Professional Documents
Culture Documents
2. To what temperature must a neon gas be heated to double its pressure if the initial
volume of gas at 75C is decreased by 15%?
a. 592 K
b. 104 C
c. 148 C
d. 299 K
1
6. A sample of polystyrene prepared by heating styrene with tribromobenzoyl
peroxide in the absence of air has the formula Br3C6H3(C8H8)n where n varies with
the preparation. If a certain sample of polystyrene is found to contain 20.01% Br,
what is the value of n?
a. 8
b. 10
c. 20
d. 15
8. For the reaction 3A(g) + 3B(g) 2C(s) + 3D(g), the equilibrium concentration
are 0.3M A, 0.5M B, 0.2M C, 0.5M D. Find the equilibrium constant.
a. 37.04
b. 0.74
c. 12.3
d. 0.075
2
a. Inhibited
b. Modulator
c. Allosteric
d. Zymogen
14. How many additional chemicals were added last May 2009 to the original list of
POP’s prohibited by the Stockholm Convention?
a. 10
b. 9
c. 5
d. 12
15. What mass in grams of NaC2H3O2 must be dissolved with 500ml of 0.100M acetic
acid to make 2L of buffer solution of pH 5? Ka=1.8x10-5
a. 2.28g
b. 7.19g
c. 7.38g
d. 2.12g
16. What is the pH of the resulting solution made by making 5ml of 0.2178M HCl and
15ml of 0.1156M NH3? KNH3=1.8x10-5
a. 9.49
b. 9.90
c. 9.02
d. 12.74
3
17. Baker’s yeast is to be grown in a continuous fermentation system using a fermenter
volume of 20m3 in which the flow residence time is 16h. A 2% inoculum
containing 1.2% of yeast cells is included in the growth medium. This is then passed
to the fermenter in which the yeast grows with a steady doubling time of 2.9h. The
broth leaving the fermenter then passes to a continuous centrifuge which produces
a yeast cream containing 7% yeast, 97% of the total yeast in the broth. Calculate
the rate of flow of the yeast cream.
a. 1235 kg/hr
b. 2639 kg/hr
c. 1114 kg/hr
d. 315.67 kg/hr
19. Calculate the molarity of NaOH solution if 18.25 ml was used to titrate 0.4815 gram
of primary standard KHP.
a. 0.18
b. 0.13
c. 0.26
d. 0.16
20. How many alpha amino acids commonly make up the different proteins found in
humans?
a. 4
b. 32
c. 20
d. Millions
4
22. Calculate the pH of a solution made by dissolving 1.87g of sodium caproate
(NaC6H11O2) in water and diluting to a total volume of 500 ml. For the caproate
ion, Kb-7.58x10-10
a. 5.344
b. 5.494
c. 8.505
d. 8.656
26. What is the IUPAC name for the molecule having a methyl group attached to an 8-
carbon alkane ring?
a. Cyclooctanol
b. Methylcyclooctane
c. Cyclooctane
d. Boric acid
27. Which of the following best explains the relative stabilities of the eclipsed and
staggered forms of ethane? The ____ form has the most _____ strain.
a. Eclipsed; steric
b. Eclipsed; torsional
c. Staggered; steric
d. Staggered; torsional
5
28. Which of the following is the strongest interaction?
a. A covalent bond
b. Induced dipole-induced dipole interactions
c. Dipole-dipole interactions
d. Hydrogen bonding
e. Van der waals
29. A sample containing Na2CO3, NaOH and inert matter weighs 1.179g. It is titrated
with 0.2239M HCl with phenolphthalein as the indicator, and the solution became
colorless after the addition of 46.25 ml. Methyl orange is then added and 12.85 ml
more of the acid is needed for the color change. What is the percentage of Na 2CO3
in the sample?
a. 24.89%
b. 64.95%
c. 76.12%
d. 25.87%
30. Histamine, an organic nitrogenous compound which can cause allergic rhinitis can
be produced in our body through the decarboxylation of the amino acid histamine.
Given that 18mM of the decarboxylase is used and 5mM of histidine forms.
Calculate the Michaelis-Menten constant if the reaction velocity and the TON are
6mM/s and 37/s respectively.
a. 0.330 M
b. 0.440 M
c. 0.550 M
d. 0.660 M
6
PRETEST- CHEMICAL ENGINEERING
2. Cold air at 10 degF is forced to flow over a fluid plate maintained at 40 deg C. the
mean heat transfer coefficient is 30 W/m2-K. Find the heat flow rate from the plate
to the air through a plate area of 2m2. Assume radiation is negligible.
a. 1.8kW b. 2.0kW c. 2.2kW d. 2.4kW
3. The weight rate of flow of fluid stream per unit of cross section perpendicular to the
direction of flow is the
a. Mean linear velocity c. Velocity Head
b. Acoustic velocity d. Mean mass velocity of the stream
4. In a reciprocating pump, the ratio of the quantity of liquid actually pumped to that
which corresponds to the piston displacement is called
a. Hydraulic efficiency c. Volumetric efficiency
b. Mechanical efficiency d. Suction lift
Dry gas containing 75% air and 25% ammonia vapor enters the bottom of a
cylindrical packed absorption tower that is 2 ft in diameter. Nozzles in the top of the
tower distribute water over the packing. A solution of ammonia in water is drawn
from the bottom of the column, and the scrubbed gas leaves the top. The gas enters
at 80 deg F and 760 mmHg pressure. It leaves at 60 deg F and 730mm. The leaving
gas contains, on a dry basis, 1.0 percent ammonia.
5. If the entering gas flows through the empty bottom of the column at an average
velocity (upward) of 1.5 ft/s, how many cubic feet of entering gas are treated per
hour?
a. 400 b. 300 c. 200 d. 100
7. Solve for the diffusivity of the following material using diffusivity formula: Argon
in N2 at 1 atm and 20 oC.
a. 0.4542 cm2/s b. 0.1935 cm2/s c. 0.2435 cm2/s d.0.7456 cm2/s
7
8. A furnace wall is constructed of firebrick 6 in thick. The temperature of the inside of
the wall is 977K, and the temperature of the outside wall is 175 oF. If the mean
thermal conductivity under these conditions is 0.17 BTU/h-ft-oF. What is the rate of
heat loss through 1m 2 of wall surface? Express your answer in BTU/hr.
a. 2624.34 b. 1324.65 c. 4112.77 d.3312.12
10. The ratio of moles of a reactant converted into the desired product to that converted
into unwanted product is called
a. operational yield b. selectivity
c. relative yield d. none of the above
12. All of the following biogeochemical cycles involve the atmosphere as either sink
or reservoir except
a. Water b. Carbon c. Nitrogen d. Phosporus
13. At 378.5oC the half-life for the first-order decomposition of ethylene oxide is 363
minutes, and E = 52,000 cal/mole. If the temperature is increased to 450 oC, find the
time for ethylene oxide to be 75% decomposed.
a. 13.8 min. b. 23.1 min. c. 37.2 min. d. 45.8 min.
14. A certain substance A is mixed with equal amount of B and C. After 10 minutes,
half of A has reacted. What will be the conversion after 20 minutes if the reaction is
second-order with respect to A?
a. 25% b. 33% c. 67% d. 75%
15. The moisture content of a solid is given as 50% wet basis. What is the moisture
content, dry basis?
a. 0.5 b. 1 c. 2 d. 50
16. A furnace is fired with coal containing 6% moisture, 18% VCM, 67% FC and 9%
ash. The refuse analysis shows 5% VCM, 23% FC and 62% ash. The higher heating
8
value of the coal as fired is 14,300 Btu/lb. Calculate the percentage of the heating
value of the coal that is lost in the refuse. Assume that the moisture in the refuse is
due to the ‘wetting down’ go prevent dusting and not moisture from the original
coal.
a. 4.68% b. 7.02% c. 9.36% d. 15.0%
For. Nos. 18-19. A solution composed 50% ethanol, 10% methanol and 40% water
is fed at the rate of 100 kg/hr into a separator that produces one stream at the rate of
60 kg/hr with the composition of 80% ethanol, 15% methanol & 5% water, and a
second stream of unknown composition.
18. The mass flow rate of the second unknown stream in kg/hr is
a. 60 b. 40 c. 20 d. 50
20. You are asked what size of containers to use 1,000 lbs of cottonseed oil (SG =
0.926). What would be the minimum size of drum expressed in gallons?
a. 129.5 b. 254.2 c. 103.9 d. 85.6
21. A pure formic acid at 30oC flowing at 0.015 m3/s is pumped through a 75 mm
horizontal pipe 38 m long. The roughness of the pipe is 6x10-5m. What will be the
pressure drop in pipe?
a. 71 kPa b. 35 kPa c. 21 kPa d. 42 kPa
22. The venture meter is to be installed in a schedule 40-4in (ID=4.026 in) line to
measure the flowrate of water. The maximum flowrate is expected to be 325gpm at
60oF. The 50-in manometer is used to measure the differential pressure is to be filled
with mercury and water is to fill the leads above the mercury surfaces. The water
temperature is to be 60oF throughout. What throat diameter should be specified for
the venture meter?
a. 4.2 in b. 1.5 in c. 2 in d. 1.8 in
9
24. The function of manholes provided in the shell of a distillation column is to
a. keep a check on the liquid gradient over the plate by direct visual observation.
b. give access to the individual trays for cleaning, maintenance and installation.
c. guard against foaming & entrainment by dumping antifoaming agent through it.
d. all (a), (b) and (c).
25. Of the pressure vessels, with same thickness but different diameters, which one
withstands higher pressure?
a. Larger dia vessel. c. Larger dia long vessel.
b. Smaller dia vessel. d. Strength of the vessel is same irrespective
of the diameter.
26. In a laminar fluid flow, the average velocity is _____ of the maximum velocity.
a. one-half b. one-fourth c. twice d. four times
29. 1000 cfm of air at 95oF dry bulb and 70oF wet bulb is mixed with 2000 cfm of air
at 65oF dry bulb and 50oF wet bulb. What is the dry bulb temperature of the mixed
stream?
a. 80degF b. 78degF c. 75degF d. 63degF
30. A first order reaction with respect to a takes place in a PFR. If equal moles of B &
C are mixed with A and allowed to react for 1.5hr after which time half of A had
been consumed, how much of A is left unreacted after 3hrs?
a.18% b. 13% c. 35% d. 25%
10
32. Solubility of a substance which dissolves with an increase in volume and liberation
of heat will be favoured by the
a. low pressure and high temperature. b. low pressure and low temperature.
c. high pressure and low temperature. d.high pressure and high temperature.
For #s 33-34. The analysis of flue gas from a fuel gas containing no nitrogen is
4.62% CO2, 3.08% CO, 8.91% O2, and 83.39% N2.
33. Moles of water (H2O) formed
a. 7.04 moles b. 14.08 moles c. 15.07 moles d. 22.11 moles
34. Moles of air supplied per 100 moles of dry flue gas
a. 1.055 b. 1.087 c. 1.124 d. 1.148
35. Which of the following increases the degree of separation process between that of
a more volatile component and less volatile component through distillation?
a. increasing the feed temperature b. increasing the column pressure
c. increasing the boiler temperature d. decreasing the column pressure
36. A counter – current extraction column is designed to removed 99% of solute C from
a solution of solvent A and solute C using pure solvent B. The initial concentration
of solute in the solution of A + C is 20 wt%, and the total flow of solution is 1000
kg/hr. If the equilibrium relationship is Y = 2X, where Y = mass of C/mass of A &
X = mass of C/mass of B.
a. 1454 b. 1584 c. 1676 d. 1874
37. Design a multiple-contact extraction system to treat 1.25 tones (2500 lb) per hour
of dry black ash, containing 40% Na2CO3 remains unextracted, calculate the number
of ideal stages by the absorption factor method. Note: The mass ratio of insoluble
matter to solvent in the underflow from the stage is 1:2.
a. 2 b. 1 c. 4 d. 3
38. Particles of quartz having a diameter of 0.127mm and a sg of 2.65 are setting in
water at 293.2 K. At this temp., the viscosity and density of water are 1.005x10^-3
Pa and 998 kg/m3 respectively. The volume fraction of the particles in the slurry
mixture of quartz and water is 0.25 the. hindered settling velocity is
a. 0.285 m/s b. 8.52x10^-2 m/s c. 2.74X10^-3 m/s d. 2.85x10^-6
m/s
11
39. A batch centrifugal filler has a bowl height b = 0.457 m and r 2 = 0.381 m and
operates a 33.33 rev/s at 25oC.Thefiltrate is essentially water. At a given time in the
cycle the slurry and cake formed have the following properties: Cs =60 kg solids/m 3,
filtrate, 𝜀 = 0.8, Pp = 2002 kg solid/m3, cake thickness = 0.152 m, ∝ = 6.38 x 1010
m/kg, Rm = 8.53 x 1014/m, r1 = 0.2032 m. The rate of filtrate flow is
a. 6.11 x 10-4m3/s b. 5.55 x 10-4m3/s c. 3.11 x 10-4m3/s d. 7 x 10-4m3/s
40. A straight line is obtained if the boiling point of a solution is plotted against the
boiling point of pure water at the same pressure for a given concentration at different
pressures. This empirical law is known as
a. BPR law b. Duhring’s Rule c. Colligative Law d. All of the
above
12
PRETEST- GENERAL ENGINEERING
2. The sides of a triangle have a total length of 100 inches. The angles are in the
continued proportion 1:2:4. Find the side opposite the smallest triangle.
A. 20.80 in B. 35.69 in C. 19.80 in D. 17.21 in
3. One of the most popular arithmetic books of all time (The Scholar’s Guide to
Arithmetic by Bonniecastle, 6th edition 1795) contains the exercise. If a cardinal
can pray a soul in purgatory, by himself, in an hour, a bishop in three hours, a priest
in five and a friar in seven, how long will it take then to pray out three souls from
purgatory, all praying together? Which of these is nearest to the expected answer?
A. 1 h 41.5 min B. 1 h 46 min C. 1 h 47.5 min D. an eternity
4. There is 30% chance to rain today. If it does not rain today, there is a 20% chance
of rain tomorrow. If it rains today, there is a 50% chance of rain tomorrow. What
is the probability that it rains tomorrow?
A. 0.27 B. 0.28 C. 0.29 D. 0.26
5. A road run 1200 m from A to B and then makes a right triangle going to C, a
distance of 500 m. A new road is being built directly from A to C. How much
shorter will the new road be?
A. 600 m B.400 m C. 500 m D. 300 m
6. A dam was constructed for P 200,000. The annual maintenance cost P 5000. If
interest is 5% the capitalized cost of the dam, including depreciation is
A. P100,000 B. 215,000 C. 250,000 D. P300,000
7. An investment of x pesos is made at the end of each year for three years, at an
interest rate of 9% per year compounded annually. What will the peso value of the
total investment be upon the deposit of the third payment?
A. 0.772x B. 1.295x C. 2.27x D. 3.278x
8. A store gives discount at less 26%/ less 5% of its tag price of a certain item. The
store wants to increase its discounted sales price by decreasing the discount to less
20 %/ less 5%. What is the effective increase in the discounted sales price?
A. 8.1% B. 5.7% C. 12.2% D. 15.5%
9. A train, an hour after starting, meets with an accident which detains it an hour, after
which it proceeds at 3/5 of its former rate and arrives three hour after time; but had
the accident happened 50 miles farther on the line it would have arrived one and
one-half hour sooner. Find the length of the journey.
A. 910/9 miles B. 800/9 miles C. 920/9 miles D. 850/9 miles
13
10. Japee left his home at past 3 o’clock PM as indicated in his wall clock, between 2-
3 hours after, Japee returns home and noticed that hands of the clock interchanged.
At what time did Japee leave his home?
A. 3:31.47 B. 3:21.45 C. 3:46.10 D.3:36.50
11. From the time 6:15 PM to the time 7:45 PM of the same day, the minute hand of a
standard clock describes an arc of?
A. 60o B. 90o C. 180o D.540o
12. A rubber ball is made to fall from a height of 50 feet and is observed to rebound
2/3 of the distance it falls. How far will the ball travel before coming to rest if the
ball continues to fall in this manner?
A. 200 feet B. 225 feet C. 250 feet D. 275 feet
13. An express train goes past a station platform at high speed. A person standing the
edge of the platform tends to be
A. Attracted to the train
B. Repelled from the train
C. Attracted or repelled; depending on the ratio between the speed of the train and
the speed of sound
D. Unaffected by the train’s passage
14. A company which manufactures electric motors has a production capacity of 200
motors a month. The variable cost are 150.00 per motor. The average selling price
of motors is P275.00. Fixed costs of the company amount to P 20,000 per month
which includes taxes. The number of motors that must be sold each month to break
even is closest to:
A. 40 B. 150 C. 80 D. 160
15. A diagonal of a parallelogram is 56.38 ft long and makes an angle of 27 o 13’ and
16o 24’ respectively with the sides. Find the area of the parallelogram.
A. 595 ft2 B. 585 ft2 C. 575 ft2 D. 565 ft2
16. If the diameter of a sphere is increased by 40 percent, by what percent is the volume
increased?
A. 144.7% B. 147.4% C.177.4% D. 174.4%
17. The sequence of numbers 1,8,27,64… is called
A. square numbers B. pentagonal numbers C. oblong numbers D. cubic
numbers
18. If (0, 4) and (1, 6) are critical points of y=a+bx+cx3, find the value of c.
A. 1 B. 2 C. -1 D. -2
14
C. Its mass decreases
D. Its weight decreases
20. When a horse pulls a wagon, the force that causes the horse to move forward is the
force
A. He exerts on the wagon
B. He exerts on the ground
C. The wagon exerts on him
D. The ground exerts on him
21. The action and reaction forces referred to in Newton’s third law of motion
A. Act on the same object
B. Act on different object
C. Need not be equal in magnitude and need not have the same line of action
D. Must be equal in magnitude but need not have the same line of action
24. What is the height of the parabolic arch which has a span of 48 feet and having a
height of 20 feet at a distance from the center of the span?
A. 30 ft B. 40 ft C. 36 ft
D. 34 ft
25. A circle whose center is at (6, 8) passes through the origin. Which of the following
points is not on the circle?
A. (12, 0) B. (6, -2) C. (16, 8) D. (-2, 8)
27. How far does an automobile move while its speed increases uniformly from 15kph
to 45kph in 20 seconds?
A. 167 m
B. 185 m
C. 190 m
D. 200 m
15
28. At time t=0 a car has a velocity of 16 m/s. It slows down with an acceleration given
by -0.50t, in m/s2 for t in seconds. It stops at t=__
A. 64 s B. 32 s C. 16 s D. 8.0 s
29. An object is thrown straight up from ground level with a speed of 50 m/s. If g = 10
m/s2 its distance above ground level 1.0 s later is:
A. 40 m B. 45 m C. 50 m D. 55 m
16
ANSWER KEY:
PCP ChE GE
1. B 1. D 1. D
2. A 2. A 2. C
3. D 3. D 3. C
4. D 4. C 4. C
5. C 5. A 5. B
6. A 6. D 6. D
7. B 7. B 7. D
8. A 8. C 8. A
9. B 9. B 9. B
10. D 10. C 10. A
11. C 11. D 11. D
12. B 12. D 12. C
13. B 13. A 13. A
14. B 14. B. 14. D
15. C 15. B 15. A
16. C 16. A 16. D
17. A 17. A 17. D
18. B 18. B 18. C
19. B 19. A 19. D
20. C 20. A 20. D
21. C 21. A 21. B
22. D 22. B 22. C
23. C 23. A 23. D
24. B 24. B 24. C
25. C 25. B 25. D
26. B 26. A 26. D
27. B 27. A 27. A
28. A 28. A 28. D
29. D 29. C 29. B
30. C 30. D 30. C
31. D
32. B
33. B
34. A
35. D
36. B
37. A
38. C
39. B
40. B
17
18
GENERAL CHEMISTRY
3. What is the orbital angular momentum quantum number, l, of the electron that is
most easily removed when ground-state aluminum is ionized?
a. 3 b. 2
c. 1 d. 0
9. 0.1 M aqueous solutions of each of the following, which solution has the lowest
pH?
a. Na2CO3 b. Na3PO4
c. Na2S d. NaCl
19
10. How many protons (p), neutrons (n) and electrons (e) are there, respectively, in
an atom of the chlorine-39 isotope? Atomic number of Cl=17
a.17 p, 17 n, 22 e b. 22 p, 17 n, 17 e
c. 17 p, 39 n, 17 e d.17 p, 22 n, 17 e
13. 0.100 M solution of a weak monoprotic acid HX is 3.5% ionized. What is the pH
of a 0.500 M solution of HX?
a. 0.30 b. 1.76
c. 2.10 d. 2.46
16. A system expands in volume from 2.0L to 24.5L at constant temperature. Calculate
the work (w), in kJ, if the expansion occurs against a constant pressure of 5.00 atm.
a. -11.4 kJ b. 11.4 kJ
c. -4.14 kJ d.-1.14 kJ
17. Which of the following diatomic molecule has the longest bond length?
a.N2 b. Cl2
c. O2 d. I2
20
19. For the following molecule, what is the hybridization for
each carbon?
a. sp c. sp4
2
b. sp d. sp3
20. Consider the molecular substances I2, H2O, and C8H18. Which of them is/are
soluble in CCl4?
a. only I2 b. only H2O
c. only C8H18 d. I2 and C8H18
e. H2O and C8H18
21. Which change will increase the number of moles of PCl 5(g) present at equilibrium?
PCl3(g) + Cl2(g) → PCl5(g) + heat
a. The volume of the reaction is tripled c. Some of the Cl 2(g) is removed
b. The reaction vessel is cooled d. Krypton gas is added to the reaction vessel
22. A gaseous compound is composed of 85.7% C and 14.3%H. Its density is 2.28 g/L
at 300K and 1.00 atm pressure. Determine the molecular formula of the compound.
C=12.01, H=1.01
a. C2H4 b. C3H6
c. C4H8 d. C5H10
24. A current of 15.0 A is passed through a solution of CrCl 2 for 45 min. How many
gram of Cr is deposited on the cathode? Cr=52.00, Cl=35.45
a. 9.10 g Cr b. 11.9 g Cr
c. 10.9 g Cr d. 8.9 g Cr
25. A 1.500 g sample of a compound containing only C,H, and O was burned
completely. The only combustion products were 1.738 g CO 2 and 0.711 g H2O.
What is the empirical formula of the compound? C=12.01, H=1.01, O=15.99
a. C2H4O3 b. C2H3O2
c. C3H4O2 d. C3H4O3
26. A certain public water supply contained 0.10 ppb (parts per billion) of chloroform,
CHCl3. How many molecules of CHCl3 would be contained in a 0.050 mL drop of
this water? C=12.01, H=1.01, O=15.99
a. 5.2 x10-10 molecules b. 3.5 x1010 molecules
-10
c. 2.5 x10 molecules d. 2.5 x1010 molecules
21
27. According to EPA guidelines the permissible level for lead in drinking water is 15
parts per billion (ppb). What is the maximum allowable mass of lead that could be
present in 1.00 L of H2O?
a. 0.015 ng b. 0.015mg
c. 0.015µg d. 0.015g
28. According to the Tyndall effect, a beam of light becomes visible when passed
through all of the following except a/an
a. aerosol b. emulsion
c. colloid d. solution
30. The rate constant of a first-order reaction is 3.68 x10-2s-1 at 150 oC, and the
activation energy is 71 kJ/mol. What is the value of the rate constant at 170 oC?
a. 9.2 x10-2s-1 b. 3.7 x10-2s-1
c. 2.49 s-1 d. 4.0 x10-2s-1
22
ANSWER KEY
General Chemistry
1) B. 0.193 M
2) B. 2
3) C.1
4) A. CH3CH2COOH
5) E. S-2
6) D.Volume
7) A. Cl
8) C. 36.1% Ca and 63.9% Cl
9) D. NaCl
10) D.17 p, 22 n, 17 e
11) B. H3O+ / H2O
12) D. The total entropy of the system plus the surrounding increases
13) C. 2.10
14) D. Zn2+
15) A. -3
16) A. -11.4 kJ
17) D. I2
18) A. 6
19) D. sp3
20) D. I2 and C8H18
21) B. The reaction vessel is cooled
22) C. C4H8
23) A. 4.36 M
24) C. 10.9 g Cr
25) A. C2H4O3
26) D. 2.5 x1010 molecules
27) B. 0.015 mg
28) B. emulsion
29) B. Vapor pressure
30) A. 9.2 x 10-2 s-1
23
SOLUTIONS
Solution
HX → H + X
i 0.10 0 0
c 3.5x10-3 3.5x10 3.5x10-3
-3
HX → H + X
i 0.50 0 0
c x x x
e 0.50-x x x
[H][X]
K=
[HX]
(𝑥)2
1.2694 x10-4 = 0.5−𝑥
24
X= 8.0306 x 10-3 = [H]
pH= -log [H] =-log(8.0306 x 10-3)
pH = 2.10
Solution
W= - PdV
W = -5 atm ( 24.5 – 2.0) L
101.3 J 1kJ
=-112.5(L−atm)(1000 J)
W = -11.4 kJ
Solution:
PM ρRT
ρ= ; M=
RT P
g L−atm
2.2 (0.08206 )(300K)
l mol−K
Mw = 1 atm
MW of C
% C = Mw compound ( X mol C) x 100%
12.01𝑔
𝑚𝑜𝑙
85.7% = 𝑔 (X mol of C) (100)
56.1290
𝑚𝑜𝑙
X = 4.005 mole Carbon
MW of H
% H = Mw compound ( Y mol H) x 100%
1.01g
mol
14.3% = g (Y mol of H) (100)
56.1290
mol
Y= 7.95 mole Hydrogen
25
23. Given: 35.0 % HClO4 (w/w)
Density= 1.251 g/cm3
27. Solution
15 μg Pb
Maximum Pb allowed = 1L H2O × L H2O
𝐌𝐚𝐱𝐢𝐦𝐮𝐦 𝐏𝐛 𝐚𝐥𝐥𝐨𝐰𝐞𝐝 = 𝟎. 𝟎𝟏𝟓 𝐦𝐠
26
30. Given: k1= 3.68 x10-2 s-1 ; T1= 150 oC
Ea = 71 kJ/mol ; T2 = 170 oC
Required: rate constant, k2
Solution
k1 Ea 1 1
ln k2 = R (T2 − T1) ;
0.0368 71 1 1
ln =( )( − )
k2 0.008314 443.15 423.15
27
ENVIRONMENTAL ENGINEERING
2. COD is a good
estimate of
a 20-day BOD b. cBOD c. nBOD d. Ultimate BOD
b. TOD > COD > BOD d.COD > BOD > TOD
6 Pick out the correct statement
a. BOD5 is the ultimate BOD
b. BOD5 is greater than BOD4 keeping other conditions same
c. BOD5 is less than BOD4 keeping other conditions same
d. BOD5 is equal to BOD4 keeping other conditions same
28
7. The rate of BOD exerted at any time is
a. Directly proportional to BOD satisfied
b. Directly proportional to BOD remaining
c. Inversely proportional to BOD satisfied
d. Inversely proportional to BOD remaining
9. What would be the effect on a BOD determination if the dilution water used
contained either copper or chloride?
a. BOD would be higher c. DO level would increase
b. BOD would be lower d. DO level would decrease
Reason (R) : The efficiency of certain treatment methods depends upon availability of
pH value.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation Of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
11. In sampling waste water for a BOD test, the best results are obtained from
a. A grab sample
b. A 24-hour composite sample
c. A sample made of 2 to 4 portions taken at time of high flow
d. A sample taken at time of low flow
12. The three measurements that are essential in calculating the solids and organics on
a waste water treatment plant are
a. Flow, BOD, DO
b. Flow, BOD, SS
c. BOD, SS, DO
d. BOD, SS, pH
29
13, The following data are given for an SS determination: filtered 100 mL sample;
tare weight= 14.9913 g ; SS= 1312 mg/L. The final weight after drying in grams was
a. 14.8601 b. 14.7289 c. 15.1225
d.15.2537
14. This disease is caused by poisoning of a certain chronic chemical that impairs
kidney function and progressively causes osteomalacia, a calcium deficiency. What is
disease and what heavy metal causes it?
15. The best procedure for determining the SS of a plant effluent is to analyze
a. A series of grab samples taken at different times during the day
b. A grab sample of the effluent at high flow
c. A grab sample of the effluent at low flow
d. A 24-hour composite sample of the effluent
16. .A five day B.O.D at 150C of the sewage of a town is 100 kg/day. If the 5 day B.O
D, per head at 150C for standard sewage is 0.01 kg/day, the population equivalent is
a. 500
b. 1000
c. 5000
d. 10000
17. The following data are given for a BOD test: 1, 0.5 and 0.1 percent samples were
set up. Initial DO for all samples was 7.6 mg/L. Final DO was 0 mg/L for all samples.
The seed correction was 0.6 mg/L. From the results of this test we conclude
a. The BOD is less than 700 c. The BOD is than 7000
b. The BOD is greater than 700 d. The BOD is greater than 7000
30
18. In a lab measurement of BOD, 10 mL of waste water is diluted to 300 mL. The
initial D.O. level (after dilution) Is 10 mg/L. The test bottle is incubated at 20 degC,
but after 3 days the incubator malfunctions and the temperature changes to degC.
After 5 days a D.O. level of 4 mg/L is measured. If the 20 degC rate constant (k) is
0.2/day and 9 = 1.05, find the correct BOD5 of the waste water.
a. 160 mg/L
b. 170 mg/L
c. 180 mg/L
d. 190 mg/L
19.200 mL of Genesee river water was collected from just below the brewery, Sample
A, 2 mL of river water diluted to ml, aerated and seeded. The dissolved oxygen
content was 7.6 mg/L initially. After 5 days, the dissolved oxygen cont had dropped
to 5.7 mg/L. A second sample, sample B was obtained 60 days later and retested in
identical fashion, initial dissolved oxygen was 7.5 mg/L and, after 5 days, dropped to
5.3 mg/L. Which water sample was cleaner?
a. Sample A
b. Sample B
c. Both samples are the same
d. Cannot be determined
20. A midnight dumper discharged a tank truck full of industrial waste in a gravel pit.
The truck was spotted there 3 days and a pool of pure waste remains, A laboratory
technician determined that the waste has a 5-day BOD of 80 mg/L rate constant of 0.1
per day. Three factories in the vicinity generate organic wastes: a winery (ultimate
BOD=275 mg vinegar manufacturer (ultimate BOD=80 mg/L) and a pharmaceutical
company (ultimate BOD=200 mg/L). Determine the source of the waste
a. Winery
b. Vinegar Manufacturer
c. Pharmaceutical company
d. Cannot be determined
31
21. A waste having an ultimate CBOD of 1,000 mg/L is discharged into a river at a
rate of 2 m3/s. The river has an ultimate CBOD of 10 mg/L and is flowing at a rate of
8 m3/s, Assuming a reaction rate coefficient of 0.1/day, calculate the CBOD the waste
at 20 km downstream. The river is flowing at a velocity of 10 km/day.
a. 36.6 mg/L
b. 37.7 mg/L
c. 38.8 mg/L
d. 39.9mg/L
22. Assume that the BOD of a sample to be tested is about 200 mg/L and the DO
is zero.
DO of dilution water to be used
is known to be 8 mg/L. Which of the following ratios of dilution water to waste
water sample would most logically be used in setting up a BOD bottle for
incubation and testing?
a. 50:1
b 40:1
c. 30:1
d. 20:1
23 Calculate the total hardness of water containing the following per titer
NazCOs= 14.6 Mg(HCO3)2= 7.3mg Ca(HCO3)2 = 16.2
MgCl2 = 9.5 mg CaCl2 = 11.1 mg Na2SO4 =4.9 mg
CaSO4 = 13.6 mg HCO3 =8.7 mg MgSO4 = 12 mg
a. 44 mg/L
b. 55 mg/L
c. 66 mg/L
d. 77 m/L
24. The tannery with a waste water flow of 0.011 m3/s and a BOD5 of 590 mg/L
discharges into the creek. The creek has a 10 year, 7 day low flow of 1.7 m 3/s.
Upstream of the tannery, the BODs of the creek is 0.6 mg/L. The BOD rate
constant for the tannery and creek are 0.115 day-1 and 3.7 day-1 respectively.
Calculate the ultimate BOD after mixing.
a. 8.3 mg/L
b. 9.3 mg/L
c. 10.3 mg/L
d. 11.3 mg/L
32
25. A solid analysis is to be performed on a waste water sample. The abbreviated
procedure is outlined as follows:
i. A gooch crucible and filter pad are dried at 105 degC to a constant mass of
25.439g.
ii. 200 mL of a well-mixed sample is passed through the filter pad.
iii. It is then dried at 105 degC to a constant mass of 25. 645 g.
iv. 100 mL of the filtrate that passes through the filter pad in step ii above is
placed in an evaporation dish that had been pre-weighed at 275.410 g.
v. The sample in Sted iv is evaporated to dryness at 105 degC and the dish
and residue are weighed at 276. 227 g.
vi. Both the crucible from step ill and the evaporation dish from step v are
placed in a furnace at 550 degC for an hour. After cooling in desiccators, the
mass of the crucible is 25.501 g and the mass of the dish is 275.944 g.
Determine the Total Solid of the waste water sample.
a. 9200 mg/L
b. 9300 mg/L
c. 9400 mg/L
d. 9500 mg/L
33
ANSWER KEY
Environmental Engineering
1. D. None of these
2. A. 20-day BOD
3. A. The radio waves used in long distance radio communication are
reflected back to earth by stratosphere
4. A. Several grab samples at various flow
5. B. TOD > COD >BOD
6. C. BOD5 is lless than BOD4 keeping other conditions same
7. B. Directly proportional to BOD remaining
8. B. 2/3
9. B. BOD would be lower
10. A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
11. B. A 24-hour composite sample
12. B. Flow, BOD, SS
13. C. 15.1225
14. B. Cadmium- Itai-itai disease
15. D. A 24-hour composite sample of the effluent
16. D. 10000
17. D. The BOD is greater than 7000
18. B. 170 mg/L
19. B. Sample B
20. C. Pharmaceutical company
21. B. 37.7 mg/L
22. A. 50:1
23. B. 55 mg/L
24. B. 9.3 mg/L
25. A. 9200 mg/L
34
SOLUTIONS
100 𝑘𝑔/𝑑𝑎𝑦
Population Equivalent (PE)= 0.01 𝑘𝑔/𝑑𝑎𝑦
PE= 10000
𝑚𝑔
7.6 −5.7 𝑚𝑔/𝐿
𝐿
19. BOD5,1= 2𝑚𝐿 =238 mg/L
250 𝑚𝐿
𝑚𝑔
7.5 −5.3 𝑚𝑔/𝐿
𝐿
BOD5,2= 2𝑚𝐿 =275mg/L
1000𝑚𝐿
* BOD5,1=𝐿𝑜(1 − e−𝑘𝑡 )
238 mg/L=𝐿𝑜(1 − e−0.23𝑥5 )
Lo=348 mg/L
* BOD5,2=𝐿𝑜(1 − e−𝑘𝑡 )
275 mg/L=𝐿𝑜(1 − e−0.23𝑥5 )
Lo=402 mg/L
35
21. cBOD = 1000 mg/L (2m3/s)
K=0.1/day
v= 10 km/day
𝑚𝑔 2000𝐿 8000𝐿
1000 ( )+10 𝑚𝑔/𝐿( )
𝐿 𝑠 𝑠
Lo=
2000+8000
BOD=𝐿𝑜(1 − e−𝑘𝑡 )
20 𝑘𝑚
t=10 𝑘𝑚/𝑑𝑎𝑦=2 days
Mg(HCO3)2= 7.3mg x
1 𝑚𝑚𝑜𝑙 Mg(HCO3)2 1𝑚𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝑀𝑔 1𝑚𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝑀𝑔𝐶𝑂3
𝑥 𝑥 𝑥 100 𝑚𝑔 =5 mg
146 𝑚𝑔 Mg(HCO3)2 1𝑚𝑚𝑜𝑙 Mg(HCO3)2 1𝑚𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝑀𝑔
Ca(HCO3)2=16.2mg x
1 𝑚𝑚𝑜𝑙 Ca(HCO3)2 1𝑚𝑚𝑜𝑙 Ca 1𝑚𝑚𝑜𝑙 Ca𝐶𝑂3
𝑥 1𝑚𝑚𝑜𝑙 Ca(HCO3)2 𝑥 𝑥 100 𝑚𝑔 =10 mg
162 𝑚𝑔 Ca(HCO3)2 1𝑚𝑚𝑜𝑙 Ca
36
BOD=𝐿𝑜(1 − e−𝑘𝑡 )
590 mg/L=𝐿𝑜(1 − e−0.115𝑥5 )=1349.20 mg/L
0.6 mg/L=𝐿𝑜(1 − e−3.7𝑥5)=0.6 mg/L
0.011𝑚3 𝑚𝑔 𝑚3 𝑚𝑔
( )(1349.20 )+(1.7 )(0.6 )
𝑠 𝐿 𝑠 𝐿
Lo= 0.011+1.7
Lo=9.27 mg/L
(25.645𝑔−25.439𝑔)(1000𝑚𝑔)
25. FS = 1𝐿
200 𝑚𝐿𝑥( )
1000 𝑚𝐿
= 1030 mg/L
(276.227𝑔−275.410𝑔)(1000𝑚𝑔)
VS= 1𝐿
200 𝑚𝐿𝑥( )
1000 𝑚𝐿
= 8170 mg/L
37
BIOCHEMICAL ENGINEERING
1. A biological agent that accelerates the rate of chemical reaction but whose quantity or
concentration and chemical identity remains theoretically unchanged at the end of reaction.
A. Catalyst B. Enzyme C. Substrate D. Inhibitor
3. A widely accepted model for enzyme-substrate complex formation which suggests that
enzymes are flexible structures in which the active site continually reshapes by its
interaction with the substrate until the time the substrate is completely bound to it.
A. Lock-and-key model C. Induced-fit model
B. Michaelis-Menten model D. Pseudoplastic model
4. In enzyme-catalyzed reactions, the molecules acted upon by the enzymes (i.e., reactant
molecules) are called
A. Substrate B. Inhibitors C. Ligands D. Catalysts
6. Turnover number is the number of _______ that can be covered per unit time per
active site on the enzyme.
A. Inhibitor molecules C. Substrate molecules
B. Enzyme-substrate molecules D. Enzyme-substrate-inhibitor molecule
38
8. A nonprotein compound which combines with an otherwise inactive protein
(apoenzyme) to give a catalytically active complex.
A. Haloenzyme B. Cofactor C. Inhibitor D. Ligand
10. In ______, the inhibitor has some degree of similarity with the substrate.
A. Competitive inhibition C. Uncompetitive inhibition
B. Noncompetitive inhibition D. Substrate inhibition
11. In _____, the inhibitor does not affect the value of Vmax but affects the value of KM.
A. Competitive inhibition C. Uncompetitive inhibition
B. Noncompetitive inhibition D. Substrate inhibition
14. Confinement of enzyme in a phase (matrix or support) over which the substrate is
passed and converted to products (carrier-binding method)
A. Inhibition C. Encapsulation
B. Immobilization D. Allosteric regulation
17. In this type of reactor, the liquid volume is kept constant by setting the outlet flow
rate equal to the inlet flow rate. However, the inlet flow rate is adjusted to keep the
biomass concentration constant.
A. Batch reactor B. PFR C. Chemostat D. Turbidostat
39
For questions 18-20:
Aspergillus niger is used to produce gluconic acid. Product synthesis is monitored in a
fermenter; gluconic acid concentration is measured as a function of time for the first 39 h
of culture.
40
For problems 23 and 24:
A substrate is converted to a product by the catalytic action of an enzyme. Assume that
the Michaelis-Menten kinetics parameters for this enzyme are: KM=0.04 mol/L and
Vmax=12.5 mol/L-min.
23. What should be the size of a steady state CSTR to convert 98% of the incoming
substrate (CSO=15 mol/L) with a flow rate of 10 L/h?
A. 0.11 L B. 0.22 L C. 0.33 L D. 0.44 L
24. If a PFR of size equal to that of the CSTR in item 23 is used, what would be the
substrate conversion?
A. 0.245 B. 0.896 C. 0.989 D. 0.999
41
30. Which of the following statements is false?
A. In fermentation broths, the desired product is present within a complex mixture of
many components.
B. Any treatment of the culture broth of fermentation to concentrate and purify the
product is known as downstream processing.
C. In most cases, downstream processing requires only physical modifications.
D. Harvested fermentation broths are not susceptible to contamination.
ANSWER KEY
Biochemical Engineering
1. B. Enzyme
2. A. 2(proflavin) –k(Proflavin)2
3. C. Induced-fit model
4. A. Substrate
5. A. KM is low
6. C. Substrate molecules
7. C. The Michaelis-Menten constant KM is proportional to the enzyme
concentration within the range of the enzyme tested.
8. B. Cofactor
9. C. Inhibitor
10. A. Competitive inhibition
11. A. Competitive inhibition
12. D. Decreases, decreases
13. C. Allosteric enzymes
14. B. Immobilization
15. E. All are immobilization techniques
16. B. First order
17. D. Turbidostat
18. B. First order
19. B. 0.10 h-1
20. B. 29.49 g/L
21. A. 23.46 min
22. C. 137 min
23. B. 0.22 L
24. D. 0.999
25. C. Uncompetitive
26. A. 0.001
27. B. 3.7 h
28. D. 5.7 h
29. A. 3.4 h
30. D. Harvested fermentation broths are not susceptible to contamination.
42
SOLUTIONS
Plugging in the values for t and CA in the equation 𝑙𝑛𝐶𝐴 = 𝑙𝑛𝐶𝐴0 + 𝑘1 𝑡 gives:
𝟎.𝟏𝟎 𝑔
𝒌𝟏 = 𝒉 and 𝐶𝐴0 = 4.1 𝐿
The kinetic equation is:
𝐶𝐴 = 𝐶𝐴0 𝑒 𝑘𝑡
𝐶𝐴 = 4.1𝑒 0.1𝑡
At t = 20:
𝒈
𝐶𝐴 = 4.1𝑒 0.1(20) = 𝟑𝟎. 𝟐𝟗𝟓𝟏
𝑳
43
ln 2
𝑡1⁄ =
2 𝑘𝑑
𝒕𝟏⁄ = 𝟐𝟑. 𝟒𝟔 ⇒ 𝒇𝒐𝒓 𝒇𝒓𝒆𝒆 − 𝒔𝒐𝒍𝒖𝒃𝒍𝒆 𝒆𝒏𝒛𝒚𝒎𝒆
𝟐
𝒕𝟏⁄ = 𝟏𝟑𝟕 ⇒ 𝒇𝒐𝒓 𝒊𝒎𝒎𝒐𝒃𝒊𝒍𝒊𝒛𝒆𝒅 𝒆𝒏𝒛𝒚𝒎𝒆
𝟐
44
ORGANIC CHEMISTRY
45
7. What is the major product from the acid-catalyzed hydration of 2-methyl-2-pentene?
a. 2-methylpentane c. 2-methyl-2-pentanol e. 1- methoxypentane
b. 2-methyl-1-pentanol d. 2-methyl-3-pentanol
8. How many electrons are involved in a carbon-carbon triple bond?
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 e. 6
9. Which of the following is a correct statement about the carbon-carbon triple bond in an
alkyne?
a. composed of one sigma bond and one pi bond
b. composed of two sigma bond and one pi bond
c. composed of one sigma bond and two pi bond
d. composed of two sigma bond and two pi bond
e. composed of one sigma bond, one pi bond and one delta bond
10. Which of the following is not used as primary standard for sodium hydroxide
solutions?
a. KHP b. Benzoic Acid c. Sulfuric Acid d. Potassium biodate
11. Which of the following nonpolar molecules should have the highest boiling point?
a. SF1 b. CH4 c. CO2 d. N2
12. The least reactive towards electrophilic
aromatic substitution
14. Which of the following reactions is associated with the inversion of configuration of
a chiral substrate?
a. Nucleophilic Substitution Bimolecular c. Nucleophilic Acyl Substitution
b. Elimination Unimolecular d. Free radical Addition
15. Which of the following is an essential fatty acid
a. palmitic acid b. stearic acid c. lauric acid d. linolenic acid
46
16. Which of the following can possibly give rise to meso compound?
17. Which of the following is the strongest Brønsted base?
18. Which of the following reactions would not be useful for converting 4,4-
diethylcyclohexanone into 1,1-diethylcyclohexane?
a. Wolff-Kischner reduction (N2H4, strong base & heat)
b. Clemmensen reduction (Zn/Hg, acid & heat)
c. Thioacetal reduction (i HSCH2CH2SH & BF3; ii H2 + Raney Ni)
d. LiAlH4 in THF & heat
19. A C5H8 hydrocarbon is reacted with BH3 in THF, followed by oxidation with alkaline
hydrogen peroxide. Treatment of the resulting product with PCC in CH2Cl2 produces a
chiral ketone, formula C5H8O. What hydrocarbon best fits these facts?
a. 1-methylcyclobutene
b. methylenecyclobutane
c. vinylcyclopropane
d. cyclopentene
20. . Determine the double bond stereochemistry (E or Z) for the following molecules.
a. A: E, B: E
b. A: Z, B: Z
c. A: E, B: Z
d. A: Z, B:E
47
23. What is the stereochemistry of the following compound?
a. R
b. S
c. E
d. Z
a. b. c. d. all of these
26. Conjugated alkenes are characterized by
a. Alternating and bonds.
b. Adjacent bonds.
c. bonds separated by two or more bonds.
d. A cyclic system containing 6 bonds.
27. Aryl ketones are prepared by the following reaction. This reaction is called _____ .
CO - CH3
AlCl3 / heat
+ CH3-CO Cl
48
29. Aldehydes and ketones are reduced by NaBH4 or LiAlH4 to yield ___ and ___
alcohols.
a. 10 and 20 b. 20 and 10 c. 10 and 30 d. 20 and 30
30. -bromination of carboxylic acid by a mixture of Br2 and PBr3 is called
____________.
a. Hell-Volhard Zelinskii (HVZ) reaction c. Claisen- condensation reaction
b. Robinson annulation d. Michael reaction
49
ANSWER KEY
Organic Chemistry
1. B. 1-hexyne
2 .D. neither syn nor anti
3. D. 3-methyl-3-pentanol
4. C. one methyl group is axial, the other is equatorial
5. E. (E)-3,4-dimethyl-3-hexene
6. C. overlap of the p orbitals of the carbon-carbon pi bond would be lost
7. C. 2-methyl-2-pentanol
8. E. 6
9. C. composed of one sigma bond and two pi bond
10. C. Sulfuric Acid
11. A. SF1
12. A
13. D
14. A. Nucleophilic Substitution Bimolecular
15. D. linolenic acid
16. B
17. C
18. D. LiAlH4 in THF & heat
19. A. 1-methylcyclobutene
20. D. A: Z, B:E
21. B. 1 and 2
22. A. 2
23. E
24. B. 2 gauche
25. A
26. A. Alternating and bonds.
27. B. Friedel-Crafts Acylation
28. C. BF3
29. A. 10 and 20
30. A. Hell-Volhard Zelinskii (HVZ) reaction
50
ANALYTICAL CHEMISTRY
51
A. 0.15 M B. 0.13 M C. 0.11 M D. 0.09 M
9. A 50.00 ml portion of an HCl solution required 29.71 ml of 0.01963 M Ba(OH)2 to
reach an endpoint with bromocresol green indicator. Calculate the molarity of the HCl.
A. 0.01 M B. 0.02 M C. 0.03 M D. 0.04 M
Problem 10-12. Calculate the pH in the titration of 25 ml of 0.1 M HCl by NaOH after
the addition to the acid solution of 10 ml, 25 ml, and 35 ml of 0.1 M NaOH.
