CITY OF FAITH COMPREHENSIVE COLLEGE

2017/2018 MOCK EXAMINATION

CLASS: BECE (NECO) SUBJECT: CIVIC EDUCATION

OBJECTIVE
1. In a presidential system, the head of government is called (a) chancellor (b) executive president (c) governor-
general (d) major (e) prime minister
2. The legislature of a federal system of government is usually (a) bicameral (b) flexible (c) multi-cameral (d) rigid
(e) unicameral
3. The ability of one to sustain a living in the society is known as (a) confidence (b) dependence (c) fulfillment (d)
reliance (e) sufficient
4. A group that tries to influence government or others organization is called _____ group (a) people’s (b) power
(c)pressure (d) solidarity (e) technical
5. The National Directorate of Employment (NDE) was established in the year (a) 1969 (b) 1979 (c) 1980 (d) 1989
(e) 1992
6. Which among the following geo-political zones is the most highly populated in Nigeria? (a) North Central (b)
North East (c) North West (d) South South (d) South West
7. The organization charged with the responsibility of conducting election in Nigeria is (a)FEDECO (b) INEC (c)
NDCR (d) NEC (e) NOA
8. Which of the following security outfit is voluntary (a) Military (b) Para-Military (c) Police (d) State Security
Service (e) Vigilante
9. In the federal system of government, the components units (a) are subordinate to one another (b) derive their
powers from the constitution (c) formulate foreign policies (d) have equal powers with central authority (e)
maintain separate currencies
10. Shame and regret are consequences of (a) commitment (b) co-operation (c) dishonesty (d) good values (e) honesty
11. October 1st every year is celebrated in Nigeria as (a) Children’s Day (b) commonwealth day (c) democracy day (d)
independence day (e) worker’s Day
12. The process by which citizen can get the power to elect leaders of their choice in a general election is through (a)
bye-election (b) opinion polls (c) party primaries (d) referendum (e) voters registration
13. The national anthem “Arise O Compatriots” was adopted in the year (a) 1974 (b)1975 (c) 1976 (c)1977 (e) 1978
14. The chairman of the Independent National Electoral Commission (INEC) in the 4th republic was (a) Chief Michael
Ani (b) Dr. Abel Guobadia (c) Prof. Attaihiru Jega (d) Prof. Eme Awa (e) Prof. Maurice Iwu
15. The Chief Justice of Nigeria is appointed by the president on the recommendation of the (a)Judicial Committee
(b)London Privy Council (c) Magistrate Courts (d) National Judicial Council (e) Supreme Court
16. The 2010 Electoral Law in Nigeria provides that all political parties MUST elect their candidates through (a)
appointment (b) congresses and conventions (c) employment (d) nomination (e) selection
17. The promises, aims and programmes of a political party are contained in a document called (a) bye-law (b)
congress (c) constitution (d) manifesto (e) party convention
18. A form of government made up of the people, organized by the people and administered in the interest of the
people is called (a)Commission (b) Democracy (c) Oligarchy (d) Socialism (d) Totalitarianism
19. The Idea of democracy as a system of government was inherited from the (a) America (b) Athens (c) China (d)
Greek (e) India
20. The Nigeria Cultural group that gives emphasis on age-grade system is (a) Gbagyi (b) Hausa (c) Igbo (d) Nupe (e)
Yoruba
21. The instrument for sharing the centrally generated revenue among the three tiers of government in Nigeria is called
(a) derivation formula (b) loan and services (c) money lending formula (d) revenue mobilization (e) the revenue
allocation formula
22. A system which governs the conduct of elections is called (a) electoral system (b) party system (c) referendum (d)
representation (e) voting system
23. In democracy, political participation could be restricted on the basis of (a) age (b) class (c) religion (d) sex
24. Which of the following is NOT an agent of political socialization? (a) family (b) mass media (c) peer group (d)
tourism (e) university
25. The limitation on the right to life can be found (a) among the people (b) in the case of convicted people (c) in the
executive (d) in the judiciary (e) in the executive
26. The public complaints commission helps to promote all the following EXCEPT (a) democracy (b) dictatorship (c)
fundamental human rights (d) justice (e) the rule of law
27. To have an orderly society, a state needs a (a) chief judge (b) chief whip (c) constitution (d) legislature (e)
president
28. The basic right of individuals in the society include the following EXCEPT freedom of (a) association (b)
expression (c) fair hearing (d) life (e) revenge
29. Which of the following must be avoided by a good citizen (a) being honest in the society (b) defending the interest
of the nation (c) paying of taxes and rates (d) protest to ask for rights (e) voting during election
30. The rights of individuals in a society are usually written in the (a) bible (b) constitution (c) court of law (d) house
of senate (e) Koran
31. Performing our duties brings about (a) civil war (b) conflict (c) co-operation (d) destruction (e) progress
32. Good leadership means (a) applying force to achieve what you want (b) embezzling public funds (c) responsibly
directing the affairs of people (d) sharing money every where (e) training political thugs
33. Which of the following is NOT a good value (a) cheating (b) discipline (c) honesty (d) integrity (e) patriotism
34. Dedication to work means (a) achieving what you want (b) being punctual to work (c) getting wages for work done
(d) joining others to work (e) putting the need attention to work
35. One of these will NOT promote good value system in the society (a) Commitment to work (b) fairness (c)
favourtism (d) integrity (e) trust
36. Which of the following can a dishonest person easily do? (a) co-operate with others (b) fraudulent practices (c)
helpless privilege (d) join in communal labour (e) render transparent account
37. To be self-reliant an individual must (a) have hug capital to start a business (b) learn and acquire skills (c) learn the
trade everyone is doing (d) spend all his earning on himself (e) visit a prophet/diviner
38. People of integrity are needed in the society for (a) development and peaceful co-existence (b) double standard (c)
drug trafficking (d) fraudulent practices (e) prostitution
39. All of these are effects of lack of contentment in the society EXCEPT (a) cheating (b) conflict (c) corruption (d)
robbery (e) self-reliance
40. As a good citizen your right attitude to work should include the following EXCEPT (a) arrogance (b) diligence (c)
discipline (d) honesty (e) punctuality
41. Negative behavior in the society are all of these EXCEPT (a) child trafficking (b) contentment (c) disregard for
constituted authority (d) envy (e) excessive love in money
42. People in a nation share the following EXCEPT (a) armed forces (b) common ancestors (c) common territory (d)
constitution (e) economic life
43. One of the duties of the Nigeria police is (a) committing crime (b) collecting money from motorists (c) curbing
crime (d) embarrassing the people (e)killing people
44. Which of these is NOT a factor in the choice of a leader (a) Bravery (b) Faithfulness (c) Honesty (d)
Understanding (e) Wealth
45. Social Instability means a situation where there is a (a) breakdown of law and order (b) law enforcement agents (c)
leader that enforce the law (d) security of lives and property (e) stabilized social organization
46. For Nigeria to have free and fair election, ______ must be stopped (a) electoral law (b) electoral malpractices (c)
electoral process (d) queuing up on election day (e) registration of eligible voters
47. The constitution that preserved citizens freedom is called (a) association (b) EFCC (c) human right constitution (d)
ICPC (e) law courts
48. Which of the following languages is the lingua-franca of Nigeria (a) English (b) French (c) German (d) Spanish (e)
Pidgin-English
49. The rights of individuals are usually written in the (a) acts of parliaments (b) constitution (c) convention (d) court
of law (e) law book
50. Civic Education as a new subject in Nigeria is aimed at value ______ of citizens (a) acquisition (b) clarification (c)
formation (d) rehabilitation (e) reorientation
51. Members of a trade Union have common ________ (a) culture (b) interest (c) religion (d) sign (e) symbol
52. Citizens are advised to ______ before crossing the road (a) jump (b) keep running (c) keep staying (d) look left
and right (e) sit down
53. The following are consequences of chaos, except (a) breakdown of law and order (b) destruction (c) developmental
projects (d) loss of life (e) loss of properties
54. The acronym SSS stands for ______ (a) Self Security Service (b) Self Security (c) State Secured Service (d) State
Security Series (e) State Security Service
55. The men and women of integrity are needed in Nigeria, in order to (a) encourage youth in political thuggery (b)
ensure peaceful co-existence (c) increase the rate of corruption (d) stagnate development (e) tarnish the country’s
image abroad
56. An individual that refuse to pay his/her tax is refers to as (a) tax escapes (b) good citizen (c) tax collector (d) tax
criminal (e) tax evader
57. Which of these is the MOST important right of man? Right to (a) express one’s mind (b) freedom movement (c)
live (d) practice the religion of one’s choice (d) vote
58. The following self employment project emphases skill acquisition EXCEPT (a) barbing (b) bricklaying (c) civil
service (d) tailoring (e) trading
59. The following are causes of accident on the road EXCEPT (a) bad road (b) drunkenness (c) over speeding (d)
proper maintenance (e) under-aged drivers
60. A system of government that recognizes the opinion of the majority is (a) anarchy (b) aristocracy (c) democracy
(d) leisser-fair (d) monarchy
61. The principle of “Rule of Law” emphasis (a) equal number of children to be born (b) equal vote for all contestants
(c) equality of all citizens before the law (d) equality of all lawyers (e) majority carries the vote
62. The only naira note that has no picture of a hero on it is ______ note (a) N50 (b) N100 (c) N200 (c) N500 (d)
N1000
63. One of these is the institution responsible for interpreting the law (a)Executive (b) Judiciary (c) Legislature (d)
National drug law enforcement agency(NDLEA) (e) political parties
64. All these groups assist in protecting the human rights of citizen EXCEPT (a) civil society (b) legal aid council (c)
para-military services (d) student union (e) trade union
65. To maintain National Society, the citizen must do the following EXCEPT (a)being patriotic (b) being vigilant (c)
divulging government secrets (d) remaining law abiding (e) reporting potential security threats
66. The process of denying individual the right to vote is called (a) disfranchisement (b) dismissal (c) disqualification
(d) enfranchisement (e) prohibition
67. Alhaji Shehu Shagari became the first executive president of Nigeria under the platform of (a) Action Group (b)
National Party of Nigeria (c) Nigeria Advanced Party (d) Nigeria Peoples Party (e) Unity Party of Nigeria
68. The following ways will assist the government to reduce illiteracy EXCEPT (a) establishment of adult education
centers (b) establishment of schools in the rural areas (c) making education compulsory from primary to secondary
(d) recruitment of unqualified teachers (e) voting more funds to education sector
69. The most essential condition for becoming a citizen of a nation is (a) age (b) birth (c) international passport (d)
resident permit (e) wealth
70. Which of the following is NOT civic obligation? (a) Freedom of conscience and religion (b) Obedience of law (c)
payment of taxes (d) respect for the national flag (e) voting during election
71. Nigeria operates a ___________ constitution (a) confederal (b) democratic (c) federal (d)political (e) unitary
72. The first constitution to provide for elected representation in Nigeria was the (a) 1922 Clifford constitution (b)
1946 Richard constitution (c) 1954 Littleton constitution (d) 1960 independence (d) 1999 Constitution
73. In Nigeria, the constitution that preserved the citizens civil liberty is called (a) association (b)EFCC (c) human
right commission (d) ICPC (e) law courts
74. The first indigenous governor general in Nigeria was (a) Abubakar Tafawa Balewa (b) Alh. Aminu Kano (c) Alh.
Shehu Shagari (d) Dr. Nnamdi Azikwe (e) Sir. Ahmadu Bello
75. The total number of Local Government Councils in Nigeria is currently (a) 714 (b) 716 (c) 774 (d) 807 (e) 874
76. The first constitution that recognized local government as a third tier of government in Nigeria is the _________
constitution (a) 1946 (b) 1951 (c) 1954 (d) 1960 (e) 1979
77. ‘Rule of law” is all about (a) equality of the citizens before the law (b)good governance (c) independence of the
judiciary (d) mass protest (e) up holding the law as the basis for justice
78. In civilian administration governance is through the instrument of (a) constitution (b) decrees (c) edict (d) law
boobs (e)manifestoes
79. The organ of government that is responsible for making law in Nigeria is the (a)army (b)executive (c) judiciary (d)
legislature (e) police
80. The legislature can check the Nigerian president through the process of (a) election (b) impeachment (c) opinion
poll (d) party primaries (e) referendum
81. The ability to bring out the desired changes in a society is called (a)authority (b) buddhaism (c)communism (d)
democracy (e) power
82. The main purpose of establishing NYSC, unity schools and federal character commission is to enforce (a) cultural
heritage (b) national defense (c) national integration (d) national revenue mobilization (e) national stratification
83. Great love for one’s country simply refers to (a)ethnocentrism (b) patriotism (c) racism (d) sectionalism (e)
tribalism
84. The black shield in the coat of arm represents (a) fertile land of the country (b) integrity and dignity (c) pride (d)
Rivers Niger and Benue (e) Strength
85. All the following are examples of value EXCEPT (a) commitment (b) discipline (c) hard work (d) integrity (e)
laziness
86. All these are national symbols EXCEPT (a) currency (b) flag (c) house of assembly (d) identity card (e) passport
87. One of the following does NOT belong to the economic right of the citizen, right to (a) gainful employment (b)
move from occupation to another (c) participate in the political process of the nation (d) pursue legitimate means
of earning a living (e) transact legitimate business
88. President Goodluck Ebele Jonathan was sworn in on (a) April 29, 2003 (b) May 29, 2009(c) June 29, 2009 (d)
May 29, 2010 (e) May 29, 20011
89. Nigeria became a republic in the year (a) 1960 (b) 1963 (c) 1964 (d) 1965 (e) 1971
90. The law made by the local government council is referred to as (a) byelaws (b) civil laws (c) constitution (d)
council laws (e) edicts
91. The minimum voting age in Nigeria is (a)17 (b) 18 (c) 21 (d) 25 (e) 45
92. Who amongst the following personalities has never been INEC Chairman (a) Dr. Abel Guobadia (b) Prof. Attahiru
Jega (c) Prof. Dora Akinyuli (d) Prof. Humphry Nwosu (e) Prof. Maurice Iwu
93. When a government worker and a contractor agree on how to share project money before a contract is awarded, it
is said to be a/an (a) appreciation (b) bribe (c) corruption (d) inducement (e) negotiation
94. What does the black shield in the Nigeria Coat of Arms represent? (a) Fertility (b) Peace (c) Pride (d) River Niger
and Benue (e) War
95. The Full meaning of INEC is
(a) Independent National Election Commission
(b) Independent National Electoral Commission
(c) Independent Nigeria Economic Commission
(d) International New Electoral Commission
(e) Independent National Electoral Committee
96. How many geo-political zones do we have in Nigeria? (a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 7 (e) 8
97. Exercising boldness in carrying-out positive activities in the community is termed (a) courage (b) cultism (c) force
(d) perseverance (e) power
98. The acts of shunning moral decadence and violence make one become (a) an imam (b) employed (c) good citizen
(d) man of God (e)self-reliant
99. National honours are conferred on Nigerians who are/have (a) distinguished themselves in nation-building (b)
movie actors (c) of the same political party with the president (d)patriotic (e) wealthy
100. The highest National honour that can be conferred on any Nigerian by government is (a) Commander of the
order of the Federal Republic (CFR) (b)Grand Commander of the order of the Federal Republic (GCFR) (c)
 Grand Commander of the order of the Niger (GCON) (d) Officer of the order of the Federal Republic (OFR)
(e) Officer of the order of the Niger (OON)
101. The best disciplinary measure that can assist to achieve stability in schools is (a) condoning students
excesses (b) denying the students their right of expression (c) employing school sergent (d) employing strict
and authoritarian teachers (e) ensuring that students are always positively occupied
102. Which of the following criticisms helps leadership in the society? (a) backbiting the leader (b) constructive
criticism (c) indiscriminate criticisms (d) open criticism of leaders (e) personality criticism
103. The importance of the “Rule of Law” in the society is that it enables the society to (a) be educated (b) be
orderly and perform properly (c) choose leaders (d) have more educated lawyers (e) interpret the law
104. When the national flag is flown at half mast, it is a sign of (a) national celebration (b) national consciousness
(c) national mourning (d) Nigeria independence (e) visit of the president to a state
105. The constitution that brought the North and Southern Nigeria together under one legislative council was
________ constitution. (a) 1922 Clifford (b) 1946 Richard (c) 1951 Macpherson (d)1954 Littleton (e) 1979
Constitution
106. To ensure orderliness in public place, citizens should (a) be abusive (b) be punctual (c) join the queue (
(d) take turns for their friends (e)wear expensive perfumes
107. The act of faking ballot papers, using the under age to vote, rigging and financial inducement is known as
electoral (a) campaign (b) laws (c) malpractice (d) materials (e) process
108. For Nigeria to have free and fair election all forms of __________ must be stopped (a) electoral laws (b)
electoral malpractice (c) electoral process (d) kidnapping (e) registration of eligible of voters
109. A citizen of Nigeria is qualified to vote from _____ years (a)16 (b) 17 (c) 18 (d) 20 (e) 21
110. The act of taking somebody to an unknown destination without his/her consent can be termed (a) adventure
(b) excursion (c) kidnapping (d) tourism (e) travelling
111. Which of the following international organizations has its secretariat in Adis ababa? (a) A.U (b) E.U (c)
ECOWAS (d) NURTW (e) UNO
112. Traffic lights has three colours which include (a) amber, green and black (b) green, amber and red (c) green,
yellow and red (d) green, white and red (e) red, green and blue
113. Abuja is to Nigeria as _____ is to Ethopia (a) Addis-ababa (b) Freetown (c) Kumasi (d) Lagos (e) New York
114. The confluence river in Nigeria is located at (a) Benue (b) Kaduna (c) Kogi (d) Kwara (d) Niger
115. May 27th every year is celebrated in Nigeria as (a) Children’s Day (b) commonwealth day (c) democracy day
(d) independence day (e) worker’s Day
116. Which of the following is NOT the cause of poverty in our society? (a) Careless spending (b) Good
governance (c) Laziness (d) Low level of education (e) Unemployment
117. The two horses on Nigeria Coat of Arms symbolizes (a) beauty (b) dignity (c) fertility (d) progress (e)
strength
118. May 29th every year is celebrated in Nigeria as (a) Children’s Day (b) commonwealth day (c) democracy
day (d) independence day (e) worker’s Day
119. Lack of contentment in our society can lead to the following, except (a) hardship (b) prostitution (c) robbery
(d) success (e) theft
120. Which of the following personalities is not a Nigerian (a) Abubakar Tafawa Balewa (b) Herbert Macauley
(c) Nelson Mandela (d) Nnamdi Azikiwe (e) Obafemi Awolowo
 CITY OF FAITH COMPREHENSIVE COLLEGE
2017/2018 MOCK EXAMINATION
CLASS: J.S.S 3 (NECO) SUBJECT: BASIC SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY
INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY
1. General purpose and special purpose computer are classification of computer based on? (a) generation (b) speed
(c) size (d) purpose
2. A parallel port is most often used by a __ (a) camera (b) monitor (c) mouse (d) printer
3. What is the commonly used unit for measuring the speed of data transmission? (a) bits per second (B) characters
per second (c) mega hertz (d) Nano seconds
4. Which of the following is most oriented to scientific programming (a) BASIC (b) COBOL (c) FORTRAN (d)
JAVA
5. ____ is a proprietary source operating system? (a) android (b) Linux (c) sun Solaris (d) windows
6. Usually in Ms DOS the primary hard disk drive has the letter (a) A (B) C (c) D (d) E
7. Hardware or software designed to guard against unauthorized access to a computer network is known as a/an (a)
encryption (b) firewall (c) password (d) spyware
8. The ___ is a piece of code which is capable of copying itself and typically has a detrimental= effect on computer
system (a) coding (b) encryption (c) hacking (d) virus
9. Analyzing the system to establish its strengths and weaknesses is a role of a ___ (a0 computers operator (b)
project manager (c) system programmes (d) system analyst
10. The period during which a job is processed by the computer is ____ time (a) constructive (b) down (c) execution
(d) real -
11. The speed of the processor in the 1st generation of computer was measured in ___ second (a) Femto (b) micro (c)
Millio (d) Nano
12. Which of these areas does NOT involve the application of ICT? (a) carpentry (b) commerce (c) Education (d)
Health
13. The ____ is an example of unguided transmission medium of information (a) coaxial (b) fibre optic (c) infra red
(d) shielded
14. PowerPoint program is a ___ package in computer communication (a) computing (b) graphics (c) presentation
(d) usual
15. A Scottish Mathematician ___ Napier invented the bone (a) Blause (b) Charles (c) Joseph (d) John
16. Which of these is an example of Microsoft office (a) Access (b) Corel draw (c) instant Artist (d) Photoshop
17. The drawing too in Microsoft paint environment is called (a) crop (B) brush (c) eraser (d) magnifier
18. Which of these is a disadvantage of ICT? (a) data nedundaurcy (b) electronic Mail (c) minimize cost (d)
resource sharing
19. Ctrl ___ is to redo an action (a) c (b) v (c) y (d) z
20. The four ways to align a text are (a) center justify, left, right (b) centre, left, right middle (c) diagonal justify, left,
right (d) diagonal, middle left, right
21. Communication is an act of ____ information (a) coding (b) forwarding (c) hoarding (d) transmitting
22. The ____ is a program that performs a useful task while simultaneously allow distinctive act in the computer
system (a) time bomb (b) trap doors (c) Trojan horse (d) worm
23. The features of old economy include the following except (a) digitalization (b) distant constraint (c) labour based
(d) mechanization
24. The _____ prevents direct access to computer system (a) back door (b) malware (c) password (d) pop-ups
25. The procedure for information processing which allows resource gathering is ___ (a) analysis (b) collation (c)
inpretation (d) organization
26. ICT plays a vital role in industries in the following areas except (a) auditing operations (b) inventory control (c)
management information system (d) pay roll preparation
27. What is the acronym for UNIVAC? (a) united nations institute variable Antomatic computer (b) united numerical
integrated value calculator (c) universal automatic calculator (d) universal automatic computer
28. The acronym Wifi connotes Wireless (a) fidelity (b) fiction (c) file (d) funder
29. Which of the following is a major type of system software? (a) Assembler (b) compiler (c) firmware (d) translator
 30. To save an existing document with a different file name click/ press ctr I + (a) A (b) C (c) S (d) V
Basic Science
31. A group of chemical compounds found in food is referred to as ___ (a) acid (b) alkaline (c) balanced diet (d)
nutrient
32. Which of the following measures cannot be used to control pollution? (a) conservative use of chemicals (b)
indiscriminate waste disposal (c) proper legislation (d) proper sewage disposal (e) recycling of waste materials
33. Which of the following non-metal is used for the production of disinfectant? (a) carbon (b) chlorine (c) nitrogen
(d) oxygen (e) sulphur
34. The following are examples of matter except (a) air (b) light (c) sand (d) table (e) torch
35. Which of the following is a vetebrate animal? (a) cockroach (b) crab (c) fish (d) millipede (e) spider
36. The care given to a woman in labour and immediately after delivery is called (a) displacing (b) feeding (c) intra-
partum (d) parent crafting (e) post-natal
37. When Ola kicks a football the chemical energy in the food he has eaten is converted to ___ energy (a) electrical
(b) heat (c) kinetic (d) potential (e) sound
38. Which of the following is a source of non- renewable energy? (a) coal (b) solar (c) Water (d) wave (e) wind
39. Calculate the force in newtons of a car of mass 20kg accelerating at 2m/s2 (a) 0.1 (b) 10.0 (c) 18.0 (d) 22.0 (e) 40.0
40. The force involved when a driver applies the brakes to stop a moving car is called __ (a) electrical (b) friction
(c) gravity (d) magnetic (e) tension
41. Which of the following is a natural satellite of the earth? (a) comet (b) meteors (c) moon (d) stars (e) sun
42. The chemical symbol of sodium is ___ (a) c (b) ca (c) N (d) Na (e) s
43. What is the kinetic energy in joules of a car of mass 10kg moving with a velocity of 4m/s2 (a0 0.4 (b) 26.0 (c)
40.0 (d) 80.0 (e) 160.0
44. Calculate the mass in kg of a ball at a height of 3m above the ground with a potential energy of 120j (g = 10/s2)
(a) 0.03 (b) 0.25 (c) 4.00 (d) 36.0 (e) 400.0
45. Calculate the work done in joules is a horizontal push of 150N moves a box horizontally through a distance of 5m
(a) 0.033 (b) 30.00 (c) 145.0 (d) 155.0 (e) 750.0
46. Calculate the power of a pump in watts required to lift 160kg of water through a vertical height of 3m in 30
seconds? (g = 10mls2) (a) 16 (b) 96 (c) 160 (d) 960 (e) 9600
47. The energy possessed by a stretched rubber is ___ (a) electrical (b0 heat (c) light (d) kinetic (e) potential
48. The process of heat transfer from one point of a metal to another point is known as ___ (a) conduction (b)
convection (c) evaporation (d) radiation (e) transformation
Study the genotypes below and use it to answer question 19
X = AA, Y = AS Z = SS
49. Which of the genotypes will produce high incidence of sickle cell anaemia offspring when crossed (a) x and x (b)
x and y (c) y and y (d) y and z (e) z and z
50. Which of the following is a cash crop? (a) beans (b) cocoa (c) corn (d) potato (e) yam
51. The liquid form of unrefined petroleum is called ___ (a) crude oil (b) ethane (b) lubricating oil (c) naphtha (e)
petrochemical
52. The bouncing back of light from objects it strikes is called ___ (a) absorption (b) radiation (c) reflection (d)
refraction (e) transmission
53. A drainages pattern made up of numerous cracks that form a grid is called ____ (a) dentritic (b) parallel (c) radial
(d) rectangular (e) square
54. The washing or blowing away of soil by water or wind is known as (a) deforestation (b) depletion (c)
desertification (d) erosion (e) vegetable
55. The importance of skill acquisition include the following except to (a) encourage individual to learn (b) help to self
employment (c) improve the quality of life (d) increase dependence on government (e) meet manpower need of
the society
56. The electrical symbol below represent a/an__ (a) ammeter (b) cell (c) fuse (d) resistor (e) switch

57. Radioactivity is used for the following except (a) carbon dating (b) kill germs (c) surgery (d) trace chemical
reaction (e) treat cancer
58. In which of the following conditions standing on a platform (a) man climbing staircase (b) bag of maize standing
on a platform (c) man climbing staircase (d) man pushing against a stationary kerosene tanker (e) woman
supporting a heavy load above her head with her hand
59. An electric motor is a device that converts electrical energy into ___ energy (a) chemical (b) light (c) magnetic (d)
mechanical (e) sound
60. The diagram below consists of two resistors having a resistance of 5w each. Calculate their combined resistance
their combined resistance in ohms when the key is closed (a) 04 (b) 1.0 (c) 2.5 (d) 10.0 (e) 25.0
R1 R2
 CITY OF FAITH COMPREHENSIVE COLLEGE
2017/2018 MOCK EXAMINATION
CLASS: J.S.S 3 (NECO) SUBJECT: RELIGIONS AND NATIONAL VALUES
SOCIAL STUDIES
Objectives
1. Large families are ___ in nature (a) extended (b) monogamous (c) nuclear (d) polygamous (e) single parent
2. Man made water ways are called (a) canal (b) dam (c) lakes (d) ocean (e) river
3. The study of man in his physical and social environment is known as (a) Economic (b) geography (c) History (d)
social studies (e) Sociology
4. Which of the following is the basic goal of social studies (a) create civic competence (b) develop critical thinking
in man (c) find solution to human problem (d) integrating ideas (e) prepare man for productivity
5. Which of the following is not a feature of the physical environment (a) forest (b) language (c) moon (d) ram (e)
sun
6. All the following are agent of socialization except (a) family (b) mass media (c) peer group (d) school (e)
traditional doctors
7. The most important aspect of nation building is ___ development (a) agricultural (b) political (c0 human capital
(d) infrastructural (e) social amenities
8. The process of sending and receiving messages from one place to another is called (a) circulation (b)
communication (c) information (d) invitation (e) transportation
9. The term “social environment” can be defined as a society of (a) animal (b) birds (c) human beings (d) insects (e)
reptiles
10. We can conserve our mineral resources by (a) not exploiting them (b) over exploiting them (c) smuggling them to
abroad (d) stealing them (e) utilizing them properly
11. There are two basic types of social groups (a) local and international (b) post primary and post secondary (c)
preprimary and primary (d) primary and secondary (e) state and national
12. Which of the following is nota condition necessary for marriage (a) financial readiness (b) physiological fitness
(c) psychological readiness (d) religious similarities (e) social stability
13. The aspect of culture which we can not see in concrete form is termed as (a) communal (b) international (C)
material (d) national (e) non- materials
14. The removal of government control from an industry or sector allow for a free and efficient market forces to take
place is called (a) commercialization (b) deregulation (c) indigenization (d) industrialization (e) urbanization
15. Which of the following is not an economic institution in Nigeria (a) commercial banks (b) economic and financial
crimes commission (c) National Deposit Insurance cooperation (d) Nigerian stock exchange (e) securities and
exchange commission
16. Peace in the society leads to the following except (a) development (b) diversity (c) greater achievement (d)
progress (e) unity
17. The following are common features of urban and rural settlement except (a) climatic condition (b) language (c)
Natural features (d) the same number of people (e) vegetational zone
18. Your mother’s sister is your (a) Aunt (b) cousin (c) Nephew (d) niece (e) uncle
19. The relationship through the father’s side can be described as (a) blood ties (b) kinship (c) kinsmen (d)
matrilineal (e) Patrineal
20. Conflict can be properly managed through (a) accusation (b) blame (c) complain (d) dialogue (e) prosecution
21. The following are measures on how to prevent children and women trafficking in Nigeria except (a) advocacy
(b)crusade against the perpetrators (c) National award to the traffickers (d) legislation on capital punishment to the
offenders (e) public enlightenment
22. Which of the following is not a modern means of communication (a) magazine (b) newspaper (c) radio (d) talking
drum (e) television
23. Language belongs to ___ aspect of cultures (a) communication (b) entertainment (c) materials (d) non material (e)
speech
24. The statement “information technology has turned the world into a global village means (a) access to information
has become very easy as if the whole world has turned to a village (b) dissemination of information is easier in the
 villages than any where in the world (c) the world is gradually becoming villages (d) village benefit more with
information technology (e) village have now increased in number due to the presence of technology
25. A marriage between a man and a woman of the same tribe can be said to be a/an (a) mixed (b) inter-tribal (c) intra
tribal (d) intra racial (d) inter-tribal
26. Which yea did Nigeria become a republic (a) 1964 (b) 1963 (c) 1962 (d) 1961 (e) 1960
27. Community can be defined as a group of people who (a) are of the same parents (b) are form the same ancestors
(c) belong to the same local government area (d) share a common locality and way of life (e) share boundary with
others
28. Construction of building, roads and bridges belong to the ___ sector of the economy (a) construction (b) primary
(c) quaternary (d) secondary (e) surface
29. The degree of hotness or coldness of a place is described as its (a) atmospheric condition (c) condition of
coldness (c) conaition of hotness (d) humidity (e) temperature
30. Science and technology should be encouraged in Nigerian schools in order to (a) build more schools (b) buy
aeroplance (c) create more resources (d) generate revenue (e) produce future scientists
31. Adam and Eve were not courageous to stand before God because they were (a) Afraid of God (b) Angry with God
(c) quilty of breaking the commandment (d) naked (e) hungry
32. In the second commandment God enjoins us to worship any other god beside Him because he is a (a) consuming
fire (b) fearful God (c) jealous God (d) loving God (e) merciful God
33. The first five books of the Bible are called (a) Decalogue (b) Pentateuch (c) Pentation (d) Prophecies (e)
Revelation
34. After the tower of Babel incident human beings began to (a) eat together (b) fight themselves (c) hate one another
(d) love god more (e) speak different language
35. Abraham and Sarah laughted at the promises of God to give them a child because (a) God never keeps promises
(B) God will not keep the promise (c) it was not possible (d) there was no hope again (e) they had Ishmeal already
36. Moses heard God speaking to him while he was (a) eating (b) praying (c) reading the bible (d) resting (e) taking
care of sheep
37. The first son of Hannah was (a) Ephraim (b) John (c) Joseph (d) Joshua (e) Samuel
38. The cities of Sodom and Gomorrah were destroyed with (a) armies (b) draught (c) famine (d) fire (e) food
39. Joseph refused to sleep with Portiphar‘s wife because (a) he feared God (b) he was sick (c) her husband would
know it (d) she was not very beautiful (e) the house was not secured
40. God used ___ to rebuild the broken walls of Jerusalem (a) Haggai (b) Hanani (c) Jonah (d) Nehemiah (e) Obadiah
41. Pharaoh invited Joseph to interpret his dream while he was still in ____ house (a) his family (b) his own (c)
portiphar’s (d) the governor’s (e) the prison
42. The lord blessed the latter days of Job and gave him twice what he before because of his (a) faith (b) fame (c)
patience (d) righteousness (e) wisdom
43. All the following churches are among the protestants except (a) Anglican (b) Baptist (c) Catholic (d) Methodist (e)
Presbyterian
44. After the great flood , Noah scarified to God and God promised never to (a) be angry with man (b) create another
generation (c) destroy with man (d) forgive the sin of men (e) trust man again
45. The Efiks calls God (a) Abasi (b) Chineke (c) Nyomo (d) Oluwa (e) Soko
46. Because Zachariah doubted the possibility of having a son the angel caused him to be (a) blind (b) deaf (c) dumb
(d) lame (e) paralyzed
47. King Herod secretly asked the wise men to tell him where baby Jesus was with an intention to (a) give him a gift
(b) kill him (c) meet him (d) take care of him (e) worship him
48. The first disciples chosen by Jesus were Peter and his brother called (a) Andrew (b) John (c) Judas (d) Nathaniel
(e) Thomas
49. Jesus said “any one who puts his hand on the plough and looks back is (a) an enemy of God (b) condemned
forever (c) not fit for God’s kingdom (d) not qualified for any blessing (e) sinning against God
50. In his teachings, Jesus encourages every one who wants to build a great, tower to (a) check for its type around (b)
dig a deep foundation (c) draw a befitting plan for it (d) look for many helpers (e) sit down and count the cast for it
51. Jesus taught that all those who are persecuted for righteousness sake should (a) fight back (b) rebel against their
opposition (c) rejoice and be glad (d) run for their lives (e) seek lawful redress
52. One of the following miracles is not a nurture miracle (a) feeding the five thousand (b) feeding the four thousand
(c) healing the leper (d) stilling the storm (e) walking on the sea
53. Jesus healed the centurion’s servant by (a) asking him to have faith and be healed (b) commanding the evil spirits
to come out (c) laying hand on him (d) praying the prayer of supplication for him (e) speaking the word only
54. Jesus taught that he who wants to be great among the people must first be (a) courageosis (b) dedicated (c)
hardworking (d) talented for that (e) the servant
55. In the “parable of the sower” the sower sowed his seeds in all the following except (a) fertile soil (b) good soil (c)
rocky ground (d) the paths (e) thorns
56. The tormented rich man’s two requests to Abraham, was that Lazarus should cool his tongue and (a) bring him out
of torment (b) go and warn his brothers (c) pray to God for mercy (d) preach to him for repentance (e) show him
the way out of his pains
57. From where did Jesus send two of his disciples to fetch the colt of an ass? (a) Bathphage (b) Bethsaida (c)
Bethany (d) mount Olives (e) Mount Olivet
58. On the mountain of transfiguration the disciples saw Elijah and ___ appear to Jesus (a) Abraham (b) Angles (c)
Elisha (d) God (e) Moses
59. In the Garden of Gethsemane, Jesus appealed to his disciple to pray with home at least for (a) one day (b) one
hour (c) three hours (d) two days (e) two hours
60. According to the bible history, the early church started on the day of (a) Christ’s ascension (b) Christ man (c)
Easter (d) Passover (e) Pentecost
 CITY OF FAITH COMPREHENSIVE COLLEGE
2017/2018 MOCK EXAMINATION
CLASS: J.S.S 3 (NECO) SUBJECT: BUSINESS STUDIES

