Test - 1 (Code-A) (Answers & Hints) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2018

All India Aakash Test Series for Medical - 2018

TEST - 1 (Code A)
Test Date : 06/08/2017

ANSWERS
1. (4) 37. (4) 73. (3) 109. (1) 145. (3)
2. (4) 38. (1) 74. (1) 110. (2) 146. (2)
3. (2) 39. (1) 75. (2) 111. (3) 147. (3)
4. (1) 40. (1) 76. (4) 112. (3) 148. (2)
5. (4) 41. (1) 77. (1) 113. (1) 149. (3)
6. (2) 42. (2) 78. (2) 114. (1) 150. (2)
7. (4) 43. (4) 79. (3) 115. (4) 151. (2)
8. (4) 44. (4) 80. (3) 116. (3) 152. (1)
9. (3) 45. (4) 81. (3) 117. (3) 153. (3)
10. (1) 46. (1) 82. (3) 118. (2) 154. (1)
11. (2) 47. (1) 83. (2) 119. (1) 155. (4)
12. (3) 48. (2) 84. (4) 120. (4) 156. (2)
13. (2) 49. (4) 85. (1) 121. (3) 157. (1)
14. (2) 50. (2) 86. (2) 122. (1) 158. (4)
15. (3) 51. (2) 87. (1) 123. (2) 159. (1)
16. (2) 52. (3) 88. (2) 124. (3) 160. (4)
17. (3) 53. (2) 89. (2) 125. (3) 161. (2)
18. (4) 54. (1) 90. (4) 126. (4) 162. (3)
19. (1) 55. (2) 91. (3) 127. (1) 163. (3)
20. (3) 56. (1) 92. (4) 128. (3) 164. (2)
21. (2) 57. (3) 93. (4) 129. (3) 165. (2)
22. (2) 58. (1) 94. (3) 130. (3) 166. (1)
23. (4) 59. (3) 95. (3) 131. (3) 167. (3)
24. (3) 60. (2) 96. (2) 132. (1) 168. (4)
25. (4) 61. (1) 97. (1) 133. (2) 169. (2)
26. (4) 62. (4) 98. (4) 134. (3) 170. (4)
27. (4) 63. (1) 99. (2) 135. (4) 171. (4)
28. (3) 64. (2) 100. (4) 136. (3) 172. (1)
29. (3) 65. (2) 101. (3) 137. (1) 173. (2)
30. (4) 66. (4) 102. (1) 138. (3) 174. (1)
31. (3) 67. (3) 103. (3) 139. (2) 175. (4)
32. (4) 68. (4) 104. (2) 140. (4) 176. (3)
33. (1) 69. (2) 105. (3) 141. (4) 177. (4)
34. (4) 70. (1) 106. (4) 142. (3) 178. (1)
35. (3) 71. (1) 107. (4) 143. (2) 179. (2)
36. (3) 72. (1) 108. (3) 144. (2) 180. (2)

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 All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2018 Test - 1 (Code-A) (Answers & Hints)

ANSWERS & HINTS

[ PHYSICS]
1. Answer (4) 9. Answer (3)
Farad V = V1 + V2 + V3 + V4 + ……
SI unit of  :
Meter q ⎡1 1 1 1 1 1
⎤
2. Answer (4) V  ⎢      ⎥  2
4  0 ⎣ 1 2 4 8 16 ⎦ 10
Electrostatic lines of force do not form closed loops,
⎡ 1 1 1 1 ⎤
as electrostatic field is a conservative field.  (9  109 )(2  109 ) ⎢1   2  3  4  ⎥  102
⎣ 2 2 2 2 ⎦
3. Answer (2)
N ⎡ ⎤
⎢ 1 ⎥
 [ 1800] ⎢ ⎥
⎢1  1 ⎥
W E
⎣ 2⎦
S
= –3600 Volt
10. Answer (1)
K.E. of -particle = P.E. of the system of -particle
and point charge
80 V 60 V 40 V 20 V
 1 (20  1012 )(2e)
The electric field is uniform. So E does not vary with 18 eV 
position. The direction of electric field is from high 4 0 dmin
potential towards low potential. So, the direction of

E points towards east. 9  109  20  1012  2
dmin  = 2 × 10–2 m = 2 cm
4. Answer (1) 18
5. Answer (4) 11. Answer (2)
1 1 2 1 qE 2 m
Electric field due to short dipole varies as E  3 S at  t ⇒ t
r 2 2 m q
1 t1 m1 q2 4 1 2
For point charge E      
r2  t2 m2 q1 1 2 1
1
For line charge E  12. Answer (3)
r
V   n 2/3V  82/3  2 volt
For large sheet E  r 0
6. Answer (2) = 4 × 2 volt
Electric field line shows directions in which either = 8 volt
static or moving positive charge would accelerate 13. Answer (2)
when passing through points on those lines.
Let Cs is the effective capacitance.
7. Answer (4)
1 1 1 1 1 1 1
When current is flowing in a conductor, then the      
Cs C1 C2 C3 3 6 12
electric field inside that conductor is not zero.
8. Answer (4) 12
 Cs  F
When the Gaussian surface encloses no charge, 7
then the electric flux through that surface is zero.
Charge on C2 = Charge on Cs
Electric field over the Gaussian surface need not be
zero at every point on that surface. C2V2 = CsV

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Test - 1 (Code-A) (Answers & Hints) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2018
18. Answer (4)
⎡12 ⎤
[6 F]V2  ⎢ F ⎥ [14 volt]
⎣7 ⎦ When a charge [–4Q] is given to the spherical shell,
then the electric potentials of solid sphere and
 V2 = 4 volt spherical shell increase by the same amount.
Therefore P.D. between the solid sphere and hollow
14. Answer (2)
sphere remains the same.
Unet = 0
19. Answer (1)
 U12 + U23 + U31 = 0
The charge on each outer face of the two plates is
1 ⎡ q2 ⎤ ⎡ ( 20 C)  ( 60 C) ⎤
 ⎢Qq  Qq  ⎥0 ⎢ ⎥  20 C.
40 (2 cm) ⎢⎣ 2 ⎥⎦ ⎣ 2 ⎦
q2 The charge configuration on the plates A and B is
 2Qq shown below.
2
A B
 q = 2 2Q – +40 C – –20 C
15. Answer (3) + –
– + – –
– + –
1 ⎡ C1C2 ⎤ 2 –
Loss in energy = 2 ⎢ C  C ⎥ (V1  V2 ) + –
⎣ 1 2⎦ –20 C + –40 C –
1 ⎡63⎤ Charge on capacitor, Q = 40 C
 (25  15)2  106
2 ⎢⎣ 6  3 ⎥⎦  PD between the plates A and B is
1 Q 40 C
 [2](40)2  106 = 1600 J V    2 Volt
2 C 20 F
16. Answer (2)
20. Answer (3)
A
     +Q
∫
VA  VB  E. dr  E.[rA  rB ]
B
Q P
   ⎡ iˆ  ˆj ⎤
 E.(rB  rA )  50 2 ⎢ ⎥ .( 4iˆ  2 jˆ) 3R
⎣ 2 ⎦ R
2
= – 300 volt
17. Answer (3) The field at point P due to charge Q within the shell
and charge induced on the inner surface of the shell
⎡ V ⎤ 2 is zero. The field at point P is only, due to the
Ex   ⎢ ⎥  [2 xy  z ]
⎣ x ⎦ induced charge on the outer surface of shell.
⇒ E x ( 1, 1, 1)  1 1 Q 1 Q
 E 
40 ⎡ R⎤
2 40 ⎛ 7R ⎞2
⎡ V ⎤ ⎢ 3R  ⎜ 2 ⎟
Ey   ⎢ 2
⎥   [ x  2yz] ⎣ 2 ⎥⎦ ⎝ ⎠
⎣ y ⎦
21. Answer (2)
⇒ Ey  1
( 1, 1, 1) The Wheatstone bridge is in the balanced condition.
⎡ V ⎤ Ceff = 6 F
Ez   ⎢ ⎥   [  y 2  2zx ]
⎣ z ⎦ 1
Total energy stored, U  Ceff V 2
⇒ E z( 1,1,1)  3 2
 1
E  E x iˆ  E y jˆ  E z kˆ  iˆ  jˆ  3kˆ   [6]  22  12 µJ
2