10. 10 ml of 0.1 M NaOH
A. 1.37 B. 1.73 C. 1.48 D. 1.84
11. 25 ml of 0.1 M NaOH
A. 7 B. 14 C. 4 D. 1
12. 35 ml of 0.1 M NaOH
A. 13.12 B. 10.12 C. 11.34 D. 12.22
13. Ksp of AgCl at room temperature is 1x10-10. Calculate the Ag+ ion concentration
in ppm in a 0.01 M NaCl solution.
A. 0.001079 B. 0.0024 C. 0.0035 D. 0.0042
14. In an acidic solution, 25 ml of 0.021 M KMnO4 oxidize Fe2+ to Fe3+. Calculate
the mass of Fe2+ (55.85g) oxidized
A. 14.66mg B. 25.32mg C. 2.55mg D. 146.6mg
15. The presence of the following cations od solutions maybe confirmed by
conducting flame tests, except:
A. Ba+2 B. Na+1 C. Ca+2 D. Ni+2
16. A small amount of KI is added to solution of NaCN. 35 mL of 0.1200 M AgNO3
is required to produce a precipitate of AgI. Find the milligrams of NaCN present.
A. 245.6 mg B. 378.6 mg C. 397.5 mg D. 411.8 mg
17. A 0.7500 g sample of an alloy steel yielded on electrolysis 0.1532 g of a mixed
deposit of Co and Ni. This is dissolved, and the precipitated nickel dimethylglyoxime
(NiC8H14N4O4) weighs 0.3560 g. What is the percentage of the Ni in the alloy?
A. 9.64% Ni B. 10.79%Ni C. 12.43 D. 13.79% Ni
18. In the titration of a water sample using double indicator, the volume of standard
acid required for the methyl orange endpoint is equal to the volume required for the
phenolphthalein endpoint. The impurity (ies) is/are:
52
A. NaOH only B. Na2CO3 only C. NaHCO3 only D. Na2CO3
and NaOH
19. The pH value at equivalence point when titrating a weak acid against a strong base
is
A. at exactly 7 B. greater than 7 C. less than 7 D. neutral
20. EDTA is
A. not useful as a chelating agent
B. an effective antidote for heavy metal poisoning
C. known to form unstable complex ions with Fe3+, Hg2+, and Zn2+
D. a monodentate ligand
21. Which response gives the products of hydrolysis of KF?
A. KOH and HF B. OH- and HF C. KOH, H+ and F- D. no hydrolysis
22. A grain sample as received contains 10% moisture. If after drying, the dried sample
contains 15% N, then the %N in the as received sample is
A. 13.5 B. 16.67 C. 15 D. 5
23. Calculate the molarity of NaOH solution if 12.25 ml was used to titrate 0.2615
grams of primary standard KHP
A. 0.2118 B. 0.1354 C. 0.1045 D. 0.1697
24. What weight of Mn ore should be taken so that the percentage of MnO2 in the ore
can be found by multiplying by 5 the number of centigrams of Mn3O4 obtained?
A. 2.28 g B. 2.28 cg C. 228 g D. 0.228 g
25. A 10.0 ml solution containing Cl- was treated with excess AgNO3 to precipitate
00.4368 g of AgCl. What was the concentration of Cl- in the unknown? (AgCl =
143.321 g/mol)
A. 0.0384 M B. 0.8048 M C. 0.3048 M D. 0.4038 M
26. When a sample of impure potassium chloride (0.4500 g) was dissolved in water
and treated with an excess of silver nitrate, 0.8402 g of silver chloride was precipitated.
Calculate the percentage KCl in the original sample.
A. 96.27% B. 92.16% C. 96.12% D. 97.12%
27. The precipitant commonly used for the determination of calcium in gravimetric
analysis is ___.
A. NH3 B. H2C2O4 C. H2PtCl6 D. HF
53
28. Which of the following is a bidentate ligand?
A. CN- B. NH3 C. CO D. H2NCH2CH2NH2
29. Which gas is formed in the Kjeldahl analysis of nitrogen in the sample?
A. NH3 B. H2 C. N2 D. NH4Cl
30. When KMnO4 is reacted with Fe2+ in acid medium, Mn2+ and Fe3+ are formed.
The equivalent weight of KMnO4 in this reaction is equal to
A. FM/2 B. FM/4 C. FM/5 D. FM/7
ANSWER KEY
Analytical Chemistry
1. B. Requires that the product of absorptivity and path length be known before
absorbance can be related to concentration
2. A. 2.2%
3. D. 2.88 g
4. A. 0.11 g
5. A. 102.18
6. D. 55% NaCl, 45% BaCl2
7. A. 24.7
8. C. 0.11 M
9. B. 0.02 M
10. A. 1.37
11. A. 7
12. D. 12.22
13. A. 0.001079
14. D. 146.6 mg
15. D. Ni+2
16. D. 411.8 mg
17. A. 9.64% Ni
18. B. Na2CO3 only
19. B. greater than 7
20. B. an effective antidote for heavy metal poisoning
21. D. no hydrolysis
22. A. 13.5
23. C. 0.1045
24. D. 0.228 g
25. C. 0.3048 M
26. D. 97.12%
27. A. NH3
28. D. H2NCH2CH2NH2
29. A. NH3
30. C. FM/5
54
SOLUTIONS
Problem 2-4. A mixture containing MgCl2 (95.21 g/mol) and AlCl3 (133.33 g/mol) weighs
3.1416g. The chlorides were precipitated using ammonia and ignited to MgO (40.31 g/mol)
and AlO3 (101.96), respectively. The oxide mixture weighs 1.2121 g.
Calculate %Mg in the sample?
A.2.2% B. 4.4% C. 95.6% D. 97.8%
Solutions:
Let: x = mass of MgCl2
y = mass of AlCl3
𝑥 + 𝑦 = 3.1416
1 𝑀𝑔𝑂 40.31𝑔 𝑀𝑔𝑂 1 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝑀𝑔𝐶𝑙2
𝑥 𝑔 𝑀𝑔𝐶𝑙2 ( )( )( )
1 𝑀𝑔𝐶𝑙2 1 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝑀𝑔𝑂 95.21 𝑔 𝑀𝑔𝐶𝑙2
1 𝐴𝑙2𝑂3 101.96 𝑔 𝐴𝑙2𝑂3 1 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝐴𝑙𝐶𝑙3
+ 𝑦 𝑔 𝐴𝑙𝐶𝑙3 ( )( )( )
1 𝐴𝑙𝐶𝑙3 1 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝐴𝑙2𝑂3 133.33 𝑔 𝐴𝑙𝐶𝑙3
= 1.2121 𝑔
Solving for x and y:
𝑥 = 0.2652 𝑔
𝑦 = 2.8764 𝑔
1 𝑀𝑔 24.31
0.2652 𝑔 𝑀𝑔𝐶𝑙2 (1 𝑀𝑔𝐶𝑙2)(95.21)
% 𝑀𝑔 = 𝑥 100 = 𝟐. 𝟏𝟓𝟓𝟒%
3.1416
55
1 𝑀𝑔𝑂 40.31𝑔 𝑀𝑔𝑂 1 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝑀𝑔𝐶𝑙2
𝑥 𝑔 𝑀𝑔𝐶𝑙2 ( )( )( )
1 𝑀𝑔𝐶𝑙2 1 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝑀𝑔𝑂 95.21 𝑔 𝑀𝑔𝐶𝑙2
1 𝐴𝑙2𝑂3 101.96 𝑔 𝐴𝑙2𝑂3 1 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝐴𝑙𝐶𝑙3
+ 𝑦 𝑔 𝐴𝑙𝐶𝑙3 ( )( )( )
1 𝐴𝑙𝐶𝑙3 1 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝐴𝑙2𝑂3 133.33 𝑔 𝐴𝑙𝐶𝑙3
= 1.2121 𝑔
Solving for x and y:
𝑥 = 0.2652 𝑔
𝑦 = 𝟐. 𝟖𝟕𝟔𝟒 𝒈
4. How many grams of MgO were produces after ignition?
A. 0.11 g B. 0.22 g C. 1.1 g D. 2.2 g
Solutions:
1 𝑀𝑔 24.31
0.2652 𝑔 𝑀𝑔𝐶𝑙2 ( )( ) = 𝟎. 𝟏𝟏𝟐𝟑 𝒈
1 𝑀𝑔𝐶𝑙2 95.21
5. The aluminum in a 0.910 g-sample of impure ammonium aluminum sulfate was
precipitated with aqueous ammonia as the hydrous Al2O3xH2O. The precipitate was
filtered and ignited at 1000°C to give anhydrous Al2O3 which weighed 0.2001 g. Express
the result of this analysis in terms of %NH4Al(SO4)2.
A. 102.18 B. 98.12 C. 89.23 D. 108.60
Solutions:
2 𝑁𝐻4𝐴𝑙 (𝑆𝑂4)2 237 𝑔 𝑁𝐻4𝐴𝑙 (𝑆𝑂4)2 1 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝐴𝑙2𝑂3
0.2001 𝑔 𝐴𝑙2𝑂3 ( )( )( )
1 𝐴𝑙2𝑂3 1 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝑁𝐻4𝐴𝑙 (𝑆𝑂4)2 101.96 𝑔 𝐴𝑙2𝑂3
𝑥 100
0.910 𝑔
= 𝟏𝟎𝟐. 𝟐𝟔%
Problem 6-7, A 0.2356-g sample containing only NaCl and BaCl2 yielded 0.4637 g of dried
AgCl
6. Calculate the % of each halogen compound in the sample
A. 35% NaCl, 65% BaCl2 C. 45% NaCl, 55% BaCl2
B. 65% NaCl, 35% BaCl2 D. 55% NaCl, 45% BaCl2
Solutions:
Let: x = mass of NaCl
y = mass of BaCl2
𝑥 + 𝑦 = 0.2356
56
1 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝑁𝑎𝐶𝑙) 1 𝐴𝑔𝐶𝑙 143.32 𝑔
𝑥 𝑔 𝑁𝑎𝐶𝑙 ( )( )( )
58.44 𝑔 1 𝑁𝑎𝐶𝑙 1 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝐴𝑔𝐶𝑙
1 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝐵𝑎𝐶𝑙2 2 𝐴𝑔𝐶𝑙 143.22 𝑔
+ 𝑦 𝐵𝑎𝐶𝑙2 ( )( )( ) = 0.4637
208.23 𝑔 1 𝐵𝑎𝐶𝑙2 1 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝐴𝑔𝐶𝑙
Solving for x and y :
𝑥 = 0.1296 𝑔
𝑦 = 0.1060 𝑔
0.1296
% 𝑁𝑎𝐶𝑙 = 𝑥100 = 𝟓𝟓%
0.2356
0.1060
% 𝐵𝑎𝐶𝑙2 = 𝑥100 = 𝟒𝟓%
0.2356
7. What weight of impure NaCl sample must be taken for analysis so that the weight of
AgCl precipitate obtained in mg will be equal to the %Cl in the sample?
A. 24.7 B. 35.45 C. 12.32 D. 20.12
Solutions:
1 𝐶𝑙 35.45
𝑥 𝑁𝑎𝐶𝑙 ( )( ) 100 1 𝐴𝑔𝐶𝑙 143.32 𝑔
1 𝑁𝑎𝐶𝑙 58.44 = 𝑥 𝑁𝑎𝐶𝑙 ( )( )
𝑥 1 𝑁𝑎𝐶𝑙 58.44 𝑔
𝒙 = 𝟐𝟒. 𝟕𝟑𝟒𝟗 𝒈
8. In a titration experiment, a student finds that 23.48 ml of NaOH solution are needed to
neutralize 0.5468 g of KHP (MW: 204.2). What is the conc (in molarity) of the NaOH
solution?
A. 0.15 M B. 0.13 M C. 0.11 M D. 0.09 M
Solutions:
1 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝐾𝐻𝑃 1 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝑁𝑎𝑂𝐻
0.5468 𝑔 𝐾𝐻𝑃( 204.2 𝑔 )( )
1 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝐾𝐻𝑃
= 𝟎. 𝟏𝟏𝟒𝟎 𝑴
0. 02348 𝐿
9. A 50.00 ml portion of an HCl solution required 29.71 ml of 0.01963 M Ba(OH)2 to
reach an endpoint with bromocresol green indicator. Calculate the molarity of the HCl.
A. 0.01 M B. 0.02 M C. 0.03 M D. 0.04 M
Solutions:
𝑚𝑚𝑜𝑙 2 𝐻𝐶𝑙
29.71 𝑚𝑙(0.01963 𝐵𝑎(𝑂𝐻 )2)( )
𝑚𝑙 1 𝐵𝑎(𝑂𝐻 )2
= 𝟎. 𝟎𝟐𝟑𝟑 𝑴
50 𝑚𝑙
57
Problem 10-12. Calculate the pH in the titration of 25 ml of 0.1 M HCl by NaOH after the
addition to the acid solution of 10 ml, 25 ml, and 35 ml of 0.1 M NaOH.
10. 10 ml of 0.1 M NaOH
A. 1.37 B. 1.73 C. 1.48 D. 1.84
Solutions:
25 (0.1) − 10(0.10)
𝑝𝐻 = − log ( ) = 𝟏. 𝟑𝟔𝟖𝟎
35
13. Ksp of AgCl at room temperature is 1x10-10. Calculate the Ag+ ion concentration in
ppm in a 0.01 M NaCl solution.
A. 0.001079 B. 0.0024 C. 0.0035 D. 0.0042
Solutions:
𝐾𝑠𝑝 = 1𝑥10−10
𝐴𝑔𝐶𝑙 → 𝐴𝑔 + + 𝐶𝑙 −
1𝑥10−10 = [𝐴𝑔 +][𝐴𝑔 + +0.01]
[𝐴𝑔 +] = 9.99999𝑥10−9 𝑀
𝑚𝑜𝑙 1000 𝑚𝑚𝑜𝑙 107.87 𝑚𝑔
9.99999𝑥10−9 𝐴𝑔 ( ) (1𝑚𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝐴𝑔) = 1.0787𝑥10−3 = 𝟎. 𝟎𝟎𝟏𝟎𝟕𝟗 𝒑𝒑𝒎
𝐿 1 𝑚𝑜𝑙
14. In an acidic solution, 25 ml of 0.021 M KMnO4 oxidize Fe2+ to Fe3+. Calculate the
mass of Fe2+ (55.85g) oxidized
A. 14.66mg B. 25.32mg C. 2.55mg D. 146.6mg
Solutions:
𝑚𝑚𝑜𝑙 5 𝑚𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝐹𝑒2 + 55.85 𝑚𝑔
0.021 𝐾𝑀𝑛𝑂4 ( ) 25𝑚𝑙 ( ) = 𝟏𝟒𝟔. 𝟔𝟎𝟔𝟑 𝒎𝒈 𝑭𝒆𝟐 +
𝑚𝑙 1𝑚𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝑀𝑛𝑂4 − 𝑚𝑚𝑜𝑙
58
16. A small amount of KI is added to solution of NaCN. 35 mL of 0.1200 M AgNO3 is
required to produce a precipitate of AgI. Find the milligrams of NaCN present.
A. 245.6 mg B. 378.6 mg C. 397.5 mg D. 411.8 mg
Solutions:
𝑚𝑜𝑙 2𝑁𝑎𝐶𝑁 48.99𝑔
12 (0.035𝐿 𝐴𝑔𝑁𝑂3) ( )( ) = 𝟒𝟏𝟏. 𝟓𝟏𝟔 𝒎𝒈
𝐿 1 𝐴𝑔𝑁𝑂3 1𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝑁𝑎𝐶𝑁
17. A 0.7500 g sample of an alloy steel yielded on electrolysis 0.1532 g of a mixed deposit
of Co and Ni. This is dissolved, and the precipitated nickel dimethylglyoxime
(NiC8H14N4O4) weighs 0.3560 g. What is the percentage of the Ni in the alloy?
A. 9.64% Ni B. 10.79%Ni C. 12.43 D. 13.79% Ni
Solutions:
𝑔
58.69 1 𝑚𝑜𝑙
0.3560 𝑔 NiC8H14N4O4( 𝑚𝑜𝑙
𝑔 )(1 𝑚𝑜𝑙 )
288.69
𝑚𝑜𝑙 = 𝟗. 𝟔𝟒𝟗𝟗% 𝑵𝒊
0.75 𝑔
22. A grain sample as received contains 10% moisture. If after drying, the dried sample
contains 15% N, then the %N in the as received sample is
A. 13.5 B. 16.67 C. 15 D. 5
Solutions:
%𝑁 = 90 𝑥 0.15 = 𝟏𝟑. 𝟓%
23. Calculate the molarity of NaOH solution if 12.25 ml was used to titrate 0.2615 grams
of primary standard KHP
A. 0.2118 B. 0.1354 C. 0.1045 D. 0.1697
Solutions:
1 𝑚𝑜𝑙 1 𝑁𝑎𝑂𝐻
0.2615 𝑔 𝐾𝐻𝑃(204.2 𝑔)( 1 𝐾𝐻𝑃 )
= 𝟎. 𝟏𝟎𝟒𝟓 𝑴 𝑵𝒂𝑶𝑯
0.01225 𝐿
24. What weight of Mn ore should be taken so that the percentage of MnO2 in the ore can
be found by multiplying by 5 the number of centigrams of Mn3O4 obtained?
A. 2.28 g B. 2.28 cg C. 228 g D. 0.228 g
Solutions:
86.94 𝑔 𝑀𝑛𝑂2 1𝑀𝑛𝑂2 228.82 𝑔 𝑀𝑛3𝑂4 1 𝑀𝑛3𝑂4
𝑥 𝑀𝑛 ( )( ) = 5𝑥𝑀𝑛( )(
54.94 𝑔 𝑀𝑛 1 𝑀𝑛 54. 94 𝑔 𝑀𝑛 3 𝑀𝑛)
59
𝒙 = 𝟎. 𝟐𝟐𝟖 𝒈 𝑴𝒏
25. A 10.0 ml solution containing Cl- was treated with excess AgNO3 to precipitate
00.4368 g of AgCl. What was the concentration of Cl- in the unknown? (AgCl = 143.321
g/mol)
A. 0.0384 M B. 0.8048 M C. 0.3048 M D. 0.4038 M
Solutions:
1 𝑚𝑜𝑙 1 𝐶𝑙
0.4368 𝑔 𝐴𝑔𝐶𝑙(143.32 𝑔)(1 𝐴𝑔𝐶𝑙 )
= 𝟎. 𝟑𝟎𝟒𝟖 𝑴
0.01 𝐿
26. When a sample of impure potassium chloride (0.4500 g) was dissolved in water and
treated with an excess of silver nitrate, 0.8402 g of silver chloride was precipitated.
Calculate the percentage KCl in the original sample.
A. 96.27% B. 92.16% C. 96.12% D. 97.12%
Solutions:
1 𝑚𝑜𝑙 1 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝐾𝐶𝑙 74.55 𝑔
0.8402 𝑔 𝐴𝑔𝐶𝑙(143.32 𝑔)(1 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝐴𝑔𝐶𝑙 )(1 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝐾𝐶𝑙 )
= 𝟗𝟕. 𝟏𝟐𝟎𝟓%
0.45 𝑔
60
PHYSICAL CHEMISTRY
61
5. A salt bridge is a tube filled with a concentrated solution of a salt which permits _____
to flow between the half cells but prevent mixing of a solution of the half cells.
a. Ions
b. Current
c. Anion
d. Cation
7. The time of outflow of 250 ml methane in a porous opening is 16 seconds. Under the
save condition of T and P, how long would it take 1500 ml of sulfur dioxide to diffuse
through the same opening?
a. 129 sec
b. 192 sec
c. 229 sec
d. 291 sec
62
g. I and II
h. None
10. Barium has a body centered cubic unit cell and a density of 3.62 g/cm3. What is the
atomic radius of Barium?
a. 1.92 angstroms
b. 2.2 angstroms
c. 2.7 angstroms
d. 3.5 angstroms
11. At 140C the vapor pressure of C6H5Cl is 939.4 mmHg and that of C6H5Br is 495.8
mmHg. Assuming that these liquids form an ideal solution, what should be the molar
composition of the liquid solution so that the vapor pressure above the solution at 140
is at 1 atm?
a. 0.596 C6H5Cl; 0.404 C6H5Br
b. 0.707 C6H5Cl; 0.293 C6H5Br
c. 0.698 C6H5Cl; 0.302 C6H5Br
d. 0.803 C6H5Cl; 0.197 C6H5Br
12. Suppose that you work for a company that designs the drive mechanisms for large
ships. The materials in this mechanism will obviously come into contact with
environments that enhance corrosion. To estimate the difficulties that corrosion might
cause, you decide to build a model electrochemical cell using electrolyte concentrations
that might be present in your system when it is in your service. Assume that you have
a cell that has an iron (III) concentration of 0.015Mand an H+ concentration of 1.0 x10 -
3
M. the cell temperature is 38C and the pressure of hydrogen gas is maintained at 0.04
atm. What would be the cell potential be under these conditions?
a. 0.35V
b. 0.53V
c. 0.46V
d. 0.64V
13. Calculate the density of a natural gas mixture containing 32.1% methane, 41.2%
ethane, 17.5% propane and 9.2% nitrogen (mole basis) at 500 psig and 394K. Assume
ideal gas law applies.
a. 44.1 kg/m3
b. 30.1 kg/m3
c. 20.9 kg/m3
d. 13.6 kg/m3
63
14. The osmotic pressure of an aqueous solution of a certain protein was measured in order
to determine its molar mass. The solution contained 3.50mg of protein dissolved in
sufficient water to form 5ml solution. The osmotic pressure of the solution at 25C was
found to be 1.54 torr. Calculate the molar mass of the protein.
a. 6.2 x103 g/mol
b. 5.5 x105 g/mol
c. 17.9x104 g/mol
d. 8.5 x103 g/mol
16. How much heat is given up when 20g of steam at 100C is condensed and cooled at
20C?
a. 74 kcal
b. -74 kcal
c. 12 kcal
d. -12 kcal
17. What is the number of photons of light with a wavelength of 4000 pm that provide 1J
of energy?
a. 3.0 x108 photons
b. 5.0 x107 photons
c. 3.0 x108 photons
d. 6.0 x108 photons
18. At what temperature will the velocity of CO2 molecules equalthe velocity of oxygen
molecules at 0 °C?
a. 132 ºC
b. 102 ºC
c. 623 ºC
d. 293 ºC
64
19. One mole of H2O and one mole of CO are taken in a 10 liter vessel and heated to 725K.
at equilibrium 49% of water (by mass) reacts with CO according to the equation;
H2O(g) + CO(g) – H2(g) + CO2(g)
Calculate the equilibrium constant for the reaction.
a. 1.44
b. 0.44
c. 0.66
d. 14.4
20. Ethanol boils at 78.4C and the enthalpy of vaporization of ethanol is 42.4 kJ/mol.
Calculate the entropy of vaporization of ethanol.
a. 0.54 J/mol-K
b. 54.08 J/mol-K
c. 120.66 J/mol-K
d. 5.55 J/mol-K
23. In the previous problem, what is the mean free path of the N2 molecule at 20C and 1
atm? The molecular diameter of N2 molecule is 3.7 x10-10 m.
a. 4.64 x10-8 m
b. 5.80 x10-8 m
c. 6.60 x10-8 m
d. 9.10 x10-8 m
65
25. A solution of 0.6M MgSO4, 0.1M AlCl3 and 0.1M (NH4)2SO4. What is the total ionic
strength?
a. 3.2
b. b. 3.3
c. c. 6.4
d. d. 6.6
ANSWER KEY
Physical Chemistry
1. B. lower, higher
2. C. 7.12 g O2
3. B. Low
4. D. 194.8 g/mol
5. B. Current
6. C. Gaseous at room temperature
7. B. 192 sec
8. A. I only
9. C. I and II
10. B. 2.2 angstroms
11. A. 0.596 C6H5Cl; 0.404 C6H5Br
12. A. 0.35V
13. B. 30.1 kg/m3
14. D. 8.5 x 103 g/mol
15. D. I, II and III
16. D. -12 kcal
17. B. 5x107 photons
18. B. 102oC
19. B. 0.44
20. C. 120.66 J/mol-K
21. B. High temperatures and low pressures
22. C. 470
23. C. 6.60 x 10-8 m
24. C. 0.74
25. B. 3.3
66
SOLUTIONS
1 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝐻2 1 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝑂2 32 𝑔
2. 10 𝐿 𝐻2 ( )( )( ) = 7.1429 𝑔 𝑂2
22.4 𝐿 2 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝐻2 1 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝑂2
Answer: 7.1429 g O2
4. 𝑃𝐴 = 𝑥𝐴 𝑃𝐴º
100 𝑔
74.14 426
100 𝑔 10 =
+ 442.2
74.14 𝑀𝑊
𝑔
𝑀𝑊 = 194.9607 𝑚𝑜𝑙
Answer: 194.9607 g/mol
𝑟1 𝑀1
7. 𝑟2
= √𝑀2
250
16 64.06
1500 =√
16
𝑥
𝑥 = 192.09 𝑠𝑒𝑐𝑜𝑛𝑑𝑠
Answer: 192.09 seconds
𝑔 1 𝑚𝑜𝑙 1 𝑐𝑚3
10. 137.33 𝑚𝑜𝑙 ( ) (3.62 𝑔) (2 𝑎𝑡𝑜𝑚𝑠) = 1.2599𝑥 10−22 𝑐𝑚3
𝑁𝐴
3
𝐿 = √𝑌 = 5.0132 𝑥10−8 𝑐𝑚
𝑅 = √𝐿2 + 𝐿2 = 7.0897 𝑥 10−8 𝑐𝑚
4𝑟 = √𝑅2 + 𝐿2
1𝑚 1010𝐴°
𝑟 = 2.17 𝑥10−8 𝑐𝑚 (100 𝑐𝑚) ( 1𝑚
) = 2.17 𝐴°
Answer: 2.17 A°
11. 𝑥+𝑦 =1
939.4 495.8
𝑥+ 𝑦=1
760 760
C6H5Cl= 0.5956
C6H5Br= 0.4044
Answer: C6H5Cl= 0.5956, C6H5Br= 0.4044
𝑅𝑇
12. 𝜀 = 𝜀° − ln 𝑄
𝑛𝐹
(8.3145)(38+273.15) (0.015)(0.04)
𝜀 = 0.44 − ln( )
2(96485) (1.0𝑥10−3 )−2
𝜀 = 0.35 𝑉
Answer: 0.35 V
67
𝑃𝑀
13. 𝜌= P= 514.7 psia = 3547753.571 Pa
𝑅𝑇
3547753.571(16)
CH4: 𝜌= (0.321) = 5.5622
83145(394 𝐾)
3547753.571(30)
C2H6: 𝜌 = (0.412) = 13.3857
83145(394 𝐾)
3547753.571(44)
C3H8: 𝜌 = (0.175) = 8.3390
83145(394 𝐾)
3547753.571(28)
N2: 𝜌= (0.092) = 2.7898
83145(394 𝐾)
𝑇𝑜𝑡𝑎𝑙 = 30.0767 𝑔/𝑚𝑜𝑙
Answer: 30.0767 g/mol
14. 𝜋 = 𝐶𝑅𝑇
𝑚𝑎𝑠𝑠 𝑠𝑜𝑙𝑢𝑡𝑒(𝑅𝑇)
𝜋=
𝑀𝑀(𝑉)
1.54 3.50 𝑚𝑔(0.08206)(298.15)
=
760 𝑀𝑀(5 𝑚𝑙)
𝑥103 𝑔
𝑀𝑀 = 8451.9562 = 8.5 𝑚𝑜𝑙
Answer: 8.5 x108 g/mol
𝑐𝑎𝑙 𝑐𝑎𝑙
16. 𝑄 = −540 (20 𝑔) − (1 )(20 𝑔)(80 𝐶)
𝑔 𝑔𝐶
𝑄 = −12400 𝑐𝑎𝑙 = −12.4 𝑘𝑐𝑎𝑙
Answer: -12.4 kcal
ℎ𝑐𝑁
17. 𝐸 = ℎ𝑓 = 𝛿
ℎ𝑐𝑁
1 𝐽 = 4000𝑥10−12 𝑚
𝑁 = 2.0136𝑥 1016 𝑝ℎ𝑜𝑡𝑜𝑛𝑠
Answer: 2.0136 x1016 photons
3𝑅𝑇(𝑂2) 3𝑅𝑇(𝐶𝑂2)
18. √ =√
𝑀 𝑀
273.15 𝑇(𝐶𝑂2)
√ =√
32 44
𝑇(𝐶𝑂2) = 375.5813 𝐾 = 102.43 °𝐶
Answer: 102.43 °C
68
(0.04)(0.04)
𝐾𝑐 = = 0.44
(0.06)(0.06)
Answer: Kc=0.44
𝐽
𝑄 42400 𝐽
𝑚𝑜𝑙
20. 𝑠= = 78.4+273.15 𝐾 = 120.6087 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝐾
𝑇
Answer: 120.6087 J/mol-K
3𝑅𝑇 3(8314.5)(293.15)
22. 𝑉 𝑎𝑣𝑒𝑟𝑎𝑔𝑒 = 0.92√ = 0.92√
𝑀 28.02
𝑉 𝑎𝑣𝑒𝑟𝑎𝑔𝑒 = 469.9779
Answer: Vave= 469.9779
𝑅𝑇
23. 𝑚𝑒𝑎𝑛 𝑓𝑟𝑒𝑒 𝑝𝑎𝑡ℎ = 𝜋(√2)(𝐷 2)(𝑃)(𝑁𝑎)
8.3145(293.15)
𝑚𝑒𝑎𝑛 𝑓𝑟𝑒𝑒 𝑝𝑎𝑡ℎ =
𝜋(√2)(3.7𝑥 10−10 )2 (101325)(𝑁𝑎)
−8
𝑚𝑒𝑎𝑛 𝑓𝑟𝑒𝑒 𝑝𝑎𝑡ℎ = 6.5673 𝑥10 𝑚
Answer: 6.5673 x10-8 m
69
70
CHE CALCULATIONS AND HEAT TRANSFER
4. A petroleum distillate having flash point not below 22.8 oC as determined by the
Abel Tester.
A. Kerosene B. Gasoline C. Diesel D. LPG
5. The boiling points for pure water and pure toluene are 100 oC and 110.6oC
respectively. Toluene and water are completely immiscible in each other. A well
agitated equimolar mixture of toluene and water are prepared. The temperature at
which the above mixture will exert a pressure of one standard atm is
A. Less than 100oC D. 110oC
o
B. 100 C E. More than 110oC
C. Between 100 and 110oC
71
the product and the recycle stream. The product from the separator consists of B, C
and 0.5% of A entering the separator, while the recycle stream consists of the
remainder of the unreacted A and 1% of B entering the separator.
7. Calculate the Single Pass conversion of A
A. 8.77 B. 7.88 C. 5.66 D. 6.55
8. Molal ratio of recycle to feed
A. 8.77 B. 7.88 C. 5.66 D. 6.55
9. A solvent recovery system delivers a gas saturated with benzene vapor that analyzes
on a benzene free basis as follows: 15% CO2, 4% O2, 81% N2. This gas is at 21oC
and 750 mmHg. It is compressed to 5 atm and cooled to 21 oC after compression.
How many kg of benzene are condensed by this process per 1000 m 3 of the original
mixture? VP of benzene at 21oC is 75 mmHg.
A. 361.4 kg B. 341.6 kg C. 314.6 kg D. 413.6 kg
12. The ratio of % total carbon obtained in the ultimate analysis of coke and % fixed
carbon obtained in the proximate analysis is always
A. 1 B. < 1 C. > 1 D. Unpredictable
13. The vapor pressure of the solvent decreased by 10 mmHg, when a non-volatile
solute was added to the solvent. The mole fraction of the solute in the solution is
0.2. What should be the mole fraction of the solvent if the decrease in vapor
pressure of the solvent is required to be 20 mmHg?
A. 0.1 B. 0.2 C. 0.4 D. 0.6
72
B. 1.2 g atoms of carbon and 1.5 g moles of oxygen are reacted to give 1 g mole
of carbon dioxide. The limiting reactant is carbon. The percent excess supplied
is 25.
C. A gas bubble at a pressure of Pg is passed through a solvent with a saturation
vapor pressure of Ps. If the time of passage of the bubble is long and air is
insoluble in the solvent, the mole fraction of solvent in the bubble will be equal
to Ps/Pg.
D. A supersaturated solution of a sparingly soluble solute, at a concentration of C,
is being fed to a crystallizer at a volumetric flow rate of V. The solubility of the
solute is C1. The output rate of solids from an efficient crystallizer is (C + C1)
V.
15. N2 content in a urea sample was found to be only 42%. What is the actual urea
content of the sample?
A. 80% B. 90% C. 95% D. 98%
17. The wall of a furnace is constructed from a 0.15 m thick brick having a thermal
conductivity of 1.7 W/m-K. At steady state, the temperatures of the inner and the
outer surfaces are 2060oF and 1610oF respectively. What is the rate of heat loss
through a wall that is 0.5 by 1.2 m on a side?
A. 1700 W B. 2833 W C. 3060 W D. 5508 W
18. If the critical radius of insulation is greater than the pipe radius, then adding more
layers of insulation
A. Will not have any further on the heat transfer rate
B. Will increase heat transfer rate
C. Will decrease heat transfer rate
D. Will stop heat transfer
19. Important in unsteady state heat transfer, this dimensionless number is defined as
the ratio of boundary layer surface resistance to convection and internal resistance
to conduction.
A. Biot Number B. Fourier Number C. Stanton Number D. Prandtl Number
73
𝛼 = 3.0 x 10-7 m2/s, k = 0.20 W/m-K, and h = 5.7 W/m2-K. The surrounding fluid
temperature is 141.7oC.
20. Determine the Biot number
A. 0.171 B. 0.342 C. 0.581 D. 1.162
22. Determine the time needed to achieve the temperature change needed.
A. 9.9 s B. 59.3 s C. 29.2 min D. 1.94 h
23. A large block of steel with k = 45 W/m-K and α = 4 x 10-5 m2/s is initially at a
uniform temperature of 35oC. The surface is exposed to a heat flux by suddenly
raising the temperature to 200oC. Calculate the temperature at a depth of 3 cm after
20 s.
A. 130oC B. 90oC C. 110oC D. 70oC
X erf x
0.3 0.329
0.4 0.428
0.5 0.520
0.6 0.604
25. One radiation shield is placed between two very large parallel planes having
identical emissivities, both of which are less than 1. What is the fractional decrease
in radiation loss?
A. 0 B. ½ C. 1/3 D. cannot tell due to insufficient data
27. Estimate the net heat transfer from the oven to the component.
A. 2.564 x 105 B. 8498 C. 1344 D. 4.526 x105
74
28. Fins are added to heat exchangers in order to provide additional area for heat
transfer. For a shell-and-tube heat exchanger, fins should be added on the:
A. Tube side C. Side with fluid of higher resistance to heat transfer
B. Shell side D. Side with fluid of lower resistance to heat transfer
30. The overall hear transfer coefficient (W/m2-K) based on the outside surface area
A. 33.6 B. 21.8 C. 11.7 D. 8.75
75
ANSWER KEY
76
SOLUTIONS
2. Given: Length = 85 cm
Diameter = 50 cm
Mass Flow Rate = 108 kg/s
Required: 𝑟𝑂2 (reaction rate of oxygen)
Solution:
1 dNO2
Reaction Rate: −rO2 = V dt
𝑑2 (0.5 m)2
where V = π 4 ∙ 𝐿 ; V= π ∙ 0.85 m V = 0.166897 m3
4
1
Reaction: H2 + O2 → H2 O
2
kg kmol 1000 mol mol
H2O produced = 108 ( 18kg ) ( ) = 6000
s 1 kmol s
1
mol mol O2 mol
2
O2 used = 6000 ( ) = 3000
s 1 mol H2O s
1 dNO2
Solving for reaction rate of O2 : −rO2 = V dt
1 mol mol
−rO2 = 0.166897 m3 (3000 ) = 17975.158 m3s
s
𝐦𝐨𝐥
Ans. 1.7975 x 104 𝐦𝟑 𝐬
Material Balance:
77
Product stream contains:
Mole of A = 1 mole – (1 mole x 0.95) = 0.05 mole
Mole of B = (1 mole A x 0.95) (2 moles B /1 mole A) = 1.9 moles
Mole of C = (1 mole A x 0.95) (1 mole C /1 mole A) = 0.95 mole
Material Balance for B:
B in the recycle = 1% of B entering the separator
B in the product = 99% of B entering the separator = 1.9 mole
Total B entering the separator = 1.9/0.99 = 1.919 mole
B in the recycle = 1.919 x 0.01 = 0.019 mole.
Ans. 8.676%
Ans. 9.696
78
Volume of gas leaving the column:
22.4 𝑚3 302.65𝐾 101.325 𝑘𝑃𝑎
= 3.7685 𝑘𝑚𝑜𝑙 ( 𝑘𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑒 ) (273.15𝐾) (99.3−0.093 𝑘𝑃𝑎)
= 95.53 m3
Ans. 95.53 m3
11. Required: Weight (in kg) of chlorine gas absorbed per 100 m3 entering
Solution:
mole of chlorine in entering gas
𝑋 8.266 𝑘𝑃𝑎
= ; 𝑥 = 0.3393 kmol
𝑋+3.765 100 𝑘𝑃𝑎
Mole of chlorine gas absorbed = mole chlorine entering – mole chlorine leaving
= 0.3393 -3.529𝑥10−3 = 0.33577 kmole Cl2
Weight Cl2= 0.33577 kmol (70.90kg/kmol)
Weight Cl2 = 23.81 kg
Ans. 23.81 kg
Ans. 0.6
Ans. 1700
79
Solution:
W
hR 5.7 x0.012m
m2 ∙K
Fo = = W = 0.342
k 0.20
m∙K
Ans. 0.342
Ans. 110oC
Ans. 0.00524
Ans. 1435.29 W
80
Fiber glass: t = 0.00254 m; k3 = 0.0485 W/m-K
Required: Heat Loss
Solution:
𝑇2−𝑇1
Q= 𝑟2 𝑟3 𝑟4
1 ln(𝑟1) ln(𝑟2) ln(𝑟3) 1
+ + + +
2𝜋𝑟1 𝐿ℎ1 2𝜋𝑘1𝐿 2𝜋𝑘2𝐿 2𝜋𝑘3𝐿 2𝜋𝑟4 𝐿ℎ2
Length: 1 m pipe
r1 = 0.0205 m h1 = 500 W/m2-K
r2 = 0.0255 m h2 = 100 W/m2-K
r3 = 0.0319 m
r4 = 0.0344 m
(315.6−265)𝐾
Q= 0.0319 0.0344
1 ln(0.0255) ln(0.0319) 1
+ + +
2𝜋𝑥0.0205𝑥500 2𝜋𝑥0.166 2𝜋𝑥0.0485 2𝜋𝑥0.0344𝑥100
Q = 95.86 W
Ans. 95.86 W
30. Required: Overall heat transfer coefficient based on outside surface area
Solution:
Q = UA∆𝑇
95.86 W
U=
2π x 0.03444 m x 1m x (315.6−265)K
U = 8.75 W/m
Ans. 8.75 W/m2-K
81
EVAPORATION, HUMIDIFICATION,
CRYSTALLIZATION
1. Rebelen was assigned to maintain the equipment by cleaning it. She was scolded
by her boss since she could not clean the inside of the heat exchanger. But Reb said
she would’ve cleaned it if she could. What do you think is the reason behind this?
A. The boss has a high standard in cleaning.
B. The equipment might have been blocked by foreign matters.
C. Their company uses a hairpin type which offers only surface cleaning.
D. Their company uses a Multitubular heat exchanger which does not allow tube
bundles disassembly.
2. You were asked to select a type of heat exchanger but only a double pipe. Your
boss will be happier if you could save more money. What would you recommend?
A. Finned type
B. Multitubular
C. Shell and Tube
D. Plat heat exchangers
3. With your knowledge in heat exchanger that at minimum temperature cross, the
effectiveness of a heat exchanger is observed to be dependent, what is your
conclusion in relation to the effectiveness of double-pipe heat exchangers?
A. Larger temperature cross provides higher efficiency. Shell and Tube is generally
more efficient than double-pipe.
B. Minimal temperature cross varies inversely with efficiency, thus double-pipe is
more efficient.
C. For smaller volumes, shell and tube is still affected by fouling factor and thus
unsuited for smaller volumes making double-pipe more efficient.
D. Both A and C
4. In a counterflow heat exchanger, the hot stream is cooled from 120 to 30 oC while
the cold stream temperature changes from 20 to 60 oC. If the same exchanger were
operated with parallel flow, what would be the exit temperatures of the two
streams?
A. 51.5oC: 50.4oC
B. 61.4oC: 20.8oC
C. 88.2oC: 54.9oC
D. 73.4oC: 44.9oC
5. Oil at 50oF is heated in a horizontal 2-in. Schedule 40 steel pipe 60 ft long having
a surface temperature at 120oF. The oil flow rate is 150 gal/h at inlet temperature.
What will be the oil temperature as it leaves the pipe and after mixing?
A. 77.9oF
B. 63.8oF
82
C. 99.4oF
D. 11.4 oF
13. Humidification involves mass transfer between a pure liquid phase and a fixed gas
which is:
A. insoluble in the liquid
B. soluble in the liquid
C. non-ideal in nature
D. at a fixed temperature
83
14. At a fixed total pressure, humidity depends only on the
A. partial pressure of vapor in the mixture
B. heat capacity of the vapor
C. density of the vapor
D. none of these
16. In an air-conditioning system, 1 kg/s air at 350 K and 10 per cent humidity is mixed
with 5 kg/s air at 300 K and 30 per cent humidity. What is the humidity of the
resultant stream?
A. enthalpy = 76 kJ/kg
B. enthalpy = 67 kJ/kg
C. enthalpy = 87 kJ/kg
D. enthalpy = 57 kJ/kg
17. 0.08 m3/s of air at 305 K and 60% humidity is to be cooled to 275 K. Calculate,
using a psychrometric chart, the amount of heat to be removed for each 10 deg K
interval of the cooling process. What total mass of moisture will be deposited?
A. 0.0009 kg/s
B. 0.0010 kg/s
C. 0.00011 kg/s
D. 0.0012 kg/s
18. Which of the following psychrometric processes is followed by water vapour laden
unsaturated air, when it is passed through solid or liquid adsorbent?
A. Cooling and dehumidification.
B. Heating and dehumidification at almost constant wet bulb temperature.
C. Dehumidification with dry bulb temperature remaining constant.
D. None of these.
19. A _______ temperature is the steady state temperature attained by a small amount
of liquid evaporating into a large quantity of unsaturated gas-vapor mixture.
A. Dry bulb
B. Wet bulb
C. Dew point
D. none of these
84
B. Spray drier
C. Tunnel drier
D. Tray drier
21. During constant rate period, the rate of drying decreases with the
A. Decrease in air temperature
B. Increase in air humidity
C. both (a) and (b)
D. dehumidified
22. The term “approach” in a cooling tower refers to the difference in the temperature
of the
A. cold water leaving the tower and the wet bulb temperature of the surrounding air
B. hot water entering the lower and the wet bulb temperature of the surrounding air
C. hot water entering and the cooled water leaving the cooling tower.
D. none of these
23. Unsaturated air (with dry and wet bulb temperatures being 35 and 25 oC
respectively) is passed through water spray chamber maintained at 35 oC. The air
will be
A. cooled
B. humidified
C. both (a) & (b)
D. dehumidified
24. The solubility of a substance A at 25oC is 25g/L and at 50oC it solubility is 75g/L.
If 500 mL of a saturated solution of A is cooled from 50 oC to 25oC, how many
grams of solute A will be crystallized? Assume volume of solute in the solution is
negligible.
A. 12.5 g B. 37.5 g C. 25 g D. 32.5 g
85
ANSWER KEY
1.) C. Their company uses a hairpin type which offers only surface cleaning
2.) A. Finned type
3.) D. Both A and C
4.) A. 51.5oC : 50.4oC
5.) A. 77.9oF
6.) D. 8.08 Btu/h·ft2·oF
7.) B. the temperature in the steam chest is lower in the first than in the second effect
8.) D. 150oF
9.) C. 50oF
10.) C. 1080 BTU
11.) A. 247 m2
12.) B. 28340 kg/h
13.) A. insoluble in the liquid
14.) A. partial pressure of vapor in the mixture
15.) A. vapor is in equilibrium with the liquid at the gas temperature
16.) B. enthalpy = 67kJ/kg
17.) D. 0.0012 kg/s
18.) B. Heating and dehumidification at almost constant wet bulb temperature
19.) B. Wet bulb
20.) D. Tray drier
21.) C. both (a) and (b)
22.) A. cold water leaving the tower and the wet bulb temperature of the surrounding
air
23.) B. humidified
24.) C. 25 g
25.) B. 249.3
86
SOLUTIONS
4. For the countercurrent operation:
Thi =120°C Tci =20°C
Tho = 30°C Tco = 60°C
LMTD = [(Thi-Tco)-(Tho-Tci)]/ln[(Thi-Tco)/(Tho-Tci)] LMTD = 27.9055°C
Because the same heat exchanger would be used, the only meaningful assumption
is to use the same LMTD for the new exit temperatures. Thus, LMTD Countercurrent =
LMTDParallel Also, Thi and Tci will remain the same. We need to find Tho and Tco.
The correct answer would be the one with a temperature difference of 3.1047°C.
5. At 120°F: At 50°F
ρ = 56.2 lb/ft3 μ = 100 cp (0.067197 lbm/ft-s)
cp = 0.465 BTU/lb°F
k = 0.070 BTU/hr-ft-°F (1.9444 x 10-5 BTU/s-ft-°F) μ = 20 cp (0.0134394 lb/ft-s)
87
From the Reynolds Number, we can tell that its flow is laminar. Thus, we use 5-
47 Perry or 4.5-4 by Geankoplis, else we use the turbulent one. NNu =
1.86[D(NReNPr)/L]1/3(μb/μ w)0.14
Substituting:
NNu = 1.86[0.17225(172.0467)(321.3944)/60]1/3(100/20)0.14
NNu = 12.6163
Since NNu = hD/k, h(0.17225)/0.070 = 12.6163
h = 5.1271 BTU/hr-ft2-°F
1. This temperature of 150°F is the vapor chest pressure which is the boiling
point of water. How about the solution? The boiling point of solution is higher
since it has BPE, of course.
88
Enthalpy balance: FhF + SHS = LhL + VhV + ShS; SλS = LhL + VhV - FhF
Where SλS = q
From NaOH-enthalpy chart:
hF = 100 BTU/lb (150°F) [Since it is stated that it is fed at boiling point. Thus TV = TF]
hL = 170 BTU/lb (200°F) [This is the solution temperature.]
Substitute:
LhL + V(hV + 0.45BPE) - FhF = q 1(170) + 1[1125.7072 + 0.45(50)] – 2(100) = q
q = 1118.7072 BTU (Closest is 1080 BTU)
11.
Make a figure yourself. Feed is concentrated from 15% to 50%.
V = 25 000 kg/hr Saturated steam is fed at 0.8 atm.
