CDC III

1. When dealing with outpatient surgical care, what are the diagnostic criteria for discharge?
A. Stable vital signs and return of protective reflexes
B. Lacrimal duct involvement
C. Presence of ptosis
D. All of the above
2. What is the appropriate initial nursing intervention when caring for an open wound near a fracture?
A. Grossly decontaminate, rinse briefly with sterile saline, then cover with wet sterile dressings.
B. Splint the fracture, stabilize and avoid other interventions at this time.
C. Cover the wound with sterile dressing, immobilize the client.
D. Rinse the wound under a running water before application of dressing.
3. After application of a traction splint to a femur fracture, what should the nurse assess?
A. Check the neurovascular status proximal to the fracture.
B. Check the neurovascular status distal to the fracture.
C. Assess the intensity of pain in a scale of 1 to 10.
D. Keep the affected limb in proper alignment.
4. A medsurg nurse is taking care of a patient with multiple fractures including a femur fracture. The patient
develops confusion, shortness of breath, faster breathing, and tachycardia, hypotension and petechiae about
12 hours after admission. What syndrome is likely developing?
A. Bleeding B.Shock C. Infection D. Fat embolism syndrome
5. How soon can fat embolism syndrome occur following a long bone fracture?
A. 6 – 12 hours. B. 12-72 hours. C. 3-6 hours D. 8-24 hours.
6. What would be a priority nursing intervention for a client with fat embolism syndrome?
A. Assess for bleeding on site.
B. Immobilize and elevate the affected extremity.
C. Start IVF bolus and administer pain medications.
D. Ensure adequate oxygenation and ventilation due to the impaired gas exchange
7. A medsurg nurse is examining a nursing home patient who is admitted with confusion and dehydration. The
nurse notes that the patient’s right leg is shorter than the other leg, is externally rotated, and the patient moans
when the lower leg is moved. The likely diagnosis is:
A. Wrist fracture. B. Knee dislocation. C. Hip fracture. D. Neck fracture.
8. A medsurg nurse is preparing a patient for surgery of the hip fracture. What important steps should be
performed?
I. Monitor vital signs, watching for hypertension, pulmonary embolism and infection
II. Monitor vital signs, watching for hypotension as up to 1,000cc of blood can be lost into the femur or hip
fracture.
III. Ensure the pre-op medical screening is completed by the physician, along with appropriate tests.
IV. Keep patient NPO, have the patient empty the bladder or place Foley catheter.
V. Send an abduction pillow to the OR if indicated, as it is used to keep prosthetic hips joints in proper
position.
VI. Ensure proper tetanus immunization.
VII. Ensure that the consent form is signed after the doctor discusses the plan and operation with patient
and family.
A. I,II,III,IV,V B. II,III,IV,V,VI C. I,III,V,VI,VII D. II,III,IV,V,VI,VII
9. A medsurg nurse taking care of a post-op hip fracture patient should ensure what important steps?
I. Monitor vital signs and neurovascular status
II. watch for signs of post-op bleeding and infection
III. perform dressing changes, watch for possible fat or pulmonary embolism
IV. administer appropriate anticoagulant and use external pneumatic compression device/stockings
V. monitor wound drainage, position limb appropriately, turn patient, encourage deep breathing and
coughing often
VI. use incentive spirometer every hour while awake monitor I and Os
VII. get the patient to exercise in bed and get up and active as soon as the surgeon allows
 A. I,II,III,IV,V,VI B. I,II,III,IV,V C. I,II,III,IV,V,VI,VII D. II,III,IV,V,VI,VII
10. A patient in balanced suspension traction for a fractured femur needs repositioning toward the head of the
bed. What is the proper technique regarding the traction when moving the patient?
A. Maintain the same degrees of traction tension.
B. Increase the traction tension.
C. Release or lift the traction during repositioning.
D. All of these.
11. A patient presents with sudden loss of vision in one eye which returned quickly. Which of the following is
the expected diagnosis of the patient?
A. Cataract
B. Macular degeneration
C. Close angle glaucoma
D. Amaurosis fugax.
12. A patient presents with the sensation of painless loss of vision in one eye described as a wall slowly
developing in the visual field. Findings expected on opthalmoscopic exam?
A. Pinpoint pupils.
B. White streaks in the retina.
C. Blood shot eyes.
D. Gray detached retina.
13. A patient is admitted to surgery with a history of being struck in the eye during a violent MVA. The patient is
admitted with a femur fracture and also has eye trauma. On exam, no abnormalities are evident. What should
the nurse tell the patient?
A. Inform the nurse if ocular pain or blurred vision develops. Repeat exam after 36 hours.
B. Hyphema caused by blunt eye are always present on initial exam.
C. Retinal detachments rapidly occur.
D. Slight abnormal blurring of vision are nothing to be concerned of.