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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2018 Test - 1 (Code-A) (Answers & Hints)
22. Answer (2) By symmetry, currents through R1 and R4 must be
same
1 Q
For r < R; V  [3R 2  r 2 ] Also, currents through R2 and R3 must be same
40 2R 3
The loop equation for the left loop is
VC 3R 2  02 3 12
    6i – 6i1 – 18i1 + 6i – 12i1 = 0
VD R 2 11 11
3R 2   12i = 36i1
4 4
 i = 3i1
23. Answer (4)
Now Va – Vb = +18(i1) + 6[i – i1] = 6i + 12i1
With C = 7 F, the given network can be drawn as :
= 6i + 4i = 10i
C
C But [Va – Vb] = i Reff
C C 12C  Reff = 10 
C 7
C C a Or
b
C
C C 2R1R2  R1R3  R2 R5
RAB   10 
C C 2R5  R1  R2
a b
C 27. Answer (4)

12C 19C 19 By symmetry, the given circuit can be drawn as :

 Cab  C   (7 F) = 19 F
7 7 7 3
3

3
24. Answer (3)
2 2
Suppose the parallel combination of coils is
connected to a 100 V source. Then the time interval
t taken to generate a heat Q is given by : a 6 6 b
6
1 1 1 1 4 6
   ⇒ t  2 minutes 4
t 12 6 4
But the voltage applied across the parallel 6
combination is 50 Volt. 6

V2
We know that Pconsumed   Pspecified a 12  b  Rab = 3 
Vspecfied
2

12 
Q 502 Q
 
 2
 ⇒ t   4t  4(2) = 8 minutes 28. Answer (3)
t 100 t
Before switch S is closed, the charge on each of the
25. Answer (4)
⎡ 12  4 ⎤
12 F and 4 F capacitors is Q  ⎢ ⎥  9  27 C.
⎡ R2R3  R1R4 ⎤ ⎣12  4 ⎦
Vb  Vd  ⎢ ⎥V
⎣ (R1  R2 )(R3  R4 ) ⎦ The current flowing through the 6  and 3 
⎡ 600  200 ⎤ 9
⎢ ⎥  15 = 4 volt resistors is i = = 1 A. So P.D. across 6 
⎣ (30)(50) ⎦ 63
26. Answer (4) resistor = 6 V and P.D. across 3 resistor = 3 V
R1 = 6  R2 = 18  Now, when the switch S is closed,
i – i1 i1 Charge on 4 F capacitor is 4 × 3 = 12 C
i – 2 i1
R5 = 6  and charge on 12 F capacitor is 12 × 6 = 72 C.
a i b
 Charge flowed from a to b through switch S is
i1 R3 = 18  d i – i1 R4 = 6 
[(+72) – 12] = 60 C

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Test - 1 (Code-A) (Answers & Hints) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2018
29. Answer (3) 33. Answer (1)
Let Re is the effective resistance between a and b. 6 l
The equivalent circuit is  …(i)
Q 100  l
R R
a a
RRe Q l  20
 …(ii)
R Re R + Re 6 80  l
b b
l 80  l
2  
RRe R  2RRe 100  l l  20
Now, Rab  R  ⇒ Re 
R  Re R  Re  l = 40 cm

2 2 ⎡ 5  1⎤ 60
 Re  RRe  R  0 ⇒ Re  ⎢ 2 ⎥ R Now from eq. (ii), Q  6 
40
9
⎣⎢ ⎦⎥
34. Answer (4)
⎡ 5  1⎤ ⎡ 5  1⎤
Re  ⎢ ⎥ [1.235]  ⎢ ⎥ [2.235  1]
⎣⎢ 2 ⎦⎥ ⎣⎢ 2 ⎦⎥ R

⎡ 5  1⎤ 4 A B
⎢ ⎥ [ 5  1]   2  2R
⎣⎢ 2 ⎦⎥ 2

30. Answer (4) 2R 2R

1 2

r1 r2 10  5 5 R
net   
1 1 1 1 2
 A B
r1 r2

5
net
i  2 1A 3R
r1r2 1
R 2
r1  r2 2 3R
RAB 
Since b is at higher potential than a, current flows 4
from b to a. 35. Answer (3)
31. Answer (3)
⎡63⎤
Vab  i1(6)  i 2 (3)  i ⎢ ⎥
At time t = 0 ; capacitor offer zero opposition. ⎣6  3⎦
4 i 2i
So, i   4 mA i1  ; i2 
500  500 3 3
At time t = , capacitor offers infinite opposition.
P3  i22 (3) 43
4   3
So, i   2 mA P4  i12 (4) 1 4
500  1000  500
P.D. across 1000  resistor = 2 × 10–3 × 1000 = 2 V P3  = 3P4  = 3[6]

 Charge on 6 F capacitor = 6 × 2 = 12 C = 18 Joule/second

32. Answer (4) 36. Answer (3)

The branch ab containing the 3  resistor is NOT a 100  100

Resistance of bulb B1 is : R1 =  400 
part of the closed circuit. If current flows in this 25
branch then Kirchoff’s first law will be violated. So no
50  50
current flows through the 3  resistor. Resistance of bulb B2 is : R2 =  50 
50

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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2018 Test - 1 (Code-A) (Answers & Hints)

Third band : Orange = 3

R1 R2
 Multiplier = 103
V1 V2
Last band : Gold : Tolerance = ± 5%
i
 R = [75 × 10+3 ] ± 5%
150 volt 41. Answer (1)

150 1 l lA V
i  A R   2
400  50 3 A A2 A

1 1
V1  iR1   400  133 Volt  R
3 A2
1
V2  iR2   50  16 Volt 1
3
 R
Since V1 is greater than 100 Volt, bulb B1 will blow d4
out.
4 4
37. Answer (4) ⎡d ⎤ ⎡⎤
R2  R1 ⎢ 1 ⎥  16 ⎢ ⎥  16  16
⎣ d2 ⎦ ⎣2⎦
⎡l  l ⎤ ⎡ 160  40 ⎤
r  ⎢ 1 2 ⎥R  ⎢ ⎥2
⎣ l2 ⎦ ⎣ 40 ⎦ = 256 

120
42. Answer (2)
 2  32  6 
40 q ⎡ 1⎤
i  q  fe
38. Answer (1) T ⎢⎣T ⎥⎦
Increase in resistance  increase in temperature
= 5 × 1016 × 1.6 × 10–19
R3  R1 t3  t1
 = 8 × 10–3 A
R2  R1 t2  t1
= 8 mA
R3  5 55C  10C
 43. Answer (4)
10  5 25C  10C
R3 = 20  Ohm’s law is TRUE, when the resistivity of the
material is independent of the applied electric field.
39. Answer (1)
44. Answer (4)
l l 2 l 2 l 2 l2
R    ⇒R
A Al V mass(m ) m J
Vd 
density Mobility,    ne   Constant
E J ne
l12 l2 l2 
R1 : R2 : R3  : 2 : 3
m1 m2 m3
45. Answer (4)
4 9 25
 : : vd
4 2 1 Electron Mobility,  
E
= 4 : 18 : 100
= 2 : 9 : 50 v d v d q0
 
40. Answer (1) F F
q0
First band : Violet = 7
Second band : Green = 5 = [ M–1L0T 2A1 ]

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Test - 1 (Code-A) (Answers & Hints) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2018

[ CHEMISTRY]
46. Answer (1) ⎛ 78 ⎞
Eq. wt. ⎜ ⎟  1 4  60  60
ZM =  I  t  ⎝ 30 ⎠  0.387 g
d 96500 96500
NA  V
53. Answer (2)
4  21.76 1 1
d  0.668 g/cm3 Conductance (G)  
6.022  1023  (216.3  10 24 ) R 200
47. Answer (1) ⎛ l ⎞
K  G⎜ ⎟
For fold axis of symmetry : Diagonal plane of ⎝A⎠
symmetry = 3 : 6 = 1 : 2 ⎛ l ⎞ 0.015
⎜ ⎟  Cell constant =  200  3 cm1
48. Answer (2) ⎝A⎠ 1
 = icRT 54. Answer (1)
 i At anode : 2H2O(l)  4H+ (aq) + O2(g) + 4e–
At cathode : Cu2+ (aq) + 2e–  Cu(s)
0.38 iAB2
 ⇒ iAB2  2.37 0.1 63.5
0.16 1 Loss in weight of Cu   3.175 g
2
49. Answer (4)
0.1 32
Henry law, is p = KHx Loss in weight of O2   0.8
4
x = mole fraction of dissolved gas
 Total loss in weight = 3.175 + 0.8
p = Partial pressure of gas
= 3.975
 log p = log KH + log x
Weight of final solution = 100 – 3.975
log x = log p – log KH
= 96.025 g
50. Answer (2)
Acetone and aniline mixture show negative deviation. 55. Answer (2)

51. Answer (2)  t1/2 1 ⎛a ⎞

n1

 ⎜ 2⎟
 t1/2 2 ⎝ a1 ⎠
MnO4  8H  5e 
 Mn2  4H2O
n1
According to Nernst equation 75 ⎛ 2 ⎞
⎜ ⎟
150 ⎝ 1 ⎠
0.0591 ⎡ 1 ⎤
ERP  ERP
o
 log ⎢  8 ⎥  2–1 = 2n–1
5 ⎣ [H ] ⎦
–1 = n – 1
o
ERP  ERP (change in oxidising powder)  n=0

