PT 2 SAT WithoutAns

NTSE (STAGE-II)
PRACTICE TEST # 2
SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST (SAT)

Time : 120 Min. Max. Marks :100
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS
1. The booklet given in the examination hall is the Question Paper.
2. A student has to write his/her answers in the OMR sheet by darkening the appropriate bubble with the help of
HB Pencil as the correct answer(s) of the question attempted.
3. The question paper contains 100 questions, 40 Questions from Science (1-40), 20 Questions from
mathamtics (41-60), 40 Question from Social Science (61-100), each carries one mark.
4. Blank papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculators, mobile or any other electronic gadgets in any
form is not allowed.
5. Write your Name & Roll No. in the space provided in the bottom of this booklet.
6. There is no negative marking.
7. Before answering the paper, fill up the required details in the blank space provided in the answer sheet.
8. In case of any dispute, the answer sheet available with the institute shall be final.
Name : ................................................................ Roll No. : ..........................................................
H.O. 92, Rajeev Gandhi Nagar, Kota (Raj.) Mob. 97831-97831, 70732-22177, Ph : 0744-2423333
www. nucleuseducation.in
PCCP
SAT PAPER
SCIENCE
1. A hollow sphere of volume V is floating on water surface with half immersed in it. What should be the
minimum volume of water poured inside the sphere so that the sphere now sinks into the water
(A) V / 2 (B) V / 3 (C) V / 4 (D) V
2. An earth satellite is moved from one stable circular orbit to another higher stable circular orbit. Which one of
the following quantities increases for the satellite as a result of this change
(A) gravitational force (B) gravitational potential energy
(C) centripetal acceleration (D) linear orbital speed
3. In a tug of war each of the two teams apply 1000 Newton force at the ends of a rope, which is found to be in
equilibrium, the tension in the rope is-
(A) 2000 newton (B) 1000 newton (C) 500 newton (D) zero
4. A rigid body of mass m kg is lifted uniformly by a man to a height of one metre in 30 sec. Another man lifts
the same mass uniformly to the same height in 60 sec. The work done on the body against gravitation by
them are in ratio
(A) 1 : 2 (B) 1 : 1 (C) 2 : 1 (D) 4 : 1
5. Two rods Aand B of same material and length have their electric resistances in ratio 1 : 2. When both
the rods are dipped in water, the correct statement will be
(A) A has more loss of weight (B) B has more loss of weight
(C) Both have same loss of weight (D) Loss of weight will be in the ratio 1 : 2
6. A ball of mass 50 g is thrown upwards. It rises to a maximum height of 100 m. At what height its kinetic
energy will be reduced to 70%?
(A) 30m (B) 40m (C) 60m (D) 70m
7. A particle of mass m is executing a uniform motion along a circular path of radius r. If the magnitude
of its linear momentum is p, the radial force acting on the particle will be.
(A) pmr (B) rm/p (C) mp2/r (D) p2/mr
8. Three equal resistors connected in series across a source of e.m.f. dissipate 10 watts of powerWhat
will be the power dissipated in watts if the same resistors are connected in parallel across the same
source of e.m.f.?
10
(A) 10W (B) 30 W (C) 90W (D) W
3
9. Convergence of concave mirror can be decreased by dipping in
(A) Water (B) Oil (C) Both (D) None of these
Space For Rough Work
-
H.O. 92, Rajeev Gandhi Nagar, Kota (Raj.) Mob. 97831-97831, 70732-22177, Ph : 0744-2423333 www. nucleuseducation.in 2
PCCP
10. A concave mirror of focal length f produces an image n times the size of the object. If the image is real
then the distance of the object from the mirror is
  n  1    n  1 
(A)  n  1 f (B)  n  f (C)  n  f (D)  n  1 f
   
11. A light bulb of resistance R = 16 is attached in series with an infinite resistor network with identical
resistances r as shown below. A 10 V battery derives current in the circuit. What should be the value of r
such that the bulb dissipated about 1 W of power.
(A) 14.8 (B) 29.6 (C) 7.4 (D) 3.7

