12 TH

Bharathidhasanar
matric higher
secondary school,
arakkonam-3
NOTES OF LESSON FOR
PC CHEMISTRY
COMPLETED BY
P.R.SAGUNTHALA DEVI M.Sc., PGDCA,
1 BHARATHIDASANAR MATRIC HIGHER SECONDARY SCHOOL, ARAKKONAM _ 12th PC Chemistry

SI. No. UNITS
1 SOLID STATE
2. SURFACE CHEMISTRY
3. ELECTROCHEMISTRY
4. CHEMICAL KINETICS
5. P-BLOCK ELEMENTS
6. D AND F BLOCK ELEMENTS
7. COORDINATION COMPOUNDS
8. HALOALKANES AND HALOARENES
9. ALCOHOLS PHENOLS AND ETHERS
10. CHEMISTRY IN EVERY DAY LIFE
11. NITROGEN COMPOUNDS
12. ALDEHYDES, KETONES AND ACIDS

CLASS XII
SYLLABUS FOR CHEMISTRY
Unit 1: Solid State
Classification of solids based on different binding forces – molecular, ionic

covalent and metallic solids. Amorphous solids – crystalline solids – unit cell in
two dimensional and three dimensional lattices – calculation of density in unit
cells – packing of solids – point defects – conductors – semi conductors –
insulators .
Unit 2: Surface chemistry
Adsorption – physisorption and chemisorptions, factors affecting on

adsorptions – catalysis – homogenous and heterogeneous,- electrophoresis –
coagulation – Tyndall effect – Brownian movement - colloids – suspensions.
Unit 3: Electrochemistry
Redox reactions; conductance in electrolytic solutions – variation of

conductivity with concentration – Kohlraush’s law - electrolysis and laws of
electrolysis – relation between Gibbs free energy change and EMF of a cell of a
cell – fuel cells – corrosion.
Unit 4: Chemical Kinetics
Rate of reaction – factors affecting rate of reactions: concentration,

temperature, catalyst – order of reaction – half-life for zero order and first order
reaction – concept of collision theory - activation energy – Arrhenius equation.
Unit 5: p- Block elements
electronic configuration – oxidation states – preparation – properties of

physical and chemical – uses – group-15, group-16, group-17, and group-18
elements.- industrial process of manufacture – structures.

Unit 6: d and f block elements
Electronic configuration – occurrence – characters of transition metals –

properties, ionic radii, color, catalytic properties – preparation of K2Cr2O7 and
KMnO4. Lanthanides and actinides – oxidation states – electronic configuration –
properties – uses – contraction and its consequences.
Unit 7: Coordination compounds
Introduction – ligands – coordination number – colour – IUPAC

nomenclature – magnetic properties and shapes - coordination bonding –
importance of coordination compounds.
Unit 8: Haloalkanes and haloarenes
Haloalkenes ; Nomenclature – nature of C-X bond - physical and

chemical properties – mechanism of substitution reaction – environmental effects
Halo arenes ; Nomenclature – nature of C-X bond - physical and

chemical properties – mechanism of substitution reaction – environmental effects.
Unit: 9 Alcohols phenols and ethers
Alcohols ; Nomenclature – methods of preparation and properties –

identification of primary, secondary, and tertiary alcohols – mechanism of
dehydration – uses of phenols – acidic nature of phenols .
Ethers: Nomenclature – methods of preparation and properties – uses.
Unit 10: Chemistry in everyday life
Chemicals in medicines: antiseptics – antibiotics – antacids – drugs.
Chemicals in food: preservatives – artificial sweetening agents –
antioxidants. Cleansing agents: soaps and detergents, cleansing action.

Unit 11: Nitrogen compounds
Amines; nomenclature – preparation – properties – uses – identification of

primary, secondary and tertiary amines.
Diazonium salts; nomenclature – preparation – physical and chemical

properties –uses – importance in synthetic organic chemistry.
Unit 12: Aldehydes, Ketones and Acids
Nomenclature – preparation – physical and chemical properties –uses –

importance in synthetic organic chemistry- nature of carbonyl compounds - and
its reactivity.
Pattern
Part I
Choose the best Answer 100 X 1 = 100

BHARATHIDHASANAR MATRIC. HR. SEC. SCHOOL, AKM - 3.
STD: XII Marks: 100

SUB: Chemistry Time:1.00Hr.
I. Choose the correct answer:
1. The phenomenon of Tyndall effect is not observed in
a) Emulsion b) colloidal solution c) True solution d) None of
these
2. In the case of physical adsorption, there is desorption when
a) Temperature increases b) Temperature
decreases
c) Pressure increases d) Concentration
increases
3. For chemisorptions, which is wrong
a) Surface compounds are formed c) It requires activation
energy
b) It forms multimolecular layers on adsorbent d) Irreversible

4. The substance on whose surface adsorption takes place is
called
a) Absorbate b) Adsorbent c) Active substance d)
Emulsion
5. A type of adsorption in which chemical bonds serve the
function of
holding gas molecule to the surface is called
a) Physical adsorption b) Absorption c) Chemical adsorption
d) None
6. Coconut charcoal is used for the adsorption of
a) Gases b) Liquids c) Solids d) Colloids
7. The magnitude of gaseous adsorption does not depend upon
a) Temperature b) Nature of the gas
c) Pressure d) Amount of the adsorbent
8. Palladium metal can take up a large volume of hydrogen. It
is an
example of
a) Dissolution b) Absorption c) Adsorption d)
Desorption

9. The multilayer adsorption of a gases on solids take place in
a) Sols b) Chemisorption c) Physisorption d) Catalyst
poison
10. A substance which alters the speed of a chemical reaction
without
itself undergoing any chemical change is called
a) Promoter b) Catalyst c0 Activator d) Catalytic
posion
11. Which one of the following is true about catalyst?
a) Catalyst is used to alter the values of Kp and Kc of an
equilibrium
reaction b) A large quantity of catalyst is needed
c) A catalyst alters the position of equilibrium in a reversible
reaction
d) A catalyst is specific in its action
12. The catalyst used in the lead chamber process is
a) HCI b) V2O5 c) NO d) Pt
13. A catalyst which enhances the speed of the reaction is
called
a) Colloidal palladium b) Colloidal arsenic
c) Positive catalyst d) Catalytic poison
14. The positive catalyst used in the decomposition of H2O2 is
a) Colloidal palladium b) colloidal arsenic
c) Glycerol d) Colloidal platinum
15. The induced catalyst used in the oxidation of sodium
arsenite is
a) Sodium chloride b) sodium sulphate
c) Sodium sulphate d) Sodium hydroxide
16. The iron catalyst used in the Haber’s process is poisoned by
a) Pt b) H2 c) H2S d) As2O3
17. The catalyst used in the hydrogenation of vegetable oils is
a) Hydrogenation of vegetable oils b) Manufacture of
chlorine
c) Synthesis of petrol from coal d) Manufacture of
sulphuric acid
18. The diameter of the colloidal particle ranges from
a) 1Å to 10 Å b) 10 Å to 200 Å c) 10 Å to 2000 Å d) 1000 Å
to2000 Å

19. Haze is an example of
a) Solid dispersed in gas b) Gas dispersed in gas
c) Solid dispersed in liquid d) Gas dispersed in liquid
20. Colloidal solutions in which the dispersed phase has affinity
for the
Dispersion medium are called
a) Iyophobic b) Iyophilic c) Suspension d)
Hydrophobic
21. An example for lyophobic colloid is
a) Gelatin b) Starch c) Protein d) Sulphur in
water
22. Which one of the following colloidal systems does not
exist?
a) Solid in solid b) Gas in liquid c) Liquid in gas d) Gas in
gas
23. The sound waves of high frequency are usually called as
a) Ultrasonic waves b) Huygens waves c) Ultra waves d) Infra
waves
24. Liquid in liquid colloid is called
a) Gel b) Foam c) Sol d) Emulsion
25. The process of removing ions from a sol by diffusion
through a
Permeable membrane is called
a) Ultra filtration b) Peptisation c) Dialysis d) Osmosis
226. What is the radius of body centered cubic (BCC)
a) 0.212 a b) 0.433 a c) 0.523 a d) 0.112
27. Bond length of covalent molecule (A – B) is?

a) 2rA rB b) 2(rA + rB) c) rA + rB d) rA2 rB2
228. What is the density of a cubic crystal from its edge?
a) = Z xM g/cm3 b) = Z xM g/cm3 c) = Z xM kg/cm3 d) =Z xM
g/cm3
a2 x No x 10-30 a3 x No x 10-30 a3 x No x 10-20 a3 x No x

1
29. The number of tetra hedral voids are equal to

a) No. of atoms present in close packing
b) No. of octahedral voids present in close packing
c) 2 x No. of atoms present in close packing
d) No. of voids present in close packing

30. Crystalline solids have property of?
a) Anisotropic b) Isotropic c) Both d) None
31. The angle of cubic or regular structure is in order of?
a) 90 b) 120 c) 160 d) 180
32. The defects which arise due to irregularity in the

arrangement of atoms
is known as?
a) Molecular imperfection b) Crystal imperfection
c) Atomic imperfection d) Cubic imperfection
33. If the foreign atom or ion occupies voids in the structure, the
defect is
called?
a) Intrinsic impurity b) Extrinsic impurity
c) Interstitial impurity d) Outerstitial impurity
34. The compound in which the number of positive and negative
ions are
exactly in the ratios indicated by their chemical formula or
called as
a) Perfect compounds b) Amphoteric compounds

c) Imperfect compounds d) Stoichiometric compounds
35. Which one of the following is an example of schottky
defect?
a) AgCl b) NaCl c) ZnS d) AgBr
36. In which type of crystals, the forces binding the constituent
ions are
electrostatic in nature ?
a) Covalent b) molecular c) metallic d) ionic
37.In which type of crystal, the atoms which do not carry a net
charge ?
a) covalent b) molecular c) metallic d) ionic
38. The temperature at which a substance starts behave like a
super
conductor is called ?
a) transient temperature b) conducting
temperature
c) transition temperature d) specific temperature
39. Conductivity of semiconductor is directly proportional to ?

a) Pressure b) Temperature c) Area
d) mass
40. At absolute zero, semiconductor is ?

a) P-type semiconductor b) N-type
semiconductor
c) Insulator d) super conductor
41. Pure semiconductors are called as ?
a) Intrinsic semiconductor b) extrinsic
semiconductor
c) p-type semiconductor d)n-type semiconductor
42.Doped with pentavalent impurity is known as?
a) n-type semiconductor b) p-type
semiconductor
c) extrinsic semiconductor d) Intrinsic
semiconductor
43. Doped with trivalent impurity is known as?
a) n-type semiconductor b) p-type semiconductor
c) extrinsic semiconductor d) Intrinsic semiconductor

44. Elements added in trace amount to obtain is
a) n-type semiconductor b) p-type semiconductor
c) extrinsic semiconductor d) Intrinsic semiconductor
45. The interatomic distance in crystals is nearly
a) 10-6 cm b) 10-7 cm c) 10-8 d) 10-9 cm
46. Super conducting generators
a) are smaller in size b) are having greater mass
c) consume high energy d) have high resistance
47. Amorphous solids are
a) compressable b) not rigid d) super cooled liquids
c) having definite geometrical forms
48. Glass is an example for
a) crystalline solid b) semi conductor
c) amorphous solid d) ionic crystal
49. Arsenic doped germanium is an example for
a) super conductor b) amorphous solid
c) semi conductor d) imperfect solid
50. High efficiency ore separating machines may be built using

a) semi conducting magnets b) amorphous solids
c) super conducting magnets d) covalent crystals
51. The polar molecule is
a) ice b) 4 c) 6 d) 8
52. Diamond is an example for
a) molecular crystal b) covalent crystal
c) metallic crystal d) ionic crystal
53. The size of the anion in frenkel defect crystal is
a) larger than the cation b) smaller than the
cation
c) equal in size with cation d) both are larger in size
54. The crystal lattice with coordination number four is
a) CsCI b) ZnO c) BN d) NaCl
55. In a molecule A atoms are at the centre of the cube and B
atoms are
the corners of a cube then the molecule may be
a) NaCl b) FeS c) ZnO d) CsCl
56. In FeS crystal two out of three Fe2 ions may be converted
into Fe3+
and the third one will go out from its lattice site such a
defect is
known as
a) Schottky defect b) Frenkel defect
c) Metal excess defect d) Metal deficiency defect
57. First order maximum occurs on a crystal at a glancing angle
of 300
when X-ray of wavelength 2A is used. Then the inter planar
distance
in the crystal is
a) b) 2 c) 0.5 d) 0.25
58. Dipole dipole forces occur in

a) Ice b) Graphite c) Copper d)
NaCl
59. Which of the following about frenkel defect is true?
a) It occurs in NaCl
b) It occurs when the cations and anions are similar in size
c) It is due to the occupation of cations in the interstitial
space
d) It is due to the excess of cations in the crystal

60. In a molecule, A atoms are at the centre of the cube and B
atoms are
at the centre of the faces and C atoms are at the corners then
the
simplest formula is
a) AB3C b) ABC c) A2BC d) ABC2
61. In a BCC lattice, A type of atoms are at the centre of the
cube and B
type of atoms are at the corners of the cube. In each unit cell
two
corner atoms are missing. Then the simplest formula of the
compound is
a) AB2 b)A7B8 c) A2BC d) ABC2
62. The wavelength of X-ray and interatomic distance of crystal
are
same then the glancing angle at which first order reflection
occurs is
a) 0o b) 30o c) 45o d) 60o
63. Reason for acquiring yellow colour, when a NaCl crystal is

heated

in sodium vapour is
a) Metal excess defects b) Metal deficiency defects
c) Line defects d) Frenkel defects
64. Bragg’s equation is
a) n = 2d sin b) n= c) nd = 2 sin d) n =
2d sin 
65. Colloidal solutions are purified by
a) Electrodialysis b) Electro osmosis
c) Electrophoresis d) Electro filration
66. The zig-gag ceaseless movement of colloidal particles in the
dispersion medium is called
a) Tyndall effect b) Brownian movement
c) Osmosis d) Dialysis
67. The combination of the layers of charges around the sol
particle is
Called
a) Graham’s layer b) Brownian doubled layer
c) Tyndall layer d) Helmholtz double layer
68. Cheese in an example of

a) Foam b) Gel c) aerosol d) Solid sol
69. The concept of electrical double layer was proposed by
a) Brown b0 Graham c) Helmholtz d)
Tyndall
70. Metal sols are prepared by
a) Peptisation b) Solvent exchange method
c) Bredig’s arc method d) colloidal mill
71. The organic reducing agent used for the preparation of
silver sol by
reduction method is
a) Acetic acid b) Tannic acid c) Tannin d) Ethyl
formate
72. An example of foam is
a) Cream b) Milk c) Butter d) Froths of
air
73. Colloidal antimony is used in curing
a) Malaria b) Jaundice c) Kalaazar d)
Headache
74. The emulsion used for stomach disorder is
a) Argyrol b) Milk of magnesia c) Colloidal gold d) Colloidal
antimony
75. The product obtained by coagulation of latex is
a) Gelatin b) Paint c) Rubber d) Plastic
76. The dispersion medium in O/W type emulsion is
a) Oil b) Water c) Kerosene d)
Benzene
77. A component used for the stabilization of an emulsion is
called
a) Oxidising agent b) coagulating agent
c) Emulsifying agent d) Electrolyte
78. The emulsifying agent used in O/W emulsion is
a) Protein b) Long chin alcohol
c) Lampblack d) Heavy metal salts of fatty acids
79. Emulsion can be broken into constituent liquids by
a) Oxidation b) Reduction c) Double decomposition d)
Freezing
80. The solid that takes up gas, vapour or solute from a given
solution is
Called

a) adsorption b) adsorbate c) adsorbent d) Solvent
81. Classification of adsorption of gases on solids is based on
a) The nature of adsorbent b) The nature of
adsorbate
c) The nature of forces d) The effect of
pressure
82. The type of forces between solid surface and the adsorbate
molecules are
a) Keesom forces b) London forces
c) Coulombic forces d) Vander waals forces
83.The stability of colloids is due to
a) Large size of the particles b) Scattering power
c) Presence of electrical double layer on colloidal particles
d) Greater salvation of the particles
84. Gold chloride can be converted into colloidal gold using
a) Tannic acid b) dil. HNO3 c) formaldehyde d) Both (a)
and (c)
85. Colloidal solutions are not purified by
a) Dialysis b) Electrodialysis c) Electrophoresis d)
Ultrafiltration

86. The blue colour of water in the sea is due to
a) Adsorption of other colours except blue by water
molecules
b) Scattering of blue light by water molecules
c) Refraction of blue light by impurities in sea
d) Reflection of blue sky by sea water
87. The zig-zig motion of colloidal particles was observed by
a) Tyndall b) Ostwald c) Robert Brown d)
Lewis
88.Which of the following is kinetic property of colloid?
a) Brownian movement b) Tyndall effect
c) Helmhotlz double layer d) Electrophoresis
89. Which of the following statements is wrong in a colloidal

system?
a) Colloidal particles diffuse through a semi permeable
membrane
b) The system can be considered as homogeneous
c) Colloidal particles scatter light
d) Size of the particles is 10 Å – 2000 Å.

