NMAT MANUAL ANSWER KEY:

MATHEMATICS [ PAGES 44-71]

1. A 26. C 51. C 76. D 101. A 126. C
2. D 27. B 52. B 77. B 102. D 127. A
3. D 28. B 53. A 78. C 103. D 128. D
4. D 29. A 54. A 79. C 104. C 129. B
5. B 30. D 55. D 80. C 105. C 130. A
6. C 31. A 56. B 81. D 106. A 131. B
7. D 32. D 57. A 82. B 107. A 132. A
8. B 33. C 58. E 83. C 108. A 133. A
9. D 34. A 59. C 84. D 109. D 134. D
10. A 35. D 60. D 85. B 110. D 135. B
11. C 36. C 61. B 86. B 111. A 136. A
12. B 37. D 62. A 87. B 112. C 137. B
13. A 38. C 63. A 88. D 113. C 138. C
14. B 39. B 64. A 89. B 114. B 139. C
15. D 40. E 65. C 90. C 115. E 140. C
16. B 41. C 66. A 91. A 116. B 141. D
17. A 42. C 67. C 92. B 117. D 142. D
18. B 43. C 68. A 93. A 118. D 143. D
19. D 44. A 69. C 94. A 119. C 144. B
20. B 45. C 70. D 95. D 120. C 145. D
21. D 46. C 71. B 96. B 121. B 146. C
22. A 47. D 72. A 97. C 122. D 147. D
23. C 48. B 73. C 98. C 123. C 148. B
24. A 49. A 74. A 99. B 124. C 149. D
25. D 50. C 75. D 100. D 125. B 150. D

GEOMETRY
1. 30O 2. 75O 3. 25 – 50 4. 10 ⎷ 2CM 5.  6. 80O

STATISTICS
1. B 11. B 21. D 31. A 41. D 51. 0.3 ; 0.4; 0
2. B 12. C 22. A 32. D 42. B 52. B
3. D 13. A 23. B 33. B 43. B 53. C (w/o replacement)
4. C 14. C 24. D 34. D 44. B D (with replacement)
5. D 15. C 25. B 35. A 45. B 54. D
6. D 16. C 26. A 36. C 46. A 55. A
7. E 17. B 27. C 37. D 47. A
8. A 18. A 28. B 38. A 48. 16/52 ; 39/52
9. B 19. A 29. C 39. A 49. C
10. A 20. B 30. D 40. ¼ 50. C

CHARTS
1. B 6. D 11. D 16. C 21. D 26. C 31. B 36. D 41. D
2. D 7. C 12. B 17. C 22. B 27. C 32. A 37. D
3. E 8. D 13. C 18. C 23. B 28. D 33. D 38. A
4. D 9. A 14. A 19. A 24. D 29. D 34. D 39. B
5. A 10. B 15. C 20. C 25. C 30. B 35. B 40. B

TABLES
1. D 4. B 7. D 10. D 13. B 16. A 19. A 22. A
2. D 5. C 8. C 11. D 14. C 17. D 20. B 23. D
3. B 6. C 9. B 12. B 15. B 18. D 21. A
 INORGANIC CHEMISTRY

Supersaturated solution: Self-Assessment Questions (page 100)

1. d. filtration, distillation, evaporation
2. a. HCl(aq.)
3. c. unsaturated
4. a. A is a mixture and X is a pure compound
5. d. molecules of at least two different elements
Properties of Matter: Self-Assessment Questions (page 100)
1. a. Intrinsic b. Intrinsic c. Extensive d. Extensive
2. c.Lead when heated with a soldering gun, melts and fuses with the metal being soldered.