0.0591 1 So it is zero order reaction.

 log  0.38
5 1 (104 )8 56. Answer (1)

So oxidising power changed by 0.38 V. (1) Zero order

52. Answer (3) (2) First order

(3) First order
1 4
C 6 H6  C O2 (4) Pseudo First order
57. Answer (3)
n-factor = 5 × 6 = 30
Temperature distribution curve for K.E. of gas
W = ZIt molecules

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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2018 Test - 1 (Code-A) (Answers & Hints)
58. Answer (1) 67. Answer (3)

2.303 100 ZM

t93.75  t1/2 log d
0.693 6.25 a3  NA

2.303 Z M
t 93.75  t log 16 a3 
2.303  0.3010 1/2 d  NA
t1/2 Z = 4, M = 58 g/mol, d = 3.48 g/cm3
t 93.75  4 log 2
0.3010
4  58 232
t93.75 = 4 t1/2 a3  
3.48  6.023  1023 20.95  1023
59. Answer (3)
= 110 × 10–24 cm3
Fact
a = 4.79 × 10–8 cm
60. Answer (2)
Inter ionic distance =
Edge Length of original cube = 1 m = 103 mm
a 4.79  10 8
Total surface area of cube = 6 × (103)2 = 6 × 106 mm2 r+ + r–    2.395  10 8 cm
2 2
When cube is Broken into cubes of edge length 1 mm
then 109 cubes will be obtained due to constant volume. 68. Answer (4)
Total surface area = 109 ×6× (1)2 =6× 109 mm2 Fact
Increase in surface area = 6 × 109/ 6 × 106 = 103 69. Answer (2)
61. Answer (1) For depression in freezing point
Coagulating power More charge
1000  K f  w
62. Answer (4) Tf 
m  W(H2O)
Butter is the example of liquid in solid.
63. Answer (1) Tf = 9.3, w = 65, K f  1.86 mGlycol = 62
1000  1.86  65
Finally divided iron(catalyst) 9.3 
N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g) 62  W
Molybdenum (promoter) Wwater = 209.67 g
200 bar
723 - 773 K The mass of ice separated = 250 – 209.67 = 40.33 g
64. Answer (2) 70. Answer (1)
 = iCRT
x aP
Langmuir Adsorption Isotherm, 
m 1  bP i for
65. Answer (2)
Fact Al2(SO4)3 CaSO4 CaCl2 Glucose
⇒

66. Answer (4)

5 2 3 1
In CCP (FCC) lattice,
71. Answer (1)
1 unit cell contain = 1 atom 3 atom  4 atoms
(Corner ) (face centre)
Po  P n
Raoult’s law, 
2 P o nN
Atoms removed from face centre = 3   2 atom
3
Since atoms become half so occupied space will ⎛1⎞
0.1 ⎜ ⎟
 ⎝m⎠ ⇒ m  99.9
1 100 ⎛ 1 ⎞ ⎛ 180 ⎞
become half that is = 74   37%
2 ⎜ ⎟⎜ ⎟
⎝ m ⎠ ⎝ 18 ⎠

8/13
Test - 1 (Code-A) (Answers & Hints)
72. Answer (1)
Larger the Ea, slower will be rate of reaction.
All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2018
M (H2O) 0.0134  10 4
Degree of dissociation    (H O)  547
M 2

⎛ E ⎞
lnk  ⎜ a ⎟ = 0.000024 × 10–4
⎝ RT ⎠
In above reaction, temperature effect of A is largest. = 2.4 × 10–9

73. Answer (3) 80. Answer (3)

H During charging of Lead Storage battery
kf
 e RT
kb PbSO 4  2e   Pb  SO 42 
H
kb
 e RT PbSO 4  2H2 O  PbO 2  4H  SO 42   2e 
kf
81. Answer (3)
74. Answer (1)
Cell reactions is 2Ag+ + Cu  Cu2+ + 2Ag
K Ea ⎛ T2  T1 ⎞
log 2 
K1 2.303 R ⎜⎝ T1T2 ⎟⎠ º
Ecell = 0.80 – 0.34 = 0.46

Ea 10 Apply Nernst equation :

log 2  
2.303  8.314 298  308
0.0591 [Cu2 ]
Ea = 52.89 kJ Ecell  Ecell
º
 log
2 [Ag ]2
75. Answer (2)
Extent of adsorption Critical temperature (Tc) 0.0591 1.5  10 4
Ecell  0.46  log
Gas Critical temperature (K) 2 (4.5  10 4 )2
N2 126
Ecell = 0.375
CH4 190
G = –nFE = –2 × 96500 × 0.375 = –72375 J
HCl 324
82. Answer (3)
NH3 406
Let r = k(P)x (Q)y
76. Answer (4)
Case-I : r = k(3P)x (Q)y
1
x x 1 Case-II : 4r = k(P)x (2Q)y
 KP n
 log  log K  log P
m m n
On solving, x = 0, y = 2
77. Answer (1)
83. Answer (2)
CdS is negatively charged sol.
nEocell 2  0.591
78. Answer (2) log(K c )    20
0.0591 0.0591
Oxidising power  ESRP
º
Kc = 1020
79. Answer (3) 84. Answer (4)
As the concentration of pure water is 55.56 M Each oxide ion surrounded by 8 Na+ in ccp lattice
and each Na+ is surrounded by 4 O–2 ion in ccp
  1000 0.75  107  1000
M (H2O, 55.66 M)   lattice.
M 55.56
85. Answer (1)
= 0.0134 × 10–4 ohm–1 cm2 mol–1
Anode: 2I–  2e– + I2
For the dissociation of H2O
Cathode: M+n +ne–  M
    
 (H2O)   (H )   (OH ) I2
M M M
and S2 O32    S 4 O26 
= 349.8 + 197.2 = 547 ohm–1 cm2 mol–1 (Hypo)
(n-factor 1)

9/13
All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2018 Test - 1 (Code-A) (Answers & Hints)

Eq. of metal = Eq of I2 = Eq. of hypo n

  CRT   RT
V(lit)
0.75 45  (0.20  1)
 Emetal = 83.33
E 1000 ⎛ 8 ⎞
⎜ ⎟  0.0821 300
86. Answer (2)   ⎝ 60 ⎠  32.84 atm
100  103
   
M  (K   
) (C O2  )
 (Na 
)
89. Answer (2)
2 4
i = 1 + 3  1 + 3 × 0.8 = 3.4
= 52.3 + 150.2 + 74.5 = 277 –1 cm2 mol–1
Tb = i Kb m = 3.4 × 0.52 × 0.1 = 0.1768

  277 BP of solution = 373 + 0.1768 = 373.17 K
Eq  M
  138.5 1cm2 eq1
n-factor 2 90. Answer (4)
87. Answer (1) 1
Freezing point of solution 
o i
E  0 V (This is by convention.)
H |H2
[Co(H2O)6]Cl3 , i=4
88. Answer (2) [Co(H2O)5Cl]Cl2·H2O, i=3
w=8g [Co(H2O)4Cl2]Cl·2H2O, i=2
V = 100 × 10–3 L [Co(H2O)3Cl3]·3H2O, i=1

[ BIOLOGY]
91. Answer (3) 97. Answer (1)
Life span is the period from birth to the natural death AABBCC = 80 g
of an organism. Mango tree lives for 200 years while aabbcc = 20 g
peepal has a life span of about 2500 years. Mayfly
60
life span is just one day.  Contribution of each dominant allele =  10 g
6
92. Answer (4) AaBbCc = (3 × 10) + 20 = 50 g
Organism’s habitat, its physiology and several other AaBBCc = (4 × 10) + 20 = 60 g
factors are collectively responsible for how it
aaBbCC = (3 × 10) + 20 = 50 g
reproduces. High specific gravity is characteristic
feature of non-living objects. Aabbcc = (1 × 10) + 20 = 30 g

93. Answer (4) 98. Answer (4)

Zygote becomes thick walled structure zygospore
Asexual reproduction can occur through
during unfavourable conditions like desiccation. It is
unspecialised or specialised parts of a parent.
found in some algae and fungus.
94. Answer (3) 99. Answer (2)
Zoospores are microscopic, motile and endogenous Autosomal recessive trait e.g., Thalassemia.
spores that move by means of flagella. Zoospores in
100. Answer (4)
Chlamydomonas are pyramid shaped anteriorly
flagellated and resemble to their parent cell and Interflowering period in polycarpic plants is a
develop during favourable condition. recovery phase. It is a mature phase and not the
juvenile phase.
95. Answer (3)
101 Answer (3)
In Kalanchoe vegetative reproduction is by leaves 102. Answer (1)
having adventitious buds.
Butterfly – 380
96. Answer (2)
Rat – 42
Water hyacinth is highly invasive aquatic weed found
Onion – 16
growing in standing/stagnant water
Fruit fly – 8