1. An office with a big space having many workers in a single room is referred to as ___ office (a) administrature
(b) departmental (c) large (d) open
2. The clerical staff performs varieties of functions, except (a) directing visitors to the executive’s office (b) filing
documents (c) laundering for the boss (d) running official errands
3. Creating public awareness about the organization’s product is the responsibility of ___ department (a) marketing
(b) personnel (c) production (d) transport
4. Financial transactions of an organization is prepared and kept by ___ department (a) accounts (b) legal (c)
marketing (d) personnel
5. A good clerical staff should not be ___ (a) clean (b) confident (c) polite (d) saucy
6. Which of these is not a method of paying wages (a) commission bonus (b) dividend payment (c) flat rate (d) time
rate
7. Which of these is not a reward for being a truthful employee (a) demotion (b) promotion (c) trust (d) favour
8. An office equipment used for creating holes neatly on papers for filing is called ___ (a) calculator (b) photocopier
(c) perforator (d) stapler
9. The following are the attributes of truthfulness except (a) contentment (b) faithfulness (c) inconsistency (d)
sincerity
10. Which of the following is not a quality of a good receptionist? (a) attentiveness (b) bluffing (c) courtesy (d)
neatness
11. The second step in handling of incoming mails is ___ (a) opening of official letter s (b) quick dispatch of urgent
letters (c) sending letters belonging to various departments (d) sending personnel letter to the owners
12. In coming and outgoing mails of an organization are called ___ (a) bulletin (b) correspondence (c) journal (d)
handbill
13. An electrically operated office equipment used to produce exact copies of documents is called ___ (a) calculator
(b) computer (c) photocopier (d) scanner
14. Filing cabinet is used for the storage of ___ (a) documents (b) goods (c) helmets (d) utensils
15. Which of these is not a feature of a bank cheque? (a) amount (b) date (c) name (d) time
16. The management function that involves setting out goals of an organization is called ___ (a) controlling (b)
directing (c) coordinating (d) planning
17. The inner drive that makes a worker to pay attention to his duties is called ___ (a) consistency (b) handwork (c)
motivation (d) punctuality
18. The following are sanctions to check lateness to work, except ___ (a) elevation (b) pay deduction (c) query (d)
suspension
19. Which of the following is not a benefit of devotion to duty in an organization? (a) increase in cost of production
(b) morale booster to the workers (c) stress free (d) worker frustration is avoided
20. Which of the following is not a source of receiving information in an office? (a) drums (b) invoices (c) internet
(d) letters
21. The most flexible means of transportation among the following is ____ (a) canoe (b) pipeline (c) ship (d) vehicle
22. Transport by land comprises ___and ___ (a) air, road (b) pipeline, water (c) rail, road (d) rail, water
23. The fastest way of communicate with a business partner and receive immediate feedback is by (a) cowier service
(b) parcel post (c) registered letter (d) telephone call
24. The following are modern means of communications except (a) radio (b) telephone (c) television (d) whistle
25. Dissemination of information about new or existing product to the public with the view of making patronage is
called ___ (a) advertisement (b) communication (c) distribution (d) marketing
26. A document usually completed before signing an insurance contract is called ___ form (a) claim (b) insurance (c)
policy (d) proposal
27. The following are types of advertisement except (a) competitive (b) educative (c) informative (d) persuasive
28. The insurance policy taken against stealing by breaking into the house is known as (a) burglary insurance (b)
comprehensive insurance (c) fire insurance (d) life assurance
29. An amount of money paid by an insured to the insurer is known as ___ (a) compensation (b) endowment (c)
indemnity (d) premium
30. A bank account in which money is kept for a specified period of time before withdrawals are made is called __
account (a) current (b) fixed deposit (c) savings (d) joint
31. A valid cheque must have the following details except (a) address of the payee (a) amount to be paid in words (c)
correct date (d) current signature of the drawer
32. When a buyer gives purchases order based on the statement made by the seller, he is buying by ___ (a) arction (b)
description (c) inspection (d) tender
33. Buying and selling between two countries can be described as __ trade (a) bilateral (b) entrepot (c) export (d)
foreign
34. The association of individuals with common interest who pool resources to promote the welfare of their members
is known as (a) cooperative society (b) joint venture (c) partnership (d) sole proprietorship
35. Which of the following is not a form of business ownership (a) cooperative (b) partnership business (c) public
limited company (d) stock exchange market
36. A one man business can also be called ___ (a) sole proprietorship (b) co- operative society (c) joint stock company
(d) partnership business
37. A blacksmith that produces alluminium spoon, plates, and pots is categorized under___ service (a) commercial (b)
direct (c) indirect (d) industrial
38. If a bank allows a customer to withdraw more than his credit balance , he has been given a/an (a) dividend (b)
credit note (c) loan (d) overdraft
39. The following are sources of finance opened to a sole trader except (a) personal saving (b) borrowing from
friends (c) borrowing from family members (d) debentures
40. Which of the following is not a characteristics of transparency, Accountability and probity? (a) Due process (b)
fairness (c) generosity (d) free flow of information
41. The recording of cash and credit transactions so that information relating to the business can be easily obtain is
known as (a) accounting (b) book-keeping (c) business (d) transaction
42. Which of the following can be used to test the arithmetic accuracy of the posting in the ledger? (a) balance sheet
(b) cash book (c) trial balance (d) sales journal
43. On 1st Jan, 2013 M. umar started business with # 20,000 cash. What will be the double entry for this transaction?
(a) Cr capital, Dr cash account (b) De capital, CrM umar account (c) Dr cash, Cr capital account (d) Dr M. Umar,
Cr cash account
44. The statement of a financial position as at the end of a year is called ___ (a) balance sheet (b) cash book (c)
trading account (d) trial balance
45. Current assets less current liabilities is equal to ____ (a) working capital (b) capital owned (c) fixed assets (d) total
liabilities
46. Cost of goods sold is (a) closing stock + purchase opening stock (b) expensest purchases - opening stock (c)
opening stock + purchase – purchase closing stock (d) opening stock + purchases – expenses
47. The document sent by a seller to a customer when there is an overcharge is called____ (a) cheque book (b) credit
note (c) debit note (d) invoice
48. The amount given to customers for prompt payments of their account is called ____ (a) bonus (b) commission (c)
discount allowed (d) discount received
49. Which of the following equations is not correct? (a) Asset = capital + liability (b) Asset- capital = liability (a)
Asset – liability = capital (d) capital – liability – Asset
50. The document which contains a written order to a bank to pay a stated sum of money to a named person is called
(a) cheque (b) credit note (c) invoice (d) receipt
51. What is the full meaning of the abbreviation TAP? (a) transparency, accountability and probity (b) transparency
accountability and productivity (c) transparency accountability and proximity (d) transparency, accuracy and
probity
52. Which of the following is not a component of a ledger? (a) amount (b) date (c) folio (d) net profit
 53. Which of the following items does not appear in the teaching account? (a) closing stock (b) opening stock (c)
purchases (d) transports
54. The document issued when cash transaction is made as an evidence of payment is called___ (a) cheque book (b)
invoice (c) receipt (d) debit note
Use the following information to answer questions 55 and 56
Uche’s
Trading account for the year ended 31st December, 2013
# #
Opening stock 12,500 Sale 50,000
Add: purchase 30,000
Cost of goods
Available ?
less:
Closing stock 5,000
Cost of goods sold 35,000
Gross profit ?
50,000 50,000
55. The cost of goods available is (a) # 25,000 (b) # 30, 500 (c) # 38,000 (d) # 43,000
56. What is the gross profit? (a) # 10, 000 (b) # 12, 000 (c) # 18, 000 (d) # 14,500
Use the following information to answer questions 57-60 Musa’s
Balance sheet as at 31st December, 2011
# # #
Capital ? land and building 10,000
Add: Net profit 8,000 plant and machinery 7,500
Creditors 3,500 Furniture and fitting ?
Rent Accured 500 stock 5,500
Debtor 4,000
Cash at Bank 2,500
Cash an Hand 1,500
37,000 37,000
57. What is the amount of furniture and fittings? (a) # 4,000 (b) # 5,500 (c) # 6000 (d) #7000
58. The amount of capital is (a) # 25,000 (b) # 10, 000 (c) # 15,500 (d) # 19, 500
59. The total amount of fixed Asset is ___ (a) # 21, 500 (b) # 32, 500 (c) # 23, 500 (d) # 34, 000
60. What is the total mount of current liabilities? (a) # 4,000 (b) # 4,500 (c) # 6, 000 (d) # 7, 500
61. Memorandum is used (a) by two companies only (b) to communicate to the world (c) within an organization (d) to
communicate between different government institutions
62. The key that is used to take the cursor to a new line is __ key (a) delete (b) enter (c) insert (d) shift
63. Which of the following is a purchase document (a) credit note (b) invoice (c) letter of enquiry (d) receipt
64. Which of the document is not handled by a receptionist (a) business card (b) delivery note (c) request form (d)
telephone directory
65. When using indented paragraph ___ spaces are left to the right of the second and subsequent lines (a) five (b) four
(c) six (d) three
66. Which of the following is not a component of business studies? (a) book keeping (b) commerce (c) keyboarding
(d) salesmanship
67. The following are function of an office except ___ information (a) concealing (b) collecting (c) receiving (d)
recording
68. The keys that consist of letters and numbers and sometimes productions is referred to as __ keys (a) numeric (b)
alphanumeric (c) alphabetic (d) numeric shift
69. The sign (NP) means ___ paragraph (a) begin (b) hanging (c) indented (d) new
70. Which of the following is a type of paragraph? (a) blocked (b) horizontal (c) serial (d) vertical
71. The visitors book in an organization is handled by the (a) clerk (b) director (c) receptionist (d) secretary
 72. The place where visitors are first attended to in an office is called (a) creche (b) store (c) kosk (d) reception
73. The computer keyboard comprises of the following except (a) carriage (b) insert (c) page-up (d) space bar
74. The must suitable means of transporting petrol is by (a) air (b) pipeline (c) road (d) water
75. The following are functions performed in an office except ___ information (a) giving (b) preventing (c) receiving
(d) recording
76. Service as an occupation is provided by the following people, except (a) fisherman (b) doctor (c) lawyer (d)
teacher
77. Trial balance is based on ___ entry system (a) credit (b) debit (c) double (d) single
78. The book of account that is a prime book as well as a ledger is ___ book (a) cash book (b) purchases day (c)
returns inward (d) sale day
79. The following are job attributes of a clerk, except (a) loyalty (b) neatness (c) politeness (d) tact
80. A principal office is a good example of a ___ office (a) departmental (b) large (c) sales (d) small
81. A book of account for recording receipts and payments is called (a) cash book (b) invoice note (c) ledger account
(d) quotation
82. The place in an organization where a visitor receives information about the person he wants to visit is called ___
room (a) guest (b) information (c) reception (d) visitors
83. The end point in the channel of distribution of goods is (a) consumer (b) retailer (c) wholesaler (d) manufacturer
84. Which of the following is an acknowledgment of payment? (a) cash (b) cheque (c) draft (d) receipt
85. The following are columns in two column cash book, except (a) bank (b) cash (c) discount (d) particulars
86. The request slip is usually filled by the (a) manager (b) messenger (c) secretary (d) visitor
87. Another name for imprest is (a) balance (b) cash (c) float (d) surplus
88. At the death of a policy holder, the insurer pays ___ to the beneficiary (a) commission (b) divided (c) premium (d)
sum assured
89. Turn over is another name for (a) expenses (b) profit (c) sales (d) stock
90. Which of the following is not a fixed asset? (a) building (b) debtor (c) furniture (d) land
91. A place or room where office equipment of a school are kept is called ___ (a) bank (b) cabinet (c) store (d)
warehouse
92. The art of keeping accounts in a regular and systematic manner is called (a) accountancy (b) accounting (c) capital
(d) book keeping
93. In which of the following books is the day to day transaction of a business recorded? (a) cash (b) journal (c)
ledger (d) trial balance
94. Banking and transportation are examples of ___trade (a) aids (b) export (c) foreign (d) home
95. The amount used in starting up a business is called (a) capital (b) cash at bank (c) cash in hand (d) opening stock
96. A document which shows the full details of worker ‘s pay is called (a) pay slip (b) payroll (c) stock records (d)
store records
97. The following are advertising media except (a) posters (b) leaflets (c) newspaper (d) telegrams
98. Which of the following equipment can store, retrieve and process information? (a) calculator (b) computer (c)
duplicator (d) typewriter
99. A petty cash system is based on an imprest of # 1,200 a month. If the petty cashier is left with a balance of # 470,
how much will he be reimbursed? (a) # 1,200 (b) # 1000 (c) # 730 (d) #470
100. The most suitable medium for demonstrating the use of a product is (a) hand bills (b) poster (c) radio (d) television
101. Buying and selling of goods between Nigeria and China is known as ___ trade (a) export (b) foreign (c) home (d)
retail
102. The document sent by the seller to the buyer to correct an under charge is called (a) credit note (b) debit note (c)
invoices (d) receipts
103. Reception office is usually located near (a) chief accountant (b) director’s office (c) entrance of the building (d)
manager’s office
104. The most expensive means of transporting passengers and goods from Yola to Lagos is by (a) air (b) railway (c)
road (d) water
105. Which of the following is not one of the uses of journal (a) closing entries (b) correction of error (c) opening
entries (d) recording cash purchases
106. These items can be regarded as petty cash expenses except (a) brush (b) carpet (c) detergent (d) newspaper
107. The advertising medium mostly found along major roads in cities is (a) billboard (b) leaflet (c) radio (d) television
108. Which of the following aids to trade is utilized when people leave their places of residence to another place or
country for recreation or holiday (a) advertising (b) banking (c) communication (d) transportation
109. A place in an organization where formal transactions are carried out is called a/an (a) building (b) cubicle (c)
internet (d) office
110. Commercial banks performs the following functions, except (a) accepting deposits (b) lending to customers (c)
printing and issuing of currencies (d) acting as agents of payment
111. Safe- keeping customers valuables is common with ___ banks (a) agricultural (b) central (c) commercial (d)
merchant
112. First bank of Nigeria Plc may dishonor a cheque presented for payment if (a) any alteration on the cheque is
enclosed (b) it is due for payment (c) it is presented after a period of six months (d0 the signature of the drawer is
regular
113. Products and services are advertised on vehicle through the use of ___ (a) journals (b) newspaper (c) radio (d)
stickers
114. The aids to trade that involves the movement of people good and services to where they are needed is known ad (a)
advertising (b) transportation (c) banking (d) communication
115. “DR” in a ledger stands for ____ (a) debit (b) debtor (c) director (d) discount
116. Which of the following means of transportation requires rail tracks for its movement ___ (a) canoe (b) tricycle (c)
Aeroplane (d) train
117. The fastest means of transporting passengers and goods is by (a) air (b) land (c) rail (d) water
118. In application of double entry principle, every transaction involves ___ accounts (a) 5 (b) 4 (c) 3 (d) 2
119. The study of accounting is centered on the principle of entry (a) complete (b) double (c) reversal (d) single
120. For every credit entry in an account. There must be a corresponding ___ entry (a) complete (b) debit (c)double (d)
single
 CITY OF FAITH COMPREHENSIVE COLLEGE
2017/2018 MOCK EXAMINATION
CLASS: J.S.S 3 (NECO) SUBJECT: PRE-VOCATIONAL STUDIES

HOME ECONOMICS
Instruction: choose the correct answers from the options provided.
1. Fundamental human rights include the following except right to ___ (a) be educated (b) be heard (c) control
resources (d) culture (e) discriminate
2. Two major factors that influence child development are ___and ___ (a) exercise environment (b) feeding, heredity
(c) heredity environment (d) language, love (e) love, toy
3. An increase in skill and complexity of function in a child is referred to as ___ (a) development (b) energy (c)
growth (d) health (e) life
4. Which of the following is transmitted through sexual contact alone? (a) cholera(b) HIV/AIDS (c) malaria (d)
syphilis (e) tuberculosis
5. An example of short term goals ___ (a) building a house (b) providing good education (c) provision of balanced
meals (d) raising healthy children (e) saving money for retirement
6. Acceptance, love and sense of belonging are examples of ___need (a) esteem (b) physiological (c) safety (d) self
actualization (e) social
7. The last step in decision making is ____ (a) acting on the decision (b) choosing the best alternative (c) evaluation
of the decision made (d) identifying the decision to be made (e) listing the alternatives
8. A healthy relationship between a boy and a girl which may lead to marriage is called __ (a) counseling (b)
courtship (c) dating (d) friendship (e) wedding
9. Which of the following factors influence decision making? (i) friends, family and value (ii) resource, needs and
want (iii) values location and family (iv) friends, resources and knowledge (a) I and ii only (b) I and iii only (c) ii
and iii only (d) I, ii and iv only (e) I and iv only
10. Household pest can be controlled by ___ (a) disposing refuse promptly (b) keeping food exposed (c) leaving home
surrounding dirty (d) leaving stagnant water in broken cans (e) maintaining poor hygiene in the home
11. A suitable laundry agent for removing ink stain from clothes is ___ (a) borax (b) lemon juice (c) methylated spirit
(d) soap (d) washing soda
12. Bed linen includes the following except___ (a) bed sheet (b) blanket (c) drapery (d) mattress cover (e) pillow case
13. Constant breaking of thread may be caused by the following except ___ (a) bobbin thread different from the upper
thread (b) materials is too thick for the needle used (c) incorrect threading of machine (d) tension of thread is too
light (e) using needle of incorrect length
14. Which of these lines increases the height of a person? (a) broken (b) curved (c) diagonal (d) horizontal (e) vertical
15. The following are benefits of repairing an old garment except ____ (a) keeping wardrobe tidy (b) making it last
longer (c) making it look beautiful (d) saving money (e) wasting time and energy
16. Which of these substances aids the removal of dirt in laundering? (a) detergent (b) kerosene (c) paint (d) polish (e)
starch
17. Basic sewing stitches are grouped into _____ (a) back and running (b) embroidery and running (c) permanent and
back (d) permanent and temporary (e) temporary and running
18. The following are processes involved in laundering of silk fabric except ___ (a) avoid rubbing of fabric (b) ironing
on the wrong side with warm iron (c) rinsing fabric in warm water (d) using a mild detergent (e) using brush when
washing
19. Loosely woven fabrics should not be hung in a closet because it ___ (a) can absorb moisture (b) can stretch out of
shape (c) causes overcrowding of clothes (d) creates easily (e) makes fabric get old
20. Jackets and coats are best stored in ___ (a) bags (b) boxes (c) drawers (d) shelves (e) wardrobe
21. Which of the following fabric is suitable for not weather? (a) cotton (b) nylon (c) polyester (d) silk (e) wool
22. Sexually transmitted disease is an illness spread from one person to another through____ (a) hugging (b) hand
shake (c) kissing (d) sexual contact (e) sharing comb
23. Which of the following of the following is a right of a Nigerian child? Right to ___ (a) abuse (b) cultism c) drive
(d) survival (e) wealth
24. Using a piece of fabric to replace worn- out part of a garment is called___ (a) darning (b) dyeing (c) patching (d)
printing (e) waxing
25. Which of the following practices is a tip for food hygiene? (a) never sneeze over food (b) remove jewelries before
cooking (c) trim nails regularly (d) wash foods thoroughly before cooking (e) wash hands before cooking
26. Fabrics used for decorating windows and doors are contains and ____ (a) bed sheets (b) bed spread (c) blankets (d)
draperies (e) mattresses
27. Which of the following is a tool used in the production of pomade? (a) kettle (b) condenser (c) mixing spoon (d)
stiletto (e) thimble
28. Which of the following methods of preparing egg dishes is most suitable for children? (a) baking (b) boiling (c)
frying (d) scrambling (e) poaching
29. Foods that can spoil easily are said to be ____ (a) edible (b) good (c) hard (d) non- perishable (e) perishable
30. Which of the following fruits produce juice for a drink? (a) banana (b) garden eggs (c) pine apple (d) pumpkin (e)
tomatoes
31. Additives can be used for the following reasons except to ___ (a) increase appetite (b) garnish food (c) improve
appearance of food (d) improve taste of food (e) preserve food
32. The process of choosing from alternative courses of action is called ___ (a) action taking (b) decision making (c)
demand record (d) picking list (e) scale of preference
33. A disadvantage of cooperative society is to ____ (a) admit the services of middle men (b) adopt democratic
practices (c) have highly committed members (d) promote the saving habits of members (e) provide great
incentives for members
34. A traditional method of preservation used on most food items ___ (a) canning (b) drying (c) freezing (d)
refrigerating (e) smoking
35. Which of the following is not the responsibility of the food safety manger to consumers? (a) conduct sanitation
and safety inspections (b) develop safety regulations and policies (c) monitor safety regulations (d) serve meals in
the right order (e) train employees in sanitary and safe work procedures
36. Hygienic food will lead consumer to which of the following? (a) coughing (b) healthiness (c) stooling (d)
vomiting (e) weakness
37. The items that should be stored in plastic food containers are ___ (a) dried grains (b) fresh tomatoes (c) fruits (d)
milk (e) vegetable
38. Another name for batik is ____ (a) brushing (b) finishing (c) painting (d) printing (e) waxing
39. Which of the following is a healthy feeding practice? (a) doing strenuous work (b) eating balance diet (c) making
bulk purchase of food item (d) making wise buying practice (e) preserving foods out of season
40. The following exercise increases the in take of oxygen into the body except ___ (a) dancing (b) eating (c) sit-up
(d) swimming (e) weight lifting
41. Which of these is not a factor to be considered when buying food for storage? (a) food in season (b) food vendor
(c) money available (e) quality of food (e) size of the family
42. Food that stays for a long time if stored property is called ____ (a) food in season (b) high moistured (c) non
perishable food (d) perishable food (e) seasonal food
43. A practice where harmful bacteria are prevented from growing in foods is known as ___ (a) habit (b) hygiene (c)
safety (d) sanitation (e) storage
44. The following are wise buying practices except ___ (a) buying food in adequate quantity (b) buying food that are
out of season (c) comparing values and prices (d) ensuring adequate storage facilities (e) reading labels on food
containers
45. An agent not responsible for spoilage of food is ____ (a) bacteria (b) enzyme (c) fertilizer (d) mould (e) yeast
46. When egg is boiled the white (a) caramelizes (b) coagulates (c) gelatinizes (d) shrinks (d) wrinkles
47. Which of the following activities stimulate a person’s appetite? (a) eating (b) exercise (c) reading (d) rest (e) sleep
48. Short time storage is mostly used for ___ food (a) body building (b) energy giving (c) non- perishable (d)
perishable (e) protective
49. Which of these is not a point to consider in food hygiene? (a) covering your hair (b) using clean plate (c) using
expensive equipment (d) washing fresh fruit (e) washing hand
50. Which of the following foods protects the body against diseases? (a) beans (b) bread (c) cassava (d) pineapple (e)
yam
51. The chemical means of food preservation is through ___ (a) bottling (b) freezing point (c) radiation (d) salting (e)
smoking
52. Contaminated food causes the following symptoms to the body except ___ (a) frequent stooling (b) poor sight (c)
stomach upset (d) vomiting (e) weakness
53. Intestinal pains stomach upset, vomiting are all signs of the following except ___ (a) airborne disease (b) fever (c)
food borne diseases (d) food poisoning (e) pregnancy
54. Which of the following is not a snack? (a) egg roll (b) groundnut (c) meat pie (d) plaintain chip (e) salad
55. Which of the following is a refreshing drink? (a) egg flip (b) ginger drink (c) hot milk (d) Lemonade (e) tea
56. The following are advantages of bulk buying except ____ (a) availability of food (b0 it is economical (c) it
occupies space (d) it saves money (e) it saves time
57. Insects that destroys grains are ___ (a) buys (b) butterflies (c) mosquitoes (d) ticks (d) weevils
58. Drug abuse can be avoided only if taken with ___ prescription (a) biologists (b) chemists (c) dieticians (d)
nutritionist’s (e) physicians
59. An example of energy giving food is ___ (a) beans (b) crayfish (c) garden egg (d) pawpaw (e) potato
60. The cooking method that conserves food nutrients most is ___ (a) baking (b) boiling (c) frying (d) roasting (e)
stewing
61. Agricultural is important to the national economy because it provide (a) clothing for man (b) employment for
youth (c) feed for livestock (d) food for farmer (e) shelter for man
62. Which of the following forms of agriculture deals with the keeping of bees (a) apiculture (b) aquaculture (c)
Horticulture (d) Olericulture
63. The movement of Fulani herdsman and their animals from one place to another for survival is termed ___
farming (a) alley (b) ley (c) mixed (d) Normadic
64. A dicotyledonous plant possesses (a) fibrous root system (b) long leaf petiole (c) narrow leaf stalk (d) one seed leaf
65. Which of the following crops is a biennial crop? (a) carrot (b) cucumber (c) lettuce (d) pepper
66. Which of these is an industrial raw materials (a) chocolate (b) cotton (c) margarine (d) paper
67. White Fulani cattle is referred to as a dual purpose breed because it is kept (a) as pet and guard animal (b) for game
and meat production (c) for hides and skin production (d) for meat and milk production
68. Rabbits are referred to as non-ruminants because they (a) are relatively small in size (b) give birth to their young
ones alive (c) have simple stomach type (d) live and produce on land
69. The meat from goat is known as (a) Bacan (b) beef (c) Cheron (d) mutton
70. The possession of gills by fish enables it to (a) defend itself from their predators (b) feed from micro plankton (c)
more freely in water (d) take dissolved oxygen and remove carbondioxide
71. The most common weed of pastures in Nigeria is (a) Broom weed (b) Elephant grass (c) goat weed (d) spear grass
72. Weeds are difficult to control in the farm because (a) their leaves are broader (b) their seeds remain dormant for
long time (c) they harbor insect pests that destroy crop (d) they have shallow root system
73. Which of the following herbicides will be applied on the farm after the planted seeds have germinated and
established (a) contact (b) Emergency (c) Neo-emergence (d) post emergence
74. Wage is reward granted to (a) capital (b) entrepreneur (c) labour (d) land
75. Which of the following factors of production can be used as collateral for securing loan from the banks (a) capital
(b) labour (c) land (d) management
76. The purpose of erecting farm structures and building by a farmer is to (a) control cost of farm products (b)
increases the farmers income (c) make the farm operation easier (d) reduce cost of production
77. The housing facility for bees is called (a) cage (c) hive (c) hutch (d) paddock
78. A farmer sowed 380 seeds of maize on his farmland out of which 82 did not germinate, calculate the percentage
germination of the maize seeds he planted (a) 15.3 (b) 21.6 (c) 73.7 (d) 78.4
79. The following are post-planning operations except (a) ploughing (b) pruning (c) supplying (d) thinning
80. The best time to apply fertilizer in a farm is after weeding because it (a) discourage disturbance of crop roots (b)
encourage damages of crops roots (c) facilitates fertilizer fixation in the soil (d) reduce competition between crops
and weeds
 81. Which of the following statements is true about supplying in crop production? It is the replacement of seed that
(a) contain high impurities (b) failed to germinate (c) have high dormancy period (d) have low resistance to
diseases
82. Which of the following is true about straw? It (a) contains high proportion of fresh leaves (b) is a major source of
protein for farm animals (c) is a residue of dried crop stalla (d) is made upof tubers
83. Which of the following farm animals should be allowed to creep feed? (a) chick (b) cow (c) lamb (d) nanny
84. Farm animals can be infected with diseases through the following means except (a) Bites from insect rector (b)
contact with infected droppings (c) feeding on contaminated materials (d) feeding the animal with a particular
food stuff
85. Which type of fishing tool would have been used to harvest the large quantity of fishes (a) fishing basket (b)
fishing net (c) Harpoon (d) trawlers
86. A farmer who wishes to perpetrate and attract more interest from local and distant market should be advised to __
his farm produce (a) Advertise (b) grade (c) package (d) process
87. Which of these packaging materials would he use to package tomatoes? (a) Bags (b) Basket (c) Bins (d) Boxes
88. Which of these produce will be preserve in a crate (a) cotton (b) egg (c) fish (d) meat
89. Which the quantity of mango supplied to the market is more than the quantity demanded by consumer, the market
price of mango will (a) be at equilibrium (b) be fluctuating (c) be the same as production cost (d) fall below the
fixed price
90. When the price of cabbage is high and the demand is low, there will be (a) high demand of cabbage (b) no
demand for fresh substitutes (c) no demand for fresh substitutes (d) no producer for fresh cabbage
91. Farm produce are generally preserved for the following reasons except (a) prevention of microbial growth (b)
protection from discoloration (c) provision of planting materials (d) reduction of market demand
92. The vegetation zone that is most appropriate for livestock grazing is (a) desert (b) mangrove (c) montane (d)
savanna
93. Which of these Nigeria vegetation zones has the least rainfall in a year (a) guinea savanna (b) rainforest (c) Sahel
savanna (d) Sudan savanna
94. Forest trees serve as wind break on the farmland because it (a) Assists in reducing evaporation of soil water (b)
Helps in preventing nutrient leaching (c) helps in purifying the atmospheric air (d) prevents wind erosion and
desert encroachment
95. Which of the following disease can be transmitted to poultry by stale feed, contaminated feed and water? (a)
Anthrax (b) Brucellosis (c) Coccidiosis (d) Rinder pest
96. Recording of business transaction in a systematic manner to show the affairs of the farm at a certain period is
known as (a) book keeping (b) cost accounting (c) financial accounting (d) store keeping
97. A farmer bought two liters of weed off herbicides worth # 2500 on credit and later returned it when he discovered
that it had expired. In which of his book will he document the transaction? (a) purchase (b) invoice (c) return
outward journal (d) sales journal
98. In Agro- business transaction, stock exchange is conducted by (a) bankers (b) cooperatives (c) money lenders (d)
stock brokers
99. Export promotion supports agricultural production of Nigeria by encouraging the sales of Nigerian farm produce
in ___ market (a) consumer (b) international (c) internet (d) local
100. Which of the following agents does not participate in the activities of stock exchange (a) buyer and consumer (b)
buyers representative (c) extension agents (d) farmer agents
101. The task of encouraging the sales of agricultural produce outside Nigeria is the responsibility of (a) Association of
Nigeria cooperative exporters (b) Nigeria export promotion council (c) Nigeria shipper council (d) Nigeria stock
exchange
102. The best sequence for the rotation of millet, cowpea, sorghum ad groundnuts is ___ (a) groundnut cowpea
millet sorghum (b) groundnut sorghum millet cowpea (c) sorghum groundnut cowpea
millet (d) sorghum groundnut millet cowpea
103. The term aquaculture refers to the study of (a) agriculture (b) bee farming (c) livestock (d) water habitats
104. Which of these methods is used in removing moisture from fish (a) canning (b) freezing (c) milling (d) salting
105. Trypansomiasis is a common disease of (a) cattle (b) goat (c) pig (d) poultry
106. Coccidiosis in poultry is a ___ disease (a) bacterial (b) fungal (c) nematode (d) protozoan
107. Which of the following is not an actoparasite (a) flea (b) ,louse (c) mite (d) roundworm
108. The use of natural enemies to suppress pest in the farm is a___ control method (a) biological (b) chemical (c)
cultural (d) mechanical
109. A row of tress and shrubs planted perpendicular to the wind direction by a farmer in order to reduce wind erosion
is referred to as (a) contour crops (b) strip crops (c) wind breaks (d) vegetative cover
110. Which of the following is a piercing and sucking insect? (a) Aphid (b) cricket (c) Grasshopper (d) Locust
111. The following methods are used for controlling weeds except (a) bush burning (b) crop rotation (c) hand pulling
(d) use of pesticides ‘
112. Bulldozer is used for the following except (a) bush clearing (b) felling of trees (c) pulling of farm implement (d)
moving large quantity of soil
113. A farm machine used for breaking down of large soil particles is called a/an (a) camel (b) donkey (c) goat (d) horse
114. A facility constructed on the farm land to ease farm operations is known as farm (a) building (b) implement (c)
machinery (d) structures
115. Which of the following is a processing structure? (a) cold store (b) drainage canal (c) pumping house (d) shelling
barn
116. Soil conservation is important in agriculture mainly because it (a) controls soil diseases (b) improves soil pH (d)
maintains soil fertility
117. A farmer control endoparaiste in his flock by (a) allowing animals to graze together (b) feeding animals
adequately (c) provding water ad-libitum (d) regular deworming
118. A crop transported from a country where it is produced to another country for trading is best referred to as ___
crop (a) cash (b) catch (c) export (d) international
119. Government generates revenue from agricultural activities through the following ways, except (a) Export duties
from cash crops (b) salaries paid to peasants farmers (c) taxes paid by agro industries (d) taxes paid by commercial
farmer
120. Which of the following is not an importance of forest to man? (a) conserve soil fertility (b) encouragement of
mining activities (c) source of food (d) source of medicinal herbs
 CITY OF FAITH COMPREHENSIVE COLLEGE
2017/2018 MOCK EXAMINATION
CLASS: J.S.S 3 (NECO) SUBJECT: ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Reading comprehension: Read the passages below and answer the questions that follow by choosing the most
appropriate of the options lettered A to E
PASSAGE 1
A country’s human population can grow beyond available resources such as food, water and shelter. This leads to
problems such as overcrowding and starvation.
Many countries have found it essential to regulate their national populations so that they have populations they can
cater for. Catering for a human population does not involve only food and shelter but many other equipments such as
education, medical services employment and transportation.
A country regulates its population through family planning. Family planning means that parents voluntarily limit
their children to the number they want.
An average girl is capable of becoming a mother at the age of about 15, and may continue bearing children until
the age of 45. If she bears children at the rate of one in two years, and all of them remain alive, she may have a total of
15 children. If most of the women in a particular generation did this, the country’s population would explode.
Today, educated parents voluntarily limit the size of their families because they know that by so doing they can
better provide for the children they choose to have
Some people argue, especially on religious grounds that family planning is wrong because it often involves the
termination of the life of a baby. But, infact, there are several family planning methods and the emphasis in family
planning is on the prevention of conception rather than the termination of life. One can therefore choose a method of birth
control that agrees with one’s religious beliefs
Questions
1. According to the passage, family planning is (a) catering for a human population in a country (b) consciously
limiting the number of births (c) preventing conception (d) preventing overcrowding and starvation (e)
termination of the lives of babies
2. The word ‘resources’ as used in paragraph one means (a) amenities (b) attributes (c) capacities (d) features (e)
liabilities
3. The main focus of the passage is (a) methods of birth control (b) religious beliefs (c) terminating lives (d) age limit
of child birth (e) why countries regulate their human population
4. According to the passage, countries regulate their human population in order to (a) ascertain the number of people
in a country (b) come up with proper family planning methods (c) create awareness of the number of children a
women should have (d) encourage population growth (e) have a population they can control
5. Which of the following is a negative effect of over-population? (a) Hunger and over-crowding (b) improper family
planning methods (c) lack of disease control (d) limiting the size of families (e) negative religious practices
Passage II
My father could stand anything from his children but the only thing he wouldn’t stand was having his children go
out at night to join other noisy children in their moonlight play. He therefore made sure that the door was locked and that
the door was locked and that we went down on our sleeping mats in our room as early as possible.
On many occasions, we would lie on our mats and listen to the joyful noise and songs of other children. We would
see our father as the most wicked man in the village, which was our world. After some time, however, we had come to
accept this way of life without complaint.
But then, two cousins, who recently lost their father came to stay with us. They had been brought up differently
and were not used to be kept indoors while other boys were playing outside.
They grow restless as the days passed began to think of a way out. Soon they worked out a plan. They knew that
my father usually went to sleep in the front room of the house after checking that we were locked up in our room and that
the gate was locked. In their plan, my cousins included me. It was that one of us would be left behind each night so as to
lock the gate and the door of our room after the two who had sneaked out to play. We could do this in rotation. My father
would find both the door and the gate locked and assume we were safe inside.
I did not take kindly to this plan. However, after a lot of argument, I agreed to stay in every right and see to the
locking and opening of the door. My cousins were delighted and this plan worked for many weeks
Questions
6. According to the passage, the children could do anything, except (a) go out at night to play (b) listen to other
children play (c) lock the door (d) sleep on their mats (e) wake up very early
7. The children perceived their father as the most __ man in the village (a) acceptable (b) caring (c) playful (d) selfish
(e) wicked
8. Another word that can be used to replace sneaked in the passage is (a) crept (b) moved (c) ran (d) tread (e) walked
9. In order for the children to go out at night they (a) grew restless (b) locked up their room (c) slept in the front
room (d) went to sleep (e) worked out a plan
10. Which of the following statements is NOT true according to the passage (a) His cousins were delighted with the
plan (b) the plan was successful (c) the writer stayed in every night (d) the w1riter was not comfortable with the
plan (e) the writer went out to play.
Section B: VOCABULARY DEVELOPMENT
Complete each of the following questions with the most appropriate of the options lettered A-E ( Nos 11-25)
11. A ___ of people gathered at the accident sene (a) colony (b) crowd (c) horde (d) host (e) team
12. The boy, who is a drug ____ died after an overdose (a) addict (b) administrator (c) baron (d) peddler (e) specialist
13. She ___ over the price of the item before paying for it (a) argued (b) debated (c) discussed (d) fought (e) haggled
14. The young man plans to learn a ___ after leaving college (a) career (b) hobby (c) skill (d) trade (e) vocation
15. All the trader met to reviews the __ of their commodities (a) items (b) payment (c) prices (d) prize (e) stock
16. Every member of the congregation listened attentively to the ___ as he delivered his sermon (a) cleric (b) orator
(c) presenter (d) speaker (e) teacher
17. I don’t often travel by air because the cost of ___ is very high (a) diving (b) flying (c) plying (d) rafting (e) surfing
18. Having served the organization meritoriously for 35 years, Mrs Mohammed will be ___ next month (a) benched
(b) demoted (c) promotes (d) retiring (e) suspended
19. The bank manager asked the man to provide a/an __ before he could access the loan (a) cheque (b) collateral (c)
interest (d) liability (e) principal
20. Politicians often ignore opinion ___ (a) figures (b) numbers (c) polls (d) speculations (e) votes
21. Adama has no parents, so he is (a) a bastard (b) a destitute (c) an imbecile (d) an orphan (e) an outcast
22. To avoid air pollution the ____ has advised against bush burning (a) environmentalist (b) neurologist (c)
Oplithamologist (d) psychiatrist (e) psychologist
23. Mrs Adamu bought fresh meat at the ___ (a) abattoir (b) cafeteria (c) canteen (d) green grocer (e) restaurant
24. The labourers were provided with the necessary farm ___ to do the work (a) apparatus (b) equipment (c) items (d)
materials (e) tools
25. The accused person was ____ in prison (a) detained (b) punished (c) remanded (d) reprimanded (e) tried
In the passage below the numbered gaps indicate missing words. A against each number in the list below the passage,
five options are offered in columns lettered A-E. Fill each numbered gap with the most appropriate of the options (Nos
26-35)
The breast 26 has been described as a three course 27 the milk the 28 produces after delivery , which is yellowish in 29
is called 30 and should not be discarded as some women do. The first milk during breast 31 is higher which is more 32.
This is the fore milk, the water provided for 33 in the breast is found here.
The latter milk from the same breast is thicker, the hind milk, higher in 34 high energy portion of the milk the
main course of the breast ‘meal’. Mothers must feed their babies long enough like ten to fifteen minutes on a breast at
each 35 for the baby to get this main meal.
A B C D E
26. Fluid liquid milk secretion water
27. dessert dinner food lunch meal
28. baby sitter maid mother nanny nurse
29. appearance colour complexion form nature
30. colostrums concortion mixture nutrient syrup
31. expression feeding sucking surgery treatment
32. condense nutrition solid tasty watery
33. babies children foetus teens toddlers
 34. calorie mineral nutrition protein vitamin
35. diet feed gulp portion ration
Section C: GRAMMATICAL ACCURACY
Complete each of the following questions with the most appropriate of the options lettered A-E (Nos 36-65)
36. That is the boy ___ I have been talking about (a) of whom (b) which (c) who (d) whom (e) whose
37. The principal has nominated ____and ___ to represent the school (a) he/ I (b) he/ me (c) him/her (d) us/ me (e)
we/him
38. Was it ____ you were talking about? (a) he (b) him (c) himself (c) his (e) them
39. The two friends hugged ___at the party (a) each one (b) each other (c) one another (d) theirselves (e) themselves
40. The children were told to share the sweets ___ the three of them (a) against (b) among (c) between (d) for (e) to
41. Toyin’s sister is more beautiful than (a) her (b) hers (c) herself (d) she (e) them
42. Thank you ___ much for the moral support you have given me (a) quite (b) so (c) such (d) too (e) very
43. Do is ____ young to marry the rich old man (a) quite (b) so (c) such (d) too (e) very
44. This is __ cup (a) Amo’s (b) Amos (c) Amos’ (d) Amos’s (e) Amoses
45. The retired soldiers were honoured for serving the country ___ for thirty five years (a) faithfully (b) hopefully (c)
joyfully (d) kindly (e) peacefully
46. ‘Does everyone in this class speak French? The teacher asked, in indirect speech becomes. The teacher asked if
anyone in that class ___ French (a) has spoken (b) is speaking (c) speaks (d) spoke (e) used to speak
47. The rain _____ have stopped by the time the meeting ends (a) could (b) must (c) should (d) will (e) would
48. The choir ___ melodiously during the Christmas carol (a) sang (b) sing (c) sings (d) sung (e) was singing
49. The sentence, the robbers are being taken away by the police, rewritten in active voice form becomes. The police
____ the robbers away (a) are taking (b) had taken (c) have been taken (d) have taken (e) took
50. He __out of the council before his car stopped (a) drives (b) drove (c) had driven (d) has driven (e) have driven
51. Tina has ___ the baby on the bed (a) laid (b) lain (c) lay (d) lays (e) lies
52. The statement, I reported speech form becomes: Amina said that she (a) is about to travel to Kano (b) will travel
to Kano tomorrow (c) will travel to Kano the following day (d) would travel to Kano the following day (e) would
travel to Kano the previous day
53. She ___ for the National Examination Council (a) were working (b) work (c) working (d) works (e) would work
54. The teacher ___ writing on the blackboard when I entered the classroom (a) had been (b) has been (c) have been
(d) is (e) was
55. The statement, the dog was chasing the rat, rewritten in the passive voice becomes the rat ___ by the dog (a0 had
been chased (b) has been chased (c) is chased (d) is chasing (e) was being chased
56. No sooner had the robbers left ___the police arrived (a) after (b) before (c) than (d) that6 (e) when
57. The children wanted to play in the park ___ (a) did they? (b) didn’t they? (c) do they? (d) don’t they? (e) isn’t it
58. The generous rich man ___ gives alms (a) frankly (b) grudgnty (c) hardly (d) reluctantly (e) willingly
59. The students were asked to ___ up for food (a)we (b) eveve (c) que (d) qule (e) queue
60. The staff of the department presenteda ___ to the retired director (a) souvamire (b) souvenir (c) souvenir (d)
sovanir (e) soveni
61. Our parents will return today___ (a) aren’t they? (b) can’t they? (c) shouldn’t they? (d) will they? (e) won’t they?
62. Mary____ her last month’s salary on jewellery (a) squanda (b) skwandered (c) skuandered (d) squandered (e)
sqandered
63. The weather is ___ cold in winter (a) extremely (b) highly (c) seriously (d) so (e) too
64. We had hardly settled down after arriving from the city ___the mob stormed the village (a) and (b) so (c) that (d)
when (e) while
65. Rose scaled ___ the screening successfully (a) along (b) down (c) for (d) off (e) through
Section D: SPOKEN ENGLISH
Choose from the options lettered A-E the one that contains the given phonetic symbol (Nos 66-80)
66. /a:/ (a) duty (b) nail (c) party (d) soap (e) tune
67. /Ɔ:/ (a) core (b) book (c) table (d) kettle (e) school
68. /Ɵ/ (a) bath (b) bottle (c) date (d)float (e) these
69. /w/ (a) sword (b) wall (c) who (d) wrapper (e) wrong
70. /𝜕𝑢/ (a) ball (b) crop (c) one (d) proof (e) toad
71. /e/ (a) ewe (b) heed (c) said (d) stand (e) treat
72. /𝜕/ (a) begged (b) dance (c) father (d)path (e) tin
73. /Ʒ:/ (a) cart (b) feather (c) mesh (d) shell (e) shirt
74. /h/ (a) hand (b) honour (c) sheep (d) switch (e) that
75. /eI/ (a) angle (b) belch (c) tray (d) high (e) maid
76. /𝜕𝐼/ (a) bride (b) care (c) frame (d) glass (e) maid
77. /Ʌ/ (a) block (b) mute (c) pound (d) tough (e) vase
78. /tʃ/ (a) case (b) chair (c) chronic (d) judge (e) sure
79. /k/ (a) cheap (b) cite (c) knee (d) knit (e) talk
80. /s/ (a) rise (b) shop (c) sit (d) vision (e) zinc
PAPER II
LITERATURE IN ENGLISH
Section A: DRAMA
Oyekunle Oyediji: Tears of a Bride
81. Araba is killed by (a) Ajadi (b) Akofe (b) Alamu (d) Lapinni (e) Lobinto
82. Okiki is Apekeola’s ___ (a) daughter (b) cousin (c) mother (d) nephew (e) sister
83. Okiki’s father is a very ___ man (a) arrogant (b) bad (c) good (d) lousy (e) selfish
84. The staff of Lagelu in the hands of Araba becomes a symbol of (a) agitation (b) cohesion (c) confusion (d)
depression (e) oppression
85. Lapinni insists on not burying his daughter because (a) he needs time to plan her burial (b) he wants to know who
killed her (c) it is a family tradition (d) it is the daughter’s wish (e) tradition demands so
Chucks Generic: The priceless Jewel
86. Who say he has become a mathematics gurn (a) Adamu (b) Anikwe (c) Jamiyu (d) Nnamdi (e) Ojo
87. Whose youngest wife is taken away by Opuna warriors? (a) Aniekwe (b) Nduka (c) Obi (d) Obuanya (e) Ofuani
88. Angela gradates as a (a) chimerical engineer (b) doctor (c) lawyer (d) mechanical engineer (e) teacher
89. Obuaya sees his _____ lying in a pool of blood (a) daughter (b) father (c) most senior wife (d) mother (e) younger
wife
90. Chief Nduka kicks against Okafor’s nomination as one of the emissaries to the dibia because he (Okafor) (a) has
only one wife (b) hates him (c) is a teacher (d) is not a title holder (e) is poor
Stanley Nnabuo: Wrong Decision
91. What is the mood of Julienne when she is advising rose over her studies (a) Anger (b) anxiety (c) discouragement
(d) guilt (e) joy
92. who does Rose accuse of being fastitious? (a) Chad (b) Hilda (c) Julienne (d) Louis (e) Tina
93. Louis family house is sold to (a) James jimmy (b) Mrs Johnson (c) Okon (d) Tina (e) Tony
94. Rose shares the school hostel room with (a) Hilda (b) Jessie (c) jimmy (d) julienne (e) Tina
95. Tina suspects Rose and Julienne of (a) conspiring against her (b) discussing her in absentia (c) examination
malpractice (d) hiding a secret (e) snatching her boyfriend
Section B: PROSE
Ann Iwuagwu: ARROW OF DESTINY
96. Sandra is married to (a) Andrew (b) Borna (c) Dr. lamide (d) Humphrey (e) Idris
97. Cynthia’s only brother is (a) Asuwe (b) Borna (c) Ikechukwu (d) Obinna (e) Paul
98. David’s dead father appears to remind him of his ___ in a strange land (a) business (b) children (c) house (d)
money (e) wife
99. Asuwe vows never to visit Paul again because the latter (a) drove Cynthia out of his house (b) inherited Asuwe’s
properties (c) killed their mother (d) stole money from Asuwe (e) was jealous of Asuwe travelling abroad
100. Cynthia agrees to go with Boma to uncle Paul’s house in order to get (a) a better job (b) back at Idris (c)
information about her father (d) reconciled with her father (e) some money
Ayodeji Oladosu: PRECIOUS LITTLE DARLINGS
101. The Williams are childless for ___ years (a) six (b) seven (c) eight (d) nine (e) ten
102. Mrs Williams dreams that she gives birth to a (a) baby boy (b) baby girl (c) boy and a girl (d) set of twins (e) set of
triplets
103. Mama visits Mr Williams in his office because of his (a) childless rate (b) family crisis (c) father’s death (d)
father’s property (e) ill- health
104. Mama Ibeji refers to her children as (a) children of God (b) faithful children (c) God’s provision (d) precious little
darlings (e) priceless jewels
105. Mr Williams bars his children from (a) attending parties (b) going out at night (c) playing with friends (d) talking
to people (e) watching television
Stephen Ekwealor-Nmeh: THE TRIUMPH OF DOGGEDNESS
106. The principal of Boys High School, Egbema is (a) Celina (b) dubem (c) Nwankwo (d) Okafor (e) Oti
107. Celina is (a) Dubem’s sister (b) Kenneth’s wife (c) Mr Okoro’s daughter (d) Oti wife (e) Mr Nwankwo’s niece
108. Oti and Mr Okoro are (a) class mates (b) flat mates (c) friends (d) siblings (e) neighbours
109. Ikemefuna is sent home from school for (a) cheating during examination (b) failure to pay school fees (c) fighting
with his classmates (d) frequent lateness to school (e) poor academic performance
110. After the Second World War, worker are paid in (a) cash (b) cowries (c) gold (d) kind (e) relief materials
Section C: POETRY
111. In Paul Henry Eboh and Mario Umegbolu’s My tears of Africa the mood is that of (a) contentment (b) despair (c)
discouragement (d) lamentation (e) loneliness
112. Flourish Amoo and Yinka Akindele ‘success’ ends on a note of (a) commitment (b) hard work (c) honesty (d)
indifference (e) laziness
113. The main theme is Bisi Olugboyega’s ‘My mother’ is (a) depression (b) disappointment (c) frustration (d)
indifference (e) indispensability
114. Flourish Amoo and Yinka Akindele’s ‘The fuel crisis is ___ in nature (a) argumentative (b) descriptive (c)
epistolary (d) expository (e) narrative
115. Those referred to as ‘official robbers’ in J.A. Olowofila’s the official Robbers on the High way’ are the (a) armed
robbers (b) assassins (c) heartless marauders (d) murderers (e) police
116. The expression ‘calling someone an Osu is a thorn in the human flesh in flourish Amoo and Yinka Akindele’s
‘The outcast is an example of (a) metaphor (b) paradox (c) personification (d) pun (e) simile
117. Rahila Diji’s ‘A Gift for my lecturer’ condemns ___ gifts (a) appreciative (b) material (c) monetary (d) special (e)
ulterior motive
118. J.A. Olowifila’s taxation in the General Kingdom condemns ___ in the society (a) corruption (b) embezzlement
(c) favouritism (d) peace (e) wickedness
119. the expression ‘Home of heroes and heroines’ as used in Bisi Olugboyega’s ‘Nigeria My Beloved Country’
represents a/an ___ nation (a) battered (b) depleted (c) endowed (d) frustrated (e) retrogressive
120. In Rahila Dyi’s Borrowed Woman hood’ the term ‘borrowed’ means (a) acquired (b) artificial (c) earned (d)
enhanced (e) indebted
PAPER III- ESSAY
Answer both questions 1 and 2. Your answer to each questions should not be less than 200 words long. You are free
to use the hints below each questions and or any other ones you like (each question carries 20 marks)
1. Your elder sister is getting married next week. Write a letter to the principal of your school, asking for permission
to be away from school to enable you attend the wedding ceremony
Hints
i. Introduction: why you want to travel home
ii. Your roles in the wedding
iii. Conclusions
2. Write a composition on the topic: A Memorable day in My life
Hints
i. Introduction: mention the day
ii. Why the Day is memorable and important
iii. Conclusion
 CITY OF FAITH COMPREHENSIVE COLLEGE
2017/2018 MOCK EXAMINATION
CLASS: J.S.S 3 (NECO) SUBJECT: CCA

