Professional Documents
Culture Documents
[ PHYSICS]
Choose the correct answer :
1. The numbers 2.135 and 2.145 on rounding off to 5. A particle is projected vertically upward with velocity
3 significant figures will be u from a point P. If it comes back to the same point
(1) 2.14 and 2.15 (2) 2.13 and 2.14 after time , choose incorrect option.
(3) 2.14 and 2.14 (4) 2.13 and 2.15 (1) Its average velocity is zero
(1) t1/2
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CBT for AIIMS-2017 Mock Test-1 (Code A)
13. The coefficient of volume expansion of liquid is . The
8. Let F be the force acting on a particle having
fractional change in its density for T fall in
position vector r . Let be the torque of this force
temperature is
about the origin, then
T
(1) r . = 0 and F . = 0 (2) r . = 0 and F . 0 (1) T (2)
(3) r . 0 and F . = 0 (4) r . 0 and F . 0 (3) 1 + T (4) 1 – T
9. In non-inertial frames (if L is angular momentum, I is 14. A body is cooled in 2 minutes in a room at
moment of inertia, is angular velocity and is temperature 30°C from 75°C to 65°C. If the same
torque) body is cooled from 65°C to 55°C in the same room
(1) L = I is valid time taken will be
(1) Less than 2 minutes
dL
(2) = is valid (2) Equal to 2 minutes
dt
(3) More than 2 minutes
(3) Both (1) & (2) are true
(4) None of these
(4) None of these
15. If the mean free path of a gas is doubled then the
10. A drop of radius R is divided into eight equal
droplets. If the surface tension is T, then work done pressure of gas will become (Temperature is
in this process will be constant)
2/20
Mock Test-1 (Code A) CBT for AIIMS-2017
17. Two simple harmonic motions are y1 = A sint and 21. Three charges (each of q) are placed at the vertices
y2 = Acost are superimposed on a particle of of an equilateral triangle. A fourth charge q0 is placed
mass m. The total mechanical energy of the particle q0
is at the center of triangle. The ratio of required to
q
make the system in equilibrium
1 1
(1) m 2 A2 (2) m 2 A2
4 2 (1) 1: 3 (2) 3 :1
3/20
CBT for AIIMS-2017 Mock Test-1 (Code A)
26. Effective capacitance between A and B is 31. The translational degree of freedom for H2 gas is
equal to
C C C (1) 3 (2) 5
A
B
(3) 7 (4) 9
0 I 0 I ⎡ ⎤ 4 5
(3) ⎡⎣ 2 – ⎤⎦ (4) 2+ ⎥ (3) (4)
4 r 4 r ⎢⎣ 4⎦ 5 4
Space for Rough Work
4/20
Mock Test-1 (Code A) CBT for AIIMS-2017
35. In a photocell, with excitation wavelength , the 39. Long distance short wave radio broadcasting uses
faster electron has speed v. If the excitation
(1) Ground wave
3
wavelength is changed to , the speed of the (2) Sky wave
4
fastest electron will be
(3) Direct wave
1 1 (4) Space wave
⎛ 3⎞ 2 ⎛ 4⎞ 2
(1) v ⎜ ⎟ (2) v ⎜ ⎟ 40. A transistor is being used as an audio amplifier, it is
⎝ 4⎠ ⎝ 3⎠
preferably in
(1) 4 (2) 6 (1) If both Assertion & Reason are true and the
reason is the correct explanation of the
(3) 11 (4) 44
assertion, then mark (1).
37. A newly prepared radioactive nuclide has a decay
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are true but the
constant of 10–6s–1. What is the approximate half life
reason is not the correct explanation of the
of the nuclide?
assertion, then mark (2).
(1) 1 hour
(3) If Assertion is true statement but Reason is
(2) 1 day false, then mark (3).
(3) 1 week (4) If both Assertion and Reason are false
(4) 1 month statements, then mark (4).
38. The force acting on the electron in a hydrogen atom 41. A : The time of flight of a body becomes n times the
depends on the principal quantum number as original value if its speed is made n times.
