of local anaesthetics are not used
together with sulfonamides?
A. Novocaine (procaine)
B. Sovcainum
C. Lidocaine
D. Trimecaine
E. Ultracaine
75. Determine the drug, which is used for all types of anaesthesia.
A. Novocain (procaine)
B. Anesthesine (benzocaine)
C. Lidocaine
D. Trimecaine
E. Dicaine (tetracaine)
81. A nurse used mustard plaster with water of more than 600C to and
applied it on patient‘s back. In 30 min she found that patient‘s skin
under the mustard plaster did not get red. What is the reason for
absence of mustard plaster effect?
A. Inactivation of mirosine
B. Inactivation of choline esterase
C. Activation of mirosine
D. Inactivation of monoaminooxydase
E. Activation of methyltranspherase
87. Select the most appropriate drug that reverses the effects of
nondepolarising blockers:
A. Dithylinum
B. Proserine (Neostigmine)
C Fresh blood transfusion
D Scopolamine
E. Ipratropium bromide
88. Select the most appropriate drug to treat the poisoning with
depolarising blockers:
A. Dithylinum
B. Neostigmine
C Fresh blood transfusion
D Scopolamine
E. Ipratropium bromide
89. Which ONE of the following drugs would be useful in the long-term
treatment of myasthenia gravis?
A. Arduan
B. Atropine
C. Proserine (Neostigmine)
D. Scopolamine
E. Lobeline
94. All of following side effects are seen with Ipratropium bromide
except:
A. Urinary retention
B. Dryness of mouth
C. Scratching in trachea
D. Miosis
E. Glaucoma
105. A patient with fracture of his lower jaw was admitted to the
maxillofacial department. It was decided to fix his bones surgically
under anesthetic. After intravenous introduction of muscle relaxant
there arose short febrillar contractions of the patient‘s facial
muscles. What muscle relaxant was applied?
A. Diazepam
B. Tubocurarin chloride
C. Pipecuronium bromide
D. Dithylinum
E. Melictine
109. The glaucoma is diagnosed in 43 y.o. patient for the first time.
For the treatment doctor has prescribed an anticholinesterase agent in
eye drops. Indicate this agent:
A. Galantamine
B. Physostigmine
C. Pilocarpine
D. Dipiroxim
E. Atropine
127. A 38-year-old female has taken unknown drug for decreasing high
BP. After its administration systolic pressure decreased but
tachycardia appeared. What was the patient administered?
A. Atenolol
B. Reserpine
C. Phentolamine
D. Propranolol
E.Prasosine
133. All the following drugs are used topically in the treatment of
chronic wide-angle glaucoma. Which one reduces intraocular pressure by
decreasing the formation of the aqueous humor?
A. Timolol
B. Pilocarpine
C. Physostigmine
D. Neostigmine
E. Aceclidine
136. A patient ill with bronchial asthma didn‘t inform his doctor that
he had attacks of stenocardia. Doctor administered him a medication,
which taking resulted in less frequent attacks of bronchial asthma,
but stenocardia attacks became more frequent. What medication was
administered?
A. Salbutamol
B. Aminophylline
C. Isadrin
D. Cromolin sodium
E. Phenotherol
137. A patient with bronchial asthma has been given 0.5% solution of
isadrinum (isoproterenol). Bronchospasm was removed, but the patient
started to complain on a pain in cardiac area. It is linked to
stimulation of:
A. Acetylcholine synthesis
B. (1-adrenoceptors
C. beta 1- adrenoceptors
D. (2- adrenoceptors
E. M-cholinoceptors
138. The 42 y.o. patient has been suffering from bronchial asthma and
tachycardia for a long time. Administer the optimal drug for removing
of bronchospasm:
A. Adrenaline
B. Ephedrine
C. Orciprenaline
D. Isadrinum
E. Salbutamol
146. A patient with chronic bronchitis has been taking with ephedrine
for a long time. What is the drug‘s action mechanism?
A. Stimulation of noradrenaline release into synaptic
cleft
B. Blockade of noradrenaline release into synaptic cleft
C. Stimulation of (-adrenoceptors
D. Blockade of (-adrenoceptors
E. Direct spasmolytic action
150. A patient with bronchial asthma had been taking orally an agent,
which caused insomnia, headache, increased AP. What medicine can cause
such complication?
A. Ephedrine
B. Isadrinum
C. Prasosine
D. Adrenaline
E. Dopamine
152. A patient who had been suffering from arterial hypertension was
treated with an agent which mechanism of action is connected with
exhaustion of norepinephrine content in sympathetic nerve ending.