Naming Ternary Compounds: Self-Assessment Questions (page 102-103)

1. a. Copper(II) sulfide b. Iron (III)bromide c. Aluminum sulfate d. carbon tetrachloride
CuSO FeBr3 Al(SO4)3 CCl4
2. b. HgCl2
3. d. –2, +6
4. a. H2SO3
5. b. X2O
6. a. Sulfur dioxide

II - Mathematics of Chemistry
Steps in solving Empirical Formula Problems: Assessment Question (page 104)
1. b. CCl2
2. d. C6H6
3. b. 2(6.023x1023)
4. a. 192g
5. b. 1 mole oxygen and one mole hydrogen
6. b. 30%

III - Quantitative Relations in Chemical Reactions

Use Factor Label-Method: Self-Assessment Questions (page 104-105)
1. b. 2
2. a. equal, and their masses unequal
3. c. 44.8
4. d. 20 grams

3. Concept of Limiting Reagent: Assessment Question (page 105)

1. b. 4 moles
5. Redox Reactions: Self-Assessment Questions (page 105)
1. d. reducing agent and is oxidized
2. Given the reaction: _2_Cr + _3_Fe+2 ------> _2_Cr+3 + _3_Fe
a. 10
1. d. Mg is oxidized and Ag(s) is produced
2. a. C2H3O2-, H+
3. a. 2 Cl- ----- Cl2 + 2e-
IV - Atomic Structure
 Self-Assessment Questions (page 106)
1. b. protons
2. d. 16, 17, 18
3. a. 10
4. d. Cl-35 (35amu Z=17) and Cl-37 (37amu Z=17)
5. b. -3
Radioisotopes used in Medicine: Self-Assessment Question (page 107)
1. b. 3.125g
2. b. 3H
3. b. protons, but different number of neutrons
4. c. 57 and 26
5. c. 24.3

8. Three Guiding Principles in writing Electronic Configuration:

Self-Assessment Questions (page 108)
1. b. 5
2. a. Li
3. a. MO
4. b. 2
5. b. 1s2 2s2 2px2 2py1 2pz1
6. d. –1 charge
7. c. 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d2
8. d. fewer electrons
9. a. argon (Z=18)

V - Periodic Table: Self-Assessment Questions (page 109-110)

1. b. smaller, and the nuclear charge is greater
2. b. IIA or 2
3. c. 7
4. d. lose electrons and form positive ions
5. a. valence electrons
6. c. Ba
7. b. high ionization energy and poor electrical conductivity
4. Hybridization and Molecular Geometry of Compounds: Self-Assessment Questions (page 111)
1. b. 2
2. a. covalent
3. b.2
4. b. tetrahedral
5. B. H2NNH2
6. Write the Lewis structure of CO32- and NH4+

e. Dalton’s Law of Partial Pressures: Self-Assessement Questions (page 112-113)

1. d. 373 K
2. c. increases and the molecular mass remains the same
3. d. PxV= constant
4. d. D
5. d. 0.25mole
 6. d. 44.8L
7. d. CH4
8. a. 100mL
9. d. 8atm.
10. a. low, high
11. c. 80.52 g/mole
12. b. one-half that of Gas B

3. Type of Solids and Properties: Self-Assessment Questions (page 114)

1. A
2. C
3. E
4. D
5. B
6. B
7. D. Cl2HCCHCl2
8. c. surface tension
9. c. KCl
10. a. At one atmosphere pressure the boiling point of water is 100 oC.
11. d. 40mL at 35oC
12. a. substance A, because it has high vapor pressure at room temperature
13. c. vapor pressure

4. Physical change: Self Assessment Question (page 115)

1. a. requires a pressure greater that the critical pressure to condense the gas.
2. C. only liquid and solid

3. Measurement of Energy: Self- Assessment Questions (page 116-117)

1. c. 2.0
2. c. 2oC
3. d. water
4. c. for which heat is a product.
5. b. exothermic, with a decrease in entropy
6. d. In an open system, there is free exchange of matter and energy between the
system and the surrounding.
7. c. N2O4(g) ------ 2NO2(g)
8. c. the system absorbs 50kJ of heat but performs 25kJ of work