14. A 48-year-old diabetic male with DKA is hospitalized. He say he was wondering about the pain, itching, and
discharge from the right ear. On exam, the eardrum is intact. The external ear canal is red and narrow and
inflamed. What is your diagnosis?
A. Otitis media B. Otitis externa C. Otosclerosis D.
Cholesteatoma
15. A 47-year-old female on the medical floor complains of excruciation sudden waxing and waning pain in the
right cheek. She says it feels like an electric shock. What disorder does this describe?
A. Myasthenia gravis B. Bell’s Palsy C. Tic douloureux D. Cerebral Palsy
16. What methods can be used for the emergency storage of an avulsed tooth?
A. The tooth can no longer be saved for reimplantation.
B. The tooth can be placed in a small container of milk.
C. The tooth can be placed in a container with normal saline solution.
D. The tooth can be placed in a sterile container and refrigerated until ready for implantation.
17. How can you prevent medication from entering the tear duct (and draining away) when administering eye
drops?
A. Before instilling the eye drop, apply light pressure against the nose at the inner angle of the patient’s
closed eye.
B. After instilling the eye drop, apply light pressure against the nose at the outer angle of the patient’s
closed eye.
C. After instilling the eye drop, apply light pressure against the nose at the inner angle of the patient’s
closed eye.
D. Before instilling the eye drop, apply light pressure against the nose at the outer angle of the patient’s
closed eye.
18. How do you remove wax or a foreign body form the ear?
A. Gently flush with warm saline solution.
B. Gently flush with cool tap water.
C. Gently flush with warm tap water.
D. Gently flush with soap sud solution.
19. What procedures should be performed to prevent aspiration in a patient who is continuously vomiting and
at risk for aspiration pneumonia?
 A. Lie the patient on his left side in the reverse Trendelenburg position.
B. Lie the patient on his right side in the Trendelenburg position.
C. Lie the patient on his back with no pillow under the head.
D. Lie the patient on his abdomen.
20. A client with right lower lobe pneumonia is admitted, with normal blood pressure and mild tachypnea.
Which nursing action takes priority, elevating the head of the bed, or assessing breath sounds?
A. Elevating the head of the bed.
B. Elevate the foot of the bed.
C. Place the client in dorsal recumbent.
D. Place the client in prone position.
21. A patient with COPD needs oxygen. Which of the following would deliver the most accurate concentration
of oxygen?
A. A venturi mask. B. simple face mask. C. nasal prongs. D. partial rebreather mask.
22. Interpret the following blood gases: pH 7.49, PaCO2 26, HCO3 23, PaO2 100.
A. Respiratory acidosis. C. Metabolic acidosis.
B. Respiratory alkalosis. D. Metabolic alkalosis.
23. What level should the collection and suction bottles from a chest tube be kept at in relation to the patient?
A. At the level of the patient’s chest.
B. Above the level of the patient’s chest.
C. At the level as ordered.
D. Below the level of the patient’s chest.
24. A cirrhotic patient vomits bright red blood. He has a systolic blood pressure of 90 mmHg. After an
aggressive fluid resuscitation, 4 units of PRBC and gastric lavage, his pressure is 90 mmHg. What blood
product should also be administered as ordered?
A. Transfuse fresh frozen plasma to aid in restoring the clotting mechanism.
B. Transfuse packed RBCs to aid in the loss of blood.
C. Transfuse whole blood until specific blood products would be ordered.
D. It is not safe to transfuse any blood products at this time.
25. A pregnant woman with right upper quadrant pain should be assumed to have intra-abdominal pathology
until proven otherwise?
A. Hepatomegaly.
B. Acute appendicitis.
C. Acute renal failure.
D. Pancreatitis.
26. NARS is a Training cum Deployment Project, jointly implemented by the Department of Labor and
Employment (DOLE), the Department of Health (DOH) and the Professional Regulation Commission, Board of
Nursing (PRC-BON). The specific objectives of the program include:
I. Provide registered nurses with necessary competencies that encompass both community health
practice as well as clinical skills.
II. Address the shortage of skilled and experienced nurses, both domestic and overseas, through
structured competency development program.
III. Provide deployment opportunities for nurses in rural areas and underserved communities.
IV. Augment the nursing workforce of hospitals and rural health units in identified poor municipalities of
needed clinical and public health nurses.
A. I, II, III B. II, III, IV C. I, III, IV D. I, II, III, IV
27. Nurse applicants who are dependents of workers affected by the Global Crisis (e.g. laid off/rotated, etc.,)
shall be given priority in the NARS selection. Which body is responsible for the recruitment and selection of
nurses for the program?
A. NLPGN
B. DOLE
C. DOH
D. BON