Indicate this agent:
A. Clophelinum
B. Anapriline
C. Prasosine
D. Metoprolol
E. Reserpine
153. A patient who has been suffering from severe form of arterial
hypertension after examination was diagnosed pheochromocytoma (tumor
of adrenal medulla which is accompanied by increased synthesis of
epinephrine). Indicate the drug group to treat patient before surgical
treatment:
A. alpha-adrenoblockers
B. Alpha-adrenomimeticks
C. Ganglioblockers
D. Sympathomimetics
E. beta-adrenoblockers
159. Pains in the back developed after the lifting of heavy loads.
Lumbosacral radiculitis was diagnosed. It is known from the anamnesis
that the patient was suffering from ulcer of the duodenal bulb for a
long period of time. Make the most rational choice of nonopioid
analgesics:
A. Butadion
B. Ortophenum (diclofenac sodium)
C. Indomethacin
D. Meloxicam
E. Ibuprofen
160. Gum bleeding arose in the patient after extraction of the tooth.
From anamnesis it was revealed that the patient suffered from
rheumatic arthritis, and was treated with the anti-inflammatory agent
acetyl-salicylic acid (aspirin). Indicate the reason of arisen
bleeding.
A. Suppression of synthesis of uric acid
B. Promotion of thrombolysis
C. Inhibition of hemopoesis
D. Decreasing of blood coagulation
E. Suppression of thromboxane synthesis
165. A patient with severe, acute trauma pain requires analgesia. The
physician orders morphine. Which of the following coexisting
conditions would pose the greatest risk from morphine‘s use in this
case?
Acute pulmonary edema
Hypertension
Closed head injury
Opioid abuse
Recent myocardial infarction
174. The patient has receiving morphine for a long time because of
breast cancer. What does not belong to the pharmacological effects of
morphine?
Constipation
Inhibition of respiratory center
Spasm of Oddi sphincter
Decrease of rate of respiration
Mydriasis
176. A 52-yars –old patient who had been suffering from urolithiasis
was delivered to the emergency department with renal colic. A doctor
administered atropine together with opioid analgesic with spasmolytic
activity to prevent development of the pain shock. Choose this drug.
A. Tramadol
B. Promedol (Trimeperidine)
C. Triftazinum (trifluoperazine)
D. Vasopressin
E. Sulpiride
187. A patient took a drug from the group of Benzodiazepines for the
treatment of neurosis for a long period of time. One day the patient
felt sleepiness, weakness, and decrease of memory, concentration and
reactions, headache, nausea. The patient was addressed to the
polyclinic and a doctor administered an injection of an antagonist of
the Benzodiazepines. Determine this drug.
A. Bemegride
B. Naltrexone
C. Naloxone
D. Flumazenil
E. Cordiamin
188. What group of drugs is used for the treatment and prevention of
manias?
A. Antidepressants
B. Sedatives
C. Neuroleptics
D. Tranquilizers
E. Lithium
209. A 56 y.o. man with insomnia was given Phenobarbital. The sleep
was normalized. However, after 2 weeks the effect of Phenobarbital
fell down. What reason caused decreasing of hypnotic action of
Phenobarbital?
A. Its poor solubility
B. Development of tolerance
C. Its poor absorption in stomach
D. Its fixation in lipids
E. Development of tachyphylaxis
214. A patient has trauma-caused brain edema and hypoxic cramps. What
agent is rational to use for abortion of the cramps?
A. Cordiaminum
B. Anaprilinum (Propranolol)
C. Bemegride
D. Sodium oxybutyras
E. Piracetam
216. A woman after the experienced nervous shock badly sleeps. What
agent should be administered?
A. Fluoxetine
B. Phenobarbital
C. Nitrazepam
D. Aminazine (Chlorpromazine)
E. Sodium bromide
217. Diphenin (Phenytoin) has been administered to a patient for
epilepsy with tonic-clonic attacks. What is the action mechanism of
the drug?
A. Activation of GABA system
B. Blockade of Ca2+ channels
C. Stimulation of dopamine receptors
D. Blockade of dopamine receptors
E. Blockade of Na+ channels
235. Indicate the drug which possesses analeptic and psycho stimulant
activity.
A. Caffeine
B. Bemegride
C. Aethimizolum
D. Cordiaminum (nikethamide)
E. Strychnine
238. A 28 y.o. patient was delivered to the intensive care unit with
the diagnosis of poisoning with barbiturates of mild degree.