1. The art of creating images with an assemblage of small pieces of coloured glasses and stones is known as (a)
fresco (b) mache (c) montage (d) mosaic
2. A seat used by an artist for drawing is known as (a) bench (b) board (c) chair (d) donkey
3. Which of these traditional are cultures is known for court art? (a) Benin (b) Esie (c) Ife (d) Nok
4. The distance between two point s in drawing is known as ___ (a) brush (b) line (c) mark (d) point
5. The human head is usually represented in a/an ___ shape (a) circular (b) cone (c) cuboid (d) oval
6. Who among the following is not a Nigerian artist? (a) Aina Onabow (b) Ben Enwonwu (c) Demas Nwko (d)
Sefundi Mawangu
7. Cane weaving is an art of producing ____ materials (a) art (b) binding (c) ceramic (d) household
8. Ladi Kwali is a traditional (a) carver (b) potter (c) painter (d) sculptor
9. Painting is a branch of ___ art (a) applied (b) liberal (c) fine (d) industrial
10. The following are method of calabash decoration except (a) carving (b) engraving (c) moulding (d) scraping
11. Primary colours are also known as (a) basic (b) binary (c) cool (d) harmonious
12. An officer that overseas artifacts kept in muserm is known as a (a) ceramist (b) curator (c) painter (d) recorder
13. Graphic design includes the following except (a) calligraphy (b) lettering (c) throwing (d) printing
14. Clay is best used when it is (a) crack (b) dry (c) thick (d) wet
15. The following are principles of design except (a) balance (b) emphasis (c) form (d) harmony
16. Which of these towns is known for brass making in Nigeria (a) Bida (b) Ife (c) Kebbi (d) Nok
17. A unit of design repeated severally is called (a) concept (b) form (c) motif (d) shape
18. Standard organization of Nigeria was established to (a) eradicate illicit cultivation of drugs (b) maintain standard
for both imported and exported goods (c) redistributed confiscated goods (d) regulate the sale of drugs
19. Which of these is not a function of NAFDAC ? (a) eradicate illicit cultivation of hard drugs (b) inspect imported
drugs and cosmetics (c) investigate the production premises and materials for food and drugs (d) regulate and
control the sale of drug
20. Which of the following is a negative value? (a) patriotism (b) discipleship (c) faithfulness (d) selflessness
21. The spirit of team work can be promoted through (a) envy (b) selfishness (c) cooperation (d) gossiping
22. The love for one’s country simply refers to as (a) loyalty (b) integrity (c) patriotism (d) consciousness
23. Esie stone figures were discovered by (a) Barnard fagg (b) leo frobenius (c) Philip Allison (d) Thurstan Shaw
24. The Egyptian type of lettering is known as (a) calligraphy (b) gothic (c) hieroglyphics (d) italic
25. The use of one colour in a painting is known as____ (a) monobase (b) monochrome (c) monogram (d) monotype
26. Legibility in lettering means (a) boldness (b) colourful (c) style (d) spacing -
27. Which of the following ways is used to identify adulterated goods (a) coast of goods (b) country of production (c)
expiration date (d) registration number
28. The use of counterfeit drugs leads to (a) death (b) poverty (c) imprisonment (d) sound health
29. Drawing from memory is known as __ (a) figure (b) imaginative (c) landscape (d) nature
30. Visual art is divided into fine and ___ arts (a) applied (b) graphics (c) literal (d) performing
31. Which of the following areas is most suitable for marketing art works (a) banks (b) hospitals (c) hotels (d) schools
32. The Nok art pieces are mainly of ___ figures (a) clay (b) soap-stone (c) bronze (d) terra-cotta
33. Which of these materials is needed in papier-mache? (a) clay (b) fixture (c) slip (d) starch
34. Which of the following is not a two dimensional Art? (a) sculpture (b) drawing (c) graphics (d) painting
35. The artist who designs poster and boo jackets is called a ____ (a) cartoonist (b) photographer (c) graphic designer
(d) ceramic designer
36. A work of art that only appeals to the sense of sight has ____ value (a) aesthetic (b) illusory (c) logical (d) utility
37. Which of the following is the most popular traditional Nigeria fabric? (a) Ankara (b) Danask (c) Brocade (d) Tie-
dye
38. Who among the following is referred to as the father of modern art in Nigeria? (a) Aina Onabolu (b) Akinola
Lasekan (c) Jimoh Buraimoh (d) Lamidi Fakeye
 39. The following techniques can be adopted in tie and dye except ___ (a) folding (b) hatching (c) knotting (d)
pleating
40. Which of these towns is known for cloth weaving (Aso-Oke) in Nigeria? (a) Abeokuta (b) Ibadan (c) Iseyin (d)
Ondo
41. Fabric decoration is a ____ dimensional art (a) one (b) two (c) three (d) four
42. The surface quality of an object is known as (a) line (b) contrast (c) shape (d) texture
43. Still-life drawing affects (a) lands (b) life (c) nature (d) objects
44. Collage pictures are made from ___ (a) crayon (b) oil (c) gouache (d) pastel
45. Papier-mache is produced by ___ papers (a) firing (b) glazing(c) pounding (d) stitching
46. The contributions of ___ facilitated the introduction of art into schools curriculum (a) Aina Ongbow (b) Bruce
Onobrakpeya (c) Dr Ladi Kwal (d) Yusuf Grillo
47. All the following could serve as background support for collage, except (a) newsprint (b) cardboard paper (c)
fabric (d) hardboard
48. A repeat pattern could be used for ___ design (a) book (b) textile (c) graphic (d) poster
49. The oldest art culture in the south of Sahara is (a) Benin (b) Nok (c) Esie (d) Ife
50. Which of the following is not a local craft? (a) Batik (b) cane work (c) Neon sign (d) Tie-dye
51. Which of the following material helps to resist dye on fabric in batik process? (a) cassava starch (b) gum (c) yam
(d) pomade
52. Benin art is also called Royal art because it is connected to (a) ceramics (b) kingdom (c) government house (d)
kings palace
53. An outdoor drawing can be done through (a) abstract (b) arrangement of objects (c) imagination (d) observation
54. Naturalism is on of the qualities of ___ work (a) Esie (b) Ife (c) Nok (d) Owo
55. A decoration done on fabric with wax and dye is known as (a) Batik (b) embroidery (c) painting (d) printing
56. Cane work can describe the culture of ___ people (a) Anang (b) Hausa (c) Kanuri (d) Nupe
57. Another name for life drawing is (a) figure (b) nature (c) object (d) still- life
58. Which of the following is not needed in a drawing class? (a) carbon paper (b) drawing board (c) drawing paper (d)
clips
59. The expression of idea in lines on paper, canvas or wall is called (a) Acting (b) Art (c) drawing (d) printing
60. Which of the following is not a drawing material (a) charcoal (b) crayon (c) fibre (d) pencil
Paper II
Music
61. How many lines are there in a stare? (a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 10
62. What alphabet is the 3rd line of bas stave? (a) B (b) C (c) D (d) E
63. The space of treble staff are named (a) FACE (b) ACEG (c) GBDF (d) EGBD
64. An octave is ___ notes distance (a) three (b) eight (c) five (d) six
65. How many strings has a violin? (a) 2 (b0 3 (c) 4 (d) 5
66. Which of these describes the high and low of sound? (a) duration (b) harmony (c) timbre (d) pitch
67. The alphabetical name for treble clef is (a) C (b) D (c) F (d) G
68. Which of these notes has 4 beats? (a) crotchet (b) minim (c) Quaver (d) semibreve
69. The recorder instrument is classified as (a) brass (b) woodwind (c) keyboard (d) string
70. The type of music used during church service is (a) aria (b) sacred (c) secular (d) opera
71. The music type handed down from generation to generation is ___ (a) afrobeat (b) dadakuada (c) traditional (d)
juju
72. Identify the note below ____ (a) C (b) D (c) E (d) F

73. Identify the clef below ___ (a) C (b) D (c) E (d) G
 74. What is the key signature below? ____ major (a) C (b) F (c) D (d) G

75. The Halleluyah ‘chorus’ was written by ____ (a) Beethoven (b) Handel (c) Haydn (d) Mozart
76. The musical letters range from ___ to ___ (a) A,A (b) A, G (c) B, C (d) C,C
77. Which stave has its spaces nick named, All cow Eat Grass? (a) Alto (b) Tenor (c) Bass (d) treble
78. “FINE” means (a) end (b) back (c) fast (d) slow
79. Who among the following composers is highly famous in Baroque period? (a) Anthonio Vivaldi (b) Allesandro
Scarlatti (c) Handel G.F. (d) Henry Purcell
80. How many places can you disconnect a standard recorder for cleaning? (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5
81. The B-flat scale has ____ flats (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 6
82. The term “Poco” connotes (a) fast (b) little (c) loud (d) slow
83. How many parts make a duet? (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5
84. All of these are string instruments except (a) Banjo (b) cello (c) Euphonium (d) Guitar
85. Adagio means (a) back (b) slow (c) start (d) end
86. The line that joins two staves is (a) bar (b) brace (c) clef (d) staff
87. How many beats is a minim? (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
88. How many notes has a tetra chord? (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5
89. What degree is tonic in music? (a) 1st (b) 2nd (c) 3rd (d) 4th
90. How many conductors do we need in a singing choir? (a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3
Drama
91. The person who conceives the idea of a play develops it through acts and scene and writes them out is a (a)
playright (b) playwriter (c) playwright (d) playrite
92. The person who casts and rehearses the actors by blocking their movement is called a ___ (a) director (b)
playwright (c) producer (d) prompter
93. The objects used during drama production to enhance performance is called ___ (a) apparatus (b) props (c)
costume (d) make –up kits
94. Drama can be classified into scripted and ____ (a) film (b) mime (c) theatre (d) unscripted
95. A play in which a hero falls from grace to grass is known as (a) farce (b) melodrama (c) tragic comedy (d) tragedy
96. Actors and actresses playing different roles in a play are collectively called (a) artistes (b) cast (c) crew (d)
characters
97. Climax is the ___ point of events in a play (a) funniest (b) happiest (c) highest (d) saddest
98. Another term of playwright is (a) actor (b) actress (c) dramatist (d) poet
99. The story of a person’s life written by another person is a/an (a) autobiography (b) biography (c) epistle (d)
playlet
100. Characters in a play are called ___ (a) cast (b) chorus (c) clowns (d) playwrights
101. Pick out the odd item (a) Actors (b) stanza (c) costume (d) stage
102. Drama is complete when the conflict is (a) boosted (b) heightened (c) resolved (d) started
103. The female lead character in a play is known as ___ (a) antagonist (b) cast (c) hero (d) heroine
104. A story that is not based on real life situation is called ___ (a) non-fiction (b) fable (c) fiction (d) novel
105. A play is drama because it ___ (a) can be acted on the stage (b) cannot be read silently (c) contains characters (d)
is written is verse
106. The dresses worn by characters are determined by the (a) cast (b) costumier (c) director (d) hero
107. The primary function of comedy is to (a) create laughter (b) criticize (c) lament (d) praise
108. A play is fully realized when it is (a) acted (b) memorized (c) neglected (d) read
109. The arrangement of movement actions in a play is called (a) diction (b) plot (c) style (d) theme
110. Drama is said to have originated from ___ beliefs/concept (a) African (b) European (c) Greek (d) Roman
Dance
111. Which of the following exists in both space and time? (a) choreography (b) dance (c) mime (d) music
112. The most difficult body movement is dance is (a) acrobatic (b) ballet (c) swing (d) tango
113. Which of the following is included non-percussive instrument (a) band (b) drum (c) violin (d) Gong
114. A choreographer must be knowledgeable in (a) acting (b) dancing (c) jumping (d) playing
115. The person who designs dance is called ____ (a) artistic personal (b) choreographer (c) dance artiste
116. Which of the following is not a function of dance? (a) entertainment (b) expressing feelings (c) fitness (d)
expressing Ego
117. The following are common to both dance and drama expect (a) costume is needed in both (b) they both serve as
means of entertainment (c) they are both performed on stage (d) they both use dialogue
118. Dance is used for the following except (a) creating job (b) cultural promotion (c) demonstrating power (d) telling
story
119. A piece of drama with bodily movements accompanied by music is (a) acrobatic dance (b) comic dance (c) dance
drama (d) pure drama
120. Which of the following is not a Nigerian dance (a) Akalaka (b) Akpese (c) Apala (d) Atilogwu
Paper III
Practical
Make a detail drawing of plastic chair placed upside down on a table
 CITY OF FAITH COMPREHENSIVE COLLEGE
2017/2018 MOCK EXAMINATION
CLASS: J.S.S 3 (NECO) SUBJECT: MATHEMATICS

1. Find the difference the actual and estimated values of 55-21 (a) 40 (b) 34 (c) 30 (d) 6 (e) 4
2. Simplify 4 + 3 ( 7 + 4 x 2) - 100 (a) -81 (b) -51 (c) -30 (d) 5 (e) 54
3. Which of the following fractions is equivalent to 3/5? (a) 4/18 (b) 9/27 (c) 8/16 (d) 12/20 (e) 10/12
4. Find the H.C.F. of 54, 36 and 72 (a) 6 (b) 8 (c) 9 (d) 12 (e) 18
5. A candidate scored 32 marks out of 80. Find his percentage score (a) 20% (b) 32% (c) 40% (d) 48% (e) 80%
6. Convert 3684 to standard form (a) 3.68 x 103 (b) 3.684 x 10-2 (c) 3.684 x 10 2 (d) 3.684 x 103 (e) 3.684 x 104
7. Express 0.00569 in standard form (a) 5.69 x 10-3 (b) 5.69 x 10-2 (c) 5.69 x 10-1 (d) 5.69 x 102 (e) 5.69 X 103
8. Express 108 as a product of its prime factors in index form (a) 22 x 32 (b) 22 x 33 (c) 22 x 34 (d) 23 x 32 (e) 23 x 33
9. What is the multiplicative inverse of - 4/6? (a) – 3/2 (b) – 2/3 (c) 1/6 (d) 2/3 (e) 3/2
10. Express 0.03076 to 3 significant figures (a) 0.030 (b) 0.0307 (c) 0.03076 (d) 0.0308 (e) 0.308
11. By selling an article at # 600. 00, a trader makes a profit of 20% find the cost price (a) # 480. 00 (b) # 500. 00 (c) #
580.00 (d) #600.00 (e) # 720.00
12. If # 200, 000. 00 is saved at simple interest of 5% per annum, calculate the amount after 4 years (a) # 10, 000.00 (b)
# 40, 000.00 (c) # 210,000.00 (d) #240, 000. 00 (e) # 300, 000. 00
13. What is the bill of house that consumed 1000 units of electricity, if the first 100 units are charged at # 10. 00 per unit
and the remaining units at #5.00 per unit? (a) # 4, 500. 00 (b) # 5, 000. 00 (c) # 5,500. 00 (d) # 6, 000. 00 (e) # 10,
000. 00
14. Find the smallest number by which 12 can be multiplied to give a perfect square (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 (e) 5
√45 √3
15. Simplify 125 (a) 9/25 (b) 2/5 (c) 3/5 (d) 5 (e) 4/5
16. 10 boys cleared a piece of land for 21 days. How many days will it take 7 boys to clear the same land if they work at
the same rate? (a) 3 (b) 7 (c) 10 (D) 15 (e) 30
17. Express 42seven in base ten (a) 12 (b) 18 (c) 24 (d) 30 (e) 60
18. Which of the following fractions is a recurring decimal? (a) 1/10 (b) 1/8 (c) 1/5 (d) ¼ (e) 1/5
19. Musa’s age is two thirds of Abu’s age. If the sum of their ages is 30 years how old is Abu? (a) 6 years (b) 12 year
(c) 15 years (d) 18 years (e) 24 years
20. If x is directly proportional to y and x =4 when y = 12, find the value of x when y = 24 (a) 4 (b) 8 (c) 12 (d) 16 (e)
48
21. Bose saves # 10, 000.00 at 10% per annum compound interest. How much will she collect after 2 years? (a) #
1,000.00 (b) # 1,100.00 (c) # 2, 100.00 (d) # 11, 100. 00 (e) # 12, 100. 00
22. Subtract 11 from 111 in base two (a) 100two (b) 1001two (c) 1010two (d) 1100two (e) 1110two
23. Arrange 1/3, 2/3, ¼ , and 3/5 in two ascending order of magnitude (a) 1/3, 2/3, 1/4, 3/5 (b) ¼ , 1/3, 3/5, 2/3 (c) 2/3,
3/5, 1/3, ¼ (d) ¼ , 3/5, 1/3, 2/3 (e) 2/3, 1/3, ¼ , 3/5
24. Multiply 110two by 11two (a) 1100two (b) 1101two (c) 1110two (d) 1111two (e) 10010two
25. Find the perimeter of a circle whose diameter is 7cm (π = 22/7) (a) 3.5cm (b) 11cm (c) 12cm (d) 22cm (e) 44cm
26. Find the area of a triangle whose base is 11cm and height 6cm (a) 11cm2 (b) 17cm2 (c) 22cm2 (d) 33cm2 (e) 66cm2
27. Calculate the perimeter of the trapezium below

B 4cm C
3cm 2cm

A 6cm D 8cm (b) 12cm (c) 15cm (d) 18cm (e) 24cm
28. Parallelogram has the following properties except (a) diagonals bisect each other (b) its sides are all equal (c)
opposite angles are equal (e) opposite side are parallel
29. The circumference of a circle is 22cm. Find the radius of the circle (a) 2.0cm (b) 3.5cm (c) 4.3cm (d) 7.0cm (e)
14.0m
30. 12cm
 6cm
6cm
12cm

Calculate the area of the shaded portion in the diagram above (a) 72cm2 (b) 104cm2 (c) 108cm2 (d) 144cm2 (e) 180cm2
31. Find the area of the trapezium below
9cm

4cm

11cm (a) 40cm2 (b) 72cm2 (c) 80cm2 (d) 88cm2 (e) 99cm2
32. Calculate the length of the base of a parallelogram if the area is 135cm2 and its height is 9cm (a) 12cm (b) 15cm (c)
18cm (d) 25cm (e) 45cm
33. Find the area of the parallelogram below

9cm

10cm

15cm (a) 60cm2 (b) 90cm2 (c) 120cm2 (d) 150cm2 (e) 180cm2

34. A 450m long field is drawn to a scale 1cm to 90cm find the length of the drawing (a) 135cm (b)36cm (c) 15cm (d)
7cm (e) 5cm
35. A rectangular shape of dimension 95m by 75m is drawn to a scale of 1cm to 10m. Find the area of the drawing (a)
71.00cm2 (b) 71.15cm2 (c) 71.25cm2 (d) 71.30cm2 (e) 71.35cm2
Use the construction below to answer questions 36 and 37
u

p Q
W

R N S
36. What is the acute angle formed when the point W is jointed to N? (a) 150 (b) 200 (c) 250 (d) 300 (e) 450
37. What is the acute type formed when < UNR is bisected (a) 150 (b) 300 (c) 450 (d) 600 (e) 750
38. Which of the following is care appropriate for the construction of angle 300 using a pair if compasses only? I
bisection of angle 60 II bisection of angle 900 III bisection of angle 1500 (a) I only (b) II only (c) III only (d) I and II
only (e) I and III only
39. A school P is 16km due west of a school Q. What is the bearing of Q from P? (a) 0600 (b) 0900 (c) 1800 (d) 2700 (e)
3600
40. What is the supplementary angle of 450? (a) 350 (b) 450 (c) 1350 (d) 2250 (e) 3150
41. If x is the supplementary angle of 1550, find the value of tan x (a) 0.0423 (b) 0.0466 (c) 0.4226 (d) 0.4663 (e)
0.9063
42. Which of the following is equivalent to 5560W? (a) 0440 (b) 0560 (c) 1340 (d) 2360 (e) 3260
 43. Which of the following is not a step in the construction of the triangle below?
Q

6.5cm
4.9cm
P R
5.6cm
(a) draw a line segment PR = 5.6cm (b) Join Q to R and Q to P (c) With P as centre and radius 6.5cm, draw an arc (d)
with Q as centre and radius 6.5cm, draw an arc at R (e) with R as centre and radius 4.9cm, draw an arc
44. The diagram below is a piece of land which is triangle in shape. If it is drawn to as scale of 1cm o 8m find the area
of the drawing

40m 40m

48m(a) 24cm2 (b) 12cm2 (c) 10cm2 (d) 8cm2 (e) 6cm2
45. Two similar cups are 3cm and 5cm deep. If the larger cup holds 625cm3 of water, what is the volume of the smaller
one? (a) 27cm3 (b) 125cm3 (c) 135cm3 (d) 208cm3 (e) 490cm3
46. Find the value of Ɵ in the diagram below

1cm 2cm
Ɵ

(a) 300 (b) 550 (c) 600 (d) 750 (e)900

47. Calculate the 4th angle of a quadrilateral if the other angles are560 1150 and 1200 (a) 6510 (b) 2910 (c) 1180 (d) 690 (e)
590
48. Calculate the number of sides of a regular polygon whose interior angle is 1400 (a) 6 (b) 9 (c) 12 (d) 15 (e) 40
49. A square has a diagonal 6m long. Calculate its area (a) 6m2 (b) 18m2 (c) 24m2 (d) 36m2 (e) 64m2
50. A girl 2.2m tall observes that the angle of elevation of the top of a building 16m away from her is 450. Find the
height of the building (a) 19.4m (b) 18.2m (c) 17.2m (d) 16.2m (e) 14.4m
51. The sum of the interior angles of a regular pentagon is (a) 10800 (b) 7200 (c) 5400 (d) 3600 (e) 2700
52. Find tan Ɵ in the diagram below
A

Z Y

Ɵ
B C

(a) z/y (b) x/y (c) x/z (d) z/x (e) y/z X

53. What is the value of Y in the figure?

Y x 750\
 (a) 250 (b) 500 (c) 750 (d) 1050 (e) 1500
54 Which of the following is a property of a kite? (a) all sides are equal (b) one line of symmetry (c) two lines of
symmetry (d) two pairs of opposite angles are equal (e) two sides are parallel
55 To construct angle 900 you will need to bisect angle (a) 900 (b) 1200 (c) 1800 (d) 2700 (e) 3600
56 Which of the following is an obtuse angle? (a) 890 (b) 900 (c) 960 (d) 1800 (e) 3600
57 How many circular face is does a solid cylinder have? (a) 5 (b) 4 (c) 3 (d) 2 (e) 1
58 Find the value of x in the diagram below

x
300

8cm (a) 2cm (b) 4cm (c) 8cm (d) 16cm (e) 32cm
59 What is the value of sin 450 using mathematical tables (a) 0.078 (b) 0.7017 (c) 0.7071 (d) 0.7850 (e) 1.7071

6cm
6cm 10cm
60 Find the volume of the figure above (a) 22cm3 (b) 60cm3 (c) 120cm3 (d) 180cm3 (e)360cm3
Part II
61 A number is multiplied by 5 and the result is twice the number added to 2 find the number (a) 0 (b) 2/7 (c) 2/3 (d)
1 ½ (e) 3 ½
62 Find the value of M if 3m/5 + m/2 = 4/1 + 5/2 (a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6 (e) 8
63 Find the coefficient of mt in the expansion of 4m (3n- 2t ) + 3t (3t-2m) (a) -14 (b) -8 (c) -6 (d) 9 (e) 12
64 One fourth of a certain number is removed from two fifth of that number. If the result is 3, find the number (a) 27
(b) 20 (c) 12 (d0 9 (e) 5
65 Expand (4p-q) (3p-3q) (a) 12p2 – 15pq – q2 (b) 12p2 -15pq + 3q2 (c) 12p2 + 15pq – 3q2 (d) 12p2 – 15pq + 3q2 (e)
12p2 – 6pq + 3q2
66 Solve the equation p = 3-p (a) 4 (b) 3 1/3 (c) 3/10 (d) 3/11 (e) ¼
11
67 Factorize x + x -2 (a) (x+1)(x+2) (b) x+1)(x-2) (c) (x-1)(x-2) (d) (x-1)(x+2) (e) (x-1)2
2

68 Which of the following is not a perfect square? (a) x2 (b) 2y2 (c) 4d2 (d) 25p2 (e) 16+4
69 Find the sum of 3x+2, 2+5x and 1+ x (a) 9x + 5 (b) 14x (c) 9x -5 (d) 5-9x (e) 14x
70 Solve the equation 4 (m +2) = 5m -4 (a) -6 (b) -5 (c) -4 (d) 4 (e) 5
4 3
71 When 4 is divided by ( x-7) the result is the same as when 3 is divided by (x +4), find the value of x (a) -37 (b) -21
(c) 21 (d) 37 (e) 47
72 Find g if 3g + g = 6g + 8g -9g + 30 (a) 33 (b) 30 (c) 23 (d) -30 (e) -33
73 Simplify 4x = x (a) 21x (b) 21x (c) 13x (d) 11x (e) x
7 21 11 13 21 21 21
74 The same number is added to both the numerator and denominator of the fraction 28/91. If the ratio is then equal to
2:5 find the added number (a) 42 (b) 21 (c) 14 (d) 7 (e) 3
 75 A motorcycle is paid for in twelve equal installments. Each payment is # 5,500.00. How much does the motorcycle
cost? (a) # 12000.00 (b) #15,000.00 (c) # 32,000.00 (d) #60,000.00 (e) #66,000.00
76 If 2x + y = -7 and 3x = 6 +4y are simultaneous linear equations, what is the value of x-y? (a) -5 (b) -1 (c) 1 (d) 5 (e)
6
77 Find the value of PQ – 5p if P =2 and Q = 3 (a) -16 (b) -4 (c) 4 (d) 8 (e) 16
78 An exercise book and two pens cost # 90.00. if the difference between the cost of an exercise book and a pen is #
45.00, determine the cost of a pen (a) # 10.00 (b) # 15.00 (c) # 30. 00 (d) # 45.00 (e) # 60.00
79 Find x 3/8 = 9/x (a) 3 (b) 8 (c) 16 (d) 21 (e) 24
80 Simplify x-2 – x-1 (a) x + 1 (b) – x+1 (c) x-1 (d) – (x+1) (e) 6
3 2 6 6 6 6 -1+x
81 The sum of the ages of Chukwu and Caroline is 45 years. If the difference in their ages is 3 years find the age of
Chukwu. (Hint: Chukwu is older than Caroline) (a) 15 years (b) 18years (c) 21 years (d) 24years (e) 42 years
82 Simplify: (-216m + n2) ÷ (8mn) (a) 27mtn (b) 27mn (c) 27nt (d) -27mt (e)- 27nt
83 Evaluate -28p of - 9rq (a) -9pq (b) -9pr (c) 9r (d) 9pr (e) 9pq
4q 7
2
84 Factorize: 3x + 8x + 5 (a) (x+1)(x+5) (b) (3x+5)(x+1) (c) (3x+1)(x+1) (d) (x+5)(3x+1) (e) (x+1)(x+3)
85 Given that 1/3 (x+y) – 1/5 (x-y) = 0 find the value of x when y = -1 (a) -4 (b) -2 (c) 2 (d) 4 (e) 8
86 Simplify x2 – 6x + 9 (a) x-3 (b) 3-x (c) x-3 (d) x+3 (e) 3 + x
x2 - 9 x+3 x+3 3-x 3-x x+ 3
87 Offer cycle at the rate of 20km/h for 2 1/5 hours what distance will he cover? (a) 44km (b) 43km (c) 42km (d) 41km
(e) 40km
88 Find the product of the L.C.M. and H.C.F. of 9xy, 18y2 and 32 (a) 18xyz (b) 18xy2 (c) 54xy2 (d) 54xyz (e) 54xy2z
89 Evaluate - 2x2 when x = -2 and y = 3 (a) – 1 3/5 (b) -4/5 (c) – 5/8 (d) 1 3/5 (e) 4
x2-y2
90 Simplify 4 -2b - 2b + 2 (a) 1-b (b) b-1 (c) 5-3b (d) 5-2b (e) 2 (2-b)
9 18 3 3 9 9 9
91 Simplify: 6x -15 - (3x -8) (a) 2x + 3 (b) 2x -3 (c) x+3 (d) x – 3 (e) 3 –x
3
92 One third of the sum of 15 and thrice a certain number is equal to twice the number. Find the number (a) 3 (b) 5 (c) 7
(d) 10 (e) 15
93 Find the HC.F. of 16xy2, 42x2y and 32x2y2 z (a) 2xy (b0 4xy (c) 6xy (d) 2x2y2 (e) 2x2y2z
The table of value for 2x-y = 5 is represented below use it to answer questions 34 and 35

X 1 2 3 4 5 6 7

Y a B 1 3 5 7 g

94 What is a+b –ab (a) 3 (b) 2 (c) 0 (d) -3 (e) -7

95 Find the value of g (a) 19 (b) 9 (c) 2 (d) -2 (e) -9
96 Solve 1+2m > 3m + 5 and represent your result on a number line (a)
(b) (c) (d) -8 -7 -6 -5 -4
-5 -4 -3 -2 -1 1 2 3 4 5
1 2 3 4 5 6
(e)
-5 -4 -3 -2 -1 0
 97 Find the cost of seven cartons of biscuits if three cartons of same biscuits cost # 3750.00 (a) # 1250.00 (b) #
5000.00 (c) # 6750.00 (d) # 8750.00 (e) # 9550.00
98 The sum of the ages of an English teacher and her student is at least 76 years. If the teacher is x years old and the
student is 26 years old, find the possible value of x (a) x ≥ 25 (b) x ≥ 51 (c) x ≤ 25 (d) x ≤ 51 (e) x < 51
99 Find the seventh common multiple of 2, 3 and 5 (a) 240 (b) 210 (c) 180 (d) 150 (e) 120
Study the samples below to answer questions 40 and 41
4 6a 16c 4c