R : This is due to the range of the projectile which
1
(1) F n2 (2) F becomes n times.
n2
42. A : The work done by the spring force in a cyclic
process is zero.
1
(3) F n4 (4) F
n4 R : Spring force is a conservative force.
Space for Rough Work
5/20
CBT for AIIMS-2017 Mock Test-1 (Code A)
43. A : When a spinning ball is thrown it deviates from 51. A : When a magnetic dipole is placed in a non
usual path in flight. uniform magnetic field, only a torque acts on the
dipole.
R : Streamline around the ball experiences a
pressure difference due to the spin of ball. R : Force would also act on dipole if magnetic field
was uniform.
44. A : The value of acceleration due to gravity does not
52. A : Cyclotron does not accelerate electrons.
depend upon the mass of the body.
R : Mass of electrons is very small.
R : Acceleration due to gravity is a constant
quantity. 53. A : EM waves exert radiation pressure.
R : EM waves carry energy.
45. A : Finer the capillary, greater is the height to which
the liquid rises in the tube. 54. A : A beam of white light shows no dispersion on
emerging from a glass slab.
R : This is in accordance with the ascent formula.
R : Dispersion in glass slab is zero.
46. A : Thermodynamic process in nature is irreversible.
55. A : All bright interference bands have same intensity.
R : Dissipative effects cannot be eliminated.
R : All bands receive same light from two sources.
47. A : In a stationary wave, no energy transfer takes
56. A : Photoelectric effect supports the quantum nature
place.
of light.
R : The distance between two consecutive nodes or
R : Photoelectric emission is instantaneous.
antinodes is . 57. A : In exothermic reactions energy is released by a
2
nuclear reaction.
48. A : In a region where uniform electric field exists,
the net charge within volume of any size is zero. R : In these reactions some mass is converted in to
the energy.
R : The electric flux within any closed surface in
58. A : The resistivity of a pure semiconductor
region of uniform electric field is zero.
decreases on doping.
49. A : The lightning conductor at the top of a high
R : Doping causes the reduction in bond strength.
building has sharp pointed ends.
59. A : Amplifiers are used in repeaters.
R : The surface density of charge at a sharp ends
R : Amplifier boosts the signal level which is
is very high resulting in setting up of electric
attenuated over the long distance communication.
wind.
60. A : Each point of wavefront is a source of secondary
50. A : The wire supplying current to an electric heater
disturbance.
is not heated appreciably.
R : Wavefront is the locus of the points which are in
R : Resistance of conducting wires is very high. same phase.
Space for Rough Work
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Mock Test-1 (Code A) CBT for AIIMS-2017
[ CHEMISTRY]
61. How many g-atoms of oxygen are present in 24.5 g 67. Which of the following species has one unpaired
of oil of vitriol? electron in antibonding orbital?
(1) 1 (2) 2 (1) O2 (2) CO+
(3) 3 (4) 4 (3) NO– (4) N2
62. Which of the following have the same empirical 68. Which of the following is intensive property?
formula as benzene?
(1) Enthalpy
(1) Toluene (2) Ethylene
(2) Molar heat capacity
(3) Acetylene (4) Mesitylene
(3) Entropy
63. The approximate diameter of the nucleus of a copper
atom is (4) Heat capacity
(1) 2.8 × 10–11 m (2) 5.32 × 10–15 m 69. The volume of 1 mole of CH4 at NTP is 22.4 L if it
(3) 8.32 × 10–15 m (4) 6.2 × 10–14 m is considered to be an ideal gas. But if CH4 is a real
gas, then its volume at same conditions may be
64. If KE of an electron in a shell of H-atom is 3.4 eV
and 1.89 eV is given to it, then what will be its new (1) 22.1 L
shell?
(2) 22.5 L
(1) 4 (2) 2
(3) 22.7 L
(3) 1 (4) 3
(4) 23.2 L
65. If 3.01 × 1020 gaseous atoms of Na need 0.218 kJ
energy to make them Na+(g) ions, then the value of 70. The ratio of critical volume, co-volume, and volume of
HIE of sodium in kJ is a molecule of a real gas is
66. Geometry of XeF4 is 71. What will be the value of CP if 1 mole of He is mixed
with 1 mole of O2?
