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Biology 3451 Name:_____________________________

Exam II, Fall ‘11

Read all of the possible answers for each question before choosing the BEST ANSWER.
You may write on the exam as you wish but it must be turned in with the Scantron™ before you leave.

1. The physiological state which allows a bacterial cell to take up foreign DNA into the cell and subsequently incorporate a strand of the DNA into its
own chromosome is called:
a. transformation.
b. conjugation.
c. transduction.
d. recombination.
e. competence.

2. Genetic elements that can either replicate independently or as part of the bacterial chromosome are called:
a. plasmids.
b. episomes.
c. lysogens.
d. prophage.
e. linkage elements.

3. Two genes in the Drosophila melanogaster genome are found to segregate together. The appropriate genetic term to describe the relationship
between these two genes would be to say they are:
a. recombinant.
b. noncrossover.
c. reciprocal.
d. complimentary.
e. linked.

4. Polytene chromosomes are commonly found in:


a. mitochondria.
b. chloroplasts.
c. allopolyploid species.
d. cells requiring large numbers of copies of specific genes.
e. the salivary glands of some dipteran species.

5. A human somatic cell has 45 chromosomes. This cell is best described as:
a. diploid.
b. euploid.
c. aneuploid.
d. haploid.
e. polyploid.

6. Lederberg and Tatum are known as the discovers of the phenomenon/process termed:
a. transformation.
b. transduction.
c. conjugation.
d. gene conversion.
e. linkage.

7. Heterokaryons produced by somatic cell hybridization experiments were used extensively in early ___________ studies of the human genome.
a. functional mapping
b. syntenny/mapping
c. interference
d. genotyping
e. imprinting

8. A strain of bacteria has been determined to be able to make all of its required organic compounds from a medium containing only glucose and a
series of inorganic salts. This strain is an example of a/an:
a. auxotroph.
b. transformant.
c. heterotroph.
d. prototroph.
e. Hfr.

9. The apparently random distribution of orange and black patches of fur in a calico cat was used as data to support a hypothesis that we now refer to
as the Lyon Hypothesis. This hypothesis explains:
a. the function of the SRY in determining gene expression by the sex chromosomes.
b. the variable expression of the two copies of an autosomal gene in a heterozygous individual.
c. the epigenetic phenomenon now known as imprinting.
d. sex limited gene expression.
e. mitotic segregation.

10. You are given a study organism that is said to be a merozygote. This likely means that you have been given:
a. a strain of Drosophila that is heterozygous for two loci.
b. a heterokaryon that carries one or more human chromosomes in addition to a normal complement of mouse chromosomes.
c. an E. coli Hfr strain.
d. a male of a species where the male has an X,Y (plus autosomes)karyotype.
e. an E. coli strain with an F’.
11. The RecBCD complex is responsible for:
a. gene transfer during conjugation.
b. DNA uptake from the surrounding medium by competent bacterial cells.
c. the strand transfer reaction leading to the integration of donor strand DNA into the recipient duplex during homologous
recombination.
d. nuclease cleavage and unwinding of the donor duplex during recombination.
e. gene conversion following genetic recombination.

12. Dosage compensation with respect to XX females and XY males in D. melanogaster is accomplished by:
a. Barr body formation.
b. over expressing X-linked genes in XY males.
c. under expressing genes in XX females.
d. sex limited gene expression.
e. negative interference of splicing of X-linked primary transcripts by Xist.

13. The sex of individual D. melanogaster flies is most directly determined by:
a. the ratio of X chromosomes to autosomes in the cells.
b. the presence or absence of a Y chromosome in the cells.
c. the presence or absence of a Barr body in the cells.
d. dosage compensation regulated by the presence or absence of a Y chromosome.
e. mosaic gene expression.

14. A type of DNA transfer/exchange that occurs in bacteria and involves a bacteriophage is:
a. conjugation.
b. transformation.
c. transfection.
d. interrupted mating.
e. transduction.

15. An E. coli strain has been determined by you to be an F- strain. This means that:
a. it would only be a recipient cell in the conjugation process.
b. it is an auxotroph and requires one or more specific nutrients.
c. it has lost the lysogenic phage in its chromosome.
d. it is unable to carry out genetic recombination.
e. it is highly susceptible to spontaneous mutation.

16. Birds such as the flamingo have a chromosomal basis for sex determination. In this case the mode of sex determination is referred to as :
a. XX/XO.
b. XX/XY.
c. ZZ/ZW.
d. X/autosome ratio.
e. Lyon determination.
17. A type of DNA transfer/exchange that occurs in bacteria was utilized experimentally to create the first extensive genetic maps of E. coli that were
recorded/measured in units of “minutes”. The experimental approach is called:
a. Linkage analysis.
b. transformation.
c. transfection.
d. interrupted mating.
e. transduction.