No BPE! (TL = TV) Data Gathered from Steam Table (app).
cPF = 0.93 cal/g-K TS = 367 K
U = 1700 W/m2-K λS = 2272.6169 kJ/kg-K
Solve:
OMB: F = L+V = L+25000
Solute: F(0.15) = L(0.50) F = 35714.2857 kg/hr
L = 10714.2857 kg/hr
Heat Balance:
q = FcpF(TL-TF) + VλV
BPE q =1700(1/1000)(A)(367-TV)(3600)
S = 28340 kg/hr
An increase in Area, provides lower temperature difference from the steam and
the vapor chest. Either way, practically speaking, an area of 693 m 2 is too big for an
89
evaporator so in essence, the area that must be selected must be at least the industrially
correct and conceivable, so we would go for for 247 m2 since it would provide highest
temperature gradient
90
find the outlet temperature by sensible heat balance.
mDAcs1(T1-T)=mDAcs2(T-T2)
From the previous values, mDA1 = 0.958426 kg da/s, mDA2 = 4.966514 kg da/s
And to find cs, cs = 1.01 + 1.88H: cs1 = 1.09155 kJ/kg-K, c s2 = 1.02266 kJ/kg-K
0.958426(1.09155)(350-T) = (4.966514)(1.02266)(T-300)
T = 308.5398
From Perry’s Handbook, the equation to find the enthalpy is given by:
h = [cpg + cpv(H)](T-TRef) + λRef(H) = [1.01 + 1.88H](T-273.15K) + 2501H in
kJ/kg h = [1.01 + 1.88(0.012662)](308.5398-273.15) + 2501(0.012662)
h = 68.25380 kJ/kg
Ans. 67kJ/kg
91
E = 0.09005808(0.018192-4.308235 X 10-3)
E = 0.0012503 kg H2O
Ans. 0.0012 kg/s
OMB: F = L + C
Solute: FXF = LXL + CXC
500 = L + C
500(0.28) = L(0.12875) + C(0.44086) L = 257.6986 kg/hr
C = 242.3024 kg/hr
Ans. 249.3
92
REACTION KINETICS, GAS ABSORPTION, DRYING
2. Discuss the following overall reaction with respect to order, catalysts, etc.
A. First order in A, second order in B, first order in C, product is inhibitor, fourth order
overall
B. First order in A, second order in B, first order in C, product is catalyst, fourth order
overall
C. First order in A, second order in B, first order in C, reactant is catalyst, fourth order
overall
D. First order in A, second order in B, first order in C, reactant is inhibitor, fourth order
overall
3. The half life for the given reaction was doubled as the initial concentration of a
reactant is doubled. What is the order of the reaction?
A. 0 B.1 C. 1/2 D. 2
7. A second order reaction of the from A+B C is called a pseudo-first order reaction
when
93
8. A first order irreversible reaction A B is carried separately in a constant volume
as well as in a variable volume reactor for a particular period. It signifies that
A. both conversion as well as concentration are the same in the two reactors
B. conversion in both will be the same but concentrations will be different in the two
reactors
C. both the conversion as well as concentrations will be different in the two reactors
D. none of these.
10. If a catalyst increases the rate of a reaction what happens to k(forward), the rate
constant for the forward reaction, and to k(reverse), the rate constant of the reverse
reaction?
A. k(forward) increases and k(reverse) increases
B. k(forward) increases and k(reverse) decreases
C. k(forward) increases and k(reverse) remains unchanged
D. k(forward) remains unchanged and k(reverse) decreases
11. A liquid phase reaction: A+B < -- > R+S, where k1=7 L/mol-min and k2=3 L/mol-
min is to take place in a 120-L CSTR. Two feed streams, one contaiming 2.8 mols
A/L, and the other containing 1.6 mols B/L are to introduced in equal volumes into
the reactor and 75% conversion of the limiting reactant is desired. What should be
the flow rate of each stream? Assume a constant density throughout.
A. 8 L/min B. 2 L/min C. 16 L/min D. 4 L/min
12-15. A liquid feed of pure A (1 mol/L) is treated in two reactors of two-liter volume
each and reacts with the rate of rA=0.05 Ca2, mol/L-s. find what feed rate in L/min that
will give a final outlet concentration of Ca=0.5 mol/L if
12. Two CSTRs in series are used
A. 8.49 B. 12 C. 10.23 D. 10.67
16. A liquid reactant stream (1 mol/L) passes through mixed-flow reactors in a series.
The concentration of A in the exit of the first reactor is 0.5 mol/L. Find the
94
concentration in the exit stream of the second reactor. The reaction is second order
with respect to A and V2/V1=2.
A. 0.25 mol/L B. 0.5 mol/L C. 0.75 mol/L D. 0.87 mol/L
17. An aqueous reactant stream (4 A/L) passes through a mixed-flow reactor followed
by a plug-flow reactor. Find the concentration at the exit of the plug-flow reactor.
If in the mixed-flow reactor Ca = 1 mol/L. the reaction is second order with
respect to A, and the volume of the plug-flow reactor is three times that of the
mixed flow reactor.
A. 0.05 mol/L B. 0.01 mol/L C. 0.1 mol/L D. 0.5 mol/L
18. In general, operating pressure should be ___ and temperature ___ for an absorber,
to minimize stage requirements and/or absorbent flow rate to lower the equipment
volume required to accommodate the gas flow.
A. high, low B. low, high C. maximum, low D. minimum,
high
19. The reverse is true for stripping. However, the operating pressure should not be too
high and operating temperature should not be too low as to ___ the feed gas.
A. Vaporize B. condense C. compress D. none of these
20. CO2 is to be absorbed from air using pure water in a countercurrent column. The
ratio of mass fraction of CO2 in inlet air to that in exit air is 5 and the absorption
factor 1.25. What is the theoretical number stages needed if the equilibrium line has
a slope of 2?
A. 2. 63 B. 3.11 C. 2.18 D. 1.98
21. If the liquid flow rate in the preceding item is 20 mol/s, what is the gas flow rate?
A. 10 mol/s B. 8 mol/s C. 16 mol/s D. 12 mol/s
23. The initial moisture content of a food product is 77% (wet basis), and the critical
moisture content is 30% (wet basis). If the constant drying rate is 0.1 kg H2O/ m2.s,
compute the time required for the product to begin the falling rate drying period.
The product has a cube shape with 5-cm sides, and the initial product density is 950
kg/m3.
A. 23.4 s B. 34.6 s C. 48.5 s D. 53.2 s
95
24. A cabinet dryer is being used to dry a feed product from 68% moisture content (wet
basis) to 5.5% moisture content (wet basis). The drying air enters the system at 54
degC and 10% RH. The product temperature is 25 degC throughout drying.
Compute the quantity of air required for drying on the basis of 1 kg of product solid.
A. 224.65 kg dry air/kg solids C. 302.27 kg dry air/kg solids
B. 268.4 kg dry air/kg solids D. 412.36 kg dry air/kg solids
25. An wet slab in a tray with a moisture content of 3.5 lbH2O/lb DS is to be dried until
the moisture is down to 1.5 lb H2O/lbDS of product. The dimensions of the slab is
4’x2’x3” and the density of the wet slab is 45 lb/ft3. How many trays are needed to
be dried to produce a ton of product? Assume that the slab does not warp during
drying.
A. 54 trays B. 44 trays C. 200 trays D. 20 trays
ANSWER KEY
1. B. 1/CAO
2. A. First order in A, second order in B, first order in C, product is catalyst,
fourth order overall
3. A. 0
4. B. Exponentially with time
5. C. remains unaffected in the presence of catalyst
6. A. very temperature sensitive
7. D. CBO>CAO
8. B. conversion in both will be the same but concentrations will be different in the
two reactors
9. B. A reaction that proceeds in only one step is an elementary process.
10. A. k(forward) increases and k(reverse) increases
11. D. 4 L/min
12. A. 8.49
13. B. 6
14. A. 12
15. B. 9
16. A. 0.25 mol/L
17. C. 0.1 mol/L
18. A. high, low
19. B. condense
20. A. 2.63
21. B. 8 mole/s
22. D. Excessive entrainment, increase in pressure drop, decrease in efficiency
23. D. 53.2 s
24. A. 224.65 kg dry air/kg solids
25. B. 44 trays
96
SOLUTIONS
For 75% conversion of B the composition within the reactor and in the exit
stream, for X= 0, is
Cao = 1.4 – 0.6 = 0.8 mole/liter
Cbo = 0.8 – 0.6 = 0.02 mole/liter
Crs = 0.6 mole/liter
Cs = 0.6 mole/liter
Now the rate of reaction at the conditions within the reactor is
-rA = -rB = k1CACB – k2CRCS
Hence the volumetric flow rate into and out of the reactor, is
𝑉(−𝑟𝐴) 𝑉(−𝑟𝐵)
ⱴ = 𝐶𝑎𝑜−𝐶𝑎 = 𝐶𝑏𝑜−𝐶𝑏
97
or 4 liters/min of each of the two feed streams.
2L
0.5 mol/L
2 1−Ca
=
Vo 0.05 Ca2
2 Ca−0.5 Ca−0.5
= ;
Vo 0.05 (0.5)2 1/80
2 Ca−0.5 1
= = 40 Vo = Ca - 0.5
Vo 1/80
1
+ 0.5 = Ca
40 𝑉𝑜
1
2 1− 40 Vo + 0.5
Vo
= 1 2 = Vo = 0.1416 L/sec or 8.4935 L/min
0.05 ( + 0.5)
40 Vo
Ans. 8.4935 L/min
13.
1mol/L
2L
0.5 mol/L
2L 0.5 mol/L
98
𝑉 𝐶𝑎𝑜−𝐶𝑎
= ; -rA = 0.05CA2
𝑉𝑜 −𝑟𝐴
𝑉 𝐶𝑎𝑜−𝐶𝑎 4 1−0.05
= 2 =
𝑉𝑜 0.05Ca 𝑉𝑜 0.05(0.5)2
𝐶𝑎𝑜 𝑑𝐶𝑎
τ = Cao ∫𝐶𝑎
−𝑟𝐴
1 𝑑𝐶𝑎 4
τ = ∫0.5 ; τ = 20 𝑉𝑜 = 20
0.05𝐶𝑎2
2 1 𝑑𝐶𝑎
= ∫0.5 0.05𝐶𝑎2
𝑉𝑜
2 1 0.5
= ∫0.5 = 0.1
𝑉𝑜 0.05(0.5)2
99
17. For the second order reaction
(𝐶𝑎𝑜−𝐶𝑎1 ) 4−1
For the mixed flow reactor: kτm = 2 = =3
𝐶𝑎1 1
Approach
The time for constant-rate drying will depend on mass of water removed and the rate
of water removal. Mass of water removed must be expressed on dry basis, and rate of
water removal must account for product surface area.
The initial moisture content is 0.77 kg H2O/kg product= 3.35 kg H2O/kg solids X=1/(1-
X)
1-0.77 kg H2O/kg product = .23 kg solid/kg product
The critical moisture content is 0.3 kg H2O/kg product= 0.43 kg H2O/kg solids
100
The amount of moisture to be removed from product during constant-rate drying will
be
3.35 – 0.43 = 2.92 kg H2O/kg solids
The surface area of the product during drying will be
0.05 m x 0.05 m =2.5 x 10-3 m2/side
2.5 x 10-3 x 6 sides = 0.015 m2
The drying rate becomes
0.1 kgH2O/(m2s)x0.015m2 = 1.5x10-3 kgH2O/s
Using the product density, the initial product mass can be established.
950 kg/m3x(0.05)3m3 = 0.11875 kg product
0.11875 kg product x 0.23 kg solid/kg product = 0.0273 kg solid
The total amount of water to be removed becomes
2.92 kgH2O/kg solids x 0.0273 kg solids = 0.07975 kg H2O
Using the drying rate, the time for constant-rate drying becomes
0.07975 kg H2O
= 53.2 s
1.5x10−3 kgH2O/s
Ans. 53.2 s
24. Using the Psychrometric chart from HB
W1 = 0.0186 kgH2O/kg dry air (using 30degC and 70% RH)
W2 = 0.0094 kgH2O/kg dry air (using 54degC and 10% RH)
(ṁa /ṁp)(0.0094 kgH2O/kg dry air) + 2.125 kgH2O/kg solids = (ṁa /ṁp)(0.0186
kgH2O/kg dry air) + 0.0582 kgH2O/kg solids
0.0092(ṁa /ṁp) = 2.067
(ṁa /ṁp) = 224.65 kg dry air/ kg solids
Ans. 224.65 kg dry air/ kg solids
101
SEPARATION PROCESS
2. In a binary distillation column, if the feed contains 40% mole vapour, the q line
will have a slope of ______. (solution required)
a. 1.5
b. -0.6
c. -1.5
d. 0.6
3. For a fixed number of ideal stages in a distillation column, as the reflux ratio is
increased, the difference in composition between the top and the bottom product
streams _____.
a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. Remains unaffected
d. Passes through a maximum
6. In the above question, when the resulting vapor ids condensed, the liquid
composition contains how much benzene (mole fraction)?
102
a. 0.532
b. 0.83
c. 0.425
d. 0.18
10. The estimated minimum number of stages for a binary distillation system with
relative volatility of 2.35, having the lighter component at 0.98 in the distillate and
0.045 in the bottoms is _____.
a. 9
b. 6
c. 7
d. 5
11. A filtration is carried out for 10 minutes at a constant rate in a leaf filter and
thereafter it is continued at constant pressure. This pressure is attained at the end of
the constant rate period. If one quarter of the total volume of the filtrate is collected
during the constant rate period, what is the total filtration rate time? Assume the
cake is incompressible and the filter medium resistance is negligible.
a. 80 min
b. 85 min
c. 95 min
d. 60 min
12. What is the fraction of the volume of voids over the total volume of the filter cake?
103
a. Permeability
b. Filterability
c. Sedimentation factor
d. Porosity
13. Volume of the filtrate collected is 1 gal when the filtration rate is 1.5gpm and it is
5 gal when the filtration rate is 0.6gpm. Calculate the volume collected when the
filtration rate is 0.55 gpm. Assume constant-pressure filtration.
a. 3.67
b. 4.22
c. 5.59
d. 5.18
14. In the problem above, what is the total volume of the filtrate collected in 15 min?
a. 4.45
b. 6.96
c. 10.85
d. 5.73
15. A plate and frame press delivers 50 liters of filtrate in an hour at constant pressure
of 50 psig. The washing time using 50 L of wash water is _____.
a. 1h
b. 2.5h
c. 4h
d. 3h
17. Find the sphericity of a cube of Vp=a3, Ap= 6a2 and c= a3.
a. 0.790
b. 0.830
c. 0.853
d. 0.806
104
19. What is false about sedimentation of particles in a concentrated suspension?
a. If a significant size range of particles is present, the large particles are settling
to a suspension of smaller ones so that the effective density and viscosity of the
fluid are increased.
b. The upward velocity of the fluid displaced during settling is appreciable in a
concentrated suspension.
c. The apparent settling velocity is more than the actual velocity to the fluid.
d. The velocity gradients in the fluid close to the particles are increased as a result
of the change in the area and shape of the flow spaces.
20. Square plates with 0.0123 cm thickness and 0.0645 square cm are randomly falling
through a liquid with a density of 55 lb/ft3 with a μ=15 centipoise. The SG of plates
is 3.0, what is its settling velocity?
a. 5.5cm/s
b. 7.2 cm/s
c. 3.9 cm/s
d. 6.8 cm/s
21. How many “g” can be obtained in a centrifuge which can spin a liquid at 2000
rev/min at a maximum radius of 10 cm?
a. 440
b. 450
c. 460
d. 470
22. A particle “A” of diameter 10 microns settles in an oil of SG 0.9 and viscosity of
10 poise under Stokes Law. A particle “B” with diameter 20 microns settling in the
same oil will have a settling velocity of _____.
a. Same as that of A
b. ¼ as that of A
c. Twice as that of A
d. Four times as that of A
23. The US Standard Sieve series is equivalent to a 24 mesh Tyler Standard is _____
microns.
a. 600
b. 100
c. 805
d. 707
24. A random handful of silica particles ranging in size from 28 mesh to 200 mesh is
thrown to a very deep body of water (without tides or turbulence).
105
Data: Viscosity of water= 0.01 poise mesh= 0.0589 cm
3
Density of silica= 2.65 g/cm 200 mesh= 0.0074 cm
The distance between the largest and the smallest particles after 10 min is _____.
a. 4700 cm
b. 4900 cm
c. 5000 cm
d. 4000 cm
25. An available crusher has been accepting hard rock with a volume surface mean
diameter of 0.069 m and providing a product with a surface mean diameter of 5x10 -
3
m. The power required for crushing 10000 kg/h of this specified rock is 6.35 kW.
Assume that the mechanical efficiency of the unit will remain unchanged. The
power consumption if the capacity were reduced to 9000 kg/h with the same feed
characteristics but with a reduction in the volume surface mean diameter of the
product is 4 x10-3 m.
a. 7.35 kW
b. 7.00 kW
c. 6.64 kW
d. 8.64 kW
26. What will be the power required for the same feed at 100 tons/hr to be crushed to a
product such that 80% is to passed through a 1.6 mm screen?
a. 280 kW
b. 260 kW
c. 270 kW
d. 290 kW
27. For low-porosity cakes, if the fraction of solute remaining is 0.3, the corresponding
wash ratio is _____.
a. 1.90
b. 0.75
c. 0.98
d. None
28. What filter media should be used when high resistance to oxidizing agents and high
breaking tenacity are both required?
a. Fluorocarbon
b. Nylon
c. Glass
d. Acetate
30. Calculate the equilibrium composition of the liquid and the vapour phases for the
mixture of methyl alcohol in water at a temperature of 50 C and under a pressure
of 40 kPa. Assume that both the liquid and the vapour behave ideally. At 50 C, the
vapour pressure of methyl alcohol is 53.32 kPa and that of water is 12.33 kPa.
a. Liquid 65.5% methyl alcohol; Vapour 85.95% methyl alcohol
b. Liquid 67.5% methyl alcohol; Vapour 89.98% methyl alcohol
c. Liquid 57.5% methyl alcohol; Vapour 79.80% methyl alcohol
d. Liquid 47.5% methyl alcohol; Vapour 69.16% methyl alcohol
107
ANSWER KEY
Separation Process
1. A. α >>1
2. C. -1.5
3. A. Increases
4. D. A total condenser is used
5. D. 98oC
6. A. 0.532
7. C. A temperature below its normal boiling point
8. A. 9.5 kPa
9. B. 3.35
10. A. 9
11. B. 85 min
12. D. Porosity
13. C. 5.59
14. B. 6.96
15. C. 4h
16. A. 0.779
17. D. 0.806
18. A. Recovery and separation of pharmaceuticals
19. C. The apparent settling velocity is more than the actual velocity to the fluid
20. B. 7.2 cm/s
21. B. 450
22. D. Four times as that of A
23. D. 707
24. A. 4700 cm
25. C. 6.64 kW
26. A. 280 kW
27. B. 0.75
28. C. Glass
29. A. 1) volatility 2) solubility 3) solubility
30. B. Liquid 67.5% methyl alcohol; Vapour 89.98% methyl alcohol
108
SOLUTIONS
2. 𝑦 = 𝑚𝑥 + 𝑏
𝑞 1
𝑦=− 𝑥+ 𝑥𝐹
1−𝑞 1−𝑞
𝑞 0.6
𝑚 = − 1−𝑞 = − 1−0.6
𝑚 = −1.5 Answer: -1.5
5.
𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝑓𝑟𝑎𝑐𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛 𝑏𝑒𝑛𝑧𝑒𝑛𝑒 = 1 − 0.682 = 0.318
98
Answer: 98 degC
6.
109
0.532 Answer: 0.532
74 𝑔
8. 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝐶6𝐻6 = 𝑔 = 0.94734 𝑚𝑜𝑙
78.1134
𝑚𝑜𝑙
48.8 𝑔
𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝐶8𝐻10 = 𝑔 = 0.52963 𝑚𝑜𝑙
92.1402
𝑚𝑜𝑙
0.94734
𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑒 𝑓𝑟𝑎𝑐𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛 𝐶6𝐻6 = = 0.6414
0.94734+0.52963
0.52963
𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑒 𝑓𝑟𝑎𝑐𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛 𝐶8𝐻10 = = 0.3586
0.94734+0.52963
𝑃𝑡𝑜𝑡𝑎𝑙 = ((𝑃°)(𝑥))𝐶6𝐻6 + ((𝑃°)(𝑥))𝐶8𝐻10
𝑃𝑡𝑜𝑡𝑎𝑙 = 95.1(0.6414) + (28.4)(0.3586)
𝑃𝑡𝑜𝑡𝑎𝑙 = 71.2𝑡𝑜𝑟𝑟 = 9492.5526 𝑃𝑎 = 9.5 𝑘𝑃𝑎
Answer: 9.5 kPa
𝑃𝐴 𝑥𝐵
9. 𝛼 (𝐴𝐵) = ( )
𝑥𝐴 𝑃𝐵
𝑃𝐴 = 𝑥𝐴 (𝑃𝐴°) = (0.6414)(95.1) = 60.9971 𝑡𝑜𝑟𝑟
𝑃𝐵 = 𝑥𝐵 (𝑃𝐵 °) = (0.3586)(28.4) = 10.1842 𝑡𝑜𝑟𝑟
60.9971 0.3586
𝛼 (𝐴𝐵) = (10.1842)
0.6414
𝛼 (𝐴𝐵) = 3.3486
Answer: 3.3486
𝑋 𝑋
𝑙𝑜𝑔( 𝐿𝐷 )( 𝐿𝐵 )
𝑋𝐻𝐷 𝑋𝐻𝐵
10. 𝑁=
log(𝛼)
0.98 1−0.045
𝑙𝑜𝑔( )( )
1−0.98 0.045
𝑁= log(2.35)
𝑁 = 8.1306 = 9 𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑔𝑒𝑠
Answer: 9 stages
110
𝑑𝑄 2𝑉 2𝑉𝑓
11. = +
𝑑𝑉 𝐶 𝐶
where C is a function of DP and mean specific cake resistance (a).If filter medium
resistance is negligible, then Vf = 0.Now the equation can be written in the form,
𝑑𝑄 2𝑉 2𝑉
= =
𝑑𝑉 𝐶 𝐶2 (𝑑𝑃)
Where Vt = total volume of filtrate (filtrate collected in constant rate operation and
constant pressure operation)
2𝑉 10 40
= =
𝐶2 (𝑑𝑃) 0.25 𝑉𝑡 𝑉𝑡
2
𝑑𝑄 = (𝑉𝑑𝑉)
0.0125 𝑉𝑡 2
80
𝑄𝑡 − 10 = (𝑉𝑡 2 − (0.25 𝑉𝑡)2 )
𝑉𝑡 2
80
𝑄𝑡 = 10 + (0.9375 𝑉𝑡 2 )
𝑉𝑡 2
Answer: 85 minutes
111
6 + 1.2 𝑉𝑐 = 𝑘 equation 2
Solve for Vc and k:
5
𝑉𝑐 = = 1.67 𝑔𝑎𝑙
3
𝑔𝑎𝑙2
𝑘=8 𝑚𝑖𝑛
V= ?, r= 0.55 gpm
8
0.55 = 2(𝑉+1.67)
𝑉 = 5.60 𝑔𝑎𝑙
Answer: 5.60 gal
15.
1 2
𝜋3 (6𝑉𝑝)3
16. 𝛹= diameter= 1 cm height= 3 cm
𝐴𝑝
1 2
𝜋3 (6𝜋(0.5)2(3))3
𝛹 = 2𝜋(0.5)(3)+2𝜋(0.5)2
𝛹 = 0.779
Answer: 0.779
1 2
𝜋3 (6𝑉𝑝)3
17. 𝛹= Vp = a3 Ap = 6a2
𝐴𝑝
1 2
𝜋3 (6𝑎3 )3
𝛹= 6𝑎2
1 2
𝜋3 (6)3
𝛹= 6
𝛹 = 0.8060
Answer: 0.806
112
𝐹𝑐 0.011 (0.1)(2000)2
=
𝐹𝑔 9.81
𝐹𝑐
= 450
𝐹𝑔
Answer: 450
𝑃 1 1
25. = 0.3162𝐸( − ) T1= 10000 kg/hr= 10 tons/hr
𝑇 √𝑥1 √𝑥2
6.35 1 1
= 0.3162𝐸( − √5𝑥10=3 )
10 √0.069
𝐸 = −0.1943
𝑃 1 1
= 0.3162𝐸( − ) T2= 9000 kg/hr= 9 tons/hr
𝑇 √𝑥1 √𝑥2
𝑃 1 1
= 0.3162(−0.1943(( − √4𝑥10=3 )
9 √0.069
𝑃 = 6.6380 𝑘𝑊
Answer: 6.6380 kW
𝑃 1 1
26. = 0.3162𝐸( − ) T= 100 tons/hr
𝑇 √𝑥1 √𝑥2
𝑃 1 1
= 0.3162(−0.1943)( − √1.6𝑥10−3 )
100 √0.069
𝑃 = 130.2052 𝑘𝑊
Answer: 130.2052 kW
𝑃−𝑃𝐵
30. 𝐿𝑖𝑞𝑢𝑖𝑑: 𝑥𝐴 = 𝑃𝐴 −𝑃𝐵
40−12.33
𝑥𝐴 = 53.32−12.33
𝑥𝐴 = 0.6750
𝑥𝐴 = 0.6750 𝑥 100 = 67.50%
𝑥𝐴 𝑃𝐴
𝑉𝑎𝑝𝑜𝑢𝑟: 𝑦𝐴 = 𝑃
0.675(53.32)
𝑦𝐴 = 40
𝑦𝐴 = 0.8998𝑥 100 = 89.98%
Answer: Liquid 67.50%, Vapour 89.98%
113
FLUID FLOW AND THERMODYNAMICS
2. The requirement by which the pressure of the liquid at the suction of the pump must
exceed the vapor pressure of the liquid to avoid cavitation of pump is
a. Net Positive Suction Head c. Cavitational Limit
5. A dimensionless group that is used to analyze transport phenomena and shows the
ratio of interial forces to gravitational forces
a. Euler number b. Froude number
8. Which of the following factors does not contribute to the pressure drop in a pipeline
114
a. velocity of fluid c. length of pipe and number of bends
b. size of pipe d. none of these
a. 320kPa b.240kPa
c. 480kPa d. 560kPa
11. Natural gas which is essentially methane is being pumped through a 1.016m ID
wrought iron pipeline for a distance of 1.609 x 10 5 m at a rate of 2.077kmol/s. It
can be assumed that the line is isothermal at 288.8K. The pressure P2 at the
discharge end of the line is 170.3 x 10 3 Pa absolute. Calculate the pressure P1 at
the inlet of the line.
a. 694 x10 3 Pa b.680 x 10 3 Pa
c. 724 x 10 3 Pa d. 433 x 10 3 Pa
12. The rate of flow of water in a 150mm diameter pipe is measured with a venturi
meter with a 50mm diameter throat. When the pressure drop over the converging
section is 121mm of water, the flow rate is 2.91kg/s. What is the coefficient for the
converging cone of the meter at this flow rate?
a. 0.895 b. 0.598 c. 0.859 d. 0.985
13. Water flows 10ft/s through a pipe 1000ft long with a diameter of 1in the inlet
pressure P1 = 200psig, and the exit section is 100ft higher than the inlet. What is
the exit pressure P2 if the friction head loss is 350ft?
115
pipe diameters. Also in the line there is a heat exchanger across which there is a
loss in head of 1.5m of water. If the main pipe has a roughness of 0.0002m, what
power must be delivered to the pump of the unit is 60% efficient?
a. 218W b.128W c. 521W d. 512W
15. A centrifugal pump is to be used to extract water from a condenser in which the
vacuum is 640mmHg. At the rated discharge, the net positive suction head must be
at least 3 above the cavitation vapor pressure of 710mmHg vacuum. If losses in the
suction pipe account for a head of 1.5m, what must be the least height of the liquid
level in the condenser above the pump inlet?
a. 3.55m b.5.33m c. 1.77m d. 7.17m
16. For an isothermal process the internal energy of a gas
a. Increases b. decreases
c. remains unchanged d. data insufficient can’t be predicted
17. During Joule-Thomson expansion of gases
21. 21.Work in the amount of 12kJ is done on a closed system, and its internal energy
decreases by 25kJ. How much heat is removed from the system?
a. 12 kJ b. 20 kJ c. 13 kJ d. 37 kJ
22. An ideal gas with CV = (7/2)R enters a process at 300K and 2 bar and leaves the
process at 600K and 9 bar. Calculate its entropy change.
116
a. 5.4 J/mol-K b. 8.4 J/mol-K
c. 10.4 J/mol-K d. 13.4 J/mol-K
23. Calculate the work necessary to compress air in an insulated cylinder from a volume
of 6 ft 3 to a volume of 1.2 ft 3. The initial temperature and pressure are 50⁰F and
30psia, respectively.
26. Two Carnot engines operate in series between two reservoirs maintained at 600⁰F
and 100⁰F respectively. The energy rejected by the first engine is input into the
second engine. If the first engine’s efficiency is 20% greater than the second
engine’s efficiency, calculate the intermediate temperature.
27. A refrigerator with a power consumption of 1.8KW has a refrigeration rate of 4KW.
If heat is rejected from the condenser at 40⁰C, what is the lowest possible
temperature that the refrigerator can maintain?
28. Nitrogen gas expands adiabatically from 9 bar and 100⁰C to 2 bar, at a flowrate of
100mol/s. If the turbine efficiency is 0.80, calculate the power output of the turbine.
Assume that nitrogen is an ideal gas with Cp = (7/2)R.
a. 504kW b.630kW c. 379kW d. 303kW
29. Nitrogen gas enters a nozzle at 1000kPa and 200⁰C with a negligible initial velocity
and discharges at a pressure of 500kPa. Assuming isentropic expansion of the
nitrogen in the nozzle, determine the exit velocity. Assume nitrogen to be ideal gas
with Cp = (7/2)R.
30. Water at 200⁰F is pumped from a storage tank at the rate of 50gpm. The motor for
the pump supplies work at the rate of 2hp. The water goes through a heat exchanger,
giving up heat at the rate of 40000BTU/min and is delivered to a second storage
117
tank at an elevation 50ft above the second tank. What is the temperature of water
delivered to the second tank?
ANSWER KEY
118
SOLUTIONS
2𝑓𝑣²𝐿𝜌
10. ∆𝑃 = 𝐷
𝐷𝑣𝜌
𝑁𝑅𝑒 =
𝜇
𝜋
𝐴𝑟𝑒𝑎 = (0.025)2 = 4.91 𝑥 10−4 𝑚2
4
𝑚 1.25𝑘𝑔/𝑠
𝑉𝑜𝑙 = = = 6.7934 𝑥 10−4 𝑚3 /𝑠
𝜌 1840 𝑘𝑔/𝑚3
0.079 0.079
𝑓= 0.25 = 0.25 = .0111
𝑁𝑅𝑒 2545.824
1.38360𝑚 𝑘𝑔
2𝑓𝑣²𝐿𝜌 2(.0111)( 𝑠 )²(30𝑚)(1840 3 )
𝑚 = 93836.79 𝑃𝑎
∆𝑃 = =
𝐷 0.025𝑚
11.
𝑘𝑚𝑜𝑙 16 𝑘𝑔
2.077 𝑠 ( )
𝐺= 𝑘𝑚𝑜𝑙 = 40.99
𝜋
4 (1.016𝑚)²
𝐷𝐺 1.016 (40.99)
𝑁𝑅𝑒 = = = 3820719.266
𝜇 1.09 𝑥 10−5
0.9
1 . 27(4.57𝑥10−5 7
= −4 log( +( ) )
√𝑓 1.016 3820719.266
𝑓 = 2.8042 𝑥 10−3
119
𝑅𝑇 4𝑓𝐿 𝑃1
𝑃1 2 − 𝑃2 2 = 𝐺 2 ( + 2𝑙𝑛 )
𝑀𝑊 𝐷 𝑃2
𝑃1 2 − (170.3 𝑥 103 )2
8.314(288.8) 4(2.8042 𝑥 10−3 )(1.609𝑥105
= 40.992 (
16/1000 1.016
𝑃1
+ 2𝑙𝑛 )
170.3 𝑥 103
𝑃1 = 𝟔𝟕𝟒, 𝟐𝟓𝟖. 𝟔𝟐𝟒𝟐 𝑷𝒂
12.
C = 0.98 is commonly used for 𝑁𝑅𝑒 > 10,000
𝑃1−𝑃2
15.𝑁𝑃𝑆𝐻 = + ∆𝑧 − ℎ𝑓
𝑔𝜌
∆𝑧 = 𝟑. 𝟓𝟓𝒎
21. ∆𝑈 = 𝑄 − 𝑊
−25 = 12 − 𝑊
𝑊 = 37kJ
𝑇2 𝑃1
22.∆𝑆 = 𝑛𝐶𝑝 ln 𝑇1 + 𝑛𝑅𝑙𝑛 𝑃2
9 600 2
∆𝑆 = (8.3145) ln + 8.3145𝑙𝑛
2 300 9
𝑱
∆𝑆 = 𝟏𝟑. 𝟒𝟑
𝒎𝒐𝒍 𝑲
120
23. 𝑄 = ∆𝑈 + 𝑊
0 = ∆𝑈 + 𝑊
∆𝑈 = −𝑊
−𝑊 = 𝑚𝐶𝑣 ∆𝑇
𝑉1 1.4−1
𝑇2 = 𝑇1 ( )
𝑉2
0.17 1.4−1
𝑇2 = 283.15 ( )
0.0340
𝑇2 = 539.0196 𝐾
𝑊 0.717𝐾𝐽 𝐾𝐽
− =( ) (539.0196 − 283.15)𝐾 = −183.4585 = −𝟕𝟖. 𝟖𝟕 𝑩𝑻𝑼
𝑚 𝑘𝑔 − 𝐾 𝑘𝑔
@ 15 𝑏𝑎𝑟
𝑆𝑓 = 3.697023125
𝑆𝑓𝑔 = 3.697023125
26.
𝑇1 − 𝑇2 𝑊
𝑛1 = =
𝑇1 𝑄2 + 𝑊
𝑇2 − 𝑇3 𝑊
𝑛2 = =
𝑇2 𝑄3 + 𝑊
𝑇1 − 𝑇2 = 𝑇2 − 𝑇3
600 − 𝑇2 = 𝑇2 − 100
121
27.
4 40
= 1−
1.8 𝑥
x = -32.72 ⁰C
28.
𝑃2 1.4−1
𝑇2 = 𝑇1 ( ) 1.4
𝑃1
2 1.4−1
𝑇2 = 373.15 ( ) 1.4
9
𝑇2 = 242.8014 𝐾
∆𝑈 = 𝑊 = 𝑚𝐶𝑝 ∆𝑇
7
𝑊 = (100) ( ) (8.314)(373.15 − 242.8014) = 379301.3911 𝑊 = 379.301 𝐾𝑊
2
𝑊 = 379.301 ∗ .80 = 𝟑𝟎𝟑. 𝟒𝟒𝟎𝟖 𝑲𝑾
29.
𝑉12 𝑉22
𝐻1 + = 𝐻2 +
2 2
1.4(𝑅)
𝑉2 = √𝑉12 + 2 (𝑇1 − 𝑇2)
1.4 − 1
500 1.4−1
𝑇2 = (200 + 273.15) ( ) 1.4
1000
𝑇2 = 388.1416 𝐾
R = 287 J/kg-K
1.4(287)
𝑉2 = √0 + 2 (473.15 − 388.1416)
1.4 − 1
𝑽𝟐 = 𝟒𝟏𝟑𝒎/𝒔
122
30.
Water @ 200F = 366.48 K
Z150ft = 15.24m
Density = 963.24 kg/m3
50 gpm = 3.15451 x 10 ^ -3 m3/s
1
𝑄 = −703370.8W ( ) = −231478.5757 J/kg
kg
3.0386 s
𝑉22 − 𝑉12
𝐻2 − 𝐻1 + 𝑔∆𝑧 + =𝑄−𝑊
2
𝐻2 − 390 𝑥 103 + (9.81)(15.24) + 0 = −231478.5757 − (−491.02)
𝐽 158.8629𝐾𝐽
𝐻2 = 158862.9256 = = 2.8627 𝐾𝐽/𝑚𝑜𝑙
𝑘𝑔 𝑘𝑔
By interpolation
Enthaply Temp.
2.7810 310K
3.5340 320K
T = 311.08 K = 100.274⁰F
123
LEACHING AND LIQUID-LIQUID EXTRACTION
Underflow
Feed to Strong Leaving
Thickener, Solution System
% % mass %
124
Determine the number of equilibrium stages.
4. 4. Coconut oil is to be produced from dry copra in two stages. First, through
expellers to squeeze out part of the coconut oil and then through a countercurrent
multistage extraction process. After expelling, the dry copra cake contains 20%
residual oil. In the extraction operation, 90% of the residual oil in the expeller cake
is extracted as a solution containing 50% by weights oil. If fresh solvent is used and
one kg of solution with every two kg of insoluble cake is removed with the
underflow, how many number of ideal stage is required?
5. 5. A plant produces 8640 tonnes per day (100 kg/s) of titanium dioxide pigment
which must be 99.9 per cent pure when dried. The pigment is produced by
precipitation and the material, as prepared, is contaminated with 1 kg of salt
solution, containing 0.55 kg of salt/kg of pigment. The material is washed
countercurrently with water in a number of thickeners arranged in series. How
many thickeners will be required if water is added at the rate of 17,400 tonnes per
day (200 kg/s) and the solid discharged from each thickener removes 0.5 kg of
solvent/kg of pigment? What will be the required number of thickeners if the
amount of solution removed in association with the pigment varies with the
concentration of the solution in the thickener, as follows? The concentrated wash
liquor is mixed with the material fed to the first thickener.
125
0 0.30
0.1 0.32
0.2 0.34
0.3 0.36
0.4 0.38
0.5 0.40
6. In a pilot scale test using a vessel 1 m3 in volume, a solute was leached from an
inert solid and the water was 75 per cent saturated in 100 s. If, in a full-scale unit,
500 kg of the inert solid containing, as before, 28 per cent by mass of the water-
soluble component, is agitated with 100 m3 of water, how long will it take for all
the solute to dissolve, assuming conditions are equivalent to those in the pilot scale
vessel? Water is saturated with the solute at a concentration of 2.5 kg/m3.
7. Seeds, containing 20 per cent by mass of oil, are extracted in a countercurrent plant,
and 90 percent of the oil is recovered in a solution containing 50 per cent by mass
of oil. If the seeds are extracted with fresh solvent and 1 kg of solution is removed
in the underflow in association with every 2 kg of insoluble matter, a). what is the
mass fraction of insoluble material in the underflow ? b). how many ideal stages
are required?
9. It is desired to extract acetone from a feed containing acetone and water, using
chloroform as the solvent, in two cross current extraction stage as shown below.
Assume that water and chloroform are immiscible. The ffg. are given for the
process. The feed is equimolar mixture of acetone and water. The quantities of
chloroform used in 2 stages are equal. 60mole % of the acetone in the feed is
extracted in stage I. The extract and raffinate phases existing from each stage are in
equilibrium. The equilibrium relation for the distribution of acetone is given by:
(moles of acetone in water rich phase)/ (moles of water in water rich phase) = 2.0
x (moles of acetone in chloroform rich phase)/ (moles of chloroform in chloroform
rich phase)
a. Determine the quantity of chloroform used in each per mole of feed.
b. Determine the mole fraction of acetone (product) after stage I
126
c. Determine the mole fraction of acetone (final product)
10. A feed containing a solute is contacted with a solvent (S) in an ideal stage as shown
in the diagram below. Only the solute transfers into the solvent. The flow rates of
all the streams are shown on a solute free basis and indicated by the subscript S.
The compositions of the streams are expressed on a mole ratio basis. The extract
leaving the contactor is divided into two equal parts, one part collected as the
product (P) and the other stream is recycled to join the solvent. The equilibrium
relationship is Y* = 2X.
a. The product flow rate (Ps)
b. The composition (Y out)
c. The composition of raffinate (X out)
ANSWER KEY
127
SOLUTIONS:
1. Required: No. of Exraction Cells
Water
97 % r V2 Vn+1
0.15 sugar Y2 Yn+1
Lo = 50 tons/hr L1 Ln
0.048 water X1 Xn = 0.03x1
0.40 pulp
0.12 sugar
X1 = Y1 = 0.15
Vn+1 (Y2 – Yn+1) = Ln ( X1-Xn)
128
a.
0.15 − 0.1292
log
N= 0.003 + 1 = 15.49
0.15 − 0.003
log 0.1282
N = 16 extraction cells
b.
3 tons water
If R = dry pulp
Ln = 60 tons/ hr
V1 = 38.8 tons/hr
X1 = 0.1764 , Xn = 0.003
60
𝑌2 = (0.1764 − 0.003) = 0.150888
62.98
0.1764 − 0.150888
log
N= 0.003 +1
0.1764 − 0.003
log 0.150888
Vo
6.69% CuSo4 Vn
93.31 % Water Water
Lo = 300 tons/ hr
6.10% CusSo4
14.92 Gangue
78.98% Water
129
Ln
R = 1.22 tons of solution / 1% CuSO4
tons gangue 99% Water +
Gangue
In Ln:
GangueLn + WaterLn
0.99 =
Gangue Ln + WaterLn + CuSO4Ln
44.76 + 54.6072 − CuSO4Ln
0.99 =
44.76 + 54.6072 − CuSO4Ln + CuSO4Ln
CuSO4Ln = 0.993672 tons/hr = 0.01Ln ; Ln = 99.33672 tons/hr
CuSO4 Balance : 0.0610 (300 tons/hr) = 0.993672 tons/hr + 0.0669Vo
Vo = 258.6895 tons/hr
Ya = 0.993672 / 54.6072 = 0.0182
Yb* = (54.6072 / 58.0567) (0.0669 – 0.0182)) = 0.0458
0.0669 − 0.0458
ln
𝑁−1= 0.0182
0.0669 − 0.0182
ln 0.0458
N = 3.41 = 4 stages
130
3. Required: Number of stages , mass of ether at overflow
r = 90%
Y1
23.33 kg oil 50 = Vn+1
50-e kg ether Y2 Yn+1 = 0
100 kg X1
74 kg live Ln
26 kg oil Yn
e(ether)
Solution:
Ratio
Overflow Concentration Entrainment
Oil Ether
0 0.28 0 0.280
131
b. M ether underflow = 0.306 kg ether / kg ex liver (74.0741 kg ex liver) = 26.67 kg
ether
M ether overflow = 50 – 22.67 = 27.33 kg ether
X1 = Y1 = 23.33 kg oil / 27.33 kg ether = 0.8536
Xn = 2.5926 kg oil / 22. 67 kg ether underflow = 0.1144
Ln (X1 – Xn ) = Vn+1 ( Y2 – Yn+1)
22.67 (0.8536 – 0.1144 ) = 50(Y2 – 0)
Y2 = 0.3352
a. No. of Stages
0.8536 − 0.3352
log
𝑁−1= 0.1144 − 0
0.8536 − 0.1144
log 0.3352 − 0
N = 2.91 = 3 stages
V1
Vn+1
y1=0.50 y2
Yn+1 = 0
Ln
1 kg sol’n / kg solids
Lo x1
Xn
Xo = 0.2
Assuming 2 kg solids
At Ln: Msolution = 1kg sol’n / 2 kg solids (2 kg solids) = 1kg solution
y1 = x1 = 0.50
yn+1 = 0
Oil in Lo = 2 kg / 0.8 (0.2) = 0.5 kg
Oil in Ln = 0.5 kg (0.1) = 0.05 kg
132
Oil in V1 = 0.5 kg -0.05kg = 0.45 kg
V1 = 0.45 kg / 0.50 = 0.90 kg
5.
Y1 Y2 𝑘𝑔
54.9 kg salt 200 H2O
𝑠
Yn+1
𝑘𝑔
100 𝑠
TiO2
𝑘𝑔 X1
100 TiO2 Xn 0.1 kg salt
𝑠 0.5 𝑘𝑔 𝑠𝑜𝑙𝑣𝑒𝑛𝑡
removed = 𝑘𝑔 𝑝𝑖𝑔𝑚𝑒𝑛𝑡
𝑘𝑔 𝑠𝑎𝑙𝑡
1 kg salt solution = 0.55 = 55 kg salt
𝑘𝑔 𝑝𝑖𝑔𝑚𝑒𝑛𝑡
54.9
Y1=X1 = = 0.2815
195
0.1
Xn = = 0.002
50
50 (X1-Xn) = 200 (Y2-Yn+1)
133
50 (0.2815-0,002) = 200 (Y2-0)
Y2 = 0.0699
0.2815−0.0699
𝑙𝑜𝑔
0.002
N= 0.2815−0.002
𝑙𝑜𝑔
0.0699
N = 4.36 𝑥 5 thickeners
6. PILOT SCALE:
Cs = 2.5 kg/m3
V = 1.0 m3
t = 100s
C = 2.5 kg/m3 (o.75) = 1.875 kg/m3
C = Cs 1-𝑒 −(𝐾′𝐴⁄𝐵)𝑡 )
1.40 2.5 (1-𝑒 −(0.013863⁄100)𝑡 )
t = 5922.10 s
t = 98.70 mins
7.
Y2 Un+1
Yn+1
N
Lo
Ln
20% oil X1 Xn
80% inert
90% r 1𝑘𝑔 𝑠𝑜𝑙𝑛
50% oil
Y= 0.5
2𝑘𝑔 𝑖𝑛𝑠𝑜𝑙𝑢𝑏𝑙𝑒
REQD: a. Xinert
134
b. Ideal Stages, N
SOLN:
Basis: 100g Lo
0.2 (100) kg oil (0.9) = moil V1 = 0.5 V1
V1 = 36 kg
1𝑘𝑔 𝑠𝑜𝑙𝑛
0.80 (100) kg inert (2 𝑘𝑔 𝑖𝑛𝑒𝑟𝑡) = 40 kg soln = Ln
0.1 (20)
Xn = = 0.05
40
X1 = Y1 = 0.5
Ln (X1-Yn) = Vn+1 (Y2-Yn+1)
40 (0.5-0.05) = 56 (Y2-0)
Y2 = 0.3214
80
a. Xinert =
40 + 80 + 2
Xinert = 0.66
𝑋1−𝑌2
log𝑋𝑛−𝑌𝑛+1
b. N-1 = 𝑋1−𝑋𝑛
log
𝑌2−𝑌𝑛+1
0.5−0.3214
log
0.05−0
N= 0.5−0.05 +1
log0.3214−0
N = 4.78 ≈ 5 stages
8.
V1 Vo
11% pyridine Pure chlorobenzene
89% chlorobenzene
EXTRACTOR
Lo = 500 kg L1
20% pyridine 5% pyridine
80% H2O 95% H2O
OMB:
Lo + Vo = L1 + V1
135
Pyridine Balance:
0.20 (500 kg) = 0.05 L1 + 0.11 V1
Chlorobenzene Balance:
Vo = 0.89 V1
H2O Balance:
0.80 (500kg) = 0.95 L1
L1 = 421.05 kg (raffinate)
9.
chloroform chloroform
S1 S2
H2O P1 P2
F = 1mol 0.5mol H2O
50% acetone E1 0.5-0.3 = 0.5mol H2O
50% H2O 0.2 mol acetone E2 0.2-x mol acetone
60%x acetone feed 1.5 mol chloroform
0.6 (0.5) = 0.3 mol acetone xacetone = ?
SOL’N:
in feed, F:
acetone = 0.5 mol
H2O = 0.5 mol
136
in E1:
acetone = 0.6(0.5) = 0.3 mol acetone
c. Using the relationship:
𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝑎𝑐𝑒𝑡𝑜𝑛𝑒𝐻2𝑂 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝑎𝑐𝑒𝑡𝑜𝑛𝑒(𝑐ℎ𝑙𝑜𝑟𝑜𝑓𝑜𝑟𝑚)
= 2 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝑐ℎ𝑙𝑜𝑟𝑜𝑓𝑜𝑟𝑚 (𝑐ℎ𝑙𝑜𝑟𝑜𝑓𝑜𝑟𝑚)
𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝐻2 𝑂(𝐻2𝑂)
0.2 0.3
=2
0.5 𝑆
S = 1.50 mol Chloroform
in P1:
acetone = 0.5 – 0.3 = 0.2 mol acetone
H2O = 0.5 mol H2O
0.2
d. = Xacet1
0.5+0.2
Xacet1 = 0.29
E2 = acetone + S2
S2 = 1.5
Acetone = 0.2-X
P2 = acetone + H2O
acetone = X
H2O = 0.5
e. using the relationship:
𝑋 0.2−𝑋
=2
0.5 1.5
x = 0.08 mol acetone
0.08
Xacet2 = ; Xacet1 = 0.14
0.08+0.5
10.