20a 40c
100. 3k 3k

? (a) k (b) 3k (c) 6k (d) 9k (e) 12k

12k

10p 4p
101

14p (a) 6p (b) 14p (c) 18p (d) 24p (e) 28p

?
The table shows the ages of students in a class use the table to answer questions 42 and 343
Age (yrs 11 12 13 14 15

No of students 3 12 15 8 2

102. How many students are not older than 13 years (a) 3 (b) 12 (c) 15 (d) 27 (e) 30
103. What percentage of the students are 14 years old? (a) 10% (b) 15% (c) 20% (d) 30% (e) 50%
104. If a number is chosen at random from the numbers 2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10 what is the probability that it is a multiple of
3? (a) 1/5 (b) 3/10 (c) 1/3 (d) 5/9 (e) 2.3
105. The scores of some student in a mathematics test are given as 16, 19, 18, 22, 28 and 20. Find the mean score (a)
19.0 (b) 19. 5 (c) 20.0 (d) 20.3 (e) 20.5
106. A fair dice is rolled once. What is the probability of obtaining a number greater than 2? (a) 1/6 (b) 1/3 (c) ½ (d) 2/3
(e) 5/6
107. What is the average rainfall in Mm2 from the bar chart below

120

100

80

60

40
20

Jan Feb March April May

b
 78 (b) 68 (c) 65 (d) 63 (e) 60
108. Which of the following is not a measure of central tendency? I mean II media III range (a) I only (b) II only (c) III
only (d) I and II only (e) II and III only
109. The probability that David will pass an examination is 3/4 . What is the probability of failing the examination? (a)
1 (b) ½ (c) ¼ (d) 1/6 (e) 0
110. From the table below, find the mode

Age (years) 35 38 40 43 45

Frequency 33 20 35 38 21

(a) 45 years (b) 43 years (c) 40 years (d) 38 years (e) 35 years
111. The pie chart below shows the distribution of text books by Federal Ministry of Education in a year calculate the
percentage of textbooks in G

(a) 16 2/3% (b) 18 1/8% (c) 33 1/3% (d) 40% (e) 60%

112. The body temperature recorded in a hospital are as follows: 320c, 370c, 420c, 350c, 320c, 320c, 400c, 400c what is
the model body temperature? (a) 320c (b) 350c (c) 370c (d) 400c (e) 420c
113. The scores of selected students in a quiz competition are given as 22, 28, 35, 24, 27, 32,33, 20 and 40. What is
the average score? (a) 19 (b) 22 (c) 29 (d) 32 (e) 34
114. If the mean score of 46 students in mathematics is 32.5. what is the average score? (a) 79 (b) 458 (c) 748 (d) 1000
(e) 1495
115. A fair dice is thrown once. What is the probability of getting an even number (a) 1/12 (b) 1/6 (c) 1/3 (d) ½ (e) 1
116. What is mode of the following set of numbers? 11, 11, 8, 14, 16, 13, 12, 12, 11, 10, 14, 9, 8, 9, 10 11? (a) 9 (b) 10
(c) 11 (d) 12 (e) 14
117. Find the range of the following set of numbers: 100, 170, 130, 40, 110, 140 (a) 40 (b) 115 (c) 130 (d) 170 (e) 210
118. A basket contains 25 oranges 10 of them are bad what is the probability of picking a good one? (a) 1 (b) 3/5 (c) ½
(d) 1/3 (e) 1/6
119. Abraka tossed a fair of coin once. What is the probability of having a head? (a) 5/6 (b) 2/3 (c) ½ (d) 1/3 (e) 1/6
120. A fair die is thrown once. What is the probability of getting a prime number (a) ¾ (b) 2/3 (c) 1/2 (d) ¼ (e) 1/5

‘
 CITY OF FAITH COMPREHENSIVE COLLEGE
2017/2018 MOCK EXAMINATION
CLASS: J.S.S 3 (NECO) SUBJECT: BASIC SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY

P.H.E
1. What of these individuals assists performer in gymnastics? (a) coach (b) judge (c) Referee (d) spotter
2. Skills like, free style and back crawl, are associated with___ (a) basketball (b) cricket (c) swimming (d) table
tennis
3. Which of the following best describes physical fitness? Ability to _____ (a) lift heavy load (b) overcome stress (c)
perform work (d) relate freely
4. Which of the following is not a recommended sport wear? (a) canvas and socks (b) Gown (c) shorts (d) track suits
5. When an athlete beats the gun twice in a track event, he is (a) allowed one more trial (b) disqualified (c)
suspended (d) warned
6. The game of football is solely controlled by (a) assistant referee (b) coach (c) commentator (d) referee
7. The following are causes of human trafficking except (a) broken homes (b) poverty (c) ill health (d) quest for
wealth
8. A relay team consists of ____ athletes (a) 4 (b) 6 (c) 8 (d) 10
9. Which of the following equipment is used in javelin? (a) cross bar (b) measuring tape (c) pole (d) shuttle cork
10. Which of the following is not a postural defect? (a) endomorph (b) flatfoot (c) kyhosis (d) Lordosis
11. Excessive body weight due to fat is called (a) Kwashiorkor (b) Kyphosis (c) lordosis (d) obesity
12. The objectives of physical Education include the following except ____ development (a) emotional (b) mental (c)
motor skills (d) philosophical
13. The class of food that serves as the best source of energy for athletes during training is called____ (a)
carbohydrates (b) fat (c) mineral (d) protein
14. The following are branches of health education except (a) community health (b) family planning (c) personnel
health (d) sex education
15. A formal educational program designed to guide the consumers against inferior products is called? (a) consumer
price (b) Health science (c) consumer health (d) social science
16. Which of these should not be found in a first and box? (a) Antiseptic (b) cotton wool (c) plaster (d) injection
17. The game of volleyball was invented by (a) Adolph spies (b) Dudwig John (c) James Naismith (d) William
Morgan
18. The first score in tennis is counted as (a) 15 (b) 30 (c) love (d) 40
19. The number one player in the games of soccer is known as (a) Attacker (b) Defender (c) Goal keeper (d) catch
keeper
20. Backhand drive is a skill used in (a) basketball (b) football (c) table tennis (d) volleyball
21. A place where two a more bones meet is (a) joint (b) suture (c) Angle (d) junction
22. The preliminary race to qualify for the next round is called (a) heat (b) prequalify (c) sprints (d) warm-up
23. NICEGA is a body responsible for the organization of sport and games among Nigerian (a) armed forces (b)
colleges of education (c) polytechnics (d) secondary schools
24. which of the following is an Agency responsible for consumer protection in Nigeria? (a) F.R.S.C. (b)
N.A.F.D.A.C. (c) N.U.G.A (d) W.A.U.G
25. The act of putting the ball into play is called (a) center pass (b) jump ball (c) kick off (d) service
26. What is the duration of the game soccer? (a) 45 minutes (b) 60 minutes (c) 70 minutes (d) 90 minutes
27. The correct sequence of the phases of crouch start is (a) drive, go on your marks acceleration (b) on your mark set
go (c) on your mark go set (d) go set on your mark
28. The use of red card in football signifies (a) expulsion (b) warning (c) time out (d) half time
29. The number of lanes on a standard rack is (a) 4 (b) 6 (c) 8 (d) 10
30. Spiking is a fundamental skill in (a) basketball (b) football (c) -volleyball (d) hockey
 CITY OF FAITH COMPREHENSIVE COLLEGE
2017/2018 MOCK EXAMINATION
CLASS: J.S.S 3 (BECE) SUBJECT: BUSINESS STUDIES

1. What is commerce? Commerce is ___ (a) producing raw materials (b) selling of raw materials (c) buying aid
selling of goods and services (d) giving of alms to the poor and needy
2. A person who is the sole provider of business capital and suffers losses alone is ___ (a) partner (b) trader (c)
salesmen (d) sole proprietor
3. An office is defined as a place where ___ (a) type writers are made use of (b) clerical activities take place (c)
goods are kept (d) memos only are developed
4. Petty cash book is used to ____ (a) record credit sales only (b) record bank transaction only (c) record goods
bought on credit (d) record minor expenses
5. A written document issued by a drawer to the bank to pay an amount of money is called ____(a) teller (b)cheque
(c) cash (d) voucher
6. Trade could be referred to as ____ (a) an organization (b) buying and selling of goods and services (c) buying of
goods only (d) selling of goods only
7. What is the principal book of account? (a) ledger (b) invoice (c) cheque (d) credit note
8. What are company secrets? (a) the company name (b) the company’s location (c) government policies (d)
information that is important to a particular organization
9. The following are the type of insurance except ____ (a) motor vehicle insurance (b) wardrobe insurance (c) life
assurance
10. Amount of money paid periodically by an insured to an insurance company is called ____ (a) commission (b)
dividend (c) premium (d) loan
11. The office that has advantage of easier and better supervision is ___ (a) close (b) locked (c) open (d) opened
12. P.A.Y.E means (a) pay according to your earning (b) pay after you earn (c) pay as your earn (d) pay after your
extend
13. Business starches is a pre-vocational subject of which __ is not a component (a) book keeping (b) commerce (c)
office practice (d) social starches
14. Savings account are generally operated with the use of ___ (a) cheque (b) passbook (c) passport (d) stamps
15. The bankers bank in Nigeria is the ___ (a) central bank (b) federal saving bank (c) first bank (d) new Nigeria bank
16. The department in an organization charged with the responsibility of buying book is ___ (a) account department
(b) personal department (c) purchasing department (d) sale department
17. The different nature that comprises all the natural’ resources is called ___ (a) capital (b) investment (c) land (d)
water
18. F.O.B. means ___ (a) fire on board (b) freeman on board (c) free off board (d) free on board
19. Which of the following is not an extractive occupation (a) dentistry (b) farming (c) fishing (d) mining
20. One of the following is not a source of capital to road side trader or sole proprietorship (a) loan from a sister (b0
personal saving (c) profits brought back (d) shares
21. The functions of the ____ is filling of letters (a) mail bags (b) offices (c) postal boxes (d) receptionist
22. When 2 to 5 people come together to do a business, they form ____ (a) joint partnership (b) partnership (c)
shareholders (d) sole trader
23. Calculate the net profit from the following
Gross profit #5,000
Salaries # 2,400
Advertising #300
Carriage outward # 500
(a) # 1,800 (b) # 1,900 (c) # 2,900 (d) # 2,000
24. Bursar’s office and principal’s office in a secondary school are typical examples of ___ office (a) general (b) open
(c) large (d) closed
25. An office machine which processes office data at great speed is called (a) photocopier (b) computer (c) perforator
(d) calculating machine
26. Honesty is the best ___ (a) profit (b) policy (c) loss (d) capital
27. The department that handled staff matters is ___ department (a) sales (b) accounts (c) administrative (d)
personnel
28. Business starches student can become any of these except (a) banker (b) medical doctor (c) business woman (d)
accountant
29. ____ is a chosen life work (a) production (b) career (c) commerce (d) office
30. Quality of a clerical staff are job qualities and ___ qualities (a) occupation (b) personal (c) dressing (d) speech
31. The first link in the chain of production is ___ (a) wholesaler (b) producer (c) retailer (d) consumer
32. Mrs Akano bought a television set worth #8,000 she was given a cash discount of 10%. How much will she pay
for the television set? (a) # 8,000 (b) # 7,200 (c) # 8,200 (d) #8,800
33. Which of these is a factor of production ? (a) interest (b) wages (c) capital (d) profit
34. The Head of an Account Department is known as ____ (a) production manager (b) financial controller (c)
marketing manager (d) personnel manager
35. An advantage of office machine is that they are (a) cheap of maintain (b) electrically operate (c) manually
operated (d) time saving devices
36. Which of the following is not a source document (a) invoice (b) exercise book (c) cheque (d) receipt
37. The act of making financial plan or income and expenditure is called (a) tax (b) salary (c) budget (d) finance
38. The following are the services provided by the internet except (a) text message services (b) e-banking services (c)
e-mail (d) on-line advertising
39. Trial balance is ___ (a) list of all debit and debit payment (b) list of cash receipt and payment (c) list of income
and expenditure (d) list of all balance extracted from the ledger
40. When a cheque is crossed with twoo parallel lines it means that ____ (a) it cannot cross the road (b) it cannot be
cashed over the counter (c) no money in the account (d) it can be paid over the counter
41. A financial institution where we keep money and valuable good is ___ (a) insurance (b) hotel (c) bag (d)
commercial bank
42. One of the following is not in the store records (a) stock card (b) inventories (c) requisition form (d) delivery note
43. The document used to correct error of overcharge is ___ (a) debit note (b) invoice (c) credit note (d) receipt
44. In communication, the response or reply to a message from the sender to the receiver is ___ (a) cash (b) current (c)
communication (d) feedback
45. A cheque with two (2) parallel lines drawn across its face is called __ (a) cancelled cheque (b) open cheque (c)
certified cheque (d) crossed cheque
46. Which of the following is not part of a business letter? (a) body of the letter (b) heading (c) complimentary close
(d) confrontation and argument
47. One of these is not a factor that affects the choice of an occupation (a) Education (b) Training (c) talent (d) federal
character
48. An insurance policy that cover accident at sea is known as ____ (a) fire insurance (b) burglary insurance (c) life
assurance (d) marine insurance
49. ___ is a book of original entry (a) balance sheet (b) profit and loss account (c) bank account (d) journal
50. The place where goods are stored until they are needed is known as ___ (a) space bar (b) warehouse (c) room (d)
house
51. Which of the following is a factor of production? (a) organization (b) agriculture (c) personal services (d) industry
52. The medium of advertisement that reaches both cities and rural areas is called ___ (A) radio (b) journal (c)
television (d) magazine
53. The two types of office are ___and ___ (a) small, big (b) wide narrow (c) short long (d) big large
54. In trade mark-up refers to (a) cost of production (b) profit margin (c) trade mark (d) turn over
55. The central bank of Nigeria is responsible for (a) carrying money from Lagos to Abeokuta (b) given loans and
overdrafts to traders (c) printing naira notes and printing kobo coins (d) printing passport photographs
56. Business___ is the common goal of all the department and offices of a company (a) end (b) fold –up (c) loss (d)
success
57. The correct heading and date is “Trading and profit and loss account ____ (a) as at 31st December. 1993 (b) as at
the year ended 31st December, 1993 (c) for December, 1993 (d) for the year ended 31st December, 1993
 58. C.O.D. means __ (a) cash and delivery (b) cash on delivery (c) cash over delivery (d) credit on deliver
59. One who buys in small quantities and sells directly to the consumers is known as __ (a) an agent (b) a middle
man (c) manufacturer (d) retailer
60. The types of discount given to a buyer for prompt payment is known as (a) cash discount (b) quantity discount (c)
special discount (d) trade discount
Section B
Attempt all questions
1a. What is office equipment (3marks)
b. List (7) seven types of office equipment (7marks)
2a. Who is a consumer? (2marks)
b. Define consumer protection (3marks)
3a. State (2) two aids to trade (2marks)
b. List any four (4) sources of funds to a sole proprietorship (4marks)
c. List four (4) system of transportation currently use in Nigeria (4marks)
4. The following are the transactions of Jayeoba Nig. Ltd for the month of March,2005
You are required to write up the cash book for the month
march 1 2005 cash in hand 400
March 4 2005 sold goods to cash 3200
March 5 2005 bought office furniture with cash 1000
March 9 2005 Sold goods for cash 500
March 15 2005 Bought goods with cash 1500
March 18 2005 Paid sundry expenses 200
March 25 2005 paid rent with cash 200
March 29 2005 paid wages and salaries 1000 (10 marks)
 CITY OF FAITH COMPREHENSIVE COLLEGE
2017/2018 MOCK EXAMINATION
CLASS: J.S.S 3 (BECE) SUBJECT: CCA
1. A drawing from a human model is known as (a) native drawing (b) studio drawing (c) figure drawing (d) person
drawing
2. What is produced when a colour is soften by the addition of a white pigment? (a) tint (b) tone (c) shade (d) texture
3. The colourant that is most suitable for colouring fabric is known as (a) gloss paint (b) poster colour (c) dye (d) oil
pastel
4. The art of printing was introduced by (a) Michelangelo (b) karl marx (c) Johannes (d) Pablo .Piccaso
5. In textile design which of the following is not useful for resist? (a) starch (b) wax (c) candle (d) chalk
6. A place for the preservation of artworks is called (a) Museum (b) gallery (c) workshop (d) studio
7. The earliest dated African sculpture was the art of (a) Benin (b) Tsoede (c) Nok (d) Igbo- ukwu
8. A basket containing different types of fruit arranged in front of an artist for drawing is known as (a) still life
drawing (b) fruit drawing (c) nature drawing (d) imaginature composition
9. An individual who specialized in the excarvation of art work is known as (a) artist (b) anthropologist (c)
Archeologist (d) sculptor
10. Pallete is used for __ (a) moulding objectives (b) figure drawing (c) carving wood (d) mixing colours
11. A bench for sitting and holding draining board in a drawing studio is called ____ (a) money chair (b) drawing
chair (c) donkey chair (d) easel
12. Yusuf Grillo is a notable Nigerian ___ (a) painter (b) musician (c) ceramist (d) sculptor
13. The method by which fabrics are decorated with thread is ___ (a) stitching (b) thread decoration (c) embroidery (d)
batik
14. Which of these colour combination in equal proportion will produce violet? (a) red + blue (b) yellow + green (c)
red + yellow (d) yellow + white
15. How would you improvise for soft pencil? (a) chewing the stick (b) burn the stick (c) cutting the stick (d)
sharpened
16. In which of these towns is calabash carving most popular? (a) Edo (b) Ajaokuta (c) Oyo (d) Benin
17. Elements of design consist of ___ (a) colour, lines, figure and form (b) texture, space, figure and form (c) space,
measurement, shape and form (d) colour , texture, space and form
18. Which of the following is not a visual art? (a) graphics (b) textiles (c) painting (d) music
19. The Nigeria national flag was designed by ___ (a) Monalisa (b) Desmond Eliot (c) Taiwo Akinkunmi (d)
Babatunde Omidina
20. The person that takes care of artworks kept in the Museum is ___ (a) a caretaker (b) gardener (c) curator (d)
museum list
21. The application or usage of fixative is essential for one of these media (a) oil pastel (b) poster colour (c) oil colour
(d) chalk pastel
22. Embroidery is made on (a) glass (b0 rubber (c) cloth (d) leather
23. Sea scape painting include __ (a) scenes around the city (b) activities on water around the share (c) studies from
sea levels (d) painting of a running water
24. An art educator, painter and one of the earliest women in the Nigerian are scene is ___ (a) Afi Ekong (b) Ladi
Kwali (c) Elso Ugboda Uga (d) C.I. Adu
25. Drawing made from the past events or stories is ___ (a) figure (b) abstract (c) imaginative (d) seascape
26. The art lettering started in (a) American (b) Greece (c) Rome (d) Egypt
27. What is another word for art material (a) media (b) radio and television (c) method (d) form
28. The study of a community’s art is the same as the study of their ___ (a) law (b) culture (c) politics (d) lives
29. Masquerading and masks are used for ___ (a) collecting money (b) show off (c) flogging people (c) festival and
celebration
30. In which state in animal skin for leather work common? (a) Benin (b) Oyo (c) Sokoto (d) Bayelsa
Music
31. Music is an expression of deep sealed __ in human nature (a) psychology (b) instinct (c0 motives (d) contrary
 32. Musical instrument that are made of found in Africa are referred to as ___ (a) foreign (b) local (c) half cast (d)
citizen
33. What is the normal arrangement of four voice parts in the great stave? (a) BTSA (b) TASB (c) SATB (d) SABT
34. Which of the following is not a feature of a choreograph? (a) dancing (b) singing (c) sleeping (d) rhythmic
35. Music serves as a ____ to a sick person (a) suicide (b) burden (c) therapy (d) bondage
36. The combination of two singers is called (a) duet (b) quartet (c) trio (d) choir
37. Which symbol is used to name the staff? (a) Brace (b) clef (c) flat (d) slur
38. Which of these is the principal materials used to produce Sekere? (a) calabash (b) Gourd (c) leather (d) wood
39. A cappella means that the music should (a) sung by ladies only (b) be sung by only men (c) not to be accompanied
(d) to be accompanied
40. Which of the following periods does the music of W.A. Mozard and Fraz Schubert represent? (a) Baroque (b)
Romantic (c) 20th century (d) classical
41. The combination of five singers is called ___ (a) duet (b) fiftet (c) quartet (d) quintet
42. Which of these have six beats? (a) dotted semibreve (b) minim (c) semibreve (d) semi quaver
43. The same tune singing is ___ (a) accipella (b) duet (c) solo (d) unison
44. Which of these does not belong to bass family? (a) coronet (b) French-Horn (c) saxophone (c) trumpet
45. What is the normal arrangement of line of Bass clef? (a) GEBAF (b) GBDFA (c) EGBDF (d) ACEG
Drama
46. Non- scripted drama can be handled by a ___ artist (a) amateur (b) half baked (c) mediocre (d) professional
47. A play is arranged in (a) acts and scenes (b) styles (c) paragraphs (d) stanzas
48. Scripted and non- scripted plays have the following features except ___ (a) characters (b) hero (c) plot (d) run-
on-lines
49. The soul of drama is ____ (a) costume (b) flashback (c) dialogue (d) properties
50. A non- verbal story telling method on a stage is ___ (a) choreography (b) farce (c) mime (d) tragic comedy
51. A costly mistake made by the main character in a play or drama is called __ (a) blunder (b) costly mistake (c)
great mistake (d) tragic flaw
52. A drama where everything is sung is called ____ (a) comedy (b) dirge (c) opera (d) ritual
53. Pretending to be somebody when you are not means ____ (a) crew (b) impersonation (c) imitation (d) copy cast
54. Non- scripted drama is also known as ___ (a) information (b) unwritten (c) tragic (d) comedy
55. There are ___ major types of make up (a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 3(d) 6
56. ___ means to copy the behaviour of somebody (a) impersonation (b) comedy (c) imitation (d) informative
57. Flash back is a literacy technique which ___ is a play (a) an opponent is suspended (b) interest is aroused (c)
previous scenes or actions can be recalled (d) reading speed is enhanced
58. A play with only one act is called___ (a) comedy (b) melodrama (c) Playlet (d) tradegy
59. The basic elements of drama are ___ (a) character, action, setting (b) character, monologue, plot (c) character,
plot, episode (d) plot, setting, rhyme
60. An hero or heroine who plays the most prominent role in a play or novel is called ___ (a) protagonist (b0
antagonist (c) conflict (d) celebrity
Section B : theory Questions
Answer all questions
1a. Define a Museum and state five roles of museum in our nation (6marks)
b. Give four (4) characteristics of Ife art (4marks)
2a. Give five characteristics of NOK art (5marks)
b. List five Nigerian craft works and their locations (5marks)
3a. Name the Nigerian composer of each of the following popular tunes
i. Sweet mother (2marks)
ii. Nigerian National Anthem (1mark)
3bi. Name one popular composition of G.F Handel (1mark)
ii. What period of music composer who is a contemporary of Handel (1mark)
c. List four (4) classification of western musical instrument (4marks)
4a. A dramatic situation is created when a number of factors exist” what are those four (4) factor that must exist
before a dramatic situation is created (4marks)
b. What is the difference between “Drama and theatre (3marks)
c. List three (3) traditional Nigerian playwright? (3marks)
 CITY OF FAITH COMPREHENSIVE COLLEGE
2017/2018 MOCK EXAMINATION
CLASS: J.S.S 3 (BECE) SUBJECT: RELIGIONS AND NATIONAL VALUES
SOCIAL STUDIES
1. The world in which people animals, plants as well as resources live or exist is known as (a) environment (b)
physical environment (c) social environment (d) oil wells
2. Things that a person or nation can put to further use in order to increase wealth is known as (a) resources (b)
money (c) agriculture (d) petroleum
3. Man’s activities affect the physical environment in the following areas expect (a) rainfall pattern (b) bush burning
(c) gas flaring (d) quarry work
4. The Nigeria old National Anthem was replaced in 1978 because (a) it was not melodious (b) it was composed by
foreigner (c) it lays more emphasis on our cultural differences (d) the wording are not many
5. The practical application of knowledge gained from scientific study is known as (a) research (b) modernization (c)
technology (d) development
6. Removal of parts of female genitalia is known as (a) child marriage (b) female genital mutilation (c) delay
genitalia (d) genital defect (e) circulatory
7. Population growth is determined by the following factors except (a) school system (b) economic factor (c)
technology (d) medical care
8. The first executive president of Nigeria is (a) chief Olusegun Obasanjo (b) Dr Nnamdi Azikwe (c) Alhaji Tafawa
Balawa (d) Alhaji Shehu Shagari
9. Deregulation , commercialization and privatization are all processes of (a) economic reform (b0 economic
Sabotage (c) economic administration (d) economic discussion
10. Social environment comprises (a) rivers , highlands and lowland (b) Religion , language and families formation
(c) Religion, occupation and river (d) Rivers, vegetation and rock
11. A constitution that is difficult to amend is (a) unwritten (b) flexible (c) rigid (d) written
12. Which of the following is the primary sector of the economy of Nigeria (a) Agriculture, fishing and processing (b)
Agriculture forestry and processing (c) Agriculture, fishing and forestry (d) agriculture, forestry and Electricity
generation
13. The movement of people from one geographical area to another is (a) migration (b) immigration (c) Emigration
(d) Net migration
14. Which of the following government is closer to the rural community (a) state (b) federal (c) local (d) central
15. The most effective way of checking desert encroachment is through (a) cutting down of tree (b) aforestation (c)
public enlightenment (d) planting of cover crops
16. When Jesus was about to be crucified who was the person caught to help carry his cross (a) Simon of Bethany
(b) Simon of cyrene (c) Simon of Golgotha (d) Simon of Calvary
17. The where did Jesus lead his disciples during is ascension (a) Jerusalem (b) Galilee (c) Bethlehem (d) Bethel
18. Which companion of Paul started with him in his second missionary journey (a) Timothy (b) Mark (c) Silas (d)
Barnabas
19. Who predicted that Paul would be imprisoned in Jerusalem during his third missionary journey at Caesarea (a)
Apollo (b) Agabus (c) Felix (d) Festus
20. Immediately Stephen was killed, another victim among the disciples killed by Herod was (a) John the son of
Zebedee (b) Thomas (c) Bartholomew (d) James the son of Zebedee
21. In the feeding of five thousand the food remnants remained __ baskets (a) none (b) ten (c) twelve (d) eleven
22. Which one of these saw Jesus during one of his appearances to his disciples after his ascension (a) Cleopas (b)
Thomas (c) Mary Magdalene (d) Mary, mother of Jesus
23. The great commission was to allow the disciples to go and preach the gospel to the (a) lost sheep of Israel (b) the
whole world (c) the Jews (d) the gentiles
24. The inscription “to an unknown God” was noticed by Paul during his missionary journey at (a) Troas (b) Tyre (c)
Thessalonia (d) Athens
25. You are the salt of the earth, but if salt has lost its taste how shall its saltiness be (a) retained (b) rectified (c)
resolved (d) restored
 26. The orthodox churches are the following except (a) Anglican (b) Catholic (c) Redeemed (d) Presbyterian
27. Which of these actually explain temptation (a) sinning against God Almighty (b) committing a great offence
against man (c) enticing so as to do wrong (d) doing something very wrong indeed
28. In the beautified which one of these will inherit the earth (a) the meek (b) the peace maker (c) the humble (d) the
pure in heart
29. Who were the parents of the forerunner of Jesus (a) Priscilla and Aquila (b) Joseph and Mary (c) Zechariah and
Elizabeth (d) Dorcas and John
30. In which miracle story was Jesus mistaken for a ghost by his disciples (a) the feeding of five thousand (b) calming
the storm (c) healing the demoniac (d) walking on the sea
Theory
1a. List four method of teaching social studies (2marks)
b. Name two examples of physical environment (2marks)
c. Mention three home appliances and their uses (3marks)
d. State three core messages of family life Education (3marks)
2a. State three words of Jesus on the cross
b. List two names of the brothers of Jesus
c. Give three attributes of God
d. Mention two conditions necessary for reconciliation
 CITY OF FAITH COMPREHENSIVE COLLEGE
2017/2018 MOCK EXAMINATION
CLASS: BECE J.S.S 3 SUBJECT: YORUBA

Ka ayoka isale yii, ki o si dahun awon ibeere ti o tele

A fi bi igba ti kii se Orile-ede Nayiria yii ko la wa ni bi Ogun odun Seyin. Ase keesekesee la n ri tele, asa kaasa-
kaasa n bo leyin tii se baba keesekeese leyin ti a gbominira tan kuro lowo awon oyin bo amumsin, a ko tii lo to odun
mewaa ti ogun abele fi ibere.
Emi awon omo Naijiria run die ninu Ogun Ojukwu ki oba oke to fi opin si ogun abele naa. Leyin igba ti ijoba
pada sodo oloselu tan ni awon ajijagbara lese omi Naijiria wa bere sii se sakaa. Bi won se n gbe awon oyinbo elepo, bee
ni won n gbe awon eeyan ja n kan-ja-n-kan
Itaje-sile tiwon ko wa le to ti iko awon Boko Haraamu. Awon o besu begba bi won se n ju bo bonbu si soosi bee
ni won n ju si mosalasi.
Bi won ko se da oja si, bee ni won n juu sago awon olopaa. Awon ileese nlanla pelu awon ile-iwe iroyin naa pin
ninu oran godogbo naa.
Ara o rokun bee si lara o radie. Gbogbo eniyan Ajitoni paapaa loke oya. Beeyan kii ba se onibilisi eda bi o ba je
eni tii o ronujinle ni ki o to loo maa fi bonbu gbemi omonikeji iru eni bee se le gbowo emi, ki o ku fin –in-fin ki o wa je
pea won idile re ni yoo wa maa nawo lo leyin iku iru eni bee.
Esin Kankan ko faaye sile fun itajesile iwaa koba o ma le fedo leri oronro n be ninu won
Ibeere
1. Ki ni itumo ti a le fun keesekeese? (a) Nnkan ti ko lagbara (b) Nnkan ti ko lagbara ju (d) Nnkan to lagbara (e)
Nnkan to Iagbara ju
2. Kin ni itumo ti a le fun kaasakaasa? (a) Nnkan ti ko gbenutan (b) Nnkan ti ko gbenutan ju (d) Nnkan to gbenutan
(e) Nnkan to gbenutan ju
3. Ogun wo ni a tun n pe ni ogun abele? (a) ogun Naijiria (b) Ogun Hausa (d) Ogun ojukwu (d) Ogun ijaw
4. “Se sakaa” tumo si ___ (a) Ba nnkan je (b) Tun nnkan se (d) Tu nnkan ka (e) ko nnkan jo po
5. Adugbo ibo ni Naijiraa ni awo ijaw n gbe? (a) oke oya (b) ile-Hausa (d) Ese-omi (e) lebaa odo Benue
6. Ona wo ni itajesile awon ijaw se yato si ti awon Boko Haraamu (a) Awon ijaw mo ibon yin ju awon Boko
Haraamulo (b) Awon ijaw n gbe eniyan sugbon bonbu jiju ni ti awon Boko Haraamu (d) Bakan-naa ni awon
mejeeji (e) won jo maa n gbeniyan pamo ni
7. Kin ni itumo Ara-o- rokun ara o radie? (a) ko si isinmi (b) Adie ko fe fi okun sorun (d) okun orun adie tu (e) Adie
feran okan pupo
8. Kin lo de ti awon eniyan fi di Ajitoni loke oya? (a) won yipada lati maa joruko Ajitoni (b) won feran Ajitoni pupo
(d) ko si (e) okan won ko bale
9. Onibilisi eda tumo si ___ (a) Eda to n ta bilisi (b) Eda to kundun bilisi (d) oni warere eda (e) Elesu eda
10. Esin wo lo faramo gbigba emi Omonikeji? (a) Esin –Abalaye (B) ko si esin Kankan (d) Esin-ki risiti (e) Esin
musulumi
11. _____ ni isori oro ti a n lo dipo oro-oruko ninu gbolohun (a) oro-ise (b) oro-Aponle (d) oro-Atokun (e) oro-Aropo
12. Ninu ewi “ were ninu asa” ti o ka ninu ewi iriri dogbon” kini akewi so pe o sa wo inu asa? (a) ise (b) iwa (c) were
(d) Asa (e) Ede
13. Ninu Ewi “Maalu ti ko niru” Ibeere wo ni akewi koko beere? (a) se o ti soorun meje (b) se o rii ro ri (d) Nje o
ranti ri (e) se o ranti ile ti o ti wa
14. Taani akewi so pe ko si iru e laye? (a) olowo (b) Eniyan (d) olorun (e) Oba
15. Gbogbo awon wonyi je iwa –ika ti o wa lode oni ayafi ___ (a) jijinigbe (b) ipaniyan (d) lilo-omo nilokulo (e) fifi
eniyan rubo
16. Awon Yoruba gbagbo pe Onigbowo won lodo olodumare ni ___ (a) Obarisa (b) kirisiti (d) awon orisa (e)
Muhamodu
17. Ta ni olorun aimo tabi olorun airi? (a) ogun (b) obarisa (d) Sango (e) Olodumare
18. Alagbata ni o n ___ (a) gbe ire oko wa soja (b) da eniyan ni okowo (d) tun oja ta lowo goboi (e) pa ate worobo
19. Bi eniyan ba taja, ti owo to taa ju iye ti o raa lo a o so pe eni bee ____ (a) jere (b) sise (d) sooti (e) jafafa
 20. Okan lara nnkan to n dena oyun nini ni laye-atijo ____ (a) Aarun ibalopo (b) oyun sise (d) ilokulo-oogun (e)
Arun-eda
21. Awon ____ lo maa n se itoju oloyun laye atijo (a) onisegun (b) Dokita (d) Adahunse (e) Onisowo
22. ____ je abala kan lara odidi gbolohun (a) silebu(b) faweli (d) konsonanti (e) Awe-gbolohun
23. A le pin awe – gbolohun-afarahe si orisii ona ____ (a) meji (b) mefa (d) meje (e) meta
24. Apinmogun ni ___ ni ile Yoruba (a) iwofa (b) omo-odo (d) Eru (e) ijagba
25. ___ farajo eru nini lode –oni (a) omo-odo (b) iwofa-yiya (d) ise-kiko (e) fifi-oko-sofa
26. ___ ni nnkan awon baba nla wa n lo gege bi leta ba ara won soro laye-atijo (a) Aroko (b) iwe-kiko (d) oju-sise (e)
fifi-owo-juwo
27. A le pin oro-oruko si orisii ona ___ (a) meta (b) merin (d) meji (e) mefa
28. ___ ni ki a pa iro tabi silebu je ninu eyo oro tabi laarin oro meji (a) iparoje (b) isunki (d) silebu (e) konsonanti
29. Itoju ara nii se pelu ki a ri pe gbogbo ___wa ni mimo (a) ese (b) apa (d) oju (e) eya-ara
30. A le pin oro-ise ti o wa si ona ____ (a) merin (b) meji (d) mefa (e) meta
31. __ ni akojopo ogbon, imo oye, akiyesi ati iriri aye awon Babanla wa gege bi o se n sele ni akoko kan si omiran (a)
litireso (b) silebu (d) faweli (e) konsonanti
32. ____ ni akojopo oro ti o n di apa kan gbolohun o le je eyo oro kan, o si le ju eyo oro kan lo (a) silebu (b) faweli
(d) konsonanti (e) Apola
33. Apola-oruko le sise ni orisii ___ (a) meji (b) meta (d) mefa (e) mewaa
34. Irufe aroko ti o maa n ni ibi ti a faramo ati ibi ti a tako le je aroko __ (a) Alalaye (b) Onisorongbesi (d)
Alariiyanjiyan (e) Oniroyin
35. Gbogbo ohun mimo ninu esin-ibile je _____ (a) merin (b) mefa (d) meje (e) mejo
36. Kinni apele Ogedengbe? (a) Atewonro (b) Agbogungboro (d) Agbongboakala (e) Abijawara
37. Orirun awon Yoruba ni ___ (a) Ibadan (b) Ila-orangun (d) Osogbo (e) ile- ife
38. ____ni awon Yoruba gbagbo pe, oun ni olodumare fun lase lati maa mo eniyan answer no 39 (a) Obatala (b) ogun
(d) orunmila (e) Esu
39. Nigba ti awon orisa n bow a sile aye, awon Yoruba gbagbo pe ____ ni o saaju gbogbo won (a) Esu (b) oya (d)
ogun (e) Obatala
40. Awon Akanda eda bi aro, afoju abuke ni awon Yoruba tun n pe ni ___ (a) Alabuku eda (b) Awon eni-oosa (d)
Awon omo-oosa (e) Awon omo-ogun
41. Ila gbooro-gbooro kookan ni eeke kookan ni a fi le da awon ___ mo? (a) Oyo (b) Ondo (d) Ijebu (e) Igbomina
42. Eya Yoruba to baa won Binni paala ni ___ ? (a) Awon Ilaje (b) Ekiti (d) Ondo (e) Owo
43. Bawo ni a se le ki won nibi idaro eni ti aburo ku loju egbon re? (a) E ku ewu (b) E ku ajalu (d) E klu idaro (e) E
ku ateyinku
44. Omokunrin ti a bi leyin iku Baba agba ni n je? ____ (a) Babatunde (b) Babarimisa (d) Iyabode (e) Yetunde
45. Orisa ti o fi orita se ile ni ___ (a) Sango (b) Esu (d) Ogun (e) Obatala
46. Konsonanti ti a paje ninu asunki “Ekuo” ni ___ (a) k (b) w (d) r (e) t
47. Ona ti a tun fi le pe “Ajayi” ninu asunmki oruko naa ni ___ (a) Ogidi-olu (b) onikanga-Ajipan (d) Adjai (e) Ajai
48. Oro-oruko miiran ti a fayo lati ara oro-oruko “odun” ni ___ (a) odunjo (b) odunni (d) odoodun (e) odunmodun
49. Meloo ni iro Faweli airanmupe ti a n ko ninu akoto Yoruba? (a) meji (b) meta (d) meje (e) mejila
Iwe kika Ejo Taani
50. Ewon odun meloo ni adajo da fun Olaniyi? (a) odun-mewaa (b) Odun-mejo (d) odun-mesan-an (e) odun kan
51. ___ ni oruko oko Funmilayo (a) Ade (b) Bola (d) Segun (e) Akin
52. Ibo ni laniyi ati sunmbo ti lo se idanwo? (a) Ibadan (b) Eko (d) Ilorin (e) Abeokuta
53. Gbogbo awon wonyi ni o je ore Olaniyi ayafi___ (a) Ademola (b) Olusesan (d) Fela (e) Segun
54. __ ni onkowe iwe “Ejo Taani” (a) Lasunkanmitela (b) Banjo-Akinlabi (d) Debo-awe (e) Olu- Owolabi
Iwe kika “Orogun Odaju”
55. ___ ni oruko ore Baba Ode? (a) Ajibade (b) Akinjare (d) Ejiwumi (e) Odejobi
56. ___ ni oruko iyawo Baba ode keta (a) Osunwenu (b) Oyadara (d) Ogunbunmi
57. __ ni Oba Ajuwon ati awon eniyan re n ji roro le lori (a) eto-oro-aje (b) eto- Osulu (d) oro-Ogun Alioyaya (e) oro-
esin
58. ___ ni o na Ejiwumi nigba ti o fe bimo (a) Oyadara (b) Osunwenu (d) Odejobi (e) Adufe
 59. ___ ni oruko Onkowe “Orogun Odaju” (a) Lasunkanmi Tela (b) Debo-Awe (d) Lawuyi Ogunniran (e) Olunlade –
Alagbe
60. Gbogbo alifabeeti iro konsonanti je ___ (a) meji (b) mefa (d) meje (e) mejidinlogun
Ipin Keji (Ti ori)
Dahaun gbogbo ibeere ti o wa labe ipin yii Aroko
1. Ko ila mewaa pere lori okan ninu awon akori wonyii
a. Aseyori ijoba ipinle Oyo
b. Ose ti yiyo owo iranlowo ori epo kuro le se
d. Imototo olosoose ni ipinle Oyo
2. Iru eniyan wo ni Yoruba maa n pe ni
(i) Koroboto bi oka
(ii) Kin ni o tumo si bi won ba fi aso pupa ranse si okunrin ti o wa ni idale
Alo o igi dudu koju sigbo sakun o
3. Girama
i. Kin lo maa n saba sele bi isunki ba waye laarin
ii. Oro meji to fegbekegbe
iii. Kin ni a n pe ege ti o kere julo ti a le fi ohun pe leekan soso
4. Litireso Apileko
a. “A” o ti ya, iduro ko si ibere ko si musin la n lo ni lo gba awon yoo baya ewon ki won lu
b. De oju iku ki o ma baa le lo sibi igbeyawo ola ni. Yoo baya-ewon ke? Awon wo lo n je bee? “d” beere pelu
iberu die. “Kii se akoko akada ti eeyan maa n wadu okodoro oro niyii, o ya sa je ka lo
Ibeere
1. Taani A to n soro lakoko
2. Taani B ti won n so pe ki won lu?
3. Taani C ti o n beere pe, Awon wo ni yoo-baya-ewon?
4. Kini idi re ti won fi fe lo mu yoo-baya-ewon?
5. Kini oruko onkowe yii. “Ejoo Taani”?
TABI
Ninu ewi “eniyan” ti o ka ninu “iriri dogbon”
1. Kin ni eni ti a ni ko feni loju se?
2. So nnkan meji ti ebi eni ko fe?
3. Kin ni akewi so pe o baje?
4. Menuba awon eda meji ti akewi so pe a ko lee ba gbe?
5. Taan Onkowe “Ewi iriri dogbon”
Orogun Odaju
1. Kini oruko erubinrin tpi won fun Baba ode gege bi aya?
2. Taani iyaale Baba ode ninu awon iyawo re?
3. Kini oruko ore Baba ode?
4. Taani onkowe “Orogun Odaju”?
 CITY OF FAITH COMPREHENSIVE COLLEGE
2017/2018 MOCK EXAMINATION
CLASS: BECE J.S.S 3 SUBJECT: PRE-VOCATIONAL STUDIES