18. A bacterial virus has a life cycle that most often results in the lysis of the host cell but also sometimes leads to the formation of a stable integration
of the viral chromosome into the host bacterial chromosome. This virus would be most specifically called a/an:
a. virulent phage.
b. retrovirus.
c. lytic phage.
d. general transducing phage.
e. temperate phage.

19. Small to large pieces of extracellular DNA are taken up by a living bacterium, potentially leading to a stable genetic change in the recipient cell.
This mechanism of genetic exchange is called:
a. conjugation.
b. transformation.
c. transfection.
d. general transduction.
e. specialized transduction.

20. The cultivated variety of American cotton is interesting from a genetic standpoint because:
a. it is aneuploid.
b. it is a sterile hybrid of two known older varieties of cotton.
c. it is polyploid.
d. it is allotetraploid (or amphidiploids).
e. it is an improved product of genetic engineering/recombinant DNA technology.

21. The human genetic-based diseases Fragile X and Myotonic Dystrophy exhibit a phenomenon where the phenotype exhibits a progressively earlier
age of onset and/or increased severity with each successive generation. These are now considered to be classic examples of:
a. partial penetrance.
b. epistasis.
c. genetic anticipation.
d. position effect.
e. genetic imprinting.

22. The very first genetic map for a higher eukaryote chromosome was constructed by:
a. Morgan and Sturtevant.
b. Calvin Bridges.
c. Watson and Crick.
d. Fred Griffith.
e. Erwin Chargaff.

23. The regions of the human Y chromosome that synapse with the X chromosome during meiosis are called:
a. SRYs.
b. PARs.
c. TDFs.
d. MSYs.
e. telomeres.

24. The conversion of an F+ E. coli cell to Hfr involves:


a. the integration of a bacteriophage into the host chromosome.
b. the integration of an F plasmid into the host chromosome..
c. the introduction of an F plasmid into an F- cell..
d. the transfer of DNA into the cell .
e. the excision of a prophage from the bacterial chromosome.

25. Which of the following processes requires cell to cell contact?


a. transduction.
b. transformation.
c. conjugation.
d. All of the above require cell to cell contact.
e. None of the above requires cell to cell contact.

26. The genetic phenomenon that we refer to as gene conversion involves:


a. the evolution of gene families by unequal recombination and then the accumulation of mutations in one gene copy.
b. the uptake of new genes from the medium to increase the genome size of the recipient organism.
c. mismatch repair of a heteroduplex formed as a result of transformation and/or homologous recombination.
d. converting a bacterial strain from F- to F+.
e. the integration of F into the host chromosome.

27. The genes for colicins and resistance to antibiotics are commonly encoded by::
a. bacteriophage.
b. plasmids.
c. kappa particles.
d. bacterial host chromosomes.
e. prophage.
28. A common experimental approach used to determine the order of genes on chromosomes of model organisms such as D. melanogaster and maize
(before large scale DNA sequencing became a reality) was:
a. cotransformation.
b. PCR.
c. interpherence analysis.
d. microarray analysis.
e. the three point cross.

29. The smallest functional genetic units, defined by complementation analyses, is called a/an:
a. plaque.
b. linkage group.
c. episome.
d. lysogen.
e. cistron.

30. Xic and Xist are involved in:


a. transformation in E.coli.
b. genetic recombination.
c. Barr body formation.
d. sex determination in humans.
e. sex determination in D. melanogaster.

31. With respect to birds, the homogametic sex is/are:


a. the male.
b. the female.
c. both sexes.
d. Humans are not homogametic
e. bisexual.

32. A human with the karyotype of 47, XXY would suffer from:
a. cri-du-chat syndrome.
b. double autosomal monosomy
c. Turner syndrome.
d. Klinefelter syndrome.
e. Patau syndrome.
33. A human chromosome-based genetic disorder that is characterized as giving individuals that are of above average height, have an increased
frequency of personality disorders and a higher rate of criminal behavior is:
a. Klinefelter syndrome.
b. Turner syndrome.
c. triplo-X syndrome (47,XXX).
d. 47, XYY condition.
e. Lyon syndrome.

34. There would be an evolutionary advantage to maintaining a particular set of alleles at a series of adjacent essential genes/loci. One
process/occurrence that can help assure that such a useful combination of alleles in an individual would be passed on to its progeny intact would
be:
a. conversion of the region to heterochromatin.
b. an inversion involving this segment.
c. transposition of these genes to the Y chromosome.
d. a mutation of the recA gene in this area.
e. to carry out gene amplification of the region.

35. Extensive methylations of CpG dinucleotides within and around a gene cause the gene to be turned off. This methylation pattern can be passed on
from one cell generation to another, including from a gamete to a zygote. This modification of the DNA molecule was the explanation for a genetic
phenomenon called:
a. genetic imprinting.
b. epistasis.
c. genetic anticipation.
d. maternal inheritance.
e. position effect.