(1) Square planar
(2) Octahedral 5 3
(1) R (2) R
(3) Tetrahedral 2 2
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CBT for AIIMS-2017 Mock Test-1 (Code A)
72. For the reaction A (g) B(g) + C(g) + D(g) the total 78. Most stable carbanion is
75. The half life of 13 H is 80. Markovnikov’s rule is not valid for
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 2 : 1 O
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Mock Test-1 (Code A) CBT for AIIMS-2017
82. Atoms of “B” forms CCP lattice and that of “A” 89. Hydraulic washing is used for
occupies all the octahedral void. If half of “B” atoms (1) Ag2S (2) ZnS
present at corner and one-fourth of “A” present at
(3) SnO2 (4) PbS
edge centre are missing then, the new formula is
90. Which of the following can exist in ionic form?
(1) A3.5B3.75 (2) A3.25B3.5
(1) PF5 (2) PCl5
(3) A3.5B4 (4) A13B14
(3) PBr5 (4) Both (2) & (3)
83. In hcp unit cell the perimeter of hexagonal face is
91. Which of the following is radioactive lanthanoid?
12 3 , then the distance between “A” layer and “B” (1) Th (2) U
is
(3) Pm (4) Sm
(1) 2 (2) 3 92. Complex which can show maximum number of
isomers is
(3) 2 2 (4) 3 2
(1) Cr Cl2 Br2 (CN)2 3–
84. Mole fraction of 3 m aqueous solution of urea is
(1) 0.041 (2) 0.051 (2) Cr Cl4 Br2 3–
(3) 0.031 (4) 0.021 (3) Cr F2 Cl2Br2 3–
85. Van’t Hoff factor of 50% dissociated K2SO4 will be
(4) All have same number of isomer
(1) 1 (2) 3 93. Thionyl chloride on reaction with ROH in absence of
(3) 1.5 (4) 2 pyridine follows
86. Which of the following will have highest pH after (1) SN1 (2) SN2
electrolysis? (3) E1 (4) SNi
(1) NaCl(aq) (2) CuSO4 94. In which of the following reaction the intermediate is
neutral?
(3) AgNO3(aq) (4) Both (2) & (3)
(1) Markovnikov’s reaction
87. The percentage amount remaining after three half
lives in a first order reaction is (2) Claisen condensation
(3) Aldol condensation
(1) 25% (2) 75%
(4) Carbylamine reaction
(3) 12.5% (4) 6.25%
95. Hofmann bromamide reaction follows the mechanism
88. Which is most powerful coagulating agent for in which a rearrangement takes place. Same type of
As2S3? rearrangement takes place in
(1) NaCl (2) MgCl2 (1) Wittig reaction (2) Perkin reaction
(3) AlCl3 (4) Na3PO4 (3) Stephen’s reaction (4) Curtius reaction
Space for Rough Work
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CBT for AIIMS-2017 Mock Test-1 (Code A)
96. Nitrobenzene on electrolytic reduction gives different 100. Which of the following is sweetest sugar?
products. The products formed in strongly acidic and
(1) Saccharin (2) Aspartame
weakly acidic medium respectively.
(3) Barbutrate (4) Sucralose
NH2 NH2 NH2 NH2
In the following questions (101 to 120), a statement of
assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R).
(1) (2)
, , (1) If both Assertion & Reason are true and the
reason is the correct explanation of the
OH OH assertion, then mark (1).
NHOH NHOH NH2 NH2 (2) If both Assertion & Reason are true but the
reason is not the correct explanation of the
assertion, then mark (2).
(3) (4)
, ,
OH (3) If Assertion is true statement but Reason is
NH2
false, then mark (3).
OH
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false
97. Final product (D) of the following reaction is
statements, then mark (4).
Cl
HNO3/
101. A : Minimum five C-atoms in alkane is required to
Dow's
process Zn/ H2SO4 LiAlH4 form a chiral compound.