90. Which of the following statements is wrong regarding
characteristics of a catalyst?
a) The catalyst remains unchanged in mass and in
chemical composition
b) Only a small quantity of catalyst is required
c) A catalyst can initiate a reaction
d) The catalyst is generally specific
91. Catalytic activity is increased, if a catalyst
a) Is poisoned b) Has more active centres
c) Has less active centres d) Cooled below room
temperature
92. The principal emulsifying agents for W/O emulsion
a) Proteins b) Gums c) Synthetic soaps d) Lamp
black
93. FeCl3 or alum stops bleeding because
a) It repels haemoglobin b) Blood starts flowing in reverse
direction
c) The blood is coagulated forming clot d) None
94. Chemical adsorption

a) Is in multimolecular layer b) Increases with increase of
pressure
c) Is reversible d) Increases with increase of
temperature
95. Synthesis of ammonia by Haber process is an example for
a) Homogeneous catalysis b) Heterogeneous
catalysis
c) auto catalysis d) Induced catalysis
96. The rate of oxidation of sodium sulphite in air into sodium
sulphate can be reduced using
a) MnO2 b) Pt c) Alcohol d) Vanadium
pentoxide
97. Sulphur in water in an example for
a) Lyophilic colloid b) Lyophobic colloid c) Emulsion d)
Gel
98. An emample for gel type of colloid is

a) Paint b) Curd c) Cloud d) Cork

99. Which of the following is the condensation method of
preparation of Colloid?
a) Peptisation b) Mechanical dispersion

c)Exchange of solvent d) Ultrasonic dispersion
100. Artificial rain can be caused using
a) Alum b) Electrified sand c) As2O3sol
d)Fe(OH)3

UNIT: 1 SOLID STATE
1. Diamond is an example of
Solid with hydrogen bonding Covalent solid
Electrovalent solid Glass
Answer & Explanation

Answer: Covalent solid
Explanation: Diamond is a covalent solid in which constituent particles
are atoms.
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2. Schottky defect in crystals is observed when . [CBSE PMT 1998; ]

An ion leaves its normal site
Density of crystal is increased
and occupies an interstitial site
Unequal number of cations and Equal number of cations and
anions are missing from the lattice anions are missing from the lattice

Answer: Equal number of cations and anions are missing from the
lattice
Explanation: Schottky defect is due to missing of equal number of

cations and anions.
3. An example of a body cube is. [AIIMS 1996]

Sodium Zinc
Magnesium Copper

Answer: Sodium
Explanation: Sodium Na is a body cube.
4. Which of the following statements about amorphous solids is

incorrect. [KCET 2004]
They melt over a range of There is no orderly arrangement
temperature of particles
They are anisotropic They are rigid and incompressible

Answer: They are anisotropic
Explanation: Amorphous solids are isotropic, because of these
substances show same properties in all directions
5. A crystalline solid. [Kerala CET (Med]
Changes abruptly from solid to Undergoes deformation of its
liquid when heated geometry easily
Has an irregular 3-dimensional
Has no definite melting point
arrangements

Answer: Changes abruptly from solid to liquid when heated
Explanation: In crystalline solid there is perfect arrangement of the
constituent particles only at 0 K. As the temperature
increases the chance that a lattice site may be unoccupied
by an ion increases. As the number of defects increases
with temperature solid change in liquid
6. Which one of the following metal oxides is antiferromagnetic in

nature. [MP PET 2002]
MnO2 VO2

TiO2 CrO2

Answer: MnO2
Explanation: MnO2 is antiferromagnetic.
7. An AB2 type structure is found in. [AIIMS 2002]

NaCl CaF2
Al2O3 N2O

Answer: CaF2
Explanation: Help us to explain question in discussion
8. Space lattice of CaF2 is. [MP PMT 1993]

Face centred cubic Simple cubic
Body centred cubic Hexagonal closed packing

Answer: Face centred cubic
9. In a solid lattice the cation has left a lattice site and is located at an
interstitial position, the lattice defect is .[AIIMS 1982, 199]
Interstitial defect Frenkel defect
Valency defect Schottky defect

Answer: Frenkel defect
Explanation: When cation shifts from lattice to interstitial site, the
defect is called Frenkel defect.
10. Frenkel defect is caused due to . [MP PET 1994]
An ion missing from the
An extra negative ion occupying
normal lattice site creating a
an interstitial position in the lattice
vacancy
An extra positive ion The shift of a positive ion from
occupying an interstitial position its normal lattice site to an
in the lattice interstitial site

Answer: The shift of a positive ion from its normal lattice site to an
interstitial site
11. A crystalline solid have. [DCE 2001]

Long range order Disordered arrangement
Short range order None of these

Answer: Long range order
Explanation: Crystalline solids have regular arrangement of
constituent particles, sharp melting points and are
anisotropic
12. In a face-centered cubic lattice, a unit cell is shared equally by how

many unit cells. [CBSE PMT 2005]
8 2
4 6

Answer: 6
13. The characteristic features of solids are. [AMU 1994]

Definite shape Definite shape and size
Definite size Definite shape, size and rigidity

Answer: Definite shape, size and rigidity
Explanation: Amorphous solids have short range order but no sharp in
melting point
14. The vacant space in the bcc unit cell is

32% 26%
23% None of these

Answer: 32%
Explanation: In bcc structure 68% of the available volume is occupied
by spheres. Thus vacant space is 32%.
15. Na and Mg crystallize in BCC and FCC type crystals respectively,
then the number of atoms of Na and Mg present in the unit cell of their
respective crystal is
[AIEEE 2002] (b)9 and 14
(a)4 and 2 (c)14 and 9

Answer: (c)14 and 9
16. Under which category iodine crystals are placed among the
following
Ionic crystal Molecular crystal
Metallic crystal Covalent crystal

Answer: Ionic crystal
Explanation: Iodine crystals are molecular crystals, in which
constituent particles are molecules having interparticle
forces are Vander Waal’s forces
17. Glass is
Supercooled liquid Amorphous solid
Crystalline solid Liquid crystal

Answer: Supercooled liquid
Explanation: Amorphous solids neither have ordered arrangement (i.e.
no definite shape) nor have sharp melting point like
crystals, but when heated, they become pliable until they
assume the properties usually related to liquids. It is
therefore they are regarded as super-cooled liquids.
19. The number of atoms present in unit cell of a monoatomic substance

of simple cubic lattice is. [Pb. PMT 2004]
6 2

3 1

Answer: 1
20. How many space lattices are obtainable from the different crystal
systems . [MP PMT 1996; MP]
7 32
14 230

Answer: 14
Explanation: There are 14 Bravais lattices (space lattices).
21. The existence of a substance in more than one solid modifications is
known as or Any compound having more than two crystal structures is
called . [MP PMT 1993; MP]
Polymorphism Allotropy
Isomorphism Enantiomorphism

Answer: Polymorphism
Explanation: The existence of a substance in more than one crystalline
form is known as polymorphism.
22. Which of the following is non-crystalline solid

CsCl CaF2
NaCl Glass

Answer: Glass
Explanation: Glass is an amorphous solid.
23. What is the coordination number of sodium in Na2O? [AIIMS 2003]

6 8
4 2

Answer: 4
24. Rhombic sulphur has the following structure

Open chain Puckered 6-membered ring
Tetrahedral Puckered 8-membered ring

Answer: Puckered 8-membered ring
25. Which one of the following is a good conductor of electricity . [MP

PMT 1994; AF]
Diamond Silicon
Graphite Amorphous carbon

Answer: Graphite
26. The appearance of colour in solid alkali metal halides is generally
due to..?. [Mast]
F-Centres frankel defect
Schottky defect Interstitial defect

Answer:
Explanation: Due f centres the clour changes.
27. In which of the following substances the carbon atom is arranged in

a regular tetrahedral structure. [NCERT 1978]
Diamond Graphite
Benzene Carbon black

Answer: Diamond
28. The crystal system of a compound with unit cell dimensions a =

0.387 , b = 0.387 and c= 0.504 and α=β=900 and γ = 1200. [AIIMS 2004]
Cubic Orthorhombic
Hexagonal Rhombohedral

Answer: Hexagonal

29. The number of close neighbour in a body-centred cubic lattice of
identical sphere is. [MP PET 2001]
8 4
6 2

Answer: 8
Explanation: BCC has a coordination number of 8.
30. Schottky defect generally appears in. [DCE 2004]

NaCl CsCl
KCl All of these

Answer: All of these
Explanation: Schottky defects occurs in highly ionic compounds which
have high co-ordination number ex. NaCl,KCl,CsCl.
31. In which of the following crystals alternate tetrahedral voids are
occupied?. [IIT 2005]
NaCl CaF2
Na2O
ZnS

Answer: ZnS
Explanation: In ZnS structure, sulphide ions occupy all FCC lattice
points while Zn ions are present in alternate tetrahedral
voids

32. The number of tetrahedral voids in the unit cell of a face centered
cubic lattice of similar atoms is . [Kerala PMT 2004]
4 8
6 10

Answer: 8
33. Which solid will have the weakest intermolecular forces

Ice Naphthalene
Phosphorus Sodium fluoride

Answer: Ice
Explanation: Ice has the lowest melting point out of the given solids,
hence it has the weakest intermolecular forces

UNIT-2: SURFACE CHEMISTRY
1. If the absorbate is held on a surface by weak Vander Waal's forces,

the absorption process is called . [Kerala (Med.) 2]
Physical adsorption Heat of adsorption
Chemical adsorption Enthalpy of adsorption

Answer: Physical adsorption
2. Sulphur sol contains. [UPSEAT 2002]

Large agreegates of sulphur
Discrete sulphur atoms
molecules
Discrete sulphur
Water dispersed in solid sulphur
molecules

Answer: Large agreegates of sulphur molecules
3. Adsorption is multilayer in the case of. [MP PET 1999]

Physical adsorption Both
Chemisorption None of both

Answer: Physical adsorption

4. Which one of the following statement is wrong in case of enzyme
catalysis. [MP PMT 1985, 20]
Enzymes work best at an Enzymes are highly specific
optimum temperature for substances
An enzyme raises activation
Enzymes work at an optimum pH
energy

Answer: An enzyme raises activation energy
5. Which of the impurity can be separated from a solution by

electrodialysis
Alcohol Sugar
Alum Parchment paper

Answer: Alum
Explanation: Alum can be separated from a solution by electrodialysis
due to alum give Al3+ ion in solution.
6. According to Langmuir adsorption isotherm, the amount of gas
adsorbed at very high pressures. [MP PMT 1993]
Reaches a constant
Goes on decreasing with pressure
limiting value
Goes on increasing with Increases first and decreases later
pressure with pressure

Answer: Reaches a constant limiting value
Explanation: According to langmuir Adsorption isotherm the amount

of gas adsorbed at very high pressures reaches a constant
limiting volume
7. Which of the following statements about a catalyst is true . [AIIMS

1996]
It does not alter the
It lowers the energy of activation
equilibrium
The catalyst altered during the reaction
All of these
is regenerated

8. A colloidal solution can be purified by . [MP PET 1993; CP]

Filtration Coagulation
Peptization Dialysis

Answer: Dialysis
9. A catalyst is used . [CPMT 1989]

Only for increasing the velocity Only for decreasing the velocity
of the reaction of the reaction
For altering the velocity of the
All (a), (b) and (c) are correct
reaction

Answer: All (a), (b) and (c) are correct
10. The concentration of electrolyte required to coagulate a given

amount of As2S3 sol is minimum in the case of . [KCET 2003]
Magnesium nitrate Potassium sulphate
Potassium nitrate Aluminium nitrate

Answer: Aluminium nitrate
11. The zig-zag motion of colloidal particles is due to
Small size of The conversion of potential energy into
colloidal particles kinetic energy
Large size of Bombardment on colloidal particles by
colloidal particles molecules of dispersion medium

Answer: Bombardment on colloidal particles by molecules of
dispersion medium
12. In Haber's process for the manufacture of ammonia . [AMU 1984;

CPMT ]
Finely divided iron is used as Finely divided nickel is used
catalyst as catalyst
Finely divided molybdenum is used
No catalyst is necessary
as catalyst

Answer: Finely divided iron is used as catalyst
13. Enzymes are. [CPMT 1974, 81]

Micro-organisms Inorganic compounds
Proteins Moulds

Answer: Proteins
14. A liquid aerosol is a colloidal system of. [MP PMT 1987]

A liquid dispersed in a solid A gas dispersed in a liquid
A liquid dispersed in a gas A solid dispersed in a gas

Answer: A liquid dispersed in a gas
Explanation: Liquid aerosol involves liquid dispersed in gas, e.g. cloud,
fog, mist etc
15. Surface water contains . [AFMC 2003]

Salt Organic compounds
Salt and organic compound Suspended impurities

Answer: Suspended impurities

16. In chemical adsorption, how many layers are adsorbed . [MP PMT
1996]
One Multi
Two Zero

Answer: One
Explanation: In chemical adsorption, one layers are adsorbed.
17. Enzymes with two sites are called . [AIIMS 2002]

Apoenzyme Allosteric enzyme
Holoenzyme Conjugate enzyme

Answer: Allosteric enzyme
18. Pick out the statement which is not relevant in the discussion of
colloids . [KCET 2003]
Sodium aluminium silicate is Artificial rain is caused by
used in the softening of hard throwing electrified sand on the clouds
water from an aeroplane
Potash alum is used in
Deltas are formed at a place where
shaving rounds and as
the river pours its water into the sea
antiseptic in medicine

Answer: Sodium aluminium silicate is used in the softening of hard
water

19. The catalyst used in the contact process for manufacturing of

sulphuric acid is. [MP PMT 1987]
Copper Vanadium pentoxide
Iron/aluminium oxide Platinized asbestos

Answer: Vanadium pentoxide
20. A solid acts as an adsorbent because it has

A definite shape Unsaturated valencies
Small pores in it A high lattice energy

Answer: Unsaturated valencies
21. In the reversible reaction a catalyst is the substance which . [CBSE
PMT 1992]
Reduces the time required for
Increases the rate of the
reaching the equilibrium state in the
forward reaction
reaction
Decreases the value of
Decreases the rate of the reverse
enthalpy change in the
reaction
reaction

Answer: Decreases the rate of the reverse reaction

22. When dispersion medium is water, the colloidal system is

called. [MP PMT 1986]
Sol Organosol
Aerosol Aquasol

Answer: Aquasol
23. Lyophilic sols are more stable than lyophobic sols because . [NCERT
1982, 83]
The colloidal
particles have positive The colloidal particles are solvated
charge
There are strong electrostatic repulsions
The colloidal
between the negatively charged colloidal
particles have no charge
particles

Answer: The colloidal particles are solvated
24. In a homogeneous catalysis

The catalyst and the reactants Catalyst and the reactants
should be gases are all solids
The catalyst and the reactants The catalyst and the
should form a single phase reactions are all liquids

Answer: The catalyst and the reactants should form a single phase
25. In the case of auto catalysis. [KCET (Med.) 200]

Solvent catalyses Reactant catalyses
Product catalyses Heat produced in the reaction catalyses

Answer: Product catalyses
26. An emulsion is a colloidal dispersion of. [BCECE 2005]
A liquid in a gas A solid in a liquid
A liquid in a liquid A gas in a solid

Answer: A liquid in a liquid
27. Emulsifier is mixed to

Increase the stability of Change oil into water like
emulsion emulsion
Decrease the stability of
None of these
emulsion