Administer a stimulant of respiration, which will be pertinent in this
case:
A. Instenon
B. Bemegride
C. Sydnocarb
D. Piracetam
E. Diazepam
240. The child was born in a state of asphyxia. What drug is necessary
to administer to the newborn for stimulation of respiration?
A.Proserine (Neostigmine)
B.Naloxone
C.Prazosin
D.Atropine
E.Etimizol
249. With the purpose of warming after cooling, the patient used
solution of ethanol.How does ethanol influence on thermoregulation?
A. Increases heat release
B. Decreases heat release
C.Increase heat production
D. Decreases heat production
E. Decreases heat production and heat release
250. The doctor has prescribed teturam (disulfiram) for the treatment
of the patient with alcoholism. What is the mechanism of action of the
given drug?
A. Activation of vomiting Center
B. Augmentation of Acetylcholinesterase
C. Inhibition of Acetylcholinesterase
D. Augmentation of aldehyde dehydrogenase activity
E. Inhibition of Aldehyde Dehydrogenase
254. The patient used solution of ethyl alcohol for warming after
super cooling. How does ethyl alcohol influence upon thermoregulation?
A. Decreases heat production and heat emission
B. Decreases heat emission
C. Increases heat production
D. Decreases heat production
E. Increases heat emission
257. A 35 y.o. patient who often consumes alcohol was treated with
diuretics. There appeared serious muscle and heart weakness, vomiting,
diarrhea. AP – 100/60 mm Hg, depression. This condition is caused by
intensified excretion with of:
A. Calcium
B. Potassium
C. Chlorine
D. Phosphates
E. Sodium
258. A patient, who has been treating with Clophelinum (Clonidine) due
to arterial hypertension, has taken an alcoholic drink that has caused
the sharp inhibition of the CNS. What is the name of this interaction?
A. Potentiation
B. Summation
C. Cumulation
D. Intoxication
E. Idiosyncratic reaction
262. A 35-y.o. male has undergone surgery for necrotic bowel. Despite
having been treated with antibiotics, on the 5th postoperative day, he
develops symptoms (fever, hypotension, tachycardia, declining urine
output, confusion) consistent with septic shock. What hemodynamic
support would be helpful?
A. Fluid administration
B. Dobutamine infusion
C. Fluid and dobutamine infusion
D. Atropine administration
E. Antibiotic administration
282. Indicate the drug and its group, which is used for treatment of
atrioventricular blockade.
A Cardiac glycoside Digitoxin
B. Beta-adrenomimetic Isadrinum (isoprenaline)
C. Sympatholytic Ornidum (bretylium)
D. Beta –adrenoblocker Anaprilinum (Propranolol)
E. Blocker of slow calcium channels Verapamil
297. All the following statements are true about Enalapril except
A. A prodrug
B. Used to treat hypertension
C. Used to treat CHF
D. Inhibits ACE
E. Blocks Angiotensin-1
307. A patient who had been treated with a vitamin agent for the
prophylaxis of brain vessel constriction complained of unpleasant
sensations: blushing of upper part of the body, vertigo, flushing of
blood to the head. What agent exerts this effect?
A. Nicotinic acid
B. Thiamini bromide
C. Riboflavin
D. Tocopherol acetate
E. Anaprilinum (Propranolol)
309. A 55- year-old man comes in for a check-up and complains that he
is having some difficulty in «starting to urinate». Physical
examination indicates that the man has a BP of 160/100 mm Hg and a
slightly enlarged prostate. Which of the following medications would
be useful in treating both of these conditions?
A. Doxazosin
B. Labetalol
C. Enalapril
D. Phentolamine
E. Propranolol
318. A patient 55 y.o. has suffered from the arterial hypertension for
10 years. Once in the evening he felt fatigue, acute headache,
darkening in the eyes, nausea. The patient was urgently delivered to a
hospital. The clinical examination revealed the increase of BP
(210/110 mm Hg). The diagnosis «hypertensive crisis» was made.
Administer the agents to treat hepertensive crisis.