A B C D
R : The terminal C-atom is chiral carbon
O CH3
(1) Aniline (2) Toluidine
18
(3) Azobenzene (4) p-hydroxy aniline 102. A : On hydrolysis of CH3 — C — O — C — CH3 in
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Mock Test-1 (Code A) CBT for AIIMS-2017
105. A : Geometry of NH3 is tetrahedral. 113. A : Simonini reaction involves I2 in place of Br2.
R : Geometry of H2O is tetrahedral. R : Simonini reaction involves the formation of ester.
106. A : When a real gas is taken and its pressure 114. A : In Reimer-Tiemann reaction the product always
becomes double then its volume will not be
contain –OH and CHO group.
exactly half.
R : In Reimer-Tiemann reaction free radical is
R : On doubling the pressure volume can be more or
formed.
less than half depending on nature of gas.
107. A : If in a reaction which is in equilibrium, the 115. A : White phosphorus is more reactive than red
concentration of reactants is increased it moves phosphorus.
forward but the value of Keq remains same.
R : Red phosphorus is more reactive than black
R : The value of Keq is independent of initial and final phosphorus.
concentrations in above case.
116. A : Cl 2 bleaches by oxidation in presence of
108. A : CH 2 CH2 on reduction with LiAlH4 does not moisture.
give CH3 — CH3
R : It forms HOCl on reaction with H2O and gives
R : LiAlH4 is strong reducing agent. nascent oxygen.
109. A : Boron nitride is also called inorganic graphite. 117. A : CO is a strong field ligand.
R : Graphite is aromatic in nature.
R : CO exhibits synergic bonding.
110. A : CH3 — CH2 — O — CH — CH3 is more stable 1
118. A : For first order reaction t1/2 t3/4 .
2
than CH3 — CH2 — CH — CH3
R : t1/2 is independent of initial concentration in first
R : CH 3 CH 2 — CH — CH 3 is resonance stabilized. order.
111. A : Fe < Ni < Co is correct order of atomic mass. 119. A : Specific conductivity increases with the
concentration of solution.
R : Atomic mass always increases across the
period. R : Molar conductivity decreases with the increase
in concentration of solution.
112. A : is an aromatic compound. 120. A : Ideal gas equation is also called equation of
states.
R : Above compound is aromatic due to benzene R : There are infinite number of states of a
ring. substance.
Space for Rough Work
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CBT for AIIMS-2017 Mock Test-1 (Code A)
[BIOLOGY]
121. Satellite chromosomes 125. Closely related species having similar habits and
morphologies often do not occur in the same place.
(1) Have secondary constriction
If they co-exist then they use certain adaptations as
(2) Number is five pairs in human diploid cell strategies to reduce competition. Choose correct
(3) Is deficient in thymine option w.r.t. these strategies.
(4) More than one option is correct (1) Use different resources
122. Choose odd one out w.r.t. wheat variety (2) Active at different times
123. Which of the following have insecticidal properties? (2) Reminiscent of antiquity
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Mock Test-1 (Code A) CBT for AIIMS-2017
129. Highly reduced male and female gametophytes are 133. How many of the given below structures are formed
formed in through dedifferentiation?
(1) Four
(1) All annuals, perennials
(2) Five
(2) All biennials and annuals only
(3) Six
(3) All biennials and annuals and few perennials
(4) Three
(4) All monocarpic and polycarpic plants
134. How many bivalents are present in microsporocyte,
131. A unicellular organism with well defined nucleus was
egg and megasporocyte of maize?
collected by a student from a pond. Choose its
correct classification. (1) 20, 10, 10 (2) 10, 0, 10
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CBT for AIIMS-2017 Mock Test-1 (Code A)
137. Growth hormone involved in hydrolysis of reserve food 142. Which of the following is not part of the non-specific
during seed germination is immune defense?