HOME-ECONOMICS
Instruction: Choose the most appropriate answer from the options provided
1. Which of the following badly? (a) linen (b) nylon (c) polyester (d) wool
2. Man-made fibres include the following except ___ (a) acetate rayon (b) nylon (c) viscose rayon (d) wool
3. People who do strennous works are called ___(a) activists (b) adults (c) manual worker (d) vegetarians
4. Which of the following is not an example of household linen (a) bed sheet (b) blankets (c) mattresses (d) table
cloth
5. A thread made by twisting or spinning fibres is called ____ (a) yarn (b) mat (c) rope (d) woven fabric
6. Which of the following does not belong to the groups? (a) fibre (b) knit (c) warp (d) weft
7. Which of the following is not a tool for laking body measurement ? (a) French curve (b) paper (c) pencils (d) string
8. The basic pattern drafted to the exact size of the body is called _____ (a) block (b) fashion (c) style (d) vogue
9. _____ prevent children from diseases (a) immunization (b) love (c) sun (d) warmth
10. Baby’s clothes should not be ___ (a) dried (b) ironed (c) rinsed (d) starched
11. The following tools are not very important for intending marriage partner except ___ (a) tape measure (b) eraser
(c) pencil (d) paper scissors
12. The following tests are not very important for intending marriage partners except ___(a) malaria and HIV/AIDS
tests (b) Genotype and HIV/AIDS tests (c) measles and malaria tests (d) genotypes and malaria tests
13. The following are equipment for drying except _____ (a) cloth lines (b) wooden or plastic pegs (c) cloth hangers
(d) washing machine
14. Which of the following materials is washed in cold water? (a) sweaters (b) cotton (c) wool (d) school cardigan
15. Exercise is ___ (a) mental movement (b) walking movement (c) physical movement (d) body movement
16. The following are large kitchen equipment except___ (a) blender (b) electric or gas cooker (c) dish washer (d)
refrigerator
17. Development of a child starts from the ___ and spreads over the body (a) mouth (b) head (c) legs (d) eyes
18. ___care is the care required by a mother after child birth (a) child (b) pregnancy (c) post natal (d) ante-natal
19. The way the surface of a fabric looks and feels is ____ (a) filling (b) colour (c) shape (d) texture
20. Special materials used for covering and decorating the floor are called floor ____ (a) coverings (b) pieces (c) linen
(d) funishes
21. Insufficient iodine in the diet result in ___ (a) rickets (b) deafness (c) pellagra (d) goitre
22. In manufacturing processes of all fabrics, the last process is ____ (a) dyeing (b) ironing (c) starching (d) boiling
23. The outer layer of the skin is called___ (a) epidermis (b) dermis (c) pores (d) hair follicle
24. When a burning test is carried out on cotton material it ____ (a) gives off fumes (b) smells like burning feather (c)
smells like burning paper (d) burns with smoking flames
25. What helps to us to put on and take off our clothes? (a) facing (b) finishes (c) back stitching (d) opening
26. Basic needs are important for ____ (a) recreation (b) survival (c) status (d) show
27. The part of the sewing machine that raises and lowers the needle is ___ (a) balance wheel (b) presser foot (c) head
(d) bobbin
28. The needle controls the thread which stitches the cloth from the ___ (a) bottom (b) bobbin (c) top (d) edge
29. Incorrect threading of machine can lead to constant ___ (a) breaking of thread (b) breaking of cloth (c) stitching
(d) joining of thread
30. Which of the following will require more energy food in their diet? (a) the children (b) the manual (c) workers (d)
the aged (e) the invalids
Agricultural Science
31. Quarantine method of pest and disease control involves (a) a quarterly separation of disease animals (b) the use of
cultural operations to prevent pest attack (c) the careful examination of crops and animals being imported (d) the
use of parasites and predators to control pests
32. A crop was planted in the moth of September and harvested in February the following year what class does the
crop belong (a) Annual (b) perennial (c) Biennial (d) Arable
33. Poultry products includes the following except (a) feathers (b) eggs (c) Hides and skins (d) meat
34. The major problem associated with the continuous application of inorganic manure is the increase in (a) soil
consistency (b) soil fertility (c) soil acidity (d) soil porosity
35. Farm animals can broadly be divided into the following except (a) land and water animals (b) Ruminant and non
ruminants (c) Aquatic and terrestrial (d) endoparasite and ectoparasite
36. The scientific name for water leaf is (a) Tridax procumbens (b) Talinum triangulare (c) Aqua-leaf (d) Amaranthus
spinosus
37. Classification of crops as oil crops implies (a) crops with sufficient crude oil (b) crops that are oily in nature (c)
crops from which oil could be extracted (d) crops that supplies vegetable oil
38. A matured male cow is known as (a) bull (b) sow (c) calf (d) matured sow
39. Erosion can occur in the following forms Except (a) plain erosion (b) sheet erosion (c) Gully erosion (d) rill
erosion
40. The primary purpose of staking yam is __ (a) to increase the number of yam tuber perstand (b) to expose the leaf
and other parts to sunlight thereby improving yield (c) to ensure a direct flow of water to the soil (d) to accelerate
it’s maturity
41. Importance of water in the soil include the following except (a) photosynthesis (b) aids weathering of rocks (c)
Aids seed germination (d) Hinders weed growth
42. Methods of fertilizer application include the following except (a) sewage (b) broadcasting (c) foliar application (d)
row placement
43. Maintenance of farm machinery is essential for the following reasons except (a) to increase it’s effectiveness
during use (b) to prevent their damage (c) to improve the degree of its attractive (d) to reduce accidents during
farm operations
44. Two farm tools that have metal prongs are (a) hand fork and rake (b) sickle and go to hell (c) shears and secateurs
(d) axe and rake
45. Legumes help to fix ___ into the soil (a) oxygen (b) manure (c) nitrogen (d) hydrogen
46. The factor that hinders the rearing of certain animals in Nigeria is ___ (a) rainfall (b) politics (c) vegetable (d)
religion
47. During the pre-planting operation, stumping is ___ (a) a sort of bush clearing performed by the machine (b) is
done to loosen the top soil and break soil clogs (c) is making the land into ridges (d) is the removal of big and
stubborn roots from the soil
48. Seed dressing in planting operation is ___ (a) covering of seed coat to prevent exposure to sunlight (b)
application of protective chemical to seeds to prevent insect attack (c) cleaning of seeds (d) sorting and winnowing
of seeds before storage
49. The type of manure commonly found around abbator is called (a) compost (b) farm yard manure (c) green manure
(d) urea
50. Notching in farm animal is ___ (a) the process of removing horns in farm animals (b) the separalicate of disease
animal from healthy ones (c) one of the method of identification in farm animal (d) is the removal of ear in farm
animals
51. Which of these is not correct about canning (a) food is exposed to the smoke of a smoulding fine (b) food is stored
in sealed metal container (c) it is carried out in food processing industries (d) fish and some oil are put in metal
cans
52. For any plant disease to be initiated and established, these factors must be present except (a) a susceptible host
plant (b) an invading Nematode (c) a favourable environment (d) an infection disease causing pathogen
53. One of these is not a grain storage structures (a) Rhumbus (b) silo (c) bagging (d) barn
54. A farmer who wanted a loan from the bank will be required to produce his ___ record (a) crop (b) livestock (c)
inventory (d) sales
55. Non- agricultural land includes land used for (a) forest reserves (b) game reserves (c) growing sweet potatoes (d)
building steel rolling mills
56. The biological actor which influence land uses is (a) man (b) tse-tse fly (c) pH (d) locusts
 57. In an imperfect competition, monopoly means (a) there is only one buyer (b) there is only one seller (c) there is no
buyer at all (d) there is a small number of seller
58. The part of the profit that is shared by individual members of the cooperative is termed (a) interest (b) shares (c)
dividend (d) bond
59. Groundnut and oats differs in the following except (a) the root system (b) veination (c) the number of seed (d) they
are food crops
60. Exporting board in the country serves the following purposes except (a) serves to promote foreign exchange
earning (b) increase farmers income (c) create source of revenue to the government (d) promotes the sale of arable
crop
Section B
Instruction: Answer two (2) questions only from this part
1a. Define entertainment in the home (2marks)
ii. List four common styles of serving food in a party (4marks)
iii. State any two types of meals for entertainment (2marks)
iv. State any two types of snacks for entertainment (2marks)
2a. Why is immunization given to children between the age 0.2years old? (2marks)
b. List any 4 types of vaccine given to children between the age of 0.2years old (4marks)
c. List four common childhood ailment (4marks)
3a. Define food hygiene (2marks)
b. State (3) rules for food hygiene (3 marks)
c. Explain meal planning (2marks)
d. List three factors that can influence meal planning (3marks)
4a. State three reasons for care of clothing (3marks)
b. List any two laundry agent (2marks)
c. Define detergent (2marks)
d. State three types of stains (3marks)
Agricultural science
1a. What is soil conservation (2marks)
b. State 4 ways by which soil nutrient are lost (4marks)
2a. State 3 criteria for selecting packaging materials for agricultural produce (3marks)
b. List 5 packaging materials in agriculture (5marks)
c. What is price? (2marks)
3a. State 4 factors that determines pricing of agricultural produce (4marks)
b. Give 4 types of farm records (4marks)
c. Describe 2 out of the farm records listed above (2marks
4a. What is book keeping (2marks)
b. List 4 source document (2marks)
c. Define Employment opportunity in Agriculture (2marks)
d. State 4 importance of forest (4marks)
 CITY OF FAITH COMPREHENSIVE COLLEGE
2017/2018 MOCK EXAMINATION
CLASS: BECE J.S.S 3 SUBJECT: BASIC SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY

P.H.E.
1. Abilities to react quickly with controlled body and precise movement is called _____ (a) agility (b) endurance (c)
flexibility (d) speed
2. The father of physical Education in Nigeria is ____ (a) H.B. Ayoade (b) H.J. Ekperigin (c) J.A. Adedeji (c) O.J.
Omorodion
3. Abilities of the body to resist diseases is called (a) Vaccine (b) immunity (c) inoculation (d) diseases
4. Boxers use __ to fight (a) finger (b) fist (c) palm (d) leg
5. Taekwando is national sport which country? (a) Japan (b) Korea (c) Germany (d) U.S.A.
6. The landing sector of shot put is ____ (a) 290 (b) 450 (c) 400 (d) 35
7. A long trekking to places of interest for fun is ___ (a) walking (b) hiking (c) camping (d) gardening
8. Human trafficking can be defined as harbouring of people for the purpose of slavery and ____ (a) beggars (b)
forced labour (c) petty trading (d) dry cleaning
9. A progressive action taking by a person throughout a life time is (a) sport (b) career (c) character (d) tax
10. Who is an anchorman in a relay race? (a) the last runner in a team (b) the winning team (c) the third leg in a team
(d) the first leg in a team
11. what is the name of the place where gymnastic activities are performed? (a) field (b) pitch (c) gymnasium (d) Hall
12. Fracture is a break in the _____ (a) skin (b) joint (c) bone (d) muscle
13. Another name for table tennis is ___ (a) raft ball (b) ping pong (c) egg (d) tennis
14. The twisting, turning movement and rolling of the body or body parts to the rhythm of a sound is called (a)
music (b) dance (c) walk (d) steps
15. Which one of these is not relevant to soccer (a) referee (b) linesman (c) starter (d) ball boys
Computer Science
16. The ability of the computer to give constant result is termed __ (a) constancy (b) reliability (c) remembrance (d)
versatility
17. Which of the following is NOT a function of operating system? (a) develop software (b) manages input devices
(c) marriage memory (d) manages output devices
18. The full meaning of NCS as applied to computer professional bodies is (a) Nigeria computer society (b) National
computer society (c) National constructive station (d) Nigeria constructional society
19. ____ develop the machine that was used to process 1890 USA census (a) Charles Babbage (b) Herman Hollerith
(c) Blaise Pascal (d) Joseph Jacquard
20. Which of the following computer has the screen, mouse keyboard and system unit built together? (a) super
computer (b) mainframe computer (c) mini computer (d) laptop computer
21. The keyboard command to open a document is (a) ctrl + S (b) shift + 0 (c) ctrl + 0 (d) Alt + 0
22. Which of the following keyboards is an output statement in Basic? (a) DATA (b) INPUT (c) PRINT (d) REM
23. What is the output of the following program segments?
10 A = 10
20 C = A Ʌ 2
30 PRINT C (a) 2 (b) 10 (c) 100 (d) 1000
24. In Ms Excel a workbook contains (a) two books (b) many work sheets (c) only one book (d) no worksheet
25. Which of these is NOT a computer processional? (a) computer user (b) system analyst (c) computer engineer (d)
computer programmer
26. A database is a group of related (a) records (b) database (c) fields (d) flies
27. The ICT tools for broadcasting information (a) camera and disk (b) scanner and photocopier (c) ATM and GSM
(d) radio and television
28. _____ remains as the unique identifier of a row (a) primary key (b) foreign key (c) simple key (d) composite key
29. A system is a collection of element that work (a) separately to achieve a particular goal (b) together to do nothing
(c) together to achieve a particular goal (d) none of the above
30. In which of the following Nigerian media can you find information (a) BBC (b) Aljazeerh (c) CNN (d) AIT
Basic science
31. Activities of living thing include the following except___ (a) flying (b) jumping (c) reproduction (d) swimming
32. The solar system is made up of ___ (a) earth and sun (b) planets and eclipse (c) sun and moon (d) sun and planets
33. The scientist that forecast weather is called ___ (a) astronauts (b) explorer (c) meteorogist (d) weathrist
34. The following are the properties of liquid state of matter except (a) it can be easily compressed (b) it does not have
definite shape (c) liquid takes the shape of container (d) the force of attraction between the particles are weak
35. Aquatic habitats are classified into three types based on (a) pH (b) salinity (c) water body (d) water volume
36. Two stages of development were rapid growth occur as ___ (a) adulthood and adolescent (b) childhood and
adolescent (c) infancy and adolescent (d) infancy and adulthood
37. Which of the following is not an example of agrochemicals? (a) cosmetics (b) fertilizer (c) insecticides (d)
pesticide
38. Chemical used indifferent laboratories to conduct scientific research or teaching practical science is called ___
chemical (a) agrochemical (b) industry (c) laboratory (d) pharmaceutical
39. Radioactive element includes the following except ___ (a) actinium (b) potassium (c) radium (d) uranium
40. The energy possessed by a body in motion is called__ energy (a) electrical (b) kinetic (c) mechanical (d)
potential
41. The study of transmission of traits or characteristics from offspring is called __ (a) character (b) genetics (c)
hereditary (d) pedigree
42. The following are the transmittable character except (a) bold hair (b) genes (c) heights, size and shape of the head
nose (d) rolling of tongue
43. Calculate the total resistance in the diagram below
2π 3π 4π
(a) 6π (b) 7π (c) 9π (d) 24π
44. Calculate the current in a circuit if the voltage is 100v and resistance is 20 ohmns (a) 0.2A (b) 5A (c) 50A (d)
200A
45. If a sun light (white and light) falls on triangular glass prism. The band of colour obtained is called ___ (a)
depression (b) reflection (c) refraction (d) spectrum
Theory
1a. Define physical fitness (2marks)
b. State three (3) skill/performance related components of physical fitness (2marks)
c. Mention two (2) causes of bad posture (2marks)
d. List three (3) common postural defect you know (3 marks)
Computer
1a. Define the following
i. Computer processional
ii. Database
iii. field
b. Name four computer professional
c. Explain the term “operating system” and give 2 example
d. Highlight the 3 types of Database
Basic science
Instruction: answer any one out of these two questions
1a. Define the following
i. Work (ii) Power (iii) Force (iv) Energy (4marks)
b. List four forms of energy (4marks)
c. Explain renewable energy (2marks)
2a. What are family traits (2marks)
b. List three methods of heat transfer (3marks)
c. Define radioactivity (2marks)
d. State three types of radiation
 CITY OF FAITH COMPREHENSIVE COLLEGE
2017/2018 MOCK EXAMINATION
CLASS: BECE J.S.S 3 SUBJECT: ENGLISH LANGUAGE

Part A: Answer All Questions

Comprehension: Read the following passage carefully ands answer the questions that follow
This beautiful plant, Earth which God has given us is now a source of worry for many people. The relevant
question to ask is, ‘Are we taking enough care of something that sustains us and all the animals and plants that God
created in so not. ‘We need to take good care of the planet so that we and all forms of life on earth will not die and our
plant becomes as dead and arid as the moon
It is we human beings who are destroying this earth, despite the fact that is supports us all and will continue to
support us all for millions and millions of years- provided we treat it well.
We cut down large areas of forest to build good road and beautiful houses. But we hardly realize that our planet
suffer for it. Why? Unless we plant more trees , we will not have enough oxygen to breath. The destruction of forest will
have a number of harmful effects: there will be very little rains: there will also be no trees to stop the strong winds from
blowing off the roofs of our houses.
It has been discovered that the harmful fumes given off by petrol, diesel vehicles and machines cause rain that
contains large quantities of these harmful substances. Such acid rain interferes with the growth of plants and harms our
lungs. Farmer now realize that chemical fertilizer are harmful, especially those that contains nitrates so, they are now
cutting down their uses.
But what are we doing about aerosols such sprays, hair spray and deodorants, which contain the gases that destroy
the ozone layer? This layer protects life one earth from the harmful effects of the sun’s rays.
We must therefore not bite the finger that feeds us. We must endeavour to plant many more trees so that we can
leave behind a healthy planet where future generations will live happily.
Questions
1. According to the passage , the earth should be taken care off so that ___ (a) it will become more and more
beautiful (b) our lives and other forms of life will be preserved (d) it will no longer be a source of worry
2. The earth will support everyone of us from a very long time if (a) we live our lives well (b) there is plenty of rain
(c) we take care of it well (d) we cut down plenty of trees
3. According to the passage, we will have enough oxygen to breath in if we ___ (a) build good roads and beautiful
houses (b) cut down large areas of forest (c) take care of ours surrounding (d) plant very many trees
4. We learn from the passage that trees can __ (a) protect human beings from the intense heat of the sun (b) allow the
roofs of houses to be blown off (c) enable human beings to build good house (d) prevent the rain to fall in its
season
5. “……. These harmful substances’ refer to ___ (a) petrol engine (b) diesel vehicles (c) machine (d) fumes
6. ___as dead and arid as the moon. The figure of speech in the expression is ___ (a) simile (b) personification (c)
metaphor (d) hyperbole
7. Farmers reduce the use of chemical fertilizer because they a re (a) very expensive (b) unaffordable (c) harmful (d)
not valuable
8. Life on earth is protected from the harmful effect of the sun’s rays by ___ (a) ozone layer (c) insect sprays (c) hair
spray (d) deodorants and aerosols
9. In order to enjoy the earth and leave a good legacy for future generations we must ___ (a) stop using chemical
fertilizer (b) stop building good roads and houses (c) cut down large areas of forest (d) engage in planting of tress
10. A suitable title for this passage is ____ (a) our planet earth (b) cutting down large areas of forest (c) the use of
chemical fertilizers (d) Good roads and houses
Summary
Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow it
Paragraph 1: libraries play very important roles. Quite unfortunately this fact is not often appreciated in modern life. In
the past, people went to libraries to read and to gather information on various subjects. I remember when I was in
secondary school, my classmates and I usually frequented our school library on a daily basis as we were thirsty for
knowledge. This is no longer the practise among students nowadays.
Paragraph 2: Libraries perform many valuable roles. Traditionally libraries were large collections of book. These books
were usually on various disciplines and on diverse subjects. There are the encyclopedia in which one can find
information on practically all subjects and aspects of life. Libraries give people easy access to the much needed
information.
Paragraph 3: In addition, to books on various subjects and topic today’s libraries contain many other things. These
include films, recordings, video tape, photographs, computer and soon. So we discover that libraries are a store house of
knowledge nowadays. People therefore go to libraries to acquire knowledge
Paragraph 4: libraries also play an important role in preserving the cultural heritage of society . no society would want its
cultural heritage to die and out. Many libraries make effort to preserve the much valued cultural heritage of the society.
They have special collections of such items as rare books, works of local artists, music, portraits of very important people
and many other things.
Paragraph 5: Many teachers have also found the libraries to be of immense value. Many of them would not want to reply
solely on textbooks. They would want to teach. They would want to gather almost all the available information on the
topic. So, good teachers spend much time in the library gathering useful materials for their lessons
Paragraph 6: There are many other roles performed by libraries. We should therefore appreciate the immense value of
libraries.
Questions
11. A suitable title for the passage is ___ (a) the roles of libraries (b) libraries in the olden days (c) preservation of
cultural heritage (d) usefulness of libraries to the teacher
12. The main point in paragraph 2 is that libraries___ (a) perform many roles (b) contain many encyclopedia (c)
provide easy access to information needed by people (d) have many books
13. In paragraph 3 the point being made by the writer is that libraries (a) contain film, recordings, video tapes, (b) are a
storehouse of knowledge (c) have books on various disciplines (d) contain many other things
14. The main point in paragraph 4 is that libraries_____ (a) perform an important role (b) contain many special
collection (c) contain portraits of very important people (d) preserve a society’ cultural heritage
15. The main point being made in paragraph 5 is that teacher go to libraries _____ (a) to relax after laborious teaching
(b) because they want to read story books (c) because they have access to libraries (d) because they want to have
sound knowledge on the topic they want to teach
Section A
Fill in gap with the most suitable option
16. Stories made up long ago to teach people how to live good lives (these stories are usually about animals, birds etc)
are called (a) folk tales b) legends (c) myths (d) fables
17. ‘Death lays its icy hands on kings? This is an example of a ___ (a) hyperbole (b) metaphor (c) personification (d)
simile
Twinkle, twinkle little star
How I wonder what you are
Up above the world so high
Like a diamond in the sky
18. The literary device used in the last line of the above poem is ______ (a) irony (b) metaphor (c) personification
(d) simile
19. ____ is a place where people go to read or borrow books (a) computer room (b) laboratory (c) library (d) school
20. The form of writing that is usually written in Acts and senses is _____ (a) fiction (b) novel (c) Drama (d) poem
Section B
From the list of words lettered A-D, choose the one that is nearly opposite in meaning to the underline word in
each sentence
21. Hard drugs are forbidden in all countries, there is no country where there are ____ (a) allowed (b) prohibited (c)
proscribed (d) recommended
22. I detest students who are lazy but I ___ those who are hardworking (a) admire (b) commend (c) fancy (d) like
23. I thought he would accept the offer but on the contrary he __ it (a) applauded (b) condemned (c) detested (d)
rejected
24. Food stuffs used to be very cheap but they are now ____ (a) expensive (b) plentiful (c) scarce (d) uncommon
 25. Rather than disclose the useful information she ____ it (a) appreciated (b) concealed (c) hoarded (d) loathe
Section C
From the options lebelled A-D, choose the one that is nearest in meaning to the word underlined
26. The taxi driver intentionally splashed water on the lady (a) deliberately (b) maliciously (c) mistakenly (d) wickedly
27. The police suggested the armed robber to serious interrogation (a) beating (b) hardship (c) questioning (d) torture
28. He was fired by his employers because of dishonesty (a) condemned (b) reprimanded (c) sacked (d) shot
29. We are reading the abridged edition of the book (a) modern (b) new (c) verbose (d) shortened
30. Students should engage in profitable activities (a) commendable (b) gainful (c) good (d) useful
Section D
From the options lettered A-D, choose the word that is best completes each sentence
31. Our teacher ____ to us already (a) has spoken (b) have spoken (c) speaking (d) speaks
32. The man gave his friend _____ which is wrong (a) an information (b) information’s (c) many information (d)
some information
33. Come here, I have ___ for you (a) a new (b) a news (c) many news (d) some news
34. It is surprising that he turned __ the juicy offer (a) down (b) off (c) out (d) to
35. A lot of oil ____ produced in Nigeria (a) are (b) have been (c) is (d) were
36. Has Deola recovered ___ malaria (a) for (b) from (c) in (d) to
37. He ___ the boo to me yesterday because he was angry (a) fling (b) flinging (c) lings (d) lungs
38. Nigeria __ her independence anniversary on Oct 1 every year (a) celebrate (b) celebrated (c) celebrates (d)
celebrating
39. Of all the students in my class Tope is the ____ (a) tall (b) taller (c) tallest (d) most all
40. The driver did not know what to say when the policeman asked him ____ (a) where his licence was (b) where is
your licence (c) where was his licence (d) where your licence is
41. Yours is to give orders ____ is to obey (a) our (b) ours (c) our’s (d) ours’
42. We are listening to the teacher __? (a) aren’t we? (b) are we (c) didn’t we? (d) weren’t we?
43. We didn’t come to school on Saturday, did we? (a) No we did (b) No we didn’t (c) yes we didn’t (d) yes we do
44. What is ___ date? (a) tomorrow’s (b) tommorow’s (c) tomorrow (d) tomorrow’s
45. That book is yours, this is __ (a) mine (b) mine’s (c) mine’s (d) my
46. When did I ____ you that? (a) tell (b) telling (c) tells (d) told
47. Which of the following is a direct speech? (a) get out of this class, the teacher said (b) she begged the girls to
stand up (c) she told the girls to standup (d) the teacher told the students to do their assignment
48. The reported form of the statement, I will punish you’ is ___ (a) he said, ‘ I will punish you (b) he said that he
would punish him (c) he said that I will punish you (d) he said that I would punish him
49. But for the timely arrival of the policemen, the armed robber ___ lynched (a) will be (b) will have been (c) would
be (d) would have been
50. My scores in the ___ assessment tests are high (a) continous (b) continos (c) continuos (d) continuous
Section E
Choose from the options lettered A-D the one that contains the phonetic symbol given
51. /e/ (a) beat (b) bread (c) great (d) seat
52. /g/ (a) gnash (b) gear (c) judge (d) plough
53. /k/ (a) chemistry (b) machine (c) march (d) teach
54. /Ʌ/ (a) boss (b) come (c) court (d) cot
55. /ƆI/ (a) ball (b) boot (c) toy (d) walk
56. /eI/ (a) bark (b) boat (c) plait (d) plate
57. /u:/ (a) blood (b) cut (c) goat (d) rude
58. /r/ (a) bark (b) court (c) sword (d) write
59. /I/ (a) bite (b) seat (c) sit (d) sweat
60. /𝜕/ (a) author (b) thin (c) mother (d) both
PART II: THEORY WUESTIONS
Answer all the questions in this part for question 1 your essay should be about 200 words long
Question 1 Either A or B
 a. Your friend who has transferred to another school because his father was transferred to another station in his
workplace has written to you. He wants to know the change that have taken place in your school. Write a letter to
him telling him of the change that have place since he left the school.
OR
b. You are to take part in a debate the topic which is the mobile phone has done more than good: Write your
speech for or against the topic
Question 2
Underline the finite verbs in the following sentences:
i. When the principal entered, the students stood up
ii. Nigeria always celebrates her independence on October 1 every year
Write the following in the reported form or indirect speech
iii. ‘Standup’ the teacher told the students
iv. ‘Where are your books, her father asked
Punctuate the following
v. Does Dara think she is wise
vi. I went to the market and bought a pencil a biro and a ruler
Underline the adverbials in the following sentence
vii. We go school everyday
viii. I woke up early in the morning
Correct the following sentences
ix. Our school football team won tem
x. When did our teacher told you that
Section A
Prose: choose either A or B
STIGMA
1. The novel ‘stigma was authored by _____________
2. The two friends who were born the same day at about the same time and in the same hospital were ________ and
_________
3. ____was Chik’s friend
4. What does VCT means__________________
5. Sersorting means ___________
6. ___takes the fight against stigmatization to the ladies at the cafeteria
7. ___ treat Nkiru as the daughter she never had
‘It is better I make her an enemy now and save her life than try to remain friends with her and watch her die of ignorance’
8. Who makes the above statement?
9. Who is the speaker referring to?
b. PRINCESS OF BEAUTY
1. The setting of the story is _____
2. ____ is the daughter of a lame man in the village
3. Ewatomi has ____ siblings
4. _____ wants to preserve Ewatomi’s beauty for the right suitor
5. Adebsisi is ewatomi’s______
6. Kobape village is rich in ____ and ____
7. The major festival in kobape village is ___________
8. Ayinke is the daughter of _____________
9. ____ is the winner of the dancing competition
Section B
Drama
Answer questions on any 1 of the following either A or B
A. TEMPTING MISTRESS
1. The princess of Omini is _____________
 2. Queen Iyunade asks Ajagunna to sleep with ____________
3. ______gives authority to Ajagunna
4. ____ is locked up in the palace prison
5. ____informs the chiefs of his decision to quit warfare
6. The father is Tumaya’s son is _____________
7. The only person that knows about the true mother of the prince is _____________
8. Queen Iyunade terminates the pregnancy when it is ______ moons
9. ___is the tempting mistress in the play
10. Ajagunna is killed by ____ in the play
B. GLITIERING DROSS
1. The play is authored by __________
2. Charles’ wife is _____________
3. ____is the down when betty was in school
4. How many kids does betty have?
5. Charles son is ____________
6. Rose’s ambition is to study ____ in London
7. What does Kenyans love about their woman?
8. What happens to the necklace Betty borrowed from James her friend
9. The types of job Betty agrees to take up are _____ and _______
Section C
Poetry: Answer all questions
MY TEACHER
1. The poet who wrote “My Teacher’ is ___________
2. The poem ‘My Teacher’ has ___ collection of poem
3. The title of the second poem in ‘My Teacher’ is ______
4. The title of the last poem in ‘My Teacher’ is ________
Thinking of what tomorrow holds
Feel with ecstacy on all being told
Gaze at the freedom that lies ahead
5. The title of the poem is ____
6. The poem has ___ stanzas
7. In the poem, the poet’s idea run from one line to the other. The device used the poet is called ________
8. The poem titled the clock centres on the use of _____________
9. The poem titled ‘life the poet posits that life is funny ______________
10. The poem titled ‘ Hardwork explains that ____ needed for success in life.
 CITY OF FAITH COMPREHENSIVE COLLEGE
2017/2018 MOCK EXAMINATION
CLASS: BECE J.S.S 3 SUBJECT: MATHEMATICS

PART A
1. Express 0.0005207 in standard form (a) 5.3 x 10-5 (b) 5.207 x 10-4 (c) 5.21 x 10-4 (d) 5.207 x 104
2. A line that divides a circle into two unequal parts is known as (a) chord (b) diameter (c) radius (d) segment
3. Simplify 110110two – 101101two (a) 1001two (b) 1010two (c) 1011two (d) 1101two
4. Express 48 as a product of its prime factors in index form (a) 24 x 30 (b) 22 x 22 (c) 24 x 3 (d) 23 x 32
5. What is the value of the Roman Numeral MMXVII? (a) 200017 (b) 20017 (c) 20178 (d) 217
6. Simplify (2x)2 (a)√2𝑥 (b) 2x2 (c) 4x2 (d) 4x2
3 3 3 9 3
7. One half of a number is equal to 2.5. what is the number? (a) 2 (b) 2.5x (c) 3 (d) 5
√2(𝑎−𝑏) √(𝑎−𝑏) 2√(𝑎−𝑏)
8. Make t the subject of the formula if 16(a+b) = 4t2y (a) t = (b) t = 2 (c) t =
𝑦 𝑦 𝑦
(d) t = 4(a+b)
y
9. Solve the inequality 4r + 2 ≥ 3r -6 (a) r ≥ - 8 (b) r ≤ -4 (c) r ≥ −4 (d) r ≥ 8
10. What is the value of a if 12a + 3 = 4a-1? (a) -4 (b) – ½ (c) ½ (d) 8
11. Evaluate 2c-3d given that c= 2 d= -2 and e = 1 (a) – 2/3 (b) 2/5 (c) 2 (d) 4
5e
12. The volume of cone is 1540cm2. If its radius is 7cm, calculate the height of the cone (π =22/7) (a) 14cm (b) 25cm
(c) 30cm (d) 40cm
13. Find the value of y if 1/y = -4 (a) – 2/5 (b) – 1/5 (c) 1/5 (d) 2/5
y-1
14. Change 10010two to base ten (a) 19 (b) 18 (c) 17 (d) 16
15. Which of the following represents the number line shown below

0 1 2 3 4 5 (a) x ≤ 1 (b) x > 1 (c) x ≥ 1 (d) x =4

Use the table to answer questions 16-19 given that 2z + 5b = 25
a -2 -1 0 1 2 3

B x 5.4 y 4.6 4.2 z

16. Find the value of x from the table above (a) 8.5 (b) 5.8 (c) 5.0 (d) 2.5
17. Determine the value of y (a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 7 (d) 8
18. Calculate the value of 3z + x (a) 16.8 (b) 17.2 (c) 18.4 (d) 19.0
19. What is the value of y + z + x? (a) 14.6 (b) 15.3 (c) 16.4 (d) 18.8
20. Simplify 1 + 2 (a) 2q - 5 (b) 5q2 -5 (c) 5q -5 (d) 5q -5
2q q-5 10q2 10q 2q2-10q 2q-10
21. The factors of x2 + x -12 are (a) (x-3)(x+6) (b) (x-3)(x+4) (c) (x-3)(x-4) (d) (x+4)(x+3)
22. Factorize 4x2 – 3y-6x + 2xy (a) (2x-3)(2x+3) (b) (2x+y)(2x-3) (c) (2x-y)(2x-3) (d) (2y+3)(2x+y)
23. Convert 2 4/5 to decimal fraction and give your answer to 1 significant figure (a) 2.5 (b) 3.5 (c) 3 (d) 11
24. A die has sin faces. If the die is tossed once, find the probability of not obtaining 3 (a) 1/6 (b) 2/3 (c) 5/6 (d) 1
25. Simplify (1 ¾ -2/3) x 2 2/5 (a) 11/5 (b) 12/5 (c) 13/5 (d) 14/5
26. Simplify 12y – (10x -5y) (a) 10x -18y (b) 10x -17y (c) 17y-10x (d) 17y + 10x
27. These are factor of 24 EXCEPT (a) 2 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 8
28. Find the difference between (20.5)2 and (9.8)2 (a) 424.18 (b) 324.21 (c) 342.12 (d) 304.11
29. Simplify 549.3 + 9.81 + 2.76 correct to 3 s.f. (a) 562 (b) 561 (c) 500 (d) 5
30. Find the value of x in the diagram below
 5.6cm 7cm (a) 3.2cm (b) 5cm (c) 6cm (d) 9.8cm
x
31. Express 7.09 x 10-2 in ordinary form (a) 0.712 (b) 0.701 (c) 0.0709 (d) 0.070
4cm
32. Express a + 13 as a single fraction (a) ab – 15b (b) ab – 15b (c) ab + 15b (d) ab + 15b
12 b m 6b 12b 12b 6b
33. Find the value of (20.4)2 + (14.2)2 (a) 614.8 (b) 615.8 (c0 616.8 (d) 617.8
34.
y

068

The diagram above shows the bearing of point y from x. What is the bearing of x from y? (a) 3160 (b) 2480 (c) 1800 (d)
0680
35. If B varies inversely as C and B = 12, when C =14 find B when C =5 (a) 23.6 (b) 33.6 (c) 36.3 (d) 63.6
36. 12.5% of a number is 50 find the number (a) 200 (b) 300 (c) 400 (d) 500
37. Find the value of x in: x + 2y = 5 and x -2y = -1 (a) -4 (b) – ½ (c) ½ (d) 2
38. In a mixed school, there are y girls and x boys what fraction of the school is boys? (a) y/x (b) x/y (c) x/x+y (d)
y/x+y
39. A village is 10km on a bearing 0500 from a point O. How far is the village North of O? (a) 10.60km (b) 9.66km
(c) 8.66km (d) 6.43km
40. The angle of elevation of the top of a building from a point 80m away on a level ground is 250. Calculate the
height of the building to the nearest metre (a) 30.81m (b) 36.50m (c) 37.30m (d) 40.82m
41. Calculate /MN/ in the figure below

10cm
6cm

x 9cm 3cm N`
4.5cm (b) 5.4cm (c) 6.5cm (d) 8.0cm
42. If the area of a rectangle is 144cm2 and its breadth is 6vm, find the perimeter of the rectangle (a) 60cm (b) 40cm
(c) 30cm (d) 10cm
43. Find the length of the diagonal of a rectangle whose length and breadth are 8cm and 6cm respectively (a) 5cm (b)
10cm (c) 15cm (d) 20cm
44. Find the value of f in the figure below (a) 900 (b) 1100 (c) 1200 (d) 1520

1200 1300
f
45. Calculate the sum of the interior angles of an octagon (a) 9800 (b) 10800 (c) 12600 (d) 1440
46. Find the length of AB in the diagram below (a) 4cm (b) 5cm (c) 6cm (d) 7cm
 B 3cm C

47. Calculate to the nearest whole number the perimeter of a circle whose radius is 6cm (π = 22/7) (a) 38cm (b) 37cm
7cm
(c) 36cm (d) 35cm
48. If two angles on a straightA line are (x + 30)0 and (3x + 20)0= find the angles (a) (900, 180) (b) (62.50, 117.50) (c)
(32.50, 1300) (d) (200, 300) 2cm D
49. A 6cm C X 15cm Z
530
0
53
8cm 10cm
370

B Y

The ratio of the corresponding sides in the above triangle is (a) AB = BC =AC (b) AB = BC = AC
XZ XX YZ XX YZ XZ
(c) AB = BC =AC (d) AB = BC = AC
YZ YZ XZ YX XZ YZ
50. IF P varies inversely as q and q=8 when p = 2, find the law connecting p and q (a) p = q/16 (b) p = 4q (c) p = 16/q
(d) q = p/16
51. Find 2/3 of 2 ½ hors in minutes (a) 5/3 (b) 60 (c) 80 (d) 100
52. What is the value of (0.5)3 correct to one decimal place? (a) 0.1 (b) 0.13 (c) 0.2 (d)1.2
53. Find the area of the diagram shown below

3cm

3cm
2cm

8cm (a) 20cm2 (b) 28cm2 (c) 31cm2 (d) 45cm2

54. In an examination , 35 out of 125 students failed. What percentage of the students passed (a) 84% (b) 72% (c) 70%
(d) 62%
55. The diameter of a record player disc is 14cm. calculate its area (π= 22/7) (a) 1220cm2 (b) 170cm2 (c) 154cm2 (d)
54cm2
56. Calculate the value of x in the diagram below (a) 650 (b) 630 (c) 560 (d) 530

x0

610 1240

57. Which of the following has its diagonals crossing at right angles (a) parallelogram (b) regular polygon (c) square
(d) trapezium
58. The volume of a cylinder is given by the formula v = πr2h. Find the height of the cylinder if its volume and radius
are 154 cm3 and 3 ½ cm respectively (π =22/7)
59. Find the area of the figure below (a) 55cm2 (b) 61cm2 (c) 119cm2 (d) 124cm2
A

5cm
 B C
60. A quadrilateral which has only one line of symmetry is called a (a) kite (b) rectangle (c) square (d) trapezium
22cm
Section B (Theory)
Instruction : Answer all the questions
1a. If Y is half of the positive difference between 18 and the product of 4 and 10. Find the value of y
b.