A. Anapriline and Captopril
B. Clofeline and Furosemide
C. Captopril and Verospirone
D. Atenolol and Verospirone
E. Anapriline and Amiloride
323. A patient had been suffering from hypertonic disease had been
treated for a long time with the drug from the group of Rauwolfia
alkaloids and began to complain of heartburn, pain in the epigastrial
area and bad mood. Indicate the drug which caused these complications:
A. Octadinum
B. Reserpinum
C. Clophelinum
D. Prasosine
E. Enalapril
324. A patient who had been suffering from arterial hypotension had
taken a hypotensive drug, but in an hour his AP increased and 2 hours
after it decreased. Indicate this antihypertensive agent:
A. Nifedipinum
B. Prazosinum
C. Captopril
D. Anaprilinum
E. Octadinum
333. An adult patient with COPD is being managed with several drugs,
one of which is inhaled Ipratropium bromide. What is the main effect
that accounts for the beneficial effects of this drug?
A. Blockade of endogenous bronchoconstrictor mediator
B. Enhanced release of epinephrine from the adrenal medulla
C. Inhibition of cAMP breakdown via phosphodiesterase inhibition
D. Stimulation of adenylyl cyclase
E. Prevention of antigen-antibody reactions that lead to mast cell
mediator release
334. A young boy with asthma receives Montelukast. What is the main
mechanism by which this drug occurs its beneficial effects?
A. Prevention of antigen-antibody reactions that lead to mast cell
mediator release
B. Enhanced release of epinephrine from the adrenal medulla
C. Stimulation of adenylyl cyclase
D. Blockade of receptors for pro-inflammatory and
bronchoconstrictor mediators
E. Inhibition of cAMP breakdown via phosphodiesterase inhibition
343. A patient with the ulcer of the stomach with the increased acid-
producing function was administered an agent capable to inhibit
essentially 100% of gastric acid secretion in a single daily dose.
What agent has been used?
A. Atropine
B. Ranitidine
C. Famotidine
D. Omeprazole
E. Platiphylline
344. A patient with a severe arthritis will be placed on long-term
therapy with Indomethacin. Which of the following drugs is the most
apropriate choice to administer as an add-on (adjunct) to prevent
gastric ulcers caused by this NSAID?
A. Misoprostol
B. Celecoxib
C. Nimesulide
D. Cimetidine
E. Meloxicam
364. Indicate the drug used locally for the arrest of hemorrhages from
the small vessels.
A. Calcium chloride
B. Contrical
C. Amben
D. Thrombinum
E. Vikasol
372. The patient with myocardial infarction had been receiving each 6
hours an anticoagulant IV. In a few days, he has developed bleeding
gums, nasal bleeding; erythrocytes in urine have appeared. What drug
was introduced to the patient?
A. Aminocapronic acid
B. Neodicumarin
C.Vicasol
D. Calcium gluconate
E. Heparine
376. A patient had been suffering from atopic bronchial asthma for a
long time. Last time he was treated with Prednisolon because of
worsening of his state. Long treatment with Prednisolon caused the
development of adverse effects: edemas, increase of glucose
concentration in the blood, increased excitability and sleeplessness.
Indicate hormonal drug, which should be administered for prevention of
this complication:
A. Androcur (Cyproterone acetate)
B. Retabolile
C. Glibenclamide
D. Tocoferol acetas
E. Corticotropine
383. A patient has been taking glucocorticoids for a long time. When
the preparation was withdrawn he developed the symptoms of disease
aggravation, decreased AP and weakness. What is the reason of this
condition?
A. Sensibilization
B. Appearance of adrenal insufficiency
C. Cumulation
D. Hyperproduction of ACTH
E. Idiosyncrasy
391. A 35 y.o. woman that has been treated for a long time because of
chronic polyarthritis is complaining on rising of AP, redistribution
of fat tissues, disturbances of menstrual cycle. With what drug
administrations these complain are related to?
A. Beclomethasone
B. Phenylbutazone (Butadion)
C. Meloxicam
D. Prednisolon
E. Diclofenac-natrium
392 The 32 y.o. woman was taking a contraceptive Tri-Regol for a long
time. What does not belong to the adverse effects of this drug?
A. Thrombosis
B. Pyelonephritis
C. Weight gain
D. Hepatotoxicity
E. Osteoporosis
393. For the prevention of undesirable pregnancy the doctor–
gynecologist has recommended to the 24 y.o. woman a peroral
contraceptive drug, which should be applied immediately after the
sexual intercourse. Specify this drug.
A. Rigevidon
B. Triziston
C. Levonorgestrel (Postinor)
D. Estradiol
E. Proginova
394. A 27 y.o. woman who from time to time uses peroral contraceptives
has addressed to the doctor with a question on composition of these
agents. What steroid substances are included to postcoital peroral
contraceptives?