E Product (P)
Solvent (S) = 100 𝑚𝑜𝑙⁄𝑠 Yout
Yin = 0 Extracted Recycle
A
𝟏𝟎𝟎 𝒎𝒐𝒍
Total Feed = = 142.8571
𝟎.𝟕 𝑺
137
OMB: 142.8571 + 100 = R + P
Solute Balance: 0.3 (142.8571) = Xout R + Yout P
P = 100/(1-2Xout)
Using 1 & 2:
R=R
142.8571−485.7142 Xout 42.8571−285.7142 Xout
=
1−2 Xout Xout−X2 out
100
a. Ps = (0.78)
1−2 (0.11)
Ps = 100 mol/s
b. Yout = 2Xout
Yout = 2(0.11)
Yout = 0.22
c. Xout = 0.11
138
PHYSICS, STATICS, DYNAMICS, CHE LAWS & ETHICS
1. A projectile is fired with a horizontal velocity of 30 m/s from the top of a cliff 80
m high. How far from the foot of the cliff will it strike?
a. 112m b. 230 m c. 121 m d. 151m
3. An object is dropped from rest from a height of 49 meters. What is the speed of the
object as it hits the ground?
a. 35 m/s b. 31 m/s c. 28 m/s d. 19 m/s
4. An 8-gram bullet is fired horizontally into a 9-kg block of wood and sticks in it.
The block, which is free to move, has velocity of 40 cm/s after impact. Find the
initial velocity of the bullet.
a. 450 m/s b. 350 m/s c. 220 m/s d. 510 m/s
5. An object travelling a circular path makes 1200 revolutions in 1 hour. If the radius
of the path is 10 m, calculate the speed of the object.
a. 19 m/s b. 21 m/s c. 20 m/s d. 22 m/s
6. A stone is thrown straight upward and it rises to a height of 20 m. with hat speed
was it thrown?
a. 12.6 m/s b. 19.8 m/s c. 17.7 m/s d. 23.8 m/s
8. A 0.25 hp motor is used to lift a load at the rate of 5.00 cm/s. how great a load can
lift at this constant speed?
a. 381 kg b. 350 kg c. 421 kg d. 400 kg
9. By the use of the pulley, a man raises a load 120 lb to a height of 40 ft in 65 seconds.
Find the average horsepower required.
a. 0.18 hp b. 0.19 hp c. 0.13 hp d. 0.04 hp
10. A certain cable is suspended between two supports at the same elevation and 50 m
apart. The load is 50 N/m horizontal length including the weight of the cable. If the
sag of the cable is 3m, calculate the total length of the cable.
a. 40.12 m b. 25.40 m c. 50.48 m d. 60.24 m
139
11. A 10-kg block of copper at 60oC is placed in contact with the identical 10-kg block
of copper at 20oC. What is the equilibrium temperature of both blocks? (for copper
c=0.24 kJ/kg-oC)
a. 55 deg C b. 45 deg C c. 50 deg C d. 40 deg C
12. A certain 1200-kg car can accelerate from rest to a speed of 25 m/s in a time of 8.00
s. What is the average power must the motor produce to cause this acceleration?
Ignore friction losses.
a. 62.8 hp b. 50.2 hp c. 52.8 hp d. 60.2 hp
13. Two forces vector A and B act on the same point. If A = 50N, 30 degrees and B =
40N, 120 degrees, what is the resultant force?
a. 64 N b. 46 N c. 106 N d. 94 N
15. What average force is necessary to stop a bullet of mass 10 g and speed of 200
cm/sec as it penetrates wood 15 cm thick?
a. 1512 N b. 1411 N c. 1333 N d. 1443 N
17. A block weighing 500 kN rests on a ramp inclined at 39 degrees with the horizontal.
What is the force that tends to move the block down the ramp?
a. 389 kN b. 315 kN c. 351 kN d. 242 kN
18. A ball was thrown upward with an initial velocity of 50 ft/s. how high does it go?
a. 39 ft b. 30 ft c.20 ft d. 45 ft
19. If the absolute pressure at the bottom of the ocean is 120 kPa, how deep is the water
at this point?
a. 1.90 m b. 1.85 m c. 1.78 m d. 1.82 m
20. A DC-9 jet with a takeoff mass of 120 tons has two engines producing average
force of 80,000 N during takeoff. Determine the plane’s acceleration down the
runway if the takeoff time is 10 seconds.
a. 1.42 m/s2 b. 1.33 m/s2 c. 2.02 m/s2 d. 1.67 m/s2
140
21. What is the resultant of a displacement of 6 miles north and 9 miles east?
a. 11 miles, N 56oE b. 11 miles, N 54oE c. 10 miles, N 56oE d. 10 miles, N 54oE
23. A 200 gram apple is thrown from the edge of a tall building with an initial speed of
20 m/s. What is the change in kinetic energy of the apple if it strikes the ground at
50 m/s?
a. 130 joules b. 210 joules c. 100 joules d. 81 joules
25. The horsepower required to raise a 150 kg drum to a height of 20m over a period
of one minute is:
a. 0.41 hp b. 0.81 hp c. 0.66 hp d. 1.12 hp
26. According to the Chemiccal Engineering Law of 2004, who appoints the members
of the ChE Regulatory Board?
a. Professional Regulation Commission
b. President of the Country
c. President of PIChE
d. Commission on Higher Education
28. Includes individual names and surnames, firm names, devices or words used by one
to identify in his business, vocations or occupations.
a. Trademark b. service mark c. trade name d. brand name
29. A chemical engineer who violates the provisions of the ChE law, upon conviction,
shall be sentenced to a fine or imprisonment, upon the discretion of the court, of
not more than
a. 5 years b. 6 months c. 10 years d. 20 years
141
ANSWER KEY
142
SOLUTIONS
1. Sy = 80 m
Vo = 30 m/s
Sx = ?
Sy = Vot + ½ gt2
80 = vo sin θt + ½ gt2
80 = 0.30(0)t + ½ (9.81)t2
t = 4.039 s
Sx = vo cosθt
Sx = 30 cos (0) (4.039)
Sx = 121.17 m
2. F = ma
= 5.00 (0.3)
F = 1.5 kg m/s2
W = mg
= 5.00 (9.81)
W = 49.05 kg m/s2
F = T-W
1.5 = T – 49.05
T = 50.55 N
3. Y = 49 meters
y = vot + ½ gt2
49 = 0 + ½ gt2
t = 3.16 s
v = vo + αt
v = 0 + 9.81(3.16s)
v = 30.9996 m/s = 31 m/s
4. m = 80 g
v =?
m1v1= m2v2
8g (v1) = (9000 g)(40 cm/s)
v1 = 45000 cm/s = 450 m/s
143
5. S = rθ
1200 𝑟𝑒𝑣 1 ℎ𝑟 2𝜋
= (10 m)( ℎ𝑟 )(3600 𝑠)(1 𝑟𝑒𝑣)
= 21 m/s
6. S = 20 m
vo = 0
v=?
v2 = vo2 +2as
v = √0 + 2(9.81)(20)
v = 19.81 m/s
60 𝑚𝑖 1.609 𝑘𝑚 1 000 𝑚 1 ℎ𝑟 𝑚
7. v0 = ℎ𝑟 ( 1 𝑚𝑖 ) ( 1 𝑘𝑚 ) (3600 𝑠) = 26.82 𝑠
S = 2000 ft = 609.6 m
v=0
v2 = vo2 + 2as
02 = (26.82 m/s)2 + 2a(609.6 m)
a = -0.59
v = vo + at
0 = 26.82 + (-0.59)(t)
t = 45.45 s = 46 s
746 𝑊
8. 0.25 hp ( ) = 186.5 𝑊
1 ℎ𝑝
W = Fd
𝑊 186.5 𝐽/𝑠
F= 𝑑 = 𝑚 = 380.224 kg
0.05 𝑚 (9.81 2 )
𝑠
8 𝑑2 32𝑑4
10. S = L + −
3𝐿 5 𝐿3
8(3)2 32 (3)4
S = 50 N/m + − = 𝟓𝟎. 𝟒𝟖 𝒎
3(50) 5(50)3
12. m = 1200 kg
vo = 0
144
vf = 25 m/s
t = 8.0 s
1 25𝑚 2
(1200 𝑘𝑔)( )
2 𝑠
P= = 46875 𝑊 = 𝟔𝟐. 𝟖𝟔𝟎𝟒 𝒉𝒑
8𝑠
14. m = 40 kg
h = 15 m
t = 3 min
𝑚
𝑊 𝑚𝑔ℎ (40 𝑘𝑔)(9.81 2 )(15 𝑚)
𝑠
P= = = 60 𝑠 = 32.7 𝑊
𝑡 𝑡 3 min( )
1 𝑚𝑖𝑛
1 ℎ𝑝
32.7 W (746 𝑊) = 𝟎. 𝟎𝟒𝟑𝟖 𝒉𝒑
15. m = 10 g = 0.010 kg
v = 200 m/s
½ mv2 = Fd
1𝑚
½ (0.010 kg)(200 m/s) = F (15 cm) (100 𝑐𝑚)
F = 1333.33 N
16. d = 20 m
F = 80 N
W = Fd
= F cos 30o d
= 80 (cos 30) (20)
W = 1385.6406 Nm
18. Vo = 50 ft/s
V=0
V2 = v02 - 2as
0 = 502 – 2 (32.2) s
S = 38.82 ft = 39 ft
145
19. Pabs = Patm + Pgauge
Pabs – P atm = Pgauge
Pgauge = pgh
(120,000 Pa – 101325 Pa) = 1000 kg/m3 (9.81m/s2) (h)
h = 1.9037 m
23. m = 200 g
vo = 20 m/s
v = 50 m/s
KE = ½ m( v2 – vo2)
1 𝑘𝑔
= ½ (200 g) (1000 𝑔)(502 -202 )
KE = 200 J
24. 𝐿 = √22 + 42 + 42 = 𝟔
25. m = 150 kg
h= 20 m
t = 1 min
9.81𝑚
𝑊 𝑃𝐸 𝑚𝑔ℎ (150 𝑘𝑔)( )(20 𝑚)
𝑠2
P= = = = 60 𝑠
𝑡 𝑡 𝑡 1 min( )
1 𝑚𝑖𝑛
1 ℎ𝑝
P = 490.5 W (746 𝑊) = 0.67 hp
146
DIFFERENTIAL CALCULUS
1. Differentiate: y = sin ( √𝑥 − 1 )
2. Differentiate: y = x2cos2x
3. Differentiate: y = √3 − 2𝑥2
4. Differentiate: y = arctan3x
5. Differentiate: y = (arcsin4x)2
6. Find the radius of the largest right circular cylinder inscribed on a sphere of radius 5.
7. A rectangular box open at the top is to be formed from a rectangular piece of cardboard
3 inches by 8 inches. What size square should be cut from each corner to form the box
with maximum volume?
8. A painting of height 3 feet hangs on the wall of a museum, with the bottom of the
painting 6 feet above the floor. If the eyes of an observer are 5 feet above the floor,
how far from the base of the wall should the observer stand to maximize his angle of
vision?
9. Find the dimension of the rectangle of largest area whose base is on the x axis and
whose upper two vertices lie on the parabola y = 12 - x2. What is the maximum area?
10. A cylinder is inscribed in a sphere with a radius of 10cm. what is the radius and height
of the cylinder which yield a maximum volume?
INTEGRAL CALCULUS
5 2
1. Evaluate: ∫4 ( − 𝑥 ) 𝑑𝑥
√𝑥
𝛱/2
2. Evaluate: ∫0 (𝑠𝑖𝑛5 Ө)(𝑐𝑜𝑠 5 Ө)𝑑 Ө
1 𝛱
3. Evaluate: ∫0 ∫0 (𝑥𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑦)𝑑𝑥𝑑𝑦
2 𝑦
4. Evaluate: ∫0 ∫0 ( 3𝑥 2 + 9𝑦 2 )𝑑𝑥𝑑𝑦
5. Find the area bounded by the curves y2 = 4x and y + 2x = 12.
6. Find the area of the region above the x-axis bounded by the function y = 4x - x – 3.
7. Find the area bounded by the line x – 2y + 10 = 0, the coordinate axis in the first
quadrant and line x = 10.
8. What is the area of the region bounded by the curve x2 + 2x = 8 – y and the x axis.
9. Find the area bounded by the parabolas y2 = 4x and x2 = 4y
10. Find the area bounded by the curves x2 + y2 = 9 and 4x2 + 9y2 = 36 on the first
quadrant.
147
DIFFERENTIAL EQUATION
5. Obtain the differential equation of the family of straight lines with slope and y- intercept
equal.
6. Write a differential equation for the family of circles with center on the x – axis.
9. Obtain a particular solution for the following differential equation 2xyy’ = 1 + y 2, given
x = 2 and y = 3.
10. Solve for the general solution of the following differential equation: 3( 3x 2 + y2)dx –
2xydy = 0
11. Determine the integrating factor for the following differential equation: y’ – 3y = 6
14. Solve (D2 + 3D – 10) y= 0, when x=0, y=0 and x=2, y=1.
148
DIFFERENTIAL EQUATION
16. Determine the differential equation of the family of circles with center on the y – axis.
19. The following nonlinear differential equation can be solved exactly by separation of
variables. d 10 6 2 81, 0 1000. The value of 100 most nearly is
dt
20. It has been identified that in chemical reaction, the time rate change (conversion) of the
unconverted substance is proportional to the amount of the unconverted substance. If half
of the substance has been converted after 10 s, find when the 9/10 of the substance will
have been converted?
21. The radioactive isotope of Pb-209 decays at a rate proportional to the amount present
at that time and has a half -life of 3.3 hours, if 1 gram of Pb is present initially, how long
will it take for 90% of the lead to decay?
22. A tank initially holds 100 gallons salt solution in which 50 lbs of salt has been
dissolved. A pipe fills the tank with brine at the rate of 3 gpm, containing 2 lbs of dissolved
salt per gallon. Assuming that the mixture is kept uniform by stirring, a drain pipe draws
out of the tank of a mixture at 2 gpm. Find the amount of salt in the tank at the end of 30
minutes.
149
ANSWER KEY
Differential Calculus
cos(√x−1)
1.y′ = 2. y’=−2x [x sin(2x) − cos(2x)]
2√x
2𝑥 3
3.y′ = − 4. 𝑦′ = 9𝑥2+1
√3−2x2
8 (sin−1 4x)
5. y′ = √1−16x2 6. 4.08 units
7. 0.67 in 8. 2 units
9. 32 units 10. x = 8.165 cm ; h= 11.55 cm
Integral Calculus
1. -3.56 6. 1.33 sq.units
2. 1/60 7. 75 sq.units
3. 1 8. 36 sq.units
4. 40 9. 5.33 sq.units
5. 41.67 sq.units 10. 2.36 units
Differential Equation
1. 3x + xy – y = C
2 2 3
2. dy/dx + (-3/x)y = x4
3. xdx-2ydx-xdy=0
4. y’’-y’-6y =0
5. ydx - (x+1)dy =0
6. 1 + yy” +(y’)2 =0
7. ln(xy)=x+2y+C
8. Arc tan(x) + Arc tan(y) + C=0
9. 𝑦 = √5𝑥 − 1
10. 9x2 - y2 = Cx
11. e−3x
12. y = (C1 + C2x + C3x2)ex
3 1
13. y = C1 e−x + C2 e−2x + C3 e(2)x + C4e(2)x
1
14. 𝑦 = 𝑒4 −𝑒10 (𝑒 2𝑥 − 𝑒 −5𝑥 )
dy −x
15. dx = 2y
16. xy”-(y’)3 – y’ = 0
17. 0.32
x 3x
18. y = (e2 + 4)e− 2
−6𝑡
19. 8.1 + 𝐶𝑒 −10
20. 33.23 s
21. 10.96 hours
22. 171.24 lbs.
150
SOLUTIONS
Differential Calculus
1. 𝑦 = sin(√𝑥 − 1)
Solution:
𝑑𝑦 𝑑
= [sin(√𝑥 − 1)]
𝑑𝑥 𝑑𝑥
𝑑
𝑦′ = cos(√𝑥 − 1) (√𝑥 − 1)
𝑑𝑥
1
𝑦′ = cos(√𝑥 − 1)( )
2√𝑥
𝐜𝐨𝐬(√𝐱 − 𝟏)
𝐲′ =
𝟐√𝐱
2. y = x 2 cos2x
Solution:
dy d
= [x2 cos(2x)]
dx dx
d 2 d
y= [x ⋅ cos(2x) + x 2 ⋅ cos(2x)]
dx dx
d
y’= 2x cos(2x) + (−sin(2x))⋅ dx (2x)⋅ x2
d
y’= 2xcos(2x) – 2 ⋅ dx
(x) ⋅ x2sin(2x)
3. y = √3 − 2𝑥 2
Solution:
d 1
y= [(3 − 2x 2 )2 ]
dx
151
1
1 −2 d
y′ = 2
(3 − 2x2 ) . dx
(3 − 2x2 )
1
1 −2
y′ = 2 (3 − 2x2 ) (-4x)
𝟐𝒙
𝐲′ = −
√𝟑 − 𝟐𝐱𝟐
4. y = arc tan3x
d
y= [arc tan(3x)]
dx
dy 1 d
= 2 . (3x)
dx (3𝑥) + 1 dx
𝑑
3. (𝑥)
y′ = 𝑑𝑥
9𝑥 2 + 1
(3) (1)
𝑦′ =
9𝑥 2 + 1
𝟑
𝐲′ =
𝟗𝐱 𝟐 +𝟏
5. y = (arcsin4x)2
d
[y = arc sin(4x)2 ]
dx
dy d
= [arc sin(4x)]2
dx dx
d
y ′ = 2 (arcsin 4x) (arc sin4x)
dx
1 d
y ′ = 2 (arcsin 4x) . . (4x)
√1 − (4x)2 dx
𝟖 (𝐬𝐢𝐧−𝟏 𝟒𝐱)
𝐲′ =
√𝟏 − 𝟏𝟔𝐱 𝟐
6. Given: R = 5cm
let R = radius of sphere
r = radius of cylinder
h = height of cylinder
Solution:
152
Volume of cylinder: V = πr²h
𝑉
𝑟² = 𝜋ℎ → equation 1
ℎ2
𝑟 = √(𝑅 2 − ) → equation 2
4
V h²
πh
= R² - 4
h³
V = πR²h - 4
Take the derivative with respect to h and set it equal to zero to find the critical point(s).
h²
Solve for r ; r = √(R² − )
4
2R
r = √(R² − ((4) 3)²
√
2
r =√3 R²
When R= 5
2
r = √3 (52 )
r = 4.08 units
7) V = L × W × H
V = (8 − 2x)(3 − 2x)(x)
V = 24x − 22x2 + 4𝑥 3
V ′ = 24 − 44x + 12x2
0 = 4 (6 − 11x + 3x2 )
153
0 = 4(3x − 2)(x − 3)
2
x=3;x=3
𝟐
if x= 𝟑 𝒊𝒏 ; V= 7.4074 in3
x= 3 ; V = -13
Therefore to form a box with maximum volume, 2/3 in (0.67 in) should be cut from each
corner.
8. 𝜃 = 𝛽 − 𝛼
𝑑𝜃 = 𝑑𝛽 − 𝑑𝛼
4 1
tan 𝛽 = 𝑥 ; xtan 𝛽 = 1 tan 𝛼 = 𝑥 ; xtan 𝛼 = 1
Solve for x:
−𝑡𝑎𝑛β𝑑x
𝑥=
sec2 βdβ
−𝑡𝑎𝑛β(−xsec2α𝑑α)
𝑥=
sec2 βdβtanα
sec2 βtanα = tanβsec2 α
(1 + tan2 β) tanα = tanβ(1 + tan2 α)
[1 + (4/𝑥)2 ](1/x) = (4/x) [1+(1/x)2]
X2 + 16 = 4x2 + 4
X2 – 4x2 +12 = 0
(x+6) (x-2) = 0
x= 2 units
9. y = 12 – x2
x2 = 12 – y
(x-h)2 = -4a (y-k)
(x-0)2 = -1 (y -12)
154
V (0,12)
A rectangle = L x W L= 2x = 2(2) =4
A = x (12-x2) W = y = 12-x2
A= 12x – x3 W=y =12 – 22 = 8
dA =0= 12 – 3x2
12 = 3x2 Area rectangle = LW
X2= 4 A = 4 (8)
x = ±2 A = 32 units
10. Given: r = 10cm
let x = radius of cylinder
h = height of cylinder
r = radius of sphere
h dh
2x + =0 → equation 4
2 dx
0 = π(2𝑟h − 4ℎ3)
2𝑟h = 3ℎ3
4 20√3
h = √ (10cm) = 𝑐𝑚 or 11.55 cm
3 3
x = 8.165 cm
155
SOLUTIONS
Integral Calculus
5 5 1
2
1. ∫4 ( − x) dx = ∫4 (2x −2 − x)dx
√x
1
2(𝑥)2 𝑥2 5
= 1 − |
2 4
2
𝟓
𝟐
∫ ( − 𝒙) 𝒅𝒙 = −𝟑. 𝟓𝟔
𝟒 √𝒙
𝜋
2. ∫02 𝑐𝑜𝑠5 𝜃𝑠𝑖𝑛5 𝜃 𝑑𝜃
= ∫(𝑢9 − 2 𝑢7 + 𝑢5 ) 𝑑𝑢
𝑢10 𝑢8 𝑢6
= − + ; u = sin x
10 4 6
1 𝜋 1 1
3. ∫0 ∫0 𝑥𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑦𝑑𝑥𝑑𝑦 = ∫0 − cos 𝑦 |𝜋0 𝑥𝑑𝑥 = ∫0 (− cos 𝜋 − cos(0) 𝑥𝑑𝑥
1 1
= ∫0 (1 + 1)𝑥𝑑𝑥 = ∫0 2𝑥𝑑𝑥
𝟏 𝝅
∫𝟎 ∫𝟎 𝒙𝒔𝒊𝒏𝒚𝒅𝒙𝒅𝒚 = 𝟏
2 𝑦 2 3𝑥 3
4.∫0 ∫0 3𝑥 2 + 9𝑦 2 𝑑𝑥𝑑𝑦 = ∫0 + 9𝑦 2 |𝑦0 𝑑𝑦
3
156
2
= ∫0 (𝑦 3 + 9𝑦 3 )𝑑𝑦
2
= ∫0 10𝑦 3 𝑑𝑦
2
= ∫0 10𝑦 4 |20
𝟐 𝒚
∫ ∫ 𝟑𝒙𝟐 + 𝟗𝒚𝟐 𝒅𝒙𝒅𝒚 = 𝟒𝟎
𝟎 𝟎
9
5. A1 = ∫4 [(12 − 2x) + 2√x)]dx
61
𝐴1 = 𝑠𝑞. 𝑢𝑛𝑖𝑡𝑠
3
4
A2 = 2 ∫ 2√x dx
0
3
4(𝑥)2 4
𝐴2 = |
3/2 0
A2 = 64/3 sq. units
Atotal = A1 +A2
= 61/3 + 64/3
Atotal =41.67 sq. units
6. y= 4x-x2-3
(x-3)(x-1)=0
3
A= ∫1 (4x − x 2 − 3)dx
4𝑥 2 𝑥3
A= − − 3𝑥|31
2 3
𝟒
A= 𝟑 = 𝟏. 𝟑𝟑 𝒔𝒒 𝒖𝒏𝒊𝒕𝒔
7. dA= (y1-y2)dx
10
A= ∫0 ydx
10 x
A =∫0 (5 + ) dx
2
157
𝑥2 (10)2
A= 5x +2(2) |10
0
= 5(10) + − 0
4
A = 75 sq. units
8. x2+2x=8-y
y= -x2-2x+8
(x-2) (x+4) =0
dA= y1-y2 dx
2
A=∫−4(−x 2 − 2x + 8) dx
−𝑥 3 2
A= − 𝑥 2 + 8𝑥|−4
3
A= 36 sq units
𝟏𝟔
A= or 5.33 sq. units
𝟑
158
SOLUTIONS
Differential Equation
∑ ∫ DI + NDI = C
DI = 6xdx, -3y2dy
NDI = y2dx, 2xydy
∫(6xdx – 3 y2dy) + ∫y2∂x = C
6 (x2/2) – 3(y3/3) + xy2 = C
3x2 + xy2 – y3 = C
2. v (x) = e∫P(x)dx
y-v(x) = ∫v(x).Q(x)dx + C (since v≠0)
y = v-1(x)∫v(x).Q(x)dx + cv-1(x)
dydx + P(x)y = Q (x)
(x5+ 3y) dx – x dy = 0
-x(dy) = - (x5+3y)dx
dy/dx + (-3/x)y = x4
𝑑
3. [ 𝑥 3 − 3𝑥 3 𝑦 = 𝐶] 𝑑𝑥
3𝑥 2 − 3𝑥 2 𝑑𝑦 − 3𝑦(2𝑥 )𝑑𝑥 = 0
3𝑥 2 −6𝑥𝑦𝑑𝑥−3𝑥 2 𝑑𝑦=0
3𝑥
𝐱𝐝𝐱 − 𝟐𝐲𝐝𝐱 − 𝐱𝐝𝐲 = 𝟎
159
4. y = c1e-2x + c2e3 ← (1)
5. 𝑦 = 𝑚𝑥 + 𝑏 ; m = b
𝑦 = 𝑚𝑥 + 𝑚 y
𝑑
Slope = y-int.
[𝑦 = 𝑚(𝑥 + 1)]
𝑑𝑥
𝑑
𝑑𝑥
= 𝑚
𝑑𝑦 𝑑𝑦 m=b x
𝑦= (𝑥 ) +
𝑑𝑥 𝑑𝑥
𝑑𝑦
𝑦= (𝑥 + 1)
𝑑𝑥
𝑦𝑑𝑥 = 𝑥𝑑𝑦 + 𝑑𝑦
𝐲𝐝𝐱 − (𝐱 + 𝟏)𝐝𝐲 =
160
6. x2 + y2 + Ax + By + C =0
x2 + y2 + Ax + C =0
2xdx + 2ydy + Adx = 0
y2 = C – Ax – x2
2yy’ = -A – 2x
Y’ = (-A – 2x)/ 2y
2yy’’/2 + y’(2y)/2 = -1
yy’’ + (y’)2 = -1
(y’)2 + yy” + 1 = 0
2y-lny-lnx+x=C
2y+x+C=lnx+lny
ln(xy)=2y+x+C
8. ( 1 + y2) dx + ( 1 + x2)dy = 0
∫(1/(1+x2))dx = ∫(1/(1+y2))dy
Arc tan(x) + Arc tan(y) + C =0
161
9. 2xy(dy/dx) = 1 + y2
𝑑𝑥 2𝑦(𝑑𝑦)
=
𝑥 1+ 𝑦 2
162
10. We cannot separate the variables, but M(x, y) and N(x, y) are homogeneous
functions of degree 2.
Substituting: y = vx and dy = v dx + x dv
we get
(9 + v2)dx – 2v(v dx + x dv) = 0
Separating variables
9(dx) + v2(dx) – 2v2(dx) + 2vx(dv) = 0
9(dx) - v2(dx) + 2xv(dv) = 0
(9- v2)(dx) + 2xv(dv) = 0
𝑑𝑥 2𝑣(𝑑𝑣)
− =
𝑥 9−𝑣 2
Integrating
ln (9-v2) = - ln x + ln C
Taking exponentials
x(9-v2) = C
since v = y/x
9x2 - y2 = Cx
11. 𝑦 ′ − 3𝑦 = 6
𝑑𝑦
− 3𝑦 = 6
𝑑𝑥
𝑃 (𝑥 ) = −3
𝑄(𝑥) = 6
𝐼𝑛𝑡𝑒𝑔𝑟𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑛𝑔 𝐹𝑎𝑐𝑡𝑜𝑟: 𝑒 ∫ 𝑃(𝑥)𝑑𝑥 = 𝑒 ∫ 𝑃(−3)𝑑𝑥
𝐞∫ 𝐏(𝐱)𝐝𝐱 = 𝐞−𝟑𝐱
x3 – 3x2 + 3x – 1 = 0
(x-1)(x-1) (x-1) = 0
x = 1 ;occuring 3 times
y = (C1 + C2x + C3x2)ex
14. D2 + 3D – 10 = 0
(D + 5) (D – 2) = 0
D = -5 ; D =2
y = C1e-5x + C2e2x
163
when y=0 ; x=0
0= C1e-5(0) + C2e2(0)
0= C1+ C2
When x=2 ; y=1
1= C1e-5(2) + C2e2(2)
1 −1
C2= e4 −e10 ; C1= e4 −e10
𝟏
y= 𝐞𝟒 −𝐞𝟏𝟎 (𝐞𝟐𝐱 − 𝐞−𝟓𝐱 )
15. 𝑦 = 𝐶𝑥 2
𝑦
=𝐶
𝑥2
𝑥 2 𝑑𝑦−𝑦(2𝑥)𝑑𝑥
=0
(𝑥 2 )2
𝑥 2 𝑑𝑦−(2𝑥𝑦)𝑑𝑥
=0
(𝑥)4
𝑥 2 𝑑𝑦 − (2𝑥𝑦)𝑑𝑥 = 0
𝑑𝑦 2𝑥𝑦
=
𝑑𝑥 2𝑥 2
𝑑𝑦 2𝑦
= 2𝑥
𝑑𝑥
𝐝𝐲 −𝐱
Orthogonal trajectories: 𝐝𝐱 = 𝟐𝐲
164
16. x2 + (y-k)2 = r2
Differentiate:
2x+2(y-k)y’ = 0
x+yy’ – ky’ = 0
k = x/y + y
𝑦 ′ (1)−𝑥𝑦"
0= + 𝑦′
(𝑦′)2
y'-xy”+(y‘)3 = 0
xy”-(y’)3 – y’ = 0
𝑑 2
19. = −10−6 ( - 81)
𝑑𝑡
𝑑 2
+ 10−6 = (8.1 × 10−5
𝑑𝑡
165
−6 𝑑𝑡 −6 𝑡
𝐼. 𝐹. = 𝑒 ∫ 10 = 𝑒 10
= ∫ 8.1 × 10−5(𝑒10
−6 𝑡 −6 𝑡
𝑒 10 )𝑑𝑡
= 8.1 × 10−5𝑒10 𝑡 (106 )
−6 𝑡 −6
𝑒 10
−𝟔𝒕
= 𝟖. 𝟏 + 𝑪𝒆−𝟏𝟎
dx
20. = -kx
dt
At t=0 ; x= xo; C=xo
x = Ce-kt
1
xo = xo(e−kt )
2
k= 0.693
at x= 9/10 ; t=?
1
xo = xo(e−0.693t )
10
t=33.23 s
166
22. . Let Q= amount of salt in the mixture
100 + (3-2)t = 100+ t = Volume of mixture at any time t
Q
= Concentration of salt
100+t
dQ
= rate gain − rate loss
dt
dQ Q
= 3(2) − 2( )
dt 100 + t
dQ 2
+ Q( )=6
dt 100 + t
2
i. f. = e∫ P(t)dt ;where P(t)=100+t ; A(t)= 6
2
i. f. = e∫ P(t)dt = e∫100+t = e2ln(100+𝑡) = (100 + t)2
Substitute:
Q(100+t)2=∫ 6(100 + t)2 dt + C = 2(100 + t)3 + C
When t=0 ; Q=50
50(100)2=2(100+t)3 +C
C= -1.5x106
When t= 30 min ; Q= ?
Q(100+30)2=2(100+30)3 -1.5x106
Q = 171.24 lbs.
167
ENGINEERING ECONOMY
1. What is the effective rate corresponding to 18% compounded daily? Take 1 year is
equal to 360 days.
2. What nominal rate compounded semi-annually, yields the same amount as 16%
compounded quarterly?
3. The amount of P50,000 was deposited in the bank earning an interest of 7.5% per
annum. Determine the total amount at the end of 5 years, if the principal and interest
were not withdrawn during the period.
4. The sum of P20,000 is left to Robert as a will, however, with a condition that the
sum will be held in a trust fund until it amounts to P50,000. When will Robert
receive the money if the fund is invested at 8% compounded quarterly?
5. A sum of P1,000 is invested now and left for 8 years, at which time the principal is
withdrawn. The interest has accrued is left for another 8 years. If the effective
annual interest is 5%, what will be the withdrawal amount at the end of 16th year?
7. Mr. Ayala borrows P100,000 at 10% effective annual interest. He must pay back
the loan over 30 years with uniform monthly payments due on the first day of each
month. What does Mr. Ayala pay each month?
8. A person buys a piece of lot for P100,000 down payment and 10 deferred semi-
annual payments of P8,000 each, starting 3 years from now. What is the present
value of the investment if the rate of interest is 12% compounded semi-annually?
9. At 6%, find the capitalized cost of a bridge whose cost is P250M and life is 20
years, if the bridge must be partially rebuilt at a cost of P100M at the end of each
20 years.
10. A man wants to make 14% nominal interest compounded semi-annually on a bond
investment. How much should he be willing to pay now for a 12%, P10,000-bond
that will mature in 10 year; and pays interest semi-annually?
168
11. What is the maximum amount an investor should pay for a 25-year bond with a
P20,000 face value and 8% coupon rate (interest only paid semi-annuaily)? The
bond will be kept to maturity. The investor's effective annual interest rate for
economic decisions is 10%.
12. A manufacturer produces certain items at a labor cost per unit of P315, material
cost per unit of P100 and a variable cost per unit of P3. If the item has a selling
price of P995, how many units must be manufactured each month for the
manufacturer to break even if the monthly overhead is P461,600.
13. ABC Corporation manufactures bookcases that it sells for P65 each. It costs ABC
P35000/yr to operate it: plant. This sum includes rent, depreciation charges on
equipment, and salary payments. If the cost to produce one bookcase is P50, how
many bookcases must be sold each year for AbC to avoid taking a loss?
14. The volatility of a stock is found to be 1.5times the stock market average. If the risk
premium for buying stocks averages 8.3% and the present treasury bill rate
(assumed to be risk free) is 7%, what is most nearly the expected return (ER) on
the stock?
15. A manufacturer of sports equipment produces tennis rackets for w/c there is a
demand of 200/month. The production setup cost for each batch of rackets is P300.
In addition, the inventory carrying cost for each racket is P24/year. Using the EOQ
model, w/c is most nearly the best production batch size for the rackets?
16. . A student needs P4000/year for 4 years to attend college. Her father invested
P5000 in a 7% account for her education when she was born. If the student
withdraws P4000 at the end of her 17th, 18th, 19th and 20th years, how much
money will be left in the account at the end of her 21st year?
169
ANSWER KEY
Engineering Economy
1. Ans. 19.72 %
2. Ans. 16.32%
3. Ans. P71781.47
4. Ans. 11.5678 years
5. Ans. P705.42
6. Ans. P17504.12786
7. Ans. P839.1989
8. Ans. P143999.08162
9. Ans. P 295.3076 M
10. Ans. 600
11. Ans. P16,723.57
12. Ans. 800 units
13. Ans. 2334/yr
14. Ans. 19.45%
15. Ans. 245 units
16. Ans. P1700.01
170
SOLUTIONS
0.18
1. ER = (1+ 360 )3 6 0 -1
= 0.1972 x 100
ER = 19.72 %
Ans. 19.72 %
0.16 𝑖
2. (1+ 4 )4 = (1+ 2)2
= 0.1632x100
i = 16.32%
Ans. 16.32%
3. F = P(1+i) n
F = P 50000 (1+0.075) 5
F = P71781.47
Ans. P71781.47
0.08 4 n
4. 50000 = 20000(1 + )
4
N= 11.5678 years
Ans. 11.5678 years
5. F = 1000(1+0.05) 8
F = P1477.4554 – P1000
F = P477.4554
F = 477.4554(1+0.05) 8
F = P705.42
Ans. P705.42
2000 0.1 -1 0
6. P = [1- (1+ ) ]
0.1 4
P = P17504.12786
Ans. P17504.12786
𝑖
7. 1+0.10 = (1+ 12)1 2
i = 0.0956 or 9.57% (monthly)
Annuity:
𝐴 0.0956
100000 = 0.0956 [1-(1+ 12 ) -(30(12)-1 ) ]+A
12
A = P839.1989
Ans. P839.1989
171
8.
x y
1 8000 (1+(0.12/2) -1
2 6000 (1+(0.12/2) -2
⅀xý, 1,10
P = 58880.69641
PF = 58880.69641 (1+(0.12/2)) -5
P 1 = 43999.08162 + 100000
P 1 = P143999.08162
Ans. P143999.08162
9. C a p C = PC+[(FC-SV)/(1+i) n -1]+(AC/i)
100
= 250 + 1.0620 −1 + 0
CapC = P 295.3076 M
Ans. P 295.3076 M
𝐹𝑟
10. P = (1+(1+i) -n )
𝑖
∑20 -x
𝑥=1 1.07 = 10.5940; r=0.07
I = (0.12/2)(10000) = 600
Ans. 600
𝑥
11. 0.10 = (1+ 2) 2 -1
x = 0.097618 or 9.7618%
I = 20000(0.08/2)
= 800
0.097618 -x
∑50
𝑥=1(1 + ) = 18.597076
2
0.097618 -5 0
P = 800 (18.597076) + 20000 (1+ )
2
P = P16,723.57
Ans. P16,723.57
172
14. V = 1.5 (SMA)
Risk = 8.3%
T. bill rate = 7%
ER = (V)(SMA) + T
= 1.5 (8.3) + 7
ER = 19.45%
Ans. 19.45%
16. F = F 1 – F 2
F 1 = 5000 ( 1.07) 2 1 = 20702.81187
∑4𝑥=1(1.07)x = 4.7507
F 2 = 4.7507(4000) = 19002.8
F = 20702.81187 - 19002.8
F = P1700.01
Ans. P1700.01
173
STRENGTH OF MATERIALS
A rod 200cm long and of diameter 3.0cm is subjected to an axial pull of 30kN.
If the Young's modulus of the material of the rod is 200GPa.
1. Determine the stress.
2. Determine the strain.
3. Determine the elongation of the rod.
174
For problems 8 to 13
Three bars made of copper, zinc and aluminium are of equal length and have cross-
section 500, 750 and 1000 mm2 respectively. They are rigidly connected at their
ends. If this compound member is subjected to a longitudinal pull of 250kN.
Take the value of E for copper = 130GPa, zinc = 100GPa and aluminium = 80GPa.
For problems 14 to 17
A steel rod 5cm diameter and 6m long is connected to two grips and the rod is
maintained at a temperature of 100degC.
14. Determine the stress exerted when the temperature falls to 20degC if the ends do not
yield.
15. Determine the pull exerted when the temperature falls to 20degC if the ends do not
yield.
16. Determine the stress exerted when the temperature falls to 20degC if the ends yield by
0.15cm.
17. Determine the pull exerted when the temperature falls to 20degC if the ends yield by
0.15cm.
For problems 18 to 19
A metallic bar of length 30cm, breadth 4cm and depth 4cm when the bar is subjected
to an axial compressive load of 400kN. The decrease in length is given as 0.075cm
and increase in breadth is 0.003cm.
175
18. Determine the value of Young's modulus.
19. Determine the value of Poisson's ratio.
20. A steel bar 300mm long, 50mm wide and 40mm thick is subjected to a pull of 300kN
in direction of its length. E = 200GPa and Poisson's ratio = 0.25.
For problems 22 to 23
A metallic bar 250mm x 100mm x 50mm is loaded as shown in the figure
below. Take E = 200GPa and u = 0.25.
For problems 24 to 26
A bar of 30mm diameter is subjected to a pull of 60kN. The measured extension on
gauge length of 200mm is 0.1mm and change in diameter is 0.004mm.
24. Calculate the Young’s modulus.
25. Calculate the Poisson’s ratio.
26. Calculate the Bulk’s modulus.
176
ANSWER KEY
Strength of Materials
1. Ans. 42.44 MPa
2. Ans. 0.000212205
3. Ans. 0.00042 m
4. Ans. 405.7803 kN
5. Ans. 0.03 m
6. Ans. 𝟐𝟗.375 cm
7. Ans. -1.14x10 -4
8. Ans. 147.72 MPa
9. Ans. 113.64 MPa
10. Ans. 90.90 MPa
11. Ans. 73 863.64 N
12. Ans. 85.2272 kN
13. Ans. 90909.09 N
14. Ans. 192 MPa
15. Ans. 376,991.12 N
16. Ans. 242 MPa
17. Ans. 475165.89 N
18. Ans. 100 GPa
19. Ans. 0.3
20. Ans. 225 mm3
21. Ans. 5.65mm3
22. Ans. 250 mm3
23. Ans. 2MN must be applied
24. Ans. 169.7653 GPa
25. Ans. 0.27
26. Ans. 123. 0183 GPa
177
SOLUTIONS
𝜋(0.03 𝑚)2
1. A = 4
= 7.068583x10 -4 m 2
𝑎𝑥𝑖𝑎𝑙 𝑝𝑢𝑙𝑙
Stress = 𝑎𝑟𝑒𝑎
30000
= 7.068583x10−4
Stress = 42,411,320.98 Pa or 42.44 MPa
Ans. 42.44 MPa
2. Strain = /E
42.441𝑥106
=
200𝑥109
Strain = 0.000212205
Ans. 0.000212205
𝑃𝐿
3. Elongation of the rod =
𝐴𝐸
30000(2𝑚)
= 7.068583x10−4 ( 200x109 )
Elongation of the rod = 0.00042 m
Ans. 0.00042 m
4. x = 0.30 mm
Est = 200GPa
E L = 65 GPa
𝑃𝐿𝑠𝑡 𝑃𝐿L
δT = +
𝐴𝑠𝑡𝐸𝑠𝑡 alEl
0.30 20/100 30/100
=P[ + ]
1000 36/1002 (200𝑥109 ) 100/1002 (65𝑥109 )
P L = 405.7803 kN
Ans. 405.7803 kN
5. 160x10 6 Pa = 150x10 3 /A
A = 9.375x10 -4
𝜋(𝐷)2
9.375x10 -4 =
4
D = 0.03 m
Ans. 0.03 m
𝑃𝐿
6. δ = = L/E
𝐴𝐸
0.25 160𝑥106 (𝐿)
=
1000 (200𝑥109 )
178
𝑥 = 45 – (31.25/2)
𝒙 = 𝟐𝟗.375 cm
Ans. 𝟐𝟗.375 cm
( 50x103 )(0.6 𝑚)
7. E 1 = 1𝑚
1000 mm (1000 𝑚𝑚 )2(105x9 )
( 30x103 )(1 𝑚)
E2 = 1𝑚
1000 mm (1000 𝑚𝑚 )2(105x9 )
E 2 = 2.8571x10 -4 m increase (+)
( 10x103 )(1.2 𝑚)
E3 = 1𝑚
1000 mm (1000 𝑚𝑚 )2(105x9 )
E 3 = -1.1429x10 -4 m decrease (-)
P = 250 kN
Total Load (P) = Load C + Load Z+Load A
130𝑥109 100𝑥109
250x103 N = ( -4
A)(5x10 ) + ( A)(7.5x10
-4
)+( A)(1x10
-3
)
80𝑥109 80𝑥109
A = 90909090.91Pa
100𝑥109
2= (90909090.91 Pa)
80𝑥109
179
2= 113636363.6 Pa or 113.64 MPa
Ans. 113.64 MPa
16
𝐹 (73.8636)(1000)
13
10. = = 1000
𝐴
10002
= 90.90 MPa
Ans. 90.90 MPa
11. Pc = cAc
100𝑥109
(90909090.91) (5x10- 4)
80𝑥109
Pc = 73 863.64 N
Ans. 73 863.64 N
15
12. FL2n = (73.8636)
13
FL2n = 85.2272 kN
Ans. 85.2272 kN
14. L = 6 (12x10-6/Co)(100-20)
L = 5.76x10-3 m = δT
5.76x10-3 m = (6)/200x109)
= 192 MPa
Ans. 192 MPa
180
17. δ = 5.76x10-3 m + ( 1.5x10-3m) = 7.26x10-3 m
7.26𝑥10−3 𝑚 (200𝑥109 )
= = 242 MPa
6𝑚
PL = A
𝜋
PL = 242x106 Pa (0.05)2
4
P = 475165.89 N
Ans. 475165.89 N
[0.075/100(4)(4)]/100 -1
18. E =( 30 )
400𝑥103 (100)
E = 100 GPa
Ans. 100 GPa
𝛿 0.075 𝑐𝑚 -3
19. Longitude Strain = = = 2.5x10
𝐿 30 𝑐𝑚
μ = b/ L
7.5𝑥10−4
=
2.5𝑥10−3
μ = 0.3
Ans. 0.3
300𝑥103
[1.2 ( 0.25)]
(40𝑥50)/10002
20. Ev =
200𝑥109
Ev = 3.75x10-4
V = 3.75x10-4 (300)(50)(40) = 225 mm3
Ans. 225 mm3
4 5
= (300 x 100 x 40) (1-2(0.25))(1/200x109 Pa)( + 40(300)
300(100)
6
+40(100))
V = 5.65mm3
Ans. 5.65mm3
𝑷
22. EL =
𝒅𝒆𝒍𝒕𝒂𝑬
−4x10𝟔 400x10𝟑 2x10𝟔 𝟏
=[ + (𝟏𝟎𝟎)(𝟓𝟎)/𝟏𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟐 + (𝟓𝟎)(𝟐𝟓𝟎)/𝟏𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟐]( 𝟐𝟎𝟎𝒙𝟏𝟎𝟗)
(𝟏𝟎𝟎)(𝟐𝟓𝟎)/𝟏𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟐
= 4x10-4
EV = 4x10-4 (1-2(0.25))
= 2x10-4
V = 2x10-4 (250)(100)(50)
V = 250 mm3
Ans. 250 mm3
181
𝑃
23. = 0 so that V = 0 ; =𝐴
𝑥 400𝑥103 𝑁 2𝑥106 𝑁
0= + + 0.05 𝑚 (0.25 𝑚)
0.1𝑚 (0.25 𝑚) 0.1 𝑚 (0.05 𝑚)
X = F = 6000 kN compressive
Additional: 6000 kN – 4000 kN = 2000 kN so
Additional 2MN must be applied; compressive load
Ans. 2MN must be applied
24. E = PL/Aδ
60𝑥103 (200)/1000
E= 𝜋
(30/100)2 0.1
4 (1000)
E = 169.7653 GPa
Ans. 169.7653 GPa
182
PRELIMINARY EXAMINATION
PHYSICAL AND CHEMICAL PRINCIPLES
2. In a small biochemical plant, a 450-L capacity steady state chemostat is being used
to control the growth of microorganisms by adjusting the dilution rate. The Monod
constant and the maximum specific growth rate are 0.83 mol/L and 0.85/h
respectively. Given a limiting exit concentration of 0.74 mol/L, calculate the daily
amount of the substrate that the bioreactor is able to process.
a. 4327 L/d b. 5327 L/d c. 6327 L/d d. 7327 L/d
5. Supposed the following four salts all have the same numerical value of Ksp which
is much less than one, which will have the highest solubility?
a. AB b. AB2 c. AB3 d. A2B3
For numbers 6-8, choose on the following choices,
a. First statement is true; Second statement is false
b. First statement is false; Second statement is true
c. Both statement is true
d. Both statement is false
6. Enzyme is a protein which consists of amino acid residues. The total enzyme
concentration stays constant during the reaction.
7. The length of the lag period depends on many factors such as age of microorganism
and culture condition. The specific growth rate if the same for each microorganism
and can be affected by several factors.