Answer: Increase the stability of emulsion
28. A biological catalyst is essentially . [NCERT 1978; AFM]
An amino acid The nitrogen molecule
A carbohydrate An enzyme

Answer: An enzyme
29. Which of the following substances gives a positively charged

sol. [CPMT 1983, 84; ]
Gold Ferric hydroxide
A metal sulphite An acidic dye

Answer: Ferric hydroxide
30. For the adsorption of a gas on a solid, the plot of log (x/m) versus log
P is linear with slope equal to . [CBSE PMT 1994]
k n
log k 1/n

Answer: 1/n
31. A catalyst is used to . [Pb.CET 2000]

Increase the product Increase or decrease the

products
Increase or decrease the rate of
Decrease the products
reaction

Answer: Increase or decrease the rate of reaction
Explanation: Catalyst is a substance which changes the rate of reaction
without affecting the overall energetics of the reaction.
32. Colloidal solutions of metals like gold, silver and platinum are
generally prepared by using. [DPMT 1984]
Peptization Exchange of solvent
Bredig's arc method Oxidation method

Answer: Bredig's arc method
33. Which of the following kinds of catalysis can be explained by the

adsorption theory ?. [MP PET/PMT 1998]
Homogeneous catalysis Heterogeneous catalysis
Acid base catalysis Enzyme catalysis

Answer: Heterogeneous catalysis
Explanation: Heterogeneous catalysis can be explained by the
adsorption theory

34. Gold number is associated with
Only lyophobic colloids Both lyophobic and lyophilic colloids
Only lyophilic colloids None of these

Answer: Only lyophilic colloids
Explanation: due to protective nature.
35. Which among the following statement is false . [KCET (Med.) 200]
The adsorption may be Increase of pressure increases
monolayered or multilayered amount of adsorption
Particle size of adsorbent will Increase of temperature may
not affect the amount of adsorption decrease the amount of adsorption

Answer: Particle size of adsorbent will not affect the amount of
adsorption
36. Which one of the following characteristics is not correct for physical
adsorption. [AIEEE 2003]
Adsorption on solids is
Adsorption is spontaneous
reversible
Adsorption increases with Both enthalpy and entropy of
increase in temperature adsorption are negative

Answer: Adsorption increases with increase in temperature

37. Colour of colloidal solution is due to. [CPMT 1996]
Different size of colloidal Due to formation of hydrated
particles crystal
Due to formation of complex None of these

Answer: Different size of colloidal particles
38. When a colloidal solution is observed under a microscope we can

see. [CPMT 1985]
Light scattered by colloidal
Shape of colloidal particles
particles
Relative size of the colloidal
Size of colloidal particles
particles

Answer: Light scattered by colloidal particles
39. Which one of the following is a hydrophilic colloidal sol

Barium hydroxide sol Starch solution
Arsenic sulphide sol Silver chloride sol

Answer: Starch solution

40. The viscosity of the solvent depends on . [Kerala (Med.) 2]
Isothermic nature Solute - solvent interaction
Solute - solute interaction Density of the liquid

Answer: Density of the liquid
41. Wood charcoal is used to decolourise sugar because it . [CPMT

2002]
Adsorbs coloured material Reduces coloured material
Absorbs decolorised material None of these

Answer: Adsorbs coloured material
42. In physical adsorption, the gas molecules are held on solid surface
by. [MP PET 1996; AI]
Chemical forces Gravitational forces
Electrostatic forces Vander Waal's forces

Answer: Vander Waal's forces
43. According to the adsorption theory of catalysis, the speed of the

reaction increases because . [CBSE PMT 2003]
Adsorption lowers the activation In the process of adsorption,

energy of the reaction the activation energy of the
molecules becomes large
The concentration of reactant
Adsorption produces heat
molecules at the active centres of the
which increases the speed of the
catalyst becomes high due to
reaction
adsorption

Answer: Adsorption lowers the activation energy of the reaction
44. An emulsifier. [MP PET 1995]

Accelerates the dispersion Stabilizes the emulsion
Homogenises the emulsion Aids the flocculation of emulsion

Answer: Stabilizes the emulsion
45. When excess of electrolyte is added to a colloid it . [CBSE PMT

1989]
Coagulates Gets diluted
Precipitates Does not change

Answer: Coagulates
46. The colloidal solution of mercury in water can be easily obtained by
Mechanical precipitation Repeated washing

Bredig's arc method Ultrasonic dispersion

Answer: Ultrasonic dispersion
47. What will be the effect of increase in temperature on physical

adsorption . [Pb. CET 2000]
It will decrease First increase then decrease
It will increase None of these

Answer: It will decrease
Explanation: Since adsorption is an exothermic process (taking place
with the evolution of heat) therefore in accordance with
Lechatelier's principle, the magnitude of physical
adsorption will decrease with the increase in temperature.
In case of chemisorption the adsorption first increase and
then decreases with increase in temperature.
48. In which of the following Tyndall effect is not observed . [MP

PET/PMT 1998]
Suspensions Sugar solution
Emulsions Gold sol

Answer: Sugar solution
Explanation: Tyndall effect is not observed in sugar solution due to
homogeneous nature.

49. Physical adsorption is inversely proportional to the . [AFMC 2000]
Volume Temperature
Concentration All of these

Answer: Temperature
50. In a reversible reaction, a catalyst will affect the rate of . [KCET

(Med.) 200]
Forward reaction Forward and reverse reaction
Reverse reaction Neither (a) nor (b)

Answer: Forward and reverse reaction
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UNIT-3 : ELECTROCHEMISTRY
1. The factor which is not affecting the conductivity of any solution is
Dilution Temperature
Nature of electrolyte None of these

Answer: None of these
Explanation: Dilution, temperature and nature of electrolyte affect the
conductivity of solution
2. Which of the following compounds will not undergo decomposition on

passing electricity through aqueous solution. [MP PET 2001]
Sugar Sodium Bromide
Sodium Chloride Sodium Acetate

Answer: Sugar
Explanation: Because in it covalent bonding is present.
3. An apparatus used for the measurement of quantity of electricity is

known as a. [BHU 1979]
Calorimeter Coulometer
Cathetometer Colorimeter

Answer: Coulometer
Explanation: Cu voltameter or Cu or Ag coulometer are used to detect
the amount deposited on an electrode during passage of

know charge through solution.
4. Electrolysis involves oxidation and reduction respectively at . [CPMT

1973; MH C]
Anode and cathode At both the electrodes
Cathode and anode None of the above

Answer: Anode and cathode
Explanation: In electrolysis process oxidation occurs at anode and
reduction occurs at cathode
5. Electrolysis of molten anhydrous calcium chloride produces . [AIIMS

2000]
Calcium Sulphur
Phosphorus Sodium

Answer: Calcium
Explanation: Calcium is produces when molten anhydrous calcium
chloride is electrolysed.
6. An electric current is passed through an aqueous solution of the
following. Which one shall decompose.[NCERT 1972]
Urea AgNo₃
Glucose Ethyl alcohol

Answer: AgNo₃
Explanation: AgNo₃ is an electrolyte.

7. On the electrolysis of aqueous solution of sodium sulphate, on cathode

we get. [MP PMT 1992, 20]
Na SO₂
H₂ SO₃

Answer: H₂
Explanation: Water is reduced at the cathode and oxidized at the anode
instead of and
Cathode:2H₂O +2e- -> H₂ + 2OH-
Anode : H₂O ->; 2H ++ (1/2) O₂ + 2e-
8. When 9.65 coulombs of electricity is passed through a solution of

silver nitrate (atomic weight of Ag = 10.87 taking as 108) the amount of
silver deposited is . [EAMCET 1992; KC]
10.8 mg 16.2 mg
5.4 mg 21.2 mg

Answer: 10.8 mg
Explanation: WAg = (EAg * Q)/96500 = (108*9.65)/96500
= 1.08 * 10-2 gm = 10.8 mg
9. Amount of electricity that can deposit 108 gm of silver from AgNO₃

solution is. [AFMC 1993; MP P]
1 ampere 1 faraday
1 coulomb None of the above

Answer: 1 faraday
Explanation: Ag+ + e- -> Ag; Eag= Atomic Mass/1 = 108
Number of faraday = WAg / EAg = 108/108 = 1
10. Which of the following is not a non electrolyte. [J & K 2005]

Acetic acid Ethanol
Glucose Urea

Answer: Acetic acid
Explanation: The substances whose aqueous solutions allow the
passage of electric current and are chemically
decomposed, are termed electrolytes. Electrolytic
substances are classified as strong or weak according to
how readily they dissociate into conducting ions. Acetic
acid is a weak electrolyte. Glucose, ethanol and urea are
non-electrolytes.
11. Which of the following shows electrical conduction . [CBSE PMT
1999; ]
Potassium Diamond
Graphite Sodium

Answer: Graphite
Explanation: Graphite is a good conductor of electricity
12. Which one of the following material conducts electricity . [Kerala

(Med.) 2]
Diamond Barium sulphate

Crystalline sodium chloride Fused potassium chloride

Answer: Fused potassium chloride
Explanation: Generally fussed potassium chloride flow the electric
conductivity.
13. On electrolysing a solution of dilute H₂SO₄ between platinum

electrodes, the gas evolved at the anode is .[NCERT 1977, 79;]
SO₂ O₂
SO₃ H₂

Answer: O₂
Explanation: In between dilute H₂SO₄ and platinum electrode O₂ gas
evolve at anode.
14. In electrolysis of a fused salt, the weight of the deposit on an

electrode will not depend on. [CPMT 1973]
Temperature of the bath Electrochemical equivalent of ions
Current intensity Time for electrolysis

Answer: Temperature of the bath
Explanation: The amount deposited is directly proportional to current
intensity, electrochemical equivalent of ions and the time
for electrolysis and is independent of the temperature.
15. Which of the following properties of pure metal makes it more

useful then the corresponding alloy . [RPET 2000]
It is harder than corresponding
It can be extracted easily
alloy
It conducts heat and electricity
It has high density
easily

Answer: It is harder than corresponding alloy
Explanation: All metals conducts heat and electricity.
16. Pure water does not conduct electricity because it . [Manipal MEE
19]
Has a low boiling point Is neutral
Is almost totally unionized Is readily decomposed

Answer: Is almost totally unionized
Explanation: Because it does not have ions.
17. Which one of the following statements is correct . [MP PET 1997]
The oxidation number of oxygen in KO₄ is
Sn2+ oxidises Fe3+
zero
The specific conductance of an electrolyte Zn/ZnSO₄ is a
solution decreases with increase in dilution reference electrode

Answer: The specific conductance of an electrolyte solution
decreases with increase in dilution
18. In the electrolytic cell, flow of electrons is from . [IIT Screening 2]

Cathode to anode through
Cathode to anode in solution
internal supply
Cathode to anode through Anode to cathode through
external supply internal supply

Answer: Anode to cathode through internal supply
Explanation: In electrolytic cell, cathode acts as source of electrons.
19. The conductivity of strong electrolyte is. [CPMT 2003]

Increase on dilution
Does not change with dilution
slightly
Depend upon density of electrolytes
Decrease on dilution
itself

Answer: Increase on dilution slightly
Explanation: Generally strong electrolyte on dilution shows
conductivity characters
20. One Faraday of electricity when passed through a solution of copper

sulphate deposits. [CPMT 1978]
1 mole of Cu 1 molecule of Cu
1 gm atom of Cu 1 gm equivalent of Cu

Answer: 1 gm equivalent of Cu
21. During the electrolysis of an electrolyte, the number of ions

produced, is directly proportional to the . [AFMC 2002]
Quantity of electricity
Time consumed
passed
Electro chemical equivalent of
Mass of electrons
electrolysis

Answer: Quantity of electricity passed
Explanation: According to Faraday’s law.
22. During the electrolysis of fused NaCl₃ which reaction occurs at

anode. [MP PMT 2002]
Chloride ions are oxidized Sodium ions are oxidised
Chloride ions are reduced Sodium ions are reduced

Answer: Chloride ions are oxidized
Explanation: In fused chloride ions are oxidized at anode and it is
called oxidation.
23. If X is the specific resistance of the solution and M is the molarity of

the solution, the molar conductivity of the solution is given
by. [Kurukshetra CEE]
1000X/M 1000M/X
1000/MX MX/1000

Answer: 1000/MX

24. Which of the following aqueous solution will conduct an electric
current quite well. [MP PMT 1987]
Glycerol Sugar
HCl Pure water

Answer: HCl
Explanation: HCl is an electrolyte.
25. What weight of copper will be deposited by passing 2 Faradays of

electricity through a cupric salt (Atomic weight of Cu = 63.5). [NCERT
1975; CPM]
2.0 gm 63.5 gm
3.175 gm 127.0 gm

Answer: 63.5 gm
Explanation: Cu2+ + 2e- -> Cu
2 Faradays will deposit = 1gatom of Cu = 63.5 g
26. How many Faradays are required to generate one gram atom of
magnesium from MgCl₂. [MADT Bihar 1982]
1 3
2 4

Answer: 2
Explanation: 1 mole of electron = 1 faraday
Mg++ + 2e- -> Mg; 2 moles of elecron = 2 faraday

27. The platinum electrodes were immersed in a solution of cupric
sulphate and electric current passed through the solution. After some
time it was found that colour of copper sulphate disappeared with
evolution of gas at the electrode. The colourless solution contains
. [NCERT 1984]
Platinum sulphate Copper sulphate
Copper hydroxide Sulphuric acid

Answer: Sulphuric acid
Explanation: During electrolysis of CuSO₄. Cu2+ gets discharged at
cathode and OH- at anode. Thus solution becomes acidic
due to excess of H+ and SO₄2- or H₂SO₄
28. When the sample of copper with zinc impurity is to be purified by

electrolysis, the appropriate electrodes are Cathode Anode. [AIEEE
2002]
Pure zinc Pure copper Impure zinc Impure sample
Impure sample Pure copper Pure copper Impure sample

Answer: Pure copper Impure sample
Explanation: Impure metal made anode while pure metal made
cathode.
29. When 1 coulomb of charge is passed through electrolyte solution,

then the mass deposited is equal to
Equivalent weight Electrochemical equivalent
Atomic weight Chemical equivalent

Answer: Electrochemical equivalent
Explanation: W = Zit; Z = E/96500
30. Conductivity of a solution is directly proportional to . [KCET 1984]

Dilution Current density
Number of ions Volume of the solution

Answer: Number of ions
Explanation: Conductivity of a solution is directly proportional to the
number of ions.
31. The atomic weight of Al is 27. When a current of 5 Faradays is
passed through a solution of Al+++ ions, the weight of Al deposited
is. [NCERT 1984]
27 gm 45 gm
36 gm 39 gm

Answer: 45 gm
Explanation: Al3+ + 3e- -> Al
EAl = 27/3 = 9
WAl = (EAl * No of faraday) = 9 * 5 = 45
32. The addition of a polar solvent to a solid electrolyte results

in. [NCERT 1973]
Polarization Ionization
Association Non-liberation of heat

Answer: Ionization
Explanation: When polar solvent added in to solid electrolyte than it is
ionised.
33. The amount of ion discharged during electrolysis is not directly

proportional to. [NCERT 1973]
Resistance Current
Time Chemical equivalent of the ion

Answer: Resistance
Explanation: W = zit , Q = it
34. Electrolysis of aqueous HCl solution produces . [CPMT 1987]

H₂ gas at the anode Cl₂ gas at the cathode
H₂ gas at the cathode Cl₂ and O₂ gases both at the anode

Answer: H₂ gas at the cathode
Explanation: 2H+ + 2e- -> H2(g)
35. Which one of the following metals could not be obtained on

electrolysis of aqueous solution of its salts. [IIT 1990]
Ag Cu
Mg Cr

Answer: Mg
Explanation: The reduction potential of Mg is less than that of

water(E⁰ = -0.83 V) . Hence their ions in the aqueous
solution cannot be reduced instead water will be reduced
2H₂O +2e- -> H₂ + 2OH-
36. Strong electrolytes are those which. [MNR 1983]
Dissolve readily in
Dissociate into ions at high dilution
water
Completely dissociate into ions at all
Conduct electricity
dilutions

Answer: Completely dissociate into ions at all dilutions
37. Which of the following will not conduct electricity in aqueous

solution. [AMU 1982, 83]
Copper sulphate Common salt
Sugar None of these

Answer: Sugar
Explanation: Sugar solution does not form ion; hence does not conduct
electricity in solution.
38. During electrolysis of NaCl solution, part of the reaction is Na+ + e- -