138. How many ATP and NADPH are required for the 143. Which is false about embryonic development?
synthesis of glucose in maize? (1) Early embryonic development in deuterostomes
is determinant types
(1) 18, 12 (2) 12, 18
(2) The hollow ball like stage is called the blastula
(3) 30, 12 (4) 12, 30
(3) The end of gastrulation is defined by the
139. How many glucose molecules breakdown will occur
formation of primary germ layers
to generate net 56 ATP through aerobic and
anaerobic respiration respectively? (4) The archenteron is the primary gut and its
primary opening is blastopore
(1) 2, 19 (2) 1, 18
144. To isolate ‘Nif ’ gene, which of the following would be
(3) 1.5, 28 (4) 2, 2 needed?
140. Heterospory first originated in (a) Trichoderma culture
(1) Bryophytes (2) Pteridophytes (b) Rhizobium culture
(3) Gymnosperms (4) Angiosperms (c) Chitinase
141. Which of the following is correct about blood type? (d) Lysozyme
(4) Blood type A has A antibodies circulating in the (3) (b), (d), (f) & (g)
plasma (4) (a), (c), (e) & (f)
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Mock Test-1 (Code A) CBT for AIIMS-2017
145. Fill the gaps in the pathway showing hepatic blood 148. Which of the following center is not located in the
flow and return to the heart. hypothalamus?
(1) Thermoregulatory center
A from hepatic artery
Liver (2) Satiety center
B
Nutrient rich blood sinusoids
from hepatic portal (3) Appetite center
vein (4) Respiratory rhythm center
Hepatic
C D 149. Middle piece of the sperm contains
vein
(1) Deoxygenated Bile Inferior Right (2) Centrioles and Golgi body
blood ducts vene cava atrium (3) Axial filament and Golgi body
(2) Oxygenated Central Inferior Right (4) Nebenkern and axial filament
blood vein vene cava atrium
150. Organisms with different evolutionary history having
(3) Oxygenated Central Superior Right same phenotypic adaptations in response to a
blood vein vena cava atrium common environmental challenge is called
(4) Oxygenated Central Superior Left (1) Adaptive radiation (2) Convergent evolution
blood vein vena cava atrium (3) Divergent evolution (4) Natural selection
146. The following structures in different organisms are 151. An organism which is well camouflaged in its
associated with feeding, except surroundings so that it checks detection by its predator
(1) Aristotle’s lantern (1) Is not favoured by natural selection
(2) Radula (2) Leaves fewer progeny
(3) Halteres (3) Has higher fitness
(4) Chelicerae (4) Faces the danger of extinction
147. Which of the following processes by the kidneys is 152. The steroid hormones
the least selective?
(1) Are produced only by adrenal cortex and are
(1) Filtration water soluble
(3) Reabsorption (3) Act by altering the activity of proteins in the target cell
(4) The target of ADH (4) Act by altering gene expression in the target cell
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CBT for AIIMS-2017 Mock Test-1 (Code A)
153. The adaptive immunity has four key features. Which 156. The support staff in a zoology lab mixed up the
of the following is incorrect? description charts of the following organisms :
(1) Fall in estrogen and progesterone levels induce Description charts that match X, Y & Z respectively are:
menstruation (1) I, II & III
(2) Estrogen levels reach highest levels in the (2) II, III & I
follicular phase and progesterone reaches
highest levels in the luteal phase of the ovarian (3) III, I & II
cycle (4) I, III & II
(3) Estrogen is produced by follicle cells 157. By observing the following structure of insulin it is
(4) If fertilization occurs, the corpus luteum is evident that
retained and secretes hCG.
S S
155. If one compares physiology of an elephant and cat A
then S S
S S
(1) The heart beats per minute of a cat will be higher
B
than an elephant
(1) It comprises at least six methionine residues
(2) The total heart beats in the lifetime of an
elephant will be many times that of a cat (2) It comprises at least six cysteine residues
(3) Both cat and elephant will show heart rate (3) It comprises three methionine and three cystine
greater than a chicken residues
(4) Elephant will show greater surface area to (4) It comprises two polypeptide chains of 51 amino
volume ratio as compared to a cat acids in each
Space for Rough Work
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Mock Test-1 (Code A) CBT for AIIMS-2017
158. The body cells in cockroach discharge their nitrogenous In the following questions (161 to 180), a statement of
wastes in the haemolymph mainly in the form of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R).