X - Chemical Kinetics- Rates of Chemical Reactions Self-Assessment Questions (page 117)

1. b. heat of reaction
2. d. adding a catalyst to the reaction mixture
3. c. number of molecular collisions increases
4. b. R=k[B]2
5. b. 0.75M/s
6. b
7. b. R=k[NO]2[H2]
XI - Chemical Equilibrium: Self-Assessment Questions (page 119)
1. Write the equilibrium expressions for the following molecular and ionization reactions.
a. 4NH3(g) + 5O2(g) <===>4NO(g) + 6H2O(g)
b. H2O(l) + H2O(l) <====> H3O+ + OH-
c. AgCl(s) <====>Ag+(aq.) + Cl-(aq.)
2. c. decreased and the temperature is increased
3. c. Keq.=1/[O2]3
4. a. MgCO3, Ksp= 1.2x10-5

XII - Concentrations of Solutions: Self-Assessment Questions (page 119)

1. b. 2.5M
2. a. 5m
3. c. 28
4 d. 2L of 2M solution
5. a. 4N
6. c. 50mL
7. b. Number of moles of NaOH
8. c. 0.1827 N

XIII - Colligative Properties of Solutions: Self-Assessment Questions (page 120)

1. a. KOH(aq.)
2. b. 0.2 mCaCl2
3. d. Higher boiling point and lower freezing point

XIV - Acids, Bases, Buffer Solutions : Self-Assessment Questions (page 121)

1. d. HSO4-
2. c. Na2O
3. c. 2x10-12
4. b. it has an H+ concentration of 1x10-3 and is
5. c. NH4Cl
6. 6a. a. 0.15M
6b. b. 4.7
6c. e. None
Buffer solutions: Self-Assessment Questions (page 122)
1. b. 2.74
XV - Miscellaneous Questions:
1. d. Hund’s Principle
2. b. greater than 25kcal
3. d. 4.0x10-12
4. b. 1.
5. c. BCl3
6. b. 228torr
7. c. the halogens
8. c. methane
9. d. carbon-14 to carbon-12
10. b. 35.5 amu
 Organic Chemistry
VII. NAMES OF COMMON ALKYL GROUPS: Self-Assessment Questions (page 127)

1. C. 5-isopropyl-2-methyloctane
2. D. A and B
3. C. 4-hydroxy-2-pentanone
4. B. 2-aminobutanoic acid
5. B. 2-bromo-4-chloropentane
6. C. isobutylamine, 2-methyl-1-aminopropane

IX. ISOMERISM: Self-Assessment Questions (page 128)

1. A. o-catechol, m-catechol
2. c. pentane
X. AROMATICITY: Self-Assessment Question (page 128)
1. D
Conformational Isomers: Self Assessment Questions (page 130)
1. A. CH3CHClCH(OH)CH2OH
2. B. dihydroxyacetone
XII. RESONANCE AND HYBRIDIZATION: Self-Assessment Questions (page 131)
1. E. all of the given choices
2. E. A and D
3. E. b and c

XIII. CHARACTERISTICS OF COVALENT BONDS: Self-Assessment Questions (page 131)

1. B. methylfluoride
2. B. CH3OH2+
3. D. CH2=CH2
4. C. CH2=CH-F
5. C
6. D

XIV. PROPERTIES OF ORGANIC COMPOUNDS: Self-Assessment Questions (page 132)

1. C. CH3COOH
2. B. CH3CH(CH3)CH(CH3)CH2CH3
3. D. CH3CH2COOH
4. A. CH3OH
5. B. CH3CH2OCH3
6. B.

XV. CHEMICAL PROPERTIES OF ORGANIC COMPOUNDS: Self-Assessment Questions (page 133)

1. D. CH3CCl2COOH
2. A.
3. B. CH3NHCH3
4. B

XVI.REACTIONS OF ORGANIC COMPOUNDS: Self-Assessment Questions (page 134)