12. A grind-stone starts revolving from rest, if its angular acceleration is 4.0 rad/sec2 (uniform) then after
4 sec.What is its angular displacement & angular velocity respectively -
(A) 32 rad, 16 rad/sec (B) 16 rad, 32 rad/sec (C) 64 rad, 32 rad/sec (D) 32 rad, 64 rad/sec
13. Two blocks are in contact on a frictionless table. One has mass m and the other 2m. A force F is
applied on 2m as shown in the figure. Now the same force F is applied from the right on m. In the two
cases respectively, the ratio of force of contact between the two blocks will be :
(A) same (B) 1 : 2 (C) 2 : 1 (D) 1 : 3
14. In the process of burning of magnesium in air, magnesium undergoes -

(A) oxidation (B) reduction (C) sublimation (D) All of these
15. Correct set of all four quantum number for an unpaired electron of 3d9 is :
(A) 3, 2, –3, + 1/2 (B) 3, 2, 2, – 1/2 (C) 3, 3, + 2 + 1/2 (D) 3, 3, + 2, – 1/2
16. The pair of compounds which cannot exist in solution is -

(A) NaHCO3 and NaOH (B) Na2SO3 and NaHCO3
(C) Na2CO3 and NaOH (D) NaHCO3 and NaCl
17. Which of the following is a displacement reaction?

(A) CaO + H2O  Ca(OH)2 (B) MgCO3 MgO + CO2
(C) 2Na + 2H2O  2NaOH + H2 (D) H2 + Cl2  2HCl
PCCP
18. p-block includes the elements belonging to the category of -
(A) metals (B) non-metals (C) metalloids (D) All of these
19. Which among the following statements is false?

(A) Every protonic acid has its conjugate acid.
(B) Pair of Bronsted acid and base that differ by a proton is conjugate acid base pair.
(C) A substance that accepts an electron pair to form coordinate covalent bond is an acid.
(D) Arrhenius theory is confined to aqueous solutions.
20. The isomerism exhibited by n-propyl alcohol and isopropyl alcohol is -
(A) position isomerism (B) chain isomerism
(C) functional isomerism (D) None of these
21. In which of the following cases, empirical formula is the same as molecular formula ?
(A) Sucrose (B) C6H6 (C) CH3COOH (D) Glucose
22. Which of the following phenomena is based on the principle that cooling results due to evaporation?
(A) Formation of water drops on the surface of cold drink bottle.
(B) Formation of crystals of ice on the inner surface of the lid of an ice cream box in freezer.
(C) White foggy appearance on the surface of large ice blocks.
(D) Stretching out of tongues by dogs during summer season.
23. Pollution caused by burning of fossil fuels can be controlled to some extent
(A) By increasing the efficiency of the combustion process.
(B) By using fans in the vehicles.
(C) By increasing their cost.
(D) Banning the use of fossils fuels.
24. Rutherford’s -particle scattering experiment eventually led to the conclusion that :
(A) mass and energy are related
(B) the point of impact with matter can be precisely determined
(C) neutrons are buried deep in the nucleus.
(D) electrons are distributed in a large space around the nucleus.
25. Two element P and Q have half lives of 10 and 15 minutes respectively. Freshly prepared samples of each
isotope initially contain the same number of atoms as one another. After 30 minutes, the ratio
Number of P atom
Number of Q atom
will be-
(A) 0.5 (B) 2 (C) 1 (D) 3

26. Which of the following sets of atomic numbers corresponds to elements belonging to s, d, f, p blocks
respectively?
(A) 35, 37, 29, 70 (B) 35, 29, 70, 37 (C) 37, 29, 70, 35 (D) 37, 29, 35, 70
PCCP
27. Mendel formulated the law of purity of gametes on the basis of :
(A) Monohydrid cross (B) Test Cross (C) Back cross (D) Dihybrid cross
28. Food webs are prominent in an Ecosystem because