13cm

A B
16cm

A circle of radius 13cm and centre 0 having a chord AB =16cm. Calculate the distance of the chord from the centre
2a. 8P2 – 18q2
b. Express the following in standard forms
i. 876
ii. 73.4
iii. 3.745
iv. 0.976
v. 0.000109
3a. Solve the equation: 6 = 11
x+3 x-2
b. A closed tin of milk has diameter of 10cm and height 16cm. find the total surface area of the tin (π= 22/7)
4 In a class test in Mathematics, the scores of 20 students ae
8, 9, 8, 7, 4, 3, 5, 6, 8, 3
6, 8, 8, 7, 7, 5, 9, 6, 8, 7
i. Present the information in a frequency table
ii. Find the mode
iii. Calculate the mean score
 CITY OF FAITH COMPREHENSIVE COLLEGE
2017/2018 MOCK EXAMINATION
CLASS: S.S 3 SUBJECT: CATERING

Section A
Instruction: Answer all the questions. Each question is followed by four options lettered A to D. Find out the
correct option for each question and shade in pencil on your answer sheet, the answer space which bears the same
letter as the option you have chosen
1. Fresh fruits and nuts are generally known as___ (a) appetizers (b) savory (c) dessert (d) brunch
2. The term catering means ____ (a) the business of providing all to services (b) the activities of people who cater (c)
the issues a round those who provide services (d) the business of providing foods and drinks for people
3. Hotel, brothel, motel and guest house are examples of a ____ (a) sleeping sector (b) lodging sector (c) dancing
sector (d) lobbying sector
4. Sea catering is an example of ___ (a) indoor catering (b) outdoor catering (c) transport catering (d) industrial
catering
5. Accommodation in catering means __ (a) paid room for lodging (b) to make space available for others (c) to
make people sleep without disturbance (d) a good place for resting
6. Stout, ale, larger and port are examples of ____ (a) liquor (b) beer (c) liqueur (d) spirit
7. Which of the following can cause accident in the kitchen? (a) disorderliness (b) high concentration (c) flat floor
(d) bright light bulbs
8. Which of the following should be avoided when planning menu? (a) special days (b) price range (c) size of
establishment (d) repetition of ingredient
9. A kitchen equipment that saves time and energy is referred to as ____ (a) electrical cooking device (b) labour
saving device (c) cooking range (d) food processor
10. Which of the following do children require more than adults? (a) energy giving foods (b) regulatory foods (c)
protective foods (d) body building foods
11. An essential ingredient for preparing mayonnaise sauce is ____ (a) carrot (b) egg white (c) egg yolk (d) onion
12. Which of the following beverages is an alcoholic drink? (a) bitter lemon (b) green tea (c) lemon juice (d) vodkg
13. Julienne is a French term meaning ___ (a) vegetable cutting (b) food made with Julie (c) a type of bread made
with sausage (d) follow on
14. Which of the following sea foods is a crustacean? (a) cod (b) crayfish (c) periwinkle (d) sardine
15. Fire outbreak occurs in the presence of five heat and ____ (a) carbon dioxide (b) iron (c) magnesium (d) oxygen
16. Which of the following is a starter course in a classic menu sequence? (a) entrée (b) hors d’euvre (c) releve (d)
soup
17. Coleslaw is a combination of ____, ____ and____ mixed with cream (a) beef root, carrot, celery (b) carrot, onion,
white cabbage (c) carrot, sweet corn, white cabbage (d) cauliflower, lettuce, white cabbage
18. The cooking of food by dry heat in an oven is ___ (a) baking (b) boiling (c) roasting (a) stewing
19. Which of the following is a function of an accompaniment in a meal? (a) Acts as dessert (b) Act as enzymes (c)
enhances richness of a meal (d) serves as raising agent
20. An example of raising agents in food is ___ (a) baking powder (b) corn flour (c) lemon juice (d) milk
21. Which of the following is not a possible fault in cake? (a) close texture (b) cracked surface (c) fruit sunk (d)
uneven texture
22. Beer are fermented drinks from ___and ___ (a) aniseed, apricot, cherry (b) caraway seed, blackcurrant, yeast (c)
corn, cereal, rye (d) malt, sugar, yeast
23. The meat derived from a young male cow is called ___ (a) beef (b) lamb (c) mutton (d) pork
 24. The general name of domestic birds bred for eating is ____ (a) chicken (b) duck (c) pigeon (d) poultry
25. Which of the followinh is a leafy vegetable? (a) cucumber (b) leek (c) lettuce (d) shallot
26. Cutleries, plates and glass wares used to set table for a particular meal is called __ (a) cover (b) fitting (c) flat
ware (d) hollow-ware
27. A rectangular shape, with a white pictogram in form of a cross on a green background represents ___ sign (a) fire
exit (b) first-aid (c) mandatory (d) prohibition
28. A set of meal, usually two or more courses at a set price is _____ menu (a) a lacarte (b) function (c) hospital (d)
table d’hote
29. The sheet with the list of prepared dishes of food and their prices which are available to customers is ____ (a) bill
(b) cover (c) docket (d) menu
30. Which of these options best expresses the correct ingredients for making doughnut? (a) baking powder, butter,
castor sugar and flour (b) baking powder, flour margarine and salt (c) caster sugar, flour, glycerin and palm wine
(d) caster sugar, flour, imagarine and yeast
31. The term canapé indicates ___ (a) specific garnish for pastry (b) pieces of toasted garnished bread (C) sliced
sausage on a rack (d) Russian cake with fruits
32. Proving a yeast dough means _____ (a) eliminating air from it (b) baking it at low temperature (c) allowing it to
double size (d) setting the sponge
33. Flatware for a/a caerte table laying include (a) joint fork, joint knife and fish fork (b) joint fork, side knife and fish
knife (c) fish fork, fish knife and side knife (d) fish fork, joint knife and fish knife
34. When floors are wet and slippery, it is important to (a0 make public announcement (b) inform customers (c) place
appropriate signs for users (d) inform the manager
35. To avoid touching nose when handling food is an aspect of ____ (a) personal hygiene (b) kitchen hygiene (c)
infection control (d) safe handling
36. An appropriate tool for tasting food while cooking is a _____ (a) teaspoon (b) wooden spoon (c) table spoon (d)
dessert spoon
37. A sauce is a liquid which has been thickened by (a) roux (b) stock (c) broth (d) vegetable
38. Maitre d’hotel known as ___ (a) station (b) headwaiter (c) reception headwaiter (c) station waiter (d) head waiter
39. Language used in menu should be simple to understand so that the guest can ____ (a) ask for assistance (B) fully
comprehend it (c) eat quickly (d) spend lavishly
40. To quickly heat a food substance by dipping or immersing it in boiling water for about 3-5 minutes is (a)
blanching (b) dripping (c) draining (d) boiling
Section B
Answer five questions only. Each question carries equal marks
1a. Define the following terms
i. Cover
ii. Menu
iii. Food Accompaniment
iv. Sanitation
b. Mention four meals which are served as sweet courses (2marks)
c. List any two materials used in manufacturing kitchen table (2marks)
d. List two equipment used in gueridon service (2marks)
2a. State two methods of making cakes (2marks)
b. list three food processing equipment (3marks)
c. Write the basic recipe and procedure for making doughnut (5marks)
3a. Define the following
i. Catering
ii. Hotel
iii. Leisure (6marks)
b. State two rules to be observed in planning meals for invalids (2marks)
c. List four non-alcoholic beverages (2marks)
4a. Describe a triplicate and sample of a bill use for food check in food and beverage service (4marks)
b. List four cleaning materials used in the kitchen (4marks)
c. State four types of menu (2marks)
5a. List two glasses that are used to serve wine (2marks)
b. State four equipment used in a bar and their function (4marks)
c. Mention four types of kitchen knives (4marks)
6a. State one reason each for wearing the following kitchen wears
i. Chef hat
ii. Cooks jacket
iii. Neckerchief (3 marks)
b. List three types of milk (3marks)
c. List four nutrient found in milk (2marks)
d. State two uses of milk in catering (2marks)

CITY OF FAITH COMPREHENSIVE COLLEGE

2017/2018 MOCK EXAMINATION
CLASS: S.S 3 SUBJECT: COMMERCE

OBJECTIVE
1. The process by which government takes over ownership and management of an industry is called (a)
nationalization (b) commercialization (c) privatization (c) indigenization
2. Which of the following is not an example of large scale retail trade (a) departmental store (b) peddling (c)
supermarket (d) chain store
3. One of the following is not a reason for imposing tariff on a product (a) import monopoly (b) retaliatory measures
(b) to prevent dumping (c) generation of revenue
4. Voyage policy insurance is associated with (a) fire (b) marine (c) life (d) burglary
5. The last link in the production process is the (a) transporter (b) consumer (c) wholesaler (d) retailer
6. Which of the following is an insurance policy (a)Endowment (b) premium (c) proximate cause (d)fidelity
guarantee
7. Which of the following protects consumer against poor quality goods? (a) Chamber of commerce (b) standard
organization (c) trade Association (d) manufacturer association
8. Public enterprises are finance mainly by (a) the shareholder (b) government grants (c) commercial banks (d)
mortgage banks
9. The difference between current assets and current liabilities is (a) issued capital (b) working capital (c) capital
employed (d) nominal capital
10. A Ltd company has an authorized capital of 2,000,000 shares of #5 each . if the company issued 1,200, 000 share,
its issued capital is ___ (a) # 10,000,000 (b) # 6, 000, 000 (c) #4,000,000 (d) # 2,000,000
11. The lowering of the exchange value of a country’s currency vis-à-vis other currencies is called (a) deregulation (b)
devaluation (c) inflation (d) revaluation
12. The practice of selling goods in foreign countries at lower prices than what are obtainable in the exporting country
is called (a) devaluation (b) dumping (c) depreciation (d) free trade
13. The process of winding up a public limited company by a court order is known as (a) termination (b) dissolution
(c) voluntary liquidation (d) compulsory liquidation
14. The idea that consumer should be treated as ‘Kings’ is called (a) market research (b) marketing mix (c) marketing
concept (d) product differentiation
15. The combination of product, price, promotion and distribution decisions employed by a company is referred to its
(a) pricing policy (b) marketing mix (c) product mix (d) marketing concept
16. The end user of product is called (a) producer (b) wholesaler (c) retailer (d) consumer
17. An efficient transport system enables a trader to (a) widen the market for his products (b) avoid customs
examination of goods (c) adopt better price policy (d) reduce cost of production
18. A collective bundle of share is called (a) debenture (b) stock (c) bond (d) share
19. The buyer in a hire purchase contract becomes the legal owner of the goods by paying (a) initial deposit (b) the last
installment (c) half of the purchase price (d) two third of the purchases price
Use the information below is answer question 20 to 22
A traders turnover was # 36,000 purchases was # 28, 000 the opening stock was #2,000 and the closing stock # 3,000
20. What is the cost of goods sold? (a) # 28,000 (b) #27,000 (c) # 8,000 (d) # 5,000
21. The average stocks is (a) # 5,000 (b) #3,000 (c) #2,500 (d) #2,000
22. What is the rate of turnover (a) 13.5 times (b) 10.8 times (c) 9 times (d) 5.4 times
23. A document issued to the public by a company to advertise its share is know as (a) prospectus (b) tender (c) share
certificate (d) trading certificate
24. Non restriction of international trade is called (a) devaluation (b) dumping (c) depreciation (d) free trade
25. The tax charged on imported and exported goods is called (a) excise duties (b) tariffs (c) advolarem taxes (d)
dock dues
26. The main division of production are (a) industry, direct and indirect services (b) extraction, manufacturing and
construction (c) industry, commerce and direct services (d) industry commerce and trading
27. A false statement made by one party with an intention of inducing the other party to enter into contract with firm
is known as (a) misrepresentation (b) legal capacity (c) consensus and idem (d) consideration
28. Which of these qualities guarantees the keeping of money for a long period? (a) Acceptability (b) divisibility (c)
durability (d) homogeneity
29. A company whose shares are not easily transferable is a (a) private limited company (b) public limited company
(c) public corporation (d) Company limited by guarantee
30. Which of the following insurance principles states that only the losses which arise from direct cause of the event
insured against are indemnified? (a) Proximate cause (b) indemnity (c) insurable interest (d) subrogation
31. The main function of a thrift and credit cooperative society is to (a) encourage members to buy cheaply (b) enable
members set the highest profit (c) help members set legal redress (d) encourage members to save
32. The exchange of goods for goods in home trade is known as (a) enterport trade (b) trade by barter (c) commodity
trade (d) distributive trade
33. Which of the following is not true of the stock exchange (a) It is a commodity market (b) It provides market for
trading on shares (c) government and companies raise fund through it (d) It provides professional advice on
investments
34. When the buyer of an existing share is to receive the pending dividend the price is (a) cum div (b) ex-div (c) at
par (d) at a discount
35. The authority given to a bank to make regular payments on behalf of a customer is (a) Bank endorsement (b) bank
overdraft (c) standing order (d) credit transfer
36. Establishing and maintaining mutual understanding between an organization and its customers is known as (a)
marketing concept (b) advertising (c) public relations (d) sales promotion
37. Stocks shares and debentures traded in the stock exchange are called (a) bears (b) securities (c) bulls (d) trade
discount
38. Who among the following has no voting right? (a) Preference shareholders (b) ordinary shareholders (c) deferred
shareholder (d) Preffered shareholders
39. Farmer and all other workers concerned with getting raw materials from the earth are engaged in (a) commercial
occupation (b) manufacturing occupation (c) constructive occupation (d) extractive occupation
40. The document which gives legal authority to a company to operate as a legal entity is (a) memorandum of
Association (b) Article of Association (c) share certificate (d) certificate of incorporation
41. Which of the following economic unions is made up of countries in west Africa only (a) ACP (b) ECOWAS (c)
ADB (d) NATO
Use the following information below to answer questions 42 to 44. This extract is from Eniola computer service
Aba
#
Sales 200,000
Stock 1/1/2004 25,000
Stock 31/12/2004 35,000
Purchases 145,000
Return inward 20,000
Sales and distribution expenses 13,000
Wages and salaries 8000
42. The average stocks is (a) # 65,000 (b) #115,000 (c) #30,000 (d) #25,000
43. The gross profit is (a) #65,000 (b) #55,000 (c) #30,00 (d) #20,000
44. The cost of goods sold is (a) #135,000 (b) #115,000(c) #60,000 (d) #35,000
45. The amount paid regularly by the assured to the insurer is (a) Dividend (b) interest (c) premium (d) indemnity
46. A specialist on the stock exchange who is the dealer of securities is a ___ (a) stag (b) broker (c) bull (d) jobber
47. Which of the following is not a function of the central bank? (a) Banker to the government (b) banker’s bank (c)
issuance of currency note (d) granting loans to the public
48. Which of the following refer to a voluntary association that represents a cross-section of business interests in an
area (a) manufacturer association (b) chamber of commerce (c) consumer association (d) employers association
49. A statement showing the relationship between a country’s total payments to other countries and its total receipts
from them in a year is called (a) terms of trade (b) balance of payments (c) rate of exchange (d) terms of
exchange
50. A bundle of physical and psychological satisfaction that a buyer receives from a purchase is called (a) pricing
policy (b) marketing mix (c) product mix (d) marketing concept
SECTION: B
THEORY
1a. Define the following
i. Nationalization
ii. Commercialization
iii. Indigenization
iv. Privatization (2 marks each)
b. State seven reasons why Government should participate in business (7 marks)
2a State five differences between public and private limited companies (10 marks)
b. State five provisions of a memorandum of association (5 marks)
3a. Define Contract (3 marks)
b. State seven types of contract (7 marks)
c. List five factors that determine the volume of production (5 marks)
4a. What is Market? (4 marks)
b. Explain six importance of marketing in an economy (6 marks)
c. Explain five functions of the marketing (5 marks)
5. Write short note on the following terms in insurance
 Surrender Value;
 Cover note;
 Policy;
 Re-insurance;
 Group Insurance (3 marks each)
6. State five characteristics of each of the following ‘
 Departmental Stores
 Supermarket
 Chain Stores (5 marks each)
st
7. ADMARK started business 1 January, 2013, The following information was extracted from her books
#
Inventory (Jan 1st) 30,000
Rent 25,000
Sales 850,000
Returns outward 15,000
Purchases 400,000
Returns inward 25,000
Insurance 45,000
Fixtures and fitting 15,000
Wages and salaries 122,000
Transport 6,000
Inventory (Dec 31st) 25,000
From the above information calculate the
(a) Cost of good available for sale
(b) Cost of goods sold
(c) Gross profit
(d) Net profit
(e) Rate of stock turnover
8. (a). Define Credit (4 marks)
(b). Explain three ways by which banks grant credit to customers (6 marks)
(c). Give two advantages and three disadvantages of credit sales. (5 marks)
9. (a). What is an advertising media? (2 marks)
(b). State and explain five factors to be considered before choosing a particular advertising medium (5 marks)
(c). Give eight examples of advertising media (8 marks)
10. (a) Define Capital Market. (3 marks)
(b) State seven reasons why bank may dishonor a cheque. (7 marks)
(c) Highlight five problems associated with international trade (5 marks)
 CITY OF FAITH COMPREHENSIVE COLLEGE
2017/2018 MOCK EXAMINATION
CLASS: S.S 3 SUBJECT: AGRICULTURAL SCIENCE

1. The most important contribution of agriculture to mankind is the provision of (a) shelter (b) employment (c)
foreign exchange (d) food
2. An advantage of commercial agriculture is that it (a) require small space (b) require skilled labour (c) produce high
returns (d) involves low capital
3. Which of the following statements about communal land tenure system is true? (a) it gives the owner complete
freedom on the land (b) the land can be used as collateral for agricultural loan (c) the land can be shared by the
owner’s children (d) mechanized agriculture can be profitable practiced
4. Agriculture land use a negatively affected by (a) type of soil (b) climax factors (c) increase in population (d)
increase in soil micro-organism
5. The practice of growing both food and forage crops simultaneously on the same piece of land is called (a) pastoral
farming (b) leg farming (c) crop rotation (d) continuous cropping
6. The use of land for agriculture purpose involves the following except (a) livestock (b) fish farming (c) road
construction (d) crop production
7. The natural grasslands of West Africa are generally located in the (a) rain forest (b) guinea savanna (c) mangroves
(d) equatorial belts
8. The following process is soil formation are caused by biotic factors except (a) bacterial decomposition of plants (b)
soil mixing and turning by earthworms (c) borrowing of rodents (d) soil disintegration by dehydration
9. Which of the following rocks is not formed from pre-existing rock (a) limestone (b) granite (c) shale (d) marble
10. Chemical weathering is fastest in (a) cool weather (b) hot weather (c) high altitudes (d) low altitude
11. It is no advisable to apply fresh farmyard in the manure because (a) its heat of decomposition may cause
scorching of plant (b) some micro-organism in the manure may die (c) the manure may increase soil acidity (d) the
manure may increase soil alkanity
12. Magnesium deficiency in crops can be corrected by the application of (a) dolomite (b) limestone (c) quicklime (d)
urea
13. The atmosphere gains carbon dioxide through the following way except (a) burning of fuel as coal and wood (b)
respiration by plant and animal (c) photosynthesis in plant (d) death and decay of plant and animal
14. Controlled burning has the advantages of (a) increasing the number of soil organism (b) inducing re-growth of
pasture grasses (c) increasing the amount of nutrient of soil (d) improving soil structure
15. Which of the following fertilizer should be applied for good plant growth after prolonged use of sulphate of
ammonia on a neutral soil? (a) Ammonium nitrate (b) line (c) urea (d) single superphosphate
16. Which of the following statement indicate advantage of sub-surface irrigate? I low operating cost once established
II Does not disturb the movement of implements III permits efficient use of water IV. Easily flood the field (a) I,
II and III only (b) II, III and IV only (c) I, III and IV (d) I, II, III and IV
17. The removal of excess water from the sub-soil is know as (a) irrigation (b) drainage (c) evaporation (d)
dehydration
18. The best source of farm power for agricultural production is (a) human power (b) animal (c) mechanical power (d)
solar power
19. The greatest disadvantage of using a bulldozer in land clearing is that to (a) removes the fertile top soil along with
the vegetation (b) makes soil lose its texture (c) allow the fast growth of weeds after clearing (d) increase the
incidence of pests.
20. Mechanization is difficult to practice where the (a) land is fragmented (b) farmer is wealthy (c) farm holding is
large (d) soil fertility is low
21. Which of the following equipment is not used in farm surveying? (a) Günter’s chain (b) measuring tape (c)
Ranging pole (d) pick axe
22. Farm surveying is important because it determines (a) soil fertility (b) size of farmland (c) cost consideration of
implement to use
23. Bush fallowing is necessitated by (a) popular increase (b) reduction in soil fertility (c) cost consideration (d) rural-
urban migration
24. A well fermented and dried coffee seed is said to be (a) parched (b) graded (c) winnowed (d) threshed
25. A bag of fertilizer had a ratio of 0: 10: 0 written on it. This means that the fertility contains (a) 0kg of nitrogen,
10kg of potash and 0kg of phosphate (b) 0kg of phosphate 10kg of Nitrogen and 0kg of potash (c) 0kg of
nitrogen, 10kg of phosphate and 0kg of potash (d) 0kg of potash, 10kg of phosphate and 0kg of nitrogen
26. In crop rotation deep rooted crops should shallow rooted crops because deep-rooted crops (a) are resistant to
disease (b) are early-maturing (c) feed from different soil layers (d) attract different kind of pests
27. If a crop is planted at a spacing of 100cm, 50cm calculate the plant required for an hectare of farmland (a) 200 (b)
2,000 (c) 5,000 (d) 20, 000
28. The term hermetic storage of grains means keeping grain in (a) air- tight containers (b) jute bags (c) silos (d)
rhombus
29. A disadvantage of vegetatively propagated crops is that they (a) do not mature on time (b) are less resistant to
disease (c) do not withstand harsh condition (d) todge very readily
30. Which of the following statement about mulches is true? They (a) include paper and polythene sheets (b)
encourage weed growth (c) facilitate hardpan formation (d) decrease soil biotic population
31. Which of the following crops is best harvested using a combine harvester? (a) maize (b) groundnut (c) cassava (d)
cotton
32. Which of the following crops produce latex (a) mango (b) citrus (c) rubber (d) sisal
33. What will be the effect of establishing a grass with centrosema spp in a pasture? The (a) grass will be suppressed
(b) total yield of herbage will decrease (c) pest of centrosemal will destroy the grass (d) forage yield will be high
34. Which of the following is not an economic important of forests? They serve as source of (a) medical plant (b)
game animal (c) edible wild fruits (d) Domestic animals
35. The twisting, wrinkling and mottling of leave are symptoms of (a) Nematode attack (b) viral disease (c) water
deprivation (d) fungal attack
36. An example of biological control of pest is (a) using lady birc beetles to feed on caterpillars (b) early planting of
maize (c) harvesting maize when properly dried (d) soaking beans seed in Bordeaux mixture
37. Edible seeds with stickly covering and looks are most likely to be dispersed by (a) wind (b) water (c) animal (d)
explosion
38. Hereditary characteristic are passed from parent to offspring through the (a) Cytoplasma (b) placenta (c) gene (d)
umbilical cord
39. Embryonic membranes do not include (a) uterus (b) Choroin (c) Allantois (d) amnion
40. The digestion of plant fibre in non- ruminant herbivores take place in the (a) mouth and rectum (b) caecium and
colon (c) oesophagus and duodenum (d) stomach and rectum
41. Which of the following hormones is responsible for the relaxation of the pelvic ligaments and cervix during
parturition? (a) Testosterone (b) progesterone (c) oxytocin (d) Relaxin
42. The sign of heat in animals include the following expect (a) red and swollen vulva (b) restlessness and
nervousness (c) attempting to mount other animals (d) increased appetite
43. Which of the following is not an biotic condition that affect livestock production? (a) sunlight (b) rainfall (c)
temperature (d) predators
44. Cows should not be allowed to eat plenty of young fresh pasture because they will (a) develop anthrax (b) develop
bloat (c) refuse to eat concentrate (d) become infested with worms
45. In commercial egg production, the most effective management system is (a) deep litter (b) free range (c) battery
(d) fold
46. Which of the following statement is true of a pig which has only one testis? (a) it will be sterile (b) a can still
produce viable sperm (c) all the spermatozoa will be dead (d) it will not be able to make s sow
47. The indegrient which is not a major source of mineral in animal feed is (a) Oyster shell (b) fish meal (c) bone meal
(d) palm kernel meal
48. If a Soyabeans meal contain 45% crude protein with quantity of it should provided to laying flock to supply
5.00kg of protein (a) 11.11kg (b) 9.09kg (c) 2.75kg (d) 2.25kg
 49. Disease of animal that can also be transferred to human are (a) Nutritional (b) physiological (c) zoonotic (d)
parasitic
50. The following are common grasses in the range land except (a) Panicum maximum (b) Calopogonium
mucunoides (c) cynodon dactylon (d) imperata cylindrical
51. Poultry showing difficult in breathing and loss of appetite a re under the attack of (a) Coccidiosis (b) aspergillosis
(c) foot and month disease (d) brucellosis
52. The major cause of spoilage in fresh fish is (a) high humidity (b) fungal attack (c) low moisture content (d)
bacterial attack
53. Which of the following statement about a good fish pond is true? (a) it must have low pH (b) the water must be
tumid (c) it must have low concentration of dissolved salts (d) the level of dissolved oxygen must be low
54. The most important input contribute by the farmer (a) money (b) implement (c) labour (d) fertilizer
55. The mechanical introduction of semen into the vegina of a female animal is termed (a) black-crossing (b) pen
mating (c) articial insemination (d) inbreeding
56. Demand is said to be elastic when a percentage change in pride (a) results in an infinite change in demand (b)
result in an increase in quantity demanded
57. The law of diminishing return helps in (a) determining the proportion of factors to combine workers (b)
dertermining the qualities of fixed resources to use in production (c) indicating economic wages to pay farm
worker (d) indicating the quantity of fixed factor to employ
58. How would an individual proposing to start farm obtain estimates of yields, prices and cost needed in preparing a
budget? (a) from his past experience (b) by trial and error (c) from agricultural officer or local farmers (d) from
books written about overseas farms
59. Farm gate price is the price at which (a) producer sold to the government (b) produce are sold in the market (c)
producers sell to the middlemen (d) marketing boards sell to the consumers
60. The methods of disseminating new farming techniques to farmer include the following except (a) result
demonstration (b) use of radio (c) use of television (d) organizing symposia
Theory
Answer one question only from each section
Section A
1a. What is an agricultural system (2marks)
ii. List five agricultural system pratised in West Africal (5marks)
b. State four ways in which non-government contribute to agricultural production (4marks)
c. Give one function of each of the following component of an incubator (i) counter (ii) thermostat (iii) Hygrometer
(iv) egg tray (v) heater (5marks)
2a. Enumerate six factors that limit food production in West Africa (6marks)
b. State three advantage and three disadvantage of solar system as a source of farm power (6marks)
c. List four tractor-coupled implement (4marks)
Section B
3a. State four characteristics of clay (4marks)
b. Mention four effect of drought on plant growth and development (4marks)
c. List two symptom of phosphorus is deficiency in crops (2marks)
d. State three ways in which each of the following soil properties is important in crop production (i) soil reaction (ii)
soil temperature (6marks)
4a. List four soil conservation practices that can be used to control erosion in a gentle slop (4marks)
b. Explain how each of the practice you have listed in 4(a) can be used to conserved the soil (12marks)
Section C
5a. State four aim of crops of crop implement (4marks)
b. Give four condition necessary for seed germination (4marks)
c. State the important of conducting a germinating test (2marks)
d. Discuss briefly three problem associated with the use of poor quality planting materials (6marks)
6. Discuss the production (Theobroma cacao) under the following
a. Land preparation (2marks)
b. Climax requirement (3marks)
c. Planting (6marks)
d. One disease (5marks)
Section D
7a. Define the term brooder as used in poultry production (2marks)
ii. List four characteristics of a good layer (4marks)
b. State four reasons for providing suitable housing for livestock (4marks)
c. Give the specific names of three fish species commonly stocked in a pond (3marks)
d. State three qualities of a good pasture plant (3marks)
8a.i. Define the term culling in poultry production (2marks)
ii. Mention three benefits derived from culling (3marks)
b. State four ways of preventing in a sheep flock (4marks)
c. Discuss the practice of paddocking as a way of improving rangeland (4marks)
d. State three fishery regulation (3marks)
Section E
9a. What is an inventory record? (2marks)
ii. State four step involved in the process of taking inventory (4marks)
iii. State two ways in which inventory records is important in farm business (2marks)
b. Mention four objective of agricultural extension (4marks)
c. Explain the following agricultural extension teaching methods (4marks)
i. News bulletin (ii) agricultural shows (4marks)
10a. Explain the term marketing channel (2marks)
ii. Outline the marketing channel for cocoa (4marks)
b. State three characteristics of land (3marks)
i. List three agricultural extension programmes in West Africa (3marks)
d. State four advantage of using demonstration as an extension teaching method (4marks)
 CITY OF FAITH COMPREHENSIVE COLLEGE
2017/2018 MOCK EXAMINATION
CLASS: S.S 3 SUBJECT: BIOLOGY

Objective
1. A group of closely organism capable of inter breeding to produce fertile offspring are known as member of a (a)
kingdom (b) class (c) family (d) species
2. Viruses are economically important because they (a) do not have cell structures (b) causes diseases in plant and
animals (c) can only reproduce inside living cell (d) exist as crystals outside living cells
3. A beaker of pond water containing few specimens of Euglena was placed in a dark room for two week. At the
end of this period, the specimens of Euglena were still alive because they were (a) able to carry out holozoic
nutrition (b) able to carryout photosynthesis using carbon dioxide in the pond water (c) better adapted to life in
darkness than to life in light (d) not over crowded
4. The cytoplasm of the cell is considered a very important component because it (a) regulates the amount of energy
in the cell (b) suspends all cell organelles (c) is the outermost part of the cell (d) is solely responsible for cell
division
Use the diagram below to answer questions 5 to 7

