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Foundation

Exam Sample Paper 2

You have 1 hour to complete all 40 Questions

You must get 26 or more correct to pass

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www.advanceitsm.com
1. How can an organization determine the effectiveness of the Service Level
Management process?

a. By checking contracts with suppliers

b. By measuring customer satisfaction

c. By defining service levels

d. By reporting on all incidents

2. Which of the following questions is NOT answered by Capacity Plan?

a) Capacity Forecasts
b) Recommendations
c) Components and resource forecasts
d) Countermeasures for risks

3. Which of the following best describes Fault Tolerance?

a) The ability of an IT Service or Configuration Item to continue to operate

correctly after Failure of a Component part.

b) The ability of a third-party supplier to meet the terms of their contract.

Often this contract will include agreed levels of availability, reliability
and/or maintainability for a supporting service or component.

c) A measure of how quickly and effectively a service, component or CI can

be restored to normal working after a failure.

d) A measure of how long a service, component or CI can perform its agreed

function without interruption
4. Which statements below are correct about the Application Portfolio?

1. A database or structured Document used to manage Applications

throughout their Lifecycle.

2. The Application Portfolio contains key Attributes of all Applications.

3. The Application Portfolio is sometimes implemented as part of the Service

Portfolio, or as part of the Configuration Management System.

A. 1 only

B. 2 & 3only

C. All of above

D. 1 & 2 only

5. Which of the following should be documented in an Incident Model?

1. Details of the Service Level Agreement (SLA) pertaining to the incident

2. Chronological order of steps to resolve the incident

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both of the above

d) Neither of the above

6. What does Mean Time to Repair (MTTR) mean?

a) Average uptime of a service

b) Average downtime of a service

c) Average time between two consecutive incidents

d) Average time of the breakdown-free period within a measured period

7. Which of the following statements about Supplier and Contract Database (SCD)
are correct?

1. A database or structured Document used to manage Supplier Contracts

throughout their Lifecycle.

2. The SCD contains key Attributes of all Contracts with Suppliers

3. Its never part of the Service Knowledge Management System.

4. Maintaining it is responsibility of Supplier management process

a) 1 & 2 only
b) 1, 2 & 3
c) 1, 2 & 4
d) All of above

8. Which of the following best describes the goal of Information Security

Management Process?

a. To align IT security with business security and ensure that information

security is effectively managed in all service and Service Management
activities’.

b. To ensure that that the information security risks are appropriately

managed and enterprise information resources are used responsibly.

c. To provide a focus for all aspects of IT security and manage all IT security
activities.

d. To provide the strategic direction for security activities and ensures

objectives are achieved
9. Which of the following steps from the continual improvement Model is missing?

1. What Is the vision?

2. Where are we now?

3. Where do we want to be?

4. How do we get there?

5. Did we get there?

6.?

a) What is the ROI

b) How much did it cost.
c) How do we keep the momentum going.
d) What is the VOI?

10. Which ITIL process manager requires a report specifying the duration of an
interruption of a Configuration Item?

a) Availability Manager
b) Incident Manager
c) Problem Manager
d) Service Level Manager

11. What are the two major processes in problem Management?

a) Technical and Service

b) Proactive and Reactive
c) Resource and Proactive
d) Reactive and Technical
12. In IT Service Continuity Management various precautionary measures are
taken, for example using an emergency power provision.

Which of the following ITIL processes could also initiate this kind of measure?

a. Availability Management
b. Capacity management
c. Change Management
d. Incident Management

13. IT Service Continuity Strategy should be based on?

1. Design of the service metrics

2. Business Continuity Strategy

3. Business Impact Analysis

4. Risk Assessment

a) 1, 2 and 4 only

b) 1, 2 and 3 only

c) 2, 3 and 4 only

d) 1, 3 and 4 only

14. Changes are divided into categories.

What criterion defines a category for a change?

a) The consequences of the change such as Minor, Major, significant, etc.

b) The speed with which the change is made
c) The sequence in which the change is made
d) The Request for Change number that the change is assigned
15. Where are activities documented with the aim of improving an IT service?

a) Service Catalogue (SC)

b) Service Improvement Program (SIP)

c) Service Level Agreement (SLA)

d) Service Quality Plan (SQP)

16. Which of the following is the BEST description of a Service Catalogue?

a) The part of the Service Portfolio that is visible to customers

b) A list of all Service Level Agreements (SLAs)

C) A list of all business requirements that have not yet become services

d) A document used by Service Operations to identify activities that they

must perform

17. Which form of outsourcing provides domain based business expertise?

a) Application Service Provision

b) Business Process Outsourcing

c) Knowledge Process Outsourcing

d) Co-Sourcing
18. Information is regularly exchanged between Problem Management and Change
Management. What information is this?

a) Known Errors from Problem Management, on the basis of which Change

Management can generate Requests for Change (RFCs)

b) RFCs resulting from Known Errors

c) RFCs from the users that Problem Management passes on to Change

Management

d) RFCs from the Service Desk that Problem Management passes on to

Change Management

19. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

a) The Configuration Management System (CMS) is part of the Known Error

Data Base (KEDB)

b) The Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS) is part of the CMS

c) The KEDB and the CMS form part of the larger SKMS

d) The CMS is part of the Configuration Management Data Base (CMDB)

20. Which of the following is the process rather than a department?

a) Application Management

b) Operations Management

c) Service Desk

d) Availability Management
21. What is the name of one or more secured locations used to house validated
copies of software?