(A) one consumer is not dependent on a single kind of food from the same food chain
(B) carnivores can feed on herbivores as well as plants
(C) herbivores can feed on plants as well as animals
(D) food chains cannot extend beyond a few trophic levels
29. In the diagram of multipolar myelinated neuron given below, different parts have been indicated by alphabetes;
choose the answers in which these alphabetes have been correctly matched with the parts which they indicate
(A) A = Cell body, B = Nissl bodies, C = Nucleus, D = Dendrites, E = Naked portion of axon,
F = Myelin sheath, G = Node of Ranvier
(B) A = Cell body, B = Nissl bodies, C = Naked portion of axon, D = Dendrites, E = Nucleus,
(C) A = Cell body, B = Nissl bodies, C = Naked portion of axon, D = Nucleus, E = Dendrites,
(D) A = Cell body, B = Nissl bodies, C = Dendrites, D = Nucleus, E = Naked portion of axon,
30. The extra chromosomes that causes Down’s syndrome is

(A) 19th chromosomes (B) 20th chromosomes (C) 21st chromosomes (D) 22nd chromosome.
31. A person appears fat, short and stocky and has stupid look and protruding tongue due to the hormonal
deficiency of
(A) Parathyroid (B) Thyroid (C) Adrenal (D) Pineal
32. Which hormone regulate 24 hr rhythm of our body ?

(A) Somatotrophic (B) LTH (C) Melatonin (D) T3 & T4
33. Growth and maturation of Graafian follicle is controlled by
(A) FSH-LH (B) FSH-LTH (C) GH-ADH (D) ACTH-LH
PCCP
34. Painless sore and swelling of lymph node on genitals are symptoms of -
(A) gonorrhea (B) AIDS (C) syphilis (D) fungal infection
35. Which of the following statement is/are correct :
(a)Glycolysis occurs in matrix of mitochondria
(b)TCA cycle occurs in cytoplasm
(c) Glycolysis is common phase between aerobic and anaerobic respiration
(d) Anaerobic respiration occur in matrix of mitochondria
(A) a and b (B) only c (C) d and c (D) d only
36. Vacuolar cell sap has pH-
(A) Alkaline and hypotonic (B) Neutral and isotonic
(C) Acidic and hypertonic (D) Equal to cytoplasm and isotonic
37. Bacterial pili are involved in

(A) Asexual reproduction (B) Sexual reproduction
(C) Saprophytic nutrition (D) Antibiotic resistance
38. The coordination by chemicals is brought about by the

(A) endocrine system (B) spinal cord (C) nervous system (D) brain
39. Proximate principal of food include -

(A) Protein + Vita (B) Liquid + Minerals
(C) Protein + lipid + vita (D) Protein + lipid + carbohydrates
40. The 'blue baby' syndrome results from :

(A) methenoglobin (B) excess of chloride
(C) excess of dissolved oxygen (D) excess ofTDS (Total Dissolved Solids)
MATHEMATICS
41. In a rhombus one of the diagonals is twice the other diagonal. Let A be the area of the rhombus in square
units. Then each side of the rhombus is :
1 1 1
(A) A (B) 2A (C) 5A (D) 4A
2 2 4
42. (a b)2  (b a)2 is
(A) Always zero (B) Never zero
(C) Positive if and only if a > b (D) Positive only if a  b
43. One hundred identical coin each with probability P of showing up heads are tossed. If 0 < p < 1 and the
probability of heads showing on 50 coins is equal to that of heads on 51 coins, then the value of P is
1 49 50 51
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 101 101 101
PCCP
44. Median of a data set is a number which has an equal number of observations below and above it. The median
1,9,4,3,7,6,8,8,12,15 is
(A) 7·5 (B) 7
(C) 8 (D) any number between 7 and 8
45. How many triplets (x, y, z) of positive real numbers can be found such that xy = z, yz = x, zx = y
(A) 1 (B) 0 (C) 2 (D) 3
46. In a rectangle the length is x units more than its breadth. If its length is increased by y units and its
breadth is decreased by z units, the area is unaltered. The breadth of the rectangle is
( x  y )z z ( x  y )z ( x  y )z
(A) (B) (C) (D) yz
yz xy yz
47. In ABC, A = 90° and I is the incentre. The perpendicular distance of I from BC is 8 . Then AI is equal to
A
Q
R
I
B C
P
(A) 8 (B) 3 (C) 12 (D) 4