> Na This is termed as. [NCERT 1984]
Oxidation Deposition
Reduction Cathode reaction

Answer: Reduction
Explanation: Na+ + e- -> Na , means oxidation number is decreased so
the reaction is reduction.
39. In aqueous solution, strong electrolytes. [AMU 1983, 84]

Are partially ionized Ionise almost completely
Do not ionise Form polymers

Answer: Ionise almost completely
Explanation: Strong electrolytes are almost completely ionised in polar
solvent.
40. When a solution of an electrolyte is heated the conductance of the

solution. [KCET 1991]
Decreases because of the
Increases because of the
dissociation of the electrolyte is
electrolyte conducts better
suppressed
Decreases because of the Increases because the electrolyte is
increased heat dissociated more

Answer: Increases because the electrolyte is dissociated more
Explanation: Degree of dissociation of weak electrolyte increases on
increasing temperature.
41. A solution of sodium sulphate in water is electrolysed using inert
electrodes. The products at the cathode and anode are respectively. [IIT
1987,96]
H₂ ,O₂ O₂,Na

O₂,H₂ O₂,SO₂

Answer: H₂ ,O₂
Explanation: Cathode: 2H+ +2e -> H²
Anode : 2HO- -> H₂O + (1/2) O₂ + 2e
42. Electrolytic conduction differs from metallic conduction in that in

the case of electrolytic conduction . [KCET 1987; ]
The resistance increases with The flow of current does not
increasing temperature generate heat
The resistance decreases with The resistance is independent of
increasing temperature the length of the conductor

Answer: The resistance decreases with increasing temperature
Explanation: Electrolytic conduction resistance decreases with
increasing temperature
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UNIT-4 CHEMICAL KINETICS
1. Under a given set of experimental conditions, with increase in the
concentration of the reactants the rate of achemical reaction
Decreases Remains unaltered
Increases First decreases and then increases

Answer: Increases
2. The weight of (COOH)2.2H2O needed to prepare 500 cm³ of 0.1 M

solution is:
6.3 g 12.6
3.3 g 3.6

Answer: 6.3 g
3. A molal solution is one that contains one mole of a solute in

1000 gm of the solvent One litre of the solution
One litre of the solvent 22.4 litres of the solution

Answer: 1000 gm of the solvent

4. The normality of 0.3M phosphorus acid (H3PO3 ) is
0.1 0.3
0.9 0.6

Answer: 0.6
5. The rate constant of a reaction is equal to rate of reaction

When concentrations of reactants
At time, t = 0
do not change with time
When concentrations of all When concentrations of all
reactants and products are equal reactants are unity

Answer: When concentrations of all reactants are unity
6. If 5.85 gms of NaCI are dissolved in 90 gms of water, the mole

fraction of NaCI is
0.1 0.3
0.2 0.0196

Answer: 0.0196
7. The weight of AgNO3 (mol. mass= 170) present in 100 ml of its 0.25
M solution is:

4.25 g 17 g
42.5 g 1.7 g

Answer: 4.25 g
8. The rate at which a substance reacts depends on its

Atomic weight Molecular weight
Equivalent weight Active Mass

Answer: Active Mass
9. What will be the molarity of a solution containing 5g of sodium

hydroxide in 250ml solution?
0.5 2.0
1.0 0.1

Answer: 0.5
10. 36 g water and 828 g ethyl alcohol form an ideal solution. The mole
fraction of water in it, is
1.0 0.4
0.7 0.1

Answer: 0.1
11. Increasing the temperature of an aqueous solution will cause
Decrease in molality Decrease in mole fraction
Decrease in molarity Decrease in% W/W

Answer: Decrease in molarity
12. The number of moles of solute per kg of a solvent is called its. [IIT
1985]
Molarity Molar fraction
Normality Molality

Answer: Molality
13. If 5.85 g of NaCI (Molecular weight 58.5) is dissolved in H2o and

solution made upto 0.5 litre. The molarity of this solution will be
0.1 1
0.2 0.4

Answer: 0.2
14. Which is the following modes of expressing concentration is

independent of temperature
Molarity Formality
Molality Normality

Answer: Molality
15. Which of the following is an unimolecular reaction ?

2HI --> H2 + I2 H2CL2 = 2HCL
N2O5 --> N2O4 + 1/2 O2 PCI3 +CL2 -->PCL5

Answer: N2O5 --> N2O4 + 1/2 O2
16. The unit of rate constant for a zero order reaction is
Litre sec -1 Mol lit-1 sec-1
Lit mole-1 sec-1 Molsec-1

Answer: Mol lit-1 sec-1
17. 171 g of cane sugar (C12 H22 o11 ) is dissolved in 1 litre of water.
The molarity of the solution is

2.0M 0.5M
1.0M 0.25M

Answer: 0.5M
18. In a reaction involving the synthesis of ammonia by Haber's process,

N 2 + 3H 2 = 2NH 3 , the rate of reaction was measured as= 2.5 x 10-4
mol L -1 s-1. The rate of change of cone. of
1.25 x 10 -4 mol L-1 S -1 7.50 x 10 -4 mol L-1 S -1
2.50 x 10 -4 mol L-1 S -1 5.0 x 10 -4 mol L-1 S -1

Answer: 7.50 x 10 -4 mol L-1 S -1
19. When 6 gm urea dissolve in 180gm H2 0. The mole fraction of urea

is
10/10.1 10.1/0.1
10.1/10 0.1/10.1

Answer: 0.1/10.1

unit-4: CHEMICAL KINETICS
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UNIT 5: P, BLOCK ELEMENTS
1. The colour of hydrogen is. [IIT 1980]
Black Orange
Yellow None of these

Explanation: It is a colourless gas.
2. MgCl₂.6H₂O when heated gives. [CPMT 1997]

Magnesium oxychloride Magnesium oxide
Magnesium dichloride Magnesium chloride

Answer: Magnesium oxide
Explanation: MgCl₂.6H₂O --> MgO + 5H₂O + 2HCl
3. Lithopone is. [AFMC 1992; BHU ]

BaO + ZnSO₄ BaS + ZnSO₄
ZnO + BaSO₄ ZnS + BaSO₄

Answer: ZnS + BaSO₄
Explanation: ZnS + BaSO₄ is lithopone used as white pigment.

4. Moissan boron is. [DCE 2003]
Amorphous boron of ultra Amorphous boron of low
purity purity
Crystalline boron of ultra purity Crystalline boron of low purity

Answer: Amorphous boron of low purity
Explanation: Moissan boron is amorphous boron, obtained by
reduction of B₂O₃ with Na or Mg. It has 95-98% boron
and is black in colour.
5. Beryllium differs from rest of the members of its family (Group-IIA)

in many ways. The reason for this is its.[MP PMT 1997]
Small size and higher Large size and lower ionisation
electronegativity energy
Small size and lower Large size and largest ionic
electronegativity radius

Answer: Small size and higher electronegativity
Explanation: (i) Small atomic size.
(ii) High electronegativity
(iii) Absence of d orbitals
6. Which of the following statements about H₃BO₃ is not correct. [CBSE
PMT 1994]
It has a layer structure in which
It is a strong tribasic acid planar BO₃ units are joined by
hydrogen bonds
It does not act as proton donor but
It is prepared by acidifying
acts as a Lewis acid by accepting
an aqueous solution of borax
hydroxyl ion
Answer: It is a strong tribasic acid
7. Electrolytic reduction of alumina to aluminium by Hall-Heroult

process is carried out in the presence of. [IIT-JEE (Screen]
Cryolite which forms a melt with lower melting
NaCl
temperature
Cryolite which forms a melt with higher melting
Fluorite
temperature

Answer: Cryolite which forms a melt with lower melting temperature
8. The ionic compound BaSO₄ is insoluble in water due to. [CPMT

1999]
High lattice energy Low hydration energy
Low lattice energy Both (a) and (c)

Answer: Both (a) and (c)
Explanation: It consist of high lattice energy and lowest hydration
energy.
9. Which of the following substance is used as dehydrating agent in

laboratory. [MP PMT 1987]
Calcium chloride Sodium carbonate

Sodium chloride Potassium nitrate

Answer: Calcium chloride
Explanation: CaCl₂ because it is hygroscopic
10. For purification of alumina, the modern processes most useful when
(i) the impurity present is a lot of iron oxides and (ii) the impurity
present is a lot of silica, are
For (i) Hall's process; for (ii) For (i) Serpeck's process; for (ii)
Baeyer's process Baeyer's process
For (i) Hall's process; for (ii) For (i) Baeyer's process; for (ii)
Serpeck's process Serpeck's process

Answer: For (i) Baeyer's process; for (ii) Serpeck's process
Explanation: Iron oxide impurity – Baeyer’s process
Silica impurity – Serpeck’s process
11. Of the metals Be, Mg, Ca and Sr of group II A. In the periodic table
the least ionic chloride would be formed by. [NCERT 1980; CPM]
Be Ca
Mg Sr

Answer: Be
Explanation: Because of small atomic size and high I.E. Be forms
covalent chloride.

12. Electronegativity of beryllium is approximately equal to that of. [MP
PMT 1993]
Aluminium Magnesium
Boron Sodium

Answer: Aluminium
Explanation: Element – Be Al
Electronegativity – 1.5 1.5
13. Which of the following is the correct statement for red lead. [AIIMS
2000]
It is an active form of lead It decomposes into Pb and CO₂
Its molecular formula is Pb₂O₃ It decomposes into PbO and O₂

Answer: It decomposes into PbO and O₂
14. Correct order of increasing activity is

Cu, Mg, Na Mg, Na, Cu
Na, Mg, Cu Cu, Na, Mg

Answer: Cu, Mg, Na

15. As compared to potassium, sodium has. [MP PMT 1985]
Lower electronegativity Greater atomic radius
Higher ionization potential Lower melting point

Answer: Higher ionization potential
Explanation: Element Na K
IE₁ 496 419
IE₂ 4562 3051
Sodium has higher I.E. because of smaller atomic size.
16. A well known reagent which contains copper sulphate, sodium
potassium tarterate and sodium hydroxide is
Fenton's reagent Fehling's solution
Schiff's reagent Nessler's reagent

Answer: Fehling's solution
Explanation: Fehling's solution is a mixture of Alk. tartarate (Rochelle
salt)
17. Point out the incorrect statement regarding Be (Group-IIA). [MP

PMT 1997]
It forms an ionic carbide Its halides are covalent
Its carbonate decomposes on It is easily attacked by
heating water

Answer: It is easily attacked by water
Explanation: Be does not react with water.

18. Which of the following gives propyne on hydrolysis. [AIIMS 2005]
Al₄C₃ B₄C
Mg₂C₃ La₄C₃

Answer: Mg₂C₃
Explanation: Propyne can be prepared by the hydrolysis of magnesium
carbide. Mg₂C₃ + 4H₂O --> CH₃C ≡ CH + 2Mg(OH)₂
19. Which of the following alkaline earth metals shows some properties
similar to aluminium. [BHU 1983]
Be Sr
Ca Ba

Answer: Be
Explanation: Be due to diagonal relationship
20. Identify the statement that is not correct as far as structure of

diborane is concerned. [Pb. PMT 1998]
There are two bridging The hydrogen atoms are not in
hydrogen atoms in diborane the same plane in diborane
Each boron atom forms four All B - H bonds in diborane are
bonds in diborane similar

Answer: All B - H bonds in diborane are similar
Explanation: B₂H₆ has two types of B - H bonds

21. The elements of group IA provide a colour to the flame of Bunson
burner due to. [AIIMS 1987]
Low ionization
Softness
potential
Presence of one electron in the outermost
Low melting point
orbit

Answer: Low ionization potential
22. Which of the following statement about LiCl and is correct. [CEE
2002]
LiCl has higher melting point LiCl would ionize in water more
than NaCl than NaCl
LiCl dissolves in water Fused LiCl would be less
whereas NaCl does not conducting than fused NaCl

Answer: Fused LiCl would be less conducting than fused NaCl
Explanation: Generally ionic character decreasing from LiCl to NaCl.
23. Setting of cement is an. [DPMT 1984]

Exothermic reaction Neither exothermic nor endothermic
Endothermic reaction None of these

Answer: Exothermic reaction
Explanation: When water is added to cement an exothermic reaction
occurs. During this process, the cement reacts with water

to form a gelatinous mass which slowly sets into a hard
mass having three dimensional network structure
involving –Si - O - Si and –Si - O - Al chains.
24. The property of the alkaline earth metals that increases with their
atomic number is. [BHU 2001]
Ionisation energy Solubility of their sulphates
Electronegativity Solubility of their hydroxides

Answer: Solubility of their hydroxides
Explanation: Solubility increasing top to bottom.
25. Lime stone is. [RPMT 1997]

CaO Both (a) and (b)
Ca(OH)₂ None of these

Explanation: Lime stone = CaCO₃ Quick lime = CaO Slaked lime =
Ca(OH)₂
26. A metal M readily forms its sulphate MSO₄ which is water-soluble.
It forms its oxide MO which becomes inert on heating. It forms its
insoluble hydroxide M(OH)₂ which is soluble in NaOH solution. Then M
is. [AIEEE 2002]
Mg Ca
Ba Be

Answer: Be
Explanation: The solubility of hydroxides of alkaline earth metals in
water increases on moving down the group.
27. The number and type of bonds between 2 carbon atoms in

CaC₂Math. [UPSEAT 2001]
One sigma and one pi bond One sigma and half pi bond
One sigma and two pi bond One sigma bond

Answer: One sigma and two pi bond
28. The purification of alumina is called. [CPMT 1997; AIIM]

Bosch process Baeyer's process
Caster process Hoop's process

Answer: Baeyer's process
Explanation: The purification of alumina can be done by Baeyer’s
process.
29. Which of the following statement is correct regarding alkali

metals. [NCERT 1981]
Cation is less stable than the Size of cation and atom is the
atom same
Cation is smaller than the Cation is greater in size than the
atom atom

Answer: Cation is smaller than the atom
Explanation: After removal of an electron the effective nuclear charge
per electron increases hence the size decreases
30. Metalloid among the following is. [DPMT 2001]

Si Pb
C Ge

Answer: Ge
Explanation: C and Si are non-metal and Pb is a metal.
31. Suppose you have to determine the percentage of carbon dioxide in a
sample of a gas available in a container. Which is the best absorbing
material for the carbon dioxide. [Pb. PMT 2001]
Heated copper oxide Cold, solid calcium hydroxide
Cold, solid calcium chloride Heated charcoal

Answer: Cold, solid calcium hydroxide
Explanation: is acidic oxide and thus more effectively absorbed by an
alkali.
32. The type of hybridisation of boron in diborane is. [CPMT 1999]

sp-hybridisation sp³ hybridisation
sp² hybridisation sp³d² hybridisation

Answer: sp³ hybridisation

33. The most dangerous method of preparing hydrogen would be by the

action of HCl and. [JIPMER 2000]
Al Fe
K Zn

Answer: K
Explanation: 2K + 2HCl -> 2KCl + H₂
34. Which one of Al and Ga have smaller size?. [Kanwarnir]

Ga Both have same size
Al Can't predict

Answer: Ga
Explanation: Ga has smaller size than Al because 10 additional
elements are present on left side of Ga than Al,as atomic
size decrease in period when we move from left to right so
the size of ga decreases while Al have only 2 elements(Na
and Mg) on its left side.
35. A substance X is a compound of an element of group IA the

substance X gives a violet colour in flame test, X is. [MP PMT 1980, 85]
LiCl KCl
NaCl None

Answer: KCl
Explanation: Potassium react with halogens (chlorine) to gives violet
colour flame.
36. On dissolving moderate amount of sodium metal in liquid NH₅ at

low temperature, which one of the following does not occur. [AIIMS
2003]
Blue coloured solution is Liquid NH₃ becomes good conductor
obtained of electricity
Na+ ions are formed in the Liquid ammonia remains
solution diamagnetic

Answer: Liquid ammonia remains diamagnetic
Explanation: Due to free electron liquid ammonia becomes
paramagnetic.
37. Which of the following does not illustrate the anomalous properties
of lithium. [MP PET 1993]
The melting point and
Li forms a nitride Li₃N unlike
boiling point of Li are
group I metals
comparatively high
The ion of Li and its compounds are
Li is much softer than the
more heavily hydrated than those of
other group I metals
the rest of the group

Answer: Li is much softer than the other group I metals
Explanation: Li is much softer than the other group I metals. Actually
is harder then other alkali metals

38. In certain matters lithium differs from other alkali metals, the main
reason for this is. [MP PET/PMT 1998]
Small size of Li atom and Li+ ion Greater hardness of
Extremely high electropositivity of Hydration of Li+ ion

Answer: Small size of Li atom and Li+ ion
Explanation: Small atomic and ionic size leads to high electronegativity
and hydration energy. Small atomic and ionic size leads
to high electronegativity and hydration energy
39. The strongest reducing agent of the alkali metal is. [CPMT 1999;
Pb.C]
Li K
Na Cs

Answer: Li
Explanation: Li is a more reducing agent compare to other element.
40. Which one of the following is the strongest base. [Pb. PMT 1998]
Be(OH)₂ Al(OH)₂
Mg(OH)₂ Si(OH)₂

Answer: Mg(OH)₂
Explanation: Mg(OH)₂ Mg is most electropositive element amongst the
given elements.
41. Which of the following decreases on going gradually from Be to Ba

(in periodic table)
Basic character of
Solubility of hydroxides in water
hydroxides
Solubility of sulphates in Strength of elements as reducing
water agent

Answer: Solubility of sulphates in water
Explanation: Because hydration energy decreases down the group.
42. The hardest substance amongst the following is. [Kerala PMT 2004]
Be₂C Titanium
Graphite B₄C

Answer: B₄C
Explanation: B₄C is the hardest substance along with diamond.
43. Sodium thiosulphate is used in photography. [UPSEAT 1999]

To convert metallic
To remove reduced silver
silver into silver salt
AgBr grain is reduced To remove undecomposed AgBr in the
to non-metallic silver form of Na₃[Ag(S₂O₃)₂] (a complex salt)

Answer: To convert metallic silver into silver salt
Explanation: Sodium thiosulphate is a reducing agent which convert
metalic silver into silver salt.