8. Industrial applications of biochemical processes are to use living cells or cellular
components to effect the desired physical or chemical changes. Biological
processes are prone to contamination.
183
9. An aqueous solution of molasses contains 20% by weight sucrose. The CO2 formed
in the reaction can be considered as having a negligible solubility in the solution.
Determine the % wt ethanol in solution after 98% of the sucrose has been converted
to ethyl alcohol by fermentation.
a. 11.22% b. 22.33% c. 33.44% d. 44.55%
11. Limestone (CaCO3) can be decomposed in a furnace to yield CaO(s) and CO2(g).If
the furnace used a water filter as a purification method to trap emitted gases, what
would happen to the pH of the water overtime?
a. Increase b. decrease c. remain the same d. equal to 1
184
c. 0.38 mol/L
d. 0.48 mol/L
15. A 550.0 mg sample is analyzed for aluminum (III) by adding 50.00 ml of 0.0510
M EDTA and back-titrating the x’css EDTA with 14.40 ml of 0.0480 M Zinc (II).
Calc. the % aluminum in the sample
a. 19.2 % b. 9.21% c. 12.9% d. 9.12%
17. A 0.3284 g sample of brass (contg. Lead, zinc, copper and tin) was dissolved in
nitric acid. The sparingly soluble SnO2 x 4H2O was removed by filtration, and the
combined filtrate and washings were then diluted to 500.00 ml. A 10.00 ml aliquot
was masked with thiosulfate; the lead and zinc were then titrated with 27.67 ml of
the EDTA sol’n. Cyanide ion was used to mask the copper and zinc in a 100.00 ml
aliquot; 10.80 ml of the EDTA sol’n was needed to titrate the lead ion. Determine
% Cu in the brass sample.
a. 23.92% b. 29.32% c. 50.67% d. 50.76%
19. A 1.20 g sample of a mixture of sodium hydroxide and sodium carbonate with inert
impurity is dissolved and titrated cold with 0.50N HCl. With phenolphthalein as
the indicator, the solution turns colorless after the addition of 30.0mL of the acid.
Methyl orange is then added, and 5.0mL more of the acid are required for the color
to change to pink. What is the percentage of sodium carbonate in the sample
a. 22.08% b. 32.11% c. 45.67% d. 41.67%
185
21. Beaker A contains 0.1L of a 0.20M KOH solution; beaker B contains 0.1L of a 0.20
M HCl solution. The contents of the two beakers are thoroughly mixed together in
a sufficiently large third beaker. Calculate the molarity of the resulting salt solution.
a. 1M b. 0.001M c. 0.01M d. 0.1M
22. As a consulting engineer, you have been contracted to modify an existing control
device used in fly ash removal. The federal standards for emissions have been
changed to a total number basis.
a. 1.856 x 10-8 gr
b. 2.856 x 10-8 gr
c. 3.856 x 10-8 gr
d. 4.856 x 10-8 gr
23. Does the unit meet the effluent standard of 105.7 particles/ft3
a. The emission meets the standard
b. The emission doesn’t meet the standard
c. The emission conditionally meet the standard
d. There is not enough data
24. A sample of 500 mL of Genesee River was collected from just below the brewery.
Three mL of the river water sample is diluted to 300mL, aerated and seeded. The
DO content was 8.2 mg/L initially. After 5 days, the DO content had dropped to 6.7
mg/L. The second sample was obtained 60 days later and retested in identical
fashion. The initial DO was 8.3 mg/L and after 5 days, dropped to 6.4 mg/L. What
is the difference between the ultimate BOD of the two sample? Use k = 0.23/day.
a. 48.54 mg/L b. 58.54 mg/L c. 68.54 mg/L d. 78.54 mg/L
25. Marijuana is the most commonly used illegal drug in the United States and in the
World, and was a well-established medicine until it was federally criminalized in
1937. What is the chemical responsible for most of marijuana’s psychological
effects?
a. Octanitrocubane c. Cisplatin
b. Tetrahydrocannabinol d. Terapthalic acid
26. What is the percentage of the total acid expressed as acetic acid in a sample of
vinegar if 3.00 g of vinegar require 20.5 mL of 0.115N KOH solution for an
endpoint with phenolphthalein indicator?
a. 3% b. 4.7% c. 4.3% d. 11%
27. Which of the following is the minimum information necessary for calculating the
molality of a solution?
a. The mass of the solute and the volume of the solvent
b. The mass of the solute, the volume of the solvent, and the density of the
solvent
186
c. The mass of the solute, the volume of the solvent, and the molecular mass
of the solute.
d. The mass of the solute, the volume of the solvent, the molecular mass of the
solute, and the density of the solvent
28. A vacuum manifold was calibrated using Boyle’s law. A 0.503-dm^3 flask
containing dry nitrogen at 746 torr was attached to the manifold, which was at 13
mtorr. After the stopcock was opened and the system allowed to reach equilibrium,
the pressure of the combined system was 273 torr. Assuming isothermal conditions,
what is the volume of the manifold?
a. 0.728 dm^3 b. 0.872 dm^3 c. 0.827 dm^3 d. 0.782 dm^3
30. Sulfuric acid in water dissociates completely into H+ and HSO-4 ions. The HSO-4
ion dissociates to a limited extent into H+ and SO4 -2. The freezing point of 0.1000
m solution of sulfuric acid in water is 272.76 K. Calc. the molality of SO4 -2 in the
solution, assuming ideal solution behavior.
a. 0.0079 b. 0.097 c. 0.0097 d. 0.079
31. The process by which the genetic information encoded in DNA is read and used to
synthesize RNA in the nucleus of the cell
a. Transfer RNA c. Transamination
b. Trasncription d. Translation
34. The difference between heat capacity at constant volume and heat capacity at
constant pressure is the heat energy may be supplied (for constant) to increase
a. Internal energy c. pressure changes
b. volume changes d. temperature changes
187
35. Ozonolysis (O3 in CH2Cl2) of compound A under reducing conditions (Zn /acetic
acid) gives formaldehyde, 2-butanone, and compound B. Catalytic hydrogenation
(H2/Pd) of A gives 2,7-dimethylnonane. What is a possible structure for compound
A?
a. 2,7-Dimethyl-2,8-nonadiene c. 2,7-Dimethyl-1,6-nonadiene
b. 2,7-Dimethyl-1,8-nonadiene d. 2,7-Dimethyl-1,7-nonadiene
36. What weight of sample of impure oxalic acid should be taken for titration by 0.50N
NaOH so that the percentage of H2C2O4·2H2O will be twice the burette reading?
a. 1.57 g b. 2.33 g c. 2.11 g d. 1.02 g
37. What is the sequence of reagents that will accomplish the synthesis of the following
aromatic amine from benzene?
a. CH3Cl, AlCl3; HNO3, H2SO4; H2
b. CH3Cl, AlCl3; HNO3, H2SO4; Fe, HCl; NaOH
c. HNO3, H2SO4; Fe, HCl; NaOH; CH3Cl, AlCl3
d. HNO3, H2SO4; CH3Cl, AlCl3; Fe, HCl; NaOH
38. This type of spectroscopy is mainly used to tell functional groups within a
compound. Older versions require special salt plates, but newer technology has
made them obsolete. The “fingerprint region” in the readout is only useful for those
who have studied this method extensively, and isn’t very useful for beginners.
a. Nuclear Magnetic Resonance c. Infrared Spectroscopy
b. X-ray fluorescence d. Gas chromatography-mass spectroscopy
40. A “strong water”| as defined from DAO 35 refers to the water whose initial BOD
value before treatment is equal to greater than
a. 500 b. 1000 c. 3000 d. 5000 e. 250
188
42. The Philippine Starch Corporation prepares pharmaceutical glucose from
cornstarch by enzyme hydrolysis. It was observed that when the starch
concentration of the slurry was 5%, the rate of concentration of starch to glucose
was 0.04 kg/s. When the starch concentration was made 10%, the turnover rate was
0.07 kg/s. The maximum production level of glucose that can be reasonably be
obtained per shift of 8 hours is
a. 8064 kg b. 7064 kg c. 6064 kg d. 5064 kg
43. Which of the following statements correctly describes the general reactivity of
alkynes?
a. An alkyne is an electron-rich molecule and therefore reacts as a nucleophile
b. The sigma bonds of alkynes are higher in energy than the pi bonds and are
thus more reactive
c. Unlike alkenes, alkynes fail to undergo electrophilic addition reactions
d. Alkynes are generally more reactive than alkenes
47. The Del Factor to reduce the number of cells in a fermenter from 1010 viable
organisms to one is:
a. 21 b. 23 c. 25 d. 27
189
a. 2-butanone + propylmagnesium bromide
b. 3-hexanone + methylmagnesium bromide
c. 2-pentanone + ethylmagnesium bromide
d. 3-pentanone + ethylmagnesium bromide
56. A balloon has a mass of 0.5 g when completely deflated. When it is filled with an
unknown gas, the mass increase to 1.7 g. You noticed on the canister of that
unknown gas that it occupies a volume of 0.4487 L at a temperature of 50 oC. You
note the temperature in the room is 25 oC. Give the possible name of the unknown
diatomic gas. Assume all the canister contents have been emptied and the condition
is held at 1 atm pressure. Use oC + 273.15 K for all the temperature conversion and
R=0.08206 Latm/Kmol.
a. Br2 b. Cl2 c. O2 d. N2
190
57. A 1.20g sample of a mixture of sodium hydroxide and sodium carbonate with inert
impurity is dissolved and titrated cold with 0.50N HCl. With phenolphthalein as
the indicator, the solution turns colorless after the addition of 30.0mL of the acid.
Methyl orange is then added, and 5.0mL more of the acid are required for the color
to change to pink. What is the percentage of NaOH in the sample?
a. 22.08 % b. 32.11% c. 45.67% d. 41.67%
60. A 1-month-old male showed abnormalities of the nervous system and lactic
acidosis. Enzyme assay for pyruvate dehydrogenase (PDH) activity on extracts of
cultured skin fibroblasts showed 5% of normal activity, with a low concentration
(1 x 10-4 mM) of thiamine pyrophosphate (TPP), but 80% of normal activity when
the assay contained a high (0.4 mM) concentration of TPP. Which one of the
following statements concerning this patient is most correct?
a. Elevated levels of lactate and pyruvate in the blood reliably predict the
presence of PDH deficiency
b. The patient is expected to show disturbances in fatty acid degradation
c. A diet consisting of high carbohydrate intake would be expected to be
beneficial in this patient
d. Alanine concentration in the blood is expected to be less than normal
e. Administration of thiamine is expected to reduce his serum lactate
concentration and improve his clinical symptoms
191
62. In 1932, James Chadwick bombarded a thin sheet of beryllium with alpha particles,
and paved way for his discovery of this very small particles. What is this small
particle?
a. Electron b. Proton c. Neutron d. Atom
63. Which of the following is not true about acids?
a. Sour tastes
b. Reacts with metal to produce gas
c. Changes litmus from blue to red
d. Aqueous solutions do not conduct electricity
64. The 5-day BOD of domestic sewage is 200 ppm and its removal rate constant K is
0.23/day. What is the ultimate BOD in ppm?
a. 29.27 ppm b. 60.1 ppm c. 292.7 ppm d. 400 ppm
65. An open chamber rest on the ocean floor in 50 m of sea water (SG=1.03). The air
pressure in kilopascals that must be maintained inside to exclude water is nearest
to
a. 318 b. 431 c. 505 d. 661
66. A small bubble rises from the bottom of a lake, where temperature and pressure are
8 deg C and 6.4 atm, to the water’s surface, where the temperature is 25 deg C and
pressure is 1 atm. Calculate the final volume of the bubble if its initial volume was
2.1mL.
a. 10 ml b. 12 ml c. 14mL d. 16 ml
67. A 7.5 m3 chemostat operating at 75% capacity is producing biomass from a glucose
feed at a volumetric flow rate of 46.9 L/min. The specific growth rate of the
organism is:
a. 0.373/h b. 0.0083/h c. 0.5/h d. 0.006/h
68. Sodium azide is used in some automobiles air bags. The impact collision
decomposes the sodium azide to sodium and nitrogen gas. Calculate the volume of
the nitrogen gas generated during impact at 85 deg C and 812 mmHg from 50.0g
sample of sodium azide.
a. 12L b. 32 L c. 43 L d. 16 L
69. All of the following factors increase the strength of van der Waals forces between
molecules except by an
a. Increase in the molecular weight of the molecules
b. Increase in the number of atoms in the molecules
c. Increase in the number of electrons in the molecules
d. Increase in the ionic strength of the molecule
192
70. Robert Boyle became famous due to his studies in gas collisions. What is the
nationality of Boyle?
a. Polish b. Irish c. English d. American
71. A flammable gas made up only of carbon and hydrogen is found to effuse through
porous barrier in 3.50 min. Under the same conditions of temperature and pressure,
it takes an equal volume of chlorine gas 7.34 mins to effuse through the same
barrier. Calculate the molar mass of the unknown gas.
a. 12 g/mol b. 16 g/mol c. 18 g/mol d. 24 g/mol
73. A given amount of electric charge deposits 2.159 gram of silver from an Ag+
solution. What mass of copper from a Cu+2 solution will be deposited by the same
quantity of electric charge? Atomic masses: Ag = 107.87 g/mol; Cu = 63.5 g/mol
a. 0.635 gram b. 0.356 gram c. 0.535 gram d. 0.335 gram
74. Which of the following compounds can undergo the aidol reaction
a. Benzaldehyde
b. 2,2,6,6-tetramethylcyclohexanone
c. Formaldehyde
d. 2,2-dimethylcyclohexanone
193
77. Glutathione removes potentially harmful oxidants in human body and is a common
whitening agent among Filipinos. How many carbon atoms does glutathione have?
a. 10 b. 12 c. 7 d. 15
79. How much money was appropriated for the initial implementation of the Philippine
Clean Air Act of 1999?
a. 500 Million pesos
b. 750 Million pesos
c. 600 Million pesos
d. 1 Billion pesos
194
ANSWER KEY
PRELIM EXAMINATION
1. B 41. D
2. A 42. A
3. B 43. A
4. B 44. B
5. D 45. B
6. C 46. C
7. A 47. B
8. C 48. D
9. A 49. D
10. C 50. C
11. B 51. D
12. B 52. B
13. C 53. A
14. E 54. E
15. D 55. D
16. B 56. B
17. A 57. E
18. D 58. C
19. A 59. D
20. B 60. E
21. D 61. D
22. A 62. C
23. B 63. D
24. B 64. C
25. B 65. C
26. B 66. C
27. D 67. C
28. B 68. B
29. C 69. D
30. C 70. C
31. B 71. B
32. C 72. C
33. D 73. A
34. B 74. A
35. C 75. C
36. A 76. D
37. B 77. A
38. C 78. A
39. C 79. B
40. C 80. D
195
PRELIMINARY EXAMINATION SOLUTIONS
0.264975
% Na2CO3 = 𝑥 100 = 22.08%
1.2
196
20. KMnO4 + Na2C2O4 NaMnO4 + K2C2O4
1𝑚𝑜𝑙 Na2C2O4 1𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝐾𝑀𝑛𝑂4
0.3g Na2C2O4 𝑥 𝑥 1𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝑁𝑎2𝐶2𝑂4 𝑥 = 2.2388 𝑥10 − 3 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝐾𝑀𝑛𝑂4
134𝑔 Na2C2O4
2.2388𝑥10−3𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝐾𝑀𝑛𝑂4
Molarity = 1𝐿 = 0.0560 𝑀
40𝑚𝑙 𝑥
1000𝑚𝐿
Normality = 0.0560𝑀 𝑥 5 = 𝟎. 𝟐𝟑 𝑵
24.
1st BOD testing: After 60 days
Do = 8.2 mg/L Do = 8.3 mg/L
Df = 6.7 mg/L Df = 6.4 mg/L
(8.2−6.7)𝑚𝑔/𝐿 (8.3−6.4)𝑚𝑔/𝐿
BOD5 = = 150 BOD5 = = 190
3/300 3/300
1−𝑒^(−𝑘𝑡) 1−𝑒^(−𝑘𝑡)
Lo = 𝐵𝑂𝐷5
Lo = 𝐵𝑂𝐷5
1−𝑒^(−0.23𝑥5) 1−𝑒^(−0.23𝑥5)
= =
150 190
197
∆Lo = 278.04 mg/L – 219.50 mg/L
∆Lo = 58.54 mg/L
0.1416
% CH3COOH = 𝑥 100 = 𝟒. 𝟕𝟐 %
3
PV = nRT
198
812 𝑚𝑚ℎ𝑔 𝐿−𝑎𝑡𝑚
(760 𝑚𝑚ℎ𝑔)(𝑉) = 1. 1535 𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑒𝑠 𝑁2 (0.08206 )(85 + 273.15)
𝑚𝑜𝑙−𝐾
V = 31.73 L = 32 L
𝑟1 𝑡 𝑀
71. = 𝑡2 = √𝑀2
𝑟2 1 1
3.50 𝑚𝑖𝑛 𝑀
= √ 𝑔
7.34 𝑚𝑖𝑛 35.43
𝑚𝑜𝑙
𝑀 = 8.06 𝑔/𝑚𝑜𝑙
M = 8.06 g/mol (2) = 16 g/mol
73. Silver moles = given mass / molar mass = 2.158 / 107.9 = 0.0200 moles. of silver.
If you we have 0.02 moles of Ag, we will only get 0.01 moles of Cu
0.01 = x / 63.5
x = 0.635 grams of Cu
199
MIDTERM EXAMINATION
CHEMICAL ENGINEERING
1. Particle diameter representation which is defined as the width of the minimum
square aperture through which the particle will pass.
a. Feret’s diameter b. Martin’s diameter
c. Sieve diameter d. Projected area diameter
2. Equivalent diameter of a particle which is referred to the average distance between
pairs of parallel tangents to the projected outline of the particle.
a. Apatite b. Quartz
c. Feldspar d. Topaz
5. A crushed material of certain ore has 3’’ – diameter particle and has density of
170lb/ft. If the specific surface area ratio is 10, what is the specific surface in cm²
per g of ore?
7. What is the sphericity of cylinder assuming that the equivalent length is equivalent
to its height?
a. 0.806 b. 0.857
c. 0.874 d. 1
8. In an analysis of a certain crushed material, the total surface area of a certain
fraction of a 5kg sample that passed through a 7 mesh sieve but was caught on a 9
200
mesh sieve is 7.88m². If the density of the material is 1050 kg/m³ and the shape
factor is 1.75, find the fraction.
14. A material is crush in a Blake Jaw Crusher and the average size of particle reduces
from 50mm to 10mm with the consumption of energy at the rate of 13kW(kg/s).
The consumption of energy needed to crush the same material of an material of an
average size 75mm to an average size 25mm assuming Kick’s Law applies is
a. 8.88kW(kg/s) b. 8.08kW(kg/s)
c. 4.66kW(kg/s) d. 4.33kW(kg/s)
15. Saturated steam at 110⁰C is available and the temperature in the condenser is 43⁰C.
Specific heat of the solutions may be taken is constant at 4 J/g ⁰C. The overall-heat
transfer coefficient is 2840W/m² ⁰C. Determine the steam consumption, in kg/hr.
a. 3400 b. 4700 c. 5800 d. 6500
16. Refer to item no. 15, how many square meters of heating surface are required?
a. 15 b. 13 c. 11 d. 9
For numbers 17 to 18. Determine the boiling point rise for the following solutions
of biological solutions in water.
201
17. A 30 wt% solution of citric acid in water boiling at 220⁰F
19. The rate of increase of the number of bacteria under certain condition is
proportional to the number of bacteria. If the number doubles in four hours, how
much increase in number of bacteria can be expelled after 12 hours?
a. 2 b. 4 c. 6 d. 8
20. A second order reaction involving reactants initially present at 0.10moles/L is
found to be 20% complete in 40minutes, when the reaction is 25⁰C, and 40%
complete in 35 minutes, when the reaction is 50⁰C. What is the activation energy
for this reaction in cal/mol?
a. 2700 cal/mol b. 8500 cal/mol c. 1020 cal/mol d. 5530
cal/mol
21. In a first order reaction the time required to reduce the concentration of reactant
from 1mol/L to 0.5mol/L will be _____________ that required to reduce it from
10mol/L to 5mol/L in the same volume.
a. more than b. less than c. same d. data sufficient
22. If a first order reversible liquid reaction A ↔ B is conducted in a batch reactor. The
initial concentrations are 𝐶𝐴0 = 0.5gmol/L and 𝐶𝐵0 = 0. After 8 minutes, the
fractional conversion of A is 1/3 and at equilibrium, the fractional conversion of
2/3. Find the equilibrium constant.
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4
a. 30 b. 50 c. 60 d. 74
24. Pick the wrong statement pertaining to space velocity of flow reactors.
b. The space velocity of 3 ℎ𝑟 −1 means that the three reactor volumes of feed at
specified conditions are being fed into the reactor every hour.
202
c. The space velocity of 3 ℎ𝑟 −1 means that the one third reactor volume of feed at
specified conditions are being fed into the reactor.
d. None of these.
25. For liquid phase zero order irreversible reaction A → B, the conversion of A in a
CSTR is found to be 0.3 at space velocity of 0.1𝑚𝑖𝑛−1 . What will be the conversion
for PFR with a space velocity of 0.2𝑚𝑖𝑛−1 ? Assume that all the other operating
conditions are the same for CSTR and PFR.
a. 0.15 b. 0.30 c. 0.60 d. 0.90
For numbers 26-28: A homogenous liquid phase, A → R, −𝑟𝐴 = 𝑘𝐶𝐴 ² takes place
with 50% conversion in a mixed reactor.
26. The value of space time
a. 1/(2k𝐶𝐴0 ) b. 2/(𝑘𝐶𝐴0 ) c. 1/(k𝐶𝐴0 ) d. 3/(k𝐶𝐴0 )
27. What is the conversion if the reactor is replaced by one 6 times as large – all
else remaining unchanged?
a. 0.67 b. 0.75 c. 0.70 d. 0.79
28. 28. Calculate the conversion if the original reactor is replaced by a plug flow reactor
of equal size – all else remaining unchanged?
a. 0.67 b. 0.90 c. 0.88 d. 0.92
29. The separation of solid particles into several size fractions based upon the settling
velocities in a medium is called
a. settling b. filtration
c. flotation d. classification
c. zero.
d. proportional to the smoothness of the surface
203
32. Which of the following sets of reversible processes describes an ideal Otto cycle?
I. Adiabatic compression, constant volume heat addition, adiabatic expansion,
constant volume heat rejection
II. Isothermal compression, isobaric heat addition, isothermal expansion, isobaric
heat rejection
a. I only
b. II only
c. I and II in succession
d. II and I in succession
33. Which of the following statements regarding Rankine cycles is false?
a. Use of condensable vapor in the cycle increases the efficiency of the cycle
b. The temperatures at which energy is transferred to and from the working liquid
are less separated than in a Carnot cycle
c. Superheating increases the efficiency of a Rankine cycle
204
III. Net energy transfer by heat
a. I = -II + III + IV – V
b. I = II + III + IV + V
c. I = II + III + IV – V
d. I = II – III – IV + V
37. Which of the following flow meters measure/s the average fluid velocity rather than
a point or local velocity in a pipe?
I. Venturi meter IV. Orifice meter
38. Consider the following two flows of water in the figure shown. What is the relation
between the velocity at point 2 in I and II?
a. V2(I) =V2(II)
b. V2(I) =1/2 V2(II)
c. V2(I) =2 V2(II)
d. V2(I) =4 V2(II)
39. Which of the following describes a streamline?
I. It is a mathematical concept
II. It cannot be crossed by the flow
III. It is a line of constant entropy
205
a. 0.189m/s b. 0.289m/s c. 0.389m/s d. 0.489m/s
41. The thermodynamic equilibrium constant is unaffected by the following except:
a. below 100,000kPa and below 600⁰C c. above 100,000kPa and above 600⁰C
b. below 100,000kPa and above 600⁰C d. above 100,000kPa and below 600⁰C
44. The Diesel engine differs from the Otto engine because
206
a. 0.01 b. 0.003 c. 0.006 d. 0.008
48. The rotational speed in RPM that you could recommend for a ball mill, 1200 mm
in diameter charged with 75 mm balls is
a. 30 b. 60 c. 10 d. 50
49. In countercurrent liquid-liquid extraction, the maximum concentration of solute in
extract layer
a. Is that corresponding to equilibrium with the incoming feed
b. Is less that the concentration corresponding to equilibrium with the incoming
feed
c. Can be increased than the obtained in (a) above by using raffinate reflux
d. none of the above
50. An isobaric steam generating process starts with saturated liquid at 143kPa. The
change in entropy is equal to the initial entropy. Not all of the liquid is vaporized.
What is mostly nearly the change in enthalpy during the process?
53. A system consists of moist air and water inside a closed container. What is this
system’s degree of freedom?
a. 0 b. 1 c. 2 d. 3
54. A newly designed air-conditioning unit has a capacity of 3140 watts and an input
rating of 735 watts. If this machine is operated as heat pump, its COP is
a. 4.27 b. 5.27 c. 4.44 d. 5.44
55. The evidence that the solute does not freeze with the solvent is that
a. the first crystals formed are precipitates of the solute
207
b. the crystals formed could clearly be seen as that of the solution
c. the freezing point of the solution that remains a liquid is getting lower and lower
as freezing proceeds
d. the freezing point asymptotically a constant value.
56. What does the dashed curve in the figure represent?
a. 0.0633 c. 0.1800
b. 0.1000 d. 0.2620
208
c. the value of hydrostatic head increases with increase in vacuum in the effect in a
multiple effect evaporator system
b. dry those materials which have very high unbound moisture content
c. dry materials having high bound moisture content
d. increase drying temperature
209
64. Which of the following curves shows the effect of temperature on the gas-solid
adsorption at a given pressure?
d. none of these
68. It is the procedure in which a fraction of the fees to a process unit is diverted around
the unit and combined with the output stream from the unit.
210
25L/s. With time, the quantity of DM water deteriorates and the silica content rose
up to 0.02mg/L. Assuming that the inflow and the outflow remains constant,
determine the time in hrs required for the silica content in the storage tank to
increase to 0.01mg/L.
a. 76.6 b. 6.77 c. 7.66 d. 66.7 e. 8.11
70. One gram of a magnesium-aluminum alloy was reacted with excess muriatic acid
to form magnesium chloride, aluminum chloride and hydrogen gas. Hydrogen gas
collected over mercury at 0⁰C occupied at 2.835L at 39.26kPa. Find the %Al in the
alloy.
a. 44 b. 56 c. 54 d. 46
For numbers 71 and 72,
The fresh feed to the process was 0.5kmol/hr of O2 and an excess methanol. All of
the O2 reacts in the reactor. Formaldehyde and water are removed from the product
stream first, after which H2 is removed from the recycled methanol. The recycle
flow rate of methanol was 1kmol/hr. The ratio of methanol reacting by
decomposition to that by oxidation was 3.
71. Calculate the per pass conversion in % of methanol in the reactor
a. 60 b. 70 c. 80 d. 90
72. Calculate the fresh feed rate (in kmol/hr) of methanol
a. 3 b. 3.5 c. 4 d. 4.5
73. Natural gas containing 80% CH4, 15% C2H6, and 5% C3H8 is burnt with 50%
excess air. Assuming that 90% of the carbon in the hydrocarbons are converted to
CO2 and the rest to CO, determine the %mol of H2O produced in stack gas.
a. 5 b. 5.5 c. 6 d. 6.5 e. 2.25
74. A solid fuel consisting of 90.04% C, 0.79% S, 1.2%N with no ash and moisture
undergoes combustion with excess air. Analysis of stack gas shows 10.83% CO2,
1.08% CO, 0.22%H2, 79.9%N2 and 7.97%O2. Calculate the ultimate H in the solid
fuel.
76. Gross calorific value will be equal to the net calorific value for
211
a. H2 b. C2H2 c. CO d. C2H6
77. A fluid flow (Cp = 4.0kJ/kg-K) flowing at 0.5kg/s is to be heated from 18⁰C to 30⁰C
in a medium sized 2-3 STHE using another fluid (Cp = 1.20kJ/kg-K), which enters
on the shell side of the exchanger at 71⁰C and to leave at 62⁰C. The overall heat
transfer coefficient is 50W/m²-K. What is the flow rate of the other fluid?
79. Because of fouling due to prolonged use, the exit temperature of the cold fluid
becomes 28⁰
a. 0.00669 b. 0.00103 c. 0.000931 d. 0.00483
81. In a distillation column, the bottom section has the following characteristics,
a. highest temperature b. highest pressure
c. both a and b d. neither a nor b
a. 100degC b. 95degC
c. 89degC d. 98degC
212
86. In the above question, when the resulting vapor is condensed, the liquid
composition contains how much benzene (mole fraction)?
a. 0.532 b. 0.83
c. 0.425 d. 0.18
87. What are the advantages of extraction processes compared with other separation
processes?
a. Extraction is a separation process which involves no evaporation; carried out
mostly at ambient temperature and can be used as a separation process for high
temperature sensitive products.
b. All streams are in liquid phase, therefore the system pressures are lower, resulting
in thinner walls needed for the equipments.
213
90. A utility runs a Rankine Cycle with a water boiler at 3.5MPa and the cycle has the
highest and lowest temperature of 450⁰C and 45⁰C respectively. What is the cycle
efficiency?
a. 0.36
b. 0.84
c. 0.53
d. 0.61
214
ANSWER KEY
MIDTERM EXAMINATION
1. C. Sieve diameter 46. A. 4,550min
2. A. Feret’s diameter 47. D. 008
3. B. API 48. A. 30
4. D. Topaz 49. A. Is that corresponding to equilibrium
5. A. 2.89 with the incoming feed
6. A. 21 50. D. 540KJ/kg
7. C. 0.874 51. C. 128.4deg C
8. B. 38% 52. B. 25 deg F
9. C. 0.874 53. D. 3
10. A. 0.806 54. B. 5.27
11. A. 36 inches 55. C. the freezing point of the solution that
12. B. Cyclones remains a liquid is getting lower and
13. A. 18 kwh/ton lower as freezing proceeds
14. A. 8.88kW(kg/s) 56. D. The saturated vapor line
15. A. 3400 57. B. 0.100
16. C. 11 58. B. duhring’s plot is used for calculating
17. C 2.2⁰F the concentration of solution
18. B. 2.1⁰F 59. B. Aluminum foil
19. D. 8 60. A. 1-1 heat exchanger
20. B. 8500 cal/mol 61. A. reduce drying temperature
21. C. same 62. D. diameter of randomly packed towers is
22. B. 2 normally more than 1.2m
23. C. 60 63. A. increase of reaction time
24. C. The space velocity of 3 ℎ𝑟 −1 means 64. B. Adsorption bar
that the one third reactor volume of feed 65. A. In a continuous flow reactor, uniform
at specified conditions are being fed into concentration can not be maintained
the reactor. throughout the vessel even in a well
25. A. 0.15 agitated system
26. B. 2/(𝑘𝐶𝐴0 ) 66. D. Mach number
27. B. 0.75 67. D. None of these
28. A. 0.67 68. B. Bypass
29. D. Classification 69. E. 8.11
30. B. Thickener 70. C. 54
31. B. The velocity of the surface 71. C. 80
32. A. I only 72. C. 4
33. D. In practical terms, the susceptibility of 73. E. 2.25
the engine materials to corrosion is not a 74. D. 5.39
key limitation on the operating efficiency. 75. B. Semi-anthracite
34. C. II and III 76. C. CO
35. B. Reversible 77. A. 2.2
36. A. I = - II + III + IV – V 78. D. 11.55
37. C. I and IV 79. C. 0.000931
38. A. V2(I) = V2(II) 80. A. Double-pipe HE
39. A. I and II 81. C. Both a and c
215
40. A. 0.189m/s 82. A. Total reflux
41. C. Velocity of the flow 83. D. all of the above
42. C. Gustaf de Laval 84. B. increase
43. A. below 100,000kPa and below 600⁰C 85. D. 98degC
44. A. higher compression ratio 86. A. 0.532
45. B. 73⁰F 87. A. Extraction is a separation process
which involves no evaporation; carried
out mostly at ambient temperature and
can be used as a separation process for
high temperature sensitive products.
88. B. less than 2 kg but more than 1 kg of C
is transferred to solvent B
89. C. Sub-saturated
90. A. 0.36
5.
3inches = 0.7=0762m
170lb/ft3 = 2723.kg/m3
6.
𝑃 𝐷𝑝𝑎
= 𝑘 𝑙𝑜𝑔
𝑇 𝐷𝑝𝑏
1
11𝑘𝐽/𝑘𝑔 = 𝑘 𝑙𝑜𝑔
0.3
𝑘 = 21.03738
𝑃 1
= 21.03738 𝑙𝑜𝑔
𝑇 0.01
216
𝑃
= 𝟐𝟏. 𝟎𝟑𝟕 𝒌𝑱/𝒌𝒈
𝑇
7. and 9.
4𝜋𝑟³
𝑅𝑎𝑑𝑖𝑢𝑠 𝑜𝑓 𝑠𝑝ℎ𝑒𝑟𝑒 = = 0.7854 𝑚³
3
𝑅 = 0.5724 𝑚
4.11 𝑚²
𝑓= = 𝟎. 𝟖𝟕𝟑
4.71 𝑚²
10.
1 2/3 1
𝜋 3 6(𝑉𝑝 ) 𝜋 3 6(6)2/3
𝑓= = = 𝟎. 𝟖𝟎𝟔
𝐴𝑝 6𝑥6
14.
𝑃 𝐷𝑝𝑎
= 𝑘 𝑙𝑜𝑔
𝑇 𝐷𝑝𝑏
50
13𝑘𝐽/𝑘𝑔 = 𝑘 𝑙𝑜𝑔
100
𝑘 = 18.599
𝑃 75
= 18.599 𝑙𝑜𝑔
𝑇 25
𝑃 𝒌𝒈
= 𝟖. 𝟖𝟖𝒌𝑾 ( )
𝑇 𝒔
15-16.
𝑄 = 𝑆 (𝜆) = 𝑚𝐶𝑝Δ𝑇
217
(𝜆) @383.15𝐾 = 2690.27 − 461.31 = 2228.96 𝑘𝐽/𝑘𝑔
2228.96𝑘𝐽 3400𝑘𝑔 1ℎ𝑟 1000𝐽 𝑊
( )( )( ) = 2840 2 0 (110 − 43)0 𝐶 (𝐴)
𝑘𝑔 ℎ𝑟 3600𝑠 1𝑘𝐽 𝑚 ( 𝐶)
𝐴 = 𝟏𝟏. 𝟎𝟔𝒎²
19.
ln 𝐶𝑎 − ln 𝐶𝑎𝑜 = 𝑘𝑡
ln 2 − ln 1 = 𝑘(4)
𝑘 = 0.1733
ln 𝐶𝑎 − ln 1 = 0.1733(12)
𝐶𝑎 = 𝟖. 𝟎𝟎
20.
1 1
− = −𝑘𝑡
𝐶𝑎𝑜 𝐶𝑎
1 1
− = −𝑘1(40)
0.1 0.1(0.8)
𝑘1 = 0.0625
1 1
− = −𝑘2(35)
0.1 0.1(0.6)
𝑘2 = 0.1905
𝑅𝑇1𝑇2 𝑘1
𝐸𝑎 = 𝑙𝑛
𝑇1 − 𝑇2 𝑘2
(8.314)(298.15)(323.15) 0.0625
𝐸𝑎 = 𝑙𝑛
298.15 − 323.15 0.1905
35709.4747𝐽/𝑚𝑜𝑙
𝐸𝑎 = = 𝟖𝟑𝟑𝟒. 𝟕𝟕 𝒄𝒂𝒍/𝒎𝒐𝒍
4.184𝐽/𝑐𝑎𝑙
22.
218
𝐶𝑏𝑒 𝑚 + 𝑋𝑎 0 + 2/3
𝑘= = = =𝟐
𝐶𝑏𝑎 1 − 𝑋𝑎𝑒 1 − 2/3
23.
𝐼 + 𝐴 → 2𝐵 + 𝐶 + 𝐼
𝑿𝒂 = 𝟎 1 1 0 0 =2
𝑿𝒂 = 𝟏 1 0 2 1 =4
4−2
𝜀= =1
2
𝑉 = 𝑉𝑜( 1 + 𝜀𝑥𝑎)
𝑉
= ( 1 + 𝜀𝑥𝑎)
𝑉𝑜
1.6 = ( 1 + 1𝑥𝑎)
𝑥𝑎 = 0.60 = 𝟔𝟎%
25.
CSTR
Xa = 0.3
1
= 0.1
𝜏
𝜏 = 10
𝐶𝑎𝑜 − 𝐶𝑎
10 =
−𝑅𝑎
0.3 𝐶𝑎𝑜
−𝑅𝑎 =
10
−𝑅𝑎 = 0.03𝐶𝑎𝑜
PFR
Xa = ?
1
= 0.2
𝜏
𝜏=5
219
𝑋𝑎
𝑑𝑋𝑎
5 = 𝐶𝑎𝑜 ∫
0 −𝑅𝑎
𝑋𝑎
𝑑𝑋𝑎
5 = 𝐶𝑎𝑜 ∫
0 −0.03𝐶𝑎𝑜
𝑋𝑎
𝑑𝑋𝑎
5= ∫
0 −0.03
1
5= (𝑋𝑎 − 0)
0.03
𝑿𝒂 = 𝟎. 𝟏𝟓
26.
CSTR
A -> R
-Ra = kCa²
Xa = 0.50
𝑋𝑎
𝑘𝜏 =
𝐶𝑎𝑜 (1 − 𝑋𝑎)²
0.5𝐶𝑎𝑜
𝜏=
𝑘𝐶𝑎𝑜² (1 − 0.50)²
𝟐
𝜏=
𝒌𝑪𝒂𝒐
27.
𝑉1
𝜏1 =
𝑉0
𝑉2
=6
𝑉1
𝜏1
=6
𝜏2
220
𝑋𝑎
𝜏1 𝑘𝐶𝑎𝑜 (1 − 𝑋𝑎)²
=6=
𝜏2 0.5
𝑘𝐶𝑎𝑜(1 − .5)²
𝑋𝑎 = 𝟎. 𝟕𝟓
28.
𝑋𝑎
𝑘𝜏𝐶𝑎𝑜 =
1 − 𝑋𝑎
𝑋𝑎
2=
1 − 𝑋𝑎
𝑿𝒂 = 𝟎. 𝟔𝟕
40.
2
(9.81)(1000)²(7870 − 900)
𝑈𝑡 =
18(50𝑥10−3 )
0.303𝑚
𝑈𝑡 =
𝑠
46.
200degC = 473.15 K
100 degC = 373.15 K
1 atm = 101325 Pa
20 degC = 293.15 K
100ft3/min = 0.047m3/s
0.81 cal/g degC = 3.389 J/g-K
221
880𝑘𝑔
𝑚 = 3.785412𝑚3 ( ) = 3331.16 𝑘𝑔
𝑚3
3.389𝐽 1000𝑔
𝑄 = 𝑚𝐶𝑝Δ𝑇 = 3331.16 𝑘𝑔 ( )( )(473.15 − 373.15)𝐾 =
𝑔𝐾 𝑘𝑔
𝑚3 1.198𝑘𝑔
(0.047 )( )(𝑡)(1033)(373.15 − 293.15)K
𝑠 𝑚3
48.
1200mm = 3.936ft
75 mm = 0.246ft
76.65
𝑁= = 39.90
√3.936 − 0.246
51.
𝐼²𝑅 200²(0.1)
𝑞= = = 203718327.2
𝜋(𝑟)²𝐿 𝜋( 5 )²(1)
1000𝑥2
5
𝑞(𝑟)² 203718327.2( )²
𝑇𝑜 = + 𝑇𝑤 = 1000𝑥2 + 114 = 𝟏𝟐𝟖. 𝟏𝟒𝟕 𝐝𝐞𝐠 𝑪
4𝑘 4(22.5)
53.
DOF
F = C-P +2
F = 3 – 2 +2
F=3
71-72.
222
CH3OH + 0.5 O2 -> HCHO + H2O ->1
1 0.5 1 1
Fresh methanol rate = Total methanol entering the reactor - recycle methanol = 5 - 1 = 4
kmol/hr.
73.
At C At H
80% CH4 0.80 3.2
15% C2H6 0.30 0.9
5% C3H8 0.15 0.40
1.25 4.5
77.
𝑚𝐶𝑝∆𝑇 (1) = 𝑚𝐶𝑝∆𝑇 (2)
(0.5)(30 − 18)(4) = 𝑚(71 − 62)(1.2)
223
𝑚 = 𝟐. 𝟐𝒌𝒈/𝒔
78.
(62 − 18) − (71 − 30)
∆𝑇𝑙𝑚 =
62 − 18
𝑙𝑛 71 − 30
𝑄 = 𝑈𝐴∆𝑇𝑙𝑚
𝑨 = 𝟏𝟏. 𝟐𝟗𝟗 𝒎²
78.
Fouling resistance
28degC instead of 30degC
(62 − 18) − (71 − 28)
∆𝑇𝑙𝑚 =
62 − 18
𝑙𝑛 71 − 28
𝑄 = 𝑈𝐴∆𝑇𝑙𝑚
𝑼 = 𝟒𝟕. 𝟕𝟕 𝑾/𝒎²𝑪
1 1
𝑟𝑓 = −
𝑈𝑎𝑐𝑡𝑢𝑎𝑙 𝑈𝑐𝑙𝑒𝑎𝑛
1 1
𝑟𝑓 = −
47.77 50
𝒓𝒇 = 9.336 x 𝟏𝟎−𝟒
90.
1: 45oC , x = 0 => h1 = 188.42 , v1 = 0.00101 , Psat = 9.6 kPa
224
3: 3.5 MPa , 450oC => h3 = 3337.2 , s3 = 7.0051
C.V. Pump Rev adiabatic
-wP = h2 - h1 ; s2 = s1
since incompressible it is easier to find work as
-wp = ∫ v dP = v1 (P2 - P1) = 0.00101 (3500 - 9.6) = 3.525
225
SEMI-FINAL EXAMINATION
GENERAL ENGINEERING
1. To be able to pass the ChE Licensure Examination no grades should be lower than 50
for all three examinations and the average should be 70 or higher. A student, after taking
the 1st day (30% weight) and 2nd day (40%) estimated her grades to be 62 and 55
respectively. What grade should she aim on the 3 rd day (30%) to be a chemical engineer?
A. 98 B. 89 C. 95 D. 83
𝑥2
2. ∫ 3 𝑑𝑥 =
𝑒𝑥
1 3 1 3
A. − 3 𝑙𝑛𝑒 𝑥 + 𝐶 D. 3 𝑙𝑛𝑒 𝑥 + 𝐶
3 𝑥3
𝑒𝑥
B. − +𝐶 E. − 3 +𝐶
3 3𝑥
1
C. − 3 +𝐶
3𝑒 𝑥
4. ∫ sin(2𝑥 + 3) 𝑑𝑥 =
A. ½ cos(2x+3) + C C. –cos(2x+3) + C E. -1/5 cos(2x+3) + C
B. cos(2x+3) + C D. -½ cos(2x+3) + C
7. A man left his home at past 3 o’clock PM as indicated in his wall clock, between 2-3
hours after, he returns home and noticed that hands of the clock interchanged. At what
time did the man leave his home?
A. 3:31.47 B. 3:21.45 C. 3:46.10 D. 3:36.50
8. Locate the centroid of the plane area bounded by y=x 2 and y=x.
A. 0.4 from the x-axis and 0.5 from the y-axis
B. 0.5 from the x-axis and 0.4 from the y-axis
C. 0.4 from the x-axis and 0.4 from the y-axis
D. 0.5 from the x-axis and 0.5 from the y-axis
9. From the time 6:15 PM to the time 7:45 PM of the same day, the minute hand of a
standard clock describe an arc of?
226
A. 60O B. 90O C. 180O D. 540O
11. One of the satellites of Jupiter has an apogee of 40000 km and a perigee of 6600 km
assuming the radius of Jupiter as 6400 km, what will be the eccentricity of the elliptical
path described by the satellite with the center of Jupiter at one of the foci?
A. 0.56 B. 0.20 C. 0.78 D. 0.33
12. If equal spheres are piled in the form of a complete pyramid with an equilateral
triangle as base, find the total number of spheres in the pile if each side of the base
contains 4 spheres.
A. 15 B. 18 C. 20 D. 21
14. In how many different orders can 7 books be arranged on a shelf if this 3-volume
work is not merely not to be separated but must be kept in the proper order?
A. 120 B. 720 C. 5040 D. 4050
15. Find the equation of the conic with eccentricity 2 and foci at (6, 0) and (-6, 0).
A. 9x2-27y2=243 C. 27x2-9y2=243
B. 8x2-25y2=200 D. 25x2-8y2=20
16. Find a point in the parabola y2=4x at which the rates of change of line ordinate and
abscissa are equal.
A. (4, 4) B. (3, 2) C. (1, 2) D. (0, 0)
18. An enterprising engineer purchased a fleet of trucks for Php 780,000.00 payments
were made by an immediate cash payment of Php 50,000.00 and twelve month – end
payments of Php 64,860.00 each. Another deal referred to finance the purchase at an
interest rate of ¾% per month on the unpaid balance. Which offer should the engineer
have accepted?
A. The first offer C. Either of the two offers
B. The second offer D. Neither of the two offers
227
20. At what time after 12:00 noon will the hour hand and the minute hand of the clock
first form an angle of 120O?
A. 12:18.818 B. 12:21.818 C. 12:22.818 D. 12:24.818
21. In the figure, the radius of the circle is 1, what is the perimeter of the shaded part of
the figure?
A. π B. 4π/3 C. 2π/3 D. π/3
23. A 7/8 inch diameter bolt having a diameter at the root of the threads of 0.731 inch is
used to fasten two timbers together as shown. The nut is tightened to cause a tensile
strength of 18,000 psi in the bolt. Determine the outside diameter of the washers if their
inside diameter is 9/8 inches and the bearing stress is limited to 800 psi.
A. 3.18 in B. 3.65 in C. 4.1 in D. 4.3 in
25. In a pile of logs, each layer contains one more log than the other layer above and the
top contains just one log. If there are 105 logs in the pile, how many layers are there?
A. 11 B. 12 C. 13 D. 14
26. What work is required to lift a 215 kg mass a distance of 5.65 m using a machine that
is 72.5% efficient?
A. 1.46x10-4 J B. 1.64x104 J C. 1.19x104 J D. 1.46x106 J
27. Two forces PQ and PR of magnitudes 5.0 kg and 8.0 kg, respectively, acts at a point
P. The direction of PQ is N20OE, and the direction of PR is N65OE. Approximate the
magnitude and direction of the resultant PS.
A. 11.2 kg, N42OE
B. 12.1 kg, N48OE
C. 14.1 kg, N73OE
D. 15.1 kg, N27OE
28. An electric motor drives a load, taking 18.8 amperes from 230-V source. How much
is the power input of the motor?
A. 2.343 kW B. 3.423 kW C. 4. 323 kW D. 3.343 kW
228
29. A rubber ball is made to fall from a height of 50 feet and is observed to rebound 2/3
of the distance it falls. How far will the ball travel before coming to rest if the ball
continues to fall in this manner?
A. 200 feet B. 225 feet C. 250 feet D. 275 feet
30. A resistor is connected across a voltage E1, dissipating a power P. If R was decreased
to half, how much must E change to dissipate the same power?
A. E must decrease to 0.707E1
B. E must decrease to 0.393E1
C. E must increase to 0.707E1
D. E must increase to 0.393E1
34. Arjie, aside from being a terrorist, is a boatman who used to row the Tingloy marsh,
4.8 miles, with the stream and back in 14 hours, but finds that he can row 14 miles with
the stream in the same time as 3 miles against the stream. Find the rate of the stream in
mph.