A. Gonadotropins
B. Progestins
C. Androgens
D. Anabolic steroids
E. Glucocorticoids
405. A 23 y.o. man suffers from allergic seasonal coryza caused by the
ambrosia blossoming. What medicine stabilizing adipose cells can be
used for prevention of this disease?
A. Phencarol
B. Diazoline
C. Dimedrol
D. Tavegyl
E. Ketotifen
409. A 22 y.o. woman has a runny nose and itching eyes from a bout
with the common cold. Dimedrolum (Diphenhydramine) provides
symptomatic relief. Indicate the mechanism of action that is most
likely associated this the named drug.
A. beta-adrenoceptors blockade
B.adrenergic stimulation
C. Histamine (H1) receptor blockade
D. MAO inhibition
E. Muscarinic receptor blockade
412. Which of the following agents is the drug of choice for treating
anaphylaxis?
A. Epinephrine
B. Norepinephrine
C. Atropine sulfate
D. Dimedrolum (Diphenhydramine)
E. Theophylline
417. The patient with allergic rhinitis has taken antihistamine drug
PO. In half an hour the patient felt dryness in mouth, retardation and
sleepiness. Indicate this drug.
A. Phernobarbitalum
B. Diazolinum (Mebhydrolin)
C. Dimedrolum (Diphenhydramine)
D. Diazepamum
E. Paracetamolum
427. Indicate the drug which is the most expedient to use topically to
treat allergic dermatitis?
A.Sea buckthorn oil (Oleum Hippophae)
B. Solution of furacilinum (nitrofuran)
C. Liniment of methylsalicylate
D. Ointrent of inchyolum (ichthammol)
E. Hydrocortisone ointment
433. What agent from the group of adrenomimetics is the most effective
for local use in allergic rhinitis?
A. Mesatonum (Phenylphine)
B. Naphthyzinum (Naphazoline)
C. Fenoterol
D. Salbutamol
E. Ephedrine
444. You have a patient who has been consuming extraordinarily large
amounts of alcohol for several years. He goes into acute withdrawal
and manifests nystagmus and bizarre ocular movements and confusion
(Wernicke‘s encephalopathy). Although this patient‘s alcohol
consumption pattern has been accompanied by poor nutrient intake
overall, you specifically manage the encephalopathy by administering
one of these drugs:
A. Vitamin A
B. Folic acid
C. Vitamin B12 (Cyanocobalamine)
D. Vitamin E (alfa-tocopherol)
E. Vitamin B1 (Thiamine)
446. You are doing summer volunteer work at health clinic in a very
poor region of the world. A 19-y.o. woman is diagnosed Vitamin D-
resistant rickets. Apart from a high-dose of Vitamin D and oral
phosphate, an additional therapeutic approach might be used. What
agent should you choose?
A. Estrogen
B. Hydrochlorothiazide
C. Folic acid
D. Calcitriol
E. Vitamin B12
447. What drug from the list below is used to inhibit pancreas
function?
A. Urokinase
B. Pancreatin
C. Alteplase
D. Contrycal (Gordox)
E. Lydazum
454. The patient who was treated by a vitaminic drug for prophylaxis
of vasospasms of the brain has developed complaints of the unpleasant
sensations related to taking of this medicine: reddening of the face
and the upper half of a trunk, giddiness, sense of flush of blood to a
head. For what drug the specified side effects are characteristics?
A. Tocofecol acetate
B. Nicotinamidum
C. Thiamine bromide
D. Nicotinic acid
E. Calcium pangamate
455. Diarrhea, dementia and dermatitis are observed at the patient.
What vitaminic drug should be included into a complex treatment?
A. Thiamin
B. Cyanobalamine
C. Nicotinamide (vitamin PP)
D. Calcium pantothenate
E. Cyanocobalamine
459. The patient had been taking vitamin D for a long time for
treatment of rickets. The phenomena of intoxication have developed:
depression of appetite, nausea, headache, fatigue, disorders of sleep,
increase of body temperature, changes in urine – hyaline cylinders,
protein, leucocytes. What vitaminic drug should be administered to
weaken arisen symptoms?
A. Vikasolum (Menadione)
B. Vitamin B12
C. Vitamin A (Retinol acetate)
D. Vitamin PP
E. Riboflavin
460. Parasthesia, xeroderma and sticking out fontanel are observed at
a 6 months child under the treatment by a vitaminic drug. Specify this
drug:
A. Retinol acetate
B. Pyridoxine
C. Riboflavin
D. Ergocalciferol
E. Tocoferol acetate
464. Examination of a man who hadn‘t been consuming fats but had been
getting enough carbohydrates dermatitis, poor wound healing, vision
impairment. What is probable cause of metabolic disorder?