10/13
Test - 1 (Code-A) (Answers & Hints)
103. Answer (3)
Zygote is product of syngamy. It is first cell of new
generation and is always diploid. It is vital link
between two successive generations (gametophytic
and sporophytic) and ensures continuity of species.
Pollen grains are carriers of male gametes.
104. Answer (2)
Cytoplasmic inheritance (Mitochondrial inheritance).
105. Answer (3)
It is not essential that all the traits are equally
influenced.
106. Answer (4)
The anther is tetragonal structure with two
microsporangia in each lobe, hence four
microsporangia which are located at corners in each
lobe.
107. Answer (4)
Endomitosis – After DNA replication the splitting of
chromosomes occur inside the intact nuclear
membrane without the formation of spindle.
Restitution nucleus – It involves normal mitosis upto
anaphase but the chromosomes at two poles get
surrounded by a common nuclear membrane so as
to form a restitution nucleus.
Polyteny – If DNA replication is not accompanied by
splitting of chromosomes, polytenic chromosome are
formed.
108. Answer (3)
109. Answer (1)
110. Answer (2)
111. Answer (3)
In 60 percent of angiosperms, pollen grains are shed
at 2-celled stage i.e. vegetative cell and generative
cell.
112. Answer (3)
One of the hypodermal cell of nucellus in the
micropylar region act as megaspore mother cell.
113. Answer (1)
To form a Polygonum type of embryo sac 1
megaspore mother cell undergoes meiotic division to
form 4 megaspores. Out of 4 megaspores 3
degenerate and only one is functional, the functional
megaspore undergoes 3 mitotic generations to form
(3, 2, 3)/(3 + 2 + 3) an embryo sac.
Hence for 3 Polygonum type of embryo sac their will
be 3 meiotic divisions and 9 mitotic generations.
All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2018
114. Answer (1)
Ategmic ovule – lack integument e.g. – Santalum,
Loranthus.
115. Answer (4)
In Mulberry, staminate and pistillate flowers are
present on separate plant body (i.e. dioecious)
hence favour xenogamy (cross pollination).
116. Answer (3)
Self-incompatibility is a genetic mechanism to prevent
inbreeding depression. In this case, the same
genetic pollen (from the same flower or other flowers
of the same plant) do not fertilise the ovules by
inhibiting pollen germination or pollen tube growth in
the pistil.
117. Answer (3)
Pollen recognition is followed by promotion or
inhibition of the pollen grain.
118. Answer (2)
In wind pollinated flowers pollen grains are minute,
light and non-sticky. They form compact
inflorescence and stamens are well-exposed
consists of large feathery stigma and single ovule in
each ovary.
119. Answer (1)
Pollination in Nelumbo (lotus) is by entomophily (by
insects).
120. Answer (4)
Dormancy and dehydration of mature seed are
crucial for storage of seeds.
121. Answer (3)
Mendel’s experiments had a large sampling size,
which gave greater credibility to the data that he
collected.
122. Answer (1)
 Carl Correns gave law form to Mendelian
principles.
 Heterozygous parent (Tt) produces two kinds of
gametes during gametogenesis with each allele
equally distributed, it states the law of
Segregation.
 Two alleles of a gene pair are located on
homologous chromosomes but on homologous
sites.
 Movement of chromosomes to the poles occur
during meiosis as well as mitosis.
123. Answer (2)
Number of genotypes  3n; n is no. of hybrid
11/13
All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2018 Test - 1 (Code-A) (Answers & Hints)

124. Answer (3) 133. Answer (2)

Phenotype of hybrid is intermediate of the parents. w+ w m+ m = 66
w w m m = 60
125. Answer (3)
w+ w m m = 39
n(n  1)
Number of genotype in multiple allele  w w m+ m = 35
2
Number of recombinants = 39 + 35  74
n = Number of multiple alleles
Number of parental types= 66 + 60 = 126
10 (10  1) 110 Total number of progeny = 126 + 74 = 200
   55
2 2  Frequency of recombinant
126. Answer (4) No. of recombinants
  100
Complementary gene – 9:7 Total no. of progeny
Recessive epistasis – 9:3:4 74
  100
Polymeric gene – 9:6:1 200
37 cM
Duplicate gene – 15 : 1
134. Answer (3)
127. Answer (1)
Mendelian dihybrid phenotypic cross ratio is In butterfly sex determination is zz – zo .
9 1
9 : 3 : 3 : 1, out of which is parental
16 In silkworm sex determination is zz – zw .
⎛ 10 ⎞ 33
proportion ⎜ ⎟ and is recombinant 135. Answer (4)
⎝ 16 ⎠ 16
If the modified allele produces non-functional enzyme
⎛ 6 ⎞ or no enzyme at all, it will be not equivalent to
proportion ⎜ ⎟ .
⎝ 16 ⎠ unmodified allele.

128. Answer (3) 136. Answer (3)

ZIFT - Zygotic Intra Fallopian Transfer.
(2n – 1) gametic combination cause monosomy in
which an individual has one chromosome less from 137. Answer (1)
its complete set of chromosome e.g., Turner’s Menstrual cycle present in all primates.
syndrome (44 + XO). 138. Answer (3)
129. Answer (3) 139. Answer (2)
Parental types 98.7% 140. Answer (4)

Recombinant types 1.3% 141. Answer (4)

IUDs need to be inserted with help of a
130. Answer (3)
Gynaecologist normally.
131. Answer (3) 142. Answer (3)
Burkitt lymphoma is a type of lymph cancer caused Spermatid conversion into sperm is called
due to reciprocal translocation between 14th and 8th spermiogenesis.
chromosome. 143. Answer (2)
132. Answer (1) Acrosome is derived from Golgi body.
Mother should be carrier and father should be 144. Answer (2)
haemophilic. Formation of sperms is called spermatogenesis.
h h
x x xy 145. Answer (3)
h h h h
x x xy x x xy
haemophilic female Embedding of blastocyst in the endometrium is
called implantation.

12/13
Test - 1 (Code-A) (Answers & Hints)
146. Answer (2)
Ovulatory hormone is luteinizing hormone.
147. Answer (3)
Antifertilizins are present in male gamete.
All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2018
163. Answer (3)
Gonorrhoea is caused by Neisseria gonorrhoea.
164. Answer (2)
Meiosis starts in primary oocyte.

148. Answer (2) 165. Answer (2)

149. Answer (3) Formation of corpus luteum during menstrual cycle

and formation of placenta during pregnancy occur to
150. Answer (2) release hormones.
Abdominal testes present in elephant. 166. Answer (1)
151. Answer (2) Embryonic development has main four steps,
Zygote, morula, blastula and gastrula.
Primary sex organs produce gametes and also
secrete sex hormones. 167. Answer (3)
152. Answer (1) 168. Answer (4)
Labia minora are homologous to penile urethra. Placental hormones are hCG, progesterone, hPL and
oestrogen.
153. Answer (3)
169. Answer (2)
100% foetal blood is present in umbilical cord.
GIFT & ZIFT are ART techniques.
154. Answer (1)
170. Answer (4)
Estrogen, LH and FSH are at high level on 14th
Condoms, Female condoms, diaphragms and
day / day of ovulation.
cervical caps are barriers for birth control.
155. Answer (4) 171. Answer (4)
Zygote divides completely into two blastomeres in Saheli was prepared by CDRI, Lucknow.
holoblastic cleavage.
172. Answer (1)
156. Answer (2)
Menarche is onset of menstruation.
Scrotum helps in maintaining the low temperature.
173. Answer (2)
157. Answer (1) After ovulation, secondary oocyte has two extra
Vasectomy and tubectomy are surgical methods. layers, Zona pellucida and Corona radiata.
158. Answer (4) 174. Answer (1)
Low sperm motility is called Asthenozoospermia. Infundibulum has ostium.
159. Answer (1) 175. Answer (4)

Corpus luteum secretes progesterone, oestrogen and One prostate gland is present in Humans.
relaxin. 176. Answer (3)
160. Answer (4) 177. Answer (4)
Liver and thymus gland both are endodermal in IgA antibody is present in colostrum.
origin. 178. Answer (1)
161. Answer (2) Tubal pregnancy is most common ectopic pregnancy.
Haemochorial placenta is present in Humans. 179. Answer (2)
162. Answer (3) 180. Answer (2)
Cortical granules form permanent block to Yolk sac - site of formation of RBCs in initial stages
polyspermy. of embryonic development.