1. D. 4
2. D. 5
3. C. bromomethylbenzene
2a. Redox Reaction of Alkenes and Alkynes

Self-Assessment Questions (page 135)

1. B
2. D. All of the given choice
3. A. CH3CH2C(CH3)=CHCH2CH3
4. A.CH3CH2CH2CHICH3
5. A. CH3CH(OH)CH2OH
6 C. 2,2-dibromopropane
7. b. C2H4
3. ELECTROPHILIC AROMATIC SUBSTITUTION: Self-Assessment Questions (page 136)

1. B. phenol
2. C. m-chloronitrobenzene
3. D. A and C
4. NUCLEOPHILIC SUBSTITUTION REACTION AT SATURATED CARBON(Reactions of Alkylhalides
and Alcohol): Self-Assessment Questions (page 137)

1. C. CH3I ----CH3O- -- CH3OCH3

2.. C. 2-bromo-2-methlypropane
3. D. 2-Chloro-2-methylpropane
4. C. dehydrohalogenation of hydrocarbon
5. ELIMINATION REACTION(Reactions of Alkylhalides and Alcohols):
Self-Assessment Questions (page 138)
1. D
2. C. CH3CHOHCH(CH3)2----conc. H2SO4-

6. NUCLEOPHILIC ADDITION TO UNSATURATED CARBON(REACTION OF ALDEHYDES AND

KETONES): Self-Assessment Questions (page 138)
1. B
3. E. B and D

7. NUCLEOPHILIC SUBSTITUTION AT UNSATURATED CARBON(REACTION OF CARBOXYLIC ACID

AND ITS DERIVATIVES) Self-Assessment Questions (page 139)

2. A
3. B. CH3CH2OH
4. B. ethanol

8. QUALITATIVE TESTS OF ORGANIC COMPOUNDS

Self-Assessment Questions:
1. Assuming the choice is limited to alkane, alkene, alkylhalide, secondary alcohol, and tertiary alcohol,
characterize compounds A, B, C, D, and E on the basis of the following informations:

Compound Qual.Anal H2SO4 Br2/CCl4KMnO4 CrO3

A Alcane ---------- insoluble - - -

B 2oAte ---------- soluble - - +
C AlkanHalide ----Cl----insoluble - - -
D Alkene --------- soluble + + -
E 3oAle --------- soluble - - -

2 D. all of the given choices

3. D. NaHCO3
4. C. NaHCO3
5. D. Dinitrophenylhydrazine(DNPH)
6. D. CH3CH2CHO
7. C. Na
8. B. CH3CH(OH)CH2CH3
9. D. all of the above
10. C. CH3CH(OH)CH2(OH)
11. c. benzene
12. d. CH3OCH3
13. c. Phenol
14. d. polymerization
15 c. methane
16. a. fractional crystallization
17. b. C4H8 + H2 ---------> C4H10
18. d. formic acid
19. b. methanol
20. d. sucrose

BIOCHEMISTRY EXERCISES: ( pages 154-160)

1. Which of the following elements is NOT essential for life?

A. Carbon C. Nitrogen
B. Ribidium D. Sulfur

2. What is the predominant molecular component of cells?

A. Water C. Carbohydrates
B. Proteins D. Phosphates

3. Which solution has the greatest concentration of H + ions?

A. A solution with pH = 1 C. A solution with pH = 7
B. A solution with pH = 2 D. A solution with pH = 10

4. What is the pH of a solution made up of 0.1M of a weak acid and 0.1M of its conjugate
base? The pKa of the weak acid is 8.2.
A. 7.0 C. 8.2
B. 4.1 D. 1

5. At physiological pH, amino acids are zwitterions. Which of the following is a

zwitterions?