A. Lack of oleic acid
B. Low caloric value of diet
C. Lack of palmitic acid
D. Lack of vitamins PP, H
E. Lack of linoleic acid, vitamins A, D, E, K
465. Removal of gall bladder of a patient has disturbed processes of
Ca2+ absorption through the intestinal wall. What vitamin will
stimulate this process?
A. PP
B. B12
C. C
D. K
E. D3
468. A patient with the abscess of the cut wound applied to the
traumatologist. The wound was washed with 3% Hydrogen Peroxide to be
cleaned from the pus. Foam was not observed. What caused inefficiency
of the drug?
A. Pus in the wound
B. Shallow wound
C. Inherited insufficiency of catalase
D. Low concentration of H2O2
E. Inherited insufficiency erythrocyte‘s phosphatdehydrogenase
476. Choose the drug for a 6 month old child with mycoplasma
infection:
A. Tetracycline
B. Streptomycin
C. Clotrimazole
D. Erythromycin
E. Penicillin
479. The patient with pneumonia was treated with antibiotics for a
long period. After the treatment the patient complains of frequent and
watery stools, abdominal pain. What is the reason of intestinal
disorder?
A. Hereditary enzyme defect
B. Bacteria toxins influence
C. Intestinal dysbacteriosis development
D. Antibiotics toxic influence on the GIT
E. Allergic reaction
483. A 50-year old woman who had underwent chemotherapy for lymphoma a
week ago was brought to the emergency room. She had a fever of 40.3oC
and was confused. Respiration was rapid and BP was 75/40. She was
neutropenic. Gram‘s strains of the urine and sputum are negative.
Which of the following actions is the most beneficial to the patient?
A Send a clinical sample to the laboratory for identification and then
administer an appropriate antibiotic.
B. Administer a combination such as Clindamycin and an
aminoglycoside
C. Administer a broad-spectrum antibiotic like Tetracycline
D. Administer Clindamycin
E. Administer Tobramycinum
484. A 60-year-old alcoholic male with poor dental hygiene is to have
his remaining teeth extracted for subsequent dentures. He has mitral
valve stenosis with mild cardiac insufficiency and is being treated
with captopril, digoxin and furosemide. The dentist decides that his
medical history warrants prophylactic antibiotic therapy prior to the
procedure and prescribes:
A. Vancomycin
B. Amoxicillin
C. Tetracycline
D. Co-trimoxazole
E. Imipenem
486. Which of the following drugs is the most effective agent in the
treatment of Rickettsia,Mycoplasma,and Chlamydia infections?
A. Penicillin
B. Gentamycin
C. Erythromycin
D. Chloramphenicol
E. Tetracycline
498. Determine the drug that able to penetrate to bone tissue and bone
marrow to treat bone infections:
A. Gentamicin
B. Neomycin
C. Clindamycin
D. Oleandomycin
E. Erythromycin
529. To a patient with ascariasis it was given a drug that has also
action on immune system and is used as immunomodulator. What is the
name of this drug?
A. Pyrantel
B. Piperazine adipinate
C. Naphthammone (Bephenium)
D. Levamisole
E. Phenasalum (Niclosamide)
530. A 58-year-old woman has just returned from a trip to Southeast
Asia. Over the past 24 hours she developed shaking, chills, and to of
40.5oC. A blood smear reveals Plasmodium vivax. Which of the following
agents should be used to eradicate the extraerythrocytic phase of the
organism?
A. Chloroquine
B. Primaquine
C. Pyrimethamine
D. Tetracycline
E. Quinacrine (Acrichinum)
535. For malaria prevention before journey abroad a doctor has got an
agent with histoschizontocidic action. What drug did the doctor take?
A. Primaquine
B. Quinine
C. Doxycyclin
D. Biseptol (Co-trimaxazole)
E. Chloridine (Pyrimethamine)
552. While reviewing charts in a general medicine clinic you see that
a woman, 27 y.o. and with no history of cancer at all, is also taking
Methotrexate. The drug is most likely given to manage one of the
following conditions. What is it?
A. Hyperthyroidism
B. Asthma or emphysema
C. Clinical gout
D. Myasthenia gravis
E. Rheumatoid arthritis or psoriasis