  

13/13
Test - 1 (Code-B) (Answers & Hints) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2018

All India Aakash Test Series for Medical - 2018

TEST - 1 (Code B)
Test Date : 06/08/2017

ANSWERS
1. (4) 37. (3) 73. (1) 109. (3) 145. (4)
2. (4) 38. (4) 74. (4) 110. (3) 146. (4)
3. (4) 39. (4) 75. (1) 111. (4) 147. (2)
4. (2) 40. (2) 76. (2) 112. (1) 148. (4)
5. (1) 41. (4) 77. (3) 113. (1) 149. (3)
6. (1) 42. (1) 78. (1) 114. (3) 150. (1)
7. (1) 43. (2) 79. (3) 115. (3) 151. (2)
8. (1) 44. (4) 80. (1) 116. (2) 152. (2)
9. (4) 45. (4) 81. (2) 117. (1) 153. (3)
10. (3) 46. (4) 82. (1) 118. (3) 154. (3)
11. (3) 47. (2) 83. (2) 119. (4) 155. (2)
12. (4) 48. (2) 84. (3) 120. (4) 156. (4)
13. (1) 49. (1) 85. (2) 121. (3) 157. (1)
14. (4) 50. (2) 86. (2) 122. (2) 158. (4)
15. (3) 51. (1) 87. (4) 123. (3) 159. (1)
16. (4) 52. (4) 88. (2) 124. (1) 160. (2)
17. (3) 53. (2) 89. (1) 125. (3) 161. (4)
18. (3) 54. (3) 90. (1) 126. (4) 162. (1)
19. (4) 55. (3) 91. (4) 127. (2) 163. (3)
20. (4) 56. (3) 92. (3) 128. (4) 164. (1)
21. (4) 57. (3) 93. (2) 129. (1) 165. (2)
22. (3) 58. (2) 94. (1) 130. (2) 166. (2)
23. (4) 59. (1) 95. (3) 131. (3) 167. (3)
24. (2) 60. (4) 96. (3) 132. (3) 168. (2)
25. (2) 61. (2) 97. (3) 133. (4) 169. (3)
26. (3) 62. (1) 98. (3) 134. (4) 170. (2)
27. (1) 63. (3) 99. (1) 135. (3) 171. (3)
28. (4) 64. (1) 100. (4) 136. (2) 172. (2)
29. (3) 65. (1) 101. (3) 137. (2) 173. (2)
30. (2) 66. (1) 102. (3) 138. (1) 174. (3)
31. (3) 67. (2) 103. (2) 139. (4) 175. (4)
32. (2) 68. (4) 104. (1) 140. (3) 176. (4)
33. (2) 69. (3) 105. (3) 141. (4) 177. (2)
34. (3) 70. (4) 106. (4) 142. (1) 178. (3)
35. (2) 71. (2) 107. (1) 143. (2) 179. (1)
36. (1) 72. (2) 108. (2) 144. (1) 180. (3)

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 All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2018 Test - 1 (Code-B) (Answers & Hints)

ANSWERS & HINTS

[ PHYSICS]
1. Answer (4) Third band : Orange = 3
 Multiplier = 103
vd
Electron Mobility,   Last band : Gold : Tolerance = ± 5%
E
 R = [75 × 10+3 ] ± 5%
v d v d q0
  7. Answer (1)
F F
q0 l l 2 l 2 l 2 l2
R    ⇒R
A Al V mass(m ) m
= [ M–1L0T 2A1 ] density
2. Answer (4) l12 l2 l2
R1 : R2 : R3  : 2 : 3
m1 m2 m3
J
Vd ne  4 9 25
Mobility,      Constant  : :
E J ne 4 2 1
 = 4 : 18 : 100
= 2 : 9 : 50
3. Answer (4)
8. Answer (1)
Ohm’s law is TRUE, when the resistivity of the
material is independent of the applied electric field. Increase in resistance  increase in temperature

4. Answer (2) R3  R1 t3  t1

R2  R1 t 2  t1
q ⎡ 1⎤
i  q  fe R3  5 55C  10C
T ⎢⎣T ⎥⎦ 
10  5 25C  10C
= 5 × 1016 × 1.6 × 10–19 R3 = 20 
=8× 10–3 A 9. Answer (4)
= 8 mA
⎡l  l ⎤ ⎡160  40 ⎤
5. Answer (1) r  ⎢ 1 2 ⎥R  ⎢ ⎥2
l
⎣ 2 ⎦ ⎣ 40 ⎦
l lA V
R   2 120
A A2 A  2  32  6 
40
1
 R 10. Answer (3)
A2
100  100
1 Resistance of bulb B1 is : R1 =  400 
 R 25
d4
50  50
4 4 Resistance of bulb B2 is : R2 =  50 
⎡d ⎤ ⎡⎤ 50
R2  R1 ⎢ 1 ⎥  16 ⎢ ⎥  16  16
⎣ d2 ⎦ ⎣2⎦
R1 R2
= 256 
V1 V2
6. Answer (1)
i
First band : Violet = 7
Second band : Green = 5 150 volt

2/13
Test - 1 (Code-B) (Answers & Hints) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2018
14. Answer (4)
150 1
i  A The branch ab containing the 3  resistor is NOT a
400  50 3
part of the closed circuit. If current flows in this
1 branch then Kirchoff’s first law will be violated. So no
V1  iR1   400  133 Volt
3 current flows through the 3  resistor.

1 15. Answer (3)

V2  iR2   50  16 Volt
3 At time t = 0 ; capacitor offer zero opposition.
Since V1 is greater than 100 Volt, bulb B1 will blow 4
out. So, i   4 mA
500  500
11. Answer (3) At time t = , capacitor offers infinite opposition.
⎡63⎤
Vab  i1(6)  i 2 (3)  i ⎢ ⎥ 4
⎣6  3⎦ So, i   2 mA
500  1000  500
i 2i
i1  ; i2  P.D. across 1000  resistor = 2 × 10–3 × 1000 = 2 V
3 3
 Charge on 6 F capacitor = 6 × 2 = 12 C
P3  i22 (3) 43 16. Answer (4)
  3
P4  i12 (4) 1 4 1 2

r r2 10  5 5
P3  = 3P4  = 3[6] net  1  
1 1 1 1 2
= 18 Joule/second 
r1 r2
12. Answer (4)
R 5
net
i  2 1A
A B r1r2 1
2R R 2
r1  r2 2
Since b is at higher potential than a, current flows
2R 2R from b to a.
R
17. Answer (3)
A B Let Re is the effective resistance between a and b.
The equivalent circuit is

R R
3R a a
RRe
3R R Re
RAB  R + Re
4 b b
13. Answer (1)
RRe R 2  2RRe
6 l Now, Rab  R  ⇒ Re 
 …(i) R  Re R  Re
Q 100  l
Q l  20 2 2 ⎡ 5  1⎤
 …(ii)  Re  RRe  R  0 ⇒ Re  ⎢ 2 ⎥ R
6 80  l ⎣⎢ ⎦⎥

l 80  l ⎡ 5  1⎤ ⎡ 5  1⎤
  Re  ⎢ ⎥ [1.235]  ⎢ ⎥ [2.235  1]
100  l l  20
⎣⎢ 2 ⎦⎥ ⎣⎢ 2 ⎦⎥
 l = 40 cm
⎡ 5  1⎤ 4
⎢ ⎥ [ 5  1]   2 
60 2 2
Now from eq. (ii), Q  6  9 ⎣⎢ ⎦⎥
40

3/13
All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2018 Test - 1 (Code-B) (Answers & Hints)
18. Answer (3) But [Va – Vb] = i Reff
Before switch S is closed, the charge on each of the  Reff = 10 
⎡ 12  4 ⎤ Or
12 F and 4 F capacitors is Q  ⎢ ⎥  9  27 C.
⎣12  4 ⎦ 2R1R2  R1R3  R2 R5
The current flowing through the 6  and 3  RAB   10 
2R5  R1  R2
9 21. Answer (4)
resistors is i = = 1 A. So P.D. across 6 
63
resistor = 6 V and P.D. across 3 resistor = 3 V ⎡ R2R3  R1R4 ⎤
Vb  Vd  ⎢ ⎥V
Now, when the switch S is closed, ⎣ (R1  R2 )(R3  R4 ) ⎦
Charge on 4 F capacitor is 4 × 3 = 12 C ⎡ 600  200 ⎤
⎢ ⎥  15 = 4 volt
and charge on 12 F capacitor is 12 × 6 = 72 C. ⎣ (30)(50) ⎦
22. Answer (3)
 Charge flowed from a to b through switch S is
[(+72) – 12] = 60 C Suppose the parallel combination of coils is
connected to a 100 V source. Then the time interval
19. Answer (4)
t taken to generate a heat Q is given by :
By symmetry, the given circuit can be drawn as :
1 1 1 1
3    ⇒ t  2 minutes
t 12 6 4
3