44. PbO₂ is. [JIPMER 2000]
Basic Neutral
Acidic Amphoteric

Answer: Amphoteric
Explanation: It react with alkali as well as acid
45. As compared to lithium, sodium reacts quickly with water

because. [NCERT 1978, 80]
Its molecular weight is less It is stronger electropositive
It is stronger electronegative It is a metal

Answer: It is stronger electropositive
Explanation: On moving down the group electropositive character
increases.
46. When orthoboric acid H₃BO₃ is heated, the residue left is. [Pb. PMT
2002]
Metaboric acid Boric anhydride
Boron Borax

Answer: Boric anhydride
Explanation: 2 H₃BO₃ --> B₂O₃ + 3H₂O
47. When washing soda is heated. [AFMC 2005]

CO is released CO₂ is released

CO + CO₂ is released Water vapour is released

Answer: Water vapour is released
Explanation: Na₂CO₃.10H₂O -> Na₂CO₃.H₂O -> Na₂CO₃ + H₂O
48. The most electropositive amongst the alkaline earth metals is. [MP
PMT 1993]
Beryllium Calcium
Magnesium Barium

Answer: Barium
Explanation: As we go down the group electropositive character
increases because I.E. decreases
49. Which of the following salts is insoluble in water at room

temperature but soluble in boiling water. [MP PMT 1993]
CaCl₂ SrCl₂
BaCl₂ PbCl₂

Answer: PbCl₂
Explanation: Due to the inert pair effect.
50. Valency electrons in alkali metals are. [CPMT 1972]

1 4
7 2

Answer: 1
Explanation: Alkali metals valence shell configuration = ns¹
unit-5: p block elements

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UNIT 6: D-BLOCK ELEMENTS
1. The highest oxidation state of will be

2 4
3 6

Answer: 6
Explanation: There are 6 electrons in its ultimate and penultimate shell.
2. Which forms interstitial compounds. [BHU 1982; MP PM]

Fe Ni
Co All of these

Explanation: The transition metals form a large number of interstitial compounds in
which small atoms like hydrogen, carbon, boron and nitrogen occupy
interstitial sites in their lattices.
3. In solid CuSO₄.5H₂O copper is co-ordinated to. [MP PET 1985, 86]

Five water molecules One sulphate anion
Four water molecules One water molecule

Answer: Four water molecules
Explanation: Four water molecules CuSO₄.5H₂O is a crystalline salt. Four H₂O

molecules attach to copper forming a square planar symmetry and two
oxygen atoms from SO₄2- ion complete the distorted octahedron. The fi
water molecule is attached through hydrogen bonding between one of t
co-ordinated water molecule and one of the sulphate ion.
4. Which of the following has the maximum number of unpaired d-electrons. [BIT 19
CBSE ]
Zn Ni3+
Fe2+ Cu+

Answer: Ni3+
Explanation: Due to unpaired d-electrons.
5. Which of the following statement is not correct. [NCERT 1983]

Metals contribute their valency electrons to the Metals tend to adopt closely
common sea of electrons packed structures
Metals have high co-ordination number Metals have high lattice ene

Answer: Metals contribute their valency electrons to the common sea of electrons
Explanation: Metals contribute their valency electrons to the common sea of electron
6. Which of the following has second ionisation potential less than expected
Cr V
Zn Mo

Answer: Zn
Explanation: Zn due to increased shielding effect the attraction of electrons towards
nucleus decreases
7. Which of the following is not true for transition metals. [MP PET 1993]
They are malleable and They crystallize with body centred cubic and
ductile hexagonal close-packed structures only
They have high boiling and They show variable oxidation states although not
melting points always

Answer: They crystallize with body centred cubic and hexagonal close-packed
structures only
Explanation: They crystallize with body centered cubic and hexagonal close packed
structure.
8. Which one of the following is highest melting halide. [DCE 2003]

AgCl AgF
AgBr Agl

Answer: AgF
Explanation: According to Fajan, small anion is polarised to lesser extent than the la
anion. Hence will be the most ionic and has high melting point.
9. Vanadium (III) oxide is a strong. [Kerala PMT 2004]

Drying agent Reducing agent
Oxidising agent Wetting agent

Answer: Reducing agent

Explanation: Vanadium (III) oxide is a strong reducing agent vecause vanadium is
electropositive metal and have high reduction potential. It has low heat
sublimation, low ionisation potential.
10. Transition metals are often paramagnetic owing to. [Bihar CEE 1992]
Their high M.P. and The presence of one or more unpaired electrons
B.P. in the system
The presence of vacant Their being less electropositive than the elements
orbitals of groups I-A and II-A

Answer: The presence of one or more unpaired electrons in the system
Explanation: The presence of one or more unpaired electrons in the system.
11. Variable valency is shown by. [UPSEAT 2001]
Typical elements Transition elements
Normal elements None of these

Answer: Transition elements
Explanation: Transition metals show variable valency.
12. One of the important use of ferrous sulphate is in the

Manufacture of blue black ink Preparation of hydrogen sulphide
Preparation of anhydrous ferric
Manufacture of chalks chloride

Answer: Manufacture of blue black ink
Explanation: Manufacture of blue black ink.

13. The metal ion which does not form coloured compound is.
Chromium Zinc
Manganese Iron

Answer: Zinc
Explanation: Zinc does not have any unpaired electron pair so it forms only colourle
compound.
14. Platinum, palladium, iridium etc., are called noble metals because. [NCERT 1975
CPM]
They are shining lustrous and pleasi
Alfred Noble discovered them
look at
They are inert towards many common
They are found in active state
reagents

Answer: They are inert towards many common reagents
Explanation: They are inert towards many common reagents.
15. Mercury is the only metal which is liquid at 0⁰ C This is due to its. [CBSE PMT 1
Very high ionisation energy and weak metallic bond High atomic weight
Low ionisation potential High vapour pressu

Answer: Very high ionisation energy and weak metallic bond
Explanation: Very high ionisation energy and weak metallic bond.

16. In first transition series, the melting point of Mn is low because. [MP PMT/PET 1
Due to d¹⁰ configuration, metallic bonds Due to d⁵ configuration, metallic bo
are strong are weak
Due to d⁷ configuration, metallic bonds
None of these
are weak

Answer: Due to d⁵ configuration, metallic bonds are weak
Explanation: Due to d⁵ configuration, metallic bonds are weak. d⁵ orbital is half fille
a result 3d electrons are more tightly held by the nucleus and this reduc
the de-localization of electrons resulting in weaker metallic bonding.
17. The transitional metal which form green compound in +3 oxidation state and yell
orange compound in +6 oxidation state is
Fe Cr
Ni Co

Answer: Cr
Explanation: Cr+6K₂Cr₂O₇ - yellow
Cr+3Cr₂(SO₄)₃ - green
18. Which one of the following is reduced by hydrogen peroxide in acid

medium. [EAMCET 1997]
Potassium permanganate Ferrous sulphate
Potassium iodide Potassium ferrocyanide

Answer: Potassium permanganate
Explanation: H₂O₂ reduces acidified KMnO₄ solution. As a result. The pink colour o

KMnO₄ is changed.
19. All those elements belong to f - block whose atomic numbers are
58 to 71 Both (a) and (b)
90 to 103 None

Answer: Both (a) and (b)
Explanation: 58 to 71 and 90 to 103 (Lanthanides & actinides).
20. In the first transition series, the highest B.P. and M.P. is of
Cr Ni
V Fe

Answer: Cr
Explanation: Cr has highest M.P. and B.P. due to maximum no. of unpaired electron
21. Copper sulphate is not used
In electrotyping In detecting water
In dyeing and calicoprinting As fertilizer

Answer: As fertilizer
Explanation: As fertilizer because it is not required by plants.
22. Which forms coloured salts. [CPMT 1984; MP P]

Metals p - block elements

Non-metals Transitional elements

Answer: Transitional elements
Explanation: Transitional elements form coloured salts due to the presence of unpair
electrons in d-orbital.
23. Lanthanoids are. [CBSE PMT 2004]

14 elements in the sixth period (atomic 14 elements in the sixth period (atom
no. = 58 to 71) that are filling 4f sublevel no. = 90 to 103) that are filling 4f sublev
14 elements in the seventh period
14 elements in the seventh period (at
(atomic no. = 58 to 71) that are filling 4f
no. = 90 to 103) that are filling 4f sublev
sublevel

Answer: 14 elements in the sixth period (atomic no. = 58 to 71) that are filling 4f
sublevel
Explanation: As sixth period can accommodate only 18 element in the table, 14 mem
of HF series (atomic number 58 ot 71) are separately accommodated in
horizontal row below the periodic table. These are called as lanthanides
24. Which is not true for transition elements

They are all metals They form coloured ions
They show variable valency They do not form co-ordinate compounds

Answer: They do not form co-ordinate compounds
Explanation: Transition elements form co-ordinate compounds because of
(i) High nuclear charge
(ii) Small size
(iii) Vacant d-orbital

25. Acidified potassium dichromate is treated with hydrogen sulphide. In the reaction
oxidation number of chromium. [MP PET 1996]
Increases from + 3 to + 6 Remains unchanged
Decreases from +6 to +3 Decreases from +6 to +2

Answer: Decreases from +6 to +3
26. Paramagnetism is exhibited by molecules. [NCERT 1981; Man]

Not attracted in a magnetic field Carrying a positive charge
Containing only paired electrons Carrying unpaired electrons

Answer: Carrying unpaired electrons
Explanation: Carrying unpaired electrons.
27. The tendency towards complex formation is maximum in

s - block elements d - block elements
p - block elements f - block elements

Answer: d - block elements
Explanation: d-block elements; because
(i) Small atomic size
(ii) High nuclear charge
(iii) Presence of vacant d-orbitals

28. The main reason for not using a mercury electrolytic cell in NaOH manufacture i
that. [CPMT 1988]
Hg is toxic Hg has a high vapour pressure
Hg is a liquid Hg is a good conductor of electricity

Answer: Hg is a good conductor of electricity
Explanation: Hg is a good conductor of electricity.
29. The property exhibited by only transitional elements

To form paramagnetic compounds To form complex compounds
To form coloured compounds To show inert tendency

Answer: To form complex compounds
Explanation: To form complex compounds.
30. Which occurs in nature in free state

Fe Ni
Co Pt

Answer: Pt
Explanation: Because Pt is a noble metal.
31. Which is most reactive metal. [BHU 1979]

Fe Ni
Pt Co

Answer: Fe
Explanation: because it easily gets oxidised in moist air.
Fe ---> Fe₂O₃.xH₂O
32. Which of the following is the weakest reducing agent

Zn H₂
Cu Li

Answer: Cu
Explanation: Cu as it comes after H in electrochemical series. It has positive standard
reduction potential thus does not provide electrons for reduction.
33. Zinc and mercury do not show variable valency like d-block elements because. [R
2000; MP P]
They are soft They have only two electrons in the outermost sub
Their d- shells are complete Their d-shells are incomplete

Answer: Their d- shells are complete
Explanation: ₃₀Zn and ₈₀Hg have their d orbitals completely filled so they do not sho
any variable valency.
34. In acidic medium one mole of MnO₄ - accepts how many moles of electrons in a re
process ?. [MP PET/PMT 1998]
1 5
3 6

Answer: 5
Explanation: Oxidation state of Mn changes from +7 to +2 in acidic medium i.e. one
of it accepts 5 mole of electrons.
35. Least reactive metal is

Fe Ni
Os Pt

Answer: Pt
Explanation: Pt, because it is a noble metal and does not react with air, water or acid
room temperature.
36. Which ion has maximum magnetic moment. [AIIMS 1983; MP ]
V3+ Fe3+
Mn3+ Cu2+

Answer: Fe3+
37. Which of the following is not an actinide. [DPMT 2005]

Curium Uranium
Californium Terbium

Answer: Terbium
Explanation: Terbium is lanthanide as it belongs to 4F series having

configuration[Xe]4s⁹6s² . However the remaining members belong to 5F
series(actinides).
38. In photography sodium thiosulphate is used as. [DPMT 2005]

Complexing agent Reducing agent
Oxidising agent None of these

Answer: Complexing agent
Explanation: In order to make the image permanent, it is necessary to remove the
unreduced silver bromide from the surface of the developed film. This
operation is called fixing of image. Fixing is done by dipping the develo
film or plate in sodium thiosulphate (hypo) solution. the hypo solution
dissolves the unreduced silver bromide by forming a complex. Thus sod
thiosulphate acts as a complexing agent.
39. Mercury is transported in metal containers made of. [DPMT 1982; CPMT]
Silver Iron
Lead Aluminium

Answer: Iron
Explanation: Iron because mercury does not form amalgam with iron.
40. Which statement is true about the transitional elements. [MP PMT 1995]
They are highly reactive They have low M.P.
They show variable oxidation states They are highly electropositive

Answer: They show variable oxidation states
Explanation: They show variable oxidation state due to participation of ns and (n -
1)d electrons.
41. Which one of the following oxides is ionic. [IIT-JEE 1995]
MnO CrO₃
Mn₂O₇ P₂O₅

Answer: MnO
Explanation: MnO is ionic due to lower oxidation state.
42. Transitional elements exhibit variable valencies because they release electrons fro
following orbits.[MP PET/PMT 1988]
ns orbit (n - 1)d and ns orbits
ns and np orbits (n - 1)d orbit

Answer: (n - 1)d and ns orbits
43. In which of the following ionic radii of chromium would be smallest. [MP PET 19
K₂CrO₄ CrCl₃
CrO₂ CrF₂

Answer: K₂CrO₄
Explanation: Oxidation number of Cr in options a, b, c and d are +6, + 4, + 3, + 3
respectively. In given options (a) has high oxidation number therefore i

radii will be low. Atomic radii decreases with increase in oxidation no.
44. Stainless steel does not rust because. [KCET 2004]

Chromium and nickel combine with iron Nickel present in it, does not rust
Chromium forms an oxide layer and Iron forms a hard chemical compoun
protects iron from rusting with chromium present in it.