48. If sin 87° and cos 87° are the roots of the equation x2 – bx + c = 0, then the value of b2 is :
(A) c (B) 1 + 2c (C) 1 – c2 (D) 1 + c2
49. In the figure, the radius of the larger circle is 2 cm and the radius of the smaller circle is 1 cm and the larger circle
passes through the centre of the smaller circle. The length (in cm) of the chord AB is :
15 3 5 34
(A) (B) 2 (C) (D)
2 2 17
50. A point (a, b) in the plane is such that |a|  4, |b|  4, where a,b, are integers then what is the probability that the
distance of point from origin is at most two units :
13 15 11 13
(A) (B) (C) (D)
81 81 81 64
PCCP
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 5
51. When a, x, y, z, b are in A.P., x + y + z = 15 and when , , , , are in A.P. ,   = then the number a and
a x y z b x y z 3
b are :
(A) 8,2 (B) 9,1 (C) 7,3 (D) None
52. The circle and the square have the same center & same area. If radius of circle is 1, find length of AB.
A B
(A) 4   (B) 4  2  (C) 2   (D) 4
53. If sin  + cos = a, then sin6 + cos6is equal to
3 2 3 2 3  4(a 2 – 1)3 3  3(a 2 – 1)3

(A) 1 + (a – 1)2 (B) 1 – (a – 1)2 (C) (D)
4 4 4 4
54. If N = a2 + b2 is a three-digit number divisible by 5. If a = 10x + y and b = 10x + z, where z is a prime number, and
x and y are natural numbers. If a + b =31, find the value of N.
(A) 565 (B) 485 (C) 505 (D) 485 or 505
55. If sin x + sin2 x = 1 then cos8 x + 2 cos6 x + cos4x =
(A) 0 (B) –1 (C) 1 (D) 2
5  21  3 1   2 1   1
56. If x = , find the value of  x  3   5 x  2    x   .
2  x   x   x
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 0
57. If x% of y is equal to 1% of z, y% of z is equal to 1% of x and z% of x is equal to 1% of y, then the value of
xy + yz + zx is -
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
 
58. In a triangle ABC, medians AD and BE are drawn. If AD = 4, DAB = and ABE = , then the area of the
6 3
ABC is :
8 16 32 64
(A) (B) (C) (D)
3 3 3 3 3
59. Three vertices of a parallelogram are (a + b, a – b), (2a + b, 2a – b) (a – b, a + b). Find the fourth vertex.
(A) (a, b) (B) (b, a) (C) (–b, b) (D) (0, b)
60. When two dice are thrown, the probability of getting a number always greater than 4 on the second dice is.
1 1 1
(A) (B) (C) (D) None
6 3 36
PCCP
SOCIAL SCIENCE
61. Which of the following are the features of Andaman and Nicobar islands -(i) Islands located in the Bay of
Bengal extending from north to south.(ii) Are bigger in size and are more numerous and scattered.
(iii) It is believed that these are been formed by corals. (iv) Are of great strategic importance for the country.
(A) (i) and (ii) are correct
(B) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(C) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
(D) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct
62. One important feature of Civil Disobedience Movement was :
(A) Gandhiji’s belief that women should not join it and remain at home.
(B) The complete change in the status of women in society.
(C) The large-scale participation of women in the movement, in protest marches, manufacturing salt, picket-
ing, boycotting foreign cloth and even going to jail
(D) The large-scale participation of the Dalits or Harijans
63. Match the following