3
But the voltage applied across the parallel
2 2
combination is 50 Volt.

V2
a 6 6 b We know that Pconsumed   Pspecified
6 Vspecfied
2

4 6
4
Q 502 Q
 
 2
 ⇒ t   4t  4(2) = 8 minutes
6 t 100 t
6 23. Answer (4)
With C = 7 F, the given network can be drawn as :
a 12  b  Rab = 3  C
12 
C
C C 12C
20. Answer (4)
C 7
R1 = 6  R2 = 18  C C a b
C
i – i1 i – 2 i1 i1 C C
R5 = 6  C C
a i b a b
C

i1 R3 = 18  d i – i1 R4 = 6  12C 19C 19
 Cab  C   (7 F) = 19 F
By symmetry, currents through R1 and R4 must be 7 7 7
same
24. Answer (2)
Also, currents through R2 and R3 must be same
1 Q
The loop equation for the left loop is For r < R; V  [3R 2  r 2 ]
40 2R 3
6i – 6i1 – 18i1 + 6i – 12i1 = 0
 12i = 36i1 VC 3R 2  02 3 12
   
VD R 2 11 11
 i = 3i1 2
3R 
4 4
Now Va – Vb = +18(i1) + 6[i – i1] = 6i + 12i1
= 6i + 4i = 10i

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Test - 1 (Code-B) (Answers & Hints) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2018
25. Answer (2) 29. Answer (3)
The Wheatstone bridge is in the balanced condition.
⎡ V ⎤ 2
Ex   ⎢ ⎥  [2 xy  z ]
Ceff = 6 F ⎣ x ⎦
1 ⇒ E x ( 1, 1, 1)  1
Total energy stored, U  Ceff V 2
2
1 ⎡ V ⎤ 2
  [6]  22  12 µJ Ey   ⎢ ⎥   [ x  2yz]
2 ⎣ y ⎦
26. Answer (3) ⇒ Ey  1
( 1, 1, 1)
+Q
⎡ V ⎤ 2
Ez   ⎢ ⎥   [  y  2zx ]
⎣ z ⎦
Q P
⇒ E z( 1,1,1)  3
3R 
R
2 E  E x iˆ  E y ˆj  E z kˆ  iˆ  jˆ  3kˆ

The field at point P due to charge Q within the shell 30. Answer (2)
and charge induced on the inner surface of the shell A    
is zero. The field at point P is only, due to the
induced charge on the outer surface of shell.
∫
VA  VB  E. dr  E.[rA  rB ]
B

1 Q 1 Q    ⎡ iˆ  ˆj ⎤
 E   E.(rB  rA )  50 2 ⎢ ⎥ .( 4iˆ  2 jˆ)
40 ⎡ R⎤
2 40 ⎛ 7R ⎞2 ⎣ 2 ⎦
⎢ 3R  ⎜ 2 ⎟
⎣ 2 ⎥⎦ ⎝ ⎠ = – 300 volt

27. Answer (1) 31. Answer (3)

The charge on each outer face of the two plates is 1 ⎡ C1C2 ⎤ 2

Loss in energy = 2 ⎢ C  C ⎥ (V1  V2 )
⎡ ( 20 C)  ( 60 C) ⎤ ⎣ 1 2⎦

⎢ 2 ⎥  20 C.
⎣ ⎦ 1 ⎡63⎤
 (25  15)2  106
The charge configuration on the plates A and B is 2 ⎢⎣ 6  3 ⎥⎦
shown below.
1
 [2](40)2  106 = 1600 J
A B 2
– +40 C – –20 C 32. Answer (2)
+ –
– + – – Unet = 0
– + –
– –  U12 + U23 + U31 = 0
+
–20 C + –40 C –
1 ⎡ q2 ⎤
Charge on capacitor, Q = 40 C  ⎢Qq  Qq  ⎥0
40 (2 cm) ⎢⎣ 2 ⎥⎦
 PD between the plates A and B is
q2
Q 40 C  2Qq
V    2 Volt 2
C 20 F
28. Answer (4)  q = 2 2Q

When a charge [–4Q] is given to the spherical shell, 33. Answer (2)
then the electric potentials of solid sphere and Let Cs is the effective capacitance.
spherical shell increase by the same amount.
1 1 1 1 1 1 1
Therefore P.D. between the solid sphere and hollow      
sphere remains the same. Cs C1 C2 C3 3 6 12

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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2018 Test - 1 (Code-B) (Answers & Hints)

38. Answer (4)

12
 Cs  F When the Gaussian surface encloses no charge,
7
then the electric flux through that surface is zero.
Charge on C2 = Charge on Cs Electric field over the Gaussian surface need not be
zero at every point on that surface.
C2V2 = CsV
39. Answer (4)
⎡12 ⎤ When current is flowing in a conductor, then the
[6 F]V2  ⎢ F ⎥ [14 volt]
⎣ 7 ⎦ electric field inside that conductor is not zero.
40. Answer (2)
 V2 = 4 volt
Electric field line shows directions in which either
34. Answer (3) static or moving positive charge would accelerate
when passing through points on those lines.
V   n 2/3V  82/3  2 volt
41. Answer (4)
= 4 × 2 volt
1
= 8 volt Electric field due to short dipole varies as E 
r3
35. Answer (2)
1
For point charge E 
1 2 1 qE 2 m r2
S at  t ⇒ t
2 2 m q
1
For line charge E 
r
t1 m1 q2 4 1 2
     
t2 m2 q1 1 2 1 For large sheet E  r 0
42. Answer (1)
36. Answer (1)
43. Answer (2)
K.E. of -particle = P.E. of the system of -particle
and point charge
N

1 (20  1012 )(2e ) W E

18 eV 
4 0 dmin
S

9  109  20  1012  2
dmin  = 2 × 10–2 m = 2 cm
18
37. Answer (3)
80 V 60 V 40 V 20 V
V = V1 + V2 + V3 + V4 + ……

q ⎡1 1 1 1 1 ⎤ 1 The electric field is uniform. So E does not vary with
V  ⎢ 1  2  4  8  16  ⎥  2
4  0 ⎣ ⎦ 10 position. The direction of electric field is from high
potential towards low potential. So, the direction of

⎡ 1 1
9 1 1 ⎤ E points towards east.
 (9  10 )(2  10 ) ⎢1   2  3  4  ⎥  102
9
44. Answer (4)
⎣ 2 2 2 2 ⎦
Electrostatic lines of force do not form closed loops,
⎡ ⎤ as electrostatic field is a conservative field.
⎢ 1 ⎥
 [ 1800] ⎢ ⎥ 45. Answer (4)
⎢1  1 ⎥
⎣ 2⎦ Farad
SI unit of  :
Meter
= –3600 Volt

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Test - 1 (Code-B) (Answers & Hints) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2018

[ CHEMISTRY]
46. Answer (4) 52. Answer (4)
1 Each oxide ion surrounded by 8 Na+ in ccp lattice
Freezing point of solution 
i and each Na+ is surrounded by 4 O–2 ion in ccp
[Co(H2O)6]Cl3 , i=4 lattice.
[Co(H2O)5Cl]Cl2·H2O, i=3 53. Answer (2)
[Co(H2O)4Cl2]Cl·2H2O, i=2 nEocell 2  0.591
[Co(H2O)3Cl3]·3H2O, i=1 log(K c )    20
0.0591 0.0591
47. Answer (2) Kc = 1020
i = 1 + 3  1 + 3 × 0.8 = 3.4 54. Answer (3)
Tb = i Kb m = 3.4 × 0.52 × 0.1 = 0.1768
Let r = k(P)x (Q)y
BP of solution = 373 + 0.1768 = 373.17 K
Case-I : r = k(3P)x (Q)y
48. Answer (2)
Case-II : 4r = k(P)x (2Q)y
w=8g
On solving, x = 0, y = 2
V = 100 × 10–3 L
55. Answer (3)
n
  CRT   RT Cell reactions is 2Ag+ + Cu  Cu2+ + 2Ag
V(lit)
º
⎛ 8 ⎞ Ecell = 0.80 – 0.34 = 0.46
⎜ ⎟  0.0821 300
  ⎝ 60 ⎠  32.84 atm Apply Nernst equation :
100  103
0.0591 [Cu2 ]
49. Answer (1) Ecell  Ecell
º
 log
2 [Ag ]2
Eo   0 V (This is by convention.)
H |H2 0.0591 1.5  10 4
Ecell  0.46  log
50. Answer (2) 2 (4.5  10 4 )2