36. The most common cause of variation in chromosome numbers in human zygotes is:
a. unequal crossing over.
b. incomplete meiosis.
c. translocation.
d. nondisjunction.
e. mutation.

37. In his “simultaneous infection studies” using mutants at the rII locus of the E. coli phage T4, Benzer observed that sometimes infecting E. coli
simultaneously with two phage with mutations in the rII region did not give any plaques while other combinations of mutant rII region phage did in
fact yield plaques on the plate Benzer called the phenomenon that led to the production of plaques from the two combined phage:
a. lysogeny.
b. syntenny.
c. positive interference.
d. complementation.
e. transduction.

38. Bacterial R plasmids are characterized as having:


a. genes encoding replication proteins.
b. genes encoding antibiotic resistance proteins.
c. genes encoding radiation resistance.
d. genes encoding recombination proteins.
e. a composition of RNA.

39. An E. coli cell is observed to be the donor during the conjugation process. It is likely this cell:
a. contains a bacteriophage.
b. contains a Kappa particle.
c. secretes DNA into the medium.
d. is a heterokaryon.
e. contains an F plasmid.

40. A drug that interferes with the formation of the spindle apparatus during mitosis/meiosis and that is commonly used to produce autotetraploid or
polyploidy plants is:
a. streptomycin.
b. actinomycin.
c. colchicine.
d. aspartame.
e. rifamycin.

41. The classic experiments that utilized bacteriophage T2 and the radioactive isotopes 32P and 35S to demonstrate that DNA was likely the genetic
material were carried out by:
a. Watson and Crick.
b. Chargaff.
c. Franklin and Wilkins.
d. Avery, McCarty and MacLeod.
e. Hershey and Chase.

42. Certain cells in an otherwise diploid organism have many complete “extra” copies of the genome. This condition would be best described as:
a. aneuploidy.
b. endoploidy.
c. amphidiploidy.
d. euploidy
e. diploidy.
43. An individual C. elegans is able to engage in sexual reproduction without having a second member of the species present. This is possible because
this nematode is?
a. heterogametic.
b. isogametic.
c. hermaphroditic.
d. heteromorphic.
e. homogametic.

44. The risk/frequency of Down syndrome in children correlates best with:


a. paternal age at conception.
b. vitamin deficiency in mother during gestation.
c. exposure to mutagens during gametogenesis.
d. maternal age at conception.
e. family history.

45. Which of the following conditions in humans does not involve the expansion of a trinucleotide repeat at the affected locus?
a. Fragile X syndrome.
b. Huntington disease.
c. Myotonic dystrophy.
d. All of the above are correct answers.
e. None of the above is a correct answer.

46. The most common syndrome involving persons monosomic for a complete chromosome is:
a. Turner syndrome.
b. Lyon syndrome.
c. cri-du-chat syndrome.
d. Patau syndrome.
e. None of the above is a correct answer to the question.

47. In the case of the haploid organism Neurospora, the mitochondria in the diploid zygote come from both parental cells. A cross between a mutant
strain (mutation in mtDNA) is crossed with the wild type to give a mutant zygote that yields haploid cells that are all mutant phenotype/genotype.
This type of mutant is said to be:
a. complete dominant.
b. infectious.
c. suppressive.
d. heteroplasmic.
e. autogamous.

48. Three loci (A, B and C) are located along the Q arm of human chromosome number six in the order A, B, then C. The recombination frequency
between locus A and locus B is 0.1. The recombination frequency between locus B and locus C is 0.2. The approximate recombination frequency
between locus A and locus C would be expected to be about:
a. 0.6.
b. 0.03.
c. 0.1.
d. 0.2.
e. 0.3.

49. The endosymbiont theory that explains why mitochondria and chloroplasts have their own chromosomes with bacterial like gene expression
systems was proposed by:
a. J. Mendel.
b. Mary Lyon.
c. Lynn Margulis.
d. Thomas Morgan.
e. Joshua Lederberg.

50. A classic example of gene amplification in humans involves:


a. SRY.
b. PAR.
c. rRNA genes.
d. the X chromosome.
e. chromosome 21.

51. Three loci (moe, lry and crl) are all located on chromosome 1 of our test organism. The recombination frequency between moe and lry is 0.03 and
the recombination frequency between lry and crl is 0.04. Given these numbers the probability of a double recombination event, one crossover
between moe and lry and a second between lry and crl, within this region would be expected to be approximately:
a. 0.0012.
b. 0.012.
c. 0.06.
d. .006.
e. .0006.

52. The variegated leaves of certain varieties of the four o’clock and other plants are now explained by:
a. epigenetics.
b. mutations in the chloroplast DNA.
c. suppressive mutations.
d. mutations in mtDNA.
e. alternate segregation.

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