(1) Calcium carbonate (1) If both Assertion & Reason are true and the
(2) Ammonia reason is the correct explanation of the
assertion, then mark (1).
(3) Potassium urate
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are true but the
(4) Urea
reason is not the correct explanation of the
159. Choose the false statement. assertion, then mark (2).
(1) Inhibition of succinic dehydrogenase by malonate can (3) If Assertion is true statement but Reason is
be reversed by increasing the concentration of
false, then mark (3).
succinate
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false
(2) Non-competitive inhibition occurs when the inhibitor
statements, then mark (4).
and substrate bind at different sites on the enzyme
(3) Inhibition of acetyl cholinesterase by nerve gas 161. A : ‘Bad’ ozone is formed in the lower atmosphere.
can be overcome by increasing the concentration R : Ozone is a greenhouse gas.
of acetylcholine
162. A : Tropics show niche specialisation.
(4) A competitive inhibitor of an enzyme increases Km
without affecting Vmax. R : Environment of tropics is less seasonal,
160. Identify the hormone which is correctly matched with relatively more constant and predictable.
its source and its mechanism of action. 163. A : Succession begins with invasion of a bare
Hormone Source Mode of action lifeless area by pioneers.
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CBT for AIIMS-2017 Mock Test-1 (Code A)
167. A : Xylem channels of heart wood are plugged by 175. A : The immediate source of energy for a muscle
tyloses. contraction is ATP.
R : Tyloses are formed by xylem parenchyma. R : ATP is present in very small amounts which
exhausts in 2-4 seconds during a sprint at top
168. A : P680 is reaction center of PS II.
speed and needs to be rapidly replenished.
R : It is involved in quantum conversion.
176. A : High doses of alcohol induce liver to form too
169. A : Polycistronic structural gene is common in many fat droplets, leading to the disease called
bacteria. cirrhosis.
R : DNA polymerase I has more than one function. R : A cirrhotic liver is less able to stop poisonous
substances in the intestinal blood from reaching
170. A : Consciousness is a defining feature of living
the general circulation.
organisms.
177. A : RNA interference is a recently discovered
R : It is present in all living organisms from
pathway for endogenous gene regulation.
prokaryotes to eukaryotes.
R : Short dsRNA segments trigger an enzyme
171. A : Arachidonic acid has 20 carbon atoms excluding
complex to degrade a target mRNA.
the carboxyl carbon.
178. A : The cardiac muscle fibres act as functional
R : Arachidonic acid is an unsaturated fatty acid
syncytium.
with three double bonds.
R : There are gap junctions present at intercalated
172. A : RBCs are formed in the red bone marrow in the
discs in between adjacent fibres.
adults.
179. A : The diffusing capacity of the lung for a gas is
R : Stem cells in bone marrow are stimulated to form
directly proportional to the surface area of the
RBCs by erythropoietin hormone.
alveolo-capillary membrane and inversely
173. A : Urea is an important osmotic constituent and not proportional to its thickness.
merely an excretory product in shark.
R : In emphysema, diffusing capacity of the lung
R : In sharks, urea is actively absorbed in the decreases due to increase in thickness of
kidneys so as to retain it in the blood and thus alveolo-capillary membrane.
conserve water.
180. A : The glucose monomers in starch are joined by
174. A : In man the thyroid gland has an important role. (1-4) and (1-6) glycosidic linkages.
R : The thyroid hormones stimulate oxidative R : Amylases in saliva and pancreatic juices
metabolism. hydrolyse (1-4) linkages.
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Mock Test-1 (Code A) CBT for AIIMS-2017
[ GENERAL KNOWLEDGE ]
181. Who was the first administrator statesman to 185. Which of the following five-year plans recognized
attempt planning as a means for economic human development as the core of all developmental
development? efforts?