A. 1.5 B. 1 C. 0.8 D. 0.6
35. Let A be a 50x50 matrix and B a 50x20 matrix. Which of the following expression
will have no definite answer?
A. BBT (product of B and B transpose)
B. BTB (product of B transpose and B)
C. ABT (product of A and B transpose)
D. BTA (product of B transpose and A)
36. Find the polar equation of the circle of radius 3 units and center at (3, 0).
A. r=3cosθ B. r=3sinθ C. r=6cosθ D. r=9sinθ
37. Angles are measured from the positive horizontal axis, and the positive direction is
counterclockwise. What are the values of sin B and cos B in the 4 th Quadrant?
A. Sin B>0 and Cos B<0 C. Sin B<0 and Cos B>0
B. none of these D. Sin B<0 and Cos B<0
38. The velocity of the transverse waves produced by an earthquake is 8.9 km/s, and that
of the longitudinal waves is 5.1 km/s. A seismograph records the arrival of the transverse
229
waves 73 s before the arrival of the longitudinal waves. How far away was the
earthquake?
A. 780,000 m B. 110,780 m C. 870,000 m D. 710,800 m
39. The general equation of a conic section is given by the following equation;
Ax2+Bxy+Cy2+Dx+Ey+F=0. A curve may be identified by which of the following
conditions?
A. B2-4AC<0 B. B2-4AC=0 C. B2-4AC>0 D. B2-4AC<0
40. Ahmed is standing on a 48.5 meter building high, has an eyesight height of 1.5 m
from the top of the building, took a depression reading from the top of another nearby
building and nearest wall, which are 50O and 80O respectively. Find the height of the
nearby building in meters. Ahmed is standing at the edge of the building and both
buildings lie on the same horizontal plane.
A. 39.49 B. 49.39 C. 59.69 D. 69.59
41. If a, b, and c are different numbers such that a3+9a-18, b3+9b-18, c3+9c-18 are all
equal to zero, find the value of 1/a +1/b +a/c.
A. ½ B. ¼ C. 1/3 D. 1/8
42. Three years ago, Luna got engaged to a foreigner who happens to be a Nobel Prize
winner. After a year, Luna and his husband got married. At present, the sum of Luna and
his husband’s ages is twice the sum of their children’s ages. Five years ago, when his
husband got the Nobel award, the sum of their ages was four times the sum of their
children’s ages. Fifteen years hence, the sum of their ages will be equal to the sum of
their children’s ages. How many children do Luna and his husband have? (On the
assumption that Luna has only one husband)
A. 5 B. 7 C. 12 D. 2
43. Given the area in the first quadrant by x2=8y, the line x=4 and the x-axis. What is the
volume generated by revolving this area about the y-axis?
A. 53.26 B. 52.26 C. 52.26 D. 50.26
44. Evaluate the integral of ln x dx, the limits are 1 and “the first letter of my name”
A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. Undefined
45. The cost per hour of running a motorboat is proportional to the cube of the speed. At
what speed will the boat run against a current of 8 km/hr in order to go a given distance
most economically?
A. 10 kph B. 15 kph C. 12 kph D. 20 kph
46. Water is pouring into a swimming pool. After t hours, there are t+t 1/2 gallons in the
pool. At what rate is the water pouring into the pool when t=9 hours?
A. 7/6 gph B. 1 gph C. ½ gph D. 1/6 gph
230
47. If the average of the seven numbers is 88, then the first number is increased by 12,
second number is increased by 20, the third by 10, the fourth by 15, the fifth by 13, the
sixth by 12 and the seventh by 16. What will be the new average of the seven numbers?
A. 102 B. 89 C. 201 D. 112
48. The total surface of two cubes is 150 sq. m. The total length of their edges is 84 cm.
Find the edge of the larger cube.
A. 4 B. 5.5 C. 6.4 D. 7.2
51. A tank has 3 inlet pipes, A, B, and C. When all 3 pipes are fully open, the tank is
filled in 3 hours. If only A and B are open, it takes 4 hours to fill the tank. If only A and
C are open, it takes 8 hours to fill the tank. How long would it take pipe A, running alone,
to fill the tank?
A. 12 B. 24 C. 16 D. 32
52. The cost C of a product is a function of the quantity x of the product: C(x)=x 2-
4000x+50. Find the quantity for which the cost is minimum.
A. 1000 B. 1500 C. 2000 D. 3000
53. The integral of a function between certain limits divided by the difference in
abscissas between those limits gives the _____ of the function.
A. constant B. derivative C. average D. domain
54. Find the integrating factor for the equation (x2+y2-x)dx – ydy = 0
A. 1/(x+y) C. 1/(x2+y2) E. 1/y2
2
B. y/(x+y) D. 1/x
55. The equation of a circle on the y-axis and passes through the origin and the point (4,
2) is
A. x2+y2-10y=0 C. x2+y2-10x=0
2 2
B. x +y -10x+10y=0 D. x2+y2+10y=0
231
56. Twelve persons are to sit at a round table. Two particular people insist on sitting
opposite each other. Find the number of ways the twelve can be seated.
A. 2638800 B. 6238800 C. 3826800 D. 3628800
57. A square and a regular hexagon have the same perimeter. If the area of the square is
2.25, what is the area of the hexagon?
A. 2.250 B. 2.598 C. 2.838 D. 3.464
58. If money is worth 8% compounded quarterly, find the present value of a sequence of
payments of $200 each at the end of each 3 months forever.
A. $8620 B. $10,000 C. $10,200 D. 20,000
59. Determine the present value of a sequence of payments of $200 each at the beginning
of each 3 months forever.
A. $8620 B. $10,000 C. $10,200 D. 20,000
60. Determine the present value of a sequence of payments of $200 each at the end of
each 3 months for 25 years.
A. $8620 B. $10,000 C. $10,200 D. 20,000
61. The area of the region bounded by the curve 𝑦 = 𝑒 2𝑥 , the x-axis, the y-axis, and the
line x=2 is equal to
𝑒4 𝑒4 1
A. −𝑒 C. 2 − 2
2
B.
𝑒4
−1 D. 2𝑒 4 − 𝑒
2 E. 2𝑒 4 − 2
1 8 1
8( +ℎ) −8( )8
2 2
63. What is lim ?
ℎ→0 ℎ
A. 0 D. The limit does not exist
B. ½ E. It cannot be determined.
C. 1
64. When the area in square units of an expanding circle is increasing twice as fast as its
radius in linear units, the radius is
A. ¼ π B. ¼ C. 1/π D. 1 E. π
65. At t=0, a particle starts at rest and moves along a line in such a way that at time t its
acceleration is 24t2 feet per second. Through how many feet does the particle move
during the first 2 seconds?
A. 32 B. 48 C. 64 D. 96 E. 192
232
66. A solid is formed by rotating the triangle with vertices (0, 0), (2, 0), and (1, 1) about
the x-axis. What is the resulting volume?
A. 2pi/3 B. 3pi C. 3/2 pi D. 1/3 pi E. ½ pi
67. The portion of the curve y=x2 between x=1 and x=4 is rotated about the x-axis. What
volume does the resulting surface enclose?
A. 1320pi/5 B. 1023pi/5 C. 1023pi/4 D. 1230pi/5 E. 1230pi/4
68. Two couples and a single person are seated at random in a row of five chairs. What is
the probability that at least one person is not beside his/her partner?
A. 0.5 B. 0.4 C. 0.33 D. 0.45
4𝑥+3
69. The range of the function 𝑦 = is
2𝑥−3
A. All numbers except 1 C. All numbers except 3
B. All numbers except 2 D. All numbers except 4
70. A used bulldozer with a remaining life of 5 years and $10,000 salvage value can be
purchased for $40,000. The annual maintenance cost is expected to $20,000 per year. In
addition, operating costs are expected to be $25 per hour. Alternatively, a bulldozer can
be rented for $150 per hour. At an interest rate of 10% per year, the minimum number of
hours per year the bulldozer must be utilized to justify its purchase is closest to:
A. 231 hours B. 312 hours C. 322 hours D. 301 hours
71. A new boiler was installed at a cost of Php 1.5 M and projected to have a zero salvage
value at the end of its 10 year life. What is the capitalized cost if interest is 10% per year?
A. Php 2.44 M B. Php 6.02 M C. Php 3.42 M D. Php 1.06 M
72. Cash flow which changes by the same amount each interest period is called a
A. uniform cash flow C. uniform gradient
B. geometric series D. series cash flow
76. When equal and opposite forces are exerted on an object along different lines of
action, the object is said to be under
A. tension B. compression C. shear D. elasticity
233
77. Radio waves are electromagnetic waves with wavelengths that range from
A. 1mm-100km C. 1000km-10000km
B. 100km-1000km D. 10000km-10000km
78. What particles can occupy the same space if they have the same energy?
A. ion B. neutron C. boson D. proton
79. A lump of ice falls from an aeroplane as it comes in to land. If the ice hits the ground
with a vertical speed of 85m/s, what was the height of the plane when the ice fell off?
A. 361.25m B. 136.12m C. 231.12m D. 251.63m
80. The degree to which the measured value agrees with correct value for that
measurement
A. precision
B. accuracy
C. percent error
D. error
234
ANSWER KEY
SEMIFINAL EXAMINATION
1. A. 98 41. A. ½
1 42. A. 5
2. C. − 𝑥3 + 𝐶
3𝑒 43. D. 50.26
3. D. 2/e
44. B. 1
4. D. -½ cos(2x+3) + C
45. C. 12 kph
5. A. dodecahedron
46. A. 7/6 gph
6. D. orthocenther
47. A. 102
7. A. 3:31.47
48. A. 4
8. A. 0.4 from the x-axis and 0.5
49. C. 204
from the y-axis
50. B. 8 cm2
9. D. 540O
51. B. 24
10. A. -128
52. C. 2000
11. A. 0.56
53. C. average
12. C. 20
54. C. 1/(x2+y2)
13. D. 133/999
55. A. x2+y2-10y=0
14. A. 120
56. D. 3628800
15. C. 27x2-9y2=243
57. B. 2.598
16. C. (1, 2)
58. B. $ 10,000
17. D. 2
59. C. $ 10,200
18. B. The second offer
60. A. $8620
19. C. 60O 𝑒4 1
20. B. 12:21.818 61. C. 2 − 2
21. B. 4π/3 62. C. cot x
22. D. 17.46 mm 63. B. ½
23. D. 4.3 in 64. C. 1/π
24. B. at B 65. A. 32
25. D. 14 66. A. 2pi/3
26. B. 1.64x104 J 67. B. 1023 pi/5
27. B. 12.1 kg, N48OE 68. B. 0.4
28. C. 4.323 kW 69. B. All numbers except 2
29. C. 250 feet 70. A. 231 hours
30. A. E must decrease to 0.707E1 71. A. Php 2.44 M
31. C. both A and B 72. C. uniform gradient
32. B. (3, -4) 73. C. plagiarism
33. C. irrational 74. C. RA 9003
34. C. 0.8 75. D. Chemical Engineering Law of
35. C. ABT (product of A and B 2004
transpose) 76. C. shear
36. C. r=6cosθ 77. A. 1mm-100km
37. C. Sin B<0 and Cos B>0 78. C. boson
38. C. 870,000 m 79. A. 361.25m
39. A. B2-4AC<0 80. B. accuracy
40. A. 39.49
235
SEMIFINAL EXAMINATION SOLUTIONS
𝑥2 𝟏
2.) ∫ 3 𝑑𝑥 = − 𝟑 +𝑪
𝑒𝑥 𝟑𝒆𝒙
1 1
3.) tan 𝑢 = tan (𝑣 − 𝑣) = tan(ln 𝑥 − ln 𝑥)
𝑑𝑦 1 1 1 1
= 𝑠𝑒𝑐 2 (ln 𝑥 − )[ + ( )]
𝑑𝑥 ln 𝑥 𝑥 (ln 𝑥)2 𝑥
at x = e:
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 𝟐
𝑠𝑒𝑐 2 (ln 𝑒 − )[ + ( )] = ( + ) =
ln 𝑒 𝑒 (ln 𝑒) 2 𝑒 𝑐𝑜𝑠 2 (1 − 1) 𝑒 𝑒 𝒆
𝟏
4.) ∫ sin(2𝑥 + 3) 𝑑𝑥 = − 𝒄𝒐𝒔(𝟐𝒙 + 𝟑) + 𝑪
𝟐
7.)
𝑦 𝑥
𝑥 = 30 + 12 (1) 𝑦 = 15 + 12 (2)
Solving simultaneously, x=31.47 minutes. Therefore, t= 3:31.47
236
1 1
( )y̅ =
6 15
𝐲̅ = 𝟎. 𝟒
𝑐 16700
𝑒= = = 𝟎. 𝟓𝟔
𝑎 29700
12.)
237
𝟐𝟕𝒙𝟐 − 𝟗𝒚𝟐 = 𝟐𝟒𝟑
180°
20.) 120 𝑚𝑖𝑛𝑢𝑡𝑒𝑠 (30 𝑚𝑖𝑛𝑢𝑡𝑒𝑠) = 20°
𝑥
𝑥 = 20 + 12 = 21.8182 minutes
t = 12:21.818
22.)
T = 0.03F
2.2 = 0.03F
2.2 = 0.03F
F = 73.33kN
V=τAV=τA
Where:
V=F=73.33kN
A=70b
τ=60MPa
Thus, 73.33(1000)=60(70b)
b = 17.46 mm
238
23.)
𝑛
25.) 𝑆𝑛 = 2 [2𝐴1 + (𝑛 − 1)𝑑 ]
𝑛
105 = [2(1) + (𝑛 − 1)(1)]
2
𝒏 = 𝟏𝟒
26.) 𝑃𝐸 = 𝜂𝑊
𝑚𝑔ℎ = 0.725𝑊
215(9.81)(5.65) = 0.725𝑊
𝑊 = 16436.8241 𝐽 ≈ 𝟏. 𝟔𝒙𝟏𝟎𝟒 𝑱
29.)
2 100
𝐴1 = 50 ( ) = ;𝑛 = ∞
3 3
100
𝐴1
𝑆𝑛 = = 3 = 100
1−𝑟 1−2
3
Let: D = total distance traveled by the ball
𝐷 = 50 + 2𝑆𝑛 = 50 + 2(100) = 𝟐𝟓𝟎 𝒇𝒆𝒆𝒕
239
32.) (25𝑥 2 − 150𝑥 ) + (16𝑦 2 + 128𝑦) = −81
25𝑥 2−150𝑥 −6
= 𝑥2 − 6 + ℎ ℎ= = −3
25 2
16𝑦2 −128𝑦 8
= 𝑦2 + 8 + 𝑘 𝑘=2=4
16
(𝑥 − 3)2 = 0 (𝑦 + 4)2 = 0
𝒙=𝟑 𝒚 = −𝟒
4.8 4.8
+ = 14
𝑉1 + 𝑉2 𝑉1 − 𝑉2
4.8(𝑉1 + 𝑉2 ) + 4.8(𝑉1 + 𝑉2 )
= 14
(𝑉1 + 𝑉2 )((𝑉1 − 𝑉2 )
Simplifying the equation, 9.6𝑉1 = 14𝑉12 − 14𝑉22 (eqtn. 1)
14 3
=
𝑉1 + 𝑉2 𝑉1 − 𝑉2
Simplifying the equation, 𝑉1 = 1.545𝑉2 (eqtn. 2)
Substituting (eqtn. 2) in (eqtn. 1):
9.6(1.545𝑉2 ) = 14(1.545𝑉2 )2 − 14𝑉22
𝑉2 = 0.76 ≈ 𝟎. 𝟖 𝒎𝒑𝒉
36.) (𝑥 − ℎ)2 + (𝑦 − 𝑘 )2 = 𝑟 2
Substitute coordinates of center and radius:
(𝑥 − 3)2 + (𝑦 − 0)2 = 32
𝑥 2 − 6𝑥 + 9 + 𝑦 2 = 9
𝑥 2 − 6𝑥 + 𝑦 2 = 0
Note: 𝑥 = 𝑟𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜃
𝑦 = 𝑟𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃
Substitute:
240
(𝑟𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜃)2 − 6(𝑟𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜃) + (𝑟𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃)2 = 0
𝑟 2 𝑐𝑜𝑠 2𝜃 − 6𝑟𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜃 + 𝑟 2 𝑠𝑖𝑛2 𝜃 = 0
𝑟 2 (𝑐𝑜𝑠 2𝜃 + 𝑠𝑖𝑛2 𝜃 ) = 6𝑟𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜃
𝑟 2 = 6𝑟𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜃
𝒓 = 𝟔𝒄𝒐𝒔𝜽
ℎ1 50
40.) tan(80) = 𝑑
= 𝑑
𝑑 = 8.8163
ℎ2
tan(50) = 8.82 ℎ2 = 10.5069
𝐻𝑒𝑖𝑔ℎ𝑡 𝑜𝑓 𝑡ℎ𝑒 2𝑛𝑑 𝑏𝑢𝑖𝑙𝑑𝑖𝑛𝑔 = 50 − 10.5069 = 𝟑𝟗. 𝟒𝟗 𝒎
41.) 𝑎3 + 9𝑎 − 18 (eqtn. 1)
𝑏3 + 9𝑏 − 18 (eqtn. 2)
3
𝑐 + 9𝑐 − 18 (eqtn. 3)
Solving simultaneously, a = 1.57, b = -0.785+3.2937i, c = -0.785-3.2937i
1 1 1 1 1 1
+ + = + + = 𝟎. 𝟓
𝑎 𝑏 𝑐 1.57 −0.785 + 3.2937i −0.785 − 3.2937i
42.)
Past Present Future
Parents 2x-10 2x 2x+30
Children x-5n x x+15n
45.) Let: C = cost per hour; x = speed of the motorboat; Ct = total cost
241
𝑑
𝐶𝑡 = 𝑘𝑥 3 ( )
𝑥−8
𝑑𝐶𝑡 (𝑥 − 8)(3𝑘𝑑𝑥 2 ) − 𝑘𝑑𝑥 3 (1)
= =0
𝑑𝑥 (𝑥 − 8)2
(𝑥 − 8)(3𝑥 2 ) = 𝑥 3
3𝑥 3 − 24𝑥 2 = 𝑥 3
2𝑥 3 = 24𝑥 2
𝒙 = 𝟏𝟐 𝒌𝒑𝒉
49.) There are many more different-sized squares on the chessboard. The complete list of
answers is shown below:
1 8x8 square
4 7x7 squares
9 6x6 squares
16 5x5 squares
25 4x4 squares
36 3x3 squares
49 2x2 squares
64 1x1 squares
Therefore, there are actually 64 + 49 + 36 + 25 + 16 + 9 + 4 + 1 squares on a chessboard
(in total 204).
𝑠 2
50.) ∑𝑛= ∞ 𝑛
𝑛=0 = 2 (2𝑛 ) = 𝟖 𝒄𝒎
𝟐
1 1 1 1
51.) + + = (eqtn. 1)
𝐴 𝐵 𝐶 3
1 1 1
+ = (eqtn. 2)
𝐴 𝐵 4
242
1 1 1
+ 𝐶 = 8 (eqtn. 3)
𝐴
Solving simultaneously,
A = 24, B = 4.8, C = 12
52.) 𝐶 (𝑥 ) = 𝑥 2 − 4000𝑥 + 50
Integrating the equation,
𝐶 (𝑥 ) = 2𝑥 − 4000 = 0
𝒙 = 𝟐𝟎𝟎𝟎
55.) The line thru the origin and (4, 2) is a chord of the circle. So the perpendicular
bisector of it will go thru the center. The intersection of that line and the y-axis will be
the center of the circle.
Find the equation of the line thru (0,0) and (4,2).
𝑦2 − 𝑦1 2 − 0 2 1
𝑠𝑙𝑜𝑝𝑒(𝑚) = = = =
𝑥2 − 𝑥1 4 − 0 4 2
The midpoint of the line is (2, 1).
The slope of the line perpendicular will be the negative inverse, = -2
Find the equation of the line with a slope of -2 thru (2,1)
y - y1 = m(x-x1)
y - 1 = -2(x - 2)
y - 1 = -2x + 4
y = -2x + 5
The y-intercept is 5, so the point (0,5) is the center of the circle (it was stated to be on the
y-axis).
Since the circle also goes thru the origin, the radius is 5.
x2 + (y-5)2 = 25 is the circle or
x2 + y2 - 10y + 25 = 25
x2 + y2 - 10y = 0
57.) The sides of the square are √2.25 = 1.5, so the perimeter of the square is 4(1.5) = 6.
So the hexagon, which also has perimeter 6, will have sides of length 1. To find the area
of a regular hexagon, break it into 6 equilateral triangles:
Each of those can further be broken into 30º-60º-90º triangles, because all the angles in
an equilateral triangle are 60º.
1 1 √3 √3
𝐴𝑟𝑒𝑎 𝑜𝑓 𝑜𝑛𝑒 𝑡𝑟𝑖𝑎𝑛𝑔𝑙𝑒 = 𝑏ℎ = (1) ( ) =
2 2 2 4
243
Remember that there are 6 of those triangles in a hexagon.
√3
𝐴𝑟𝑒𝑎 𝑜𝑓 ℎ𝑒𝑥𝑎𝑔𝑜𝑛 = 6 ( ) = 𝟐. 𝟓𝟗𝟖𝟏
4
𝐴 200
58.) 𝑃 = = 0.08 = 𝟏𝟎, 𝟎𝟎𝟎
𝑖 ( )
4
𝐴 200
59.) 𝑃 = 𝐴 + 𝑖 = 200 + 0.08 = 𝟏𝟎, 𝟐𝟎𝟎
( )
4
0.08 −25(4)
1−(1+𝑖)−𝑛 1−(1+ )
4
60.) 𝑃 = 𝐴 [ ] = 200 [ 0.08 ] = 8619.6703 ≈ 𝟖𝟔𝟐𝟎
𝑖
4
64.) 𝐴 = 𝜋𝑟 2
𝑑𝐴
= 2𝜋𝑟
𝑑𝑟
𝑑𝑟 𝑑𝑟
2𝜋 =2
𝑑𝑡 𝑑𝑡
𝟏
𝒓=
𝝅
𝑆(𝑡) = ∫ 8𝑡 3 = 2𝑡 4
When t = 2,
𝑆(𝑡) = 2𝑡 4 = 2(2)4 = 𝟑𝟐
4!(2!)
68.) = 𝟎. 𝟒
5!
𝐴 𝐹𝐶−𝑆𝑉 1.5−0
71.) 𝐶𝐶 = 𝐹𝐶 + 𝑖 + (1+𝑖)𝑘−1 = 1.5 + (1+0.1)10−1 = 𝟐. 𝟒𝟒 𝑴
79.) PE = KE
1
𝑚1 𝑔ℎ = 2 𝑚2 𝑣 2 𝑚1 = 𝑚2
1
𝑔ℎ = 𝑣 2
2
2𝑔ℎ = 𝑣 2
2(9.81)(ℎ) = 852
𝒉 = 𝟑𝟔𝟖. 𝟐𝟒𝟔𝟕
244
FINAL EXAMINATION- PART I
PHYSICAL AND CHEMICAL PRINCIPLES
2. Two or more chemical compounds that have the same chemical composition but
different structures (isomers) and can convert easily from one form to another.
A. Hemiacetals B. Acetals C. Tautomers D. none of the given
4. A survival mechanism of some bacteria when conditions are not conducive for
growth; a dormant form of the cell capable of resisting heat, radiation and
chemicals.
A. Capsule B. Capsid C. Fimbrae D. Spore
5. In fungal growth, long thin filaments are called ______ while the highly branched
structure is called the _______.
A. Pilli, Aggregate C. Fibres, Fimbrae
B. Pilli, Mycelium D. Hyphae, Mycelium
8. The van der Waals constants for Ar are a = 1.345 L2atm/mol2 and b = 0.03219
L/mol. The same constants for O2 are a = 1.360 L2atm/mol2 and b = 0.03183 L/mol.
Which of the following is correct in a comparison between Ar and O2?
A. Attraction between Ar particles are stronger and the effective size of the Ar
particles is greater.
B. Attraction between O2 particles are stronger and the effective size of the O2
particles is greater.
245
C. Attractions between Ar particles are stronger but the effective size of the O2
particle is greater.
D. Attractions between O2 particles are stronger but the effective size of the Ar
particle is greater.
9. Which of the following is the minimum information necessary for calculating the
molality of a solution?
A. The mass of the solute and the volume of the solvent
B. The mass of the solute, volume of the solvent and the density of the solvent
C. The mass of the solute, volume of the solvent and the molecular mass of the
solute
D. The mass of the solute, the volume of the solvent, the molecular mass of the
solute, and the density of the solvent.
10. A vacuum manifold was calibrated using Boyle’s law. A 0.503 dm 3 flask containing
dry nitrogen at 746 torr was attached to the manifold, which was at 12 mtorr. After
the stopcock was opened and the system allowed to reach equilibrium, the pressure
of the combined system was 273 torr. Assuming isothermal conditions, what is the
volume of manifold?
A. 0.872 dm3 B. 0.827 dm3 C. 0.782 dm3 D. 0.728 dm3
11. An ideal gas at 175K contains 5x1020 molecules/m3. What is the pressure of gas?
A. 1.2 Pa B. 1.2 kPa C. 2.1 Pa D. 2.1 kPa
14. Benzene is a rotten ideal gas. The van der Waals parameters are a = 18.24
atm∙L2/mol and b = 0.1154 L/mol. Find its compression factor, Z at 100 oC.
246
A. 0.948 B. 0.984 C. 0.995 D. 0.959
A. 2,7-Dimethyl-2,8-nonadiene C. 2,7-Dimethyl-1,6-nonadiene
B. 2,7-Dimethyl-1,8-nonadiene D. 2,7-Dimethyl-1,7-nonadiene
16. What is the sequence of reagents that will accomplish the synthesis of the following
aromatic amine from benzene?
A. CH3Cl, AlCl3, HNO3, H2SO4, H2
B. CH3Cl, AlCl3, HNO3, H2SO4, Fe, HCl, NaOH
C. HNO3, H2SO4, Fe, HCl, NaOH, CH3Cl, AlCl3
D. HNO3, H2SO4, CH3Cl, AlCl3, Fe, HCl, NaOH
17. The calcium and magnesium in a urine sample were pond as oxalates. A mixed ppt.
of CaC2O4 and MgC2O4 resulted and was analyzed by a thermogravimetric
procedure. The ppt. mixture was heated to form CaCO3 (100.0869) and MgO
(43.30). This second mixture weighed 0.0433 g. After ignition to form CaO (56.08)
and MgO, the resulting solid weighed 0.0285 g. What was the mass (mg) of Ca
(40.08) in the original sample?
A. 11.5 B. 12.5 C. 13.5 D. 15.3
18. A 0.4054 g solid organic sample containing covalently bound bromide and no other
halogens was placed in a porcelain crucible with about one gram of fresh sodium
metal. In a process known as sodium fusion, the mixture was heated in a furnace to
450oC which charred and vaporized the organic portion of the molecule and the
converted the covalent bromide into sodium bromide. Excess sodium was
decomposed by adding small portions of water which also dissolved sodium
bromide. The clear solution was quantitatively transferred to a beaker, acidified
with dilute nitric acid and diluted to about 50 mL. A 6 mL quantity of 0.1 M AgNO3
was added to the solution and the mixture heated to about 60 oC for an hour to age
and digest the precipitate. After filtering, the mass of the silver bromide produced
was determined to be 37.8 mg. What is the percentage by mass bromine in the
organic compound?
A. 3.79% B. 9.73% C. 3.97% D. 7.93%
19. To make some starches more soluble, phosphate ester groups are inserted into these
straight-chain molecules. Inserting phosphate ester groups.
A. Disrupts the molecule’s intermolecular forces thereby permitting water to
disperse within the chain more effectively
247
B. Changes the chemical composition of the starches, thereby decreasing the
polarity.
C. Alters their optical reactivity and thus causes their solubility to increase.
D. All of the above are true
25. When s and p orbitals are hybridized, how many sp3 hybrid orbitals are formed?
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
29. The amount of heat absorbed (or evolved) where 1 mole of a substance is formed
is equal to the amount of heat evolved (or absorbed) when 1 mole of the same
substance is decomposed.
A. Hess Law of a Heat Summation C. Law of Lavoisier
B. Law of Lavoisier and Laplace D. Clausius-Clapeyron Equation
31. A 1.1105 g sample of bauxite (the primary ore of aluminum) was analyzed for
aluminum. The sample was pulverized and dissolved in concentrated nitric acid.
The HNO3 was removed by evaporation and solids dissolved in hot water with a
very small quantity of nitric acid added. Insoluble solids were removed by gravity
filtration. The solution was made basic by the slow addition of dilute NH3 at which
point a gelatinous solid precipitated (Al(OH)3 and Al2O3∙H2O). The precipitate was
heated to coagulate it as much as possible then filtered over “fast” filter paper. The
paper and solids were placed in a porcelain crucible and the paper ashed and
precipitate “ignited” at 600oC to convert the precipitate to pure Al2O3. The mass
of Al2O3 isolated was 0.3605 g. The average mass of ash remaining after charring
10 sheets of the identical filter paper was 0.0006 g. What is the percentage
aluminum in the bauxite ore?
A. 17.18% B. 17.15% C. 17.81% D. 17.51%
32. The molar mass of a certain metal carbonate MCO3, can be determined by adding
an excess of HCl to react with all the carbonate and then back-titrating the
remaining acid with NaOH. In a certain experiment, 20 ml of 0.800M HCl were
added to 0.1022 g sample of MCO3. The excess HCl required 5.64 ml of 0.100M
NaOH for neutralization. Calculate the molar mass of the carbonate.
A. 24 g/mol C. 40 g/mol
B. 197 g/mol D. cannot be determined from the given data
33. Based from the previous problem, identify the metal carbonate M.
A. Mg B. Ba C. Ca D. none of the given
34. 3000 MT of 6-10-16 fertilizer was prepared by mixing ammonium sulfate (95%
purity), phosphoric acid (95% purity), muriate of potash (95% purity), and gypsum
(90% purity). Calculate how much of the gypsum was used.
A. 893 MT B. 435.9 MT C. 800.9 MT D. 869.9 MT
35. Find the pH of a solution made by diluting one drop (0.04 mL) of 0.10 N HCl to 10
liters.
249
A. 1 B. 2.40 C. 3.4 D. 6.37
39. The fatty acid cycle removes _______ units per cycle, until the fatty acid has been
completely oxidized.
A. one carbon B. one acetyl-CoA C. two carbon D. four acetyl-CoA
40. The Ksp for CaF2 is 3.9 x 10-11 at 25oC. Assuming that CaF2 dissociates
completely upon dissolving and that there are no other important equilibria
affecting its solubility, calculate the solubility of CaF2 in g/L.
A. 0.09 g/L B. 0.03 g/L C. 0.017 g/L D. NOTG
44. A urea solution freezes at -2oC. How much glucose should be added to 100 grams
of urea solution to lower the freezing point of solution to -3oC?
A. 16 grams B. 1.6 grams C. 24 grams D. 2.4 grams
250
by nine times without altering the concentration of A, the rate gets tripled. The order
of the reaction is
A. 2 B. 1 C. 3/2 D. 4/3
48. For preparing a buffer solution of pH = 7.0, which buffer system you will choose?
A. H3PO4, H2PO4- C. HPO42-, PO43-
4- 2-
B. H2PO , HPO4 D. H3PO4, PO43-
49. The insoluble salt AgBr can be dissolved in ammonia solution according to the
equilibrium below. What concentration of NH3 is needed to dissolve 0.010 mole of
AgBr in 1.0 L of solution?
52. Stomach acid is approximately 0.02 M HCl. What volume of this acid is neutralized
by an antacid tablet that weighs 330 mg and contains 41.0% Mg(OH) 2, 36.2%
NaHCO3, and 22.8% NaCl? Mg(OH)2 + 2H+ → Mg2+ + 2H2O
A. 330 mL B. 303 mL C. 348 mL D. 384 mL
53. Suppose the following four salts all have the same numerical value of Ksp which
is much less than one, which will have the highest solubility?
A. AB B. AB2 C. AB3 D. A2B3
251
54. A given amount of electric charge deposits 2.159 gram of silver from an Ag+
solution. What mass of copper from Cu+2 solution will deposited by the same
quantity of electric charge? Atomic mass: Ag = 107.87 g/mol; Cu = 63.5 g/mol
A. 0.635 gram B. 0.356 gram C. 0.535 gram D. 0.335 gram
55. Beaker A contains 0.1L of a 0.20M KOH solution; beaker B contains 0.1L of a
0.20M HCl solution. The contents of the two beakers are thoroughly mixed together
in as sufficiently large third beaker. Calculate the molarity of the resulting salt
solution.
A. 1M B. 0.001M C. 0.01M D. 0.1M
56. ________ substances are not considered to be true solids but rather highly
supercooled liquids of very high viscosity.
A. Glass B. amorphous C. crystalline D. solid
57. Limestone (CaCO3) can be decomposed in a furnace to yield CaO(s) and CO2(g). If
the furnace used a water filter as a purification method to trap emitted gases, what
would happen to the pH of the water overtime?
A. Increase B. decrease C. remains the same D. equal to 1
58. A sample of 500 mL of Genesee River was collected from just below the brewery.
Three mL of the river water sample is diluted to 300 mL, aerated and seeded. The
DO content was 8.2 mg/L initially. After 5 days, the DO content had dropped to 6.7
mg/L. The second sample was obtained 60 days later and retested in identical
fashion. The initial DO was 8.3 mg/L and after 5 days, dropped to 6.4 mg/L. What
is the difference between the ultimate BOD of the two sample? Use k = 0.23/day
A. 48.54 mg/L B. 58.54 mg/L C. 68.54 mg/L D. 78.54 mg/L
59. Glutamic acid (C5H9O4N) is used as one of the reagents for a standard to check
BOD test. Determine the theoretical oxygen demand of 200 mg/L of glutamic acid.
Assume the following reactions apply:
C5H9O4N + 4.5O2 → 5CO2 + 3H2O + 2O2 → NO3 + H+ + H2O
A. 231 mg/L B. 132 mg/L C. 382 mg/L D. 283 mg/L
252
61. A sanitary landfill has an available space of 16.2 ha at an average depth of 10 m.
Seven hundred sixty five m3 of solid waste is dumped at the site 5 days a week.
The waste is compacted to twice its delivered density. Estimated the expected life
of the landfill in years.
A. 16.3 yrs. B. 13.6 yrs. C. 12.5 yrs. D. 15.2 yrs.
62. The mass of glucose that should be dissolved in 50 g of water in order to produce
the same lowering of vapour pressure as is produced by dissolving 1 g of urea in
the same quantity of water is
A. 1 g B. 3 g C. 6 g D. 18 g
63. A solution has a pH = 3.0. What is the pH of the solution that is 10 times acidic?
A. 1.0 B. 2.0 C. 8.0 D. 9.0
64. This determines a primary, secondary and tertiary alcohols by observing the
differences in the reaction rates.
A. Benedict’s Test C. Lucas Test
B. Tollens Test D. Bellstein Test
67. _________ is the animal and vegetable waste resulting from the handling,
preparation, cooking, and serving food.
A. Garbage B. Trash C. Rubbish D. Refuse
69. This class of fresh surface water is used for the propagation and growth of fish and
other aquatic resources.
A. Class B B. Class C C. Class D D. Class SC
70. A “strong water” as defined from DAO 35 refers to the water whose initial BOD
value before treatment is equal to or greater than _________.
A. 50000 B. 3000 C. 1000 D. 500
253
ANSWER KEY
254
FINAL EXAMINATION- PART I/PCP
SOLUTIONS
10. Given: Vflask = 0.503 dm3 Pflask = 746 torr
Pmanifold = 12 mtorr Pcombined = 273 torr
Required: Vmanifold
Solution:
Assuming ideal gas: PV = nRT
Using Boyle’s Law: P1 V1 = P2 V2
Pflask Vflask = Pcombined Vcombined
Pflask Vflask
𝑉𝑐𝑜𝑚𝑏𝑖𝑛𝑒𝑑 = Pcombined
(746 torr)(0.503 dm3)
Vcombined = (273 torr)
= 1.3745 dm3
Vmanifold = Vcombined − Vflask
Solving for Vmanifold:
Vmanifold = 1.3745 dm3 − 0.503 dm3 = 0.8715 dm3
Ans. 1.2 Pa
255
MPb + MZn + MCu = 9.39 x 10−3 (Equation 1)
Using step 3:
(0.0025 × 27.67)EDTA = (M × 25)Pb + (M × 25)Zn
MPb + MZn = 2.767 x 10−3 (Equation 2)
Using step 4:
(0.0025 × 10.80)EDTA = (M × 100)Pb
MPb = 2.7 x 10−4
Substituting to Equation 2:
MZn = 2.497 x 10−3
Substituting MPb and MZn to Equation 1:
MCu = 6.623 x 10−3
Ans. 64.07%
Ans. 2.53%
256
𝑅𝑇
𝑉=𝑏+ 𝑎 ; V can be solved by iterations
(𝑝+ 2 )
𝑉
The first guess should be
𝐿∙𝑎𝑡𝑚
𝑅𝑇 0.08206 ×373 𝐾
o 𝑚𝑜𝑙∙𝐾
V = = = 30.61 𝐿
𝑃 1 𝑎𝑡𝑚
Solving for V:
30.61 L∙atm
V = 0.1154 L/mol + 18.24 atm∙L2 /mol
= 30.14 L
(1 atm+ )
V2
Guessed V Calculated V
Solving for Z:
30.61 30.14 pV 1atm∙30.12L
30.14 30.12 Z = RT = L∙atm = 0.984
0.08206 ∙373K
mol∙K
30.12 30.12
Ans. 0.984
17. Given: Calcium and Magnesium (Ca and Mg) in urine sample
Required: Mass (mg) of Ca
Solution:
Mass of ignited mixture: CaO and MgO
Let x be the mass of CaO and y be the of MgO
X + Y = 0.0285 (Equation 1)
Ans. 13.5 g
Ans. 3.97%
257
21. Given: Mass of alloy steel= 0.75 g
Required: Percentage by mass of bromine
Solution:
mol 1 mol Ni 58.69 g
Mass of Ni = 0.356 g NiC8H14N4O ( )( )( Ni) = 0.0723 g
288.95 g 1 mol NiC8H14N4O mol
Mass of Co = 0.1532g – 0.0723g = 0.0809 g Co
0.0723 g
% Ni = 𝑥100 = 9.64%
0.75 g
0.0809 g
% Co = 𝑥100 = 10.79%
0.75 g
Ans. 17 g/mole
Ans. 17.15%
Moles of HCl reacted with MCO3 = moles of HCl − Moles of excess HCl
258
0.08 mol
Total moles HCl = 20.00 mL (1000 mL soln) = 1.60 x 10−3 mol
0.100 mol
Moles of excess HCl = 5.64 mL (1000 mL soln) = 5.64 x 10−4 mol
Moles HCl reacted with MCO3 = 1.60 x 10−3 mol − 5.64 x 10−4 mol
= 1.04 x 10−3 mol HCl
1 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝑀𝐶𝑂3
Mole of MCO3 reacted = 1.04 x 10−3 mol HCl x = 5.20 𝑥 10−4 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝑀𝐶𝑂3
2 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝐻𝐶𝑙
0.1022 𝑔
Molar mass of MCO3 = 5.20 𝑥 10−4 𝑚𝑜𝑙 = 197 𝑔/𝑚𝑜𝑙
Ans. Ba
Ans. 6.39
New Fp = -3oC
Required: Amount of Glucose:
Solution:
∆𝑇𝑓 = 𝑚 ∙ 𝑘𝑓
259
Xg of glucose mol 1.13o C
−2o C − (−3o C) = ( )( )
0.1 kg solution 180.18 g m
X = 15.95 g of glucose
Ans. 16 grams
Ans. 303 mL
260
54. Given: 2.159 g of Silver deposited
Requird: Mass of Copper
Solution:
Silver moles = given mass / molar mass = 2.158 / 107.9 = 0.0200 moles.
of silver.
If you we have 0.02 moles of Ag, we will only get 0.01 moles of Cu
n = Mass / atomic mass
n = 0.01
molar mass = 63.5
0.01 = x / 63.5; x = 0.635 grams of Cu
Ans. 0.635 gram
Ans. 0.1 M
150 𝑚𝑔/𝐿
𝐿𝑜1 = = 219.50 𝑚𝑔/𝐿
(1− 𝑒 −023/𝑑𝑎𝑦(5𝑑𝑎𝑦𝑠) )
190 𝑚𝑔/𝐿
𝐿𝑜2 = = 278.04 𝑚𝑔/𝐿
(1− 𝑒 −023/𝑑𝑎𝑦(5𝑑𝑎𝑦𝑠) )
261
Difference = 278.04 mg/L – 219.50 mg/L = 58.54 mg/L
Ans. 2.0
262
FINAL EXAMINATION- PART II
CHEMICAL ENGINEERING
1. Which of the following is true for water at a reference temperature where enthalpy is
zero?
a. a carnot cycle
b. an idealized rankine cycle
c. an idealized diesel cycle
5. A steam turbine operates adiabatically at a power level of 3500 kW. Steam enters the
turbine at 2400 kPa and 500C and exhausts from the turbine at 20 kPa. What is the
turbine efficiency?
263
7. At 378.5C the half life for the first order decomposition of ethylene oxide is 363
minutes, and E=52000 cal/mole. If the temperature is increased to 450C, find the time for
ethylene oxide to be 75% decomposed.
a. 13.8 min b. 23.1 min c. 37.2 min d. 45.8 min
8. At 500 K, the rate of a biomolecular reaction is ten times the rate of 400K. Activation
energy of this reaction is 9.15 kcal/mol. How much faster is the reaction at 450 K?
a. 3.6 times as at 450 K c. 5.6 times as 450 K
b. 4.6 times as fast at 450 K d. 6.6 times as fast at 450 K
9. The off gas from a boiling water nuclear power reactor contains a whole variety of
radioactive trash, one of the most troublesome being Xe-133 (half-life 5.2 days). This off
gas flows continuously through a large holdup tank in which it mean residence time is 30
days, and where we can assume that the contents are well mixed. Find the reaction of
activity removed in the tank.
a. 83% b. 88% c. 93% d. 98%
11. A certain substance A is mixed with equal amount of B and C. After 10 minutes, half
of A has reacted. What will be the conversion after 20 minutes if the reaction is second-
order with respect to A?
a. 25% b. 33% c. 67% d. 75%
For no. 12- 13. The analysis of a flue gas from a fuel gas containing no nitrogen is 4.62%
CO2. 3.08% CO. 8.91% O2, and 83.39% N2.
12. moles of water (H2O) formed
a. 7.04 moles b. 14.08 moles c. 15.07 moles d. 22.11 moles
13. moles of air supplied per 100 moles of dry flue gas
a. 1.055 b. 1.087 c. 1.124 d. 1.148
14. The ratio of moles of a reactant converted into the desired product to that converted
into unwanted product is called
a. operational yield b. selectivity c. relative yield d. none of the above
264
15. The moisture content of a solid is given as 50 % wet basis. What is the moisture
content, dry basis?
a. 0.5 b. 1 c. 2 d. 50
16. A fumace is fired with coal containing 6% moisture,18% VCM, 67% FC and 9% ash.
The refuse analysis shows 5% VCM, 23%FC and 62% ash. The higher heating value of
the coal as fired is 14,300 Btu/lb. Calculate the percentage of the heating value of thecoal
that is lost in the refuse. Assume that the moisture in the refuse is due to the “wetting
down” to prevent dusting and not moisture from the original coal.
A. 4.68%
B. 7.02%
C. 9.36%
D. 15.0%
20. The compression ratio of an ideal Otto cycle is 6:1. P1 is 101.35 kPa, and T1 is 20
degC. What is the temperature at state 2 at the diagram shown?
a. 332.6 K
b. 459.4 K
c. 560.0 K
d. 600.0 K
265
22. An engine burns a liter of fuel each 12 minutes. The fuel has a specific gravity of 0.8
and a heating value of 45 MJ/kg. The engine has a efficiciency of 25%. What is most
nearly the brake horsepower of the engine?
a. 12.5 hp b. 15.6 hp c. 16.8 hp d. 21.0 hp
23. The COP of a carnot refrigeration cycle operating at 100 deg F and 900 deg F is
a. 0.1111 b. 0.1250 c. 1.125 d. 5.875
24. Maximum work that could be secured by expanding the gas over a given pressure
range is the ______________ work.
a. isothermal b. adiabatic c. isentropic d. none of these
25. 1 lbm of nitrogen is compressed at a constant temp of 70 deg F from 10 ft3 to 5 ft3. If
the process is non-flow and if no work is done on the gas except by a moving piston, how
much heat is added to or removed from the gas during the process?
a. 30.27 BTU b. -30.27 BTU c. 28.54 BTU d. -26.07 BTU
26. An engineer devises a scheme for extracting some power from waste process steam.
The engineer claims that the steam enters the device at 700.5 kPa and a quality 75%, and
the steam exits at 101.35 kPa and 65% quality. Which of the following statements is/are
true?
I. The device produces 216 kJ/kg of work
II. The device violates the first law of thermodynamics
III. The device violates the second law of thermodynamics
a. I only b. II only c. III only d. I and II
27. A chemical reaction involves the interaction collision of two molecules of A and B
goes through the following energy profile. The energy,E, shown on the diagram
represents which of the following?
a. entropy of reaction
b. enthalpy of reaction
c. forward activation energy
d. reverse activation energy
28. If 15 kJ of work is done by the surroundings on the system and the system loses 10 kJ
heat to the surroundings then the total energy change is
a. 25 kJ c. -5 kJ
b. 10 kJ d. 5 kJ
266
29. What refers to the amount of removed from the colled space in BTS’s for 1 watt-hour
of electricity consumed?
a. coefficient of performance c. cost of performance
b. energy efficiency rating d. cost efficiency rating
30. Carnot cycle is the best known reversible cycle which was proposed in what year?
a. 1824 b. 1832 c. 1834 d. 1842
33. A device that violates the second law of thermodynamics is called a ______.
a. universal machine of the second kind
b. ambiguous machine of the second kind
c. unique machine of the second kind
d. Perpetual-motion machine of the second kind
34. In the process of radiation, energy is carried by electromagnetic waves. What is the
speed of electromagnetic waves?
a. 188 000 miles/sec
b. 186 000 miles/sec
c. 184 000 miles/sec
d. 182 000 miles/sec
35. Determine the state of water according to the following condition at 440 deg F
density of 842.3679 kg/m3
a. saturated liquid c. sub-saturated
b. saturated vapor d. superheated
36. Which of the following denotes the effect of compressibility in fluid flow?
a. weber number
b. Euler number
c. Reynolds number
d. Mach number
267
37. Air enters a dryer at 70 degF and 20% humidity and leaves at 180 degF and 50% RH.
If the dryer operates at atmospheric pressure of 14.3 psia, how many cubic feets of
entering air would be needed when 12.0 lb/hr of water is evaporated from the wet
material in the dryer?
a. 6.78 cu ft/min b. 7.86 cu ft/min c. 8.67 cu ft/min d. 13.8 cu ft/min
For no. 38-39. A solution composed 50% ethanol and 40% water is fed at the rate of 100
kg/hr into a separator that produces one stream at the rate of 60 kg/hr with the
composition of 80% ethanol, 15% methanol and 5% water, and a second stream of
unknown composition.