    Ecell = 0.375
M  (K   
) (C O2  )
 (Na 
)
G = –nFE = –2 × 96500 × 0.375 = –72375 J
2 4

= 52.3 + 150.2 + 74.5

56. Answer (3)
= 277 –1 cm2 mol–1
During charging of Lead Storage battery

  277 PbSO 4  2e   Pb  SO 42 
Eq  M
  138.5 1cm2 eq1
n-factor 2
PbSO 4  2H2 O  PbO 2  4H  SO 42   2e 
51. Answer (1)
Anode: 2I–  2e– + I2 57. Answer (3)

Cathode: M+n +ne–  M As the concentration of pure water is 55.56 M

I2
and S2 O32    S 4 O26    1000 0.75  107  1000
(Hypo) M (H2O, 55.66 M)  
(n-factor 1)
M 55.56

Eq. of metal = Eq of I2 = Eq. of hypo = 0.0134 × 10–4 ohm–1 cm2 mol–1

For the dissociation of H2O
0.75 45  (0.20  1)
  M (H2O)   M (H )   M (OH )
E 1000
 Emetal = 83.33 = 349.8 + 197.2 = 547 ohm–1 cm2 mol–1

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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2018 Test - 1 (Code-B) (Answers & Hints)
66. Answer (1)
M (H2O) 0.0134  10 4
Degree of dissociation    (H O)  547
 = iCRT
M 2
i for
= 0.000024 × 10–4
= 2.4 × 10–9
Al2(SO4)3 CaSO4 CaCl2 Glucose
58. Answer (2)

⇒
Oxidising power  ESRP
º 5 2 3 1
67. Answer (2)
59. Answer (1)
For depression in freezing point
CdS is negatively charged sol.
60. Answer (4) 1000  K f  w
Tf 
1 m  W(H2O)
x x 1
 KP n  log  log K  log P
m m n Tf = 9.3, w = 65, K f  1.86 mGlycol = 62
61. Answer (2)
1000  1.86  65
Extent of adsorption Critical temperature (Tc) 9.3 
62  W
Gas Critical temperature (K)
Wwater = 209.67 g
N2 126
The mass of ice separated = 250 – 209.67 = 40.33 g
CH4 190
68. Answer (4)
HCl 324
Fact
NH3 406
69. Answer (3)
62. Answer (1)
ZM
K2 Ea ⎛ T2  T1 ⎞ d
log  a3  NA
K1 2.303 R ⎜⎝ T1T2 ⎟⎠

Ea 10 ZM
log 2   a3 
2.303  8.314 298  308 d  NA
Ea = 52.89 kJ
Z = 4, M = 58 g/mol, d = 3.48 g/cm3
63. Answer (3)
H 4  58 232
kf a3  
 e RT 3.48  6.023  1023 20.95  1023
kb
H = 110 × 10–24 cm3
kb
 e RT a = 4.79 × 10–8 cm
kf
64. Answer (1) Inter ionic distance =
Larger the Ea, slower will be rate of reaction. a 4.79  10 8
r+ + r–    2.395  10 8 cm
2 2
⎛ E ⎞
lnk  ⎜ a ⎟
⎝ RT ⎠ 70. Answer (4)
In above reaction, temperature effect of A is largest. In CCP (FCC) lattice,
65. Answer (1)
1 unit cell contain = 1 atom 3 atom  4 atoms
Po  P n (Corner ) (face centre)
Raoult’s law, 
P o nN 2
Atoms removed from face centre = 3   2 atom
⎛1⎞ 3
0.1 ⎜ ⎟
 ⎝m⎠ ⇒ m  99.9 Since atoms become half so occupied space will
100 ⎛ 1 ⎞ ⎛ 180 ⎞
⎜ ⎟⎜ ⎟ 1
⎝ m ⎠ ⎝ 18 ⎠ become half that is = 74   37%
2

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Test - 1 (Code-B) (Answers & Hints) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2018
71. Answer (2) 81. Answer (2)
Fact
 t1/2 1 ⎛a ⎞
n1

 ⎜ 2⎟
72. Answer (2)  t1/2 2 ⎝ a1 ⎠
x aP n1
Langmuir Adsorption Isotherm,  75 ⎛ 2 ⎞
m 1  bP ⎜ ⎟
150 ⎝ 1 ⎠
73. Answer (1)  2–1 = 2n–1
Finally divided iron(catalyst) –1 = n – 1
N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g)
Molybdenum (promoter)  n=0
200 bar
723 - 773 K So it is zero order reaction.

74. Answer (4) 82. Answer (1)

Butter is the example of liquid in solid. At anode : 2H2O(l)  4H+ (aq) + O2(g) + 4e–

75. Answer (1) At cathode : Cu2+ (aq) + 2e–  Cu(s)

Coagulating power More charge 0.1 63.5
Loss in weight of Cu   3.175 g
76. Answer (2) 2
Edge Length of original cube = 1 m = 103 mm
0.1 32
Total surface area of cube = 6 × (103)2 = 6 × 106 mm2 Loss in weight of O2   0.8
4
When cube is Broken into cubes of edge length 1 mm
then 109 cubes will be obtained due to constant volume.  Total loss in weight = 3.175 + 0.8
Total surface area = 109 ×6× (1)2 =6× 109 mm2 = 3.975
Increase in surface area = 6 × 109/ 6 × 106 = 103 Weight of final solution = 100 – 3.975
77. Answer (3) = 96.025 g
Fact 83. Answer (2)
78. Answer (1)
1 1
Conductance (G)  
2.303 100 R 200
t93.75  t log
0.693 1/2 6.25
⎛ l ⎞
2.303 K  G⎜ ⎟
t 93.75  t log 16 ⎝A⎠
2.303  0.3010 1/2

t1/2 ⎛ l ⎞ 0.015
t 93.75  4 log 2 ⎜ ⎟  Cell constant =  200  3 cm1
0.3010 ⎝A⎠ 1
t93.75 = 4 t1/2 84. Answer (3)
79. Answer (3)
1 4
Temperature distribution curve for K.E. of gas C 6 H6  C O2
molecules
n-factor = 5 × 6 = 30
80. Answer (1)
W = ZIt
(1) Zero order
(2) First order ⎛ 78 ⎞
Eq. wt. ⎜ ⎟  1 4  60  60
(3) First order =  I  t  ⎝ 30 ⎠  0.387 g
96500 96500
(4) Pseudo First order

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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2018 Test - 1 (Code-B) (Answers & Hints)
85. Answer (2) p = Partial pressure of gas
 log p = log KH + log x
MnO4  8H  5e 
 Mn2  4H2O
log x = log p – log KH
According to Nernst equation
88. Answer (2)
0.0591 ⎡ 1 ⎤  = icRT
ERP  ERP
o
 log ⎢  8 ⎥
5 ⎣ [H ] ⎦  i
o
ERP  ERP (change in oxidising powder) 0.38 iAB2
 ⇒ iAB2  2.37
0.16 1
0.0591 1 89. Answer (1)
 log  0.38
5 1 (104 )8
For fold axis of symmetry : Diagonal plane of
So oxidising power changed by 0.38 V. symmetry = 3 : 6 = 1 : 2
86. Answer (2) 90. Answer (1)
Acetone and aniline mixture show negative deviation. ZM
d
87. Answer (4) NA  V
Henry law, is p = KHx 4  21.76
d 24
 0.668 g/cm3
x = mole fraction of dissolved gas 6.022  10  (216.3  10 )
23

[ BIOLOGY]
91. Answer (4) 94. Answer (1)
If the modified allele produces non-functional enzyme Mother should be carrier and father should be
or no enzyme at all, it will be not equivalent to haemophilic.
unmodified allele. h h
x x xy
92. Answer (3) h h h
x x xy
h
x x xy
haemophilic female
In butterfly sex determination is zz – zo .
95. Answer (3)
In silkworm sex determination is zz – zw . Burkitt lymphoma is a type of lymph cancer caused
93. Answer (2) due to reciprocal translocation between 14th and 8th
chromosome.
w+ w m+ m = 66
w w m m = 60 96. Answer (3)
w+ w m m = 39 97. Answer (3)
w w m+ m = 35 Parental types 98.7%
Number of recombinants = 39 + 35  74 Recombinant types 1.3%
Number of parental types= 66 + 60 = 126 98. Answer (3)
Total number of progeny = 126 + 74 = 200
(2n – 1) gametic combination cause monosomy in
 Frequency of recombinant which an individual has one chromosome less from
No. of recombinants its complete set of chromosome e.g., Turner’s
  100
Total no. of progeny syndrome (44 + XO).