(1) Sir CP Ramaswami Aiyyar (1) Eighth five-year plan (2) Seventh five-year plan
(3) Fifth five-year plan (4) Third five-year plan
(2) M. Visvesvaraya
186. Which of the following plans aimed at improving the
(3) V T Krishnamachari
standard of living?
(4) C Rajagopalachari (1) Third plan (2) Fourth plan
182. An economy is at the take off stage on its path to (3) Fifth plan (4) Sixth plan
development when it
187. At which of the following places was the mining of
(1) Becomes stagnant coal started in 1774?
(4) Many sellers, a few buyers 189. Which Indian state has the largest number of cotton
textile mills?
184. The aim of which of the five-year plans was to
correct the disequilibrium in the economy? (1) Madhya Pradesh (2) Maharashtra
(3) Gujarat (4) West Bengal
(1) First five-year plan
190. Minor ports like Kakinada, Machilipatnam are in
(2) Second five-year plan
which of the following states?
(3) Third five-year plan (1) Tamil Nadu (2) Andhra Pradesh
(4) Fourth five-year plan (3) Maharashtra (4) Karnataka
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CBT for AIIMS-2017 Mock Test-1 (Code A)
(3) OABTLOA (4) TLOABTL 200. If XYP is code as 325, WXZ is coded as 143, MDN
is coded as 769, PWD is coded as 645 and ZDM is
195. K__PCT__CKPCKTC__TPKTP__ coded as 176 then what is the code for XYZN?
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Hints & Solution of Mock Test-1 (Code A) CBT for AIIMS-2017
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CBT for AIIMS-2017 Hints & Solution of Mock Test-1 (Code A)
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Hints & Solution of Mock Test-1 (Code A) CBT for AIIMS-2017
14. Answer (3) 18. Answer (2)
Newton’s law of cooling
Y
V1 =
T1 – T2 ⎛ T + T2 ⎞
=k⎜ 1 – T0 ⎟
t ⎝ 2 ⎠
T T
V2 = =
1 s
kt =
4
V1 Y Y 1
= = = = n
1 V2 T /s ⎛ l ⎞ ⎛ l /n ⎞
k = /minute Y⎜ ⎟ ⎜ ⎟
8 ⎝ l ⎠ ⎝ l ⎠
8 f1 V1
t= minute fv = = n
3 f2 V2
15. Answer (1) 19. Answer (2)
1 ⎛ v ⎞
,Pn ⎜⎝ v + ⎟
n ⎛ v + vs ⎞ 10 ⎠ 11
= 0 ⎜ ⎟ = 0 = = 55 cm
is doubled P is halved
⎝ v ⎠ v 10 0
0.1× 10 – 6
a= ax2 + ay2 = 2 A =
6 × 8.85 × 10 –12
= 1.883 × 103
E = ma22 = m 2 A 2 = m A2 2
1 1 2
2 2 = 1883
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CBT for AIIMS-2017 Hints & Solution of Mock Test-1 (Code A)
=
4 R
2 2
R 2 =
1 Q 2
32. Answer (4)
2 0 32 0 R 2
40
I1 = Irms = = 20 2 A
= 2000 N 2
24. Answer (3) I2 = 10 A
V 1 2 4 I = I12 + I22 = 30 A
Ex = – =– (y – 4x ) = =2
x (1, 1) x 2 (1, 1) 2
33. Answer (3)
V 1 2 1 ⎡1 1 ⎤
Ey = – =– (y – 4x ) = ( – 1) ⎢ – ⎥
y (1, 1) y 2 (1, 1) f R
⎣ 1 R 2⎦
1 ⎛ 2⎞
1 = ( – 1) ⎜ ⎟
= (–2y ) = –1 f ⎝ R⎠
2 (1, 1)
R
2( – 1) =
E = E x iˆ + E y jˆ = 2 iˆ – jˆ V/m f
1
Q 2d C12 V 2 1 0 AV
2 –1<
W = F·d = = d= 2
2 A0 20 A 2 d
3
<
26. Answer (2) 2
and – 1 > 0
>1
A B Ceq = C1 + C2 + C3 = 3C
34. Answer (1)
3 1 D 42D
27. Answer (2) y1 = =
d d
IG G (0.1 I )99 1 4
S= = = 11 =
I – IG I – 0.1 I 2 3
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Hints & Solution of Mock Test-1 (Code A) CBT for AIIMS-2017
35. Answer (4) 39. Answer (2)
Sky wave communication
1 4hc 4 ⎛ hc ⎞ W
mv12 = – W0 = ⎜ – W0 ⎟ + 0
2 3 ⎝
3 ⎠ 3 40. Answer (2)
CE configuration is used for audio amplifier.