Column-A Column-B
(a) Treaty of Constantinople (i) 1804
(b) Revolt of weavers in Silesia (ii) 1707
(c) Napoleonic Code (iii) 1845
(d) The Act of Union (iv) 1832
(A) a-(iv),b-(iii),c-(i),d-(ii) (B) a-(ii),b-(iii),c-(i),d-(iv)
(C) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(i) (D) A-(iv), B-(i), C-(iii), D-(ii)
64. The only active volcano of India is located in :

(A) Lakshadweep island (B) Malabar coast
(C) Konkan coast (D) Andaman and Nicobar
65. The part of India that receive rainfall in month of December is :

(A) Northeastern India (B) Southwestern India
(C) Northwestern India (D) Southeastern India
66. Power sharing is desirable because it :

(A) ensures the stability of political order
(B) imposes the will of the majority community over others
(C) helps in promoting the communal feeling
(D) helps the people of different communities to celebrate their festivals freely
PCCP
67. Match the following:
Column I Column II
(A) Rasputin (i) Argued that the Bolshevik party rename itself the
Communist party to indicate its new radical aims.
(B) Father Gapon (ii) a monk and advisor of Tsarina Alexandra
(C) Lenin (iii) A Military Revolutionary Committee was appointed
under him by the Soviet to organise the seizure
(D) Leon Trotskii (iv) led the procession of workers to winter Palace
(A) (A)-(ii), (B)-(iv), (C)-(i), (D)-(iii) (B) (A)-(ii), (B)-(iii), (C)-(iv), (D)-(i)
(C) (A)-(iii), (B)-(i), (C)-(iv) (D)-(ii) (D) (A)-(iv) (B)-(iii), (C)-(i), (D)-(ii)
68. ‘Slash and Burn Agriculture’ is known by specific name in different states of India. Match the shaded states
marked in the given map with codes given in the Table (Different name of Slash and Burn Agriculture) and
select the correct answer using the code given below.
(A) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I (B) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
(C) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III (D) A -I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
69. Given below are statement regarding the course of development of Socialism in Europe.
I. Socialists took over the government in Russia through the October Revolution.
II. Socialists and trade unionists formed a labour party in Britain and Socialist party in France
III. The Russian Social Democratic Worker’s Party was founded by Socialists who respected
Marx’s ideas.
IV. Socialists could not succeed in forming a government in Europe and governments continued to be
run by conservatives, liberals and radicals.
V. Second International was formed to coordinate the efforts of socialists throughout Europe.
(A) V, III, II, IV, I (B) I, II, III, IV, V (C) V, II, III, I, IV (D) IV, V, III, I, II
PCCP
70. Which one of the following figure is showing the correct direction of movement of the south America plate?
71. Assertion (A): The Non – Cooperation – Khilafat movement began in January 1921
Reason (R): Khadi cloth was often more expensive than mass produced mill cloth and poor people could not
afford to buy it.
(A) A & R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) A & R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true R is false
(D) A is false R is true
72. Choose the correct sequence:

(i) Lahore congress: Congress adopts the demand for ‘Purna Swaraj’.
(ii) Second Round Table Conference
(iii) Non – Cooperation and Khilafat movement
(iv) Ambedkar establishes Depressed classes Association.
(A) 4123 (B) 3142 (C) 3214 (D) 1342
73. Choose the incorrect statement/ statements.
(i) By 1750, one out of every nine people of England and Wales lived in London.
(ii) The architect and Planner Baron Haussman developed the principle of the Garden city.
(iii) The very first Section of the Underground Railway in the world opened on 30 January 1889 between
Paddingtion and Farrington street in London.
(iv) In 1661, Control of the islands passed into British hands after the marriage of Britains’s king Charles II
to the Portugese Princess.
(A) i, ii, iii (B) ii, iii, iv (C) ii & iv (D) ii & iii
PCCP
A B
1. Ukiyo (i) Martin Luther
2. Bible (ii) Kitagawa Utamaro
3. Ninety Five These (iii) Jayadeva
4. The Diwan (iv) Gutenberg
5. The Gita Govinda (v) Hafiz
(A) 1-ii, 2-iv, 3-i, 4-v, 5-iii (B) 1-v, 2-i, 3-iv,4-ii, 5-iii
(C) 1-iv, 2-v, 3-ii, 4-i, 5-iii (D) 1-iii, 2-ii, 3-v, 4-i, 5-iv
75. Choose the correct pair:
(i) Rashsundari Debi – Amar Jiban
(ii) Ram Chaddha – Istri Dharm Vichar
(iii) Jyotiba Phule – Gulamgiri
(iv) Maxim Gorky – My childhood
(v) Kashibaba – Chhote Aur Bade ka Sawal
(A) (i),(iv) & (v) (B) (i), (ii) & (v) (C) (ii), (iii), (iv) & (v) (D) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), (v)
76. Choose the correct statement :
(1) India’s contacts with the world have continued though the ages but her relationships through the land
routes are much older than her maritime contacts.
(2) Before 1947, there were two types of states in India the Provinces and the Princely states.
(3) Provinces were ruled directly by British officials who were appointed by the Viceroy.
(4) Princely states were ruled by local, hereditary rulers, who acknowledged soverignity in return for local
autonomy.
Answer Codes:
(A) 124 (B) 134 (C) 234 (D) All of these
A (State) B (Border)
1.Punjab A. Nepal
2.Uttarakhand B. Bangladesh
3.Manipur C. Pakistan
4.Meghalaya D. Myanmar
(A) 1-C, 2-A, 3-D, 4-B (B) 1-B, 2-C, 3-A, 4-D
(B) 1-C, 2-D, 3-B, 4-A (D) 1-D, 2-A, 3-B, 4-C
78. Choose the incorrect statement.
I. The northern part of the western coast is called the Kannad Plain, the central stretch is called the
Malabar coast and the southern stretch is called the Konkan.
II. The plains along the Bay of Bengal are wide and level. In the northern part, it is referred to as the Northern
Circar, while the southern part is known as the Coromandel coast.
(A) I & II are correct (B) I & II are incorrect
(C) I is correct, II is incorrect (D) I is incorrect II is correct
PCCP
79. Match the following :

A B
1. Pir Panjal range A. Deccan Plateau
2. Patkai hills B. Himachal
3. Kaimur hills C. Purvanchal
4. Javadi hills D. Eastern Ghats
(A) 1-B, 2-D, 3-A, 4-C (B) 1-A, 2-D, 3-B, 4-C
(C) 1-B, 2-C, 3-A, 4-D (D) 1-C, 2-D, 3-B, 4-A
80. Arrange the following rivers from west to East:

1. Kosi 2. Sarda 3. Lohit 4. Son 5. Gandak
Answer codes
(A) 41325 (B) 24513 (C) 23154 (D) 32451
81. State True & False

(i) The Brahmaputra rises is Tibet east of Mansarowar lake very close to the sources of the Indus and the
satluj.
(ii) The Narmada rises in the Satpura ranges, in the Betul district of Madhya Pradesh.
(iii) The Godavari rises from the slopes of the western Ghats in the Nasik district of Maharashtra.
(iv) The Kaveri rises from a spring near Mahabaleshwar.
(A) TTTF (B) TTFF (C) TFTF (D) FTFT
82. Assertion (A): During winter season, the south - west winds prevail over the country. They blow from land to sea.
Reason (R): Some amount of rainfall occurs on the Tamil Nadu coast from these winds as here they blow
from sea to land.
(A) A & R are true and R is the correct explaination of A
(B) A & R are true but R is not the correct explaination of A.
(C) A is true, R is false
(D) A is false, R is true.
83. Read the following statements and categorize as True/False