Answer: Chromium forms an oxide layer and protects iron from rusting
Explanation: Stainless steel does not rust because chromium forms an oxide layer an
protect iron from rusting.
45. The equivalent weight of potassium permanganate for acid solution is. [MP PET 1
158 52.16
31.6 79

Answer: 31.6
Explanation: Equivalent weight of KMnO₄ in acidic medium is M/5
Equivalent weight = 158/5 = 31.6
46. Lanthanides and actinides resemble in. [AFMC 2004]
Electronic configuration Ionization energy
Oxidation state Formation of complexes

Answer: Oxidation state
Explanation: The oxidation state in both (lanthanide and actinide) is +3. The propert
actinide are very similar to those of lanthanide when both are in +3 sta
47. Which one of the following is an example of non-typical transition elements. [MP
2002]
Li, K, Na Zn, Cd, Hg
Be, Al, Pb Ba, Ca, Sr

Answer: Zn, Cd, Hg
Explanation: Zn, Cd and Hg are non typical transition elements because they have
complete d-orbitals.
48. Stainless steel is an alloy of. [AFMC 2004]

Copper Manganese
Nickel and chromium Zinc

Answer: Nickel and chromium
Explanation: Stainless steel contains 11.5% Cr and 2.0% Ni with Fe.
49. The hardness of Cr is due to ...... and metallic lusture is due to .......
Covalent bond, metallic bond Metallic bond, covalent bond
Covalent bond, hydrogen bond Metallic bond, hydrogen bond

Answer: Covalent bond, metallic bond
Explanation: Covalent bond is constituted by electrons of d-orbitals and lusture is du
free electrons of s-orbital in metallic bond.
50. Amalgams are

Highly coloured alloys Alloys which contain mercury as one of the contents
Always solid Alloys which have great resistance to abrasion

Answer: Alloys which contain mercury as one of the contents
Explanation: Amalgams are alloys which contain mercury as one of the contents.
unit-6: D AND F BLOCK ELEMENTS

www.youtube.com/watch?v=YdWotbnqeLA
www.youtube.com/watch?v=f3taDqaxOSI
www.youtube.com/watch?v=zRpvmZaKNMY
www.youtube.com/watch?v=WB_UF1pgHPE
www.youtube.com/watch?v=TAtCyTSRZvI
www.youtube.com/watch?v=NO8nuR-4uaY
www.youtube.com/watch?v=NOkyz-t6jMQ

UNIT 7: COORDINATION COMPOUNDS
 Answer following with IUPAC system of nomenclature:
a) (CH3)3CBr
b) CH3CH2CH2F
c) CH2 = CHCH2Br

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 Write the structures for the following compounds:
a) 1-Bromo-4-sec. butyl-2-methylbenzene.
b) Bromoform
c) 1-Chlorobutane
d) 1-Chloro-4-ethylcyclohexane
e) 1-Bromo-4-sec-butyl-2-methylbenzene
f) 1−chloro−1− (4−iodophenyl)−3, 3−dimethylbut−1−ene
g) 1−Bromo−1−chloro−1, 2, 2−trifluoroethane
 Nature of bond when halogen atom is attached to the main atom.
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 Write the isomers for C5H11Cl.
 Identify all the possible monochloro structural isomers expected to
be formed on free radical monochlorination of (CH3)2CHCH2CH3.
 Method of preparation of haloalkanes:
a) By electrophilic substitution
b) Sandmeyer’s reaction
c) From Alkenes
 Show the finkelstein’s reaction?

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 Write structures of different dihalogen derivatives of Butane.
 Draw the structure for CH3CH2Br + NaI →
 Explain the properties of Haloalkanes:
a) Density
b) Melting Point
c) Solubility
d) Boiling Point
 Haloalkanes react with KCN to form alkyl cyanides as main
product while AgCN forms isocyanides as the chief product. Explain.
 What are polar protic solvents? Give examples.
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 Differentiate between inversion and racemisation?
 What do you mean by chiral and achiral atom? Differentiate with
an example.
 Explain enantiomer and retention with an example?
 How is elimination different from substitution? Show with a
example?
 Explain why NO2 group do not show effect at meta position?
 Explain:
a) Fridel-Craft Reaction
b) Sulphonation

c) Wrutz-Fittig Reaction
d) Nitration
 Although chlorine is an electron withdrawing group, yet it is ortho-
, para- directing in electrophilic aromatic substitution reactions. Why?
 Give the uses of:
a) Chloroform
b) Carbon tetrachloride
c) DDT
 What are ambident nucleophile? Explain with an example.
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 Grignard reagents should be prepared under anhydrous
conditions?
 Write the structure for following:
 The treatment of alkyl chlorides with aqueous KOH leads to the

formation of alcohols but in the presence of alcoholic KOH, alkenes
are major products. Explain.

UNIT - 8: HALOALKANES AND HALOARENES
1) When a gas is turned into a liquid, the process is called
A. condensation
B. evaporation
C. deposition
D. sublimation
View Answer / Explanation

Answer / Explanation:
Answer: A.
2) Which of the following parts of the sun is easily visible only during a
total solar eclipse?
A. core
B. photosphere
C. sunspots
D. corona

Answer: D.
3) Earth's seasons are caused by which of the following?

A. The tilt of the earth's rotation relative to the ecliptic as earth
revolves around the sun

B. The varying amount of sunspot activity
C. The earth's orbit around the sun as an exlipse rather than a

circle
D. The rotation of during a 24-hour day

Answer: A.
4) Which of the following is most likely to cause a rise in the average

temperature of earth's atmosphere in future?
A. Atomic warfare
B. CO2 from fossil fuels
C. Dust clouds from valcanoes
D. Depletion of earth's ozone layer

Answer / Explanation :
Answer : B.
5) The accumulation of stress along the boundaries of lithospheric plates

results in which of the following?
A. Earthquakes
B. Magnetic reversals

C. Hurricanses
D. Increased deposition of deep-sea sediments

Answer : A.
6) Which of the following elements is a metal

A. S
B. Se
C. I
D. Ga

Answer : D.
7) Which of the following items will be attracted to the north pole of a

permanent magnet by a magnet force?
A. The north pole of another permanent magnet
B. A piece of iron that is not a permanent magnet
C. A positively charged glass rod
D. A negatively charged rubber rod

Answer : B.
8) Pollination by birds is called

A. autogamy
B. ornithophily
C. entomophily
D. anemophily

Answer : B.
9) The fastest-running terrestrial animal is

A. cheetah
B. lion
C. man
D. jaguar

Answer : A.

10) As you go down into a well, your weight
A. increases slightly
B. decreases slightly
C. remains exactly the same
D. None of the above

Answer : B.
1) Which prefix is often used with scientific terms to indicate that
something is the same, equal or constant?
A. iso
B. mega
C. meta
D. quasi

Answer : A.
2) The study of phenomena at very low temperatures is called

A. heat transfer
B. morphology

C. crystallography
D. cryogenics

Answer : D.
3) The branch of medical science which is concerned with the study of

disease as it affects a community of people is called
A. epidemiology
B. oncology
C. paleontogy
D. pathology

Answer : A.
4) Superconductivity is a material property associated with

A. cooling a substance without a phase change
B. frictionless liquid flow
C. a loss of thermal resistance
D. a loss of electrical resistance

Answer : D.
5) If a metal can be drawn into wires relatively easily it is called

A. malleable
B. ductile
C. extractive
D. tactile

Answer : B.
6) Cystitis is the infection of which of the following?

A. liver
B. urinary bladder
C. pancreas
D. lung

Answer : B.

7) Which of the following is primarily composed of calcium
carbonate?
A. Fish scales
B. Shark teeth
C. Oyster Shells
D. Whale bones

Answer : C.
8) Water flows through a horizontal pipe at a constant volumetric rate.

At a location where the cross sectional area decreases, the velocity of the
fluid
A. increases
B. decreases
C. stays the same
D. none of the above

Answer : A.
9) Yeast, used in making bread is a

A. fungus
B. plant
C. bacteria
D. seed

Answer : A.
10) A cyclone is an engineering device that is used to

A. transport materials
B. segregate particles
C. control switching devices
D. model fractals

Answer : B.
1) Widespread resistance of malarial parasite to drugs like chloroquine
has prompted attempts to develop a malarial vaccine to combat malaria.
Why is it difficult to develop an effective malaria vaccine?
A. Malaria is caused by several species of Plasmodium.
B. Man does not develop immunity to malaria during natural

infection.
C. Vaccines can be developed only against bacteria.

D. Man is only an intermediate host and not the definitive host.

Answer : A.
2) With reference to the soil conservation, consider the following

practices:
1. Crop relation
2. Sand fences
3. Terracing
4. Wind breaks
Which of the above are considered appropriate methods for soil
conservation in India?
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 2 and 4 only
C. 1, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer : C.
3) Biodiversity forms the basis for human existence in the following

ways:
1. Soil formation
2. Prevention of soil erosion
3. Recycling of waste4. Pollination of crops

A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 2, 3 and 4 only
C. 1 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer : D.
4) A gas used as a disinfectant in drinking water is

A. Hydrogen
B. Oxygen
C. Fluorine
D. Chlorine

Answer : D.
5) A genetically engineered form of brinjal, known as the Bt-brinjal, has

been developed. The objective of this is
A. To make it pest-resistant
B. To improve its taste and nutritive qualities

C. To make it drought-resistant
D. To make its shelf-life longer

Answer : A.
6) A married couple adopted a male child. A few years later, twin boys
were born to them. The blood group of the couple is AB positive and O
negative. The blood group of the three sons is A positive, B positive, and
O positive. The blood group of the adopted son is
A. O positive
B. A positive
C. B positive
D. Cannot be determined on the basis of the given data

Answer : A.
7) A new optical disc format known as the Blu-ray Disc (BD) is becoming
popular. In what way is it different from the traditional DVD?
1. DVD supports standard Definition video while BD supports High
definition Video.
2. Compared to a DVD, the BD format has several times more storage
capacity.

3. Thickness of BD is 2.4 mm while that of DVD is 1.2 mm.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer : B.
8) A sandy and saline area is the natural habitat of an Indian animal

species. The animal has no predators in that area but its existence is
threatened due to the destruction of its habitat. Which one of the
following could be that animal?
A. Indian wild buffalo
B. Indian wild ass
C. Indian wild boar
D. Indian gazelle

Answer : B.
9) Aspartame is an artificial sweetener sold in the market. It consists of

amino acids and provides calories like other amino acids. Yet, it is used
as a low-calorie sweetening agent in food items. What is the basis of this
use?
A. Aspartame is as sweet as table sugar, but unlike table sugar, it is
not readily oxidized in human body due to lack of requisite enzymes
B. When aspartame is used in food processing, the sweet taste

remains, but it becomes resistant to oxidation
C. Aspartame is as sweet as sugar, but after ingestion into the body,

it is converted into metabolites that yield no calories
D. Aspartame is several times sweeter than table sugar, hence food

items made with small quantities of aspartame yield fewer calories on
oxidation

Answer : D.
10) At present, scientists can determine the arrangement or relative

positions of genes of DNA sequences on a chromosome. How does this
knowledge benefit us?
1. It is possible to know the pedigree of livestock.
2. It is possible to understand the causes of all human diseases.
3. It is possible to develop disease-resistant animal breeds.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer : D.
1) Vacuoles are bound by a definite membrane in plant cells called
A. Plasma membrane
B. Tonoplast
C. Cell wall

Answer : B.
2) Titan is the largest natural satellite of planet

A. Mercury
B. Venus
C. Saturn
D. Neptune

Answer : C.

3) Thermometer is related to degree in the same way as clock is related
to
A. Wall
B. Tower
C. Hour
D. Cock

Answer : C.
4) There are rings around which of the following?

A. Uranus
B. Mars
C. Jupiter
D. Saturn

Answer : D.
5) The theory which advocates that living beings can arise only from
other living beings is termed
A. Bio-genesis

B. Abiogenesis
C. Catastrophism
D. Cosmozoic

Answer : A.
6) There are how many strains of H & N proteins that cumulatively

make up the HN breed of flu virus (eg. being the presently famous H1N1
virus)
A. 16 & 9 respectively
B. 9 & 16 respectively
C. 16 & 16 respectively
D. 9 & 9 respectively

Answer : A.
7) The wonder pigment chlorophyll is present in

A. Mitochondria
B. Centrosomes

C. Quantosomes
D. Lysosomes

Answer : C.
8) The vestiges of hind limbs are present in

A. Cobra
B. Sea snake
C. Krait
D. Python

Answer : D.
9) The use of which of the following devices has given the modern
biologist a better insight into the internal structure of cells
A. Super Computer
B. Electron microscope
C. Spectrophotometer
D. Ultracentrifuge

Answer : B.
10) The two diseases that most often kill AIDS victims are
1.Kaposi's sarcoma
2.Lymphangioma
3.Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia
4.Systemic Lupus erythromatosus
A. 1 and 2
B. 2 and 3
C. 1 and 3
D. 3 and 4

Answer : C.

UNIT: 9 ALCOHOLS PHENOLS AND ETHERS
1) The solar eclipse occurs when
A. the sun comes in between the moon and the earth
B. the earth comes in the between the sun and the moon
C. the moon comes in between the sun and the earth

Answer : C.
2) The smallest functional and structural unit of kidney is called as

A. Neuron
B. Nephron
C. Granulocyte
D. Reticulocyte


Answer : B.
3) The removal of top soil by water or wind is called

A. Soil wash
B. Soil erosion
C. Soil creep
D. Silting of soil

Answer : B.
4) In a certain electronic circuit the output is positive if input 1 is positive

and input 2 is zero. If both inputs are positive the output is zero. This
is
A. an AND circuit
B. a NOR circuit
C. an OR circuit
D. a high-pass filter

Answer : C.

5) The speed of light with the rise in the temperature of the medium
A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Remains unaltered
D. Drops sharply

Answer : C.
6) The Panda belongs to the same family as that of

A. Bear
B. Cat
C. Dog
D. Rabbit

Answer : A.
7) The oxide of Nitrogen used in medicine as anaesthetic is

A. Nitrogen dioxide
B. Nitric oxide

C. Nitrous oxide
D. Nitrogen pentoxide

Answer : D.
8) The marine animal called dugong which is vulnerable to extinction is

a/an
A. Amphibian
B. Bony fish
C. Shark
D. Mammal

Answer : D.
9) The intencity of Earthquakes is measured on

A. Richter scale
B. Secant scale
C. Mercalli scale
D. Beaufort scale

Answer : A.
10) The hardest substance available on earth is

A. Platinum
B. Diamond
C. Quartz
D. gold

Answer : A.
1) The general direct flow of summer monsoon in India is
A. From South to North
B. From South West to South East
C. From South East to South West
D. From South West to North East

Answer : B.
2) The gas predominantly responsible for global warning is

A. Carbon dioxide
B. Carbon monoxide
C. Nitrous oxide
D. Nitrogen peroxide

Answer : A.
3) The dynamo is a device for converting

A. Heat energy into electrical energy
B. Mechanical energy into electrical energy
C. Magnetic energy into electrical energy

Answer : B.
4) The disease diphtheria affects

A. Lungs
B. Intestine
C. Throat

D. Body joints

Answer : C.
5) The concept of carbon credit originated from which one of the

following?
A. Earth Summit, Rio de Janeiro
B. Kyoto Protocol
C. Montreal Protocol
D. G-8 Summit, Hciligendamm

Answer : B.
6) The cell that lacks a nucleus is

A. Flame cell
B. Spermatozoan
C. Red blood corpuscles in man
D. White blood corpuscles

Answer : C.
7) The blue colour of the clear sky is due to

A. Diffraction of light
B. Dispersion of light
C. Reflection of light
D. Refraction of light

Answer : B.
8) The animal which uses sounds as its 'eyes' is

A. Dog
B. Cat
C. Snake
D. Bat

Answer : D.
9) Thalassaemia is a hereditary disease affecting

A. Blood
B. Lungs
C. Heart
D. Kidney

Answer : A.
10) Stainless steel is an example of

A. A metallic compound
B. A homogeneous mixture
C. A heterogeneous mixture
D. An inorganic compound

Answer : A.
1) Spinach leaves are rich source of
A. Vitamin A
B. Iron
C. Carotene
D. Vitamin E

Answer: B.
2) Small pox is caused by

A. Bacteria
B. Fungus
C. Virus
D. Algae

Answer : C.
3) Silk is produced by
A. Egg of silkworm
B. Pupa of silkworm
C. Larva of silkworm
D. Insect itself

Answer : C.

4) Select the one which is not a mixture
A. Air
B. Gasoline
C. LPG
D. Distilled water

Answer : D.
5) Persons with which blood group are called universal donors?