a) Secure Store
b) Configuration Management System
c) Definitive Media Library
d)Configuration Management Database

22. Which of the following is NOT one of the major functions described within ITIL?

a) Service Desk
b) Technical Management
c) IT Operations management
d) Data Management

23. Incident Management includes any event which disrupts or could potentially
disrupt a service. Some incidents will not be new and are in fact reoccurrences of
previous incidents. In these cases, organisations tend to develop Incident Models to
handle common incidents which reoccur. Choose the answer below which shows the
initial Incident Management process in the correct order:

1. Incident Logging 2. Incident Prioritization 3. Incident Categorization 4. Incident

Diagnosis 5. Incident Escalation

a) 13245

b) 14325

c) 12345

d) 13452

24. Which of the following best defines a mixture of IT services being delivered by
staff Internally & Externally Sourced?

a) Internal Sourcing
b) External Sourcing
c) Co-Sourcing
d) Managed Services
25. Major Incidents require?

a) Separate procedures
b) Less urgency
c) Longer timescales
d) Less documentation

26. The accounts team have noted that every time they run a quarterly budget
report for a number of customer accounts simultaneously this produces a number
of errors that have to be manually corrected. The Development department have
corrected these errors in a new version. Which process is responsible for ensuring
this updated version is tested?

a) Configuration Management
b) Incident Management
c) Problem Management
d) Release and Deployment Management

27. Which of the following may be defined in a process?

1. Roles
2. Activities
3. Functions
4. Guidelines
5. Standards
6. Governance Framework

a) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
b) All of the above
c) 1. 2, 5 and 6 only
d) 1, 2, 4, and 5 only
28. The Design Manager is responsible for the overall coordination and deployment
of quality solution designs for services and processes. Which of the following are
NOT responsibilities included in this role?

a) Produce and maintain all necessary Service Transition Packages

b) Produce quality, secure and resilient designs for new or improved services,
technology architecture, processes or measurement systems that meet all
the agreed current and future IT requirements of the organization

c) Take the overall Service Strategies and ensure they are reflected in the
Service Design process and the service designs that are produced

d). Measuring the effectiveness and efficiency of the Service Design and
supporting processes

29. Of which ITIL process are Reliability, Serviceability and Maintainability

components?

a. IT Service Continuity Management

b. Service Level Management

c. Problem Management

d. Availability Management

30. Who is responsible for ensuring fairness and transparency

a) Governance
b) Capacity
c) Service Level Management
d) Service Strategy Manager
31. Which of the following is a PRIMARY concern of IT Governance?

a) Measuring and improving the efficiency and effectiveness of processes

b) Ensuring that processes and procedures are correctly followed

c) Reducing the total cost of providing services

d) Ensuring that agreed Service Level Requirements are met

32. Which Functions are in IT Operations Management

a) Network Management and Application Management

b) Technical Management and Application Management

c) Facilities Management and Technical Management

d) IT Operations Control and Facilities Management

33. What is the difference between a process and a project?

a. A process is continuous and has no end date, whereas a project has a

finite lifespan.
b. A project is continuous and has no end date, whereas a process has a
finite lifespan.
c. A process stops when the objective has been achieved, whereas a project
does not stop when the objective is met.
d. In a project the focus is not on the result, whereas with a process the
result is important
34. What is the meaning of the term Serviceability?

a. The degree of availability of the IT services that can be offered

b. The degree of support that the Service Desk provides to the customer
c. The degree to which the provision of IT services can be supported by
maintenance contracts
d. The degree to which the services agreed in the Service Level Agreement
(SLA) are complied with

35. Which of the following is a Process Owner responsible for?

a) Purchasing tools to support the process

b) Ensuring that targets specified in a Service Level Agreement (SLA) are

met

c) Carrying out activities defined in the process

d) Ensuring that the process is performed as documented

36. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

An Incident occurs when…

1. A user is unable to access a service during service hours

2. An authorised IT staff member is unable to access a service during service

hours

3. A network segment fails and the user is not aware of any disruption to
service

4. A user contacts the Service Desk about slow performance of an application

a) All of the above

b) 1 and 4 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) None of the above

37. What is the BEST definition of an Incident Model?

a) The template used to define the Incident logging form used to report
Incidents

b) A type of Incident involving a standard (or model) type of Configuration

Item (CI)

c) A set of pre-defined steps to be followed when dealing with a known type

of Incident

d) An Incident that is easy to solve

38. Which of the following should a Service Catalogue contain?

a) The version information of all software

b) The organisational structure of the company

c) Asset information

d) Details of all operational services

39. Which of the following should be considered when designing measurement

systems, methods and metrics?

1) The services

2) The architectures

3) The configuration items

4) The processes

a) 1, 2 and 3 only

b) 1, 3 and 4 only

c) 2, 3 and 4 only

d) All of the above

40. Which of the following is the CORRECT description of the Four Ps of Service
Design?

a) A four step process for the design of effective service management

b) A definition of the people and products required for successful design

c) A set of questions that should be asked when reviewing design specifications

d) The four major areas that need to be considered in the design of effective
Service Management
Answers for sample paper 1

1 B 21 C
2 D 22 D
3 A 23 A
4 C 24 C
5 B 25 A
6 B 26 D
7 C 27 D
8 A 28 A
9 C 29 D
10 A 30 A
11 B 31 B
12 A 32 D
13 C 33 A
14 A 34 C
15 B 35 D
16 A 36 A
17 C 37 C
18 B 38 D
19 C 39 D
20 D 40 D