5. After an hour, the level of water in the thistle funnel will (a) rise (b) fall (c) remain the same (d) double
6. The experience above is used to demonstrate the process of (a) transpiration (b) water culture (c) diffusion (d)
Osmosis
7. In plant cell the role of the membrane is played by the (a) Nucleous (b) cell wall (c) cytoplasm (d) mitochondrion
8. Red blood cell were found to have burst open after being placed in distilled water for an hour. This phenomenon is
know as (a) plasmolysis (b) diffusion (c) haemolysis (d) wilting
9. The overall reaction in glycolysis can be summarized as (a) C6H12 06 C3 H4 03 + 4H + ATP (b) C6H12 06
2C3 H4 03 + 4H + 2 ATP (c) C6H12 06 2C3 H4 03 + 4H + ADP (d) C6H12 06 2C3H403 + 4H + 2 ADP
10. The curvature movement of plant in response to the stimuli of water is called (a) Hydrotropism (b) geotropism
(c) phototropism (d) thigmotropism
11. Two organelles directly involved in mitotic tell division are (a) Nucleus and mitochondrion (b) ribosome and
nucleus (c) centriole and golge nucleus (d) nucleus and centriole
12. The following statements about mitotic cell division except that (a) it occurs only in young cells (b) it occur in
somatic cells (c) the chromosome number of the daughter cell is the same as that of the parent (d) the genetic
composition of the mother cell is the same as that of the daughter cell
13. The longest bone in the body is the (a) humerus (b) femur (c) scapula (d) tibia
14. Which of the following structure is not a skeletal material (a) chitin (b) cartilage (c) bone (d) muscle
15. The reason why the flow of blood through the capillaries is very slow is (a) because the walls of capillaries are
very thin (b) to avoid high pressure (c) to ensure that the individual does not get dizzy (d) to allow adequate time
for exchange of materials
16. Which of the following features is not characteristics of arteries (a) possess value at intervals throughout their
length (b) have thick muscular and elastic wall (c) carry blood away from the heart (d) transport oxygenated
blood with the exception of materials
17. A group of rats placed in an air-tight box for some hour died because they (a) breathed in air containing nitrogen
(b) produce carbon dioxide (c) ran short energy (d) used up the available oxygen
18. Which of the following organism have kidney as their excretory organs (a) fish, amphibians, bird, man (b)
fishes, amphibians, annelids insect (c) fishes , reptiles, birds, tapeworm (d) fishes, protozoan, amphibians, man
19. The reason why hospitals use saline solution as drip instead water is (a) because salt is a preservative (b) to prevent
contamination of water (c) the maintain composition of body fluids (d) to increase the number of blood cell
20. The part of the ear which contain Nerve cell sensitive to sound vibration is the (a) cochlea (b) Ampulla (c)
tympanum (d) Malleus
21. Spectacle with corex lenses correct long-sightedness by (a) converging the light before they enter then eye (b)
diverging the light ray before enter the eye (c) reducing light intensity before it enter the eye (d) increasing light
intensity before it enter the eye
22. A seed of a flowering plant can best be described as (a) radicle and plumile (b) the developed ovule (c) the
embryo and endospein (d) develop ovary
23. Which of the following processes removes carbon from the atmosphere? (a) putrefaction (b) photosynthesis (c)
volcanic eruption (d) burning of fuels
24. Which of the following cycles involves the process of precipitation and transpiration? (a) water cycle (b) carbon
cycle (c) nitrogen cycle (d) oxygen cycle
25. The mesophyll layer of a leaf consists of (a) wax and cutin (B) cell with lignified walls (c) irregularly shaped
collendyma cell (d) photosynthesis parenchyma cells
26. Which of the following treatments would increase the rate of transpiration in a potted plant (a) placing it in a
cold room (b) placing it under a farm a room (c) putting it in a cupboard (d) smearing gease on the lower surface
on leaves
27. Pepsin is secreted as an in active precursor called Pepsin organ because (a) pepsin as an enzyme is quickly
destroyed by the alkaline food from the mouth (b) all digestive enzymes pass through precursor stage (c) pepsin
is a proteolytic enzyme and might attack the stomach tissues (d) pepsin is not required in large qualities
28. An organism whose source of carbon is in organic is likely to be a/an (a) heterotrophic organism (b) autotrophic
organism (c) symbiotic organism (d) parasitic organism
29. Which of the following statement about ecosystem is false (a) all the energy entering ecosystem is passed on to
decomposer (b) the primary producer provide energy for herbivores and carnwoves (c) ecosystem must start with
the capture of energy by antistrophes (d) Energy transfer from one trophic level to the other is not 100% efficient
30. What is the critical limiting factors for plants below the photic zone is an aquatic ecosystem? (a) available of
nutrient (b) available of water (c) intensity of light (d) carbon dioxide concentration
31. Which of the following instruments used to estimate the number of plant in a habitat? (a) pooter (b) pit fall trap (c)
Quadrat (d) sweep net
32. Which of the organism is an endoparasite (a) mice (b) mosquito (c) Ascaris(d) Dodder
33. Which of the following statement is true about sandy soil? It (a) has limited air space (b) is light and easy to dig
(c) drains slowly (d) is heavy and poorly aerated
34. Which of the following organism is a primary consumer? (a) dog (b) sheep (c) grass (d) fungus
35. The organism designated P in the food chain is normally sustained by energy from (a) sunlight (b) carbohydrates
(c) green plants (d) mineral salt
36. Which of the following statement best describes the organism designated R? it (a) feed on S (b) is a primary
consumer (c) is a producer as well as consumer (d) is a secondary consumer
37. Food chains are relatively short because (a) of energy recycling in the ecosystem (b) energy gain at each trophic
level is high (c) of energy loss at each trophic level (d) energy flow in an ecosystem in uni-directional
38. Which of the following organism features is not an adaptation of plant to aquatic habitat? (a) breathing root for
entry of air (b) flower raised above water for the purpose of pollination (c) spongy tissues containing gases for
buoyancy (d) Hairy structure on the leave to leave to reduce water loss
39. Which of the following organism does not show colour adaptation to its environment (a) chameleon (b)
earthworm (c) fish (d) toad
40. Most trophical plant shed their leaves during dry weather conditions in order to (a) reduce their grow rate (b)
conserve water (c) reduce competition (d) minimize the rate of photosynthesis
 41. The following habitats can be used in the study of succession except (a) savanna grassland (b) abandoned
farmland (c) a pond (d) a well cultivated land
42. Population growth rate may be define as the (a) mortality rate per unit area over a period (b) number of time an
organism occurs within a given period (c) number of a particular species per unit area (d) net rate of time an
mortality in the habital over a period
43. In ecological succession, since lichens grow on bare rock they are considered to be (a) primary consumer (b)
pioneer organism (c) climax organism (d) producers
44. Which of the factors will most likely lead to overcrowding with population? (a) Absence of predator (b)
emigration (c) food shortage (d) determination of paternity
45. A species whose populations has become so small that it may become extinct if not protected is a/an (a) special
species (b) dangerous species (c) endangered species (d) important series
46. Which of the following practices does not contribute to the preservation and improvement of the environment?
(a) pollution reduction (b) material recycling (c) Reafforestation species (d) overgrazing
47. Variation important in human life and can be used for the following activities except (a) crime detection (b)
population reduction (c) blood transfusion (d) determination of paternity
48. An example of continuous variation is (a) finger print (b) tougue rolling (c) blood grouping (d) body size
49. The outward appearance or an organism referred to as (a) phenotype (b) genotype (c) dominance (d)
Recessiveness
50. The allele responsible for sickle-cell anaemia first appeared in the tropical and subtropical region of Asia, the
middle East and Africal . it entered the United states of America when individual were forcibly brought over the
Africa. In micro evolutionary terms this is an example of (a) mutation (b) gene flow (c) genetic drift (d) natural
selection
51. Which of the following disease is not hereditary (a) Albinism (b) scabies (c) Hemophilia (d) colour blindness
52. The immediate product of meiosis in flowering plant is the (a) sporophyte (b) genetotype (c) zygote (d) pollen
grain
53. DNA in eukaryotic cell is contained in the (a) central vacuole (b) Nucleus (c) Lysosome (d) Golgi body
54. A man who is heterozygous for the deases hemophilia marries a woman who is double recessive for hemophilia
what percentage of their offspring would have the disease (a) 0% (b) 25% (c) 50% (d) 75%
55. A dairy farmer allowed only his best milk producing cows to mate. In succeeding generations of cow, milk
production increased. This outcome is an example of (a) artificial selection (b) natural selection (c) competition (d)
cross fertilization
56. Cytokinesis of mitosis is a process that ensures that (a) each daughter cell gets the necessary organelles (b) there is
distribution of a complete set of genes into each daughter cell (c) daughter cell inherit new genetic combination
(d) worn out organelles are excluded from daughter cells
57. An animal which is active during the days know as ___ (a) Noctunal animal (b) diurnal animal (c) terrestrial
animals (d) homoeothermic animal
58. Evidence for evolution include the following except (a) fossil records (b) comparative anatomy (c) mutation of
genes (d) geographic distribution of organism
Essay
Theory
1a. What is a sense organ?
b. List four sense organs found in mammals
c. Described the processes that will cause a person who has been spinning to fell dizzy
d. State two function each of the following structures (i) cerebellum (ii) cerebrum (iii) Medulaoblogata
2a. Explain why an athlete in a race would be given a glucose rather than a piece of bread
b. Outline the test for starch in a given food substance
c. State five reason why water is important a human diet
3a. What is meant by the term Food chain?
b. Draw a food chain involving four trophic levels which can be in a terrestrial habitats
c. Explain (i) the flow of energy through the food chain draw in 3(b) above (ii) how energy in the chain is lost to the
environment
4a What is variation
b. State five advantage of variation within a species
c. In a tabular form, outline four difference between continuous and discontinuous variation
i. sex-linked character
ii. co-dominance
iii. Hybrid vigour
5a. With the aid of annotated diagrams only, outline the water cycle
b. Describe an experiment to show that water is conducted in the xylem tissues of flowing plants
6a. What is growth?
b. State two difference each between
i. Growth in plant and animal
ii. Metamorphosis in housefly and toad
c. Name two hormones each involve in (i) plant growth (ii) animal growth
d. State the effect of the hormones named in 8 (c) above
e. Name the type of germination which take place in (i) monocotyledonous plants (ii) dicotyledonous plants
f. In a tabular form state four differences between the form of germination name in 8 (e) above
 CITY OF FAITH COMPREHENSIVE COLLEGE
2017/2018 MOCK EXAMINATION
CLASS: S.S 3 SUBJECT: GOVERNMENT
Objectives
1. Government is an art of governing refers to the process of (a) ruling people in the society (b) establishing
political parties (c) providing free education (d) acquiring social skills
2. An essential feature of a state is (a) availability of mineral resources (b) developed infrastructure (c) an
organized system of low (d) developed markets
3. The modern idea of democracy includes all the following except (a) unlimited freedom (b) civil liberty (c)
periodic elections (d) equality before the law
4. The political system which allows equal access to the means of production, distribution and exchange is called (a)
totalitarianism (b) capitalism (c) socialism (d) feudalism
5. The two components of sovereignty are (a) influence and political authority (b) political structure and political
socialization (c) legal and political independence (d) political and economic developments
6. The modern concept of the rule of law was introduced by (a) K.C. Willeare (b) A.V. Dicey (c) Otto von Bismarck
(d) Justice Holmes
7. Which of the following principles negates the concept of the rule of low? (a) supremacy of law (b) prevention of
arbitrariness in authority (c) equality before the law (d) exercise of absolute power by the president
8. Another name for totalitarianism is (a) socialism (b) capitalism (c) communism (d) authoritarianism
9. The concept of separation of power was popularized by (a) Niccolo Machiavelli (b) A.V. Dicey (c) Baron de
Montesquieu (d) Harold Laski
10. Which of the following does not have the power of delegated legislation? (a) a minister (b) market men and
women association (c) state government (d) registered professional bodies
11. The concept of decentralization include all the following elements except (a) deconcentration (b) devolution (c)
delimitation (d) delegation
12. All the following are sources of constitutions except (a) acts of parliament (b) devolution of power (c)
conventions (d) customs
13. A constitution is said to be flexible when its provisions are (a) known by the rulers (b) scattered in several books
(c) mainly in one document (d) easy to amend
14. The power to pardon any citizen charged with any criminal offences lies with the (a) legislature (b) executive (c)
judiciary (d) human rights organization
15. The police performs all the following functions except (a) public execution of law breakers (b) controlling and
directing traffic (c) protection of life and property (d) enforcement of law and order
16. The number of chamber in a bicameral legislature is (a) four (b) three (c) two (d) one
17. In the legislature a filibuster is one who (a) is in charge of party discipline (b) presents party bills during
parliamentary sessions (c) does not take part in law making (d) prevents the passage of a bill buy making long
speeches
18. The verdicts of judges which are building on lower courts are called judicial (a) order (b) precedents (c) council
(d) oaths
19. The judicial organ of government is the body which (a) initiated bills (b) interpretes the law (c) makes law (d)
maintains law and order
20. The system government in which authority is shared between the centre and the component units is called (a)
unitary system of government (b) feudal system of government (c) federal system of government (d) monarchial
system of government
21. A constitutionally created account into which all public revenue is peed is called (a) provident fund (b) social
security fund (c) public Accounts fund (d) consolidated fund
22. In a cabinet system of government the ministers are collectively responsible to the (a) president (b) parliament (c)
electorate (d) prime minister \
23. Official opposition is a feature of (a) parliamentary system (b) totalitarian system (c) Nazism (d) fascism
24. In a monarchy the Head of State is usually (a) a military ruler (b) the chief justice (c) the speaker of the legislative
(d) a hereditary ruler
25. Which of the in not a duty of a citizen (a) obedience to the laws (b) payment of taxes (c) services the nation (d)
giving alms to the poor
26. Free and fair election is necessary for democracy to thrive because it (a) makes an unpopular candidate emerge as
winner (b) makes a popular party to lose the election (c) helps the people to exercise their popular sovereignty (d)
prevents smooth change of government
27. A system in which a candidate with the highest number of votes is declared winner in an election is called (a) first
pass the post (b) block voting (c) second balloting (d) proportional representation
28. Pressure groups are also known as (a) social clubs (b) cultural organization (c) interest groups (d) secular groups
29. Public opinion is the view held by a (a) minority (b) civil servants (c) majority (d) politicians
30. A manifesto refers to (a) the register of party member (b) rejected ballot papers (c) valid ballot papers (d)
proposed programme of a party
31. One demerit of a one party system is that it encourage (a) red tapism (b) dictorship (c) democracy (d) development
32. The functions of political parties include the following except (a) being brokers of ideas (b) influencing policies in
the government (c) educate the electorate by clarifying issues (d) disseminating information to members
33. Anonymity of civil servants means that they (a) should be seen and heard (b) should engage in partisan politics (c)
should work hard for their superiors (d) do not take praise or blame for their performance
34. One of the objectives of public corporations is to (a) enhance public awareness (b) narrow the gap between the rich
and the poor (c) encourage individual participation (d) maximize profit
35. Public corporation are financed (a) by tax payers (b) with private funds (c) with entrepreneurial funds (d) by
political parties
36. Which of the following is an advantage of local government in West Africa? Act as (a) agents for money based
politics (b) electoral commission (c) training grounds for political leaders (d) agent for pressure groups
37. Some pre-colonial West African government were democratic because of the existence of (a) powerful traditional
rulers (b) age grades (c) religious institution (d) checks and balance
38. In the pre- colonial West Africa the kingdom of the Asante Wolof and the Hause were examples of a (a) state (b)
union (c) country (d) nation
39. Which of the following countries popularized the use of the indirect Rule by the British (a) Nigeria (b) Ghana (c)
Sierra Leone (d) the Gambia
40. Indirect rule was successful in some parts of West Africa because (a) the British tyrannized the people (b) it
suited the existing traditional political structure (d) the residents were good administrators
41. The National congress of British West Africa (NCBWA) was founded in 1919 by (a) Kobina Sekyi B.J. (b)
Danquah (c) Mensah Sarbah (d) J.E. casely Hayford
42. Elective principle was introduced in the British colonies after (a) series of negotiation by the chiefs (b)
consultation with the age grades (c) a series of agitations by the educated elite (d) The Queen desire to come to the
colonies
43. An important innovation of the constitutions of British West African colonies in the 1920s was the (a)
introduction of elective principle (b) appointment of Africans to the executive council (c) restriction of governors
veto power (d) opening of regional Assemblies
44. National congress of British West Africa (NCEWA) failed to achieve its aims initially because (a) the chiefs and
governors opposed those aims (b) African workers opposed those aims (c) African employed Europeans to write
those aims (d) the congress failed to bring foreigners into its told
45. A coup d’ etat is regarded as (a) a source of political legitimacy (b) a manipulation of the constitution (c) a
constitutional way of changing the government
46. The military intervenes in West African politics mainly because (a) politicians play the game accordingly (b) law
and order are maintained (c) they are better ruler (d) of election malpractices
47. The United Nation Organization (UNO) was founded in 1945 as a successor to the (a) War saw pact (b) World
trade organization (c) North Atlantic Treaty organization (d) lecigice of Nations
48. The secretary general of the United Nations (UN) is appointed for a period of (a) three years (b) five years (c)
seven years (d) nine years
49. The official language of the common wealth is (a) French (b) Spanish (c) Dutch (d) English
 50. Which of the following bloc existed in Africa prior to the formation of the organization of African unity (OAU)
the (a) Monrovia, Accia and Casablanca group (b) Brazzaville come and Monrovia group (c) cassablane
Brazzaville and Monrovia group (d) Algeria, Monrovia and Cassablanca
Theory
Section A
Attempt two questions only from the section
1a. What is political socialization? (2marks)
b. Explain four agents of political socialization (8marks)
2a. Explain the term representative government
b. What are conditions are essential for the existence of a representative government (8marks)
3a. What is pressure group (2marks)
b. State four functions of pressure groups (8marks)
4. Give five reasons for the creation of local government in Nigeria (10marks)
5a. Define the term “Sovereignty of a state (2marks)
b. Outline four limitations of sovereignty in a state (8marks)
Section B
Attempt two questions only from this section
6a. What is foreign policy? (2marks)
b. State four factors that influence Nigeria “ foreign policy (8marks)
7. Outline five conditions that gave rise to the adoption of federalism in Nigeria (10mark)
8. Explain five causes of the first military intervention in Nigerian politics (10marks)
9. Describe five achievement of the National Party of Nigeria (NPN) between 1979 and 1983
10. State five weaknesses of the united Nations (UN) (10 marks)
 CITY OF FAITH COMPREHENSIVE COLLEGE
2017/2018 MOCK EXAMINATION
CLASS: S.S 3 SUBJECT: ECONOMICS
Objectives
1. The basic economic problems of the society are ___ (a) abundance, for whom to distribute (b) how to produce and
sell (c) what to produce, how and for whom to produce (d) scarcity when to produce and how to produce
2. A market condition where profit is maximized when MR = AR = MC = P is known as (a) duopoly (b) monopoly
(c) perfect competition (d) monophony
3. The market structure that has the characteristics of pure monopoly and perfect competition is referred to as ____
market (a) duopoly (b) monophony (c) monopolistic competition (d) oligopoly
4. The theory of external trade is based on the principle of comparative cost advantage as propounded by ___ (a) Ac
pigou (b) Adam smith (c) David Ricardo (d) J.S. Mill
5. The loss of skilled intellectual and technical labour to other countries is referred to as ___ (a) brain drain (b)
depreciation (c) migration (d) labour
6. The following are countries that make up the Asian Tigers except (a) Hong kong (b) Taiwan (c) sigapore (d)
Malaysia
7. The first National development plan in Nigeria took place between (a) 1960-1965 (b) 1962 -1968 (c) 1970-1974
(d) 1975- 1980
8. Which of the following is a benefit of petroleum to the Nigerian economy (a) development of monocultural
economy (b) economic instability (c) source of foreign exchange (d) high rate of inflation
9. Which of the following is a millennium development Goals (MDGs) (a) Attracting foreign direct investment (b)
Eradication of extreme poverty and hunger (c) increasing capital flows through debt reduction (d) to guarantee
Africa renewal
10. An increase in tax rate can be used in an economy to (a) generate revenue for the government (b) influence
population growth rate (c) promote importation (d) increase people’s spending habit
11. A tax whose burden falls on the individual tax payer is called ____ tax (a) direct tax (b) indirect tax (c)
progressive tax (d) regressive tax
12. A group of firms producing similar products is referred to as a/an (a) company (b) industry (c) factory (d) plant
13. The satisfaction derived from consuming are more unit of a particular commodity is called ___ (a) marginal cost
(b) marginal utility (c) total utility (d) marginal revenue
14. The theory of diminishing marginal utility states that as more units of commodity are consumed the (a) satisfaction
from an extra unit decrease (b) satisfaction from extra unit increase (c) satisfaction from an extra unit remains
constant (d) total satisfaction from the goods remain the same
15. Excise duties are levied on ___ (a) the total production (b) local products (c) luxury goods (d) the working
population
16. One of the functions of central bank is (a) production of goods (b) issuing of currency (c) presenting budgets (d)
printing of cheque books
17. Which of these is not a reason for holding money (a) transactionary (b) speculation (c) precautionary (d)
ostentation
18. When the total utility is at the maximum the marginal utility is (a) increasing (b) zero (c) decreasing (d) one
19. A budget is balanced when the expected revenue is (a) greater than expected expenditure (b) less than expenditure
(c) equal to expected expenditure (d) greater than total expenditure
20. In the balance of payment of a country tourism is classified under (a) capital account (b) invisible trade (c) visible
trade (d) official reserves
21. Abolition of all forms of trade barriers among members while maintaining common external tariffs against non-
members is a feature of a (a) free trade area (b) custom union (c) common market (d) economic union
22. The main item traded on the stock exchange market is ___ (a) treasury bills (b) traveler’s cheque (c) existing
shares (d) foreign currencies
23. Which of the following is capable of increasing the population of a country (a) decrease in birth rate (b) increase
in death rate (c) poor medical facilities (d) decrease in death rate
24. The demand curve for a commodity is downward sloping because the consumer will pay ___ (a) less as marginal
utility falls (b) more as marginal utility falls (c) less as total utility (d) more as the average utility falls
25. The central bank control credit through ___ (a) depreciation of assets (b) granting of overdraft (c) direct
investment (d) open market operation
26. Visible balance is also known as ___ (a) terms of trade (b) balance of playment (c) balance of trade (d) capital
balance
27. In a situation where the finished product of an industry is fragile bulky and perishable such an industry should be
located close to ___ (a) raw materials (b) market (c) labour supply (d) power supply
28. To control inflation , the central bank of a country may adopt (a) an expansionary monetary policy (b) a
contractionary monetary policy (c) an increased wage policy (d) a deficit financing policy
29. Which of these is not a characteristics of a developing country (a) high per capital income (b) high level of
primary production (c) high population growth (d) high level of illiteracy
30. The concentration of many firms of a particular industry in a particular area is known as (a) location of industry
(b) A malgamation (c) localization of industry (d) Nationalization of industry
31. The likely implication of devaluation of a country currency is that (a) export of such country becomes cheaper (b)
importation of goods in such country becomes cheaper (c) the value of such country’s currency rises (d) foreign
goods are attracted into the country
32. Inflation may occur if there is ___ (a) excess supply over demand (b) increase in productivity (c) excess demand
over supply (d) increase government spending in a depressed economy
33. When there is improvement in a country’s terms of trade (a) export are cheaper relative to import (b) import are
cheaper relative to export (c) volume of import has decline (d) volume of export has decline
34. What is the full meaning IMF (a) international military force (b) international monetary fund (c) international
mortage fund (d) international monetary financing
35. Which of the following is an example of direct tax (a) import duties (b) income tax (c) export duties (d) purchase
tax
36. The process of increasing per capital income of a country over a long period of time is ___ (a) economic
integration (b) economic growth (c) economic development (d) economic acceleration
37. One of the reasons for low agricultural productivity in most west-African countries is that (a) farmers are not
capable of cultivating cash crops (b) it does not provide income to farmers with large families (c) farmers finds it
difficult getting help from banks (d) it is not the only source for agro- based industries
38. Which of these best defines inflation (a) cyclical increase in price (b) periodic increase in price (c) persistent
increase in price (d) occasional increase in price
39. The account that shows the total sum of country receipt for her export and the total payment for import is known
as (a) balance of trade (b) balance of payment (c) balance account (d) terms of trade
40. The government conscious strategy put in place to achieve overall economic growth and development is referred
to as (a) economic depression (b) economic integration (c) economic planning (d) economic recession
41. The arrangement of one’s need in order of importance is referred to as (a) choice (b) scale of preference (c)
scarcity (d) wants
42. The reward for land is (a) rent (b) interest (c) profit (d) wages
43. The generally accepted definition of economics was given by (a) Adam Smith (b) Lionel Robbins (c) Alfred
marshall (d) David Ricardo
44. An industry made up of companies that primarily earn revenue by providing intangible products and services is
___ (a) manufacturing industry (b) intangible industry (c) service industry (d) oil industry
45. The demand curve faced by a monopolist is (a) positively sloped (b) vertical (c) horizontal (d) negatively sloped
46. The additional cost incurred by producing an additional unit of output is known as (a) fixed cost (b) total cost (c)
average cost (d0 marginal cost
47. The type of inflation that emanates from excess demand over supply is (a) galloping inflation (b) imported
inflation (c) demand pull inflation (d) cost push inflation
48. One of the reasons for international trade is the (a) number of people in a given country (b) prevailing interest rate
(c) difference in natural endowment (d) prevailing exchange rate
49. Given Qd = 130 -6q determine the quantity demanded when price is #10 (a) 60 (b) 70 (c) 130 (d) 110
 50. The main role of organization of petroleum exporting countries (OPEC) is ___ (a) fixing oil production level (b)
ensuring optimum production of oil (c) promoting efficiency in the management of oil (d) suppl[ying of oil at
affordable rates
Section A (Answer only one Question)
The utility schedule of a consumer for a brand of ice cream is shown in that table below

0 0 0

1 10 10

2 21 R=

3 P= 6

4 30 3

5 32 S=

6 Q= 0

7 28 -4

1a. Calculate the value of P,Q,R,S (8marks)

b. Given that the price of ice creams is #6 at what level of consumption is the consumer in equilibrium explain your
answer (3marks)
c. Using the above table draw the marginal utility curve (6marks)
d. State the law of diminishing marginal utility (3marks)
2. Given that the price of a bag of bean increased from # 60 to # 70 between 19.84 and the quantity bought decreased
from 170 to 90 bags you are required to
a. Present the above information in a table (5marks)
b. Calculate the co-efficient of price elasticity of demand (10marks)
c. State the type of elasticity calculated and why (5marks)
Section B
Answer any three (3) questions only from this section
3a. Define money (4marks)
b. Explain four (4) function of money (10marks)
4a. What is balance of payment disequilibrium (4 marks)
b. Explain the two types of balance of payment disequilibrium (8marks)
c. Highlight any four (4) reasons why most West African countries are experiencing balance of payment (8marks)
5a. Define market in economic (2marks)
b. Explain any three (3) feature of an imperfect market (9marks)
c. Explain any three
i. free trade area (ii) custom union (iii) common market (iv) economic union (9marks)
6a. Define international trade (2marks)
b. State the law of comparative cost advantage (3marks)
c. List four (4) function of central bank (8marks)
d. Define financial regulation (2marks)
ei. Mention 3 positive contributive of petroleum to Nigerian economy (3marks)
ii. Mention 2 Negative contribution of petroleum to Nigeria economy (2marks)
7a. What is Production possibility curve (3marks)
b. Draw a production possibility curve and indicate
i. Point P where resources are underutilized (5marks)
ii. Point U where resources are fully utilized (5marks)
iii. Point X where production is not feasible (5marks)
c. Why is production possibility curve negatively sloped (2marks)
8a. Explain the following (5marks)
i. Peasant family
ii. Commercial farming
b. Identify any five (5) ways in which agriculture contributes to the economic development to your country (15marks)
 CITY OF FAITH COMPREHENSIVE COLLEGE
2017/2018 MOCK EXAMINATION
CLASS: S.S 3 SUBJECT: FINANCIAL ACCOUNTING
Objectives
1. The manufacturing account is prepared to determine the cost of (a) treading (b) production (c) factory overhead (d)
raw materials used
2. Factory costs excluding prime cost is (a) overhead (b) materials cost (c) fixed cost (d) administration cost
3. An example of direct expense is (a) insurance (b) carriage inwards (c) purchase of raw materials (d) royalty
4. Which of the following formulae is used to calculate stock turnover rate?
(a) sales (b) cost of sales (c) cost of sales (d) cost of sales
Average stock average stock closing stock opening stock
5. Which of the bases of accounting does not make allowance for depreciation (a) cash basis (b) accrual basis (c)
matching basis (d) commitment basis
Use the following information to answer question 6 to 8
#
Premises 100, 000
Plant 50,000
Fixtures 30,000
Stock 20,000
Debtors 10,000
Cash 10,000
Creditors 20,000
6. Total asset is (a) # 240, 000 (b) # 220, 000 (c) # 200, 000 (d) # 180, 000
7. Current ratio is (a) 4:1 (b) 3:1 (c) 2:1 (d) 1:1
8. Quick ratio is (a) 4:1 (b) 3:1 (c) 2:1 (d) 1:1
9. Which of the following is not used for determing working capital (a) cash (b) debtors (c) motor vehicles (d)
overdraft
10. In the absence of partnership agreement a loan by a partner attracts interest at (a) 20% (b) 15% (c) 105 (d) 5%
11. Which of the following is a source of revenue to a local government authority? (a) poll tax (b) excise duty (c)
PAYE tax (d) value Added tax
12. An example of capital gain is (a) premium (b) bonus (c) shares (d) debenture
13. A sale Day Book is used for recording (a) credit sales (b) sales returns (c) hire purchases (d) cash sales
14. Returns inwards is also called (a) purchases returns (b) sales returns (c) goods on sale or return (d) goods in transit
15. In the preparation of manufacturing accounts prime cost plus factory overheads equal to cost of (a) materials
available (b) production (c) sales (d) materials used
16. Which of the following is a storage device? (a) diskette (b) keyboard (c) printer (d) monitor
17. Which of the following is a nominal account? (a) bank account (b) cash account (c) sales account (d) stock
account
18. Carriage inwards is posted to (a) trading account (b) profit and loss account (c) appropriation account (d) balance
sheet
19. Repairs to air conditioners was debited to office equipment account. This is an error of (a) principle (b)
commission (c) original entry (d) compensation
20. Which of the following is not part of cost of production? (a) direct material cost (b) direct wages (c)f actory
overheads (d) administrative overheads
Use the following information to answer questions 21-22
#
Opening 60,000
Drawing 4,000
Cost of sales 50,000
General expenses 7,000
Mark-up 50%
 21. Net profit is (a) # 43,000 (b) # 25,000 (c) # 23,000 (d) # 18,000
22. Closing capital as (a) # 81,000 (b) # 78,000 (c) #74,000 (d) #64,000
23. An approach for discovering missing figures in complete records is the use of (a) cash book (b) control accounts
(c) trading accounts (d) balance sheet
24. Which of the following is the basic accounting equation? (a) Assets = capital + liabilities (b) capital = Assets +
liabilities (c) liabilities = Assets + capital (d) Assets = liabilities - Equity
25. Which of the following is not a subsidiary book? (a) sale journal (b) cash book (c) purchases ledger (d) general
journal
26. A loan to a company under the company’s seals is (a) fixed deposit (b) mortgage (c) bond (d) debenture
27. The financial statement which is an expression of the accounting equations is the a) trading account (b) profit and
loss account (c) balance sheet (d) statement of cash flow
28. The transfer of money from one sub-head to another in the public sector is (a) budgeting (b) allocation (c)
tirement (d) vote
#
Cash purchase 29,641
Creditors 1/1/14 2,473
Creditor 31/12/14 3,117
Cash paid to creditors 127,345
Discount received 4,211
29. The credit purchases is (a) # 161,841 (b) # 156,986 (c) #134,673 (d) # 132,200
30. The total purchases is (a) #161,84 (b) #156,986 (c) #134,673 (d) #132,200
Use the following information to answer questions 31 to 33
#
Sales 183,400
Purchases 168,000
opening stock 20,100
Closing stock 48,900
Carriage outwards 2,400
Carriage inwards 5,000
Returns inwards 10,000
Expenses 15,000
Returns outwards 8,000
31. The gross profit is (a) # 47,200 (b) # 42,200 (c) # 37,200 (d) # 19,800
32. The net profit is (a) # 42,200 (b) #37,200 (c) #32,700 (d) # 19,800
33. The cost of good sold is (a) #185,100 (b) #139,200 (c) #136,200 (d) # 131200
34. Subscription in advance is an example of (a) prepayment (b) accrual (c) debtors (d) reserve
35. The reward given to a debenture holder is called (a) profit (b) reserve (c) premium (d) interest
Use the following information to answer questions 36-41
#
Sales 45,000
Opening stock 20,000
Closing stock 30,000
Expenses 15,000
Fixed Assets 40,000
Debtors 10,000
Creditors 5,000
Purchases 25,000
36. The cost of goods sold is (a) # 45,000 (b) #30,000 (c) # 25,000 (d) #15,000
37. Net profit is (a) #45,000 (b) #30,000 (c) #25,000 (d) #15,000
38. Net profit percentage is (a) 100% (b) 67% (c) 50% (d) 33%
39. Current ratio is (a) 16:1 (b) 15:1 (c) 8:1 (d) 2:1
 40. Working capital is (a) # 60,000 (b) # 45,000 (c) # 40,000 (d) # 35,000
41. Gross profit percentage is (a) 100% (b) 67% (c) 50% (d) 33%
Use the following information to answer questions 42-46
The Department of Administration of Adegbayi state water corporation has the underlisted staff position on 31 st
December, 2009
Past grade Number in post rate
Director Audit 16 1 #200,000 x #20,000 - #300,000
Assistant Director
(Audit) 15 2 #160,000 x #18,000 -#268,000
Asst chief internal
Auditor 13 1 #140,000 x #12,000 - #224,000
Internal Auditor II 08 2 #60,000 x #6,000 - #120,000
Higher Executive
Officer (Audit) 08 4 #60,000 x # 6,000 - # 120,000
Note
a. All employee are on the first step of their salary
b. Grade level Housing Allowance Transport Allowance
12 and above # 24,000 p.a # 18,000 p.a
07 and 11 #18,000 p.a # 12,000 p.a
42. The total basic salary for the period is (a) # 1,368, 000 (b) # 1, 224, 000 (c) # 1, 024, 000 (d) # 1, 020, 000
43. Total housing allowance for the period is (a) # 404,000 (b) # 242, 000 (c) # 204, 000 (d) # 144, 000
44. Total transport allowance for the period is (a) # 404,000 (b) # 242,000 (c) #204,000 (d) # 144,000
45. The total emolument for the assistant directors is (a) # 404,000 (b) # 242,000 (c) # 204,000 (d) # 144,000
46. The total emolument for the internal Audit department is (a) # 1,368,000 (b) # 1,224,000 (c) # 1,024,000 (d) #
1,020,00
Used the following information to answer 47 to 50
Halima and Olamide are partners sharing profit and losses equally. Extract from their books showed
Halima Olamide
# #
st
Capital account 1 Jan 2002 100,000 50,000
Current accounts 1st Jan 2002 20,000 40,000
Draining during the year 10,000 15,000
Annual salaries 14,000 12,000
Interest in capital is 10%. The net profit for the year is # 60,000
47. The interest on Halima’s capital is (a) # 10,000 (b) # 6,000 (c) # 4,000 (d) #2,000
48. The share of profit of each partner is (a) # 17,000 (b) #15,000 (c) # 10,750 (d) # 9500
49. The balance on Halima’s current account on 31st December, 2002 is (a) # 66,500 (b) # 53,300 (c) # 51,500 (d) #
43,500
50. The balance on Olamide current account on 31st December, 2002 is (a) # 66,500 (b) # 53,500 (c) #51,500 (D)
#43,500
Theory
(Answer 5 question in all 2 in section A 3 in section B)
1a. What is a General journal (3marks)
b. State six uses of the general journal (12marks)
2a. List four items each that are found on the (i) credit side of the sales ledger account (ii) debit side of the purchases
ledger control account (8marks)
b. List seven types of errors a trial balance will not reveal (7marks)
3a. Outline three distinguishing features of public and private companies (12marks)
b. State three rights available to an ordinary shareholder (3marks)
4a. What is depreciation of an asset? (3marks)
b. List three causes of depreciation (6marks)
c. Explain the following methods of depreciation (i) s straight line ( ii) reducing balance (iii) revelation (2marks
each)
5. Taiwo and Kehinde are partners sharing profit and losses in the ratio 2:1. The following balance were extracted
from the books of the firm for the year ended 31st December, 2015
Dr Cr
# #
Capital Account
Taiwo 12,500
Kehinde 10,000
Draining
Taiwo 1,000
Kehinde 750
Purchases and sales 100,000 125,000
Salaries 12,500
General expenses 5,000
Discounts 1,250 1000
Rates 250
Freehold property at cost 12,500
Bank balance 2,500
Debtors and creditors 7,500 6,500
Furniture and equipment at cost (#7,500) 6,000
Stock 1st January 5,750
155,000 155,000
Additional information
a. Stock at 31st December , 2015 was # 6,250
b. Rates paid in advance at 31st December, 2015 was # 50
c. Bad debt to be written off # 150
d. Depreciation on furniture and equipment is to provided at the rate of 5% per annum on cost
e. Interest on capital 10% per annum
f. Interest on draining Taiwo # 50
Kehinde #75
You are required to prepare (i) Trading, profit and loss account for the years ended 31st December, 2005
ii. Profit and loss a appropriation account (5marks)
iii. Partners current account and (5marks)
st
iv. Balance sheet as at 31 December, 2015 (5marks)
6. A country “Ayeitakuta” comprises five state- A,B,C,D, and E. the following information relate to the revenue for
the year ended 31st December 2000
#
Receipts from mineral resources 7,000,000
Receipts from agriculture 669,000
Import duties 2,652,000
Excise duties 1,275,000
Permit and licence fees 250,000
Personal and corporate income tax 3,654,000
Other income 500,000
Additional information
a. Revenue is shared as follow 40% to the national government; 10% to each of the states; 5% of the total
revenue to the consolidated fund; 5% total revenue to be shared by the states on population basis.
b. The population of each state is as follows
A 450,000
B 400,000
 C 500,000
D 300,000
E 300,000
You are required to compute
i. Total revenue for the country during the year 2000 (5marks)
ii. Revenue for the national government (5marks)
iii. Revenue for the states individually and collectively (5marks)
7. The following information was extracted from the books of Dauda manufacturing company for the year ended 3qst
December, 2012
#
Stock of good – 1st January 2012
Raw materials 8000
Finished goods 28,000
Work in progress 2000
Purchases of raw materials 40000
Carriage inwards 1000
Manufacturing wages 100,000
Sales 390,000
Rent 50,000
Factory expenses 60,000
Royalties 1,500
st
Stock of goods- 31 December, 2012
Raw materials 6,000
Finished goods 26,000
Work in progress 1,500
Depreciation
Machinery 7,500
Delivery van 1,280
Selling expenses 3,000
Discount allowed 1,500
Additional information
i. Factory expenses prepaid amounted to # 5,000
ii. Selling expenses accrued was # 2500
iii. Rent in apportioned between factory and selling department in the ratio 5:3 respectively
You are required to prepare
Manufacturing trading and profit and loss account for the year ended 31st December, 2012 (15marks)
8. The following balance were extracted from the books of Ewe Enterprises on December 31, 2014
#
Capital 315,200
Purchases 259,800
Sales 484,700
Carriage inwards 17,410
Premises at cost 215,000
Equipment at cost 198,000
Trade debtors 76,800
Bank overdraft 63,509
Trade creditors 64,820
Cash in hand 13,400
Stock (January 1, 2014) 27,680
Salaries and wages 56,700
Provision for doubtful debts 13,000
Discount allowed 11,450
Draining 70,000
Discount received 22,800
Electricity 29,229
General expenses 37,060
Rent 43,000
9% debentures 100,000
Return inwards 24,500
Return outwards 16,000
Additional Information
i. Stock in trade at December 31, 2014 was # 29,400
ii. Provision for doubtful debts to remain at 8% of debtors
iii. General expenses owing totaled # 12,860;
iv. Rent prepaid #19,500
v. Depreciation is to be provided as follows
Premises 12 ½% ion cost
Equipment 10% on cost
You are required to prepare (a) Trading, profit and loss account for the year ended December 31, 2014 (b) Balance sheet
as at that date
9. The following transactions were extracted from the books of Kakakiki Trading company as at 31 st January 2005.
All payments were made by cheque and all receipts were paid to the bank
#
Jan 2: cash at Eagle bank 20,000
Jan 2: petty cash in hand 1,400
Jan 3: Drew cheque for petty cash 17,600
Jan 5: Received from Anthony cheque in settlement of his debt #32,600 less 10% discount
Jan 6: settled Tunde’s account of #25,900 less 10% discount
Jan 7: Sold for cash 20 Min cards at # 750 per card
Jan 8: Transferred to current account from deposit account 70,000
Jan 10: paid Olu 4,800
Jan 16: Paid cheque for motor repairs 8,000
Jan 17: paid Ade 3,800
Jan 24: paid Kofi 4,050
Jan 27: paid Kwame 4,200
Jan 29: payment from petty cash during the month were
Salaries and wages 8,000
Trade expenses 2,000
Sundry expenses 9,200
You are required to prepare
a. Two column cash book (showing discount and bank columns only) for the month ended 31st January, 2005
10. Funso Daniels Ltd has an authorized capital of # 100, 000 divided into 20,000 ordinary shares of #5 each. The
whole of the shares were issued at par payment being made as follows
On application # 50k
On allotment # 1:50k
First call # 2:00k
Second call # 1:00k
Application were received for 32, 600 shares. It was decided to refund application monies on 2,600 shares and to allot the
shares on the basis of two for every three applied for. The excess application monies are to be held to reduce amount
payable on allotment. The calls were made and paid in full with the exception of one member holding 100 shares who
paid neither the first nor the second call. A cash receipt and payments were passed through the bank
You are required to prepare
a. Application account
b. Allotment account
c. Ordinary share capital account
d. 1st call account
e. 2nd call account
f. Bank account
 CITY OF FAITH COMPREHENSIVE COLLEGE
2017/2018 MOCK EXAMINATION
CLASS: S.S 3 SUBJECT: FURTHER MATHEMATIC
PAPER 1
1. A binary oepratio * is defined on the set R of real numbers by x * y = x+y –xy. If the identity element under the
operation * is 0, find the inverse of xER (a) – x , x ≠1 (b) 1, x ≠ 1 (c) – 1 , x ≠ 1 (d) x , x ≠ 1
1-x 1-x 1-x 1-x
2. Solve: Sin Ɵ = tan Ɵ (a) 200 (b) 90 (c) 60 (d) 0
0 0 0 0

3. Given that a5/6 x a-1/n = 1 solve for n (a) – 6.00 (b) – 1.20 (c) 0.83 (d) 1.20
4. Express log1/8 + log½ in terms of log2 (a) 3110g2 (b) 410g2 (c) -310g2 (d) -4 log2
5. If f (x) = x2 and g(x) = sin x, find g of (a) sin 2x (b) sin x2 (c) (sin x)x2 (d) x sin x
6. Find the third term in the expansion of (a-b)6 in ascending powers of b (a) -15a4b2 (b) 15a4b2 (c) -15a3b3 (d) 15a3b3
7. If √𝑥 + √𝑥 + 1 = √2𝑥 + 1, find the possible values of x (a) 1 and -1 (b) -1 and 2 (c) 1 and 2 (d) 0 and -1
8. If ∝ and 𝛽 are the roots of the equation: 2x2 – 6x + 5 = 0 evaluate 𝛽/∝ + ∝/𝛽 (a) 24/5 (b) 8/5 (c) 5/8 (d) 5/24
9. Given that f(x) = 2x3 – 3x2- 11 + 6 and f (3) = 0 factorize f (x) (a) (x-3)(x-2)(2x +2) (b) (x3)(x-2)(x-1) (c) (x-3)(x-
2)(2x-1) (d) (x+3)(x-2)(2x-1)
10. Find the equation of the line that is perpendicular to 2y+5x-6= 0 and bisects the line joining the points P (4,3) and
Q (-6,1) (a) y+ 5x+3 =0 (b) 2y-5x-9=0 (c) 5y +2x -8 =0 (d) 5y-2x -12=0
11. Differentiate x2 + xy – 5 = 0 with respect to x (a) – (2x+y) (b) (2x-y) (c) –x (d) (2x+y)
X x 2x+y x
12. The fourth term of an exponential sequence is 192 and its ninth term is 6. Find the common ratio of the sequence
(a) 1/3 (b) ½ (c) 2 (d) 3
13. Find the range of value of x for which x2 + 4x + 5 is less than 3x2 – x + 2 (a) x > - ½, x >3 (b) x < - ½, x >3 (c) – ½
≤ x ≤ 3 (d) – 1/2 < x < 3
14. Given that dy/dx = √𝑥 find y (a) 2x3/2 + c (b) 2/3 x3/2 + c (c) 3/2 x3/2 + c (d) 2/3 x2 + c