38. The mass flow rate of the second unknown stream in kg/hr is
a. 60 b. 50 c. 40 d. 20
39. The mass fraction of ethanol in the unknown stream is
a. 0.025 b. 0.05
40. In a reciprocating pump, the ration of the quantity of liquid actually pumped to that
which corresponds to the piston displacement is called
a. Hydraulic efficiency
b. Mechanical efficiency
c. Volumetric efficiency
d. Suction
42. Cold air at 10 degF is forced to flow over a flat plate maintained at 40 defC. The
mean heat transfer coeeficient is 30 W/m2-K. Find the heat flow rate from the plate to
the air through a plate area of 2m2. Assume radiation is negligible.
a. 1.8 kW
b. 2.0 kW
c. 2.2 kW
d. 2.4 kW
268
c. Polypropylene
d. Cellulose acetate butyrate
45. You are asked what size of containers to use 1,000lbs of cotton seed oil (SG = 0.926).
What would be the minimum size of drum expressed in gallons?
a. 129.5
b. 254.2
c. 103.9
d. 85.6
46. A pure formic acid at 30°C flowing at 0.015 m/s is pumped Through a 75 mm
horizontal pipe 38 m long. The roughness of the pipe is 6x10-5 m. What will be be
the pressure drop in the pipe?
a. 71 kPa
b. 35 kPa
c. 21 kPa
d. 42 kPa
47. Of the pressure vessels, with same thickness but different diameters, which one
withstands higher pressure?
a. Larger dia vessel
b. Smaller dia vessel.
c. Larger dia long vessel
d. Strength of the vessel is same irrespective of the diameter.
48. In a laminar fluid flow, the average velocity is ____________ of the maximum
velocity.
a. one-half
b. one-fourth
c. twice
d. four times
269
49. “Perspex” or “Plexiglass” is basically
a. Poly (vinyl chloride)
b. Poly (acrylonitrile)
c. Poly (isobutylene)
d. Poly (methyl methacrylate)
50. Solubility of a substance which dissolves with an increase in volume and liberation of
heat will be favored by the
a. low pressure and high temperature.
b. low pressure and low temperature.
c. high pressure and low temperature
d. high pressure and high temperature
51. Design a multiple-contact extraction system to treat 1.25 tones (2500 lb) per hour of
dry black ash, containing 40% Na2CO3 and 60% insoluble matter with 30 gpm of
water. If 5% of the Na1CO3 remains unextracted, calculate the number of ideal stages
by_the absorption factor method. Note: The mass ratio of insoluble matter to solvent
in the underflow from stage is 1:2.
a. 2
b. 1
c. 4
d. 3
52. A 1-2 shell and tube exchanger heats 68 kg/min of water in a shell from 35°C to 75°C
by an oil (Cp= 1.9 kJ/kg-°C). The oil enters the tube at 110°C and leaves at 75°C. The
LMTD correction factor is
a. 0.81
b. 0.86
c. 0.91
d. 0.96
53. A large container 360 m long, 70 m wide and 25 m deep is being dragged in sea at a
constant speed of 10 m/s. Calculate power required to drag such container. The
temperature of sea water is 10oC.
a. 21.6 MW
b. 26.1 MW
c. 62.1 MW
d. 16.2 MW
270
54. An adiabatic compressor operating under steady-state conditions receives air (ideal
gas) at 0.1 MPa and 300 K and discharges at 1 MPa. If the flow rate of air through the
compressor is 2 mol/s, determine the power consumption of the compressor. Constant
pressure, specific heat for air = 1kJ/kg
a. 16.25 kW
b. 25.16 kW
c. 61.52 kW
d. 52.61 k
56. An insulated piston-cylinder system has air at 400kPa & 600K. Through an inlet pipe
to the cylinder air at certain temperature T(K) and ressure P (kPa) is supplied
reversibly into the cylinder till the volume of the air in the cylinder is 4 times the
initial volume. The expansion occurs isobarically at 400kPa. At The end of the
process the air temperature inside the cylinder is 450K Assume ideal gas behavior,
compute the temperature of the air supplied through the inlet pipe.
a. 380K
b. 480 K
c. 580 K
d. 680 K
57. 0.6 m3/s of gas is to be dried from a dew point of 294 K to a dew point of 277.5 K.
How much water must be removed and what will be the volume of the gas after
drying? Vapour pressure of water at 294K = 2.5 kN/m2. Vapour pressure of water at
277.5K = 0.85 kN/m2
a. 0.6 m3/s at STP
b. 1.2 m3/s at STP
c. 1.8 rn3/s at STP
d. 2.4 m3/s at STP
58. . A hydrogen stream at 300 K and atmospheric pressure has a dewpoint of 275K. It is
to be further humidified by adding to it (through a nozzle) saturated steam at 240
kN/m2 at the rate of 1 kg steam: 30kg of hydrogen feed. What will be the humidity of
the resultant stream?
a. 0.1 kg/kg
271
b. 0.2 kg/kg
c. 0.3 kg/kg
d. 0.4 kg/kg
59. A cyclone separator, 0.3 m in diameter and 1.2 m long, has a circular inlet 75 mm in
diameter and an outlet of the same size. If the gas enters at a velocity of 1.5 m/s, at
what particle size will the theoretical cut occur? The viscosity of air is 0.018 mN
s/m2, the density of air is 1.3 kg/m3 and the density of the particles is 2700 kg/m3
a. 1.17 x 10-6 m
b. 2.17 x 10-6 m
c. 3.17x10-6 m
d. 4.17 x10-6 m
60. In order to heat 0.5 kg/s of a heavy oil from 311 K to 327 K, it is passed through
tubes of inside diameter 19 mm and length 1.5 m forming a bank, on the outside of
which steam is condensing at 373 K. How many tubes will be needed?
a. 11
b. 12
c. 13
d. 14
61. Solute gas is diffusing into a stationary liquid, virtually free of solvent, and of
sufficient depth for it to be regarded as semi-infinite in extent. In what depth of fluid
below the surface will 90% of the material which has been transferred across the
interface have accumulated in the first minute? Diffusivity of gas in liquid = 10-9
m2/s.
a. 0.38 mm
b. 0.48 mm
c. 0.58 mm
d. 0.68 mm
272
63. . A heat exchanger is to consist of a number of tubes each 25 mm diameter and 5 m
long arranged in parallel. The exchanger is to be used as a cooler with a rating of 4
MW and the temperature rise in the water feed to the tubes is to be 20 K. If the
pressure drop over the tubes is not to exceed 2 kN/m2, calculate the minimum
number of tubes that are required. Assume that the tube wails are smooth and that
entrance and exit effects can be neglected. Viscosity of water = 1 mNs/m2.
a. 106 tubes
b. 116 tubes
c. 126 tubes
d. 136 tubes
64. A liquid is pumped in streamline tow through a pipe of diameter d. At what distance
born the center of the pipe will the fluid be flowing at the average velocity?
a. 0.15d
b. 0.35d
c. 0.55d
d. 0.75d
65. Oil of viscosity 10 mNs/m2 and specific gravity 0.90, flows through 60 m of 100 mm
diameter pipe and the pressure drop is 13.8 kN/m2. What will be the pressure drop for
a second oil of viscosity 30 mNs/m2 and specific gravity 0.95 flowing at the same
rate through the pipe? Assume the pipe wall to be smooth.
a. 14.9 kN/m2
b. 19.4 kN/m2
c. 23.6 kN/m2
d. 26.3 kN/m2
66. Over a 30 m length of 150 mm vacuum line carrying air at 293 K, the pressure falls
from 1 kN/m2 to 0.1 kN/m2. If the relative roughness e/d is 0.002, what is
approximate flowrate?
a. 0.022 kg/s
b. 0.044 kg/s
c. 0.066 kg/s
d. 0.088 kg/s
67. A counter - current extraction column is designed to remove 99% of solute C from a
solution of solvent A and solute C using pure solvent B. The initial concentration of
solute in the solution of A + C is 20 wt%, and the total flow of solution is 1000 kg/hr.
tf the equilibrium relationship is Y=2X, where Y = mass of C/mass of A & X= mass
of C/mass of B. The minimum flow rate of solvent B required in kg/hr is
273
a. 1454
b. 1584
c. 1676
d. 1874
68. The radiation received by the earth's surface on a clear day with the sun overhead is 1
kW/m2 and an additional 0.3 kW/m2 is absorbed by the earth's atmosphere. Calculate
approximately the temperature of the sun, assuming its radius to be 700,000 km and
the distance between the sun and the earth to be 150,000,000 km. The sun may be
assumed to behave as a black body.
a. 5170 K
b. 5710 K
c. 5071 K
d. 5107 K
69. A device that violates the first law of thermodynamics is called a ______
a. Universal machine of the first kind
b. Ambiguous machine of the first kind
c. Unique machine of the first kind
d. Perpetual-motion machine of the first kind
70. A rotary drum filter with 30% submergence is used to filter concentrated aqueous
slurry of calcium carbonate containing 15 lbs of solids per cubic foot of water. The
pressure-drop is 20' Hg If the filter cake contains 50% mixture (wet basis), calculate
the filter area required to filter 10 gal/min of slurry. The filter cycle time is 5 min.
The specific cake resistance depends on the pressure-drop as:
Viscosity of the filtrate = 6.72 x 10-41bift-s. Density of calcium carbonate = 168.8 lb/ft,
.Neglect fitter medium resistance.
a. 72 ft,
b. 82 ft
c. 92 ft
d. 102 ft
274
d. 9569
72. The fanning friction factor f
a. 0.00884
b. 0.00727
c. 0.00990
d. 0.00698
73. The steady mean velocity v (m/s).
a. 1.13
b. 2.38
c. 1.25
d. 1.30
74. Which of the following is not a valid assumption in continuous binary distillation for
calculating the number of equilibrium stages by McCabe-Thiele's method?
a. Reflux is not a saturated liquid
b. Heat of mixing of normal liquid is assumed to be zero
c. Sensible heat changes for vapor & liquid are negligibly small
d. Molar latent heat of the two components are equal
75. In case of a supercooled solution, which is on the verge of crystallization, the free
energy of the solution as compared to that of the solid is
a. More
b. Less
c. Same
d. More or less; depends on the nature of solution
76. All of the following biogeochemical cycles involve the atmosphere as either sink or
reservoir except
a. Water
b. Carbon
c. Nitrogen
d. Phosporus
77. Correct use of 'factor of safety' is very important in equipment design. It is defined as
the ratio of the
a. ultimate stress to working stress
b. working stress to ultimate stress
c. ultimate stress to breaking stress
d. working stress to breaking stress
275
78. Pick out the wrong statement pertaining to of the bubble cap tray of a distillation
column to give stable operation and even vapor distribution
a. The dimensionless ratio of liquid gradient to pressure drop head caused by the
bubble cap assembly should be less than 0.4
b. The pressure drop due to the caps & slots and the static submergence should
be as high as practicable for reasonable operation
c. Tendency towards stable operation is increased by increasing the skirt
clearance of the caps, lowering the rate of liquid flow per unit plate width or
increasing the spacing between the caps
d. None of these
80. In a gas-liquid absorption column, for obtaining the maximum absorption efficiency
a. a. by passing should be completely avoided
b. both gas as well as quid streams should be distributed uniformly
c. gas stream should be distributed uniformly
d. liquid stream should be distributed uniformly
276
ANSWER KEY
277
FINAL EXAMINATION-PART II/CHE
SOLUTIONS
. A steam turbine operates adiabatically at a power level of 3500 kW. Steam enters the
turbine at 2400 kPa and 500C and exhausts from the turbine at 20 kPa. What is the
turbine efficiency?
At 20kPa checking the steam table we find that at the exit the steam is ‘wet’, since the
following condition holds at 20kPa:
Sliq=0.8321/KJ/Kg0K < S2 < Svap= 7.9094 KJ/Kg0K
7. At 378.5C the half life for the first order decomposition of ethylene oxide is 363
minutes, and E=52000 cal/mole. If the temperature is increased to 450C, find the time for
ethylene oxide to be 75% decomposed.
𝐾2 52000 71.5
So, 𝑙𝑛 1.91𝑥10−3 = 𝑥 651.5𝑥723
1.987
278
Or, K2 = 0.101 min-1
If at 450 deg C 75% i.e. th of initial amount decomposes in time “t” then as
1 𝑎
, 𝐾 = 𝑡 𝑙𝑛 𝑎−𝑥
1 𝑎
So , 0.101 = 𝑡 𝑙𝑛 1 𝑜𝑟, 𝑡 = 𝟏𝟑. 𝟕 𝒎𝒊𝒏𝒔
𝑎
4
8. At 500 K, the rate of a biomolecular reaction is ten times the rate of 400K. Activation
energy of this reaction is 9.15 kcal/mol. How much faster is the reaction at 450 K?
Solution:
𝐾2 𝐸𝑎 1 1
𝑙𝑛 =− ( − )
𝐾1 𝑅 𝑇2 𝑇1
𝑘2 1 1
𝑙𝑛 𝑘3 = -(9.15𝑘𝑐𝑎𝑙/𝑚𝑜𝑙)(4186 𝐽𝑜𝑢𝑙𝑒𝑠)(1/8.3145)(450 – 400)
𝑘2
𝑙𝑛 𝑘3 = 1.2796
𝑒 1.2796 = 3.595
- dCA/dt = kCa2
CA=CAo(1) – X
dCA=- dCAodX
kCAot= X/(1-X)
At 50 % conversion
kCAot0.5= 0.5/(1-0.5)
t0.5= 5
kCAo = 0.2
279
At 75% Conversion
kCAot0.75= 0.75/(1-0.75)
=3
t0.75= 3/0.2 = 15 min Therefore an extra 10 minutes would be required to achieve 75%
conversion for 2nd order reaction
11. A certain substance A is mixed with equal amount of B and C. After 10 minutes, half
of A has reacted. What will be the conversion after 20 minutes if the reaction is second-
order with respect to A?
- dCA/dt = kCa2
Upon integration:
(1/Ca -1/Cao) = kt
Assume Cao=1 therefore t =10 minutes
(1/0.5 -1/1) = k(10)
k = 0.1
At t = 20 minutes
(1/X -1/1) = (0.1)(20)
X = 33.33 %
For no. 12- 13. The analysis of a flue gas from a fuel gas containing no nitrogen is 4.62%
CO2. 3.08% CO. 8.91% O2, and 83.39% N2.
280
13. moles of air supplied per 100 moles of dry flue gas
moles of air supplied per 100 moles of dry flue gas = (O2 in air + N2 in air)/100 moles dry
FG
moles of air supplied per 100 moles of dry FG = (22. 17 mol O2 in air + 83.39 mol N2 in
air)/100
moles of air supplied per 100 moles of dry FG = 1.0556
15. The moisture content of a solid is given as 50 % wet basis. What is the moisture
content, dry basis?
Wet basis = 50 % = 0.5
Dry basis = (0.5/(1 – 0.5)) = 1
19. A utility runs a Rankine cycle with a water boiler at 3.5 MPa and the cycle has the
highest and lowest temperature of 450C and 45C respectively. What is the cycle
efficiency?
Solution:
1: 450C, x = 0 → h1 = 188.42, v1 = 0.00101, Psat = 9.6 kPa
3: 3.5 MPa, 4500C → h3 = 3337.2, s3 = 7.0051
C.V. Pump Rev adiabatic
-wp = h2 – h1 ; s2 = s1
Since incompressible it is easier to find work as
∫ 𝑣 𝑑𝑃 = 𝑣1 (𝑃2 − 𝑃1) = 0.00101(3500 − 9.6) = 3.525
ℎ2 = ℎ1 − 𝑤𝑝 = 188.42 + 3.525 = 191.95
C.V. Boiler : 𝑞ℎ = ℎ3 − ℎ2 = 3337.2 − 191.95 = 3145.3
C.V. Turbine : wt =h3 – h4 ; s4 = s3
s4 = s3 = 7.0051 = 0.6386 + x4 (7.5261)
x4 = 0.8459
281
h4 = 188.42 + 0.8459 (2394.77) = 2214.2
wt = 3337.2 – 2214.2 = 1123 kJ/kg
ncycle = wnet/qh = (wt + wp)/qh = (1123 – 3.5)/3145.3 = 0.356
20. The compression ratio of an ideal Otto cycle is 6:1. P1 is 101.35 kPa, and T1 is 20
degC. What is the temperature at state 2 at the diagram shown?
Solution:
T2 = (20 + 273.15)(6)(1.4-1)
T2 = 610.51 K
22. An engine burns a liter of fuel each 12 minutes. The fuel has a specific gravity of 0.8
and a heating value of 45 MJ/kg. The engine has a efficiciency of 25%. What is most
nearly the brake horsepower of the engine?
Solution:
𝐵𝑟𝑎𝑘𝑒 𝑃𝑜𝑤𝑒𝑟
Brake Thermal Eff =
𝑚𝑓 𝑄ℎ
Brake Power = mf x Qh x Brake Thermal Eff
1 𝑙𝑖𝑡𝑒𝑟 𝑚𝑖𝑛 1 𝑘𝑔
𝑚𝑓 = 𝑥 𝑥 𝑥0.80
12 𝑚𝑖𝑛𝑢𝑡𝑒𝑠 60𝑠 𝑙𝑖𝑡𝑒𝑟
mf = 1.11 x 10-3 kg/sec
𝐵𝑟𝑎𝑘𝑒 𝑃𝑜𝑤𝑒𝑟 = (1.11𝑥10−3 )(45𝑥106 )(0.25) = 12487.5 𝑤𝑎𝑡𝑡𝑠
𝐻𝑝
𝐵𝑟𝑎𝑘𝑒 𝑃𝑜𝑤𝑒𝑟 = 12487.5𝑥( )
746 𝑊
𝑩𝒓𝒂𝒌𝒆 𝑷𝒐𝒘𝒆𝒓 = 𝟏𝟔. 𝟕 𝑯𝑷
23. The COP of a carnot refrigeration cycle operating at 10 deg F and 90 deg F is
10 deg F = 260.928 K
282
COPR,rev = 1/((TH/TL)-1) 90 deg F = 305.37 K
COPR,rev = 1/((305.37/260.928)-1)
COPR,rev = 5.8712
25. 1 lbm of nitrogen is compressed at a constant temp of 70 deg F from 10 ft3 to 5 ft3. If
the process is non-flow and if no work is done on the gas except by a moving piston, how
much heat is added to or removed from the gas during the process?
Q = (16.19)(8.3145)(ln 0.142/0.283)
Q = -27307.9953 Joules = -25.882 BTU
For no. 38-39. A solution composed 50% ethanol and 40% water is fed at the rate of 100
kg/hr into a separator that produces one stream at the rate of 60 kg/hr with the
composition of 80% ethanol, 15% methanol and 5% water, and a second stream of
unknown composition.
38. The mass flow rate of the second unknown stream in kg/hr is
x = 0.05
283
81. You are asked what size of containers to use 1,000lbs of cotton seed oil (SG = 0.926).
What would be the minimum size of drum expressed in gallons?
Solution:
m = 1000 lbs
specific gravity = 0.926
𝑘𝑔
density = 926 𝑚3
1 𝑘𝑔
1000 lbs (2.205 𝑙𝑏𝑠) = 453.51 kg
453.51
Volume = 𝑚3
926
Volume = 0.4898 m3 = 129.38 gallons
82. A 1-2 shell and tube exchanger heats 68 kg/min of water in a shell from 35°C to 75°C
by an oil (Cp= 1.9 kJ/kg-°C). The oil enters the tube at 110°C and leaves at 75°C. The
LMTD correction factor is
𝑡1−𝑡2
R1=𝑇2−𝑇1=0.8750
𝑇2−𝑇1
P1= 𝑡1−𝑇1 =0.5333
54. An adiabatic compressor operating under steady-state conditions receives air (ideal
gas) at 0.1 MPa and 300 K and discharges at 1 MPa. If the flow rate of air through the
compressor is 2 mol/s, determine the power consumption of the compressor. Constant
pressure, specific heat for air = 1kJ/kg
284
m•(He-Hi) = -Ws ……(1)
But, He-Hi = Cp (Te-Ti) ………(2)
Cp – Cv = R
Cp/Cv = 𝛾
𝛾𝑅
Thus Cp = 𝛾−1
It follows that from the given data 𝛾 = 1.4
𝛾𝑅
He − Hi = 𝛾−1 (Te − Ti) … … . (3)
Also for adiabatic operation of the compressor
𝛾−1
𝑃𝑒
Te = 𝑇𝑖( 𝑃𝑖 ) 𝛾 = 580°K … … . (3)
m• = 2 mol/s = 0.058 kg/s
𝛾𝑅
Substituting the relevant data: −Ws = 𝛾−1 (Te − Ti) = 𝟏𝟔. 𝟐𝟓 𝒌𝑾 = 𝟏𝟔. 𝟐𝟓
56. An insulated piston-cylinder system has air at 400kPa & 600K. Through an inlet pipe
to the cylinder air at certain temperature T(K) and ressure P (kPa) is supplied reversibly
into the cylinder till the volume of the air in the cylinder is 4 times the initial volume. The
expansion occurs isobarically at 400kPa. At The end of the process the air temperature
inside the cylinder is 450K Assume ideal gas behavior, compute the temperature of the
air supplied through the inlet pipe.
Solution:
Applying the first law (∆𝑃𝐸 = ∆𝐾𝐸 = 0)
𝑑𝑚𝑈𝑐𝑣
+ ∆(𝐻𝑚) = 𝑄 + 𝑊
𝑑𝑡
𝑑𝑚𝑈𝑐𝑣 𝑑𝑚 𝛿𝑄 𝛿𝑊
+ ∆ (𝐻 )= +
𝑑𝑡 𝑑𝑡 𝑑𝑡 𝑑𝑡
𝑑𝑚 𝛿𝑄 𝛿𝑊
𝑜𝑟 𝑑(𝑚𝑈𝑐𝑣 ) + ∆ (𝐻 )= +
𝑑𝑡 𝑑𝑡 𝑑𝑡
For change of state from 1-2
2 2 2 2
∫(𝑚𝑈𝑐𝑣) + ∆ ∫ 𝐻𝑑𝑚 = ∫ 𝛿𝑄 + ∫ 𝛿𝑊
1 1 1 1
2 2
285
2
57. 0.6 m3/s of gas is to be dried from a dew point of 294 K to a dew point of 277.5 K.
How much water must be removed and what will be the volume of the gas after drying?
Vapour pressure of water at 294K = 2.5 kN/m2. Vapour pressure of water at 277.5K =
0.85 kN/m2
When the gas is cooled to 294 K, it will be saturated and Pw0 = 2.5 kN/m2
mass of vapour = Pw0Mw/RT = (2.5 x 18) / (8.314 x 294) = 0.0184 kg/m3 gas
At 277.5 K and Pw = 0.85 kN/m2
Mass of vapour = (0.85 x 18)/(8.314 x 277.5) = 0.0066 kg/m3 gas
Water to be removed = (0.0184 – 0.0066) = 0.0118 kg/m3 gas
Or: (0.0118 x 0.6) = 0.00708 kg/s
Assuming the gas flow, 0.6 m3/s, is referred to 273 K and 101.3 kN/m2, 0.00708 kg/s of
water is equivalent to (0.00708/18) = 3.933 x 10-4 kmol/s
I kmol of vapour occupies 22.4 m3 at STP
And: volume of water removed = (3.933 x 10-4 x 22.4) = 0.00881 m3/s
Assuming no volume change on mixing, the gas flow after drying
= (0.60 – 0.0081) = 0.591 m3/s at STP
58. A hydrogen stream at 300 K and atmospheric pressure has a dew point of 275K. It is
to be further humidified by adding to it (through a nozzle) saturated steam at 240
kN/m2 at the rate of 1 kg steam: 30kg of hydrogen feed. What will be the humidity of the
resultant stream?
286
At 275 K, the vapour pressure of water = 0.72 kN/m2 (from Tables) and the hydrogen is
saturated.
The mass of water vapour: 𝑃𝑤𝑜 𝑀𝑤 ⁄𝑅𝑇 = (0.72 𝑥 18)⁄(8.314 𝑥 275) = 0.00567 kg/m3
and the mass of hydrogen: (𝑃 − 𝑃𝑤𝑜 )𝑀𝐴 ⁄𝑅𝑇 = (101.3 − 0.72) 𝑥 2 ⁄(8.314 𝑥 275) =
0.0880 kg/m3
Therefore, the humidity at saturation, 𝐻𝑜 = (0.00567 ⁄0.0880) = 0.0644 kg/kg dry
hydrogen and at 300 K, the humidity will be the same, 𝐻𝑜 = 0.0644 kg/kg.
At 240 kN/m2 pressure, steam is saturated at 400 K at which temperature the latent heat is
2185 kJ/kg.
The enthalpy of the steam is therefore:
H2 = 4.18 (400 - 273) + 2185 = 2715 kJ/kg
Taking the mean specific heat capacity of hydrogen as 14.6 kJ/kg K, the enthalpy in 30
kg moist hydrogen or 30/ (1 + 0.0644) = 28.18 kg dry hydrogen is:
(28.18 x 14.6)(300 - 273) = 11, 110 kJ
The latent heat of water at 275 K is 2490 kJ/kg and taking the specific heat of water
vapour as 2.01 kJ/kg K, the enthalpy of the water vapour is:
(28.18 x x 0.0644)(4.18(275-273) + 2490 + 2.01 (300 - 275)) = 4625 kJ
Hence the total enthalpy:
H1 = 15, 730 kJ
In mixing the two streams, 28.18 kg dry hydrogen plus (30 - 28.18) = 1.82 kg water is
mixed with 1 kg steam and hence the final humidity:
𝐻 = (1 + 1.82)⁄28.18
= 𝟎. 𝟏𝟎𝟎 𝒌𝒈/𝒌𝒈
59. A cyclone separator, 0.3 m in diameter and 1.2 m long, has a circular inlet 75 mm in
diameter and an outlet of the same size. If the gas enters at a velocity of 1.5 m/s, at what
particle size will the theoretical cut occur? The viscosity of air is 0.018 mN s/m2, the
density of air is 1.3 kg/m3 and the density of the particles is 2700 kg/m3
𝜋
cross-sectional area at the gas inlet, Ai = ( 4 ) (0.075)2 = 4.42 𝑥 10−3 m2
gas outlet diameter, do = 0.075 m
gas density, 𝜌 = 1.30 𝑘𝑔/𝑚3
height of separator, Z = 1.2 m, separator diameter, dt = 0.3 m
Thus: mass flow of gas, G = (1.5 x 4.42 x 10-3 x 1.30) = 8.62 x 10-3 kg/s
287
or: 𝑢𝑜 =
−3 )2
[0.2 𝑥 (4.42 𝑥 10 𝑥 0.075 𝑥 1.3 𝑥 9.81]⁄(𝜋 𝑥 1.2 𝑥 0.03 𝑥 8.62 𝑥 10−3 )
= 3.83 𝑥 10−4 𝑚/𝑠
Use is now made of Stokes' law (Chapter 3) to find the particle diameter, as follows:
𝑢𝑜 = 𝑑2𝑔(𝜌𝑠 − 𝜌)/18𝜇 (equation 3.24)
or: 𝑑 = [𝑢𝑜 𝑥 18𝜇/𝑔(𝜌𝑠 − 𝜌)] 𝑥 0.5
= [(3.83 x 10-4 x 18 x 0.018 x 10-3)/(9.81(2700-1.30))] x 0.5
= 2.17 x 10-6 m or 2.17 𝜇m
60. In order to heat 0.5 kg/s of a heavy oil from 311 K to 327 K, it is passed through
tubes of inside diameter 19 mm and length 1.5 m forming a bank, on the outside of which
steam is condensing at 373 K. How many tubes will be needed?
Solution
Heat load
Q=(0.5 x 2.1)(327 - 311) = 16.8 kW
Logarithmic mean driving force
θ1 = (373 − 311) = 62 deg 𝐾, θ2 = (373 − 327) = 46 deg 𝐾
A preliminary estimate of the overall heat transfer coefficient may now be obtained from
Table 9.18.
For condensing steam, ho = 10.000 W/m2 K and for oil. hi = 250 W/m2 K (say). Thus
1/U=1/ho + 1/hi = 0.0041, U = 244 W/m2 K and from equation 9.1 the preliminary area:
A = (16.8 x 103) / (244 x 53.6) = 1.29 m2
The area/unit length of tube is(𝜋 x 19.0 x 10-3 x 1.0) = (5.97 x 10-2)m2/m
and; total length of tubing = 1.29 / (5.97 x 10-2) = 21.5 m
Thus: number of tubes = (21.5 / 1.5) = 14.3, say 14 tubes
61. Solute gas is diffusing into a stationary liquid, virtually free of solvent, and of
sufficient depth for it to be regarded as semi-infinite in extent. In what depth of fluid
below the surface will 90% of the material which has been transferred across the interface
have accumulated in the first minute? Diffusivity of gas in liquid = 10-9 m2/s.
Solution
As in the previous problem, the basic equation is:
288
𝜕𝐶𝐴 𝜕 2 𝐶𝐴
=𝐷
𝜕𝑡 𝜕𝑦 2
(equation 10.66)
which can be solved using the same boundary conditions to give the rate of mass transfer
at depth, y, (NA)y,f as:
𝑑𝐶𝐴 𝐷 2
(𝑁𝐴 )𝑦,𝑓 = −𝐷 = 𝐶𝐴𝑖 √ 𝑒 −𝑦 ⁄4𝐷𝑡
𝑑𝑦 𝜋𝑡
At some other value of y = L, the amount which has been transferred in time t per unit area
is:
𝑡
𝐷 −𝑦2⁄4𝐷𝑡
∫ 𝐶𝐴𝑖 √ 𝑒 𝑑𝑡
0 𝜋𝑡
𝛽2 = 𝑦 2 ⁄4𝐷𝑡
so that:
𝛽 = 𝑦⁄2√𝐷𝑡
and:
𝑑𝑡 = (−𝑦 2⁄2𝐷)𝛽−3 𝑑𝛽
𝐷 𝑦 2√𝐷𝑡 −𝑦2⁄4𝐷𝑡 𝑦
= 𝐶𝐴𝑖 √ [ 𝑒 − √𝜋erfc ]
𝜋 √𝐷 𝑦 2√𝐷𝑡
2√𝐷𝑡 −𝑦2⁄4𝐷𝑡 𝑦
= 𝐶𝐴𝑖 [ 𝑒 − 𝑦 erfc ]
𝑦 2√𝐷𝑡
and:
2√𝐷𝑡 −𝑦2⁄4𝐷𝑡 𝑦
[ 𝑒 − 𝑦 erfc ]
𝑚𝑎𝑠𝑠 𝑡𝑟𝑎𝑛𝑠𝑓𝑒𝑟 𝑎𝑡 𝐿 𝑦 2√𝐷𝑡
=
𝑚𝑎𝑠𝑠 𝑡𝑟𝑎𝑛𝑠𝑓𝑒𝑟 𝑎𝑡 𝑦 = 0 𝐷𝑡
2√ 𝜋
289
2 ⁄4𝐷𝑡 𝑦 𝑦 2
= 𝑒 −𝑦 − √𝜋erfc = 𝑒 −𝑥 − X√𝜋erfc X
2√𝐷𝑡 2√𝐷𝑡
where 𝑋 = 𝑦⁄2√𝐷𝑡
erfc X = 1 - erf X
so that erfc X can be calculated from table 13 in the Appendix of Volume 1. Values of X
will be assumed and the right hand side evaluated until a value of X is found such that the
right hand side = 0.1
𝟐 Right
X 𝒆−𝒙 erf X erfc X 𝑿 √𝝅𝐞𝐫𝐟𝐜 𝑿
hand side
1 0.368 0.843 0.157 0.278 0.0897
0.9 0.445 0.797 0.203 0.324 0.121
0.97 0.390 0.830 0.170 0.170 0.098
0.96 0.398 0.825 0.175 0.175 0.101
X = 0.96 = y2/4Dt
Solution
Heat load = (mass flow x specific heat x temperature rise), or 4000= ( m x 4.18 x 20)
and:
m = 47.8 kg/s
2
Pressure drop = 2 kN/m = 2000/(1000 x 9.81) = 0.204 m of water.
From equation 3.23, (𝑅⁄𝜌𝑢2 )𝑅𝑒 2 = −Δ𝑃𝑓 𝑑 3 𝜌 / 4𝑙𝜇 2
= (2000 x 0.253 x 1000)/(4 x 5 x 10-6) = 1.56 x 106
If the tubes are smooth, then from Fig. 3.8: Re = 2.1 x 104.
water velocity = (2.1 x 104 x 10-3)/(1000 x 0.025) = 0.84 m/s.
290
Cross-sectional area of each tube = (𝜋 /4)0.252 = 0.00049 m2.
Mass flow rate per tube = (0.84 x 0.00049) = 0.000412 m3/s = 0.412 kg/s
Hence the number of tubes required = (47.8/0.412) = 116 tubes
64. Oil of viscosity 10 mNs/m2 and specific gravity 0.90, flows through 60 m of 100 mm
diameter pipe and the pressure drop is 13.8 kN/m2. What will be the pressure drop for a
second oil of viscosity 30 mNs/m2 and specific gravity 0.95 flowing at the same rate
through the pipe? Assume the pipe wall to be smooth.
Solution
For the first oil, with a velocity in the pipe of u m/s then:
Re = u x (0.90 x 1000) x (100/1000)/(10 x 10-3) = 9000u
𝑅 2
−Δ𝑃𝑑 3 𝜌
𝑅𝑒 =
𝜌𝑢2 4𝑙𝜇 2
= (13.8 x 1030) x 0.103 x 900/(4 x 60 x 0.012) = 5.2 x 105
From Fig. 3.8, when (𝑅⁄𝜌𝑢2 )𝑅𝑒 2 = 5.2 x 105 for a smooth pipe, Re = 12000.
Hence, velocity u = (12,000/9000) = 1.33 m/s.
For the second oil, the same velocity is used although the density and viscosity are now
950 kg/m3 and 0.03 Ns/m2.
Hence:
Re = (1.33 x 0.10 x 950/0.03) = 4220
For a smooth pipe, Fig. 3.7 gives a friction factor, 𝑅 ⁄𝜌𝑢2 = 0.0048 for this value of Re.
From Equation 3.18:
−Δ𝑃 = 4 (𝑅⁄𝜌𝑢2 )(𝑙 ⁄𝑑 )𝜌𝑢2
=4 x 0.0048 x (60/0.10) x 950 x 1.332
= 1.94 x 104 N/m2 = 19.4 kN/m2
66. Over a 30 m length of 150 mm vacuum line carrying air at 293 K, the pressure falls
from 1 kN/m2 to 0.1 kN/m2. If the relative roughness e/d is 0.002, what is approximate
flowrate?
Solution
The specific volume of air at 293 K and 1 kN/m2 is:
𝑣1 = (22.4/29)(293/273)(101.3/1.0) = 83.98 m3/kg
291
It is necessary to assume a Reynolds number to determine 𝑅 ⁄𝜌𝑢2 and then calculate a
value of G/A which should correspond to the original assumed value. Assume a Reynolds
number of 1x105.
When 𝑒⁄𝑑 = 0.002 and Re = 105, 𝑅⁄𝜌𝑢2 = 0.003 from Fig. 3.7.
(𝐺 ⁄𝐴)2 ln (𝑃1⁄𝑃2 ) + (𝑃22 − 𝑃12 )/2𝑃1 𝑣1 + 4 (𝑅⁄𝜌𝑢2 )(1⁄𝑑)(𝐺 ⁄𝐴)2 = 0 (equation
4.55)
Substituting:
(𝐺 ⁄𝐴 )2 ln (1.0⁄0.1) + (0.12 − 12 )𝑥106 /(2 𝑥 1 𝑥 106 𝑥 83.98)
+ 4 (0.003)(30⁄0,15)(𝐺 ⁄𝐴)2 = 0
and:
(𝐺 ⁄𝐴) = 1.37kg/m2s
The viscosity of air is 0.018 mN s/m2.
Re = (0.15 x 1.37)/(0.018 x 10-3) = 1.14 x 104
Thus the chosen value of Re is too high. When Re = I x 104, 𝑅 ⁄𝜌𝑢2 = 0.0041 and G/A =
1.26 kg/m2s.
Re now equals 1.04 x 104 which agrees well with the assumed value.
Thus:
G = 1.26 x (𝜋 /4) x (0.15)2 = 0.022 kg/s
68. The radiation received by the earth's surface on a clear day with the sun overhead is 1
kW/m2 and an additional 0.3 kW/m2 is absorbed by the earth's atmosphere. Calculate
approximately the temperature of the sun, assuming its radius to be 700,000 km and the
distance between the sun and the earth to be 150,000,000 km. The sun may be assumed to
behave as a black body.
Solution
The total radiation received = 1.3 kW/m2 of the earth's surface. The equivalent surface
area of the sun is obtained by comparing the area of a sphere at the radius of the sun, 7 x
105 km and the area of a sphere of radius (radius of sun + distance between sun and earth)
or:
𝐴1 4𝜋(7 x 105 )
= = 2.16 x 10−5
𝐴2 4𝜋(150 x 106 + 7 x 105 )2
Therefore radiation at the sun's surface = (1.3 x 103/2.16 x 10-5)= 6.03 x 107 W/m2. For a
black body, the intensity of radiation is given by equation 9.112:
6.03 x 107 = 5.67 x l0-8 T4 and T = 5710 K
292
With the following characteristics: length L = 30.48 m; inside diameter d = 0.0526 m;
pipe roughness e = 0.000045m frictional pressure drop dP = 15720 N/m2; liquid dynamic
viscosity = 0.01 Pa-s; liquid density p = 1200 kg/m3. Calculate.
293
FINAL EXAMINATION - PART III
GENERAL ENGINEERING
1. The collection of all points in the plane of equidistant from two fixed point is
A. Ellipse
B. Parabola
C. Line
D. Circle
6. A box is to box constructed from a piece of zinc 20 in by cutting equal squares from
each corner and turning up the zinc to form the side. What is the maximum volume
(cubic inch) of the box that can be constructed?
A. 600
B. 593
C. 580
D. 622
294
7. Find the f(2x + 2) dx / (x+2)
A. 2x-2ln(x+2) + C
B. 2x+2ln (x+2) + C
C. 2x-ln (x+2) + C
D. 2x + ln(x+2) + C
8. Find the length of the arc in one branch of the curve y2=x3 from x=0 to x=1
A. 1.2
B. 1.44
C. 1.64
D. 1.84
9. Find the volume generated by rotating the region bounded by x=y and y2=4x, about
the x-axis from x=1 and x=4.
A. Π
B. 2Π
C. 3Π
D. 9Π
10. The area bounded by the curve y2=12x and the line x=3 is revolved about the line x=3.
What is the volume generated?
A. 176
B. 179
C. 181
D. 184
𝜋/6
11. Evaluate ∫0 𝑐𝑜𝑠8 3A dA
35𝜋
A.
768
45𝜋
B.
768
125𝜋
C. 768
5𝜋
D. 768
295
B. Order 3, degree 3, and non-linear
C. Order 3, degree 2, and linear
D. Order 3, degree 3, and linear
15. Find the particular solution of y’’’=0 given that: y(0)=3, y’(1)=4, y’’(2)=6
A. y=2x2-3x+3
B. y=3x2-2x+3
C. y=2x2-2x+2
D. y=3x2+2x-3
17. There is a 30% chance of rain today. If it does not rain today, there is a 20% chance
of rain tomorrow. If it rains today, there is a 50% chance of rain tomorrow. What is
the probability that it rains tomorrow?
A. 0.27
B. 0.28
C. 0.29
D. 0.26
18. A road run 1200 m from A to B and then makes a right angle going to C, a distance of
500 m. a new road is being built directly from A to C. how much shorter will the new
road be?
A. 600 m
B. 400 m
C. 500 m
D. 300 m
19. A dam was constructed for P 200,000. The annual maintenance cost P 5000. If interest
is 5% the capitalized cost of the dam, including depreciation, is
A. P 100,000
B. P 215,000
C. P 250,000
296
D. P 300,000
20. An investment of x pesos is made at the end of each year for three years, at an interest
rate of 9% per year compounded annually. What will the peso value of the total
investment be upon the deposit of the third payment?
A. 0.772x
B. 1.295x
C. 2.278x
D. 3.2778x
21. A store gives discount at less 26% / less 5% of its tag price of a certain item. The store
wants to increase its discounted sales price by decreasing the discount to less 20% /
less 5%. What Is the effective increase in the discounted sales price?
A. 8.1%
B. 5.7%
C. 12.2%
D. 15.5%
22. A train, an hour after starting, meets with an accident which detains it an hour, after
which it proceeds at 3/5 of its former rate and arrives three hour after time; but had the
accident happened 50 miles farther on the line, it would have arrived one and one-half
hour sooner. Find the length of the journey
A. 910/9 miles
B. 800/9 miles
C. 920/9 miles
D. 850/9 miles
23. Carlo left his home at past 3 o’clock PM as indicated in his wall clock, between 2-3
hours after, Carlo returns home and noticed that hands of the clock interchanged. At
what time did Carlo leave his home?
A. 3:31.47
B. 3:21.45
C. 3:46.10
D. 3:36.50
24. From the time 6:15 PM to the time 7:45 PM of the same day, the minute hand of a
standard clock describe an arc of?
A. 60 degrees
B. 90 degrees
C. 180 degrees
D. 540 degrees
297
25. A rubber ball is made to fall from a height of 50 feet and is observed to rebound 2/3
of the distance it falls. How far will the ball travel before coming to rest if the ball
continues to fall in this manner?
A. 200 feet
B. 225 feet
C. 250 feet
D. 275 feet
26. At present, the sum of the parent’s ages is twice the sum of the children’s ages. Five
years ago, the sum of the parent’s ages was 4 times the sum of the children’s ages.
Fifteen years hence, the sum of the parent’s ages will be equal to the sum of the
children’s ages. How many children are there?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
27. Twice the sum of two numbers is 28. The sum of the squared of the two numbers is
100. The product of the two numbers is
A. 42
B. 48
C. 54
D. 56
28. A certain job can be done by 72 men in 100 days. There were 80 men at the start of
the project but after 40 days, 30 of them had to be transferred to another ptoject. How
long will it take the remaining workforce to complete the job.
A. 70
B. 90
C. 80
D. 60
29. Eight men can dig 150 ft of trench in 7 hrs. Three men can backfill 100 ft of the trench
in 4 hrs. The time that it will take 10 men to dig and fill 200 ft of trench is ______.
A. 9 hrs 52 mins
B. 10 hrs 24 mins
C. 10 hrs 1 min
D. 10 hrs 46 mins
30. Simplify: cot x – tan x?
A. tan 2x
B. 2 tan x
C. 2 cot 2x
D. cot 2x
298
31. A diagonal of a parallelogram is 56.38 ft long and makes an angle of 27 degree 13’
and 16 degree 24’ respectively with the sides. Find the area of the parallelogram.
A. 595 ft2
B. 585 ft2
C. 575 ft2
D. 565 ft2
32. If the diameter of a sphere is increased by 40 percent by what percent is the volume
increased?
A. 144.7%
B. 147.4%
C. 177.4%
D. 174.4%
33. Transform the equation of the circle x2 + y2 = 16 into an equation in polar coordinates.
A. r=4
B. r sine = 4
C. r = 16
D. r cose = 4
34. if (0, 4) and (1, 6) are critical points of y = a + bx + cx3, find the value of c.
A. 1
B. 2
C. -1
D. -2
35. Five cards are drawn at random from a pack of 52 well – shuffled cards. Find the
probability that 3 are 10’s and 2 are queens.
A. 1/649,740
B. 1/108,290
C. 1/32
D. 1/54,350
37. A cylinder tank of radius 10 feet is being filled with water at a rate of 314 cubic feet
per minute. How fast is the depth of water increasing?
A. 1 fpm
B. 2 fpm
C. 3 fpm
D. 4 fpm
299
38. The cords of an ellipse, which pass through the center, are known as ____.
A. Asymptote
B. Radical Axis
C. Major Axes
D. Diameters
39. If a company spends P 12,000 now and P 5,000 per year for 10 years, with first P5,000
expenditure made 4 years from now, the rate of return would it make if its income
were P4,000 per year starting in year 8 and continuing through year 25 is
A. 5.1%
B. 1.5%
C. 4.2%
D. 1.2%
40. The present worth of a series that decreases uniformly, y P200 per year, from P4,000
in year 11 to P2,200 in year 20, if interest equals 105 is
A. P7,709.1
B. P9,707.2
C. P10,709.1
D. P6,910
41. Consider a project that costs P 14,762, with an indefinite life. if the cash in years
1,3,5…(i.e., every odd year is P 1,000 and the cash flows in years 2,4,6… (i.e., every
even year) is P 2,000, find the rate of return of the investment.
A. 9%
B. 11%
C. 10%
D. 12%
42. A man deposited P 10, 000 in a savings account when his son was born. The normal
interest rate was 8% per year compounded continuously. On the son’s 18th birthday,
the accumulated sum is withdrawn from the account. The amount of this accumulated
amount is
A. P42,810
B. P42,210
C. P42,920
D. P48,210
43. The present equivalent of a uniform series of annual payments of P3,500 each for 5
years if the interest rate is 10% compound continuously is
A. P11,300 C. P12,095
B. P14,100 D. P13,100
300
44. When a business calculates taxable income from gross income, which of the following
is true?
A. Depreciation, interest and principal are all subtracted
B. Depreciation and interest are subtracted, principal is not
C. Depreciation is subtracted, interest and principal are not
D. Interest and principal, and depreciation is not
45. What two cost categories form the trade off that leads to an optimal replacement
interval?
A. Direct costs and indirect costs
B. Insider costs and outsider costs
C. Operating & maintenance costs and recovery costs
D. Sunk costs and opportunity costs
46. Mike’s veneer shop owns a vacuum press that requires annual maintenance. Mike has
a contract to cover the maintenance expenses for the next five years. The contract calls
for an annual payment of P600 with adjustment each year for inflation, inflation is
expected to hold constant at 6% / yr over this period. The then-current cash flow
pattern for this expense is best described by which of the following?
A. Uniform series
B. Gradient series
C. Geometric series
D. Continuous series
47. When done correctly, what is the relationship between the present worth of an
alternative calculated using a then-current approach and the present worth of the
alternative calculated using a constant-worth approach?
A. They are equal
B. Then-current PW is higher because it uses a lower discount rate
C. Constant worth PW is higher because is uses a lower discount rate
D. Cannot be determined without knowing the cash flows and inflation rate
49. Which among the following statements is not true regarding the codes of ethics?
A. They are based on human values
B. They involve persons learning what is right or wrong, and then doing what is
beneficial to them
C. They include the fundamental ground rules by which people live by
D. They are lists of guidelines that govern a person’s conduct
301
50. How many years comprise one term for the members of the ChE Regulatory Board?
A. 3
B. 5
C. 4
D. 6
51. Which of the following is considered as an objective for giving licensure examinations
for qualified ChE applicants?
A. To limit the number of applicants allowed to practice the profession
B. To keep the quality of licensed chemical engineers at par with the best in the world
C. To test the overall knowledge and proficiency of the applicants for the practice off the
profession
D. All of the above
52. Determine the single force that will replace the following coplanar forces: 120 N, 30
degree; 200 N, 110 degree; 170 N, 240 degree; and 80 N, 300 degree.
A. 351 N, 175 degrees
B. 351 N, 165 degrees
C. 372 N, 175 degrees
D. 372 N, 165 degrees
53. A 50 ft airplane wing is subjected to a test load P=70.7x10^2 that varies parabolically
from 0 to 500 lb/ft, determine the resultant load and its location.
A. 14,322 lb, 28 ft
B. 14, 332 lb, 30 ft
C. 16,664 lb, 28 ft
D. 16,664 lb, 30 ft
54. Determine the resultant of the three forces originating at point (3, -3) and passing
through the points indicated: 126 N through (8,6) 183 through (2, -5), and 269 N
through (-6, 3).
A.
B. 263 N
C. 293 N
D. 323 N
E. 353 N
55. The maximum stress to which a material may be subjected without the occurrence of
permanent strain remaining upon the complete release to stress.