COOH COO COO- COOH

| | | |
| | | |
 + I
H2N – C –- H H2N C H H3N – C –- H H3-N – C –- H
| | | |
R R R R

A. B. C. D.
6. What test will differentiate -amino acids from imino acids?
A. Molisch C. ninhydrin
B. Millon-Nasse D. Biuret

7. Which of the polar, uncharged amino acids turns black in Pb-containing hair dyes?
A. Alanine C. tyrosine
B. Cysteine D. histidine

8. Among the aromatic amino acids, which will not readily react with NaNO 2/HCl?
A. Phe C. trp
B. Tyr D. none of these

9. What is the visible result in the reaction between sulfanilic acid and histidine?
A. Fuchsia colored complex C. Old rose ppt.
B. Red-orange complex D. Yellow ppt.

10. The red orange complex in the Sakaguchi test indicates the presence of which
moiety?
A. Phenol ring C. guanidine group
B. Imidazole ring D. indole ring

11. Which of the following is NOT a test for the phenolic group of tyrosine?
A. Millon-Nasse C. Xanthoproteic
B. FeCl3 test D. Pauly

12. What technique separates amino acids based on the partitioning of these compounds
in 2-3 different solvents?
A. Centrifugation C. electrophoresis
B. Chromatography D. filtration

13. Given the following chromatographic profile:

What is the component of M?
O o
A. A and B
B. B and C
C. A and C O
D. A, B and C

O o
 M = mixture

14. How many amino acids should a peptide have for it to have a positive result with the
Biuret test?
A. 2 C. > 50
B. 3 D. 10

15. Which of the following is the most predominant structural protein?

A. Keratin C. immunoglobulin
B. Collagen D. albumin

16. When one amino acid reacts with another amino acid, a bond that has a double bond
character is formed. What is this bond?
A. Amide bond C. peptide
B. Anhydride D. sulfide
17. Given the saturation curves of O2 carrying proteins such as hemoglobin, what will be
the saturation curve of hemoglobin at high altitude?

% A
sat
B
C
D

PmmHg

18. The storage of O2 in tissues is the protein

A. Hemoglobin C. myoglobin
B. Transferring D. albumin

19. What technique is used to separate proteins and amino acids according to both
charge and size?
A. PAGE C. Column chrom
B. SDS-PAGE D. microfiltration

20. Enzymes are catalysts. How do they increase the rate of chemical reactions?
A. By raising the activation energy
B. By stabilizing the transition state
C. By increasing temperature
D. By covalently binding the substrate
21. Which of the following will not influence enzyme activity?
A. pH C. excess substrate conc.
B. temperature D. denaturation

22. Additional chemical groups such as small organics or metals attached to proteins are
called:
A. Subunits groups C. Prosthetic
B. Residues D. heme

23. The substance acted upon by enzymes is called?

A. Substrate C. coenzyme
B. product D. cofactor

24. Most coenzymes are derived from the vitamin B complex. What is vitamin B12?
A. Niacin C. thiamine
B. Riboflavin D. cyanocobalamine

25. What is the parameter that measures enzyme affinity for substrate?
A. Km C. Km/Vmax
B. Vmax D. Vmax/Km

26. DNA is made up of 4 bases, a deoxyribose and a phosphate group linked by a

phosphodiester bond. The four bases are Adenine, Cytosine, Guanine and:
A. Uracil C. Uridine
B. Thymine D. Cytochalasin

27. What is this structure? O

||
A. DNA O – P – O –– Base
B. dioxyribonucleoside |
C. deoxyribonucleotide O
D. ribonucleotide
OH
28. What is the currency of energy of cells?
A. ATP C. joules of heat
B. Enthalpy D. glucose