74 99. Answer (1)

  100
200 Mendelian dihybrid phenotypic cross ratio is
37 cM 9 1
9 : 3 : 3 : 1, out of which is parental
16

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Test - 1 (Code-B) (Answers & Hints) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2018

⎛ 10 ⎞ 33 108. Answer (2)

proportion ⎜ ⎟ and is recombinant
⎝ 16 ⎠ 16 In wind pollinated flowers pollen grains are minute,
light and non-sticky. They form compact
⎛ 6 ⎞
proportion ⎜ ⎟ . inflorescence and stamens are well-exposed
⎝ 16 ⎠ consists of large feathery stigma and single ovule in
100. Answer (4) each ovary.
109. Answer (3)
Complementary gene – 9:7
Pollen recognition is followed by promotion or
Recessive epistasis – 9:3:4 inhibition of the pollen grain.
Polymeric gene – 9:6:1 110. Answer (3)
Duplicate gene – 15 : 1 Self-incompatibility is a genetic mechanism to prevent
101. Answer (3) inbreeding depression. In this case, the same
genetic pollen (from the same flower or other flowers
n(n  1) of the same plant) do not fertilise the ovules by
Number of genotype in multiple allele  inhibiting pollen germination or pollen tube growth in
2
the pistil.
n = Number of multiple alleles 111. Answer (4)
In Mulberry, staminate and pistillate flowers are
10 (10  1) 110
   55 present on separate plant body (i.e. dioecious)
2 2 hence favour xenogamy (cross pollination).
102. Answer (3) 112. Answer (1)
Phenotype of hybrid is intermediate of the parents. Ategmic ovule – lack integument e.g. – Santalum,
Loranthus.
103. Answer (2)
113. Answer (1)
Number of genotypes  3n; n is no. of hybrid
104. Answer (1) To form a Polygonum type of embryo sac 1
megaspore mother cell undergoes meiotic division to
 Carl Correns gave law form to Mendelian form 4 megaspores. Out of 4 megaspores 3
principles. degenerate and only one is functional, the functional
 Heterozygous parent (Tt) produces two kinds of megaspore undergoes 3 mitotic generations to form
gametes during gametogenesis with each allele (3, 2, 3)/(3 + 2 + 3) an embryo sac.
equally distributed, it states the law of Hence for 3 Polygonum type of embryo sac their will
Segregation. be 3 meiotic divisions and 9 mitotic generations.
 Two alleles of a gene pair are located on
114. Answer (3)
homologous chromosomes but on homologous
sites. One of the hypodermal cell of nucellus in the
micropylar region act as megaspore mother cell.
 Movement of chromosomes to the poles occur
during meiosis as well as mitosis. 115. Answer (3)
105. Answer (3) In 60 percent of angiosperms, pollen grains are shed
Mendel’s experiments had a large sampling size, at 2-celled stage i.e. vegetative cell and generative
which gave greater credibility to the data that he cell.
collected. 116. Answer (2)
106. Answer (4) 117. Answer (1)
Dormancy and dehydration of mature seed are 118. Answer (3)
crucial for storage of seeds.
119. Answer (4)
107. Answer (1)
Endomitosis – After DNA replication the splitting of
Pollination in Nelumbo (lotus) is by entomophily (by
chromosomes occur inside the intact nuclear
insects).
membrane without the formation of spindle.

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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2018 Test - 1 (Code-B) (Answers & Hints)
Restitution nucleus – It involves normal mitosis upto AaBBCc = (4 × 10) + 20 = 60 g
anaphase but the chromosomes at two poles get aaBbCC = (3 × 10) + 20 = 50 g
surrounded by a common nuclear membrane so as
Aabbcc = (1 × 10) + 20 = 30 g
to form a restitution nucleus.
130. Answer (2)
Polyteny – If DNA replication is not accompanied by
splitting of chromosomes, polytenic chromosome are Water hyacinth is highly invasive aquatic weed found
formed. growing in standing/stagnant water
120. Answer (4) 131. Answer (3)
The anther is tetragonal structure with two In Kalanchoe vegetative reproduction is by leaves
microsporangia in each lobe, hence four having adventitious buds.
microsporangia which are located at corners in each 132. Answer (3)
lobe.
Zoospores are microscopic, motile and endogenous
121. Answer (3) spores that move by means of flagella. Zoospores in
It is not essential that all the traits are equally Chlamydomonas are pyramid shaped anteriorly
influenced. flagellated and resemble to their parent cell and
develop during favourable condition.
122. Answer (2)
133. Answer (4)
Cytoplasmic inheritance (Mitochondrial inheritance).
Asexual reproduction can occur through
123. Answer (3)
unspecialised or specialised parts of a parent.
Zygote is product of syngamy. It is first cell of new
134. Answer (4)
generation and is always diploid. It is vital link
between two successive generations (gametophytic Organism’s habitat, its physiology and several other
and sporophytic) and ensures continuity of species. factors are collectively responsible for how it
Pollen grains are carriers of male gametes. reproduces. High specific gravity is characteristic
124. Answer (1) feature of non-living objects.
Butterfly – 380 135. Answer (3)
Rat – 42 Life span is the period from birth to the natural death
Onion – 16 of an organism. Mango tree lives for 200 years while
peepal has a life span of about 2500 years. Mayfly
Fruit fly – 8 life span is just one day.
125 Answer (3)
136. Answer (2)
126. Answer (4)
Yolk sac - site of formation of RBCs in initial stages
Interflowering period in polycarpic plants is a of embryonic development.
recovery phase. It is a mature phase and not the
juvenile phase. 137. Answer (2)
127. Answer (2) 138. Answer (1)
Autosomal recessive trait e.g., Thalassemia. Tubal pregnancy is most common ectopic pregnancy.
128. Answer (4) 139. Answer (4)
Zygote becomes thick walled structure zygospore IgA antibody is present in colostrum.
during unfavourable conditions like desiccation. It is 140. Answer (3)
found in some algae and fungus.
141. Answer (4)
129. Answer (1)
One prostate gland is present in Humans.
AABBCC = 80 g
142. Answer (1)
aabbcc = 20 g
Infundibulum has ostium.
60
 Contribution of each dominant allele =  10 g 143. Answer (2)
6
AaBbCc = (3 × 10) + 20 = 50 g After ovulation, secondary oocyte has two extra
layers, Zona pellucida and Corona radiata.

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Test - 1 (Code-B) (Answers & Hints) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2018
144. Answer (1) 161. Answer (4)
Menarche is onset of menstruation. Zygote divides completely into two blastomeres in
145. Answer (4) holoblastic cleavage.
162. Answer (1)
Saheli was prepared by CDRI, Lucknow.
Estrogen, LH and FSH are at high level on 14th
146. Answer (4)
day / day of ovulation.
Condoms, Female condoms, diaphragms and
163. Answer (3)
cervical caps are barriers for birth control.
100% foetal blood is present in umbilical cord.
147. Answer (2)
164. Answer (1)
GIFT & ZIFT are ART techniques.
Labia minora are homologous to penile urethra.
148. Answer (4)
165. Answer (2)
Placental hormones are hCG, progesterone, hPL and
oestrogen. Primary sex organs produce gametes and also
secrete sex hormones.
149. Answer (3)
166. Answer (2)
150. Answer (1)
Abdominal testes present in elephant.
Embryonic development has main four steps,
Zygote, morula, blastula and gastrula. 167. Answer (3)
151. Answer (2) 168. Answer (2)
Formation of corpus luteum during menstrual cycle 169. Answer (3)
and formation of placenta during pregnancy occur to Antifertilizins are present in male gamete.
release hormones.
170. Answer (2)
152. Answer (2) Ovulatory hormone is luteinizing hormone.
Meiosis starts in primary oocyte. 171. Answer (3)
153. Answer (3) Embedding of blastocyst in the endometrium is
Gonorrhoea is caused by Neisseria gonorrhoea. called implantation.
154. Answer (3) 172. Answer (2)
Cortical granules form permanent block to Formation of sperms is called spermatogenesis.
polyspermy. 173. Answer (2)
155. Answer (2) Acrosome is derived from Golgi body.
Haemochorial placenta is present in Humans. 174. Answer (3)
156. Answer (4) Spermatid conversion into sperm is called
Liver and thymus gland both are endodermal in spermiogenesis.
origin. 175. Answer (4)
157. Answer (1) IUDs need to be inserted with help of a
Corpus luteum secretes progesterone, oestrogen and Gynaecologist normally.
relaxin. 176. Answer (4)
158. Answer (4) 177. Answer (2)
Low sperm motility is called Asthenozoospermia. 178. Answer (3)
159. Answer (1) 179. Answer (1)
Vasectomy and tubectomy are surgical methods. Menstrual cycle present in all primates.
160. Answer (2) 180. Answer (3)
Scrotum helps in maintaining the low temperature. ZIFT - Zygotic Intra Fallopian Transfer.

  

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