28. Unemployed nurses will be mobilized in their hometowns as warriors for wellness to do the three I's,
except?
A. Initiate primary health, school nutrition, maternal health programs, first line diagnosis
B. Inform about community water sanitation practices and also do health surveillance
 C. Increase public awareness on the availability of home-health services
D. Immunize children and mothers
29. NARS selected RNs will undergo training and development for competency enhancement in accordance
with the training program designed by the DOH in collaboration with the PRC-BON. While on training, the
following shall be applied, except:
A. Nurses will be deployed at an average of 5 per town
B. Each batch will be on six-months tour of duty
C. Nurses will be given a stipend of P8,000.00 per month.
D. The stipend of P8,000 may be decreased by the host LGUs
SITUATION: The Department of Health (DOH) launched the project RN HEALS where unemployed nurses are
deployed to poor communities in the country.
30. RN HEALS seeks to make essential health services available to all Filipinos by training and deploying
10,000 unemployed nurses in communities to be identified by the DOH in collaboration with the DSWD. What
does RN HEALS stand for?
A. Registered Nurses for Health Education and Life Services
B. Registered Nurses for Health Enhancement and Local Service
C. Registered Nurses for Human Education and Life Services
D. Registered Nurses for Health Enhancement and Living Services
31. The following are true about the RN HEALS project:
I. While on deployment, the nurses will be given an allowance of P8,000 a month by the DOH
II. LGUs are encouraged to provide additional allowances and benefits worth at least P2,000 for the
nurses.
III. PhilHealth and the Government Service Insurance System will provide group insurance to the nurses.
IV. The recruitment and selection of nurses shall be under the DOLE
A. I,II B. I,II,III C. II,III,IV D. I,II,III,IV
32. The physician explained to the client’s husband of his wife’s condition that she may only live for less than
two months. The husband interacts with the client as if everything is okay keeping the information to himself.
The husband is using:
A. Open awareness
B. Mutual pretense
C. Suspicious awareness
D. Closed awareness
33. Which type of communication with the dying person refers to closed awareness?
A. The staff keep patient ignorant of his impending death.
B. The patient suspects he is dying and tries to get staff or family to confirm this suspicion.
C. All parties know that the patient is dying but don’t acknowledge it.
D. Acknowledging that the patient is dying and being prepared to talk about it.
34. Which of the following are risk factors in development of complicated grief?
A. Sudden or traumatic death, suicide, homicide, death of a child, multiple losses
B. Sudden or traumatic death, death of an elderly, multiple losses
C. Death from chronic ailment, suicide, homicide, death of a child
D. Death from chronic ailment, death of a family member, multiple losses
35. There were conflicts in the past related to the administration of sedatives and analgesics to a dying person.
Current guidelines involve palliative sedation as a part of end-of-life care, which include:
A. Fentanyl, codeine, ketamine
B. Propofol, diazepam, tegretol, codeine
C. Ketamine, propofol, midazolam, lorazepam
D. Morphine, ketamine, codeine, atropine sulfate
36. The following abbreviations are related to the old DNR, except:
A. DNI – Do Not Intubate
B. DNT – Do Not Transfer/Treat
C. DNH – Do Not Hospitalise
D. DNI – Do Not Initiate
37. How should the nurse position the client’s dead body to prevent distortion?
A. Supine position with no pillow
B. Supine position with a pillow under head and shoulders
 C. Sim’s position
D. Flat on bed with knees flexed
38. Before transferring the dead body to the mortuary, the nurse provides post mortem care with the following
steps:
I. Wash the body of the client
II. Remove all contraptions
III. Secure the client’s personal belongings
IV. Cover and transfer to stretcher
V. Attach identification tags
A. I,II,III,V,IV C. II,III,I,V,IV
B. II,III,I,IV,V D. III,I,II,V,IV

POST MORTEM CARE

BEFORE POST MORTEM CARE:
• Check certification of death
• Note for legal concerns
• Provide privacy
• Hand washing
DURING POST MORTEM CARE:
• Maintain the body in a supine position with head of bed raised at 30 degrees.
• Remove supplies/ tubes/ connections
• Remove jewelries
• Bathe the body
• Identification tags
• Cover with shroud
AFTER POST MORTEM CARE
• After care
• Transfer to stretcher
• Transport to morgue
• Documentation

anesthesia gas:
Methoxyflurane: green
Nitrous oxide: navy blue
Isoflurane: purple
Desflurane: red
Sevoflurane: yellow
Halothane: white
Enflurane: sky blue

Gas tanks:
Compressed air: yellow
nitrogen: black
O2: green
CO2: gray
Venturi specified FIO2
blue: 24%
yellow: 28%
white: 31%
green: 35%
pink: 40%
orange: 50%

silk-black, skin
chromic, CUT GUT, absorbable=brown, subQ, peritoneum, serosa
vicryl-purple, fascia, subcuticular
prolene, nylon= blue, skin, head and neck.