29. What process copies DNA from cell to cell?

A. Replication C. translation
B. Transcription D. reverse transcription

30. The site of protein synthesis is:

A. Nucleus C. ribosome
B. Cytoplasm D. cell membrane

31. What is the adaptor molecule that carries amino acids in protein synthesis?
 A. mRNA C. rRNA
B. tRNA D. siRNA

32. What is the size of the functional ribosome in eukaryotes?

A. 40s C. 70s
B. 50s D. 80s
33. RNA enzymes are called?
A. Enzymes C. ssRNA
B. Ribozymes D. Telomerase

34. The product of transcription in eukaryotic cells is called?

A. mRNA C. snRNA
B. hnRNA D. siRNA

35. A compound that causes alterations in the sequence of DNA in germ cells is called:
A. Carcinogen C. terratogen
B. Mutagen D. antibiotic

36. A mutagenic compound found in cigarette smoke and automobile exhaust?

A. Tetracycline C. nicotine
B. Ethidium bromide D. benzo(a)pyrene

37. What is the extragenomic circular DNA produced by bacteria in response to

environmental stresses such as presence of antibiotics, high salt concentration, etc?
A. Plasmids C. bacteriophage
B. Cosmids D. vectors

38. What is PCR?

A. It is replication in vitro
B. It is copying the DNA to RNA
C. It is identifying the protein synthesized from mRNA
D. It is the process of copying RNA to DNA

39. The Messelson and Stahl experiment determined the mode of replication which is:
A. Conservative C. dispersive
B. Semi-conservative D. none of these

40. The product of reverse transcription is:

A. DNA C. proteins
B. cDNA D. mRNA

41. Blotting techniques determine presence and/or concentration of target molecules from
which is derived the name of the blotting technique. What blotting technique
determines the amount of mRNA produced in transcription?
A. Southern blotting C. Western blotting
B. Northern blotting D. none of these

42. Organisms carrying foreign traits by transfection with DNA constructs are called:
 A. Clones C. recombinants
B. Transgenes D. all of these

43. The most extensively studied gene regulation involving repressors and inducers is:
A. Lac operon C. his operon
B. Trp operon D. none of these

44. What is the principal storage form of carbohydrates in animal cells?

A. Glucose C. amylopectic
B. Glycogen D. amylase

45. Sugars have chiral centers. How many stereoisomers are there for a sugar with 3
chiral centers?
A. 2 C. 8
B. 4 D. 16

46. When sugar cyclizes to form either a hemiacetal from a aldehyde or a hemiketal from
a ketone, the carbonyl carbon becomes a chiral center. The isomeric forms produced
are called  and  which can interconvert. This process of interconversion is called:
A. Anomerization C. epimerization
B. Tautomerism D. mutarotation

47. What is the predominant monosaccharide found in nature?

A. Glucose C. mannose
B. Galactose D. fructose

48. What test differentiates glucose from fructose?

A. Osazone C. Benedicts
B. Barfoeds D. Seliwanoffs

49. Which of the following is commonly known as milk sugar?

A. Sucrose C. cellobiose
B. Lactose D. maltose

50. Which of the common disaccharides is a non-reducing sugar?

A. Lactose C. maltose
B. Sucrose D. cellobiose

51. Two monosaccharides combine to form disaccharides then polysaccharides. This

involves the OH group of one monosaccharide forming an ester linkage with the
anomeric carbon of the second monosaccharide. This type of bond is called?
A. Phosphodiester bond C. O-glycosidic bond
B. N-glycosidic bond D. Peptide bond

52. What polysaccharide is responsible for the blue color produced when 12/KI is added?
A. Glycogen C. amylose
B. Amylopectic D. cellulose
53. Which of the following is NOT a sugar alcohol?
A. Galactitol C. mannitol
B. Sorbitol D. pentanol

54. Muric acid test involves the oxidation of the aldehyde and hydroxymethyl groups of a
sugar. The resulting acid is water-soluble except:
A. Aldaric acid
B. Glucaric acid
C. galactaric acid
D. mannaric acid

55. Why are fatty acids amphiphilic molecules?

A. They have both (+) and (-) charges
B. They contain saturated and unsaturated groups
C. They have long side chains made up of carbon and hydrogen only
D. They have polar heads and non-polar tails