(i) The speed of the Jet stream varies from about 110 km/hr in summer to about 184 km/hr in winter.
(ii) The coriolis force is responsible for deflecting winds towards the left in the northern hemisphere and
towards the right in the southern hemisphere.
(iii) ‘Monsoon’ refers to the seasonal reversal in the wind direction during a year.
(iv) ‘El Nino’ is a latin word meaning ‘ the child’ and refers to the baby christ, as this current starts flowing
during christmas
(A) FTTF (B) TTFT (C) TFTF (D) FFTF
84. Arrange the state/UT in descending order according to the area under forest cover.
1. Lakshadweep 2. Punjab 3. Mizoram 4. Goa 5. Kerala
(A) 13524 (B) 43125 (C) 21453 (D) 31452
PCCP
85. Read the following statements and choose the correct option:
(I) The Family Welfare Programme has sought to promote responsible and planned parenthood on a
voluntary basis.
(II) A well - educated healthy population provides potential power.
(A) I & II are correct (B) I & II are incorrect
(C) I is correct, II is incorrect (D) I is incorrect, II is correct
86. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. The Estates General was a political body to which the 3 estates sent their representatives.
2. The monarch could alone to decided when to call a meeting of estates general.
3. The last meeting was called in 1614.
4. Subsistence Crisis occurred frequently in France during the Old Regime.
(A) 1,2,4 (B) 1,2,3 (C) 2,3,4 (D) 1,2,3,4
87. Read the following statements.

1. They firmly believed in the value of individual effort, labour and those with capital could operate without
restraint.
2. They were themselves often property owners and employers.
3. They made their wealth though trade or industrial ventures.
4. They thought – that benefits could be achieved if the work force in the economy was healthy and citizens
were educated
The above statements explains which of the following group best.
(A) Radicals (B) Industrialist (C) Liberals (D) Revolutionaries
A B
1. Goebbels (a) Killing center
2. Nuremberg (b) Propaganda Minister
3. Auschwitz (c) Radical group
4. Spartacist of League (d) International Military Tribunal
(A) 1-(c), 2-(a) , 3-(b), 4-(c) (B) 1-(b), 2-(d), 3-(a), 4-(c)
(C) 1-(c), 2-(d), 3-(b),4-(a) (D) 1-(a), 2 (b), 3-(c), 4-(d)

A B
1. Tubers (a) oil is extracted
2. Siadi (b) nutritious to eat
3. Semur (c) Used to make ropes
4. Mahua (d) Used to grate vegetables
(A) 1-(b), 2-(c) , 3-(d), 4-(a) (B) 1-(b), 2-(d), 3-(a), 4-(c)
(C) 1-(c), 2-(d), 3-(b),4-(a) (D) 1-(a), 2 (b), 3-(c), 4-(d)
PCCP
90. Which of the following statement is correct regarding the change in pastoral life after introduction of
colonial rule?
(1) Shranking grazing grounds (2) Regulation over movement
(3) Trades & Crafts were adversely affected (4) Agricultural stock declined.
(A) 1, 2, 3 (B) 2, 3, 4 (C) 1, 2, 4 (D) 1, 2, 3, 4

Column A Column B
1. Bushel (a) Measure of weight
2. Shilling (b) measure of capacity
3. Maund (c) piece of earth with grass
4. Sod (d) Currency
(A) 1-(b), 2-(d), 3-(a), 4- (c) (B) 1-(b), 2-(a), 3-(c), 4- (d)
(C) 1-(a), 2-(b), 3-(c), 4- (d) (D) 1-(b), 2-(a), 3-(d), 4- (c)
92. State the following statements as true & false.

1. Polo was a game invented by colonial officials in India.
2. Hockey can be matched with traditional scottish game called shinty
3. Cricket was the earliest modern team sport to be codified
4. Croquet was a slow paced game for upper class women.
(A) TFTT (B) FFTT (C) TTTF (D) TTTT
93. Assertion (A) : During the colonial period there were significant changes in male & female clothing in India.
Reasons (R) : These were the influence of western dress forms and missionary activities and efforts by
Indians to fashion clothing styles.
(A) Both A & R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(B) Both A & R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(C) A is true & R is false
(D) A is false & R is true.
94. Assertion: Nationalism aligned with imperialism led Europe to disaster in 1914.
Reasons: There was a intense rivalry among the European powers over trade and colonies and military
powers.
95. Assertion (A) : Exploring & mapping rivers was part of the colonial enterprise every where in the world.
Reasons: (R) : The rivers could then be properly used for trade & transport.
PCCP
96. Read the following statements.
(a) Every fourth person in India is poor.
(b) Roughly 300 million people in India live in poverty.
(c) India has the largest single concentration of the poor in the world.
(d) Social exclusion can cause more damage than having a very low income.
(A) FFTF (B) TFTF (C) FTFT (D) TTTT
97. Major functions performed by ADS are.