1 4⎛1 ⎞ W
mv12 = ⎜ mv 2 ⎟ + 0 41. Answer (3)
2 ⎝
3 2 ⎠ 3
42. Answer (1)
[ CHEMISTRY]
61. Answer (1) 64. Answer (4)
98 g of H2SO4 4 g atoms of oxygen KE = 3.4 eV is in n = 2
24.5 g of H2SO4 1 g atom of oxygen After giving 1.89 eV, n = 3
62. Answer (3) 65. Answer (2)
C:H=1:1 3.01 × 1020 0.218 kJ
63. Answer (2) 6.02 × 1023 436 kJ
1
66. Answer (2)
r = 1.33 × 10 –15 × (A) 3
1
(63.5) 3 F F
= 1.33 × 10 –15 ×
Xe
1.33 × 10 –15 × 4 F F
= 5.32 × 10–15 m
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CBT for AIIMS-2017 Hints & Solution of Mock Test-1 (Code A)
67. Answer (2) 80. Answer (1)
81. Answer (4)
1s2 1s2 2s2 2Pz2 ⎡⎣ 2Px2
2Py2 ⎤⎦ 2s1
NH2 is not a greenhouse gas.
68. Answer (2) 82. Answer (4)
Fact
1 3
69. Answer (1) A=4–3× = 4 – = 3.25
4 4
Vreal < Videal
1 1
70. Answer (1) B=4– = 4 – = 3.5
2 2
VC = 3b and b = 4 × (Volume of molecule)
M.F. is whole number ratio of A and B.
71. Answer (4)
83. Answer (3)
5 7 12
n1(CP )1 + n2 (CP )2 1× 2 R + 1× 2 R R 2r
CP = = = 2
n1 + n2 1+ 1 2
12r = 12 3, r = 3
= 3R
72. Answer (3) Distance between A and B layer is
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Hints & Solution of Mock Test-1 (Code A) CBT for AIIMS-2017
90. Answer (4) 104. Answer (3)
PCl5 [PCl4 ]+ [PCl6] – x and v can’t be zero.
PBr5 [PBr4]+ [Br–] 105. Answer (2)
91. Answer (3) Both are sp3 hybridized.
Pm is radioactive lanthanoid. 106. Answer (1)
92. Answer (1) Boyle’s law is applicable for ideal gases.
CN– is ambidentate ligand. 107. Answer (1)
93. Answer (4) KC is constant.
S Ni is followed in this case. 108. Answer (2)
94. Answer (4) LiAlH4 gives H –.
In this reaction : CCl2 is the intermediate 109. Answer (2)
95. Answer (4) BN and graphite has similar structure.
Rearrangement is 110. Answer (3)
O
CH3 — CH2 — O — CH — CH3 is more stable due
:
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CBT for AIIMS-2017 Hints & Solution of Mock Test-1 (Code A)
[ BIOLOGY ]
121. Answer (4) 141. Answer (3)
13, 14, 15, 21 and 22 chromosomes The transfusion reactions occur when antigens of
122. Answer (4) donor and recipient do not match.
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Hints & Solution of Mock Test-1 (Code A) CBT for AIIMS-2017
[ GENERAL KNOWLEDGE ]
181. Answer (2) 186. Answer (2)
182. Answer (2) 187. Answer (4)
183. Answer (2) 188. Answer (2)
184. Answer (1) 189. Answer (2)
185. Answer (1) 190. Answer (2)
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