15. Given that P = y-2 y-1 and/p/ = -23 find the value of y (a) -4 (b) -3 (c) -1 (d) 2
y-4 y+2

16. An object is thrown vertically upwards from the top of a cliff with a velocity of 25ms -1. Find the times in second,
when it is 20 metres above the cliff. (take g = 10ms-2) (a) 0 and 1 (b) 0 and 4 (c) 0 and 5 (d) 1 and 4
2
17. Evaluate ∫0 (8x – 4x2)dx (a) -16 (b) -16/3 (c) 16/3 (d) 16
18. Find the coordinates of the point which divides the line joining p (-2,3) and Q (4,9) internally in the ratio 2:3 (a) (5
2/5, 2/5) (b) (2/5, 5 2/5) (c) (2/5, 2 2/5) (d) (-2/5, 5 2/5)
19. The angle subtended by an arc of a circle at the centre is 3 radians. If the radius of the circle is 12cm, calculate the
perimeter of the major sector (a) 4 (6+5π) (b) 4c (6 + 2 π) (c) 4 (3 + 3 π) (d) 4 (3 + 5π)
20. The function f:R R is defined by f (x) 3x +2 : x> 4
3x-2: x = 4
5x -3: x < 4
Find the f(4) – f(-3) (a) 28 (b) 26 (c) -26 (d) -28
21. A committee consists of 5 boys namely : Kofi John, Ojo, Ozo and James and 3 girls namely: Rose, Ugo and Ama.
In how many ways can a sub-committee consisting of 3 boys and 2 girls be chosen, if ozo must be on the sub-
committee (a) 35 (b) 30 (c) 18 (d) 12
80N
50N

22. NOT DRAWN TO SCALE

 Force 50N and 80N act in a body as shown in the diagram find, correct to the nearest whole number, the horizontal
component of the resultant force (a) 13N (b) 43N (c) 57N (d) 95N
23. The sales of five sales girls on a certain day are as follows: GHC26.00, GHC 39.00 GH C 33.00, GNC25 and
GHC37.00. Calculate the standard deviation if the mean sale is GHC 32.00 (a) GHC 5.65 (b) GHC5.66 (c) GHC
6.55 (d) GHC6.56
24. A circular ink blot on a piece of paper increases its area at the rate of 4mm/s. Find the rate of increase of the radius
of the blot when the radius is 8mm ( Take π22/7) (a) 0.25mmls (b) 0.20mmls (c) 0.08mmls (d) 0.05mmls
25. Express x2 + x + 4 in partial fractions (a) x2 + x+4 (b) 3 + 2x+1 (c) x2 + x+4 (d) 3 + 2x + 2
(1-x)(x2+1) x2+1 1-x 1-x x2+1 1-x x2+1 1-x x2 + 1
-1
26. Two bodies of masses 3kg and 5kg moving with velocities 2m 5-1 and vm 5 respectively in opposite direct
collide. If they more together after collision with velocity 3.5 ms-1 in the direction of the 5kg mass find the value
of V (a) 7.8 ms-1 (b) 6.8ms-1 (c) 5.6ms-1 (d) 4.6s-1
27. The equation of a circle is x2 + xy2 – 8x +9y + 15 = 0. Find its radius (a) √5 (b) ½ √15 (c) ½ √85 (d) √85
28. A particle is acted upon by two force 6N and 3N inclined at an angle of 1200 to each other. Find the magnitude of
the resultant force (a) 18 √3 N (b) 27N (c) 24N (d) 3 √3N
29. If s = 3i-j and t = 2i + 3j, find (t +3s) (t-3s) (a) -77 (b) -71 (c) -53 (d) -41
30. If 2 sin2 Ɵ = 1 + cos Ɵ, 00 < Ɵ < 900 find Ɵ (a) 300 (b) 450 (c) 600 (d) 900
31. Find the upper quartile of the following scores : 41, 29, 17. 2, 12 33, 45, 18, 21, 43 and 5 (a) 45 (b) 41 (c) 33 (d)
21
32. Given that P = 3 4 Q = 1 3 R= -5 25
2 x -2 4 -8 26
And PQ = R find the value of x (a) -5 (b) -2 (c) 2 (d) 5
33. Two out of 10 tickets on sale for a raffle-draw are winning tickets. If a guest bought two tickets what is the
probability that both tickets are winning tickets (a) 1/90 (b) 1/45 (c) 1/20 (d) 1/10
34. P and Q are the points (3, 1) and (7,4) respectively. Find the unit vector along PQ (a) 4 (b) 0.6 (c) 0.8
3 0.8 0.6
(d) -0.8
-0.6
35. If g(x) = x+ 1, (x ≠- 2) find g-1 (2) (a) 3 (b) 2 (c) -2 (d) -3
x+2
36. Calculate the mean deviation of 1,2,3,4,5,5,6,7,8,9 (A) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5
37. If V = -2 and U = -1 find /U+ v/ (a) 3 √10 (b) √82 (c) √46 (d)2√5
4 5
38. Find the equation of the straight line that passes through (2, -3) and perpendicular to the line 3x -2y + 4 = 0 (a)
2y – 3x = 0 (b) 3y - 2 x + 5 =0 (c) 3y + 2x + 5 =0 (d) 2y – 3x – 5 = 0
39. If nc3 = 1 find the value of n (a) 8 (b) 7 (c) 6 (d) 5
nP2
40. A body is kept at rest by three forces F1 = (10N, 0300) F2 = (10N, 1500) and F3 find F3 (a) (12N, 0900) (b) (10N,
2700) (c) (10N, 1800) (d) (10N, 1200)
Theory
Section A
1a. If the coefficients of x2 and x3 in the expansion of (p+qx)7 are equal express q in terms of P
b. A man makes a weekly contribution into a fund. In the first week, he paid # 180.00 second week # 260. 00, Third
week # 340.00 and so on. How much would he have contributed in 16 weeks
2. Calculate the gradient of the curve x3 + y3-2xy = 11 at the point (2,-1)
3. A side of a rectangle is three times the other. If the perimeter increases by 2% find the percentage increase in the
area of the rectangle
4. The line 2y = x + 3 meets the circle x2 + y2 – 2x + 6y – 15 = 0 at point M and N where N is the first quadrant. Find
the coordinates of M and N
5. Three school prefect are to be chosen from four girls and five boys. What is the probability that
a. Only boys will be chosen
 b. More girls than boys will be chosen
6. The table shows the distribution of ages of 22 students in a school
Age (years) 12-14 15-17 18-20 21-23 24-26
Frequency 6 10 3 2 1
Using an assumed mean of 19 calculate, correct to three significant figures the
a. Mean age
b. Standard deviation, of the distribution
7. The initial velocity of a particle of mass 0.1kg is 40ms-1 in the direction of the unit j. The velocity of the particle
changed to 30ms-1 in the direction of the unit vector i. Find the change in momentum
8. A stone is dropped vertically downwards from the top of a tower of height 45m with a speed of 20ms-1. Find the:
a. Time it takes to reach the ground
b. Speed with which it hits the ground (Take g = 10ms-2)
Section B Part 1 (Pure Mathematics)
9a. Differentiate x2 + 1 with respect to x
(x+1)2
bi. Revaluate 1 2 -1
2 3 -1
-1 1 3
ii. Using the answer in 9b(i) solve the system of equations
x + 2y –z =4
2x + 3y –z = 2
-x + y + 3z = - 1
10a. Using a scale of 2cm to 300 on the x – axis and 2cm to 0.2 units on the y – axis the same graph sheet, draw the
graphs of y = sin 2x and y = cos x for 00< x < 2100 at intervals of 300
b. Using the graphs in 10(a) find the truth set of: (i) sin 2x = 0 (ii) sin 2x – cos x = 0
11a. The sum of the first three terms of a decreasing expential sequence (GP) is equal to 7 and the product of these
three terms is equal to 8 find the:
i. Common ratio
ii. First three terms of the sequence
b. Using the trapezium rule with ordinates at x = 1,2,3,4, and 5 calculate correct to two decimal places the value
5
of∫1 (x + 2/x2 ) dx
12. Find the maximum and minimum points of the curve y = 2x3- 3x2 – 12x + 4
b. Sketch the curve in 12(a) above
PART II: STATISTICS AND PROBABILITY
13 The table gives the relationship between the height in metres of a plant and the of days it is left to grow
Number of days (x) 10 20 30 40 50 60 70 80
Height (y) 1.0 1.1 1.2 1.4 1.6 1.8 2.0 2.3
a. Using a scale of 2cm to represent 0.5 units on the y- axis and 2cm to represent 10 units on the x axis draw a
scatter diagram, for the information.
b. Find ∓ the mean of x and 𝛾 the mean of y and plot (∓, y ) on the diagram
c. Draw the line of best fit to pass through (∓, y ) and (10,1)
d. From the graph find the:
i. Equation of the line of best fit
ii. Height of plant in 75 days
14a. A bag contains 5 blue , 4 green and 3 yellow balls. All the balls are identical except for colour. Three balls ae
drawn at random without replacement. Find the probability that
i. All three balls have the same colour
ii. Two balls have the same colour
b. The table shows the ranks of the marks scored by 7 candidates in physics and chemistry tests
Physics 6 5 4 3 2 7 1
Chemistry 7 6 2 4 1 5 3
Calculate the spear mans rank correlation coefficient
15a. The probability that a man wins a race is 0.8. in four different races, what is the probability that he wins
i. All wins
ii. No race
iii. At most 3 races
b. A class consists of 5 girls and 10 boys. If a committee of 5 is chosen at random from the class find the probability
that
i. 3 boys are selected
ii. At least one girl is selected
Part III vectors and mechanics
16a. Three vectors a, b and c are 8 6 and 2
3 -5 3
Respectively find the vector d such that /dd = √41 and d is in the direction a+b -2c
b. The coordinates of A and B are (3,4) and (3 , n) respectively if 0 is the origin and A0B = 30 0 find, correct to 2
decimal places, the values of n
17. A particle is under the action of forces P = (4N, 0300) and R = (10N, 3000). Find the force that will keep the
particle in equilibrium
b. A train travelling at 45ms-1 is brought to rest after covering a distance of 1500m. find the
i. Time taken to come to rest
ii. Uniform retardation
18. The displacement S metres of the particles from a fixed point 0 at time t seconds is given by 5 = t2 – 61 + 5
a. On a graph sheet draw a displacement time graph for the interval 0 < + < 6
b. From the graph find the
i. Time at which the velocity is zero
ii. Average velocity over the interval 0 < + < 4
iii. Total distance covered in the interval 0 < + < 5
 CITY OF FAITH COMPREHENSIVE COLLEGE
2017/2018 MOCK EXAMINATION
CLASS: S.S 3 SUBJECT: CRS

1. Let there be light and there was light. This statement reveals Gods (a) graciousness (b) sovereignty (c)
omnipotence (d) omnipresence
2. Joseph’s dream were meant to (a) depicit God’s will (b) reveal Joseph’s future (c) reveal God’s sovereignty
(d)save Egypt from famine
3. Pharaoh’s fear for the growth and might for Israel made him (a) drive the Israelites out of Egypt (b) afflict the
Israelites with heavy burden (c) drown Israelite babies in the Nile (d) punish the Israelite with starvation
4. And he said “cast it on the ground”. The instruction was meant to (a) convince pharaoh to harden his heart (b)
show case God’s mighty power (c) rescue the Jews from bondage (d) change the snake into a rod
5. The discovery of pomegranates and figs Eschol gave the spies sent by Moses (a) strength (b) hope (c)
disappointment (d) four
6. Joshua was chosen to succeed Moses because (a) Moses was very old (b) God had now rejected Moses (c) Moses
asked for a successor (d) God’s spirit was with Joshua’s
7. Deborah was describe as a judge because she ___ (a) predicted the fall of Jabin (b) rescued Israel by killing Sisera
(c) prophesied that a woman Wouk kill Sisera (d) fought to free Israel from Canaanite domination
8. In his preparation for the battle against Sisera, Barak chose his troops from the tribe of (a) Judah and Issachar (b)
Zebulun and Naphtali (c) Dan and Benjamin (d) God and Asher
9. “yet his son did not in his ways but turned aside after gouns” the “son” we a (a) Jonathan and Abinadab (b)
Hophni and Phinehas (c) Joab and Asehel (d) Joel and Abijah
10. David said at Ziph that saul would one day die by one of the following means except (a) being Smitten by God (b)
dying a natural death (c) perishing in a battle (d) taking his own life
11. The people of Jabesh gilead honoured Saul by (a) protecting his family from destruction (b) fighting in the Gilboa
war (c) paying all their tributes regularly (d) giving him a fitting his own life
12. Solomon’s treaty with Hiram king of Tyre was meant to (a) protect Israel when at war (b) build pithan and store
cities (c) help build the temple (d) help establish trade links
13. The religious tension at the time Ahab was as a result of (a) Ahab’s marriage to Jezebel (b) Jezebel’s social
injustice (c) Jezebel’s introduction of baal (d) Elijah’s pronouncement of drought
14. The lord forbid that I should give you the inheritance of my fathers” This statement implies that Israelites (a) do
not donate family property as a gift (b) inherited property cannot be mortgaged (c) do not sell inherited property
(d) forbid land transfer to foreigner
15. Which of the following personalities witnessed the reforms of Josiah (a) Hilkiah (b) Isaiah (c) Ezekiel (d) Ezra
16. Josiah’s reign as king was popular because of his (a) religious reforms (b) victories in battle (c) leadership style
(d) discovery of the books
17. Ahab and Gehazi demonstrated the spirit of (a) apostasy (b) selfishness (c) greed (d) treachery
18. When Nehemiah heard of the poor state of affairs in Judah the immediately (a) left to build Jerusalem (b) became
sad and fasted (c) took up arms to fight (d) mobilized resources for reconstruction
19. King Darius asked men to fear the God of Daniel because he is (a) the living God (b) the most supreme (c)
gracious and Holy (d) a loving God
20. To Amos; Israel expectation of the “day of the Lord” would be a day of (a) happiness (b) punishment (c) rejection
(d) forgiveness
21. Amaziah warned Amos never to prophesy at Bethel again because (a) it was the king’s sanctuary (b) it showed
disrespect to God (c) Israel easily broke the Sabbath laws (d) Amos belonged to the prophetic guild
22. The prophet whose occupation was the dressing of sycamore trees was (a) Ezekiel (b) Hosea (c) Jeremiah (d)
Amos
23. In the teaching of Hosea, Gomer typifies (a) Canaan (b) Israel (c) Judah (d) Assyria
24. To Hosea, Yahweh was a God (a) righteousness and justice (b) love and mercy (c) peace and justice (d) purity
and righteousness
25. The statement “ this is my beloved son, with whom I am well pleased” was heard during Jesus (a) temptation (b)
trial (c) crucifixion (d) baptism
26. “Let it be so now for thus it is fitting for us to fulfill all righteousness”. The righteous act to be fulfilled referred to
Jesus (a) baptism (b) temptation (c) transfiguration (d) crucifixion
27. To be recognized as an economic Messiah, the devil tempted Jesus to (a) accept the riches of the world (b) jump
down from the temple pinnacle (c) bow down and worship him (d) change stones into bread and eat
28. What happened immediately the devil left Jesus after tempting Him? (a) the satanic kingdom was overthrown (b)
the disciples came to strengthen Jesus (c) God rejoiced and elevated Jesus (d) Angles came and ministered to Him
29. Which of the follow themes can be associated with the lord’s prayer (a) love (b) forgiveness (c) humility (d)
commitment
30. The three disciple in whom Jesus frequently confided were (a) Andrew, Peter and Mathew (b) James, Peter and
Thomas (c) Peter, James and John (d) Peter, James and Andrew
31. The resurrection of Jesus Christ from the dead was meant to show his (a) obedience and glory (b) power and love
(c) victory over demons (d) victory over death
32. What Jesus demanded from his disciples in Gethsemane was (a) prayer and fasting (b) vigil and prayer (c) love and
defence (d) love and sympathy
33. The man who was compelled to carry the cross of Jesus was (a) Clopas (b) Barabbas (c) Simon of Cyrene (d)
Joseph of Arimathea
34. Jesus was brought to Golgotha to be crucified “Golgotha” means a place of (a) sacrifice (b) tribution (c) skull (d)
death
35. Jesus offered salvation to one of the robbers crucified with Him because the robber was (a) indfferrent (b)
sympathetic (c) humble (d) repentant
36. The field in which Judas Iscariot was buried was known as (a) Golgotha (b) Akeldama (c) praetorium (d) portico
37. Ananias and Saphira died because of their (a) selfishness (b) slander (c) covetousness (d) dishonesty
38. The problem of discrimination in the early churh was solved by the (a) replacement of Judas Iscariot (b) death of
Ananias and Saphira (c) appointment of deacons (d) defence of Gamaliel
39. Anaians was unwilling to lay hands on Saul because (a) God did not instruct him to do so (b) Saul’s sin had not
been forgiven (c) Saul had opposed the church (d) Ananias was not qualified to do so
40. The people of Lyddas and Sharon turned to the lord when Peter (a) healed Aeneas (b) resurrected Dorcas (c)
invoked spirit on them (d) performed miracles in their midst
41. “why did you go to uncricumised men and eat with them” this question was put to (a) Aeneas in Lydda (b)
Cornelius in Caesarea (c) Peter in Joppa (d) Saul in Tarsus
42. Te outpouring of the Holy spirit was associated with the symbols of (a) cloud and stars (B) wind and fire (c)
sound and dove (d) flame and dove
43. The first apostolic martyr was (a) Judas Iscariot (b) James, the brother of John (c) Simon Peter (d) James, the son
of Alphaeus
44. James said that Abraham, by agreeing to sacrifice, (a) faith (b) truthfulness (c) work (d) loyalty
45. Partiality according to James involved (a) loving one another (b) discriminating among ourselves (c) honouring
the poor (d) speaking the truth
 46. James taught that prayers could answered if Christians pray with (a) an open heart (b) aggression and force (c)
peace and forgiveness (d) trust and humility
47. Peter called on Christians not to retaliate because (a) vengeance belongs to God (b) God fight for the innocent (c)
God made light Jesus’s persecution (d) Jesus patiently bore his persecutions
48. Peter expected elders of the church to lead their flock (a) extraordinarily (b) timelessly (c) selflessly (d) bossily
49. To maintain a high moral standard, peter advised Christians to (a) Marry fellow Christians (b) obtain from social
vice (c) treat people fairly (d) be merciful and kind
50. Peter taught that Christians should use their freedom to (a) perform good deeds (b) seek God’s deliverance ( c)
fight their enemies (d) honour wicked master
Theory
Section A (Answer two questions from this section)
THEMES FROM THE OLD TESTAMENT
1a. Describe how Moses responded to God’s call (12marks)
b. State three reasons why people refuse to accept leadership roles (3marks)
2a. Recount the effect of the behaviour of Eli’s children on Israel as a nation (11marks)
b. What two lessons can be learnt by parent from Eli’ attitude (4marks)
3a. Narrate the circumstances that led to the rejection of Relioboam as a king of Israel (9marks)
b. What three factors can lead to the rejection of a political leader (6 marks)
4a. Relate the story of Hosea’s marriage to Gomer ( 9marks)
b. Mention three factors that ensure a stable marriage (6marks)
Section B ( Answer two question from this section)
THEMES FROM THE SYNOPTIC GOSPELS AND THE ACTS OF THE APOSTLES
5a. Highlight Jesus call of the twelve disciple (11marks)
b. Identify four good qualities of a Christian leader (4marks)
6a. “An a young man followed him with nothing but a linen cloth about his body and they seized him and run away
naked”. Trace the events which led to this incident in the life of Jesus ( 11 marks)
b. Give four reasons why some people forsake their friends (4marks)
7a. Highlight the activities of Peter in Lydda and Jopper (11marks)
b. Identify two ways by which some pastors are hiding behind miracle to cause havoc in the society today (4marks)
Section C
Answer one question from this section
THEMES FROM SELECTED EPISTLES
8a. Explain James advice to Christians to be doers of the word and not hearers only (11marks)
b. State two factors that hinder Christians from doing the will of God (4marks)
9a. Relate Peter’s teaching on submission to authority (8marks)
b. State seven ways a Christian can be a good citizen (2marks)
 CITY OF FAITH COMPREHENSIVE COLLEGE
2017/2018 MOCK EXAMINATION
CLASS: S.S 3 SUBJECT: YORUBA
Akaye kin-in-ni
Ka awon ayoka wonyi, ki o si dahun awon ibeere ti o tele
Ore korikosun ni Tunde ati Tunji. Awon mejeeji wa ni iwe kefa ni ile-eko alakobere. Tunji nura si eko re, o si
jafafa. Tunde a maa fi eko sere.
Tunji feran Tunde, a maa ba a soro ki o foju si eko re ati pe ki o dekun arinkiri lasiko eko.
Sugbon gbogbo iyanju ti Tunji n gba ore re eti ikun ni o ko si
Odo kan wa ni itosi ile-eko won. Tunde maa n lo we lodo yii loorekoore. Tunji ti kilo fun Tunde ko ma se maa lo
we lodo yii mo nitori ki o maa baa ko arun lati inu odo naa sugbon tunde ko gba moran ore re. Aseyinwa aseyinbo o ko
aisan lati inu odo. Eyi fa aare nla si lara. Ko le da to. Tunde ko le lo si ile-eko fun ose kan gbako. Awon omo kilaasi re n
lo kii nile. Nigba ti nnkan fe yiwo, iya Tunde gbe e o di ile-iwosan.
Won da Tunde duro si ile- iwosan fun ose meji. Won n se itoju re pelu Oogun ati abere ki ara re to ya. Asiko ti
Tunde wa ni ile-iwosan ni awon egbe re lo se idanwo asewole si ile-eko girama Tunde ko si le ba won wole si ile-eko
girama nigba to ye. O padanu odun kan.
Dahun awon ibeere wonyi
1. Kilaasi wo ni Tunde ati Tunji wa ni ile-eko alakoobere? (a) keji (b) kerin (c) kefa (d) kejo (e) kewaa
2. Nibo ni Tunde ti ko aisan aileedato? (a) ile-idalesi (b) ile –iyagbe (c) inu- ile (d) inu- odo (e) ori –papa
3. Ose meloo gan-an ni Tunde se lori idubule aisan (a) ose kan (b) ose meji (c) ose meta (d) ose merin (e) ose marun
4. Akole ti o ba ayoka yii mu julo ni (a) Aigboran Tunde ko dara (b) aisan inu odo (c) Eni a wi fun oba je o gbo (d)
itoju Tunde ni ile- iwosan (e) iwe- odo
5. Akoba ti aisan yii fa fun Tunde Julo ni ____ (a) Ailelo si ile-eko alakoobere re fun ose kan (b) irora ajekudorogbo
ti o je ninu idubule aisan (c) pipadanu odun kan ki o to wole si ile-eko girama (d) pipati ti awon omo kilaasi re paa
ti (e) rinrin jinna ti Tunji ore re rin jinna sii
Akaye keji
Ka awon ayoka wonyi ki o si dahun awon ibeere ti o tele won
Ayeye ikekoo jade ti ile-iwe giga ti ilu Ibadan odun yii je ara oto, nitori oju mi gan-an lose.
Odidi ojo merin otooto ni ayeye yii gba ojo akoko ni ti awon oni dipuloma nigba ti akekoo gboye ekeji ati awon
omowe si tele ra won gege bi oye won se ga si.
Ni ojo keta ti ayeye yii bere gan-an ni op soju mi, agogo mesan abo geerege ni eto bere pelu orin ati eje ile wa, ki
o to di asiko yii ni inu gbongan fun eto yii ti kun fofo tobee ti apeleyin ko ri aye wole ninu eyi tie mi naa je okan. Ayewo
iwe oko awon olopaa loju popo, ayewo eniyan ati ti oko awon alaabo inu ogba aimo gbongban ti eto naa yoo ti waye
pelu paban bari sun kerere fa kerere awon oko loju popo lo sokunfa pipe mi yii.
Opolopo awon otokulu lo peju-pese si ibi ayaye naa bi olori orile-ede wa. Awon alokoso ile-ise ijoba, awon
ojogbon awon lobaloba, ijoye ati ogunlogo awon akekoo inu ogba ati ti ile-iwe giga miiran ti o wa ba awon elegbe won se
eye.
Ayeye naa wuni lori nigba ti won bere sip e awon akekoo gboye wonyi lati bo siwaju lati wa gba owo idapo
alakoso ile-iwe giga naa ni okookan. Ohun kan ti bami lokan je die ni ogbeni Aderibigbe ati iyawo re ti won ro dede, ti
won kan dudu. Won joko gbagba siwaju, won si n wo awon akekoo wonyi lokookan pelu ireti pe o fere kan omo ti won
naa sugbon pabo ni ireti won jasi nigba ti eto wa si idanuduro lai ri eni ti o jo ti won
Iyaafin Aderibigbe ni o ko bu gbaga sekun ti oko re naa si fi ariwo Oludele nko bo enu. Awon eniyan sib ere si fi
won se iran wo
Dahun awon ibeere wonyi
6. Bawo ni ogbeni ati iyaafin Aderibigbe se je nibi ayeye yii? (a) Akekoo (b) Obi (c) Oga ile-iwe (d) Oluko (e)
Onworan
7. Ayeye ikekoo gboye ile-eko giga ti ilu Ibadan odun yii je ara oto nitori (a) Aweje-wemu n lo ni pereu (b) awon
otokulu peju-pese (c) ero po pupo (d) ojo merin ni won fi se (e) onkowe wa nibe
8. Awon akekoo gboye wo lo n se ayeye ni ojo keta? Akekoo gboye __ (a) akoko (b) Dipuloma (c) ekeji (d) ojogbon
(e) omowe
 9. Akole wo ni o ba ayoka yii mu julo? (a) ayeye ikekoo gboye ile-eko giga Ibadan iyoka answer no 9 (a) ile-eko giga
Ibadan (c) inawo awon akekoo gboye ile iwe giga Ibadan (d) ogbeni ati iyaa fin Aderibigba (e) owo idapo alakoso
ile-eko giga Ibadan
10. Isori awon wonyi ni o peju-pese si ibi ayeye ikekoo gboye yii ayafi awon ___ (a) alakoso ile-ise-ijoba (b) ijoye (c)
lobaloba (d) ojogbon (e) oloselu
Ibeere 11-13 Aroko
11. Are boolu kan ti o soju mi je aroko __ (a) alalaye (b) isipaya (c) Asapejuwe (d) oniroyin (e) alariiyanjiyan
12. Aroko wo ni o maa n sotun sosi? (a) Aroko Alalaye (b) Aroko Alariiyanjiyan (c) Aroko Asapejuwe (d) Aroko
Asotan (e) Aroko Onileta
13. Inu aroko wo ni eyi ti maa n jeyo? “se alaafia ni awon omo wa” (a) Alalaye (b) Alapejuwe (c) leta alaigbefe (d)
leta gbefe (e) Aroko Oniroyin
Ibeere 14-17 eto-iro
14. Pin oro yii si silebu ede Yoruba yanmuyanmu” (a) yanmu/yanmu (b) yan/mu/yan/mu (c) ya/nmy/ya/nmu (d)
y/an/mu/y/anmu (e) yan/muya/nmu
15. Ereke to di “eke” kin ni ohun ti o sele? (a) Ankoo konsonanti (b) Aranmo (c) Apetunpe-elebe (d) iparoje (e) iyopo
faweli
16. Ewo ni a le toka si ninu awon oro wonyi to fi apeere ilana afojuya han? (a) Baibu (b) Esiteri (c) Loya (d) pita (e)
Tebu
17. Ninu oro yii ‘sa ere’ to di sure . kini ohun ti o sele nibi yii? (a) Ankoo faweli (b) Aranmo (c) Ijeyopo faweli (d)
iparoje (e) iyopo faweli
Tuwo ibeere 18-22 si ede Yoruba
18. The young man spoke bluntly to the elders’ Odomokunrin naa ____ (a) ko ni igboga to lati baa won agba soro (b)
soro Akin niwaju awon agba (c) soro ibinu si awon agba (d) soro ojo niwaju awon agba (e) takusiwaju awon agba
nigba ti o n ba won soro
19. ‘Death turns the child to an orphan (a) iku pa omo naa, o si soo di orukan (b) iku paaro omo pelu omo orukan (c)
iku so omo naa di omo orukan (d) iku ya omo naa ni oruko (e) iku yi omo pada o so di oruko
20. I am completely at sea as regards this matter’ (a) Emi fori mookun gan-an lori oro yii (b) emi ko mo ohun kohun
nipa oro yii (c) gbogbo ara lo wo okun lori oro yii (d) gbogbo ara ni mo ko ti oro yii (e) ko si ohun ti emi ko mo
nipa oro naa
21. ___ ni awon ti o ko ipa kan tabi omiran ninu gbigbe iro ifo jade (a) silebu (b) faweli (c) konsonanti (d) iro-ohun
(e) Eya-ara-ifo
22. A le pin Afipe si orisii ona ____ (a) meta (b) merin (c) mejo (d) meje (e) meji
23. __ ni iro ti a pe, nigba ti idiwo wa fun eemi ni ibikan ni opona ajemohun (a) faweli (b) silebu (c) Aranmo (d)
konsonanti (e) litireso
24. Ti a ba wo giga odidi ohon fun iro- faweli a le ri orisii iro faweli ___ (a) merin (b) marun-un (c) mefa (d) meje (e)
mejo
Girama
25. Ewure naa bi omo meje ‘b’ je oro____ (a) Asopo (b) atokun (c) Eyan (d) ise (e) oruko
26. Ade: ‘Mo ti yo bamubmu’ Afo agbaran gbolohun yii ni Ade ni ___ bamubamu (a) a ti yo (b) mo ti yo (c) o ti yo
(d) oun ti yo (e) won ti yo
27. Oga ile-ise naa tile feran owo pupo: Ewo ni oro-ise ninu gbolohun oke yii (a) Feran (b) ma (c) Naa (d) pupo (e)
Tilr
28. A le pin oro-Ayalo si orisii ona ______ (a) merin (b) mefa (c) meji (d) meje (e) mewaa
29. ___ je isori girama oro-ise ti o n toka bi ibasepo ti o wa laarin isele ti a n toka si tabi igba ti an safo (a) iba-isele (b)
Asiko (c) Aranmo (d) silebu (e) konsonanti
30. A le pin ibai-isele si orisii ona ____ (a) meji (b) meta (c) mefa (d) meje (e) mewaa
ASA
31. Okan lara ojuse obi ni ____ (a) lilo omo ni ilokulo (b) gbigbe oja le omo lori (c) fifi omo sofa (d) Titoju omo
lasiko (e) lilu omo ni gbogbo igba
32. Irufe gbolohun ti o maa n niju eyo-oro-ise kan lo ti o si maa n je ju ise kan lo ti o si maa n je ju ise kan lo ni a le
pe ni gbolohun ___ (a) gbolohun onibo (b) gbolohun Abode (c) gbolohun Ibeere (d) gbolohun Ase\
 33. Irufe gbolohun ti a maa n lo lati kan gbolohun meji tabi ju be lo papo ni gbolohun -__ (a) Alalaye (b) Alakanpo
(c) Ase (d) Ijohen (e) Ayisodi
34. Okan lara ori-oro ti o le jamo Aroko Ajemo- Isipaya ni ___ (a) omi (b) Bi mo se lo isinmi ti o koja (c) omo dara
ju owo lo (d) ile-iwe-mi (e) Egbon mi tooto
35. Ki Olu to de Ibadan, ile ti su. Iru gbolohun wo ni “Ki olu to de Ibadan”? Gbolohun___ (a) Abode (b) Afarahe (c)
olopo-oro-ise (d) olori gbolohun (e) Oniponna
36. Ewo ni kii se oro-aropo afarajoruko ninu awon wonyi (a) Awa (b) Emi (c) Eyin (d) iwo (e) o
37. Omo mejo lo yeye idanwo naa. Eyan inu gbolohun oke yii ni ___ (a) idanwo (b) lo (c) mejo (d) omo (e) yeye
38. Toka si oro –oruko abo ninu gbolohun isale yii “ Oladele ojo ni o n ta isu Ewura ni oja” (a) Ewura (b) isu-Ewura
(c) ni (d) ojo (e) Oladele ojo
39. Nigba ti Sola gbe eru de ile o ji eran je’ oro-ise meloo ni o wa ninu gbolohun oke yii (a) Eyokan (b) meji (c) meta
(d) merin (e) marun-un
40. Adeolu maa lo si Ibadan ni ola ‘maa’ je atoka isele___ (a) Asetan (b) Baraku (c) Ipari (d) oja-iwaju (e) Adawa
Litireso Alohun:- Akojopo Aalo Apagbe-Igbin at ijapa
41. Taani o pa Abuke Osin? (a) ode (b) Ara-Ilu (c) Igbin (d) ijapa (e) Oba
42. Ki ni nnkan ti Oba so pe oun yoo e fun eni ti o pa Abuke oun (a) da ile ati ona si meji (b) pa eni naa (c) fun eni naa
ni ise (d) ko ile fun eni naa (e) fun eni naa ni owo
43. ____ ni eni ti o na oba mu eni ti o pa Abuke re? (a) Igbin (b) kiniun (c) Asin (d) Eye (e) Ekun
Ere- Onise:- Ajuwon B;- iremoje Ere-isipa ode
44. Awon ode ka iremoje si orin ti a ____ (a) ki n ba oku orun soro (b) fi n se ariya nibi inawo Agba (c) maa n ko
nigba isoro ode (d) maa n ko fun Arugbo (e) maa n ko nibi isile
45. Akoko wo ni awon omo ti ode fi saye lo to le ni ifokanbale (a) Ti won ba ti da Oogun oku nu (b) ti won ba n ki
oriki baba naa (c) Ti won ba ti se oro Isipa (d) Ti won ba ti sin oku baba won
46. “Alarere, ko parere
Alarere parere
B ojoo ba n ro eye oko ii ke …….”
Ki ni oniremoje yii n so pato? (a) o n juba (b) o n pofo (c) o fe ki awon eniyan fati sile (d) o n se apejuwe awon eye (e) o
n se apejuwe orin
Litireso Apileko:- Ajewole o Igbeyinlayon ta
47. Awon wo lo wa ise lo si Ibadan? (a) Alonge ati obi (b) sogo-olu ati ejire (c) Oludele ati Aborode (d0 Ejire ati
Obisesan (e) sangodiran ati Alonge
48. Ibo ni Alonge ati awon ore re ti kuro? (a) Aarin-ilu (b) inu-igbo (c) ile-iwe (d) odo Baba ode (e) inu oja
49. Iru ise wo ni Baba obisesan n se nigba aye re? (a) ode (b) Babalawo (c) ise pako tita (d) Agbe (e) Ahunso
Ewi- Olusola fadiya;- iya Atata
50. Ohun ti akewi ni o le mu ki alaafia joba ni idile ni ____ (a) se aabo ilu to peye (b) bi omo ti o po (c) fopin si iwa
idigunjale (d) fowo-sowopo se aato (e) se ito ile
51. Awon ti akewi pe ni ipile idile otun ni awon____ (a) Omo (b) obinrin (c) okunrin (d) molebi (e) oselu
52. Ninu ewi “Agan dake” ta ni akewi fi se apeere ganniganni? (a) Hanna (b) penina (c) Isiaka (d) saa ra
Ere-onitan:- Aderibigbe m “Oro mi”
53. Ibo ni ilu won obi Sola? (a) ikirun (b) ijabe (c) Oyo (d) Ilorin (e) Abeokuta
54. Omo meloo ni iya Femi bi? (a) meji (b) meta (c) Eyokan (d) mefa (e) merin
Asa
55. Ewo ni a fi n se Adura emi gigun? (a) Ataare (b) Eja (c) Orogbo (d) Epo (e) Ireke
56. Ewo ni ki se ounje ibile Yoruba? (a) Amala (b) Gaari (c) Ogede (d) Kulikului (e) Ibepe
57. Igere je irinse fun awon ____ (a) ahunso (b) Awako (c) Agbe (d) Apeja (e) Onidiri
58. Osu meloo ni obinrin fi se opo nile Yoruba? (a) meji (b) meta (c) marun-un (d) mefa (e) mewaa
59. Gbogbo awon wonyi ni aso okunrin ni ile Yoruba ayafi ____ (a) dandogo (b) dansiki (c) gbariye (d) oyala (e)=
sikeeti
60. A le pin iro faweli si ona ___ (a) meji (b) meta (c) merin (d) marun (e) mefa
Ipin Keji
Ede litireso ati Asa
Dahun ibeere mefa lapapo: meta lati ipin A meji lati ipin B okan lati ipin D
Ipin A
Ede
Dahun ibeere meta pere ninu ipin yii (Aroko)
Ko aroko ti ko din ni 300 eyo-oro lori ori-oro kan soso ti o ba yan. Mase lo ju iseju marun-undinlaaadota
a. Idije obinrin ti o rewa ju lo ni ile eko mi
b. Ile eko
c. Igi Agbon
d. Ko leta si obi re lati so awon ohun to n fa ikuna akekoo ninu idanwo
ETO IRO
Dahun ibeere kan soso nihin-in
2a Ya ate iro faweli airanmupe Ede Yoruba
b. Fi apeere oro mejimeji ti o n itumo ti iro faweli airanmupe .kookan ti je yo han
3a Se alaye Aranmo
b. Salaye ijeyo okookan irufe aranmo wonyi nionu iseda oro:
i. Aranmo o waju
ii. Aranmo eyin
iii. Aranmo Alaiforo
iv. Aranmo Aforo
Girama: dahun ibeere kan soso nihin –in
4a. Se alaye Mofiimu
b. Pin okookan awon oro wonyi si Mofiimu
i. Idaro
ii. Omuti
iii. Ilegbe
iv. Olopo
v. Eranko
5. Toka si oro- aponle= ati oro apejuwe ti o wa ninu okookan awon gbolohun wonyi; ki o si so ise ti okookan se nibe
a. Aja dudu sun fonfen
b. Eja dindin wu mii je
c. Ara Baba rere fa die
d. Awon soja kekere. Kile kuu
IPIN B
Dahun ibeere meji pere ninu ipin yii
Litireso Alohun
Dahun ibeere kan soso nihin-in
Itan Aroso
6. AmooA: Akojopo Aalo Apagbe
Ninu itan “Awon orogun meji”, salaye bi iwa ainitelorun se seku pa iyaale
7. Salaye ohun ti iremoje je
Dahun ibeere kan nibi
Litireso Apileko
8. Ajewole O: Igbeyin lalayo n’ ta
Se alaye ona ti tito ji Ejire ati obisesan fe gba se akoba fun won ni oko elerukan-ibon
9. Se alaye ohun ti o fa akoba fun Aseke ninu ewi gholohun “Eje-orun
Ere-Onitan
10. Se alaye ohun ti o fa ilara kunbi lori Femi
Ipin D
Dahun ibeere kan soso nibi yii
11. Jiroro lori idana ninu eto-igbeyawo ibile laarin awon Yoruba
12. Salaye lori iwonyi gege bi ona iran-ara-eni lowo
a. Aaro
b. Ebese