A. Ultimate stress
B. Rupture point
C. Resilience point
D. Elastic limit
302
56. Property of material which implies resistance to shock of difficulty of breaking and
expresses the work per unit volume required to fracture a material
A. Malleability
B. Toughness
C. Hardness
D. Stiffness
Question #57-58 are based on the given beam carrying the triangular loads
Wo Wo
L/2 L/2
R1 R2
57. Determine the value of reaction 1 and 2.
A. ½ Lwo , ¼ Lwo C. ¼ Lwo, ¼ Lwo
B. 2Lwo, 1/4 Lwo D. ½ Lwo, ½ Lwo
58. The shear from A to B is increasing, thus the slope of shear A to B is ____.
A. Decreasing
B. Increasing
C. Zero
D. Undetermined
59. A solid circular shaft is required to transmit 200 kW while turning at 1.5 rev/s. the
allowable shearing stress is 42 MPa. Find the required shaft diameter.
A. 138 mm
B. 183 mm
C. 381 mm
D. 118 mm
60. A 17-kg ladder has a center of mass at G. if the coefficients of friction at A and B are
μA=0.3 and μB=0.2, respectively, determine the smallest horizontal force that the man
must exert of the ladder at point C in order to push the ladder forward.
A. F= 120.2 N
B. F= 288 N
C. F= 166.8 N
D. F= 204 N
303
ANSWER KEY
304
FINAL EXAMINATION – PART III/GE
SOLUTIONS
𝑋 3 2𝑋 9
3
𝑋 − 2𝑋 + 9 3 − 3+ 3 𝟏
2. lim = 𝑋 𝑋 𝑋 =
𝑛→∞ 2𝑋 3 − 8 2𝑋 3 8 𝟐
− 3
𝑋3 𝑋
3. Derivative of y = e x cos x2
udv + vdu
let u = ex let v = cos x 2
du = ex dv = -2x sin x 2
6.
V = lwh
20 x V = (20-2x) (20-2x) x
x V = 400x − 80x 2 + 4x 3
𝑉 ′ = 400 − 160𝑥 + 12𝑥 2 = 0
2x + 2
7. Integral of ∫ dx
x+2
x+1 1
= ∫2 dx = 2 ∫ dx −
x+2 x+2
let u = x + 2
du = dx
du
= 2 ∫ dx −
u
= 𝟐𝐱 − 𝟐 𝐥𝐧(𝐱 + 𝟐) + 𝐂
305
8. Length of arc y2 = x 3 x=0; x=1
dy 2
Length of arc = √1 + ( dx) dx
1
𝑑𝑦 3
𝑦 = 𝑥 3/2 = 2 𝑥2
𝑑𝑥
1 2
3
Length of arc = √1 + ( 2 𝑥 2 ) dx
4 2
9. V = πx ∫ (√4X) − X2 dx
1
V = 𝟗𝝅
10. Volume
V = 2π ∫r^2 dy from 0 to 6
= 2π ∫(3 - y^2/12)^2 dy from 0 to 6
= 2π ∫(9 - (1/2)y^2 + y^4/144) dy
= 2π [ 9y - (1/6)y^3 + (1/720)y^5] from 0 to 6
= 2π ( 54 - 216/6 + 7776/720 - 0 )
= 2π(144/5)
= 288π/5
V = 180.96
𝜋
11. Evaluate ∫06 cos 8 3A dA
= (sin 18( Π/6) + 9 sin 12 (Π/6) + 45 sin 6(Π/6) + 180 (Π/6)) – (sin 18(0) +
9 sin 12(0) + 45 sin 6(0) + 180(0))
𝛑/𝟔 𝟑𝟓𝛑
∫𝟎 𝐜𝐨𝐬𝟖 3A dA = 𝟕𝟔𝟖
306
14. dy + 7x dx = 0 ; C=10
dy/dx + 7x = 0
∫ y′ = ∫ 7x
7𝑥 2
𝑦= − therefore, parabola
2
y = 3x 2 − 2x + 3
y(0) = 3 y’ = 6x – 2 y’’ = 6
3 = 3(0)2 − 2(0) + 3 y’(1) = 6(1) – 2 y’’(2) = 6
3=3 4=4 6=6
y’’’ = 0 therefore, 𝐲 = 𝟑𝐱 𝟐 − 𝟐𝐱 + 𝟑
0=0 is a solution
𝑑2 𝑦
16. + 4𝑦 = 0
𝑑𝑥 2
y = C1sin2x + 3cos2x
y1 = C12cos2x + 3 [-2sin2x]
y11 = C12[-2sin2x] + 3(-6)(2cos2x)
y11 = -4C1sin2x – 12cos2x
𝑑2 𝑦
𝑑𝑥 2
+ 4𝑦 = 0
-4C1sin2x – 12cos2x + 4 (C1sin2x + 3cos2x) = 0
-4C1sin2x – 12cos2x + 4C1sin2x + 12cos2x = 0
0=0
𝑑2 𝑦
Therefore, y = C1sin2x + 5cos2x is a solution of 𝑑𝑥2 + 4𝑦 = 0
Probability = 0.29
307
18. How much shorter the new road be?
d2 = 1300
1200 m
d1 = 1200 + 500 = 1700
B
A
d2 = 1300
A z = 1700 – 1300
C
500 m A
z = 400 m
A
22. Condition 1:
S−V
1+1+ 3 =t+3
V
5
S−V
3 = t+1
V
5
S
Substitute t = :
V
5 S
(S − V) = +1
3V V
308
2 S 8
( )=
3 V 3
𝑆
𝑉= 4
Condition 2:
50+V S−(50+V) 3
+1 3 =t+
V V 2
5
50+V 5 S 1
[
V
+
3V
(S − 50 − V) =
V
+ 2
]V
5 250 5 V
50 + V + S− − V=S+
3 3 3 2
100 3
- = 𝑆
3 8
𝟖𝟎𝟎
𝐒= 𝐦𝐢𝐥𝐞𝐬
𝟗
23. Substitute 1:
𝑦
x = 30 +
12
Substitute 2:
𝑥
y = 15 +
12
𝑥
12x = 360 + 15 +
12
x = 31.47 minutes
2 100
25. a1 = 50 [ ]= ; n=∞
3 3
100
𝑎1 3
S= = 2 = 100
1−𝑟 1−
3
2x – 10 = 4(x-5n) 2x + 30 = x + 15n
2x – 10 = 4x – 20n X = 15n – 30
equation 2
X = 15n – 30 equation 1
n = 5 children
310
28− 2y 2
2x + 2y = 28 ( ) + 𝑦 2 = 100
2
28− 2y
x= y=8 ; x=6
2
x(y) = 8 * 6 x(y)= 48
x days = 80 days
29. Time it will take for 10 men to dig an fill 200 ft of trench
man hours / ft
8 men (7 hours) 4 men (3 hours) 10 men (x hours)
+ =
150 ft 100ft 200ft
x hours = 9.8667 hours
x hours = 9 hr 52 min
4
V2 sphere = π(1.4r)3 =
3
311
% increase in volume = (V2 – V1) x 100= (2.74 – 1) x 100
x = r cos θ ; y = sin θ
Diameter of cylinder = 10 ft
ft3
314
min
rate of increase in depth =
π(10ft3)
Get x
x = 1.5%
312
40. Present worth of series that decreases uniformly
Present worth = (400(P/A, 10%, 10) – 20(P/G, 10%, 10)(P/F, 10%, 10))
x = 11.5%
F = P(enr )
F = 10000(e18(0.08))
F = 42,206.96 = 42,210
A = P 3500 , r = 8%
(1 + i )n − 1
P=A ; i = er − 1
i ( 1 + i )n
(1 + (e0.1 − 1))5 − 1
P = 3500 0.1
(e − 1)(1 + (e0.1 − 1))5
P = P 13,094.43 = P 13,100
Complex:
313
∑ 𝐹 = 120 < 30° + 200 < 110° + 340 < 180° + 170 < 240° + 80 < 300°
9
θ1 = tan−1 5 = 60.94°
θ2 = tan−1 2 + 180 = 243.43°
6
θ3 = 180 − tan−1 = 146.31°
9
F = 262.53 = 263 N
Wo Wo
L/2 L/2
R1 R2
1 L L 1 1 L L L 2
R1 = 2 (2) Wo (2) (3) + 2 (2) Wo (2 + 2 (3))
𝟏
R1 = 𝟒 𝐋𝐖𝐨 = R2
314
60. NB
FB
P
G = 17 kg
FA
NA
Fx = 0 Fy = 0
FA + NB = P 17 kg (9.81 m/ s2) + FB = NA
0.3NA + NB = P (1) 166.7 + 0.2NB = NA (2)
Moment at G:
-2(cos 50)NA – 2(cos 50)0.3NA + (cos 50)P – 2(cos 50)0.2NB + 2(cos 50)NB = 0
-1.6712 NA + 0.6427 P + 1.0284 NB = 0 (3)
NA = 202.61 N
NB = 179.24 N
P = 240 N
315
316
Removal Examination – Part I
Physical and Chemical Principles
1. Archaeologists can determine the age of an artifact made of wood or bone by measuring
the amount of the radioactive isotope 14C present in the object. The amount of isotope
decreases in a first order process. If 15.5% of the original amount of 14C is present in a
wooden tool at the time of analysis, what is the age of the tool? The half life of 14C is 5730
years.
a. 15,411.76 years b. 14,411.46 years c. 11,411.16 years d. 17,411.46 years
2. Consider the molecular substances I2, H2O, and C8H18. Which of them is/are soluble
in CCl4?
a. only I2 b. only H20 c. only C8H18 d. I2 and C8H18 e. H2O and
C8H18
3.Consider the following half-reactions and select the strongest oxidizing agent present:
Sr2+(aq) + 2e- —> Sr(s) E° = -2.89 V
Cr2+(aq) + 2e- -> Cr(s) E° = -0.913 V Co2+(aq) + 2e- -> Co(s) E° = -0.28 V
a. Cr2+(aq) b. Sr2+(aq) c. Co2+(aq) d. Sr(s) e.
Co(s)
4. A solution composed 10 grams of non-volatile organic solute in 100 grams of diethyl
ether (CH3CH2OCH2CH3) has a vapour pressure of 426.0 mm Hg at 20°C. If the vapor
pressure of the pure diethyl ether is 442.2 mm Hg at the same temperature, what is the
molecular weight of solute?
a. 149.6g/mole b. 164.8 g/mol c. 186.4 g/mol d. 194.8 g/mol
5. The chemical name of Tumbull's blue is
a. ferrous ferricyanide b. cuprous chloride c. ferric ferrocyanide d.cupric
chloride
6. Find the pH of a solution made by diluting one drop (0.04 mL) of 0.10 N HCI to 10
liters.
A. 6.37 B. 7.24 C. 8.14 D. 8.55
7. An air sampling program sampled 100,000 L of particle size. The following mass of
particles were collected: 12 mg retained with size greater than 2.5 μm; and 6 mg retained
with size less than 2.5 μm. What are the PM2.5 and TSP concentrations (in ppm) of this
air sample respectively?
a. 6.0 x 10-4; 1.8 x 10-4 c. 6.0 x 104; 6.0 x 10-5
317
b. 1.2 x 10-4; 1.8 x 10-4 d. 1.2 x 10-4; 6.0 x 10-5
8. Disaccharides are carbohydrates composed of two monosaccharide residues united by a
gycolylycosidic linkage. Which of the following is inappropriate?
a. sucrose + water —> glucose + fructose c. maltose + water —> glucose +
glucose
b. lactose + water —> glucose + glucose d. lactose + water —> galactose +
glucose
9. Which vitamin is not a fat soluble?
a. A b. C c. K d. E
10. Which of the following potential contaminant is the most resistant to heat sterilization?
a. Pseudomonas aeruginosa c. Aspergillus niger
b. Clostridium botulinum d. Saccharomyces cerevisiae
11. Melamine is officially 1,3,5-triazine-2,4,6-triamine in the IUPAC nomenclature
system. It is used in fire retardants in polymer resins because its high nitrogen content
released as flame stifling nitrogen gas when the compound is burned or charred. What is
the chemical formula of melamine?
a. C3H6N3 b. C3H6N4 c. C3H6N5 d. C3H6N6
12. A sample of polystyrene prepared by heating styrene with tribromobenzoyl peroxide in
the absence of air has the formula Br3C6H3(C8H8)n where n varies with the preparation.
If a certain sample of polystyrene is found to contain 20.01 /o Br, what is the value of n?
a. 8 b. 10 c. 20 d. 15
13. For the reaction 3A(g) + 3B (g) —> 2C (s) + 3D (g), the equilibrium concentration are
0.3M of A, 0.5 M B, 0.2 M of C and 0.5 M of D, find the equilibrium constants
a. 37.04 b.0.74 c. 12.3 d. 0.075
14. A mixture of N2 and H2 was allowed to come to an equilibrium at a given temperature.
An analysis of the mixture at equilibrium contained 2.0 mol N2, 3.0 mol H2, and 2.5 mol
NH3. How many moles of H2 present at the beginning of the reaction?
a. 3.5 b. 5.3 c. 7.5 d. 6.7
15. If an enzyme is inhibited non-competitively by the product a reaction sequence in which
the enzyme precipitates, the enzyme is?
a. Inhibited b. Modulator c. Allosteric d. Zymogen
16. A solution of 1.25 g of non-electrolyte solute in 20 g water freezes at 291.94K, find the
molecular weight of the solute.
318
a. 110 b. 6.86 c. 180 d. 56.2
17. What is the pH of the resulting solution made by mixing 5ml of 0.2178M HCI and
15ml of 0.1156M NH3? Kwm =1 8x10 s
a. 9.49 b. 9.90 c. 9.02 d. 12.74
18. Calculate the molarity of NaOH solution if 18.25mL was used to titrate 0.4815 gram
of primary standard KHP
a. 0.18 b. 0.13 c. 0.26 d. 0.16
19. What is the pH of a 0.068 M aqueous solution of sodium cyanide? Ka for HCN = 4.9
x 10’°
a. 0.74 b. 2.93 c. 11.07 d.13.26
20. Histamine, an organic nitrogenous compound which can cause allergic rhinitis, can be
produced in our body through the decarboxylation of the amino acid histidine. Given that
18 mM of the decarboxylase is used and 5 mM of histidine forms. Calculate the Michaelis-
Menten constant if the reaction velocity and the TON are 6 mM/s and 37/s respectively.
a. 0.330 M b. 0.440 M c. 0.550 M d. 0.660 M
21. What weight of impure ferrous ammonium sulfate should be taken for analysis so that
the number of centigrams of BaS04 obtained will represent five times the percentage of S
in the sample?
a. 0.59 g b. 0.69 g c.0.79 g d.0.89 g
22. An oxide of the element M has the formula M207 and it is known from experiments
that 1.000 gram of M combines with an excess of oxygen to form 2.019 grams of oxide.
The element M is
a. aluminum b. chlorine c. manganese d. iron
23. All of the following are correctly stated underlying principles used to build up the
configuration of a many electron atom, EXCEPT
a. Pauli principle: no two electrons can have an identical set of quantum numbers.
b. Aufbau principle: atomic orbitals are filled with electrons from lowest energy to higher
energies.
c. Hund’s rule: electrons in degenerate orbitals are arranged to minimize the number of
unpaired spins.
d. All of the above statements are correct.
24. In the most stable conformation of trans-1,4-dimethylcyclohexane, what positions do
the methyl groups occupy?
319
a. Axial, axial b. Equitorial, axial c. Equitorial, equitorial d. Axial,
equitorial
25. The pKa for formic acid is 3.74. What is the pH of the solution resulting from addition
of 0.50 moles of formic acid (HCOOH) and 0 30 mole sodium formate (HCOO-) to enough
water to create a final volume of 1.0 L?
a. 2.18 b. 2.78 c. 3.52 d. 4.28
26. Formic acid is a monobasic acid that is 4.6% ionized in 0.10M aq. solution at 25°C. If
a 25 mL pipetful of a 0.25N aq. solution of formic acid is diluted to 200 mL and titrated
with 0.33N NaOH, what indicator would be suitable in this titration? I
a. Methyl orange c. Bromothymol blue
b. Cresol red d. Phenolphthalein
27. A certain solution may contain any of the following solutes: NaH2P04, HCI, H3P04,
Na2HP04. A 25 mL portion is titrated with 0.2N NaOH and with an indicator changing
color at approximately pH 9, the end point is at 48.0 mL of NaOH. A second 25 mL sample
is titrated with 0.2N NaOH, and with an indicator changing color at approximately pH 4,
the end point is at 32.5 mL of the NaOH. What active solutes are present in significant
amounts in the original solution?
a. NaH2P04, HCl b. HCl, H3P04 c. H3P04, Na2HP04 d. NaH2P04,
Na2HP04
28. What should be the “iron value" of a solution of KMn04 so that when a sample of
impure Na3As03 weighing 0.5 g is titrated to arsenate with the permanganate, the
percentage of As203 in the sample will be twice the buret reading?
a. 0.0113 g b. 0.0224 g c. 0.0335 g d. 0.0446 g
29. Bromide can be determined by precipitating as AgBr, heating in a current of Cl2 and
weighing the resulting AgCl. What would be the gravimetric factor for finding the
percentage bromine?
a. Less than 1 b. 1 c. More than 1 d. Insufficient Information
30. Trouton's rule slates that many substances have entropies of vaporization close to 88
J/mol-K. Which of the following is the best rationale for Trouton’s rule?
a. Most substances have similar enthalpies of vaporization
b. Most substances have similar boiling points.
c. The change in disorder in going from one mole of liquid to one mole of gas is similar
for many substances.
d. Entropy changes for most processes are about 88 J/mol-K.
320
SOLUTIONS
1. Archaeologists can determine the age of an artifact made of wood or bone by measuring
the amount of the radioactive isotope 14C present in the object. The amount of isotope
decreases in a first order process. If 15.5% of the original amount of 14C is present in a
wooden tool at the time of analysis, what is the age of the tool? The half life of 14C is 5730
years.
a. 15,411.76 years b. 14,411.46 years c. 11,411.16 years d. 17,411.46 years
Solutions:
1
ln ( ) = −𝑘𝑡
2
1
ln ( ) = −𝑘 (5730)
2
𝑘 = 1.20968 𝑥 10−4
321
10 100 100
( + ) (426) = ( ) (442.2)
𝑥 74.14 74.14
𝒙 = 𝟏𝟗𝟒. 𝟗𝟔 𝒈/𝒎𝒐𝒍
5. The chemical name of Tumbull's blue is
a. ferrous ferricyanide b. cuprous chloride c. ferric ferrocyanide d.cupric
chloride
6. Find the pH of a solution made by diluting one drop (0.04 mL) of 0.10 N HCI to 10
liters.
A. 6.37 B. 7.24 C. 8.14 D. 8.55
Solutions:
𝑝𝐻 = −log[𝐻 +]
𝑚𝑜𝑙
0.1 𝐿 (0.4𝑥10−3 𝐿)
𝑝𝐻 = − log(
10 𝐿
𝒑𝑯 = 𝟔. 𝟑𝟗𝟖
7. An air sampling program sampled 100,000 L of particle size. The following mass of
particles were collected: 12 mg retained with size greater than 2.5 μm; and 6 mg retained
with size less than 2.5 μm. What are the PM2.5 and TSP concentrations (in ppm) of this
air sample respectively?
a. 6.0 x 10-4; 1.8 x 10-4 c. 6.0 x 104; 6.0 x 10-5
b. 1.2 x 10-4; 1.8 x 10-4 d. 1.2 x 10-4; 6.0 x 10-5
Solutions:
12 𝑚𝑔
= 𝟏. 𝟐 𝒙 𝟏𝟎−𝟒 𝒑𝒑𝒎
100000 𝐿
18 𝑚𝑔
= 𝟏. 𝟖 𝒙 𝟏𝟎−𝟒 𝒑𝒑𝒎
100000 𝐿
8. Disaccharides are carbohydrates composed of two monosaccharide residues united by a
gycolylycosidic linkage. Which of the following is inappropriate?
a. sucrose + water —> glucose + fructose c. maltose + water —> glucose +
glucose
b. lactose + water —> glucose + glucose d. lactose + water —> galactose +
glucose
322
9. Which vitamin is not a fat soluble?
a. A b. C c. K d. E
10. Which of the following potential contaminant is the most resistant to heat sterilization?
a. Pseudomonas aeruginosa c. Aspergillus niger
b. Clostridium botulinum d. Saccharomyces cerevisiae
11. Melamine is officially 1,3,5-triazine-2,4,6-triamine in the IUPAC nomenclature
system. It is used in fire retardants in polymer resins because its high nitrogen content
released as flame stifling nitrogen gas when the compound is burned or charred. What is
the chemical formula of melamine?
a. C3H6N3 b. C3H6N4 c. C3H6N5 d. C3H6N6
12. A sample of polystyrene prepared by heating styrene with tribromobenzoyl peroxide in
the absence of air has the formula Br3C6H3(C8H8)n where n varies with the preparation.
If a certain sample of polystyrene is found to contain 20.01 % Br, what is the value of n?
a. 8 b. 10 c. 20 d. 15
Solutions:
𝑀𝑎𝑠𝑠 𝐵𝑟
%𝐵𝑟 =
𝑀𝑜𝑙𝑒𝑐𝑢𝑙𝑎𝑟 𝑤𝑒𝑖𝑔ℎ𝑡
3 (79.91)
0.2001 =
3(79.91) + 75.09 + 𝑥(104.16)
𝑥 = 8.47
𝒙 ≈𝟖
13. For the reaction 3A(g) + 3B (g) —> 2C (s) + 3D (g), the equilibrium concentration are
0.3M of A, 0.5 M B, 0.2 M of C and 0.5 M of D, find the equilibrium constants
a. 37.04 b.0.74 c. 12.3 d. 0.075
Solutions:
[𝐷]3
𝐾 =
[𝐴]3 [𝐵]3
[0.5]3
𝐾 = = 𝟑𝟕. 𝟎𝟒
[0.3]3 [0.5]3
323
14. A mixture of N2 and H2 was allowed to come to an equilibrium at a given temperature.
An analysis of the mixture at equilibrium contained 2.0 mol N2, 3.0 mol H2, and 2.5 mol
NH3. How many moles of H2 present at the beginning of the reaction?
a. 3.5 b. 5.3 c. 7.5 d. 6.7
Solutions:
𝑁2 + 3𝐻2 → 2𝑁𝐻3
i x x 0
c -1.25 -3.75 2.5
e 2 3 2.5
𝑥 − 3.75 = 3
𝒙 = 𝟔. 𝟕𝟓
15. If an enzyme is inhibited non-competitively by the product a reaction sequence in which
the enzyme precipitates, the enzyme is?
a. Inhibited b. Modulator c. Allosteric d. Zymogen
16. A solution of 1.25 g of non-electrolyte solute in 20 g water freezes at 291.94K, find the
molecular weight of the solute.
a. 110 b. 6.86 c. 180 d. 56.2
Solutions:
𝑥
18.79 = (1.86)
0.020
𝑥 = 0.2020
1.25
𝑀𝑊 = = 𝟔. 𝟖𝟔
0.2020
17. What is the pH of the resulting solution made by mixing 5ml of 0.2178M HCI and
15ml of 0.1156M NH3? KNH3 =1 8x10-5
a. 9.49 b. 9.90 c. 9.02 d. 12.74
Solutions:
𝑁𝐻3 + 𝐻𝐶𝑙 → 𝑁𝐻4 + + 𝐶𝑙 −
i i 0.645
1.734 1.089
0 0
1.089 00
cc -1.089
-x -1.089 1.089
x x
ee0.645-x
0.645 0 1.089
1.089+x x
324
𝑁𝐻3 + 𝐻2 𝑂 → 𝑁𝐻4 + + 𝑂𝐻 −
(1.089 + 𝑥 )(𝑥 )
1.8 𝑥 10−5 =
(0.645 − 𝑥 )
𝑥 = 1.0661𝑥10−5 𝑀 [𝑂𝐻 −]
𝑝𝐻 = 14 − 𝑝𝑂𝐻
𝑝𝐻 = 14 + log(1.0661𝑥10−5 )
𝒑𝑯 = 𝟗. 𝟎𝟑
18. Calculate the molarity of NaOH solution if 18.25mL was used to titrate 0.4815 gram
of primary standard KHP
a. 0.18 b. 0.13 c. 0.26 d. 0.16
Solutions:
1 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝐾𝐻𝑃 1 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝑁𝑎𝑂𝐻
0.4815 𝑔 𝐾𝐻𝑃 ( )( )
204.05 𝑔 1 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝐾𝐻𝑃
[𝑁𝑎𝑂𝐻 ] =
0.01825 𝐿
[𝑁𝑎𝑂𝐻] = 0.1293 𝑀 = 𝟎. 𝟏𝟑 𝑴
19. What is the pH of a 0.068 M aqueous solution of sodium cyanide? Ka for HCN = 4.9
x 10-10
a. 0.74 b. 2.93 c. 11.07 d.13.26
Solutions:
1 [𝑀]
𝑝𝐻 = 14 + log ( )
2 𝐾𝑎
1 0.068
𝑝𝐻 = 14 + log ( )
2 4.9 𝑥 10−10
𝒑𝑯 = 𝟏𝟏. 𝟎𝟕
20. Histamine, an organic nitrogenous compound which can cause allergic rhinitis, can be
produced in our body through the decarboxylation of the amino acid histidine. Given that
18 mM of the decarboxylase is used and 5 mM of histidine forms. Calculate the Michaelis-
Menten constant if the reaction velocity and the TON are 6 mM/s and 37/s respectively.
a. 0.330 M b. 0.440 M c. 0.550 M d. 0.660 M
Solutions:
𝑉𝑚𝑎𝑥 (𝐶𝑠)
𝑉 =
𝐾𝑚 + 𝐶𝑠
325
37
𝑚𝑀 ( 𝑠 )(5𝑚𝑀)(18𝑚𝑀)
6 =
𝑠 𝐾𝑚 + 18𝑚𝑀
𝐾𝑚 = 550 𝑚𝑀
𝑲𝒎 = 𝟎. 𝟓𝟓𝟎 𝑴
21. What weight of impure ferrous ammonium sulfate should be taken for analysis so that
the number of centigrams of BaS04 obtained will represent five times the percentage of S
in the sample?
a. 0.59 g b. 0.69 g c.0.79 g d.0.89 g
22. An oxide of the element M has the formula M207 and it is known from experiments
that 1.000 gram of M combines with an excess of oxygen to form 2.019 grams of oxide.
The element M is
a. aluminum b. chlorine c. manganese d. iron
Solutions:
1 𝑔 𝑀 + 𝑂2 = 2.019 𝑔 𝑀2 𝑂7
7
2𝑀+ 𝑂 → 𝑀2 𝑂7
2 2
1 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝑀 1 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝑀2 𝑂7 2𝑥 + 7(16)
1𝑔𝑀( )( )( = 2.019 𝑔 𝑀2 𝑂7
𝑥𝑔𝑀 2 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝑀 1 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝑀2 𝑂7
𝑔
𝑥 = 54.9558
𝑚𝑜𝑙
𝑻𝒉𝒆𝒓𝒆𝒇𝒐𝒓𝒆 , 𝑴 𝒊𝒔 𝑴𝒂𝒏𝒈𝒂𝒏𝒆𝒔𝒆
23. All of the following are correctly stated underlying principles used to build up the
configuration of a many electron atom, EXCEPT
a. Pauli principle: no two electrons can have an identical set of quantum numbers.
b. Aufbau principle: atomic orbitals are filled with electrons from lowest energy to higher
energies.
c. Hund’s rule: electrons in degenerate orbitals are arranged to minimize the number of
unpaired spins.
d. All of the above statements are correct.
24. In the most stable conformation of trans-1,4-dimethylcyclohexane, what positions do
the methyl groups occupy?
a. Axial, axial b. Equitorial, axial c. Equitorial, equitorial d. Axial,
equitorial
326
25. The pKa for formic acid is 3.74. What is the pH of the solution resulting from addition
of 0.50 moles of formic acid (HCOOH) and 0.30 mole sodium formate (HCOO-) to enough
water to create a final volume of 1.0 L?
a. 2.18 b. 2.78 c. 3.52 d. 4.28
Solutions:
0.3
𝑝𝐻 = 14 + log ( )
0.5
𝒑𝑯 = 𝟑. 𝟓𝟐
26. Formic acid is a monobasic acid that is 4.6% ionized in 0.10M aq. solution at 25°C. If
a 25 mL pipetful of a 0.25N aq. solution of formic acid is diluted to 200 mL and titrated
with 0.33N NaOH, what indicator would be suitable in this titration?
a. Methyl orange c. Bromothymol blue
b. Cresol red d. Phenolphthalein
27. A certain solution may contain any of the following solutes: NaH2P04, HCI, H3P04,
Na2HP04. A 25 mL portion is titrated with 0.2N NaOH and with an indicator changing
color at approximately pH 9, the end point is at 48.0 mL of NaOH. A second 25 mL sample
is titrated with 0.2N NaOH, and with an indicator changing color at approximately pH 4,
the end point is at 32.5 mL of the NaOH. What active solutes are present in significant
amounts in the original solution?
a. NaH2P04, HCl b. HCl, H3P04 c. H3P04, Na2HP04 d. NaH2P04,
Na2HP04
28. What should be the “iron value" of a solution of KMn04 so that when a sample of
impure Na3As03 weighing 0.5 g is titrated to arsenate with the permanganate, the
percentage of As203 in the sample will be twice the buret reading?
a. 0.0113 g b. 0.0224 g c. 0.0335 g d. 0.0446 g
29. Bromide can be determined by precipitating as AgBr, heating in a current of Cl2 and
weighing the resulting AgCl. What would be the gravimetric factor for finding the
percentage bromine?
a. Less than 1 b. 1 c. More than 1 d. Insufficient Information
30. Trouton's rule slates that many substances have entropies of vaporization close to 88
J/mol-K. Which of the following is the best rationale for Trouton’s rule?
c. The change in disorder in going from one mole of liquid to one mole of gas is similar
for many substances.
327
Removal Examination – Part II
Chemical Engineering
1. Critically damped system means that damping coefficient is
a. 1
b. <1
c. >1
d. 0
2. A mercury manometer at 800F reads 30.85 in. The local acceleration of gravity is
3200ft/s2. To what pressure in atmosphere does this height of mercury correspond?
a. 1.02
b. 1.08
c. 0.96
d. 1.12
4. Pick out the material having maximum Rittinger's number. (hint:make use of Che
handbook by Perry)
a. calcite
b. quartz
c. pyrite
d. galena
5. Sphericity for cubical particle when its equivalent diameter is taken as the height
of the tube is
a. 0.5
b. √2
c. 1
d. √3
328
With the following characteristics: length L = 30.48 m; inside diameter d = 0.0526
m; pipe roughness e = 0.000045 m; frictional pressure drop delta P = 15720 N/m 2;
liquid dynamic viscosity p = 0.01 Pa-s; liquid density p = 1200 kg/m3. Calculate:
7.the Reynolds' number.
a. 7138
b. 15000
c. 8273
d. 9569
8. The faning friction factor f.
a. 0.00884
b. 0.00727
c. 0.00990
d. 0.00698s
9. 1000 cfm of air at 95degF dry bulb and 70degF wet bulb is mixed with 2000 cfm
of air at 65degF dry bulb and 50degF wet bulb. What is the dry bulb temperature of
the mixed stream?
a. 80degF b. 78egF c. 75degF d.
63degF
10. A first order reaction with respect to A takes place in a PFR. If equal moles of
B and C are mixed with A and allowed to react for 1.5hr after which time half of A
had been consumed. How much of A is left unreacted after 3 hrs. ?
a.18% b.13% c. 35% d.
25%
For 13-14.The analysis of a flue gas from a fuel gas containing no nitrogen is 4.62%
C02, 3.08%CO, 8.91%02, am} 83.39% N2.
329
13. moles of water (H20) formed
a. 7.04 moles b. 14.08 moles c. 15.07 moles d. 22.11
moles
14. moles of air supplied per 100 moles of dry flue gas
15. With the same reaction time , initial concentration and feed rate , the reaction 2A -5
B is carried out separately in CSTR an P.F. reactor of equal volumes. The conversion will
be
a. Higher P.F > reactor
b. Same in both the reactors
c. Higher in CSTR
d. data insufficient, can’t be predicted
16. A first order reaction requires two unequal sized CSTR. Which of the following
gives a higher yield?
a. Large reactor followed by smaller one
b. Smaller reactor followed by larger one
c. either of the arrangement (a) or (b) will give the same yield
d. data insufficient, can’t be predicted
17. A control structure with two feedback controllers with the output of the primary
controller changing the set point of the secondary controller whose output goes to the
final controller.
a. Feedback control
b. Ratio control
c. Cascade control
d. Override control
18. The degrees of freedom associated with ternary distillation process according to the
Gibb's phase rule is
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
330
a. 100X/(X+100)
b. X/(1+X)
c. (100+X)/X
d. 100(1-X)/X
20. The major problem in leaching is to promote diffusion of the solute out of the
solid and the liquid, The most effective way of doing this is.
a. to reduce the solid to the smallest size feasible
b. to use crossflow evaporation
c. to use counter current operation
d. to use parallel operation
26. A camot engine, operating between 70F and 2000F is modified by raising
the high temperature to 2150F and low temperature by 100F. Which of the following
statements is incorrect?
a. More heat is absorbed during vaporization
b. More work is done during the reversible adiabatic expansion
331
c. Net work is increased
d. Thermodynamics efficiency is increased
27. Gaseous propane at 770F is mixed with air at 260F and burned. If 300% theoretical
air is used, what is the adiabatic flame temperature?
a. 1766degF b. 166degF c. 766degF d.
1616degF
28. Water flowing at 1.2gal/min at 50F is to be heated to 1500F with saturated stream at
14.7 psia. Calculate the steam flow rate required in lb/min to heat the water in a "parallel
type" heat exchanger.
29. Steam is delivered by a boiler at 550 psia and 7000F. After expansion to 110 psia the
steam is reheated to 700F. Expansion occurs to 1.5 inHg(abs). For ideal reheat cycle,
calculate on the basis of 1 1b of steam the thermodynamic efficiency.
30. A helical coil made of 3" OD x 16 gauge type 316 stainless steel tubing has a total of
15 turns on a 72" pitch diameter. If the water at 80 0F flows through the coil at 150 gpm,
calculate the pressure drop of the coil in psi.
a. 11.7 psi b. 21.1 psi c. 14.7 psi d. 31.1 psi
31. A large centrifugal pump has a 10" diameter inlet and 5" diameter outlet. The
measured flow rate is 818 gpm. The measured inlet pressure is 5"Hg above atmospheric
and the discharge pressure measured at 4 ft above the pump outlet is 30.7 psia. Pump input
is 10 hp. Find the pump efficiency.
32. The parallel wooden outer and inner walls of a building are 15 ft long, 10 ft high and
4 inches apart, The outer surface of the inner wall is 700F and the inner surface of the outer
wall is 0F. Calculate the heat loss in BTU/hr neglecting any leakage of air through the
walls.
33. Suppose the air space is divided in half by a 0.01 inch aluminium foil. How much
would this affect the heat transfer through the air space?
34, A large sheet of glass 2 inches thick and initially 300F throughout is plunged into a
stream of water having a temperature Of 60F How long will it take to cool the glass to a
332
temperature of 100F in the centre of the slab? For glass, k = 0.4 BTU/ht-ft-F, density =
1lb/ft3 and cp=0.2 BTU/lbdegF.
35. If a counter current concentric pipe heat exchanger is heating air from 80 to 100F
using condensing steam at 220F, estimate how many times as much as air could be
heated within the same range by steam condensing at 250F.
ANSWER KEY
Removal Examination-Part II
1. A. 1
2. A. 1.02
3. C. 129.2
4. D. Galena
5. C. 1
6. A. Velocity Heads
7. A. 7138
8. A. 0.00884
9. C. 75 degF
10. D. 25%
11. D. -26.07 BTU
12. B. Low pressure and low temperature
13. B. 14.08 moles
14. A. 1.055
15. C. Higher in CSTR
16. C. Either of the arrangement (a) or (b) will give the same yield
17. C. Cascade Control
18. B. 3
19. A.100X/(X+100)
20. A. to reduce the solid to the smallest size feasible
21. A.1
22. A. dew point at 20degC
23. D. Brayton cycle
24. C. mCv(T2-T1)+Pa(V2-V1)
25. B. 5.0 g
26. D. Thermodynamic Efficiency
27. A. 1766degF
28. C. 1.03 lb/min
29. B. 37.6%
30. A. 11.7 psi
31. B. 78%
32. 418 BTU/hr
33. qAl=0.165 q
34. 0.45 hrs.
35. 5.7 times
333
SOLUTIONS
2. P=𝜌𝑔ℎ
𝜌=13600 kg/m3
g= 9.7537 m/s2
9.7537 𝑚
P= 13600 kg/m3 x x 0.78359 𝑚=1039439642 Pa
𝑠2
P= 1.0258 atm
3. ∆𝑉=Vg-Vs
6 𝑉𝑝 6 √23
5. ∅𝑐𝑢𝑏𝑒 = ( ) ( ) =( ) ( 2 )=1
𝐷𝑝 𝑆𝑝 √2 6√2
𝐷𝑣𝜌
7. 𝑁𝑟𝑒 = 𝜇
1.13𝑚
(0.0526𝑚)( )(1200𝑘𝑔/𝑚3)
𝑠
𝑁𝑟𝑒 = 0.01
𝑁𝑟𝑒 = 7132.56
𝐷∆𝑃
8. 𝑓 = 2𝜌𝑉 2 𝐿
15720𝑁
(0.0526𝑚)(
𝑓= 𝑚2 )
1200𝑘𝑔
2( ) (1.13)2 (30.48𝑚)
𝑚3
𝑓 = 0.008852
0.5 = 1𝑒 −𝑘(1.5)
334
𝑘 = 0.46209
𝐶 = 1𝑒 −0.46209(3)
C=25%
Q = nRT(ln V2/V1)
Q = (16.19)(8.3145)(ln 0.142/0.283)
O2 unaccounted for = 22.17 moles O2 in air – 4.62 moles CO2 – 3.08/2 moles CO – 8.91
moles O2)
14. moles of air supplied per 100 moles of dry flue gas = (O2 in air + N2 in air)/100 moles
dry FG
moles of air supplied per 100 moles of dry FG = (22. 17 mol O2 in air + 83.39 mol N2 in
air)/100
335
moles of air supplied per 100 moles of dry FG = 1.0556
25. PV=nRT
𝑃 𝑃
= 𝑛𝑇
𝑛𝑇
940 480
(82+273.15)(𝑛)
= 0.07142(30+273.15)
28 𝑔𝑟𝑎𝑚𝑠
n= 0.1194 moles x =5.34 grams
1 𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑒
C: 3=b
H: 8=2d=4
O: 2a=2b+d, a=5
HR + Q = Hp; Q=0
HR = Hp
{ℎ𝑓,𝐶3𝐻8−3ℎ𝑓,𝐶𝑂2−4𝐻2𝑂}
Tp=298+
3𝐶𝑝,𝐶𝑂2+4𝐶𝑝,𝐻2𝑂+10𝐶𝑝,𝑂2+56.4𝐶𝑝,𝑁2
393522𝐽
{291235𝐽/𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑒−3(− )−4(−241827𝐽/𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑒}
𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑒
Tp=298+
3(45)+4(35)+10(35)+56.4(35)
Tp=1236.48013K=1765.9942℉
28. Q = Q
𝑚𝑐𝑝∆𝑇 = 𝑚𝜆𝑣
336
(4.54 kg/min)(4.184 J/kg.K)(55.56K) = m (2256.61356 J/kgK)
m= 0.467684 kg/min
m= 1.0311 lb/min
Q= 1.823 ft3/s
V1= q/A1=(1.823/0.545)=3.342ft/s
A2= π/4(0.417)^2=0.136ft^2
V2 =q/A2=(1.823/0.136)=13.367 ft/s
Ha= (P2-P1/𝜌)+(Z2-Z1)g/gc+((V2^2-V1^2)/2gc)
BHPa=10Hp
∆𝑇
32. Q=kA 1
∆𝑋
337
(70−0)
Q=(0.12)(10*50) 12
4
Q= 420 BTU/hr
ℎ𝐴
𝑇−𝑇∞ −( )𝑡
34. = 𝑒 𝑐𝑝𝜌𝑉
𝑇𝑜−𝑇∞
Assumptions:
*Volume is equal to 1
𝑇 − 𝑇∞ ℎ𝐴
−( )𝑡
= 𝑒 𝑐𝑝𝜌𝑉
𝑇𝑜 − 𝑇∞
t=0.447939 hrs
𝑚1 24.111
= =5.42 times
𝑚2 4.444
338
Removal Examination – Part III
General Engineering
1. A wooden rectangular parallelepiped 4m x 3m x 2m in dimension weighs 5 kg.
Find the volume of the rectangular parallelepiped in m3.
A. 22m3 B. 23m3 C. 24m3 D. 25m3
3. The hypotenuse of a right triangle is 34 cm. Find the length of the shortest leg if it
is 14 cm shorter than the other leg.
A. 15 cm B. 16 cm C. 17 cm D. 18 cm
5
4. If sec2x = 2, what is the numerical value of 1 – sin2x?
A. 2.5 B. 0.6 C. 1.5 D. 0.4
8. The sum of the two interior angles of the triangle is equal to the third angle and
2
the difference of the two angles is equal to 3 of the third angle. Find the third
angle.
A. 15o B. 75o C. 90o D. 120o
339
A. 5x + 4y = 41 B. 4x – 5y = 41 C. 4x + 5y = 41 D. 5x – 4y=41
14. In how many relative orders can we seat 7 people at a round table with a certain 3
people side by side.
A. 144 B. 5040 C. 720 D. 1008
15. Find the sum of the first 10 terms of the geometric progression 2, 4, 8, 16,…
A. 1023 B. 2046 C. 1596 D. 225
16. If AB = 15m, BC = 18m and AB = 24m find the point of intersection of the
angular bisector from the vertex C.
A. 11.3 B. 12.1 C. 13.4 D. 14.3
18. A 200 gm apple is thrown from the edge of a tall building with an initial speed of
20m/s. What is the change in kinetic energy of the apple if it strikes the ground at
50m/s?
A. 130 Joules B. 210 Joules C. 100 Joules D. 81 Joules
20. The horsepower required to raise a 150 kg drum to a height of 20 m over a period
of one minute is:
A. 0.41 hp B. 0.81 hp C. 0.66 hp D. 1.12hp
21. An object falls from a height of 97.5 m and strikes the ground with a speed of
21.90 m/s. How much higher should the object be in order to strike the ground
with a speed of 27.60 m/s?
A. 57.36 m higher B. 53.36 m lower C. 75.36 m lower
D.36.75m higher
22. In what distance can a 3000 lb automobile be stopped from a speed of 30mi/h
(44ft/s) if the coefficient of friction between tire and roadway is 0.70?
A. 24.15 ft B. 59.25 ft C. 22.59 ft D. 42.95 ft
𝑑𝑦
23. Solve: y = 3x2
𝑑𝑥
A. y2 = x3 + c B. y2 = 2x3 + c C. y3 = 2x2 + c D. y2 = 2x2+c
24. Solve the exact equation: 2xy3dx + (1+3x2y2)dy = 0
A. x2y3 + x = c B. x2y3 + y = cx C. x2y3 + y = c D. x3y2 + x=cy
25. If a company spends P12,000 now and P5,000 per year for 10 years, with first
P5,000 expenditure made 4 years from now, the rate of return would it make if its
income were P4,000 per year starting in year 8 and continuing through year 25 is
340
A. 5.1% B. 1.5% C. 4.2% D. 1.2%
26. The present worth of a series that decreases uniformly, y P200 per year, from
P4,000 in year 11 to P2,200 in year 20, if interest equals 105 is
A. P7,709.1 B. P9,707.2 C. P10,709.1 D. 6,910
27. Material A is a water and Material B is a glass with an index of refraction of 1.52.
If the incident ray makes an angle of 60o with the normal, find the direction of the
reflected ray.
A. 34.7o B. 49.3o C. 60.0o D. 91.3o
341
ANSWER KEY
342
SOLUTIONS
1. LxWxH
4m x 3m x 2m = 24m3
Ans. 24m3
2.
𝐴 (𝑥 ) + 𝐵 ( 𝑦 ) + 𝐶
√𝐴2 + 𝐵2
3(2) + 4(3) + 9
√9 + 16
Ans. 5.4
3. x2 + (x +14)2 = 342
x2 + x2 + 28x +196 = 1156
2x2 + 28x - 960 = 0
x = 16 cm
Ans. 16 cm
5
4. sec2x = 2
1 5
sec2x = cos ^2(𝑥) = 2
x = 21.1051
1 – sin2(21.1051) = 0.4
Ans. 0.4
5. OMB: 100 = W + P
Solute Balance: 100(0.04) = 0.05P
P = 80 kg
100 – 80 = W
W = 20 kg
Ans. 20 kg
𝒏
6. (𝒏 − 𝟑) = 𝟔𝟓
𝟐
n = 13
Ans. 13
7. y = kx when x = 7
10 = k(5) y = 2(7) = 14
343
k=2
Ans. 14
8. A + B + C = 180
A+B=C
A – B = 2/3C
2C = 180 C = 90
Ans. 90oC
9. LR = 4a
4a = 12
Ans. 12
10. 3y = 12 – 4x
4
y=- 𝑥+4
3
4
m1 = - 3
3 1
so m2 should be equal to 4 (m1 = -𝑚2)
Ans. 3x – 4y – 5 = 0
11. a 2 = b2 + c 2
36 = 32 + c2
4 = c2
c=2
Ans. 2
12. y = 2x2 – 7x + 5
axis of symmetry (y’) : 4x – 7 = 0
Ans. 4x – 7 = 0
13. C (0,0) pt (5,4)
4 5
m1 = 5 m2 = - 4
5
y – 4 = - (x – 5)
4
4y – 16 = -5x + 25
Ans. 5x + 4y = 4
14. (5 – 1!) 3! = 144
Ans. 144
344
𝑎1 (𝑟 𝑛− 1) 2 (210− 1)
15. S= = = 2046
𝑟−1 2−1
Ans. 2046
16. AB = 15 cm
BC = 18 cm
AC = 24 cm
Ans. 14.3 cm
Ans. 210 J
19. √22 + 42 + 42 = 6
Ans. 6
20. m = 150 kg h = 20 m t = 1 min
150𝑘𝑔 (9.81𝑚/𝑠2) 20𝑚
PE = mgh = 60𝑠𝑒𝑐
= 290.5 W = 0.66 hp
Ans. 0.66 hp
21. V2 = Vo2 + 2gS
21.92 = 2g(97.5)
g = 2.4595
27.62 = 2(2.4595)(S)
S = 154.8583
ΔS = 154.8583 – 97.5
ΔS = 57.36 m
Ans. 57.36 m
22. distance = ?
m = 3000 lb
v = 30 mi/h
coefficient of friction = 0.70
Ans. 42.95 ft
345
23. angle = 250
T = 100N
Coefficient of 0.20
Ans. 0.20
23. y∫ 𝑦𝑑𝑦 = ∫ 3𝑥 2 𝑑𝑥
𝑦2
= x3 + C
2
y2 = 2x3 + C
Ans. y2 = 2x3 + C
1−(1+𝑖)−10 1−(1+𝑖)−18
25. 12000 + 5000[ ](1 + 𝑖)−4 = 4000[ ](1 + 𝑖)−8
𝑖 𝑖
i = 1.54%
Ans. 1.5%
26. Uniform decrease of P200 per year
Initial Amount = P4,000 Final Amount = P2,200
t = 11 years t = 20 years
Ans. P7,709.1
27. Index of refraction = 1.52
Angle = 60o
Ans. 60.0o
28. turns = 20
diameter = 20 mm
mean radius = 90 mm
load = 2.5kN
G = 83 GPa
Ans. 175 mm
Ans. P3,668
346