A. AB
B. A
C. O
D. B

Answer : C.
6) Plant cells can usually be distinguished because only plant cells

possess
A. Cell walls and mitochondria

B. Golgi bodies and central vacuoles
C. Cell walls and central vacuoles
D. Chromosomes and mitochondria

Answer : C.
7) With reference to the evolution of living organisms, which one of the

following sequences is correct? [
A. Octopus - Dolphin - Shark
B. Pangolin - Tortoise - Hawk
C. Salamander - Python - Kangaroo
D. Frog - Crab - Prawn

Answer : C.
8) With reference to the work of human kidney, consider the following

statement:
1. After the waste is remove in the kidney, the clear blood is sent back
through renal artery.
2. From Bowman's capsule, the filtered liquid passes through tiny tubes
where much of the gluclose is reabsorbed and sent back to the blood in

the renal vein. Which of the following is/are correct?
A. Only 1
B. Only 2
C. Both 1 & 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer : D.
9) With reference to normal human beings consider the following

statements:
1. In response to the presence of HCL, secretin is produced from the
duodenum.
2. Enterogastrone is produced in the small intestine in response to the
presence of fatty acids.
Which of the statements is/are correct?
A. Only 1
B. Only 2
C. Both 1 & 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer : C.

10) WiMAX is related to which one of the following?
A. Biotechnology
B. Space technology
C. Missile technology
D. Communication technology

Answer : D.
1) Who gave the first evidence of the Big- Bang theory?
A. Edwin Hubble
B. Albert Einstein
C. S. Chandrasekhar
D. Stephen Hawking

Answer : A.
2) Why is it difficult to see through fog?

A. Rays of light suffer total internal reflection from the fog droplets
B. Rays of light are scattered by the fog droplets
C. Fog droplets absorb light

D. The refractive index of fog is extremely High

Answer : B.
3) Which onr the following is the most effective carrier for

communications?
A. Cables
B. Microwaves
C. Optical fibres
D. Radiowaves

Answer : B.
4) Which one of the following types of waves are used in a night vision
apparatus?
A. Radio waves
B. Microwaves
C. Infra-red waves

Answer : C.
5) Which one of the following statement is NOT correct?

A. Milk contains none of the B-vitamins
B. Vitamin-A (retinal) deficiency leads to dry and scaly skin
C. One of the symptoms of scurvy is pain in the joints
D. Vitamin-B, (thiamine) deficiency can lead to heart failure

Answer : A.
6) Which one of the following planets has largest number of natural

satellites or moons?
A. Jupiter
B. Mars
C. Saturn
D. Venus

Answer : A.

7) Which one of the following is used as an explosive?
A. Phosphorus trichloride
B. Mercuric oxide
C. Graphite
D. Nitroglycerine

Answer : D.
8) Which one of the following is not a radioactive element?

A. Uranium
B. Radium
C. Thorium
D. Cadmium

Answer : D.
9) Which one of the following is correct?

A concrete wall generally,
A. only reflects sound
B. only absorbs sound

C. only transmits sound
D. absorbs and transmits sound

Answer : D.
10) Which one of the following is considered as the easily digestible

source of protein?
A. Egg albumin
B. Soybean
C. Fish flesh
D. Red meat

Answer : B.
1) Which one of the following glands produces the Growth Hormone
(Somatotropin)?
A. Adrenal
B. Pancreas
C. Pituitary
D. Thyroid

Answer : A.
2) Which one of the following is a water soluble vitamin?

A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin C
C. Vitamin D
D. Vitamin K

Answer : B.
3) Which one of the following gases is predominant in the atmosphere?

A. Argon
B. Nitrogen
C. Carbon Dioxide
D. Oxygen

Answer : B.

4) Which one among the following has the highest energy?
A. Blue light
B. Green light
C. Red light
D. Yellow light

Answer : C.
5) Which of these is not a mosquito borne disease?

A. Dengue fever
B. Malaria
C. Filariasis
D. Goitre

Answer : A.
6) Which of the following uses non-conventional Source of Energy?

A. Kerosene lamp
B. Wax candle

C. Solar lantern
D. Torch

Answer : A.
7) Which of the following plant diseases is caused by a virus?

A. Aster yellows
B. Barley yellow dwarf
C. Curly top of sugar beets
D. All of the above

Answer : D.
8) Which of the following planets rotates clock wise?

A. Pluto
B. Jupiter
C. Venus
D. Mercury

Answer : D.
9) Which of the following order is given to the plantes of solar system on

the basis of their sizes?
A. Jupiter, Saturn, Earth, Mercury
B. Saturn, Jupiter, Mercury, Earth
C. Mercury, Earth, Jupiter, Saturn
D. Earth, Mercury, Saturn, Jupiter

Answer : D.
10) Which of the following is not a natural fibre

A. Silk
B. Jute
C. Coir
D. Rayon

Answer : B.
1) Which acid is produced when milk gets sour?
A. Tartaric acid
B. Butyric acid
C. Lactic acid
D. Acetic acid

Answer : C.
2) Which of the following is a water -borne diseases?

A. Viral hepatitis B
B. Cholera
C. Dengu
D. Influenza

Answer : B.
3) Which of the following crops is of Kharif season?

A. Soyabean
B. Linseed

C. Lentil
D. Mustard

Answer : A.
4) When an ant bites a person, which irritating chemical it (ant) injects

into his (person) body?
A. Acetic acid
B. Citric acid
C. Tartaric acid
D. Formic acid

Answer : D.
5) When 1 litre of water freezes, the volume of ice formed will be

A. 0.9 litre
B. 1.0 litre
C. 1.11 litre
D. 1.5 litre

Answer : C.
6) What would be the best choice for window material to keep the
outside heat away?
A. Single-pane glass
B. Double-pane glass without a gap in between
C. Double-pane glass with water filled in between
D. Double-pane glass with air in between

Answer : D.
7) Water boils at a lower temperature on the hills because

A. It is cold on the hills
B. There is less carbon dioxide on the hills
C. There is a decrease in air pressure on the hills
D. there is less oxygen

Answer : C.
8) Washing soda is the common name for
A. Calcium carbonate
B. Calcium bicarbonate
C. Sodium carbonate
D. Sodium bicarbonate

Answer : C.
9) The most abundant organic molecule on the surface of the Earth is

A. cellulose
B. chitin
C. DNA
D. hemoglobin

Answer : A.
10) The persons working in textile factories such as carpet weavers are
exposed to which of the following occupational disease?
A. Asbestosis

B. Asthma and Tuberculosis
C. Silicosis
D. Siderosis

Answer : B.
UNIT 10 : CHEMISTRY IN EVERYDAY LIFE

1) The angle between the geographical meridian and magnetic meridian
is called
A. Angle of dip
B. Angle of declination
C. Angle of inclination

Answer : B.
2) The characteristic odour of Garlic is due to which one of the

following?
A. Chlorine-containing compounds
B. Fluorine-containing compounds
C. Nitrogen-containing compounds
D. Sulphur-containing compounds

Answer : D.
3) Mist is caused by
A. Dry ice
B. Ice at low temperature
C. Water vapours at low temperature
D. Carbon- monoxide in solid form

Answer : C.
4) In the human body, Cowper’s glands form a part of which one of the
following?
A. Digestive system
B. Endocrine system

C. Reproductive system
D. Nervous system

Answer : C.
5) In normal adult human, what is the rate of heartbeat per minute?

A. 72-80
B. 70-75
C. 80-97
D. 82-87

Answer : A.
6) Evaporation from water surfaces exposed to air is not dependent of

the
A. velocity of the wind
B. humidity
C. temperature
D. depth of the water

Answer : D.
7) Earth quake waves travel fastest in

A. Soil
B. Molten rock
C. Water
D. Flexible rock

Answer : C.
8) Which of the following plants is not capable of manufacturing own

food?
A. Algae
B. Mushroom
C. Carrot
D. Cabbage

Answer : B.
9) Which colour of heat radiation represents the highest temperature?
A. Blood red
B. Dark cherry
C. Salmon
D. White

Answer : D.
10) Which among the following substances is used as a lubricant?

A. Quartz
B. Silica
C. Graphite
D. Nickel

Answer : C.
1) What does airbag, used for safety of car driver, contain?
A. Sodium bicarbonate
B. Sodium azide
C. Sodium nitrite
D. Sodium peroxide

Answer : B.
2) The weight of an object will be minimum when it is placed at

A. The North Pole
B. The South Pole
C. The Equator
D. The center of the Earth

Answer : D.
3) The uranium fuel used worldwide is mainly in the form of

A. U3O8
B. UO2
C. UF6
D. U metal


Answer : B.
4) The time taken by the Sun to revolve around the center of our galaxy
is
A. 50 mn years
B. 100 mn years
C. 250 mn years
D. 365 mn years

Answer : C.
5) Consider the following:

1. Photosynthesis
2. Respiration
3. Decay of organic matter
4. Volcanic action
Which of the above add carbon dioxide to the carbon cycle on Earth?
A. 1 and 4 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4


Answer : C.
6) Chemically, lime water is

A. Calcium hydroxide
B. Sodium carbonate
C. Sodium hydroxide
D. Calcium carbonate

Answer : A.
7) Chlorination is a process used for water purification. The disinfecting

action of chlorine is mainly due to
A. The formation of hydrochloric acid when chlorine is added to
water.
B. The formation of hypochlorous acid when chlorine is added to

water.
C. The formation of nascent oxygen when chlorine is added to

water.
D. The formation of hydrogen when chlorine is added to water.

Answer : C.

8) Chemically, bleaching powder is
A. Calcium hypochlorite
B. Calcium hydroxide
C. Sodium hydroxide
D. Calcium sulphate

Answer : A.
9) Consider the following statements:

1. Biodiversity is normally greater in the lower latitudes as compared to
the higher latitudes.
2. Along the mountain gradients, biodiversity is normally greater in the
lower altitudes as compared to the higher altitudes.
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer : C.

10) Consider the following statements:
1. Hepatitis B is several times more infectious than HIV / AIDS.
2. Hepatitis B can cause liver cancer.
Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer : C.
1. Carbon dioxide
2. Oxides of Nitrogen
3. Oxides of Sulphur
Which of the above is/are the emission/emissions from coal combustion
at thermal power plants?
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer : D.

1. Oxides of Hydrogen
2. Oxides of Nitrogen
3. Oxides of Sulphur
Which of the above causes/cause acid rain?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer : C.
3) Defect of colour blindness can be remedied by the use of

A. Concave lens
B. Convex lens
C. Cylindrical lens

Answer : D.
4) Deficiency of iron leads to

A. Anorexia
B. Anaemia
C. Polycythemia
D. Leucopenia

Answer : B.
5) Given below are the names of four energy crops. Which one of them
can be cultivated for ethanol?
A. Jatropha
B. Maize
C. Pongania
D. Sunflower

Answer : B.
6) If a tropical rain forest is removed, it does not regenerate quickly as

compared to a tropical deciduous forest. This is because
A. The soil of rain forest is deficient in nutrients
B. Propagules of the trees in a rain forest have poor viability

C. The rain forest species are slow growing
D. Exotic species invade the fertile soil of rain forest

Answer : A.
7) Radioactivity is measured by
A. Geiger-Muller counter
B. Polarimeter
C. Calorimeter
D. Colorimeter

Answer : A.
8) Regular intake of fresh fruits and vegetables is recommended in the

diet since they are a good source of antioxidants. How do antioxidants
help a person maintain health and promote longevity?
A. They activate the enzymes necessary for vitamin synthesis in the
body and help prevent vitamin deficiency
B. They prevent excessive oxidation of carbohydrates, fats and

proteins in the body and help avoid unnecessary wastage of energy

C. They neutralize the free radicals produced in the body during
metabolism
D. They activate certain genes in the cells of the body and help
delay the ageing

Answer : C.
9) Satellites used for telecommunication relay are kept in a geostationary

orbit. A satellite is said to be in such an orbit when:
1. The orbit is geosynchronous.
2. The orbit is circular.
3. The orbit lies in the plane of the Earth’s equator.
4. The orbit is at an altitude of 22,236 km.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 1, 3 and 4 only
C. 2 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer : A.

10) The 2004 Tsunami made people realize that mangroves can serve as
a reliable safety hedge against coastal calamities. How do mangroves
function as a safety hedge?
A. The mangrove swamps separate the human settlements from the
sea by a wide zone in which people neither live not venture out
B. The mangroves provide both food and medicines which people

are in need of after any natural disaster.
C. The mangrove trees are tall with dense canopies and serve as an
excellent shelter during a cyclone or tsunami
D. The mangrove trees do not get uprooted by storms and tides

because of their extensive roots

Answer : D.
1) The Himalayan Range is very rich in species diversity. Which one
among the following is the most appropriate reason for this
phenomenon?
A. It has high rainfall that supports luxuriant vegetative growth
B. It is a confluence of different bio-geographical zones
C. Exotic and invasive species have not been introduced in this

region
D. It has less human interference

Answer : B.

2) The function of heavy water in a nuclear reactor is to
A. Slow down the speed of neutrons
B. Increase the speed of neutrons
C. Cool down the reactor
D. Stop the nuclear reaction

Answer : A.
3) The formation of ozone hole in the Antarctic region has been a cause
of concern. What could be the reason for the formation of this hole?
A. Presence of prominent tropospheric turbulence; and inflow of
chlorofluorocarbons
B. Presence of prominent polar front and stratospheric clouds; and

inflow of chlorofluorocarbons.
C. Absence of polar front and stratospheric clouds; and inflow of

methane and chlorofluorocarbons.
D. Increased temperature at polar region due to global warming

Answer : B.

4) The jet aircrafts fly very easily and smoothly in the lower
stratosphere. What could be the appropriate explanation?
1. There are no clouds or water vapour in the lower stratosphere.
2. There are no vertical winds in the lower stratosphere.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct in this context?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer : C.
5) What is a zoom lens?

A. It is a lens having fixed focal length
B. It is a lens having variable focal length
C. It is a lens used in radio telescopes

Answer : B.
6) What is the difference between a CFL and an LED lamp?

1. To produce light, a CFL uses mercury vapour and phosphor while an

LED lamp uses semi-conductor material.
2. The average life span of a CFL is much longer than that of an LED
lamp
3. A CFL is less energy-efficient as compared to an LED lamp.
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer : C.
7) Which one of following reflects back more sunlight as compared to

other three?
A. Sand desert
B. Paddy crop land
C. Land covered with fresh snow
D. Prairie land

Answer : C.
8) Which one of the following is the largest terrestrial wild animal?

A. Indian elephant
B. African elephant
C. Giraffe
D. White tiger

Answer : B.
9) Which one of the following processes in the bodies of living organisms

is a digestive process?
A. Breakdown of proteins into amino acids
B. Breakdown of glucose into CO2 and H2O.
C. Conversion of glucose into glycogen.
D. Conversion of amino acids into proteins.

Answer : A.
10) Seawater (i.e. saltwater) freezes at:

A. the same temperature as fresh water.
B. at a slightly higher temperature than fresh water
C. at a slightly lower temperature than fresh water.

D. seawater does not freeze.

Answer : C.
1) Nitrous oxide, commonly called laughing gas, has been a matter of
concern to environmentalists recently because:
A. it is thought to cause cancer at low concentrations.
B. it produces photochemical smog.
C. it is a greenhouse gas.
D. none of the above

Answer : C.
2) Pollination by wind is called

A. autogamy
B. entomophily
C. anemophily
D. ornithophily


Answer : C.
3) The Indian population receives the largest dose of ionizing radiation

from:
A. natural sources.
B. fallout from nuclear weapons testing.
C. nuclear medicine.
D. nuclear power plants.

Answer : A.
4) The radioactive element most commonly detected in humans is

A. potassium-40
B. cobalt-60
C. iodine-131
D. plutonium-238

Answer : A.
5) Radioisotopes which are used in medical diagnosis are known as

A. tracers
B. silver bullets
C. markers
D. dyes

Answer : A.
6) Most commercial nuclear power plants worldwide are cooled by

A. sodium
B. mercury
C. helium
D. water

Answer : D.
7) Which of the following materials is used along with iron ore and
limestone to produce iron in a modern blast furnace?
A. coke
B. cementite

C. coal
D. bauxite

Answer : A.
8) The study of poisons is called

A. oncology
B. toxicology
C. phrenology
D. ergonomics

Answer : B.
9) What range of frequencies are usually referred to as audio frequencies

for humans?
A. 0 to 20 Hertz
B. 20 to 20,000 Hertz
C. 200 to 200,000 Hertz
D. 10,000 to 30,000 Hertz

Answer : B.
10) A device used to measure the amount of moisture in the atmosphere

is called a
A. hydrometer
B. hygrometer
C. anemometer
D. barometer

Answer : B.
1) Plants get their nitrogen from
A. rain
B. the soil
C. the air
D. the bedrock

Answer : B.