56. Which of the following will give the most number of drops before it ceases decolorizing
12/KI?
A. Linoleic acid C. oleic acid
B. Arachidic acid D. arachidonic acid

57. Which of the following is considered a non-essential fatty acid?

A. EPA C. Arachidonic acid
B. DHA D. oleic acid

58. Which of the following classes of lipids is the most nonpolar and the alternative source
of energy of animals?
A. Tricylglycerols C. steroids
B. Phospholipids D. eicosanoids

59. What test will differentiate fatty acids from glycerols esters?
A. Leibermann-Burchard
B. Acrolein
C. NH4MoO4
D. Hubl’s test

60. What class of lipids has this common structure?

A. Sterols and steroids C. fatty acids
B. prostaglandins D. leukotrienes

61. Cholesterol belongs to what class of lipids?

A. Sterols and steroids
B. prostaglandins
C. fatty acids
D. thromboxanes
62. What test will determine the presence of cholesterol and other sterols?
A. Acrolein test
B. Leibermann-Burchard
C. Fisher
D. NH4MoO4

63. Adipocytes are fat storage cells in animals. These cells contain the enzyme lipase,
which catalyzes the release of fatty acids. The reaction is shown below:

CH2–– O –– C R CH2 –– OH RCOOH

| | |
| O |
CH2–– O –– C –– R’ CH2 –– OH R’COOH
| | | +
| O +3H2O |
CH2 O –– C R’’ CH2 OH R’’COOH
|
O

A. Esterification C. saponification
B. Hydrolysis D. hydrogenation

64. The most important component of membranes that gives it its amphiphatic character is:
A. Proteins C. phospholipids
B. Sugars D. cholesterol

ENGLISH
ANSWER KEY [PAGES 1-10]

VERBAL ANALOGY:
1. (a) hook : fish 15. (c) soldier : ambush 23 (d) emaciated : nourishment
2. (b) bread : bake 8. (d) eagle : aerie 16. (b) antlers : stag 24. (c) pig : sty
3. (a) cut : scissors 9. (b) agile : monkey 17. (d) physician : infirmary 25. (b) summit : mountain
4. (a) wealthy : prosperous 10. (d) knowledge :ignorance 18. (c) breastplate : chest 26. (a) kit : fox
5. (a) root : plant 11. (c) author : book 19. (b) careful : cautioned 27. (b) byline : column
6. (b) 9 : 27 12. (d) event : memories 20. (a) courage : cravenness 28. (c) troupe : actors
7. (c) fast : hunger 13. (a) duck : drake 21. (c) urbane : sophisticate 29. (a) globe : circle
14. (a) painter : brush 22. (d) refine : style 30. (d) truth : myth
Practice test - A:
ANTONYMS
1. (a) polish 6. (e) natural 11. (d) cease to struggle 16. (a) love
2. (c) convict 7. (a) colossal 12. (d) importance 17. (e) good-natured
3. (e) reward 8. (b) intractable 13 (a) scorn 18. (b) make weary
4. (e) squander 9. (a) greed 14. (d) ignore 19. (a) weaken
5. (b) praise 10. (b) good luck 15. (b) unsuitable 20. (c) supercilious
Practice test - B:
ANTONYMS
1. (b) restrain one self 6, (b) delicate 11. (e) mount 16. (a) similarity
2. (a) lack of production 7. (e) conceal 12. (c) convex 17. (a) reconciled
3. (e) vague 8. (d) disdain 13. (d) reduce in duration 18. (d) haughty
4. (c) flourish 9. (a) loss 14. (c) soothe 19. (b) handle skillfully
5. (a) follow 10. (c) disclose 15. (b) lowest point 20. (d) commend