1. Facilitated a network of NGO for setting up grain banks in different regions.
2. Organise training & capacity building programmes on food security for NGO’s
3. Related with working on white revolution.
4. Its major field area is Maharashtra.
(A) 1, 2 (B) 2, 3, 4 (C) 1, 2, 3 (D) 1, 2, 4
98. Assertion (A) The primary sector continues to be the largest employer even now.
Reason (R) : Presently enough jobs are not created in the seconday & tertiary sectors.
99. Which of the following statements is/are correct.

1. SEZ have world class facilities including electricity, water, roads, transport, storage etc.
2. Companies who set up units in SEZS do not have to pay taxes for an initial 6 years.
3. The governemnt did not allow companies to ignore labour laws.
4. WTO was started with the initiative of developing nations.
(A) TFTT (B) TTFT (C) TFFF (D) TFTF
100. Choose the correct option after reading the following statements.
1. The enactment of COPRA leads to the establishement of seperate deparments of consumer affairs in
central & state governments.
2. Under COPRA consumers have right - to represent in the consumer courts.
3. India celebrate 24 Dec. as the National consumers day as parliament enacted the consumer protection
act on this day.
4. ISI, Agmark & Hallmark certify the quality of electrical appliance, food products & gold respectively.
(A) FTFT (B) FTTF (C) FFFT (D) TTTT

PT 2 SAT WithoutAns

Uploaded by

Document Information

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

PT 2 SAT WithoutAns

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

NTSE (STAGE-II)

SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST (SAT)

1. The booklet given in the examination hall is the Question Paper.

6. There is no negative marking.

Name : ................................................................ Roll No. : ..........................................................

Space For Rough Work

(A) 14.8 (B) 29.6 (C) 7.4 (D) 3.7

(A) same (B) 1 : 2 (C) 2 : 1 (D) 1 : 3

14. In the process of burning of magnesium in air, magnesium undergoes -

16. The pair of compounds which cannot exist in solution is -

17. Which of the following is a displacement reaction?

Space For Rough Work

19. Which among the following statements is false?

(A) 0.5 (B) 2 (C) 1 (D) 3

Space For Rough Work

28. Food webs are prominent in an Ecosystem because

30. The extra chromosomes that causes Down’s syndrome is

32. Which hormone regulate 24 hr rhythm of our body ?

Space For Rough Work

37. Bacterial pili are involved in

38. The coordination by chemicals is brought about by the

39. Proximate principal of food include -

40. The 'blue baby' syndrome results from :

(A) 8 (B) 3 (C) 12 (D) 4

53. If sin  + cos = a, then sin6 + cos6is equal to

3 2 3 2 3  4(a 2 – 1)3 3  3(a 2 – 1)3

63. Match the following

64. The only active volcano of India is located in :

65. The part of India that receive rainfall in month of December is :

66. Power sharing is desirable because it :

Space For Rough Work

Space For Rough Work

72. Choose the correct sequence:

Space For Rough Work

79. Match the following :

80. Arrange the following rivers from west to East:

81. State True & False

83. Read the following statements and categorize as True/False

Space For Rough Work

86. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

87. Read the following statements.

89. Match the following:

Space For Rough Work

91. Match the following

92. State the following statements as true & false.

Space For Rough Work

97. Major functions performed by ADS are.

99. Which of the following statements is/are correct.

Space For Rough Work

You might also like