2) Which of the following elements was unknown to ancient
civilizations?
A. tin
B. aluminum
C. mercury
D. sulfur

Answer : B.
3) Which is the longest?

A. a kilometer
B. a centimeter
C. a dekameter
D. a terameter

Answer : D.
4) You use a hydrometer to check the condition of the electrolyte in your

car battery. It is actually measuring what property of the fluid?
A. charge

B. density
C. temperature
D. surface tension

Answer : B.
5) Steel is composed of a number of elements. The two essential elements

are iron and
A. aluminum
B. carbon
C. nickel
D. silicon

Answer : B.
6) Which of the following is an important element of stainless steel?

A. chromium
B. magnesium
C. copper

D. nickel

Answer : A.
7) Which of the following is not a major pollutant from automobiles?

A. carbon monoxide
B. unburned hydrocarbons
C. nitrous oxide
D. sulfur dioxide

Answer : D.
8) The most serious environmental pollution from a nuclear reactor is

A. radioactivity
B. particulate formation
C. thermal pollution
D. noise pollution


Answer : C.
9) Biomass energy is
A. formed through photosynthesis
B. caused by heat due to the large mass of the earth
C. has been used for only a few years
D. is effective in only certain regions of India

Answer : A.
10) A temperature of 295 K is equivalent to approximately

A. 0 degrees Fahrenheit
B. 32 degrees Fahrenheit
C. 72 degrees Fahrenheit
D. 97 degrees Fahrenheit

Answer : C.

UNIT -11 : NITROGEN COMPOUNDS
1. KCN reacts readily to give a cyanide with . [J & K 2005]

Ethyl alcohol Bromobenzene
Ethyl bromide Chlorobenzene

Answer: Ethyl bromide

2. When methyl iodide is heated with ammonia, the product obtained is
Methylamine Trimethylamine
Dimethylamine A mixture of the above three amines

Answer: A mixture of the above three amines
3. When aniline is treated with sodium nitrite and hydrochloric acid at 0oC, it
gives. [Orissa JEE 2003]
Phenol and N2 Hydrazo compound
Diazonium salt No reaction takes place

Answer: Diazonium salt
4. Azo-dyes are prepared from :. [BHU 2004; Pb. C]

Aniline Benzaldehyde
Salicylic acid Chlorobenzene

Answer: Aniline
5. Allyl isocyanide has. [IIT 1995]

9 sigma bonds and 4 pi 8 sigma bonds, 3 pi bonds and 4 non-bonding
bonds electrons

8 sigma bonds and 5 pi 9 sigma bonds, 3 pi bonds and 2 non-bonding
bonds electrons

Answer: 9 sigma bonds, 3 pi bonds and 2 non-bonding electrons
6. Ethylamine can be prepared by the action of bromine and caustic potash on. [CPM
1994]
Acetamide Formamide
Propionamide Methyl cyanide

Answer: Propionamide
7. The amine formed from an amide by means of bromine and alkali has
Same number of C atoms as that of amide One more C atom than that of am
One less C atom than that of amide Two more C atoms than that of am

Answer: One less C atom than that of amide
8. Reduction of nitroalkanes yields

Acid Amine
Alcohol Diazo compounds

Answer: Amine
9. The diazonium salts are the reaction products in presence of excess of mineral acid
nitrous acid and .[MP PET 2002]
Primary aliphatic amine Primary aromatic amine
Secondary aromatic amine Tertiary aliphatic amine

Answer: Primary aromatic amine
10. For the preparation of p-nitroiodobenzene from p-nitroaniline, the best method is
. [Orissa JEE 2005]
NANO2 HCL followed by KI LiAlH4 followed by I2
NANO2 HCL followed by CuCN naBH4 followed by I2

Answer: NANO2 HCL followed by KI
11. Aniline is usually purified by . [CPMT 1983, 93; ]
Steam distillation Vacuum distillation
Simple distillation Extraction with a solvent

Answer: Steam distillation

12. Compounds containing both amino and COOH groups are known as
Diamines Amino acids
Unknown Enzymes

Answer: Amino acids
13. A secondary amine is. [KCET 1992]

An organic compound with two A compound with an -NH2 group on the carb
-NH2groups atom in number 2 position
A compound with two carbon A compound in which two of the hydrogens o
atoms and an -NH2 group NH2 have been replaced by organic groups

Answer: A compound in which two of the hydrogens of -NH2 have been replaced b
organic groups
14. CH2 = CH - CH2 - NH - CH3 is a . [RPET 2000]

Secondary amine Tertiary amine
Primary amine None of these

Answer: Secondary amine
15. Amides may be converted into amines by reaction named after . [CPMT 1974; MP
Perkin Hoffmann

Claisen )Kolbe

Answer: Hoffmann
16. Acetonitrile is:. [MP PMT 2004]
C2H5CN CH3COCN
CH3CN C6H5CH2CN

Answer: CH3CN
17. Which of the following would be most reactive towards nitration. [AMU 2000;
UPSEA]
Benzene Toluene
Nitro benzene Chloro benzene

Answer: Nitro benzene
18. The Hinsberg's method is used for

Preparation of primary amines Preparation of tertiary amines
Preparation of secondary amines Separation of amine mixtures

Answer: Separation of amine mixtures

19. Which of the following reacts with chloroform and a base to form phenyl
isocyanide . [AFMC 1997]
Aniline Benzene
Phenol Nitrobenzene

Answer: Aniline
20. Nitrobenzene combines with hydrogen in the presence of platinum to produce . [B

1999]
Toluene Aniline
Benzene Azobenzene

Answer: Aniline
21. Triaminobenzene is a . [BHU 1996]
20 amine 10 amine
30 amine Quarternary salt

Answer: 10 amine
22. C3H9N1 represents . [AMU 1988]

Primary amine Tertiary amine
Secondary amine All of these

23. Number of isomeric primary amines obtained from C4H11N are. [DPMT 2005]
3 5
4 6

Answer: 4
24. In alkyl cyanide alkyl group attached with . [BCECE 2005]

C of CN group Either C or N of CN group
N of CN group Both C and N of CN group

Answer: C of CN group
25. Cyanide ion is

Nucleophilic Strongly acidic
Electrophilic Non-reactive and neutral

Answer: Nucleophilic
UNIT-12: ALDEHYDES, KETONES AND ACIDS
1.Aromatic aldehydes react with primary amines to form

Amino acids
Schiffs base
Pyrosole
Pyridine.
ANSWER : : Schiffs base
2.On heating a mixture of calcium formate and calcium propanoate is
obtained
propanal
butanone
propane
propanoic acid
ANSWER : : propanal
3.Which of the following does not reduce Fehling s solution?
Formaldehyde
Paraldehyde
Propanal
Acetaldehyde
ANSWER : : Paraldehyde
4.Acetaldehyde when treated with ethyl alcohol in the presence of dil
HCl gives
formaldehyde

crotonaldehyde
propanal
acetal
ANSWER : : acetal
5.Calcium formate of heating
gives
formic acid
banzaldehyde
methanoic anhydride
formaldehyde
ANSWER : : formaldehyde
6.Calcium acetate on heating gives
ethane
pentane
acetic anhydride
acetone
ANSWER : : acetone
7.Which of the following does not have alpha hydrogen?
Formaldehyde
Acetone
Benzaldehyde
Phenyl acetaldehyde
ANSWER : : Formaldehyde
8.Shape of the carboxyl group is
tetrahedral
pyramidal
planar triangular
octahedral
ANSWER : : planar triangular
9.Which of the following is used in medicine as a hypnotic?
Paraformaldehyde
Acetaldehyde
Methaldehyde
Paraldehyde
10.Which of the following is a sedative?
Paraformaldehyde
Benzaldehyde
Metaldehyde
Paraldehyde
11.Calcium salt of propionic acid is distilled in dry conditions. The
product formed will show
Fehling test positive
Iodoform test negative
Victor Meyer test positive
Tollens test positive.
ANSWER : : Iodoform test negative
12.Which of the following can reduce Tollens reagent but no Fehlings
soln.?
Benzaldehyde
Acetaldehyde
Formaldehyde
Acetone
ANSWER : : Acetaldehyde
13.IUPAC name of crotanaldehyde is

2 methyl propanol
isobutynaldehyde
2 Butanal
1 Butanal
ANSWER : : 2 Butanal
14.Etards reaction involves the preparation of benzaldehyde from
Toluene
Ethyl benzene
Benzoyl chloride
Sodium benzoate.
ANSWER : : Toluene
15.Oxidation of secondary alcohol to ketone with aluminium tert.
butanide is known as
Meerwein Pondorff Verley reaction
Oppenauer oxidation
Kolbes reaction
Stephens reaction
ANSWER : : Oppenauer oxidation
16.Trimer of formaldehyde is known as
metaformaldehyde
trioxymethylene
trioxane
All the above
ANSWER : : All the above
17.Ethylidene chloride is hydrolysed with aqueous NaOH. The product
formed is
Ethanol
Ethylchloride

Ethanal
Ehtane.
ANSWER : : Ethanal
18.A mixture of acetic acid and formic acid is passed over MnO at 303
degreeCentigrade. The product obtained is
benzaldehyde
acetaldehyde
methane
All the above
ANSWER : : acetaldehyde
19.Methyl cyanide is dissolved in ethyl formate and reduced with
stannous chloride and hydrochloric acid. The product is then steam
distilled. The distillate will be
ethyl amine
formaldehyde
methyl alcohol
acetaldehyde
ANSWER : : acetaldehyde
20.Which of the following is obtained from pyryligenenous acid?
Benzaldehyde
Acetaldehyde
Formaldehyde
Acetone
ANSWER : : Acetone
21.Which of the following is a hypnotic?
Acetaldehyde
Metaldehyde
Paraldehyde

None of these
22.Which of the following is liquid at room temperature?
Metaldehyde
Trioxane
Polyoxymethylenes
Paraldehyde
23.Which of the following is the most reactive?
Propanal
Propanone
Propane
Methoxy ethane
ANSWER : : Propanal
24.Which of the following will not reduce Tollens reagent?
Acetone
Acetaldehyde
Formaldehyde
Benzaldehyde
ANSWER : : Acetone
25.Which of the following groups can occur at the end of the chain only?
Ether
Alcohol
Aldehyde
Ketone
ANSWER : : Aldehyde
26.Which of the following will give an aldehyde on oxidation?

Methoxy ethane
2 methanal
2 methyl propane
1 propanal
ANSWER : : 1 propanal
27.Mesitylene is
1, 3, 4 trimethyl benzene
ANSWER : : 1, 3, 5 trimethyl benzene
28.Oximes are isomeric with
acids
ketones
amides
aldehydes
ANSWER : : amides
29.Acetone when distilled with conc. sulphuric acid gives
diacetone alcohol
mesitylene
mesityl oxide
toluene
ANSWER : : mesitylene

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Bharathidhasanar

1 BHARATHIDASANAR MATRIC HIGHER SECONDARY SCHOOL, ARAKKONAM _ 12th PC Chemistry

2 BHARATHIDASANAR MATRIC HIGHER SECONDARY SCHOOL, ARAKKONAM _ 12th PC Chemistry

SYLLABUS FOR CHEMISTRY

Unit 1: Solid State

Classification of solids based on different binding forces – molecular, ionic

Unit 2: Surface chemistry

Adsorption – physisorption and chemisorptions, factors affecting on

Redox reactions; conductance in electrolytic solutions – variation of

Unit 4: Chemical Kinetics

Rate of reaction – factors affecting rate of reactions: concentration,

Unit 5: p- Block elements

electronic configuration – oxidation states – preparation – properties of

4 BHARATHIDASANAR MATRIC HIGHER SECONDARY SCHOOL, ARAKKONAM _ 12th PC Chemistry

Electronic configuration – occurrence – characters of transition metals –

Unit 7: Coordination compounds

Introduction – ligands – coordination number – colour – IUPAC

Unit 8: Haloalkanes and haloarenes

Haloalkenes ; Nomenclature – nature of C-X bond - physical and

Halo arenes ; Nomenclature – nature of C-X bond - physical and

Unit: 9 Alcohols phenols and ethers

Alcohols ; Nomenclature – methods of preparation and properties –

Ethers: Nomenclature – methods of preparation and properties – uses.

Unit 10: Chemistry in everyday life

Chemicals in medicines: antiseptics – antibiotics – antacids – drugs.

Chemicals in food: preservatives – artificial sweetening agents –

antioxidants. Cleansing agents: soaps and detergents, cleansing action.

5 BHARATHIDASANAR MATRIC HIGHER SECONDARY SCHOOL, ARAKKONAM _ 12th PC Chemistry

Amines; nomenclature – preparation – properties – uses – identification of

Diazonium salts; nomenclature – preparation – physical and chemical

Unit 12: Aldehydes, Ketones and Acids

Nomenclature – preparation – physical and chemical properties –uses –

6 BHARATHIDASANAR MATRIC HIGHER SECONDARY SCHOOL, ARAKKONAM _ 12th PC Chemistry

STD: XII Marks: 100

7 BHARATHIDASANAR MATRIC HIGHER SECONDARY SCHOOL, ARAKKONAM _ 12th PC Chemistry

8 BHARATHIDASANAR MATRIC HIGHER SECONDARY SCHOOL, ARAKKONAM _ 12th PC Chemistry

10 BHARATHIDASANAR MATRIC HIGHER SECONDARY SCHOOL, ARAKKONAM _ 12th PC Chemistry

27. Bond length of covalent molecule (A – B) is?

a2 x No x 10-30 a3 x No x 10-30 a3 x No x 10-20 a3 x No x

29. The number of tetra hedral voids are equal to

12 BHARATHIDASANAR MATRIC HIGHER SECONDARY SCHOOL, ARAKKONAM _ 12th PC Chemistry

32. The defects which arise due to irregularity in the

13 BHARATHIDASANAR MATRIC HIGHER SECONDARY SCHOOL, ARAKKONAM _ 12th PC Chemistry

39. Conductivity of semiconductor is directly proportional to ?

14 BHARATHIDASANAR MATRIC HIGHER SECONDARY SCHOOL, ARAKKONAM _ 12th PC Chemistry

40. At absolute zero, semiconductor is ?

15 BHARATHIDASANAR MATRIC HIGHER SECONDARY SCHOOL, ARAKKONAM _ 12th PC Chemistry

50. High efficiency ore separating machines may be built using

16 BHARATHIDASANAR MATRIC HIGHER SECONDARY SCHOOL, ARAKKONAM _ 12th PC Chemistry

58. Dipole dipole forces occur in

18 BHARATHIDASANAR MATRIC HIGHER SECONDARY SCHOOL, ARAKKONAM _ 12th PC Chemistry

63. Reason for acquiring yellow colour, when a NaCl crystal is

19 BHARATHIDASANAR MATRIC HIGHER SECONDARY SCHOOL, ARAKKONAM _ 12th PC Chemistry

20 BHARATHIDASANAR MATRIC HIGHER SECONDARY SCHOOL, ARAKKONAM _ 12th PC Chemistry

22 BHARATHIDASANAR MATRIC HIGHER SECONDARY SCHOOL, ARAKKONAM _ 12th PC Chemistry

23 BHARATHIDASANAR MATRIC HIGHER SECONDARY SCHOOL, ARAKKONAM _ 12th PC Chemistry

89. Which of the following statements is wrong in a colloidal

24 BHARATHIDASANAR MATRIC HIGHER SECONDARY SCHOOL, ARAKKONAM _ 12th PC Chemistry

25 BHARATHIDASANAR MATRIC HIGHER SECONDARY SCHOOL, ARAKKONAM _ 12th PC Chemistry

98. An emample for gel type of colloid is

26 BHARATHIDASANAR MATRIC HIGHER SECONDARY SCHOOL, ARAKKONAM _ 12th PC Chemistry

a) Peptisation b) Mechanical dispersion

27 BHARATHIDASANAR MATRIC HIGHER SECONDARY SCHOOL, ARAKKONAM _ 12th PC Chemistry