SYNOMYM EXERCISES:
1. (e) humiliate 6. (b) pompous 11. (b) knowledge 16. (b) instigate
2. (a) deviation 7. (b) noisy 12. (a) family name 17. (e) economy
3. (d) suspended action 8. (e) fantastic 13. (a) kill 18. (b) awkward
4. (a) bottomless 9. (c) hot headed 14. (a) insane 19. (b) summary
5. (d) consent 10. (b) secret 15. (b) high 20. (d) articulate
B-
1. (a) unfavorable 6. (c) philanthropic 11. (b) plunder 16. (c) secular
2. (a) disability 7. (b) nearsighted 12. (c) pacify 17. (c) stimulate
3. (c) perfect 8. (a) incipient 13. (b) repetition 18. (a) ravenous
4. (a) sloth 9. (d) ambitious 14. (c) boldness 19. (b) grant
5. (e) wordily 10. (c) resentment 15. (d) holding fast 20. (c) fanatic

THE READING COMPREHENSION TEST

1. b. Simile
2. d. Love and runs away
3. a. Personification
4. c. the best and worst extremes to someone in love
5. a. boat
6. b. taking on her mother’s name
7. d. hyperbole
8. a. that she cannot stop her pattern of returning home
9. a. simile
10. c. subjective
11. b. fights disease
12 d. nutrition has a part in combating disease
13. c. Hippocrates is the Father of Modern Medicine
14. c. A Substance Called Lecithin
15. b. health is the greatest medical mystery
16. c. The Mystery of Health
17. a. the body has natural defenses against germs
18. d. we eat bacteria and germs
19. a. Adaptive Divergence
20. b. Objective
21. a. described the properties and uses of water
22. d. in danger of freezing over
23. d. fascinated
24 c. general statements followed by examples
Socio/anthro answer key page 43
PRACTICE TEST: CHOOSE THE BEST
ANSWER
1. In a society where stratification is
highly visible, what characteristic will
hold true?
a. Extreme inequality in rewards will
motive more people to work.
b. Some inequality is necessary for
the efficient utilization of potential
talents.
c. Inequality should not exceed the
amount justified on the intention of
efficiency.
2. The individual is said to be fit to
function in the society…
a. Upon graduation from college
b. When he starts attending social
functions
c. When he learns the accepted
norms and practices.
3. If a society shifts from the traditional,
familiaristic, agricultural society to a
rational, specialized, Industrial
complex, which of the following would
not be a feature of this society?
a. Work recruitment based on
specialized competencies.
b. Forms on progress in business and
economics.
c. Systems that foster regionalism.
4. Socialization refers to the process
of…
a. Learning roles, altitudes, and the
corresponding behavior proper to a
society or groups.
b. Making oneself acceptable to other
members of a social groups.
c. Participating in the activities of a
group.
5. Which of the following does not
belong to the characteristics of a
Modern Society?
a. People whose ambitions can more
up the social ladder.
b. People can be assigned to tasks
that they are most qualified for.
c. People are protected against the
stresses of constant adjustment to
new roles.
6. If in a society, the members share the
same values, such as for economic
success and for upward mobility, and
they are stratified into a number of
distinct state. It could be stated that it
is stratified because…
a. The values are not shared by all
members of the society.
b. The means for realizing the shared
values are not equally distributed.
c. The strata are not classes.
7. A social movement is a collective
effort to promote or resist change.
Which of these factors may start a
social movement?
a. Socio-economic or political
discontentment.
b. Inconsistencies between theory
and practice.
c. Personal failure.
8. The statement, “Man in the society
acts as a cultural being” means that…
a. Reason moves man to action.
b. Culture shapes and conditions the
actions and beliefs of a human
being.
c. Free will determines man’s action.
9. In a particular society, the population
growth has not been met by an
increase of housing facilities, thus
resulting in overcrowding. This
condition is illustrated in the concept
of.
a. Cultural lag.
 b. Cultural pluralism.
c. Culture relentionism.

10. If an environment determines the

development of a specific type of
culture, such is an expression of:
a. Biological determinism.
b. Cultural determinism.
c. Environmental determinism.